SAT

Practice Test 1

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Reading Test
65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
  DIRECTIONS
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
This passage is adapted from Daniel Defoe, Robinson Crusoe.
Originally published in 1719. The narrator of this story, a
plantation owner turned adventurer, has journeyed out on a
boat that is about to be shipwrecked on the way to Brazil.
In this distress, the wind still blowing very hard, one
of our men early one morning cried out, “Land!” and
we had no sooner run out of the cabin to look out, in
Line hopes of seeing whereabout in the world we were, than
5 the ship struck upon the sand, and in a moment, her
motion being so stopped, the sea broke over her in such
a manner that we expected we should all have perished
immediately…
Nothing can describe the confusion of thought
10 which I felt when I sank into the water; for though I
swam very well, yet I could not deliver myself from
the waves so as to draw breath, till that wave having
driven me, or rather carried me, a vast way on toward
the shore, and having spent itself, went back and left me
15 upon the land, almost dry, but half dead with the water
I took in... The wave that came upon me again buried
me at once twenty or thirty feet deep in its own body,
and I could feel myself carried with a mighty force and
swiftness toward the shore a very great way; but I held
20 my breath and assisted myself to swim still forward
with all my might. I was ready to burst with holding
my breath when, as I felt myself rising up, so, to my
immediate relief, I found my head and hands shoot out
above the surface of the water; and though it was not
25 two seconds of time that I could keep myself so, yet it
relieved me greatly, gave me breath and new courage...
2
I resolved to hold fast by a piece of the rock, and so
to hold my breath, if possible, till the wave went back.
Now, as the waves were not so high as at first, being
30 nearer land, I held my hold till the wave abated, and
then fetched another run, which brought me so near
the shore, that the next wave, though it went over me,
yet did not so swallow me up as to carry me away;
and the next run I took I got to the mainland; where,
35 to my great comfort, I clambered up the clifts and sat
upon the grass, free from danger and quite out of the
reach of the water, I was now landed and safe on shore,
and began to look up and thank God that my life was
saved, in a case wherein there was some minutes before
40 scarce any room to hope. I believe it is impossible to
express, to the life, what the ecstasies and transports of
the soul are, when it is so saved, as I may say, out of the
very grave: and I do not wonder now at that custom,
when a malefactor, who has the halter about his neck,
45 is tied up, and just going to be turned off, and has a
reprieve brought to him—I say I do not wonder that
they bring a surgeon with it, to let him bleed that very
moment they tell him of it, that the surprise may not
drive the animal spirits from the heart, and overwhelm
50 him, for sudden joys, like griefs, confound at first.
I walked about on the shore, lifting up my hands,
and my whole being, as I may say, wrapped up in a
contemplation of my deliverance; making a thousand
gestures and motions, which I cannot describe;
55 reflecting upon all my comrades that were drowned,
and that there should not be one soul saved but myself;
for, as for them, I never saw them afterward, or any sign
of them, except three of their hats, one cap, and two
shoes that were not fellows.
CONTINUE
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1 5
Over the course of the passage, the narrator’s attitude
shifts from
A) joy about the expedition to grief over it.
B) despair of survival to gratitude for it.
C) misgivings about the voyage to resolve for it.
D) contempt for his expedition to relief from it.
2 D) the narrator will never completely understand what
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 5-8 (“the ship . . . immediately”)
B) Lines 16-19 (“The wave . . . way”)
C) Lines 27-28 (“I resolved . . . back”)
D) Lines 40-43 (“I believe . . . grave”)
3 D) expel.
As used in line 6, “broke over her” most nearly means
A) crashed against the ship.
B) destroyed the ship immediately.
C) caused the ship to hit the sand.
D) fragmented the ship’s frame.
4
The sentence in lines 34-40 (“where, to . . . hope”)
mainly serves to
A) prove that the power of the sea was stronger than
the narrator anticipated.
B) stress the narrator’s thankfulness for having
survived.
C) reveal the narrator’s belief that he will be able to
stay out of the water.
D) declare a religious side of the narrator not
previously seen.
3
The reference the narrator ponders in lines 43-50
(“I do . . . him”) most nearly implies that
A) he now understands another situation based on his
own experience of survival.
B) the surgeon who lets a patient bleed should be
deemed irresponsible.
C) the noose was once about the narrator’s neck and
he likens it to escaping the sea.
it’s like to be a criminal.
6
As used in line 49, “drive” most nearly means
A) cause.
B) accelerate.
C) imply.
7
As used in line 53, “contemplation of my deliverance”
most nearly means
A) reflection on an escape to safety.
B) foresight into a redemption.
C) expectation of a salvation.
D) understanding of an exemption.
8
The narrator indicates that the other shipmates on the
voyage have
A) had different motivations for the journey than his
own.
B) lost their lives in the waters.
C) discovered land and found shelter.
D) failed to determine whereabout in the world they
were.
CONTINUE
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9 10
Which choice provides the best evidence for the Which choice best describes the narrator’s view of his
answer to the previous question? struggle to safety?
A) Lines 1-5 (“In this . . . sand”) A) Confident but hazardous
B) Lines 34-40 (“and the . . . hope”) B) Fearful but gratifying
C) Lines 48-50 (“that the . . . first”) C) Harrowing but relieving
D) Lines 55-59 (“reflecting upon . . . fellows”) D) Impossible but intriguing

CONTINUE
4
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Questions 11-21 are based on the following passage
and supplementary material.
This passage is excerpted from Enrico Moretti, The New
Geography of Jobs. © 2012 by Houghton Mifflin Harcourt.
Moretti is a professor of economics at the University of
California, Berkeley.
The idea is that no matter where people live, they
can share knowledge and move products at virtually
no cost. According to this view, the good jobs, now
Line concentrated in high-cost locations such as Silicon
5 Valley and Boston, will quickly disperse to low-cost
locations, both in the United States and abroad. An
experienced software engineer in India makes $35,000.
The same person in Silicon Valley makes $140,000.
Why would U.S. firms keep hiring in Silicon Valley
10 when they could save so much by outsourcing? By
the same token, if labor costs are three times higher
in Silicon Valley than in Mobile, Alabama, companies
will eventually relocate to Alabama. This process of
dispersion, the argument goes, will be faster than the
15 dispersion of manufacturing jobs, because moving
software codes across DSL lines is easier than moving
bulky goods across borders. In this vision of the future,
the great innovation hubs of American will disappear
from the map and innovation jobs will disperse evenly
20 across the country. The key prediction of this view is
the convergence of American communities. Low-cost
areas will attract more and more of the new, high-
paying jobs. Cities that have been lagging behind—the
Clevelands, the Topekas, and the Mobiles—will grow
25 much faster. Bogged down by their high costs, San
Francisco, New York, Seattle, and similar cities will
decline.
But the data don’t support this view. In fact,
the opposite has been happening. In innovation, a
30 company’s success depends on more than just the
quality of its workers—it also depends on the entire
ecosystem that surrounds it. This is important, because
it makes it harder to delocalize innovation than
traditional manufacturing. A textile factory is a stand-
35 alone entity that can be put pretty much anywhere
in the world where labor is abundant. By contrast, a
biotech lab is harder to export, because you would have
to move not just one company but an entire ecosystem.
A growing body of research suggests that cities
40 are not just a collection of individuals but complex,
interrelated environments that foster the generation
of new ideas and new ways of doing business. For
5
example, social interactions among workers tend
to generate learning opportunities that enhance
45 innovation and productivity. Being around smart
people makes us smarter and more innovative. By
clustering near each other, innovators foster each
other’s creative spirit and become more successful.
Thus, once a city attracts some innovative workers
50 and innovative companies, its economy changes
in ways that make it even more attractive to other
innovators. In the end, this is what is causing the Great
Divergence among American communities, as some
cities experience an increased concentration of good
55 jobs, talent, and investment and others are in free fall.
It is a trend that is reshaping not just our economy but
our entire society in profound ways. It implies that a
growing part of inequality in America reflects not just
a class divide, but a geographical divide.
60 This does not mean there is no merit to the view
that low-cost areas are destined to catch up. At a global
level, the most important economic development
of the past decade is the incredible improvement in
the standard of living in developing nations such as
65 Brazil, China, Poland, Turkey, India, and even some
African countries. Their strong economic performance
has greatly reduced the gap between these countries
and rich nations, thus contributing to a marked
convergence in income levels. This is welcome
70 news. Although seldom recognized, inequality has
plummeted when measured at a global level. The
catch-up experienced by the American South over the
past fifty years is another example of convergence.
Many southern states were significantly poorer than
75 the rest of the country in the 1960s but grew more
rapidly in the following decades.
Yet in both cases the process of catching up was
geographically uneven. Some southern cities—Austin,
Atlanta, Durham, Washington, D.C., Dallas, and
80 Houston, for example—grew much faster than others,
thus increasing the disparity among communities
in the South. Developing countries exhibit similar
regional differences. In China, Shanghai has reached
a per capita income close to that of a rich nation. Its
85 students outperform American and European students
in standardized tests by a wide margin. Its public
infrastructure is better than that of most American
cities. But agricultural communities in western China
have made much less progress. The regional differences
90 in China have clearly grown, even if the difference
between China and richer countries has shrunk.
CONTINUE
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U.S. Manufacturing Jobs, 1985 to 2010 12
22 Which choice best summarizes the third paragraph of
the passage?
19 A) Workers must engage with each other socially for a
Jobs (Millions)

company to be successful.
16 B) Factors that influence city growth are more wide-
ranging than the simple exchange of information.
C) A city can only grow if it attracts smart people and
13
innovative businesses.
D) Increased access to cell phones and the Internet
10 allows Americans to relocate to less expensive
1985 1990 1995 2000 2005 2010 cities.
Year

