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BIOLOGY - Assignment: Chapter: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes & Biotechnology and Its Applications
BIOLOGY - Assignment: Chapter: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes & Biotechnology and Its Applications
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BIOLOGY – Assignment
Chapter : Biotechnology : Principles and Processes & Biotechnology and its Applications
1. Restriction endonucleases 9. The first restriction endonuclease reported was
1) Are enzymes that process pre-RNA’s. 1) Hind II 2) EcoRI
2) Are enzymes that degrade DNA. 3) Hind III 4) BamHI
3) Protect bacterial cells from viral infection.
10. Which one of the following is used as vector for
4) None of these cloning genes into higher organisms?
2. How many varieties of rice has been estimated to 1) Baculovirus
be present in India? 2) Salmonella typhimurium
1) 2,000 2) 20,000 3) Rhizopus nigricans 4) Retrovirus
3) 200,000 4) 2,000,000
11. Which one of the following palindromic base
3. RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been
devised to protect the plants from nematode is sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the
silenced by ______ produced by the host plant. middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
1) dsDNA 2) ssDNA 1) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3'
3) dsRNA 4) Target proteins 3'.............ATGGTA.............5'
2) 5'.............GATATG.............3'
4. Which of the following is a critically important tool
used in experiments involving DNA 3'.............CTACTA.............5'
hybridization? 3) 5'.............GAATTC.............3'
1) DNA sequencing machines 3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
2) Ligases 4) 5'.............CACGTA.............3'
3) DNA probes 4) Vectors 3'.............CTCAGT.............5'
12. Natural genetic engineers of plants is
5. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI.
What does co. part in it stand for? 1) Yeast
1) Colon 2) Coelom 2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3) Coenzyme 4) Coli 3) E. coli 4) Mycoplasma
13. A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation of
6. Select the option that is not a part of cell DNA is
transformation
1) DNA replication 2) Genetic engineering
1) Preparation of competent cells
3) Denaturation 4) Renaturation
2) Incubation of competent cells with foreign DNA
on ice 14. Which of the following is a plasmid?
3) Heat shock at 42°C 1) pBR 322 2) Bam H I
4) Not putting the DNA treated cells after heat 3) Sal I 4) Eco RI
shock back in ice 15. Match the following
7. Vectors include Column I Column II
1) Bacterial and plant plasmids A Ti plasmid (i) Separation and
2) Viruses purification of products
3) Artificial chromosomes B Biolistics (ii) Large scale production
4) All of the above of recombinant
proteins
8. Which of the following are known as specific
molecular scissors? C Bioreactors (iii) Microparticles of gold
coated with DNA
1) Ligase 2) Helicase
3) Restriction endonuclease D Downstream (iv) Agrobacterium
4) DNA polymerase processing tumefaciens
49. Which of the following was the first artificial II. Bioethics is the unauthorized use of
cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver bioresources and traditional knowledge related
and Rodriguez and widely used in gene cloning to bioresources for commercial benefits.
experiments? III. Biopatent is exploitation of bioresources of
1) pBR322 2) Cosmid other nations without proper authorisation.
3) Phagemid 4) BACs 1) II only 2) I only
3) I and II only 4) I and III only
50. The first recombinant DNA involved the use of a
plasmid obtained from which of the following 56. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a
organisms? radioactive molecule is called:
1) Salmonella typhimurium 1) Vector 2) Selectable marker
2) Escherichia coli 3) Plasmid 4) Probe
3) Bacteriophage 4) Yeast
57. cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control:
51. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with 1) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
the following improved trait 2) Cotton borer and cotton bollworms respectively
1) High lysine (essential amino acid) content 3) Tobacco budworms and nematodes
2) Insect resistance respectively
3) High protein content 4) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
4) High vitamin-A content
58. The protein -1 antitrypsin is used to treat the
52. A genomic library is disease
1) Where you look to find out how to make 1) Cancer
recombinant DNA.
2) Rheumatoid arthritis
2) A listing of the known nucleotide sequences for
a particular species. 3) Alzheimer’s disease
3) All the genes contained in one kind of cell. 4) Emphysema
4) A collection of cloned DNA pieces from an 59. Find out the wrong statement
organism's genome.
1) Human protein used to treat emphysema is
-1 antitrypsin.
53. In the adjacent identify the ‘marking’ that codes
for proteins involved in the replication of plasmid 2) Human insulin is being commercially
produced from a transgenic species of
Agrobacterium tumifaciens.
3) Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced
human protein enriched milk.
