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established.”
a. Read Rule 8. - It refers to the facts that the evidence will
prove at the trial.
b. What is an initiatory pleading? - Ultimate facts has also been defined as the
Pleadings defined. — Pleadings are the written principal, determinative, and constitutive
statements of the respective claims and defenses facts on whose existence the cause of
of the parties submitted to the court for action rests; they are also the essential and
appropriate judgment. (Section 1, Rule 6) determining facts on which the court's
Pleadings allowed. — The claims of a party are conclusion rests and without which the
asserted in a complaint, counterclaim, judgment would lack support in essential
cross-claim, third (fourth, etc.)-party complaint, particulars.
or complaint-in-intervention. - Ultimate facts are the essential and
The defenses of a party are alleged in the answer substantial facts which either form the
to the pleading asserting a claim against him or basis of the primary right and duty or
her. which directly make up the wrongful acts
An answer may be responded to by a reply only if or omissions of the defendant.
the defending party attaches an actionable
document to the answer. (Section 2, Rule 6) f. What is a conclusion of law?
- The initiatory pleading is the plaintiff's - Conclusion of law refers to a decision
complaint. made by a judge regarding a question of
law.
c. How must allegations in an - A conclusion of law determines what laws
initiatory pleading or answers to an and how the laws apply to a particular
initiatory pleading be made? case. These decisions often determine the
In general. — Every pleading shall contain in a outcome of a case, and they are usually the
methodical and logical form, a plain, concise and basis for review on appeal.
direct statement of the ultimate facts on which the
party pleading relies for his claim or defense, as g. Discuss alternative causes of action
the case may be, omitting the statement of mere or defenses.
evidentiary facts. Alternative causes of action or defenses. — A
If a defense relied on is based on law, the party may set forth two or more statements of a
pertinent provisions thereof and their claim or defense alternatively or hypothetically,
applicability to him shall be clearly and concisely either in one cause of action or defense or in
stated. (Section 1, Rule 8) separate causes of action or defenses. When two
or more statements are made in the alternative
d. What is an actionable document? and one of them if made independently would be
- An “actionable document” is a written sufficient, the pleading is not made insufficient by
instrument or document on which an the insufficiency of one or more of the alternative
action or defense is founded. It may be statements. (Section 2, Rule 8)
pleaded in either of two ways: - Inconsistent defenses: A defendant may
(1) by setting forth the substance of plead as many defenses and counterclaims
such document in the pleading and as he may have. He has a right to set up
attaching the document thereto as negative in one cause of action and
an annex, or affirmative defenses in another in the
(2) by setting forth said document same action, and the affirmative in a
verbatim in the pleading. separate defense in another portion of his
answer. These different defenses may be
e. What is an ultimate fact? inconsistent with each other, but it is
- Ultimate facts is defined as “those facts sufficient that each is consistent with
which the expected evidence will support. itself.
The term does not refer to the details of
probative matter or particulars of evidence
h. Discuss allegation of conditions authenticated copy of the judgment or
precedent. decision be attached to the pleading.
Conditions precedent. — In any pleading a - On May 14, 2019, the Apostille Convention
general averment of the performance or on Authentication of Documents took
occurrence of all conditions precedent shall be effect in the Philippines. Under this
sufficient. (Section 3, Rule 8) convention, in countries and territories
- There should be an averment in the which are Apostille-contracting parties,
complaint that earnest efforts toward a there is no need for authentication of the
compromise have been made pursuant to relevant judgment or decision, as it is
Article 222 of the Civil Code of the sufficient to have the same Apostillized in
Philippines for it is wellsettled that the the place where the document originates.
attempt to compromise as well as the However, in countries and territories
inability to succeed is a condition which are non Apostillecontracting
precedent to the filing of a suit between parties, the previous process of
members of the same family. Failure to do authentication must be complied with.
so makes the complaint defective and the
vice may be assailable at any stage of the k. What must be done if an action or
proceedings, even on appeal, for lack of defense is based on a document?
cause of action. Action or defense based on document. —
Whenever an action or defense is based upon a
i. How must allegations of fraud, written instrument or document, the substance of
mistake, condition of the mind be such instrument or document shall be set forth in
made? Explain. the pleading, and the original or a copy thereof
Fraud, mistake, condition of the mind. — In all shall be attached to the pleading as an exhibit,
averments of fraud or mistake the circumstances which shall be deemed to be a part of the
constituting fraud or mistake must be stated with pleading. (Section 7, Rule 8)
particularity. Malice, intent, knowledge, or other - This provision is applicable when either
condition of the mind of a person may be averred the cause of action or the defense is based
generally. (Section 5, Rule 8) or founded upon a written document.
