đề 21 40 đề tinh giảm

Practice 21
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 1. A. weighs B. coughs C. ploughs D. soughs
Câu 2. A. nation B. national C. nationality D. nationally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 3. A. intellect B. insecure C. visitor D. slavery
Câu 4. A. combustion B. achievement C. ambitious D. dominant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Câu 5. Let’s go tothelibrary, ?
A.would we B.will we C.should we D. shall we
Câu 6. Last year, my father ________, but now after a bad cough, he has given it up.
A. was always smoking B. always smokes
C. always smoked D. had always smoked
Câu 7. John admitted ________ a lot of compulsory courses in his higher education curriculum.
A. to skip B. to have skipped C. to be skipping D. to having skipped
Câu 8. If my time-management skills had been better, I ____________________ from serious stress when I was in
university.
A. wouldn't suffer B. hadn't suffered C. will not suffer D. wouldn't have suffered
Câu 9. An individual has not started living until he can rise above the narrow confines of his _________________
concerns to the broader concerns of all humanity.
A. individual B. individualistic C. individualism D. individualize
Câu 10. One of the main drawbacks of office work is that people can be easily inflicted _________________ back pains.
A. from B. with C. by D. on
Câu 11. In a relationship if you are giving and getting nothing back in __________, stop giving so much, and spend time
being. Give to yourself, be who you are.
A. fact B. the end C. addition D. return
Câu 12. As you grow older, you will discover that you have two hands - one for helping yourself, ______________ for
helping others.
A. another B. other C. two D. the other
Câu 13. In the United States, there has risen a demand that guns _________ from the public.
A. are banned B. ban C. be banned D. banned
Câu 14. The festival has many attractions. It will include contemporary orchestra music and an opera. ,
there will be poetry readings and theatrical presentations.
A. Otherwise B. Furthermore C. Nevertheless D. On the other hand
Câu 15. Alex dreams of going on tour – he’s just waiting for his big ______________ to get his foot in the door of the
music industry.
A. deal B. break C. cake D. cheese
Câu 16. When someone is down on their __________, friends are not easy to find.
A. mood B. luck C. fortune D. merit
Câu 17. He wore glasses and a false beard so that .
A. anyone can recognizehim B. no one could recognizehim
B. no one can recognizehim D. no one couldn’t recognizehim
Câu 18. Florida, the Sunshine state, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is known as B. that is known as C. which known as D. known as
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions.
Câu 19. ln 1921, accompanied by her two daughters, Marie Curie made a triumphant journey to the United States to
raise funds for research on radium.
A. sorrowful B. difficult C. adventurous D. victorious
Câu 20. Although the general manager is officially in charge, everyone knows his deputy is really in the driving seat.
A. out of control B. on duty C. abusing of power D. in control of a situation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
Câu 21. The matches went on till as late as 10 p.m. on Saturday and even then the A division final had to be carried
over to the next day.
A. brought forward B. put out C. moved out D. put off
Câu 22. Urbanization is the triumph of the unnatural over the natural, the grid over the organic.
A. failure B. effort C. power D. side
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks.
STREET PAPERS
The problem of homelessness is an international one. In the capital cities of the world, the sight of people begging on
the streets is becoming increasingly rare. But all over the world, homeless people are taking the future into their own (1)
_____________. By selling "street papers" they no longer need to beg for a (2) ____________.
The concept of the street paper is simple. It is sold by homeless and ex-homeless people (3) ________ buy it at a
fixed price of 30p and sell it to the public for 70p, keeping 40p for themselves. If they have no money, then they can get
the first ten copies on (4) _____________ and pay for them later. Every paper seller receives training and is given a special
identity badge.
The paper itself contains articles of general and social interest, film and book reviews, cartoons and the occasional
celebrity interview. Advertising and sales provide most of the income, and all profits go (5) ______________ into helping
homeless people.
Câu 23. (1) A. heads B. shoulders C. mouths D. hands

Câu 24. (2) A. living B. life C. lively D. live
Câu 25. (3) A. whom B. who C. which D. whose
Câu 26. (4) A. cash B. cheque C. credit D. card
Câu 27. (5) A. forward B. out C. through D. back
- Pay with / by cheque: trả băng séc

- By card: trả bằng thẻ tín dụng
- On credit : mua chịu , trả dần
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Câu 28. Though the police tried their best to catch the thief, he was escaped.
A. the B. their C. catch D. was
Câu 29. I'm sorry to inform that he can have done very well, but he was lazy.
A. to inform B. can C. very D. lazy.
Câu 30. The lesions caused by the activity of the scolytid create an entry site for secondary infection by bacterium and
fungi.
A. caused B. create C. secondary D. bacterium
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the near term, the goal of keeping AI’s impact on society beneficial motivates research in many areas, from
economics and law to technical topics such as verification, validity, security and control. Whereas it may be little more
than a minor nuisance- sự phiền tái- if your laptop crashes or gets hacked, it becomes all the more important that an AI
system does what you want it to do if it controls your car, your airplane, your pacemaker, your automated trading system
or your power grid. Another short-term challenge is preventing a devastating arms race in lethal autonomous weapons.
In the long term, an important question is what will happen if the quest for strong AI succeeds and an AI system
becomes better than humans at all cognitive tasks. Such a system could potentially undergo recursive self-improvement,
triggering an intelligence explosion leaving human intellect far behind. By inventing revolutionary new technologies, such
a superintelligence might help us eradicate war, disease, and poverty, and so the creation of strong AI might be the biggest
event in human history. Some experts have expressed concern, though, that it might also be the last, unless we learn to
align the goals of the AI with ours before it becomes superintelligent.
There are some who question whether strong AI will ever be achieved, and others who insist that the creation of
superintelligent AI is guaranteed to be beneficial. At FLI we recognize both of these possibilities, but also recognize the
potential for an artificial intelligence system to intentionally or unintentionally cause great harm. We believe research
today will help us better prepare for and prevent such potentially negative consequences in the future, thus enjoying the
benefits of AI while avoiding pitfalls.
Câu 34. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. event B. human C. history D. poverty
Câu 35. According to paragraph 3, which information is incorrect about the future of AI?
A. We cannot deny the likelihood of AI turning on its creator – the human.
B. The emergence of superintelligence will yield valuable benefits for human.
C. One of the focus of AI system nowadays should be preparation and preventive measures.
D. The probability of malicious artificial intelligence is an unexpected zero.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Câu 36. Meaningful silence is always better than meaningless words.
A. Meaningless words are not so good as meaningful silence.
B. Meaningful silence is the best among meaningful words.
C. Silence is always less meaningful than words are.
D. Words are always meaningless, and so is silence.
Câu 37. "It's the funniest show I've ever seen," Susan said.
A. Susan said that it was the funniest show she had ever seen.
B. Susan said that she's never seen such a funny show before.
C. Susan said no other shows in the world were as funny as this one.
D. Susan said that this was one of the funniest shows of all time.
Câu 38. It was wrong of you to scare your brother like that.
A. You must not scare your brother like that.
B. You ought not to have scared your brother like that.
C. You should have scared your brother like that.
D. You should not scare your brother like that.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Câu 39. Two graduates are talking with each other.
- Student A: "Then, are you working or taking a postgraduate course?" - Student B: “________.”
A. I think I should earn a living myself rather than live on my parents.
B. I'm for working and getting experience before going into further study.
C. I think taking a postgraduate course when unemployed will really do.
D. I guess, taking a course is better than doing nothing.
Câu 40. - A: "What do you think about time management skill?" - B: “_____________.”
A. It's time to go. B. I quite agree with you.
C. It is an important life skill. D. I can't help thinking about it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives. This represents one of the crowning
achievements of the last century, but also a significant challenge. Longer lives must be planned for. Societal aging may
affect economic growth and lead to many other issues, including the sustainability of families, the ability of states and
communities to provide resources for older citizens, and international relations. The Global Burden of Disease, a study
conducted by the World Health Organization, predicts a very large increase in age-related chronic disease in all regions of
the world. Dealing with this will be a significant challenge for all countries’ health services.
Population aging is driven by declines in fertility and improvements in health and longevity. In more developed
countries, falling fertility - khả năng sinh sản - beginning in the early 1900’s has resulted in current levels being below the
population replacement rate of two live births per woman. Perhaps the most surprising demographic development of the
past 20 years has been the pace of fertility decline in many less developed countries. In 2006, for example, the total fertility
rate was at or below the replacement rate in 44 less developed countries.
One central issue for policymakers in regard to pension funds is the relationship between the official retirement age
and actual retirement age. Over several decades in the latter part of the 20th century, many of the more developed nations
lowered the official age at which people become fully entitled to public pension benefits. This was propelled by general
economic conditions, changes in welfare philosophy, and private pension trends. Despite the recent trend toward increased
workforce participation at older ages, a significant gap between official and actual ages of retirement persists. This trend is
emerging in rapidly aging developing countries as well. Many countries already have taken steps towards much-needed
reform of their old-age social insurance programs. One common reform has been to raise the age at which workers are
eligible for full public pension benefits. Another strategy for bolstering economic security for older people has been to
increase the contributions by workers. Other measures to enhance income for older people include new financial
instruments for private savings, tax incentives for individual retirement savings, and supplemental occupational pension
plans.
As life expectancy increases in most nations, so do the odds of different generations within a family coexisting. In
more developed countries, this has manifested itself as the ‘beanpole family,’ a vertical extension of family structure
characterized by an increase in the number of living generations within a lineage and a decrease in the number of people
within each generation. As mortality rates continue to improve, more people in their 50’s and 60’s will have surviving
parents, aunts, and uncles. Consequently, more children will know their grandparents and even their great-grandparents,
especially their great-grandmothers. There is no historical precedent for a majority of middle-aged and older adults having
living parents.
(Adapted from https://www.ielts-mentor.com)
Câu 41. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the author in the passage?
A. To present a synopsis of the causes and effects of the aging population.
B. To provide an overview of the drawbacks of the world’s aging population.
C. To suggest some effective solutions to deal with the rapid increase of the aging population.
D. To prove the significant contribution of the aging population to the world economy.
Câu 42. As mentioned in the first paragraph, the following aspects will be influenced by the aging in the society,
EXCEPT ___________.
A. the stable progress of families B. social welfare
C. medical care D. technology achievements
Câu 43. What can be inferred from the second paragraph?
A. The birthrate in developed countries is less than that in developing nations.
B. The increase in death rate led to the shortage of laborers in developed countries.
C. The fertility of the world population is not enough to substitute the elderly.
D. The improvement in medical care is one of the reasons for falling fertility.
Câu 44. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. public pension benefits
B. the reduction of the official age entirely pensioned
C. the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age
D. central issue
Câu 45. The word “eligible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. entitled B. unqualified C. mature D. devoted
Câu 46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the measure of old-age social insurance programs?
A. The decrease in the age the elderly can receive pension.
B. The encouragement the elderly to contribute more in economy.
C. Enacting many policies to increase their income before retirement.
D. Widening the gap between official and actual ages of retirement.
Câu 47. The word “manifested” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ________.
A. illustrated B. demonstrated C. proved D. recognized
Câu 48. What is the benefit of aging mentioned in the last paragraph?
A. The mortality rates are decreasing.
B. People will have the chance to live with their parents longer.
C. Children are likely to live in an extended family with more brothers and sisters.
D. The life expectancy is being improved.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Câu 49. Disabled people can contribute to our community. Non-disabled people can also contribute to our community.
A. Either disabled people or non-disabled ones can contribute to our community.
B. Both disabled people and non-disabled ones can contribute to our community.
C. Only disabled people not non-disabled ones can contribute to our community.
D. Neither disabled people nor non-disabled ones can contribute to our community.
Câu 50. More and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying English. They recognize the importance of the language.
A. As more and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying English, they recognize the importance of the language.
B. Seeing the importance of English, more and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying the language.
C. More and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying English, but they recognize the importance of the language.
D. More and more Vietnamese youngsters are studying English, or they recognize the importance of the language.
Practice 22
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
Câu 1. A. August B. gerund C. purpose D. suggest
Câu 2. A. solutions B. hospitals C. families D. projects
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
in each of the following questions.
Câu 3. A. patient B. release C. martyr D. hopeless
Câu 4. A. infectious B. privacy C. principle D. charity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Câu 5. We take _____ in doing the washing-up, cleaning the floor and watering the flowers.
A. turn B. actions C. measures D. turns
Câu 6. Acupuncture is part of traditional Chinese medicine and _____ in China for thousands of years.
A. has been used B. has using C. has used D. has been using
Câu 7. Most of the students in that special school are making good progress, but Michael is a _____ case.
A. hopefully B. hopeless C. hopeful D. hopelessly
Câu 8. Hardly any of the paintings at the gallery were for sale, ?
A.was it B.wasn't it C.weren't they D. were they
Câu 9. After graduating from university, I want to ______ my father's footsteps.
A. follow in B. succeed in C. go after D. keep up
Câu 10. I don't know what to say to break the _____ with someone I've just met at the party.
A. air B. ice C. leg D. rule
Câu 11. The director informed that no candidate ______ all the criteria for the administrative position.
A. completed B. fulfilled - meet C. achieved D. suited
Câu 12. , I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer
B. Though being the biggest dealer
C. Being the biggest dealer
D. Even though they were the biggest dealer
Câu 13. The archaeological excavation _____ to the discovery of the ancient city lasted several years.
A. led B. leading C. to lead D. being led
Câu 14. If Mr. David _____ at the meeting, he would make a speech.
A. were B. had been C. was D. has been
Câu 15. Australia is the greenest country in the world _____ the people are environmentally friendly.
A. because B. therefore C. however D. yet
Câu 16. This organization is quick sending relief goods to the flooded areas.
A. with B. at c. for D. about
Câu 17. Since moving to another country, some people decide to follow the customs of the new country, while _____
prefer to keep their own customs.
A. another B. other C. others D. the other
Câu 18. I have a _____ schedule this semester - classes from Monday to Friday, 7 AM to 7 PM!
A. consuming B. grueling C. ungodly D. tight
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (3) in each of
Câu 19. Stop the degradation of the planet's natural environment and build a future in which humans live in harmony
with nature.
A. coexist peacefully with B. fall in love with
C. agree with D. cooperate with
Câu 20. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic growth, stability and
significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. achievement B. development C. prevention D. reduction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
Câu 21. Then the strangest thing happens - Will and Marcus strike up an unusual friendship.
A. cover up B. give up C. make up D. remain
Câu 22. A cost-effective way to fight crime is that instead of making punishments more severe, the authorities should
increase the odds that lawbreakers will be apprehended and punished quickly.
A. economical B. practical C. profitable D. worthless
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Câu 23. Hai: “I've seen John at the workshop on communication skills.”
Phong: “__________________.”
A. I see. I'll call him.
B. The workshop was very useful.
C. That can't be John because he's in Paris now.
D. No, I don't think so.
Câu 24. John: “Last year, we went to one of those resorts where everything – food and drink - was free.”
Thomas: “____________________.”
A. Wow! I didn't realize you were such snobs!
B. Really? I prefer to go somewhere a bit quieter.
C. It sounds great. I've never been on an all-inclusive holiday.
D. If you want all your meals and drinks included, you can stay on an all-inclusive basis.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks.
Sir Isaac Newton, the English scientist and mathematician, was one of the most important figures of the 17th century
scientific revolution. One of his greatest achievement was the (25) _____ of the three laws of motion, which are still used
today. But he also had a very unusual personality. Some people would say he was actually insane.
His father died before he was born, and his mother soon remarried. The young Isaac hated his stepfather so much that he
once (26) ____________ to burn his house down - when his stepfather and mother were still inside! Fortunately he did not,
and he went on to graduate from Cambridge without being thrown into prison.
Isaac's first published work was a theory of light and color. When another scientist wrote a paper criticizing this theory,
Isaac flew into an uncontrollable rage. The scientist (27) _____________ for the criticism was a man called Robert Hooke.
He was head of the Royal Society, and one of the most respected scientists in the country. (28)______________, this made
no difference to Isaac, who refused to speak to him for over a year.
The simple fact was that Isaac found it impossible to have a calm discussion with anyone. As soon as someone said
something that he disagreed with, he would lose his (29) ____________. For this reason he lived a large part of his life
isolated from other scientists. It is unlikely that many of them complained.
(Source: https://www.biography.com/scientist/isaac-newton)
Câu 25. A. discovery B. research C. findings D. inventions
Câu 26. A. shouted B. frightened C. threatened D. warned
Câu 27. A. responsible B. reasonable C. guilty D. attributable
Câu 28. A. Although B. However C. Despite D. What is more
Câu 29. A. anger B. mood C. character D. temper
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question.
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water first thing, before
doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature; neither too hot nor too cold.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys. It prepares your
stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking water, the intestines can more easily
take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more easily.
Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don’t drink all of that water in one sitting. If
you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It’s better to drink some in the morning and some in
the afternoon. Some people think it’s better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the
juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are probably drinking
enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A little more water each day could make
you much healthier.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Câu 30. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors
C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink
Câu 31. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT ___________.
A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers
Câu 32. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. your body B. your kidney C. water D. your stomach
Câu 33. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process
Câu 34. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
B. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time.
C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question.
Grandparents are becoming the forgotten generation, with youngsters now too busy to listen to their stories from the olden
days.
A study of 1,000 five to 18 year-olds reveals just 21 per cent will visit their older relatives to hear about how their lives
were different in the past; such as where they worked, how it was living in the war, and how they met the love of their life.
More than half of youths have no idea what job their grandparent did before retirement – admitting they’d never thought to
ask. Sadly, one in 10 admitted they are simply not interested in their grandmother’s or grandad’s previous job or talents and
interests, and a quarter only turn up to see them for pocket money. But 23 per cent claim the reason they don’t know
anything about their older relatives is because they don’t really get the chance to talk properly.
Geoff Bates, spokesman for McCarthy & Stone’s Inspirational Generation campaign, said: “We know this generation
have lived full lives with heroic tales to tell and so much to offer, but how many of us have actually thought to ask these
questions of our older family members? We want to shout about the amazing feats retirees have achieved in their lifetime
and put the spotlight on the wonderfully colorful lives of today’s older people. We are calling on parents and children to
talk to their grandparents, to find out what they have done in their lives – and continue to do, and tell us all about it so we
can give them the credit they deserve.”
Researchers found that although 65 per cent of youngsters do see their grandparents every single week, 37 per cent claim
this is only because their parents want them to. And while 39 per cent talk to their grandparents on the phone, Facebook or
Skype at least once a week – 16 per cent once a day – conversation is rarely focused on what they are doing or have done in
the past. Four in 10 kids have no idea what their grandparents proudest achievements are, while 30 per cent don’t know if
they have any special skills or talents. And 42 per cent don’t spend any time talking about their grandparent’s history – and
are therefore clueless about what their grandmother or grandad was like when they were younger. Perhaps due to this lack
of communication and respect, just six per cent of children say they look up to their grandparents as a role model and
inspiration. However, grandchildren are agreed their grandparents are both loving and friendly, while 43 per cent think
they’re funny – with 23 per cent admitting they often have more fun with their elderly relatives than their parents.
(Source: https://www.independent.co.uk)
Câu 35. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Grandparents are outdated people in their families.
B. Young people now do not concern much about their grandparents.
C. Grandparents are not interested in telling stories about their life in the past any more.
D. Young people are too busy to take care of their grandparents.
Câu 36. According to the study in paragraph 2, which information is NOT true?
A. Merely over one fifth of people in the survey keep asking about the bygone time of their grandparents.
B. Over 50% of the young don’t know about their older relatives’ professions before superannuation.
C. Most of youths visit their grandparents to ask for money.
D. Nearly a quarter of young people don’t have proper opportunities to converse with their older relatives.
Câu 37. The word “feats” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _________________.
A. accomplishments B. failures C. difficulties D. differences
Câu 38. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. parents B. children C. colorful lives D. grandparents
Câu 39. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that McCarthy & Stone’s Inspirational Generation campaign
____________________.
A. encourages people to ask more questions about their grandparents’ jobs.
B. would like to honour the retirees with their remarkable achievements and experienced life.
C. hopes to give recognition to the older family members.
D. intends to retell the heroic tails of the older generation and find out what they have done in the past.
Câu 40. According to the last paragraph, the proportion of the young voluntarily visiting their older family members
every week is ___________________.
A. 37% B. 65% C. 28% D. 39%
Câu 41. The author implied in the last paragraph that ____________.
A. youngsters nowadays are too indifferent with their grandparents’ lives in the former times.
B. more youths use modern technology to keep in touch with their older generation.
C. grandchildren do not have much time to care for their elderly relatives’ special skills and talents.
D. lack of communication and respect is the main reason why youngsters are not interested in what their grandparents
have done in the past.
Câu 42. The word “inspiration” in the last paragraph mostly means ________.
A. disincentive B. encumbrance C. stimulation D. hindrance
questions.
Câu 43. It is essential that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.
A. that B. is C. treated D. to assure
Câu 44. Having deciding on the topic of the presentation, he started finding relevant information for it.
A. Having deciding B. presentation C. finding D. for
Câu 45. The new trade agreement should felicitate more rapid economic growth.
A. The B. should felicitate C. more D. economic growth
Câu 46. Tet holiday is the most interesting Vietnamese traditional festival that he's ever attended.
A. Tet holiday is more interesting than the Vietnamese traditional festival that he’s ever attended.
B. He has never attended a more interesting Vietnamese traditional festival than Tet holiday.
C. He has attended many interesting Vietnamese traditional festival including Tet holiday.
D. Tet holiday is one of the most interesting Vietnamese traditional festival he's ever attended.
Câu 47. “You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got home!” the woman told her
son.
A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she saw the keys on the table.
C. The Woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing that she saw the keys on the
table.
Câu 48. I really believe my letter came as a great surprise to John
A. John might be very surprised to receive my letter
B John might have been very surprised to receive my letter
C John must be very surprised to receive my letter
D John must have been very surprised to receive my letter
questions.
Câu 49. You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It’s the only way.
A. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The only way you are by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.
D. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.
Câu 50. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the talk show.
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the talk show.
B. Talk shows are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
C. Provided that you do not get nervous, the talk show won't go badly for you.
D. Even if you are afraid of the talk show, it is important not to express it
Practice 23
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
Câu 1. A. brought B. ought C. thought D. though
Câu 2. A. beds B. doors C. plays D. students
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 3. A. relics B. rely C. reply D. release
Câu 4. A. ferocious B. adventure C. history D. achievement
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Câu 5. . “ Jenny’s always wanted to get to the top of her career, ?”-
“Yes, she’s an ambitious girl”.
A.isn’t she B. hasn’t her C.has she D. hasn’t she
Câu 6. If Tom ____________ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a better job years ago.
A. had been B. is C. were D. was
Câu 7. The scientists on this project try to find the solutions to air pollution.
A.working B.worked C.are working D. who working
Câu 8. She had butterflies in her stomach_____________ having prepared carefully for the interview.
A. although B. due to C. despite D. because
Câu 9. The main focus _________interest at the opening ceremony /ˈser.ɪ.mə.ni/ was the attendance of some celebrities.
A. on B. at C. of D. toward
Câu 10. ______________ depends on your gentle persuasion.
A. That he agreed to help you B. That he agrees to help you
C. Whether he agrees to help you D. Whether he agreed to help you
Câu 11. Once _____________off by the teacher, the class filed out of the room in silence.
A. being told B. have been told C. told D. having told
Câu 12. He was not at all interested in what was going on around him, but insisted _________back to his country on the
first sight.
A. to be sent B. on sending him C. to send him D. on being sent
Câu 13. Faraday made many in the field of physics and chemistry.
A. discover B. discoveries C. discovered D. discovering
Câu 14. In the second game, her opponent hurt her leg. Hence, that she became the champion was a/an ________
conclusion.
A. foregone B. rash C. amicable D. unpredictable
Câu 15. His poor standard of play fully justifies his __________from the team for the next match.
A. expulsion B. dismissal C. rejection D. exclusion
Câu 16. Tom his hand when he was cooking dinner.
A. burnt B. was burning C. has burnt D. had burnt
Câu 17. He never stops smoking; one cigarette after another. I’m afraid he’s become a __________smoker.
A. chain B. cord C. line D. rope
Câu 18. We regret that it is impossible to meet the ______date for the goods you recently ordered from us.
A. arrival B. delivery C. carriage D. transport
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the
following questions.
Câu 19. I can’t get on well with my boss because of his authoritative manner that at times is almost arrogant.
A. struck up- Bắt B. stuck up C. drunk up D. sprung up
Câu 20. Her passport seemed legitimate, but on closer inspection, it was found to have been altered.
A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
Câu 21. The schoolboy’s excuse wasn’t credible at all. Nobody in the classroom believed in the far-fetched story he told.
A. reliable B. predictable C. knowledgeable D. unbelievable
Câu 22. We have to work against the clock so as to meet the deadline of the clients tomorrow.
A. work in a haste B. work slowly C. work as fast as possible D. work strenuously
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The string family is the largest section of the orchestra. The four main stringed instruments look similar but are all
different sizes. Each can be played by plucking the strings with the fingers or with a bow, which is pulled (1) _______
across the instrument's four strings.
The VIOLIN is the smallest of the string instruments and can play the highest (2) ________. The violin often plays
the melody - this is the tune you will be humming after you leave a performance. The VIOLA is slightly larger than the
violin. Because it is bigger, it can play lower notes. (3) _______ the viola is only a little bit bigger than the violin, it can be
hard to tell them apart. The viola plays many beautiful melodies just like the violin.
The CELLO is (4) ________ the violin and the viola. It is so large that the cellist must sit on a chair holding the cello
between his or her knees in order to play. The cello often plays accompaniment parts.
Because it is the largest of the stringed instruments, the DOUBLE BASS plays the lowest notes. This instrument is so
large that the bass players have to stand up or sit on tall stools to play it. The bass often plays (5) ________ parts with the
cello.
Câu 23. (1) A. now and then B. back and forth C. again and again D. high and low
Câu 24. (2) A. notes B. noting C. notable D. noted
Câu 25. (3) A. Although B. However C. Whereas D. Since
Câu 26. (4) A. much larger than B. the largest between C. as large as D. the larger of
Câu 27. (5) A. companion B. companionship C. accompany D. accompaniment
questions.
Câu 28. From time immemorial, cities have been the central gathering places of human life, from where the great ideas
and movements of the world have sprouted.
A. memorial B. have been C. gathering D. from where
Câu 29. Daisy is on a diet, so she just usually has a sandwich for lunch.
A. on a diet B. so C. just usually has D. for lunch
Câu 30. This morning one customer phoned to complain that she still hadn't been received the book she had ordered
several weeks ago.
A. phoned to complain B. hadn't been C. had ordered D. several weeks ago
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
As customers choose brands based on how they make them feel, rather than their actual products or services, there is
an intrinsic advantage to those organizations who use designed experiences as a weapon to cut through the most
competitive of markets. Those that don’t, operate in what we call the “experience gap”, the space between them and their
customer’s expectation of them. Make no mistake, in our high paced and digitally connected economies, the experience gap
is driving markets, fast.
For example, take Instagram and Twitter. These brands filled the demand for a whole new human experience that did
not exist before the evolution of digital technologies enabled that. They were pioneers, and there were no established
players to unseat. But we are also seeing a similar dynamic in existing industries. New entrants are coming in and taking
the space, also using whole new experiences, purely because the incumbents left the door open.
Closer to home, this can be seen with Australian neobanks who are giving customers a better experience than the
incumbents. Robert Bell is the CEO at neobank 86400. He says banking has already become quite complicated and he
wanted to make a change. His neobank is working to solve customers problems more holistically. Bell said, “It’s
significantly harder work and takes more time to become a bank, but having done that we can have a much better
relationship with our customers and we can offer them a lot more products and services.”
Think about that for a moment. Do you notice how better experiences, leads to better relationships, which is then the
stepping stone for more offerings? Many brands still jump straight to modified offerings, without gaining that customer
connection and the necessary foundation of trust first.
(source: https://which-50.com/).
Câu 35. What does the phrase “stepping stone” in paragraph 4 mean?
A. An asset or possession prized as being the best of a group of similar things.
B. A person who travels without settling down for any significant period of time
C. An important clue to understanding something that is challenging or puzzling.
D. An action or event that helps one to make progress towards a specified goal.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
The Trump campaign ran on bringing jobs back to American shores, although mechanization has been the biggest
reason for manufacturing jobs’ disappearance. Similar losses have led to populist movements in several other countries. But
instead of a pro-job growth future, economists across the board predict further losses as AI, robotics, and other technologies
continue to be ushered in. What is up for debate is how quickly this is likely to occur.
Now, an expert at the Wharton School of Business at the University of Pennsylvania is ringing the alarm bells.
According to Art Bilger, venture capitalist and board member at the business school, all the developed nations on earth will
see job loss rates of up to 47% within the next 25 years, according to a recent Oxford study. “No government is prepared,”
The Economist reports. These include blue and white collar jobs. So far, the loss has been restricted to the blue collar
variety, particularly in manufacturing.
To combat “structural unemployment” and the terrible blow – ĐÒN GIÁNG, it is bound to deal the American people,
Bilger has formed a nonprofit called Working Nation, whose mission it is to warn the public and to help make plans to
safeguard them from this worrisome trend. Not only is the entire concept of employment about to change in a dramatic
fashion, the trend is irreversible. The venture capitalist called on corporations, academia, government, and nonprofits to
cooperate in modernizing our workforce.
To be clear, mechanization has always cost us jobs. The mechanical loom, for instance, put weavers out of business.
But it also created jobs. Mechanics had to keep the machines going, machinists had to make parts for them, and workers
had to attend to them, and so on. A lot of times those in one profession could pivot to another. At the beginning of the 20th
century, for instance, automobiles were putting blacksmiths out of business. Who needed horseshoes anymore? But they
soon became mechanics. And who was better suited?

