Selection examination for Radiology -2019 September

1.Regarding the knee joint

A. The lateral femoral condylar articular surface is longer than that of the medial condylar articular
surface in anteroposterior length
B. Lateral articular surface of patella is larger than the medial
C. Communicates with supra patella bursa
D. Anterior cruciate ligament is attached to posterior aspect of medial border of lateral femoral
condyle
E. Fibular collateral ligament is attached to lateral menisci

2. Regarding peritoneal folds and attachments

A. Proper hepatic artery runs in the hepatoduodenal ligament

B. Small bowel mesentery lies obliquely crossing the right sacroiliac joint
C. Apex of the sigmoid mesocolon lies anterior to left ureter.
D. Mesoappendix extends from caecum to distal appendix
E. Hepatorenal pouch is the most dependent area in the peritoneum in supine position

3.Regarding urinary bladder and urethra

A. Suprapubic puncture needle passes through peritoneum.

B. Bladder is supported by puboprostatic ligament
C. Most distensible part of urethra is prostatic urethra
D. Trigone of the bladder contains skeletal muscle
E. Internal urethral sphincter lies in the deep perineal pouch

4. Regarding cranial bones

A. Skull sutures are fibrous joints

B. Skull bones show endochondral ossification
C. Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale.
D. Foramen spinosum transfers the middle meningeal vein.
E. Superior orbital fissure transmits ophthalmic artery

5. Pregnancy and lactation

A. Oestrogen causes breast enlargement

B. Oestrogen inhibits lactation
C. Delivery of placenta increases prolactin secretion
D. Suction increases prolactin secretion
E. Prolactin causes increase no of ductolobular unit

6. Pancreas

A. Glucagon secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans

B. Alpha amylase is secrete by pancreas
C. Trypsin is secreted in active form
D. Pancreatic juice contains plenty of HCO3-
E. Secretin releases enzyme rich secretion from pancreas
7.Regarding respiratory physiology

A. Airway resistance accounts for more than half of the work of breathing
B. Oxygen can diffuse readily than CO2 through alveolar capillary membrane
C. Alveolar oxygen diffusion is inversely proportionate to the thickness of the alveolar capillary
membrane
D. Anatomical deadspace is equal to physiological deadspace in a healthy individual
E. Alveolar ventilation is more in rapid shallow breathing than in slow and deep breathing

8. Regarding arteriorles

A. Have more smooth muscles than arteries

B. Creates more cross sectional area than the capillary network
C. Recoils during systole
D. Peirpheral vasodilatation is caused by adrenergic stimulation
E. Responsible for total peripheral vascular resistance

9. Cell injury

A. Hypoxia is the main cause

B. Fibrinoid necrosis occur in tuberculosis
C. enzymatic degradation of adipose tissue occurs in fat necrosis
D. UV light helps in skin wound healing
E.

10.Regarding Dysplasia

A. Occurs in epithelial tissue

B. Polarity of cells is lost
C. Typically leads to carcinoma
D. Anaplasia is the hallmark of dysplasia
E. Irreversible

11. Granuloma,

A. Is an aggregation of lymphocytes
B. Shows caseation in sarcoidosis
C. Coagulative necrosis seen in caseating granuloma
D. Resolve spontaneously
E. Presence of Acid fast bacilli in a granuloma indicates active tuberculosis.

12. Regarding Histopathology on Colo-rectal cancer,

A. cytokeratin 20 is widely used immunostain in colorectal carcinoma

B. perirectal tissue involvement considered as pathological stage III
C. Signet cell adenocarcinoma is rare in Colon Cancer.
D. Mucin is stained in PAS
E. Dissection is done in the antemesenteric border

13.Cytological assessment

A. Preferred in diagnosing breast CA

B. Urine cytology for transitional cell carcinoma
C. Psammoma bodies found in thyroid cytology
 D. Exfoliative cytology could be performed by needle aspiration
E. Air-dried smears are examined by H & E staining

14.SLE

A. Diagnosis should not be confirmed in the absence of ANA

B. In false positive VDRL neuropsychiatric manifestation are more likely
C. ITP should be excluded in children
D. pregnancy is contraindicated
E. irreversible arthritis is more common

15. Legionnaires disease

A. Stay dormant below 20° Celsius.

B. In outbreaks person to person is the mode of transmission
C. CNS involves rarely
D. Quinolone is the drug of choice
E. Urine antigen test is specific
F. Caused by Legionella pneumophilia

16. regarding HIV

A. Anti retroviral therapy is started when CD4 count is < 500/µL

B. HIV1 & HIV2 are double stranded DNA viruses
C. Early seroconversion causes flu like illness
D. P24 Ag can detect very early
E. Western blot test is screening test

17. regarding cryptococcal meningitis

A. Ampotericine B is drug of choice

B. CSF show lymphocytic count
C. Occur in immunecompetent people
D. Causative bacterium is Cryptococcus neoformans in children
E. MRI brain shows granuloma

18. True or false regarding gastroschisis and omphalocele

A. In gastroschisis small bowel is covered by a membrane

B. Bowel stricture is more common in omphalocele then gastroschisis
C. Gastroschisis can be associated with malrotation of mid gut
D. This can be diagnosed by second trimester antenatal scan
E. Omphalocele is a surgical emergency

19. Acute arterial occlusion of lower limb

A. Parasthesia
B. Paralysis
C. Blanching on elevation
D. Poikilothermia
E. Normal venous filling
20. In ulcerative colitis