- Deceit, machination, false pretenses,
misinterpretation, and threats are largely l. What is an actionable document?
conclusions of law and mere allegations Give examples.
thereof without a statement of the facts to - An actionable document is a written
which such terms have reference are not instrument or document on which an
sufficient. It is proper for the trial court to action or defense is founded
grant a defendant’s motion for bill of - Examples:
particulars, and when plaintiff fails to (1) A promissory note in an action to
comply with the order, the trial court may collect the amount thereof.
correctly dismiss the complaint. (2) A deed of real estate mortgage in
an action to foreclose the
j. How must an allegation of a mortgage.
judgment be made? (3) A written contract in an action to
Judgment. — In pleading a judgment or decision enforce or rescind the same.
of a domestic or foreign court, judicial or
quasi-judicial tribunal, or of a board or officer, it m. What is the effect of failure to deny
is sufficient to aver the judgment or decision an actionable document?
without setting forth matter showing jurisdiction - Failure to comply with the prescribed
to render it. An authenticated copy of the procedure results in the admission of the
judgment or decision shall be attached to the genuineness and due execution of the
pleading. (Section 6, Rule 8) actionable document.
- Under this provision, the jurisdiction of
the court a quo is presumed. But the n. Distinguish genuineness from due
amended Section 6 requires that an execution.
- Genuineness means nothing more than material averment made to the complaint, he
that the instrument is not spurious, shall so state, and this shall have the effect of a
counterfeit, or of different import on its denial. (Section 10, Rule 8)
face from the one executed; that the party - The purpose of requiring the defendant to
whose signature it bears really signed it make a specific denial is to make him
and that at the same time it was signed, it disclose the matters alleged in the
was in words and figures exactly as set out complaint which he succinctly intends to
in the pleading of the party relying upon it. disprove at the trial, together with the
- Due execution means that if signed by an matter which he relies upon to support the
agent, it was with the authority of the denial. The parties are compelled to lay
principal and where the name of a their cards on the table.
corporation is signed to the document
which is the basis of an action, that the r. What are the three modes of specific
officer executing the contract had denial?
authority to bind the corporation and that (1) By specifying each material allegation of
the corporation had the capacity to enter fact in the complaint, the truth of which
into the contract. the defendant does not admit, and
whenever practicable, setting forth the
o. How is an action or defense based substance of the matters which he will rely
on a document contested? upon to support his denial;
How to contest such documents. — When an (2) By specifying the averments in the
action or defense is founded upon a written complaint that are true and material and
instrument, copied in or attached to the denying the remainder; or
corresponding pleading as provided in the (3) By stating that the defendant is without
preceding section, the genuineness and due knowledge or information sufficient to
execution of the instrument shall be deemed form a belief as to the truth of a material
admitted unless the adverse party, under oath averment in the complaint
specifically denies them, and sets forth what he
claims to be the facts, but the requirement of an s. Discuss negative defense and
oath does not apply when the adverse party does affirmative defense.
not appear to be a party to the instrument or Defenses. — Defenses may either be negative or
when compliance with an order for an inspection affirmative.
of the original instrument is refused. (Section 8, (a) A negative defense is the specific denial of
Rule 8) the material fact or facts alleged in the
pleading of the claimant essential to his
p. How is an official document or act cause or causes of action.
alleged in a pleading? (b) An affirmative defense is an allegation of,
Official document or act. — In pleading an official a new matter which, while hypothetically
document or official act, it is sufficient to aver admitting the material allegations in the
that the document was issued or the act done in pleading of the claimant, would
compliance with law. (Section 9, Rule 8) nevertheless prevent or bar recovery by
him or her. The affirmative defenses
q. What is a specific denial? include fraud, statute of limitations,
Specific denial. — A defendant must specify each release, payment, illegality, statute of
material allegation of fact the truth of which he frauds, estoppel, former recovery,
does not admit and, whenever practicable, shall discharge in bankruptcy, and any other
set forth the substance of the matters upon which matter by way of confession and
he relies to support his denial. Where a defendant avoidance. (Section 5, Rule 6)
desires to deny only a part of an averment, he - Negative defense requires the
shall specify so much of it as is true and material prosecution to prove the guilt of the
and shall deny only the remainder. Where a accused beyond reasonable doubt;
defendant is without knowledge or information accused claims that one of the
sufficient to form a belief as to the truth of a elements of the offense charged is not
present. It is incumbent upon the shall be limited to the reasons set forth under
prosecution to prove the existence of Section 5(b), Rule 6, and the following grounds:
this element. 1. That the court has no jurisdiction over the
- Affirmative defense: the accused admits person of the defending party;
the act or omission but interposes a 2. That venue is improperly laid;
defense, which if proven, would 3. That the plaintiff has no legal capacity to
exculpate him sue;
4. That the pleading asserting the claim
t. What is a negative pregnant? states no cause of action; and
- A negative pregnant is a denial pregnant 5. That a condition precedent for filing the
with the admission of the substantial facts claim has not been complied with.