Not so with this new trend. Unemployment today is significant in most developed nations and it’s only going to get
worse. By 2034, just a few decades, mid-level jobs will be by and large obsolete. So far the benefits have only gone to the
ultra-wealthy, the top 1%. This coming technological revolution is set to wipe out what looks to be the entire middle class.
Not only will computers be able to perform tasks more cheaply than people, they’ll be more efficient too.

Accountants, doctors, lawyers, teachers, bureaucrats, and financial analysts beware: your jobs are not safe. According to
The Economist, computers will be able to analyze and compare reams of data to make financial decisions or medical ones.
There will be less of a chance of fraud or misdiagnosis, and the process will be more efficient. Not only are these folks in
trouble, such a trend is likely to freeze salaries for those who remain employed, while income gaps only increase in size.
You can imagine what this will do to politics and social stability.
(Source: https://bigthink.com/)
Câu 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Many jobs will disappear in the future.
B. AI will replace the workers’ positions in almost jobs.
C. Manufacturing jobs are predicted to be the first ones to disappear.
D. Changing jobs is not a new trend in the future.
Câu 37. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that “blue and white collar jobs” are related to ____________.
A. people whose uniforms’ colors are blue and white.
B. people who are distinguished by the colors of their collars.
C. people who do physical work in industry and who work in an office.
D. people (mainly women) who do low-paid jobs, for example in offices and restaurants.
Câu 38. The word “irreversible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. impermanent B. remediable C. reparable D. unalterable
Câu 39. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about jobs in the future?
A. AI, robots and technologies continuously used will put more labourers out of their jobs.
B. Every country has applied many policies to prepare for the massive loss of jobs in the next 25 years.
C. Many different organizations are called to cooperate in renovating the workforce.
D. Working Nation is an organization founded to warn the public and make plans to save people from job loss.
Câu 40. According to paragraph 4, what is the advantage of mechanization?
A. Although mechanization drives people out of work, it also creates more jobs.
B. People can change their jobs to be more suitable with the society.
C. People will no longer need the useless like horseshoes.
D. Workers will spend less time on manufacturing with the help of machines.
Câu 41. The word “obsolete” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by __________.
A. outdated B. modern C. fashionable D. adventurous
Câu 42. What does the word “they” in paragraph 5 refer to?
A. people B. tasks C. computers D. the entire middle class
Câu 43. Why does the author mention in the last paragraph that accountants, doctors, lawyers, teachers, bureaucrats, and
financial analysts are not safe jobs?
A. Because they are easy to make mistakes or misdiagnosis in doing their jobs.
B. Because the salaries paid for these jobs may be frozen in the future.
C. Because computers are likely to analyze and process a great amount of data with high accuracy.
D. Because these jobs directly influence politics and social stability.
Câu 44. Jupiter is bigger than all the other planets in the solar system.
A. No other planets in the solar system is as big as Jupiter.
B. Jupiter is the biggest planet in the solar system.
C. All other planets in the solar system are not so big that Jupiter.
D. Among the planets in the solar system, Jupiter is the biggest of all.
Câu 45. My friend told me, "If I were you, I would not ask him for help."
A. My friend advised me not to ask him for help.
B. My friend told me to ask him for help.
C. My friend prohibited me from asking him for help.
D. My friend suggested not asking him for help.
Câu 46. I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Câu 47. Two students, Joe and James are chatting about time.
- Joe: "The weekend goes so quickly." - James: "I know. _______________”
A. I love watching TV all Saturdays and Sundays.
B. I can't believe that it's Monday tomorrow.
C. I have English lessons on Tuesdays and Fridays.
D. How about going out for a meal this weekend?
Câu 48. Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for
- Manager: “_________________”
- Claudia: "I work hard and I enjoy working with other people."
A. Can you do jobs on your own? B. Would you describe yourself as ambitious?
C. What are some of your main strengths? D. Why have you applied for this position?
questions.
Câu 49. We did not visit the museum because we had no time.
A. If we have time, we will visit the museum.
B. If we had time, we would visit the museum.
C. If we had had time, we would have visited the museum.
D. If we had had time, we will visit the museum.
Câu 50. As soon as I entered the room, I noticed her.

A. No sooner had I entered the room than I noticed her.
B. Hardly had I entered the room when I noticed her.
C. No sooner I had entered the room than I noticed her.
D. Both A and B are right
Practice 24
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1:A. intend B. medal C. compete D. defend
2:A. clothes B. bosses C. boxes D. couches
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3:A. solidarity B. effectively C. documentary D. dedication
\
Question 4: A. royal B. unique C. remote -2 D. extreme -2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 5: My purse at the station while I for the train.
A. must have been stolen/was waiting B. should have stolen/had been waiting
C. will be stolen/am waiting D. had to steal/would be waiting
Question 6: We should participate in Tree-Planting Campaigns our city greener, fresher.
A. organizing to make B. organized making
C. organized to make D. which organize to make
Question 7: Susan has achieved great in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. successfully. B. successful. C. succeed. D. success.
Question 8: ________I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it.

A. Because B. Only if C. Even though D. Provided that
Question 9: When are you leaving Singapore? This week or next week?
A. for B. in C. to D„ at
Question 10: He'd hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, ?
A. didn't he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he
Question 11: he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Not until had. B. No longer had C. Hardly had D. No sooner had
Question 12: My mother often our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and punishes us for
even the slightest one.
A. appreciates B. overlooks C. avoids D. enjoys
Question 13: Be sure to a real effort to answer all the questions the interviewer asks you.
A. hide B. set C. train D. make
Question 14: We were made hard when we were at school.

A. to study B. study C. studying D. studied
Question 15: Arranging flowers among my sister's hobbies.

A. were B. have been C. are D. is
Question 16: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are .
A. out of stock B. out of reach C. out of work D. out of practice
Question 17: Laura didn't enjoy her first year at college because she failed to her new friends.
A. come in for B. look down on C. go down with D. get on with
Question 18: If it had not rained last night, the roads in the city so slippery now.
A. must not be B. would not be C. could not have been D. would not
have been
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: We should find ways to improve our products in terms of quality and service.
A. for considering aspects B. in spite of C. with a view to D. in regard to
Question 20: We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn't have got our task done in time.
A. depreciate B. are proud of C. feel thankful for D. request
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Never punish your children by hitting them. This might teach them to become hitters.
A. bring B. reward C. give D. accept
Question 22: The first year at university was probably the most challenging year of her life, which
caused her plenty of troubles.
A. tricky B. tough C. difficult D. easy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: John's in Hanoi and wants to change some money. He asks the local passer-by the way to
the bank.
- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest bank, please?”
- Passer-by: “ .”
A. Not way, sorry B. Just round the corner over there
C. Look it up in a dictionary D. There's no traffic near here
Question 24: Rebecca's in a fashion store in Trang Tien Plaza.

- Rebecca: “How can this bag be so expensive?”
- The shop assistant: “ ”
A. Yes, it's the most expensive B. You're paying for the brand
C. What an expensive bag D. That's a good idea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Reasons to Not Hit Your Kids
The practice of hitting children teaches them to become hitters themselves. Extensive research data is now
available to support the direct correlation (25) corporal punishment in childhood and
violent behavior in the teenage and adult years. Virtually, all of the most dangerous criminals (26)
regularly threatened and punished in
childhood.
Punishment gives the message that "might make right," that it is okay to hurt someone smaller and less
powerful than you are. The child then feels it is appropriate to mistreat younger or smaller children, and
when he becomes an adult, feels little (27) for those less fortunate or powerful than he is,
and fears those who are more so. Thus it is difficult for him to find (28) friendships.
Children learn best through parental modeling. Punishment gives the message that hitting is an appropriate
way to express one's feelings and to solve problems. If the child rarely sees the parents handle anger and
solve problems in a creative and positive way, he can never learn how (29) that
himself. Thus inadequate parenting continues into the next generation.
(Adapted from "Reasons to Not Hit Your Kids" by Jan Hunt)
Question 25: A. among B. about C. between D. above
Question 26: A. were B. be C. could D. might
Question 27: A. jealousy B. compassion C. greediness D. appreciation
Question 28: A. meaningless B. meaning C. meaninglessly D. meaningful
Question 29: A. to do B. do C. doing D. done
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become
increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and
„life in the fast lane” have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But
according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart
attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of
the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking.
Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980s and have since discovered a
number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart-
stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence
of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M and 10 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal
that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately
preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their
married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk
factors, intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is
triggered.
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. cardiology in the 1980s B. risk factors in heart attacks
C. diet and stress as factors in heart attacks D. seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks
Question 31: In line 2, the word “potential” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. possible B. harmful C. primary D. unknown
Question 32:The phrase “susceptible to” could best be replaced by

A. aware of B. affected by C. prone to D. accustomed
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. having a birthday B. getting married C. eating fatty foods D. being under stress
Question 34: Which of the following does the passage infer?

A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.
D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
Social networks
Business applications
Social networks connect people at low cost; this can be beneficial for entrepreneurs and small businesses
looking to expand their contact base. These networks often act as a customer relationship management tool
for companies selling products and services. Companies can also use social networks for advertising in the
form of banners and text ads. Since businesses operate globally, social networks can make it easier to keep
in touch with contacts around the world.
Medical applications
Social networks are beginning to be adopted by healthcare professionals as a means to manage
institutional knowledge, disseminate peer to peer knowledge and to highlight individual physicians and
institutions. The advantage of using a dedicated medical social networking site is that all the members are
screened against the state licensing board list of practitioners. The role of social networks is especially of
interest to pharmaceutical companies who spend approximately “32 percent of their marketing dollars”
attempting to influence the opinion leaders of social networks.
Languages, nationalities and academia
Various social networking sites have sprung up catering to different languages and countries. The popular
site Facebook has been cloned for various countries and languages and some specializing in connecting
students and faculty.
Social networks for social good
Several websites are beginning to tap into the power of the social networking model for social good. Such
models may be highly successful for connecting otherwise fragmented industries and small organizations
without the resources to reach a broader audience with interested and passionate users. Users benefit by
interacting with a like-minded community and finding a channel for their energy and giving.
Business model
Few social networks currently charge money for membership. In part, this may be because social
networking is a relatively new service, and the value of using them has not been firmly established in
customers' minds. Companies such as MySpace and Facebook sell online advertising on their site. Hence,
they are seeking large memberships, and charging for membership would be counter productive. Some
believe that the deeper information that the sites have on each user will allow much better targeted
advertising than any other site can currently provide. Sites are also seeking other ways to make money, such
as by creating an online marketplace or by selling professional information and social connections to
businesses.
Privacy issues
On large social networking services, there have been growing concerns about users giving out too much
personal information and the threat of sexual predators. Users of these services need to be aware of data
theft or viruses. However, large services, such as MySpace, often work with law enforcement to try to
prevent such incidents. In addition, there is a perceived privacy threat in relation to placing too much
personal information in the hands of large corporations or governmental bodies, allowing a profile to be
produced on an individual's behavior on which decisions, detrimental to an individual, may be taken.
Investigations
Social network services are increasingly being used in legal and criminal investigations. Information
posted on sites such as MySpace and Facebook, has been used by police, probation, and university officials
to prosecute users of said sites. In some situations, content posted on MySpace has been used in court.
Question 35: According to the text, social networks

A. are about friendships B. are being used by businesses for marketing
C. can damage business reputations D. advertise on business web sites
Question 36: Why do advertisers like social network sites?

A. They are cost-effective to advertise on.
B. Detailed information on each user allows targeted ads.
C. Most users have high disposable income.
D. They can influence consumer behavior.
Question 37: What does the expression “sprung up” in the part Languages, nationalities and academia
mean?
A. The development of social networking is unplanned.
B. Everybody is trying to copy Facebook.
C. Social networking works in all languages.
D. There has been rapid development of social networking sites.
Question 38: What does the word “Few” at the beginning of the part Business model mean?
A. Not any B. Some C. Hardly any D. Only
Question 39: What should users not do on social networks?

A. download viruses B. be too free with their personal information
C. contact predators D. upload copyrighted music
Question 40: What does the word “deeper” in the part Business model mean?
A. more detailed B. more spiritual C. more profound D. more emphatic
Question 41: Personal information on social network sites

A. is sold to the government B. gives a good description of the user's personality
C. is translated into many languages D. can be used in court
Question 42: Social networking is great for

A. academic organizations
B. people writing too much information about themselves
C. groups of people separated over wide areas
D. the law enforcement agencies
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: I saw (A) the blind woman (B) crossed the busy road (C) without any (D) help.
Question 44: (A) A paragraph is a portion of a text (B) consistING of one or more (C) sentences related (D)
to the same idea.
Question 45: (A) DURING the campaign, young volunteers helped (B) build bridges, (C) roads and
houses for some of Viet Nam's most (D) disadvantaged families.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: It is much more difficult to speak English than to speak French.
A. To speak French is more difficult than to speak English.
B. To speak English is more difficult than to speak French.
C. Speaking English is more difficult than to speak French.
D. Speaking French is not as difficult as to speaking English.
Question 47: It was a mistake of you to lose your passport.

A. You shouldn't have lost your passport. B. There must be a mistake in your passport.
C. You needn't have brought your passport. D. Your passport must be lost.
Question 48: “Why don't you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.
A. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.
B. Peter advised John complaining to the company.
C. Peter threatened John to complain to the company.
D. Peter asked John why he doesn't complain to the company.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don't know about her great performance at the festival.
B. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn't know about her artistic talent now.
C. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, we know she has artistic talent.
D. Hardly had we know about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the festival
Question 50: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Practice 25
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: As the drug took…............................., the patient became quieter.
A. force B. influence C. effect D. action
Câu 2: George wouldn't have met Mary_____________to his brother's graduation party.
A. if he has not gone B. had not he gone C. had he not gone D. if he shouldn't have gone
Câu 3: Jim’s….............................flu again. That’s the third time this year.

A. put up with B. gone down with C. led up to D. come up with
Câu 4: Although he was…............................., he agreed to play tennis with me.

A. exhaustive B. exhausting C. exhausted D. exhaustion
Câu 5: An international menu a variety of food can attract most of the tourists.
A. offered B. offering C. which offer D. is offered
Câu 6: She____________on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.
A. was working B. has worked C. had been working D. has been working
Câu 7:..................................the weather forecast it will rain heavily later this morning.
A. According to B. Due to C. On account of D. Because of
Câu 8: Global warming will result…..............................crop failures and famine.

A. in B. of C. from D. to
Câu 9: “Never say that again,................................?”

A. don’t you B. will you C. do you D. won’t you
Câu 10: He promised his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.

A. to buying. B. buying. C. buy. D. to buy.
Câu 11: According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, .

A. the university will employ me B. my education will be employed by the university
C. I will be employed by the university D. employment will be given to me by the university
Câu 12: It seems that the thief took of the open window and got inside that way.
A. occasion B. chance C. opportunity D. advantage
Câu 13: There has been a widespread about whether North Korea has successfully miniaturized a nuclear
weapon and whether it has a working H-bomb.
A. gossip B. challenge C. doubt D. rumour
Câu 14:After a momentary _ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and
completed the test.
A. failure. B. lapse. C. fault. D. error.
Choose one word whose underlined that is pronounced differently. Identify your answer by circling the
corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
Câu 15: A. candidates B. caves C. methods D. novels
Câu 16: A. telephone -i - B. restaurant -e - C. interpreter -i D. perverted -i
Choose one word whose stress pattern is different. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A,
B, C or D.
Câu 17: A. affection B. personify C. generate D. encourage
Câu 18: A. possible B. holiday C. assistant D. colony
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Câu 19: Tom: “Why didn’t you pay the telephone bill?” Lucy: “ .”
A. Well, it’s too thick B. Thank you for all that C. Yes, it was true D. I did
Câu 20: “Would you mind turning down your stereo?” - “ .”

A. Yes, I do B. I’m really sorry! I’m not paying attention
C. No, I don’t D. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Câu 21: Viet Nam Airlines regrets informing passengers that flight VN 251 to Hanoi is postponed due to
bad weather.
A. postponed B. that C. informing D. due to
Câu 22: My grandfather used to say that leaving the past behind was the best way to come over sorrow.
A. leaving the past B. come C. used to say D. the best way
Câu 23: The train to Ho Chi Minh city left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to Ha Noi capital
left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. exactly B. as usually C. which D. precisely
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 24: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation
exam.
A. wear a backpack B. check up your back C. criticize yourself D. praise yourself
Câu 25: Psychologists encourage their patient not to get upset about trivial matters.
A. expectant B. important C. minor D. unnecessary
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Câu 26: Once in a while, I visit my grandparents on the farm and stay there for some days.
A. Rarely B. Regularly C. Usually D. Sometimes
Câu 27: The team wasn’t playing well, so the coach took the bull by the horns and sacked several senior
players.
A. made the right decision B. made a bold decision
C. made a final decision D. made the wrong decision
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Câu 28: But for two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.
A. If I didn‘t make two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.
B. I would have got full marks for the test if there hadn‘t been these two minor mistakes
C. Had I made two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.
D. If the mistakes hadn‘t been minor, I could have got full marks for the test.
Câu 29: As soon as he approached the house, the policeman stopped him.
A. No sooner had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him.
B. Hardly had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him.
C. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him.
D. Hardly he had approached the house when the policeman stopped him.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Câu 30: No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.
A. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.
B. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.
C. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.
D. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
Câu 31: Peter said “I wish I hadn’t lent him some money.”
A. Peter regretted lending him some money. B. Peter thanked him for lending him some
money.
C. Peter wished not to lend him some money. D. Peter suggested not lending him some money.
Câu 32: As he gets older, he wants to travel less.