4) CryI Ab endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
thuringiensis is effective against corn borers.
61. Bt cotton is not 68. Gene amplification using primers can be done by
1) A GM plant 1) Microinjection
2) Insect resistant crop 2) ELISA
3) A bacterial gene expressing system 3) Polymerase chain reaction
4) Resistant to all pests 4) Gene gun
69. Bt toxin is
62. A protoxin is 1) Exotoxin, biodegradable insecticide.
1) A primitive toxin 2) A denatured toxin.
2) Exotoxin nonbiodegradable insecticide.
3) Toxin produced by protozoa.
3) Endotoxin nonbiodegradable insecticide.
4) Inactive toxin.
4) Endotoxin biodegradable insecticide.
63. The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus 70. Vector-less transfer of recombinant DNA into a
thuringiensis is plant cell can be accomplished by
1) Acidic pH of stomach 1) BAC 2) Cosmid
2) High temperature 3) Biolistics 4) Ti plasmid
3) Alkaline pH of gut
4) Mechanical action in the insect gut 71. To enable the bacteria to take up recombinant
DNA, it has to be treated with a specific
64. Toxins from Bacillus thuringiensis upon ingestion concentration of
by susceptible insects are converted into active 1) Monovalent cation 2) Monovalent anion
form and kill them by 3) Divalent cation 4) Divalent anion
1) Stopping their digestion and absorption
2) Inhibition of ion transport in the midgut 72. A procedure through which a piece of DNA is
3) Damaging their chromosomes introduced in a host bacterium is called
4) Changing them to mutagenic form 1) Transcription 2) Transformation
3) Transfection 4) Translocation
65. The human protein enriched milk, which
contained the human -lactalbumin was 73. To isolate DNA from an animal cell, it has to be
produced by transgenic treated with
1) Molly 2) Andi 1) Lysozyme 2) Cellulase
3) Rosie 4) George 3) Chitinase 4) Neuraminidase
66. Functional insulin molecule is made up of 74. The diagnostic technique based on antigen-
1) Chain A (21), B (30), C (33) antibody interaction is
2) Chain A (31), C (21) 1) PCR
3) Chain A (21), B (30), 2) ELISA 3) Serum analysis
4) Chain B (33), C (31) 4) Recombinant DNA technology
67. Identify the correct match for the given 75. The genetically modified brinjal in India has been
apparatus. developed for
1) Insect resistance
2) Enhancing shelf life
3) Enhancing mineral content
4) Drought resistance
76. Significant features of recombinant therapeutics
is that it
1) Synthesizes unwanted material
2) Does not evoke unwanted immunological
responses
Sterile Air
3) Induces breeding
Apparatus Function 4) Induces unwanted response
1) Gene gun Vectorless direct gene 77. Although the Ti plasmid has revolutionised plant
transfer genetic engineering one limitation of its use is
2) Column Separation of that it
chromatograph chlorophyll pigments 1) Cannot infect broad leaf plants
3) Stirred tank Carry out fermentation 2) Cannot be used on fruit-bearing plants
bioreactor process 3) Cannot transmit prokaryotic genes
4) Respirometer Finding out rate of 4) Does not infect cereal plants such as corn
respiration and rice
ANSWER KEY
1. (3) 11. (3) 21. (3) 31. (4) 41. (3) 51. (4) 61. (4) 71. (3) 81. (3)
2. (3) 12. (2) 22. (3) 32. (4) 42. (3) 52. (4) 62. (4) 72. (2) 82. (1)
3. (3) 13. (2) 23. (2) 33. (2) 43. (2) 53. (1) 63. (3) 73. (4) 83. (4)
4. (3) 14. (1) 24. (3) 34. (3) 44. (1) 54. (2) 64. (2) 74. (2) 84. (3)
5. (4) 15. (3) 25. (2) 35. (1) 45. (3) 55. (2) 65. (3) 75. (1) 85. (3)
6. (4) 16. (1) 26. (3) 36. (4) 46. (4) 56. (4) 66. (3) 76. (2) 86. (3)
7. (4) 17. (1) 27. (1) 37. (2) 47. (4) 57. (1) 67. (3) 77. (4) 87. (3)
8. (3) 18. (2) 28. (4) 38. (1) 48. (2) 58. (4) 68. (3) 78. (2) 88. (4)
9. (1) 19. (2) 29. (4) 39. (3) 49. (1) 59. (2) 69. (4) 79. (4) 89. (2)
10. (4) 20. (2) 30. (2) 40. (1) 50. (1) 60. (4) 70. (3) 80. (3) 90. (2)