in the pleading responded to which are not (b) Failure to raise the affirmative defenses at the
squarely denied. earliest opportunity shall constitute a waiver
- It is, in effect, an admission of the thereof.
averments it was directed at. (c) The court shall motu proprio resolve the above
- A negative pregnant is a form of negative affirmative defenses within thirty (30) calendar
expression which carries with it an days from the filing of the answer.
affirmation or at least an implication of (d) As to the other affirmative defenses under the
some kind favorable to the adverse party. first paragraph of Section 5(b), Rule 6, the court
- Where a fact is alleged with some may conduct a summary hearing within fifteen
qualifying or modifying language, and the (15) calendar days from the filing of the answer.
denial is conjunctive, a “negative Such affirmative defenses shall be resolved by the
pregnant” exists, and only the court within thirty (30) calendar days from the
qualification or modification is denied, termination of the summary hearing.
while the fact itself is admitted. (e) Affirmative defenses, if denied, shall not be the
- A denial in the form of a negative pregnant subject of a motion for reconsideration or petition
is an ambiguous pleading, since it cannot for certiorari, prohibition or mandamus, but may
be ascertained whether it is the fact or be among the matters to be raised on appeal after
only the qualification that is intended to a judgment on the merits. (Section 12, Rule 8)
be denied
w. What is the effect of failure to raise
t.1. Discuss Guevarra v. Eala, A.C. those affirmative defenses?
No. 7136, 01 August 2007. - Failure to raise the affirmative defenses at
the earliest opportunity shall constitute a
u. What is the effect of failing to make waiver thereof. (Section 12(b), Rule 8)
specific denials?
Allegations not specifically denied deemed x. What is the duty of the court if there
admitted. — Material averments in a pleading are affirmative defenses raised?
asserting a claim or claims, other than those as to - The court shall motu proprio resolve the
the amount of unliquidated damages, shall be above affirmative defenses within thirty
deemed admitted when not specifically denied. (30) calendar days from the filing of the
(Section 11, Rule 8) answer. (Section 12(c), Rule 8)
- A party who fails to specifically deny the
material averment in the complaint, other y. When is a summary hearing allowed
than those as to the amount of prior to resolution of affirmative
unliquidated damages, is deemed to have defenses pleaded?
admitted the same. - As to the other affirmative defenses under
the first paragraph of Section 5(b), Rule 6,
v. What are the affirmative defenses the court may conduct a summary hearing
allowed under Section 12 of Rule 8? within fifteen (15) calendar days from the
Affirmative defenses. — (a) A defendant shall filing of the answer. Such affirmative
raise his affirmative defenses in his answer, which defenses shall be resolved by the court
within thirty (30) calendar days from the
termination of the summary hearing. jurisdiction over the subject matter, that there is
(Section 12(d), Rule 8) another action pending between the same parties
- Section 5(b), Rule 6: for the same cause, or that the action is barred by
(1) Fraud, a prior judgment or by statute of limitations, the
(2) Statute of limitations, court shall dismiss the claim. (Section 1, Rule 9)
(3) Release, - Without the rule, there will be no end to a
(4) Payment, litigation, because the dissatisfied litigant
(5) Illegality, may simply raise “new” or additional
(6) Statute of frauds, issues in order to prevent, defeat, or delay
(7) Estoppel, the implementation of an already final and
(8) Former recovery, executory judgment.
(9) Discharge in bankruptcy, and
(10) Any other matter by way of ee. What are the defenses or objections that
confession and avoidance. are not waived even if not pleaded? Why?
