Radiology Screening Test

Past papers

1999 - 2017
Useful reading materials

Applied Radiological Anatomy by Paul Butler

Radiology Review Manual by Wolfgang F. Dahnert

Aids to Radiological Differential Diagnosis by Richard Nakielny and Stephen Chapman

A Guide to Radiological Procedures by Richard Nakielny and Stephen Chapman

Toronto notes

Supun Senaratne
 Radiology Screening Test 1999

1. Cephal haematoma

A. Maximum at 3-4 days

B. Blood collects under the periosteum
C. Causes exaggerated physiological jaundice
D. Should manage surgically
E. Disappears at 2nd week of life

2. Erythematous skin lesion in the neck of an infant due to

A. Impetigo
B. Candidiasis
C. Seborrhoeic dermatitis
D. vitiligo
E. cafe au-lait patches

3. Ectopic pregnancy (Copy right)

A. History of LRT exclude the possibility of ectopic pregnancy

B. Uterine cavity is empty
C. Ectopic pregnancy is associated with normal pregnancy incidence 1:100
D. USS is essential before surgery for ruptured ectopic pregnancy
E. Gold standard investigation is laparoscopy for ectopic pregnancy

4. H. Mole

F A.Only paternal sex chromosome contribute for complete mole only paternal chromosomes46 XX 90%
T B.Follow up is essential 46XY 10%
F C.Snow storm appearance is seen in pelvic X-ray USS
TD. TSH level hyperthyroidisum
E. If not regressed after 6/12 of evacuation

5. There are known causes of IUD

A. Fibroids
B. DM
T
C. Syphilis
T
D. Malaria
T E. Rh isoimmunisation

6. Following USS findings are compatible with fetal anomalies

T A. Vault of the skull absent & anencephaly

B. Maternal polyhydramnios & ................ air bubble
T C. Down’s syndrome & double bubble appearance in duodenum
T D. Distension of pelvi-calyceal system and posterior urethral valve

7. New born delivered at 32/52 of POA can have increased incidence of

F A. Meconium aspiration
T B. Apnoeic attack
T C. VSD
T D. Undescended testis
T E. Periventricular haemorrhage
8. T/F

A. In a metachromatic chromosome centromere is in the middle

B. Down’s syndrome have extra chromosome
C. Chromosome number becomes half in meiosis
F D.
F In Turner’s Barr body is present
Barr body- inactive X chromosome, Turner has no barr body
9. Anaemia

F A. Causes hypoxic hypoxia

F B. Stimulated peripheral chemoreceptors
F C. Reduces O2 carrying capacity of Hb - of blood
T D. In malabsorption mixed peripheral blood picture is seen
T E. Haemolysis increases the methemoglobin level
- intravascular hemolysis
10. Following are premalignant lesions

A. Leukoplakia of the tongue

B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Hidradenitis Suppurativa
D. Duct ectasia of breast
E. Atrophic gastritis

11. PTH hormone

T TA. Reduces plasma PO4-3

F F B. Secretion regulated by hypothalamus
F FC. Increased in response to increased plasma ionic Ca2+ level
F FD. Stores in thyroid follicles
T TE. Increases serum calcium level

12. Pus cells in urine is a feature of

T A. Prostatitis
T B. Renal TB
T C. Calculous disease of the renal tract
T D. Dengue fever
E. Minimal change GN

13. Increased protein content with low glucose in CSF is seen in

A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Partially treated bacterial meningitis
C. Rabies
D. TB meningitis
E. Meningeal carcinomatosis

14. Chronic subdural haematoma

A. Presents with acute headache

B. CT is the investigation of choice
C. Seen as a crescentic hypodense area in the CT scan
D. Can get in shaking of babies
E. EEG is diagnostic
15. In uncertain dates of POA

A. Detailed menstruation history is valuable

B. Crown rump length measurement in 1st trimester is useful
C. Biparietal diameter in 18-24/52 is useful
D. Hegar's sign is diagnostic
E. Date of quickening is helpful

