Roll No.: {00000000 A Test Date: 08-08-2021 Book Code o> Co ‘ALL | MOA AAKASH | TEST SERIES # MEDICAL Entrance Exam - 2022 TEST No. 1 (XII Studying Students) INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES Readeach question carefully, Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be Ie is mandatory o use Blue'Black Ball Point Pen to darken the deducted foreach ncarect answer rom the total score. appropriate cree ntheanswer sheet Before handing over the answer sheet tothe invigltor, candidate Mark should be darcand snould completely filha crcl, Sheu crook at Rll Nos and Genre Cou hava een led ane Rough work must notbe done onthe answer sheel, smarkod correctly. Do not use white-fuid or any other rubbing material on answer 4 4 . Do, nat ug ote fl or ey ther nna et Immediately after the prescrbed examination ime is over, the ‘Sludentcannol us og tables and calculators or any other material inthe examination hall ‘There are two sections in each subject. Section-A& Sector. answer shesto.be retumedte the invigiatr. 7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that You have to attempt al 35 questions from SectionsA & only the test paper contains allpages andno page is missing ‘10 questions outo 15 rom Section 3. Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will nt be considered.Physics Sa PATTY TOPICS OF THE TEST Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics. Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering plants. Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction.mmerze Allindia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Time : 3 Hrs. [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer : SECTION-A 1. The magnitude of electrostatic force between two point charges, separated by a distance ris F. If the distance between the charges is doubled, then the new electrostatic force will be F F OF as (3) 2F (4) 4 2. Anelectric dipole placed in a uniform electric field of magnitude 2 NIC, experiences a maximum torque of magnitude 5 x 10-3 N m, Ifthe charges of the dipole have a magnitude of 2 mC, then the length of the dipole is (1) 2m (2) 6m (3) 25m (4) 1.25m 3. An electric field in a certain region is radially ‘outwards from origin and has a magnitude equal to A®2, where ris distance from the origin. The charge contained in a sphere of radius R, centered around origin is (1) 4re AR" (2) 4nzgAR*? (3) 6xe,AR (4) 2reyAR®? 4, A conical container (height = h, Radius of base = R), a spherical container (Radius = 3R) and a cylindrical container (height = h, Radius of base = 2R), each contain a charge Q inside them. The ratio of respective electric flux through the containers will be (All containers are closed) (1) 1:2:3 (QQ) 4:t4 (3)3:2:4 (4) 6:3:2 A charged oil drop of mass 10 yg and charge 10 nC is suspended between two parallel horizontal charged plates. The electric field between the plates is (1) 4Nic (2) 6NIC @) 10NIC (4) 8Nic ‘There are two small uncharged spheres placed at a distance of 1m from each other. N number of electrons are transferred from one sphere to another. The force between the spheres is now ‘measured to be equal to 2 newton, then the value of Nis (1) 48 105 (2) 6.1% 102 (3) 2.8 * 10° (4) 93 10 Ifa soap bubble is given an electric charge, then its radius (1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) Remains same (4) May increase or decrease depending upon whether the charge is negative or positive ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456COTES 8 Saeed The electric field lines distribution due to two charges is shown in the figure. Which of the following is correct? (1) 19g 1? 191 (2) Ia l 36. Consider the circuit as shown in the following figure. The current through the resistor marked Ri immediately after closing the switch is o. R,=20 a5 “WW AV awe Brera wen (2) 4A tA 2A CEE Se SECTION-B 36. Awire of resistance 1 @ is stretched such that the length becomes 1.2 times the initial value. The final resistance of the wire is (1) 129 2) 1449 3) 210 (4) 4220 37. In the circuit as shown in the figure, the value of resistance Ris 1A_R 25V 90F 9 nF 90 (1) 229 (2) 219 (3) 250 (4) 160 38. An electric bulb is rated as 100 W, 200 V. Ifthe bulb is connected across a 100 V supply, then the current drawn by the bulb at this voltage is (Assume no change in resistance) 4 1 (1) 5A (2) 5 1 4 @) 3A GA 39, The value of current jin the following network of wires is 4A 2A 1A fi (1) 4A (2) 1A (3) 2A (4) 3A ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COTES 40. 44 42. 