(1) Lack of jurisdiction over the subject
z. What is the remedy of a party when matter
his pleaded affirmative defenses are (2) Pendency of another action between the
denied by the trial court? same parties for the same cause
- Affirmative defenses, if denied, shall not (3) Bar to prior judgment
be the subject of a motion for (4) Statute of limitations
reconsideration or petition for certiorari, - Other defenses must be invoked when an
prohibition or mandamus, but may be answer or a motion to dismiss is filed in
among the matters to be raised on appeal order to prevent a waiver thereof.
after a judgment on the merits. (Section -
12(e), Rule 8)
ff. What happens to compulsory
aa. What is a sham pleading? counterclaims or cross-claims that
Striking out of pleading or matter contained are not set-up?
therein. — Upon motion made by a party before Compulsory counterclaim, or cross-claim, not set
responding to a pleading or, if no responsive up barred. — A compulsory counterclaim, or a
pleading is permitted by these Rules, upon cross-claim, not set up shall be barred. (Section 2,
motion made by a party within twenty (20) Rule 9)
calendar days after the service of the pleading
upon him or her, or upon the court's own gg. What is default?
initiative at any time, the court may order any Default; declaration of. — If the defending party
pleading to be stricken out or that any sham or fails to answer within the time allowed therefor,
false, redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or the court shall, upon motion of the claiming party
scandalous matter be stricken out therefrom. with notice to the defending party, and proof of
(Section 12, Rule 8) such failure, declare the defending party in
default. Thereupon, the court shall proceed to
bb. What are the remedies against sham render judgment granting the claimant such relief
pleadings? as his pleading may warrant, unless the court in
its discretion requires the claimant to submit
evidence. Such reception of evidence may be
cc. Read Rule 9. delegated to the clerk of court.
(a) Effect of order of default. — A party in
dd. What is the effect of failure to default shall be entitled to notice of
plead defenses and objection? subsequent proceedings but not to take
Defenses and objections not pleaded. — Defenses part in the trial.
and objections not pleaded either in a motion to (b) Relief from order of default. — A party
dismiss or in the answer are deemed waived. declared in default may at any time after
However, when it appears from the pleadings or notice thereof and before judgment file a
the evidence on record that the court has no motion under oath to set aside the order of
default upon proper showing that his ii. When are defaults not allowed?
failure to answer was due to fraud, (1) In an action for annulment or declaration
accident, mistake or excusable negligence of nullity of marriage
and that he has a meritorious defense. In (2) In an action for legal separation
such case, the order of default may be set
aside on such terms and conditions as the jj. Discuss (a) effect of order of default;
judge may impose in the interest of justice. (b) relief from order of default; (c)
(c) Effect of partial default. — When a effect of partial deffault; (d) extent
pleading asserting a claim states a of relief to be awarded; and (e)
common cause of action against several where no defaults allowed.
defending parties, some of whom answer (a) Effect of order of default. — A party in
and the others fail to do so, the court shall default shall be entitled to notice of
try the case against all upon the answers subsequent proceedings but not to take
thus filed and render judgment upon the part in the trial.
evidence presented. (b) Relief from order of default. — A party
(d) Extent of relief to be awarded. — A declared in default may at any time after
judgment rendered against a party in notice thereof and before judgment file a
default shall not exceed the amount or be motion under oath to set aside the order of
different in kind from that prayed for nor default upon proper showing that his
award unliquidated damages. failure to answer was due to fraud,
(e) Where no defaults allowed. — If the accident, mistake or excusable negligence
defending party in an action for and that he has a meritorious defense. In
annulment or declaration of nullity of such case, the order of default may be set
marriage or for legal separation fails to aside on such terms and conditions as the
answer, the court shall order the judge may impose in the interest of justice.
prosecuting attorney to investigate (c) Effect of partial default. — When a
whether or not a collusion between the pleading asserting a claim states a
parties exists, and if there is no collusion, common cause of action against several
to intervene for the State in order to see to defending parties, some of whom answer
it that the evidence submitted is not and the others fail to do so, the court shall
fabricated. (Section 3, Rule 9) try the case against all upon the answers
thus filed and render judgment upon the
hh. What are the requisites before a evidence presented.
party may be declared in default? (d) Extent of relief to be awarded. — A
(1) The court validly acquired jurisdiction judgment rendered against a party in
over the person of the defending party default shall not exceed the amount or be
either by service of summons or voluntary different in kind from that prayed for nor
appearance; award unliquidated damages.
(2) The defending party failed to file the (e) Where no defaults allowed. — If the
answer within the time allowed therefor; defending party in an action for
(3) The claiming party filed a motion asking annulment or declaration of nullity of
the court to declare the defending party in marriage or for legal separation fails to
default; answer, the court shall order the
(4) The defending party must be notified of prosecuting attorney to investigate
the motion to declare him in default; whether or not a collusion between the
(5) The claiming party must prove that the parties exists, and if there is no collusion,
defending party has failed to answer to intervene for the State in order to see to
within the period provided by the Rule; it that the evidence submitted is not
(6) The motion to declare the defending party fabricated. (Section 3, Rule 9)
in default must be heard pursuant to
Section 5, Rule 15 of the 2019 kk.Read Rule 10.
