36 ĐỀ THÁNG 1 - 2022

ĐỀ SỐ 01 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wither B. thesis C. thoughtful D. breath
Question 2. A. traffic B. configuration C. cinema D. camouflage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. report B. conclude C. deter D. sanction
Question 4. A. advertise B. definite C. composite D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Tim and his friends have founded___________voluntary organisation which helps disabled
people with their transport needs.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 6. Dana finally admitted___________by what her father had said the day before.
A. hurt B. hurting C. being hurt D. hurted
Question 7. The man was very brave. He___________, but he chose to stay and fight.
A. must have escaped B. escaped C. had escaped D. could have escaped
Question 8. Air pollution is getting___________serious in big cities such as Hanoi and Beijing.
A. the more and the more B. more and more
C. most and most D. the most and the most
Question 9. The company has made an announcement that any application___________ in after 30th April
shall not be considered.
A. sends B. is sent C. being sent D. sent
Question 10. Only after the teacher had explained the procedure clearly___________to go ahead with the
experiment.
A. the students were allowed B. were the students allowed
C. the students allowed D. did the students allow
Question 11. Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, ___________ ?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 12. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________ rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 13. Many astronomers never get back to the Earth because of___________accidents.
A. tragedy B. tragic C. tragically D. tragedies
Question 14. After years of training hard, the athlete finally could___________ her ambition of winning an
Olympic gold medal.
A. reject B. exacerbate C. recognise D. realise
Question 15. The commission estimates that at least seven companies took___________ of the program.
A. advantage B. use C. benefit D. dominance
Question 16. The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930 s and 1940’s, but it is still an
important___________of entertainment.
A. status B. source C. origin D. prospect
Question 17. After years of derision from the world, the Hindi film industry is achieving its ___________ in
the Sun.
A. position B. image C. shade D. place
Question 18. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I___________this photograph of my
parents’ wedding.
A. took after B. made up C. turned down D. came across
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Of more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
A. only B. classify C. volcanoes D. active
Question 20. In spite of the Indian lacked animals, they had the ability to cultivate plants suitable for daily
use.
A. suitable B. lacked animals C. in spite of D. had the ability
Question 21. A professor of economy and history at our university has developed a new theory of the
relationship between historical events and financial crises.
A. financial crises B. relationship C. historical D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. John no longer drinks a lot.
A. John rarely drank a lot. B. John used to drink a lot.
C. John didn’t use to drink a lot. D. John now drinks a lot.
Question 23. “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Question 24. People think that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gasses will
inevitably lead to global warming.
A. Global warming is thought to result in increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gasses.
B. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gasses is thought to be responsible for global
warming.
C. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gasses is attributed to global warming.
D. Global warming is blamed for increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gasses.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. He was very tired. He agreed to help me with my homework.
A. As tired as was he, he agreed to help me with my homework.
B. Despite being very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework
C. Tired though he was, but he agreed to help me with my homework.
D. Tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework.
Question 26. Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday. She didn’t want to answer his phone call
this morning.
A. Mary’s refusal to answer the phone leads to her argument with her boyfriend yesterday.
B. Much as Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call this morning.
C. Having quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, Mary refused to answer his phone call this morning.
D. Before Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Sam and David are talking about what to do after work.
- “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - “___________”
A. Not at all. Go ahead. B. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.
C. That would be nice. D. Not so bad. And you?
Question 28. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. No problem.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. When the Titanic crashed into the iceberg, the crew quickly sent out distress signals to alert
nearby ships of the disaster and request their help.
A. amusing B. strange C. bold D. help
Question 30. I’m all in favour of ambition but I think when he says he’ll be a millionaire by the time he’s 25,
he’s simply crying for the moon.
A. longing for what is beyond the reach B. asking for what is attainable
C. doing something with vigor or intensity D. crying a lot and for a long time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
Question 31. I prefer secure j obs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time.
A. challenging B. demanding C. stable D. safe
Question 32. When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air.
A. extremely happy B. extremely light
C. feeling extremely unhappy D. feeling extremely airy
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Most adults struggle to recall events from their first few years of life and now scientists have identified
exactly when these childhood memories are lost forever. A new study into childhood amnesia has found that
it tends to take (33)___________around the age of seven.
The rapid decline of memories persisting while children are five and six is owing to the change in the way
memories are formed.
Before the age of seven, children tend to have an (34) ___________form of recall with no sense of time and
place in their memories. In older children, however, the early recollected events tend to be more adult-like in
their content and the way they are formed. Faster rate of forgetting in children and higher turnover of memories
means early memories are less likely to survive. (35) ___________ , memories of younger
children tend to lack autobiographical narrative leading to a process known as “retrieval induced forgetting”
(36) ___________the action of remembering causes other information to be forgotten. Consequently, if
childhood memories can survive into the ninth or tenth year of life, they may stay a chance of (37)
___________it into adulthood.
Question 33. A. affect B. effective C. effect D. effectively
Question 34. A. unbalanced B. immature C. insufficient D. irrational
Question 35. A. Besides B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 36. A. whom B. which C. when D. where
Question 37. A. turning B. making C. transferring D. getting
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological desire to
express your own superiority? When I worked in an office, meetings would often start late, usually because of
a certain individual. Then they would overrun and the whole day lost its shape. But the individual was high-
ranking and self-important: nobody challenged. So, what are the ethics of lateness?
There’s a psychotherapist called Irvin Yalom who argues that all behaviour reflects psychology. Just as
people who like to be on time are motivated by certain deep-seated beliefs, so those who make others wait are
acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s famous footage in which Silvio
Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel waiting while he made a call on his mobile. It speaks volumes.
But that is when all lateness is in one’s control, what about when your train is cancelled or your flight is
delayed or you had to wait longer for the plumber to arrive? In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology
involved. Or is there? Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting,
while others might secretly enjoy the power of their absence.
The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention - you can only be late in respect of a time
agreed with other people. Regardless of psychology, it has a social value. And when we treat other people’s
time as less valuable than our own, we treat them as inferior.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Lateness indicates superiority of important individuals.
B. Social values of individuals are fostered through lateness.
C. Being late can reveal a lot about people’s psychology.
D. People with a high sense of power have a tendency to be late.
Question 39. What is the “speaks volumes” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to?
A. tells a lot B. makes sounds C. holds power D. talks loudly
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The way our minds work is responsible for the way we behave.
B. Some people control a situation for their benefit through lateness.
C. Lateness can have an impact on other people who are made to wait.
D. Most people react the same when lateness is out of their control.
Question 41. It can be inferred from the reading passage that___________.
A. Berlusconi made Merkel wait as he wanted to show his importance.
B. It is fashionable to be late to meetings because nobody challenges.
C. The writer’s daily schedule was unaffected by his colleague’s lateness.
D. Nothing can be said about one’s psychology if lateness is out of control.
Question 42. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fact B. lateness C. convention D. psychology
answer to each of the questions front 43 to 50.
Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely used all over
the world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. A central principle of the
“treatment” is that “like cures like”, meaning a substance that causes certain symptoms can also help to remove
those symptoms. Medicines used in homeopathy are created by heavily diluting in water the substance in
question and subsequently shaking the liquid vigorously. They can then be made into tablets and pills.
Practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted in this way, the greater its power to treat symptoms.
However, in a new study, a working committee of medical experts at Australia’s National Health and
Medical Research Council (NHMRC) has claimed that homeopathic medicines are only as effective as
placebos at treating illness. Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy
interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works. Moreover,
researchers uncovered no fewer than 68 ailments that homeopathic remedies had failed to treat, including
asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis.
As a result of the findings, the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be wary of
anecdotal evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine. “It isn’t possible to tell
whether a health treatment is effective or not simply by considering the experience of one individual or the
beliefs of a health practitioner” says the report. Experts believe that most illnesses said to have been cured by
homeopathy would be cured by the body on its own without taking the medicine. Apparently, many illnesses
are short-lived by their very nature which often leads to people believing that it is the homeopathy that cures
them.
A more serious matter is highlighted by Professor John Dwyer of the University of New South Wales. As
an immunologist, he is concerned about homeopathic vaccinations on offer for diseases such as HIV,
tuberculosis, and malaria, none of which he considers effective. According to Professor John Dwyer, the
concept that homeopathic vaccinations are just as good as traditional vaccinations is delusion, and those who
believe it are failing to protect themselves and their children.
Question 43. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. “Homeopathy kills” say scientists B. “Avoid homeopathy” say scientists
C. Homeopathy worth trying once D. Unknown effects of homeopathy
Question 44. According to the reading passage, homeopathic medicines are___________ .
A. prepared similarly for different diseases
B. made up of a variety of ingredients
C. suitable for a wide range of symptoms
D. available only in the liquid form
Question 45. What does the word “their” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. committee B. NHMRC C. medicines D. placebos
Question 46. The Australian study reveals that homeopathy is___________.
A. increasingly popular with the public B. helpful in the case of respiratory infections
C. ineffective in treating many diseases D. of great interest to a certain group of people
Question 47. What is the word “wary” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to?
A. apprehensive B. reluctant C. cautious D. observant
Question 48. People tend to believe in homeopathy because of___________.
A. advertisements displayed in health center
B. positive feedback from a small number of people
C. reliable proof from recent medical reports
D. results of research into some alternatives therapies
Question 49. What is the word “delusion” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to?
A. legend B. falsehood C. imagination D. hallucination
Question 50. In Professor John Dwyer’s view, homeopathic vaccinations__________.
A. may bring about bad consequences B. do harm to people’s health
C. might be ridiculously expensive D. are better than nothing at all
SỞ GD & ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 3 KHỐI 12
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VIẾT XUÂN NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021
------------------ MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
questions from 1 to 15.
Câu 1: There is a lot of traffic so we are trying to find an __________ route.
A. alternation B. alternate C. alternative D. alternatively
Câu 2: Mrs Florida felt that her marriage had become ___________ prison.
A. a B. Ø C. the D. an
Câu 3: While Peter ________ the rose bush in the back yard, the phone rang.
A. has watered B. was watering C. waters D. watered
Câu 4: E-mail allows people _________ in touch, regardless of distance.
A. to staying B. to stay C. staying D. stay
Câu 5: If you __________ a wallet in the street, what would you do with it?
A. found B. had found C. have found D. find
Câu 6: You stayed at home last night, __________?
A. had you B. would you C. didn't you D. did you
Câu 7: Sometimes she does not agree ______ her husband about child-rearing but they soon find the solutions.
A. with B. of C. for D. on
Câu 8: The song ________ by our listeners as their favorite of the week is "Goodbye Baby" by Tunesmiths.
A. was chosen B. choosing C. chooses D. chosen
Câu 9: She _________ her anger by going for a walk.
A. worked off B. worked on C. worked out D. worked at
Câu 10: You must mix the right _________ of soap and water if you want to blow bubbles that last longer.
A. propensity B. proportion C. majority D. percentage
Câu 11: When he went to Egypt, he knew __________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become
extremely fluent.
A. virtually B. barely C. scarcely D. entirely
Câu 12: It was noticeable how a few people managed to ________ their will on the others.
A. focus B. judge C. impose D. break
Câu 13: In Korea, all men have to ________ military service for a period of time in their lives.
A. take B. have C. do D. make
Câu 14: This firm's gone to the _________ since the new management took over.
A. horses B. cats C. ducks D. dogs
Câu 15: __________ as the most important crop in Hawaii is sugar cane.
A. It is ranked B. It ranks C. What ranks D. That ranks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 16 to 17.
Câu 16: Nutritionists believe that vitamins circumvent diseases.
A. treat B. defeat C. nourish D. help
Câu 17: That last comment of yours carried the day because nobody could possibly argue with you after
that.
A. was a big hit B. was a success C. was a failure D. was a break
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
EXAM ADVICE
In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a partner. You have to do a (18) ________ task
which usually lasts about 3 minutes. One possible task is “problem solving”, which means you have to look at
(19) _________ visual information and then discuss the problem with your partner. You may be shown photos,
drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or computer graphics and it is essential that you study them
carefully. If necessary, check you know exactly what to do by politely asking the examiner to repeat the
instructions or make them clearer.
(20) ________ you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very little and you should ask your
partner questions and make (21) ________ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you have any real
difficulties, the examiner may decide to step in and help. Normally, however, you will find plenty to say,
which helps the assessor to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on your success in doing the task by
competing with your partner, (22). _______ includes taking turns in giving opinions and replying
appropriately, although in the end it may be possible to "agree to disagree”.
(Source: Adapted from http://www.grid.unep.tech)
Câu 18: A. unique B. scarce C. lonely D. single
Câu 19: A. another B. other C. each D. some
Câu 20: A. While B. Since C. Although D. Because
Câu 21: A. suggestions B. statements C. speeches D. ideas
Câu 22: A. who B. this C. that D. which
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges from 23 to 24.
Câu 23: John and Mary are having dinner at her house.
– John: "This dish is really delicious!"
- Mary: “______________. It's called Yakitori, and it's made with chicken livers."
A. It's my pleasure B. I'm glad you like it
C. I guess you're right D. Sure, I'll be glad to
Câu 24: Christina and John are in the English evening class.
- Christina: “Why do you think most people learn English?” – John: “____________”
A. All of them are. B. Very often it's to get a better job.
C. Because I like it. D. I heard it was very good.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 25 to 26.
Câu 25: A. culture B. success C. problem D. balance
Câu 26: A. powerful B. decisive C. commercial D. electric
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions from 27 to 29.
Câu 27: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
Câu 28: Joey put all his money on the lottery, which was his big mistake.
A. Joey may not have put all his money on the lottery.
B. Joey needn't have put all his money on the lottery.
C. Joey can't have put all his money on the lottery.
D. Joey shouldn't have put all his money on the lottery.
Câu 29: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
B. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive Fansipan.
C. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
D. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ord on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Urbanization degrades the environment, according to conventional wisdom. This view has led many
developing countries to limit rural-urban migration and curb urban expansion. But this view is incorrect. There
are a number of reasons urbanization can be good for the environment, if managed properly.
First, urbanization brings higher productivity because of its positive externalities and economies of scale.
Asian urban productivity is more than 5.5 times that of rural areas. The same output can be produced using
fewer resources with urban agglomeration than without. In this sense, urbanization reduces the ecological
footprint. The service sector requires urbanization because it needs a concentration of clients. As services
generally pollute less than manufacturing, this aspect of urbanization is also beneficial to the environment.
Second, for any given population, the high urban density is benign for the environment. The urban
economics literature shows that compactness is a key determinant of energy use. High density can make public
transport more viable and reduce the length of trips. Urban living encourages walking and cycling rather than
driving. Third, environment-friendly infrastructure and public services such as piped water, sanitation, and
waste management are much easier and more economical to construct, maintain, and operate in an urban
setting. Urbanization allows more people to have access to environment friendly facilities and services at
affordable prices.
Fourth, urbanization drives innovation, including green technologies. In the long term, environment-
friendly equipment, machines, vehicles, and utilities will determine the future of the green economy. Green
innovations in Asia's cities will be supported by the region's vast market as the billions of people who will be
buying energy-efficient products will create opportunities and incentives for entrepreneurs to invest in
developing such products. Finally, the higher standard of living associated with urbanization provides people
with better food, education, housing, and health care. Urban growth generates revenues that fund infrastructure
projects, reducing congestion and improving public health. Urbanization fosters a pro-environment stance
among property owners and the middle class, which is crucial for the introduction and enforcement of
environmental laws and regulations.
Of course, urbanization also comes with costs. Millions of people are migrating to Asian cities and
companies are locating there to employ them. Urban sprawl and industrial activities, such as power generation,
transportation, construction, garbage and waste disposal, harm the environment. An assessment of the impact
of urbanization on the environment must balance its benign and adverse effects.
(Source: https://www.asiapathways-adbi.org/)
Câu 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Urban sprawl brings challenges. B. Driving force behind urbanization.
C. Urbanization might actually do some good. D. Five things to do in the age of urbanization.
Câu 31: The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. harmful B. considerate C. gentle D. overwhelming
Câu 32: According to paragraph 3, through which can the optimization of power be achieved?
A. High-powered public transport B. Interconnected relationships of townspeople
Câu 33: According to paragraph 4, why is the promotion of an environmentally friendly attitude necessary?
A. It is conducive to the later intervention of legal rules.
B. Urbanization cannot proceed further without the consideration for nature.
C. It is due to the conscience of the affluent.
D. The government will not need a forceful means of regulation
Câu 34: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The service industry does more harm than good.
B. Visionary technologies can ensure environmentally sustainable development.
C. The term urbanization refers to when the lifestyle that is common in a city becomes prevalent.
D. The detrimental effects of urbanization on the environment cannot be reversed.
Câu 35: The word "them” in paragraph 5 refers to __________.
A. Asian cities B. migrants C. costs D. clients
Câu 36: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Urbanization will not take its course for the better.
B. Everyone has been mistaken about urbanization.
C. We can look forward to a green society in a not-so-distant future.
D. There are not enough countermeasures for the negative effects of urbanization.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions from 37 to 39.
Câu 37: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the
surrounding area.
A. surrounding area B. irrigation
C. to control flooding D. generating
Câu 38: What the woman was saying were so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
A. was saying B. were C. What D. to stop taking
Câu 39: Kazakova's performance made her the heroin of the Moscow Film Festival.
A. made B. the heroin of C. Kazakova’s D. Film Festival
The Singapore Science Centre is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the centre, we can discover the
wonders of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful bulbs will light up. Start a
wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to answer our curiosity and capture our
imagination.
The centre features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation, communication,
electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy and evolution. It aims to arouse interest in science and technology
among us and the general public. The centre is the first science one to be established in South East Asia. It
was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one thousand, two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits
can be found in four exhibition galleries. They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Sciences and Aviation.
These exhibits are renewed annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the centre.
Instead of the usual "Hands off" notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to touch and feel the
exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way to learn science even if you
hate the subject. A Discovery Centre was built for children between the ages of three and twelve. This new
exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us about the
animals and people that were extinct.
Câu 40: What can be the best title of the passage?
A. Discovery Centre B. Physical Sciences
C. Singapore Science Centre D. Science Centre
Câu 41: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. solar radiation B. evolution C. the centre D. the general public
Câu 42: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the Singapore Science Centre?
A. The exhibits in the centre cover a wide range of topics.
B. The centre was not opened until 1977.
C. The centre is the first one established in the world.
D. Visitors are encouraged to return to the centre.
Câu 43: It is stated in paragraph 2 that __________.
A. the science centre makes people interested in science and technology
B. visitors don't want to come back to the science centre
C. only students can visit the science centre
D. there are only several exhibits in the science centre
Câu 44: The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT ____________.
A. There are four exhibition galleries in the centre
B. The centre is the biggest in Asia
C. The centre is located in Jurong
D. The exhibits are renewed every year
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Câu 45: In certain types of poisoning, immediately give large quantities of soapy or salty water in order to
induce vomiting.
A. control B. cause C. stop D. clean
Câu 46: I was tickled pink when I got my first bike. I'll never forget it was pink with ribbons tied on the
handle bars.
A. very lucky B. very hopeful C. very embarrassed D. very pleased
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each of the
sentences in the following questions from 47 to 48.
Câu 47: I invited Rachel to my party, but she couldn't come. She had arranged to do something else.
A. Rachel would have come to my party, unless she hadn't arranged to do something else.
B. If it hadn't been for her arrangement for something else, Rachel would come to my party as invited.
C. Without having arranged to do something else, Rachel would have come to my party as invited.
D. If Rachel hadn't arranged to do something else, she would come to my party as invited.
Câu 48: The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions from 49 to 50.
Câu 49: A. developed B. searched C. described D. cooked
Câu 50: A. enter B. reduce C. result D. event
--------------------- THE END ---------------------
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. general B. generous C. generation D. guillotine
Question 2. A. changes B. increases C. suffocates D. compromises
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. deploy B. maintain C. border D. attain
Question 4. A. referee B. kangaroo C. cigarette D. technique
questions.
Question 5. After so___________consideration, we have finally arrived at a decision.
A. a lot of B. lots of C. many D. much
Question 6. The author did not intend anybody___________his paintings until they were finished.
A. seeing B. to seeing C. to see D. to be seen
Question 7. Every day, Peters mother drives him to school. However, today, he ___________to school by
his father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 8. Linda, along with hundreds of others, ___________unemployed when the factory closes next
month.
A. becomes B. become C. is becoming D. are becoming
Question 9. The customs officers stopped the suspected man and ordered him to show___________.
A. what was he carrying in his bag. B. what he was carrying in his bag
C. what he carries in his bag D. what does he carry in his bag
Question 10. It was an English student, not a French one, ___________was the captain of our school team.
A. which B. what C. whom D. who
Question 11. The man standing next to our father is a persuasive speaker with a natural
talent___________leadership.
A. for B. at C. in D. of
Question 12. The report form is available on the two___________discs in my drawer.
A. small green round B. round small green
C. green small round D. small round green
Question 13. The drug under examination has shown some___________results when given to volunteers in
some countries.
A. impressed B. impresses C. impressive D. impression
Question 14. During rush hours, the traffic is usually___________and cars are closing up behind each other.
A. light B. heavy C. substantial D. enormous
Question 15. After suffering severe wounds in the attack, the secret agent decided to
his resignation to the commander.
A. give B. apply C. propose D. offer
Question 16. Her father was really a___________of strength to her when her marriage broke up.
A. source B. sculpture C. figure D. tower
Question 17. When travelling in Europe, we tried to ___________at least an hour in a medieval town to
explore it.
A. stop off B. stop out C. stop up D. stop in
Question 18. Last week, an earthquake which___________6.1 on the Richter scale struck southern California.
A. read B. measured C. calculated D. estimated
Question 19. Just pulling out of the station the train was that we were supposed to catch.
A. the B. the train was C. were supposed D. pulling out
Question 20. Alice Thornton’s autobiography provides a fascinate account of family life in seventeenth-
century England.
A. a fascinate account B. life C. seventeenth-century D. autobiography
Question 21. The meeting would have finished earlier if there had not been for their interruptions.
A. interruptions B. would have finished
C. had not been for D. earlier
Question 22. ‘T have never been to Russia. I think I shall go there next year.” said Bill.
A. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thought he would go there the next year.
B. Bill said that he would have never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
C. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thinks he will go there the next year.
D. Bill said that he has never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
Question 23. People believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
A. Jane is believed to have retired because of her poor health.
B. Jane was believed to retire because of her poor health.
C. It is believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
D. Jane retired because of her poor health was believed.
Question 24. Charles would have won the essay contest if he had typed his paper.
A. Charles won the essay contest in spite of not typing his paper.
B. Charles did not win the essay contest because he did not type his paper
C. Typing his paper made Charles win the essay contest.
D. Charles did not win the essay contest even though he typed his paper.
Question 25. The government knows the extent of the problem. The government needs to take action
soon.
A. The government knows the extent of the problem whereas it needs to take action soon.
B. The government knows the extent of the problem so that it needs to take action soon.
C. Knowing the extent of the problem, the government needs to take action soon.
D. The government knows the extent of the problem, or else it needs to take action soon.
Question 26. The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
Question 27. Dick is thanking Michelle for giving him the gift on his birthday.
Dick: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to me!”
Michelle: “___________”
A. Welcome! I’m glad you like it
B. Not at all
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it
D. All right! Do you know how much it costs?
Question 28. Ben: “___________.”
Jane: “Never mind.”
A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.
B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Congratulations! How wonderful!
Question 29. The first time I met my friend’s parents, I was walking on eggshells because I knew their
political views were very different from mine.
A. was talking nervously B. had a lot of pressure
C. was given many eggs D. had to be very cautious
Question 30. Albert Einstein is lauded as one of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time.
A. acclaimed B. dictated C. described D. ordained
Question 31. His lawyer thought Jack had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no further evidence
was found.
A. found guilty B. declared innocent
C. charged of being faulty D. advised of appealing
Question 32. Recycling and disposal of wastes require sizable expenditure, in such situations, industries
preferred to export their wastes to other countries.
A. minimum B. considerable C. plentiful D. trivial
The United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF), originally known (33) ___________the United Nations’
International Children's Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General Assembly on 11
December 1946, to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had been
devastated by World War II. The Polish physician Ludwik Rajchman is widely regarded as the (34)
___________of UNICEF and served as its first chairman from 1946 to 1950, when he had to flee the United
States in the wake of McCarthyism. Rajchman is to this day the only person that served as UNICEF's Chairman
for longer than 2 years. On Rajchman's suggestion, the American Maurice Pate was appointed its first
executive director, serving from 1947 until his death in 1965. In 1950, UNICEF's mandate was extended to
address the long-term needs of children and women in developing countries everywhere. In 1953 it (35)
___________a permanent part of the United Nations System, and the words "international" and "emergency"
were dropped from the organization's name, though it retained the original acronym, "UNICEF".
UNICEF (36) ___________on contributions from governments and private donors. UNICEF's total income
for 2015 was US$5,009,557,471. Governments contribute two-thirds of the organization's resources. Private
groups and individuals contribute the rest through national committees. It is estimated that 92 per cent of
UNICEF revenue is distributed to program services. UNICEF's programs emphasize developing community-
level services to (37)___________the health and well-being of children. UNICEF was awarded the Nobel
Peace Prize in 1965 and the Prince of Asturias Award of Concord in 2006.
Question 33. A. for B. as C. such as D. like
Question 34. A. ancestor B. descendant C. pioneer D. founder
Question 35. A. became B. becomes C. becoming D. had become
Question 36. A. focuses B. stands C. concentrates D. relies
Question 37. A. promote B. provide C. widen D. increase
Birds have evolved many physical attributes that contribute to their flying ability. Wings are important, but
adjustable tails, large hearts and light bones play critical roles
To fly, birds, like airplanes, move air across their wings. Wings are designed so that air above the wings is
forced to move faster than air below the wing. This creates higher pressure under the wings, called lift, which
pushes the bird up. Different wing types evolved for different ways of flying. Prolonged flight requires long
wings and an ability to soar. Other birds need superior maneuverability. Finches and sparrows have short,
broad wings. Faster birds, like hawks have built - in spoilers that reduce turbulence while flying. This allows
a steeper angle of attack without stalling.
Tails have evolved for specialized use. The tail acts like a rudder helping birds steer. Birds brake by spreading
out their tails as they land. This adaptation allows them to make sudden, controlled stops in essential skill,
since most birds need to land on individual branches or on prey.
Flight takes muscle strength. If body builders had wings, they still could not flap hard enough to leave the
ground. Birds have large, specialized hearts that beat much faster than the human heart and provide the
necessary oxygen to the muscles. The breast muscle accounts for 15 percent of the bird’s body weight. On
pigeons, it accounts for a third of their total body weight. Birds carry no excess baggage, they have hollow
feathers and hollow bones with struts inside to maintain strength, like cross beams in a bridge. Birds fly to find
a prey, escape predators, and attract mates-in other words, to survive.
A. Wings are the most important physical attribute of birds.
B. Different wing styles evolved for different types of flight.
C. Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival.
D. Birds fly for many reasons.
Question 39. According to the passage, what causes birds to rise when they start flying?
A. Long wings with hollow feathers B. Higher air pressure below than above the wings
C. Spreading out their tails D. Superior muscle strength
Question 40. The phrase “finches and sparrows” refers to___________.
A. wings B. maneuvers C. ways of flying D. birds
Question 41. According to the passage, what benefit comes from having built-in spoilers?
A. an ability to fly faster B. a steeper angle of diving for prey
C. prolonged flight D. superior maneuverability when climbing
Question 42. What does the author imply about the body builders having wings?
A. If they flapped their wings, they could fly a little.
B. If they had wings, their muscles would be strong enough for flight.
C. If they had wings, their hearts would still not be large for flight.
D. Their wings would total 15 percent of their body weight.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was signed into law in 1990. This law extends civil rights
protection to persons with disabilities in private sector employment, all public services, and in public
accommodations, transportation, and telecommunications. A person with disability is defined as someone with
a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits him or her in a major life activity, such as walking,
talking, working, or self-care. A person with a
Disability may also be someone with a past record of such an impairment, for example, someone who no
longer has heart disease but discriminated against because of that history.
The ADA states that employers with fifteen or more employees may not refuse to hire or promote a person
because of a disability if that person is qualified to perform the job. Also, the employer must make reasonable
accommodations that will allow a person with a disability to perform essential functions of the job. All new
vehicles purchased by public transit authorities must be accessible to people with disabilities. All rail stations
must be made accessible, and at least one car per train in existing rail systems must be made accessible.
It is illegal for public accommodations to exclude or refuse persons with disabilities. Public accommodations
are businesses and services such as restaurants, hotels, grocery stores, and parks. All new buildings must be
made accessible, and existing facilities must remove barriers if the removal can be accomplished without
much difficulty or expense.
The ADA also stipulates that companies offering telephone service to the general public must offer relay
services to individuals who use telecommunications devices for the deaf, twenty- four hours a day, seven days
a week.
Question 43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe discrimination against persons with disabilities.
B. To explain the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act.
C. To make suggestions for hiring persons with disabilities.
D. To discuss telecommunications devices for the deaf.
Question 44. According to the passage, all of the following are affected by the Americans with
Disabilities Act EXCEPT___________.
A. someone who has difficulty walking
B. a public transit authority
C. an employer with fewer than fifteen employees
D. a person with a past record of an impairment
Question 45. The word “impairment” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. disability B. violation C. aptitude D. danger
Question 46. The author mentions grocery stores as an example of___________.
A. public transit B. barriers
C. private sector employment D. public accommodation
Question 47. The word “facilities” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to___________ .
A. barriers B. buildings C. rail stations D. disabilities
Question 48. The author implies all of the following EXCEPT___________.
A. the ADA requires people with disabilities to pay for special accommodations
B. the ADA is designed to protect the civil rights of many people
C. public transportation must accommodate the needs of people with disabilities
D. the ADA protects the rights of people with mental impairments
Question 49. The word “stipulates” in bold in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. supposes B. admits C. states D. requests
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that___________ .
A. restaurants can refuse service to people with disabilities
B. every car of a train must be accessible to persons with disabilities
C. the ADA is not well-liked by employers
D. large companies may not discriminate against workers with disabilities
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI THỬ CHO KÌ THI THPT NĂM 2021
HƯNG YÊN Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
TRƯỜNG THPT KHOÁI CHÂU Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
------------------
MỤC TIÊU
- Củng cố kiến thức về Ngữ âm (phát âm & trọng âm từ), các chủ điểm ngữ pháp cơ bản: Các thì trong
tiếng Anh, Câu so sánh, Câu điều kiện, Câu tường thuật, Câu bị động, Các loại mệnh đề, Từ loại, Câu
tường thuật, Câu hỏi đuôi, Đảo ngữ, Sự hòa hợp chủ ngữ và động từ, Phối hợp thì,... và kiến thức từ vựng
cấp THPT.
- Hoàn thiện và nâng cao kỹ năng xử lý các dạng bài tập tiếng Anh: Ngữ âm, Tìm lỗi sai, Ngữ pháp & từ vựng,
Đọc điền từ, Đọc hiểu, Tìm câu đồng nghĩa, Từ đồng nghĩa/Trái nghĩa,...
Question 1: We are working, that means that we are contributing goods and services to our society.
A. that B. that we C. contributing D. services
Question 2: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, is considering basic part
of the education of every child.
A. basic B. history C. considering D. child
Question 3: Higher education is very importance to national economies, and it is also a source of trained and
educated personnel for the whole country.
A. importance B. economies C. educated D. the whole country
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
Trees protect the soil beneath them; thus, tree loss can affect soil integrity. For example, the
rainforest floor, home to numerous plant life as well as insects, worms, reptiles and amphibians, and small
mammals, relies on a dense covering of branches and leaves to keep it healthy and intact. The canopy of
leaves prevents surface runoff by (4) ________ heavy rainfall, so that water can drip down slowly onto the
porous earth. Tree roots also stabilize the soil and help prevent erosion. In return, a healthy soil encourages
root development and microbial activity, (5) ________ contribute to tree growth and wellbeing. A major factor
in cutting forest -related soil damage comes (6) ________ road building, with trucks and other
heavy equipment compressing the soft soil, creating furrows where water collects, and disrupting the
underground water flow. Eventually, the topsoil erodes, leaving behind (7) ________ infertile layer of rocks
and hard clay.
Logging can also damage aquatic habitats. Vegetation along rivers and stream banks helps maintain
a steady water flow by blocking the entry of soil and other residue, and trees shade inhibits the growth of algae.
Removing trees (8) ________ these benefits. When eroding soil flows into waterways, the organic matter
within it consumes more oxygen, which can lead to oxygen depletion in the water, killing fish and other aquatic
wildlife.
(Adapted from Essential words for the IELTS ...)
Question 4: A. intercepting B. releasing C. cutting D. delivering
Question 5: A. which B. who C. that D. what
Question 6: A. with B. to C. in D. from
Question 7: A. the B. no article C. an D. a
Question 8: A. wipe out B. wiping out C. wiped out D. wipes out
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
As computer use becomes more common, the need for security is more important than ever. One of
the greatest security threats in the online world is computer hacking. Computer hacking is the unauthorized
access to a computer or network of computers. Hackers are people who illegally enter systems. They may alter
or delete information, steal private information, or spread viruses that can damage or destroy files. But how
exactly can a hacker get into a system to do these things?
Most hackers use information called protocols that are built into computer software. These protocols allow
computers to interact with one another. Protocols are sort of like computer police officers. When a computer
connects to another system, the protocols check to see if the access is valid. The protocols can also determine
how much information can be shared between the two systems. Hackers can manipulate the protocols to get
unlimited access to a computer system.
In fact, just the act of entering a computer network is considered hacking. This is commonly called passive
hacking. Passive hackers get a rush from just being able to access a challenging system like a bank or military
network. Another kind of hacker tries to do damage to a system. After hacking into systems, these hackers
release viruses or alter, delete, or take information. Known as active hackers, they are, by far, the more
dangerous of the two.
The easiest way to protect a system is with a good password. Long and unusual passwords are harder
for hackers to guess. For even greater security, some online services now use "password plus" systems. In
this case, users first put in a password and then put in a second code that changes after the user accesses the
site. Users either have special cards or devices that show them the new code to use the next time. Even if
a hacker steals the password, they won't have the code. Or if the hacker somehow gets the code, they still
don't know the password.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge ....)
Question 9: It is implied in the passage that __________
A. it is difficult to protect data from being stolen by hackers.
B. hackers always damage the information in the host computer.
C. online services have been improving their security system.
D. not every hacker is harmful.
Question 10: What does the phrase "the two" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. systems and viruses B. a bank and military network
C. passive and active hackers D. hackers and viruses
Question 11: As suggested in the last paragraph, what is the best way for computer users to prevent hackers?
A. They should not use any code on online services to make sure that hackers have no chance to get
your password.
B. They should use a long and customary password so that hackers cannot guess.
C. They should use different passwords for different accounts to access the sites.
D. They should have an additional secret code to confirm their access after putting in a password.
Question 12: Which of the following would best describe the main idea of the passage?
A. Different types of hackers. B. The way hackers access a computer.
C. Computer security and hackers. D. What a hacker can damage in your computer.
Question 13: The word "unauthorized" in the first paragraph mostly means __________.
A. optional B. compulsory C. illegal D. permissible
Question 14: According to paragraph 2, which information is NOT true about protocols?
A. Protocols can try out whether they are legal to access another computer or not.
B. Protocols are a set of rules controlling the way data is sent between computers.
C. The amount of shared information between two computers depends on the host computer.
D. The data hackers can get from others' computers may be infinite.
Question 15: The author mentioned in the third paragraph that active hackers are more dangerous
because __________.
A. they often get access to important networks like a bank or military.
B. they can do many harmful things for the whole computer network system.
C. they implant viruses or steal private and other vital information in systems.
D. they always remove all the data in the systems they hack.
SEA LEVEL
Global sea level has been rising over the past century, and the rate has increased in recent decades. In 2014,
global sea level was 2.6 inches above the 1993 average - the highest annual average in the satellite record
(1993-present). Sea level continues to rise at a rate of about one eighth of an inch per year. Higher sea levels
mean that deadly and destructive storm surges push farther inland than they once did, which also means more
frequent nuisance flooding. Disruptive and expensive, nuisance flooding is estimated to be from 300 percent
to 900 percent more frequent within U.S. coastal communities than it was just 50 years ago.
The two major causes of global sea level rise are thermal expansion caused by warming of the ocean since
water expands as it warms, and increased melting of land-based ice, such as glaciers and ice sheets. The oceans
are absorbing more than 90 percent of the increased atmospheric heat associated with emissions from human
activity.
With continued ocean and atmospheric warming, sea levels will likely rise for many centuries at
rates higher than that of the current century. In the United States, almost 40 percent of the population lives
in relatively high-population- density coastal areas, where sea level plays a role in flooding, shoreline
erosion, and hazards from storms. Globally, eight of the world's 10 largest cities are near a coast, according to
the U.N. Atlas of the Oceans.
Sea level rise at specific locations may be more or less than the global average due to local factors such
as land subsidence from natural processes and withdrawal of groundwater and fossil fuels, changes in
regional ocean currents, and whether the land is still rebounding from the compressive weight of Ice Age
glaciers. In urban settings, rising seas threaten infrastructure necessary for local jobs and regional industries.
Roads, bridges, subways, water supplies, oil and gas wells, power plants, sewage treatment plants, landfills-
virtually all human infrastructure-is at risk from sea level rise.
(Source: https://oceanservice...)
Question 16: What does the word "it" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. ocean B. water C. ice D. sea level
Question 17: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Sea level and emissions from human activity
B. Sea level within U.S. coastal communities
C. Sea level is rising at an increasing rate
D. Sea level and its effects on the world's 10 largest cities
Question 18: Which of the following is the passage likely extracted from?
A. Science fiction document B. Scientific magazine
C. Weather forecast D. Research record
Question 19: The word "deadly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. rainy B. lethal C. fast D. huge
Question 20: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to paragraph 4?
A. Sea levels will likely rise for many centuries at rates of the current century.
B. Sea level rise will only affect the world's 10 largest cities near the coast.
C. Sea level plays no role in flooding, shoreline erosion, and hazards from storms.
D. 40 percent of the population of the U.S. lives in densely populated coastal areas.
Question 21: A collection only has its real value when it is properly labeled.
A. Only when a collection has its real value is it properly labeled.
B. When properly labeled that a collection only has its real value.
C. It is only when a collection is properly labeled that it has its real value.
D. Only when a collection is properly labeled it has its real value.
Question 22: People think that Kenny stole the money.
A. People suspects Kenny of stealing the money. B. People was suspected to steal Kenny's money.
C. Kenny's money was thought to be stolen. D. Kenny suspects everyone of stealing the
money.
Question 23: They stayed in that hotel despite the noise.
A. No matter how noisy the hotel was, they stayed there.
B. They stayed in the noisy hotel and they liked it.
C. Despite the hotel is noisy, they stayed there.
D. Because of the noise, they stayed in the hotel.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 24: A. conversation B. initiative C. environment D. technology
Question 25: A. climate B. deplete C. remove D. delay
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. cheat B. increase C. speak D. break
Question 27: A. jumps B. arrives C. rains D. follows
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 28: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. important B. well-known C. impressive D. easy-looking
Question 29: They cannot understand why she did that, it really doesn't add up.
A. doesn't calculate B. isn't mathematics
C. doesn't make sense D. makes the wrong addition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: The new laws to conserve wildlife in the area will come into force next month.
A. pollute B. complete C. protect D. eliminate
Question 31: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the
annual meeting in May.
A. rudeness B. encouragement C. measurement D. politeness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 32: Children younger than 5 years old are _________ free to festival events.
A. admitted B. admit C. admittedly D. admission
Question 33: A new school _________. They hope to finish building it next month.
A. is built B. has been built C. was built D. is being built
Question 34: _________ to the South in the winter is a popular fact.
A. Bird migratings B. When birds migrate C. That birds migrate D. Where birds
migrate
Question 35: The job requires certain _________. You have to be good at operating computers and
dealing with people.
A. skills B. knowledge C. qualifications D. techniques
Question 36: Was Neil Armstrong the first person _________ foot on the Moon?
A. setting B. set C. to set D. who setting
Question 37: John _________ off alone a month ago, and _________ of since then.
A. has set - hasn't heard B. set - hasn't been heard
C. set - hadn't been heard D. had set - hasn't heard
Question 38: Each of us must take _________ for our own actions.
A. ability B. probability C. responsibility D. possibility
Question 39: Not only _________ to take the medicine, but he also hit the nurse.
A. he was refused B. does he refuse C. he refused D. did he refuse
Question 40: _________ he could not say anything.
A. However upset was he that B. So upset was that
C. Therefore upset was he that D. So upset was he that
Question 41: It gets _________ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. more and more difficult B. more difficult than
C. the more difficult D. difficult more and more
Question 42: His mother _________ him against staying up late night after night to prepare for exams.
A. claimed B. warned C. encouraged D. recommended
Question 43: We are not surprised that Mrs. Anna is ill. With all the voluntary work she's _________,
she's really been doing too much.
A. taken on B. taken to C. taken off D. taken in
Question 44: This is _________ most beautiful song I've ever listened to.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 45: Information on events occurring in the theater _________ the year is available through
our website.
A. on B. into C. as D. throughout
Question 46: If it weren’t for my mobile phone, I _________ where my friends were.
A. don’t know B. wouldn’t know C. knew D. will know
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 47: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. The novel was so interesting that I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 48: They didn't want to swim in the river. It looked very polluted.
A. They didn't want to swim in the river, where looked very polluted.
B. They didn't want to swim in the river, which looked very polluted.
C. They didn't want to swim in the river, that looked very polluted.
D. They didn't want to swim in the river, in which looked very polluted.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the
following exchanges.
Question 49: Mai comes to Linh's house. It is Linh's birthday party.
Mai: “Can I have another cup of milk tea?”