Figure 1 13
As used in line 41, “foster” most nearly means
Population Growth by Decade A) nurse.
in U.S. Regions (by Percent), B) encourage.
1980 to 2010 C) shelter.
30 1980–1990
24.5 D) entertain.
25 1990–2000
20 19.9 2118.1 19.6
2000–2010
15 14.1
9.1 14
10
5.7
5 3.1 2.2 3.2 4.7 According to the passage, which choice best describes
0 the economic development of some developing
Northwest Midwest South West countries?
A) Similar improvements as those in the American
Figure 2
Data from US Census: https://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/ south due to comparable demographics
c2010br-01.pdf B) Increased income inequality due to the uneven
dispersal of technology
C) Reduced disparity between the developing
countries and rich nations related to an improved
standard of living
11 D) Slowed growth due to geographic conditions
According to the passage, which type of industry
would be the most difficult to relocate?
A) A biotech lab
B) A textile factory
C) A shipping company
D) A tobacco farm

CONTINUE
6
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15
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 61-66 (“At a global . . . countries”)
B) Lines 70-71 (“Although seldom . . . level”)
C) Lines 71-73 (“The catch-up . . . convergence”)
D) Lines 74-76 (“Many southern . . . decades”)
16
As used in line 78, “uneven” most nearly means
A) rugged.
B) unequal.
C) intermittent.
D) bumpy.
17
The passage implies that Shanghai, China
A) has the smartest students in the country.
B) is an accurate representation of China as a whole.
C) has a large income disparity between its richest and
poorest people.
D) is making greater advances than other regions of
China.
18
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 66-69 (“Their strong . . . levels”)
B) Lines 78-82 (“Some southern . . . South”)
C) Lines 83-84 (“In China . . . nation”)
D) Lines 88-89 (“But agricultural . . . progress”)
7
19
According to Figure 1, the years 1993–1997 were
characterized by
A) a consistent decline in manufacturing jobs.
B) a variation in the trend evident in all the other
years.
C) a permanent reversal of an earlier trend.
D) no significant change in the number of jobs.
20
The author of the passage would most likely consider
the information in Figure 2 to be
A) inconsistent with information in the passage.
B) potentially relevant but too biased to be completely
useful.
C) illustrative of the author’s own experiences.
D) statistical evidence of statements made in the
passage.
21
Figure 2 indicates which of the following about the
population changes in the United States from 1980–
2010?
A) The South experienced more growth in the 1990s
than did any other region in that decade.
B) All regions experienced their highest levels of
growth in the 1990s.
C) The West experienced the highest levels of growth
in all three decades.
D) All four regions had their lowest population growth
in the 2000s.
CONTINUE
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Questions 22-31 are based on the following passage.
This passage is from Loren Grush, “A Genetic Mutation Renders
One Family Unable to Sweat.” © 2014 by Popular Science.
In Pakistan, there lives a family of five with a
unique—and tragic—condition. Several of their
children cannot sweat. It’s an extremely rare disorder
Line called anhidrosis, and while it may seem like a
5 nice trait to have, the ability to sweat is crucial for
regulating body temperature. In order to remain cool,
the kids spend their days in their house’s cellar, because
in daylight, they’d overheat and go unconscious. Too
much sun could ultimately kill them.
10 Now a group of scientists are decoding the mystery
surrounding this bizarre disorder. By mapping the
genome of each individual in this family, researchers
from Uppsala University in Sweden identified a single
genetic mutation responsible for the condition. Known
15 as ITPR2, the gene is responsible for controlling
sweat production, and knocking it out can stop
sweat secretion altogether. Lead researcher Niklas
Dahl stumbled upon the rare family in his quest for
understanding single-gene diseases, also known as
20 Mendelian disorders. Dahl notes that anhidrosis has
been seen before, but usually in conjunction with other
skin defects. This family is the first he knows of to have
anhidrosis as a primary isolated defect.
After analyzing the genomes of the family
25 members, Dahl and his team zeroed in on the culprit,
ITPR2, which encodes a protein called IP3R2. This
protein forms a calcium channel in the brain that
releases calcium when opened, triggering a chain
of events in the body that eventually result in sweat
30 secretion. “In the brain, you have temperature sensitive
cells, and they send signals to the nervous system,
which send signals to the periphery, then to skin
and to the sweat glands, and that induces sweating,”
Dahl, a genetics expert at Uppsala, tells Popular
35 Science. For the members of the Pakistan family,
their calcium channels never open. The researchers
further demonstrated this defect by creating a series
of genetically engineered mice without any IP3R2
production. Sure enough the rodents had reduced
40 sweating.
Understanding the mechanisms behind sweating
can actually help researchers develop drugs to reduce
excessive sweating, a condition that affects two
percent of the population. People with this disorder,
8
45 called hyperhidrosis, start sweating in their palms,
soles of their feet, chest, armpits, and other areas of
the body without any provocation. Some patients
will even wear plastic underneath their clothing to
avoid an embarrassing situation. Botox has proven
50 to be somewhat effective against hyperhidrosis, but
the treatments can be painful and awkward (getting
injections in your armpits cannot be fun). Dahl says
that lowering IP3R2 protein levels may be a much
simpler solution. “We have found a way to inhibit
55 production of this calcium channel,” Dahl says. “It is
targeted and very specific at least from a design point
of view. We can reduce peripheral sweating by 60
percent.”
Dahl also says their research highlights just how
60 important our pungent skin secretions are from an
evolutionary perspective. Humans have the highest
capacity for sweating on Earth, in relation to our body
size and lack of hair. This gives us the advantage of
being able to exercise for very long periods of time—
65 up to 10 hours a day.
“Fast animals run faster than us, but they can only
run for a few minutes. For humans, we could move
over enormous areas because of this ability, making us
very good hunters,” says Dahl. “Sweat glands made us
70 develop this capability of walking and jogging for miles
and miles without stopping.”
So thank you, sweat, for helping to keep us at the
top of the food chain.
22
The primary purpose of this passage is to
A) describe one family’s struggles with a rare disorder.
B) present a scientific answer to a medical mystery.
C) evaluate new technologies in the medical field.
D) offer an alternate solution to a previously-solved
problem.
CONTINUE
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23 27
The author’s attitude toward genome mapping is best Which choice provides the best evidence for the
described as one of answer to the previous question?
A) disapproval. A) Lines 3-6 (“It’s an . . . temperature”)
B) concern. B) Lines 20-22 (“Dahl notes . . . defects”)
C) elation. C) Lines 52-54 (“Dahl says . . . solution”)
D) esteem. D) Lines 61-63 (“Humans have . . . hair”)

24 28
The phrase “decoding the mystery” (line 10) most According to the passage, which of the following is
directly suggests that true of ITPR2?
A) genetic study is helping scientists determine the A) It is inhibited by protein IP3R2.
cause of a disorder. B) It releases calcium into the brain.
B) scientists are close to finishing a genome map for C) Its mutation can cause physical disorders.
the Pakistani family.
D) It sends signals to temperature sensitive cells.
C) no one knows why the family keeps the children in
the basement.
D) Mendelian disorders are only understood by 29
researchers.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
25 A) Lines 3-6 (“It’s an . . . temperature”)

As used in line 11, “bizarre” most nearly means B) Lines 24-26 (“After analyzing . . . IP3R2”)
A) eccentric. C) Lines 26-30 (“This protein . . . secretion”)
B) ludicrous. D) Lines 54-57 (“We have . . . view”)
C) offbeat.
D) unusual. 30
Which of the following does the author suggest about
“Botox” mentioned in line 49?
26
A) It inhibits production of the calcium channel.
What does the author suggest about sweat production
disorders such as anhidrosis and hyperhidrosis? B) It can reduce excessive sweating by 60%.
A) They are all single-gene disorders. C) It is a useful but unpleasant treatment.
B) They require those affected to wear plastic under D) It increases pungent human skin secretions.
their clothes at all times.
C) They are rarely seen in isolation from other
disorders.
D) They affect two percent of the population.

CONTINUE
9
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31
The most likely purpose of the parenthetical
information in lines 51-52 is to
A) justify a description.
B) define an expression.
C) identify a conclusion.
D) resolve a discrepancy.

