IASbaba’s Prelims 60 Day Plan Day 25

Q.1) The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college
consisting of

1. the elected and nominated members of both the Houses of Parliament

2. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of all the Union Territories
3. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of all the states

Which of the above statement[s] is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3

Q.1) Solution (b)

The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college
consisting of:

1. the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament

2. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states and
3. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry.

Thus, the nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the
state
legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative
councils (in
case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of
Delhi
and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President. Where an assembly is
dissolved,
the members cease to be qualified to vote in presidential election, even if fresh elections to the
dissolved assembly are not held before the presidential election.

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The Constitution provides that there shall be uniformity in the scale of representation of
different
states as well as parity between the states as a whole and the Union at the election of the
President.

Source: Chapter-17 “President” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.2) Consider the following, with reference to the President’s veto power

1. Suspensive veto of the President can be overridden by re-passage of the bill by a simple
majority of the Parliament
2. The President has no veto power over a Constitutional amendment bill

Select the correct code

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Solution (c)

VETO POWER OF THE PRESIDENT

A bill passed by the Parliament can become an act only if it receives the assent of the President.
When such a bill is presented to the President for his assent, he has three alternatives (under
Article
111 of the Constitution):

1. He may give his assent to the bill, or

2. He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
3. He may return the bill (if it is not a Money bill) for reconsideration of the Parliament.

However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and again
presented to the President, the President must give his assent to the bill.
Thus, the President has the veto power over the bills passed by the Parliament10, that is, he
can

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withhold his assent to the bills. The object of conferring this power on the President is two-
fold—(a)
to prevent hasty and ill-considered legislation by the Parliament; and (b) to prevent a legislation
which may be unconstitutional.

The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern states can be classified into the following
four
types:

1. Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
2. Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
3. Suspensive veto, which can be over ridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
4. Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three—absolute veto, suspensive veto
and
pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President; it is possessed by the
American President.

Suspensive Veto :

 The President exercises this veto when he returns a bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament.
 However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and
again presented to the President, it is obligatory for the President to give his assent to
the bill. This means that the presidential veto is overridden by a re-passage of the bill by
the same ordinary majority (and not a higher majority as required in USA.

 As mentioned earlier, the President does not possess this veto in the case of money
bills. The President can either give his assent to a money bill or withhold his assent to a
money bill but cannot return it for the reconsideration of the Parliament. Normally, the
President gives his assent to money bill as it is introduced in the Parliament with his
previous permission.
 President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill. The 24th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his
assent to a constitutional amendment bill.

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Source: Chapter-17 “President” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.3) With regard to ‘Motion of Thanks’, consider the following

1. The first session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal year is
addressed by the President
2. It is discussed in Lok Sabha only
3. A failure to get motion of thanks passed amounts to defeat of government and leads to
collapse of government

Select the correct code

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Solution (b)

 Motion of Thanks - President’s address is the speech delivered by the President of India
to both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first
session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal year is addressed
by the president. In this address, the president outlines the policies and programmes of
the government in the preceding year and ensuing year.
 This inaugural speech of the president is an occasion available to the members of
Parliament to raise discussions and debates to examine and criticise the government
and administration for its lapses and failures.
 The notice of such a motion is received through the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
This address of the president, which corresponds to the ‘speech from the Throne in
Britain’, is discussed in both the Houses of Parliament on a motion called the ‘Motion of
Thanks’.
 This motion must be passed in both of the houses.
At the end of the discussion, the motion is put to vote. This motion must be passed in
the House. Otherwise, it amounts to the defeat of the government. This is why, the
Motion of Thanks is deemed to be a no-confidence motion.

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Additional info (http://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/?tag=motion-of-thanks)

 This address by the President highlights the legislative and policy activities and
achievements of the government in the previous year. In addition, it gives a broad
indication of the government’s agenda for the year ahead. The address is followed by a
motion of thanks that is moved in each House by ruling party MPs. This is followed by a
discussion on the address and concludes with the Prime Minister replying to the points
raised during the discussion.
 In the lower house, the motion of thanks has begun today. It began in the upper house
on February 2, 2017. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have allocated two and three days for
the discussion, respectively.