Amendments.
ll. What is “amendment of a pleading”?
Amendments in general. — Pleadings may be Amendments by leave of court. — Except as
amended by adding or striking out an allegation provided in the next preceding Section,
or the name of any party, or by correcting a substantial amendments may be made only upon
mistake in the name of a party or a mistaken or leave of court. But such leave shall be refused if it
inadequate allegation or description in any other appears to the court that the motion was made
respect, so that the actual merits of the with intent to delay or confer jurisdiction on the
controversy may speedily be determined, without court, or the pleading stated no cause of action
regard to technicalities, and in the most from the beginning which could be amended.
expeditious and inexpensive manner. (Section 1, Orders of the court upon the matters provided in
Rule 10) this Section shall be made upon motion filed in
court, and after notice to the adverse party, and
mm. When is amendment of a an opportunity to be heard. (Section 3, Rule 10)
pleading a matter of right?
Amendments as a matter of right. — A party may qq. What is a substantial amendment?
amend his pleading once as a matter of right at
any time before a responsive pleading is served
or, in the case of a reply, at any time within ten rr. What is a formal amendment?
(10) calendar days after it is served. (Section 2, Formal amendments. — A defect in the
Rule 10) designation of the parties and other clearly
clerical or typographical errors may be summarily
nn. May an amendment be made corrected by the court at any stage of the action,
during the pendency of a motion to at its initiative or on motion, provided no
dismiss? prejudice is caused thereby to the adverse party.
- A motion to dismiss is not a responsive (Section 4, Rule 10)
pleading. - Formal amendments include not only a
- A plaintiff may amend his complaint as a correction of a defect in the designation of
matter of right after the filing of a motion the parties, but also other clerical errors.
to dismiss by the defendant, but before the These may be corrected by the court motu
service of an answer. proprio or on motion.
- There is no need for the court to allow the
admission of an amended complaint that ss. Is there a need to amend pleadings
is filed after the defendant files a motion to conform to evidence presented
to dismiss but before the service of an during trial? Explain.
answer. No amendment necessary to conform to or
authorize presentation of evidence. — When
oo.When is leave of court necessary to issues not raised by the pleadings are tried with
make an amendment? the express or implied consent of the parties, they
Amendments by leave of court. — Except as shall be treated in all respects as if they had been
provided in the next preceding Section, raised in the pleadings. No amendment of such
substantial amendments may be made only upon pleadings deemed amended is necessary to cause
leave of court. But such leave shall be refused if it them to conform to the evidence. (Section 5, Rule
appears to the court that the motion was made 10)
with intent to delay or confer jurisdiction on the
court, or the pleading stated no cause of action tt. What is a supplemental pleading?
from the beginning which could be amended. Supplemental pleadings. — Upon motion of a
Orders of the court upon the matters provided in party, the court may, upon reasonable notice and
this Section shall be made upon motion filed in upon such terms as are just, permit him or her to
court, and after notice to the adverse party, and serve a supplemental pleading setting forth
an opportunity to be heard. (Section 3, Rule 10) transactions, occurrences or events which have
happened since the date of the pleading sought to
pp. When will leave of court be be supplemented. The adverse party may plead
refused? thereto within ten (10) calendar days from notice
of the order admitting the supplemental pleading. xx. What is the effect of an amended
(Section 6, Rule 10) pleading: (1) on original pleading?;
- A supplemental pleading serves to bolster (2) on what is reiterated in the
or add something to the primary pleading. amended pleading?; (3) as to date of
Its usual office is to set up new facts which filing of pleading?; and (4) as to
justify, enlarge or change the kind of relief evidence already presented?
with respect to the same subject matter as Effect of amended pleadings. — An amended
the controversy referred to in the original pleading supersedes the pleading that it amends.
complaint. However, admissions in superseded pleadings
- Purpose: to bring into the records new may be offered in evidence against the pleader,
facts which will enlarge change the kind of and claims or defenses alleged therein not
relief to which the plaintiff is entitled. incorporated in the amended pleading shall be
deemed waived. (Section 8, Rule 10)
uu. When is a supplemental pleading (1) on original pleading?;
allowed? (2) on what is reiterated in the amended
Supplemental pleadings. — Upon motion of a pleading?;
party, the court may, upon reasonable notice and (3) As to the date of filing - in cases of formal
upon such terms as are just, permit him or her to amendment, the date will “relate back” to
serve a supplemental pleading setting forth the original date of filing. The reason for
transactions, occurrences or events which have this concept is the statute of limitations.