43, Saeed In a potentiometer, a uniform potential gragient of 0.4 Vim is maintained across its 5 m length, The potential diference across two points located at 0.5 mand 4.5 mis (1) 1.6V (2) 2V (3) 04V (4) 28V For measuring votage of any circuit, potentiometer is preferred to voltmeter because (1) The potentiometer is cheap and easy to handle (2) Calibration in the voltmeter is sometimes wrong (2) The potentiometer draws no current during measurement (4) Range of the voltmeter is not as wide as that of the potentiometer Two cells of emf 2 V and 4 V respectively and internal resistance 1 9 each are connected in series with emf in opposite sense. The equivalent emf of the combination is (ev (2) 2v (@) 3Vv (4) 10v A. parallel combination of following cells is, connected to an external load. If all the cells are connected in same polarity, then the value of resistance of the external load such that the power transfer to the load is maximum is S.No | EMF _ | Internal Resistance 7 av [4a z sv [4a 3 2V__ [2a (3a (2) 22 @40 @ 10 z Cx 44, The reading of a high resistance voltmeter when a cell is connected across it is 4.2 V. When the terminals of the cell are also connected to a resistance of 10 Q the voltmeter reading drops to 4.0 V. Find the internal resistance of the cell y Pa (2) 19 (3) 2a @) 050 45. A capacitor of capacitance 8 uF is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. Charge on the plates of the capacitor is 8 uF 209 WW 40 ie | 5V 1a (1) 32 uo (2) 64 uC (@) 4uc (4) 8c 46. A body which was initially neutral, is now positively charged. Then its mass (1) Slightly decreases (2) Slightly increases (3) Remains same (4) May increase or remain same ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456cr 47. 48, 51 52. y Kirchhoff's loop law is based on conservation of (1) Charge (2) Eneray (3) Momentum (4) Angular momentum Three capacitors, with capacitance equal to 6 uF, 6 LF and 3 uF respectively are connected in series with 20 volt line, Find the charge on 3 F 6uF 6uF 3uF HHH 20V [CHEM SECTION-A A metal crystalises with a face centered cubic lattice. If edge length of the unit cell is 400 pm then the radius of the metal atom will be (1) 173.2 pm (2) 346.4 pm (3) 141.4 pm (4) 100 pm ‘compound is formed by cations X and anions Y. If anion Y form cep structure and cations occupy 1/4 of the tetrahedral voids, then the formula of the compound will be (1) X¥2 (2) XY (@) xv (4) x¥« RUS (1) 20 uc (2) 304C (3) 40 uc (4) 50 ue 49. Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by (1) Increasing the distance between the plates (2) Increasing the charge on the plates (3) Decreasing the area of the plates (4) Decreasing the aistance between the plates 50. The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can withstand without break-down is called its (1) Permittivity (2) Dielectric constant (3) Electric susceptibility (4) Dielectric strength ISTRY] 53. n-type semiconductor is obtained when germanium is doped with (1) As (2) Ga (3) AL 4) B 54. If KCI is doped with 10-* mol% of BaClz then concentration of cationic vacancies will be (1) 6.02 x 10°” mol-* (2) 6.02 x 10° mol-* (3) 6.02 « 10° mor (4) 6.02 « 10% mot 55. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in bec unit cell is van Bx Oe Os (3) We Ose ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456BOE Reid Ce) 6 amperes for 965 seconds? (Atomic mass of 285m (3) 7.7m (1) 289 (2) 38g (4) 108m (3) 5.29 (4) 199 57. A solution of glucose (molar mass = 180. mol") | 63. The concentration term which depends on 500 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be (Ki of water = 1.86K kg mor") (1) Mole fraction (1) 025°C (2) -1.25°C (2) Molality @) 0780 i t7e0 Raoults law? (4) Molarity ° onan one , 64. Incorrect statement among the following is 59. A solution containing 34.2 g per dm? of sucrose (3) Excggs of jinium makes LICI crystals pink (molar mass = 342 g mol-) is isotonic with 15% (4) Metal excess defect and Schottky defects are solute is ‘substance? (1) 750 g/mol (2) 1500 g/mol (1) Fe (2) Cre ‘ (3) 150 g/mol (4) 300 g/mol (3) Fes (4) Mno 100 torr and 140 torr, respectively then total vapour | ®. For tetragonal crystal system, the axial angles are (i) t10%0¢ (118 Oc Re ar ws (3) 124 torr (4) 120 torr Ge “8 61. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of given (@) ae pay 290 (1) >No >) Ma > KOS Ne Gimle ae ©) Mg > Nae >) Nar > Gimeete mote Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456Test 68. 69, 70. 71. ce A) If rate constant of first order reaction is 1.386 x 10-5" then the half life of the reaction will be (1) 100s (2) 200 s (3) 50s (4) 150s For Arrhenius equation, slope of the graph obtained 1 by plotting Ink versus + is y plotting z (1) Ina @ -£ OE @ In a zero order reaction, for every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate of reaction is doubled. If temperature is increased from 20°C to 80°C, then the rate of the reaction will become (1) 48 times (2) 128 times (3) 64 times (4) 32 times For the reaction, 3A + 2B + SC + 4D. Which of the following does not express the reaction rate? 140] 1A] 14) 180} (2) 141A] Ova sat dc] iB) 8 4) 3 72, 73. 