Source: Chapter 22 ‘’Parliament’’ - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.4) Consider the following statements

1. A minister who is a member of one House of Parliament does not have the right to
speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House
2. A minister can vote only in the House of which he/she is a member

Choose the correct code

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Solution (b)

 Usually, the members of Parliament, either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, are appointed as
ministers. A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be
appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he must become a member (either by
election or by nomination) of either House of Parliament, otherwise, he ceases to be a
minister.

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 A minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and to
take part in the proceedings of the other House also, but he can vote only in the House
of which he is a member. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Source: Chapter 22 ‘’Parliament’’ - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.5) Consider the following statements with regard to powers of Prime Minister (PM)

1. The PM can ask a minister to resign or advise the President to dismiss him in case of
difference of opinion.
2. The PM advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions
of the Parliament.
3. The PM can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time.

Which of the above statement[s] is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.5) Solution (d)

The powers and functions of Prime Minister :

In Relation to Council of Ministers :

The Prime Minister enjoys the following powers as head of the Union council of ministers:

1. He recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president. The President
can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
2. He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers.
3. He can ask a minister to resign or advise the President to dismiss him in case of difference
of
opinion.
4. He presides over the meeting of council of ministers and influences its decisions.
5. He guides, directs, controls, and coordinates the activities of all the ministers.

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6. He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office.

Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers
cannot
function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of
an
incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby
generates a
vacuum. The resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a
vacancy
which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill.

In Relation to the President :

The Prime Minister enjoys the following powers in relation to the President:

1. He is the principal channel of communication between the President and the council of
ministers. It is the duty of the prime minister :
(a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the
administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation;
(b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and
proposals for legislation as the President may call for; and
(c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the council of ministers
any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been
considered by the council.

2. He advises the president with regard to the appointment of important officials like attorney
general of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, chairman and members of the
UPSC, election commissioners, chairman and members of the finance commission and so on.

In Relation to Parliament :

The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House. In this capacity, he enjoys the following
powers:

1. He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the
Parliament.
2. He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time.

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3. He announces government policies on the floor of the House.

Source: Chapter-19 “Prime Minister” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.6) In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

a) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

b) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
c) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part
of some members
d) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

Q.6) Solution (b)

Adjournment Motion It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a

definite matter of urgent public importance, and needs the support of 50 members to be
admitted. As it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary
device. It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not
permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for
not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the
following restrictions:

1. It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance

2. It should not cover more than one matter

3. It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and should not be framed in
general terms

4. It should not raise a question of privilege

5. It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session;

6. It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by court

7. It should not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion.

Source: Chapter 22 ‘’Parliament’’ - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

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Q.7) Consider the following statements

1. The ordinance making power of the President is an executive power.

2. The President’s satisfaction on issuing an ordinance is non-justiciable on the ground of
malafide.
3. Ordinance making power is a discretionary power of the President.

Select the correct code

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above

Q.7) Solution (d)

 In Cooper case11, (1970), the Supreme Court held that the President’s satisfaction can
be questioned in a court on the ground of malafide. This means that the decision of the
President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court on the ground that the
President has prorogued one House or both Houses of Parliament deliberately with a
view to promulgate an ordinance on a controversial subject, so as to bypass the
parliamentary decision and thereby circumventing the authority of the Parliament. The
38th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 made the President’s satisfaction final and
conclusive and beyond judicial review. But, this provision was deleted by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. Thus, the President’s satisfaction is justiciable
on the ground of malafide. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

 The ordinance-making power is the most important legislative power of the President.
It has been vested in him to deal with unforeseen or urgent matters. Hence statement 1
is incorrect.

 The President can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. However, his power of
ordinance-making is not a discretionary power, and he can promulgate or withdraw an
ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
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Source: Chapter-17 “President” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.8) With regard to Secretariat of Parliament, consider the following

1. The recruitment and service conditions of the Secretariat are regulated by the presiding
officer of the House
2. Secretary-general of the Secretariat is appointed by the President

Select the correct code

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) Solution (d)

Secretariat of Parliament -Each House of Parliament has separate secretarial staff of its own,
though there can be some posts common to both the Houses. Their recruitment and service
conditions are regulated by Parliament. The secretariat of each House is headed by a secretary-
general. He is a permanent officer and is appointed by the presiding officer of the House.

