1. Haemophilus influenza: required X&V factor growth1.

satellitism test: used for identification of

HEMOPHILUS INFLUNZAE

2. Swarming motility show by Proteus species.

3. Lowenstein & Jensen media: used for M.tuberculosis

4. Mannitol salt agar: selective media for staphylococcus

5. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea: caused by clostridium difficile

6. Honeymoon cystitis: caused by staphylococcus saprophytic

7. concentration of Co2 in Co2 incubator: 5-10%

8. diameter of inoculating loop for urine culture: 2 mm it holds 1mc urine.

9. Diameter of inoculating loop for blood culture: 4 mm

10. Urinary Track Infection is most commonly caused by E.coli.

12. The concentration of blood in blood agar media is : 5-10%

13. Negri bodies: stain by seller’s stain

14. Nucleoid Stain/ fuelgen stain: specific for DNA

15. MHA: commonly used media for AST

16. coagulase test: used for identification of Staphylococcus aureus

17. the specific test for syphilis: Fluorescent treponema Ab.absoption test

18. AFB after ZN-staining saw: Red

19. vibrio cholerae is identified by the rapid string test.

20 . Giardia lamblia is also called “Grand old man” of the intestine

21 . Pear-shaped/ badminton racket trophozoite seen in Giardia lamblia

22. Plasmodium falciparum caused by Cerebral malaria & blackwater fever

23. Trichinella spiralis: Found in muscle biopsy

24. the infective stage of E.histolytica: Quardinucleate cyst

25. Chyluria seen in wucherieria infection

26. Bence jones protein is present in : Multiple Myeloma

27. Neurocysticercosis is caused by: Taenia solium

28. Casoni test: detect Hydatid cyst

29. Barrel-shaped eggs: Trichuris Trichuria

30. Planoconvex eggs: E.Vermicularies

31. Bond shape trophozoite is seen in P. malariae

32 . Amastigote forms of Leishmania seen in MAN

33. Major immunoglobulin in the serum is  IgG.

34. Highest molecular weight immonoglobin is IgM.

35. Immunoglobulin which cross the placenta: IgG

36. C-Reactive Protein is synthesised by the liver.

37. Hormone detect in UPT HCG.

38. Germ tube test is done for: candida Albicans40) At room temperature Urine sample should be
examined within……….mint.

a. 20 mintb. 30 mint c. 40 mintd. one hour

 
41) In the lab you need to examine the Protein of the patient. Which specimen sample you perform to
diagnose on urine sample?
a. First Morning b. Random sample
c. Second Voided d. Post-Prandial

42) Polyuria term refers to when urine excretion is more than……… 24 hours.

a. 3000mlb. 30000mlc. 2000ml
 
43) In the lab you receive a urine sample. Which test did you perform for renal disease?
a. Proteintestb. Glucose testc. Bilirubin test
 
44) Starch is found in the plant. It has a mixture of ..
a. Amylose b. Amylopectin c.Both
 
45) Benedict Test used to diagnose the …..
a. Glucoseb. Bilirubinc. Albumin
 
46) Bence Jones Protein (BJP) test is specific for the diagnosis of .
a. Multiple Myeloma b. Lymphoproliferative disease c. Both

47) BJ Protein precipitate at 60 C temperature and dissolve at ………..

a. 80 Cb. 100      C. 90  
 
48) Which preservative is used to preserve the urine sample for 24 hours to diagnose
the Mycobacterium?
a. BRIC Acid b. Ethyl Alcohol c.Formalin
 
49) Phenylketonuria test used to diagnose phenylalanine in Cerebro Spinal Fluid, Blood. This disease is
caused       due to deficiency of hepatic ………….. enzymes.
a. Phenylalanine b. Phenylalanine Hydroxylate c. Both
 
50) The difference between serum and plasma is, serum lack.
     a. coagulation factors   b. platelets    c. Both
 
51) which of the Cestod causes Hydrated cyst ? (Pasitology mcqs)
     a. Taeniab. Echinococcusc. Schistosoma
 
