1 Joy Chawana-Salvio

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Me 7 by Adzcer Hadulla

MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION NO.7


Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.

1. The pavement marking (Item 606) shall be readily extrude at a temperature


of_______________
a.110±5°c
b. a.230±9°F
c. 211±7°c
d 23±1.7°c

2. Traffic Paint shall be applied to the pavement At the Rate of___________


a. 30 - 33 L/sq.m
b. 0-3 L/sq.m.
c. 0 - 0.33 L/sq.m
d. 30-0.45 L/sq.m

3.Traffic Paint shall be dry sufficiently to be free from cracking from _____ to ____
a. 15-25 mins
b. 15-30 mins
c. 15-25 hrs
d. 15-30 hrs

4. This Item shall consist of the construction of the rubble concrete in accordance with
this specification and in conformity with the lines, grades, slopes, and dimensions as
shown in the plans or established by the Engineer.
a. Item 707
b. Item 507
c. Item 606
d. item 704

5. What type of concrete shall be used for Rubble Concrete (item 507) in accordance with
Structural Concrete.
a. Class B
b. Class A
c. Class C
d. Class P

6. In Placing Concrete Class B for Rubble concrete (Item 507), the clearance between
stones shall not be less less than _______.
a. 2 ½”
b. 63 mm
c. 50mm
d. a & b

7. What is the maximum size of concrete aggregates for Class B concrete.


a. 2 ½”
b. 63 mm
c. 50mm
d. a & b

1 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
Me 7 by Adzcer Hadulla

8. What is the item for concrete Masonry unit?


a. Item 506
b. Item 505
c. Item 704
d. item 504

9. Concrete masonry unit if subject to test, 6 units of CHB Shall be tested for every
10,000 units.(3 units for ______________ and 3 units for____________).
a. absorption & compression
b. stability & durability
c. density & thickness
d. all of the above

10. What is the item for Joint Mortar?


a. Item 504
b. item 604
c. item 704
d. none of the above

11. Mortar for Masonry Beds and Joints shall be:


a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:1
d. Class B only

12. What should be the PH values for mixing water that is used in the construction?
a. 2 - 5.5 b. 5.5-7.5
c. 4.5 - 8.5 d. it doesn’t matter

13. What is the item no. for Water?


a. Item 710
b. Item 714
c. Item 704
d. item 711

14. This item shall consist of furnishing and applying termite control chemicals, including
the use of equipment and tools in performing such operations.
a. Termite Control Work
b. Termite demolition
c. termite termination
d. all of the above

15. What is the item No. of number 14 problem?


a. Item 606
b. Item 1000
c. item 714
d. Item 3110

16. What type of termite control which is specified for crenching soil beneath foundation
of proposed buildings.
2 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
Me 7 by Adzcer Hadulla

a. Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution


b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated
d. none of the above

17. What type of termite control that is used as wood preservatives.


a. Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution
b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated
d. none of the above

18. What type of termite control which is applied to visible or suspected subterranean
termite mounds and tunnels where termites are exterminated trophallaxes method
(exchange or nourishment between termites while greeting each other upon meeting).
a. Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution
b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated
d. none of the above

19 .What is the Item no. for Soil Poisoning?


a. Item 1003.1
b. item 1000.1
c. item 1004.1
d. item 10005.1

20 .In Soil Poisoning an application of Type I working solution at the rate of what?
a. 10 L/ln.m
b. 9 L/ln.m
c. 8 L/ln.m
d. none of the above

21. In Soil Poisoning, this method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of
termite infestation, where trenches in concentric circles, squares or rectangles are dug
150mm to 220mm wide and at least 1 meter apart.
a. Cordoning method
b. Drenching method
c. wrenching method
d. concentric method

22. This Soil Poisoning method shall be applied when there is infestation of termite.
a. Cordoning method
b. Drenching method
c. wrenching method
d. concentric method

23. In drenching method, a Type 1 working solution is use @ a rate


of__________________.
a. 20 L/ln.m
b. 21 L/ln.m
c. 22 L/ln.m
3 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
Me 7 by Adzcer Hadulla

d. none of the above.