Linh: “_________________”
A. Do it yourself. B. Allow yourself. C. Be yourself. D. Help yourself.
Question 50: Mrs. John: "How about a small present for little Jimmy after his performance?”
Mr Kelly: “_________________”
A. Thanks for your promise. I'm sure he'll be proud.
B. It's a great idea. He would like it.
C. Thank you for being so respectful.
D. Not at all.
-----THE END-----
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. detachable B. denounce C. education D. admittance
Question 2. A. enunciate B. pronounce C. uncle D. nocturnal
Question 3. A. preserve B. bubble C. safeguard D. tabloid
Question 4. A. uneducated B. insignificant C. irrelevance D. unquestionable
questions
Question 5. Before the man could say anything more, Peter___________off towards the station.
A. rushed B. was rushing C. had rushed D. had been rushing
Question 6. For the engine to work properly, the green lever___________be in the up position.
A. can B. may C. will D. must
Question 7. ___________the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive
Question 8. The divorce rate in Vietnam is now higher___________half a century ago.
A. than it is B. than it does C. than it was D. than it did
Question 9. Would that the council___________in detail the issue of mercury pollution in the city during the
conference last week.
A. discussed B. were discussing C. had discussed D. was discussing
Question 10. The waiter enquired whether___________near the window.
A. we would like to sit B. we like to sit
C. do we like to sit D. would we like to sit
Question 11. ___________, those students really prefer cold weather.
A. Strange though does it seem B. Strange though it may seem
C. Strange though may it seem D. Strange though it seem
Question 12. Brain’s attitude___________his work has always been very positive.
A. with B. into C. at D. towards
Question 13. There might be a___________to cheat if students sit too close together in exam rooms.
A. tempting B. temptation C. tempted D. tempt
Question 14. If something electricity and heat, it allows electricity or heat to___________travel along and
through it.
A. carries B. transfers C. conducts D. exchanges
Question 15. We really regret to___________you that the course you are interested in is now full.
A. advise B. consult C. pledge D. explain
Question 16. The newspaper article which includes a gruesome description of the murder has___________a
lot of attention from the public.
A. paid B. confined C. drawn D. attracted
Question 17. Last year, the company went___________up after the one of its senior executives offered his
resignation.
A. straight B. belly C. stomach D. cloud
Question 18. Our mother was not happy with our work and made us___________.
A. start back B. start over C. start on D. start on at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 19. She grew more and more fascinated by the subject as times went by.
A. fascinated B. grew C. times D. the subject
Question 20. I pretended not seeing her and carried on walking down the main street leading to the downtown.
A. not seeing B. the main street C. carried on walking D. downtown
Question 21. Like many rich kids, Georgie was raised by a successor of underpaid nannies.
A. raised B. like C. underpaid nannies D. a successor
Question 22. A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.
A. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.
B. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.
C. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.
D. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.
Question 23. Most of the river ferries have been cancelled today due to the lack of visibility caused by
the fog.
A. A few of the ferries need to be rescheduled because of the fog that is causing poor visibility on the river.
B. Since todays fog is obstructing visibility, the majority of the river ferries will not be running.
C. Because of the fog, it will be difficult for most of the ferries to cross the river safely today.
D. Whenever visibility is poor owing to the fog, nearly all of the river ferries are cancelled during the day.
Question 24. Wouldn’t it be better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?
A. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
Question 25. The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.
A. If you don t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.
B. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.
C. You'd better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.
D. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar will come back.
Question 26. My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. You need to decide for the good of everyone.
A. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good for everyone.
B. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all.
C. We need to decide for the good of everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter.
D. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone.
Question 27. “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” - “____________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t B. oh, I didn’t realize it
C. You’re welcome D. That’s a good idea
Question 28. Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”
Christ: “____________. Another will come here in ten minutes.”
A. I hope so B. Don’t mention it C. Don’t worry D. Thank you
Question 29. Being a single mother no longer carries the social stigma that it used to.
A. difficulty B. holiness C. stain D. trial
Question 30. The members of the orchestra have arrived an hour prior to the performance for a short rehearsal.
A. when B. before C. after D. while
Question 31. Earthworms help to aerate the soil.
A. suffocate B. destroy C. argue D. adjust
Question 32. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.
A. disowned B. declared C. betrayed D. concealed
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking someone in the
eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (33) ____________to look directly at people when
speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying
and is thought to carry a (34) ____________of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long
periods of eye contact. It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese,
(35) ____________, stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity
and gives people a better sense of what their counterparts want. Given such differences with even the most
common expressions, people (36) ____________ travel or work abroad have a real need to learn the other
culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (37)
____________to consider your own body language before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing
about the body language of friends, clients, and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding
and avoiding miscommunication.
Question 33. A. encouraged B. assisted C. forbidden D. opposed
Question 34. A. sense B. taste C. sound D. touch
Question 35. A. therefore B. in addition C. in contrast D. moreover
Question 36. A. who B. where C. which D. whose
Question 37. A. usefulness B. useful C. useless D. used
The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in the United
States before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American homes had
improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit with tallow candles
or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome - a dish of fish oil or other animal or vegetable oil in which a
twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they had to heat charcoal underneath to keep it soft
and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but this was expensive. In 1830 a new substance
called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to be an excellent illuminant. But while camphene gave a bright
light it too remained expensive, had an unpleasant odor, and also was dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850, it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United States was the
wider use of gas. In the 1840s, American gas manufacturers adopted improved British techniques for
producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer remained so high that
until the mid-nineteenth century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and only for public buildings
for the wealthy. In 1854, a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a process for distilling a pitch like
mineral found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced illuminating gas and an oil that he called
“kerosene” (from “keros”, the Greek word for wax, and “ene” because it resembled camphene). Kerosene,
though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner never made his fortune from it. But Gesner
had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil from a product coming out of North American mines.
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become
necessary by the mid-nineteenth century?
A. increases in the number of new factories B. growth of cities
C. development of railroads D. demand for better medical facilities
Question 39. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. oil B. charcoal C. lard D. wick
Question 40. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the passage?
A. It had an unpleasant smell.
B. It was not allowed in public buildings.
C. It was not widely available until mid-nineteenth century.
D. It was first developed in the United States.
Question 41. The word “resembled” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. cost the same as B. was made from C. sounded like D. was similar to
Question 42. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. a description of events in chronological order
B. a comparison of two years
C. an analysis of scientific findings
D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations
Dark matter in the universe is believed by some scientists to be a substance that is not readily observable
because it does not directly refract light or energy. Its existence can only be deduced because of the effect that
it has on surrounding matter. In fact, some members of the scientific community have argued that dark matter
does not actually exist. Others, however, believe in its existence, in part because the scientific community does
not have a complete understanding of gravity science. On the other hand, some would argue that it is the
understanding of gravitational science that leads most scientists to believe in the existence of dark matter,
because without dark matter, there are many cosmological phenomena that are difficult to explain.
For example, dark matter in the universe may have a peculiar effect on the Milky Way galaxy. Some scientists
believe that the interaction between dark matter and other smaller, nearby galaxies is causing the Milky Way
galaxy to take on a warped profile. It has been asserted that not only does dark matter exist, it may also be
responsible for the Milky Way’s unusual shape. The interaction referenced involves two smaller galaxies near
the Milky Way, called Magellanic clouds, moving through an enormous amount of dark matter, which, in
effect, enhances the gravitational pull that the two Magellanic clouds could have on the Milky Way and other
surrounding bodies. Without the existence of the dark matter, the Magellanic clouds would not have sufficient
mass to have such a strong effect on the bend of the Milky Way galaxy.
The strongest evidence for the validity of this hypothesis rests in Newtonian physics, and the hypothesis that
anything with mass will exert a gravitational pull. The Milky Way and other galaxies with peculiar warped
shapes are being molded by a gravitational force. However, there is nothing readily observable with sufficient
mass that could cause such a high level of distortion via gravitational pull in the vicinity of the Milky Way.
Therefore, something that is not easily observed must be exerting the necessary force to create the warped
shape of the galaxy.
Aaron Romanowsky and several colleagues have questioned the effect that dark matter might have on galaxies.
They point to the existence of several elliptical galaxies surrounded by very
little dark matter as evidence that dark matter is not, in fact, the cause of the warped galaxies. While
they do not claim that their findings should be interpreted to conclude that dark matter does not exist, they
apparently believe that the results of their studies cast doubt on some of the conventional theories of galaxy
formation and manipulation.
Several models constructed by researchers from the University of California at Berkeley, however, point to
the idea that dark matter is the most likely explanation for the distorted shape of the Milky Way and other
galaxies. Using computer models, they have mapped the likely interactions between certain galaxies and the
surrounding dark matter, and those models have shown not only the possibility that dark matter is responsible
for the warped shape of the Milky Way, but that the relationship between the dark matter and the Magellanic
clouds is dynamic; the movement of the clouds through the dark matter seems to create a wake that enhances
their gravitational influence on the Milky Way.
Question 43. The passage states that some members of the scientific community are reluctant to believe
in the existence of dark matter because___________.
A. No one understands how to apply gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little effect on surrounding matter.
C. dark matter cannot be directly observed.
D. There is absolutely no evidence for the existence of dark matter.
Question 44. As it is used in paragraph 1, the term “phenomena” most nearly means___________.
A. surprises B. problems C. occurrences D. attitudes
Question 45. What does the passage offer as evidence for the existence of dark matter?
A. A photograph taken with the aid of a refracting telescope.
B. The enormous mass of Magellanic clouds.
C. The shape of the Milky Way galaxy.
D. A complete understanding of gravitational science.
Question 46. According to the passage, what is Aaron Romanowsky’s theory regarding dark matter?
A. Dark matter has no effect at all on the shape of a galaxy.
B. It cannot be conclusively proven that dark matter affects the shape and formation of galaxies.
C. Computer models suggest that dark matter is responsible for warped galaxies.
D. The discovery of certain galaxies disproves the theory that dark matter exists in the universe.
Question 47. The last paragraph supports the general hypothesis provided earlier in the passage
that___________.
A. Computer models are necessary for an understanding of gravitational science.
B. Dark matter has little to no effect on the formation of certain cosmological phenomena
C. The effect of Magellanic clouds on galaxies is enhanced by dark matter.
D. The shape of the Milky Way galaxy can be deduced by observing the matter surrounding it
Question 48. The word “conventional” in paragraph 4 most nearly means___________.
A. formally disputed B. strictly interpreted
C. easily understood D. generally accepted
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to___________.
A. models B. researchers C. interactions D. galaxies
Question 50. The passage supports which of the following statements about dark matter?
A. Its presence is readily observable to researchers who completely understand how to apply gravitational
science.
B. If it does not exist, the universe is largely empty.
C. Its existence is inferred by some researchers based on observations of cosmological bodies composed of
ordinary matter.
D. Its existence has been conclusively proven by computer models.
TRƯỜNG THPT QUẢNG XƯƠNG 1 GIAO LƯU KIẾN THỨC THI THPT QUỐC GIA
LẦN 2 – NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
Mã đề 203
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Viet Nam is developing rapidly and gradually affirming that it is a pillar and
(1) ________ technology in the fourth industrial revolution. Technological powers have long built their own
AI development strategies, taking this technology as the core for (2) ________ economic development.”
OpenGov reports.
Over the last few years, more organizations have started developing and applying AI in various
fields including education, telecommunications, retail, healthcare and (3) ________ which have not only
gradually dominated the market but also earned huge profits.
Currently, AI is the focus of the global technology circle and governments around the world.
Many countries have spent billions of US dollars on AI development strategies with the ambition to be
the frontrunners of AI.
Viet Nam is not outside this development trend either. In recent years, Viet Nam's AI industry has
made visible strides with increasing AI content in various products, the release noted. Large domestic
technology corporations (4) ________ are interested in investing in and building AI sources implement AI
projects. Many domestic companies as well as innovative start-ups, also tend to invest in AI and carry out
many new applications in new business models. (5) ________, like many countries that prioritize. AI
investment. Viet Nam lacks large databases, infrastructure, resources, and a solid foundation from AI
businesses.
Question 1: A. break-in B. outbreak C. breakdown D. breakthrough
Question 2: A. gaining B. accelerating C. widening D. diminishing
Question 3: A. others B. another C. other D. the other
Question 4: A. what B. that C. who D. whom
Question 5: A. However B. Moreover C. Although D. In addition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. habitat B. campfire C. survive D. wildlife
Question 7: A. problems B. beliefs C. prohibits D. looks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. evolution B. academic C. agriculture D. influential
Question 9: A. hacker B. marvel C. evolve D. software
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 10: Mary and Nhung are talking about Nhung's project.
Mary: "How is your project going?”
Nhung: “_____________”
A. I'm working with John and Anne. B. What? Is it going to finish soon?
C. Great! Couldn't be better. D. Do you really want to go?
Question 11: Lucy is talking to Huong, her Vietnamese friend, about air pollution in Hanoi.
Lucy: "Is there anything we can do about the toxic air pollution in Hanoi recently?"
Huong: " ____________, but the only thing we can do is to avoid outdoors and wear masks."
A. You're telling me B. I don't think I know the answer
C. I would say yes D. That's easy
questions.
Question 12: The book ________ last week is her first novel about a World Heritage Site in Viet Nam.
A. publishing B. published C. to publish D. to be published
Question 13: We expect Linh ________ to the airport late as the plane will take off in 15 minutes.
A. to coming B. not to come C. not coming D. coming
Question 14: ________, Joe stays in bed and reads magazines.
A. Whenever raining B. As it will be raining C. When it will rain D. Whenever it rains
Question 15: People thought that his novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood
________.
A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. debut
Question 16: He has been successful in his career thanks to the ________ from his family and friends.
A. supportive B. support C. supporter D. supporting
Question 17: Just before the lesson ended, the teacher ________ everything that she had taught.
A. summed up B. made up C. showed up D. took up
Question 18: Nobody comes there on time, ________?
A. does he B. doesn't he C. do they D. don't they
Question 19: ________ species must be saved in order to maintain the balance in the ecosystem.
A. Extinct B. Endangered C. Dead D. Risky
Question 20: Don't you think you should apply ________ the firefighter's position?
A. with B. for C. at D. in
Question 21: ________ he followed my advice, he would not be unemployed now.
A. Were B. Had C. Should D. Unless
Question 22: Kamala Harris is the 49 and current vice president of the United States. She is ________
first Black, first of South Asian origin, and first female occupant of the office.
A. a B. the C. no article D. an
Question 23: The global economy suffered a recession in 2020 and recorded negative growth rate of almost 4
percent ________ the Covid-19 pandemic.
A. because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 24: By the end of today, Kim ________ all of the animal rescue centres in the city.
A. will visit B. will be visiting C. have visited D. will have visited
Question 25: The boy did a good ________ by helping the blind man cross the road.
A. show B. deed C. display D. feat
Question 26: The president ________ tribute to all the people who had supported him.
A. made B. gave C. paid D. returned
Question 27: The more he learned about the job, the less interested he got.
A. After learning more about the job, he lost interest in it.
B. Though learning that the job is not interesting, he got it
C. As soon as he learned about the interesting job, he got it.
D. Even though the job is not interesting, he learned about it
Question 28: "I'll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport," he said to me.
A. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport.
B. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
C. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
D. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
Question 29: People think that he was born into a rich family.
A. People think that his family is rich, so he was born.
B. He is thought to be born into a rich family.
C. That he was born into a rich family is thought about.
D. He is thought to have been born into a rich family.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 30: The 13" National Congress of the Communist Party of Viet Nam was attended by 1,587
delegates from around the country, the largest number at any congress so far.
A. attendants B. representatives C. participants D. audiences
Question 31: Readers are required to abide by the rules of the library and mind their manners.
A. obey B. memorize C. review D. compose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32: As the exams drew nearer Manh knew it was time to move up a gear and started studying
late into the evening.
A. to go upstairs to bed B. to revise lessons
C. to change his mind D. to reduce the rate of study
Question 33: The combination of rain and greasy surfaces made driving conditions treacherous.
A. dangerous B. serious C. poor D. favorable
Do you like tuna? People in many countries like to eat tuna whether it is canned, cooked, or raw.
Unfortunately, humans are now eating too much tuna, and some species are becoming rare.
The name “tuna” refers to over 48 species of carnivorous fish that live in Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, and
Mediterranean oceans. The most important commercial species of tuna are yellowfin, bluefin, bigeye,
albacore, and skipjack. Skipjack makes up the majority of canned tuna, while the other species are served either
raw or cooked.
While the fishing of skipjack tuna is currently sustainable, it is widely accepted that the other species have
been severely overfished. In particular, bluefin tuna stocks are now at risk of collapse. From 1976 to 2006, the
population of bluefin decreased by 92%. Overfishing continues despite repeated warnings. In 2009, scientists
recommended that the quota for northern bluefin tuna be set at 7,500 tonnes, but the Atlantic Tuna Commision
set it at 16,000 tonnes. Even this limit was ignored, with the total catch of Atlantic bluefin estimated to be
60,000 tonnes in 2009.
The reason for this over-fishing is that yellowfin, bluefin, and bigeye tuna are prized for use as sashimi
(raw fish). This makes them very valuable. In 2011, a bluefin tuna weighing 342 kilograms was sold in Tokyo
for 32,49 million yen (USD 396,000). Recently, the sashimi-tuna species have become so rare, and their price
is so high that many sashimi restaurants have had to close.
In response to decreasing tuna stocks, scientists have been trying to breed tuna in captivity. In 2009,
an Austrian company succeeded in breeding southern bluefin tuna in land-based tanks. This is an
important development because tuna farming currently relies on raising juvenile tuna that are caught in the
wild. Catching these juvenile tuna makes overfishing even worse.
Everyone needs to work together to help the wild tuna survive. You can help to save the wild tuna,
too. Next time you have tuna, check to make sure you aren’t eating a wild bluefin, yellowfin, or bigeye.
Hopefully, if we all play our part, it won’t be too long before stocks of tuna recover to their former levels.
Question 34: What does the passage mainly talk about?
A. The reasons why many people like tuna B. Causes of the low population of tuna.
C. Various types of tuna D. Declining tuna stocks and our actions
Question 35: According to the passage, which tuna species is now at risk of collapse?
A. all species B. bluefin C. yellowfin D. bigeye
Question 36: The word "This" in the 5th paragraph refers to _________.
A. decreasing tuna stocks B. trying to breed tuna
C. breeding bluefin tuna D. raising juvenile tuna
Question 37: It is stated in the passage that many sashimi restaurants closed down because _________.
A. bluefin tuna sashimi is not very popular B. bluefin tuna are extinct
C. bluefin tuna has become expensive and rare D. people liked canned or cooked tuna more
Question 38: Which sentence about tuna is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. It is possible to breed tuna in land-based tanks B. Worldwide stocks of tuna have decreased
C. Canned tuna is mostly made of skipjack tuna D. There are only few species of tuna in the world
Question 39: The word "juvenile" in the 5th passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. old B. young C. fresh D. strong
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that _________.
A. Tuna overfishing has stopped due to repeated warnings.
B. Nothing can be done to help the wild tuna survive.
C. To recover stocks of tuna, we should be aware of what species of tuna we are eating.
D. Raising juvenile tuna is only one measure to save the wild tuna.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 41: Many successive film directors are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A. successive B. film directors C. former D. their
Question 42: It is an interested book which I bought at the Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday.
A. interested B. which C. at D. last Sunday
Question 43: My mother as well as her friends always go out together at the weekend.
A. as well as B. friends C. go D. at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 44: Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water. This is done to ensure there is no shortage
of fresh water.
A. For there is shortage of fresh water, wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water.
B. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water because there is shortage of fresh water.
C. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water though there is no shortage of fresh water.
D. To ensure there is no shortage of fresh water, wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water.
Question 45: We ought to visit Grandma. Otherwise, she will be worried about us.
A. If we do not visit Grandma soon, she will start to worry.
B. Grandma is worried about us, so we should visit her.
C. We need not visit Grandma unless she is worried about us.
D. We should visit Grandma in case she is worried about us.
What makes people give money to charity? One reason is altruism, the unselfish desire to help other people
and make the world a better place. For example, religious institutions receive the highest percentage of
donations in the United States. Colleges and universities often receive gifts from successful graduates who
want to widen educational opportunities for other students or support research on an issue they feel
is important. Hospital and medical research organizations are often supported by donors who have been
affected by a medical problem, either directly or through the experience of family members or friends. Many
donors give to causes that have touched them personally in some way.
Charitable gifts can also be made for reasons involving personal interest. Under U.S. tax law, an individual
does not have to pay income tax on money that is donated to charity. For extremely wealthy individuals, this
can mean millions of dollars they do not have to pay in taxes to the government. In addition to tax benefits,
donors often receive favorable publicity for making donations, and they have an opportunity to influence the
world around them. For instance, new buildings at colleges and universities are often named after important
donors, which means that they will be remembered for their generosity for many years to come.
Question 46: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Charity Activities B. Charitable Giving C. To Be Charitable D. To Be Altruistic
Question 47: The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. colleges and universities B. other students
C. successful students D. educational opportunities
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. Altruism is the unselfish desire to help other people.
B. In the US, people donate a lot to religious institutions.
C. In the US, many charity events are held by the governors.
D. Many people give away money to charity for the sake of themselves.
Question 49: The word "affected" in paragraph 1 almost means __________.
A. attacked B. killed C. fought D. caught
Question 50: According to the passage, what is perhaps THE LEAST supported by the writer about giving
a charitable gift?
A. People can earn their living by going to charity events.
B. U.S. people do not have to pay income tax on charitable donations.
C. Donors can have their names honored for a long time.
D. Donors have a chance to affect the world around them.
-----THE END----
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion
Question 2. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained
Question 3. A. garbage B. dissolve C. bottle D. fishing
Question 4. A. beautiful B. happiness C. unhealthy D. neigh borhood
questions.
Question 5. She looked active in___________.
A. a jean B. a jeans C. jean D. jeans
Question 6. We___________by a loud noise during the night.
A. woke up B. are woken up C. were woken up D. were waking up
Question 7. why___________she___________to be studying abroad?
A. does/ consider B. is/ considered C. is/ considering D. has/ considered
Question 8. Tom has the___________stamps in the collectors club.
A. most B. less C. more D. least
Question 9. Our boss would rather___________during the working hours.
A. us not chatting B. we didn’t chat C. us not chat D. we don’t chat
Question 10. ___________my car broke down, I came home late yesterday.
A. Since B. while C. For D. With
Question 11. ___________I first met my girlfriend.
A. It was in London that B. It was in London where
C. It was London that D. It was London which
Question 12. Last weekend, my family went to the cinema together. We chose a(an) ___________to see.
A. new interesting film B. film interesting new
C. interesting film new D. interesting new film
Question 13. He has been very interested in doing research on___________since he was at high school.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 14. The match will be televised___________ on VTV 3 tonight.
A. live B. lived C. lively D. living
Question 15. The students are conducting a major___________.
A. exam B. experiment C. test D. experience
Question 16. “The suitcase isn’t too heavy, is it?” “No, it’s as light as___________.”
A. dust B. lightning C. a feather D. a fish
Question 17. “Have you heard about the Welshman, the Irishman and a pig?” “Yes, we have. That joke’s as
old as___________.”
A. Solomon B. the hills C. a dinosaur D. Jupiter
Question 18. I applied for the job but was___________.
A. taken away B. got over C. turned down D. turned off
Question 19. If anyone drops by while I am away, please take a message from him
A. drops B. while C. take D. him
Question 20. The fire began in the tenth floor of the block of flat, but it soon spread to other floors.
A. in B. tenth C. of D. soon spread
Question 21. The strong progress in poverty reduction and sharing prosperity that took place over the first
decade of the 2000s is at risk because of the global slowdown in growth.
A. reduction B. sharing C. the first D. at risk
Question 22. “Shall I make you a cup of milk?” the mother said to the son.
A. The mother wanted to make a cup of milk for the son.
B. The mother was asked to make a cup of milk for the son.
C. The mother promised to make a cup of milk for the son.
D. The mother offered to make a cup of milk for the son.
Question 23. The only student who failed the exam was Finet.
A. Together with other students, Finet failed the exam.
B. Everyone passed the exam.
C. Everyone, apart from Finet, failed the exam.
D. With the exception of Finet, everyone passed the exam.
Question 24. She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back.
A. Hardly she puts the phone down when her boss rang back.
B. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly did she put the phone down than her boss rang back.
D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back.
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 25. Her explanation was clear. I didn’t understand it.
A. Despite of her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
B. Despite her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
C. Despite the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear.
D. In spite of the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear
Question 26. Dan is able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people. It is because his
Vietnamese wife helps him.
A. If only Dan were able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people.
B. If it weren’t for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t make English instruction videos for Vietnamese
people.
C. Without his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for Vietnamese
people.
D. But for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for Vietnamese
people.
Question 27. Two students are discussing their previous English class.
- Student 1. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises.”
- Student 2. “___________”
A. Yes, let’s B. Ok
C. That’s rubbish D. That’s what I was thinking
Question 28. Eden and Edward are chatting after work. Eden suggests eating out.
- Eden. “Shall we eat out tonight?”
- Edward. ___________!”
A. That’s all right B. That’s a great idea
C. It is very kind of you. D. You are very welcome.
Question 29. People are not aware of the problem of overpopulation.
A. incident B. issue C. trouble D. case
Question 30. He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. frightens me B. cheers me C. irritates me D. surprises me
Question 31. In this world, emotion has become suspect- the accepted style is smooth, antiseptic and
passionless.
A. soft B. agitated C. silky D. easy
Question 32. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. free from C. relaxed about D. interested in
Is it worth reading books, (33) ___________ nowadays there are so many other forms of entertainment? Some
people say that even paperback books are expensive, and not everyone can borrow books from a library. They
might add that television is more exciting and that viewers can relax as they watch their favourite (34)
___________. All that may be true, but books are still very popular. They encourage the reader to use his or
her imagination for a start. You can read a chapter of a book, or just a few pages, and then stop. Of course, it
may be so (35) ___________that you can't stop! There are many different kinds of books, so you can choose
a crime novel or an autobiography, or a book (36) ___________gives you interesting information. If you find
it hard to choose, you can read reviews, or ask friends for ideas. Personally, I can't do without books, but I can
(37) ___________up television easily enough. You can't watch television at bus stops!
Question 33. A. in B. or C. why D. since
Question 34. A. ones B. programmes C. episodes D. cereals
Question 35. A. current B. imagined C. interest D. gripping
Question 36. A. whose B. which C. what D. when
Question 37. A. pick B. look C. give D. turn
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world's universities, came from a very
inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at
Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than
100 graduates of England's prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in
the New World were determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they
themselves had had. Because of this support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General
Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year
decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed
Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestown, died from
tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact
that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in
appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today's
standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the
college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition to
serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshman class of four students. Although
the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the
president and three or four tutors.
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
Question 39. The pronoun "they" in the second paragraph refers to___________
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates
C. the Puritan sons D. educational opportunities
Question 40. The word "somewhat" in the last paragraph could best be replaced by___________
A. to and fro B. back and forth C. side by side D. more or less
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of B. where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Question 42. The passage implies that___________
A. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B. someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. the position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early years
Psychologists who study information processing have identified and described several memory structures that
clarify how our memory works. They include the sensory register, short-term memory, and long-term memory.
Each structure varies as to how much information it can hold and for how long.
A description of how human process information typically begins with environmental stimuli. Our sense
receptors are constantly stimulated by visual, auditory, tactile, olfactory, and gustatory stimuli. These
experiences are initially recorded in the sensory register, so named because information is thought to be
encoded there in the same form in which it was perceived. The purpose of the sensory register is to hold
information for one to three seconds. Information not recognized or otherwise selected by us disappears from
the system. The sensory register can hold about twelve items of information at a time. Typists make extensive
use of the sensory register in order to remember words just long enough to get them typed. If no further
processing takes place, a typist’s ability to recall that information later is minimal. Similarly, most of us have
had the experience of reading an entire page of text, only to discover when we got to the bottom of the page,
we couldn’t say anything about it except that we had indeed “read” every word.
Once information has been recognized as meaningful, it is sent to short-term memory. In this case, short-term
is approximately 20 seconds, while this may seem surprising, it can be easily demonstrated. If you were asked
to dial an unfamiliar phone number, received a busy signal, and were then distracted by something or someone
else for 15 to 20 seconds, chances are you would have forgotten the number at that point. Short-term memory
is often referred to as “working” memory.
Most cognitive psychologists believe that the storage capacity of long-term memory is unlimited and contains
a permanent record of everything an individual has learned and experienced. Information is encoded there to
enhance its meaningfulness and organization so that it can be easily retrieved when necessary.
Question 43. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to explain how our memory processes information.
B. to describe the sensory register.
C. to explain why we sometimes forget information.
D. to compare short-term and long-term memory.
Question 44. The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. information C. memory structures D. environmental stimuli
Question 45. The word “stimuli” in lines 4 and 5 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. objects or events that activate our memory
B. objects we consider attractive
C. things that help us to later recall what happened
D. situations in which we experience emotions
Question 46. According to the passage, typists are unable to recall information they type if___________.
A. they are tired
B. they are distracted by something or someone
C. they have too much work to be able to process it all
D. they do not recognize it as meaningful enough to remember
Question 47. The word “minimal” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to___________.
A. very big B. very good C. very pretty D. very small
Question 48. According to the passage, which type of information is sent to short-term memory?
A. Information we need for three seconds or less.
B. Information that surprises us.
C. Information that is relevant to us.
D. Environmental stimuli we do not perceive.
Question 49. It can be inferred that short-term memory is called “working” memory
because___________.
A. we use it extensively when we are working
B. it holds information we are working on at a given moment
C. it is very difficult to use effectively
D. we must work hard to retrieve information from it.
Question 50. which of the following would we most easily retrieve from long-term memory?
A. A wrong telephone number we dialed.
B. The face of a stranger on the street.
C. The birth date of our children
D. Voices from the television in the background
SỞ GD & ĐT GIA LAI ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BÀI THI: NGOẠI NGỮ; MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
HÙNG VƯƠNG Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mã đề thi 002
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. formed B. ranged C. failed D. backed
Question 2: A. bought B. caught C. drought D. sought
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. dental B. sandal C. rental D. canal
Question 4: A. biology B. scientific C. geography D. activity
questions.
Question 5: Of the two landscapes that you have shown me, this one is ________.
A. the more picturesque B. the most picturesque C. picturesque D. by far picturesque
Question 6: In my opinion, we shouldn't speak to the media at all before the most basic facts concerning
the explosion ________ established.
A. being B. will have been C. were D. have been
Question 7: There has not been a great response to the sale, ________?
A. hasn't there B. does there C. hasn't it D. has there
Question 8: ________, he began to make friends more easily.
A. Having entered school in the new city, it was found that
B. After entering the new school
C. When he had been entering the new school
D. Upon entering into the new school
Question 9: We thanked the hosts for their generous ________ and got under way.
A. hospitality B. hospitable C. hospitably D. hospitalize
Question 10: The scandal ruined his ________ and he never worked in the stock market again.
A. work B. career C. job D. profession
Question 11: In 1919, Sir Reginald Fleming Johnston was ________ as a tutor to Puyi, who was the
last emperor of China.
A. taken on B. brought about C. caught out D. kept in
Question 12: Although the queen of UK has in fact little authority of her own, she ________ informed
of events, and sometimes, she ________ by the government.
A. keeps - has consulted B. can be kept – should consult
C. is kept - is consulted D. will keep - was consulted
Question 13: It was hard to ________ the temptation to watch the late night show even though I was so tired.
A. resist B. defy C. refuse D. oppose
Question 14: There was a _______ on board the Bounty and the crew put the captain in a lifeboat and set
it drift.
A. insurrection B. rebellion C. mutiny D. revolution
Question 15: When his boss dismissed him from his job, he ________ there for 10 years.
A. worked B. was working C. had been working D. has been working
Question 16: Laboratory tests carried ________ by three independent teams of experts have given
similar results.
A. about B. out C. forth D. up
Question 17: Scientifically-minded people generally believe in cause-and-effect relationships ________ they
feel there is a perfect natural explanation for most things.
A. because B. because of C. though D. in spite of
Question 18: It is a ________.
A. blue sleeping polyester bag B. polyester sleeping blue bag
C. blue polyester sleeping bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 19: It was an act of considerable bravery, way beyond the call of duty, and we will forever be in his
________.
A. help B. debit C. bill D. debt
Mark the letter. A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 20: These machines are older models and have to be operated by hand.
A. spiritually B. manually C. automatically D. mechanically
Question 21: If your smartphone rings in class, it will be very annoying and disruptive.
A. supportive B. interruptive C. discouraging D. confusing
Question 22: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding
exactly which four comics she was going to buy.
A. limited B. excessive C. required D. abundant
Question 23: One of the country's legendary tenor saxophone players, his name might not ring a bell for those
who are not in tune with Jazz in India, but he deserves to be remembered.
A. sound strange B. sound familiar C. be famous D. be announced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
Question 24: Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
- Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.”
- Bob: “__________”
A. She's out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I'm raking in money now. D. Could I chip in?
Question 25: Bill and Jerry are in a coffee shop.
- Bill: “Can I get you another drink?”
- Jerry: “_________”
A. Not just now B. No, it isn't C. No, I'll think it over D. Forget it
Many of the major supermarket chains have come under fire with accusations of various unethical acts over
the past decade. They've wasted tons of food, they've underpaid their suppliers and they've contributed to
excessive plastic waste in their packaging, which has had its impact on our environment.
But supermarkets and grocers are starting to sit up and take notice. In response to growing
consumer backlash against the huge amounts of plastic waste generated by plastic packaging, some of the
largest UK supermarkets have signed up to a pact promising to transform packaging and cut plastic wastage.
In a pledge to reuse, recycle or compost all plastic wastage by 2025, supermarkets are now beginning to take
some responsibility for the part they play in contributing to the damage to our environment with one
major supermarket announcing their plan to eliminate all plastic packaging in their own-brand products by
2023.
In response to criticisms over food waste, some supermarkets are donating some of their food surplus.
However, charities estimate that they are only accessing two per cent of supermarkets' total food surplus,
so this hardly seems to be solving the problem. Some say that supermarkets are simply not doing enough.
Most supermarkets operate under a veil of secrecy when asked for exact figures of food wastage, and
without more transparency it is hard to come up with a systematic approach to avoiding waste and to
redistributing surplus food.
Some smaller companies are now taking matters into their own hands and offering consumers a
greener, more environmentally friendly option. Shops like Berlin's Original Unverpakt and London's Bulk
Market are plastic- tree shops that have opened in recent years, encouraging customers to use their own
containers or compostable bags. Online grocery Farmdrop eliminates the need for large warehouses and the
risk of huge food surplus by delivering fresh produce from local farmers to its customers on a daily basis via
electric cars, offering farmers the lion's share of the retail price.
There is no doubt that we still have a long way to go in reducing food waste and plastic waste. But perhaps
the major supermarkets might take inspiration from these smaller grocers and gradually move towards a more
sustainable future for us all.
(Adapted from https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org)
Question 26: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Major Supermarket Chains B. Grocers vs. Supermarkets
C. Sustainable Supermarkets D. Friendly Supermarkets
Question 27: According to paragraph 2, more and more people want supermarkets to _______.
A. compost all plastic wastage B. donate some of their food surplus
C. reduce their plastic waste D. lower their prices for local farmers
Question 28: The word "backlash” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. agreement B. request C. reaction D. benefit
Question 29: The phrase "the lion's share" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. the largest part B. the best choice C. the animal's food D. the royal dish
Question 30: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Supermarkets are not telling people how much food they are actually wasting.
B. There is a grocer in Berlin that doesn't allow customers to use their own containers.
C. Supermarkets are still denying that plastic packaging can cause damage to our environment.
D. Farmdrop stores large amounts of food and produces unnecessary waste.
SPOILT FOR CHOICE
Choice, we are given to believe, is a right. In daily life, people have come to expect endless situations about
which they are required to make decisions one way or another. In the (31) _______, these are just irksome
moments at work which demand some extra energy or brainpower, or during lunch breaks like choosing which
type of coffee to order or indeed (32) _______ coffee shop to go to. But sometimes selecting one option as
(33) ______ another can have serious or lifelong repercussions. More complex decision-making is then either
avoided, postponed, or put into the hands of the army of professionals, lifestyle coaches, lawyers, advisors,
and the like, waiting to (34) ______ the emotional burden for a fee. (35) ______ for a good many people in
the world, in rich and poor countries, choice is a luxury, not a right. And for those who think they are exercising
their right to make choices, the whole system is merely an illusion, created by companies and advertisers
wanting to sell their wares.
(Adapted from Improve Yourself Reading Skill by Sam Mc Carter)
Question 31: A. nutshell B. main C. general D. whole
Question 32: A. which B. what C. where D. when
Question 33: A. opposed to B. aimed at C. involved in D. led to
Question 34: A. strengthen B. lighten C. soften D. weaken
Question 35: A. But B. Therefore C. Moreover D. However
Geothermal energy offers enormous potential for direct, low-temperature applications. Unlike
indirect applications, this new technology relies on the Earth's natural thermal energy to heat or cool a house
or multifamily dwelling directly without the need to convert steam or other high-temperature fluids
into electricity, using expensive equipment.
A geothermal system consists of a heat pump and exchanger plus a series of pipes, called a loop,
installed below the surface of the ground or submerged in a pond or lake. Fluid circulating in the loop is
warmed and carries heat to the home. The heat pump and exchanger use an electrically powered vapor-
compression cycle - the same principle employed in a refrigerator - to concentrate the energy and to transfer
it. The concentrated geothermal energy is released inside the home at a higher temperature, and fans then
distribute the heat to various rooms through a system of air ducts. In summer, the process is reversed: excess
heat is drawn from the home, expelled to the loop, and absorbed by the Earth.
Geothermal systems are more effective than conventional heat pumps that use the outdoor air as their
heat source (on cold days) or heat sink (on warm days) because geothermal systems draw heat from a
source whose temperature is more constant than that of air. The temperature of the ground or groundwater a
few feet beneath the Earth's surface remains relatively stable – between 45°F and 70°F. In winter, it is
much easier to capture heat from the soil at a moderate 50°F than from the atmosphere when the air
temperature is below zero. Conversely. in summer, the relatively cool ground absorbs a home's waste heat
more readily than the warm outdoor air.
The use of geothermal energy through heat-pump technology has almost no adverse
environmental consequences and offers several advantages over conventional energy sources. Direct
geothermal applications are usually no more disruptive to the surrounding environment than a normal water
well. Additionally, while such systems require electricity to concentrate and distribute the energy collected,
they actually reduce total energy consumption by one-fourth to two-thirds, depending on the technology
used. For each 1,000 homes with geothermal heat pumps, an electric utility can avoid the installation of 2 to
5 megawatts of generating capacity. Unfortunately, only a modest part of the potential of this use
for geothermal energy has been developed because the service industry is small and the price of
competing energy sources is low.
(Adapted from Teach Yourself Toefl, Macmillan)
Question 36: What does this passage discuss mainly?
A. The possibility of using geothermal energy to make electricity
B. The use of geothermal energy for home heating and cooling
C. The technical challenges posed by geothermal energy
D. The importance of conserving nonrenewable energy sources
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is not a difference between
indirect geothermal technology and direct applications?
A. Converting energy to electricity B. The use of high-temperature fluids
C. A need for expensive equipment D. Reliance on geothermal energy
Question 38: The word “submerged” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. hid completely B. put under water C. floated about D. removed
gradually
Question 39: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. heat B. energy
C. refrigerator D. vapor-compression cycle
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, the new technology is more effective than a conventional heat pump
because ________.
A. heat is brought into a home during the winter and expelled during the summer
B. soil and groundwater temperatures fluctuate less than air temperatures
C. ground temperature is close to groundwater temperature year-round
D. cold air absorbs less heat than warm air
Question 41: The word "adverse” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. harmful B. unsuccessful C. auspicious D. advantageous
Question 42: The passage implies that a rise in cost of conventional energy would have what effect?
A. A decrease in cost for geothermal heating and cooling
B. An expanded reliance on direct geothermal technology
C. A shift toward the use of conventional energy sources
D. A decrease in the number of homes using geothermal heating
Question 43: "Sorry, we're late. It took us ages to look for a parking place” said John.
A. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late.
B. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place.
C. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place.
D. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place.
Question 44: It wasn't obligatory to submit my assignment today.
A. My assignment was required to submit by today. B. I needn't have submitted my assignment today.
C. My assignment must have been submitted today. D. I mustn't submit my assignment today.
Question 45: It was so hot on the bus that Marcia thought she was going to faint.
A. Marcia was on the point of fainting because it was so hot on the bus.
B. The bus was so hot that Marcia felt fainted.
C. Marcia nearly fainted because of the heating of the bus.
D. As soon as the bus got hot that Marcia fainted.
Question 46: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial
cities today.
A. with B. are C. many D. in our large
Question 47: The Spring conference will be held in Milwaukee on three successive days, namely May 15, 16,
and 17.
A. will be held B. in C. successive D. namely
Question 48: Wine tends to be lost its flavour when it has not been properly sealed.
A. to be lost B. its flavor C. when D. been properly
sealed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 49: Seth informed us of his scholarship to study abroad. He did it when arriving at the school.
A. Not until Seth said to us that he would get his scholarship did he turn up at the school.
B. Only after his scholarship to study abroad did Seth tell us about his arrival at the school.
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his scholarship to study abroad when he arrived at the school.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the school than we were told about his scholarship to study abroad.
Question 50: Viet Nam has amended requirements for high-tech businesses. This will lure more foreign
investment.
A. Viet Nam, which has amended requirements for high-tech businesses, will lure more foreign investment.
B. Viet Nam has amended requirements for high-tech businesses which will lure more foreign investment.
C. Viet Nam has amended requirements for high-tech businesses, which will lure more foreign investment.
D. Viet Nam, which will lure more foreign investment, has amended requirements for high-tech businesses.
------THE END------

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. grows B. tends C. roars D. sweeps
Question 2. A. performed B. finished C. interviewed D. delivered
Question 3. A. justice B. struggle C. neglect D. wildlife
Question 4. A. eradicate B. unexpected C. accompany D. commitment
questions.