A. The more old age he gets, the less he wants to travel.
B. The less he wants to travel, the older he gets.
C. As soon as he wants to travel, he gets older.
D. The older he gets, the less he wants to travel.
Read the following text then answer the questions that followed by circling its corresponding letter
marked A, B, C or D from 33 to 37.
How can a person offend people just because they cross their legs? In Thailand, it is rude for a person to
show other people the bottom of their feet. This is considered unclean, and Thais can (33) …………..
serious offense at it. Another thing people do in the West is to touch people on the head especially
children. It is very normal to see an old woman walking up to a young boy and (34)......................................his hair
tenderly while saying what a handsome young man he is.
In Thailand, touching a person’s head is strictly taboo because that is the (35) …………… part of the
body, and it is where the (36).......................................is thought to reside in a person. Although very
close family members might touch a child on the head, even this is considered rude after a child grows up.
In the Middle East and some parts of Asia, the left hand is used to wash oneself after using a toilet. (37)
………….., the left hand can never offered to another person or used to eat with. Food must always be
passed with the right hand, and it is considered polite to always use the right hand for social interactions.
Câu 33: A. give B. commit C. take D. cause
Câu 34: A. do B. tidy up C. mess up D. spoil
Câu 35: A. tallest B. most distant C. highest D. most remote
Câu 36: A. brain B. personality C. quality D. soul
Câu 37: A. But B. However C. Therefore D. Moreover
Sometimes you know things about people the first time you see them, for example, that you want to be
friends with them or that you don’t trust them. But perhaps this kind of intuition isn’t as hard to explain as it
may seem. For instance, people give out their body language signals all the time. The way you hold your
body, head and arms tells people about your mood. If you hold your arms tightly at your sides, or fold them
across your chest, people will generally feel that you are being defensive. Holding your head to one side
shows interest in the other, while an easy, open posture indicates that you are self- confident. All this affects
the way you feel about someone.
Also, a stranger may remind you of a meeting with someone. This may be because of something as simple
as the fact that he or she is physically similar to someone who treated you well or badly. Your feelings about
a stranger could be influenced by a smell in the air that brings to mind a place where you were happy as a
child. Since even a single word can bring back a memory such as that, you may never realize it is
happening.
Câu 38: What does the word “open” in the passage most closely mean?
A. unlimited B. enlarged C. relaxed D. not shut
Câu 39: What influences your impression of a person you meet in the first time?
A. familiarity B. intuition C. feeling D. knowledge
Câu 40: What one feels about a stranger may be influenced by something that .
A. revives one’s past memories B. points to one’s childhood
C. strengthen one’s past behaviors D. reminds one of one’s past treatment
Câu 41: What does the second paragraph discuss?

A. Meaning of signals one implies toward a stranger
B. Factors that cause people to act differently
C. How people usually behave to a stranger
D. Factors that may influence one’s feeling about a stranger
Câu 42: Intuition described in the passage can be explained by means of .

A. signals B. languages C. behaviors D. styles
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s
inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend
that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the
desert has not a limited life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist
skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North
American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-
footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled
with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere
environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the world. The secret of their adjustment lies
in the combination of behavior and physiology.
None could survive, like mad dogs and Englishmen, if they went out in the midday sun, many would die in
a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the
ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees,
but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Câu 43: The title for this passage could be .

A. “Desert Plants” B. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
C. “Life Underground” D. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”
Câu 44: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means .

A. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants”
B. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants”
C. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants”
D. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist in their own”
E.
Câu 45: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as .
A. very few large animals are found in the desert
B. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
D. water is an essential part of his existence
Câu 46: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the followings EXCEPT .
A. moist-skinned animals B. the coyote and the bobcat
C. water-loving animals D. many large animals
Câu 47: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT
.
A. they are noisy and aggressive B. they dig home underground
C. they sleep during the day D. they are watchful and quiet
Câu 48: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means .

A. “thin and weak because of lack of food and water”
B. “living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm”
C. “large and strong, difficult to control or deal with”
D. “able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating”
Câu 49: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that .
A. they live in an accommodating environment
B. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees
C. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
D. they are less healthy than animals living in other places
Câu 50: We can infer from the passage that .

A. living things adjust to their environment B. desert life is colorful and diverse
C. water is the basis of desert life D. healthy animals live longer lives
Practice 26
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thanked B. belonged C. cooked D. laughed
Question 2: A. sour B. hour C. pour D. flour
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. verbal B. signal C. common D. attract
Question 4: A. academic B. inorganic C. understanding D. uncertainty
Question 5: Everyone thinks that the concert last night was extremely successful, ?
A. don’t they B. doesn’t he C.was it D. wasn’t it
Question 6: If _______, that tree would look more impressive

A. it is done carefully B. being done careful
C. it were careful done D. it were done carefully
Question 7: By the year 2060, many people currently employed _______the job.
A. have lost B. will be losing C. will have lost D. are losing
Question 8: Nam is motivated to study _______he knows that a good education can improve his life.
A. so that B. therefore C. so D. because
Question 9: We should make full use _______the Internet as it is an endless source of information
A. of B. in C. with D. from
Question 10: A telephone is a machine .... for the purpose of talking to another person.
A. design B. designer C. designed D. designs.
Question 11: _______, she received a big applause.

A. Once finishing her lecture B. Speaking has finished
C. After she finishes speaking D. When the speaker finished
Question 12: The new students hope _______ in many of the school’s social activities.
A. including B. being included C. to include D. to be included
Question 13: On Christmas Eve children go to bed full excitement.
A. of B. with C. up D. in
Question 14: It’s important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems
and_______ some solutions to those in Viet Nam.
A. think B. advise C. expect D. propose
Question 15: Since he failed his exam, he had to_______for it again
A. pass B. make C. take EXAM = D. sit FOR
Question 16: Tim’s encouraging words gave me_______to undertake the task once again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target
Question 17: I've just spent two weeks looking ________an aunt of mine who's been ill.
A. at B. for c. out for D. after
Question 18: You should start revising for your exam as soon as possible. Any delay will result in
_______time being lost.
A. invaluable – VÔ GIÁ B. vital C. priceless- KO CÓ GIÁ TRỊ
D. conclusive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 19: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools
A. depended B. paid C. required D. divided
Question 20: My sister said that the journey by sea was long and boring. However, I found it very
interesting.
A. route B. flight C. excursion D. voyage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Mark was a reckless driver. He had been fined for speeding and had his licence suspended for
3 months.
A. dangerous B. cautious C. patient D. considerate
Question 22: Now, when so many frogs were killed, there were more and more insects.
A. lesser and lesser B. fewer and fewer C. lesser and fewer D. less and less
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Jack is talking to Mary about watching TV.
- Jack: _______?
- Mary: Not now, but I used to.
A. Do you watch TV very often B. Won’t you have some tea
C. Are you going to bed D. Did you enjoy it
Question 24: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the
way to the post-office.
- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?”
- Passer-by: “_______”
A. No way! I hate him. B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
The warming of the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power (25)
_______. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or allows the
sunshine in but stop the Earth heat (26) _______getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s why we call (27)
_______the Green House effect.
Because of this effect, the Earth is getting warmer at the time. This (28) _______in temperature will cause
big changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (29) _ ______the poles will melt.
Question 25: A. companies B. factories C. sites D. stations

Question 26: A. from B. up C. against D. away
Question 27: A. is B. be C. it D. them
Question 28: A. raise B. rise C. drop D. fall
Question 29: A. covering B. covers C. covered D. cover
In today's competitive world, what responsible parents would not want to give their children the best
possible start in life? For this reason, many parents want their children, often as young as ten months old, to
become familiar with computers. They seem to think that if their children grow up with computers, they will
be better equipped to face the challenges of the future.
No one has proved that computers make children more creative or more intelligent. The truth may even be
the opposite. Educational psychologists claim that too much exposure to computers, especially for the very
young, may negatively affect normal brain development. Children gain valuable experience of the world from
their interaction with physical objects. Ten- month-old babies may benefit more from bumping their heads or
putting various objects in their mouths than they will from staring at eye-catching cartoons. A four-year-old
child can improve hand-eye coordination and understand cause and effect better by experimenting with a
crayon than by moving a cursor around a computer screen. So, as educational psychologists suggest, instead
of government funding going to more and more computer classes, it might be better to devote resources to
music and art programs.
It is ludicrous to think that children will fall behind if they are not exposed to computers from an early age.
Time is too precious to spend with a "mouse". Now is the time when they should be out there learning to ride
a bike. There will be time later on for them to start banging away at keyboards.
Question 34: The word "ludicrous" paragraph 3 mostly means __________.

A. ridiculous B. humorous C. ironic D. sensible
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech.
A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings
have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been
talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today
there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to
write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal
human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In
the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who
speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of
those skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing
has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have.
Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized
Question 35: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because __________.
A. writing is secondary to language
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. it has become very important in our culture
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings
Question 36: The author of the passage argues that ________.
A. speech is more basic to language than writing
B. writing has become too important in today’s society
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
D. all languages should have a written form
Question 37: According to the passage, writing ________.
A. is represented perfectly by speech B. represents-speech, but not perfectly
C. developed from imperfect speech D. is imperfect, but less so than speech
Question 38: Normal human beings
A. learn to talk after learning to write B. learn to write before learning to talk
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time D. learn to talk before learning to write
Question 39: Learning to write is __________.
A. easy B. quick C. not easy D. very easy
Question 40: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of
__________.
A. people who learn the rudiments of speech
B. severely handicapped children
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write
D. people who speak many languages
Question 41: In the author’s judgment __________.
A. writing has more advantages than speech
B. writing is more real than speech
C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
Question 42: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means
A. “rudiments” B. “skill” C. “domination” D. “benefit”
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The Smiths travel rarely to the United States by plane.
A B C D
Question 44: Facebook. com’s server IP address could not find in Google Chrome browser
A B
because of the error of Internet connection.
C D
Question 45: Whenever my close friend has some troubles solving the thorny problems, I am
A B C
willing to give him an arm.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 46: If you practise harder, you will have better results.
A. The harder you practise, the best results vou will have.
B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
C. The hardest you practise, the most results vou will have.
D. The harder you practise, the better results vou will have.
Question 47: “John left here an hour ago,” said Jane.

A. Jane told me that John had left there an hour before.
B. Jane said John left there an hour before.
C. Jane told John to have left there an hour before.
D. Jane told me that John to leave there an hour before.
Question 48: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship
B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb
C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb
D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: . John is fat because he eats so many chips.
A. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat.
B. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat.
C. John is fat though he eats so many chips.
D. being fat, John eats so many chips
Question 50: Just after the play started there was a power failure.
A. No earlier had the play started than there was a power failure.
B. Hardly did the play start then there was a power failure.
C. No sooner did the play start before there was a power failure.
D. Hardly had the play started when there was a power failure.
Practice 27
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. inform B. situation C. dialogue D. signal
Question 2. A. campaigns B.wonders C.ecologists D.captions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. recently B. attitude C. octopus D. proposal
Question 4. A. visible B. solution C. surrounding D. arrival
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. John proposed _________ Mary on a fine day at the crowded beach in their hometown.
A. to B. of C. on D. with
Question 6. Candidates should never be late for the interview, .

A.should they B.shouldn’t they C.are they D. aren’t they
Question 7. _________ the light rain, the match will not be cancelled unless the other team concedes.
A. Despite B. However C. In spite D. Although
Question 8. Valentine’sDay, from Roman, is now celebrated all over the world.
A.originate B. originating C.to originate D. originated
Question 9. Governments should _________ some international laws against terrorism.

A. bring up B. bring about C. bring in D. bring back
Question 10. I’m sure you’ll have no _________ the exam.

A. difficulty passing B. difficulties to pass
C. difficulty to pass D. difficulties of passing
Question 11. If it had not rained last night, the roads in the city so slippery now.
A. would not be B. must not be C. could not have been D. would not have been
Question 12. Sometimes in a bad situation, there may still be some good things. Try not to “throw out the _________
with the bathwater”.
A. fish B. duck C. baby D. child
Question 13. __________, we tried our best to finish it.
A. Difficult as = though the homework was B. Thanks to the difficult homework
C. As though the homework was difficult D. Despite the homework was difficult
Question 14. By the time Brown's daughter graduates, retired.

A. he'll have B. he C. he'll being D. he has
Question 15. In my family, my father always takes charge of doing the lifting.
A. strong B. hard C. heavy D. huge
Question 16. Traditionally, it was family members within the extended family who took _______ for
elderly care.
A. advantages B.care C.responsibility D.time
Question 17. Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as __________ as possible.

A. economical B. economically C. uneconomically D. beautifully
Question 18. Luckily, I got some _______ advice on how to make a presentation on 'For a better
community' from my classteacher.
A.useless B.useful C.usefulness D.uselessness
Question 19. Emissions from factories and exhaust fumes from vehicles can have detrimental effects on our health.
A. beneficial B. neutral C. needy D. harmful
Question 20. I just want to stay at home to watch TV and take it easy.
A. sleep B. sit down C. eat D. relax
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 21. Mutualism is a type of symbiosis that occurs when two unlike organisms live together in a state that is
mutually beneficial.
A. alike B. likely C. similar D. dislike
Question 22. Tom may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking wine.
A. get into trouble B. stay safe C. fall into disuse D. keep calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 23. Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
- Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”
- Professor: “___________”
A. I like it that you understand. B. Try your best, Mary.
C. You can borrow books from the library. D. You mean the podcasts from other students?
Question 24. - Hoa: “Would you mind closing the door?”

- Hung: “______________.”
A. Yes, of course. Are you tired? B. No, not at all. I’ll do it now
C. Yes, I do. You can close it. D. Don’t worry. Go ahead!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process: You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two-way (25) __________
depends on having a coding system that is understood by both sender and (26) __________ , and an agreed convention
about signaling the beginning and end of the message. In speech, the coding system is the language like English or
Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to mention. In fact, the signals (27)
__________ in conversation and meetings are often (28) __________ . For example, lowering the pitch of the voice may
mean the end of a sentence, a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire to interrupt, catching the chairman’s eye may
indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a debate, a clenched fist may indicate anger. When (29) __________
visual signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed.
Question 25. A. exchange B. interchange C. communication D. correspondence
Question 26. A. announcer B. receiver C. messenger D. transmitter
Question 27. A. that people use B. are used C. using D. being used
Question 28. A. informal B. non-verbal C. verbal D. formal
Question 29. A. their B. these C. this D. that
answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
The first birds appeared during late Jurassic times. These birds are known from four very good skeletons, two
incomplete skeletons, and an isolated feather, all from the Solnhofen limestone of Bavaria, Germany. This fine-grained
rock, which is extensively quarried for lithographic stone, was evidently deposited in a shallow coral lagoon of a tropical
sea, and flying vertebrates occasionally fell into the water and were buried by the fine limy mud, to be preserved with
remarkable detail. In this way, the late Jurassic bird skeletons, which have been named Archaeopteryx, were fossilized.
And not only were the bones preserved in these skeletons, but so also were imprints of the feathers. If the indications of
feathers had not been preserved in association with Archaeopteryx, it is likely that these fossils would have been
classified among the dinosaurs, for they show numerous theropod characteristics. Archaeopteryx were animals about the
size of a crow, with an archeosaurian type of skull, a long neck, a compact body balanced on a pair of strong hind limbs,
and a long tail. The forelimbs were enlarged and obviously functioned as wings.
Modem birds, who are the descendants of these early birds, are highly organized animals, with a constant body
temperature and a very high rate of metabolism. In addition, they are remarkable for having evolved extraordinarily
complex behavior patterns such as those of nesting and song, and the habit among many species of making long
migrations from one continent to another and back each year.
Most birds also have very strong legs, which allows them to run or walk on the ground as well as to fly in the air.
Indeed, some of the waterbirds, such as ducks and geese, have the distinction of being able to move around proficiently
in the water, on land, and in the air, a range in natural locomotor ability that has never been attained by any other
vertebrate.
Question 30. According to the author, all of the following evidence relating to the first birds was found EXCEPT
__________.
A. nesting materials B. four skeletons in good condition
C. two fragmented skeletons D. a single feather
Question 31. It can be inferred from the passage that the Archaeopteryx were classified as birds on the basis
of__________.
A. imprints of bones B. imprints of feathers
C. the neck structure D. skeletons
Question 32. The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to__________.
A. indications B. fossils C. dinosaurs D. characteristics
Question 33. The author mentions all of the following as examples of complex behavior patterns evolved by birds
EXCEPT__________.
A. migrating B. nesting C. singing D. running
Question 34. The word “attained” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. required B. achieved C. observed D. merited
In the North American colonies, red ware, a simple pottery fired at low temperatures, and
stone ware, a strong, impervious grey pottery fired at high temperatures, were produced from
two different native clays. These kinds of pottery were produced to supplement imported
European pottery. When the American Revolution (1775-1783) interrupted the flow of the
superior European ware, there was incentive for American potters to replace the imports with
comparable domestic goods. Stoneware, which had been simple utilitarian kitchenware, grew
increasingly ornate throughout the nineteenth century, and in addition to the earlier scratched
and drawn designs, three-dimensional molded relief decoration became popular.
Representational motifs largely replaced the earlier abstract decorations. Birds and flowers
were particularly evident, but other subjects - lions, flags, and clipper ships - are found. Some
figurines, mainly of dogs and lions, were made in this medium. Sometimes a name, usually
that of the potter, was die-stamped onto a piece.
As more and more large kilns were built to create the high-fired stoneware, experiments
revealed that the same clay used to produce low-fired red ware could produce a stronger, paler
pottery if fired at a hotter temperature. The result was yellow ware, used largely for serviceable
items; but a further development was Rockingham ware - one of the most important American
ceramics of the nineteenth century. (The name of the ware was probably derived from its
resemblance to English brown-glazed earthenware made in South Yorkshire.) It was created
by adding a brown glaze to the fired clay, usually giving the finished product a mottled
appearance. Various methods of spattering or sponging the glaze onto the ware account for the
extremely wide variations in color and add to the interest of collecting Rockingham. An
advanced form of Rockingham was flint enamel, created by dusting metallic powders onto the
Rockingham glaze to produce brilliant varicolored streaks.
Articles for nearly every household activity and ornament could be bought in Rockingham
ware: dishes and bowls, of course; also bedpans, foot warmers, cuspidors, lamp bases,
doorknobs, molds, picture frames, even curtain tiebacks. All these items are highly collectible
today and are eagerly sought. A few Rockingham specialties command particular affection
among collectors and correspondingly high prices.
Question 35. The word “ornate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. elaborate B. puzzling C. durable D. common
Question 36. The passage suggests that the earliest stoneware ____________.
A. was decorated with simple, abstract designs B. used three-dimensional decorations
C. was valued for its fancy decorations D. had no decoration
Question 37. How did yellow ware achieve its distinctive color?
A. By sponging on a glaze B. By dusting on metallic powders
C. By brown-glazing D. By firing at a high temperature
Question 38. The phrase “derived from” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. ruined by B. warned against C. based on D. sold by
Question 39. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

A. red ware B. yellow ware
C. Rockingham ware D. English brown-glazed earthenware
Question 40. The phrase “account for” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. explain B. restrict C. finance D. supplement
Question 41. What was special about flint enamel?

A. Its even metallic shine B. Its mottled appearance
C. Its spattered effect D. Its varicolored streaks
Question 42. Which of the following kinds of Rockingham ware were probably produced in the greatest quantity?
A. Picture frames B. Dishes and bowls C. Curtain debacles D. Doorknobs
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) It is a good idea (B) to be careful in (C) buying or purchasing magazines from salespersons (D) who
may come to your door.
Question 44. The (A) better you (B) are at English, (C) more opportunities you have to get (D) a well-paid job in this
country.
Question 45. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be (A) elected president of the university, (B) is intelligent, capable
and (C) awareness of the problem (D) to be solved.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
Question 46. Bill’s English is much better than it was.
A. Bill speaks English better now than he did before.
B. Bill has started to learn English but doesn’t speak it well
C. Bill has always spoken good English.
D. Bill’s English was much better than it is now.
Question 47. My car keys are possibly in the kitchen.

A. My car keys should be put in the kitchen B. My car keys cannot be in the kitchen
C. I don’t know whether my car keys are in the kitchen. D. My car keys might be in the kitchen
Question 48. “Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.
A. Adam advised Gavin to cut hishair.
B. Gavin was suggested to have ahaircut.
C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin’s haircut.
D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his haircut.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Question 50: The plane had taken off. Paul realized he was on the wrong flight.
A. Hardly had Paul realized he was on the wrong flight when the plane tookoff.
B. It was not until the plane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrongflight.
C. Not until the plane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrongflight.
D. No sooner had the plane taken off than Paul had realized he was on the wrongflight.
Practice 28
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1. A. massage B. carriage C. voyage D. dosage
Question 2. A. cookers B. lovers C. doctors D. cooks
Question 3. A. completion B. understand C. material D. behavior
Question 4. A. studious B. century C. similar D. semester
questions.
Question 5. We all seem to have a different opinion, so let’s Joey decide, ?
A.shall we B.do we C.are we D. will we
Question 6. David refused ___________ in the contest because he was ill.

A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. to participating
Question 7. advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the job.
A. Had he been B. If he had C. Unless he had been D. Were he to be
Question 8. He managed to win the race ___________ hurting his foot before the race.
A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of
Question 9. You should be a little more ___________ if you want to attract their attention.
A. imaginative B. imagine C. imagination D. imaginatively
Question 10. Airplanes _______ in the twentieth century is one of the sources of pollution.
A. which invented B. to invent C. invented D. that is invented
Question 11. I'm terrified breaking down on a motorway at night.

A. from B. with C. for D. of
Question 12. If your invitations are met with repeated ___________ , you should just leave him alone.
A. hypotheses B. negatives C. blunts D. rebuffs
Question 13. She left her husband after a ___________ row. – cãi nhau
A. burning B. heavy C. crashing D. blazing
Question 14. I can't go with you because I _______ my homework yet.

A. haven't finished B. had finished C. finished D. finish
Question 15. My father is very talented and kind-hearted. I always ___________ him.
A. look for B. look like C. look after D. look up to
Question 16. I have st at my ___________ before attending the meeting.

A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers
Question 17. I decided to go to the library as soon as I .

A. would finish what I did B. finished what I did
C. finished what I was doing D. finish what I did
Question 18. I have been looking for this book for months, and ___________ I have found it.
A. in the end B. in time C. at the end D. at present
Question 19. My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it.
A. paid nothing B. turned a deaf ear
C. was offered D. paid much more than usual
Question 20. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
Question 21. There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.
A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant
Question 22. She had never seen such discourtesy towards the director as it happened in the meeting last week.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 23. - Hoa: “Have you been able to reach Nam?”
- Lan: “ ___________ .”
A. That’s no approval B. Yes, I’ve known him for years
C. No, the line is busy D. It’s much too high
Question 24. - Tom: “Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.”