Source: Chapter 22 ‘’Parliament’’ - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.9) With regard to Attorney General for India, the highest law officer in the country, which
of the following is incorrect?

a) The office of the Attorney General is not created by the Constitution.

b) His/Her term of office is not fixed by the Constitution.
c) He/She resigns when the government or the council of ministers resigns
d) He/She holds office during the pleasure of the president.

Q.9) Solution (a)

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The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He
is the highest law officer in the country.

Appointment and Term:

 The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is
qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a
citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an
advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the
president.
 The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution
does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the
pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any
time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president.
 Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is
replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

Source: Chapter-46 “Attorney General” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.10) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Prime minister may be a member of any of the two houses of Parliament

b) The Prime Minister has a fixed term of five years
c) The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court
d) The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and
appointment of the Prime Minister

Q.10) Solution (b)

 Constitutionally, the Prime Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of
parliament. For example, three Prime Ministers, Indira Gandhi (1966), Deve Gowda
(1996) and Manmohan Singh (2004), were members of the Rajya Sabha.
 The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of
the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime

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Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the
Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence
of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him.

 Article 75- Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.

 Article 74—Council of Ministers to aid and advise President
1. There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and
advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance
with such advice. However, the President may require the Council of Ministers to
reconsider such advice and the President shall act in accordance with the advice
tendered after such reconsideration.
2. The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any
court.

 The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and
appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be
appointed by the president. However, this does not imply that the president is free to
appoint any one as the Prime Minister.
 In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the
President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime
Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President
may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime
Minister.
 In such a situation, the President usually appoints the leader of the largest party or
coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him to seek a vote of
confidence in the House within a month.

Source : Council of Ministers (chapter 20) & Prime Minister (chapter 19)- Indian Polity by
M.Laxmikanth.

Q.11) Consider the following

1. When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all
the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha

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2. Any exercise of executive power by the President without the aid and advice of the
Council of Ministers is considered to be unconstitutional

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.11) Solution (d)

 Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the
Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha
for all their acts of ommission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink
together. When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of
ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the
Rajya Sabha.
 Alternatively, the council of ministers can advise the president to dissolve the Lok Sabha
on the ground that the House does not represent the views of the electorate faithfully
and call for fresh elections. The President may not oblige the council of ministers that
has lost the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
 The principle of collective responsibility also means that the Cabinet decisions bind all
cabinet ministers (and other ministers) even if they differed in the cabinet meeting. It is
the duty of every minister to stand by cabinet decisions and support them both within
and outside the Parliament. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not
prepared to defend it, he must resign.
 In 1971, the Supreme Court held that ‘even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the
council of
ministers does not cease to hold office. Article 74 is mandatory and, therefore, the
president cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advise of the
council of ministers. Any exercise of executive power without the aid and advice will be
unconstitutional as being violative of Article 74’.
Again in 1974, the court held that ‘wherever the Constitution requires the satisfaction of
the President, the satisfaction is not the personal satisfaction of the President but it is
the satisfaction of the council of ministers with whose aid and on whose advice the
President exercises his powers and functions’.

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Source : Chapter-20 “Council of Ministers” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.12) With regard to Public Accounts Committee, consider the following statements

1. This committee was setup under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935.
2. The members are nominated by the Speaker for a term of one year.
3. As per the convention, the chairman of the committee is selected from the Opposition.

Select the correct code

a) 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Q.12) Solution (a)

Public Accounts Committee :

 This committee was setup first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India
Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. At present, it consists of 22 members (15
from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
 The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members
according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single
transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office of the
members is one year.
 A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the
committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. Until 1966–67, the
chairman of the committee belonged to the ruling party. However, since 1967 a
convention has developed whereby the chairman of the committee is selected
invariably from the Opposition.

Source: Chapter 22 ‘’Parliament’’ - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

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Q.13) With regard to pardoning power of the President, which of statements given below is
incorrect?

a) The power to pardon is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the Union
Cabinet
b) The President cannot pardon sentences inflicted by court martial
c) The Constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the legality of
decisions of President
d) None

Q.13) Solution (b)

Pardoning power of the President :

Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have
been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the:

1. Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law;

2. Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court); and

3. Sentence is a sentence of death.

The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary; it is an executive power.
But, the President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal. The object of
conferring this power on the President is two-fold: (a) to keep the door open for correcting any
judicial errors in the operation of law; and, (b) to afford relief from a sentence, which the
President regards as unduly harsh.

Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the governor of a state also possesses the pardoning
power. But, the pardoning power of the governor differs from that of the President in following
two respects:

1. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts) while the
governor cannot.

2. The President can pardon death sentence while governor cannot. Even if a state law
prescribes death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the
governor. However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence. In other

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words, both the governor and the President have concurrent power in respect of suspension,
remission and commutation of death sentence.

The Constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the legality of decisions of
President with regard to mercy jurisdiction. But the Supreme Court in Epuru Sudhakar case has
given scope for judicial review of the pardon powers of President and Governors for the
purpose of ruling out any arbitrariness. The court has earlier held that court has retained the
power of judicial review even on a matter which has been vested by the Constitution solely in
the Executive.

The Supreme Court has laid down the following principles:

1. The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral hearing by the President.

2. The President can examine the evidence afresh and take a view different from the view taken
by the court.

3. The power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the union cabinet.

4. The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.

5. The President can afford relief not only from a sentence that he regards as unduly harsh but
also from an evident mistake.

6. There is no need for the Supreme Court to lay down specific guidelines for the exercise of
power by the President.

7. The exercise of power by the President is not subject to judicial review except where the
presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.

8. Where the earlier petition for mercy has been rejected by the President, stay cannot be
obtained by filing another petition.

Source: Chapter-17 “President” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.14) Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Censure motion’?

1. It can be moved against any individual minister

2. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
3. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign from the office.

Choose the correct code

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a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.14) Solution (d)

Censure Motion vs No Confidence Motion

 In case of censure motion, reasons must be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha
while in case of motion of no confidence no such reasons for its adoption are required
to be stated in the Lok Sabha.
 Censure motion can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or
the entire council of ministers, whereas No confidence motion can only be moved
against the entire council of ministers
 If Censure motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign
from the office, while in case of motion of no confidence, the council of minister must
resign from office if the motion is passed.
 Censure motion is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and
action and no confidence motion on the otherhand, is moved for ascertaining the
confidence of Lok Sabha in the council of ministers.

Source: Chapter-22 “Parliament” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.15) Consider the following statements with regard to a Private Bill?

1. It can be introduced by any member of Parliament

2. Its rejection by the House has an implication on the parliamentary confidence in the
government

Select the correct code

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.15) Solution (d)

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Bills introduced in the Parliament are of two kinds: public bills and private bills (also known as
government bills and private members’ bills respectively). Though both are governed by the
same general procedure and pass through the same stages in the House, they differ in various
respects

Public Bill

1. It is introduced in the Parliament by a minister.

2. It reflects of the policies of the government (ruling party).

3. It has greater chance to be approved by the Parliament.

4. Its rejection by the House amounts to the exp-ression of want of parliamentary confidence in
the government and may lead to its resignation.

5. Its introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice.

6. It is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department.

Private Bill

1. It is introduced by any member of Parliament other than a minister.

2. It reflects the stand of opposition party on public matter.

3. It has lesser chance to be approved by the Parliament.

4. Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the
government or its resignation.

5. Its introduction in the House requires one month’s notice.

6. Its drafting is the responsibility of the member concerned.

The bills introduced in the Parliament can also be classified into four categories:

1. Ordinary bills, which are concerned with any matter other than financial subjects.

2. Money bills, which are concerned with the financial matters like taxation, public expenditure,
etc.

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3. Financial bills, which are also concerned with financial matters (but are different from money
bills).

4. Constitution amendment bills, which are concerned with the amendment of the provisions of
the Constitution.

Source: Chapter-22 “Parliament” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.16) Which of the following motion can be moved to reduce any Demand for grant?

a) Superseding motion
b) Cut motion
c) Ancillary motion
d) Closure motion

Q.16) Solution (b)

Voting on Demands for Grants - In the light of the reports of the departmental standing
committees, the Lok Sabha takes up voting of demands for grants.The demands are presented
ministrywise. A demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted.

Two points should be noted in this context.

 One, the voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha, that is,
the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands.
 Second, the voting is confined to the votable part of the budget—the expenditure
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be
discussed).
 Motion to reduce any demand for grant are called as ‘cut motion’.

Motions :

No discussion on a matter of general public importance can take place except on a motion
made with the consent of the presiding officer. The House expresses its decisions or opinions
on various issues through the adoption or rejection of motions moved by either ministers or
private members.