CONTINUE
10
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Questions 32-41 are based on the following passages.
Passage 1 is adapted from Alexander Hamilton, The Federalist
Papers. Originally published in 1788. Passage 2 is adapted
from Richard Henry Lee, The Anti-Federalist Papers. Originally
published in 1788.
Passage 1
The President is “to nominate, and, by and with
the advice and consent of the Senate, to appoint
ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls,
Line judges of the Supreme Court, and all other officers
5 of the United States whose appointments are not
otherwise provided for in the Constitution... The
President shall have power to fill up all vacancies
which may happen during the recess of the Senate, by
granting commissions which shall expire at the end of
10 their next session…”
I proceed to lay it down as a rule, that one man of
discernment is better fitted to analyze and estimate the
peculiar qualities adapted to particular offices, than
a body of men of equal or perhaps even of superior
15 discernment.
The sole and undivided responsibility of one
man will naturally beget a livelier sense of duty and
a more exact regard to reputation. He will, on this
account, feel himself under stronger obligations, and
20 more interested to investigate with care the qualities
requisite to the stations to be filled, and to prefer with
impartiality the persons who may have the fairest
pretensions to them. He will have fewer personal
attachments to gratify, than a body of men who may
25 each be supposed to have an equal number; and will be
so much the less liable to be misled by the sentiments
of friendship and of affection. A single well-directed
man, by a single understanding, cannot be distracted
and warped by that diversity of views, feelings, and
30 interests, which frequently distract and warp the
resolutions of a collective body. The suffrages of the
party, will be more considered than those which fit the
person for the station.
In the last, the coalition will commonly turn upon
35 some interested equivalent: “Give us the man we wish
for this office, and you shall have the one you wish for
that.” This will be the usual condition of the bargain.
And it will rarely happen that the advancement of the
public service will be the primary object either of party
40 victories or of party negotiations.
11
Passage 2
Officers may be appointed by the president alone.
It has been almost universally found, when a man
has been authorized to exercise power alone, he has
never done it alone; but, generally, [was] aided [in]
45 his determinations by, and rested on the advice and
opinions of others. And it often happens when advice
is wanted, the worst men, the most interested creatures
obtrude themselves, the worst advice is at hand, and
misdirects the mind of him who would be informed
50 and advised. It is very seldom we see a single executive
depend on accidental advice and assistance; but each
single executive has, almost always, formed to itself
a regular council, to be assembled and consulted on
important occasions. This proves that a select council,
55 of some kind is, by experience, generally found
necessary and useful.
But in a free country, the exercise of any
considerable branch of power ought to be under
some checks and controls. As to this point, I think the
60 constitution stands well. The legislature may, when it
shall deem it expedient, from time to time, authorise
the president alone to appoint particular inferior
officers; and when necessary, to take back the power.
His power, therefore, in this respect, may always be
65 increased or decreased by the legislature, as experience,
the best instructor, shall direct—always keeping him,
by the constitution, within certain bounds…
This power of distributing appointments, as
circumstances may require, into several hands, in
70 a well formed disinterested legislature, might be of
essential service not only in promoting beneficial
appointments, but also in preserving the balance in
government. A feeble executive may be strengthened
and supported by placing in its hands more numerous
75 appointments; an executive too influential may be
reduced within proper bounds, by placing many of the
inferior appointments in the courts of law, and heads
of departments; nor is there much danger that the
executive will be wantonly weakened or strengthened
80 by the legislature by thus shifting the appointments of
inferior officers. Since all must be done by legislative
acts which cannot be passed without the consent of
the executive, or the consent of two-thirds of both
branches, a good legislature will use this power to
85 preserve the balance and perpetuate the government.
Here again we are brought to our ultimatum—is the
legislature so constructed as to deserve our confidence?
CONTINUE
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32 36
In Passage 1, Hamilton indicates that political How would Lee most likely respond to Hamilton’s
appointments made by a single individual differ from statement in lines 11-15, Passage 1 (“I proceed . . .
those made by a group mainly in their discernment”)?
A) neutrality and focus. A) He would agree that a single person is better suited
B) power and esteem. to appoint U.S. officials than is a body of men.
C) liveliness and exactness. B) He would contend that officials in free countries
should be appointed differently than those in
D) convenience and efficiency. dictatorships.
C) He would argue that allowing one person to make
official appointments can negatively affect the
33
government.
As used in line 13, “peculiar” most nearly means D) He would claim that the president should not make
A) conventional. appointments because he is advised by selfish men.
B) distinctive.
C) eccentric.
37
D) wonderful.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
34 A) Line 41 (“Officers may . . . alone”)
As used in line 21, “stations” most nearly refers to B) Lines 42-46 (“It has . . . others”)
A) political offices. C) Lines 68-73 (“This power . . . government”)
B) municipal headquarters. D) Lines 86-87 (“Here again . . . confidence”)
C) transfer locations.
D) local buildings. 38
Which choice describes how Hamilton would most
likely have reacted to Lee’s remarks in lines 68-73
35
(“This power . . . government”)?
It can most reasonably be inferred from Passage 2 that
A) With doubt, because a man working alone owes
Lee views the president’s ability to appoint qualified
fewer favors than a man working with a group.
officials as
B) With support, because in order to maintain order
A) unfairly biased toward the politically connected.
in the country, balance in the government must be
B) less desirable than a general election. preserved.
C) largely an overreach of power. C) With scorn, because Hamilton felt that a President
D) most effective when bound by the legislature. needed a system of checks and balances.
D) With criticism, because Lee neglected to mention
how the disinterested legislature would be formed.

CONTINUE
12
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39 41
Which choice provides the best evidence for answer to The main purpose of both passages is to
the previous question? A) offer a solution to the problem of creating political
A) Lines 6-10 (“The President . . . session”) offices.
B) Lines 23-27 (“He will . . . affection”) B) consider the best way to establish a competent
C) Lines 31-33 (“The suffrages . . . station”) legislature.

D) Lines 38-40 (“And it . . . negotiations”) C) clarify an opinion about the duties of the President.
D) explain the government’s system of checks and
balances.
40
Which choice best states the relationship between the
two passages?
A) Passage 2 provides specifics to clarify general
statements in Passage 1.
B) Passage 2 presents a contemporary view of a
historical idea in Passage 1.
C) Passage 2 addresses the solution to a problem
presented in Passage 1.
D) Passage 2 formulates arguments against the main
argument of Passage 1.

CONTINUE
13
 1 1
Questions 42-52 are based on the following passage
and supplementary material.
This passage is adapted from Samuel D. Arman and Gavin J.
Prideaux, “Behaviour of the Pleistocene Marsupial Lion
(T. carnifex) Deduced from Claw Marks in a Southwestern
Australian Cave.” © 2016 by Scientific Reports.
When humans first set foot in Australia around
50,000 years ago they entered a unique landscape
occupied by large reptiles, birds and mammals seen
Line nowhere else. These included the anatomically-bizarre
5 Thylacoleo carnifex. The ubiquity of this species and
its evocative depiction in Aboriginal rock art suggest
an important role in Australian ecosystems, but
despite numerous skeletal studies, interpretations
have remained controversial. The species was initially
10 described by Richard Owen in 1859 as “one of the
fellest and most destructive of predatory beasts,” a
view to which he was largely led by its greatly enlarged
slicing premolar. The species has been speculatively
portrayed as a consumer of crocodile eggs, a hyaena-
15 like scavenger, a melon specialist, a leopard-like
predator that dragged prey into trees, a slow- to
medium-paced runner incapable of climbing, a
terrestrial version of a cookie-cutter shark or raider of
kangaroo pouches, and a bear-like super-predator.
20 Trace fossils, such as trackways or burrows,
can provide insights into locomotory abilities and
behaviours unobtainable via functional analyses of
the skeleton alone. However, it is seldom possible to
associate skeletal and trace fossils. This underscores
25 the significance of a claw-mark assemblage in the main
chamber of Tight Entrance Cave (TEC), southwestern
Australia, where a now-blocked entrance in the ceiling
provided access to the surface for species capable of
navigating the steep, convoluted cave terrain.
30 Thousands of claw marks, V-shaped in cross
section, are patchily distributed through the TEC main
chamber on a range of surfaces differing in hardness,
including limestone boulders, mud encrustations and
soft moonmilk. The largest TEC ichnofossil scratch
35 marks can only have been made by T. carnifex.
14
The most parsimonious interpretation of the
TEC evidence is that marsupial lions were primarily
responsible for the claw-mark assemblage. Devils
clearly used the cave at times during the depositional
40 interval of 140,000 to 30,000 years ago, but it is
improbable that the two species cohabited the chamber
given the intense interspecific antagonism displayed by
carnivores, especially in cave settings.
The distribution of claw marks indicates a
45 significant bias toward juveniles. One possibility is
that, at any one time, the chamber was occupied by
a lone mother looking after a single litter, as in D.
maculatus, where a female may raise up to six young in
a cave den.
50 Marsupial lions, like all marsupials, would have
given birth to extremely underdeveloped young that
could not be left alone until becoming at least partially
weaned. Carrying older pouch young while hunting
probably constrained predatory efficiency or prey
55 size range. As in numerous extant carnivores, adult
marsupial lions likely left semi-independent young to
shelter in the cave while they went off to hunt before
returning to bring food and to rest. The TEC claw-
mark size distribution shows that, as individuals grew,
60 they spent less time in the cave, presumably venturing
out increasingly to learn from adults and contribute to
hunting.
Given that marsupial lions were apparently
adapted to apprehending and consuming large prey
65 and potentially social, it is feasible that, as in all
extant group-living mammalian predators, they were
cooperative hunters. As body mass, group living and
group hunting are seen as co-adaptations for procuring
large prey, it is plausible that marsupial lions were pack
70 hunters. Such a strategy would have allowed them to
prey upon the largest marsupial, the rhinoceros-sized
Diprotodon optatum, bones of which have been found
with incidental marsupial lion tooth marks.
CONTINUE
 1 1
Claw Marks in the TEC 43
Sarcophilus hamisii
Over the course of the passage, the focus shifts from
Lasiorhinus latifrons
Thylacoleo camifex A) the evaluation of skeletal structures to pack
Thylacinus cynocephalus
behaviors of large predators.
Petrogale xanthopus
Phascolarctos cinereus B) an analysis of an overwhelming ecosystem to a
Trichosurus vulpecula simpler overview.
C) an explanation of certain physical evidence to its
50
probable implications.
45

40
D) a discussion of trace fossil remains to an innovative
35 way of examining tooth marks.
Frequency

30

25

20 44
15

10
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
5
previous question?
0 A) Lines 13-19 (“The species . . . super-predator”)
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
Inter-digital spacing (mm) B) Lines 20-23 (“Trace fossils . . . alone”)
C) Lines 45-49 (“One . . . cave den”)
Claw marks arranged by Frequency and Inter-digital claw-spacing. Lines
above represent the inter-digital claw-spacing ranges exhibited by the ani-
D) Lines 70-73 (“Such . . . tooth marks”)
mals considered in the study with vertical lines representing means. Arrow
on Thylacoleo carnifex indicates that this extends beyond the range of the
histogram. Sourced from Phylopic.org.
45
The author uses the phrase “its evocative depiction”
(line 6) most likely to
42 A) support the claim that Thylacoleo carnifex was a
The main purpose of the passage is to noticeable component of the Australian ecosystem.
A) identify the life cycle and hunting patterns of B) indicate that researchers carefully studied the
marsupials. presence of Thylacoleo carnifex in Aboriginal art.
B) outline the nature of various Australian marsupials. C) suggest that representations of Thylacoleo carnifex
were a source of inspiration.
C) identify how researchers examine claw-mark fossil
evidence. D) demonstrate that the author admires the Aboriginal
illustrations of Thylacoleo carnifex.
D) outline research connecting the Tight Entrance
Cave to marsupial lions.