Question 5. We___________in silence when he suddenly___________me to help him.
A. walked - was asking B. were walking - asked
C. were walking - was asking D. walked - asked
Question 6. I don’t know why John always refuses___________me in person.
A. to meet B. meeting C. met D. to meeting
Question 7. It___________Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.
A. should have been B. must have been C. can’t have been D. needn’t have been
Question 8. At one time the entire world___________by dinosaurs.
A. has ruled B. was ruled C. will be ruled D. was ruling
Question 9. I asked Martha___________to enter law school.
A. are you planning B. is she planning C. was she planning D. if she was planning
Question 10. Extinction means a situation___________a plan, an animal or a way of life etc ...stops existing.
A. to which B. in which C. on which D. for which
Question 11. ___________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 12. Let’s begin our discussion now, ___________?
A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 13. The more___________and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confidence B. confident C. confide D. confidently
Question 14. Mr. Pike is certainly a___________writer; he has written quite a few books this year.
A. prolific B. fruitful C. fertile D. successful
Question 15. The 1st week of classes at university is a little___________because so many students get lost,
change classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. arranged C. chaotic D. notorious
Question 16. Due to the computer malfunction, all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all the
calculations from___________.
A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch
Question 17. The players’ protests___________no difference to the referees decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 18. Although he is my friend, I___________find it hard to his selfishness.
A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down with
Mark A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 19. A number of wild horses on Assateague is increasing, resulting in overgrazed marsh and dune
grasses.
A. A B. is C. resulting D. grasses
Question 20. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected changing their reservations
and proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. are C. changing D. proceed
Question 21. Although the Red cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurse will not let you to give blood
if you have just had cold.
A. accepts B. let C. to give D. have just had cold.
Question 22. “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John.
A. John was reminded to train harder so as not to be dropped from the team.
B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
C. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to be dropped from the team.
D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trained harder.
Question 23. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message.
B. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message.
D. Joanna can’t have received my message.
Question 24. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
C. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
Question 25. Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.
Question 26. Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the
meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.
Question 27. A mother is complaining to her son that his room gets dusty.
- Mother: “Haven’t you tidied up your room yet?”
- Son: “___________”
A. I will, after I do all the exercises in my textbook.
B. I am tired with my tidying.
C. The more I tidy, the worse it gets.
D. Why don’t you give me a hand with cleaning?
Question 28. Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one roof.
Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can help one
another.”
Janet: “___________. Many old-aged parents like to lead independent life in a nursing home.”
A. It’s nice to hear that B. Me, too.
C. I agree with you completely D. That’s not true
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
Question 29. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all long day B. day after day C. all day long D. the long day
Question 30.I just want to stay at home and watch TV and take it easy.
A. relax B. sit down C. sleep D. eat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 31. In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is obliged
to tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.
A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested
Question 32. Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system,
he just made light of it.
A. completely ignored B. treated as important
C. disagreed with D. discovered by chance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
CYBERFASHION
Most of us own modern gadgets such as mobile phones, or digital cameras. We may carry them round in our
pockets, or attach them to our bodies. But not for much longer! So far designers have succeeded in (33)
___________tiny bits of technology directly into our clothing.
In actual fact “cyberfashion” is the latest trend! One example, the Musical Jacket, is already in the shops and
stores. This jacket is silk. It is (34) ___________by a keyboard, also manufactured from fabric, which is
connected to a tiny device (35) ___________plays music.
At present, you have to touch a shoulder pad to hear the music. But in the future, you will be able to operate
the device just by turning your wrist or walking! For many athletes, scientists have invented a smart shirt
which measures your heart rate, body temperature and respiration rate! (36) ___________, the most romantic
piece of cyberfashion must be the Heartthrob Brooch.
This item of jewelry, made from diamonds and rubies, has two miniature transmitters. They make the brooch
glow in time to the beating of its wearer's heart. If you meet someone (37) ___________, your heart will beat
faster - and your brooch will let everyone know how you feel!
Question 33. A. dividing B. associate C. combining D. integrating
Question 34. A. monitored B. examined C. controlled D. managed
Question 35. A. that B. what C. who D. when
Question 36. A. Although B. However C. Moreover D. While
Question 37. A. gorge B. gorgeously C. gorgeousness D. gorgeous
answer to each of the questions
Imagine the busy streets of New York City, an enormous place with millions of people. Everyday, the streets
are congested with people going about their daily lives. Now imagine a small robot in the middle of all of
those people rolling down a busy sidewalk. Most people would not even notice the ten-inch smiling robot,
called a Tweenbot, rolling along the street. This strange machine may interest some people, while others would
ignore it completely. A researcher interested in studying how helpful people really are uses such robots in her
experiments that take place on the streets of New York.
The Tweenbots experiment is the idea and creation of Kacie Kinzer. Kinzer's idea was to make a robot that
could navigate the city and reach its destination only if it was aided by pedestrians. Tweenbots rely on the
kindness of warm-hearted strangers. Made simply of cardboard, wheels, and a device to turn the wheels, the
Tweenbots face many dangers on the city streets. They could be run over by cars or smashed by careless kids.
Kinzer thought her little robots might even be seen as some kind of terrorist device. The only real protection
a Tweenbot has is its friendly smile. In addition to that, each of Kinzer’s robots is fitted with a flag that displays
instructions for the robot’s destination. The only way these robots will reach their final point is if someone
lends them a hand. Tweenbots are essentially a social experiment aimed at providing people a chance to show
how caring they are.
On a daily basis, people in New York City are often in a hurry to get around. However, the Tweenbots, through
their inability to look after themselves, took people out of their normal routines. The people who noticed the
helpless little robots were actually interested in helping the Tweenbots find their way home. Tweenbots move
at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line. If one was to get stuck, or was going in the wrong
direction, it would be up to strangers to free it or turn it in the right direction. Surprisingly, no Tweenbot was
lost or damaged, and each one arrived at its target in good condition. In fact, most people treated the robot in
a gentle manner, and some even treated it as though it were a small living being. Even if you were in a rush to
go somewhere, would you stop and help a Tweenbot successfully reach its destination?
Question 38. What is this reading about?
A. A place to buy robots B. A new kind of toy
C. An experiment D. An interesting idea for the future
Question 39. What is a Tweenbot?
A. A person from New York City B. A ten-inch smiling robot
C. A pedestrian D. A terrorist device
Question 40. The word “congested” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________
A. flocked B. secluded C. stuffed D. crowded
Question 41. How did a Tweenbot get to its final destination?
A. With the help of other Tweenbots.
B. With the help of kind pedestrians on the street
C. With the help of Kacie Kinzer.
D. With the help of other robots in New York City.
Question 42. which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Most Tweenbots arrived at their destination damaged or broken.
B. Most people treated the Tweenbots in a gentle manner.
C. Tweenbots could not navigate the city on their own.
D. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line.
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen - is at the very
heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also thoughts about
those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely to be ruled by them and
are thus better able to manage their emotions. Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does
it mean giving free rein to every feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have
popularized the notion of Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has
value and significance. As Goleman said, "A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality, cut
off and isolated from the richness of life itself." Thus, we manage our emotions by expressing them in an
appropriate manner. Emotions can also be managed by engaging in activities that cheer us up, soothe our
hurts, or reassure us when we feel anxious.
Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might think that
individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to manage
them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning to them - to
know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood. Psychologists have found that, among individuals
who experience intense emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign meaning to those feelings
predict differences in the ability to manage them. In other words, if two individuals are intensely angry, the
one who is better able to understand why he or she is angry will also be better able to manage the anger. Self-
motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get moving and pursue worthy
goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation to act on impulse. Resisting impulsive
behavior is, according to Goleman, "the root of all emotional self-control."
Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to persist in
working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether one is trying to build a
business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet. One researcher examined whether this trait can predict a
child's success in school. The study showed that 4-year-old children who can delay instant gratification in
order to advance toward some future goal will be "far superior as students" when they graduate from high
school than will 4-year-old who are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes.
Question 43. Which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?
A. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.
B. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.
C. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them.
D. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.
Question 44. The word "encompasses" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ___________
A. maintains B. includes C. entertains D. divides
Question 45. The word "soothe" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by___________.
A. reduce B. weaken C. worsen D. relieve
Question 46. From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman___________
A. trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence
B. treated patients who had emotional problems
C. wrote about Emotional Intelligence
D. studied how people manage their emotions
Question 47. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions
EXCEPT___________.
A. every feeling is important B. we can manage our emotions
C. emotions are part of a satisfying life D. we should ignore some feelings
Question 48. The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. individuals
C. individual differences D. intense emotions
Question 49. In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions
by___________.
A. describing how people learn to control their emotions
B. giving an example of why people get angry
C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion
D. explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions
Question 50. According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist impulses
because they can ___________.
A. easily understand new information
B. be more popular with their teachers
C. have more friends at school
D. focus on their work and not get distracted
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 1 NĂM 2021
BẮC GIANG Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi 406
MỤC TIÊU
tiếng Anh, Câu so sánh, Câu điều kiện, Câu tường thuật, Câu bị động, Các loại mệnh đề, Từ loại, Câu tường
thuật, Câu hỏi đuôi, Đảo ngữ, Sự hòa hợp chủ ngữ & động từ, Phối hợp thì,... và kiến thức từ vựng cấp THPT.
One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through
his highly inventive trilogy. The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from
Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo-Saxon and English
language and literature at Oxford University.
Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in
intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak
of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as
young people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien.
The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its success
as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as they try to
acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle
Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was
inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The
characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern
Europe.
Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy
with Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that
the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology
and legends about elves and their language.
Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of
work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today.
Question 1: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?
A. People dominated Middle Earth. B. Middle Earth was a fictional world.
C. The good and evil kingdom fought for power. D. Middle Earth was based on European folktales.
Question 2: The word "scrutinized” in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by ____________.
A. denied B. enjoyed C. criticized D. examined
Question 3: What does this paragraph mainly discuss?
A. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien. B. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor.
C. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books. D. J.R.R Tolkien and his trilogy.
Question 4: According to the passage, when did "the Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with
young people?
A. In 1892 B. In the late 1960s
C. After World War II D. Between 1936 and 1946
Question 5: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?
A. During World War I B. When he was a professor
C. When he was a student D. During World War II
Question 6: What does the word "trilogy" in the first paragraph mean?
A. A specific type of fantasy novel. B. A group of three literary books.
C. An unrelated group of books. D. A long novel.
Question 7: What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy?
A. Oxford University. B. England in the 1800's.
C. Modern - day Greece. D. Middle Earth.
Question 8: The word "fascinating" in the second paragraph could be replaced by ____________.
A. thrilling B. boring C. terrifying D. extremely
interesting
Question 9: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of danger.
B. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.
C. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
D. Having been trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
Question 10: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.
B. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
C. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
D. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 11 to 12.
Question 11: A. suggest B. difficult C. industrial D. supply
Question 12: A. laughed B. checked C. weighed D. washed
Question 13: This film is interesting but the film we saw last week was more interesting.
A. The film we saw last week was more interesting as this one.
B. The film we saw last week was as interesting as this one.
C. The film we saw last week was less interesting than this one.
D. The film we saw last week was more interesting than this one.
Question 14: “I'm sorry I gave you the wrong number", said Paul to Susan.
A. Paul denied giving Susan the wrong number.
B. Paul apologized to Susan for giving the wrong number.
C. Paul accused Susan of giving him the wrong number.
D. Paul thanked to Susan for giving the wrong number.
Question 15: It was careless of you to leave the windows open last night.
A. You might have been careless because you left the windows open last night.
B. You shouldn't have left the windows open last night.
C. You shouldn't leave the windows open last night.
D. You are so careless that you left the windows open last night.
Question 16: I think it's impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to evaluate
students' progress.
A. organize B. extinguish C. continue D. stop
Question 17: They believe that life will be far better than it is today, so they tend to look on the bright side
in any circumstance.
A. be pessimistic B. be optimistic C. be smart D. be confident
Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the
economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people unemployed is
still relatively high, and the number of new career (18) _______ isn't nearly enough to put people in jobs they
are seeking. As a job seeker, you're competing with a high number of experienced workers (19) _______
have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking work. (20) _______, when you have a
higher education, it generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value
those who have completed college than those who have only completed high school and are more likely to
replace that person who hasn't (21) _______ a higher education. Furthermore, some companies even go so far
as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (22) _______ to be valuable to their organization.
A college education is an investment that doesn't just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits
the hiring company as well.
Question 18: A. activities B. responsibilities C. opportunities D. possibilities
Question 19: A. who B. where C. which D. whose
Question 20: A. Moreover B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. However
Question 21: A. refused B. received C. permitted D. applied
Question 22: A. unemployed B. employment C. employer D. employee
Question 23: If Tom __________ an alarm, the thieves wouldn't have broken into his house.
A. have installed B. installs C. installed D. had installed
Question 24: He is exhausted. He __________ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house before the
guests arrive.
A. has been running B. has run C. be running D. was running
Question 25: No one enjoys __________ in public.
A. being made fun of B. to make fun of C. to be made fun of D. making fun of
Question 26: __________ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn't know __________
exact number of them.
A. A/an B. The/the C. A/the D. The/an
Question 27: The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is willing and capable
__________ his financial situation.
A. in terms of B. regardless of C. owing to D. with reference to
Question 28: __________ the table, Mr. Robert called the family for support.
A. Being laid B. Having lying C. Having laid D. Have laid
Question 29: In 1959, the political philosopher Hannah Arendt became the first woman __________ as a full
professor at Princeton University.
A. to appoint B. who be appointed C. to be appointed D. was appointed
Question 30: __________ you like what I want to do or not, you won't make me change my mind.
A. If B. When C. Whatever D. Because
Question 31: Do you think doing the household chores is the __________ of women?
A. responsibility B. responsible C. responsive D. responsibly
Question 32: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our cultural
__________.
A. celebration B. identity C. assimilation D. solidarity
Question 33: Peter has a separate room for his musical __________.
A. instruments B. facilities C. tools D. equipment
Question 34: You will have to __________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. put aside B. call off C. back out D. cut down
Question 35: Ischaemic heart disease and stroke are the world's biggest killers, __________ for a
combined 15.2 million deaths in 2016.
A. calling B. applying C. caring D. accounting
Question 36: _________, Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the other hand B. On the contrary C. On my part D. On the whole
Rainforests
Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It's a special, dark place completely different from
anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of kinds of animals, insects, and
plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but sometimes
you don't know it's raining. The trees grow so closely together that rain doesn't always reach the ground.
Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth's surface, about six percent. They are found in
tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South America. The Amazon
covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The second largest rainforest is in Western
Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia, and the
Pacific Islands.
Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the "lungs of our planet"
because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen. One fifth of the world's freshwater is also found in
the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world's species of animals, plants, and insects live in the
Earth's rainforests. Eighty percent of the food we eat first grew in the rainforest. For example, pineapples,
bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from rainforests. Twenty-five percent
of the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests. Some of these drugs
are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get from rainforests, it's surprising to find
that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or 6,000 square meters, of rainforest disappear every
second. The forests are being cut down to make fields for cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for
farms. Along with losing countless valuable species, the destruction of rainforests creates many problems
worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world.
Question 37: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How much oxygen rainforests make. B. Facts about rainforests.
C. Where rainforests are located. D. Kinds of forests.'
Question 38: According to the passage, do rainforests provide humans all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Lung problems. B. Drugs used to fight and cure cancer.
C. Oxygen. D. Fresh water.
Question 39: The pronoun "They" in bold in the passage refers to ______.
A. trees. B. plants. C. rainforests. D. insects.
Question 40: Where would you find the largest rainforest in the world?
A. Northeastern Australia. B. Southeast Asia.
C. Western Africa. D. South America.
Question 41: The word "harvest" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. gather B. destroy C. reduce D. create
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 42 to 43.
Question 42: A. confide B. appeal C. tension D. reserve
Question 43: A. stimulate B. devastate C. sacrifice D. deliver
Question 44: The number of students attending universities to study economics have increased steadily
A. attending B. of students C. have D. economics
Question 45: Hardly did he enter the room when all the lights went out.
A. the lights B. did he enter C. went D. when
Question 46: I am not fond of reading fiction books as they are imaginable ones which are not real.
A. imaginable B. are C. as D. fond of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges from 47 to 48.
Question 47: Interviewer: "What sort of job are you looking for?" - Curtis: “_____________”
A. Oh, for me the most important is job satisfaction and I can have some work experience.
B. As a student, the most interesting thing about the job is working with people.
C. Well, I'm still in school, so I want something either in the evening or on the weekend.
D. No, I don't think so. I'd really prefer something outdoors.
Question 48: Peter: "Hi, David, do you think it's possible for you to have a talk sometime today?" - David:
"_____”
A. I wish I had been free yesterday to have time with you.
B. I'd love to, but I've got a pretty tight schedule today.
C. No more time for me. I have to work with my boss.
D. Excuse me; however, I'm so busy all day from morning.
Question 49: I'm becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.
A. being considerate of things B. often forgetting things
C. forgetful of one's past D. remembering to do right things
Question 50: Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.
A. the eldest child B. a beloved member
C. the only child D. a bad and embarrassing member
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
Question 1. A. heritage B. package C. passage D. teenage
Question 2. A. clothes B. bosses C. boxes D. couches
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. desert B. dessert C. centre D. circle
Question 4. A. medieval B. managerial C. mediocre D. magnificent
questions.
Question 5. Due to the economic unrest, people___________happy lately.
A. hadn’t been B. aren’t C. weren’t D. haven’t been
Question 6. Television can make things memorable for the reason that it presents information___________an
effective way.
A. over B. with C. in D. on
Question 7. ___________how confident you are, it is almost impossible not to be a little nervous
before an important exam.
A. No matter B. Even Though C. Not only D. whereas
Question 8. The Principal usually has his pupils___________waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collect B. having collected C. collected D. to collect
Question 9. Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ___________?
A. didn’t they B. does they C. did they D. doesn’t they
Question 10. Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with .
A. another B. the other C. other D. others
Question 11. ___________that Columbus discovered America.
A. It was in 1492 B. There was in 1492
C. In 1492 D. That was in 1492
Question 12. ___________be needed, the river basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should B. When hydroelectric power
C. Hydroelectric power D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 13. Most office furniture is bought more on the basis of___________than comfort.
A. afford B. affording C. afforded D. affordability
Question 14. Although our opinions on many things___________, we still maintain a good relationship
with each other.
A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate
Question 15. The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and
seriously___________.
A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged
Question 16. He enjoyed the dessert so much that he accepted the second___________when it was offered.
A. sharing B. helping C. pile D. load
Question 17. I’ve just been offered a new job! Things are___________.
A. clearing up B. making up C. looking up D. turning up
Question 18. Ihe children had to___________in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle D. face the music
Question 19. Mobility is one of the characteristics often demanded of executives, and they must accustom
themselves to move quite regularly.
A. Mobility B. characteristics C. of D. to move
Question 20. Every city in the United States has traffic problems because the amount of cars on American
streets and highways is increasing every year.
A. in the United States B. traffic
C. amount D. on American streets
Question 21. Parents’ choices for their children’s names is based on names of their relatives or ancestors.
A. choice B. their C. is based D. relatives
Question 22. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
Question 23. The problem was so complicated that the students couldn’t understand it.
A. It was such complicated problem that the students couldn’t understand.
B. The problem wasn’t simple enough for the students to understand it.
C. The problem was too complicated for the students to understand.
D. It was so complicated problems that the students couldn’t understand
Question 24. My American friend finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.
A. My American friend doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.
B. My American friend can’t find chopsticks to pick up food.
C. My American friend didn’t used to pick up food with chopsticks.
D. My American friend is not used to picking up food with chopsticks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 26. She fell over in the last minutes. She didn't win the race.
A. If she didn't fall over in the last minutes, she would win the race.
B. She didn't win the race even though she fell over in the last minutes
C. Not having won the race, she fell over in the last minutes
D. She could have won the race if she hadn't fallen over in the last minutes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
Question 27. Jenny: “Wow! what a nice coat you are wearing!”
Peter: “___________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. I like you to say that. D. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.
Question 28. Stranger. “Excuse me! Can you show me the way to Main Street, please?”
Man. “___________”
A. Continue. B. It’s easy to do it.
C. Um, I am sorry I have no idea. D. Am I going right?
Question 29. By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire family on as
little as 500.000 VND a week.
A. luxurious B. economical C. sensible D. miserable
Question 30. Gerry didn’t go on the expedition - he made up that part of the story.
A. invented B. narrated C. unfolded D. recounted
Question 31. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the
starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with backbones B. with ribs C. without ribs D. without backbones
Question 32. If you say bad things about the person who give a job you bite the hand that feeds you.
A. be unfriendly B. be ungrateful C. be thankful D. be devoted
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
(33) ___________in technology have made a lot of changes to our everyday lifestyles, but one of the
biggest has got to be how we read books. Since the invention of the e-book, there has been a significant change
to our reading habits. Given the choice between taking a couple of heavy paperbacks on holiday or an e-book
device like a Kindle, most of us, including our parents and grandparents, would unsurprisingly opt (34)
___________the Kindle.
But what would our lives be like with no books at all? It’s a (35) ___________question. Some educational
specialists are making predictions that in the future we wont even see books in classrooms - everything will
be done online! (36) ___________of the idea of getting rid of books say that there will always be a need for
paper-based versions of materials. However, to be realistic, we have to accept that there is a (37)
___________chance that in a decade’s time schools and classrooms will be book-free! what do you think of
that?
Question 33. A. Progression B. Successes C. Increases D. Advances
Question 34. A. of B. on C. for D. at
Question 35. A. special B. naughty C. funny D. tricky
Question 36. A. Alternatives B. Contestants C. Opponents D. Enemies
Question 37. A. remote B. far C. long D. distant
Bitcoins are a form of virtual currency. In other words, they are a type of money that does not exist in the
actual world. However, they can be used to purchase actual products and services from real companies.
The bitcoin system was created in 2009 by an enigmatic person named Satoshi Nakamoto. In fact, no one is
sure if Satoshi Nakamoto is an actual person or a group of people. Bitcoins are designed to serve as an
alternative to national currencies, such as dollars and euros. They can be used to pay for things instead of cash
or credit cards, when bitcoins are transferred from a buyer to a seller, the transaction is recorded in a public
database.
Governments are concerned that bitcoins can easily be stolen by hackers. It has dawned on them that they
might be used for illegal purposes. For example, stolen goods could be purchased without the government’s
knowledge. Although more and more companies are beginning to accept bitcoins, the percentage of purchases
made using bitcoins is minuscule compared to other online payment methods, such as credit cards. Instead,
many bitcoin owners simply keep them as an investment since more valuable in the future. This may or may
not be a wise approach. Currently, the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly, especially when compared to
highly stable national currencies, Bitcoin Investors are gambling on the hope that as this high-tech money
becomes more widely accepted, its value will soar.
(Adapted From, https.//www.digitalcommerce360.com/)
Question 38. What is the passage mainly about?
A. A new kind of currency in the virtual world
B. A way of doing business in the virtual world
C. An alternative to bitcoins created by Nakamoto
D. The future of bitcoins in the real world.
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to___________
A. dollars B. euros C. things D. bitcoins
Question 40. The word “minuscule” is closest in meaning to___________
A. considerable B. small C. minimal D. increasing
Question 41. Why are bitcoins of great concern to governments?
A. Because the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly.
B. Because bitcoins will eventually replace national currencies.
C. Because bitcoins may be used in illegal transactions.
D. Because most of bitcoin owners are hackers.
Question 42. Which of the following is defined in the passage?
A. Bitcoins B. Transactions C. Credit cards D. Public Database
answer to each of the following questions.
WHY DON’T YOU GET A PROPER JOB?
She wants to be a singer; you think she should go for a long-term career with job security and eventually retire
with a good pension. But a new report suggests that in fact she’s the practical one. Why do parents make
terrible careers advisers?
Today’s 14 and 15-year-olds are ambitious. They are optimistic about their prospects, but their career ideas
are rather vague. Although 80% of them have no intention of following in their parents’ footsteps, 69% still
turn to their parents for advice. They look at their working future in a different way to their parents.
A job for life is not in their vocabulary; neither is a dead-end but secure job that is boring but pays the bills.
Almost half the boys surveyed expected that their hobbies would lead them into the right sort of job, while
most girls seemed determined to avoid traditionally female careers such as nursing.
In the past, this might have counted as bad news. Certainly when I was 15, my guidance counselors were
horrified at my plans to become a writer. I’m glad I didn’t change my plans to suit them. Even so, their faith
in rigid career paths was well-founded. In those days, that was the way to get ahead.
But the world has changed. The global economy is not kind to yesterday’s diligent and dependable workers.
The future belongs to quick-thinking people who are resourceful, ambitious and can take the initiative. This
means that a 14-year-old who sees her working future as a kind of adventure, to be made up as she goes along
is not necessarily being unrealistic.
However, she has to have the training and guidance to help her develop the right skills for today’s market; not
the rigid preparation for a workplace that disappeared twenty years ago.
Many young people are very aware of the pitfalls of the flexible workplace; they understand that redundancy,
downsizing and freelancing are all part of modern working life, but no one is telling them how they might be
able to turn the new rules of the employment game to their advantage. This is what they need to know if they
are to make a life for themselves.
So what is to be done? A good first step would be to change the way in which schools prepare young people
for adult life. The education system is becoming less flexible and more obsessed with traditional skills at just
the time that the employment market is going in the opposite direction.
Accurate, up-to-date information on new jobs and qualifications can help guidance counselors to help their
students. Young people need solid information on the sort of training they need to pursue the career of their
dreams. Also, a little bit of encouragement can go a long way. If nothing else, a bit of optimism from an adult
can serve as an antidote to the constant criticism of teenagers in the press.
What, then, can we as parents do to help them? The best thing is to forget all the advice that your parents gave
you, and step into your teenagers shoes. Once you’ve done that, it’s easier to see how important it is that they
learn how to be independent, resourceful and resilient. Give them the courage to follow their dreams -however
odd they might sound right now. In a world that offers economic security to almost no one, imagination is a
terrible thing to waste.
Question 43. What is the writer’s attitude to the changing job market?
A. It is a challenge that must be faced.
B. It had made too many people unemployed.
C. It is something that young people are afraid of.
D. It has had a negative effect on education.
Question 44. How does the writer think the global economy has affected the employment market?
A. Workers have to be willing to change jobs.
B. Workers are unlikely to receive a pension.
C. It has made workers less dependable.
D. It has made work more adventurous.
Question 45. The writer uses the phrase “aware of the pitfalls” to show that young people___________
A. feel that modern jobs are too flexible B. know about the problems of modern jobs
C. don’t think they get enough training D. accept that they will be made redundant
Question 46. What kind of employment would teenagers like to have?
A. A job similar to their parents. B. A job that gives them fulfillment.
C. A job that can also be a hobby. D. A job with economic security.
Question 47. The writer feels that most parents___________
A. give their children good career advice
B. do not tend to be particularly ambitious
C. have very traditional views about work
D. have realistic goals for their children
Question 48. How can parents help their children?
A. By trying to think the way they do B. By learning to be courageous
C. By ignoring advice given by others D. By becoming more independent
Question 49. what does the writer believe about her guidance counselors?
A. That they should have treated her better. B. That the advice they gave was wrong
C. That they were in some ways right. D. That they had tried to ruin her career.
Question 50. What does the writer feel will happen if the education system does not change?
A. Young people will be discouraged from working.
B. Young people will receive mover criticism in the press,
C. Young people will be unable to fulfill their potential.
D. Young people will not be optimistic about their future.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT THÁNG 4/2021
TỈNH YÊN BÁI Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề 013
MỤC TIÊU
tường thuật, Câu hỏi đuôi, Đảo ngữ, Sự hòa hợp chủ ngữ & động từ, Phối hợp thì,... và kiến thức từ vựng
cấp THPT.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the option the best completes the following
exchanges
Question 1: Jenny and Peter are talking about Peter's coat.
Jenny: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" – Peter: "___________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. Yes, of course. It's expensive. D. I like you to say that.
Question 2: Jenifer and Kathy are in the middle of their conversation.
Jenifer: "I believe that supermarkets are much better than traditional markets."
Kathy: “___________. Each has its own features."
A. I disagree with you B. That's completely true
C. I couldn't agree with you more D. I can't help thinking the same
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the corrected answer to each of the following
questions
Question 3: Not all the winners will receive great prizes, but nobody leaves ________.
A. empty-handed B. clear-handed C. white-handed D. blank-banded
Question 4: Michael returned to his hometown last summer, _______?
A. doesn't he B. didn't he C. won't he D. hasn't be
Question 5: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as ______.
A. a waterfall B. a mirror C. a bell D. a lake
Question 6: Football is by far ______ most popular sport in the world.
A. an B. the C. x D. a
Question 7: After marriage, Mrs. Hoa always keeps a good ______ with her mother-in-law.
A. relationship B. friendship C. relation D. association
Question 8: The first week of classes at university was a little ______ because so many students get
lost, change classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. disarranged C. famous D. chaotic
Question 9: Nam is motivated to study ______ he knows that a good education can improve his life.
A. because of B. in spite of C. because D. although
Question 10: If she ______ all the requirements for the job, she would be offered it.
A. will meet B. meets C. had met D. met
Question 11: ______ the terrible weather forecast, we decided not to travel.
A. To be heard B. Being heard C. To have heard D. Having heard
Question 12: When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. hold on B. catch on C. stand for D. take over
Question 13: We should participate in the movements ______ to conserve the natural environments.
A. organizing B. are organizing C. organized D. are organized
Question 14: He was offered the job thanks to his ______ performance during his job interview.
A. impression B. impressively C. impressive D. impress
Question 15: Vietnam ______ announcing a nationwide lockdown to fight COVID-19 on April 1, 2020.
A. will start B. started C. starts D. has started
Question 16: They were deeply shocked ______ her rebellious behavior.
A. for B. with C. to D. at
Question 17: Our father planned ______ to Da Nang for summer holiday.
A. go B. to go C. to going D. going
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a
growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the (18) ______ of species in a particular
ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the diversity of
terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated tropical rainforest habitats. Relatively
little has been said, (19) ______, about the diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are
comparable to rain forest in terms of richness of life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably (20) ______ priority to the planet's dominants – most
distinctive feature - the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land (21) ______ sometimes gets in the way of
truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that land masses occupy only one-third
of the Earth's surface. Given that two thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all
levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times (22) ______
than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer
distinct species.
(Adapted from: <https://goo. 91/GRvin7V>)
Question 18: A. number B. few C. each D. amount
Question 19: A. otherwise B. however C. moreover D. therefore
Question 20: A. give B. have C. bring D. make
Question 21: A. Who B. when C. that D. whose
Question 22: A. greater B. higher C. bigger D. larger
Question 23: Right after the boy got out of his house, it started to rain heavily.
A. No sooner had the boy got out of his house than it started to rain heavily.
B. Not until it started to rain heavily did the boy got out of his house.
C. Hardly had it started to rain heavily when the boy got out of his house.
D. It had rained heavily before the boy got out of his house.
Question 24: She has much money, so she can buy a big house in the city.
A. Unless she has much money, she can't buy a big house in the city.
B. If she had much money, she could buy a big house in the city.
C. If she had had much money, she could buy a big house in the city.
D. Without money, she couldn't buy a big house in the city.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 25: Until the invention of the telephone, skyscrapers were not considered very practicable.
A. considered B. invention C. practicable D. skyscrapers
Question 26: Children love playing in the mud, to run through the paddles, and getting very dirty.
A. dirty B. to run C. playing D. paddles
Question 27: Each nurse report to the operating room when his or her name is called.
A. when B. is called C. report D. operating
Question 28: Mai is less beautiful than her mother.
A. Mai is more beautiful than her mother. B. Mai's mother is not as beautiful as her.
C. Mai's mother is less beautiful than her. D. Mai is not as beautiful as her mother.
Question 29: "I'll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport”, he said to me.
A. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
B. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
C. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport.
D. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
Question 30: It is possible that Hoa didn't hear her name being called.
A. Hoa might not have heard them call her name. B. Hoa needn't have heard them call her name.
C. Hoa should not have heard them call her name. D. Hoa can't have heard them call her name.
Question 31: A. electric B. eternal C. opponent D. personal
Question 32: A. appeal B. confide C. reserve D. happen
There was a man who had four sons. He wanted his sons to learn not to judge things too quickly. So he sent
them each on a quest, in turn, to go and look at a pear tree that was a great distance away. The first son went
in the winter, the second in the spring, the third in summer, and the youngest son in the fall. When they had
all gone and come back, he called them together to describe what they had seen.
The first son said that the tree was ugly, bent, and twisted. The second son said no - it was covered with
green buds and full of promise. The third son disagreed, he said it was laden with blossoms that smelled
so sweet and looked so beautiful, it was the most graceful thing he had ever seen. The last son disagreed
with all of them; he said it was ripe and drooping with fruit, full of life and fulfilment.
The man then explained to his sons that they were all right, because they had each seen but one season
in the tree's life. He told them that you cannot judge a tree, or a person, by only one season, and that the essence
of who they are - and the pleasure, joy, and love that come from that life- can only be measured at the end,
when all the seasons are up. If you give up when it's winter, you will miss the promise of your spring, the
beauty of your summer, the fulfillment of your fall.
Don't judge a life by one difficult season. Don't let the pain of one season destroy the joy of all the rest.
(Adapted from https://www.beliefner.com)
Question 33: According to paragraph 4, what is the lesson the father wanted to import to his children?
A. Moral lessons can come from the most unexpected and ordinary things
B. No matter what season it is outside, you always have to cherish it.
C. The old age of humans is similar to the winter of nature.
D. Persevere through the difficulties and better times are sure to come sometime sooner or later.
Question 34: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. the pleasure, joy and love B. green buds
C. the four sons D. trees, people
Question 35: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Father and Four Sons B. The Observation of a Tree
C. The Seasons of Life D. Love all the Seasons in a Year
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, what did the second son see in his turn?
A. The tree was blossoming and gave off a sweet scent.
B. The tree was bountifully fruitful, brimming with life force.
C. The tree was in buds and teeming with vigor.
D. The tree was gloomy, withered and crooked.
Question 37: The word "laden" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. decorated B. given C. enhanced D. loaded
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 38: The use of lasers in surge has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost
Question 39: Efforts by the company to prove its productivity were hampered by lack of funds.
A. encouraged B. assisted C. endangered D. prevented
Question 40: It was obvious that the deal was no longer tenable so we kicked it into touch.
A. mention it B. forgot it C. approved it D. measure it
Question 41: Her physical condition was not an impediment to her career as a singer. She has won a lot
of prizes.
A. obstacle B. barrier C. advantage D. disadvantage
Question 42: A. engaged B. decided C. appeared D. threatened
Question 43: A. funny B. student C. rubbish D. upper
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent how
far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many positive things come
from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss and present data on the implications
of urbanization on the physical health of humans living in these large urban areas.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects
than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing
these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian based
society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for
more centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity.
This is what is known as urbanization. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an
industrial based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within its
borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These migrations are
typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this large influx in the
urban population, there are many possibilities for health challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution.
Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This could include particulate
matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane
(which are also products of plants and refineries as well as cars and other modes of transportation). Due to a
vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions
can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease, and different
types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of
time, one can experience even more detrimental health effects like the acceleration of aging, loss of lung
capacity and health, being more susceptible to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations' health is people's change in diet. For instance, urban
cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely not as high
quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend
to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart
disease, obesity, or many other health conditions.
(Adapted from https://medium.com)
Question 44: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT ______.
A. chemicals B. industrial C. factories sewage D. refineries waste
Question 45: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in
urban cities.
B. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries.
C. Living in urban areas for a long time will shorten the life expectancy of inhabitants.
D. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those
in developing nations.
Question 46: What does the phrase "these problems" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. industrialized countries B. negative physical health effects
C. lots of jobs and living spaces D. immigrants
Question 47: Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last paragraph?
A. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
B. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
C. Because of the change in people's diet.
D. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
Question 48: The word "detrimental" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. beneficial B. positive C. harmful D. dangerous
Question 49: The word "congested" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sparse B. overcrowded C. fresh D. contaminated
Question 50: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urban cities - The new opportunity for community development
B. Urbanization - Pros and cons
C. Developing countries - The fastest urbanization
D. Urbanization - How people's health is impacted
-----THE END----
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. scholarship B. architect C. cherish D. chorus
Question 2. A. honest B. honor C. vehicle D. height
Question 3. A. private B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4. A. policeman B. eyewitness C. copyright D. dressmaker
questions.
Question 5. Our line of designer clothing is more expensive than____________ of our competitor.
A. this B. those C. that D. their
Question 6. The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm____________.
A. was breaking B. would break C. had broken D. broke
Question 7. It____________that neither the passengers nor the driver was injured in the crash
A. was announced B. is announcing C. is announced D. was announcing
Question 8. After____________goodbye to her friends, she got onto the bus.
A. to be said B. being said C. having said D. said
Question 9. It’s high time we____________these mice.
A. are getting rid of B. are going to get rid of
C. get rid of D. got rid of
Question 10. The lady____________design had been chosen stepped to the platform to receive
the award.
A. whom B. whose C. that D. which
Question 11. Professor Smith explained the lecture slowly____________.
A. as soon as his students understood it clearly
B. so that his students can understand it clearly
C. unless his students fail to understand it clearly
D. so that his students could understand it clearly
Question 12. Put all the toys away____________someone slips and falls on them.
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. so long as
Question 13. The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were____________of teachers.
A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting
Question 14. Some____________animals become tame if they get used to people.
A. wild B. domestic C. endangered D. rare
Question 15. She made a big____________about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. complaint C. interest D. excitement
Question 16. After the robbery of the bank, the police____________of the robbers and arrested
the whole band.
A. kept pace B. took notice C. made use D. kept track
Question 17. After a good nights sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as____________and eager to
start work again.
A. fruit B. a daisy C. a kitten D. a maiden
Question 18. Bill seems unhappy about his job because he doesn’t get____________ his boss.
A. up to B. on for C. on well with D. in with
Question 19. If I wasn’t been wearing the seatbelt, I’d have been seriously injured.
A. wasn’t B. wearing C. I’d D. seriously injured
Question 20. The receptionist said I must fill in that form before I attended the interview.
A. The B. I must C. that form D. attended
Question 21. They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them some
challenges.
A. about B. training not only C. giving D. some changes
Question 22. Mary exclaimed that the singer’s voice was so sweet.
A. “How sweet is the singer’s voice?” said Mary.
B. “What a sweet voice the singer has” said Mary.
C. “How sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
D. “What a sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
Question 23. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
A. But for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
B. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
C. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
D. He wouldn’t have survived the operation if it hadn’t been for skillful surgery.
Question 24. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
B. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
Question 25. Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance
A. However much Laura practiced playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
B. As soon as Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better
C . Had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
D. Hardly had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
Question 26. The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are operating on
him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
Question 27. Bill and Jerry are in a coffee shop.
- Bill: “Can I get you another drink.”
- Jerry: “____________”
A. No, it isn’t B. Not just now C. No, I’ll think it over D. Forget it
Question 28. Mary and her son are in the kitchen.
- Mary: “Watch out or you’ll hurt yourself!”
- Son: “____________”
A. Yes, I won’t do that again B. That’s a good idea
C. Thank you! D. I totally agree with you.
Question 29. The game of life is a lot like football. You have to tackle your problems, block your fears, and
score your points when you get the opportunity.
A. have B. take C. gain D. fulfill
Question 30. Because of a piece of paper in the soup bowl, the old lady raised a ballyhoo about it at the
restaurant.
A. made a fuss B. appeased C. applauded D. complained
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of
prizes.
A. advantage B. obstacle C. barrier D. disadvantage
Question 32. She told him she’d spent all her savings but he didn’t bat an eyelid.
A. didn’t tell anything B. showed surprise
C. didn’t care D. refused to listen
Tattooing is an old art. Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos were (33)
____________as members of the upper classes. On the other hand, tattooing was banned in Europe by the
early Christians, (34) thought that it was a sinful thing to do. It was not (35) ____________ the late
18th century, when Captain Cook saw South Sea Islander decorating their bodies with tattoos that attitudes
began to change. Sailors came back from these islands with pictures of Christ on their backs and from then on,
tattooing gained (36) ____________popularity. A survey by the French army in 1881 showed that among the
387 men questioned there were 1,333 designs.
Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly because tattoos
are more or less permanent. There is also some (37) ____________about catching a blood disease from
unsterilized needles. Even for those who do want a tattoo, the process of getting one is not painless, but the
final result, in their eyes, is worth the pain.
Question 33. A. supposed B. realised C. held D. regarded
Question 34. A. who B. that C. they D. whose
Question 35. A. by far B. since C. because D. until
Question 36. A. at B. on C. in D. of
Question 37. A. danger B. trouble C. concern D. threat
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well placed
for observation for several months every year and on average is the brightest of the planets apart from Venus,
though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10-hour rotation period gives it the
shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on
Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°- lesser than
that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and color,
and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it may be 40,000
kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude
of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has
amounted to approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to -22°. It was once thought that the
Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager
results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity
may be due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent.
Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
Question 38. According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 39. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ____________
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 40. The word "exceptional" in paragraph 2 mostly means____________
A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all other planet in the solar system
B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other Great Red
Spots.
Question 42. The passage was probably taken from____________
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook D. an archeology book
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York Yankees in
their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his last year in 1968, baseball
was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity,
and confidence of America at that time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and left-handed. He
won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team. He was a wonderful athlete,
but this alone cannot explain America's fascination with him. Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-
haired country boy, the son of a poor miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to
the heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because
America always loves a “natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come
from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played without
complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank to forget his
father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and accelerated the
advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life and warned young
people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped. Despite a liver transplant
operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer
at the age of 63.