The motions moved by the members to raise discussions on various matters fall into three
principal categories:

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1. Substantive Motion: It is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with a very

important matter like impeachment of the President or removal of Chief Election
Commissioner.

2. Substitute Motion: It is a motion that is moved in substitution of an original motion and

proposes an alternative to it. If adopted by the House, it supersedes the original motion.

3. Subsidiary Motion: It is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the
decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House. It
is divided into three sub-categories:

(a) Ancillary Motion: It is used as the regular way of proceeding with various kinds of business.

(b) Superseding Motion: It is moved in the course of debate on another issue and seeks to
supersede that issue.

(c) Amendment: It seeks to modify or substitute only a part of the original motion.

Closure Motion It is a motion moved by a member to cut short the debate on a matter before
the House. If the motion is approved by the House, debate is stopped forthwith and the matter
is put to vote. There are four kinds of closure motions15:

(a) Simple Closure: It is one when a member moves that the ‘matter having been sufficiently
discussed be now put to vote’.

(b) Closure by Compartments: In this case, the clauses of a bill or a lengthy resolution are
grouped into parts before the commencement of the debate. The debate covers the part as a
whole and the entire part is put to vote.

(c) Kangaroo Closure: Under this type, only important clauses are taken up for debate and
voting and the intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed.

(d) Guillotine Closure: It is one when the undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolution are also
put to vote along with the discussed ones due to want of time (as the time allotted for the
discussion is over).

Privilege Motion It is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges by a minister. It is

moved by a member when he feels that a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the
House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or
distorted facts. Its purpose is to censure the concerned minister.

Calling Attention Motion It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of
a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement
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from him on that matter. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary
procedure and has been in existence since 1954. However, unlike the zero hour, it is mentioned
in the Rules of Procedure.

Source: Chapter-22 “Parliament” - Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth

Q.17) Consider the following statements about ‘Vanjeevan’

1. It is launched by National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation

(NSTFDC)
2. The scheme is focused on North Eastern states in its first phase
3. It is a National resource centre for tribal livelihood

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above

Q.17) Solution (c)

The idea behind establishment of National Resource Centre on Tribal Livelihood (Vanjeevan) is
to serve as an apex central institution within Ministry of Tribal Affairs to act as research and
technical hub to further socio-economic development of tribal communities through
comprehensive interaction of the 3Es-employment, employability and entrepreneurship. The
resource centre would cater to the development and promotion of sustainable livelihood
avenues in the tribal areas through entrepreneurship and skill up-gradation.

The National Resource Centre on Tribal Livelihood (Vanjeevan) also intends to forge linkages
and build upon the skill building efforts of the other Central Ministries / Departments such as
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, Ministry of Rural Development, Ministry of
Micro-Small and Medium Enterprises etc.

Vanjeevan will be a programme to identify the problems in livelihood issues in select districts of
six states having low HDI of tribal people in the first phase. The states are Assam, Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Odisha and Telangana. In the second phase the programme will be

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implemented in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra,

Meghalaya and Tripura.

Key Activities

a) Livelihood mapping and skill gap analysis in selected tribal areas.

b) Profiling of Micro enterprises models (Farm, Non-farm , forestry based and allied on local
geography and resources pattern).

c) Knowledge hub on tribal livelihood, a solution exchange of community practitioners on tribal

livelihood leading to evidence based policy briefs and synthesis of e-discussion.

d) Training and capacity development with creation of pool of resource persons and mentoring
organizations.

e) Partnership development

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=155295

Q.18) ‘Urban Plus approach’ was seen in news recently. It is associated with

a) BRICS
b) G4
c) United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
d) None of the above

Q.18) Solution (d)

Asia Pacific countries that account for over 55% of global urban population have resolved to
adopt ‘Urban Plus’ approach. This was contained in the ‘New Delhi Declaration’ adopted on the
conclusion of the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development
(APMCHUD). It also adopted implementation plan.

This approach will address ways to make urban expansion sustainable and manageable. This
would mean an emphasis on planning for urban and its adjoining peri-urban and rural areas in
an integrated manner.

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=155544

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Q.19) Consider the following statements about ‘Kafala System’

1. Under this system both domestic and foreign workers are obliged to seek their
employer’s permission to change jobs or leave the country
2. All the GCC countries have abolished the kafala system

Select the correct statements

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.19) Solution (d)

The kafala system is a system used to monitor migrant laborers, working primarily in the
construction and domestic sectors, in Lebanon, Bahrain, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar,
Saudi Arabia, and the UAE.