happened since the date of the pleading sought to (4) As to evidence already presented -
be supplemented. The adverse party may plead Admissions in superseded pleadings may
thereto within ten (10) calendar days from notice be offered in evidence against the pleader,
of the order admitting the supplemental pleading. and claims or defenses alleged therein not
(Section 6, Rule 10) incorporated in the amended pleading
shall be deemed waived. This means that
vv. Distinguish between an amendment the admissions in the superseded pleading
and a supplemental pleading. may be offered, but not necessarily
- Amended pleadings are proper in order to received in evidence
allege facts which occurred prior to the
filing of the original pleadings, but which yy. What is the effect of failure to offer in
for some reason, such as oversight, evidence against the pleader admissions in
inadvertence, or subsequent discovery, superseded pleadings?
were not alleged therein.
- Supplemental pleadings are proper in
order to allege facts which occurred after
the filing of the original pleadings.
- Amended pleadings are designed to
include matters occurring before the filing
of the bill but either overlooked or not
known at the time, whereas supplemental
pleadings are designed to cover matters
subsequently occurring but pertaining to
the original cause.
b. How many days does a defendant e. How many days does a defendant
have to answer the complaint? have to answer an amended
Answer to the complaint. — The defendant shall complaint, which was filed not as a
file his answer to the complaint within thirty (30) matter of right?
calendar days after service of summons, unless a Where its filing is not a matter of right, the
different period is fixed by the court. (Section 1, defendant shall answer the amended complaint
Rule 11) within fifteen (15) calendar days from notice of
- The date of the service of summons is the order admitting the same. An answer earlier
excluded in the computation of the 30 filed may serve as the answer to the amended
calendar days. complaint if no new answer is filed. (Section 3,
- The amended section makes it clear that Paragraph 2, Rule 11)
what are referred to are calendar days,
which means that Saturdays and Sundays f. What happens if a defendant, who
and legal holidays are included in counting has previously answered the
the 30 days. original complaint, does not answer
an amended complaint?
c. How many days does a defendant An answer earlier filed may serve as the answer to
foreign private juridical have to the amended complaint if no new answer is filed.
answer the complaint? (Section 3, Paragraph 2, Rule 11)
Answer of a defendant foreign private juridical
entity. — Where the defendant is a foreign private g. What is the period to answer a
juridical entity and service of summons is made counterclaim or cross-claim?
on the government official designated by law to Answer to counterclaim or cross-claim. — A
receive the same, the answer shall be filed within counterclaim or cross-claim must be answered
sixty (60) calendar days after receipt of summons within twenty (20) calendar days from service.
by such entity. (Section 2, Rule 11) (Section 4, Rule 11)
- If summons is served on its resident agent - A compulsory counterclaim that merely
designated in accordance with law for that reiterates special defenses which are
purpose, the time to answer shall be 30 deemed controverted even without a reply,
calendar days after service of summons. or raises issues which are deemed
- If summons is served on the government automatically joined by the allegations of
official designated by law to receive the the complaint, need not be answered.
same, it is the duty of that government - However, a compulsory counterclaim
official to send a copy of the summons to which raises issues not covered by the
the home office of said defendant, and the complaint should be answered within 20
time to answer shall be 60 calendar days calendar days from service thereof;
after receipt thereof by the home office. otherwise, the plaintiff to the original
- Service of summons to the designated complaint is the defendant to the
government official should be made only counterclaim.
in the absence of a designated resident
agent. h. What is the period to answer a
third-party complaint?
d. How many days does a defendant Answer to third (fourth, etc.)-party complaint. —
have to answer an amended The time to answer a third (fourth, etc.)—party
complaint, which was filed as a complaint shall be governed by the same rule as
matter of right? the answer to the complaint. (Section 5, Rule 11)
Answer to amended complaint. — When the - Provided in Section 13, Rule 6
plaintiff files an amended complaint as a matter - The time to file an answer to a third-party
of right, the defendant shall answer the same complaint is 30 calendar days from service
of the summons to which are attached defending party has at the time he files his answer
copies of the complaint and the shall be contained therein. (Section 8, Rule 11)
third-party complaint. - An existing compulsory counterclaim or
- A third-party defendant may make a cross-claim should be included in the
common cause with the third-party answer. If it is not included, it should be
plaintiff against the plaintiff’s claim. barred, unless with leave of court, it is set
(provide example) up in an amended answer before
judgment.