74, CUE Zz Consider the following statements a. For zero order reaction ty is directly proportional to the initial concentration of the reactants. b. Inversion of cane sugar is an example of pseudo first order reaction. ¢. Decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a zero order reaction at high pressure. ‘The correct statements are (1) a&bonly (2) b&conly (3) a&conly (4) a,b&c A reaction is 50% completed in 30 minutes and 87.5% completed in 90 minutes. The order of the reaction is (1) Zero 23 3) 1 (4) 2 For a first order reaction, if the initial concentration of the reactant is 0.8 M and rate constant is 6.93 x 10-* S41, then the rate of the reaction after 100 s will be (1) 14102 Met (2) 25% 102 Ms (3) 28% 10 Ms (4) 1.9 104M st ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456CUTE ‘Series for NEET-2022 ieee 75. For the cell reaction, 79. If molar conductivities (A2,)at infinite dilution of Ni(s) + Cu?*(aq) —» Ni?*(aq) + Cu (s) KBr, HBr and HCOOK are x, y and z S cm? mot* if Ey =06V at 208 K then standard Gib’ respecte tan Af fr HCOOH iS om mor willbe energy change (4:G*) of the cell reaction is. (xty-z (1) -225.5 kJ mol (2) x-y-z (2) -115.8 kJ molt (3) z+y-x (3) -75.2 kJ mol* (4) z+x-y (4) -85.1 kJ mot 80, The equilbrium constant of the given cell reaction at 298 K will be 76. Unit of cell constant is Mls + Cu(aq) > Mo*(aq) + Cuts Ig(s) + Cu2*(aq) > Mg?*(aq) + Cu(s) (1) cm? o (Given : E2, =2.7 V) (2) ohm (@) om (1) 107 (2) 1088 (4) em (@) 1088 77. conductivity of 0.2 M solution of KCI at 298 K is 4) 1085 0.024 S em’, then the molar conductivity in’) g1. product obtained on the electrolysis of dilute cm? mot of the solution will be aqueous solution of NasSO« at anode and cathode (1) 120 respectively are @) 150 (1) Heand Na (3) 85 (2) SQz2 and O2 (3) He and O2 (4) 180 (4) O2 and He 78. If standard reduction potential of three metals A, 8 | 2. One faraday of electiciy was passed through and C are #024 V, +0.80 V and -0.60 V NaCl), CaCh(), AICI) kept in three different respectively, then oxidizing power of the metals will vessel using platinum electrode, The ratio of moles be in the order GIN, Co and Al dposied arespectve electrodes willbe (1) C>B>A (1) 1:2:3 (2) A>B>c (23:24 (3) B>A>C (3) 6:3:2 (4) C>A>B (4) 6:2:3 Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456cr 83, 84. 85. 86. 87. y Electrolyte used in the mercury cell is (1) Moist paste of NH«Cl and ZnCl (2) Paste of KOH and ZnO (3) 38% solution of H2SOx (4) Paste of HgO and carbon 0.1 m aq, solution of which of the given compounds will have highest freezing point? (1) Nact (2) MgCle (3) Urea (4) KelFe(CN)a} For ideal solution which of the given relation is incorrect? (1) Ao <0 (2) ASmi> 0 8) AGrx <0 (4) AVnix= 0 SECTION-B 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a Ks[Fe(CN)s] is 70% jonised, If Ke for water is 0.52 K kg mot’ then boiling point of the solution will be (1) 100.82°C (2) 100.32°C (@) t01.21°C (4) 101.52°C 10 g of urea is present in 250 mL of aqueous solution at 27°C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is (1) 82atm (2) 124 atm (3) 16.4 atm (4) 10.5 atm CEE Se DGS 22 88. Which colligative property is widely used to determine molar masses of polymers? (1) Depression in freezing point (2) Elevation in boiling point (3) Osmotic pressure (4) Relative lowering of vapour pressure 89. If concentration of nitric acid is 70% (w/w) HNOs then the mass of concentrated nitric acid required to prepare 200 mL. of 1.0 M HNOs is (1) 289 2) 189 (3) 329 (4) 109 90. If iron oxide has formula FenssO then what percentage of Fe exist as Fe2* ion? (1) 85% (2) 98.5% (3) 89.5% (4) 95% 91. Number of tetrahedral voids present in a foc unit cell is a8 (2)4 3)2 4) 6 92. If the rate constant of the reaction, X > Y is 4.x 10+ mol L-! st and initial concentration of X is 2.4 M, then the concentration of Y after 40 minutes will be (1) 149M (2) 048M (3) 124M (4) 0.96 M ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456EE Ee cz 93. Incorrect statement about the catalyst is ‘The correct statements are (1) It does not appear in the balanced chemical (1) (a) and (b) only, (2) (b) and (c) only equation (2) (@)and(c) only (4) (a), (b) and (¢) (2) It does not affect the equibrium composition of | 97. Reduction potential of hydrogen olectrode at the reaction mixture 4 atm pressure of Hz gas dipped in 0.01 M HCI (3) Itincreases the rate of forward reaction and solution at 298 Kis, reverse reaction (1) 0872 (4) It catalyses both spontaneous and non- (2) +0.325V spontaneous reactions (3) 0.118 94. Ifthe molar conductance of 0.04 M solution of weak (4) +0.059.v monobasic acid is 10 S cm? mot" and at infinite | 9g. if a metal crystallises in fcc lattice then number of dilution is 500 S cm? mor” then the dissociation unit cells present in 13 g of metal is (Atomic mass of constant ofthe acid will be metal = 65 u) (1) 8x10 (1) ax 10 (2) 1.6 «108 (2) 6x 1027 (3) 24% 108 (3) 3x 107 (4) 4.0 « 104 (4) 3x 10% 95. Standard electrode potential of Fe/Fe couple is | 99. 