A. Backwash ileitis affects distal 30cm of ilium

B. Pseudo polyp seen in majority
C. Increase chances for malignancy
D. Diarrhea implies chronic colitis
E. Toxic mega colon is a known complication

21. Regarding cervical spine injury

A. In atlanto occipital subluxation is due to ligamentous injury

B. Jefferson fracture is fracture between anterior and posterior arches of C1 vertebra
C. Odontoid peg fracture below the base is type 3
D. Hangman fracture involves spondylolisthesis of C2 vertebra

22. Infective mastitis of breast

A. Mastitis due to breast engorgement is caused by duct obstruction by epithelial debris.

B. mumps mastitis involves bilateral breasts
C. acute sub areolar mastitis occurs due to infection of subareolar sebaceous gland
D. chronic subareolar mastitis lead to of mamillary fistula
E. Greenish coloured discharge is seen in periductal mastitis.

23. Osteomyelitis in children

A. mainly of heamatogenous spread

B. caused by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus
C. High risk in sickle cell disease
D. Ephipysis spared
E. X-ray is negative in first 14days

24. Bone tumours

A. Osteochondroma common in upper femur and upper tibia

B. Osteiod osteoma contains central nidus surrounding by scelerotic trabeculae
C. Osteoclastoma contains multinucleated cells and fibrovascular core
D. Ollier's disease associated with multiple heamangiomas
E. Ewing sarcoma is common in metaphysis

25. Causative organisms for necrotizing pneumonia in children

A. Klebsiella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. viral infection
E. tuberculosis

26. UTI in children

A. Commonest organism is pseudomonas

B. Posterior urethral valve is risk factor
C. Cystitis is treated with IV antibiotics
D. Acute pyelonephritis causes VUR
 E. USG KUB is mandatory in first episode of infection

27. Foreign body aspiration in children present as

A. Unresolving pneumonia
B. Acute wheezing
C. Chronic wheezing
D. Pneumothorax
E. Recurrent Respiratory tract infections

28. Regarding Dementia.

A. Most common type is Alzeimers Disease.

B. Pick disease is associated
C. Lewy body dementia is associated with movement disoders.
D. In vascular dementia, CT shows hypodense areas in periventriculral region
E. Pyridostigmine is used in treatment

29. Regarding Fallopian tubes

A. 5cm in length
B. Infundibulum is the narrowest part
C. Partially covered by peritoneum
D. Has ciliated epithelium in the distal end
E. Fertilization occurs in the tubes

30. Regarding placenta

A. Human placenta has 120 cotyledons

B. Antiphospholipid syndrome causes defective placentation
C. Placenta recives 20% of foetal cardiac output
D. Majority of placental abruptions present with concealed haemorrhages
E. Bleeding due top placenta praevia is mainly of foetal origin

31. Regarding normal and abnormal sexual development

A. Adrenarche is followed by thelarche

B. There is elevated level of LH during puberty
C. Female genital tract is formed by the fusion of the Wollfian ducts
D. Müllerian agenesis results in normal development of ovaries
E. Hypogonadotrphic hypogonadism is seen in Turner syndrome

32. Causes for secondary post-partum haemorrhage

A. Uterine atony
B. Endometritis
C. Vaginal trauma
D. Uterine rupture
E. Retained products

33. Causes for oligohydramniosis

A. multiple pregnancy
B. IUGR
C. anenchephaly
 D. Multicystic dysplastic kidney
E. Duodenal atresia

34.Endometriosis and Adenomyosis

A. MRI is a gold standard in diagnosis

B. Hysterectomy and BSO is curative
C. Needle aspiration of cyst can cause recurrence
D. mostly associated with nulliparity
E. Extent of disease correlates well with clinical presentation

35. 30yr old female with diabetes is awaiting CT urography. Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL, eGFR 70ml/min

Patient preparation should include,

A. Bowel preparation
B. Stop metformin 48hrs before IV contrast
C. Pregnancy test
D. Prednisolone 10mg tds for 3days
E. Overnight fasting

36) Regarding Hepatic Ultrasonograghy

A. Caudate lobe hypertrophies in cirrhosis

B. Done to detect hepatocellular carcinoma in screening cirrhosis
C. Segmental anatomy is not delineated
D. Portal vein wall echogenicity is higher than liver parenchyma
E. Fatty infiltration is hypoechoic in ultrasound

37 . Acute EDH

A. Arterial origin
B. Not restricted by suture line
C. More than 5 mm midline shift needs surgical intervention
D. hyper intense in T1 w MRI
E. Heterogeneous appearance indicates rebleeding.

38 . Regarding imaging of the thyroid gland

A. Linear array high frequency transducer is used for scan

B. Tc 99 isotope scan used for prognosis assessment after therapy
C. Normal thyroid tissue is of same echogenicity with strap muscles
D. Contrast CT scan of neck is the investigation of choice detecting ectopic thyroid tissue
E. Punctuate calcifications lead to suspicion of malignancy

39. Absolute contraindications for MRI in cervical myelopathy

A. Cardiac pacemaker
B. Past history or cervical spinal surgery
C. Ferromagnetic foreign body in the eye ball
D. Total hip replacement
E. Past history of contrast allergy to iodine contrast

40. Chi square 2 in 2 contingency table valued for

A. Expected frequencies should be more than 5
B. At least one variable should be within normal distribution
C. One should be a continuous variable
D. Applied for a large population
E. Observed frequencies should be more than 5