CONTINUE
15
 1 1
46 50
What does the author suggest is the most likely According to the data in the figure, the greatest
primary purpose once served by the Tight Entrance frequency of inter-digital spacing occurred at what
Cave? measurement?
A) A den for devils A) 5 mm
B) A den for marsupial lions B) 7 mm
C) Hyena hunting grounds C) 9 mm
D) Diprotodon optatum hunting grounds D) 11 mm

47 51
Which choice provides the best evidence for the Both the passage and the figure suggest that strong
answer to the previous question? support for the presence of marsupial lions in the cave
A) Lines 13-19 (“The species . . . super-predator”) is provided by claw marks with a spacing
B) Lines 36-38 (“The most . . . assemblage”) A) between 3 and 5 mm.
C) Lines 44-45 (“The distribution . . . juveniles”) B) of 7 mm.
D) Lines 70-73 (“Such a . . . marks”) C) of 11 mm.
D) between 20 and 32 mm.

48
As used in lines 38-39, the phrase “Devils clearly used 52
the cave” implies that What statement is best supported by the data presented
A) several species of juvenile marsupials used the cave. in the figure?
B) devils were seen in the cave. A) Adult marsupial lions most likely left their young in
the cave when they went out hunting.
C) marsupial lions eventually forced devils out of the
cave. B) The spacing of marks which occurred with the
greatest frequency is not likely to have been made
D) the evidence requires an explanation beyond the by adult marsupial lions.
presence of marsupial lions.
C) The higher frequency of claw marks spaced around
7 mm supports the presence of juvenile marsupial
lions.
49
D) The V-shaped cross sections of the claw marks add
Which choice best supports the claim that the cave was support for the author’s theory.
not primarily inhabited by adult marsupial lions?
A) Lines 24-29 (“This underscores . . . terrain”)
B) Lines 30-34 (“Thousands . . . soft moonmilk”)
C) Lines 38-43 (“Devils . . . cave settings”)
D) Lines 58-62 (“The TEC . . . hunting”)

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

16
1 1

No Test Material On This Page

CONTINUE
17
 22
2 22
Writing and Language Test
35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

  DIRECTIONS

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you will
consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other
questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence
structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or
more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and
editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage
as it is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. 1

Which choice most effectively sets up the information
The Most British of British Authors that follows?
What makes a British novelist British? Many authors A) NO CHANGE
in contemporary Britain 1 show the simplicity inherent B) write without considering
in this question—Salman Rushdie was born in India and C) challenge obvious answers to
writes about Indian issues, and Doris Lessing was born D) have some interest in
in Iran and writes with an eye to the international scene.
Both of these authors redefine what “British” issues are
2
by refusing to accept traditional definitions of the word
A) NO CHANGE
“British.” No author with an international background deals
B) British issues,
quite as specifically with 2 them, however, as Kazuo
C) it,
Ishiguro.
D) those,

CONTINUE
18
 2 2
Ishiguro was born in Nagasaki, Japan, in 1955. His 3
family moved to Great Britain when he was five years A) NO CHANGE
old. His first two novels, as one might 3 expect; deal B) expect—
with Japanese characters and themes. Ishiguro has since C) expect
confessed, however, that he had no real 4 mapping of life D) expect,
in Japan and wrote these novels about an “imaginary Japan”
that he’d dreamt up while in British schools. 4
Ishiguro’s Japanese novels saw modest success. A) NO CHANGE
5 Therefore, it was not until he shifted to explicitly B) conception
British themes that he became a literary phenomenon. C) transportation
Ishiguro’s first major success came with the novel The D) inception
Remains of the Day, published in 1989. 6 This novel
shows no traces of Ishiguro’s Japanese heritage. Instead, it 5
addresses changing British mores through the perspective A) NO CHANGE
of a British butler. This butler had once served in one of the B) Hence,
great British households but now, as the British class system C) But,
had begun to dissolve after World War II, works D) However,
for an American. His is a unique insider perspective
7 intimately it can provide a poignant look at changes in 6
British aristocratic society. With The Remains of the Day, At this point, the writer is considering adding the
Ishiguro found his voice and his subject matter. following sentence.
A highly acclaimed film version starring Anthony
Hopkins and Emma Thompson was released in
1993.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it further demonstrates how ingrained
Ishiguro had become in British culture.
B) Yes, because it highlights the contrast between
Ishiguro’s first two novels and his later work.
C) No, because the question of what is and is not
British is not relevant to film.
D) No, because it does not contribute in a significant
way to this paragraph’s discussion of the novel.

7
A) NO CHANGE
B) it intimately provides
C) that intimately provides
D) it can provide intimately

CONTINUE
19
 2 2
8 Many authors have attempted analyses of the 8
British psyche and the national consciousness. His most Which choice best connects the sentence with the
recent novel, The Buried Giant (2015), addresses the issue previous paragraph?
of British self-imagining even more directly. The novel is A) NO CHANGE

set in that most mythic of all British times, the Arthurian B) There are countless, fascinating angles

era, during which the two main characters interact with the C) Ishiguro has since continued to plumb the depths

heroes and monsters of British folklore. 9 This unique D) Ishiguro was raised in the cradle

setting provides Ishiguro with a distinct canvas. With it,

he can paint his meditations on memory and forgetting.
Moreover, it sets a scene on the British Isles long before
contemporary notions of internationalism took hold. Would
Axl and Beatrice, the novel’s protagonists, have had any idea
that such a place as Japan even existed?
Ishiguro is frequently pressed to claim his Japanese
inheritance but 10 was resistant to such claiming. “If I
wrote under a pseudonym and got someone else to pose
for my jacket photographs, I’m sure nobody would think of
saying, ‘This guy reminds me of a Japanese writer,’” he said
in 1990. But the question remains, what prevents readers
from thinking 11 of the writer Ishiguro as a British, not a
Japanese or British-Japanese, writer? What characteristics of
Britishness does he lack? Or might it be that the definition
of a British writer is a faulty one after all?
9
Which choice most effectively combines the
underlined sentences?
A) This unique setting provides Ishiguro with a
distinct canvas, where he can paint his meditation
on memory and forgetting on the canvas.
B) Ishiguro can paint his distinct meditations on
memory and forgetting on this canvas, it being the
one provided by the unique setting.
C) This unique setting is a canvas; there on this canvas,
Ishiguro can meditate with memory and forgetting.
D) This unique setting provides Ishiguro with a
distinct canvas on which to paint his meditations
on memory and forgetting.
10
A) NO CHANGE
B) had been
C) being
D) is

11
A) NO CHANGE
B) of
C) of this man
D) DELETE the underlined portion.

CONTINUE
20
 2 2
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. 12
A) NO CHANGE
The Syntax of Bird Tweets B) speaking
How is human language different from 12 those who C) animals who speak
speak the other calls of the wild? Cows moo, birds chirp, D) DELETE the underlined portion.
and lions roar—so what makes our calls different from
theirs? A new study suggests that the difference might not
13
be so significant after all. A Japanese scientist, Toshitaka
A) NO CHANGE
Suzuki, has studied the calls of a Japanese bird, the great tit,
B) communications, which can indicate
for ten years, and he has discovered a number of surprising
C) communications which can indicate,
things.
D) communications which can indicate:
Suzuki was able to detect ten different alarm calls that
this bird uses regularly. Alarm calls can cover any number
14
of warnings or 13 communications, which can indicate,
A) NO CHANGE
food sources, mating, or predators. One of these calls,
B) beckon
known as the ABC call, is used to signal the approach of a
C) beckons
predator. Another, the D call, 14 has beckoned other birds
D) are beckoning
within the species to come nearer.

15 Nevertheless, as interesting as this “language”

15
of birds might have been, the bigger discovery was yet to
A) NO CHANGE
come. Not only does this species of great tit use “words,” it
B) Therefore,
also uses something like “syntax.” Without even realizing
C) Thus,
it, 16 having relied on syntax all the time. Consider
D) Consequently,
this sentence: Humans use grammar. Compare it to this
one: Grammar humans use. Why does the first sentence
make sense whilst the other doesn’t? The answer is simple: 16
syntax, the rules governing the placement of words within A) NO CHANGE
sentences. B) to rely
C) the reliance
D) humans rely

CONTINUE
21
 2 2
Suzuki believes that he has discovered a kind of syntax
within the alarm calls of the great tit. 17 For instance,
Suzuki showed that birds would reliably respond to ABC-D
calls. The birds would not respond, 18 in any case, when
Suzuki’s team produced an atypical combination of the call,
D-ABC.
17
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
The closest American equivalent to this Japanese
bird is the chickadee, which, like the great tit, is
included in the genus Poecile.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it adds a detail that readers who are
not from Japan might find interesting.
B) Yes, because it offers some indication of where
Suzuki’s research might be applied next.
C) No, because Suzuki has already shown that
chickadees do not use syntax.
D) No, because it is not relevant to this paragraph’s
discussion of Suzuki’s research.