A. Mickey Mantle’s success and his private life full of problems
B. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
C. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
D. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
Question 44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle____________
A. introduced baseball into the US
B. earned a lot of money from baseball
C. had to try hard to be a professional player
D. played for New York Yankees all his life
Question 45. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Mantles being fascinated by many people
B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantles being a “switch-hitter”
D. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player
Question 46. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
B. do something in the way that you have been told
C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
Question 47. Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s body?
A. His way of life B. His loneliness
C. His own dream D. His liver transplant operation
Question 48. The word “cirrhosis” in paragraph 5 probably means____________
A. a danger B. an operation C. the destruction D. a serious disease
Question 49. All of the following are true about Mantle EXCEPT____________ .
A. He was born into a poor family but later achieved fame and success
B. He was so severely addicted to alcohol that he couldn’t give it up to the last days of his life
C. He could hit with the bat on either side of his body
D. His father’s early death exerted a negative influence on him.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans____________.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
B. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success
C. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
D. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player.
SỞ GD & ĐT HÀ TĨNH KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi 004
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
A stinky gym bag in your kitchen? Who will be more upset by the smell - the men or the women in
your family? (1) _______ scientists suggest that women not only smell, but feel, taste, and hear more
accurately than men.
Take colors, for example. One study suggests that men are not as good as women at distinguishing between
(2) _______ of color, although they focus well on rapidly changing images. As for touch, small fingers have
a finer sense of touch, whether male or female.
Hearing is possibly one of the most debated areas, when talking about the senses. Evidence shows that boys
hear as well as girls at birth, but with age, a man's hearing may soon deteriorate. (3) _______, environmental
factors could play a role in this. Women may also be better at identifying different flavors (4) _______ need
both taste and smell to experience, as studies have shown that they have more taste buds on their tongue.
Going back to the smelly gym bag - yes, it's likely that Mom will be the most (5) _______ out by it. But is
that because women's brains have more 'smell cells' or because you were too lazy to move it?
Question 1: A. Each B. Some C. Another D. Every
Question 2: A. smells B. senses C. shadows D. shades
Question 3: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Due to
Question 4: A. who B. which C. where D. whom
Question 5: A. taken B. sprung C. mazed D. freaked
Question 6: Aren't you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the wedding
before you're invited to it?
A. knowing the horse cart B. do things in the right order
C. doing things in the wrong order D. upsetting the horse cart
Question 7: He is writing a letter of acceptance to the employer with the hope to get his favorite position in
the company.
A. confirmation B. refusal C. agree D. admission
questions.
Question 8: The letters he would write were full of doom and ________. We still do not know what made
him so depressed.
A. drib B. gloom C. duck D. tuck
Question 9: ________ the person, the more privilege he enjoys.
A. The rich B. The richest C. As rich as D. The richer
Question 10: My grandparents are quite old now and sometimes they have to ________ up and down steps.
A. be helping B. helped C. help D. be helped
Question 11: Unless we do something now, hundreds of plant and animal species will ________.
A. point out B. die out C. cut up D. make up
Question 12: While she was taking her exams, she ________ a terrible headache.
A. will have B. has C. had D. is having
Question 13: Sceptics claim that looking for alien forms of life in space is like squaring the ________ as they
do not exist.
A. ground B. circle C. flag D. school
Question 14: ________ the promotion, I began to search for other goals.
A. Having attained B. To attain C. Being attained D. Attained
Question 15: They offered her the job because she was very ________ on the design front.
A. creatively B. creative C. create D. creation
Question 16: The restaurant is well-known ________ its friendly atmosphere and excellent service.
A. for B. on C. in D. off
Question 17: Researchers have ________ to the conclusion that personality is affected by your genes.
A. got B. reached C. arrived D. come
Question 18: John crashed his truck ________ he was driving too fast.
A. despite B. although C. because D. because of
Question 19: She'll take the flight for the early meeting, _______?
A. won’t she B. hasn’t she C. didn't she D. doesn't she
Question 20: She bought a ________ jacket as a present for her daughter.
A. new Italian leather B. new leather Italian C. leather new Italian D. leather Italian
new
Question 21: The popular press often contains a lot more ________ than hard facts.
A. tolerance B. influence C. speculation D. realism
Question 22: I hope these machines will have worked very well ________.
A. as soon as you would come back next month B. when you came back next month
C. by the time you come back next month D. after you were coming back next month
Question 23: A. concerned B. devoted C. renewed D. improved
Question 24: A. thrill B. hide C. prize D. crime
Question 25: She is a confidential and practiced speaker who always impresses her audience.
A. confidential B. practiced C. impresses D. audience
Question 26: My sister finally got his own favorite piano to practice every day.
A. finally B. his C. to practice D. every
Question 27: Last night, she stays up so late to study for her exams.
A. stays B. so C. to study D. her
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 28: The book was interesting. I've read it three times.
A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times.
B. So interesting was the book that I have no time to read it.
C. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times.
D. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times.
Question 29: She bought an old TV. She has regrets about it now.
A. Provided she bought an old TV, she wouldn't have regrets.
B. If she hadn't bought an old TV, she would have regrets.
C. If only she had bought an old TV.
D. She wishes she hadn't bought an old TV.
of the following exchanges.
Question 30: Peter is talking to Mary about eating habits.
Peter: "You should eat more fruits and vegetables."
Mary: “________”
A. Yes, I will. Thanks. B. No, thanks. C. My pleasure. D. You're welcome.
Question 31: Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school.
Mrs Brown: "Some soft skills should be taught to children."
Mr Smith: “_____________. They are necessary for them."
A. I don't either B. I agree with you C. You're quite wrong D. You're welcome
Question 32: A. document B. holiday C. location D. journalist
Question 33: A. listen B. agree C. escape D. deny
Question 34: Please give me some recommendations to buy suitable books for my ten-year-old girl.
A. advice B. defense C. interest D. question
Question 35: He has been jobless and often has to ask his parents for money.
A. out of fashion B. out of practice C. out of order D. out of work
Question 36: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. Every student can't write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student needn't write an essay on the topic.
Question 37: "If I were you, I would rent another room" said my friend.
A. My friend threatened me to rent another room.
B. My friend was thinking about renting another room.
C. My friend insisted on renting another room.
D. My friend advised me to rent another room.
Question 38: He last cooked for the whole family five months ago.
A. He didn't cook for the whole family five months ago.
B. He has cooked for the whole family for five months.
C. He hasn't cooked for the whole family for five months.
D. He would cook for the whole family in five months.
word for each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Dogs originally came from wolves. Wolves look a lot like dogs, but they are bigger. They are also
quite fierce. At some point, some wolves changed through evolution. Some of them were smaller and gentler.
These nicer wolves were the first dogs. No one knows for sure when this happened or why. Some people say it
happened naturally over 50,000 years ago. Others say people made it happen between 15,000 and 50,000 years
ago.
However they came to be, people quickly saw that dogs were useful. Scientists who study humans say
the first tame dogs appeared with humans about 13,000 years ago in the Middle East. Not long after, there
were dogs in Asia, Africa, Europe and eventually, North America. These dogs were probably used mostly
for hunting and traveling. They were also good companions.
Dogs were an important part of life in ancient Egypt. Egyptian dogs were used not only for hunting, but as
guards and warriors as well. They believed the god that guarded hell was a dog. Ancient Egyptians also named
their pet dogs. Some popular names meant Brave One, Reliable, North-wind, Blacky, and Useless.
Dogs were also good ancient Roman warriors. The Roman army used dogs all over Europe. Sometimes the
dogs were attack dogs, but her times the dogs were messengers.
There are many different kinds of dogs today. How could they all come from wolves? There are
many different explanations. Some scientists believe that dogs mixed with other animals from the Canidae
family. This includes coyotes, foxes and jackals. Most scientists also believe that evolution and breeding
influenced the variation. Later, people found breeds of dogs they liked and combined them to make all new
breeds. In this way, people are still helping new breeds to appear today!
Question 39: Which of the following best states the main idea of the reading?
A. No one knows for sure where dogs first appeared with humans.
B. There are two theories about the evolution of dogs.
C. Evolution and breeding have made dogs what they are
D. Human beings used dogs for many jobs, so dogs are the first tame animals.
Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. people B. years C. dogs D. wolves
Question 41: According to some scientists, when did the first tame dogs appear with humans?
A. About 15,000 years ago B. Between 15,000 and 50,000 years ago
C. Over 50,000 years ago D. About 13,000 years ago
Question 42: The word "companions” in the second paragraph mostly means _______.
A. messengers B. co-workers C. traveling friends D. hunting animals
Question 43: According to the reading, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Most people like to name their dogs Reliable, Blacky, and Useless.
B. The Romans always used dogs as messengers.
C. The first tame dogs appeared in ancient Egypt.
D. According to some studies, dogs mixed with coyotes and jackals.
word for each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent
how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Despite its positive things,
there are also negatives from urbanization on the physical health of humans living.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects
than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing
these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian
based society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for
more centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity.
In most recent decades, since China's change to being more of an industrial based economy, the country
has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within its borders. In effect, the number of cities
with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These migrations are typically of people from rural areas
of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are
many possibilities for health challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution.
It could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste,
or chemicals like CO2 or Methane. Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution
is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems such as:
Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease. When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time,
one can experience even more detrimental health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity
and health, being more susceptible to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations' health is people's change in diet. For instance, urban
cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely not as high
quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend
to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low-quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart
disease, obesity, or many other health conditions.
Question 44: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urban cities - The new opportunity for community development
B. Urbanization - Pros and cons
C. Urbanization - How people's health is impacted?
D. Developing countries – The fastest urbanization
Question 45: The word “agrarian” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. farming B. industry C. city D. modernizing
Question 46: The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fresh B. overcrowded C. sparse D. contaminated
Question 47: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT _______.
A. industrial plants B. sewage C. refineries waste D. chemicals
Question 48: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. quality B. sugar C. food D. sodium
Question 49: Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last paragraph?
A. Because of the change in people's diet.
B. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
C. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
D. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
A. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries.
B. Living in urban areas for a long time will certainly shorten the life expectancy of inhabitants.
C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those in
developing nations.
D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in
urban cities.
------THE END------
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
Question 1. A. whispered B. wandered C. sympathized D. sentenced
Question 2. A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. carpet B. country C. idea D. volume
Question 4. A. familiar B. uncertainty C. impatient D. arrogantly
questions.
Question 5. I demand to know how this vase_____________, and no one is leaving till I find out.
A. got broken B. was breaking C. has broken D. is broke
Question 6. The more you practice speaking in public, _____________.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 7. It is said the Robinhood robbed_____________rich and gave the money to poor.
A. a/ a B. a/ the C. the/ the D. the/ a
Question 8. Not only_____________among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are also among the
most intelligent.
A. some whales B. they are whales C. whales D. are whales
Question 9. _____________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. Intelligent as was the boy B. As intelligent the boy was
C. As the boy was intelligent D. Intelligent as the boy was
Question 10. There is no excuse for your late submission! You_____________the report by last Monday.
A. should have finished B. mightn’t have finished
C. needn’t have finished D. must have finished
Question 11. My parents lent me the money. _____________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. Only if D. However
Question 12. The biologists have found more than one thousand types of butterflies in the forest,
_____________its special characteristics.
A. each one has B. which has C. each having D. having
Question 13. John is feeling_____________because he hasn’t had enough sleep recently.
A. irritate B. irritation C. irritably D. irritable
Question 14. Jenny has an_____________command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive B. utter C. impressive D. extreme
Question 15. Why are you always so jealous_____________other people?
A. in B. of C. below D. on
Question 16. The head teacher has asked me to take the new boy under my_____________and look
after him.
A. sleeves B. arm C. wing D. cloak
Question 17. The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly_____________with young people after
being released in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 18. Just think! Next month you’ll be_____________and it seems like only yesterday you
were a baby.
A. in your teens B. in your teenage C. teenager D. at your teens
Question 19. The children are extremely excited about the visit to the town where their grandparents were
born in.
A. about B. were C. where D. the town
Question 20. Chandler was shocked when his entire class seemed to come down with the same imaginative
disease.
A. was shocked B. entire class C. come down with D. imaginative disease
Question 21. Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to discriminating policies
implemented by the government.
A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating
Question 22. “Please, let my child go!” she begged the kidnapper.
A. She begged the kidnapper to let her child to go.
B. She pleaded with the kidnapper to release her child.
C. She solemnly ordered the kidnapper to set her child free.
D. She pleaded the kidnapper to let her child go.
Question 23. Sometimes having professional assistance with your CV can increase your chance of
finding a job.
A. Having your CV professionally prepared determines whether you'll get the job or not.
B. The prospects for finding employment can possibly be enhanced by a professionally produced CV.
C. Having a professional help you with your CV is a sure way to find a job.
D. Without a professional CV, it is impossible to find a job
Question 24. It seems to me that we’ve taken the wrong train.
A. The trained turned out to be not the one we were supposed to have taken.
B. There is no chance that we’ll catch the train that we’re supposed to.
C. I have a feeling that this train is not the one we should be on.
D. I wish we had been more careful and taken the right train from the station.
Question 25. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 26. They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me.
A. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
B. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters, neither of whom is teacher like me.
D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
Question 27. Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.” - Bob: “_____________”
A. She’s out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I’m raking in money now. D. Could I chip in?
Question 28. Mai and Joey are talking about their favorite pastimes.
Joey: “What sort of things do you like doing in your free time?” - Mai: “_____________”
A. I love checking out the shops for new clothes.
B. None. Been starved since 9 yesterday.
C. I hate shopping.
D. Nothing special. Just some photos I took on the trip to Nepal.
Question 29. Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse
Question 30. The natives were angry when foreigners came to their country and took over their land.
A. migrants B. tourists C. members D. locals
Question 31. Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a banquet.
A. a formal party B. a formal conference
C. an informal party D. an enormous breakfast
Question 32. The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become
known prematurely.
A. dangerously B. safely C. privately D. publicly
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (33) _____________up about 10 percent of the population -
but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right-handed gadgets,
awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand, what (34)
_____________someone to become a left hand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to a complex
(35) _____________between genes and environment.
While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left hands do have
more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different brain wirings in righties vs. lefties.
But no matter (36) _____________it is that drives someone to use their antipodal paw, science has also
uncovered a particular set of personality traits that left handed people tend to have. So for all of you lefties,
leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to brush up on your left-handed knowledge
and help (37) _____________an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.
Question 33. A. consist B. account C. hold D. make
Question 34. A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 35. A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated
Question 36. A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 37. A. put B. bring C. make D. take
Trees are useful to man in three very important ways: they provide him with wood and other products, they
give him shade, and they help to prevent drought and floods.
Unfortunately, in many parts of the world man has not realized that the third of these services is the most
important. In his eagerness to draw quick profit from the trees, he has cut them down in large numbers, only
to find that without them he has lost the best friends he had.
Two thousand years ago a rich and powerful country cut down its trees to build warships, with which to gain
itself an empire. It gained the empire but, without its trees, its soil became hard and poor. When the empire
fell to pieces, the country found itself faced by floods and starvation.
Even though a government realizes the importance of a plentiful supply of trees, it is difficult for it to persuade
the villagers to see this. The villager wants wood to cook his food
with, and he can earn money by making charcoal or selling wood to the townsman. He is usually too lazy or
too careless to plant and look after trees. So unless the government has a good system of control, or can educate
the people, the forests will slowly disappear.
This does not only mean that there will be fewer trees. The results are even more serious. For where there are
trees their roots break the soil up, allowing the rain to sink in and also bind the soil, thus preventing it being
washed away easily, but where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor. The rain falls on hard ground
and flows away on the surface, causing floods and carrying away with it the rich topsoil, in which crops grow
so well, when all the topsoil is gone, nothing remains but a worthless desert.
Question 38. In the writer's opinion, _____________, or the forests slowly disappear.
A. people shouldn't draw benefit from the tree
B. measures must be taken
C. government must realize the serious results
D. unless trees never be cut down
Question 39. The word “bind ” in the passage probably means___________
A. to make wet B. to wash away C. to make stay together D. to improve
Question 40. In the last two paragraphs the writer wanted to make it clear that____________
A. where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor
B. where there are no trees, the land might become desert slowly
C. where there are many trees, there are fewer floods
D. floods will make the land become desert
Question 41. It’s a great pity that in many places____________
A. man is not eager to make profits from trees
B. man hasn’t found out that he has lost all trees
C. man hasn’t realised the importance of trees to him
D. man is only interested in building empire
Question 42. Trees are useful to man mainly in three ways, the most important of which is that they can
____________
A. keep him from the hot sunshine B. make him draw quick profit from them
C. enable him to build warships D. protect him from drought and floods
PERCEPTIONS OF ANIMALS ACROSS CULTURES
When living and working in another country, there are numerous things to consider apart from the more
obvious ones of climate, language, religion, currency, etc. Some important considerations are less obvious.
For example, do you have a pet or do you enjoy a hobby such as horse riding? Your animal or hobby may be
perceived in a completely different light in another culture so it’s important to consider the significance given
to specific animals in different parts of the world and general perceptions towards them.
One example which is often mentioned in popular press is the case of dogs. In some cultures,
like the US or UK, dogs are loved and considered a great pet to have at home and with the family. In other
cultures, such as those where Islam is the majority religion, dogs may be perceived as dirty or dangerous.
Muslims treatment of dogs is still a matter of debate amongst Islamic scholars, while these animals are widely
considered by many Western cultures to be “mans best friend”, the Koran describes them as “unhygienic”.
Muslims will therefore avoid touching a dog unless he can wash his hands immediately afterwards, and they
will almost never keep a dog in their home.
In Iran, for instance, a cleric once denounced “the moral depravity” of dog owners and even demanded their
arrest. If you are an international assignee living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country, you
should remember this when inviting Arab counterparts to your house in case you have a dog as a pet. This is
just one example of how Islam and other cultural beliefs can impact on aspects of everyday life that someone
else may not even question. A Middle Eastern man might be very surprised when going to Japan, for instance,
and seeing dogs being dressed and pampered like humans and carried around in baby prams!
Dogs are not the only animals which are perceived quite differently from one culture to another. In India, for
example, cows are sacred and are treated with the utmost respect. Conversely in Argentina, beef is a symbol
of national pride because of its tradition and the high quality of its cuts. An Indian working in Argentina who
has not done his research or participated in a cross-cultural training programme such as Doing Business in
Argentina may be surprised at his first welcome dinner with his Argentinean counterparts where a main dish
of beef would be served.
It is therefore crucial to be aware of the specific values assigned to objects or animals in different cultures to
avoid faux-pas or cultural misunderstandings, particularly when living and working in another culture.
Learning how people value animals and other symbols around the world is one of the numerous cultural
examples discussed in Communicaid’s intercultural training courses. Understanding how your international
colleagues may perceive certain animals can help you ensure you aren’t insensitive and it may even provide
you with a good topic for conversation.
(Source: https. //www.communicaid.com)
Question 43. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Talking about different perceptions with others will help you overcome insensitivity.
B. To avoid cultural shocks, people should not live or work in another culture.
C. It’s important to value the objects or animals in different countries before going there.
D. Understanding different perceptions of animals will help you avoid faux-pas in another nation.
Question 44. According to paragraph 2, which sentence is INCORRECT?
A. The dog is a typical example of different views in the world about animals.
B. Dogs are well-treated and loved in the US and UK.
C. Muslims are those considering dogs as their best pets at home.
D. People whose religion is Islam don’t like having dogs in their home.
Question 45. The word “unhygienic” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to____________
A. unhealthy B. undependable C. unreliable D. unacceptable
Question 46. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. you are an international assignee
B. you are having a dog as pet
C. a cleric once denounced the moral depravity of dog owners and even demanded their arrest
D. you are living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country
Question 47. The author mentioned cows in paragraph 4 as an example of______________
A. the animals that are differently perceived in numerous cultures
B. sacred animals in Argentina
C. a symbol of a nation for its high quality of nutrients
D. which may cause surprise for Argentinian people at dinner
Question 48. which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Perceptions of animals across cultures
B. What should be learnt before going to another country
C. Dogs and different beliefs in the world
D. Muslims and their opinions about animals
Question 49. The word “pampered” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by____________
A. indulged B. taken care of C. made up D. respected
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that______________
A. people will change their perceptions of animals when living in another culture
B. you should not be surprised if other counterparts consider your sacred animals as food
C. there are many things to research before going to live and work in another country
D. respecting other cultures is a good way to have a successful life abroad
SỞ GD & ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ KHẢO SÁT KIẾN THỨC CHUẨN BỊ CHO KỲ THI
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 – LẦN 2
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi: 107
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not
always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm
at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters
shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity – horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into
snow banks - but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens,
swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air,
so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by
a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers”. During the
day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening
some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when
the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to
follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors
of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small,
familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The
common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird
can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at
any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that
mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can
be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to
catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.
(Source: Toefl-reading/1298-toefl-readings-2)
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Why some species of birds nest together. B. How birds find and store food.
C. How birds maintain body heat in the winter. D. Why birds need to establish territory.
Question 2: The word "conserve" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. share B. locate C. watch D. retain
Question 3: The author mentions kinglets in paragraph 1 as an example of birds that ________.
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes B. usually feed and nest in pairs also
C. nest with other species of birds D. nest together for warmth
Question 4: The word "communal” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. personal B. sociable C. individual D. shared
Question 5: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
B. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
C. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
D. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds
that huddle together while sleeping?
A. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
B. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
C. Several members of the flock care for the young.
D. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
Question 7: The word “they” refers to ________.
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. trees D. predators
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea,
for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to tradition,
a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for the child. In
other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of throwing their lost
teeth onto the roofs of houses. Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and
Spain, tradition says a mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs
are responsible for taking teeth away.
Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian angels of the
people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth is fed to a guardian
angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children in
Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth. The exact
origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England or Ireland centuries
ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow before going to bed. In the wee
hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth and leaves something else under the pillow.
In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually
leaves money. These days, the rate is 1 USD to 5 USD per tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth
Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
A. Customs concerning children's new teeth B. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Presents for young children's lost teeth
Question 9: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. countries' B. houses’ C. roofs’ D. children's
Question 10: According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog because
________.
A. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
C. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
D. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
Question 11: The word "origins" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. beginnings B. families C. countries D. stories
Question 12: According to the passage, which of the following NOT true about the tradition of tooth giving in
the West?
A. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
B. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
C. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
D. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
Question 13: A. ancient B. applicant C. animal D. annual
Question 14: A. enabled B. featured C. announced D. valued
(Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Going Inside Black Holes
One of the strangest phenomena in the universe is the black hole. For years, scientists have studied
black holes in an (15) ______ to better understand how they function. Like vacuum cleaners, black holes will
suck up anything (16) ______ crosses their path. The incredible sucking power that black holes generate
comes from gravity. They can quickly swallow up anything including planets, space debris, and anything
else imaginable. Even light cannot escape the (17) ______ of black holes. Since they are able to pull in
light, black holes are nearly impossible to see even with high-powered telescopes. (18) ______ scientists are
able to detect the presence of black holes in space because of their effect on an observed area.
Black holes can originate in a few ways. One type of black holes occurs when a star comes to the end of its
lifecycle and it dies in a supernova explosion. They can also occur when the mass of a neutron star becomes
so great that it collapses in on itself. Black holes may also occur when several large and dense stars collide
with one (19) ______ in space.
Question 15: A. effect B. impression C. attempt D. experience
Question 16: A. who B. what C. whose D. that
Question 17: A. catch B. embrace C. grasp D. achievement
Question 18: A. Therefore B. However C. In fact D. Moreover
Question 19: A. another B. each C. others D. other
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 20: A. alive B. happy C. patient D. honest
Question 21: A. influence B. employer C. industry D. instrument
Question 22: The power failure at dinnertime caused consternation among the city's housewives.
A. anger B. anxiety C. boredom D. calm
Question 23: Don't egg him on! He gets himself into enough trouble without your encouragement.
A. exploit him B. strongly encourage him C. help him out D. discourage him
(Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 24: There has been an appreciative drop in the number of unemployed people since the
new government came to power.
A. since B. in C. appreciative D. came to power
Question 25: A large number of popular expressions in our language has interesting backgrounds.
A. backgrounds B. expressions C. A large number D. has
Question 26: The Oxford Dictionary is well-known for including many different meanings of words and
to give real examples.
A. The B. to give C. meanings D. well-known
Question 27: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the basketball team know they lost the match but they blamed to each other as well.
B. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
C. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
D. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
Question 28: We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
questions.
Question 29: I ______ Alan for hours but he just doesn't answer his mobile. I hope nothing's wrong.
A. am calling B. called C. have been calling D. call
Question 30: You should use this cream ______ the sun from damaging your skin.
A. to preventing B. for prevent C. to prevent D. preventing
Question 31: Carrie says she will join the company if the starting salary ______ her expectations.
A. met B. meets C. has met D. had met
Question 32: In his students’ days, he was as poor as a church ______.
A. pauper B. miser C. mouse D. beggar
Question 33: They have heard the news from her, ______?
A. haven't they B. have they C. did they D. didn't they
Question 34: We always unite and work together whenever serious problems ______.
A. arise B. devise C. encounter D. approach
Question 35: My brother hopes to travel around the world ______ next summer.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 36: For some subjects, face-to-face interaction can result ______ better learning outcomes.
A. about B. of C. in D. on
Question 37: ______ she is busy, she manages to pick her children up after school every day.
A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because
Question 38: It is the recommendation of many psychologists that a learner ______ mental image to associate
words and remember names.
A. use B. must use C. uses D. is used
Question 39: Hemingway, who was a _______writer, won the Nobel Prize in literature in 1954.
A. notorious B. respective C. distinguished D. excessive
Question 40: In Hawaii, it is ______ to greet visitors to the country with a special garland of flowers.
A. custom B. customary C. customer D. customize
Question 41: ______ at the campsite, it had stopped raining.
A. By the time they arriving B. After they arrived
C. By the time they arrived D. By the time they arrive
Question 42: I caught ______ of a lion lying under the tree, and my heart jumped.
A. sight B. scene C. view D. look
Question 43: More out-of-school activities are expected to be incorporated in the new school ______ proposed
by Ministry of Education and Training.
A. schedule B. agenda C. handout D. curriculum
Question 44: “No, it's not true. I didn't steal the money!” Jean said.
A. Jean denied having stolen the money. B. Jean refused to steal the money.
C. Jean admitted stealing the money. D. Jean did not intend to steal the money.
Question 45: It's possible that Joanna didn't receive my message.
A. Joanna needn't have received my message. B. Joanna shouldn't have received my message.
C. Joanna can't have received my message. D. Joanna mightn't have received my message.
Question 46: They think the owner of the house is abroad.
A. It is thought that the owner of the house to be abroad.
B. The owner of the house is thought to be abroad.
C. It is thought to be abroad by the owner of the house.
D. The owner of the house is thought by them that he will be abroad.
Question 47:
- Anna: "Hi, I wonder if you could help me.”
- Tom: “_____________”
A. Sure. What's the problem? B. I need a book for my IT class.
C. Thanks. I will. D. No wonder. You're always busy, Tom.
Question 48:
- Mary: “Would you like to join my wildlife protection team?”
- Laura: “_________________”
A. Thank you. I've always wanted to do something to help.
B. Yes, I like working for this organization very much.
C. There are so many wildlife protection teams.
D. Where is it located?
Question 49: Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. refused to change his opinion B. changed his decision
C. wanted to continued D. felt sorry for us
Question 50: The restaurant entices more and more customers with its cozy interior and special daily events.
A. convinces B. frees C. refuses D. attracts
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. chemistry B. Christmas C. machine D. headache
Question 2. A. honest B. honey C. hour D. heir
Question 3. A. digest B. cactus C. camel D. human
Question 4. A. compliment B. heartbroken C. labour-saving D. short-sighted
questions.
Question 5. I have bought a present for my brother, and now I need some____________.
A. paper wrapper B. wrap paper C. wrapped paper D. wrapping paper
Question 6. You____________by my secretary next week.
A. will notify B. would notify C. will be notified D. is going to be notified
Question 7. Her boyfriend is said____________in the army two years ago.
A. to have served B. to serve C. serving D. have served
Question 8. Nothing is____________easy as it looks.
A. so B. such C. as D. that
Question 9. The local council recommended that John____________to the head of the apartment.
A. is appointed B. was appointed C. be appointed D. could be appointed.
Question 10. ____________they've already made their decision, there's nothing much we can do.
A. Seeing that B. On grounds that C. Assuming that D. For reason that
Question 11. It was under the tree____________he found the wallet he had lost before.
A. that B. whom C. who D. where
Question 12. Can I help you, sir?” - “I’m looking for a____________ table”
A. wooden round fashionable B. round wooden fashionable
C. wooden fashionable round D. fashionable round wooden
Question 13. The architects have made____________use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imaginative B. imagine C. imagination D. imaginatively
Question 14. I only tell my secrets to my____________ friend as she never reveals them to anyone.
A. creative B. enthusiastic C. trustworthy D. unrealizable
Question 15. Paul is a very____________character, he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-conscious B. self-satisfied C. self-directed D. self-confident
Question 16. I haven’t read any medical books or articles on the subject for a long time, so I’m
____________with recent developments.
A. out of reach B. out of condition C. out of touch D. out of the question
Question 17. He was wearing very shabby, dirty clothes and looked very____________.
A. easy- going B. down to earth C. out of shape D. down at heel
Question 18. Attempts must be made to____________the barriers of fear and hostility which divide the two
communities.
A. break down B. set up C. get off D. pass over
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 19. Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A. inappropriate B. it C. because D. the
Question 20. For its establishment, ASEAN Tourism Association has played an important role in promoting
and developing ASEAN Tourism services.
A. Tourism Association B. played
C. in promoting and developing D. For its
Question 21. Sleeping, resting and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.
A. juice B. best ways C. Sleeping D. to drink
Question 22. “I agree that I am narrow-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager denied being narrow-minded.
B. The manager admitted being narrow-minded.
C. The manager refused to be narrow-minded.
D. The manager promised to be narrow-minded.
Question 23. A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre.
A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket.
B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket.
C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre.
D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre.
Question 24. It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house.
A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house.
B. Tony can’t have bought that house.
C. Tony needn’t have bought that house.
D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 26. Their team performed excellently at the elimination tournament. They didn’t win the
trophy.
A. Subsequent to their performance at the elimination tournament, they were afraid to win the trophy
excellently.
B. Were it not for their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they wouldn’t have won the
trophy.
C. Despite their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they didn’t win the trophy.
D. Because they didn’t win the trophy, their performance at the elimination tournament was however
excellent.
Question 27. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.” Anne: “
Well,_____________.”
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life
Question 28. Two students are chatting in the corridor after class.
Tim: “ We should make a slide show for our history presentation next week.”
Laura: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have to check my diary. B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.
C. I’d love to but I just can’t now. D. That’s true. I understand how you feel.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
Question 29. Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. essential B. informative C. invented D. exciting
Question 30. Please stop making that noise! It really gets on my nerves.
A. cheers me up B. wakes me up C. annoys me D. amuses me
Question 31. One is supposed to expend far more energy in a marathon run than expected.
A. exhaust B. spend C. consume D. reserve
Question 32. The information you have got is actually off the record, so be careful if you intend to use it for
publication.
A. private B. official C. confidential D. important
Amy Tan was born on February 19th , 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern California,
(33)____________when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she moved with her
mother and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux, Switzerland. She returned
to the United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language development consultant and as a
corporate freelance writer. In 1985, she wrote the story "Rules of the Game" for a writing workshop, which
laid the early (34) ____________for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the book explored
the (35) ____________between Chinese women and their Chinese-American daughters, and became the
longest-running New York Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club received numerous awards,
including the Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has been translated into 25 languages, including Chinese,
and was made into a major motion picture for (36) ____________Tan co-wrote the screenplay. Tan's other
works have also been (37) ____________into several different forms of media.
Question 33. A. however B. moreover C. so D. but
Question 34. A. preparation B. base C. source D. foundation
Question 35. A. relate B. relative C. relationship D. relatively
Question 36. A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 37. A. adjoined B. adapted C. adjusted D. adopted
The first thing to do when you have a trip abroad is to check that your passport is valid. Holders of out-of-date
passports are not allowed to travel overseas. Then you can prepare for your trip. If you don't know the language,
you can have all kinds of problems communicating with local people. Buying a pocket dictionary can make a
difference. You'll be able to order food, buy things in shops and ask for directions. It's worth getting one. Also
there's nothing worse than arriving at your destination to find there are no hotels available. The obvious way
to avoid this is to book in advance. This can save you money too. Another frustrating thing that can happen is
to go somewhere and not know about important sightseeing places. Get a guide book before you leave and
make the most of your trip. It's a must.
Then, when you are ready to pack your clothes, make sure they are the right kind. It's no good packing sweaters
and coats for a hot country or T-shirts and shorts for a cold one. Check the local climate before you leave.
Also, be careful how much you pack in your bags. It's easy to take too many clothes and then not have enough
space for souvenirs. But make sure you pack essentials, what about money? Well, it's a good idea to take some
local currency with you but not too much. There are conveniently located cash machines (ATMs) in most big
cities, and it's usually cheaper to use them than change your cash in banks. Then you'll have more money to
spend. When you are at your destination, other travellers often have great information they are happy to share.
Find out what they have to say. It could enhance your travelling experience.
(Adapted from Pearson Test of English General Skills)
Question 38. what is the passage mainly about?
A. Things to avoid when you go abroad B. Tips for Travellers Overseas
C. The benefits of travelling D. How to find ATMs in big cities
Question 39. According to the passage, you should do all of the following before leaving
EXCEPT____________.
A. taking money from an ATM B. making sure of the validity of your passport
C. preparing suitable clothes D. getting a guide book
Question 40. The word "This" in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. finding are no hotels to stay at B. saving money
C. booking in advance D. asking for directions
Question 41. According to the passage, holders of out-of-date passports____________.
A. have to show an ID instead when they travel
B. cannot travel to other countries
C. should ask for help from local people
D. may have their passports renewed in any country.
Question 42. The word “essentials” in paragraph 4 mostly means____________.
A. everything B. valuables C. necessities D. food
answer to each of the questions from 43-50.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career
as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort
to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career
and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every
aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings
that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work
with children? Are you more suited to solitary or co-operative work?” There are no right or wrong answers;
only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would
prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the
job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity
occupations - building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent - that involve a great deal of time away from the
office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain
regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such
as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important
to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offer relatively low
starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training,
promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative
associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not.
Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less
obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleep, whereas plumbers can be as highly
paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will be likely to develop new
interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your
final one.
Question 43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to____________
A. emphasize that each persons answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____________.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who
does not want to live in a big city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 47. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job
EXCEPT____________
A.Your likes and your dislikes B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ____________
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 49. The word “grueling” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by____________.
A. tiring and hard B. relaxing C. painful D. enjoyable
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC VINH ĐỀ THI KSCL LỚP 12 THEO ĐỊNH HƯỚNG THI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TN THPT VÀ XÉT TUYỂN ĐH NĂM 2021 – LẦN 1
Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ
Mã đề thi 210
MỤC TIÊU
- Củng cố kiến thức về Ngữ âm (phát âm & trọng âm từ), các chủ điểm ngữ pháp cơ bản: Các thì trong tiếng
Anh, Câu so sánh, Câu điều kiện, Câu tường thuật, Câu bị động, Các loại mệnh đề, Từ loại, Câu tường thuật,
Câu hỏi đuôi, Đảo ngữ, Sự hòa hợp chủ ngữ & động từ, Phối hợp thì,... và kiến thức từ vựng cấp THPT.
Question 1: Drug abuse has became one of America's most serious social problems.
A. has became B. one of C. most serious D. social problems
Question 2: To grow well, a tree must be well-suited to the area where it was planted.
A. To grow B. a tree C. well-suited D. it was
Question 3: He enjoys listening to the works of classic composers while he is studying.
A. enjoys listening B. the works C. classic composers D. is studying
Question 4: - Nam: If you like, I can check the deadline for our assignment. - Lan: ___________
A. Assignments are just a waste of time. B. I am scared of deadlines.
C. Thanks, but that won't be necessary. D. I don't really like this assignment.
Question 5: - Mike: "Can you help me carry this vacuum cleaner upstairs?” - Susan: "___________.”
A. Why not? B. I think that, too. C. Yes, I'm afraid not. D. Not completely.
New Zealand is a small country of four million inhabitants, a long-haul flight from all the major tourist
generating markets of the world. Tourism currently makes up 9% of the country's gross domestic product and
is the country's largest export sector. Unlike other export sectors, which make products and then sell them
overseas, tourism brings its customers to New Zealand. The product is the country itself, the people, the places,
and the experiences. In 1999, Tourism New Zealand launched a campaign to communicate a new brand
position to the world. The campaign focused on New Zealand's scenic beauty, exhilarating outdoor activities
and authentic Maori culture, and it made New Zealand one of the strongest national brands in the world.
A key feature of the campaign was the website www.newzealand.com, which provided potential visitors
to New Zealand with a single gateway to everything the destination had to offer. The heart of the website was
a database of tourism services operators, both those based in New Zealand and those based abroad which
offered tourism service to the country. Any tourism-related business could be listed by filling in a simple form.
This meant that even the smallest bed and breakfast address or specialist activity provider could gain a web
presence with access to an audience of long-haul visitors. In addition, because participating businesses were
able to update the details they gave on a regular basis, the information provided remained accurate. And to
maintain and improve standards, Tourism New Zealand organized a scheme whereby organizations appearing
on the website underwent an independent evaluation against a set of agreed national standards of quality. As
part of this, the effect of each business on the environment was considered.
To communicate the New Zealand experience, the site also carried features relating to famous people and
places. One of the most popular was an interview with former New Zealand All Blacks rugby captain Tana
Umaga. Another feature that attracted a lot of attention was an interactive journey through a number of the
locations chosen for blockbuster films which had made use of New Zealand's stunning scenery as a backdrop.
As the site developed, additional features were added to help independent travelers devise their own
customized itineraries.
Question 6: According to paragraph 4, why did the website conduct an interview with Tana Umaga?
A. to advertise the New Zealand experience B. to show off the beauty of New Zealand
C. to attract a lot of attention D. to encourage tourists to visit New Zealand
Question 7: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to ___________.
A. campaign B. tourism
C. website D. New Zealand's scenic beauty
A. The tourism in New Zealand B. The tourist attractions in New Zealand
C. The website of New Zealand D. The website for New Zealand's tourism
A. New Zealand's products are not about its food, people, places and experiences.
B. New Zealand is a small country, with a population of fourteen million.
C. New Zealand cuisine has made New Zealand one of the world's biggest national brands.
D. Blockbuster films had used New Zealand's stunning scenery as a backdrop.
Question 10: The word "evaluation" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. comparison B. assessment C. score D. result
questions.
Question 11: I chose to submit my application in writing, but I ___________ do it that way.
A. hadn't to B. didn't have to C. shouldn't have D. mustn't have
Question 12: Before each game, the coach would give the team a _________ talk.
A. motivator B. motivated C. motivational D. motivate
Question 13: Ben started to shiver with cold, _________ we decided to go home.
A. why at that point B. at that time C. by this time D. at which point
Question 14: The mayor's recommendation that ___________ was approved by the city council.
A. building a pool B. would build a pool
C. a pool be built D. they would build a pool
Question 15: I remember ___________ about the management course.
A. having informed B. informing C. that I informed D. having been
informed
Question 16: Mocha is a tasty __________ of chocolate, coffee and milk.
A. congestion B. brand C. flavor D. blend
Question 17: After it had been ___________ the air for only two months, the series was cancelled.
A. over B. above C. on D. in
Question 18: I wish my daughter __________ while she was doing her homework.
A. wouldn't turn on music so loudly B. hadn't turned on music so loudly
C. couldn't turn on music so loudly D. didn't turn on music so loudly
Question 19: I was happy to ____________ her suggestions.
A. fall out B. fall for C. fall through D. fall in with
Question 20: My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _________ it is at night, _________ he plays his
music!
A. the less/ the more loud B. the later/the louder
C. the latter / the less noisy D. the more late/ the more loudly
Question 21: Some people feel it's their moral ___________ to help the poor.
A. period B. duty C. arrangement D. activity
Question 22: Scarcely had the eagle been released ____________ from view.
A. that it was disappearing B. but it had disappeared
C. when it disappeared D. than it has disappeared
Question 23: A new TV show has sparked __________ by showing the positive side of dropping out of
college.
A. argument B. discussion C. controversy D. debate
Question 24: ___________ we leave at three o'clock, we should get to the airport on time.
A. Assuming B. Assumed C. To assume D. Having assumed
Question 25: His clothes were old and worn. They looked clean and of good quality.
A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn.
B. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.
C. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.
D. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.
Question 26: They didn't have breakfast. That's why they are hungry now.
A. If they had breakfast, they wouldn't be hungry now.
B. If they had breakfast, they would have been hungry now.
C. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn't be hungry now
D. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn't have been hungry now
Question 27: Many species are threatened in the wild due to habitat destruction by man.
A. place of living B. rituals C. usual behaviour D. favourite activity
Question 28: She got the job in the teeth of considerable competition.
A. owing to B. regardless of C. as regards D. in respect to
There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern humans. The "Out
of Africa" theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000
years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neanderthals. The other model,
known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our
kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved
as a single species spreading across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic
and cultural exchange.
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and
supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars. The vast majority
of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has
been made in recovering DNA from Neanderthal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of
recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a
part of the human origins debate.
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modern human
skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that
both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early
modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neanderthal traits, and the early modern Australians
showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists
continues, as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
Question 29: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _________
A. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
B. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage.
C. the multi-regional model goes back further in history.
D. the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars.
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that ___________
A. the debate will interest historians to take part in.
B. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future.
C. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down.
D. the debate is likely to be less important in future.
Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following information is NOT true?
A. The vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations.
B. Examinations of early modern human skulls all support the same conclusions.
C. Both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
D. Early modern Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.
Question 32: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the two hypotheses?
A. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
B. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses.
C. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.
D. Both hypotheses regard Neanderthals to be the predecessors of modern humans.
Question 33: The passage primarily discusses which of the following ________
A. two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate.
B. evidence that supports the "Out of Africa" theory.
C. that fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
D. the difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate.
Question 34: In paragraph 3, the word “their” refers to __________
A. Central Europeans and Australians B. traits
C. skulls D. Middle Easterners and Africans
Question 35: The word "predecessors" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________
A. off-spring B. ancestors C. pioneers D. juniors
Question 36: The word "Proponents" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. Historians B. Inspectors C. Advocates D. Experts
Question 37: A. theaters B. attends C. shifts D. authors
Question 38: A. evolve B. protection C. operate D. robot
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks.
Many of us enjoy art, and a beautiful painting often evokes a positive response, such as admiration and
wonder. (39) ________ for some people, viewing a work of art can set in motion a series of disturbing physical
effects, such as rapid heart rate, dizziness and even fainting.
In 1817, the author Stendhal had such an experience while visiting Florence, an Italian city (40) ________
by churches and museums famous for their art treasures. When Stendhal looked up at the church ceiling, he
was so astonished by the beauty of the frescoes that his heart began to beat rapidly. His symptoms (41)
________ and he almost fainted. Since then, some people visiting Florence – foreign tourists, by and (42)
________ have experienced a reaction. The effects are usually mild and quickly disappear, but sometimes they
are substantial (43) ________ to require medical attention.
Question 39: A. Otherwise B. However C. Therefore D. Moreover
Question 40: A. determined B. communicated C. dominated D. indicated
Question 41: A. intensified B. simplified C. distorted D. pursued
Question 42: A. wide B. large C. huge D. broad
Question 43: A. fully B. very much C. incredibly D. enough
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 44: I would go mad if I had to do a dead-end job.
A. monotonous B. demanding C. boring D. fascinating
Question 45: During my time in Paris, I stayed in a cramped top-floor flat.
A. immense B. full C. spacious D. huge
Question 46: A. sector B. desert C. willing D. diverse
Question 47: A. ingredient B. optimistic C. traditional D. significant
Question 48: It is apparent that Nancy was at home last night.
A. I am not sure whether Nancy was at home last night or not.
B. No one knows whether Nancy was at home last night.
C. Nancy should have been at home last night.
D. Nancy must have been at home last night.
Question 49: It is not possible for me to sleep in a filthy place like this.
A. I have difficult in sleeping in a filthy place like this.
B. I can't possibly sleep in a filthy place like this.
C. I find it possible to have a good sleep in a quiet place.
D. I have difficulty to sleep in such a filthy place like this.
Question 50: "It's marvelous that you were accepted to university" Dad said to me.
A. Dad praised me for my flying colour in the university entrance exam.
B. Dad told to me that it was wonderful that I had been accepted to university.
C. Dad encouraged me to make efforts to be accepted to university.
D. Dad congratulated me on being accepted to university.
-----THE END-----

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. wisdom B. minor C. lively D. wildness
Question 2. A. hatred B. naked C. knocked D. sacred
Question 3. A. ignite B. igloo C. dogsled D. asset
Question 4. A. domestic B. dormitory C. dogmatic D. deliberate
questions.
Question 5. “When is your math exam?” “Well, this time tomorrow I___________for it”.
A. will be sitting B. will sit C. will have been sitting D. sit
Question 6. The President mentioned pension reform and went on___________that he would reduce
unemployment figures.
A. adding B. add C. to be adding D. to add
Question 7. ___________you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another city?
A. Provided that B. Should C. Were D. Had
Question 8. I agree___________one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.
A. in B. of C. on D. for
Question 9. Up___________when it saw its master.
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump C. the dog jump D. does the dog jump
Question 10. ___________will be carried in the next space payload has not yet been announced to
the public.
A. It B. What C. When D. That
Question 11. ___________extremely bad weather in the mountains, we’re no longer considering
our skiing trip.
A. Due to B. Because C. Since D. Due to the fact that
Question 12. Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International
Convention, ___________.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
Question 13. The authorities have shown no signs of ___________to the kidnappers’ demands.
A. standing up B. bringing about C. getting down D. giving in
Question 14. My main___________to the new motorway is that it will spoil the countryside.
A. objection B. object C. objective D. objecting
Question 15. Sue would suffer obesity if she couldn’t control her___________ overeating.
A. compulsive B. disastrous C. exhaustive D. unbearable
Question 16. After a six-year relationship, Martha and Billy have decided to___________.
A. break the bank B. tie the knot C. turn the page D. make ends meet
Question 17. Most of the in this workshop do not work very seriously or productively.
A. tooth and nail B. rank and file C. eager beavers D. old hand
Question 18. A penalty shot is___________when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter line.
A. prevented B. awarded C. committed D. ranged
Question 19. The train to Ho chi Minh city left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to Ha Noi capital
left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. exactly B. as usually C. which D. precisely
Question 20. Sam found it hard to concentrate on his work because the noise.
A. it B. concentrate C. work D. because
Question 21. Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to reveal a
profusion of vivid colors.
A. fan out B. its C. most exotic D. among
Question 22. It is not until a Vietnamese girl gets 18 years old that she is allowed to get married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
D. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
Question 23. “I would be grateful if you could send me further information about the job,'' Lee said to
me.
A. Lee thanked me for sending him further information about the job.
B. Lee felt great because further information about the job had been sent to him.
C. Lee politely asked me to send him further information about the job.
D. Lee flattered me because I sent him further information about the job.
Question 24. The workers only complain because of their unfair treatment.
A. Were the workers fairly treated, they wouldn’t complain.
B. The workers complain because their employees are unfair.
C. If the workers are treated fairly, they will not complain.
D. Are the workers treated fairly, they will not complain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. He was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. It was because his overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
B. He was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
C. That he was overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
D. It was his overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
Question 26. He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain
D. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 27. - “Excuse me. where's the parking lot?” - “___________”
A. You missed the turn. It's back that way.
B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You are going the wrong way. It's not here
D. Why do you ask me? I don't know.
Question 28. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
- Hoa: "Why aren't you taking part in our activities?” “__________”
- Hai: "Yes, I can. Certainly!"
A. Shall I take your hat off?
B. Can you help me with this decoration?
C. Can I help you?
D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?
Question 29. I think we should tell Peter that the location of the picnic has been changed. Let’s put him in
the picture.
A. show him B. take his photo C. explain to him D. inform him
Question 30. Mike pretended to be sick, but I saw through his deception at once.
A. was used to B. got angry with C. got bored with D. was aware of
Question 31. You’re 25 years old, but you still haven’t cut the apron strings.
A. become independent B. bought a new house
C. relied on others D. started doing well
Question 32. Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact.
A. in perfection B. in completion C. in chaos D. in ruins
MODERN SCIENCE
It seems entirely natural to the US that there are teams of scientists in universities and (33)
___________institutions around the world, attempting to discover the way the world works. (34)
___________, it hasn’t always been that way. Although the scientific method is now four or five hundred
years old, the ancient Greeks, for example, believed that they could (35) ___________the cause of natural
events just by the power of thought.
During the 17th century, more and more people began to realize that they could test their scientific ideas by
designing a relevant experiment and seeing what happened. A lot of (36) ___________was made in this way
by individual scientists. These men and women often worked alone, carrying out research into many different
areas of science, and they often received very little (37) ___________for their hard work. At the start of the
20th century, though, it became clear that science was becoming more complicated and more expensive. The
individual scientists disappeared, to be replaced by highly qualified teams of experts. Modern science was
born.
Question 33. A. every B. whole C. other D. another
Question 34. A. However B. Accordingly C. Thus D. Besides
Question 35. A. solve out B. work out C. come out D. give out
Question 36. A. evolution B. progress C. movement D. development
Question 37. A. reward B. present C. gift D. prize
Accidents do not occur at random. People eighty-five years of age and older are twenty-two times more likely
to die accidentally than are children five to nine years old. The risk for native Americans is four times that for
Asian-Americans and twice that for white Americans or African-Americans. Males suffer accidents at more
than twice the rate of females, in part because they are more prone to risky behavior. Alaskans are more than
three times as likely as Rhode Islanders to die in an accident. Texans are twenty- one times more likely than
New Jerseyites to die in a natural disaster. Among the one hundred most populous counties, Kern County,
California (Bakersfield), has an accident fatality rate three times greater than Summit County, Ohio (Akron).
Accidents happen more often to poor people. Those living in poverty receive inferior medical care, are more
apt to reside in houses with faulty heating and electrical systems, drive older cars with fewer safety features,
and are less likely to use safety belts. People in rural areas have more accidents than city or suburban dwellers
because farming is much riskier than working in a factory or office and because emergency medical services
are less readily available. These two factors - low income and rural residence - may explain why the south has
a higher accident rate than the north.
(Source: Proficiency Reading)
Question 38. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Children aged five to nine face the greatest accident risk.
B. All people face an equal risk of having an accident.
C. One in every 22 people aged 85 and over will die in an accident.
D. The risk of having an accident is greater among certain groups of people.
Question 39. The word “inferior” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. modern B. low-quality C. well-equipped D. unsafe
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following groups of people in America face the
highest risk of having an accident?
A. Native Americans B. Asian-Americans
C. White Americans D. African-Americans
Question 41. What does the word “that” in the passage refer to___________?
A. males B. native Americans
C. the risk D. African-Americans
Question 42. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for a higher accident rate among the
poor?
A. Little knowledge about safety.
B. Inadequate medical services.
C. Poor housing and working conditions.
D. Use of cars which incorporate fewer safety features.
The concept of being environmentally conscious, or “green”, has become more prevalent in twenty first-
century U.S culture. It has begun to affect the manufacturing of everything from non- toxic household cleaning
products to motor vehicles powered by alternative sources of energy. However, one way of being “green” that
is perhaps not as apparent to the viewer but of equal importance in being environmentally conscious, is the
construction of buildings that are considered “sustainable”. Sustainable buildings are those that do not impose
on the environment or rely on the over-utilization of energy or natural resources. There are four main principles
of sustainability, which includes consideration of the health and stability of all living things and their
environmental diversity, as well as the economic opportunities of humanity.
Sustainable architecture consists of environmentally conscious design techniques. In the past, the demolition
of an old building meant that all or most of the debris of the building would end up in a landfill or a waste
disposal site. Today, architects can plan and design a building that uses recycled materials, such as wood,
concrete, stone, or metal. These materials are salvaged from the demolition of an older building and can be
appropriately incorporated into a new construction. Architects and construction supervisors may also choose
to recycle more organic parts of demolished buildings, such as wooden doors, windows and other glass,
ceramics, paper, and textiles.
A problem that has often arisen has been with how a site crew-whether it is demolition or
construction crew determines and sorts what is “waste” and what is recyclable. Architects and environmental
scientists have to decide whether or not a material is appropriate for use in new construction and how it will
impact the environment. They must evaluate the materials from the demolition and determine what those
materials contain, and if they meet the standards set by the U.S, government’s Environmental Protection
Agency (the EPA). If the debris from the demolition contains hazardous materials that are harmful to the
environment or to the consumer, such as asbestos, then the material is not salvageable. Use of the asbestos for
insulation and as a form of fire retardation in buildings and fabrics was common in the nineteenth century.
Asbestos was once used in shingles on the sides of buildings, as well as in the insulation in the interior walls
of homes or other construction. In new “green” construction, insulation that once asbestos- based can be
replaced with recycled denim or constructed with cellulose-a fibrous material found in paper products. The
same-assessment applies to wood or wallboard painted with toxic lead-based paints. In addition, gas-flow
regulators and meters on both water and gas heating systems constructed prior to 1961 must be carefully
evaluated to determine that they do not contain dangerous substances such as mercury. Mercury can be harmful
to humans and the environment if it is spilled during the removal of these devices.
Question 43. The word “prevalent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. rare B. unusual C. widespread D. valuable
Question 44. In paragraph 1, the author implies that___________.
A. some companies manufacture vehicles that are not powered by gasoline
B. the concept of being green has not influenced manufacture
C. uses of alternative energy are apparent to the consumer
D. all buildings impose on the environment
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true?
A. All construction follows the concept of sustainable architecture.
B. Sustainable buildings do not overuse electricity, oil, or gas.
C. Todays cleaning products and appliances harm the environment.
D. Construction of “green” buildings is an old idea.
Question 46. In paragraph 2, the word “salvaged” is closest in meaning to___________.
A. lost B. destroyed C. buried D. saved
Question 47. According to paragraph 2, environmentally conscious design incorporates___________.
A. safe, organic, recycled materials B. new wood, stone, or concrete
C. debris from a demolished building D. materials from a landfill
Question 48. In paragraph 3, the author mention both demolition and construction crews in order
to___________
A. give an example of how choosing materials is not easily determined on a site
B. illustrate the types of crews that sort waste and recyclables
C. demonstrate that choosing recyclable materials is challenging for both crews
D. contrast the work of the two types of crews on a site
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. the EPA
B. the site crew
C. architects and environmental scientists
D. the materials from the demolition
Question 50. In paragraph 3, the author mentions all of the following hazardous materials found in
debris from a demolition site EXCEPT___________.
A. cellulose B. mercury C. asbestos D. lead
TRƯỜNG THPT QUẢNG XƯƠNG 1 GIAO LƯU KIẾN THỨC THI TN THPT
TỈNH THANH HÓA LẦN 3 – NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề 303 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
Mark the fetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1: A. agreed B. intended C. managed D. revealed
Question 2: A. prepare B. expert C. select D. effect
Question 3: A. prefer B. produce C. practice D. provide
Question 4: A. sufficient B. approachable C. educate D. production
questions.
Question 5: She didn't deserve to get fired after working so hard, _______?
A. doesn't she B. did she C. won't she D. is she
Question 6: On 5th April, 2021, Mr. Pham Minh Chinh _______ as the 8th Prime Minister of Viet Nam.
A. elected B. was electing C. was elected D. elects
Question 7: Many wild animals are _______ threat _______ extinction.
A. at – of B. on – with C. under – of D. in – with
Question 8: The more time he spends with his children, _______ he is.
A. the more happy B. happier C. more happy D. the happier
Question 9: They cook a _______ meal for their children.
A. delicious traditional Vietnamese B. Vietnamese delicious traditional
C. traditional delicious Vietnamese D. delicious Vietnamese traditional
Question 10: _______ his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.
A. In spite of B. Even though C. Because of D. Because
Question 11: He came when I _______ the film "Man from the star”.
A. has watched B. watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 12: He will have moved to England _______.
A. until we finished the project B. by the time we finish the project
C. before we will finish the project D. when we had finished the project
Question 13: University students __________ in linguistics may take courses including phonetics, semantics,
and pragmatics.
A. major B. to major C. majored D. majoring
Question 14: Sports can be an effective way to foster blood circulation, burn extra fat as well as improve our
stamina and _______.
A. flexible B. flexile C. flexibility D. flextime
Question 15: Some high school students often _______ helping the disadvantaged or handicapped children.
A. look after B. clean up C. make out D. participate in
Question 16: TV companies _______ their programmes across the country or even across the world.
A. broadcast B. refresh C. connect D. publish
Question 17: _______ people are those who share the same interests, or points of view.
A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded
Question 18: My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he _______ to the
occasion wonderfully.
A. rose B. raised C. fell D. faced
Question 19: She will have to _______ if she wants to pass the final exam.
A. pull up her socks B. work miracles C. take the trouble D. keep her hand in
Question 20: Mother Teresa devoted herself to caring for the sick and the poor.
A. spent B. contributed C. gave up D. dedicated
Question 21: Everyone agreed with Janice's point that the accounts could have been falsified.
A. forged B. innovated C. revealed D. improvised
Question 22: In the early 21st century, with the explosion of mobile communication technology, the
mobile phone has emerged as a new and unique channel.
A. disappearance B. destruction C. exploitation D. exploration
Question 23: Her career ground to a halt when the twins were born.
A. stopped suddenly B. was interrupted C. made her tired D. developed quickly
Question 24: Ella is asking Eric about self-study.
- Ella: “Do you think people with self-education can succeed nowadays?"
- Eric: “________ because they tend to be very independent and self-disciplined."
A. I'm not so sure about that B. That's what I was thinking
C. It's out of the question D. I don't think it's right
Question 25: Huy was asking Mai, his classmate, for her opinion about the book he had lent her.
- Huy: "What do you think about the book?"
- Mai: “____________________”
A. Yes, let's read it together. B. The best I've ever read!
C. I can't agree with you more. D. I wish I could buy one.
Question 26: Friendly though she may seem, she's not to be trusted.
A. However friendly she seems, she's not to be trusted.
B. She's too friendly to be trusted.
C. However she seems friendly, she's not to be trusted.
D. She may have friends, but she's not to be trusted.
Question 27: "Believe me. It's no use reading that book," Janet told her boyfriend.
A. Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.
B. Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was worthwhile.
C. Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading.
D. Janet opposed her boyfriend's idea that reading the book was not useful.
Question 28: The last time I saw David was when I went to my friend's birthday party.
A. I haven't seen David since my friend's birthday party.
B. When I last went to my friend's birthday party, I met David.
C. It's long time ago when I last saw David at my friend's birthday party.
D. I finally saw David when I was going to my friend's birthday party.
Question 29: Mary was not here yesterday. Perhaps she was ill.
A. Mary needn't be here yesterday because she was ill.
B. Because of her illness, Mary shouldn't have been here yesterday.
C. Mary might have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.
D. Mary must have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.
Question 30: I didn't know that you were at home. I didn't visit you.
A. If I knew that you were at home, I would visit you.
B. If I had known that you were at home, I would have visited you.
C. If I knew that you had been at home, I would have visited you.
D. If I would know that you were at home, I visited you.
People in the UK enjoy fewer years of good health before they die than the citizens of most
comparable European countries as well as Australia and Canada, a major report shows. While life expectancy
has improved by 4.2 years in the UK over the two decades, other countries have improved faster. In 2010,
Spain topped the league. Its people could expect 70.9 years of healthy life - before disease and disability began
to take a toll. Second came Italy, with 70.2 years and third was Australia, with 70.1 years. In the UK, we
can expect 68.6 healthy years of life. Hunt said the UK was a long way behind its global counterparts and
called for action by local health commissioners to tackle the five big killers - cancer, heart disease,
stroke, respiratory and liver diseases. Drinking and drug use have been the main issues behind the worsening
of the UK's ranking in early deaths among adults aged 20-54. In 2010, drugs were the sixth leading cause of
death in this age group and alcohol was 18th - up from 32nd and 43rd place respectively 20 years earlier.
Hunt will on Tuesday announce a strategy to tackle cardiovascular disease, which he says could
save 30,000 lives a year. “Despite real progress in cutting deaths, we remain a poor relative to our global
cousins on many measures of health, something I want to change," he said. "For too long we have been
lagging behind and I want the reformed health system to take up this challenge and turn this shocking
underperformance around." However, the problem is only in part to do with hospital care - much of it is about
the way we live. Our diet, our drinking and continuing smoking habits all play a part, which assumes its
responsibilities on 1st April.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
Question 31: The best title for this passage could be ________.
A. Life expectancy in the UK in comparison with other countries
B. The causes of early deaths in the UK
C. Life expectancy in the UK and its efforts to solve health problems
D. Five big killers in the UK
Question 32: The word "cardiovascular" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
A. respiratory B. digestive C. skeletal D. cardiac
Question 33: According to the passage, what is NOT the cause of death in the UK?
A. drug B. alcohol C. drinking D. food
Question 34: According to the passage, Hunt is showing his attempt to ________.
A. lower death rates B. better the health system in the UK
C. take up more challenge D. change people's diet
Question 35: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. challenge B. diet C. problem D. disease
If you could travel back in time five centuries, you'd encounter a thriving Aztec empire in Central Mexico,
a freshly painted "Mona Lisa" in Renaissance Europe and cooler temperatures across the
Northern Hemisphere. This was a world in the midst of the Little Ice Age (A.D. 1300 to 1850) and a period of
vast European exploration now known as the Age of Discovery. But what if we could look 500 years into
the future and glimpse the Earth of the 26th century? Would the world seem as different to us as the 21st
century would have seemed to residents of the 16th century? For starters, what will the weather be like?
Depending on whom you ask, the 26th century will either be a little chilly or infernally hot. Some
solar output models suggest that by the 2500s, Earth's climate will have cooled back down to near Little Ice
Age conditions. Other studies predict that ongoing climate change and fossil fuel use will render much of
the planet too hot for human life by 2300.
Some experts date the beginning of human climate change back to the Industrial Revolution in the 1800s,
others to slash-and-burn agricultural practices in prehistoric times. Either way, tool-wielding humans alter
their environment - and our 26th century tools might be quite impressive indeed.
Theoretical physicist and futurist Michio Kaku predicts that in a mere 100 years, humanity will make
the leap from a type zero civilization to a type I civilization on the Kardashev Scale. In other words,
we'll become a species that can harness the entire sum of a planet's energy. Wielding such power, 26th-
century humans will be masters of clean energy technologies such as fusion and solar power. Furthermore,
they will be able to manipulate planetary energy in order to control global climate. Physicist Freeman Dyson,
on the other hand, estimates the leap to a type 1 civilization would occur within roughly 200 years. Technology
has improved exponentially since the 1500s, and this pace will likely continue in the centuries to come.
Physicist Stephen Hawking proposes that by the year 2600, this growth would see 10 new theoretical physics
papers published every 10 seconds. If Moore's Law holds true and both computer speed and complexity
double every 18 months, then some of these studies may be the work of highly intelligent machines.
What other technologies will shape the world of the 26th century? Futurist and author Adrian
Berry believes the average human lifespan will reach 140 years and that the digital storage of human
personalities will enable a kind of computerized immortality. Humans will farm the oceans, travel in starships
and reside in both lunar and Martian colonies while robots explore the outer cosmos.
(Source: https://science.howstuffworks.com)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. How would the world change in the next 500 years?
B. What would we do in the next five centuries?
C. What problems would happen in the 26th century?
D. How would technology improve the life in the far future?
Question 37: The word "infernally" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. differently B. extremely C. permanently D.
contemporaneously
Question 38: The word "harness" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ________.
A. renew B. adjust C. exploit D. discover
Question 39: What does the word "they" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fusion and solar energy B. clean energy technologies
C. masters D. 26th century humans
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE about the future predictions?
A. Michio Kaku believes that the progress from type 0 to type I civilization will take about two centuries.
B. People in the 2500s are likely to control the energy of the Earth to limit the global climate.
C. The speed of technology improvement will remain changeable in the far future.
D. Solar energy will be the main power for the 26th century citizens.
Question 41: According to Adrian Berry the following are what future humans can do, EXCEPT ________.
A. cultivating in the oceans B. traveling between the stars
C. exploring the universe by robots D. living as long as they want
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. no one could be sure what life would be like in the 2500s.
B. what we imagine about the life in the 26th century may be the same what the 16th-century people
thought about the current life.
C. the predictions of different scientists may draw the same world in the next 500 years.
D. technology will affect most of the fields in the future life.
Question 43: To everyone's surprising, it wasn't in Da Nang City that he made his fortune, although that's
where he was born.
A. Το B. that C. made D. surprising
Question 44: For many years, people have used some kinds of refrigerator cooling beverages and
preserve edibles.
A. have used B. edibles C. kinds D. cooling
Question 45: The guest of honors, along with his wife and children, were sitting at the first table when we had
a party yesterday.
A. his wife B. were C. when D. at
Amy Tan was born on February 19, 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern California, (46)
_____ when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she moved with her mother and
younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux, Switzerland. She returned to the
United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language development consultant and as a corporate
freelance writer. (47) _____ 1985, she wrote the "Rules of the Game” for a writing workshop, which laid the
early foundation for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the book explored the (48) _____
between Chinese women and their Chinese-American daughters, and became the longest running New York
Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club received numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times
Book Award. It has been translated into 25 languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion
picture for (49) _____ Tan co-wrote the screenplay. Tan's (50) _____ works have also been adapted into
several different forms of media.
Question 46: A. however B. moreover C. so D. but
Question 47: A. Until B. Before C. Since D. In
Question 48: A. association B. correspondence C. relationship D. solidarity
Question 49: A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 50: A. another B. other C. the other D. others
-------THE END-------

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. climate B. examine C. invitation D. interview
Question 2. A. society B. geography C. dry D. sandy
Question 3. A. dismiss B. destroy C. display D. district
Question 4. A. entertain B. candidate C. referee D. afternoon
questions.
Question 5. When Bill got home, his children_____________in the yard.
A. will be playing B. were playing C. are playing D. played
Question 6. Did you manage_____________the book you were looking for?
A. to find B. found C. finding D. find
Question 7. That cannot be a true story. He_____________it up.
A. must have made B. should have made
C. would have made D. can have made
Question 8. Beethoven's Fifth Symphony_____________next weekend.
A. is going to be performed B. has been performed
C. will be performing D. will have performed
Question 9. She said that when she_____________to school, she saw an accident
A. had been walking B. has walked C. was walking D. has been walking
Question 10. She wanted Tom, _____________she liked, as a partner, but she got Jack, She
didn’t like.
A. whom/ whose B. whose/ whom C. whose/ whose D. whom/ whom
Question 11. Scarcely_____________out of bed when_____________
A. had I got/ did the doorbell ring B. had I got/ the doorbell rang
C. I had got/ did the doorbell ring D. I had got/ the doorbell rang
Question 12. I think he will join us, _____________?
A. won’t he B. don’t I C. will not he D. do not I
Question 13. For more than 10 years, we have seen the significant_____________in the economy
of our country.
A. develop B. developments C. developers D. developed
Question 14. The_____________load for this car is one ton.
A. top B. max C. peak D. height
Question 15. Most modern office_____________includes facsimile machines, photocopiers and
telephone systems.
A. device B. tool C. equipment D. instrument
Question 16. I just took it_____________that he’d always be on time.
A. into consideration B. easy C. into account D. for granted
Question 17. That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve_____________!
A. put your foot in it B. killed two birds with one stone
C. put two and two together D. hit the nail on the head
Question 18. My car is getting unreliable. I think I’ll trade it_____________for a new one.
A. off B. away C. in D. up
Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 19. I visited Mexico and United States last year.
A. visited B. Mexico C. United States D. last year
Question 20. Yesterday he said he regretted not to have gone to the exhibition last week.
A. yesterday B. said C. regretted D. not to have gone
Question 21. Minh’s mother would sooner not to meet her friend in person than phone her.
A. sooner B. not to meet C. in person D. than
Question 22. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not to be trusted.
A. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
B. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
D. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
Question 23. The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 24. Calling Odyse is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s worth not calling Odyse since his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Odyse since his phone is out of order.
C. It’s useless call Odyse as his phone is out of order.
D. There is no point in calling odyse as his phone is out of order.
Question 25. Randy doesn’t play rugby. Neither does Lucy
A. Neither Randy nor Lucy doesn’t play rugby.
B. Neither Randy nor Lucy play rugby.
C. Neither Randy nor Lucy plays rugby.
D. Either Randy or Lucy plays rugby.
Question 26. Nguyen Huu Kim Son broke the SEA Games record in the men’s 400-metre individual
medley event. He is very proud of it.
A. He is very proud of what he broke the SEA Games record.
B. He takes pride in breaking the SEA Games record.
C. He is interested in the SEA Games record.
D. He is very proud of he broke the SEA Games record.
Question 27. This situation happened in a restaurant
- Customer: “Excuse me!”
- Waiter: “Yes, sir. How can I help you?”
- Customer: “I don’t want to make a scene but there’s a fly in my soup.”
- Waiter: “_____________”
A. I’m so sorry! I will get you another one.
B. What can I do to help?
C. You are right. I will get you another one.
D. You could be right but I don’t think it is a fly.
Question 28. Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
- Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
- Mary: “_____________”
A. I couldn’t agree more. B. I don’t like your saying.
C. I didn’t say anything. D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel.
Question 29. One of the biggest issues that many victims of negligent behavior encounter is difficulty in
determining whether or not an action had foreseeable consequences.
A. predictable B. unpredictable C. ascertainable D. computable
Question 30. We’re really close friends but we just cannot see eye to eye on politics.
A. not see well B. not share the same views about
C. not understand D. not care for
Question 31. The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the precision
of the sampling procedure.
A. inaccuracy B. exactness C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 32. Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of the time just
before the check-in counter closed.
A. in a terrible condition B. with all out luggage
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps foster
independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus teaching
people how to (33) _____________their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into touch
with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others
that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, (34) _____________they do have many skills that
can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be harnessed for
the benefit of their fellow human beings, and ultimately themselves. From (35) _____________this, the gain
to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is (36) _____________.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (37) _____________have shown an ability to work as part
of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be desirable qualities
in any employee.
Question 33. A. give B. work C. put D. take
Question 34. A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 35. A. all B. none C.above D. both
Question 36. A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassible
Question 37. A. which B. whose C. who D. what
Insects’ lives are very short and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to breed and
perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their chance of survival. To look "inedible" by
imitating plants is a way frequently used by insects to survive. Mammals rarely imitate plants, but many fish
and invertebrates do.
The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly distinguishable from a brown or green twig. This caterpillar is
quite common and can be found almost anywhere in North America. It is also called "measuring worm" or
"inchworm." It walks by arching its body, then stretching out and grasping the branch with its front feet then
looping its body again to bring the hind fed forward, when danger threatens, the stick caterpillar stretches its
body away from the branch at an angle and remains rigid and still, like a twig, until the danger has passed.
Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection: they look like
inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in size from the few inches of
the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over a foot long, when at rest their front legs
are stretched out, heightening their camouflage. Some of the tropical species are adorned with spines or ridges,
imitating the thorny bushes or trees in which they live.
Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies can suddenly disappear from
view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the plants that they resemble.
A. Caterpillars that live in trees
B. The feeding habits of insects
C. How some insects imitate plants to survive
D. Insects that are threatened with extinction
Question 39. Which of the following does the word “enemies” in line 1 refer to?
A. plants looking like insects B. extreme weather conditions
C. creatures that eat insects D. insects looking like plants
Question 40. According to the passage, how does a stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?
A. By holding its body stiff and motionless
B. By looping itself around a stick
C. By changing the colour of its skin
D. By laying its body flat against a branch
Question 41. Which of the following is the antonym of the word “inedible” in paragraph 3?
A. eatable B. colourful C. beautiful D. moving
Question 42. How can butterflies make themselves invisible?
A. By hiding under the leaves
B. By disappearing from the view
C. By folding wings and sitting still among the leaves with similar colours
D. By flying among colourful flowers
There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard for any
underlying terrain and those that are confined by terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents, appropriately called
ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered with ice for the glacier to qualify as
an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over the ocean, they form ice shelves.
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern Alaska, western
Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its thickest point in northern Alberta.
Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering Greenland and Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square kilometers is
called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in northeastern Canada, on Baffin
Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called mountain or
alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that controls their flow. One form
of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows outward in several directions is called an ice field.
The difference between an ice field and an ice cap is subtle. Essentially, the flow of an ice field is somewhat
controlled by surrounding terrain and thus does not have the domelike shape of a cap. There are several ice
fields in Wrangell. St. Elias, and Chugach mountains of Alaska and northern British Columbia.
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the cirque and valley
glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a characteristic circular
shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys, curves around their corners, and falls
over cliffs.
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Where major glaciers are located
B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers
D. How glaciers are formed
Question 44. The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
Question 45. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named because____________
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 46. According to the passage, where was the Cordilleran Ice Sheet thickest?
A. Alaska B. Antarctica C. Greenland D. Alberta
Question 47. According to paragraph 5, ice fields resemble ice caps in which of the following ways?
A. Their flow B. Their texture C. Their location D. Their shape
Question 48. The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 49. The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to____________.
A. ice fields B. cirque glaciers C. valley glaciers D. valleys
Question 50. All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT____________.
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers
SỞ GD&ĐT TỈNH BÀ RỊA – VŨNG TÀU KÌ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT
CỤM CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 (LẦN 2)
TẠI TP VŨNG TÀU Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề 485 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 1: You cannot completely avoid stress in your life. You need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As you cannot completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.
B. While you cannot completely avoid stress in your life, you needn't find ways to cope with it.
C. After you can completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.
D. As long as you can completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.
Question 2: These students may be excellent. They will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
A. Excellent as may be, these students will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
B. These students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they may be excellent.
C. Excellent as may these students be, they will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
D. These students may be too excellent to get used to dealing with practical situations.
answer to each of the following questions from 3 to 7.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased.
The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization
and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise
to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools
were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to
age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly
lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools and extracurricular activities, and vocational education and
counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger
industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public
schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of
specific populations. Immigrant women were once such a population. Schools tried to educate young
women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many
educators considered appropriate for women was the home. Although looking after the house and family was
familiar to immigrant women, American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial
economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly
included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-
twentieth century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus,
the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to
be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their
own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms
have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.
Question 3: Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of __________.
A. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
Question 4: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. production B. consumption C. education D. homemaking
Question 5: The phrase "coincided with" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. ensured the success of B. was influenced by
C. began to grow rapidly D. happened at the same time as
Question 6: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance
of education in the United States was __________.
A. an increase in the number of trained teachers
B. the expanding economic problems of schools
C. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
D. the increased urbanization of the entire country
Question 7: According to the passage, early-twentieth-century education reformers believed that _______.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. more women should be involved in education and industry
C. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
D. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
following questions from 8 to 10.
Question 8: It is now obligatory for visitors to leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
A. Visitors can't leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
B. Visitors needn't leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
C. Visitors may leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
D. Visitors must leave umbrellas and sticks in the cloakroom.
Question 9: “You are a newcomer here, aren't you?" she asked me.
A. She wanted to know why I was a newcomer here. B. She said that I was a newcomer here.
C. She asked me whether I was a newcomer there. D. She told me that she was a newcomer there.
Question 10: As Keanu Reeves became more famous, it was more difficult for him to avoid
newspaper reporters.
A. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult it was for him to avoid newspaper reporters.
B. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult for him it was to avoid newspaper reporters.
C. The more difficult it was for Keanu Reeves to avoid newspaper reporters, the more famous he became.
D. The more Keanu Reeves became famous, the more difficult for him to avoid newspaper reporters it
was.
Question 11: She was a woman of great courage and she will long be remembered by her grief-stricken
family and friends.
A. becoming thoroughly miserable B. being financially insecure
C. feeling extremely happy D. getting much involved
Question 12: It was the first time that we had been reunited since I had all my heart and soul upon her.
A. integrated B. separated C. repeated D. stabilized
Question 13: The number of nature reserves have increased dramatically so as to protect endangered species.
A. have increased B. nature reserves C. dramatically D. endangered
species
Question 14: According to most medical experts, massage relieves pain and anxiety, cases depression
and speeding up recovery from illnesses.
A. relieves B. illnesses C. most medical experts D. speeding up
Question 15: We have conducted exhausting research into the effects of wearing masks on slowing the spread
of the coronavirus that causes COVID-19.
A. into B. the spread C. exhausting D. causes
The term "folk song" has been current for over a hundred years, but there is still a good deal
of disagreement as to what it actually means. The definition provided by the International Folk Music
Council states that folk music is the music of ordinary people, which is passed on from person to person by
being listened to rather than learned from the printed page. Other factors that help shape a folk song
include: continuity (many performances over a number of years): variation (changes in words and melodies
either through artistic interpretation or failure of memory); and selection (the acceptance of a song by
the community in which it evolves).
When songs have been subjected to these processes, their origin is usually impossible to trace. For instance,
if a farm laborer were to make up a song and sing it to a couple of friends who like it and memorize it, possibly
when the friends come to sing it themselves, one of them might forget some of the words and make up new
ones to fill the gap, while the other, perhaps more artistic, might add a few decorative touches to the tune and
improve a couple of lines of text. If this happened a few times, there would be many different versions, the
song's original composer would be forgotten, and the song would become common property. This constant
reshaping and re-creation is the essence of folk music. Consequently, modem popular songs and other
published music, even though widely sung by people who are not professional musicians, are not considered
folk music. The music and words have been set by a printed or recorded source, limiting scope for further
artistic creation. These songs' origins cannot be disguised and therefore they belong primarily to the composer
and not to a community.
The ideal situation for the creation of folk music is an isolated rural community. In such a setting folk songs
and dances have a special purpose at every stage in a person's life, from childhood to death. Epic tales of heroic
deeds, seasonal songs relating to calendar events, and occupational songs are also likely to be sung.
(Source: http://www.thereadingplanet.com)
Question 16: The word "essence" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. basic nature B. full extent C. growing importance D. first phase
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a characteristic of the typical
folk song?
A. It is passed on to other people by being performed.
B. It is usually impossible to trace its origin.
C. It is constantly changing over time.
D. It contains complex musical structures.
Question 18: Which of the following statements about the term "folk song" is supported by the passage?
A. The International Folk Music Council invented it. B. It has been used for several centuries.
C. It is considered to be out-of-date. D. There is disagreement about its meaning.
A. Elements that define folk music
B. Influences of folk music on popular music
C. Themes commonly found in folk music
D. The standards of the International Folk Music Council
Question 20: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to______.
A. selection B. song C. community D. acceptance
Question 21: According to the passage, why would the original composers of folk songs be forgotten?
A. Folk songs are not considered an important form of music.
B. Singers dislike the decorative touches in folk song tunes.
C. Audience prefers songs composed by professional musicians.
D. Numerous variations of folk songs come to exist at the same time.
Question 22: The author mentions that published music is not considered folk music because ______.
A. the songs attract only the young people in a community
B. the composers write the music in rural communities
C. the original composer can be easily identified
D. the songs are generally performed by professional singers
Question 23: She came in quietly ______ not to wake the baby.
A. such as B. so as C. as if D. if so
Question 24: You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ______ is at the desk.
A. whom B. who C. whoever D. which
Question 25: Not until the dedication of Yellowstone Park in the late nineteenth century ______
national park.
A. that the United States had B. when the United States had
C. did the United States have D. the United States had
Question 26: When ______ on July 4, 1789, the federal tariff was remarkably evenhanded.
A. was first enacted B. was entered first C. first enacted D. it first enacted
Question 27: To our ______, Geoffrey's illness proved not to be as serious as we had feared.
A. judgment B. eyes C. relief D. anxiety
Question 28: With a nod and a smile, she ______ her friends.
A. took leave of B. felt pity for C. lost touch with D. gave birth to
Question 29: Marie Curie was the first and only woman ______ two Nobel prizes.
A. to be won B. to have won C. won D. that win
Question 30: By the time you receive this letter, I ______ for Japan.
A. will leave B. will have left C. have left D. would have left
Question 31: Remember ______ your answer before handing in your exam paper.
A. check B. to check C. checking D. being checked
Question 32: You had better keep a box of matches ______ in case the lights go out again.
A. handshake B. handful C. handy D. hands-on
Question 33: If I had enough money, ____________.
A. I could have bought that house B. I would buy that house
C. I will buy that house D. I bought that house
Question 34: She has just bought ______________.
A. a French old interesting painting B. an old interesting painting French
C. an interesting old French painting D. a French interesting old paint
Question 35: He hardly ever makes a mistake, ______?
A. didn't he B. does he C. did he D. doesn't he
Question 36: They decided to place _______ African elephant on their List of Endangered Species.
A. x (no article) B. a C. an D. the
Question 37: Shall we ______ across this field instead of going along the road?
A. take B. cut C. come D. set
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 38 to 39.
Question 38: A. finished B. punched C. swallowed D. practiced
Question 39: A. modal B. modest C. model D. modern
position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 40 to 41.
Question 40: A. machine B. student C. career D. guitar
Question 41: A. researcher B. lecturer C. conference D. reference
There is (42) _______ debate between archeologists about when and where the first
civilizations developed. That is because the answer to that question depends on what one defines as a
civilization. If a civilization is simply a small group of people having a similar culture and beliefs, then
civilizations have existed in many parts of the world for thousands of years. If a civilization is defined as a
larger, more complex society (43) _______ a government and the construction of cities, then the first
civilization was probably the Sumerian civilization in what is now Iraq. The Sumerians were (44) _______
from the Ubaid culture, which was made up of small villages of farmers who lived slightly farther north.
Sometime around 4,000 B.C. these farmers moved down into the valley along the Tigris River.
This land received little rain, and was unsuitable for farming. Therefore, it was empty and the Sumerians
had plenty of (45) _______ and little competition from other peoples. What allowed the Sumerians
to successfully farm in this dry land was their knowledge of irrigation, the practice of taking water from a
river or lake and moving it to fields through the use of man-made canals. This allowed the Sumerians to farm
here successfully (46) _______ the lack of rain. We know that the Sumerians had a great understanding
of irrigation because their language is filled with words related to it.
(Source: TOEFL IBT - Reading)
Question 42: A. many B. a number of C. the number of D. much
Question 43: A. with B. of C. in D. off
Question 44: A. deselected B. descended C. desecrated D. declined
Question 45: A. garden B. house C. village D. room
Question 46: A. as a result B. because of C. on account of D. in spite of
of the following exchanges from 47 to 48.
Question 47: Jack and Jane are talking about the skills for teenagers.
Jack: “______________”
Jane: “Absolutely. They also encourage interest and interaction from others in your team.”
A. That's true! Lacking this skill may lead me to feel depressed and lose my temper easily.
B. Ok. So, are you going to take up a French course besides improving your English?
C. I believe that interpersonal communication skills can help us to get along well with everyone.
D. I expect the practical experience as a volunteer will make my CV look good.
Question 48: Mark and Tam are discussing the places they want to visit.
Tam: “Well, there are a lot of things to see in Hue. How about visiting Quoc Hoc High School?”