24. What should be the state of Soil if it is treated with Soil Poisoning so that it will allow
to have a uniform distribution of the toxicants agents.
a. low plasticity
b. low moisture content
c. high liquid limit
d. high moisture content

25. What should be the period of the application of toxicants prior to placement of
concrete which shall be contact with the treated materials.
a. @least 24 mins
b. @least 12 mins
c. @least 24 hrs
d. @least 12 hrs

26.This item shall consist of furnishing all required materials, fabricated woodwork, tools,
equipment and labor and performing all operations necessary to the satisfactory
completion of all carpentry and joinery works in strict.
a. item 1001
b. item 1002
c. item 1003
d. item 1004

27. What is the moisture content requirement for air-dried or sun dried rough lumber use
for framing and siding.?
a. 18-20%
b. @least 22 %
c. 15-25%
d. @ least 14 %

28. Dressed lumber for exterior and interior finishing for doors and windows, cabinet and
flooring boards shall be:
a. sun-dried
d. air-dried
c. kiln-dried
d. oven-dried

29. What is the moisture content requirement for a dressed lumber at the time of
installation.?
a. @ least 20%
b. in excess of 14%
c. 15-25%
d. @ least 22 %

30. An item no. for Corrugated Metal Roofing.


a. Item 1010
b. item 1012
c. item 1011
d. item 1013
4 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
Me 7 by Adzcer Hadulla

31. What should be the gauge shall be use for Corrugated metal roofing?
a. gauge 24
b. gauge 28
c. gauge 26
d. none of the above

32. What is the required thickness for the gauge in problem no.31 for item Corrugated
metal roofing?
a. 0.48cm
b. 0.48mm
c. 0.48 inches
d. none of the above

33. What is the required weight for the gauge in problem no.31 for item Corrugated metal
roofing?
a. 4.74 kg/sq.m
b. 3.74 kg/sq.m
c.2.74 kg/sq.m
d. 5.75 kg/sq.m

34. Averaging of the thickness and density of the 2 or 3 cores should not be done.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

35. In the construction of a 380-linear meter asphalt road, with a designed thickness of
5cm, a width requirement of 3,05m, and a programmed quantity for bituminous mix of
135 tons, an asphalt core was taken for each full day’s operation. Results of thickness
and density tests are as follows:
Paving Paving Thickness, cm Density,
Date length, m gram/cu.cm
Day1 1.20 5.3 2.262
Day2 1.40 5.1 2.311
Day3 1.20 5.0 2.221

Compute for the quantity of Bituminous mixtures should be paid.


a. 134.85 tons
b. b. 134.28 tons
c. 134.58 tons
d. 134.82 tons

36. What should be the required ratio for length to diameter (L/D) of a specimen for
determining the compressive strength that contain embedded reinforcement should be
avoided if possible or trimmed to eliminate the reinforcement.
a. @least 2
b. @ least 1
c. @least 1.5
d. none of the above
5 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
Me 7 by Adzcer Hadulla

37. For compressive strength determination, what should be the diameter of the core
specimen .
a. @ least three (3) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate used in the
concrete.
b. @ least four (4) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate.
c. @ least twice (2) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate in the core
sample d. a & c

38 For compressive strength determination, what should be the length of the core
specimens, when capped.
a. Same to its diameter
b. twice its diameter
c. four times its diameter
d. none of the above

39. For individual measurement of core sample, which is less than the specified thickness
by more than 25mm shall not be included in the average.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

40. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 50%
payment is recommended on the project?
a. 21-25mm
b. more than 25mm
c. 5mm, max
d. 11-15 mm

41. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 70%
payment is recommended on the project?
a. 21-25mm
b more than 25mm
c. 16-20mm
d. 11-15 mm

42. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 85%
payment is recommended on the project?
a. 6-10mm
b more than 25mm
c. 16-20mm
d. 11-15 mm

43. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 95%
payment is recommended on the project?
a. 6-10mm
b. 5mm,max
c. 16-20mm
d. 11-15 mm
6 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
Me 7 by Adzcer Hadulla

44. All joints shall be sawed before uncontrolled shrinkage cracking occur.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

45. The sawing of any joints shall be omitted if crack occurs or near the joint prior to the
time of sawing.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

46. No cold joint shall be constructed within 1.50m of an expansion joint, contraction joint
or plane of weakness.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

47. If the Concrete lanes are concreted separately, what is the joint in the form of key
and keyways that is use?
a. transverse contraction joint
b. Longitudinal joint
c. transverse construction joint
d. weakened plane joint

48.What is the variation permitted on the surface of the asphalt using the straight edge
method .
a. 5mm,min
b. 6mm,min
c. 5mm,max
d. 6mm,max

49. The subbase is a structural layer which accepts greater compressive stress than the
sub-grade and thus reduces that deformation of the pavement under traffic loading.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