18
A) NO CHANGE
B) at any time,
C) however,
D) for all that,

CONTINUE
22
 2 2
This and other findings suggest that order 19 matters for
these bird calls. 20
Suzuki’s findings have significant implications for
how we understand 21 the many species of the animal
kingdom. First and foremost, the findings suggest that
syntax is not limited to the human species. If birds speak
with syntax, then other animals must as well. Second, syntax
may be an evolved trait, a way that organisms in general
use their various vocal capacities to communicate meaning.
Suzuki’s discoveries could therefore contribute not only to
the natural sciences but to linguistics and anthropology as
well. Maybe we didn’t have to wait for Twitter to “tweet”
after all. Now we’ll just have to figure out whether
22 there’s other animals that have evolved an equivalent
of the selfie.
19
A) NO CHANGE
B) maintains
C) aligns
D) preserves
20
At this point, the writer wants to further reinforce the
paragraph’s claim about the importance of syntax in
bird calls. Which choice most effectively accomplishes
this goal?
A) In other words, this species of bird is no more likely
to respond to an out-of-order call than we are to a
garbled sentence.
B) Syntax in a human language can cover many topics,
including word order and parts of speech.
C) Interestingly, syntax was not formalized until
relatively recently, though it has remained largely
unchanged for centuries.
D) It will be interesting to see whether this need for
syntax will also be discovered in other species of
birds.

21
A) NO CHANGE
B) the animal kingdom.
C) the kingdom of animals rather than plants.
D) all the creatures who make up the animal kingdom.

22
A) NO CHANGE
B) they’re is
C) there are
D) they’re are

CONTINUE
23
 2 2
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage and 23
supplementary material.
The writer wants to convey an attitude of genuine
interest and to avoid the appearance of sarcasm. Which
The Polls Measure… choice best accomplishes this goal?
In the run-up to any 23 significant election, citizens A) NO CHANGE
typically feel they have a sense of the likely outcome of B) big-deal
that election. This does not mean that they know with any C) humongous
certainty, or that citizens’ “gut feelings” have a tendency D) magnanimous
to be correct. Instead, this knowledge comes from a
central feature of American political life: the opinion poll. 24
Countless pollsters check in with likely voters every day in A) NO CHANGE
the time before an election, 24 and also predict which way B) predicting
the electorate will tend on decision day. C) they also predict
While polling may now seem to be an almost D) but also predict
inevitable feature of American political life, this was not
always the case. The first documented opinion poll was 25
not conducted until 1824, when a Pennsylvania newspaper A) NO CHANGE
surveyed approximately 450 likely voters on whether they B) planned to chose
25 planned the choice of Andrew Jackson or John Quincy C) planned on choosing
Adams for the office of presidency. As the results predicted D) planned to choose
the outcome correctly, not only for Pennsylvania but for
the country as a whole, polling was thereafter seen as an
26
important way 26 to tell people what to think.
Which choice most effectively continues the idea in
this sentence and is consistent with the information in
the surrounding paragraphs?
A) NO CHANGE
B) to mislead politicians and voters.
C) to keep the public informed.
D) to sell newspapers.

CONTINUE
24
 2 2
This is not to say, however, that polling always gives 27
correct information. A famous instance came in 27 1948, A) NO CHANGE
yet most pollsters predicted an overwhelming victory for B) 1948, when
Thomas Dewey over the incumbent President Harry S. C) 1948. In 1948,
Truman. Once all the ballots were cast, it had become clear D) 1948, and in 1948,
that in fact Truman had won the 28 election. By that time:
polling had earned a statistical sophistication that had been
28
unrivalled in earlier eras. Those who had declared Dewey
A) NO CHANGE
the likely winner predicted victories across the country,
B) election. By that time,
from 29 California to Nevada to Ohio, though Truman
C) election—by that time;
carried these states. What could have gone wrong?
D) election by that time

29
WA NH
MT ND
VT ME The writer wants the information in the passage to
MN
OR correspond as closely as possible with the information
ID SD WI NY MA
WY MI RI
in the map. Given that goal and assuming that the rest
IA PA
NV NE CT of the previous sentence would remain unchanged,
UT IL IN OH NJ
CA
CO
KS MO
WV VA DE
MD
which of the following would provide an accurate
KY
TN NC replacement for the underlined portion?
AZ NM OK AR SC
MS AL GA
A) NO CHANGE
Truman
TX
LA Dewey B) California to Texas to New York
FL
FL Thurmond
C) Oregon to Texas to Florida
D) Idaho to Maine to Florida
Adapted from Wikimedia Commons, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
File:ElectoralCollege1948.svg.

CONTINUE
25
 2 2
[1] Commentators often say of a poll that 30 its only 30
as good as its sample size. [2] Imagine, for instance, if you A) NO CHANGE
were to ask a group of 100 people what role Snapchat played B) it’s only as good as it’s
in their lives. [3] Well, if those 100 people were all teenagers, C) its only as good as it’s
you’d get one answer. [4] In order for a poll to have any D) it’s only as good as its
significance, it must be based on a response rate from a
representative sample of the population. [5] Many recent
31
polls have been criticized because they operate by landline
To improve the cohesion and flow of this paragraph,
phone and don’t call cell phones. [6] In an age when less the writer wants to add the following sentence.
than 50% of Americans use a landline phone, how can this If those 100 people were all over 40, you’d get
sample be called representative? 31 another one entirely.
The sentence would most logically be placed after
Moreover, the increased prominence of polling has
A) sentence 1.
begun to raise another issue. While polls are supposed to
B) sentence 3.
measure human behavior, the publication of the polls can
C) sentence 4.
actually influence human behavior. Advertisers knew this in
D) sentence 5.
the 1930s when they began to issue questionnaires to their
customers that would better enable them to sell goods to
those customers. But even today, the results of a poll might 32

influence the behavior of voters of any political stripe who A) NO CHANGE

32 have believed that their votes will be better used in B) believes

a way that doesn’t necessarily square with their political C) believe

ideals. D) is believing

We must ask, therefore, what the usefulness of polls

is in our political sphere. Are they helpful or harmful? 33

33 Well, what do you think? Should we take a poll?
Which choice most effectively concludes the
paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B) We all think they’re harmful, right? Or don’t we?
C) Who cares when the data will be so skewed one
way or another?
D) Maybe it’s time to get rid of them altogether?

CONTINUE
26
 2 2
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage. 34
A) NO CHANGE
A Real Career in the Virtual World
B) we are in our real life,
It has become almost cliché by now to say that we live C) he or she is in their real lives,
much of our lives online. Even if the way someone appears D) he or she is in real life,
online is not the way 34 they are in their real lives, the
distinction doesn’t matter quite as much as it once did. It
35
has almost come to the point that everyone is a kind of
A) NO CHANGE
minor celebrity, making decisions that will bring glory in
B) belonged
the public eye, even if that public eye only 35 belongs to a
C) had belonged
few acquaintances.
D) have belonged
Perhaps inevitably, this trend toward living ideal lives
online has led to a remarkable new career: Fake Facebooker.
36
36 But this may sound like a joke, it’s not at all. Fake
A) NO CHANGE
Facebookers are in increasing demand and can make
B) Because
more than a reasonable living posing as the friends and
C) While
supporters that people and businesses wish they had.
D) And

CONTINUE
27
 2 2
[1] Imagine a new business opens in your city, a
37 restaurant—for instance, food-critic reviews can be
difficult to come by, and after all, how powerful can a food
critic’s review actually be in most places? [2] This is where
the Fake Facebookers come in. [3] Instead, the owner of
the restaurant may want to market his or her business by
creating a powerful social-media presence. [4] They might
generate positive 38 feedback—high ratings, rave reviews,
and menu recommendations for prospective diners—on
that restaurant’s Facebook page. [5] The Fake Facebookers
can thus generate the restaurant’s buzz on terms that the
restaurant finds suitable. 39
Fake Facebookers can operate on more intimate levels
as well. 40 One option is to post pictures of you and a new
partner having a great time—Fake Facebookers are perfect
for this style of jealousy-inducing revenge.
28
37
A) NO CHANGE
B) restaurant for instance food-critic
C) restaurant, for instance. Food-critic
D) restaurant, for instance, food-critic
38
A) NO CHANGE
B) feedback; high ratings, rave reviews, and menu
recommendations for prospective diners;
C) feedback: high ratings, rave reviews, and menu
recommendations for prospective diners,
D) feedback: high ratings, rave reviews, and menu
recommendations for prospective diners—
39
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 2 should
be
A) placed where it is now.
B) placed after sentence 3.
C) placed before sentence 5.
D) DELETED from the paragraph.
40
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence:
If your boyfriend or girlfriend has just broken
up with you and you’d like to make him or her
jealous, what can you do?
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it introduces an example that is
discussed further in the paragraph.
B) Yes, because it illustrates a universal phenomenon
that is discussed throughout the passage.
C) No, because it discusses one of the author’s
personal issues that has no bearing on the
discussion.
D) No, because it focuses on information that is
covered in more detail elsewhere in the passage.
CONTINUE
 2 2
And indeed, if you want to show any social aspect of your 41
personality (that is, anything that requires other people), Which choice results in a sentence that best supports
Fake Facebookers can provide precisely 41 the solace in a the point developed in this paragraph?
difficult time that you need. A) NO CHANGE
B) the harmful effects
It’s hard to know how to 42 adore the ethics of such C) the kind of evidence
a profession, but such ethics are almost irrelevant. Fake D) the profitable enterprise
Facebookers exist, and they only do so because 43 of the
power of the web’s avatars of culture. We may shudder at
the idea of real people posing as someone’s significant other 42
A) NO CHANGE
or as a restaurant’s biggest supporter. However, shuddering
B) assess
or not, 44 you have to admit that we are doing precisely
C) obsess
this kind of posing all the time. Isn’t Facebook itself—and
D) philosophize
its outgrowths in Instagram, Twitter, and Snapchat—built
precisely on this disingenuous style of personhood? And
really, when the internet avatars are as powerful and 43
omnipresent as they are, what is left for “real” people to do? A) NO CHANGE
B) the culture of internet avatars is so powerful.
C) the strong culture of internet avatars has so much
power.
D) the powerful culture of internet avatars is full of
strength.