Mark: “___________”
A. Sounds interesting! Hope we can have a nice time there.
B. Great! Let's see the royal tombs first.
C. We may visit Phong Nha - Ke Bang National Park.
D. It'd be fun to explore Ha Long Bay at night on board.
Question 49: Indeed, learning a martial art makes one self-reliant and disciplined, and also greatly
boosts one's confidence.
A. respectful B. ambitious C. decisive D. independent
Question 50: Environmental concerns must be given precedence over commercial interest.
A. victory B. priority C. reference D. vacancy
-------THE END------

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. theatre B. thunder C. therefore D. throughout
Question 2. A. apologises B. invites C. roofs D. certificates
Question 3. A. sector B. lawyer C. workforce D. prefer
Question 4. A. diversity B. biography C. biology D. fundamental
questions.
Question 5. I don’t know much about computer, so I asked the assistant for____________advice.
A. a little B. many C. a few D. a lot
Question 6. You should know that everyone in this office____________busy planning the dance for a week.
A. is B. has been C. are D. have been
Question 7. The children were made____________up the mess they had left before they could watch TV.
A. clear B. to clear C. clearing D. cleared
Question 8. Most headaches____________with aspirin unless they are too severe.
A. can treat B. can be treating C. can be treated D. can treats
Question 9. I wish I____________able to accept that role, but I was preparing for another
play at the time.
A. were B. was C. had been D. have been
Question 10. Everyone thought she would accept the offer. _____, she turned it down immediately.
A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Hitherto
Question 11. I would have cooked something special if I____________you were coming.
A. knew B. know C. have known D. had known
Question 12. Women have proved repeatedly that they are equal and often superior____________men in
almost every field.
A. to B. than C. as D. over
Question 13. There is still widespread____________against older people in the job market.
A. discriminate B. discriminatory C. discrimination D. discriminating
Question 14. The arrested man is suspected of____________government funds for himself.
A.robbing B. appropriating C. appreciating D. confiscating
Question 15. It was hard to____________the temptation to watch the late-night show even though I was so
tired then.
A. defy B. resist C. refuse D. oppose
Question 16. The company managed to beat the ____________on delivering its new system.
A. team B. other C. time D. clock
Question 17. Even though she had been studying hard, she had only a________chance of passing the exam.
A. slim B. narrow C. thin D. light
Question 18. I ran in a marathon last week, but I was not fit enough. I____________after 15 kilometres.
A. dropped out B. moved in C. showed off D. closed down
Question 19. Keith had so interesting and creative plans that everyone wanted to work on his committee.
A. wanted B. plans C. so interesting D. on
Question 20. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial world.
A. in our large B. with C. many D. are
Question 21. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same idea.
A. sentences B. consists of C. to D. A paragraph
Question 22. Greater use of public transport would cut the amount of pollution from cars.
A. Were more people to use public transport, cars would stop releasing exhaust into the atmosphere.
B. If more people use public transport, it will cut the amount of pollution from cars.
C. If public transport was widely used, people would no longer suffer from pollution from cars.
D. If more people used public transport, there would be less pollution from cars.
Question 23. Mark delayed writing the book until he had done a lot of research.
A. Mark did a lot of research after he finished writing the book.
B. It was only when Mark had written the book that he did a lot of research.
C. Mark delayed writing the book as he had already done any research.
D. Only after Mark had done a lot of research did he begin to write the book.
Question 24. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 25. Lee gave up her job. She planned to continue her education.
A. Lee’s education was interrupted since she wanted to find a job.
B. Lee gave up her job with the aim at continuing her education.
C. Lee gave up her job in case she continued her education.
D. Lee gave up her job with a view to continuing her education.
Question 26. This is a rare opportunity. You should take advantage of it to get a better job.
A. You should take advantage of this rare opportunity, for which is to get a better job.
B. This is a rare opportunity what you should take advantage of to get a better job.
C. You should take advantage of this opportunity, that is rare to get a better job.
D. This is a rare opportunity that you should take advantage of to get a better job.
Question 27. Mark and Anne are talking after the class.
Mark: “Guess what? I’ve been recruited to be a member of Green Dream Volunteer Group.”
Anne: “____________”
A. Good luck next time!
B. That’s great! Congratulations!
C. That’s the least thing I could do for you.
D. It doesn’t make sense to me.
Question 28. Amy and Jacob are talking about the two-day excursion at the end of the school year. Amy:
“You look so sad. ____________”
Jacob: “I couldn’t get my parents’ permission to stay the night away from home.”
A. Can you help me? B. How do you deal with it?
C. What should I do? D. What's the problem?
Question 29. It was late at night, the wind was howling and when she heard the knock on the door, she almost
jumped out of her skin.
A. was surprised B. was asleep C. was terrified D. was delighted
Question 30. Wild animals use various methods to ward off predators and their natural enemies.
A. rebel B. befriend C. deter D. attack
Question 31. We should grow more trees so that they can absorb more carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
A. take in B. emit C. consume D. cut off
Question 32. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic growth,
stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution (33) ____________is as complicated as it is serious. It
is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. (34) ____________, exhaust
from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile provides transportation for
millions of people. Factories discharge much of the material that pollutes the air and water but factories give
(35) ____________to a large number of people.
Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (36) ____________using many
things that benefit them. Most people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be gradually reduced
in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the amount of pollution that such
things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws (37) ____________require
businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Question 33. A. event B. accident C. work D. problem
Question 34. A. As a result B. However C. Therefore D. For example
Question 35. A. employed B. employment C. unemployed D. unemployment
Question 36. A. start B. stop C. enjoy D. continue
Question 37. A. whom B. that C. whose D. who
By adopting a few simple techniques, parents who read to their children can considerably increase their
children's language development. It is surprising, but true. How parents talk to their children makes a big
difference in the children's language development. If a parent encourages the child to actively respond to what
the parent is reading, the child's language skills increase.
A study was done with two or three-year-old children and their parents. Half of the thirty children participants
were in the experimental study; the other half acted as the control group. In the experimental group, the parents
were given a two-hour training session in which they were taught to ask open-ended questions rather than yes-
no questions. For example, the parent should ask, "What is the doggy doing?" rather than, "Is the doggy
running away?" Experimental parents were also instructed how to expand on their children's answer, how to
suggest alternative possibilities, and how to praise correct answers.
At the beginning of the study, the children did not differ on levels of language development, but at the end of
one month, the children in the experimental group were 5.5 months ahead of the control group on a test of
verbal expression and vocabulary. Nine months later, the children in the experimental group still showed an
advance of 6 months over the children in the control group.
Question 38. Parents can give great help to their children's language development by__them.
A. responding to B. reading to C. adopting D. experimenting
Question 39. What does the word "they" in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Participants B. Children C. Questions D. Parents
Question 40. During the training session, experimental parents were taught to____________.
A. use yes-no questions B. study many experiments
C. ask open-ended questions D. give correct answers
Question 41. What was the major difference between the control group and the experimental one in the
study?
A. The number of participants. B. The books that were read.
C. The age of the children. D. The training that parents received.
Question 42. What conclusion can be drawn from this passage?
A. Children who read actively always act six months earlier than those who don't.
B. The more children read, the more intelligent they become.
C. Two or three-year-old children can be taught to read actively.
D. Children's language skills increase when they are required to respond actively.
The elements other than hydrogen and helium exist in such small quantities that it is accurate to say that the
universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium by weight and somewhat less than 75 percent hydrogen.
Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our galaxy and in other galaxies as well.
Helium has been found in old stars, in relatively young ones, in interstellar gas, and in the distant objects
known as quasars. Helium nuclei have also been found to be constituents of cosmic rays that fall on the earth
(cosmic rays are not really a form of radiation; they consist of rapidly moving particles of numerous different
kinds). It doesn’t seem to make very much difference where the helium is found. Its relative abundance never
seems to vary much. In some places, there may be slightly more of it; in others, slightly less, but the ratio of
helium to hydrogen nuclei always remains about the same.
Helium is created in stars. In fact, nuclear reactions that convert hydrogen to helium are responsible for most
of the energy that stars produce. However, the amount of helium that could have been produced in this manner
can be calculated, and it turns out to be no more than a few percent. The universe has not existed long enough
for this figure to be significantly greater. Consequently, if the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent
helium now, then it must have been about 25 percent helium at a time near the beginning.
However, when the universe was less than one minute old, no helium could have existed. Calculations indicate
that before this time temperatures were too high and particles of matter were moving around much too rapidly.
It was only after the one- minute point that helium could exist. By this time, the universe had cooled so
sufficiently that neutrons and protons could stick together. But the nuclear reactions that led to the formations
of helium went on for only a relatively short time. By the time the universe was a few minutes old, helium
production had effectively ceased
Question 43. What does the passage mainly explain?
A. Why hydrogen is abundant.
B. How stars produce energy.
C. When most of the helium in the universe was formed.
D. The difference between helium and hydrogen.
Question 44. According to the passage, helium is____________.
A. difficult to detect.
B. the oldest element in the universe.
C. the second-most abundant element in the universe.
D. the most prevalent element in quasars.
Question 45. The word “constituents” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. causes B. relatives C. components D. targets
Question 46. Why does the author mention “cosmic rays”?
A. To explain how the universe began.
B. As an example of an unsolved astronomical puzzle.
C. To explain the abundance of hydrogen in the universe.
D. As part of a list of things containing helium.
Question 47. The word “they” refers to____________ .
A. radiation B. constituents C. cosmic rays D. particles
Question 48. The word “vary” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. include B. mean C. stretch D. change
Question 49. The creation of helium within stars____________.
A. cannot be measured
B. produces hydrogen as a by-product
C. produces energy
D. causes helium to be much more abundant in old stars than in young stars
Question 50. Most of the helium in the universe was formed____________ .
A. in a very short time
B. in interstellar space
C. before most of the hydrogen
D. during the first minute of the universe's existence
SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
LIÊN TRƯỜNG THPT Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ
Mã đề 401
MỤC TIÊU
tường thuật, Câu hỏi đuôi, Đảo ngữ, Sự hòa hợp chủ ngữ & động từ, Phối hợp thì,... và kiến thức từ vựng cấp
THPT.
Part of what makes summers so hot is also what causes thunderstorms. As heat from the sun beats down
on Earth, the heat evaporates some of the water in lakes and oceans. The evaporated water stays in the air.
This evaporated water makes the air feel heavy and humid. Humid air is what makes you feel hot and sticky
(1) _______ the summer.
Warm humid air usually does not stay in one place. The wind can move it higher in the sky (2) _______ it will
cool off. When warm humid air cools, it forms clouds. As more water is moved from lakes and oceans to the
airs, the clouds get bigger and bigger.
Since summer, the air near the ground is hotter than it is during other seasons of the year. When this hot
air mixes with cool air from (3) _______ area, there will be changes in the weather. Greater differences
between the (4) _______ of the hot and cold air will cause greater changes in the weather. Imagine putting an
ice (5) _______ in a warm drink. As soon as the ice hits the warm drink, it will crack and pop. But if you put
the ice cube in a cool drink, it will not crack or pop as much. When warmer and cooler clouds get close to
one another, there may be some popping and cracking as the weather changes. There may be more clouds
or storms. A thunderstorm may be on its way.
(Adapted from Elfrieda H. Hiebert 2010)
Question 1: A. for B. while C. on D. during
Question 2: A. where B. who C. which D. that
Question 3: A. another B. much C. others D. other
Question 4: A. climates B. temperatures C. latitudes D. atmospheres
Question 5: A. cubic B. cubicle C. cubical D. cube
questions.
Question 6: Those two pictures hanging on the gallery wall_________ in France, and they are very well
known.
A. were painted B. were paint C. were painting D. painted
Question 7: _______, she often wears in red and black.
A. After I have met my beloved teacher B. Until I will meet my beloved teacher
C. By the time I meet my beloved teacher D. Whenever I meet my beloved teacher
Question 8: _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.
A. The hardest / the best B. The more / the much
C. The harder / the better D. The more hard / the more good
Question 9: He was pleased that things in his university were going on __________.
A. satisfying B. satisfactorily C. satisfactory D. satisfied
Question 10: I’m taking an intensive 2 day _______ course in computing. I want to learn the basics
quickly before I start my new job.
A. splash B. smash C. flash D. crash
Question 11: James could no longer bear the _______ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. domineering B. oppressive C. overbearing D. pressing
Question 12: My mother bought a ___________belt from a shop on Ba Dinh street.
A. nice brown leather B. brown nice leather C. nice leather brown D. leather brown
nice
Question 13: I agreed that the shop treated you very badly. But just write a polite letter of complaint. It’s not
worth making a _______ about it.
A. song and dance B. tooth and nail C. pins and needles D. length and
breadth
Question 14: Those cars are very expensive, _______?
A. are they B. are cars C. aren't they D. aren't cars
Question 15: She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her down _______ her poor eyesight.
A. because of B. in spite of C. although D. because
Question 16: Many young people travel all over the world, and then do all kinds of jobs before they _______.
A. settle down B. put down C. go down D. touch down
Question 17: He came when I ________ the film “Man from the star”.
A. was watching B. watched C. am watching D. has watched
Question 18: Would you kindly inform me who is responsible __________the travel arrangements?
A. to B. in C. for D. on
Question 19: If the work-force respected you, you wouldn't need to ______ your authority so often.
A. assert B. inflict C. affirm D. maintain
Question 20: ___________ the book, I wrote down some notes.
A. Being read B. Read C. To read D. Having read
Question 21: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to
cooperate more in the future.
A. resolve a conflict over B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. express disapproval of
Question 22: Never punish your children by hitting them. This might teach them to become hitters.
A. accept B. give C. reward D. bring
Question 23: A living cell is a marvel of detailed and complex structure.
A. wonder B. magnification C. invention D. swiftness
Question 24: When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other
are immutable and will never alter.
A. constantly B. alterable C. everlasting D. unchangeable
Question 25: I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
Question 26: Eating Korean food is new to me.
A. I did not use to eating Korean food. B. I used to eat Korean food.
C. I have never eaten Korean food before. D. I no longer eat Korean food.
Question 27: “Would you like some more beer?” he asked.
A. He asked me would I like some more beer. B. He offered me some more beer.
C. He asked me if I liked some more beer. D. He wanted to invite me for a glass of beer.
Question 28: A. final B. survival C. liberty D. reliable
Question 29: A. received B. concealed C. attached D. concerned
Question 30: After John eats dinner, he wrote several letters and went to bed.
A. eats B. letters C. went D. he wrote
Question 31: Their children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A. primarily B. it C. experiencing D. world
Question 32: If you have some sufficient knowledge of English, you can make yourself understand almost
everywhere.
A. almost B. of C. some D. understand
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from about
54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to
recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to
critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can
only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities
are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic
activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society
than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and
societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and
network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can
make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can
spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas. But these utopian concepts
are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural
urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life
in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts
are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be
widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums,
exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of
disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face
of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of
these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of
insurance.
(Adapted from zurich.com)
Question 33: The word “that" in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. unsanitary conditions B. urban expansion
C. socio-economic disparities D. disease
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It makes the water supply system both efficient and effective.
B. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
C. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
D. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
A. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
Question 36: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. agreed on C. dealt with D. added to
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
Question 38: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
C. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
Question 39: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. encourage B. design C. need D. start
Question 40: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Question 41: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.
A. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport.
B. I could have seen Susan off at the airport.
C. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport.
D. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now.
During times of crisis, people find themselves faced with lifestyle changes. One of the earliest and
most noticeable changes seen during the Covid-19 lockdown was how we consume media-and especially how
we read.
People tend to find comfort in certain books, and reading habits and genre preferences can change
during periods of stress. This helps to explain why much genre fiction has roots in times of significant
social, political or economic upheaval. Gothic literature is, in part, a British Protestant response to the
French Revolution.
Respondents generally reported that they were reading more than usual. This was largely due to
having more free time (due to being furloughed, or not having a commute or the usual social obligation or
leisure activities). This increased reading volume was complicated for those with caring responsibilities.
Many people with children reported that their reading time had increased generally because of their shared
reading with children, but had less time than normal for personal reading. Reading frequency was
further complicated by a quality vs. quantity snag. People spent more time reading and seeking escape, but
an inability to concentrate meant they made less progress than usual. In short, people spent more time
reading but the volume they read was less.
Unsurprisingly, lockdown also made re-reading a physical necessity for some. Some respondents
noted how they were unable to visit the library or browse at the bookshop for new books. Others reported that
they simply wished to save money. On the other hand, the participants who reported re- reading less than
normal during the lockdown period wanted to use their newfound time to seek out new topics and genres.
(Adapted from theconversation.com)
A. Different kinds of people B. Different types of books
C. Changing in reading habits D. Different types of reading
Question 43: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Reading is unable to help people find comfort during stressful times.
B. Many great fiction books have been born in times of significant social upheaval.
C. Gothic literature was born during the French Revolution.
D. Reading habits can change during periods of stress.
Question 44: The word “commute” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. retirement B. a talk to other people C. unemployed person D. road to go to work
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. reading habit and reading time B. progresses in reading
C. reading time and ability to concentrate D. people spent time reading
Question 46: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the reason why people re-read more during
lockdown?
A. They love books so much. B. They want to save money.
C. They think it is necessary. D. They try to seek out new topics in books.
Question 47: Mai: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.” - Nga: “________”
A. Good idea, thanks B. It’s my pleasure C. Thanks, I will D. Never mind
Question 48: Mary: “Why are there generally so few women in top positions?” - Peter: “ ________ ”
A. I guess men tend to make better leaders.
B. Women also want to climb to top positions.
C. Top positions are the highest in the career ladder.
D. Top positions are high to climb to.
Question 49: A. popular B. beautiful C. favourite D. effective
Question 50: A. pressure B. cancel C. level D. respect
-------THE END------
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

ĐỀ SỐ 13 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. stone B. zone C. phone D. none
Question 2. A. university B. unique C. unit D. undo
Question 3. A. release B. offer C. amaze D. believe
Question 4. A. classify B. flexible C. sensitive D. tomato
questions.
Question 5. The examination was not very difficult, but it was_____________ long.
A. so much B. too much C. very much D. much too
Question 6. Our industrial output_____________from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.
A. rises B. has risen C. was rising D. rose
Question 7. We had a lot of fun_____________at the picnic.
A. to play B. playing C. played D. plays
Question 8. We_____________to take a taxi. Otherwise we’ll be late for the meeting.
A. would rather B. had better C. must have D. will have
Question 9. Some film stars_____________difficult to work with.
A. are said be B. are said to be C. say to be D. said to be
Question 10. the long jumper_____________the pole-vaulter win the prize.
A. Both-and B. Neither-nor C. Either-or D. Not only-but also
Question 11. _____________restaurant you pick is fine with me.
A. Whichever B. Whenever C. whoever D. wherever
Question 12. Now the manager is no longer as indifferent_____________criticism as he used to be.
A. against B. to C. towards D. with
Question 13. Does Mr. Mike bring his farm_____________to the local market every day?
A. productively B. productive C. product D. produce
Question 14. In population growth Latin America_____________first, Africa second, and Asia third.
A. places B. ranks C. numbers D. stands
Question 15. The referee_____________the coin to decide which team would kick the ball first.
A. caught B. threw C. cast D. tossed
Question 16. Sorry for being late. I was_____________in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 17. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a_____________day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow
Question 18. “What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly_____________and most certainly not for
publication” said the government to the reporter.
A. off the record B. for the time being
C. by the way D. on record
Question 19. The Canadian Shield is a huge, rocky region who curves around Hudson Bay like a giant
horseshoe.
A. a huge B. who C. around D. like
Question 20. Almost all of the people appeared on television wear makeup.
A. Almost B. of C. appeared D. wear
Question 21. The original World Cup trophy was given permanently to Brazil to honour that country’s record
third world cup title in Mexico in 1970.
A. The original World Cup trophy B. permanent
C. that country’s record D. in Mexico
Question 22. Studying all night is good for neither your grades nor your health.
A. Studying all night is good for your grades.
B. Studying all night does not help at all.
C. Studying all night is good for your health
D. Studying all night is helpful to you
Question 23. You should not keep bad company under any circumstances.
A. In no circumstances should you be friends with bad people.
B. Under no circumstances should you not keep bad company.
C. Under any circumstances shouldn’t you make friends with bad people.
D. In no circumstances should you keep your company because it is bad.
Question 24. Although he was disabled, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
A. Though a disabled boy, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
B. Though he was unable to walk, but the first time he practiced this sport, he was quite confident
C. In spite of being quite confident the first time he practiced this sport, he was disabled
D. He was quite confident when practicing this sport for the first time despite of a disabled boy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 25. My grandmother is very old. She can’t do the chores herself.
A. My grandmother is very old that she cant do the chores herself.
B. My grandmother is too old to do the chores herself.
C. My grandmother is such old that she cant do the chores herself.
D. My grandmother is too old to not do the chores herself.
Question 26. She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came home at
9.30.
A. She had been listening to the radio at 7.30
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30
C. She had been listening to the radio after 7.30
D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30
Question 27. Hana and Rina are talking about Lucy.
- Hanna: “Lucy has lost her purse somewhere this morning!”
- Rina: “_____________”
A. Tough luck B. Congratulations!
C. Never mind. D. I will take it for her
Question 28. Lucia wants to borrow his friends bike.
- Lucia: “Would you mind if I used your bike?”
- Friend: “_____________”
A. I don’t want to use your bike. B. Sure, go ahead.
C. Sorry, no, I won't do it. D. Please accept it with my best wishes.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
Question 29. We had never experienced such discourtesy towards the elderly as it occurred at this center
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Question 30. Just by coincidence, I met my old classmate after 20 years.
A. sight B. surprise C. chance D. luck
Question 31. His thoughtless comments made her very angry.
A. kind B. honest C. thoughtful D. pleasant
Question 32. I could not see what she was doing. It was so dark there.
A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from
The story of gold is an adventure involving kings, queens, pirates, explorers, conquerors, and
the native people they conquered. Throughout history, gold has (33) _____________a magic spell over
those it touched. Gold is beautiful and rare; a soft shiny metal that can be moulded into many shapes. It has
been used for money, jewelry, and to decorate special buildings such as palaces and places of worship. (34)
_____________the precious metal was discovered, prospectors rushed to mine it, starting new cities and
countries as they went. Gold and the people who love it have helped shape the world we live in today. Gold is
one of many elements, or substances that cannot be changed by normal chemical means, that are found in the
Earth's crust. Gold has a warm, sunny colour and (35) _____________it does not react with air, water, and
most chemicals, its shine never fades. In its natural (36) _____________, gold is soft and easily shaped, when
heated to 1,062 Celsius it melts and can be poured (37) _____________moulds to form coins, gold bars, and
other objects. Stories have been told, movies made and legends born about the discovery of the world's great
gold deposits. It is a saga of dreams, greed, ambition and exploration.
Question 33. A. knitted B.folded C. woven D. sewn
Question 34. A. Whoever B. However C. Wherever D. Whatever
Question 35. A. despite B. because C. yet D. so
Question 36. A. position B. size C. condition D.shape
Question 37. A. into B. forward C. with D. at
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour wave and is used as the scientific term for seismic sea wave
generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landside or volcanic eruption, when the ocean
floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created similar to the concentric waves generated
by an object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis originate along the Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and
seismic activity, 32,500 km long that encircles the Pacific Ocean. Since 1819, about 40 tsunamis have struck
the Hawaiian Islands.
A tsunami can have wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of kilometers across
the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon entering shallow coastal waters,
the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at sea, suddenly grows rapidly. When the
wave reaches the shore, it may be 15 m high or more. Tsunamis have tremendous energy because of the great
volume of water affected. They are capable of obliterating coastal settlements.
Tsunamis should nót be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise underneath hurricanes
or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach land. Storm surges are particularly
devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge skilled an estimated 500,000
people in Bangladesh in 1970. The tsunami which struck south and southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200
thousand people.
Question 38. What does the word “concentric” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. wavy B. having many centres
C. having a common centre D. a ring
Question 39. what is the greatest speed of tsunami travelling across the deep ocean?
A. 200 kilometres an hour B. 700 kilometres an hour
C. 800 kilometres an hour D. 150,000 kilometres an hour
Question 40. How are tsunami capable of obliterating coastal settlements?
A. They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected.
B. They are a metre high or more.
C. They travel hundreds of kilometres
D. They can strike the shore fifteen metres high
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Tsunami only occurs in Asia
B. A cyclone along with storm surges happened in Asia in 1970.
C. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones.
D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding.
Question 42. what is the passage mainly about?
A. Where tsunamis originate.
B. Damage caused by tsunamis.
C. Facts about tsunamis.
D. How tremendous the energy of a tsunami is.
There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a minimum
of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems become less efficient.
Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system could all produce characteristics
that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current researchers are looking for evidence at
the cellular and subcellular level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture divide only
a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect). Fibroblast cells from
an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus some researchers believe that aging occurs
at the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any event that disturbs the cell's genetic machinery
such as mutation, damaging chemicals in the cell's environment, or loss of genetic material, could cause cells
to lose their ability to divide and thus bring on aging. Other theories of aging look at different processes.
Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and is usually measured in years. While
chronological age can be useful in estimating the average status of a large group of people, it is a poor indicator
of an individual person's status because there is a tremendous amount of variation from one individual to the
next in regard to the rate at which biological age changes occur. For example, on the average, aging results in
people losing much of their ability to perform strenuous activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent
marathon runners.
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with advancing
age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's appearance, such as the style
of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid. Like chronological aging, it is
frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have occurred. However, it is an inaccurate
indicator for either purpose because of variation among individuals and because a person's appearance is
affected by many factors that are not part of aging, including illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight
Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 44. The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever
B. divide and then die
C . divide more in embryos than in adults
D. lose their ability to divide
Question 45. The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 46. The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 47. As explained in this passage, the theory of aging which examines the cellular level would
NOT assign which of the following as a cause of aging?
A. Mutation B. Deterioration into the body’s immune system
C. Loss of genetic material D. Chemical damage from the environment
Question 48. According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an individual’s
status regarding aging because_____________ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
Question 49. In the last paragraph, the word “this” refers to_____________
A. cosmetic aging B. type of aging C. outward appearance D. advancing age
Question 50. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging EXCEPT_____________
A. It does not occur at the same rate for all people
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC VINH ĐỀ THI KSCL LỚP 12 THEO ĐỊNH HƯỚNG THI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TN THPT VÀ XÉT TUYỂN ĐH NĂM 2021 – LẦN 2
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ
Mã đề thi 210 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
MỤC TIÊU
- Củng cố kiến thức về Ngữ âm (phát âm & trọng âm từ), các chủ điểm ngữ pháp cơ bản: Các thì trong tiếng
Anh, Câu so sánh, Câu điều kiện, Câu tường thuật, Câu bị động, Các loại mệnh đề, Từ loại, Câu tường thuật,
Câu hỏi đuôi, Đảo ngữ, Sự hòa hợp chủ ngữ & động từ, Phối hợp thì,... và kiến thức từ vựng cấp THPT.
All North American canids have a doglike appearance characterized by a graceful body, long muzzle, erect
ears, slender legs, and bushy tail. Most are social animals that travel and hunt in groups or pairs. After years
of persecution by humans, the populations of most North American canids, especially wolves and foxes, have
decreased greatly. The coyote, however, has thrived alongside humans, increasing in both numbers and range.
Its common name comes from coyotl, the term used by Mexico's Nahuatl Indians, and its scientific name,
canis latrans, means "barking dog." The coyote's vocalizations are varied, but the most distinctive are given at
dusk, dawn, or during the night and consists of a series of barks followed by a prolonged howl and ending
with a short, sharp yap. This call keeps the band alert to the locations of its members. One voice usually
prompts others to join in, resulting in the familiar chorus heard at night throughout the west.
The best runner among the canids, the coyote is able to leap fourteen feet and cruise normally at 25-30
miles per hour. It is a strong swimmer and does not hesitate to enter water after prey. In feeding, the coyote is
an opportunist, eating rabbits, mice, ground squirrels, birds, snakes, insects, many kinds of fruit, and carrion
- whatever is available. To catch larger prey, such as deer or antelope, the coyote may team up with one or two
others, running in relays to tire prey or waiting in ambush while others chase prey toward it. Often a badger
serves as an involuntary supplier of smaller prey: while it digs for rodents at one end of their burrow, the
coyote waits for any that may emerge from an escape hole at the other end.
Predators of the coyote once included the grizzly and black bears, the mountain lion, and the wolf, but
their declining populations make them no longer a threat. Man is the major enemy, especially since coyote
pelts have become increasingly valuable, yet the coyote population continues to grow, despite efforts at
trapping and poisoning.
Question 1: The passage supports all of the following statements EXCEPT _________.
A. the coyote is a threat to humans
B. the coyote is a social animal
C. the coyote lives successfully near human populations
D. the coyote is an efficient and athletic predator
Question 2: The author mentions wolves and foxes as examples of _________.
A. prey B. canids C. rodent D. coyote
Question 3: The word "band" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by __________.
A. group B. leader C. orchestra D. choir
Question 4: The word "opportunist" in paragraph 3 means the one who __________.
A. always has good luck B. likes to team up with others
,
C. is very narrow in his interests D. takes advantage of circumstances
Question 5: The word "any” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. badgers B. coyotes C. rodents D. burrows
Question 6: The author makes the point that the chief predator of the coyote is __________.
A. the human being B. the wolf C. the grizzly bear D. the mountain lion
Question 7: It can be inferred from the passage that _________.
A. efforts to trap and poison the coyote will increase
B. the coyote is an intelligent and adaptable creature
C. people will continue to fear the coyote
D. the coyote is an endangered species
Question 8:
- Jenny: "Are you going to see the movie "Kieu" today?"
- Jack: “____________”
A. Yes, I'm going to stay in B. Yes, I enjoyed it very much
C. I think so D. Maybe I'll be out
Question 9:
- Jim: "Would you like to do something interesting tomorrow?"
- Jane: “___________”
A. Yes, I do B. No, I hate it
C. Yes, it's very expensive D. Sure, I'd love to
questions.
Question 10: Certain groups of people are not given work ________ their race or religion.
A. in spite of B. because of C. although D. because
Question 11: While many people choose to watch films at ________ home, I prefer going to _______ cinema.
A. the/the B. x/the C. the/x D. x/a
Question 12: Jack was ___________ envy when his colleagues drove up in a brand-new BMV.
A. black with B. pale with C. green with D. red with
Question 13: The officer __________ Linda on the highway gave her a ticket for speeding.
A. whom stopped B. which stopped C. who stopped D. stopped
Question 14: At the centre of the Earth's solar system ________.
A. is where the Sun lies B. lies the Sun C. the Sun lies D. does the Sun lie
Question 15: Contagious diseases like Covid-19 _________ big problem facing human beings.
A. is a B. is C. are D. are a
Question 16: __________ tired, you should go to bed early.
A. So as not to feel B. In order for not feeling
C. In order to feel D. So as to not feel
Question 17: If Joan had done as I told her, I think she ___________.
A. would have succeeded B. had succeeded C. would succeed D. could succeed
Question 18: Even though she was _________ the other girls, Jenny didn't win the beauty contest.
A. more prettier than B. the prettiest than C. the prettiest among D. much prettier than
Question 19: Like many countryside people, I __________ a glass of green tea every morning.
A. am used to drink B. used to drinking C. am used to drinking D. use to drink
Question 20: I can't _________ what James is doing because it is so dark down there.
A. turn up B. look into C. see through D. make out
Question 21: Melisa works hard _________ her brother is very lazy.
A. when B. even if C. whereas D. unless
Question 22: Charles is very keen __________ collecting stamps in his leisure time.
A. of B. on C. about D. of
Question 23: What _______ at 8 o'clock last night? I phoned you but couldn't get through to you.
A. had you done B. would you do C. were you doing D. did you do
Question 24: They were fortunate ___________ from the fire before the building collapsed.
A. rescuing B. to have rescued C. to have been rescued D. to rescue
Question 25: It is essential that you attend the class regularly.
A. You must have attended the class regularly.
B. You must attend the class regularly.
C. You will ought to attend the class regularly.
D. You might attend the class regularly.
Question 26: Many people believe that doing sports is a good way to lose weight.
A. Doing sports is believed to be a good way to lose weight.
B. It is believed that doing sports be a good way to lose weight.
C. A good way to lose weight is to be doing sports.
D. Doing sports is believed that it is a good way to lose weight.
Question 27: "Get away now or I will call the police", shouted the girl to the man.
A. The girl said that she would call the police if the man didn't get away.
B. The girl promised to call the police if he didn't get away.
C. The girl informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't get away.
D. The girl threatened to call the police if the man didn't get away.
word or phrase that best fits each of the following numbered blanks.
Development economics is the branch of economics that focuses on the special (28) ________ problems
faced (29) _________ poor and underdeveloped countries. (30) ________ classical economics, development
economics studies the social and political factors that affect economic growth. It addresses the problem of the
Third World debt and the role of the World Bank and International Monetary Fund in continuing that debt
with strict repayment rules. Scholars in the field have proposed that the best long-term solution
(31) __________ to excuse much of the debt. Debtor nations also must be helped to establish stable
governments and self-sustaining economies. The goal is to help them become trading partners with creditor
nations. An important means to that end is to (32) _________ the growth of a strong middle class. Some ways
to do that include guaranteeing education for all, allowing free trade, and providing medical care. Governments
must allow for elected representatives and independent court systems.
Question 28: A. economize B. economy C. economic D. economical
Question 29: A. of B. by. C. down D. for
Question 30: A. Unlike B. Dislike C. Unlikely D. Dissimilar
Question 31: A. is B. are C. was D. were
Question 32: A. encourage B. discourage C. weaken D. popularize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 33: A. likes B. boys C. wants D. heaps
Question 34: A. technician B. commercial C. machine D. necessary
Question 35: I thought they might be thirsty. I offered them something to drink.
A. They might be thirsty as I thought, but offered them something to drink.
B. Although they were thirsty, I offered them something to drink.
C. They might be thirsty, so I thought I would offer them something to drink.
D. Thinking they might be thirsty, I offered them something to drink.
Question 36: Jim's mother was very busy. She still played with him.
A. Jim's mother was busy enough to play with him.
B. Jim's mother was so busy that she could not play with him.
C. Busy as Jim's mother was, she still played with him.
D. Because of playing with Jim, her mother was very busy.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
Question 37: A. impressive B. advocate C. bacteria D. computer
Question 38: A. Vietnamese B. preferential C. calculation D. accompany
At the turn of the twentieth century, people's attitudes toward money were far more conservative than they
are today. Borrowing and being in debt were viewed as a moral failing, almost as a disgrace. Thrift and saving
were highly prized, and people who needed to borrow to make ends meet were seen as careless, unreliable, or
extravagant. The focus in the economy as a whole was on developing large corporations like railroads, oil
companies, and other companies that produced basic goods and services.
Then, in the 1920s, the economy changed. A huge network of banks and financial institutions developed,
helping money to move more quickly and easily through the economy. At the same time, the economy was
increasing its focus on consumer goods-clothing, cars, household appliances, and other things that individuals
buy. To help promote the sale of these items, consumers were encouraged to buy on credit. If they could not
afford an item right away, a store or a bank might lend them the money, which they could pay back in
installments.
With the development of consumer credit and installment purchases, people's attitudes toward debt and
spending changed. The model citizen was no longer someone who was thrifty, buying only what he or she
needed. People were respected less for being thrifty than for knowing how to use their money to buy as many
things as possible - an attitude that persists at the turn of the twenty-first century.
Question 39: What is the main point the author makes in the passage?
A. Being thrifty is a value that persists at the turn of the twentieth century.
B. In the 1920s, the economy focused more on consumer goods than on corporations.
C. Changes in the economy and consumer credit have altered attitudes toward money.
D. People are generally less conservative than they were in the past.
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a belief that was commonly held in
the early twentieth century?
A. People who buy as many things as possible are respectable.
B. Owing someone's money is a moral failing.
C. People who save their money are respectable.
D. People who borrow money for necessities are careless and unreliable.
Question 41: What helped money move more quickly through the economy in the 1920s?
A. The rate of loan repayment B. The growth of railroads
C. The increase in installment purchases D. The growth of banks and financial institutions
Question 42: The author mentions cars as an example of __________.
A. an extravagant purchase B. a consumer goods
C. a household appliance D. a new invention
Question 43: According to the passage, how did the rise of consumer credit change people's attitudes toward
debt and spending?
A. Attitudes toward debt and spending became more conservative.
B. Extravagant borrowing and spending became highly prized.
C. Spending wisely became more respectable than being thrifty.
D. People used credit to buy only what they needed.
Question 44: The couple got divorced because they found they were incompatible.
A. able to share an apartment or a house B. able to budget their money
C. capable of having children D. capable of living harmoniously
Question 45: While looking for the dictionary, the boy came across some of the childhood photos.
A. took by mistake B. discovered by accident
C. looked for a reason D. found on purpose
Question 46: Neither the boss nor all the members of the staff is working overtime today.
A. Neither B. nor all C. is D. overtime
Question 47: Nadine fancies watching TV, reading books and hang out with her classmates after school.
A. fancies B. reading C. hang out D. her
Question 48: Ambitious parents often feel disappointing if their children do not meet their expectations.
A. Ambitious B. disappointing C. do not D. their expectations
Question 49: Everyone hopes that the Covid-19 vaccine will be mass-produced soon.
A. produced in great numbers B. produced with high cost
C. produced in small numbers D. produced with low cost
Question 50: Jack gave a detailed chronology of the events of the World War I in his essay.
A. discrepancy B. time sequence C. disaster D. catastrophe
------THE END------

Question 1. A. dinner B. distribute C. mine D. begin
Question 2. A. factory B. satisfy C. ability D. easy
Question 3. A. diverse B. desert C. sector D. willing
Question 4. A. volunteer B. Vietnamese C. expedition D. sociable
questions.
Question 5. We need_____________money to send our son to Oxford University.
A. a large sum of B. a few of C. many D. lot of
Question 6. Only after she had finished the course did she realize she_____________a wrong choice.
A. had made B. has made C. had been making D. was making
Question 7. Tom denied_____________part in the fighting at school.
A. to take B. take C. to taking D. taking
Question 8. I_____________buy that book because I didn’t bring any money with me.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. may not D. must
Question 9. Two people are said_____________in the accident two weeks ago.
A. to get hurt B. got hurt C. to have got hurt D. to have been got hurt
Question 10. John, along with twenty students, _____________a party
A. plan B. have planned C. is planning D. are planning
Question 11. _____________really surprised all of us
A. That he can speak Vietnamese very well
B. He can speak Vietnamese very well
C. It is he can speak Vietnamese very well
D. The fact is he can speak Vietnamese very well
Question 12. The students are expected to stick_____________their school’s regulations.
A. in B. at C. to D. by
Question 13. Many species of plants and animals are in_____________of extinction.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 14. The wine had made him a little_____________and couldn’t control his movement.
A. narrow-minded B. light-headed C. light-footed D. light-hearted
Question 15. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetables can be_____________to health.
A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive
Question 16. Thomas knows Paris like the back of his_____________. He used to be a taxi driver there for 2
years.
A. head B. mind C. hand D. life
Question 17. We are_____________a survey to find out what our customers think of their local bus service.
A. conducting B. researching C. corresponding D. investigating
Question 18. when the light_____________, we couldn’t see anything.
A. came off B. put out C. switched off D. went out
Mark A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 19. To everyone's surprise, it wasn't in Bristol which he made his fortune, although that’s where he
was born.
A. To B. surprise C. which D. made
Question 20. After spending two days arguing about where to go for their holidays, it was decided that they
shouldn’t go anywhere.
A. arguing B. for C. it was decided D. shouldn’t go
Question 21. Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in the
film industry.
A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand
each of the following sentences.
Question 22. "Do you believe in what the boy says, Mary?" said Tom.
A. Tom asked Mary if she believed in what the boy said.
B. Tom asked Mary to believe in what the boy said.
C. Tom asked Mary whether she believes in what the boy says.
D. Tom said that Mary believed in what the boy said.
Question 23. John is fat because he eats so many chips.
A. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat.
B. John is fat though he eats so many chips.
C. Being fat, John eats so many chips.
D. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat.
Question 24. Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
A. If you refused to be arrested, you have to give a breath sample.
B. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
C. If a breath sample is not given, the police will refuse to arrest you.
D. The police could cause you to give a breath sample to decide whether to arrest you or not.
Question 25. People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the
park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.
Question 26. The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
Question 27. A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?”
Librarian: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have no idea.
B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful.
D. Certainly, what’s the fax number?
Question 28. Anne is complaining about the noise from the next - door house.
Anne: “I can’t really stand the noise from the next-door house, especially after 10 p.m.”
Mary: “_____________. You should talk to your neighbor.”
A. Calm down, Anne. B. I’m sorry. I didn’t mean that.
C. I know what you mean. D. What a silly girl.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 29. Tet marks the beginning of spring and, for agrarian people who depend on the lunar calendar
to manage their crops, the start of the year.
A. traditional ones B. minority people C. farmers D. old people
Question 30. The government decided to pull down the old building after asking for the ideas from the local
residents.
A. renovate B. purchase C. maintain D. demolish
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of
prizes.
A. difficulty B. barrier C. advantage D. disadvantage
Question 32. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate
more in the future.
A. express disapproval of B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. resolve a conflict over
word for each of the blanks.
Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision to (33)
_____________about their children's career, should they allow their children to train to become top sportsmen
and women? For many children it means starting very young and school work, going out with friends and
other interests have to take second place. It’s very difficult to explain to a young child why he or she has to
train for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when most of his or her friends are playing.
Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for training is (34) _____________from the
government for the very best young sportsmen and women. If this help cannot be given, it means that it is the
parents that have to find the time and the money to support their child’s (35) _____________and sports clothes,
transport to competitions, special equipment etc. can all be very expensive.
Many parents are understandably concerned that it is dangerous to start serious training in a sport at an early
age. Some doctors agree that young muscles may be damaged by training before they are properly developed.