- Mary: “ ___________ ”
A. I have nothing to tell you. B. Oh. Poor me!
C. Never mind! D. You was absent-minded
Starting a data entry business is easier than trying to work from job to job. Having a business means (25)__________
people will come to your business whenever they need a service you (26)__________ . In other words, instead of having
to always (27)__________ for jobs on websites, you will be able to have clients come to you as needed. One important
thing to (28)__________ when starting a data entry business is that customer service is really important.
It’s hard to get anywhere in the data entry field if you don’t provide your customers with all the services they need. It’s
important that you take your time to really care for your customers completely. Once you are ready to start your data
entry business it’s time to start building a great team. You want to have a team that can do a (29)__________ range of
tasks so that your business can fill customer’s needs. You want to always test your team before giving them the task of
working with a client.
Question 25. A. when B. if C. that D. what
Question 26. A. bid B. advance C. refuse D. offer
Question 27. A. assign B. apply C. appeal D. demand
Question 28. A. forgive B. remember C. discount D. fail
Question 29. A. narrow B. open C. wide D. restricted
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is
harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful
and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the
individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than
a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if
you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other
problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most
common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these
allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months.
Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine,
monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream,
red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read
the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly
B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and
foods high in salicylates from their diets.
Question 30. The topic of this passage is ______________.
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
Question 31. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ______________
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 32. The phrase “set off” is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
Question 33. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 34. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with
the infant’s ______________.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods
We are descendants of the ice age. Periods of glaciation have spanned the whole of human existence for the past 2
million years. The rapid melting of the continental glaciers at the end of the last ice age spurred one of the most dramatic
climate changes in the history of the planet. During this interglacial time, people were caught up in a cataclysm of human
accomplishment, including the development of agriculture and animal husbandry. Over the past few thousand years, the
Earth’s climate has been extraordinarily beneficial, and humans have prospered exceedingly well under a benign
atmosphere.
Ice ages have dramatically affected life on Earth almost from the very beginning. It is even possible that life itself
significantly changed the climate. All living organisms pull carbon dioxide out of the atmosphere and eventually store it
in sedimentary rocks within the Earth’s crust. If too much carbon dioxide is lost, too much heat escapes out into the
atmosphere. This can cause the Earth to cool enough for glacial ice to spread across the land.
In general the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has been equalized by the input of carbon
dioxide from such events as volcanic eruptions. Man, however, is upsetting the equation by burning fossil fuels and
destroying tropical rain forests, both of which release stored carbon dioxide. This energizes the greenhouse effect and
causes the Earth to warm. If the warming is significant enough, the polar ice caps eventually melt.
The polar ice caps drive the atmospheric and oceanic circulation systems. Should the ice caps melt, warm tropical
waters could circle the globe and make this a very warm, inhospitable planet.
Over the past century, the global sea level has apparently risen upwards of 6 inches, mainly because of the melting of
glacial ice. If present warming trends continue, the seas could rise as much as 6 feet by the next century. This could flood
coastal cities and fertile river deltas, where half the human population lives. Delicate wetlands, where many marine
species breed, also would be reclaimed by the sea. In addition, more frequent and severe storms would batter coastal
areas, adding to the disaster of the higher seas.
The continued melting of the great ice sheets in polar regions could cause massive amounts of ice to crash into the
ocean. This would further raise the sea level and release more ice, which could more than double the area of sea ice and
increase correspondingly the amount of sunlight reflected back into space. The cycle would then be complete as this
could cause global temperatures to drop enough to initiate another ice age.
Question 35. According to the passage, carbon dioxide is stored in each of the following EXCEPT __________.
A. polar ice caps B. sedimentary rocks C. rain forests D. fossil fuel
Question 36. Which of the following does the author NOT mention as a consequence of a large rise in global sea level?
A. the destruction of wetlands B. the flooding of cities
C. a more diverse marine population D. severe storms
Question 37. According to the passage, what is the relationship between carbon dioxide and the Earth’s climate?
A. Carbon dioxide, which is trapped in glacial ice, is released when warm temperatures cause the ice melt.
B. The greenhouse effect, which leads to the warming of the climate, is result of too much carbon stored in the
Earth’s crust.
C. Rain causes carbon dioxide to be washed out of the atmosphere and into the ocean.
D. An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide results in the warming of the climate.
Question 38. The word “beneficial” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. calm B. inviting C. thoughtful D. favorable
Question 39. It can be inferred from the passage that the development of agriculture __________.
A. preceded the development of animal husbandry. B. withstood vast changes in the Earth’s climate.
C. did not take place during an ice age. D. was unaffected by the greenhouse effect.
Question 40. The word “this” in the third paragraph refers to __________.
A. man’s upsetting the equation B. the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide.
C. a volcanic eruption D. the melting of the polar ice caps
Question 41. The word “inhospitable” is closest in meaning to __________.
A. imperfect. B. uninhabitable. C. unlikable D. cruel.
Question 42. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The possibility that the polar ice caps will melt
B. The coming of another ice age
C. Man’s effect on the carbon dioxide level in the atmosphere
D. The climate of the Earth over the years
Question 43. We have conducted (A) exhaustive research (B) into the effects of smartphones on students’ (C)
behaviour and their (D) academic performance.
Question 44. Do you (A) ever feel (B) that life is not being fair to you (C) because you cannot seem to get the job (D)
where you want or that really suits you?
Question 45. Mrs. Steven, (A) along with her cousins (B) from New Mexico, (C) are planning (D) to attend the
festivities.
Question 46. I had no sooner got to know my neighbors than they moved away.
A. Soon after I got to know my new neighbors, I stopped having contact with them.
B. If my new neighbors had stayed longer, I would have got to know them better.
C. Once I had got used to my new neighbors, they moved somewhere else.
D. Hardly had I become acquainted with my new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live.
Question 47. “You’re always making terrible mistakes.” said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Question 48. A: John passed his exam with a distinction. B: ______________________

A. He was too lazy to succeed B. He can't have studied very hard
C. He must have studied very hard D. He needs studying harder
Question 49. Tom snored all night. I didn’t sleep a wink.
A. I didn’t sleep a wink, which made Tom snore all night.
B. Tom snored all night as a result of my sleeplessness.
C. What with Tom snoring all night, I didn’t sleep a wink.
D. What made Tom snore all night was my sleeplessness.
Question 50. A simplified edition is easier to read than the original. It is shorter.
A. A simplified edition which is shorter than the original is easier to read.
B. A simplified edition who is shorter than the original is easier to read.
C. A simplified edition is easier to read than the original which is shorter.
D. A simplified edition is easier to read than the original that is shorter.
Practice 29
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1. learns B. keeps C. cares D. trains
Question 2. A. armchair B. kitchen C. catch D. anchor
Question 3. A. academic B. inorganic C. understanding D. uncertainty
Question 4. A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual
questions.
Question 5. Modern skyscrapers have got a steel skeleton of beams and columns that forms a three-
dimensional grid, ?
A. do they B. do it C. does it D. haven’t they
Question 6. If Jim hadn’t tried to kill that millionaire, he _________ in prison today.
A. wouldn’t have been B. hadn’t been C. won’t be D. wouldn’t be

Question 7. Henry _______ into the restaurant when some his friends were having dinner.
A. went B. was going C. has gone D. goes
Question 8. __________ his good work and manners, he didn’t get a promotion.
A. Because of B. In spite of C. Even though D. As a result of
Question 9. Can you tell me who is responsible __________ checking passports?

A. to B. in C. for D. about
Question 10. Ace Supplies, a Paris-based firm ------- in office supplies, announced its plan to relocate its
A. is specializing B. specializes C. specialize D. specializing
Question 11. I gave the waitress a $50 note and waited for my __________ .
A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost
Question 12. Faraday was an_________in Davy's laboratory.

A. assistance B. assist C. assistant D. assisted
Question 13. My parents are really satisfied with .

A. what I have done B. what I had done
C. have done D. what have I done
Question 14. Do you want to stop in this town, or shall we ?

A. turn on B. turn off C. go on D. look after
Question 15. Lenses, __________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.

A. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses
B. in the form of glasses and contact lenses
C. glasses and contact lenses which form
D. glasses and contact lenses may be formed
Question 16. My grandmother __________ her whole life to looking after her children.
A. pays B. uses C. spends D. devotes
Question 17. Making mistakes is all __________ of growing up.

A. bits and bobs B. chalk and cheese C. part and parcel D. from top to bottom
Question 18. Our new classmate, John is a bit of a rough __________ but I think I’m going to like
him once I get used to him.
A. stone B. rock C. diamond D. pearl
Question 19. Each year about fifty hundred species of plants and animals are already being eliminated.
A. dropped B. removed C. kicked D. tossed
Question 20. It is such a prestigious university that only good students are entitled to a full scholarship each year.
A. have the right to refuse B. are given the right to
C. are refused the right to D. have the obligation to
Question 21. My grandfather is becoming absent-minded. He often forgets things or does not pay attention to what is
happening near him.
A. retentive B. forgetful C. old-fashioned D. easy-going
Question 22. The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.
A. constant B. changeable C. objective D. ignorant
Question 23. - Nam: “Would you like to join us for dinner after work?”
- Lan: “_______________”
A. Thanks. You can cook dinner.
B. I’d love to, but I have to finish my presentation for tomorrow.
C. Thanks for your help, but I can cook dinner myself.
D. What’s wrong with you?
Question 24. - Peter : “My father’s much better now.”

- Tom : “_________________”
A. Oh, I’m pleased to hear it. B. Oh, really? The doctor must be very famous.
C. Good news for you. D. Wonderful. Congratulations!
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather pattern (25)__________ strongly affect the world. When the
water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions decreases. Australia could (26)
__________ experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is
preparing for severe rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker
and makes the area much drier.
This happening is called El Nino and is used (27)__________ weather forecasters to make long-range weather
predictions. They also know that El Nino will bring unusually rain to the southwestern part of the United States and
make the central part of the country drier at the same time.
According to research, weather forecasters (28)__________ know about the coming weather with certainty. Now
everything has become completely different.
El Nino itself used to be predictable. It would occur every two to seven years. But now this weather pattern is
becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the
reason for this (29)__________ on the global scale either.
Question 25. A. what B. when C. that D. whether
Question 26. A. even B. ever C. nevertheless D. however
Question 27. A. on B. by C. to D. at
Question 28. A. used to B. get used to C. are used to D. used to be
Question 29. A. change B. transfer C. transformation D. shift
Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than flying to London from New York?
The answer may be a clear case of biology not being able to keep up with technology. Deep inside the brain there is a
“clock” that governs every aspect of the body’s functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance,
mood, hormone levels, digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these functions on a 24-hour basis and is
called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa “about” + dies “day”).
This body clock programmes us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and again between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea
and siesta times are all cultural responses to our natural biological sleepiness in the afternoon. One of the major causes of
the travelers’ malady known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person’s internal body clock with clocks in the external
world. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock, which then has to adjust to the new time and patterns
of light and activity. To make matters more complex, not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your
sleep/wake may adjust to a new time zone at one rate, while your temperature adjusts at a different pace. Your digestion
may be on a different schedule altogether.
Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the body clock is to extend our day beyond 24 hours. It is
contrary to our biological programming to shrink our day. That is why travelling in a westward direction is more body-
clock friendly than flying east. NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward travel was associated with
significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying west, you are “extending” your day,
thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock. Flying eastward will involve “shrinking” or reducing your
day and is in direct opposition to your internal clock’s natural tendency.
One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their sleep becomes disrupted. There are many reasons for this:
Changing time zones and schedules, changing light and activity levels, trying to sleep when your body clock is
programmed to be awake, disruption of the internal circadian clock and working longer hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and
fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function well. Judgment and decision-making can be reduced by 50%, attention
by 75 percent, memory by 20 percent and communication by 30 percent. It is often suggested that you adjust your watch
as soon as you board a plane, supposedly to try to help you adjust to your destination’s schedule as soon as you arrive.
But it can take the body clock several days to several weeks to fully adjust to a new time zone.
Question 30. The main function of the body clock is to ______________.

A. govern all the body’s responses B. regulate the body’s functions
C. help us sleep D. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle
Question 31. Jet lag ______________.

A. makes our body clock operate badly B. causes our body clock to change
C. extends the hours of our body clock D. upsets our body’s rhythms
Question 32. The word “malady” is closest in meaning to ______________

A. illness B. bore C. thought D. feeling
Question 33. According to the article, ______________.

A. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly.
B. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying.
C. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making.
D. jet lag can affect different abilities differently.
Question 34. On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article ______________.
A. makes no suggestions. B. says there is nothing you can do.
C. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock. D. suggests changing the time on your watch.
It may seem as if the art of music by its nature would not lend itself to the exploration and expression of reality
characteristic of Romanticism, but that is not so. True, music does not tell stories or paint pictures, but it stirs feelings
and evokes moods, through both of which various kinds of reality can be suggested or expressed. It was in the rationalist
18th century that musicians rather mechanically attempted to reproduce stories and subjects in sound. These literal
renderings naturally failed, and the Romanticists profited from the error. Their discovery of new realms of experience
proved communicable in the first place because they were in touch with the spirit of renovation, particularly through
poetry. What Goethe meant to Beethoven and Berlioz and what German folk tales and contemporary lyricists meant to
Weber, Schumann, and Schubert are familiar to all who are acquainted with the music of these men.
There is, of course, no way to demonstrate that Beethoven’s Egmont music or, indeed, its overture alone corresponds to
Goethe’s drama and thereby enlarges the hearer’s consciousness of it; but it cannot be an accident or an aberration that
the greatest composers of the period employed the resources of their art for the creation of works expressly related to
such lyrical and dramatic subjects. Similarly, the love of nature stirred Beethoven, Weber, and Berlioz, and here too the
correspondence is felt and persuades the fit listener that his own experience is being expanded. The words of the creators
themselves record this new comprehensiveness. Beethoven referred to his activity of mingled contemplation and
composition as dichten, making a poem; and Berlioz tells in his Memoires of the impetus given to his genius by the
music of Beethoven and Weber, by the poetry of Goethe and Shakespeare, and not least by the spectacle of nature. Nor
did the public that ultimately understood their works gainsay their claims.
It must be added that the Romantic musicians including Chopin, Mendelssohn, Glinka, and Liszt had at their disposal
greatly improved instruments. The beginning of the 19 th century produced the modem piano, of greater range and
dynamics than there fore, and made all wind instruments more exact and powerful by the use of keys and valves. The
modem full orchestra was the result. Berlioz, whose classic treatise on instrumentation and orchestration helped to give it
definitive form, was also the first to exploit its resources to the full, in the Symphonic fantastique of 1830. This work,
besides its technical significance just mentioned, can also be regarded as uniting the characteristics of Romanticism in
music, it is both lyrical and dramatic, and, although it makes use of a “story,” that use is not to describe the scenes but to
connect them; its slow movement is a “nature poem” in the Beethovenian manner; the second, fourth, and fifth
movements include “realistic” detail of the most vivid kind; and the opening one is an introspective reverie.
Question 35. Music can suggest or express various kinds of reality by ______________.
A. telling stories or minting pictures B. stirring feelings and evoking moods
C. exploring and expressing reality D. depicting nature and reality
Question 36. The word “error” in paragraph 1 refers to ______________.
A. the feelings and moods of the Romanticist musicians
B. the exploration and expression of reality of Romanticism
C. the works of the Romanticist musicians in the 18th century
D. musicians’ mechanical reproduction of stories and subjects
Question 37. It is stated in the passage that the Romanticists were influenced by ______________.
A. the works of the rationalist musicians in the 18th century
B. Goethe, German folk tales and contemporary lyricists
C. the thoughts of Beethoven, Weber, and Berlioz
D. the art of music by the rationalist musicians
Question 38. The passage indicates that the Romanticist composers were inspired not only by lyrical and dramatic
subjects but also by ______________.
A. the rationalists B. the creation of works
C. the love of nature D. the poetry of Goethe
Question 39. The Romantic musicians also made use of modern technologies such as _______________.
A. improved wind instruments B. powerful keys and valves
C. greater range and dynamics D. instrumenation and orchestration
Question 40. Romanticism in music is characterized as being ______________.
A. exact and powerful B. realistic and vivid C. great and dynamic D. lyrical and dramatic
Question 41. All of the following are true about the Symphonic fantastique EXCEPT ______________.
A. It is both lyrical and dramatic. B. It was composed by Beethoven.
C. It was issued in 1830. D. It unites the characteristics of Romanticism.
Question 42. According to the passage, Romanticism in music extended over ______________.
A. the 18th and 19th centuriesB. the late 18th century
C. the early 19th century D. the beginning of the 20th century
Question 43. Your trip (A) to Ho Chi Minh City (B) sounds absolutely (C) fascinated. I’d love to go (D) there.
Question 44. The (A) wooden fence (B) surrounded the factory is beginning (C) to fall down because of (D) the rain.
Question 45. Men and women in the Peace Corps (A) work with people in the (B) developing countries to help them
(C) improving their (D) living conditions.
Question 46. She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.
A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting.
B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.
C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting.
D. She hadn’t begun to speak when people started interrupting.
Question 47. “Yes, I’d love to, but I must finish my homework first,” said Jill to Jack.
A. Jill accepted Jack’s invitation, but she said that she had to finish her homework first.
B. Jill accepted Jack’s invitation first, but then she said she must finish her homework.
C. First and foremost, Jill loved to go with Jack much more than doing homework.
D. Jill wanted to go with Jack, but she wanted him to help her with her homework first.
Question 48. If you practise harder, you will have better results.
A. The harder you practise, the best results you will have.
B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
C. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.
D. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
Question 49. Thomas didn’t finish his assignment, he was lazy.
A. Thomas needn't have finshed his assignment because he was lazy.

B. Thomas might not have finshed his assignment because he was lazy.
C. Thomas may not have finshed his assignment because he was lazy.
D. Thomas couldn’t have finshed his assignment because he was lazy.
Question 50. The announcement was made. Everyone started complaining about it.
A. No sooner did everyone start complainingabout it than the announcement was made.
B. As soon as the announcement made, everyone started complaining about it.
C. No sooner had the announcement been made than everyone started complaining about it.
D. Everyone started complaining that the announcement was made.
Practice 30
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1. A. grows B. tends C. roars D. sweeps
Question 2. A. performed B. finished C. interviewed D. delivered
Question 3. A. justice B. struggle C. neglect D. wildlife
Question 4. A. eradicate B. unexpected C. accompany D. commitment
questions.
Question 5. We___________in silence when he suddenly___________me to help him.
A. walked - was asking B. were walking - asked
C. were walking - was asking D. walked – asked
Question 6. I don’t know why John always refuses___________me in person.

A. to meet B. meeting C. met D. to meeting
Question 7. Please__________the light, it's getting dark here.

A. turn on B. turn off C. turn over D. turn into
Question 8. If I__________it was a formal party, I wouldn't have worn my old jeans and a jumper.
A. knew B.could know C. had been knowing D. had known
Question 9. My mother is the only one that I can absolutely confide ________.
A. in B. up C. with D. for
Question 10. The speakers will be on the radio talk show _________ their views on energy issues in North
America.
A. introducted B. introduce C. introduction D. introducing
Question 11. ________ busy she is, she manages to pick her children up after school every day.
A. Although B. Because C. Despite D. However
Question 12. Let’s begin our discussion now, ___________?

A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 13. The more___________and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confidence B. confident C. confide D. confidently
Question 14. Mr. Pike is certainly a___________writer; he has written quite a few books this year.
A. prolific B. fruitful C. fertile D. successful
Question 15. The 1st week of classes at university is a little___________because so many students get lost, change
classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. arranged C. chaotic D. notorious
Question 16. Due to the computer malfunction, all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all the
calculations from___________.
A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch
Question 17. The players’ protests ___________no difference to the referees decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 18. ________ was a shock to his wife.

A. What he was dismissed B. That he was dismissed
C. Why he was dismissed D. How he was dismissed
Mark A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 19. The umber of wild horses on Assateague is increasing, resulting in overgrazed marsh and dune grasses.
A. A B. is C. resulting D. grasses
Question 20. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected changing their reservations and
proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. are C. changing D. proceed
Question 21. Although the Red cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurse will not let you to give blood if you
have just had cold.
A. accepts B. let C. to give D. have just had cold.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
Question 22. “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John.
A. John was reminded to train harder so as not to be dropped from the team.
B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
C. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to be dropped from the team.
D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trained harder.
Question 23. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message.
B. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message.
D. Joanna can’t have received my message.
Question 24. The S10’s camera looks more natural than the Iphone’s.
A. The Iphone’s camera doesn’t look more natural than the S10’s.
B. The Iphone’s camera looks more natural than the S10’s.
C. The Iphone’s camera looks as natural as the S10’s.
D. The Iphone’s camera doesn’t look as natural as the S10’s.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 25. She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her.
A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.
B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.
C. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project.
D. Provided her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't continue with the project.
Question 26. Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
Question 27. A mother is complaining to her son that his room gets dusty.
- Mother: “Haven’t you tidied up your room yet?”
- Son: “___________”
A. I will, after I do all the exercises in my textbook.
B. I am tired with my tidying.
C. The more I tidy, the worse it gets.
D. Why don’t you give me a hand with cleaning?
Question 28. Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one roof.
Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can help one another.”
Janet: “___________. Many old-aged parents like to lead independent life in a nursing home.”
A. It’s nice to hear that B. Me, too.
C. I agree with you completely D. That’s not true
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaaningto the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all long day B. day after day C. all day long D. the long day
Question 30.I just want to stay at home and watch TV and take it easy.
A. relax B. sit down C. sleep D. eat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 31. In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is obliged to tell
his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.
A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested
Question 32. Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he just
made light of it.
A. completely ignored B. treated as important
C. disagreed with D. discovered by chance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
CYBERFASHION
Most of us own modern gadgets such as mobile phones, or digital cameras. We may carry them round in our
pockets, or attach them to our bodies. But not for much longer! So far designers have succeeded in (33)
___________tiny bits of technology directly into our clothing.
In actual fact “cyberfashion” is the latest trend! One example, the Musical Jacket, is already in the shops and stores.
This jacket is silk. It is (34) ___________by a keyboard, also manufactured from fabric, which is connected to a tiny
device (35) ___________plays music.
At present, you have to touch a shoulder pad to hear the music. But in the future, you will be able to operate the
device just by turning your wrist or walking! For many athletes, scientists have invented a smart shirt which measures
your heart rate, body temperature and respiration rate! (36) ___________, the most romantic piece of cyberfashion
must be the Heartthrob Brooch.
This item of jewellery, made from diamonds and rubies, has two miniature transmitters. They make the brooch glow
in time to the beating of its wearers heart. If you meet = LOOK someone (37) ___________, your heart will beat
faster - and your brooch will let everyone know how you feel!
Question 33. A. dividing B. associate C. combining D. integrating
Question 34. A. monitored B. examined C. controlled D. managed
Question 35. A. that B. what C. who D. when
Question 36. A. Although B. However C. Moreover D. While
Question 37. A. gorge B. gorgeously C. gorgeousness D. gorgeous
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Imagine the busy streets of New York City, an enormous place with millions of people. Everyday, the streets are
congested with people going about their daily lives. Now imagine a small robot in the middle of all of those people
rolling down a busy sidewalk. Most people would not even notice the ten-inch smiling robot, called a Tweenbot,
rolling along the street. This strange machine may interest some people, while others would ignore it completely. A
researcher interested in studying how helpful people really are uses such robots in her experiments that take place on
the streets of New York.
The Tweenbots experiment is the idea and creation of Kacie Kinzer. Kinzer s idea was to make a robot that could
navigate the city and reach its destination only if it was aided by pedestrians. Tweenbots rely on the kindnessof warm-
hearted strangers. Made simply of cardboard, wheels, and a device to turn the wheels, the Tweenbots face many
dangers on the city streets. They could be run over by cars or smashed by careless kids. Kinzer thought her little
robots might even be seen as some kind of terrorist device. The only real protection a Tweenbot has is its friendly
smile. In addition to that, each of Kinzer’s robots is fitted with a flag that displays instructions for the robot’s
destination. The only way these robots will reach their final point is if someone lends them a hand. Tweenbots are
essentially a social experiment aimed at providing people a chance to show how caring they are.
On a daily basis, people in New York City are often in a hurry to get around. However, the Tweenbots, through their
inability to look after themselves, took people out of their normal routines. The people who noticed the helpless little
robots were actually interested in helping the Tweenbots find their way home. Tweenbots move at a constant speed
and can only go in a straight line. If one was to get stuck, or was going in the wrong direction, it would be up to
strangers to free it or turn it in the right direction. Surprisingly, no Tweenbot was lost or damaged, and each one
arrived at its target in good condition. In fact, most people treated the robot in a gentle manner, and some even treated
it as though it were a small living being. Even if you were in a rush to go somewhere, would you stop and help a
Tweenbot successfully reach its destination?
Question 38. what is this reading about?
A. A place to buy robots B. A new kind of toy
C. An experiment D. An interesting idea for the future
Question 39. what is a Tweenbot?
A. A person from New York City B. A ten-inch smiling robot
C. A pedestrian D. A terrorist device
Question 40. The word “congested” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________
A. flocked B. secluded C. stuffed D. crowded
Question 41. How did a Tweenbot get to its final destination?
A. With the help of other Tweenbots.
B. With the help of kind pedestrians on the street
C. With the help of Kacie Kinzer.
D. With the help of other robots in New York City.
Question 42. which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Most Tweenbots arrived at their destination damaged or broken.
B. Most people treated the Tweenbots in a gentle manner.
C. Tweenbots could not navigate the city on their own.
D. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen - is at the very heart of
Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also thoughts about those moods.
People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely to be ruled by them and are thus better able
to manage their emotions. Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein to
every feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized the notion of Emotional
Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has value and significance. As Goleman said, "A
life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality, cut off and isolated from the richness of life itself." Thus,
we manage our emotions by expressing them in an appropriate manner. Emotions can also be managed by engaging in
activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure us when we feel anxious.
Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might think that individuals
who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to manage them. However, a
critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning to them - to know why we are
experiencing a particular feeling or mood. Psychologists have found that, among individuals who experience intense
emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign meaning to those feelings predict differences in the ability to
manage them. In other words, if two individuals are intensely angry, the one who is better able to understand why he
or she is angry will also be better able to manage the anger. Self-motivation refers to strong emotional self-control,
which enables a person to get moving and pursue worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the
temptation to act on impulse. Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, "the root of all emotional self-
control."
Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to persist in
working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether one is trying to build a business,
get a college degree, or even stay on a diet. One researcher examined whether this trait can predict a child's success in
school. The study showed that 4-year-old children who can delay instant gratification in order to advance toward some
future goal will be "far superior as students" when they graduate from high school than will 4-year-old who are not
able to resist the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes.
Question 43. which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?
A. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.
B. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.
C. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them.
D. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.
Question 44. The word "encompasses" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ___________
A. maintains B. includes C. entertains D. divides
Question 45. The word "soothe" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by___________.
A. reduce B. weaken C. worsen D. relieve
Question 46. From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman___________
A. trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence
B. treated patients who had emotional problems
C. wrote about Emotional Intelligence
D. studied how people manage their emotions
Question 47. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT___________.
A. every feeling is important B. we can manage our emotions
C. emotions are part of a satisfying life D. we should ignore some feelings
Question 48. The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. individuals
C. individual differences D. intense emotions
Question 49. In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions
by___________.
A. describing how people learn to control their emotions
B. giving an example of why people get angry
C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion
D. explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions
Question 50. According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist impulses
because they can ___________.
A. easily understand new information
B. be more popular with their teachers
C. have more friends at school
D. focus on their work and not get distracted
Practice 31
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1: A. takes B. develops C. burns D. laughs
Question 2: A. century B. culture C. secure D. applicant
Question 3. A. immerse B. status C. equal D. echo
Question 4. A. ceremony B. comparison C. hypothesis D. uncertainty
Question 5: It seems that you are right, ?
A.doesn’t it B. do you C.aren’t you D. are you
Question 6: If she ________the early train yesterday, she would be here now.
A. took B. were taking C. would take D. had taken
Question 7: She was playing games while he ________a football match.