44
A) NO CHANGE
B) anyone will tell you that we
C) we
D) avatars make it such that we

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

29
3 3
Math Test – No Calculator
25 MINUTES, 20 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

  DIRECTIONS

For questions 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided,
and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16-20, solve the
problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions
before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available
space in your test booklet for scratch work.

  NOTES
1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x)
is a real number.

  REFERENCE

 c 2x 60° x s 45° s 2
•
r h b
w 30° 45°
b a x 3 s
A = πr 2 A = w c 2= a 2 + b 2
C = 2 πr A = 1 bh Special Right Triangles
2

•r h
h r h
h
w r w
 
4
V = wh V = π r 2h V = 3 πr3 1 1
V = 3 π r2h V = 3 wh

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

CONTINUE
30
 3 3
1 3
2
g (x ) = x + c Which of the following is true for some value of a ?
5 A) |a – 1| + 1 = 0
In the function above, c is a constant. If g(15) = 2, what B) |1 – a| + 1 = 0
is the value of g(–5) ?
C) |a + 1| + 1 = 0
A) –7
D) |a – 1| – 1 = 0
B) –6
C) –4
D) 2

x−y 2
If = , which of the following must also be
y 5
2
9(x + 4) = y true?

y x 7
= 21 A) =
x y 5

If (x, y) is the solution to the system of equations above, x 3

B) =−
what is the value of x ? y 5
A) 1 x − 2y 8
C) =−
B) 3 y 5
C) 27 x+ y 7
D) =
D) 63 y 5

CONTINUE
31
 3 3
5 7
If h(x) = –5x + 3, what is h(–2x) equal to? If k = 3, what is the solution set of the equation
A) –10x – 3 x − k = x −9?
B) 10x – 3
A) {3}
C) 10x + 3
B) {7}
D) 10x2 – 6x
C) {12}
D) {7, 12}

6
2(9x + 1)(3x + 1)
8
Which of the following is equivalent to the expression
above? Kyung opens a bank account with an initial deposit
and makes monthly deposits of a constant amount.
A) 80x If Kyung’s balance 5 months after she opens the
B) 12x2 + 4 account is $5,000 and her balance 21 months after she
C) 54x2 + 2 opens the account is $5,800, which of the following
best describes the deposits between 5 months and 21
D) 54x2 + 24x + 2
months after she opens the account?
A) Kyung increases the value of her bank account by
depositing $20 every month.
B) Kyung increases the value of her bank account by
depositing $50 every month.
C) Kyung increases the value of her bank account by
depositing $200 every month.
D) Kyung increases the value of her bank account by
depositing $1,000 every month.

CONTINUE
32
 3 3
9 11
Which of the following is the equation of a line that is Gary and Ron each order a radio online. The price of
parallel to the line represented by the equation Gary’s radio was d dollars, and the price of Ron’s radio
y = –5x + 9 ? was $10 more than the price of Gary’s radio. Gary and
A) x + 5y = 1 Ron agree to equally divide the total cost of the two
radios, including the taxes and shipping fees, which
B) 3x – 5y = 15
combine to make 25% of the cost of the radios alone.
C) 5x – y = 3 Which of the following expressions represents the
D) 15x + 3y = 12 amount, in dollars, that each of them paid?
A) 0.25d + 2.5
B) 1.25d + 6.25
C) 1.75d + 10
D) 2.5d + 12.5

10
y = (3x – 2)(x + 4)
x = 3y + 7
How many ordered pairs (x, y) are solutions to the
system of equations shown above? 12
A) Infinitely many
y+3
B) 2 If = 6 , what is the value of y ?
y−3
C) 1
D) 0 21
A)
5
7
B)
2
C) 3

15
D)
7

CONTINUE
33
 3 3
13 14
m y
x2 + x = 3n
3
In the quadratic equation above, m and n are y = p(x)
constants. What are the solutions for x ?

(–c, 0) (c, 0)
m2 + 108n x
m O
A) x = − ±
6 6 y = q(x)

m m2 + 3n
B) x = − ±
6 6

m m2 + 108n The functions p and q, defined by p(x) = 27x2 – 3 and

C) x = − ±
3 6 q(x) = –27x2 + 3, are graphed in the xy-plane above. The
graphs of p and q intersect at (c, 0) and (–c, 0). What is
m m2 + 3n the value of c ?
D) x = − ±
3 3
1
A)
9
1
B)
6
1
C)
3
D) 1

15
10 + 5i
4 − 3i

If the expression above is written in the form a + bi,

where a and b are real numbers, what is the value
of b ? (Note: i = −1)

A) − 5
3
B) 1

C) 2
5
D)
2

CONTINUE
34
 3 3

DIRECTIONS
Answer: 7 Answer: 2.5
For questions 16-20, solve the problem and 12
enter your answer in the grid, as described below, Write 7 / 1 2 2 . 5
answer / / Fraction / /
on the answer sheet. Decimal
in boxes. . . . . line . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1. A  lthough not required, it is suggested that
you write your answer in the boxes at the top
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the Grid in 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
result. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
3. No question has a negative answer. 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
4. Some problems may have more than one
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one
answer.

5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded Acceptable ways to grid

2
are:
2 3
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1/ // 2 is entered into 2 / 3 . 6 6 6 . 6 6 7
/ / / / / /
the grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not as . . . . . . . . . . . .
2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3 1 .) 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
6. Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
answer with more digits than the grid can 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid. 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Answer: 201 – either position is correct

2 2 0 1
NOTE: You may start
0 1
/ /
your answers in any
/ /
. . . . . . . . column, space
0 0 0 0 0 0 permitting. Columns
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 you don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 use should be left
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 blank.

CONTINUE
35
 3 3
16 18

x shelf
a°
2x

shelf

48 in 3x
b°
shelf
In the triangle above, the cosine of b = 0.8. What is the
sine of a ?
book 2x
shelf

Matt has a triangular bookcase that fits under his

17 staircase. The total height of the bookcase is 48 inches,
If a rubber band is stretched a particular distance, and there are four parallel shelves as shown above.
the restoring force is defined as the force needed to What is the maximum height, in inches, of a book that
restore the rubber band to its original form. When a can stand upright on the bottom shelf?
particular rubber band is stretched to a length of 30
centimeters, the restoring force is –35 newtons, and
when it is stretched to a length of 90 centimeters, the
restoring force is –125 newtons. For every additional
20 centimeters from its original form, the restoring
force decreases by c newtons, where c is a constant.
What is the value of c ?

CONTINUE
36
 3 3
19 20
If x – 2x + 3x – 6 = 0, what is the real value of x ?
3 2
5a – 2b = –10
6a + 4b = 20
If (a, b) is the solution to the system of equations
shown above, what is the value of b ?

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

37
4 4
Math Test – Calculator
55 MINUTES, 38 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

  DIRECTIONS

For questions 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided,
and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31-38, solve the
problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions
before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available
space in your test booklet for scratch work.

  NOTES
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x)
is a real number.

  REFERENCE

 c 2x 60° x s 45° s 2
•
r h b
w 30° 45°
b a x 3 s
A = πr 2 A = w c 2= a 2 + b 2
C = 2 πr A = 1 bh Special Right Triangles
2

•r h
h r h
h
w r w
 
4
V = wh V = π r 2h V = 3 πr3 1 1
V = 3 π r2h V = 3 wh

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

CONTINUE
38
 4 4
1 3
A marathon is approximately 42 kilometers long.
This week, Yoonhee’s longest run was 23 kilometers.
Her training plan increases the length of her longest
run by 2 kilometers per week. Which of the following
represents the length, in kilometers, of Yoonhee’s
longest run w weeks from now, if Yoonhee follows her
training plan?
A) 23 + 2w
B) 23 – 2w
A subscription to an online video game costs $14.95
per month. The cost of playing practice matches
is included in the subscription, but the cost of
participating in tournaments is an additional $2.50
per tournament. For one month, Kitty’s cost for
the subscription and tournaments in which she
participated was $24.95. How many tournaments did
Kitty participate in that month?
A) 2

C) 2 + 23w B) 3
C) 4
D) 42 – 2w
D) 5

2
4
To make a batch of donuts, a baker separates a 6-pound
batch of dough in half. Each half makes 12 equally Last month Aaron made 14 fewer necklaces than
sized donuts. What is the weight, in ounces, of each Nathalie. If they made a total of 74 necklaces, how
raw donut? (1 pound = 16 ounces) many necklaces did Nathalie make last month?
A) 4 A) 30
B) 6 B) 37
C) 24 C) 44
D) 48 D) 51