i. What is the period for filing a Reply? - An existing permissive counterclaim may
Reply. — A reply, if allowed under Section 10, also be included in the answer or, with
Rule 6 hereof, may be filed within fifteen (15) leave of court, in an amended answer
calendar days from service of the pleading before judgment. However, even if it is not
responded to. (Section 6, Rule 11) set up, it can be the subject of a separate
action.
j. What is the period to answer a
supplemental complaint? m. What happens if an existing
Answer to supplemental complaint. — A counterclaim or cross-claim is not
supplemental complaint may be answered within pleaded? Is there an exception?
twenty (20) calendar days from notice of the Counterclaim or cross-claim arising after
order admitting the same, unless a different answer. — A counterclaim or a cross-claim which
period is fixed by the court. The answer to the either matured or was acquired by a party after
complaint shall serve as the answer to the serving his pleading may, with the permission of
supplemental complaint if no new or the court, be presented as a counterclaim or a
supplemental answer is filed. (Section 7, Rule 11) cross-claim by supplemental pleading before
- As in the case of the filing of an amended judgment. (Section 9, Rule 11)
pleading with leave of court, the - A counterclaim or a cross-claim which
supplemental complaint is attached to the either matured or was acquired by a party
motion for leave to file the same. after serving his pleading may, with leave
- If the court grants the motion, the answer of court, be set up in a supplemental
to the supplemental complaint may be answer before judgment. This is akin to a
filed within 20 calendar days from notice supplemental complaint which contains
of the order admitting the same. claims maturing after the original
- The answer to the original complaint shall complaint has been filed.
serve as answer to the supplemental - Such a counterclaim or cross-claim is not
complaint in the sense that the defendant compulsory. Thus, a party who fails to
may not be declared in default for not interpose a counterclaim although arising
filing an answer to the supplemental out of, or is necessarily connected with,
complaint which are not specifically the transaction or occurrence of the
denied are deemed admitted. plaintiff’s suit but which did not exist or
mature at the time said party filed his
k. What happens if a supplemental answer is not thereby barred from
complaint is not answered? interposing such claim in a future
The answer to the complaint shall serve as the litigation.
answer to the supplemental complaint if no new
or supplemental answer is filed. (Section 7, Rule n. What is the rule regarding pleading
11) an after-acquired counterclaim or
cross-claim?
l. What is the rule regarding pleading Omitted counterclaim or cross-claim. — When a
an existing counterclaim or pleader fails to set up a counterclaim or a
cross-claim? cross-claim through oversight, inadvertence, or
Existing counterclaim or cross-claim. — A excusable neglect, or when justice requires, he
compulsory counterclaim or a cross-claim that a may, by leave of court, set up the counterclaim or
cross-claim by amendment before judgment.
(Section 10, Rule 11) p. Read Rule 12.
- Applies to a compulsory counterclaim or
cross-claim, as well as to permissive q. What is a bill of particulars? What is
counterclaim. its purpose?
- Requisites for a court to allow omitted - Bill of particulars is a written statement
counterclaim or cross-claim by used in both civil and criminal actions that
amendment: is submitted by a plaintiff or a prosecutor
(1) There was oversight, inadvertence, at the request of a defendant, giving the
or excusable neglect, or when defendant detailed information
justice requires; and concerning the claims or charges made
(2) The amendment is made before against a person.
judgment. - In civil actions a bill of particulars is a
written demand for the specifics of why an
o. When may the period to file an action at law was brought.
answer be extended? How many - A bill of particulars is filed to make the
times and how long? allegations more specific. It is filed if a
Extension of time to file an answer. — A defendant in a criminal case believes he is
defendant may, for meritorious reasons, be not sufficiently informed of the crime with
granted an additional period of not more than which he is charged and is not in a
thirty (30) calendar days to file an answer. A position to defend himself properly and
defendant is only allowed to file one (1) motion adequately.