A. watched B. watches C. was watching D. watching
Question 8: He went on working ______ feeling unwell.

A. although B. because C. due to D. Despite
Question 9: They decided to name the new baby boy________Grandpa.

A. of B. after C. with D. as
Question 10: He read The Old Man and The Sea, a novel by Ernest Hemingway.
A. written B. writing C. which written D. that wrote
Question 11: ________ with the size of the whole earth, the highest mountains do not seem high at all.
A. A comparison B. Compare them C. If you compare D. When compared
Question 12: "What was David's reaction to the accusation?"

"Well, he denied________anywhere near the house at the time."
A. of being B. being C. be D. to be
Question 13: The plan was developed________by a team of experts.

A. system B. systematical C. systemized D. systematically
Question 14: The people who________the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
Question 15: Make sure you________your assignment before you go to bed.
A. have B. do C. take D. make
Question 16: It's a serious operation for a woman as old as my grandmother. She's very frail. I hope she ___
A. gets overB. comes round C. pulls through D. stands up
Question 17: The Red Cross all over the world has carried out a lot o f________.
A. responsibilities B. jobs C. works D. missions
Question 18: Air pollution poses a________to both human health and our environment
A. jeopardy B. difficulty C. problem D. threat
Question 19: We should keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being
A. unrevealed B. unfrequent C. lively D. accessible
Question 20: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to me.”
A. an object that I really love B. a book that is never opened
C. a subject that I don’t understand D. a theme that I like to discuss
Question 21: “Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist
Question 22: “Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight.”
A. turn down B. look up C. slow down D. put forward
Question 23: Sarah has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much.
- Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Sarah!”
- Sarah: “_______”
A. No, I don’t think so, B. Oh, you don’t like it, do you? C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. D. I like it.
Question 24: Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are
going to have a date with each other later.
- Laura: “Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime.”
- Ken: “________.”
A. Nice to see back you B. Take it easy C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it
HERE ARE TIPS THAT HELP SUCCEED IN YOUR JOB INTERVIEW
Always arrive early. If you do not know (23) ________the organization is located, call for exact directions
(24) ________advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, packing, or unexpected events. If you are
running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 – 10 minutes
early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the
interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with repect. Be (25) ________to everyone
as soon as you walk in the door.
Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (26) ________are
extremely important in the interview process. Women should (27) ________wearing too much jewelry or make
up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable.
While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal
environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed it you are wearing a tailored suit.
Question 25: A. when B. why C. where D. that
Question 26: A. with B. in C. on D. for
Question 27: A. happy B. pleasant C. disappointed D. excited
Question 28: A. attendances B. attentions C. impressions D. pressures
Question 29: A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind
There are a number of measures that should be taken to protect endangered animals from extinction.
First, we should have different activities to raise peoples’ awareness of the need to protect these animals.
Funds should also be raised for projects to save them.
Second, human must provide endangered animals with appropriate habitats to live in and breed
successfully.
Then, Governments should have a good policy to improve the life of people who live in or near
endangered animals’ habitats so that they can stop illegal trade of endangered animals and their associated
products.
Finally, there should be campaigns to stop people from using fashionable wildlife products. It is believed
that once these measures are carried out effectively, endangered animals will be saved from extinction.
Question 1. How many measures are there for protecting endangered animals from extinction?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
Question 2. The word awareness in line 2 has the closest meaning to
A. knowledge B. fear C. care D. law
Question 3. Why should governments have a good policy to improve the life of people near endangered animals’
habitats?
A. so as to stop people from illegal trade B. in order that they can continue illegal trade
C. to purchase animals’ products D. to save people from illegal trade
Question 4. What will happen if these measures are carried out effectively?
A. animals will become extinct B. animals will be endangered
C. animals will be saved D. animals will be released
Question 5. What is the best title of the text?
A. Raising people’s awareness of animal protection B. Policies of animal habitat protection
C. Saving endangered species D. Measures of endangered animals protection
One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his highly
inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford and then
served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo -Saxon and English language and
literature at Oxford University.
Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in intervals
from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien’s responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World
War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young people
intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien.
The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its success as
a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as they try to
acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle
Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was
inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The
characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern
Europe.
Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with
Tolkien’s real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that the
story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and
legends about elves and their language.
Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of
work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today
Question 35: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?
A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales B. Middle Earth was a fictional world
C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power D. People dominated Middle Earth
Question 36: The word “scrutinized” in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by
A. examinedB. denied C. enjoyed D. criticized
Question 37: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. J.R.R. Tolkien's work as a professor B. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien
C. All of.E.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books D. J.R.R. Tolkien and his trilogy
Question 38: According to the passage, when did “the Lord of the Rings” trilogy become popular with
young people?
A. In the late 1960s B. After World War II C. In 1892 D. Between 1936 and 1946
Question 39: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?
A. When he was a student B. During World War I C. When he was a professor D. During World War II
Question 40: What does the word “trilogy” in the first paragraph mean?
A. A specific type of fantasy novel B. A long novel
C. A group of three literary books D. An unrelated group of books
Question 41: What is the setting of Tolkien’s trilogy?
A. Modern - day Greece B. England in the 1800’s C. Oxford University D. Middle Earth
Question 42: The word “fascinating” in the second paragraph could be replaced by
A. thrilling B. extremely interesting C. boring D. terrifying
Question 43: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.
A B C D
Question 44: The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent
A B C
severe earthquake.
D
Question 45: Once you can overcome your difficulty, the problem may well become a source of
A B C
strengthen to your marriage and your faith.
D
Question 46: The sooner he quits smoking, the better he'll feel.
A. Though he feels better, he still smokes sometimes. B. When he stops smoking, he'll begin to feel better.
C. As soon as he feels better, he'll try to quit smoking. D. He feels so much better since he quit smoking.
Question 47: “If I were you, I'd tell him the truth,” she said to me.
A. She said to me that if I were you, I'd tell him the truth. B. She will tell him the truth if she is me.
C. She suggested to tell him the truth if she were me. D. She advised me to tell him the truth.
Question 48: I thought I shouldn’t have stayed at home yesterday.
A. I regretted staying at home yesterday. B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. 1 regret for staying at home yesterday. D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
Question 49: . He didn’t listen to his teacher, so he didn’t perform well in the examination
A. If he listened to his teacher, he would perform well in the examination.
B. If he had listened to his teacher, he would have performed well in the examination.
C. If he hadn’t listened to his teacher, he would have performed well in the examination.
D. If he had listened to his teacher, he wouldn’t have performed well in the examination
Question 50: Just after the play started there was a power failure.
A. No earlier had the play started than there was a power failure.
B. Hardly did the play start then there was a power failure.
C. No sooner did the play start before there was a power failure.
D. Hardly had the play started when there was a power failure.
Practice 32
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1. A. parks B. countries C. girls D. regions
Question 2. A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge
Question 3. A. desert B. nature C. ocean D. agree
Question 4. A. politics B. algebra C.creation D. violent
Question 5. I don't think Peter will reject that job offer, ?
A.do I B. will he C.don't I D. won't he
Question 6. Will you be angry if I _____ your pocket dictionary?
A. stole B. have stolen C. were to steal D. steal
Question 7. The preparation _____ by the time the guest _____.
A. have finished / arrived B. had been finished / arrived
C. had finished / were arriving D. have been finished / were arrived
Question 8. _____ he has a headache, he has to take an aspirin.
A. However B. Because C. Where D. Although
Question 9. I believe that he was concerned _____ all those matters which his wife metioned.
A. upon B. over C. above D. with
Question 10. . Johnny was the last applicant ____ for a position in that energy station.
A. to interview B. interviewing C. to be interviewed D. which is interviewed
Question 11. _____ to the party, we could hardly refuse to go.
A. Having invited B. To have invited
C. Having been invited D. To have been invited
Question 12. No one enjoys _____ in public.
A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of C. making fun of D. to make fun of
Question 13. Clark has a wide _____ about cultures of many countries in the world
A. known B. knowing C. knowledge D. know
Question 14. We took _____ of the fine weather an spent the day on the beach.
A.chance B. advantage C. occasion D. effect
Question 15. During the campaign when Lincoln was first a(n) for the Presidency, the slaves on
the far-off plantations, miles from any railroad or large city or daily newspaper, knew what the issues
involved were.
A.competitor B.contestant C.applicant D.candidate
Question 16. Over a third of the population was estimated to have no _____ to the health service.
A. exception B. access C. assignment D. assessment
Question 17. I've learned to play the piano for five months but I haven't been very _____ at this.
A. succeed B. succeeding C. success D. successful
Question 18. My mother _____ me a chocolate cake for my birthday. It was so delicious.
A. roasted B. baked C. boiled D. cooked
Question 19. After I had deleted several details in the report, I found out that they contained necessary
information.
A. ignored B. described C. erased D. included
Question 20. I just want to stay at home to watch TV and take it easy.
Question 21. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
Question 22. We were all in a good mood because the weather was good and we were going on holiday the
next day.
A. relaxed and comfortable B. at ease and refreshed
C. happy and disappointed D. sad and impatient
Question 23. Mrs. Smith is talking about’s Mr. Brown’s son.
- Mrs. Smith. “_____ .”
- Mr. Brown. “Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Youi kid is naughty B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C. Your child is just adorable D. I can give your kid a lift to school
Question 24. John is urging his team to finish the project.
-John. “We’ll have to hurry if we want to finish this project on time.”
- His mate. “_____”
A. OK. But I’ll call you later. B. I’ll say we will.
C. I’m tired. I’ll go home early. D. What a wonderful idea!
Without transportation, our modern society could not (25) _____. We would have no metal, no coal and no
oil nor would we have any (26) _____ made from these materials. (27) _____, we would have to spend most of
our time raising food and food would be limited to the kinds that could grow in the climate and soil of our
neighborhood.
Transportation also affects our lives in other ways. Transportation can speed a doctor to the side of a sick
person, even if the patients’ lives on an isolated farm. It can take police to the scene of a crime within a
moment of being noticed. Transportation (28) _____ teams of athletes to compete in national and international
sports contests. In time of (29) _____ transportation can rush aid to persons in areas stricken by floods,
famines and earthquakes.
Question 25. A. establish B. exist C. take place D. happen
Question 26. A. producers B. production C. products D. productivity
Question 27. A. Even B. Besides C. Although D. However
Question 28. A. brings B. fetches C. enables D. gets
Question 29. A. disasters B. accidents C. problems D. wars
It is often said that books are always a good friends and reading is an active mental process. Unlike TV,
books make you use your brain. By reading, you think more and become smarter. Reading improves
concentration and focus. Reading books takes brain power. It requires you to focus on what you are reading for
long periods. Unlike magazines, Internet posts or e-Mails that might contain small pieces of information.
Books tell the whole story". Since you must concentrate in order to read, you will get better at concentration.
Many studies show if you do not use your memory; you lose it. Reading helps you stretch your memory
muscles. Reading requires remembering details, facts and figures and in literature, plot lines, themes and
characters.
Reading is a good way to improve your vocabulary. Do you remember that when you were at elementary
school you learned how to infer the meaning of one word by reading the context of the other words in the
sentence? While reading books, especially challenging ones, you will find yourself exposed to many new
words.
Reading is a fundamental skill builder. Every good course has a matching book to go with it. Why? Because
books help clarify difficult subjects. Books provide information that goes deeper than just classroom
discussions By reading more books you become better informed and more of an expert on the topics you read
about. This expertise translates into higher self-esteem. Since you are so well-read, people look to you for
answers. Your feelings about yourself can only get better.
Books give you knowledge of other cultures and places. The more information you have got, the richer your
knowledge is. Books can expand your horizons by letting you see what other cities and countries have to offer
before you visit them.
Question 1. Books have great influence on _____.
A. TV B. friendship C. brain D. muscles
Question 2. When you are reading a book, _____.
A. you have to read small pieces of information B. you use your brain in concentration and focus
C. you have to read during a very long time D. you lose your memory
Question 3. A challenging book _____.
A. helps you to improve your vocabulary B. is only for primary pupils
C. can translate all new words D. contains a lot of difficult vocabulary
Question 4. Books _____.
A. are compulsory in every course
B. are not needed in most of course
C. contain less information than class discussions
D. make a sick patient feel better
Question 5. Books cannot give you _____.
A. knowledge B. information C. self-esteem D. muscles
Telecommuting is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For
employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the
location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when
the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A
recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although
the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business
Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting
become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many
managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the
country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby
complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that
they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting.
Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away
from the office.
Question 35. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting. B. The failure of telecommuting.
C. The advantages of telecommuting. D. A definition of telecommuting.
Question 36. How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than last year. D. Fewer than last year.
Question 37. The phrase “of no consequence” means _____.
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
Question 38. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT _____
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction. D. the work place is in the home.
Question 39. The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to_____.
A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities
Question 40. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees _____
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
Question 41. The word “reluctant” in the third paragraph can best be replaced by_____.
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical
Question 42. The phrasal word “set aside” in the third paragraph can best be understood as_____.
A. modify B. reject C. raise D. earmark
Question 43. The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that
A B
have become extinct have increased.
C D
Question 44. A tsunami extremely moves quickly and can travel thousands of kilometres.
A B C D
Question 45. I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
A B C D
Question 46. In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball.
Question 47. “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework.” said the boy.
A. The boy admitted not doing the homework.
B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.
C. The boy denied not doing the homework.
D. The boy refused to do the homework.
Question 48. I really believe my letter came as a great surprise to John.
A. John might be very surprised to receive myletter.
B. John might have been very surprised to receive myletter.
C. John must be very surprised to receive myletter.
D. John must have been very surprised to receive myletter.
Question 49. I didn’t meet him yesterday so I couldn’t tell him about that.
A. I met him yesterday so that I could tell him about that.
B. If I hadn’t met him yesterday, I couldn’t have told him about that.
C. If I had met him yesterday, I could have told him about that.
D. I could tell him about that because I met him yesterday.
Question 50. It was only when I left home that I realized the meaning of "family".
A. I realized the meaning of "family" before I left home.
B. Only when I left home I realized the meaning of "family".
C. Not until I left home did I realize the meaning of "family".
D. I didn't leave home until I realized the meaning of "family".
Practice 33
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1. A. Parents B. brothers C. weekends D. feelings
Question 2. A. integration B. element C. referee D. exchange
Question 3. A. interact B. Vietnamese C. volunteer D. invalid
Question 4. A. labour B. selfish C. below D. moment
Question 5: Nobody likes his behavior, ?
A.doesn’t he B. do they C. don't they D. does he
Question 6: If I_____an astronaut traveling in a cabin, I’d not be annoyed by the weightlessness.
A. am B. be C. will be D. were
Question 7: Since the flood the number of homeless people _____dramatically.
A. are increasing B. had increased C. increase D. has increased
Question 8: _____he is old, he wants to travel around the world.
A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because
Question 9: Most people prefer flying _____going by the sea because it’s too much faster.
A. over B. than C. from D. to
Question 10: The scientists on this project try to find the solutions to air pollution.
A. working B. worked C. are working D. who working
Question 11: _____to Ernest Hemingway’s, I think his books were unique.
A. Often been compared B. Having often compared
C. Having often been compared D. Having been often compared
Question 12: It was very difficult to what he was saying about the noise of the traffic.
A. pick up B. make up C. turn out D. make out
Question 13: Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the _____birthmark on his face.
A. normal B. abnormal C. abnormality D. abnormally
Question 14: As the years passed, Joe’s memories of his terrible experience _____away, and he began to
lead a normal life again.
A. got B. backed C. faded D. passed
Question 15: Don't worry about trying to catch last train home, as we can easily _____you up for the night.
A. keep B. put C. take D. set
Question 16: Many people will be out of _____if the factory is closed.
A. career B. job C. profession D. work
Question 17: This is valuable _____chair which dates back to the eighteenth century.
A. traditional B. old-fashioned C. antique D. ancient
Question 18: This story has been passed down by _____of mouth.
A. word B. phrase C. memory D. speaking
Question 19: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. Informative B. delighted C. exciting D. essential
Question 20: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.
A. being considerate of things B. remembering to do right things
C. forgetful of one’s past D. often forgetting things
Question 21: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
Question 22: Susan broke her promise when she failed to return the book I had lent her.
A. kept to herself B. had an appointment
C. lost her friend D. kept her word
Question 23: Kate thanks Peter for his present.
- Kate: “Thank you for the lovely present”. - Peter: “____________.”
A. I’m pleased you like it B. No, thanks
C. Go ahead D. Come on
Question 24: Mary has just had her hair cut and meets Sarah.
- Sarah: “Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!” - Mary: - “_____________.”
A. Never mention it B. Thanks, Sarah. I had it done yesterday
C. Thanks, but I’m afraid D. Yes, all right
In Germany, it’s important to be serious in a work situation. They don’t mix work and play so you shouldn’t
make jokes (25) _____you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very
organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don’t like- interruptions or (26) _____changes of
schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for appointments. At meeting, it’s
important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (27) _____speaker. If you give a presentation, you should
focus (28) _____facts and technical information and the quality of your company’s products. You should also
prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for
example ‘Doctor’ or “Professor”, so you shouldn’t use first names (29) _____a person asks you to.
Question 25: A. while B. as if C. such as D. as
Question 26: A. sudden B. suddenly C. abruptly D. promptly
Question 27: A. other B. others C. another D. the other
Question 28: A. on B. to C. at D. in
Question 29: A. if only B. as C. unless D. since
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other
force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements
felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several
hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory,
there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however,
the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun.
Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is
correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies.
The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood
tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and
Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the
beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at
the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of
the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between
high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
Question 30. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
Question 31. The words "In reality" in the second paragraph are closest in meaning to_____.
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly
Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much
gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is_____.
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
Question 33. What is the cause of spring tides?
A. Seasonal changes in the weather
B. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
C. The Earth's movement around the Sun
D. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
Question 34. Neap tides occur when_____.
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long- term
memory. This division of the memory into phases is based on the length of time of the memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a short
period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless the
information enters the short-term memory.
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are actively
using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory as long as you keep
repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long term memory.
Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years. Information
can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through memorization or when
an idea or image enters your mind on its own.
Question 35: The best title for this passage would be _____.
A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory
B. How long it takes to memorize
C. The stages of human memory
D. Human phases
Question 36: The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to _____.
A. The location in the brain
B. The period of time it takes to remember something
C. How the senses are involved in the memory.
D. How long the memory lasts.
Question 37: The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by _____.
A. Is on the top of B. is at the foot of
C. depends on D. is below
Question 38: According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory B. Active memory
C. Short-term memory D. Long-term memory
Question 39: According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes
B. As long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times.
D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
Question 40: All of the following are TRUE about long - term memory EXCEPT that _____
A. it has a very large capacity.
B. it can hold information.
C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.
D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.
Question 41: The expression “on its own” in the last sentence can be best replaced by
A. by itself B. in its own time
C. with its D. in only one way
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of « information for two
days, this is probably _____.
A. three phases of memory B. the sensory memory
C. the short- term memory D. the long- term memory
Question 43: I didn’t feel like going to church this morning because it was hard raining.
A B C D
Question 44: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to
A B C
t h e m.
D
Question 45: There’s plenty of time for you to make up your brain, so you needn’t decide
A B C D
now.
Question 46. The older he grew the more forgetful he became.
A. He grew older when he became more forgetful
B. He became more forgetful and older
C. As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful
D. He grew older and more and more forgetful
Question 47: ”John left here an hour ago,” said Jane.
A. Jane told me that John had left there an hour before
B. Jane said John left there an hour before
C. Jane told John to have left there an hour before
D. Jane told me that John to leave there an hour before
Question 48: It was a mistake not to bring your umbrella.
A. You might have brought your umbrella.
B. You must have brought your umbrella.
C. You should have brought your umbrella.
D. You can’t have brought your umbrella.
Question 49: . I didn’t go to bed early, so I didn’t wake up at 7.00
A. If I went to bed early, I would wake up at 7.00
B. If I had gone to bed early, I’d not have woken up at 7.00
C. If I went to bed early, I would have woken up at 7.00
D. If I had gone to bed early, I’d have woken up at 7.00
Question 50: This university was so hard. He couldn’t enter it despite all his efforts.
A. He tried hard so he could win a place at this university.
B. He managed to enter this university.
C. He did make enough efforts but he still passed the entrance exam in this university.
D. However hard he tried, he couldn't enter this university.
Practice 34
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1: A. locked B. forced C. touched D. reserved
Question 2: A. arrange B. arrive C. arise D. area
Question 3: A. schedule B. reserve C. wildlife D. beauty
Question 4: A. employment B. atmosphere C. company D. customer
Question 5: There has been little rain in this area for too long, ?
A.has it B. has there C. hasn’t it D. hasn’t there
Question 6: If I were you, I_____ harder to pass the examination.
A. would work B. will work C. worked D. work
Question 7: They_____ close friends for many years since we were in grade 7.
A. are B. are being C. have been D. had been
Question 8: He hid that letter in a draw _____ no one could read it.
A. so that B. because C. although D. in spite of
Question 9: Remember to take _____ your shoes when you go into the temple.
A. up B. in C. with D. off
Question 10: _____, Mary got up early to review the lesson.
A. To get the high mark in the exam B. Having got the high mark in the exam
C. Mary got the high mark in the exam D. Just got the high mark in the exam
Question 11: The man .......... the milk has been ill.
A. brings B. bringing C. who bringing D. is bringing
Question 12: If we want to develop inner tranquility, we have to stop_____ by every little thing.
A. being bothered B. bothering C. to bother D. to be bothered
Question 13: Nobody wears clothes like that any more – they’re _____.
A. fashion B. unfashionable C. fashionable D. fashionably
Question 14: The kind-hearted woman _____ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.
A. wasted B. spent C. dedicated D. lived
Question 15: Did he _____ the doctor’s appointment?
A. do B. have C. arrange D. make
Question 16: Peter was ejected after committing five personal _____ in water sport game yesterday.
A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D. errors
Question 17: People are advised to smoking because of its harm to their health.
A. cut down B. cut off C. cut in D. cut down on
Question 18: _____ drivers usually drive very slowly.
A. Learning B. Practice C. Learner D. Student
Question 19: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstrations
Question 20: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on in his mind.
A. sometimes B. always C. hardly D. never
Question 21: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.
A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant
Question 22: Public opinion is currently running against the banking industry.
A. stand up for B. kick out C. poke fun at D. look up to
Question 23: Thomas asked Jane about the flight announcement.
- Thomas: “Has an annoucement been made about the nine o’clock flight to Paris?”
- Jane: “______________.”
A. Not yet B. Yes, it is nine o’clock
C. I don’t think so D. Sorry, I don’t
Question 24: Quan and Lan are talking about the job application.
- Quan: “I can speak English well enough to apply for that post.”
- Lan: “______________.”
A. Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also
AFTERNOON TEA
In far too many places in England today, the agreeable habit of taking afternoon tea has vanished. 'Such a
shocking waste of time,' says one. 'Quite unnecessary, if one has had lunch or (25)_____ to eat in the evening,' says
another.
All very true, (26) _____ but what a lot of innocent pleasure these strong-minded people are missing! The very
ritual of tea-making, warming the pot, making sure that the water is just boiling, inhaling the fragrant steam,
arranging the tea-cosy to fit snugly around the container, all the preliminaries (27) _____ up to the exquisite pleasure
of sipping the brew from thin porcelain, and helping oneself to hot buttered scones and strawberry jam, a slice of
feather-light sponge cake or home-made shortbread.
Taking tea is a highly civilized pastime, and fortunately is still in favour in Thrush Green, where the inhabitants
have got it down to a (28) _____ art. It is common (29) _____ in that pleasant village to invite friends to tea rather
than lunch or dinner.
Question 25: A. views B. designs C. proposes D. minds
Question 26: A. no wonder B. no way C. no doubt D. no matter
Question 27: A. run B. come C. draw D. lead
Question 28: A. sheer B. rare C. fine D. pure
Question 29: A. custom B. procedureC. habit D. practice
The 22nd SEA Games, hosted this year by Vietnam, has joined the international movement to rid sports of
tobacco. For the first time, the regional sporting event will be tobacco-free under a landmark cooperative
agreement signed in April 2003 between the World Health Organization (WHO), the 22nd SEA Games
Organizing Committee and the Vietnamese Ministry of Health. Hanoi Health Department has organized a
press seminar to celebrate and raise awareness about the tobacco-free SEA Games.
The 22nd SEA Games is the first games hosted by Vietnam and 10 countries from the Southeast Asian
region with nearly 8,000 athletes and coaches will participate. It will be the first tobacco-free international
sporting event in Vietnam, joining other international tobacco-free sporting events such as the FIFA World
Cup 2002, and the Winter Olympic Games 2002.
The 22nd SEA Games will ban all sales, advertising and other promotion of tobacco products, and restricts
smoking in all Games venues. The aim is to protect spectators, athletes, event staff, media and other visitors
from the serious health hazards of second-hand tobacco smoke, as well as to change public attitudes about
the social acceptability of smoking.
Madame Pascale Brudon, WHO Representative in Vietnam, stated, "Vietnam has established 3 years ago a
comprehensive, ambitious national tobacco control policy and a national tobacco control program. The
tobacco-free 22nd SEA Games will be yet another area where Vietnam is leading the way for other countries
in the region and the world in protecting its citizens from the debilitating and disastrous consequences of
tobacco use."
WHO has provided funding and technical assistance to the SEA Games Organizing Committee and
Vietnamese Ministry of Health to train of over 4,000 SEA Games organizers and volunteers on the
implementation of the tobacco-free policy. An international team of trainers from the Ministry of Health,
International Organization for Good Temper (lOGT), WHO and International Development Enterprises
(IDE) began a series of national training workshops for volunteers in April, 2003.
The tobacco-free SEA Games are an inspiration and a model for other sport events, big and small, not only
in Vietnam but also in the Southeast Asian and Western Pacific Region.
Question 1. In the 22nd SEA Games _______.
A. there will be the attendance of athletes from the World Health Organization
B. smoking is not allowed
C. smoking is only for the leader, not any athletes
D. is held by the Vietnamese Ministry of Health
Question 2. According to the text, _______.
A. Vietnam has ever organized several tobacco-free sport events before the 22nd SEA Games
B. the tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam has not been approved by any world organizations
C. the tobacco-free SEA Games is not announced to newspapers and magazines
D. the tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam has been encouraged and supported by many world
organizations
Question 3. According to the third paragraph, _______.
A. tobacco companies can have an advertising campaign during the SEA Games
B. second-hand tobacco smoke cannot cause any harm to the athletes in the 22nd SEA Games
C. cigarettes are not allowed to sell in the 22nd SEA Games venues
D. everyone can buy cigarettes in the 22nd SEA Games venues except the athletes
Question 4. One of the aims of the tobacco-free SEA Games is
A. to sell more and more tobacco during the event
B. to change public attitudes about the social acceptability of smoking
C. to reduce the production of tobacco
D. to help athletes to solve the problems of the serious health hazards
Question 5. Which sentence is not true?