CONTINUE
39
 4 4
5 6
Rama surveyed a random sample of the members The distance traveled by an object is equal to the work
of his dance club to determine whether the club expended by the object divided by the force on the
should attend either the Montreal or Chicago object. What is the force, in newtons, on an object
dance competition. Of the 28 members surveyed, expending 36 newton-meters of work over a distance of
39.3% preferred the Montreal event. Based on this 9 meters?
information, about how many of the 80 members of the A) 324
club prefer attending the Montreal event?
B) 9
A) 25
C) 4
B) 30
D) 0.25
C) 35
D) 40

7
Employment by Category in Toronto, 2005, 2010, 2015
Employees by year
Employment 2005 2010 2015
Manufacturing 163,070 129,530 124,000
Retail 148,760 140,540 145,340
Service 142,200 150,890 176,850
Office 572,410 623,320 693,880
Institutional 196,940 213,490 231,740
Other 38,830 40,530 50,470
Total 1,262,210 1,298,300 1,422,280
The table above shows the number of people employed in different categories in Toronto, Canada for the years 2005, 2010,
and 2015, rounded to the nearest 10 people. Based on the table, if an employee was chosen at random in 2010, which of
the following is closest to the probability that the employee worked in either the Service category or the Office category?
A) 0.12
B) 0.36
C) 0.48
D) 0.60

CONTINUE
40
 4 4
8
Isaac Asimov’s Published Novels
Publisher
Year Published
Doubleday Gnome Press Walker Other Total
1950–1959 12 3 0 1 16
1960–1979 2 0 0 1 3
1980–1993 11 0 10 0 21
Total 25 3 10 2 40
The table above shows the novels published by Isaac Asimov. What proportion of the novels were published by
Doubleday in the years 1960-1979 ?
A) 5
8
1
B)
4
3
C)
40
1
D)
20

9 10
Line n in the xy-plane has a positive slope. Which of In the xy-plane, the graph of function h has
the following must be true? x-intercepts at −2, 2, and 4. Which of the following
could define h ?
I. Line n contains points in Quadrant I.
A) h(x) = (x – 2)2(x + 4)
II. Line n contains points in Quadrant II.
B) h(x) = (x – 4)(x + 2)2
III. Line n contains points in Quadrant III.
C) h(x) = (x – 2)(x + 2)( x + 4)
D) h(x) = (x – 4)(x – 2)(x + 2)
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and III only
D) I, II, and III

CONTINUE
41
 4 4
q 13
Which of the following scatterplots shows a
Questions 11 and 12 refer to the following relationship that is appropriately modeled with the
information. equation y = ax2 + b, where a is negative and b is
positive?
Litter Size vs. Litters per Year
12 C A) y
Average Litter Size

10 6
8 5
6 4
A 3
4 D
2 2
B
1
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 x
O 1 2 3 4 5
Litters per Year
B) y
The scatterplot above shows the relationship between 6
average litter size and litters per year of 9 species of rodent. 5
4
3
2
11 1
Which of the following is the average litter size for the x
O 1 2 3 4 5
rodent with the fewest litters per year?
A) 6 C) y
B) 4 6
C) 2 5
4
D) 1 3
2
1
x
O 1 2 3 4 5
12
Of the labeled points, which represents the rodent for D) y
which the ratio of average litter size to litters per year is
6
smallest?
5
A) A 4
B) B 3
2
C) C 1
D) D x
O 1 2 3 4 5
p

CONTINUE
42
 4 4
14 15
The generation time of a bacteria culture is the amount  1. 2 
y

of time it takes for the population of the culture to 15, 000  1 +

 100 
double under ideal conditions. Escherichia coli has a
generation time of 17 minutes, as illustrated in the City X had a population of 15,000 on January 1,
chart. 2010. Its population increases by 1.2% each year.
The expression above estimates the population of
Time (minutes) Population City X on January 1 y years after 2010. Which of the
following expressions gives the difference between
0 1
the population of City X 10 years after 2010 and the
17 2 population of City X 5 years after 2010 ?
34 4
  1. 2  
5
51 8 A) 10 15, 000  1 + 
68 16   100  

10 − 5
85 32  1. 2 
B) 15, 000  1 +
Which of the following best describes the pattern of  100 
10 5
growth of this bacteria population?  1. 2   1 .2 
C) 15, 000  1 +  − 15, 000  1 + 
A) Exponential decay  100   100 
10
B) Exponential growth  1. 2  5
D) 15, 000  1 +
C) Decreasing linear  100 
D) Increasing linear

CONTINUE
43
 4 4
q

Questions 16 and 17 refer to the following information.

Ms. Nguyen wants to start a home consulting business. She needs to purchase a computer, receive internet service, and
license software. The table below shows four bids Ms. Nguyen received from four different firms.

Firm Computer cost, C Internet service cost, I Software license, S

(dollars) (dollars per month) (dollars per month)
Amy’s Arsenal 1,420 25 35
Bobby’s Bounty 1,100 60 45
Cat’s Computers 990 50 65
Elizabeth’s Electronics 800 70 85

The total cost, y, of the computer, internet service, and software license, in terms of the number of months in business, x, is
given by y = C + (I + S)x.

16 17
If the relationship between the total cost, y, of the For what number of months in business, x, will
computer, internet service, and software license from the total cost of the computer, internet service, and
Amy’s Arsenal and the number of months in business, software license from Cat’s Computers be less than or
x, is graphed in the xy-plane, what does the y-intercept equal to the cost of the computer, internet service, and
represent? software license from Bobby’s Bounty?
A) The cost of the computer A) x ≤ 7.8
B) The cost of internet service and software license per B) x ≥ 7.8
month C) x ≤ 11
C) The total cost of internet service and software D) x ≥ 11
license for x months
D) The total cost of the computer, internet service, and p
software license for the x months

CONTINUE
44
 4 4
18 19
The biological half-life of a drug is the time it takes for
the drug to lose half of its pharmacological activity.
If the biological half-life of Norepinephrine is 2
minutes, which of the following graphs could model
the pharmacological activity of Norepinephrine as
a function of time? (Note: In each graph below, O
represents (0, 0).)

A) 100%
Pharmacological Activity

50%

O 2 4 Carlos has a set of identical glasses. Each glass holds

Time (minutes) liquid in a cone 4 inches high and 5 inches in diameter,
as shown above. For New Year’s Eve, Carlos wants to
serve his guests sparkling grape juice. If a bottle of
B) 100%
Pharmacological Activity

sparkling grape juice holds 750 milliliters, how many

glasses can Carlos completely fill with one bottle?
(Note: 750 milliliters ≈ 46 cubic inches)
50%
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
O 2 4
Time (minutes) D) 28

C) 100%
Pharmacological Activity

50%
20
If 2x + 3 ≤ 4, what is the greatest possible value of
O 2x – 3 ?
2 4
Time (minutes) A) 10

B) 1
D) 100% 1
Pharmacological Activity

C)
2
D) −2
50%

O 2 4
Time (minutes)

CONTINUE
45
 4 4
21 q

Questions 22 and 23 refer to the following

X information.

Canadian Cancer Deaths

by Sex, 2010
12

10 Males

Deaths (in thousands)

Z
Y 8 Females

In the circle above, segment XZ is a diameter. If 6

the radius of the circle is 2, what is the length of
?
arc XYZ
4
A) 16π 2
B) 8π
C) 4π
Lung Colorectal Breast Prostate Pancreas
D) 2π
The bar graph above shows Canadian cancer deaths, in
thousands, for males and females, for the five most-deadly
cancers in 2010.

22
The number of male deaths from colorectal cancer is
approximately what percent greater than the number
of female deaths from colorectal cancer?
A) 4%
B) 9%
C) 14%
D) 19%

CONTINUE
46
 4 4
23 24
In a scatterplot of the above data, where number of Dr. Chiu’s and Ms. Minster’s calculus classes each have
cancer deaths of males is plotted along the x-axis and 23 students. The tables below give the distribution
number of cancer deaths of females is plotted along the of final exam scores in Dr. Chiu’s and Ms. Minster’s
y-axis, how many data points would be below the line calculus classes.
y=x?
Dr. Chiu
A) 2
Score Frequency
B) 3
100% 6
C) 4
99% 4
D) 5
98% 3
97% 6
p
96% 1
95% 3

Ms. Minster
Score Frequency
100% 1
99% 1
98% 3
97% 16
96% 1
95% 1

Which of the following is true about the data shown for

these two classes?
A) The standard deviation of final exam scores in
Dr. Chiu’s class is higher.
B) The standard deviation of final exam scores in
Ms. Minster’s class is higher.
C) The standard deviation of final exam scores in
Dr. Chiu’s class is the same as that of Ms. Minster’s
class.
D) The standard deviation of test scores in these
classes cannot be calculated with the data provided.

CONTINUE
47
 4 4
25 26
a < −b < −a
If the above inequality is true, which of the following Median Annual Household Income
to Median Home Price
must also be true?
y

(in thousands of dollars)

I. b < 0 140

Median Home Price

120
II. a < 0 100
III. a < |b| 80
60
40
A) III only 20
0 x
B) II and III only 0 10 20 30 40 50 60
C) I and III only Median Annual Household Income
D) I, II, and III (in thousands of dollars)

The scatterplot above shows the median household

income and median home price in the United States
from the years 1950 to 2000. The line of best fit is also
shown and has the equation y = 2.3788x – 2,895.2.
Which of the following best explains how the number
2.3788 in the equation relates to the scatterplot?
A) For every $2.3788 increase in median annual
household income, the median home price
increased by approximately $1.
B) For every $1 increase in median annual household
income, the median home price increased by
approximately $2.3788.
C) The ratio of median annual household income to
median home price for the years 1950 to 2000 was
approximately 2.3788.
D) Median home price increased 2.3788 percent per
year, regardless of the change in median annual
household income.