Professional trainers, (36) _____________, believe that it is only by starting young that you can reach the top
as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very (37) _____________people reach the top and both
parents and children should be prepared for failure even after many years of training.
Question 33. A. do B. plan C. make D. prepare
Question 34. A. enough B. available C. possible D. enormous
Question 35. A. development B. develop C. developing D. developed
Question 36. A. furthermore B. in addition C. moreover D. however
Question 37. A. little B. many C. a few D. few
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Paul Watson is an environmental activist. He is a man who believes that he must do something, not just talk
about doing something. Paul believes in protecting endangered animals, and he protects them in controversial
ways. Some people think that Watson is a hero and admire him very much. Other people think that he is a
criminal.
On July 16th, 1979, Paul Watson and his crew were on his ship, which is called the Sea Shepherd. Watson and
the people who work on the Sea shepherd were hunting on the Atlantic Ocean near Portugal. However, they
had a strange prey; instead of hunting for animals, their prey was a ship, the Sierra. The Sea shepherd found
the Sierra, ran into it and sank it. As a result, the Sierra never returned to the sea. The Sea Shepherd, on the
other hand, returned to its home in Canada. Paul Watson and his workers thought that they had been successful.
The Sierra had been a whaling ship, which had operated illegally. The captain and crew of the Sierra did not
obey any of the international laws that restrict whaling. Instead, they killed as many whales as they could,
quickly cut off the meat, and froze it. Later, they sold the whale meat in countries where it is eaten.
Paul Watson tried to persuade the international whaling commission to stop the Sierra. However, the
commission did very little, and Paul became impatient. He decided to stop the Sierra and other whaling ships
in any way that he could. He offered to pay $25,000 to anyone who sank any illegal whaling ship, and he sank
the Sierra. He acted because he believes that the whales must be protected. Still, he acted without the approval
of the government; therefore, his actions were controversial.
Paul Watson is not the only environmental activist. Other men and women are also fighting to protect the
Earth. Like Watson, they do not always have the approval of their governments, and like Watson, they have
become impatient. Yet, because of their concern for the environment, they will act to protect it.
(Adapted from “Eco fighters” by Eric Schwartz, OMNI)
Question 38. According to the reading, an environmental activist is someone who_____________.
A. runs into whaling ship.
B. does something to protect the Earth.
C. talks about protecting endangered species.
D. is a hero, like Paul Watson.
Question 39. when something is “controversial”, _____________.
A. everyone agrees with it. B. everyone disagrees with it.
C. people have different ideas about it. D. people protect it.
Question 40. The Sea Shepherd was hunting_____________.
A. the Atlantic Ocean B. whales C. the Sierra D. Portugal
Question 41. The author implies that Paul Watson lives in_____________.
A. Portugal B. a ship on the Atlantic
C. the Sierra D. Canada
Question 42. In paragraph 3, the phrase “and froze it” refers to_____________.
A. whale meat B. the Sierra C. whales D. the Sierra crew
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C orD to indicate the correct answer for each of
the blanks.
The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of Earth - is a vast frontier that
even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was
completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and
subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earths surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a
hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first
detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the
National Science Foundations Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for the
offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP’s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady
position on the ocean’s surface
and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor. The Glomar
Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this
time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and
rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar challenger’s core samples have allowed geologists to
reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably
look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar
Challenger’s voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift
that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding
the world’s past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of
millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and
biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already
provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change - information that may be used to predict
future climates.
Question 43. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it_____________
A. is not a popular area for scientific research
B. contains a wide variety of life forms
C. attracts courageous explorers
D. is an unknown territory
Question 44. The word “inaccessible” is closest in meaning to_____________
A. unrecognizable B. unreachable C. unusable D. unsafe
Question 45. The author mentions “outer space” because_____________
A. the Earth’s climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space.
B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment.
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor.
D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration.
Question 46. which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine. B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages. D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
Question 47. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was_____________
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists from all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
Question 48. The word “they” refers to_____________
A. years B. climates C. sediments D. cores
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea
Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes.
D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never seen before.
Question 50. How long did the Glomar Challenger conduct its research?
A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 15 years D. 16 years
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
HƯNG YÊN Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề 509
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
Hi! I'm Susan and I've decided to start this blog to document my Life in Lockdown. We've been in
Lockdown now for a week in the UK. That means we have to stay at home almost all the time. We're allowed
out once a day to exercise and we can go to the supermarket to buy essentials. You have to try and stay two
meters away from other people when you go out. I'm starting to get used to the situation now but it still feels
like a dream sometimes. It's pretty surreal when I look outside and there's no one around.
My mum is a nurse, so she is classed as a key worker and is still going to work every day. The
company where my dad works has had to close its stores and furlough all of their employees – that means my
dad is still employed but he is not allowed to go to work until his company say he can return.
I went to school before and I was studying for exams, so my life has changed quite a lot. I found
the situation a bit overwhelming at first. The hardest part has been social distancing. I really miss seeing
my friends in person but we chat every day online. I also have to study a lot by myself now and I find that
really challenging.
My little brother sometimes distracts me when I'm trying to study because he always wants to
play. However, one of the positives of the lockdown has been spending more time with my family. I try to
stick to a routine each day that also includes time for exercise, some online socializing and something fun
or creative like playing a board game with my family. This is helping me make the best of it! I'd love to
know what you are doing to stay positive during the lockdown. Let me know in the comments!
(Adapted from https://www.cambridgeenglish.org)
Question 1: What could be the best title for this passage?
A. Occupation in lockdown B. Lockdown in the UK
C. Life in lockdown D. How my life has changed
Question 2: Which did the writer mention as the most difficult part of studying during the lockdown?
A. being away from her friends B. preparing for exams
C. overwhelming workload D. being distracted by her brother
Question 3: What is NOT true about the life in Lockdown?
A. People are allowed to go out once a day to exercise or to buy essentials.
B. People are not allowed to go out.
C. People keep the distance of two meters away from others when they go out.
D. People stay at home almost all the time.
Question 4: What can be inferred about her father?
A. His job is not important. B. He does not earn as much as her mother does.
C. He has lost his job. D. He is not working temporarily.
Question 5: The word "surreal” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ……….
A. uncomfortable B. frightening C. strange D. very real
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
Question 6: A. politics B. society C. biology D. attraction
Question 7: A. survive B. finish C. damage D. threaten
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines of each pair
Question 8: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.
B. Only after investing in the company did Hans informs us of his arrival at the meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.
Question 9: Nam didn't take his close friend's advice. That's why he is out of work.
A. If Nam took his close friend's advice; he wouldn't be out of work.
B. If Nam takes his close friend's advice, he will not be out of work.
C. If Nam had taken his close friend's advice, he wouldn't be out of work.
D. If Nam had taken his close friend's advice; he wouldn't have been out of work.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
part in each of the following questions.
Question 10: Henry is interested in wildlife and takes pleasure in watching animals in their natural habitats.
A. sadness B. change C. delight D. surprise
Question 11: I take my hat off to all the doctors who have worked hard to keep us safe in this pandemic.
A. trust B. disrespect C. admire D. respect
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Australians place a high value on independence and personal choice. This means that a teacher or course
tutor will not tell students what to do, but will give them a number of options and suggest they work out which
one is the best in their circumstances. It also means that they are expected to take action if something goes
wrong and seek out resources and support for themselves.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth.
This means that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend
the reasons for that point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with differences in status and hence idealise the idea of treating
everyone equally. An illustration of this is that most adult Australians call each other by their first names.
This concern with equality means that Australians are uncomfortable taking anything too seriously and are
even ready to joke about themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a consequence, some
students may be critical of others who they perceive as doing nothing but study. Australian notions of privacy
mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance and relationships are only discussed with close friends.
While people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone actually asking them unless the
friendship is firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to ask someone what they earn. With
older people, it is also rude to ask how old they are, why they are not married or why they do not have children.
It is also impolite to ask people how much they have paid for something, unless there is a very good reason
for asking.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS student book by Guy Brook Hart and Vanessa Jakeman)
Question 12: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The story about Australia B. Australian culture
C. Australian culture shock D. What should we do when we come to
Australia?
Question 13: The word "critical” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to........
A. fault finding B. complimentary C. grateful D. appreciative
Question 14: In paragraph 3, most adult Australians call each other by their first names because.....
A. Australians find it difficult to remember people's surnames.
B. Australians get on well with each other.
C. Calling each other by their first names makes them more friendly.
D. Australians restrict class discrimination.
Question 15: The word "status" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to……….
A. position B. marriage C. qualification D. job
Question 16: The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to............
A. Australians B. circumstances C. students D. options
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
B. Australians are always prepared to believe that there is one truth.
C. Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions.
D. Students in Australia will be expected to form their own opinions.
Question 18: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. It is polite when Australians ask each other about their salary.
B. It is unacceptable to discuss financial issues with people you do not know well.
C. Australians often ask each other their ages and tell each other about children.
D. It is wise to ask how old they are.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
part in each of the following questions.
Question 19: President Ho Chi Minh is a distinguished cultural celebrity. He opened the way of liberation for
all oppressed people in the world.
A. generous B. emotional C. outstanding D. friendly
Question 20: The soup was so tasty that Harry asked for another serving.
A. tough B. soft C. delicious D. awful
Question 21: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. My attendance at the first wedding party was enjoyable.
B. I had the first enjoyable wedding party.
C. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
D. The first wedding party I attended was enjoyable.
Question 22: "Why don't you put a better lock on the door, John?” Mary said.
A. Mary begged John to put a better lock on the door.
B. Mary wondered why John hadn't put a better lock on the door.
C. Mary forced John to put a better lock on the door.
D. Mary suggested that John should put a better lock on the door.
Question 23: Joey put all his money on the lottery, which was his big mistake.
A. Joey may not have put all his money on the lottery.
B. Joey can't have put all his money on the lottery.
C. Joey shouldn't have put all his money on the lottery.
D. Joey needn't have put all his money on the lottery.
questions.
Question 24: …………... you study, ............. marks you will get.
A. The more / the much B. The harder / the best
C. The harder / the better D. The hardest / the best
Question 25: My father refused to eat meat that had been fired. He had …………... in his bonnet about
it causing cancer.
A. a bee B. an ant C. a bull D. a bug
Question 26: She turned over a new …………... and began getting to work on time.
A. leaf B. style C. person D. image
Question 27: Everyone loves music, ........?
A. aren't they B. don't they C. are they D. do they
Question 28: My mother bought me a …………... car on the occasion of my birthday.
A. modern black Japanese B. Japanese modern black
C. black Japanese modern D. black modern Japanese
Question 29: …………... he is more than 65 years old now, he is still quite active.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although
Question 30: …………... it further with her husband, she decided to accept the job offer.
A. Discussing B. Having discussed C. Discussed D. After discuss
Question 31: English is a language that …………... all over the world.
A. is spoken widely B. is widely spoken C. widely spoken D. widely is spoken
Question 32: Many students in this high school are not familiar ............... ICT assessment tools.
A. on B. with C. about D. to
Question 33: Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop
their …………...
A. creativity B. create C. creative D. creatively
Question 34: They are tired now because they …………...in the field since early morning.
A. have been working B. are working C. worked D. work
Question 35: …………....., we will have a game of tennis.
A. Once you had finished work B. As soon as you finish work
C. Until you finished work D. When you finished work
Question 36: Thousands of American innovators came …………... thousands of practical ideas and
technologies in the fight against the coronavirus.
A. on B. up with C. in D. off
Question 37: The scholarship Jane was granted…………... a big difference to her life and her career.
A. made B. found C. gave D. got
Question 38: PF has installed more than 60 air …………... devices in campus buildings and 238 in
campus elevators.
A. adjustment B. purification C. pollution D. absorption
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 39: A. sesame B. radio C. page D. state
Question 40: A. translated B. landed C. pretended D. raised
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
Question 41: Mrs Brown and Mrs Smith are talking about teaching teamwork skills to children.
- Mrs Brown: "Teamwork skills should be taught to children.”
- Mrs Smith: “........ They are necessary for their future life.”
A. You're wrong. B. You're welcome.
C. I don't either. D. I totally agree with you.
Question 42: Lucia is calling to Mrs. Mary's home.
- Lucia: "Hello, may I speak to Mrs. Mary, please?”
- Call receiver: “…………...”
A. Of course, not B. Wait here C. Hold on, please D. Yes, please
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need to be corrected
Question 43: They point out that Internet banking did not result in the closure of its high-street branches
as was predicted.
A. point B. in C. its D. was
Question 44: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that many families have to change their
eating habit.
A. Food prices B. raised C. in the past D. that
Question 45: Last week Mark tells me that he got very bored with his present job and was looking for a new
one.
A. tells B. got C. was looking D. new one
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each
of the numbered blank space in the following passage.
Benefits of Laughter Yoga
Laughing is good for the body and the mind. When we laugh, we breathe more oxygen into our body, (46)
_______ helps to keep us healthy. Endorphins, or happy chemicals, are released in the body, and you feel more
relaxed and happier. Laughter also brings people together to (47) _______ some fun.
Companies who have (48) _______ laughter yoga workshops find that they have advantages for
both employers and employees. People who are happy at work are more hard-working and make more money
for the company. Also, people who can laugh together communicate more successfully. (49) _______,
people do better at work when they feel happy and relaxed.
A Danish company who used Laughter Yoga for (50) _______ year reported an increase in sales of
40 percent over the previous year. Following Laughter Yoga session, a Hawaiian timeshare company
reported the highest sales of the year - double their target figures.
Question 46: A. what B. which C. that D. how
Question 47: A. share B. give C. offer D. divide
Question 48: A. run B. built C. stood D. jumped
Question 49: A. In general B. Although C. Beside D. However
Question 50: A. few B. one C. certain D. many
-------THE END------
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. announced B. evaluated C. enunciated D. demanded
Question 2. A. queue B. quarter C. quadruple D. questionnaire
Question 3. A. record B. mentor C. timber D. bother
Question 4. A. catastrophe B. millennium C. acknowledgement D. photograph
questions.
Question 5. Peter ordered a pizza and salad.__________pizza was nice but__________salad was disgusting.
A. A/a B. The/ ∅ C. ∅/∅ D. The/the
Question 6. Since the end of the war, the Government __________over five thousand prisoners.
A. have released B. released C. has released D. has been released
Question 7. The suspect was seen__________the building by at least a dozen witnesses.
A. enter B. to entering C. entering D. entered
Question 8. The four men are widely believed__________by their captors because their family did not agree
to pay the ransom.
A. to kill B. to have been killed
C. to have killed D. to be killed
Question 9. Having counted all the students on the bus, __________
A. the vehicle started moving B. the vehicle was driven
C. they were allowed to play D. the driver started to drive
Question 10. Many exam candidates lose marks simply__________they do not read the questions properly.
A. because of B. because C. due to D. owing that
Question 11. What__________to your family if you were to die in an accident?
A. happens B. would happen C. will happen D. happened
Question 12. Those Americans are looking for a place where they can exchange their
dollars__________pounds.
A. into B. to C. for D. with
Question 13. All attempts at__________were stamped on by senior officials.
A. modernise B. modernisers C. modernisation D. modernising
Question 14. NATO has finally arrived at an important decision to__________cruise missiles
in the battle.
A. employ B. deploy C. defeat D. withdraw
Question 15. The woman crying in front of the burning house has lost her most__________possession in the
fire.
A. valued B. appreciated C. recognised D. prized
Question 16. The woman was confused about whether or not to__________the pregnancy.
A. stop B. terminate C. eradicate D. dismiss
Question 17. His voice had a freshness that would make many tenors under the age of 40 go green
with__________.
A. jealousy B. hatred C. envy D. arrogance
Question 18. This band normally__________their album with an instrumental track.
A. closes off B. closes up C. closes down D. closes out
Question 19. what was once a great and powerful empire have effectively ceased to be.
A. to be B. have effectively C. powerful D. was once
Question 20. One of the boys kept laughing, this annoyed Jane intensely.
A. this B. one of the boys C. intensely D. laughing
Question 21. I’m trying to cut down on diary product intake and it’s difficult because I adore cheese.
A. I adore cheese B. diary product intake
C. difficult D. trying to cut
Question 22. This country wouldn’t have much income without tourism.
A. Tourism is developing very quickly in this country.
B. Tourism development is going up in this country.
C. This country depends on its tourism for making its income.
D. In order to develop, this country invests into tourism.
Question 23. Many people were severely critical of the proposal for the new motorway.
A. There was severe criticism of the proposal for the new motorway.
B. The proposals for the new motorway was severely criticized.
C. There was the proposal for the new motorway, but many people were criticised.
D. Many people were severely criticised by the new motorway that was proposed.
Question 24. There was no precedent for the President’s resignation in the country.
A. The President resigned in the country, which seemed strange.
B. Never before had any President resigned in the country.
C. That the President resigned becomes a scandal in the country.
D. Never before there was an event that President resigned in the country.
Question 25. His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the
competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the competition.
C. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in the
competition.
Question 26. Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
B. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker,
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
Question 27. Tim: “__________”
Laura: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
Question 28. Tim: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” -
Steve: “__________.”
A. Yes, so do I B. Yes, it is C. Yes, I’d love to D. I’m very happy
Question 29. Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume the duties
and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. get off B. take on C. go about D. put in
Question 30.1 had tried to sketch an aspect of life that I had seen and known, and that was very well indeed,
and I had wrought patiently and carefully in the art of the poor little affair.
A. a nature B. a part C. a character D. an appearance
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 31. She was brought up in a well-off family. She cant understand the problems we are facing.
A. broke B. wealthy C. kind D. poor
Question 32. He fell foul of me when I asked him to apologize to his teacher.
A. quarreled with me B. made friends with me
C. attacked me D. showed appreciation for me
The wildlife of the Juan Fernandez Archipelago remained undisturbed until the arrival of European settlers,
who introduced their animals to the Islands. Amongst these were goats and cows to be bred for meat and milk,
but also rats and mice which had jumped ship. Cats later brought over to kill these pests also quickly escaped
into the (33) __________. Little did the settlers understand the impact this would have on local species. The
rabbits they'd brought over too, could not be held in captivity for long, and their numbers rapidly expanded.
But it was not just fauna that arrived but also (34) __________. Plants such as the blackberry bramble
flourished in the tropical climate and spread throughout the native forest.
In the past, the islands’ birds had no natural predators. Many therefore evolved to lay their eggs in ground
nests. This habit now makes them incredibly (35) __________as rats and mice destroy their eggs and cats
devour the newly hatched chicks. Meanwhile grazing goats, rabbits and cows have turned once fertile valleys
into wasteland. One now rare tree species is known as the Luma, in which firecrown hummingbirds nests.
Today the Luma is being covered over by spiky blackberry brambles, the hummingbird’s natural habitat is
disappearing and the fear is that they will soon (36) __________. Conservationists from Chile and around the
world are uniting to show the urgent need for preservation of these islands' original and unique species. They
know the best way to do this is to (37) __________the plants and animals that are alien species.
Question 33. A. landscape B. surroundings C. scenery D. wild
Question 34. A. crops B. flora C. vegetation D. weeds
Question 35. A. susceptible B. risky C. incapable D. vulnerable
Question 36. A. wipe out B. die out C. pass away D. go through
Question 37. A. ban B. abolish C. eradicate D. demolish
TEENAGE FICTION
Teenagers have their own TV channels, websites and magazines. So, what about books? Last year one
publisher, Martins, started publishing a series called Waves. We spoke to the director Julia Smith. She
explained, “Teenage fiction has been published since the 1970s but publishers have never been particularly
successful in getting teenagers to buy and read books. Now they’re realizing that teenagers aren’t just older
children but they’re not adults either and often aren’t interested in adult fiction. For this series we’re looking
for new writers who write especially for teenagers.”
Athene Gorr’s novel was published in the series last year and is selling well. Its title is The Purple Ring, she
says, “The important thing is to persuade teenagers to pick up your book. I’m a new writer so, although I’ve
got an unusual name which people might remember, nobody knows it yet! But my book has a fantastic cover
which makes people want to look inside. Then they realize what a brilliant story it is!”
And what do teenagers themselves think about the series? We talked to Sophie Clarke, aged 15. She said, “I’ve
read a few books in the Waves series. They say they’re for 14 - 19 year-olds and I agree with that. We’re not
interested in the same things as people in their twenties and thirties. I like them and I think they look really
good too. The only thing is that because bookshops put them in the children’s section, lots of teenagers won’t
find them so they may not do very well. And it’s a shame there’s no non-fiction in the series as I think lots of
teenagers, especially boys, might buy that.”
Question 38. What is the writer trying to do?
A. give information about a new series of books
B. explain why teenager fiction is easier to write than adult fiction
C. persuade authors to write more teenager fiction
D. compare different series of teenager fiction
Question 39. Julia Smith says publishers now recognize that teenagers__________.
A. can enjoy the same kind of stories as adults
B. are more interested in reading nowadays
C. grow up more quickly nowadays
D. are neither children nor adults
Question 40. Athene Gorr thinks teenagers were attracted to her book because of__________
A. its cover B. the story C. its title D. her name
Question 41. What does Sophie Clarke say about the books in the Waves series?
A. They shouldn’t be kept with children’s books.
B. She would prefer to read adult fiction.
C. They will be bought by lots of teenagers.
D. She isn’t keen on the design.
Question 42. Which of these paragraphs could be used to advertise the Waves series?
A. “This series is for all teenagers and those who are nearly teenagers, whether you’re 10 or 19, you’ll find
something here to please you.”
B. “Choose a book from the Waves series. It includes both fiction and non-fiction and is aimed at teenagers
aged 14+.”
C. “The Waves series has been popular with teenagers since the 1970s. This year we have added 20 new
writers to our list.”
D. “If you’re aged between 14 and 19, don’t miss the Waves series which has novels by new authors.”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
SPORTS COMMENTARY
One of the most interesting and distinctive of all uses of language is commentary. An oral reporting of ongoing
activity, commentary is used in such public arenas as political ceremonies, parades, funerals, fashion shows
and cooking demonstrations. The most frequently occurring type of commentary may be that connected with
sports and games. In sports there are two kinds of commentary, and both are often used for the same sporting
event. “Play-by-play” commentary narrates the sports event, while “colour -adding” or “colour” commentary
provides the audience with pre-event background, during-event interpretation, and post¬event evaluation.
Colour commentary is usually conversational in style and can be a dialogue with two or more commentators.
Play-by-play commentary is of interest to linguists because it is unlike other kinds of narrative, which are
typically reported in past tense. Play-by-play commentary is reported in present tense. Some examples are “he
takes the lead by four” and “she’s in position.” One linguist characterizes radio play-by-play commentary as
“a monologue directed at an unknown, unseen mass audience who voluntarily choose to listen...and provide
no feedback to the speaker.” It is these characteristics that make this kind of commentary unlike any other type
of speech situation.
The chief feature of play-by-play commentary is a highly formulaic style of presentation. There is distinctive
grammar not only in the use of the present tense but also in the omission of certain elements of sentence
structure. For example, “Smith in close” eliminates the verb, as some newspaper headlines do. Another
example is inverted word order, as in “over at third is Johnson.” Play-by-play commentary is very fluent,
keeping up with the pace of the action. The rate is steady and there is little silence. The structure of the
commentary is cyclical, reflecting the way most games consist of recurring sequences of short activities---as
in tennis and baseball---or a limited number of activity options---as in the various kinds of football. In racing,
the structure is even simpler, with the commentator informing the listener of the varying order of the
competitors in a “state of play” summary, which is crucial for listeners or viewers who have just tuned in.
Question 43. The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to?
A. commentary B. an ongoing activity
C. language D. sporting event
Question 44. Which of the following statement is true of colour commentary?
A. It narrates the action of the event in real time, using the present tense.
B. It is a monologue given to an audience that does not respond to the speaker.
C. It is steady and fluent because it must keep up with the action of the event.
D. It gives background on the event, and interprets and evaluates the event.
Question 45. How is play-by-play commentary distinct from other types of narrative?
A. It is not published in magazines. B. It involves only one reporter.
C. It is not spoken in past tense. D. It takes place after the event.
Question 46. why does the author quote a linguist in paragraph 2?
A. To give examples of play-by-play commentary.
B. To show how technical sports commentary is.
C. To describe the uniqueness of radio play-by-play.
D. To criticize past trends in sports commentary.
Question 47. The word “pace” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. speed B. score C. cause D. plan
Question 48. The word “crucial” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. fascinating B. important C. confusing D. generous
Question 49. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely agrees with H which of the
following statements about sports commentary?
A. Sports commentators should work hard to improve their grammar,
B. Sports commentators do not need special knowledge of the sport.
C. Colour commentary is more important than play-by-play commentary.
D. Commentary enhances the excitement and enjoyment of sports.
Question 50. What mainly makes play-by-play commentary special?
A. a highly formulaic style of presentation
B. the distinctive use of present tense
C. the omission of certain sentence elements
D. the inverted word order
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
LÀO CAI Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi: 423
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
Question 1: They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Only if they had they finished one project did they start working on the next.
B. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
C. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
D. Not until they started working on the next project did they finish the previous one.
Question 2: Susan didn't apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.
B. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.
C. Susan feels regret because she applied for the summer job in the café.
D. If only Susan didn't apply for the summer job in the café.
Question 3: A. decided B. installed C. visited D. appointed
Question 4: A. put B. nut C. shut D. cut
Mark the letter B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) each of the following questions.
Question 5: I'll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. wonderful D. decisive
Question 6: The African rhino is an endangered species and needs protecting.
A. unstable B. dangerous C. insecure D. independent
Question 7: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. began to dislike it
Question 8: Smart robots have replaced humans in stressful and hazardous jobs and in assembly lines.
A. dangerous B. risky C. safe D. perilous
Question 9: Two friends, Peter and Linda are talking about family.
- Peter: "I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof."
- Linda: “_______. They can help each other a lot."
A. I totally agree B. It's not true C. That’s wrong D. I don't agree
Question 10: Marry is talking to Linda over the phone.
- Mary: "Thank you for helping me prepare for the party."
- Linda: “____________”
A. The meal was out of this world. B. My pleasure.
C. Never mention the incident again. D. Of course not.
questions.
Question 11: ______ the difficulty, they managed to climb to the top of the mountain.
A. Although B. Because C. In spite of D. Because of
Question 12: Marie Curie is famous ______ her contribution to science.
A. with B. for C. at D. on
Question 13: ______ he traveled, the more he learned.
A. Far B. Farthest C. The farthest D. The farther
Question 14: If you want to be healthy, you should ______ your bad habits in your lifestyles.
A. give up B. call off C. break down D. get over
Question 15: He was offered the job thanks to his ______ performance during his job interview.
A. impress B. impression C. impressively D. impressive
Question 16: Students can _____ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of
the lectures.
A. absorb B. provide C. transmit D. read
Question 17: Make sure you ______ us a visit when you are in town again.
A. give B. do C. pay D. have
Question 18: Hung will have finished his project on sustainable development______.
A. when he came back B. after he had come back
C. as soon as he had come back D. by the time he comes back
Question 19: Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. nice brown wooden B. nice wooden brown
C. wooden brown nice D. brown wooden nice
Question 20: After a good night's sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as a ______ and eager to start work again.
A. daisy B. fruit C. kitten D. maiden
Question 21: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the ______ of anyone walking down the street. That
may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Question 22: She's your sister-in-law, ______?
A. won't she B. didn't she C. doesn't she D. isn't she
Question 23: This issue ______ up by the employees during the meeting.
A. brought B. was bring C. bring D. was brought
Question 24: He saw a terrible accident yesterday while he ______ along Ben Luc Bridge.
A. was walking B. is walking C. walked D. walks
Question 25: ______ on the topic of the presentation, he started finding relevant information for it.
A. Having decided B. Decided C. To decide D. Being decided
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate
and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (26)
______ more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers.
Presumably, most parents (27) ______ are always worrying about their children's safety by buying mobile
phones for them to track their whereabouts. We can also assume that (28) ______ phones to avoid missing out
on social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (29) ______ teenagers want mobile cannot deny
the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (30)
______ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
Question 26: A. done B. played C. made D. brought
Question 27: A. which B. whom C. who D. what
Question 28: A. each B. much C. every D. most
Question 29: A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. So that
Question 30: A. indisputable B. arguable C. doubtful D. hesitated
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of
body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that
body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected
to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true.
Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In
North America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans
who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans in
the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart
only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move
any other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over
the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures
can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could
be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some
places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language
of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)
A. Misunderstandings in communication B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
C. The significance of non-verbal signals in America D. Non-verbal communication across cultures
Question 32: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. mispronounced B. misbehaved C. misspelled D. misunderstood
Question 33: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. the country B. an example
C. sticking out the tongue D. making a mistake
Question 34: As stated in the last paragraph, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person _________.
A. to use the body language of the people from that culture
B. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
C. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
D. to travel to as many countries as possible
Question 35: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. distance B. posture C. gesture D. eye movement
What picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What
do you hope about the future?
Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all the fields, from entertainment
to technology. First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared. Instead, people will choose
a program from a 'menu' and a computer will send the program directly to the television. Today, we can use the
World Wide Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By
2050, music, films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer.
In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems. In
many places, agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot
of water. Demand for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be
serious shortages. Some futurologists predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now.
In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't
be any accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050,
the computer will control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will
take people halfway around the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space
and land on Earth again. By 2050, space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los
Angeles to Tokyo in just two hours.
In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already
use robots. Big companies prefer robots - they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours
a day. By 2050, we will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes.
Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are
electronic devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind
and deaf people see and hear again. Scientists have discovered how to control genes. They have already
produced clones of animals. By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they
look, how they behave and how much intelligence they have.
(Source: Cambridge English for Schools by Andrew Littlejohn, Diana Hicks)
Question 36: The word "This" in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. the possible war B. the cash crop planting
C. the serious shortage D. the demand for water
Question 37: The word "domain" in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. way of life B. interest C. field of expertise D. challenge
Question 38: The word "conquered" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. controlled B. diagnosed C. transmitted D. caused
Question 39: What may NOT be true about life in 2050?
A. Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to computers.
B. Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again.
C. Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are.
D. Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times.
Question 40: The passage mainly discusses_________.
A. The effect of the futurologists' prediction on our lives.
B. The effect of telecommunication on our future life.
C. The changes in our future life compared with our life today.
D. The importance of cloning in the future.
Question 41: We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 _________
A. people will be able to travel around the world in two hours.
B. fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean.
C. no one will be injured or die because of accidents.
D. space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport.
Question 42: What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage?
A. Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today.
B. TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business.
C. People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting.
D. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices.
Question 43: At 8 o'clock last night, she is reading an interesting detective story.
A. At B. interesting C. is D. story
Question 44: Germany, in companion with France, has now lifted the ban on the export of live animals to
Europe.
A. has B. in companion C. lifted the ban D. to
Question 45: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance her beauty and make them look younger.
A. prefer B. cosmetics C. and D. her
Question 46: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
B. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Question 47: "Would you like to have dinner with me?", Miss Hoa said to me.
A. Miss Hoa told me to have dinner with her.
B. Miss Hoa invited me to have dinner with her.
C. Miss Hoa asked me if she liked to have dinner with me.
D. Miss Hoa suggested me if I would like to have dinner with her or not.
Question 48: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student should write an essay on the topic
C. They require every student can write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
Question 49: A. explore B. design C. require D. threaten
Question 50: A. entertain B. solution C. referee D. afternoon
--------THE END------

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. expand B. stagnant C. vacancy D. applicant
Question 2. A. examine B. employ C. exact D. species
Question 3. A. attention B. financial C. guarantee D. courageous
Question 4. A. profit B. modern C. typhoon D. feature
questions.
Question 5. Some encyclopedias provide___________on specific fields such as music or philosophy.
A. information B. informations C. informing D. informativation
Question 6. This time last Friday, we___________to Moscow.
A. flew B. had flown C. were being flown D. were flying
Question 7. My boss expects the report___________on time.
A. to be completed B. to complete C. completing D. being completed
Question 8. The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary, intermediate
and___________.
A. advance B. advancement C. advanced D. advancing
Question 9. ___________5 months for the fridge to be delivered, I decide to cancel the order.
A. Waiting B. Waited C. Having waited D. Had waited
Question 10. The clothes of my sister are more expensive___________of my mother.
A. than this B. than that C. than those D. than these
Question 11. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye___________with the interviewers.
A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
Question 12. It is___________of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
A. familiar B. typical C. ordinary D. common
Question 13. Yesterday, John told me that he wished he___________harder in high school then university
might not be so difficult for him.
A. studied B. would study C. had studied D. studies
Question 14. Peter was the last applicant___________by that interviewer.
A. to interview B. interviewing C. to be interviewing D. to be interviewed
Question 15. He fixed a metal ladder to the wall below his window___________escape if there was a fire.
A. to B. not to C. so as not D. so that
Question 16. He came___________a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television interview.
A. in for B. over C. out of D. off
Question 17. Jane has never enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera. They are not really her___________.
A. piece of cake B. cup of tea C. biscuit D. chip off the old block
Question 18. I always get in my stomach before visiting the dentist. ___________
A. worms B. butterflies C. crabs D. mosquitoes
Question 19. The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organizers of the
conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
A. The keynote speaker B. complementary remarks
C. organizers D. proceeded
Question 20. When I got home, Irene lay in bed watching a blockbuster movie.
A. got home B. lay C. watching D. blockbuster
Question 21. The graduated assistant informed us that the first exam was the most difficult of the two.
A. graduated B. informed C. the first D. most difficult
Question 22. In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball.
Question 23. It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work.
B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She doesn’t usually drive to work in an hour.
D. She usually spends an hour driving to work.
Question 24. It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers’ lives thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers’ lives.
D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
Question 25. We gain more knowledge about how to stay safe online. We worry less about the threats
of cybercrime.
A. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the less we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
B. The more we stay online to gain safety knowledge, the less we worry about the threats of cybercrime.
C. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the more we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
D. The more we know about how to stay safe online, we worry about the threats of cybercrime less. Question
26. The new contract sounds good. However, it seems to have some problems.
A. In spite of the fact that the new contract sounds good, it appears to have some problems.
B. In spite of its sound, the new contract appears to have some problems.
C. In order to get less problem, the new contract should improve its sound.
D. If it had much less problems, the new contract would sound better.
Question 27. Liz and Jenifer are talking about the gift Jenifer brought.
- Liz: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us!”
- Jenifer: “__________ ”
A. Not at all, don’t mention it.
B. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.
C. Alright! Do you know how much it costs?
D. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it.
Question 28. Ben has done something by accident.
- Ben: “___________”
- Jane: “Never mind”
A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned
B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Congratulations! How wonderful!
Question 29. The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. changed C. delayed D. continued
Question 30. The discovery of the new planet was regarded as a major breakthrough in astronomy.
A. promised B. doubted C. considered D. refused
Question 31. People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aid for the victims in the disaster-
stricken areas.
A. awareness B. uncertainty C. reluctance D. willingness
Question 32. Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. puts off B. looks for C. attends to D. approves of
Back in the 1960s and 1970s, the world was becoming more aware of the destructive effects of industry (33)
___________. the environment and people were starting to think seriously about ways of protecting the
environment. One man who was particularly affected by this subject was Gerard Morgan-Grenville. As
Morgan-Grenville travelled round earning his living as a gardener, he noticed signs of damage that was being
done to the countryside around him. It wasn’t long before Morgan-Grenville decided that he had to do
something about this situation. He felt that if people could be shown a better way of living then maybe they
would be interested enough to try to protect their (34) ___________environment.
Mr. Morgan-Grenville decided to set up a project (35) ___________would prove what was happening
to our surroundings and what could be done about it. So, in 1975, Morgan-Grenville created the Centre for
Alternative Technology (CAT) in a village in Wales.
The main aim of CAT is to search for an ecologically better way of living by using technology which (36)
___________no harm to the environment. One of the most important things CAT did initially was to explore
and demonstrate a wide range of techniques and to point out which ones had the least destructive results on
the world around us. (37) ___________, CAT provides information and advice to people all over Britain and
all over the world. If more and more individuals are informed about how much damage our modern lifestyle
is causing to the planet, maybe more of them would be prepared to look for practical solutions to environmental
problems.
Question 33. A. for B. to C. with D. on
Question 34. A. worthless B. valueless C. precious D. priceless
Question 35. A. that B. whose C. who D. this
Question 36. A. gets B. makes C. plays D. does
Question 37. A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. Although
The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many African cultures.
In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of the bride before the
marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi
tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts, shells,
and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes
takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In
modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride
price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or highly traditional families.
There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that the bride price
represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride’s family has gone in order to raise her and bring her
up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a family member, since the bride
will officially become a member of her husband's family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride
price represents payment for the fact that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby
increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be
returned if the bride fails to bear children.
The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment of bride
price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their fathers and older
relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to greater levels of obedience
and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other
family members to meet and get to know one another before the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must
often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride’s family often works to make sure that any marital problems are
solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier
families can afford to support the marriage of their son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families.
Question 38. What is the topic of the passage?
A. The most common payments of the bride price in African cultures.
B. The effects of the practice of bride price on African society.
C. The practice of bride price in many African cultures.
D. The financial problems arising after marriage.
Question 39. The word “prominent” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to____________.
A. famous B. impoverished C. two-parent D. affluent
Question 40. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Justification B. The expense of raising the bride
C. An acknowledgement D. The bride price
Question 41. It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that____________.
A. After marriage, married women never see their parents again.
B. The family of the groom pays the bride price on the wedding day.
C. African society puts more value on men than women.
D. African families attach great importance to children.
Question 42. Which of the following statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. With the practice of paying the bride price, African men would not respect their family members.
B. The initial negotiations over the bride price provide opportunities for the two families to get to know each
other.
C. Animals are an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride price.
D. The bride’s family has to return the bride price to the groom’s in case the couple are unable to have
children or get divorced.
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be trained programmer to work online. Of course, there are
plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has opened up
a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical expertise. Probably
one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of webmaster. However, it is hard to define one
basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular
organization needs a webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the website
the webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets
to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally (at the firm itself) or
externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also
depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help.
All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications.
However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content jobs
require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media”.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set of new
technologies and skills, specifically, it includes websites, email, Internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD,
streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration,
video games, virtually reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many
companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance workers
online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from around
the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to such online jobs is that
freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country of residence.
How much can a person make in these kinds of career? As with many questions related to todays evolving
technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with technical Internet
skills salaries well above $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year, but salaries
can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to make between $40,000 and $70,000
per year.
Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?
A. The definition of “new media” B. Internet jobs
C. The job of Webmasters D. People with Internet skills
Question 44. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?
A. They work either independently or collaboratively.
B. The duties they perform stay almost unchanged.
C. Their jobs require a minimal level of expertise
D. They hardly support hardware and software products.
Question 45. The word “identity” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to____________
A. find out B. pick up on C. come across D. look into
Question 46. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. websites B. tasks C. hardware and software D. skill sets
Question 47. Which of the following is NOT true about the job of the freelance writers?
A. It may involve working with foreign companies.
B. It is considered a “content” job.
C. There is a high demand for traditional skills.
D. It requires deep knowledge of computer applications.
Question 48. The word “downsize” in paragraph 5 most likely means____________.
A. dismiss workers B. decrease salary C. go bankrupt D. win new contracts
Question 49. According to the passage, all of the followings are true EXCEPT____________.
A. A basic job description for a webmaster is not easy to define.
B. A webmaster does not have to get himself updated with computer science.
C. “New media” does not encompass writing skills.
D. Online jobs for workers with basic computer skills are available.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that____________.
A. only well-trained workers are advised to work online.
B. online workers can work full-time online.
C. becoming a webmaster is really easy.
D. workers with limited computer skills cannot make good money.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12
THANH HÓA NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Mã đề thi 896 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
MỤC TIÊU
cấp THPT.
Question 1: I can't write that kind of letter unless I'm in the right frame of mind.
A. high spirits B. low spirits C. good mood D. bad mood
Question 2: Tom was not popular with younger colleagues because he adopted a rather patronizing
attitude towards them.
A. respectful B. disapproving C. friendly D. defiant
questions.
Question 3: She managed to express her thoughts to the interviewer _______ her poor English.
A. in spite of B. though C. because D. because of
Question 4: She never wants to become his wife. I'm sure she will _______ him _______ if he asks her to
marry him.
A. turn-down B. give – up C. put – down D. put – up
Question 5: Since the beginning of April, Sam Son Flower Festival has attracted thousands of _______ to the
beach.
A. customers B. visitors C. clients D. guests
Question 6: As many as 49.743 people in 19 provinces and cities across Vietnam _______ against COVID -
19 in March.
A. vaccinated B. were vaccinating C. were vaccinated D. vaccinate
Question 7: The faster we walk, _______ we will get there.
A. the soon B. the sooner C. the soonest D. the more soon
Question 8: This is a picture of a/an _______ castle.
A. white Egypt ancient B. ancient white Egypt C. Egypt ancient white D. Egypt white
ancient
Question 9: _______ all the exercises, she went to bed.
A. To do B. Having done C. Being done D. Had done
Question 10: The students are excited _______ the coming summer holiday.
A. for B. with C. to D. about
Question 11: The injury _______ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. gave B. said C. made D. paid
Question 12: She completed the remaining work at her office in great _______ so as not to miss the last bus to
her home.
A. hurry B. haste C. rush D. speed
Question 13: I can't go out this morning. I'm up to my _______ in reports.
A. nose B. ears C. lips D. eye
Question 14: On April 10th, the advertisement for Vinfast VF-e36 model car on CNN instantly caught
_______ of TV viewers and netizens worldwide.
A. attends B. attention C. attentive D. attentively
Question 15: When I went out, the sun _______.
A. was shining B. is shining C. shines D. shone
Question 16: She's beautiful, _______?