100 mi of 5 MHNOs is mixed with 800 mi of =0.44 V and that of Ag’/Ag couple is 0.80 V. These 2.5 MHNOs solution. The molarity of the resultant two couples in their standard state are connected to solution becomes make a cell. The cell potential will be (1) 328 (1) 1.24V, (2) 3.72M 2) 110 (421M (3) 0.36V (4) 278M (4) 154 400. The metals which will not evolve hydrogen gas on 96. Consider the following statements about zinc blende reaction with dilute HC! is crystal structure (1) Mg (2) Sulphide ions occupy foc latice points @) ca (b) Zn** occupy all octahedral voids (3) Ni (6) Number of ZnS units per uit cell is 4 (4) Ag Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456101. 102. 103. 104, 108. 106. CEE [BOTANY] SECTION-A Organism which reproduces through multiple fission under special circumstances is (1) Penicitium (2) Yeast (3) Amoeba (4) Hydra ‘Adventitious buds arise from the notches present at margins of leaves that help in vegetative propagation is found in (1) Sugarcane (2) Banana (3) Dahlia (4) Bryophyllum Which of the following produces isogametes? (1) Fucus (2) Homo sapiens (3) Cladophora (4) Rose Chromosome number in meiocytes of maize is (1) 46 (2) 20 (3) 34 (4) 12 All ofthe following show internal fertilization, except. (1) Bryophytes: (2) Most of the algae (3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms Select the incorrectly matched pair w.rt asexual reproduction. (1) Sponges - Gemmules (2) Ginger - Rhizome (3) Paramecium — Conidia (4) Agave ~ Bulbil 107. Read the statements and select the correct option ‘A. Life span of crocodile is approximately 60 years. B. Parrot can live for approximately 140 years. C. Life span of rose is less than that of butterfly, (1) Both A and B are correct, (2) Both A and C are correct (3) Only Bis correct, (4) Both B and C are correct Which of the neelakuranji? (1) Itflowers only once in 12 months (2) Itis a perennial plant (8) Plant grows in large tracks of hilly areas in Kerala, Kamataka and Tamil Nadu (4) It shows mass flowering Archegonium is (1) Present on the male thallus of Marchantia (2) The female sex organ of Marchantia (8) Male sex organ of Chara 108. following is not correct for 109, (4) Female sox organ of flowering plants 110. Event which occurs after fertilisation is (1) Pollination (2) Embryogenesis (3) Gametogenesis, (4) Syngamy After fertilization ovules develop into (1) Seeds (2) Fruits (3) Pericarp (4) Embryos oo ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 a 24,COTES Saeed 112. Read the given statements and select the correct answer, 1. Atypical angiosperm anthers bilobed with each lobe having two theca. I, The proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower. Il, innermost layer of microsporangium is responsible for dehiscence. U w w () [Tue [False | True (2) [False [False | True @) [Tue [Tue | False [Tue [Tue | True 113. Pollen grains in angiosperms develop from the of anther, (1) Epidermis (2) Endodermis (3) Tapetum (4) Sporogenous tissue 114. Cells of which anther layer possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than. one nucleus? (1) Outermost layer (2) Tapetum (3) Middle layers (4) Endodermis 116. Which of the following is not true for the pollen grains? (1) The hard outer layer is made up of sporopollenin (2) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin (3) The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the intine (4) Inner wall of pollen grain is resistant to strong acid and can withstand high temperatures z Cx 116. In over _A_ percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at _B stage. (1) A-90, B- Single celled (2) A-60, B-2 celled (3) A-80, B-3 celled (4) A-95, B-4 celled 117. Pollen grains of rice and wheat (1) Can survive for months (2) Lose viabilty within 30 minutes of their release (3) Lack exine and intine (4) Can survive for several weeks after shedding from the anther 118, Muticarpellary, apocarpous pistil is present in (1) Papaver (2) Michetia (3) Hibiscus (4) Tomato 119, Cells of the which part of ovule have abundant reserve food materials and enclosed within the integuments?, (1) Micropyle (2) Chalaza (3) Nucellus: (4) Funicle 120; Match the column-1 and column-II and select the correct option. Golumnt |_| Column-t Chaiaza [i | Stalk of ovule B | Funicle [i | Represents the basal part of the ovule C. | Hium |i. | Represents the junction between ovule and stalk (1) A, Bai, Cail (2) Aci, Bs, Cui (3) Adi, Bi, C4 (4) Ai, Bai, CH ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456cr A) 121. Mark the plant which has recovery phase or interflowering phase. (1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Marigold (4) Mango 122. Select the incorrect statement wrt typical female gametophyte of flowering plants. (1) The functional megaspore divides mitotically (2) Sixofthe eight nuclei are separately surrounded by cell walls in embryo sac (3) Each nuclear division is immediately followed by cell