CONTINUE
48
 4 4
27 29
f(x) = 2x – 8x + 6
2
f(x) = 3(x + 1)2 – 27
g(x) = x3 – 4x2 + 3x Which of the following is an equivalent form of the
The polynomials f(x) and g(x) are defined above. function f above in which the solutions of f appear as
Which of the following polynomials is divisible by constants or coefficients?
x+4? A) f(x) = 3(x – 2)(x + 4)
A) h(x) = f(x) + g(x) B) f(x) = 3(x – 4)(x + 2)
B) l(x) = f(x) + 2g(x) C) f(x) = (3x + 12)(x – 2)
C) m(x) = 2f(x) + g(x) D) f(x) = 3x2 + 6x – 24
D) n(x) = 2f(x) + 2g(x)

30
28 If a is the average (arithmetic mean) of x and 7, b is the
average of 5x and 4, and c is the average of 6x and 1,
y
what is the average of a, b, and c, in terms of x ?
A) 2x + 2
2
1
B) 3x +
2
C) 4x + 4
1

D) 6x + 6

x
–2 –1 1 2

–1

–2

1
The functionf (f(x)
x ) = x 3 + 2x 2 + x + 1 is graphed in
2
the xy-plane above. If k is a constant such that
f(x) = c has three real solutions, which of the following
could be the value of c ?
A) −2
B) 0
C) 1.25
D) 2

CONTINUE
49
 4 4

DIRECTIONS
Answer: 7 Answer: 2.5
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and 12
enter your answer in the grid, as described below, Write 7 / 1 2 2 . 5
answer / / Fraction / /
on the answer sheet. Decimal
in boxes. . . . . line . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1. A  lthough not required, it is suggested that
you write your answer in the boxes at the top
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the Grid in 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
result. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
3. No question has a negative answer. 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
4. Some problems may have more than one
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one
answer.

5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded Acceptable ways to grid

2
are:
2 3
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1/ // 2 is entered into 2 / 3 . 6 6 6 . 6 6 7
/ / / / / /
31 . . . . . . . . . . .
the grid, it will be interpreted as , not as .
2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3 1 .) 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
6. Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
answer with more digits than the grid can 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid. 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Answer: 201 – either position is correct

2 2 0 1
NOTE: You may start
0 1
/ /
your answers in any
/ /
. . . . . . . . column, space
0 0 0 0 0 0 permitting. Columns
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 you don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 use should be left
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 blank.

CONTINUE
50
 4 4
31
5 1
The equation C = (F – 32) is used to convert
9 f =
temperature from degrees Fahrenheit, F, to degrees
Celsius, C. According to this equation, how much does
the temperature increase in degrees Celsius for every
increase of temperature of one degree Fahrenheit?
al
32
Mei has written 250 pages of her novel. If she is able to
write at a rate of 6 pages per day for the next 30 days,
how many pages will Mei have written at the end of the
30 days?
51
33
k
2π m
The frequency f of a harmonic oscillator with a spring
with stiffness k and weight with mass m can be found
using the formula above. A student uses the formula to
find the frequency of an oscillator using a spring and
a weight of mass m and the same spring and a weight
of mass 9m. What is the ratio of the frequency of the
harmonic oscillator using the heavier weight to the
frequency of the harmonic oscillator using the lighter
weight?
34
The hobbit is an outdated Welsh unit of weight or
volume, depending on the context. One hobbit was
equal in volume to 2.5 imperial bushels, and a hobbit of
oats weighed 105 pounds. Based on these relationships,
how much did an imperial bushel of oats weigh, in
ounces? (1 pound = 16 ounces)
CONTINUE
 4 4
35 q

X Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following

information.

40° On January 1, 2015, Florida had a population of 20 million

Z
O residents. After that, Florida’s population, P, is expected
to increase 18 percent every 10 years. The population of
Florida, in millions, y years after 2015 can be predicted
y
using the equation P = 20 ( r )10 .

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

In the figure above, the circle has center O and angle

∠XOZ = 40°. If the length of arc XZ (shown in bold) is
between 3 and 5, what is one possible integer value for
the length of the radius?
37
According to the model, what will be the population of
Florida 20 years after 2015, to the nearest million?

36
Ashley is surveying students at her school and has
surveyed 100 girls and 100 boys. If she surveys 110 38
additional boys, how many more girls must she survey What value should be used for r ?
4
so that girls make up of the total students surveyed?
7 p

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

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No Test Material On This Page

CONTINUE
53
SAT Essay
  ESSAY BOOK

DIRECTIONS REMINDER
— Do not write your essay
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively
in this booklet. Only what
you can read and comprehend a passage and write an essay
you write on the lined
analyzing the passage. In your essay you should demonstrate
pages of your answer
that you have read the passage carefully, present a clear and
booklet will be evaluated.
logical analysis, and use language precisely.
— An off-topic essay will not
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer be evaluated.
sheet booklet; except for the planning page of the answer
booklet, you will receive no other paper on which to write.
You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid
wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable
size. Remember that people who are not familiar with your
handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that
what you are writing is legible to those readers.

You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay

in response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.

CONTINUE
54
 As you read the passage below, consider how Phil Roster uses

• evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.

•  reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and evidence.
• stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or appeals to
emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.

Adapted from Phil Roster, “Leave the Sidewalk Where It Is.” ©2016

1 As a boy, I spent many long days lost in the “forest” that sprawled out behind my
neighborhood and that seemed to wander endlessly. While the treeline would harden to
concrete with a wrong turn, there were paths through thickets and clearings which never
failed to reveal new undiscovered wonders. But within a few short years of those days, that
wilderness had been absorbed to make room for other neighborhoods like mine. While our
growing communities offer wonders of their own, the value of unbroken forestland ought to
be seriously considered.

2 Our species learned to walk in a world unaltered by human hands, and a full tenth of that
land was forest. Now, only forty percent of those trees remain standing, and many of us have
little experience with truly wild land beyond a camping trip or two. Our preference for an
ever more “convenient” globe, at the expense of the world’s forests, has a devastating impact.

3 Scientists at a recent U.N. Convention on Biological Diversity estimated that as many 150
species may disappear each day, and statistics published by the International Union for
the Conservation of Nature suggest that close to 30% of all species may be classified as
threatened. An extraordinary number of these vanished and struggling species disappear
due to deforestation. While a small patch cut through a forest to make way for expanding
development may seem like a fine compromise, forest ecosystems depend on continuous
landscapes. Separate fragments of previously vast forest are often unable to support their
suddenly isolated populations, and fade into lonely stands of trees.

4 We depend on forests ourselves, as many innovations in medicine and technology spring

from the trees, shrubs, spiders, frogs, fungi, fruits, and roots that push shoulder-to-shoulder
through paths and glades. Over 120 prescription medications in worldwide use come from
chemicals produced by some plant or animal of the forest. When the spiderwebs that wave
between the trunks find their way to scientists’ labs, new advances in super-strong fabrics
and nanotube reinforced fibers emerge to change the limits of what we’re capable of creating
next. Deforestation collapses these vibrant ecosystems like a pierced hot-air balloon, and
with them go the unimagined creations of tomorrow. Scientists estimate that they have
experimented and tested less than a single percent of the unknown resources of even what
remains hidden in the world’s forest. What miracles did we never even know we lost?

CONTINUE
55
5 In a modern, buzzing, neon society of smartphones and broadband networks, the sudden
stillness of deep forest can seem an almost alien reminder of an ancient communion with
nature. Forest caves and clearings have long been the homes of hermits and sages in our
myths, and generations of explorers and wanderers have returned with entrancing stories of
their experiences. From Cooper to Thoreau, what would literature be like without the trees?
The words written on pages that were born in leaf-green sunlight continue to speak to our
hearts throughout the years.

6 Tragically, the forests continue to fall. From 2000 to 2012, nearly 900,000 square miles of
forest were destroyed. While that number is staggering on its own, the remaining amount of
Earth’s forests is only 2,400,000 square miles. Maps that once showed large sections of green
now offer only patches and remnants. Some claim that all the world’s tropical forests will
have been erased by the middle of this century. Those lucky among us who felt the air among
the trees may find ourselves passing the stories along to grandchildren who didn’t realize that
we were old enough to remember forests.

7 The decline of the forests is not inevitable. Efforts by many world organizations have been
bent toward stopping the march of deforestation, and a variety of creative solutions continue
to be developed. There are new innovations in agriculture, designed to reduce the amount
of land needed to grow crops, and the permaculture movement has found ways to produce
food within a forest environment, with promising results. Forest management programs work
to reduce loses, and reforestation efforts have seen some surprisingly significant increases
in forested land. The Chinese government responded to a dramatic amount of deforestation
with a stunningly effective campaign that increased the country’s forested land by 34% over
twenty years. Perhaps the most effective solution, however, can only come from a realization
that the price of expanding city limits may have become too high.

Write an essay in which you explain how Phil Roster builds an argument to persuade
his audience that natural forests should be preserved. In your essay, analyze how Roster
uses one or more of the features listed in the box above (or features of your own choice)
to strengthen the logic and persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis
focuses on the most relevant aspects of the passage.

Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Roster’s claims, but rather
explain how Roster builds an argument to persuade his audience.

END OF TEST

DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS SECTION.

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