A. Vietnam itself has to pay a lot for the volunteers on the implementation of the tobacco-free policy.
B. The tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam get great support from several world organizations
C. The tobacco-free SEA Games is considered a model for other sport events.
D. There are national training workshops for volunteers in April, 2003 for the tobacco-free SEA Games.
Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein. His
theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity.
Einsteins work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical
application of Einsteins work. In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In
1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory
explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second
paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed
of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and
some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the “special theory of relativity” which showed that
time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same
everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity.
Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = mc 2 , known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916,
Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in
the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass. Einstein spoke out frequently against
nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported
Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine, When the Nazis came to power in 1933,
they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German
chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that this
scientific knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States
begin its own atomic bomb research.
Question 35: Einstein’s primary work was in the area of ________.
A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. engineering
Question 36: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of
Einsteins discoveries?
A. Radio B. Automobiles C. Computers D. Television
Question 37: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following EXCEPT
A. the establishment ot a Jewish homeland in Palestine
B. nationalism
C. atomic bomb research in the United States.
D. the defeat of the Nazis.
Question 38: What is “Brownian movement”?
A. The zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension
B. The emission of electrons from solids when struck by light
C. The motion of photons in light
D. The basis of the theory of relativity
Question 39: Einstein was a citizen of all of the following countries EXCEPT
A. Belgium B. Germany C. United State D. Switzerland
Question 40: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels
A. Einsteins work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.
B. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.
C. Einsteins work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.
D. Einsteins theories have been consistently proven incorrect.
Question 41: According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity,
A. all properties of matter and energy can be explained in a single mathematical formula.
B. light is composed of separate packets of energy.
C. time and motion are relative to the observer.
D. some solids emit electrons when struck by light.
Question 42: The word “exalting” in the passage most nearly means
A. elevation B. criticism C. support D. elimination
Question 43: Laurence never has seen his sister since she left for Japan.
A B C D
Question 44: We had a man taken this photograph when we were on holiday last summer.
A B C D
Question 45: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to class
A B C
stars according to brightness.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: This is the most delicious cake I’ve ever tasted.
A. This is the least delicious cake I’ve never tasted.
B. I have never tasted any other cakes as delicious as this one.
C. I have never tasted any other delicious cake.
D. This is the first time I have tasted the delicious cake.
Question 47: “My father went here last month” said he.
A. He said that his father had gone there the previous month.
B. He said that his father went here the month before.
C. He said that his father had gone there the month after.
D. He said that his father went here the month before.
Question 48: My director is angry with me . I didn't do all the work last week.
A. I should have done all the work last week.
B. I may have done all the work last week.
C. I need to have done all the work last week.
D. I must have done all the work last week.
Question 49: He didn’t listen to his teacher, so he didn’t perform well in the examination
A. If he listened to his teacher, he would perform well in the examination.
B. If he had listened to his teacher, he would have performed well in the examination.
C. If he hadn’t listened to his teacher, he would have performed well in the examination.
D. If he had listened to his teacher, he wouldn’t have performed well in the examination
Question 50: He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me.
A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.
B. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me when he spent it all.
C. Not only did he spent all his money but also he borrowed some from me.
D. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me as well.
Practice 35
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1: A. proofs B. books C. points D. days
Question 2: A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge
Question 3: A. simple B. polite C. formal D. instant
Question 4: A. computer B. horizon C. obvious D. dependence
Question 5: Susan rarely stays up late, ?
A.is she B. isn’t she C.does she D. doesn’t she
Question 6: If I _____, I would express my feelings.
A. were asked B. would ask C. had been asked D. asked
Question 7: He was writing to his friend when he _____a noise.
A. was hearing B. heard C. had heard D. hears
Question 8: _____he is tired, he can't work longer.
A. Because B. Even though C. Although D. Besides
Question 9: She still can't get _____the shock for her baby's death.
A. out B. on C. over D. away
Question 10: The chair ............. of wood has been broken.
A. made B. is made C. which made D. is making
Question 11: Next year, we are going to a place .
A. that lives in England B. where we can ski
C. which I read lastweek D. who they met in the canteen
Question 12: I observed a blue car _____very fast towards the motorway.
A. having driven B. driven C. driving D. to drive
Question 13: Oscar had eaten so much he had to_____his belt.
A. looseness B. loosen C. loosing D. loosely
Question 14: I wonder if you could _____me a small favour, Tom?
A. bring B. make C. give D. do
Question 15: “How was your exam?” “A couple of questions were tricky, but on the _____it was pretty
easy.”
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
Question 16: Jack and Linda last week. They just weren't happy together.
A. ended up B. finished off C. broke into D. broke up
Question 17: He was given a medal in _____of his service to the country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
Question 18: My brother left his job last week because he did not have any _____to travel.
A. position B. chance C. ability D. location
Question 19: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
A. terrified B. troubled C. happy D. disappointed
Question 20: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down
Question 21: “Please speak up a bit more, Jack. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”,
the teacher said.
A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. inaudible
Question 22: The funny story told by the man amused all the children.
A. pleased B. entertained C. saddened D. frightened
Question 23: John and Linda are talking about the public transfortation.
John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Linda: “___________”
A. Of course not. You bet B. There is no doubt about it
C. Well, that’s very surprising D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea
Question 24: Alice asks Mary’s opinion about driving to the countryside at weekend.
Alice: “How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?”
Mary: “___________”
A. That’s a good idea B. Not at all
C. No, thanks D. Never mind
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (25) _____class size is
twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (26) _____teaching and learning, and the school has a
language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English;
however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (27)
_____in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (28) _____at the most suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (29) _____of situations at the advanced
knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers.
In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-
taking from books and lectures.
Question 25: A. maximum B. minimum C. small D. large
Question 26: A. in B. of C. on D. to
Question 27: A. test B. exam C. course D. lesson
Question 28: A. form B. class C. grade D. course
Question 29: A. variety B. amount C. number D. lot
THE FAMOUS CUP
It's only 36 centimeters tall, but to fans throughout the world, it represents the highest achievement in
football. Every four years, teams from all over the globe compete to take home the FIFA World Cup Trophy,
yet nobody ever does.
Do you know why? Nobody ever takes it home because the 18-carat gold trophy is kept under lock and key
by FIFA (Federation Internationale de Football Association). The champions of each World Cup tournament
receive only a replica. This is to protect the valuable prize from thieves, who have stolen the World Cup
trophy twice in its 75-year history.
The little trophy has certainly had a troubled existence. The original trophy was made by a French sculptor,
Abel LaFleur, and was called the "Jules Rimet Cup," in honor of the founder of the World Cup tournament.
Sometime during the first three World Cup events (1930, '34 and '38), the name changed to simply the
"World Cup." Then during World War II, not much was seen or heard of the trophy. It was being kept hidden
in a shoe box under the bed of Dr. Ottorino Barassi, the Italian vice-president of FIFA, to prevent it from
falling into the hands of the Nazi army.
Although the trophy made it safely through the war, it didn't fare so well during the turbulent 1960s. In 1966,
the Cup was stolen during a public showing of the trophy prior to the World Cup tournament in England.
Luckily, it was found a short time later none the worse for wear in a trash container, by a little dog named
Pickles. Four years later, Brazil earned permanent possession of the original trophy by winning its third
World Cup title. Unfortunately, the trophy was stolen a second time, in 1983, and was never recovered. The
Brazilian Football Association had to have a duplicate trophy made. After the first trophy became the
possession of Brazil's football association, a new World Cup Trophy for FIFA was designed by an Italian
artist, Silvio Gazazniga, in 1974. This trophy cannot be won outright, but remains in the possession of FIFA,
and rest assured they are keeping a close eye on it. Today, World Cup winners are awarded a replica of the
trophy that is gold-plated, rather than solid gold like the real one. Gazazniga's World Cup trophy weighs
almost five kilograms. Its base contains two layers of a semi-precious stone called malachite, and has room
for 17 small plaques bearing the names of the winning teams-enough space to honor all the World Cup
champions up to the year 2038. After that, a new trophy will have to be made.
Question 30. This reading is mainly about_____.
A. the World Cup tournament C. the World Cup trophy
B. thieves D. World Cup stars
Question 31. Which question is NOT answered in the reading?
A. How much does the World Cup trophy weigh?
B. Who made the first trophy?
C. Where did the police find the stolen trophy?
D. How much money is the trophy worth?
Question 32. The first trophy was named the "Jules Rimet Cup" because Rimet_____.
A. made the trophy B. was a famous player
C. scored the final goal in 1930 D. came up with the idea of the World Cup
Question 33. Which is true about Gazazniga's World Cup trophy?
A. It is made of gold and silver. B. It is a replica of the first trophy.
C. It is in a museum in Brazil D. It will only be used until 2038.
Question 34. In which year did Brazil win the World Cup championship for the third time?
A. 1970 B. 1974 C. 1986 D. 2002
A Japanese construction company plans to create a huge independent city-state, akin to the legendary
Atlantis, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The city, dubbed “Marinnation”, would have about one million
inhabitants, two airports, and possibly even a space port. Marinnation, if built, would be a separate country
but could serve as a home for international organisations such as the United Nations and the World Bank.
Aside from the many political and social problems that would have to be solved, the engineering task
envisaged is monumental. The initial stage requires the building of a circular dam eighteen miles in diameter
attached to the sea bed in a relatively shallow place in international waters. Then, several hundred powerful
pumps, operating for more than a year, would suck out the sea water trom within the dam. When empty and
dry, the area would have a city constructed on it. The actual land would be about 300 feet below the sea level.
According to designers, the hardest task trom an engineering point of view would be to ensure that the dam is
leak proof and earthquake proof.
It all goes well, it is hoped that Marinnation could be ready for habitation at the end of the second decade of
the twenty-first century. Whether anyone would want to live in such an isolated and artificial community,
however, will remain an open question until that time.
Question 35: According to the text, Marrination, when built, will be a(an) _____city.
A. underwater B. underground C. marine D. legendary
Question 36: The word ‘akin’ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by _____.
A. likely B. close C. next D. similar
Question 37: Which of the following would NOT be a problem for the construction plan?
A. social B. political C. engineering D. financial
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true according to the text?
A. Marinnation would have about one million inhabitants.
B. Marinnation will be built in a deep place in the Pacific Ocean.
C. Marinnation will be located in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.
D. Marinnation could be served as home for international organisations.
Question 39: What is going to be built first?
A. a city B. a dam C. a monument D. a sea bed
Question 40: The most difficult task is to protect the dam against _____and earthquake.
A. fire B. water C. sunlight D. weather
Question 41: According to the text, people could come to live in the future city in the year _____.
A. 2002 B. 2012 C. 2010 D. 2020
Question 42: What does the author imply in the last sentence of the passage?
A. People will ask an open question about living in Marinnation.
B. The construction of Marinnation could never be completed in time.
C. People might not want to live in an isolated and artificial community.
D. People will ask how they can live in such an isolated and artificial city.
Question 43: It is said commonly that it is parents' responsibility to take good care of their
A B C
D
children.
Question 44: Aside from the many political and social problems that would have to solve, the
A B C
engineering task envisaged is monumental.
D
Question 45: He invented that by keeping his right wrist steady with his left hand, he could
A B C
paint and draw.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Everest is the highest mountain in the world.
A. No other mountain is higher than Everest in the world.
B. No other mountain is lower than Everest in the world.
C. No other mountain is as high as Everest in the world.
D. Other mountain is not so high so Everest in the world.
Question 47: "Do you watch television every evening,Van?" – He asked
A. He asked Van if she had watched TV every evening
B. He asks Van if she watched TV every evening.
C. He asked me if Van watched TV every evening.
D. He asked Van if she watched TV every evening.
Question 48: It is possible that one of the men died on the mountain.
A. One of the men must have died on the mountain.
B. One of the men could have died on the mountain.
C. One of the men should have died on the mountain.
D. One of the men may have died on the mountain.
Question 49: He was driving very fast because he didn't know the road was icy.
A. If he knew the road was icy, he wouldn't drive so fast.
B. He hadn't been driving very fast if he would have known the road was icy.
C. If he had known the road was icy, he wouldn't have been driving so fast.
D. He wasn't driving very fast if he would know the road was icy.
Question 50: As soon as they arrived on the beach, it started to rain.
A. Had it started to rain, they would have arrived on the beach.
B. Hardly had they arrived on the beach when it started to rain.
C. No sooner did they arrive on the beach than it started to rain.
D. Scarely did they arrive on the beach when it started to rain.
Practice 36
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1: A. trusted B. sacrificed C. acted D. recorded
Question 2: A. mean B. great C. cheap D. clean
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. apartment B. benefit C. argument D. vacancy
Question 4: A. explain B. involve C. borrow D. discuss
Question 5: Your brother hardly talks to anyone, ?
A.does he B. is he C. doesn’t he D. isn’t he
Question 6: I am flying to the States tonight. I______you a ring if I can find a phone.
A. have given B. would give C. could give D. will give
Question 7: Don't try to phone me! By the time you read this letter, ______.
A. I have left B. I will have left C. I will leave D. I'm leaving
Question 8: She failed the test ______she studied hard.
A. although B. because C. because of D. despite
Question 9: You are old enough to live ______yourself, you should not depend on parents so much.
A. with B. on C. in D. of
Question 10: ______to the national park before, Sue was amazed to see the geyser.
A. Being not B. Not having been C. Not being D. Having not been
Question 11: She is the second person ............ by John.
A. killed B. to kill C. to be killed D. who killed
Question 12. No one enjoys _____ in public.
A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of C. making fun of D. to make fun of
Question 13: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn’t have enough ______.
A. confide B. confident C. confidential D. confidence
Question 14: A penalty shot is ______when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter line.
A. prevented B. awarded C. committed D. ranged
Question 15: The course was so difficult that I didn’t ______any progress at all.
A. do B. make C. produce D. create
Question 16: After nine months without any rain, the country was facing one of the worst ______in the last
fifty years.
A. draughts B. floods C. eruptions D. droughts
Question 17: The new manager very strict rules as soon as he had taken over the position.
A. settled down B. put down C. laid down D. wrote down
Question 18: You should start revising for your exam as soon as possible. Any delay will result in
_______time being lost.
A. invaluable B. vital C. worthless D. conclusive
Question 19: If it’s raining tomorrow, we’ll have to postpone the match till Sunday.
A. put off B. cancel C. play D. put away
Question 20: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.
A. surrendered B. confided himself
C. went up give D. accommodated himself
Question 21: To be honest, I go to the museums once in a blue moon.
A. from time to time B. once in a while C. seldom D. very often
Question 22: The research findings were reliable since modem technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. exactness B. inaccuracy C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 23: Two friends Mai and Nam are talking about their plans for summer vacation.
-Mai: "Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer vacation?"
-Nam: "__________"
A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn't. Thank you.
C. Yes, you're a good friend. D. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks.
Question 24: Lan and Mai was talking about their study at school.
-Mai: “I thought your English skill was a lot better, Lan.”
-Lan: “__________”
A. Thank you. I’d love to. B. Yes, please. Just a little.
C. No, thanks. I think I can do it. D. You’ve got to be kidding. I thought it was bad.
Students enjoy watching animated shows and videos on TV, on tablets, and on phones. Videos can
motivate students to __________(25) with language, so it’s easy to understand why teachers want to bring
more videos into their English classrooms.
There are strong pedagogical reasons for including videos in your language teaching. Videos bring
language alive. Students can see and hear language ___________(26) is being used in context.
Animated videos are particularly accessible because they make it easy to focus on specific language, and
can appeal to a wider age ____________(27) of students than live-action videos.
Even with all of these great reasons to include video in English class, many teachers don’t. Why not?
Teachers tell us that it’s hard to find __________(28) videos that use the language their students are
learning. They aren’t sure where to look for appropriate videos, and when they do know where to look, they
don’t have time to search through the videos available in order to find one that will work with a specific
lesson. ____________(29) teachers are successful in finding a video they think could work with their lesson,
they often aren’t sure how to make the best use of it for language learning.
Question 25: A. neglect B. communicate C. engage D. interest
Question 26: A. what B. that C. it D. how
Question 27: A. range B. area C. field D. section
Question 28: A. interest B. interested C. interesting D. interestingly
Question 29: A. When B. Despite C. Since D. Even if
Everybody loves the giant panda. That was clear from enthusiasm welcome New Yorkers gave to Ling
Ling and Yong Yong when they arrive at the Bronx zoo in May. The cuddy black and white pair were on
loan for six months from China’s Beijing Zoo, and it was estimated that more than one million people visited
them in New York before they left for a zoo in Tampa, Florida in early November.
The giant panda, unfortunately, is an endangered species. Only about 700 are left in the wild, most of
them living on reserves in China’s Sichua Province. Despite conservation efforts on the part of the Chinese
government and scientist worldwide, the population continues to decline as human beings cut down bamboo,
the panda’s primary food.
Can the panda be saved? Of course. All it need is bamboo and peace. Every panda population should have
at least two bamboo species available to lessen the impact of die off. Bamboo at low elevations must be
preserved or replanted. Existing reserves need to be expanded and new reserves created. Poaching must be
controlled. Zoos must improve captive breeding to provide move pandas for their original home.
China’s Ministry of Forestry and the World Wildlife Fund are continuing their collaborative effort on the
panda’s behalf, guided by the spirit of their Joint the agreement that needs: “The giant panda is not only the
precious property of the China people, but also a precious natural heritage of concern to people all over the
world.”
Question 30: The pronoun “They” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. Ling Ling B. two pandas C. New Yorkers D. everybody
Question 31: Why is the giant panda an endangered species?
A. Because reserves in China’s Sichuan Province are demolished.
B. Because some bamboo species die out.
C. Because they have not enough food to eat.
D. Because of the lack of conservation effort.
Question 32: What should human beings do to help save pandas?
A. We should improve captive breeding.
B. We should plant two bamboo species for each panda.
C. We should preserve and replant bamboo at low elevation.
D. We should improve reserves, plant bamboo, and control poaching.
Question 33: Zoos are __________.
A. to blame foe contributing to the extinction of pandas.
B. useful in breeding more pandas to send back to the wild.
C. good places for bamboo at low elevations.
D. better for pandas than their original home.
Question 34: The word “impact” in the third paragraph most closely means_________ .
A. destruction B. interference C. domination D. effect
Glen Brook South (GBS) High School is in a suburb of Chicago, Illinois, in the United States. It is an
award- winning school with a highly competent teaching staff. It has over 400 Asian Pacific American
students-over 17 percent of the students in the school. Of these, the majority are Korean American. This is
very unusual in a state where Korean Americans are less than 1 percent of the population. The interactions of
the Korean Americans students at GBS were the subject of an article in Asian Week magazine.
Different Korean American students react differently to being in a high school where most students are
white. Professor Pyong Gap Min, an expert on Korean life in America, believes that Korean Americans in
this situation can sometimes feel inhibited or ashamed of their Korean identity. Asian Week interviewed a
number of GBS students, and each had a different attitude.
Eighteen-year-old Alice said that she used to spend time only with Korean American friends. Although
she felt secure with those friends, she found herself motivated to form closer relationships with non-Koreans,
too. She said that she felt she was missing out on new experiences and challenges.
Seventeen-year-old John moved in the opposite direction. In junior high school, most of John’s friends
were white. After coming to GBS, his sense of his Korean American identity was restored, and he decided to
have mainly Korean American friends. He feels that he and his Korean American friends understand each
other better. For example, they understand about severe parental pressure to succeed at school; John felt his
white friends couldn’t really understand.
Sixteen-year-old Paul has some Korean American friends, but he says he spends most of his time with his
white friends. He is often the only Asian American in the group, but he doesn’t mind. What Paul likes about
the white culture is that he can be more radical - he can be as loud and funny as he wants to be. He says he
doesn’t see as much of that among the Asian students.
Without belittling the importance of what these students had to say, it’s important to remember that their
opinions at this phase of their lives are bound to change as they grow into adulthood. But these honest
opinions can help us better understand issues of cultural relations, and their honesty might help Americans
from different cultural groups to get along better in the future.
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Why Illinois is a very special state.
B. How an Illinois high school welcomes Korean American students.
C. Different opinions of the friends of Korean American students.
D. How Korea American students interact among themselves and with others.
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, who can sometimes feel inhibited or ashamed?
A. Korean American students in a mostly white school B. Korean American students when they are
interviewed
C. GBS students who have different attitudes D. students who react differently to being Korean
American
Question 37: Which statement best summarizes Alice’s attitude?
A. She feels she is missing out on experiences with her Korean American friends.
B. She feels that her white friends don’t really understand her.
C. She likes her Korean American friends but wants to have non-Korean friends, too.
D. She doesn’t feel secure in her relationships with non-Koreans.
Question 38: Who interviewed the three Korean American students?
A. Professor Pyong Gap Min B. the GBS teaching staff C. Asian week D. other GBS students
Question 39: Which phrase could best be substituted for “radical”?
A. angry and dangerous B. selfish and greedy C. very expressive D. polite and considerate
Question 40: What doesn’t the author think about the opinions of the three students?
A. They could change B. They are unimportant
C. They could help people in the future D. They are honest
Question 41: What does the word “phase” mean?
A. grade B. step C. interval D. stage
Question 42: What can be inferred from the fifth paragraph?
A. American students are more radical than the Asian ones. B. White Americans are more active than
others.
C. Americans are always sociable. D. Americans are very radical.
Question 43: What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and
policemen who had been laid off from their jobs.
A. had been laid off B.were C.What D.including
Question 44: In the Rio Olympics 2016, Vietnamese sports delegation returned home with two medals
both from "hero" shooter Hoang Xuan Vinh, ranking the 48th in the final.
A.delegation B.In C.both from D.ranking
Question 45: I arrived in Wolverhampton lately this evening, as I'm doing a small part in a short film here
tomorrow.
A.arrivedin B.lately C.as D. in ashortfilm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 46: Going to France on holiday is exciting, but living there is even more exciting.
A. Going on holiday to France isn't as exciting as living there.
B. Living in France is less exciting than going there on holiday.
C. It is as exciting to live in France as going there on holiday.
D. Compared with living in France, going there on holiday is more exciting.
Question 47: "Where does your family usually go on vacation, Kathy?" said John.
A. John asked Kathy whether her family usually went on vacation.
B. John asked where Kathy’s family usually went on vacation.
C. John asked Kathy that her family usually went on vacation where.
D. John wanted to know where Kathy usually goes on vacation with her family.
Question 48: It was very bad of you to use my mobile without asking my permission.
A. You needn’t have asked me for my permission before using my mobile.
B. You asked me for my permission to use my mobile and it was unnecessary.
C. You should have asked me for my permission before using my mobile.
D. I would rather you asked me for my permission before using my mobile.
Question 49: John pleaded with his mother. She would not give him any money.
A. John pleaded with his mother, so she would not give him any money.
B. Though John pleaded with his mother, she would not give him any money.
C. If John hadn’t pleaded with his mother, she would have given him some money.
D. Despite John’s mother would not give him any money, he pleaded with her.
Question 50: I had seen her flat with my own eyes. I understood why she wanted to live there.
A. Only after I had seen her flat with my own eyes did I understand why she wanted to live there.
B. I understood why she wanted to live in the flat that I had seen before.
C. If I didn’t see her flat with my own eyes, I wouldn’t understand why she wanted to live there.
D. It was not until I understood why she wanted to live in the flat that I came to see it with own my eyes.
Practice 37
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A placed B. missed C. caused D. watched
Question 2: A. enough B. rough C. tough D. though
Question 3: A. attempt B. future C. method D. factor
Question 4: A. assistance B. candidate C. penalty D. agency
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Lan and Huong have never come to class late, ?
A.have they B. haven't they C.has she D. hasn't she
Question 6: If he didn’t have to work today, he______his children to the zoo.
A. will take B. takes C. would take D. has taken
Question 7: I saw Jack yesterday morning while I ______home from work.
A. walked B. was walking C. am walking D. had been walking
Question 8: Nam is motivated to study ______he knows that a good education can improve his life.
A. so that B. therefore C. so D. because
Question 9. Too many people dispose ______their waste by pumping it into rivers and the sea.
A. out B. off C. of D. away
Question 10: ______, she received a big applause.
A. Once finishing her lecture B. Speaking has finished
C. After she finishes speaking D. When the speaker finished
Question 11. Have you ever met the woman ............ over there?
A. standing B. is standing C. stands D. who standing
Question 12: If we want to develop inner tranquility, we have to stop______by every little thing.
A. being bothered B. bothering C. to bother D. to be bothered
Question 13. In the past people believed that women’s ______roles were as mothers and wives.
A. nature B. natural C. naturism D. naturalist
Question 14: Don't tell her about the job until you know that we don't want to ______her hopes.
A. rise B. arise C. raise D. grow
Question 15: All applicants must ______their university transcript and two reference letters to be considered for
this job.
A. permit B. omit C. admit D. submit
Question 16. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ______with the interviewers.
A. touch B. link C. contact D. connection
Question 17: Whenever a problem , we try to discuss frankly and find solutions as soon as possible.
A. comes in B. comes up C. comes off D. comes by
Question 18: Tim’s encouraging words gave me______to undertake the task once again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: My sister said that the journey by sea was long and boring. However, I found it very interesting.
A. route B. flight C. excursion D. voyage
Question 20: My parents’ warnings didn’t deter me from choosing the job of my dreams.
A. influence B. reassure C. discourage D. inspire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 21: Mark was a reckless driver. He had been fined for speeding and had his license suspended for 3 months.
A. dangerous B. cautious C. patient D. considerate
Question 22: Prior to World War I, 20 percent of American homes had electricity.
A. After B. Before C. During D. Despite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 23: John is inviting Tom to have a get-together next week.
- John: “Would you like to have a get-together with us next weekend?”
- Tom: “_______.”
A. No, I wouldn’t B. Yes, let’s C. No, I won’t D. Yes, I’d love to
Question 24: George and Frankie are talking about their hobbies.
- George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting”.
- Frankie: “_______”
A. What is opinion! B. There’s no doubt about it.
C. Yes, you can do it. D. Your opinion is exactly.
People born in different ages are different from each other in various aspects. The world is changing at a rapid
pace and ___________(25) the difference between people born in different times is inevitable. Generation gap is the
term given to the ____________(26) between two generations. The society changes at a constant pace and hence the
lifestyle, ideologies, opinions, beliefs and the overall behavior of people also ___________(27) change with time.
This change gives way to newer ideas and breaks the unreasonable stereotypes and this in turn has a positive impact
____________(28) the society. However most of the times it becomes a cause of conflict between two
generations.The parent child relationship is often affected due to their generation gap. It has been observed that the
parents try to __________(29) their values and ideologies on their kids while the later want to explore the world on
their own. Many relationships have suffered due to generation gap. Several parents and children have conflicts
because of their difference of opinions which they must understand is natural as there is a generation gap between
them.
Question 25: A. thus B. then C. also D. still
Question 26: A. differ B. different C. differently D. difference
Question 27: A. makes B. undergoes C. continues D. suffers
Question 28: A. on B. in C. to D. with
Question 29: A. compel B. force C. impose D. demand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 30 to 34.
As computer use becomes more common, the need for security is more important than ever. One of the greatest security
threats in the online world is computer hacking.
Computer hacking is the unauthorized access to a computer or network of computers. Hackers are people who illegally
enter systems. They may alter or delete information, steal private information, or spread viruses that can damage or destroy
files. But how exactly can a hacker get into a system to do these things?
Most hackers use information called protocols that are built into computer software. These protocols allow computers to
interact with one another Protocols are sort of like computer police officers. When a computer connects to another system, the
protocols check to see if the access is valid. The protocols can also determine how much information can be shared between the
two systems. Hackers can manipulate the protocols to get unlimited access to a computer system.
In fact, just the act of entering a computer network is considered hacking. This is commonly called passive hacking.
Passive hackers get a rush from just being able to access a challenging system like a bank or military network. Another kind of
hacker tries to do damage to a system. After hacking into systems, these hackers release viruses or alter, delete, or take
information. Known as active hackers, they are, by far, the more dangerous of the two.
The easiest way to protect a system is with a good password. Long and unusual passwords are harder for hackers to guess.
For even greater security, some online services now use “password-plus” systems. In this case, users first put in a password and
then put in a second code that changes after the user accesses the site. Users either have special cards or devices that show them
the new code to use the next time. Even if a hacker steals the password, they won't have the code. Or if the hacker somehow
gets the code, they still don't know the password.
Question 30: What is the main idea of this reading?