50. The base reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by the traffic in the
subbase and the sub-grade.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

7 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
Me 7 by Adzcer Hadulla

51. In asphalt pavement,the base and the subbase serve to provide structural capacity to
bituminous concrete slab, while in PCCP, the base and the subbase spread the load over
the foundation.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

52. What is the chief load bearing element of gravel roads.?


a.base course
b. subbase course
c. sub-grade course
d. either a & b

53. Proper design of the base or subbase course can lead to structural failure of the slabs.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

54. What does it mean if soil has high values for liquid and Plasticity index?
a. good
b. low plastic limit
c. poor/weak
d. none of the above

55. What is the approximate area for cracking and seating of PCCP .
a. 1 sq.m
b. 0.5 sq.m
c. 2 sq.m
d. either a or b

56. Reflection cracking on the overlay is caused by the differential movement at cracks
and joint in the old pavements.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

57. As part of the selection process, ______________are taken to evaluate the condition
of existing pavement or any asphalt pavement prior to cracks and seat treatment.
a. cores are taken at three different locations.
b. two cores are taken at four different locations
c. 5 cores are taken at three different locations
d. @ least 1 but not more than three core samples

58. The Lower the coefficient of permeability of the supporting subbase material, the
better the chances in seating the cracked pieces and avoiding pumping and rocking.
a. true
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b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

59. What is the reasonable range of structural layer coefficient for properly cracked and
seated PCCP?
a. 0.25-0.30
b. 0.28-0.32
c. 0.10-0.16
d. none of the above

60. The most popular and extensively used for cracking or breaking and removal of
pavements.
a. Pile Driver
b. Guillotine hammer
c. arrow hammer
d. either b or c

61. The impact hammer attached to the end of the leaf-spring arm which can be
controlled in a horizontal as well as vertical direction. It is mounted on the rear of a truck.
a. Pile Driver
b. Guillotine hammer
c. Resonant Pavement breaker
d. whiphammer

62. The hammer is mounted on the trailer which is tractor or truck drawn.
a. Pile Driver
b. Guillotine hammer
c. arrow hammer
d. whiphammer

63. This equipment is vibrated 44 cycles per second and it is generally induces
longitudinal cracks.
a. Pile Driver
b. Guillotine hammer
c. Resonant Pavement breaker
d. whiphammer

64 .Using arrow hammer/guillotine, no cracking should be closer than 2 ½ ft from an


existing transverse joint.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

65. once the cracked, the PCCP pieces are seated firmly against the base or sub-grade
and should be done by applying two passes of rolling using what equipment?
a. 50-ton pneumatic tired roller
b. 35-ton pneumatic roller
c. tandem smooth type roller
9 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
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d. either a or b

66. Cracking and seating does not mean reducing the PCCP to rubble.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

67. PPCP overlay is used overlay material on the cracked and seated pavement where a
minimum thickness of _____ with a maximum size of ____ aggregates and a modulus of
rapture of concrete of______ @ 28 days.
a. 180mm, 40mm,650psi
b.18cm, 40mm, 650psi
c. 1.8mm,40mm,650psi
d. either a or b

68. It is commonly used overlay material on the cracked and seated pavement where its
thickness will depend on the expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated
pavement section. The recommended thickness is 3”-5 ”.
a. Hot Mix Asphalt
b. PCCP overlay
c. rock layers
d. either b or c

69. Rectifying inherent drainage problem is essential for the cracking and seating to be
effective.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

70. Concrete shall be conveyed through sheet metal or approved pipes when placing
operation involves dropping the concrete more than 1.5 meter.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

71. Falsework of continuous structures shall not be removed in any span until the first
and second adjoining span on each side have reached the specified strength.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

72. For concrete which is deposited in water shall have a minimum cement content
of______ of concrete.
a. 500 kg/cu.m
b. 600 kg/cu.m
c. 450 kg/cu.m
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d. 400 kg/cu.m

73. For concrete deposited in water should have a slump of____ to ______.
a. 10-20 mm

b. 25-30 cm
c. 10-20 cm
d. 25-30 cm

74. Concrete deposited in water shall be placed in compact mass, in final position, by
means of ______ or button dun bucket to prevent segregaton.
a. tremie
b. vibrator
c. casing
d. none of the above

75. What is the commonly used curing media for curing the fresh concrete.
a. Liquid membrane-forming compound
b. Water emulsifier
c. superplasticizer
d. none of the above