16. In a pregnant women with polyhydramnios following are indicated

A. Rh antibodies
B. GTT
C. Diuretics
D. Serum alpha fetoprotein of the mother
E. USS

17. In anaphylaxis

A. Wheezing is an early sign

B. Adrenalin is given IM
C. Hydrocortisone gives immediate effect
D. Hypotension occurs
E. Causes primary hypertension

18. In primary pulmonary TB

A. Signs are minimal

B. Sputum AFB is usually positive
C. Cavitation is seen
D. Ghons’ focus is rarely seen
E. Haemoptysis is commonly seen

19. T/F

T A. Multiple myeloma predominantly affects elderly

T B. In CML splenomegaly is seen Massive
T C. Mattered cervical lymph nodes are seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma
F D. Elevated serum acid phosphatase is diagnostic of prostatic CA

20. In urinary obstruction

A. Calculi is a predominant cause is children

B. PU valve causes dribbling is a male child
C. Isotope scan helps in management
D. Commonly present with UTI

21. Bowel preparation mandatory for

F A. IVP
F B. GUT Xray
T C. Double contrast Ba studies – Ba enema
D. Arteriography
T E. Colonoscopy
 22. Spina bifida Thorasic &L1,L2 paraplegic
F A. Paraplegia caused by lumbosacral meningomyelocele
T B. Urinary incontinency is seen in lower lumbosacral meningomyelocele Bladder function do not
F C. Pre conceptional folic acid has not reduced the incidence Corelate with level of lesion
T D. Risk increases with subsequent pregnancies 3%
T E. Spina bifida occulta is demarcated by a dimple or tuft of hair

23. GFR

T T A. GFR is 125ml/min
F F B. Urea is used to measure the GFR
T T C. GFR is reduced with afferent arteriolar constriction
F F D. ADH does not influence GFR
T T E. Reduced in severe burns

24. In a normal distribution curve

Mean=median= mode
T A. Mode and mean are same
F FB. Is skewed to left
T TC. Mode is the most frequent number
F F D. ± 1SD = 97%
F E. Bimodal curve is characteristic

25. Acute response to shock

F A. Vasoconstriction in arteries to brain & neck

F B. Decreased peripheral resistance
F C. Increased urinary sodium loss
26. Restrictive lung diseases

T TA. FEV1/FVC is normal

T TB. FVC is reduced
F F C. Responds to B receptor agonists
T D. Caused by LVF
T TE. Caused by scoliosis

27. In a patient with acute haematemesis due to oesophageal varices

A. O2 to be given via ET tube

B. Emergency shunt surgery is essential
C. Urgent endoscopy is mandatory
D. Ba swallow and meal is contraindicated in acute phase
E. Oesophageal varices seen in USS

28. In a cardiac cycle

F F A. Systole is longer than diastole

T TB. In exercise diastolic time is affected than systolic time
T TC. In isovolumetric contraction phase the ventricles contract against closed AV and semilunar valves
T TD. Blood flows to the aorta when the LV presser > 80mmHg
F E. 3rd heart sound is commonly pathological

29. Regarding parotic gland

FA. Opens into the floor of the mouth
B. Sialography is contraindicated in parotid abscess
TC. Capsule is made of deep cervical fascia of the neck
TD. Secretion is serous
E. Retromandibular vein is the deepest structure
30. Regarding congenital anomalies

A. Imperforated anus due to persistent cloacal membrane

B. Hypospadias is due to incompletely fused urethral folds
F C. Bicornuate uterus is due to non-fusion of paramesonephric ducts - partial fusion
T D. Ectopic thyroid tissue seen in tongue
F F E. Meckel’s diverticulum present at level of jejunum distal ileum, about 2ft from ileocecal valve
F. Defect of septum primus

31. Femoral artery

A. Nerve lies medial to the femoral canal

B. Extends from inguinal ligament to the lower border of popliteus
C. Can be present just medial to the midpoint of inguinal ligament against the anterior pubic rami
D. Femoral vein lies posterior to it at adductor canal
E. Gives off the lateral circumflex femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament

32. The right atrium

F A. Forms the base of the heart

B. AV node is in the septal wall
T C. Coronary sinus lies between the opening of the IVC and the AV opening
F D. Persistent septum secondum gives rise to ASD
E. Limbus of fossa ovalis indicates the lower edge of the ............... septum

33. In a forearm fracture of a child

A. AP X-ray is adequate
B. Immobilisation is mandatory
C. X-ray of the other forearm is not useful
D. X-ray should include the elbow joint & wrist
E. Commonest fracture is Collis

34. Wide mediastinal shadow in CXR in an adult

T A. Film taken in expiration

F B. Thymic remnants
T C. Unfolding aorta
T D. Achalasia cardia
T E. Hilar lymphadenopathy

35. Obstructive jaundice

T A. May be followed by hepatitis B infection

T B. Causes Vit K deficiency
F C. USS is very sensitive in detecting a calculi in lower end of CBD
T D. Causes pruritus
E. Plasmodium vivax is a cause

36. T/F

A. Every gastric ulcer should be biopsied

B. Gastrin is secreted by 1st part of duodenum
C. Achalasia cardia is a motility disorder due to reduced ganglionic cells in the myenteric plexus
D. Incarcerated hiatus hernia can be seen in CXR
37. In B thalassaemia major

A. Reduction in formation of alpha chains

B. Disease is autosomal recessive
C. Treated with IV Desferrioxamine
D. Advised on low Fe diet
E. Blood picture is hypochromic
F. Red cell T½ is less than 3/52

38. Trigeminal neuralgia treated with

T A. Carbamazepine
B. Ibuprofen
C. Stereotactic radiofrequency
T D. Baclofen
T E. Microvascular decompression
F. Clonazepam

39. Lump associated with surgical scar

T A. Abscess
T B. FB granuloma
T C. Incisional hernia
T D. Implanted dermoid
T E. Desmoids tumour

40. Ionising radiation (X-ray) causes

T A. Leukaemia
B. Reduction in survival
C. Chromosomal aberration
T D. Cataract
T E. Sub fertility
 Radiology Screening Test – August 2000

1. The following conditions are linked together

F TA. Thyrotoxicosis and rapid ventricular fibrillation

T TB. Turners’ syndrome and coarctation of the aorta
C. Myxoedema and cardiomyopathy
D. Downs’ syndrome and aortic incompetence
F
F E. Marfan syndrome and PDA

2. Common causes of cardiomegaly includes

A. Acute MI
B. Mitral stenosis
C. HOCM
D. Tricuspid regurgitation
TE. Aortic regurgitation

3. The following drugs are linked with following adverse reactions (Copy right)

A. Stilbestrol with jaundice

B. Halothane with pulmonary embolism
C. Isoprenaline with aplastic anaemia
D. Chloramphenicol with pseudo membranous colitis
E. Phenylbutazone with aplastic anaemia

4. Mechanical ventilation

A. Aims at an inspiratory : expiratory ratio of 1:2 in most patients

B. Lower cardiac output
T C. Increases the risk of pneumothorax
D. In advantageous for left ventricular failure
E. Predisposes right heart failure in asthmatics

5. Double contrast Barium meal

TA. Coats the gastric mucosa with a thin layer of concentrated barium
B. Requires no prior preparation
C. Is more operator dependent than single contrast barium studies
D. Often causes diarrhoea
E. Accurately reveals gastric lesions over 0.5 cm in diameter

6. Acute appendicitis

TA. Is the most common acute abdominal emergency requiring surgery

TB. Is common in elderly people and in children under 12 years of age
F C. Is almost always associated with a raised WBC
D. Is usually caused by the bacteria E.coli
FE. Can be diagnosed reliably by abdominal radiography
7. HIV can be transmitted by