wall formation (4) Polar are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell 123. Read the following statements and select the correct option. ‘A. The synergids have special cellular thickenings called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the entry of pollen tube. B. Three antipodal cells are found towards the micropylar end in most of angiosperms. (1) Both A and B are correct (2) Only Ais correct (3) Only Bis correct (4) Both A and B are incorrect 124. Inxenogamy (1) Pollen grains of a plant are transfered from anther to stigma of another plants of the same species (2) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant (3) Pollination occurs within the same flower (4) No polinating agent is required for potnation CUE for NEE Zz 125, Plant which is pollinated by insects or wind is (1) Zostera (2) Water lly (3) Vallsneria (4) Hydra 126. Select the odd one w.rt. characteristics of flowers which are pollinated by water. (1) Their pollen grains are unwettable (2) Pollen grains are covered by a mucilaginous covering (3) Flowers are colourful (4) Flowers do not produce nectar 127. Asexual reproduction does not involve (1) Formation of clones (2) Fusion of gametes (3) Only a single parent (4) Mitosis 128. Which of the following plants are monoecious and dioecious respectively? (1) Rice and wheat (2) Mangifera and Wheat (3) Castor and Maize (4) Maize and Vallisneria 129. Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in all, except (1) Castor (2) Pea (3) Beans (4) Groundnut 130. Which one produces male and female sex organs on separate plant bodies? (1) Pea (2) Marchantia (3) Mustard (4) Pinus ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COTES Saeed 131. Amorphophallus and Yucca are mainly pollinated by (1) Wing (2) Water (3) insects (4) Birds 192. Some plants such as Oxalis and produce both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers. (1) Commelina (2) Cucumber (3) Groundnut (4) Water hyacinth 133. Select the incorrect match w.r.t, ploidy level of given structures in angiosperms. (1) Nucellus — 2n (2) Megaspore mother cell - 2n (3) Functional megaspore -n (4) Female gametophyte - 2n 134, Cleistogamy (1) Ensures the seed formation even in the absence of any pollinators (2) Is present in dioecious plants (3) Can be seen in papaya (4) Is an outbreeding device 195. Failure of pollen grains from fertilizing the ovule by Inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the same flower is known as (1) Dictiny (3) Selfincompatibitity (2) Dichogamy (4) Heterostyly SECTION B. 196. After double synergids| (1) Develop into seeds (2) Degenerate (3) Form the fruit wall (4) Develop into PEN fertilization in flowering plants, z Cx 137, Pollen germination can be studied by dusting the pollen on a glass slide containing a drop of A_with _B Select the correct option for A and B. (1) A~5% sugar solution, 8 - boric acid (2) A~ 10% sugar solution, B - boric acid (3) A~ 1% sugar solution, B - calcium salts (4) A~ 1% sugar solution, B - potassium salts 138. Vegetative cell of male gametophyte in flowering plants (1) Is smaller than the generative cell (2) Has large irregularly shaped nucleus (8) Floats in the cytoplasm of generative cell (4) Has dense cytoplasm and is spindle shaped 139, Plant which causes the severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people and came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat, is (1) Water hyacinth (2) Parthenium (3) Hibiscus (4) Zostera 140. Cell of female gametophyte which forms the primary endosperm cell after fertilization is, (1) Antipodal cel! (2) Egg cell (3) Polar nuclei (4) Central cell 141. Select the mismatched pair for dicot seed (1) Epicotyl — The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons (2) Hypocoty! — The cylindrical portion of embryonal axis below the level of cotyledons (3) Radicle - Covered by root cap (4) Plumule ~ Covered by coleoptilo. 142, Single cotyledon presenti the grass family is called (1) Coleorrhiza (2) Scutellum (3) Coleoptile (4) Hypocoty! ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456cr 143. 144, 146. 146. 151. 162. y Identify the parthenocarpic frut. (1) Guava (2) Banana (3) Orange (4) Mango 2000 years old viable seed of which plant was found during the archeological excavation at King Herod's palace near the Dead Sea? (1) Crotalaria (3) Lupinus areticus (2) Phoenix dactylifera (4) Vinca Triple fusion (1) Occurs outside the embryo sac (2) Involves fusion of one male gamete and egg cell (3) Is absent in most of the flowering plants (4) Leads to the formation of PEN Nucellus is persistent in the seeds of A. Black pepper CEE Se DGS 22 147. Thalamus contributes in fruit formation in all the following, except (1) Apple (2) Maize (3) Strawberry (4) Cashew ‘Some species of Asteraceae and grasses produce seeds without fertilisation by a special mechanism, called 148. (1) Parthenocarpy (2) Apomixis (3) Syngamy (4) Triple fusion 149. Most common type of embryo sac in flowering plants (1) Has three celled egg apparatus (2) Lack polar nucleus (3) Has two antipodal cells only (4) Is an 8 celled structure B. Bost ©. Maize 150, Cellular and tree-nuclear endosperm fs present in (1) AIA.Band@ (2) Aand Bonly (1) Castor (2) Groundnut (8) AandConly (4) Band C only (8) Coconut (4) Wheat [ZOOLOGY] SECTION-A Fusion of male and female gametes during sexual reproduction is called (1) Karyogamy (3) Zygote Choose the reproduction in animals. (1) Paramecium — Transverse binary fission (2) Syngamy (4) Embryogenesis incorrect match wrt asexual (2) Amoeba — Multiple fission (3) Euglena — Oblique binary fission (4) Hydra — Fragmentation 153, Read the following statements and choose the correct option. ‘Statement A: The period from birth to natural death of an organism represents its life expectancy, Statement B: Life span of organisms are necessarily correlated with thelr sizes. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) Only statement Ais correct (4) Only statement B is correct ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456EE ee (Code 154. Choose the edd one wrt the individuals. which (1) (@) and (b) possess both male and female reproductive system. 2) @and(e) (1) Monoecious 3) (c) and (4 (2) Hermaphrodite @ ©) @ (2) Divecious (4) (b) and (4) (4) Bisexual 188, Offspring produced by asexual reproduction that are 155. Oogamy is a special type of sexual reproduction not only identical to one another but are also exact characteristicaly present in most of the animals in copies of ther parents and are known as which fertilization involves (1) Clones (1) A large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete (2) Twins (2) Alarge motile female gamete and a small motile (3) Hermaphrodites male gamete (4) Gemmules (3) A large non-motile female gamete and a small hommotle mate gamete 159, Select the incorrect match, (4) A large non-motile female gamete and a large ‘Animals | Approximate life span nnon-motie male gamete 156. Parthenogenesis is (1) | Crow 15 years (1) Formation and development of ovum (2) | Grocodite | 60 years (2) Development of unfertilized egg into embryo, (3)|Parot | 140 years (3) Development of embryo to form zygote (4) Formation of gametes (4) | Butterfly 1-2 years 157. Read the following statements and choose the | s69. Gompiete the analogy wrt apie chromosome option with only correct statements number in meiocytes (a) Birds possess cleidoic eggs and exhibit external fertzation and development. Housefly : 12 : Buttertly (b) Diploid zygote is formed in sexually reproducing (1) 190 organisms. (2) 380 (c) In unicellular organisms, cell division is itself a mode of sexual reproduction, 3) 8 (a) Asexual reproduction is uniparental. (4) 46 Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456Test ce Dy) 161. Choose the correct option that represents the major disadvantage of extemal fetiization. (1) Offspring are extremely vulnerable to predators threatening their survival up to adutthoos (2) They show great synchrony between sexes: (2) Alarge number of offspring are produced (4) A large number of gametes are produced to tenhance chances of syngamy 162. Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option Statement A: All sexually reproducing organisms begin their fe as a single cell - the zygote. Statement B: Development ofthe zygote depends on the type of ife cycle the organism has and the environment it is exposed to (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct 163. Which of the following is concemed with asexual reproduction only? (1) Buds (2) Gonads (2) Zygote (4) Fusion of sperms and ova 164. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Oviparous animals lay unfertilized or fertilized eggs (2) In reptiles and birds, after a period of incubation, young ones hatch out (3) The most vital event of sexual reproduction is perhaps cell differentiation during gametogenesis (4) Gamete transfer and syngamy are essential for the most critical event in sexual reproduction ie,, fertilization All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ Zz 1165. Match items in column! with those in columnell and choose the option with all correct match. Column-| Column-tt A | Zygote (i) | Process of development of embryo from zygote B | Embryogenesis | (ii) | Cyclical changes during reproductive phase in non- primate placental mammals C]Oestrus cycle | (ii) | Cyclical changes during reproductive phase in primates Vital link between ‘one generation to next D| Menstrual cycle | (iv) A B c D Oyo @ ww Ww 2m Ww @ @ am o ® wi @ wm 166, Spermatogenesis is ‘switched on’ at puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of hypothalamic hormone called (1) GnRH (3) LH 167. Secretion of which of the following structures is not essential for maturation and motility of sperms? (1) Epididymis (2) Vas deferens (3) Prostate gland (4) Cowper's gland (2) FSH (4) Androgens ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COTES Saeed 168. At puberty, young males start to develop beard and moustaches and girls begin to develop breasts. Those are examples of (1) Atavism (2) Primary sex organs (3) Secondary sexual characters (4) Metamorphosis 169. In most of the mammals, the testes are located in scrotal sac for (1) Sex determination at genetic level (2) Proper spermatogenesis (3) Providing more space to intestine (4) Independent functioning of kidneys 170. Which of the following unpaired accessory sex gland is chestnut shaped in structure and provides Ca’? ions to semen? (1) Prostate gland (2) Barthotin’s gland 3) Seminal vesicle (4) Cowper's gland 174. Select the correct sequence of cell stages formed during spermatogenesis within seminiferous tubules, (1) Spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatocytes, sperms (2) Spermatozoa, spermatids, spermatogonia, spermatocytes (3) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa (4) Spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatogonia, sperms z Cx 1172, Match items in column! with those in columnell and choose the correct option Column-l Columnell a.| Hyaluronidase | (i) | Progesterone b.] Corpus tuteum | (i) | First milk rich in IgA ¢. | Capacitation | (ii) | Corona radiata 4. | Colostrum (iv) | Sperm activation (1) &(), DA, ei, dG) (2) ax), b-(), ev), tip 3) a (i), bei), ei), 0) (4) ail), (i), -), &(v) 173, Attachment of embryo with uterine wall is called (1) Gestation (2) Parturtion (3) Implantation (4) Fertilization 174, Secretion of which of the following structures prepares endometrium of uterus for implantation? (1) Morula (2) Placenta (3) Pars intermedia (4) Corpus luteum 175. Which of the following set of hormones are synthesized only during pregnancy? (1) hCG, progesterone, relaxin (2) Relaxin, progesterone, prolactin (3) hCG, MPL, relaxin (4) Oestrogen, progesterone, oxytocin ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456Test ce A) 176. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t embryonic development in humans. (1) Cleavage division brings about considerable increase in mass of protoplasm (2) Embryo at 8 to 16-celled stage is known as morula (3) Foetus develops limbs and digits by the end of second month of pregnancy (4) Secretion of trophoblast facilitates implantation of embryo 177. Select the incorrect match (1) } Insemination | Transfer of sperms into female genital tract (2) | Parturition Delivery of foetus (3) | Spermiation | Sperm heads become ‘embedded in the Sertoli (4) | Spermiogenesis | Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa 178. Identify A, B, C and D in following figure and choose the option which correctly represents A, B, C and D. Hypothalamus, ‘Adenonypophyss] [Sensory A input 8 ‘Oxytocin D Mik secretion c 179. 180. 181 182 ‘All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 a 8 © D (1) [Anterior [Protacin — | Parturtion | FSH pituitary (2) | Neurohy | Prolactin — | Mik Sucking pophysis, ejection (9) [Pars | Progesterone | Mik Crying of distal secretion | child (4) [Pars | Mikejection | Parturition | Suckling How many egg(s) was/were released by a human ovary in a month if a mother gave birth to identical twins? (2 4 a4 Oy How many sex chromosome(s) does a normal human inherit from his father? (1) 23 (2) 46 32 44 All of the following structures are included in male sex accessory ducts except (1) Seminiferous tubules (2) Vasa etterentia (3) Rete testis, (4) Epididymis Inner coll mass gets differentiated into (1) Trophoblast (2) Embryo (9) Placenta (4) Chorion ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456EE ee 183. Each seminiferous tubule is internally lined by x 3 7 > ‘A and 8. B synthesize cortain factors [senna | Promate Pons] oman whieh heipin CO vesite | sland blader (2) | Ejaculatory | Bulbourethral | Foreskin | Prostate a a € duct | glans sland (1) | Spermatogonia | Leydig | Spermatogenesis (3) | Ejaculatory | Prostate Penis Urinary te duct | giana blader | Spermatogonia | Sertoi | Spermiogenesis | @) | Prostate | Urinary Urethra | Penis (2) Spematogoia |] Seno | Spermiogenesis Fos | yn, (@) | Primary Leydig | Spermatogenesis SECTIONS spermatocytes. | cells oot 186. At least what percent of sperms must have normal (4) | Primary Leydig | Spermiogenesis shape and size and must show vigorous motility for spermatocytes | cells normal fertility per ejaculate? 