A. famous hackers B. funny things hackers do
C. hackers and computer security D. good ways to stop hackers
Question 31: What do hackers do to get into a computer?
A. spread viruses B. change security programs
C. make a new password D. manipulate codes
Question 32: What is NOT considered hacking?
A. releasing a virus B. illegally accessing a computer
C. turning on a private computer D. changing unauthorized information
Question 33: Why are active hackers probably considered more dangerous than passive ones?
A. active hackers are more skilled.
B. passive hackers have more intense personalities.
C. active hackers do damage.
D. passive hackers are caught more easily.
Question 34: The pronoun “They” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
A. Systems B. Hackers C. Computers D. People
They say that parenting is the most important ‘job’ in the world. Undoubtedly, it is also one of the most difficult. In a world
where imagination and a creative outlook are becoming more and more important to a person’s success, preparing children for
life as a successful member of today’s society can be an extremely challenging task.
If you or someone you know is struggling to find the best way to raise well balanced and creative kids, the most important
thing you can do is encourage children’s interests and help them find things they are good at. Here are a few tips that might
help along the way.
First, limit TV and videogame time. Encourage your kids to play using their imagination to create their own games or role
plays. Don’t limit playtime. Free playtime is important for young children to develop and discover their own creativity.
Get involved in playtime, but let your child take the lead. By following their lead, children can gain confidence in their own
ideas. They may not be doing something the most efficient way, but that is not the point. Just have fun and let them figure it
out. Don’t tell them they are doing something wrong. There is no status quo in playtime.
Expose your children to the arts early on. Encourage them if they have an interest in taking music, dance, or art lessons.
Take them to local children's theater productions, museums, and art galleries, as well as musicals, concerts, and ballets when
they are ready.
Try to provide inspiration in your home. Fill your house with music and art of all kinds. Keep a box full of old clothes,
wigs, and fabrics. Encourage your kids to play dress up. It really is a good way to get the imagination going, and it lets kids be
creative in putting together interesting costumes and making up characters to go along.
Make sure kids have a supply of basic art supplies on hand. The key here is ‘basic.’ Children do not need expensive, high-
tech tools to become creative—quite the opposite. Simply buy the basics and a couple of books with art and craft ideas made
from recycled items found around the house.
Listen to your children. Let them know you like their ideas. Everybody can be creative, and many children have hidden
talents. Let your child try different things until they find what they are good at. Every child is good at something; the key to
good parenting is finding what your child is good at and supporting them.
There are so many different forms and outlets for creativity. If you want to raise creative children, all you need to do is
encourage them. Sometimes that means doing a little research and trying a few things to help them find what they like. And
sometimes it means leaving them alone to play.
Question 35: The main point of the article is ___________.

A. how to get your child into college
B. how to help your child become a musician
C. how to help your child become successful in business
D. how to help your child find what he/she is good at
Question 36: In the first line, ‘job’ is in quotation marks because ___________.
A. parenting is hard work. B. parenting is work but it’s not paid.
C. parenting isn’t that difficult. D. parenting is a career.
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT given as an example of how parents can provide inspiration?
A. Playing different kinds of music
B. Displaying different kinds of paintings
C. Having children learn to draw in the styles of particular artists
D. Collecting a box of old clothes for children to use for dressing up
Question 38: The word “struggling” in the second paragraph most closely means___________.
A. making B. handling C. fighting D. trying
Question 39: When parents are participating in playtime, they should ___________.
A. worry about how efficiently their children are playing
B. direct what is done and how it’s done
C. tell their child when they’ve made a mistake
D. let their child be the leader
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT a reason to “listen to your child”?
A. To find out which areas of art they like the most
B. To help them discover their hidden talents
C. To show that you’re supporting them
D. To show them what they’re good at before they fail at something
Question 41: Which of the following would the author say is true?
A. Leave your children alone.
B. Provide your children with some materials and let them experiment.
C. Give your children careful guidelines for experimenting with art supplies.
D. All children should receive instruction in music and art at a young age.
Question 42: In paragraph 6, what will children make up characters to go along with?
A. the paintings they did B. the costumes they put together
C. the makeup they put on D. the other kids playing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 43: To avoid confusion, the two twins never wear the same clothes.
A B C D
Question 44: If one has a special medical condition such as diabetes, epilepsy, or allergy, it is advisable A
thatthey carry some kind of identification in order to avoid being given improper medication in an B C
D
emergency.
Question 45: To remove strains from permanent press clothing, carefully soaking in cold water
A B
before washing with a regular detergent.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 46: Your success depends on how hard you work.
A. The more work you do , the more successful you become.
B. The more success you get , the harder you have to work.
C. The harder you work , the more successful you become .
D. When you hardly work , you will become more successful
Question 47. We had no sooner got to know our neighbors than they moved away.
A. Soon after we got to know our new neighbors, we stopped having contact with them.
B. If our new neighbors had stayed longer, we would have got to know them better.
C. Once we had got used to our new neighbors, they moved somewhere else.
D. Hardly had we become acquainted with our new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live.
Question 48. Julie to her neighbour: “Oh, it wasn’t me who started that ugly rumour about you”
A. Julie confessed to starting an ugly rumour about her neighbour.
B. Julie refused to start an ugly rumour about her neighbour.
C. Julie denied having started an ugly rumour about her neighbour.
D. Julie admitted having started an ugly rumour about her neighbour.
Question 49. You were expected to answer all the questions on the exam paper. You didn’t so.
A. You didn’t have to answer all the questions on the exam paper as we had expected.
B. You should have answered all the questions on the exam paper.
C. Contrary to our expectation, you answered all the questions on the exam paper .
D. You didn’t answer all the questions on the exam paper and it was necessary.
Question 50. My wife didn’t leave the car keys. I couldn’t pick her up at the station.
A. Were my wife to leave the car keys, I could pick her up at the station.\
B. Not until I found the car keys that my wife had left, I could pick her up at the station.
C. Had my wife left the car keys, I could have collected her at the station .
D. My wife didn’t leave the car keys so that I couldn’t pick her up at the station.
Practice 38
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. endangered B. destroyed C. damaged D. provided
Question 2: A. final B. high C. decide D. signal
Question 3: A. notice B. decline C. demand D. oppose
Question 4: A. condition B. natural C. romantic D. recover
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Everybody is tired of watching the same comercials on TVeverynight, ?
A.are they B. aren’tthey C.haven’tthey D. don’tthey
Question 6: If I had a typewriter now, I______this contract by myself.
A. would have typed B. will type C. would type D. typed
Question 7: He came across the photograph of his great- grandfather while he ______up the attic.
A. cleans B. is cleaning C. was cleaning D. cleaned
Question 8: He got an excellent grade in his examination ______the fact that he had not worked particularly hard.
A. on account of B. because of C. in spite of D. although
Question 9. Jack apologized ______not being able to come to Jane’s party.
A. to B. about C. of D. for
Question 10: She likes the food .............. by her mother
A. cooked B. was cooked C. which cooked D. cooking
Question 11: …………., I will give him the report.
A. When he will return B. When he returns
C. Until he will return D. No sooner he returns
Question 12: Nowadays children would prefer history ______in more practical ways.
A. to teach B. to be taught C. teach D. be taught
Question 13: : are aware that a language becoming extinct does not necessarily mean that the people
who spoke it have all died.
A. Linguistic B. Linguists C. Language D. Lingual
Question 14: Parents should______what their kids watch on television.
A. suffer B. control C. increase D. sponsor
Question 15: Although the conditions weren’t ideal for a walk, we decided to a go of it.
A. make B. do C. run D. carry
Question 16: Parts of the country are suffering water______after the unusually dry summer.
A. thirst B. shortage C. supply D. hunger
Question 17: The bus only stops here to passengers.
A. put down B. get on C. get off D. pick up
Question 18: This story has been passed down by______of mouth.
A. word B. phrase C. memory D. speaking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
Question 19: I just want to stay at home to watch TV and take it easy.
Question 20: In Roman times, a sophisticated technology brought running water into private homes and public bathhouses.
A. experienced B. complicated C. worldly D. naive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 21: Because of falling orders, the company has been forced to lay off several hundred workers.
A. reject B. fire C. dismiss D. employ
Question 22: There has been a congressional debate about urban development.
A. rural B. central C. natural D. cosmopolitan
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 23: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
-Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”
-Mary: “_______”
A. Not a chance. B. That's very kind of you.
C. I can’t agree more. D. What a pity!
Question 24: Mrs. Smith and Mary are talking about doing housework.
- Smith: “I think we should join hands to make our class close-knit.”
- Mary: “______”
A. Thank you very much. B. You are welcome.
C. I'm afraid. I can’t. D. That’s a good idea.
Education is very important __________(25) for everyone to succeed in life and get something different. It helps a
lot in lessening the challenges of life difficult life. Knowledge gained _____________(26) the education period
enables each and every individual confident about their life. It opens various doors to the opportunities of achieving
better prospects in life so promotes career growth. Many awareness programmes has been run by the government to
___________(27) the value of education in rural areas. It brings feeling of equality among all people in the society
and promotes growth and development of the country.
Education plays an ___________(28) role in the modern technological world. The whole criteria of education
have been changed now. We can study through the distance learning programmes after the 12 th standard together
with the job. Education is not so costly, anyone one with less money may study ___________(29). We can get
admission in the big and popular universities with fewer fees through the distance learning. Other small training
institutes are providing education to enhance the skill level in particular field.
Question 25: A. tool B. engine C. device D. weapon
Question 26: A. by B. with C. throughout D. for
Question 27: A. rise B. enhance C. add D. build
Question 28: A. partial B. functional C. important D. potential
Question 29: A. continue B. continuation C. continuous D. continuously
People think children should play sports. Sports are fun, and children stay healthy while playing with others. However,
playing sports can have negative effects on children. It may produce feelings of poor self-esteem or aggressive behavior in
some children. According to research on kids and sports, 40 million kids play sports in the US. Of these, 18 million say they
have been yelled at or called names while playing sports. This leaves many children with a bad impression of sports. They
think sports are just too aggressive.
Many researchers believe adults, especially parents and coaches, are the main cause of too much aggression in children's
sports. They believe children copy aggressive adult behavior. This behavior is then further reinforced through both positive
and negative feedback. Parents and coaches are powerful teachers because children usually look up to them. Often these
adults behave aggressively themselves, sending children the message that winning is everything. At children's sporting events,
parents may yell insults at other players or cheer when their child behaves aggressively. As well, children may be taught that
hurting other players is acceptable, or they may be pushed to continue playing even when they are injured. In addition, the
media makes violence seem exciting. Children watch adult sports games and see violent behavior replayed over and over on
television.
As a society, we really need to face up to problem and do something about it. Parents and coaches should act as better
examples for children. They also need to teach children better values. They should teach children to enjoy themselves whether
they win or not. It is not necessary to knock yourself out to enjoy sports. Winning is not everything. In addition, children
should not be allowed to continue to play when they are injured. Sending a child with an injury into a game gives the child the
message that health is not as important as winning. If we make some basic changes, children might learn to enjoy sports
again.
Question 30: What is the main idea of the reading?

A. Children often become like their parents.
B. Children need to play sports in school.
C. Playing sports may have negative results.
D. Some sports can cause health problems.
Question 31: How many children said they had some negative experience when playing sports?
A. All of the children B. More than half of the children
C. Less than half of the children D. About ten percent of the children
Question 32: Which is described as the main cause of more aggressive playing?
A. Adults B. Children with low grades in school
C. New rules in sports D. Other players
Question 33: What does the writer suggest?
A. Aggressive sports should not be shown on television.
B. Children should not play sports until high school.
C. Coaches should be required to study child psychology.
D. Parents should teach children to play sports for fun and exercise.
Question 34: The pronoun “they” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. parents B. children C.values D. coaches
Watching television recently, I came across a very interesting program. On the show, a journalist was interviewing people
from two distinct age groups. The first group was all people in their 40s and 50s, chosen randomly on a street in the U.S. The
second group was elementary school children from the U.S., mainly between the ages of eight and twelve.
The interview was simple. The journalist explained the situation: A father and his young son were driving along the
highway, when they were in a serious accident. They were both rushed, unconscious, to a nearby hospital, in critical condition.
The child was immediately prepared for emergency surgery. However, the surgeon took one look at the child and said, “I
cannot operate on this boy. He is my son.” Then the journalist asked the interviewees, “If the man in the car is the boy’s father,
who is the surgeon?”
While the question seems like an easy one, many of the people in the older group had a very difficult time answering it. In
fact, only a handful of the people interviewed were able to come up with the correct answer. “Maybe the man in the car was
the boy’s step-father,” some said. Others even suggested that the question was a trick, and the term ‘father’ actually meant that
the man in the car was a priest. And many just admitted that they simply had no idea who the surgeon could be.
In contrast to the older group, nearly all of the children were able to produce the correct answer with almost no hesitation at
all. “The surgeon is the boy’s mother!” many of them shouted.
What the experiment clearly illustrates is the vast difference in the way different generations have come see the roles of males
and females in society. From this simple survey, it is easy to draw the conclusion that the older people were simply unable to
imagine that the surgeon might be a woman. Most of these people grew up in an era when a woman’s main role was as a
mother and caregiver. The idea that there might be female surgeons, soldiers, and CEOs might not have gained currency with
them, even to this day.
The youngsters, on the other hand, did not hold such obsolete notions of a woman’s role in society. Many, growing up with
mothers who are doctors, lawyers, and even soldiers, saw straight through the ‘tricky’ question.
This program pointed out to me just how much our society is changing. At 45 years old, I, myself had a hard time
answering the question. How did you answer the question?
Question 35: The journalist interviewed _____.