52) Mantoux Test-specific diagnosis for ………………infection!
         a. Mycobacterium      b. Staph            c. Strept  

53) Which antibody is only MONOMER in its shape? read more 

           a. IGA     b. IGM      c.  IGD
 
54) eGFR test used to assess the?
    a. CKD b. Liver disease c. Cardiac Disease 
 
55) which blood group is “universal DONOR” ?
a. AB-positive      b. O-positive    c. O-negative    d.  AB-negative

56. Bacteria grow by …….. Process.

a. Binary fission b. Budding  

57. Time at which one cell gives rise to two progeny cells is called…

a. exponential growth b. logarithmic growth  c. both

58.  Exponential growth of e.coli is.

a. 20 mints b. 1-hour c. 45 mints

59. In the LAG phase. Which …….. activity occurs.

a. Metabolic b. cell division   

60. Bacteria growth curve consists of four-phase. lag, log, stationary, death phase. In which
hase antibiotic kills bacteria?

a. lag b. log    c. stationary d. death

61. Some bacteria (Gram-positive vs gram-negative ) are obligatory. Term obligatory explains

a. They can synthesis their own ATP   B. they lack superoxide dismutase and catalase

62. Term CONJUGATION means

a. Mating two bacterial cells during DNA transforming b. Transforming DNA by means bacterial virus c.
Both

63. Accurate statements about transposons is.

A. short sequenced DNA part b. the short sequence of RNA for regulatory gens

64. Change in the base sequence of DNA that usually results in the insertion of amino acid into protein is
called

a. mutation b. conjugation  c. transformation

65. Term transduction means

a. transforming DNA from one bacteria to another by virus b. Purified protein was taken up by a cell

66. which term describes a permanent change to a genetic sequence?

a. mutation b. karyotype c. mutagen d. phenotype

67. A bacterium was found to contain a sequence of atcgggatcct in its genome. a few generations later,
the sequence was found to be atcggggggatcct. what type of mutation caused this change in the
bacteria?

a. duplication b. insertion c. translocation d. inversion

68. which is a characteristic of retrotransposons, but not of DNA transposons?

a. deletion b. show diversity c. move from one position to another

69. Actinobacteria sp. are organisms called chemoorgano heterotrophs. they do not use oxygen to
breathe. they break down organic material and convert it to inorganic material. which part of the carbon
cycle does this describe?

b. A. photosynthesis B. respiration C. Decomposition D. Assimilation

70. which statement is true about bacterial cells

c. A.They do not have membrane B. Some bacteria have membrane

71. what term describes an organism that lacks superoxide dismutase and catalase enzymes

d. a. Aerobe bacteria b. Anaerobe bacteria c. Obligatory anaerobes

72. microbial death occurs when there is

e. a. lag phase b. Log phase c. Death phase

73. which of the following is none cellular organism?   a. Bacteria b. Virus

74.  Bacteria belong to…. cell            a. Prokaryotic b. Eukaryotic          
75. Which organism lacks a nucleus? a. Bacteria   b. virus  
76. Which of the organisms lack mitochondria? A. bacteria b. virus     c. both
77. Cell wall made up of chitin..    a. virus b. fungi  
78. cell walls are made up of peptidoglycan. a. bacteria b. virus 
79.    Method of replication in the virus. a. binary fission b. mitosis  c. none
80. Fungi method of replication is ….. a. budding b. mitosis  c. both
81. Chromosome number in Prokaryotic cell … a. One      B. two     C. three
82.  Size of the ribosome in Eukerotic cell…. a. 80 S     b. 70 S
83. which of the following cell DNA lacks a nuclear membrane?

a. Bacteria    b. mold   c. yeast

84. Which of the following cell contain only one nucleic acid either DNA or RNA .. a.
bacteria b. virus   
85. . Which of the following is the smallest bacterium? a. Mycoplasma   b. e.coli