184, Select the incorrect match (1) 60% (2) 40% (1) | FSH Development of follicles (3) 72% (4) 24% ayo Development af corpus] | 187. Read the folowing statements carefull and choose luteum the option which correctly state them as true (T) or false (F) (3) | Progesterone Post ovulatory phase, of (a) Capacitation occurs in female reproductive tract menstrual cycle y (b) Corpus luteum is only temporary endocrine (4)| Oestrogen |No effect on female gland in human females formed during sexual behaviour pregnancy 4185. In the following given figure, identify A, 8, C, D and (6) Fertiization in humans is practically feasible choose the option which represents A, B, C and D only if sperms and ovum are transported correctly simultaneously to the infundibulum region of , fallopian tube < (A) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus is called ectopic pregnancy (a) (bo) (©) (d) > m TOF oT T ®t tT FF OY @® TO FOF T @ FT FR T Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456Test ce A) 188. Signals for parturition originate from fully developed foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called (1) Foetal ejection reflex (2) Hypothalamo - ovarian reflex (3) Negative hypothalamo - hypophyseal reflex (4) Suckling reflex. 189. Which of the following hormone peaks during luteal phase of ovarian cycle and is also responsible for LH surge? (1) Progesterone (@) LH (3) Oestrogen (4) FSH 190. Choose the incorrect match. Minimum level of progesterone and gonadotrophins during menstrual cycle (1) | Menstrual phase (2) |Menarche | First menstruation which begins at puberty (3) | Menopause _ | High level of oestrogen and progesterone (4) | Menstrual eyole Cycle of events starting from one menstruation til the next one 191. Inhuman females, meiosis stats (1) Before birth during fostal stage of te (2) Alter bith at puberty (2) Alter puberty before menopause (4) During fertile age before menopause All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ 022 192. Select the incorrect statement w.r tertiary folic. (1) Secondary follicle transforms into tertiary follicle (2) Itis characterised by a fuid filed cavity called antrum (3) Primary oocyte completes meiosis-I to form secondary oocyte and 2" polar body (4) Theca layer is organised into an outer theca externa and inner theca interna 193, Structural and functional unit between developing ‘embryo and maternal body is called (1) Umbilical cord (2) Placenta (3) Amnion (4) Yolk sac 194. All of the following hormones increase several folds during pregnancy except (1) Cortisot (2) LH (3) Oestrogen (4) Progesterone 195. Select the incorrect statement. (1) Bartholin’s glands are situated on either side of vaginal orifice in human female (2) Mammary glands are situated ventral to pectoralis major muscles (3) The number of autosomes in human secondary spermatocyte is 23 (4) Embryo heart is formed after one month of pregnancy 196. In human females, oogenesis is completed (1) Before delivery of female foetus (2) After delivery of female foetus but before puberty (3) After entry of sperm in perivitelline space (4) On entry of sperm within ovum during fertilization ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456‘All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 eer 197. Birth canal for parturition is formed by 199. In external genitalia of human females, a cushion of (1) Only vagina adipose connective tissue which is covered by skin (2) Uterus and oviduct and pubic hairs is called (3) Cervical canal and vagina (1), Mons pubis (4) Only cervical canal (2) Labia majora 198. The alveoli of mammary lobes open into _A which join to forma _B _. Several mammary ducts (3) Labia minora (4) Clitoris 200. Read the given statements and choose the incorrect option. join to form a _C which is connected to _D Choose the option which fil all the blanks (A, 8, C, D) correctty (1) Fimbriae help in collection of ovum atter A 5 ¢ D ovulation (1) | Mormary [Mammary | Mammary | tacierous (2) Stroma of ovary is divided into peripheral cortex and inner medulla (2) | Mammary [Mammary [ Mammary | Lacterous tubules duct ampulla duct (3) Ovaries and uterus are primary sex organs in {@ | tacts [Manan | Mammary | Mammary females see | Neciee | tpate™ | Soe peste = = (4) Ovaries are connected to pelve wall and uterus cifwous | Marenay | Marvrary | Manmnay © | ee" | Spare” | euer™ | es by ligaments gaa Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456el fByv eo 84230 in NEET-UG our Result in Medical Entrance Exam - 2020 to: da: ds: ‘AKANKSHA SINGH ‘SNIKITHA TUMMALA. ‘Year Classoom ‘Year casstoom Ce ne pee Ph. (011), ‘Scan for Nearest CentreALL RIGHTS RESERVED All rights including copyright and translation rights etc, reserved and vests ‘exclusively with AESL. No part ofthis publication may be reproduced, distributed, redistributed, copied or transmitted in any form or by any means-graphical, electronic or mechanical methods including photocopying, recording, taping or stored on information retrieval systems of any nature or reproduced on any disc, tape, media, information storage device, without the prior written permission of AESL. Breach of this condition is liable for legal action (civil as well as criminal) under the applicable Laws, Edition: 2021-22 © Aakash Educational Services Limited [AESL]