A. two groups of people who were very different ages
B. two groups of people who were very close in age
C. three groups of people who were all of different ages
D. one group of people of mixed ages
Question 36: The article’s main point is that _____.
A. young people want to be surgeons
B. older people are trying to keep women at home
C. older people aren’t as well informed as younger people
D. the way people of different generations think about male and female roles has changed
Question 37: The word “distinct” in the first paragraph most closely means___________.
A. unique B. noticeable C. distinguishable D. different
Question 38:Which of the following is NOT mentioned about the older people’s responses to the question?
A. Many had no idea what the answer was.
B. Some thought it was a trick question.
C. Some said the man in the car was the boy’s step-father.
D. No one came up with the correct answer.
Question 39: In the third paragraph, ‘only a handful’ means _____.
A. none B. a few C. many D. exactly five
Question 40: From the use of the words ‘obsolete notion’ we can infer that _____.
A. the author has no opinion about the views held by the older group
B. the author prefers the older group’s ideas about women’s roles
C. the author thinks the roles of males and females in society have not changed
D. the author prefers the children’s ideas about women’s roles
Question 41: The word “obsolete” in the first paragraph most closely means___________.
A. handy B. obsessive C. outdated D. progressive
Question 42: In paragraph 6, because ‘tricky’ is in quotation marks, we can infer that the writer thinks _____.
A. the question was too tricky for children
B. the question was not tricky because he was able to answer it himself
C. the question was not tricky, and he is criticizing the older group for thinking it was tricky
D. the question was tricky and was not fair
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 43: I didn’t feel like going to church this morning because it was hard raining.
A B C D
Question 44: Facebook.com’s server IP address could not find in Google Chrome browser
A B
because of the error of Internet connection.
C D
Question 45: There’s plenty of time for you to make up your brain, so you needn’t decide
A B C D
now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 46: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine.”
A. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. The doctor advised that Jasmine should take a short rest for a few days.
C. It is the doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.
D. Tthe doctor strongly encouraged Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
Question 47: I've never had to wait this long for a bus before.
A. This is the longest I have ever had to wait for a bus.
B. I used to wait long for a bus like this before.
C. I have to wait this long for a bus very frequently .
D. This is the second time that I have been waiting long for a bus.
Question 48: They weren't allowed to stay out late when they lived with their parents.
A. They mustn’t stay out late when they lived with their parents.
B. Their parents would not let them stay out late when they lived at home.
C. They can’t have stayed late when they lived with their parents.
D. They sometimes got get permission from their parents to stay out late when they lived at home.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 49: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her.
E. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.
F. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.
G. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project.
H. Provided her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't continue with the project.
Question 50: I had seen her flat with my own eyes. I understood why she wanted to live there.
A. It was not until she moved to live in the flat that I came to see her flat.
B. I would not understand why she wanted to live there if I didn’t see her flat with my own eyes.
C. I understood why she wanted to live in her flat that I myself saw.
D. Only after I had seen her flat with my own eyes did I understand why she wanted to live there.
Practice 39
( 40 de tinh giam)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. snacks B. follows C. titles D. writers
Question 2: A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. inspire B. resign C. danger D. exchange
Question 4: A. delegate B. fabulous C. external D. slippery
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
Question 5: Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ?
A. didn’t he B. does he C. did he D. doesn’t he
Question 6: Unless you_____all of my questions, I can’t do anything to help you.
A. answered B. answer C. would answer D. are answering
Question 7: Peter _________ a book when I saw him.
A. is reading B. reading C. read D. was reading
Question 8: I won’t change my mind _________what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
Question 9: This book provides students _________ useful tips that help them to pass the coming
exam.
A. at B. about C. for D. with
Question 10: The Perfect Pet Parlor is a chain of stores --------- a large selection of pet food and
pet accessories at a reasonable price with excellent sales support.
A. sell B. sells C. sold D. selling
Question 11: You should eat more, .
a. you'll make yourself ill B. you making yourself ill
C. or you'll make yourself ill D. if you'll make yourself ill
Question 12: You can’t get a soda from that machine. There’s a sign on it says that
“__________”.
A. Out of job B. Out of hand C. Out of order D. Out of mind
Question 13: I find it quite ______ to talk in front of a group of people.
A. embarrassingly B. embarrassing C. embarrassment D. embarrassed
Question 14: Who will the children while you go out to work?
A. look for B. look up C. look after D. look at
Question 15: We need _________ information before we can decide.
A. further B. farther C. far D. furthest
Question 16: My car isn’t _________. It’s always letting me down.
A. believable B. reliable C. colorable D. conceivable
Question 17: He left the country _______ arrest when he returned.
A. in fear that B. with fear of C. under threat of D. with threat of
Question 18: When she looked in her purse she found that her money had been _____.
A. stolen B. broken C. thieved D. robbed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual.
A. continues B. resurfaces C. delays D. responds
Question 20: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.
A. constant B. changable C. objective D. ignorant
Question 22: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” - Anna: “__________!”
A. Better luck next time B. So poor
C. Congratulations D. That was nice of them
Question 24: Mary: “It’s a nice day today. Let’s play a game of tennis.”
Linda: “________________”
A. Will we not play? B. Why not do we play?
C. Why not? D. Shall not we play?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns (25)________ strongly affect the
world. When the water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and surrounding regions decreases.
Australia could (26) ________ experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand, Chile (which
borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for severe rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the
weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier.
This happening is called El Nino and is used (27) ________ weather forecasters to make long-
range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will bring unusually rain to the southwestern
part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time.
According to research, weather forecasters (28) ________ know about the coming weather with
certainty. Now everything has become completely different.
El Nino itself used to be predictable. It would occur every two to seven years. But now this
weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones
occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (29) ________ on the global scale either.
Question 25: A. what B. when C. that D. whether
Question 26: A. even B. ever C. nevertheless D. however
Question 27: A. on B. by C. to D. at
Question 28: A. used to B. get used to C. are used to D. used to be
Question 29: A. change B. transfer C. transformation D. shift
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Today, more and more women are actively participating in social activities both in urban and rural
areas. Specially, they have shined brightly in even many fields commonly regarded as the man’s
areas such as business, scientific research and social management. In some areas, women even
show more overwhelming power than men. The image of contemporary Vietnamese women with
creativeness, dynamism, success has become popular in Vietnam’s society. The fact reveals that the
gender gap has been remarkably narrowed and women enjoy many more opportunities to pursue
their social careers and obtain success, contributing to national socio-economic development.
According to Ms Le Thi Quy, Director of the Gender and Development Research Centre under the
University of Social Sciences and Humanities, Hanoi National University, gender equity in Vietnam
has reached a high level over the past decade. The rate of Vietnamese women becoming National
Assembly members from the 9th term to the 11th term increased 8.7%, bringing the proportion of
Vietnamese women in authority to 27.3%, the highest rate in Southeast Asia. There is no big gap in
the level of literacy and schooling between men and women. Women account for about 37% of
university and college graduates, 19.9% of doctoral degree holders and 6.7% of professors and
associate professors.
The legitimate rights of women and children are ensured more than ever before with more
complete legal documents including laws, conventions and national action plans, among which the
laws on “gender equity” mark a turning-point in the empowerment of women.
Mass media also highlights the continued success of women in every field and horrors their
great importance in modern society, helping to do away with out-dated perceptions about traditional
women’s duties. Many projects on reproductive health care, children protection, and family income
improvement jointly conducted by various mass organizations, sate agencies and non-governmental
organizations have created favorable conditions for women to become involved.
Question 30: The text is about ___.
A. the changes in the status of Vietnamese women
B. the Vietnamese women’s liberation
C. the Vietnamese sex discrimination
D. the discrimination that Vietnamese women have to face
Question 31: Which adjective is not used to describe Vietnamese women?
A. successful B. creative C. narrow D. dynamic
Question 32: The word “they” in pargaraph 1 is refered to ____________.
A. areas B. fields C. women D. activities
Question 33: Vietnamese women ____.
A. have few opportunities to develop their intellectual ability
B. have only shined brightly in doing housework
C. can’t do any scientific research
D. are ensured their rights with laws, conventions and national action plans
Question 34: Which is NOT mentioned in the text as a project to create condition for Vietnamese
women?
A. Traditional women’s duties B. Reproductive care
C. Children protection D. Family income improvement
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college
and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936,
she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent
reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea
Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human
history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality.
Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and
frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her
non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It
proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed
how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time,
spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued
propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963
report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
Question 35: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work _____________.
A. at college B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service
C. as a researcher D. as a writer
Question 36: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins
University?
A. Oceanography B. Zoology C. Literature D. History
Question 37: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ________.
A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books
C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies
Question 39: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of
information for The Sea Around Us
A. Printed matter B. Talks with experts
C. A research expedition D. Letters from scientists
Question 40: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible
Question 41: The word “flawed” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive
Question 42: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science
Advisory Committee?
A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
B. To support Carson’s ideas.
C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims
Question 43: He bought a lot of books, none of them he has ever read.
A. bought B. none C. them D. has ever read
Question 44: There is few evidence that the children in language classrooms learn foreign
languages any better than adults in similar classroom situation.
A. few evidence B. in language classrooms C. any better D. classroom situation
Question 45: The theory isn’t sounding persuasive anymore because it had been opposed by many
scholars.
A. isn’t sounding B. anymore C. had been opposed D. scholars
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: How well you'll understand the lesson depends on how much you pay attention.
A. The better you'll understand the lesson, the more you pay attention.
B. The more you pay attention, the worse you'll understand the lesson.
C. The much you pay attention, the good you'll understand the lesson.
D. The more you pay attention, the better you'll understand the lesson.
Question 47: Tom said to the girl: "When did you have this picture taken?"
A. Tom asked the girl when you had that picture taken.
B. Tom said to the girl when she had that picture taken.
C. Tom asked the girl when she had that picture taken.
D. Tom asked the girl when she had had that picture taken.
Question 48: It is possible that one of the men died on the mountain.
A. One of the men must have died on the mountain.
B. One of the men could have died on the mountain.
C. One of the men should have died on the mountain.
D. One of the men may have died on the mountain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her.
E. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.
F. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.
G. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project.
H. Provided her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't continue with the project.
Question 50: I didn’t realize her illness when I came into the class.
A. Had I come into the class, I would have realized her illness.
B. Not until I came into the class did I realize her illness.
C. No sooner did I come into the class than I realized her illness.
D. Ony when I realized her illness did I come into the class.
Practice 40
( 40 de tinh giam)
Question 1: A. faces B. strikes C. creates D. cigarettes
Question 2: A. humane B. hold C. handle D. heir
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. effort B. cancer C. deafness D. effect
Question 4: A. economy B. decoration C. universal D. expectation
questions.
Question 5: I don’t think Jill would be a good teacher. She’s got little patience, ?
A. hasn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. hasshe
Question 6: If she_________a car, she would go out in the evening.
A. have B. has C. has had D. had
Question 7: Justin is writing a book about his adventure in Tibet. I hope he can find a good publisher when he
______.
A. finished B. has finished C. will finish D. is finishing
Question 8: They didn’t reach any agreement______their frank and open talks.
A. because of B. although C. since D. in spite of
Question 9: This survey is to find out the young people’s attitudes _____ love.
A. towards B. into C. above D. beneath
Question 10: Attendance is mandatory for the staff meeting ………….. for next Tuesday in the council hall
A. has been scheduled B. schedule C. will schedule D. scheduled
Question 11: , I will show her around my city.
A. When she will come here B. She coming here
C. When she comes here D. When she came here
Question 12: Jane would never forget______first prize in such a prestigious competition.
A. to be awarded B. being awarded
C. to have awarded D. having awarded
Question 13: Philip dressed in strange clothes and wore a mask on his face for a party. He was completely ______.
No one knew who he was.
A. unrecognizing B. unrecognizable C. recognizable D. recognizing
Question 14: The government ____________ major changes to the education system recently.
A. declared B. announced C. warned D. expressed
Question 15: You can ______ what is happening on the other side of the world by telephone.
A. see B. hear C. make D. learn
Question 16: I found it very stressful living in the centre of town, so I was pleased when we moved to a quiet
residential area in the ______.
A. edge B. outskirts C. suburbs D. estate
Question 17: It is our ______ policy that we will achieve unity through peaceful means.
A. continuous B. consistent C. considerate D. continual
Question 18: If you want to join this club, you must this application form.
A. make up B. write down C. do up D. fill in
Question 19: The man remained motionless on the grass when the dogs approached him. He was too frightened.
A. dead B. asleep C. unconscious D. still
Question 20: I unexpectedly met a very old friend yesterday. In fact, we hadn’t seen each other for several years.
A. ran over B. ran into C. looked for D. looked into
Question 21: It was quite a rocky relationship as we used to argue with each other all the time and we sometimes
went days without speaking to each other.
A. better B. stable C. unsteady D. appalling
Question 22: I need to catch up on world events. I haven't seen the news in ages.
A. become outdated B. go ahead with C. catch sight of D. watch the news
Question 23. Jim is talking to Jack about reading kinds of books.
-Jim: “Do you read novels or detective stories?”
-Jack: “______”
A. No, I don’t have any. B. Yes, novels or detective stories.
C. I enjoy detective stories a lot more. D. Why novels? No more of them.
Question 24. Jane asks Hoa about her new roommate.
-Jane: “______”
-Hoa: “He’s very outgoing.”
A. Are you and your new roommate alike? B. What does your new roommate like?
C. What’s your new roommate like? D. What does your new roommate look like?
(25) ______ you first arrive in a foreign country, your initial reaction is often completely positive. Everything
seems exciting, different and fascinating. It's an adventure. If you're just on a short holiday, you'll probably never
leave this phase, but if you stay longer, your attitude towards your (26) ______ environment can start to change.
As soon as you start to realize how little you understand the new culture, life can get frustrating. People
misunderstand (27) ______ you're trying to say, or they may even laugh at you for saying something incorrectly.
Even simple things, like posting a letter, can seem impossibly difficult, and you are likely to (28) ______ by getting
angry or upset when things go wrong.
With time, however, you start to adjust to become more comfortable with the differences and better able to handle
frustrating and embarrassing (29) ______. Your sense of humour reappears. Finally, you reach the stage of feeling
able to be enthusiastic about the culture once again, enjoy living in it, and maybe even prefer certain aspects of the
culture to your own.
(Source: www.english-grammar.at)
Question 25: A. When B. However C. Dispite D. Although
Question 26. A. new B. natural C. original D. old
Question 27. A. what B. how C. which D. where
Question 28. A. overreact B. overflow C. overcome D. outdo
Question 29. A. locations B. conditions C. situations D. circumstances
Many people believe the glare from snow causes snow-blindness. Yet, dark glasses or not, they find themselves
suffering from headaches and watering eyes, and even snow-blindness, when exposed to several hours of "snow
light".
The United States Army has now determined that the glare from snow does not cause snow-blindness in troops in a
snow-covered country. Rather, a man's eyes frequently find nothing to focus on in a broad expanse of a snow-
covered area. So his gaze continually shifts and jumps back and forth over the entire landscape in search of
something to look at. Finding nothing, hour after hour, the eyes never stop searching and the eyeballs become sore
and the eye muscles ache. Nature balances this annoyance by producing more and more liquid which covers the
eyeballs. The liquid covers the eyeballs in increasing quantity until vision blurs. And the result is total, even though
temporary, snow-blindness.
Experiments led the Army to a simple method of overcoming this problem. Scouts ahead of a main body of troops
are trained to shake snow from evergreen bushes, creating a dotted line as they cross completely snow-covered
landscape. Even the scouts themselves throw lightweight, dark-colored objects ahead on which they too can focus.
The men following can then see something. Their gaze is arrested. Their eyes focus on a bush and having found
something to see, stop searching through the snow-blanketed landscape. By focusing their attention on one object at
a time, the men can cross the snow without becoming hopelessly snow-blind or lost: In this way the problem of
crossing a solid white area is overcome.
(Source: https://read01.com/LEG2yd.html)
Question 30: A suitable title for this passage would be ______.
A. Soldiers Marching in the Snow
B. Snow-blindness and How to Overcome It
C. Nature's Cure for Snow-blindness
D. Snow Vision and Its Effect on Eyesight
Question 31: According to the paragraph 1, people can suffer from all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. headaches B. snow-blindness C. eye muscles ache D. watering eyes
Question 32: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to______ .
A. bushes B. main troops C. scouts D. experiments
Question 33: The eyeballs become sore and the eye muscles ache because ______.
A. there is nothing to focus on B. the eyes are annoyed by blinding snow
C. tears cover the eyeballs D. the eyes are annoyed by blinding sunlight
Question 34: The word "sore"in paragraph 2 mostly means______.
A. hot B. bitter C. open D. painful
Some cities are located by chance. A wagon breaks down, the driver spends some time in repairs, finds that he is in
a congenial spot, and settles down. Later another person builds a house near his, and later someone adds an inn.
Someone else starts selling farm produce there. Soon there is a little market, which grows to a town, and later to a
city.
Other places were destined by nature to become cities. London, for example, is on what is called the head of
navigation - the point where it becomes too difficult for ocean-going ships to continue upriver, and must transfer
their cargoes. As with London, the head of navigation is also the point where the river can be conveniently bridged.
In fact, the location of a bridge is often the reason for the birth of a town - as Cambridge or Weybridge in England
show. Again, a good harbour will generally lead to a city growing up about it. New York and San Francisco began
life as ports, as did Cape Town in South Africa.
Some places were created mainly for military purposes, such as Milan, and the host of English cities finishing with
-cester, which is derived from castra which means camp in Latin. Chester itself, created to guard the Welsh border,
is a very good example. Other such military bases are Manchester, Doncaster, and of course, Newcastle.
A few cities are not created by accident, but by intention. This was the case with Milton Keynes in England, but the
most famous examples of such cities are capitals. Brasilia, Canberra and Washington are capitals created in modern
times, but even their greatest admirers will admit that they lack a certain character. It is no co-incidence that there
are famous pop songs about New York, ("New York, New York") Chicago ("My kind of Town") San Francisco
("Going to San Francisco") and many other US cities, but none about the nation's capital. On the other hand any
Londoner can give you at least three songs about the place.
(Source: https://www.englishexercises.org/makeagame/viewgame.asp)
Question 35. This reading passage is mainly about ______.
A. famous cities and urban life B. why some city sites are chosen
C. why capital cities are created D. places where cities might begin
Question 36. The word “congenial” in the first paragraph probably means ______.
A. noisy B. related C. pleasing D. favourable
Question 37. According to the passage, London owes its origin to ______.
A. a river B. a countryside ship C. an army camp D. a bridge
Question 38. The passage suggests that a large harbour ______.
A. is important for import/export B. is a place where wars start
C. is always located in capital cities D. may lead to the development of a big city
Question 39. The passage suggests that English cities of military origin ______.
A. can be found from their names B. can be found from their locations
C. are more common than other cities D. always end with -cester
Question 40. It can be inferred from the passage that the word “Chester” has _____ roots.
A. Italian B. Latin American C. Latin D. Roman
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT given as a reason for a new city?
A. Random events B. Wars C. Trade D. Politics
Question 42. There are no songs about Washington because ______.
A. songwriters don't like politics B. it is too modern
C. it is the national capital D. the city has little character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 43: Though its mouth is big, a crocodile can swallow small only animals.
A B C D
Question 44: More schools have built recently to make it convenient for children to receive education. A B
C D
Question 45: When an Arab wants to know if his camel can make a long voyage in the desert, he
A B
looks at its hump to see how large and firm it is.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 46: HNFC are the best football club in the V.League round seven match.
A. No football clubs are as good as HNFC in the V.League round seven match.
B. HNFC play as well as others in the V.League round seven match.
C. HNFC don’t play as well as others in the V.League round seven match.
D. Other football clubs can play as well as HNFC in the V.League round seven match.
Question 47: "Why don't you ask the Council for help?" my neighbour said.
A. My neighbour wants to know why I don't ask the Council for help.
B. My neighbour advised me to ask the Council for help.
C. My neighbour recommended asking the Council for help.
D. My neighbour told me not to ask the Council for help.
Question 48: If only you told me the truth about the theft.
A. You should have told me the truth about the theft.
B. I do wish you would tell me the truth about the theft.
C. You must have told me the truth about the theft.
D. It is necessary that you tell me the truth about the theft.
Question 49: If I hadn't had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies.
A. I never go to the movies if 1 had work to do.
B. Because I had to do so much work, I couldn't go to the movies.
C. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.
D. A lot of work couldn't prevent me from going to the movies
Question 50: It isn't just that the level of education of this school is high. It's that it's also been consistent for years.
A. Not only are the standards of education good in this school, but it has maintained those standards over the years.
B. The standard of education is not high in this school, but at least all the students are at the same level.
C. The level of education in this school, which is usually quite high, shows only slight variations from year to year.
D. It isn't fair to deny that this school is successful, as it has had the same high standards for many years now.

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Practice 21

Câu 23. (1) A. heads B. shoulders C. mouths D. hands

- Pay with / by cheque: trả băng séc

Câu 50. As soon as I entered the room, I noticed her.

2:A. clothes B. bosses C. boxes D. couches

Question 8: ________I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it.

Question 14: We were made hard when we were at school.

Question 15: Arranging flowers among my sister's hobbies.

Question 24: Rebecca's in a fashion store in Trang Tien Plaza.

Question 32:The phrase “susceptible to” could best be replaced by

Question 34: Which of the following does the passage infer?

Question 35: According to the text, social networks

Question 36: Why do advertisers like social network sites?

Question 39: What should users not do on social networks?

Question 41: Personal information on social network sites

Question 42: Social networking is great for

Question 47: It was a mistake of you to lose your passport.

Câu 3: Jim’s….............................flu again. That’s the third time this year.

Câu 4: Although he was…............................., he agreed to play tennis with me.

Câu 8: Global warming will result…..............................crop failures and famine.

Câu 9: “Never say that again,................................?”

Câu 10: He promised his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.

Câu 11: According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, .

Câu 16: A. telephone -i - B. restaurant -e - C. interpreter -i D. perverted -i

Câu 20: “Would you mind turning down your stereo?” - “ .”

Câu 32: As he gets older, he wants to travel less.

Câu 41: What does the second paragraph discuss?

Câu 42: Intuition described in the passage can be explained by means of .

Câu 43: The title for this passage could be .

Câu 44: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means .

Câu 48: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means .

Câu 50: We can infer from the passage that .

Question 6: If _______, that tree would look more impressive

Question 11: _______, she received a big applause.

Question 25: A. companies B. factories C. sites D. stations

Question 34: The word "ludicrous" paragraph 3 mostly means __________.

Question 47: “John left here an hour ago,” said Jane.

Question 6. Candidates should never be late for the interview, .

Question 9. Governments should _________ some international laws against terrorism.

Question 10. I’m sure you’ll have no _________ the exam.

Question 14. By the time Brown's daughter graduates, retired.

Question 17. Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as __________ as possible.

Question 24. - Hoa: “Would you mind closing the door?”

and drawn designs, three-dimensional molded relief decoration became popular.

that of the potter, was die-stamped onto a piece.

resemblance to English brown-glazed earthenware made in South Yorkshire.) It was created

Rockingham glaze to produce brilliant varicolored streaks.

among collectors and correspondingly high prices.

Question 35. The word “ornate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____________.

Question 39. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

Question 41. What was special about flint enamel?

Question 47. My car keys are possibly in the kitchen.

Question 6. David refused ___________ in the contest because he was ill.

Question 11. I'm terrified breaking down on a motorway at night.

Question 14. I can't go with you because I _______ my homework yet.

Question 16. I have st at my ___________ before attending the meeting.

Question 17. I decided to go to the library as soon as I .

Question 24. - Tom: “Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.”

Question 48. A: John passed his exam with a distinction. B: ______________________

A. wouldn’t have been B. hadn’t been C. won’t be D. wouldn’t be

A. went B. was going C. has gone D. goes

Question 9. Can you tell me who is responsible __________ checking passports?

Question 12. Faraday was an_________in Davy's laboratory.