A. isn't she B. doesn't she C. didn't she D. won't she
Question 17: The secretary will have finished the preparations for the meeting _______.
A. by the time the boss arrives B. after the boss had arrived
C. as soon as the boss had arrived D. when the boss arrived
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 18: A. noticed B. finished C. supported D. approached
Question 19: A. stone B. zone C. phone D. none
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
Question 20: A. relax B. enter C. behave D. allow
Question 21: A. altitude B. stimulate C. company D. decision
Question 22: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 23: A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. assistance B. confidence C. understanding D. experience
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
Question 24: Ted and Kate are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: “_________. It is an essential life skill."
A. I can't agree with you more B. Oh, that's a problem
C. You can make it D. Not at all
Question 25: Tom is talking to John, his new classmate, in the classroom.
- Tom: "How did you get here?”
- John: “__________________”
A. I came here by train. B. Is it far from here?
C. The train is so crowded. D. I came here last night.
Imaginary friends in early childhood
Many children have an imaginary friend – that is a friend they have invented. It was once thought that only
children (26) _______ had difficulty in creating relationships with others had imaginary friends. In fact, having
an imaginary friend is probably a common aspect of a normal childhood (27) _______ many children with lots
of real friends also have an imaginary friend. The imaginary friend may help some children cope with
emotional difficulties, but for (28) _______, having an imaginary friend is just fun.
There is no firm evidence to say that having an imaginary friend (29) _______ us anything about what
a child will be like in the future. One (30) _______ of research, though, has suggested that adults who once had
imaginary friends may be more creative than those who did not.
(Adapted from First Certificate in English, Cambridge University Press)
Question 26: A. whom B. who C. whose D. which
Question 27: A. so B. as C. although D. but
Question 28: A. many B. much C. another D. every
Question 29: A. advises B. informs C. tells D. reveals
Question 30: A. piece B. unit C. item D. section
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 31: Lan had some shocking words on her facebook. Then, everyone knew her.
A. Hardly when Lan had some shocking words on her facebook everyone knew her.
B. Only after Lan had some shocking words on her facebook everyone knew her.
C. Only when Lan had some shocking words on her facebook did everyone know her.
D. Until Lan had some shocking words on her facebook did everyone knew her.
Question 32: My brother is away on business. I really need his help now.
A. As long as my brother is at home, he will be able to help me.
B. If only my brother had been at home and could have helped me.
C. If my brother is at home, he can help me now.
D. I wish my brother were at home and could help me now.
How do children learn about wildlife? And is what they learn the sort of thing they should be learning?
It is my belief that children should not just be acquiring knowledge of animals but also developing attitudes
and feelings towards them based on exposure to the real lives of animals in their natural habitats. But is
this happening?
Some research in this area indicates that it is not. Learning about animals in school is often completely
disconnected from the real lives of real animals, with the result that children often end up with little or
no understanding or lasting knowledge of them. They learn factual information about animals, aimed
at enabling them to identify them and have various abstract ideas about them, but that is the extent of
their learning. Children's storybooks tend to personify animals as characters rather than teach about them.
For direct contact with wild and international animals, the only opportunity most children have is visiting
a zoo. The educational benefit of this for children is often given as the main reason for doing it but research has
shown that zoo visits seldom add to children's knowledge of animals – the animals are simply like exhibits in
a museum that the children look at without engaging with them as living creatures. Children who belong to
wildlife or environmental organizations or who watch wildlife TV programmes, however, show significantly
higher knowledge than any other group of children studied in research. The studies show that if children learn
about animals in their natural habitats, particularly through wildlife-based activities, they know more about
them than they do as a result of visiting zoos or learning about them in the classroom.
Research has also been done into the attitudes of children towards animals. It shows that in general
terms, children form strong attachments to individual animals, usually their pets, but do not have strong
feelings for animals in general. This attitude is the norm regardless of the amount or kind of learning about
animals they have at school. However, those children who watch television wildlife programmes show an
interest in and affection for wildlife in its natural environment, and their regard for animals in general is
higher.
(Adapted from New English File, by Christina Latham -Koenig, Oxford University Press)
A. Zoos: The Best Opportunity to Learn About Animals
B. Methods of Learning About Animals at School
C. Learning About Animals at School
D. Research on Learning About Animals
Question 34: The word “disconnected” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. separated B. removed C. divided D. disagreed
Question 35: What opinion does the writer express in the second paragraph?
A. What children learn about animals at school is often inaccurate.
B. The amount of acquired knowledge about animals at school is adequate.
C. Children's storybooks are an effective way of teaching them about animals.
D. Children's learning about animals at school has the wrong emphasis.
Question 36: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. ideas B. children's storybooks C. children D. animals
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Children's storybooks give factual information about animals.
B. The writer raises the issue of the outcome of what children learn about animals.
C. Learning about animals in their natural habitats teaches children more about
animals than other methods. D. Zoo visits have less educational benefit than they are believed to have.
Question 38: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that children's attitudes to animals ______.
A. depend on whether or not they have pets
B. differ from what adults might expect them to be
C. based on how much they know about the animals
D. are not affected by what they learn about them at school
Question 39: The word “regard” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. opinion B. respect C. attitude D. sympathy
Question 40: A Tokyo newspaper - television company has organized the climb in 1975.
A. Tokyo B. company C. has organized D. in
Question 41: I felt annoyed by his continuous interruptions at the meeting this morning.
A. annoyed B. continuous C. interruptions D. at
Question 42: Ordinary Americans are friendly and not afraid to show its feelings.
A. Ordinary B. are C. not D. its
Charles Lutwidge Dodgson is perhaps not a name that is universally recognized, but Dodgson did
achieve enormous success under the pseudonym Lewis Carroll. He created this pseudonym from the
Latinization, Carolus Ludovicus, of his real given name. It was under the name Lewis Carroll that Dodgson
published the children's books Alice's Adventures in Wonderland (1865) and its sequel Through the Looking
Glass (1872). Though Dodgson achieved this success in children's literature, he was not an author of children's
books by training or profession. His education and chosen field of pursuit were far removed from the field
of children's literature and were instead focused on theoretical mathematics.
Dodgson graduated with honors from Christ Church, Oxford, in 1854 and then embarked on a career in
the world of academia. He worked as a lecturer in mathematics at Oxford and, later in his career, published
a number of theoretical works on mathematics under his own name rather than under the pseudonym that
he used for his children's stories. He produced a number of texts for students, such as A Syllabus of
Plane Algebraical Geometry (1860), Formulae of Plane Trigonometry (1861), which was notable for the
creativity of the symbols that he used to express trigonometric functions such as sine and cosine, and A Guide
for the Mathematical Student (1866). In a number of more esoteric works, he championed the principles of
Euclid; in Euclid and his Modern Rivals (1879), he presented his ideas on the superiority of Euclid over
rival mathematicians in a highly imaginative fashion, by devising, a courtroom trial of anti-
Euclid mathematicians that he named "Euclid-wreckers" and ultimately finding the defendants guilty as
charged. Curiosa Mathematica (1888-1893) made a further defense of Euclid's work, focusing on Euclid's
definition of parallel lines. These academic works never had the universal impact of Dodgson's works for
children using the name Lewis Carroll, but they demonstrate a solid body of well-regarded academic material.
Question 43: The word "pseudonym" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. real name B. family name C. pen pal D. pen name
Question 44: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Dodson's works for children B. children
C. these academic works D. parallel lines
A. The Works of Lewis Carroll
B. Dodgson and Carroll: Mathematics and Children's Stories
C. Charles Dodgson and Euclid
D. The Story of Alice's Adventures in Wonderland
Question 46: According to the passage, Dodgson ______.
A. used the same name on all his published works
B. used a pseudonym for the work about courtroom trial
C. did not use his given name on his stories for children
D. used the name Carol on his mathematic works
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Dodgson was an outstanding student. B. Dodgon attended Christ Church, Oxford.
C. Dodgson was a published author of academic works. D. Dodgon studied children's literature.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 48: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me?” Jane said to Mary.
A. Jane encouraged Mary to go to the cinema with her.
B. Jane reminded Mary to go to the cinema with her.
C. Jane invited Mary to go to the cinema with her.
D. Jane persuaded Mary to go to the cinema with her.
Question 49: They last saw each other six months ago.
A. They haven't seen each other for six months. B. They haven't seen each other since six months.
C. They have seen each other for six months. D. They didn't see each other six months ago.
Question 50: I'm sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa might be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
-----THE END-----

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the -word whose underlined part differs
Question 1. A. comb B. come C. dome D. home
Question 2. A. volunteer B. trust C. fuss D. judge
Question 3. A. sleepy B. trophy C. facial D. exact
Question 4. A. authority B. necessity C. academic D. commercially
questions.
Question 5. He was not offered the job because he knew____________about Information Technology.
A. a little B. little C. many D. a few
Question 6. Graham was disappointed because he____________for the bus for an hour.
A. was waiting B. waited C. has been waiting D. had been waiting
Question 7. Sally hoped____________to join the private club. She could make important business
contacts there.
A. inviting B. being invited C. to invite D. to be invited
Question 8. ____________the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.
A. finishing B. finish C. to finish D. having finished
Question 9. The country is rapidly losing its workers as____________people are emigrating.
A. the most and the most B. the more and the more
C. more and more D. most and most
Question 10. It is absolutely essential that she____________ head office in advance.
A. arrive B. arrives C. will arrive D. must arrive
Question 11. We have just visited disadvantaged children in an orphanage____________in Bac Ninh
Province.
A. located B. locating C. which locates D. to locate
Question 12. Peter works hard at everything he does. His brother, ____________, seldom puts out
much effort.
A. on the other hand B. otherwise C. furthermore D. consequently
Question 13. John's____________and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually
Question 14. We truly respected our father and always____________by his rule.
A. submitted B. obeyed C. complied D. adobe
Question 15. We were quite impressed by the____________students who came up with the answer to our
question almost instantly.
A. absent-minded B. big-headed C. quick-witted D. bad-tempered
Question 16. I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic____________when you explain the
situation to her.
A. eye B. ear C. arm D. finger
Question 17. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he____________to the
occasion wonderfully.
A. raised B. rose C. fell D. faced
Question 18. You looked exhausted. I think you’ve____________more than you can handle.
A. turned on B. taken up C. turned up D. taken on
Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
Question 19. The more tired you are, the more hard you can concentrate.
A. more tired B. you are C. more hard D. concentrate
Question 20. The ocean probably distinguishes the earth from other planets of the solar system, for scientists
believe that large bodies of water are not existing on the other planets.
A. probably B. for C. are not existing D. from
Question 21. There were considerate amounts of money wasted on large building projects.
A. considerate B. amounts C. wasted D. building
Question 22. I thought I should not have stayed at home yesterday.
A. I regretted staying at home yesterday. B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. I regret for staying at home yesterday. D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
Question 23. They don’t let the workers use the office telephone for personal calls.
A. They don’t allow using the office telephone to call personal secretaries.
B. They don’t allow workers to use the office telephone.
C. The office telephone is used by workers personally.
D. They don’t let the office telephone be used for personal purpose by workers
Question 24. “ You should have finished the report by now.” John told his secretary.
A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.
B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.
C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report.
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 25. He hadn’t eaten anything since morning. He took the food eagerly.
A. He took the food eagerly although he had eaten a lot since dawn.
B. He took the food eagerly for he had eaten nothing since dawn.
C. He had eaten nothing since dawn so that he took the food eagerly.
D. He took the food so eagerly that he had eaten nothing since dawn.
Question 26. Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of
danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of danger.
B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.
D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
Question 27. Maria and Diana are talking about the evening.
Maria: “ Thanks for the lovely evening”
Diana: “____________”
A. I’m glad you enjoyed it B. Oh, That’s right
C. No, it’s not good D. Yes, it’s really great
Question 28. Tom came late for the meeting with Barbara.
Tom: “ Sorry, I’m late. The traffic was terrible”
Barbara: “____________”
A. My pleasure B. Don’t worry.
C. I wish I could but I’m sorry D. Well, let me see.
Question 29. Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the family.
A. a person who bakes bread every morning
B. a bakery-owner
C. a person who delivers bread to make money
D. a person who goes out to work to earn money
Question 30. Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.
A. a beloved member B. a bad and embarrassing member
C. the only child D. the eldest child
Question 31. The loss of his journals had caused him even more sorrow than his retirement from the military
six years earlier.
A. grief B. joy C. comfort D. sympathy
Question 32. As a newspaper reporter, she always wanted to get information at first hand
A. indirectly B. directly C. easily D. slowly
word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
SPORTS IN SOCIETY
The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer seem to think of
sports as ‘just a game’ - to be watched or played for the (33) ____________of enjoyment. Instead, it has
become a big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading companies to provide
sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to screen important matches or competitions. The result
has been huge rewards for athletes, some of (34) ____________are now very wealthy, particularly top
footballers, golfers and tennis players. (35) ____________, it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large
fees on top of their salary, for advertising products or making personal appearances.
A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch
and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation industry that we now rely
(36) ____________to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part of that industry, providing for
millions of (37) ____________people all over the world.
Question 33. A. advantage B. good C. benefit D. sake
Question 34. A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 35. A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. Therefore
Question 36. A. for B. with C. on D. in
Question 37. A. ordinary B. mighty C. extremist D. abnormal
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
In many ways, the increasingly rapid pace of climate change is a direct result of the growth of the human
population. In the last 100 years, the world population has more than tripled, from just under 2 billion at the
beginning of the century to nearly 7 billion today. In addition, the average person uses more energy and natural
resources than the average person one hundred years ago, meaning that the rates of consumption are actually
much higher than just the increase in population would imply. For example, it took the world 125 years to use
the first one trillion barrels of oil. The next trillion barrels will be used in less than 30 years, which is almost
5 times as fast, not three.
All of these activities: food production, energy usage, and the use of natural resources, contribute to climate
change in some way. The greater amounts of oil and other fuels burned to create energy release chemicals
which add to global warming. In order to produce more food, farmers cut down trees to gain more land for
their fields. In addition, we cut down trees to build the houses needed for a larger population. Those trees are
an essential part of controlling global warming; others are too numerous to mention.
In addition to a growing population, the world also has a population that desires a higher standard of living
than in the past, and a higher standard of living requires the use of even more natural resources. A look at one
country will provide a clear example of this fact. China is the world's most populous nation, with 1.3 billion
people. Currently, the standard of living for most of those people is far below that of people in first world
nations. Therefore, the average Chinese citizen uses far fewer natural resources and less energy than the
average citizen of the US or Japan. But China is growing in power, and more of its citizens are beginning to
expect a first world lifestyle. If every Chinese person attains a first world lifestyle, the amount of energy and
natural resources needed in the world will double, even if the standard of living in every other nation on Earth
remains the same as it is today.
Question 38. How many years did it take the world to use the first one trillion barrels of oil?
A. 100 years B. 125 years C. 30 years D. 7 years
Question 39. The word “consumption” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. development B. usage C. population D. increase
Question 40. According to the passage, which of these activities does NOT contribute to climate change
in some way?
A. food production B. energy usage
C. wild animals hunting D. natural resources consumption
Question 41. According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global warming?
A. Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.
B. Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.
C. Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.
D. Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat..
Question 42. According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global warming?
A. Higher standards of living are better for the environment.
B. First world nations create less population than developing nations.
C. The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living.
D. High standards of living lead to increases in world population.
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration. While this is not
the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result of this new restoration, Carnegie
Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built.
Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the late 1800s.
The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts hall where
accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, however, the concert hall suffered from several
detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer people could afford to
attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses. As a result, a coffee
shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick and terra cotta walls
with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of the hall when the makers
of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow for lights and air vents. The
hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling
but the hall never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate developers
unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site. This threat spurred
Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York to buy the property. The
movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the current restoration, builders
tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced the hole in the ceiling with a dome. The
builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and closed the coffee shop. Carnegie has
never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked more promising.
Question 43. This passage is mainly about___________.
A. changes to Carnegie Hall
B. the appearance of Carnegie Hall
C. Carnegie Hall’s history during the Great Depression
D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
Question 44. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to___________.
A. Carnegie Hall B. New York City C. a restoration D. a plan
Question 45. What major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.
Question 46. Who was Andrew Carnegie?
A. A violinist B. An architect
C. A steel mill owner D. Mayor of New York City
Question 47. What was Isaac Stern’s relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression
Question 48. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word detrimental in paragraph 2?
A. dangerous B. trivial C. impressive D. damaging
Question 49. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “unveiled” in paragraph 3?
A. announced B. restricted C. overshadowed D. located
Question 50. How does the author seem to feel about the future of Carnegie Hall?
A. ambiguous B. guarded C. optimistic D. negative
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. laugh B. cough C. enough D. though
Question 2. A. breath B. breathe C. with D. soothe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. nuclear B. consist C. hello D. prepare
Question 4. A. economic B. solution C. convention D. specific
questions.
Question 5. A complete_____________of terms and conditions should be made before the agreement
is signed.
A. examine B. examining C. examination D. examined
Question 6. I_____________one item early last week, but I am certain that I did not get the receipt at
that time
A. purchase B. purchases C. purchased D. have purchased
Question 7. American_____________to have been discovered by Columbus.
A. is said B. was said C. being said D. says
Question 8. _____________to set the alarm clock, Jenny left for work late this morning.
A. Forget B. To forget C. Having forgotten D. Forgotten
Question 9. Since he was unable to attend the annual meeting, Mr. Yokomate requested that the
minutes_____________to his office.
A. be sent B. were sent C. sent D. send
Question 10. Volunteers should keep in mind values of the charity event in_____________they participate
actively.
A. when B. whose C. that D. which
Question 11. _____________to the airline strikes, Mr. Jones had to postpone his business trip to Rome.
A. Owed B. Because C. Due D. As
Question 12. If she had experience in medical research, she_____________for one of the positions
at the hospital.
A. apply B. could apply C. could have apply D. can apply
Question 13. Those in research positions are responsible for compiling and_____________research data.
A. store B. storage C. storing D. to store
Question 14. _____________a year, Tarrin Industrial Supply audits the accounts of all of its factories.
A. Once B. Immediately C. Directly D. Yet
Question 15. The timeline for the pathway lighting project was extended to_____________input from
the Environmental Commission.
A. use up B. believe in C. make into D. allow for
Question 16. If you don’t want your business to_____________bankrupt, avoid consulting those willing to
step out on a limb.
A. come B. take C. go D. pay
Question 17. _____________the BPT39 wireless speaker is widely popular, production will be increased
fivefold starting next month.
A. On behalf of B. Whether C. Moreover D. As
Question 18. Jack is very independent, he always paddle his own_____________
A. boat B. canoe C. ship D. yacht
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions
Question 19. If you came to the party tomorrow, don’t forget to bring your parents.
A. If B. came C. don’t D. to bring
Question 20. Even the CEO had to admit that Prasma Designs’ win was part the result of fortunate timing.
A. Even B. Prasma Designs’ C. part D. timing
Question 21. To prepare for marathon, I run 15 kilometers three and four times a week.
A. To prepare B. run C. three and four D. times
Question 22. “Where were you last night, Mr. Jenkins?” he said.
A. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins was the night before.
B. He asked Mr. Jenkins where was he last night.
C. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins had been the following night.
D. He asked Mr. Jenkins where he had been the previous night.
Question 23. The burglar was caught red- handed by the police when he was breaking into the flat.
A. The police caught the burglar to break into the flat.
B. The police caught the burglar when breaking into the flat,
C. When the burglar had broken into the flat, the police caught him at once.
D. The police caught the burglar breaking into the flat.
Question 24. “We’ll go camping as long as the weather is good.”
A. If the weather is fine, we will go camping.
B. The weather is good when we will go camping.
C. If the weather is better, we will go camping.
D. We’ll go camping immediately the weather is good.
Question 25. We are not going to select the ruling party. We are not going to select the opposition party
either.
A. We are going to select neither the ruling party nor the opposition party in the upcoming election.
B. We are not going to select neither the ruling party nor the opposition party in the upcoming election.
C. We are going to select either the ruling party or the opposition party in the upcoming election.
D. We are not going to select either the ruling party or the opposition party in the upcoming election.
Question 26. The lighthouse was built in the 1600s. It remains standing through hundreds of years.
A. Having been built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
B. Building in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
C. Built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
D. Having built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 27. Laura is warning Bob about the house.
- Laura: “Mind your head. The ceiling is low”.
- Bob: “_____________”
A. Don’t mention it. B. Thanks, I’ll remember it.
C. I couldn’t agree more with you. D. I don’t think you’re right.
Question 28. David is talking to Linda after a party.
- David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?”
- Linda: “_____________”
A. That’s be great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding.
Question 29. The Boy Scouts organisation is dedicated to helping boys become moral and productive adults.
A. committed B. used C. focused D. interested
Question 30. Father has lost his job,so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize
Question 31. Henry has found temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
Question 32. We had a whale of time as everything was quite fantastic.
A. had little time to play B. had a lot of time to play
C. felt happy D. felt disappointed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Not everybody recognises the benefits of new developments in communications technology. Indeed, some
people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (33) _____________on young people’s
communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school children may be at risk of
becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even pigeons have started
doing it. (34) _____________, in this case, it’s difficult to view the results as anything but positive. Twenty
of the birds are about to take to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each (35)
_____________with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be
automatically converted into text messages and beamed to the Internet - (36) _____________they will appear
on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’. The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial
photos, and researchers are building a tiny ‘pigeon kit’ containing all these gadgets. Each bird will carry these
in a miniature backpack, (37) ____________ , that is, from the camera, which will hang around its neck. The
data the pigeons text will be displayed in the form of an interactive map, which will provide local residents
with up-to-the-minute information on their local air quality.
Question 33. A. result B. outcome C. effect D. conclusion
Question 34. A. Therefore B. What’s more C.whereas D. That is
Question 35. A. armed B.loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 36. A. when B. which C. where D. what
Question 37. A. instead B. except C. apart D. besides
The Art World
One of the major problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an artist. In effect, a market must
be created for an artist to be successful.The practice of signing and numbering individual prints was introduced
by James Abbott McNeill whistler, the nineteenth - century artist best known for the painting of his mother,
called “Arrangement in Grey and Black”, but known to most of us as“ whistler’s Mother”. Whistler’s brother
- in - law, Sir Francis Seymour Haden, a less well - known artist, had speculated that collectors might find
prints more attractive if they knew that they were only a limited number of copies produced. By signing the
work in pencil, an artist could guarantee and personalize each print. As soon as Whistler and Haden began the
practice of signing and numbering their prints, their work began to increase in value, when other artists noticed
that the signed prints commanded higher prices, they began copying the procedure. Although most prints are
signed on the right - hand side in the margin below the image, the placement of the signature is a matter of
personal choice. Indeed, prints have been signed within the image, in any of the margins, or even on the reverse
side of the print, wherever the artist elects to sign it, a signed print is still valued
above an unsigned one, even in the same edition.
above an unsigned one, even in the same edition.
Question 38. Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Whistlers Mother B.Whistler’s Greatest Works
C. Ihe Practice of Signing Prints D. Coping Limited Edition Prints
Question 39. The word “speculated” in the paragraph 1 could best be replaced by_____________
A. guessed B. noticed C. denied D. announced
Question 40. What was true about the painting of Whistler’s mother?
A. It was painted by Sir Francis Haden
B. Its title was “Arrangement in Grey and Black”
C. It was not one of whistler’s best paintings
D. It was a completely new method of painting
Question 41. The author mentions all of the following as reasons why a collector prefer a signed print
EXCEPT_____________
A. it guarantees the prints authenticity
B. it makes the print more personal
C. it encourages higher prices for the print
D. it limits the number of copies of the print
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that artists number their prints_____________
A. as an accounting procedure B. to guarantee a limited edition
C. when the buyer requests it D. at the same place on each of the prints
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects and an estimated 90 percent of the world’s species
have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of
terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public.
Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such
as diversity. Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century
is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For example, in 1875
one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species
were found within an hour’s walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66,
and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly
richness has been well confirmed. A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference
between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among
different animal and plant groups.
However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between
them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical
Asia, and Africa are still mostly “personal communication” citations, even for vertebrates, In other words,
unlike comparison between temperate and
tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase. In documenting geographical variation in
butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species
richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World
butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that
by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 43.The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 44. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they_____________
A. are simple in structure
B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people
D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 45. The word “exceed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 46.Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
Question 47. All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity
EXCEPT_____________
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 48. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss_____________
A. their physical characteristics B. their adaptation to different habitats
C. their names D. their variety
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refer to_____________
A. insects B. butterflies C. patterns D. issues
Question 50. The idea “little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution” in paragraph 5
means that_____________
A. there are many things that we know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don’t know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
Question 1. A. workshop B. worm C. worry D. wordless
Question 2. A. borrowed B. helped C. dismissed D. booked
Question 3. A. dissolve B. household C. confide D. approach
Question 4. A. determine B. argument C. counterpart D. marvelous
questions.
Question 5. A few days ago, ____________problem arose. However, until now, we haven’t found any
solutions to it yet.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 6. Keith deserves____________in the conference for all the help she has given us.
A. to mention B. mention C. mentioning D. mentioned
Question 7. This is not____________the last one we stayed in.
A. as a comfortable hotel as B. an as comfortable hotel as
C. a as comfortable hotel as D. as comfortable a hotel as
Question 8. There are dozens of TV channels, ____________operate 24 hours a day.
A. some B. some of which C. some of those D. some of them
Question 9. Thirty-one people have been injured in____________incidents throughout the day.
A. violent B. violence C. violently D. violate
Question 10. what chemical is this? It's____________a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 11. Mary will have finished all her work ____________
A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss will return
C. by the time her boss returns D. when her boss will return
Question 12. So little_______about mathematics that the lecture was beyond completely beyond me.
A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know
Question 13. It is probably impossible for life to ever exist on Venus____________its intense surface heat.
A. because B. although C. despite D. due to
Question 14. If you cannot improved sales figures this month, you will be____________sacked.
A. promise B. conduct C. regulate D. deliver
Question 15. At the meeting last week, the finance director____________the figures for the previous year.
A. produced B. represented C. purchased D. commended
Question 16. I think Trump can easily win the election. He is a man of the____________.
A. community B. society C. country D. people
Question 17. Overcrowded slums are often considered as breeding ground____________crime.
A. of B. to C. for D. towards
Question 18. The military court____________ the major for failing to do his duty.
A. scolded B. reprimanded C. humiliated D. ridiculed
Question 19. A severe illness when she was just nineteen months old deprived the well- known writer and
lecturer Helen Keller from both her sight and hearing.
A. just B. deprived C. when D. from both
Question 20. He didn’t know who it was and couldn’t imagine why they did it, but there must have been
somebody that started the rumor which he was from London and very wealthy.
A. which B. who C. why D. that
Question 21. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.
A. such as B. in the near future
C. It is believed D. be used to doing
Question 22. It would have been better if he had told us his new address.
A. He might have told us his new address.
B. He should have told us his new address.
C. He shouldn’t have told us his new address.
D. It doesn’t matter that he didn’t tell us his new address.
Question 23. She knows more about it than I do.
A. I know as much about it as she does.
B. She knows as much about it as I do.
C. I don’t know as much about it as she does.
D. She doesn’t know as much about it as I do.
Question 24. “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?”, said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Question 25. We arrived at the airport. We realized our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realized our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport we realized our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home.
Question 26. Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 27. - Laura: “What a lovely cat you have!”
- Maria: “____________.”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly
B. Thank you. Thank you. My father bought it for me
C. I think so
D. No problem
Question 28. - Janet: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?"
- Susan: “____________’’
A. I don't agree, I'm afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
Question 29. She got up late and rushed to the bus stop.
A. came into B. went leisurely C. dropped by D. went quickly
Question 30. School uniform is compulsory in most Vietnamese schools.
A. divided B. paid C. required D. depended
Question 31. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being courteous B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Question 32. My sister lives in Alaska, so we can only see each other once in a blue moon.
A. occasionally B. rarely C. at night D. frequently
VIRTUAL DOCTORS
Clare Harrison rarely falls ill and hates going to the doctors when she does. So when she recently (33)
____________out in a painful rash down one side of her body she emailed her symptoms, (34)
____________also included a (35) ____________fever, to e-doc, the internet medical service. Two hours later
she was diagnosed as having shingles (Herpes Zoster) by her online doctor, who prescribed a special cleansing
solution for the rash and analgesics to help relieve the pain.
Health advice is now the second most popular topic that people search for on the internet, and online medical
consultation is big business. Sites vary enormously in what they offer, with services ranging from the
equivalent of a medical agony aunt to a live chat with a doctor via email. They are clearly (36) ____________a
demand from people who are too busy or, in some cases, too embarrassed to discuss their medical (37)
____________with their general practitioners.
Question 33. A. worked B. passed C. came D. ran
Question 34. A. whose B. which C. who D. that
Question 35. A. small B. weak C. mild D. calm
Question 36. A. serving B. meeting C. creating D. establishing
Question 37. A. harm B. story C. hardship D. complaint
Dolphins are one of the most intelligent species on the planet, which makes them a very interesting animal to
scientists. In their natural habitats, dolphins use various vocalization techniques. They whistle and squeak to
recognize members of their pod, identify and protect their young, and call out warnings of danger. They also
make clicking sounds used for echolocation to find food and obstacles in dark and murky waters.
Amazingly, the whistling sound that the bottlenose dolphin makes has been found to have a similar pattern to
human language. They always make conversational sounds when they greet each other. If you listen to
dolphins' squeaks and squeals, it will sound like they are having a conversation.
Dolphins usually use both sound and body language to communicate with each other. It is through gesture and
body language, however, that most of their communication with humans comes. Dolphins can be trained to
perform complicated tricks. This suggests they have a high level of intelligence and communication capacity.
If they work for a long time with a trainer, they are able to recognize and understand human commands.
A lot of dolphin communication has been studied using dolphins in captive environments. These studies have
been criticized because some marine biologists believe that dolphins living in aquariums or research centers
cannot be considered "normal." Even so, most believe that studying dolphin communication in captivity is
useful for beginning to understand the complexity of dolphin communication. After all, dolphins are one of
the most intelligent animals. Their ability to communicate is impressive and worthy of study.
Question 38. What would be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Communications in dolphins
B. Intelligent mammals in captivity
C. Dolphins' social tendencies with humans
D. Complex patterns in dolphin life
Question 39. In line 2, the word vocalization is closest in meaning to____________.
A. making gestures B. creating words C. producing sounds D. closing eyes
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what do some marine biologists think about captive dolphins?
A. Their relationships are too personal with marine biologists.
B. They can't be considered accurate subjects for biological studies.
C. They can communicate exactly the same as humans do.
D. They easily demonstrate how dolphins act in the wild.
Question 41. All of the following are true about dolphin communication EXCEPT____________
A. dolphins' squeals and squeaks sound conversational to the human ear
B. dolphins' clicking sounds are sometimes used to greet humans
C. communication using sounds and gestures occurs between dolphins
D. body language and gestures are used for communication with humans
Question 42. In line 17, the word “most” refers to ____________
A. the majority of marine biologists B. a few bottlenose dolphins
C. a lot of bottlenose dolphins D. the minority of marine biologists
What does it take to graduate from university with a First?
Mark McArdle, first-class degree holder from the University of Lancaster, tells how he did it.
Don’t spend too much time at the student lounge, do turn up for most lectures and tutorials and do submit all
coursework - eventually. That, I was told by a PhD student during freshers’ week, was all I needed to do to
get a 2:2. For a 2:1, I’d require a better attendance record and have to work harder, but not at the expense of
being cut off from civilization. And for a First I would have to become some sort of social outcast, go to even
lectures and tutorials (scribbling notes madly), spend every waking moment immersed in academic books,
and be among the last to be thrown out of the university library at 10 pm closing time.
Well, I did not give up my life for study. I didn't attend every lecture and tutorial. I didn’t write down every
word spoken in lectures. I didn’t get 80% or more in every essay, project, test or exam. I was usually behind
with my reading and occasionally mystified by the syllabus. Sometimes I couldn't be bothered to go to
university and stayed at home instead. But I always knew where I was, what I had to do and what not to bother
with. And I always worked hard on the things that counted: assignments and exams.
Getting a degree is about learning, but it isn’t just about learning biology, history, English or whatever. It’s
about understanding what you need to succeed - what, in fact, the university
wants from you and what you will get in return. You have to have a feel for the education market and really
sell your inspirations, what does the lecturer want? What is the essay marker searching for? Some students try
to offer something not wanted. Others want to give very little - they steal the thoughts of others and submit
them as their own. But they all want to be rewarded. Exchange, but don’t steal, and you’ll get a degree.
I could guarantee every book on my reading list was out on a long loan from the university library within five
seconds of the list being issued. This was worrying at first, but I quickly learned that it was impossible to read
all of the books on an average reading list anyway. I sought shortcuts. Collections of selected readings or
journal articles were excellent sources that often saved me the bother of reading the original texts. References
in books dragged me all over the place but with all the courses I had to do, there wasn't enough time to be
dragged too far. I would flick through the book, read the introduction, note any summaries, look at diagrams,
skim the index, and read any conclusions. I plucked out what was needed and made my escape.
I revised by discarding subject areas I could not face revising, reading, compiling notes, and then condensing
them onto one or two sheets of A4 for each subject area. Leading up to the exam, I would concentrate on just
the condensed notes and rely on my memory to drag out the detail behind them when the time came. I didn’t
practice writing exam questions, although it was recommended. I prefer to be spontaneous and open-minded.
I don't want pre-formed conclusions filling my mind.
And nor should you; there is no secret to getting a First - this is just an account of how I got my First. Be a
happy student by striking the right balance between working and enjoying yourself. Take what you do
seriously and do your best. And, no matter what you do, don't forget to appreciate every day of your university
studies: it is one of the greatest periods of your life.
Glossary:
University degree classifications in the UK:
- First class
- Upper second (2:1)
- Lower second (2:2)
- Third class (3)
Question 43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe learning experience of an excellent student
B. To emphasize the importance of higher education
C. To suggest ways to deal with assignments at university
D. To point out challenges of studying at university
Question 44. The PhD students who spoke to the writer____________.
A. exaggerate the need to work hard B. succeeded in scaring the writer
C. was uncertain how to help the writer D. thought the writer would get a First
Question 45. In the third paragraph, the writer warns against____________.
A. offering money to academic staff B. trying to second-guess lectures
C. expecting to be rewarded D. plagiarism in essays and exams
Question 46. The word “immersed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. ploughed B. absorbed C. sunk D. dipped
Question 47. Why did the writer not practice writing exam questions?
A. He thought the practice was rather boring.
B. He wanted to answer exam questions critically.
C. He was advised not to.
D. He thought it might prejudice the staff against him.
Question 48. The word “flick through” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. search quickly B. skim C. borrow D. read carefully
Question 49. All of the following are mentioned about factors that help the writer to succeed at university
EXCEPT ____________.
A. an understanding of what was required
B. regular attendance at lectures
C. selective reading
D. well-organizing revision
Question 50. It can be inferred from what the write said in the last paragraph that____________ .
A. student’s top priority is to pass exams
B. teachers should set goals for students right from the first year
C. students should follow his recipe for success
D. students should make the most of being a student
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1. A. land B. sandy C. many D. candy
Question 2. A. compete B. intend C. medal D. defend
Question 3. A. relax B. wonder C. problem D. special
Question 4. A. reflection B. division C. industry D. remember
questions.
Question 5. I think everyone wants to make friends with John. He is___________honest person.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 6. He___________only three letters to his parents since he joined the army.
A. has written B. wrote C. would write D. had written
Question 7. Jimmy’s low examination scores kept him from___________to the university
A. to admit B. to be admitted C. admitting D. being admitted
Question 8. The company is believed___________a lot of money last year.
A. to lose B. lost C. to have lost D. to be losing
Question 9. When___________as the new manager of the company, Mr. Smith knew he had a lot of things to
do.
A. appointing B. appointed C. appoint D. have appointed
Question 10: ___________his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.
A. Because B. Even though C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 11. If I___________a wallet in the street, I’d take it to the police.
A. find B. found C. will find D. would find
Question 12. I assume that you are acquainted___________this subject since you are responsible
writing the accompanying materials.
A. to/for B. with/for C. to/to D. with/with
Question 13. The song has___________been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia.
A. office B. officer C. officially D. official
Question 14. Elephants___________the ecosystems they live in, and make it possible for a lot of other species
to survive in those environments as well.
A. obtain B. remain C. maintain D. attain
Question 15. After the fire, the government pledged to implement a program of___________all over the
devastated national park.
A. reforestation B. rebuilding C. replenishment D. reconstruction
Question 16. He was given a medal in___________of his service to the country.
A. gratitude B. recognition C. knowledge D. response
Question 17. I'm going on business for a week, sp I'll be leaving everything___________.
A. on your guards B. up to your eyes
C. in your capable hands D. in the care of you
Question 18. Archeologists think that massive floods could have___________the dinosaurs.
A. wiped out B. laid off C. put aside D. taken down.
Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
Question 19. The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. smoking B. effects C. on D. have been proved.
Question 20. She had so many luggage that there was not enough room in the car for it.
A. so many B. was C. enough room D. it
Question 21. Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated elements.
A. Alike B. waves C. may be D. concentrated
Question 22. "I didn't break the mobile phone," Lan said.
A. Lan denied breaking the mobile phone.
B. Lan admitted breaking the mobile phone.
C. Lan prevented us from breaking the mobile phone
D. Lan promised to break the mobile phone.
Question 23. The bag was heavy, so we could not take it with us.
A. If the bag was not heavy, we would take it with us.
B. Unless the bag had not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.
C. If had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.
D. Had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us
Question 24. He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He made people at the party wet through.
B. He spoiled other people's pleasure at the party
C. He bought a wet blanket to the party.
D. He was wet through when going home from the party.
Question 25. He was suspected of stealing credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 26. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam. She didn’t want it to get broken in the post.
A. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so that it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
B. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so it didn’t get broken in the post.
C. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so as it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
D. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam for it didn’t get broken in the post.
Question 27. David and Cathy are talking about the party next week.
David.: “I’d like to invite you to a party next Sunday.”
Cathy: “___________”
A. Thank you. What time? B. How do you do?
C. You’re entirely welcome. D. I’m glad you like it.
Question 28. Tom and Marry are meeting at the class reunion.
Tom. "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary" - Mary. “___________"
A. Thanks. That's a nice compliment B. why do you say so?
C. Sorry, I don't like it D. I think so
Question 29. I strongly recommend that you should take out an insurance policy in the house for your own
peace of mind.
A. to stop your sleeping B. to stop your worrying
C. to stop your thinking D. to stop your believing
Question 30. Every year this charity organization takes on volunteers to support the needy and the poor.
A. dismisses B. creates C. recruits D. interviews
Question 31. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being on time B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Question 32. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were
apples and oranges.
A. containing too many technical details B. very similar
C. completely different D. very complicated
Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.
Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the economic
times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people unemployed is still relatively
high, and the number of new careers (33) ___________ isn’t nearly enough to put people in jobs they are
seeking. As a job seeker, you’re competing with a high number of experienced workers (34) ___________
have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking work. (35) ___________, when you have a
higher education, it generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value
those who have completed college more than those who have only completed high school and are more likely
to replace that person who hasn’t (36) ___________a higher education. Furthermore, some companies even
go so far as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (37) ___________to be valuable to their
organization. A college education is an investment that doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It
benefits the hiring company as well.
Question 33. A. responsibilities B. activities C. opportunities D. possibilities
Question 34. A. who B. where C. whose D. which
Question 35. A. Otherwise B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However
Question 36. A. permitted B. refused C. applied D. received
Question 37. A. employment B. employer C. employee D. unemployed
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 38 to 42.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a greater
priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily available,
renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth - friendly. Two such resources are solar power and
geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of
worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of
photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are equipped
with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the world,
including many developing countries, the use of solar systems is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power,
which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are trapped
in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which produces electricity.
Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources and
as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of
effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where there are over 80 percent of
private homes are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources.
The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on a global scale.
Question 38. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
C. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 39. Which of the following words could best replace the word “abundant”?
A. a lot B. scarce C. little D. enough
Question 40. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to_____________
A. solar energy B. the earth C. sunlight D. energy consumption
Question 41. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy
production?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 42. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
C. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the
leader of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on
one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge
as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen
formally through election or recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have failed
to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural leaders.” It seems that there is no set of
personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader
if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that
there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals. Instrumental leadership
is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental
leaders to “get things” done. Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the
collective well¬being of a social group’s members. Expressive leaders are less concerned with the overall
goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize
tension and conflict among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships
within the group and provide support to individual members. Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather
secondary relationship to other group members. They give orders and may discipline group members who
inhibit attainment of the group's goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to
others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline,
are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group.
As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection
from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more
distant respect.
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How leadership differs in small and large groups
B. The role of leaders in social groups
C. The problems faced by leaders
D. How social groups determine who will lead them
Question 44. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders
EXCEPT___________
A. recruitment B. specific leadership training
C. traditional cultural patterns D. formal election process
Question 45. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
B. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
C. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another group.
D. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
Question 46. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on___________
A. sharing responsibility with group members
B. achieving a goal
C. ensuring harmonious relationships
D. identifying new leaders
Question 47. The word “collective” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________
A. necessary B. group C. particular D. typical
Question 48. It can be understood that___________
A. There is lots of tension and conflict in an election of a leader in the family.
B. There is usually an election to choose leaders in a family as well as in larger groups.
C. It has been said that there must be a set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common.
D. Leaders are sometimes chosen formally or informally.
Question 49. The word “resolve” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________
A. talk about B. find a solution for
C. avoid repeating D. avoid thinking about
Question 50. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in terms of___________
A. examples that illustrate a problem B. narration of events

C. comparison and contrast D. cause and effect analysis

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ĐỀ SỐ 01 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

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SỞ GD & ĐT HÀ TĨNH KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021

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A. examples that illustrate a problem B. narration of events

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