86. Chose the gram-positive bacteria. a. Neisseria, b. Klebsiella,

c. Clostridium
87. Free-living, Thick wall, cause abscess of skin. Characteristics of.  a.
Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus c.  Bacillus
88. Extracellular bacteria, thick wall, spore-forming aerobe
Characteristics of. a. Clostridium b. Corynebacterium c. Bacillus 
89. Gram-negative cocci are. a. Neisseria b. Haemophilus c. Bacillus
90. Gram-negative, rod, Facultative, straight are the Characteristics of.
a. Haemophilus b. Neisseria  c. Yersinia
 91. Respiratory gram-negative bacteria is. a. Bordetella b. Brucella c.
Yersinia
92. Zoonotic Organism is. a. Pasteurella b. boradetell c. E.coli
93. Which bacteria cause typhoid fever. a. Proteus b. Salmonella c.
Shigella
94. What is the pathogenic factor of Peptic ulcer? a. Vario b.
Campylobacter c. Helicobactor
95. Q-fever caused by the ? a. Chlamydia b. Rickettsia c. Vario
96. The causative agent of Diphtheria is.  a. listeria b. Nocardia
c. Corynebacterium
97. Chose important normal flora of the skin. a. Epidermidis b. E.coli c.
Lactobacillus 
98. Flexible, thin-walled cells (spirochetes), Lyme disease is the
characteristics of. a.Treponema b. Borrelia c. Leptospirara
99. Normal flora is the organisms that are the. a. Permanent resident of
body b. Came outside c. Normal cells
100. Yeast can be normal flora.  a. True b. false
101. Commensals are. a. Get benefits from their host and cause
damage to them b. Get benefits from their host but did no damage to
them c. Free-living
102. Important normal flora of colon is. A. e.coli b. Fragilis  c. Viridin
103. An outbreak of post-surgical wound infection caused by staph
aureus has occurred in the hospital. Use your knowledge of normal
flora. Which of the following sites is the most likely location for staph
aureus. a. Throat b. Nose c. Mouth 
104. Staph aureus is present on the skin but the main site of it is. a.
Colon b. Nose c. Mouth
105. Which part of the body contains the highest number of flora. a. Mouth
b. Stomach c. Colon
106. Which part of bacteria mediates in adherence to the host cell….
a.   pilus b. plasmid      
107. In the gram staining procedure, bacteria were exposed to 95% alcohol.
What is the purpose of it ?

a. adhere the bacteria cell to slid b. disrupt the cell membrane  so that purple dye
can leave bacteria

108. which of the following bacteria components exhibit the most antigenic
variation?

a.  Spore   b. capsule  c. ribosome

 109. Lysosome in tear is an effective bacterial. It directly attacks the …

A. endosome b. peptidoglycan

110. Bacteria that cause nosocomial infections often secretes substances that
adhere to medical devices, name as … a. Porin b. Glycocalyx  
111. Which component of gram-positive bacteria causes septic shock.

a. teichoic acid b. Phospholipid

112.  Gram-positive bacteria lack. a.  Outer membrane b. peptidoglycan

113. a microbiologist is in the process of classifying a newly discovered
organism. its characteristics include:·

a. eukaryotic b. unicellular·c. has a cell wall· d. reproduces by spores

114.  autotrophic which type of organism is it most likely to be?

a. Paramecium b. Mold c.oebadiatomslime

115. decomposer which type of organism is it most likely to be?

a.club fungus b.fungus-like c. Protestant-like d.protists fungus

116. Compounds are synthesis by the fermentation process.

a. ATP b. Pyruvate c. CO2 d. all

117. which of the following bacteria lack(s) a peptidoglycan cell wall?

a. Mycoplasma b. e.coli c. Staph

the bacterial chromosome is a. DNA b. DNA, RNA c.with in the nuclear membrane

118. Virus lack of ………. a. cell-wall b. growth c. protoplasm d. all

119. Muramic acid is present in the cell wall of….. a. Bacteria b. Fungai c. Protesta

120. bacteriophages are readily counted by the process of…. A. Dilution method
B.Plaque count C. both

121. which component of a virus is lacking in a cell? A. DNA B. Capsid C. ribosome