A. Saliva
T B. Needle stick injury
C. Breast milk
F D. Sharing cooking facilities
E. Urine

8. Following statements about the investigations of the liver and biliary tract are true

A. Oral cholecystography is useful investigation in a jaundiced patient

B. Nuclear medicine studies are the best Ix of liver parenchyma
F C. Most gallstones are radio-opaque
F D. ERCP is the best method of demonstrating stones is the common bile duct
E. Liver secondary tumours are usually highly vascular and well visualized by angiography

9. The causes of portal HT include

T A. Mesenteric venous thrombosis Chronic MVT presents with PHT

T TB. Portal venous thrombosis
T TC. Splenic venous thrombosis
T D. Secondary liver metastases
F E. Ascites

10. The following signs may occur in superior vena caval obstruction

T A. Distension of superficial thoracic veins

T B. Swelling of the tongue
F C. Nerve deafness Conductive hearing loss due to euestachian tube block c odema
T D. Proptosis
T E. Conjunctival oedema

11. The following statements about renal biopsy are true

A. The lateral border of the lower pole is the safest part to biopsy
T B. Bleeding is the most common complication
F C. The presence of the nephrotic syndrome is a contraindication to biopsy
D. A small shrunken kidney is easy to biopsy because it does not moves with respiration
E. IV diazepam during the procedure is contraindicated

12. The causes of pleural effusions include

TA. Pancreatitis
T PE is an asbestose related lung disease. Asbestosis causes fibrosis
F B. Asbestosis
T C. Nephrotic syndrome
T D. Nitrofurantoin
T E. Systemic lupus erythematosus

13. Stress fractures

F A. Can be reliably diagnosed by standard radiographs
B. Show first radiological signs of healing 3-4 weeks post fracture
TC. Are rare in the pelvis Femor, pelvis ,sacrum -rare/ tibia ,metatarsal, fibula, navicular bone -commonest
D. Are rarely painful at the fracture site
E. Can be confirmed by bone scintigraphy
14. Lung cancer

A. Ore common in males than in females

B. Is most prevalent among people aged over 70 years
F C. Is most commonly adenocarcinoma among smokers
D. Has a clear genetic association
E. Is associated with the level of urban population

15. In congenital dislocation of hip

A. Males out number females

F F:M = 1:8
T B. Ortolani test is positive Ortolani, Barlow, Galeazzi
F C. Surgical correction is done in the neonates positive
TTD. USS is used in the diagnosis First born, female, breech, positive family history
TTE. Associated with spina bifida Oligohydroamnions associated

16. Fracture neck of femur

A. Subcapital is more prone to avascular necrosis

B. Osteoporosis is a risk factor
C. In the elderly is managed with a T splint and skin traction
D. The affected lib is apparently short
E. The limb is adducted and internally rotated

17. Thymus

F A. Is located posterior to the trachea

B. Originates from the IVth pharyngeal pouch
T C. Contains large amount of lymphocytes
F D. Is a glandular structure which disappear shortly after birth
F E. Contain thyroid tissue

18. Which of the following causes frank haematuria

A. IgA nephropathy
B. UTI
C. Tuberculosis
D. Haemophilia
T E. Renal vein thrombosis

19. Growth hormone

GH excess in adult caose prognanthism, but in children
F A. Level is increased by glucose infusion its long bone epiphyseal growth
T TB. Causes growth of cartilage
- TC. Causes enlargement of facial bones in adults
T TD. Somatomedin gives a synergistic action - IGF i
FF E. Low levels are found in Laron dwarfism
- GH receptor mutation- GH increased, IGF i decreased
——> short stature
20. Which of the following are true regarding cerebral oedema
FA. Reduce the intracranial pressure
B. Best seen with MRI than with CT
C. Occur due to free oxygen radicals
D. Occur in iso-osmotic dehydration
T E. Causes herniation syndrome
21. Which of the following are true regarding the rectum

T A. Has no mesentery
B. Starts at S1
C. In the female, cervix is anteriorly located
T D. In the male posterior to seminal vesicles and the prostate
E. Makes the posterior wall of a peritoneal pouch