for extension of time to file an answer. - Purpose: (Tan v. Sandiganbayan)
A motion for extension to file any pleading, other - It is the office or function, as well
than an answer, is prohibited and considered a as the object or purpose, of a bill of
mere scrap of paper. The court, however, may particulars to amplify or limit a
allow any other pleading to be filed after the time pleading, specify more minutely
fixed by these Rules. (Section 11, Rule 11) and particularly a claim or defense
- The 2019 Amendments limit the motion set up and pleaded in general
for extension only to the filling of an terms, give information, not
answer. contained in the pleading, to the
- Purpose: to limit the period for opposite party and the court as to
litigation and to speed up the the precise nature, character,
disposition of cases. scope, and extent of the cause of
- A motion for extension of time must be action or defense relied on by the
filed before the expiration of the time pleader, and apprise the opposite
sought to be extended. If the last day of party of the case which he has to
the period for filing a pleading falls on a meet, to the end that the proof at
Saturday, Sunday or legal holiday, any the trial may be limited to the
extension of time to file the same should matters specified, and in order that
be counted from the expiration of the surprise at, and needless
period regardless of the fact that said due preparation for, the trial may be
date is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal avoided, and that the opposite
holiday. party may be aided in framing his
answering pleading and preparing
o.1. Discuss Reinier Pacific for trial.
International Shipping, Inc. v. Capt. - It has also been stated that it is the
Guevarra, G.R. No. 157020, 19 June function or purpose of a bill of
2013. particulars to define, clarify,
o.2. Discuss Philippine National particularize, and limit or
Bank v. Deang Marketing circumscribe the issues in the case,
Corporation, G.R. No. 177931, 08 to expedite the trial, and assist the
December 2008. court.
- A general function or purpose of a an amended pleading, serving a copy thereof on
bill of particulars is to prevent the adverse party. (Section 3, Rule 12)
injustice or do justice in the case
when that cannot be accomplished v. What is the effect of non-compliance
without the aid of such a bill. with an order requiring particulars?
Effect of non-compliance. — If the order is not
q.1. Discuss Salita v. Hon. Magtolis, obeyed, or in case of insufficient compliance
G.R. No. 106429, 13 June 1994. therewith, the court may order the striking out of
the pleading or the portions thereof to which the
r. When may a party seek a bill of order was directed or make such other order as it
particulars? deems just. (Section 4, Rule 12)
When applied for; purpose. — Before responding - The failure of the plaintiff to comply with
to a pleading, a party may move for a definite the order of the court granting a motion
statement or for a bill of particulars of any matter, for bill of particulars may be a ground for
which is not averred with sufficient definiteness dismissing the complaint.
or particularity, to enable him or her properly to - Such a dismissal unless made without
prepare his or her responsive pleading. prejudice, would be a bar to a subsequent
action on the same cause.
s. What are the periods for filing a
motion for bill of particulars? w. What is the length of the period
If the pleading is a reply, the motion must be filed within which to respond to a more
within ten (10) calendar days from service definite pleading?
thereof. Such motion shall point out the defects Stay of period to file responsive pleading. — After
complained of, the paragraphs wherein they are service of the bill of particulars or of a more
contained, and the details desired. (Section 1, definite pleading, or after notice of denial of his
Rule 12) motion, the moving party may file his responsive
pleading within the period to which he was
t. What must the court do when a entitled at the time of filing his motion, which
motion for bill of particulars is shall not be less than five (5) calendar days in any
filed? event. (Section 5, Rule 12)
Action by the court. — Upon the filing of the - If the motion is granted, the moving party
motion, the clerk of court must immediately bring may file his responsive pleading within the
it to the attention of the court which may either period remaining at the time when he filed
deny or grant it outright, or allow the parties the the motion for bill of particulars, but in
opportunity to be heard. (Section 2, Rule 12) any event not less than 5 calendar days,
- The motion should be set for hearing. counted from service of the bill of
- To avoid delay, the motion should be particulars or amended pleading.
immediately brought to the attention of
the court for appropriate action - whether x. What is the length of the period
to grant or deny it or hold a hearing within which a movant must
thereon. respond to a pleading when the
motion for a bill of particulars is
u. If the motion for bill of particulars is denied?
granted, what is period within which Stay of period to file responsive pleading. — After
the ordered party must comply? service of the bill of particulars or of a more
Compliance with order. — If the motion is definite pleading, or after notice of denial of his
granted, either in whole or in part, the compliance motion, the moving party may file his responsive
therewith must be effected within ten (10) pleading within the period to which he was
calendar days from notice of the order, unless a entitled at the time of filing his motion, which
different period is fixed by the court. The bill of shall not be less than five (5) calendar days in any
particulars or a more definite statement ordered event. (Section 5, Rule 12)
by the court may be filed either in a separate or in - If the motion is denied, the movant has
the same period, counted from notice of
denial, within which to file his responsive
pleading.