76. The concrete should be cured immediately at the final placement, especially during
the first seven days, in order that the plastic shrinkage will be minimized.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

77. The reasonable range of slump for Class A concrete.


a. 2 - 4 inches
b. 50 - 100mm
c. 50 - 100cm
d. either a or b

78. The reasonable range of slump for Class B concrete.


a. 2-4 inches
b. 50-100mm
c. 50-100cm
d. either a or b

79 The reasonable range of slump for Class C concrete.


a. 2- 4 inches
b. 50-100mm
c. 50-100cm
d. either a or b

80. The reasonable range of slump for Class P concrete.


a. 4 inches, min
b. 4inches,max
11 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
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c. 100mm,max
d. either b or c

81. The reasonable range of slump for Class Seal concrete.


a. 4 - 8 inches
b. 100-200 mm
c. 100-200 cm
d. either a or b

82. In compaction of Concrete, a well consolidated concrete is _____ to _______ %


higher in strength than that of concrete which is thoroughly consolidated.
a. 20 - 25%
b. 25-30%
c. 30-33%
d. 15-20 %

83. Unsuitable materials are soils with liquid limit exceeding 80 or plasticity index
exceeding 55.
a. false
b. true
c. maybe
d. none of the above

84. Unsuitable materials are soil with a natural water content exceeding 100%.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

85. Unsuitable materials are soils with higher natural density of 800 kg/cu.m or higher.
a. false
b. true
c. maybe
d. none of the above

86. An embankment(item 104), requires ______ of compaction.


a. 90 %
b. 95%
c. 100%
d. none of the above

87. The surface layer of sub-grade material requires ______ compaction in every layer of
150mm.
a. 90 %
b. 95%
c. 100%
d. none of the above

88. What is the degree of compaction of materials immediately under pavement


structures?
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a. 90 %
b. 95%
c. 100%
d. none of the above

89. In this method the materials for the embankment shall be deposited and spread in
layers not more than 225 mm in depth, loose measure, and extending to the full width of
the embankment.
a. Twelve-inch method
b. Rock
c. Hydraulic consolidation
d. controlled density method.

90. In this method the materials for the embankment shall be deposited and spread in
layers not more than 300 mm in depth, loose measure, parallel to finished grade and
extending to the full width of the embankment.
a. Twelve-inch method
b. Rock
c. Hydraulic consolidation
d. controlled density method

91. The shattered rock obtained in rock cuts shall be deposited on the fill and push over
the end of the fill by means of bulldozers. This method shall not be used in fills less than
1.2m in depth, and in no case, shall the rock embankment be placed within 600 mm of
the earth grade.
a. Twelve-inch method
b. Rock embankment
c. Hydraulic consolidation
d. controlled density method

92. This involves the introduction of water into embankment to accelerate consolidation.
a. Twelve-inch method
b. Rock
c. Hydraulic consolidation
d. controlled density method

93. The material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited as to form
the grading and cross-section, and shall be thoroughly compacted.
a. Hydraulic fill
c. hydraulic consolidation
c. Rock
d. controlled density method

94. Embankments construction across peat marshes consists of total or partial excavation
of the peat using power shovels which is usually carried on in conjunction with backfilling
of the peat areas.
a. Hydraulic fill
c. hydraulic consolidation
c.Rock
d. Methods of treatment of peat marshes
13 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO
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95. Where unsuitable material is present under the embankment, corrective work consists
of placing a surcharge constructed to the full width of the road bed.
a. Hydraulic fill
c. Placing & removing surcharge
c. Rock
d. Methods of treatment of peat marshes

96. A cracks in the concrete that are predominantly perpendicular to the pavement
centerline
a. transverse crack
b. longitudinal crack
c. diagonal cracks
d. restraint crack

97. A crack that are predominantly parallel to the pavement centerline.


a. transverse crack
b. longitudinal crack
c. diagonal cracks
d. restraint crack

98. Cracks at any angle to the centerline of the pavement.


a. transverse crack
b. longitudinal crack
c. diagonal cracks
d. restraint crack

99. Cracks that develop near the outside edges of a PCCP and progress in an irregular
path toward the longitudinal joint.
a. transverse crack
b. longitudinal crack
c. diagonal cracks
d. restraint crack

100. These diagonal cracks forming a triangle with a longitudinal edge or joint and a
transverse joint.
a. corner cracks
b. spatting cracks
c. scaling cracks
d. faulting cracks

14 JOY CHAWANA-SALVIO

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