22. Which of the following are true regarding cerebral blood supply

MCA
FF A. Largest part is supplied by the anterior cerebral arteries
TT B. Occipital lobe is supplied by posterior cerebral
FF C. Parietal lobe is by posterior inferior cerebellar artery MCA
D. Optic artery supplies the retina
FF E. Cerebellum is supplied by middle cerebral Vertebrobasilar circulation

23. Which of the following are true regarding cavernous sinus

F A. Superiorly – Pituitary gland - ICA,optic chiasma &tract, olfactory tract, ant. Perforated substanse
FF
F B. Laterally – Hypothalamus -uncus, trigeminal ganglia
FF C. Posteriorly – Facial nerve -crus cerebri of mid brain
T T D. Anteriorly – Superior orbital fissure
F F E. Inferiorly – Ethmoidal sinus FL, emissory veins ti infratemporal fossa pterigoid plexus

24. Dengue haemorrhagic fever

A. Haemorrhage occurs in secondary infection

T B. Causes joint pains and myalgia
TC. Wide pulse pressure occurs in shock syndrome
D. Viral studies are essential in the management
E. Is due to Aedes albopictus

25. T/F

F F A. The level of serum ALP reflects the osteoclastic activity

TB. Osteoclasts are formed by osteoblasts
TC. Osteoid is unmineralized bone matrix
TD. Collagen is a peptide
FE. Osteoblasts secrete acid phosphatases

26. Which of the following are indications for coronary bypass

A. Triple vessel disease
B. Failed medical and angioplasty
C. Left main coronary artery stenosis
D. Single vessel involvement
E. Only in adults

27. Cardiac output is increased in

FF T A. Standing up standing up and sitting from lying down position decreases CO
T T B. Increased venous tone
T TC. Anaemia
F
F FD. Atrial fibrillation
F E. Increased intrathoracic pressure
28. Which of the following diagnose a 8 week pregnancy

A. USS
B. Immunological tests
F C. Vaginal examination
F D. Abdominal examination
F E. Breast examination

29. Complications of intra uterine rubella infection

T A. Deafness
T B. Blindness
TC. Hepato-splenomegaly
T D. IUGR
T E. Hutchison’s teeth

30. Which of the following are true regarding physiological jaundice

A. Appear on day 1
B. Maximum on day 7 to 10
C. Increased break down of fetal haemoglobin is a contribution
D. Splenomegaly is seen in the first week
E. More common in premature babies than term babies

31. Juvenile chronic arthritis

A. Iridoeyelitis is an indication for systemic steroids

B. Involvement of less than 4 joints is called pauciarticular
C. Can present with high grade fever and without joint involvement
D. Rheumatoid factor is commonly found
E. The drug of choice is salicylate

32. Bronchiolitis

A. Chest X-ray shows hyperinflated lungs

B. Prone to develop bronchial asthma in later life
C. Antibiotics are not indicated for uncomplicated cases
D. Lifelong immunity occurs
E. Chest auscultation findings are more severe than the clinical picture

33. Post surgical atelectasis

A. Increased with transverse skin incision

B. Reduced by peri operative antibiotics
C. Managed effectively with physiotherapy
D. Bronchoscopy plays a role in the management
E. CXR is essential for diagnosis
34. X-ray pelvis

A. Carries a risk to the fetus

B. Can confirm the diagnosis of post maturity by placental calcification
C. Better than USS I diagnosis of congenital malformations
D. At 40 weeks ossification of upper end of tibia is seen
E. Help in the assessment of placenta previa

35. Which of the following are regarded as complications of twin pregnancy

T A. Abruption
T B. Postpartum haemorrhage
C. Oligohydramnios
D. Polycythemia
T E. Eclampsia

36. Which of the following need early surgical interventions

T TA. Tracheoesophageal fistula

F F B. Gastro oesophageal reflux
F F C. Umbilical hernia
F F D. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis not a surgical emergency, first stabilize then surgery
FF
E. Vesicoureteric reflux