Qatar has ended its controversial ‘kafala’ system, under which foreign workers are obliged to
seek their employer’s permission to change jobs or leave the country.

Source: www.thehindu.com/news/international/Qatar-abolishes-‘kafala’-labour-
system/article16802505.ece

Q.20) The Paracel Islands are located in

a) Ross Sea
b) South China Sea
c) Adriatic Sea
d) Celebes Sea

Q.20) Solution (b)

The People’s Liberation Army (PLA) Navy commemorated the 70th anniversary of the recovery
of the Xisha and Nansha Islands, the Chinese names of Paracel and Spratly islands in the SCS.

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In compliance of the Cairo Declaration and Potsdam Proclamation, China in November-

December 1946 designated officials to proceed to the islands by four warships to take over the
islands, illegally occupied by Japan.

China’s claims over the SCS was contested by Vietnam, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei and
Taiwan.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/Chinese-navy-marks-70th-year-of-
capture-of-key-islands-in-SCS/article16778533.ece

Q.21) Consider the following statements about Central Electricity Authority (CEA)

1. It is a statutory organization under Electricity Act, 2003

2. It develops programs which will increase the conservation and efficient use of energy in
India
3. Draft National Electricity Plan, 2016 was prepared by CEA which calls for doubling the
coal based capacity addition by 2025

Select the correct statements

a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) All of the above

Q.21) Solution (a)

Bureau of Energy Efficiency develops programs which will increase the conservation and
efficient use of energy in India.

The Central Electricity Authority of India (CEA) is a statutory organisation constituted under
section 3(1) of Electricity Supply Act 1948, which has been superseded by section 70(1) of the
Electricity Act 2003. The CEA advises the government on matters relating to the National
Electricity Policy and formulates short-term and perspective plans for the development of
electricity systems.

Coal based capacity addition will not be required in this period, as a capacity of 50 GW is
already under construction against a requirement of 44 GW.

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It said that the renewable energy generation will contribute about 20.3 per cent and 24.2 per
cent of the total energy requirement in 2021-22 and 2026-27, respectively.

Source: http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/cea-coal-power/article9423872.ece

Q.22) Muhuri, a transnational river flows between India and

a) Myanmar
b) Nepal
c) Pakistan
d) Bangladesh

Q.22) Solution (d)

Muhuri char is a disputed land between India and Bangladesh. 90% is under India’s control

Muhuri is a transnational river between India and Bangladesh. Rising in Tripura, it flows into
Bangladesh where it merges with the Feni near the latter's mouth to the Bay of Bengal. The
Muhuri is also known as the Little Feni.

Source: http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/india-bangladesh-meeting-
over-disputed-enclave-in-tripura-inconclusive-116112000593_1.html

Q.23) Section 498A in the Indian Penal Code is related to

a) LGBT community or Homosexuality

b) Unlawful Assembly
c) Domestic Violence
d) Sedition

Q.23) Solution (c)

Husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty. Whoever, being the
husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable
to fine.

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Source: http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/Adultery-by-itself-isnt-cruelty-to-wife-
says-SC/articleshow/55609961.cms

Q.24) OraQuick is

a) A question and answer website

b) HIV self-testing kit
c) A German supercomputer
d) None

Q.24) Solution (b)

The WHO-approved OraQuick HIV self-testing is based on HIV antibodies present in oral and
blood samples. The test can detect antibodies developed within three months of getting
infected. It is a screening test, and a positive result should be reconfirmed though a blood-
based test.

The OraQuick self-testing makes diagnosis easier and faster, besides ensuring privacy and
confidentiality, thus encouraging more people to get tested.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/HIV-The-self-test-
option/article16737936.ece

Q.25) Which of the following is correctly matched

1. Khardung La :: J&K
2. Pir Panjal :: Himachal Pradesh
3. Saser La :: J&K
4. Bom Di La :: Sikkim

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

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Q.25) Solution (a)

1. Khardung La :: J&K
2. Pir Panjal :: J&K
3. Saser La :: J&K
4. Bom Di La :: Arunachal Pradesh

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/Pre-historic-camping-site-
found-in-Ladakh/article16757539.ece

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