37. Which of the following are true regarding Thyroglossal cysts

A. Originates from the second pharyngeal pouch

FF
T B. Transilluminable
C. Never seen after 50 years
T D. Descends through the hyoid bone
T T E. Moves with swallowing

38. Characteristic features of hyperprolactinaemia in females

A. Headaches
TB. Galactorrhoea
T
T TC. Amenorrhoea
T D. Dyspareunia
TE. Reduced cervical mucus

39. T/F regarding USS

A. Hydronephrosis is reliably diagnosed

B. Well delineate renal cortex and medulla
C. Is particularly useful in diagnosing small lesions in the pelvicalyceal system

40. Uterine fibroids

A. Are associated with endometriosis

T T B. May be seen in X-rays
F F C. Characteristically present wit intermenstrual bleeding
F TD. Has a capsule -pseudocapsule
F E. Originates from fibrous tissue
 Radiology Screening Test – August 2001

1. Cardiac output is increased in

T TA. Hyperthyroidism
T T B. Anaemia
T TC. Increased sympathetic tone
D. Going to high altitude
F F E. Tension pneumothorax

2. In turner’s syndrome
Turner- ovarian failure, high GnRH>>>high FSH,LH......serum level correlate with urine level, so urinary l
evel high
TA. High urine gonadotrophin level in seen
F F B. 47 XXY 45X
T T C. High arch palate
F D. Short 2nd & 3rd metatarsals 4th,5th
4th &5th
metacarple & metatarsal
E. Amenorrhoea primary &secondary
T
3. Which of these are non-invasive procedures

A. CT chest
B. Carotid angiography
C. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram
D. Small bowel enema
E. USS of the testis

4. Which of the following are true

A. Methyldopa can cause depression

B. Normocytic normochromic anaemia is seen in renal failure
C. Increased serum creatinine is an indication for haemodialysis

5. Which is true regarding common bile duct stones

T
F TA. Can cause pancreatitis
F B. Cannot be diagnosed by ERCP -can diagnose, MRCP largely replacing ERCP
FC. Cannot be removed without an open surgery
-By ERCP
F D. Palpable gall bladder is usual
T TE. Colicky abdominal pain

6. In septic arthritis

A. Passive movements are not painful

B. Active movements are painful
C. The presence of fluid is demonstrated ultrasonically
D. Antibiotics are not indicated till ABST is available
E. Immobilize in full extended position
7. In right sided cerebral lesion, which of the following can be seen

A. Fallen to left side when walking

B. Romberg’s sign
F C. Nystagmus
D. Pendular jerk
E. Hypertonia

8. Major criteria of rheumatic fever includes

F A. Erythema multiforme - E marginatum

F B. Long PR in ECG - minor
F C. Arthralgia Minor
T D. Chorea
T
E. Subcutaneous nodules

9. In primary pulmonary tuberculosis

A. Haemoptysis is common
T B. Signs and symptoms are minimal
F C. Cavitation is common
D. Tuberculin test >15mm is strongly diagnostic
E. Sputum is positive for tuberculous bacilli

10. Which of the following drugs cannot be given in 3rd trimester

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Azathioprine
C. Oxytetracycline
D. Propranolol
E. Methyldopa

11. Enlarged sphenoid air sinus is seen in relation to

TT A. Pituitary gland
T B. Third nerve
TT C. Carotid artery
T D. Optic nerve
FT
T E. Cavernous sinus

12. Which of the following tumours can primarily secrete hormones

A. Oral cavity tumour
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
F C. Craniopharyngioma
T D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
E. Scirrhous carcinoma of the breast

13. Kartagener syndrome =primary ciliary dyskinasia

T TA. Autosomal recessive inheritance
T TB. Paranasal sinusitis
F F C. Bronchiolitis - brochiectasis
T TD. Immotile sperms
-infertility
F F E. Primary defect in collagen synthesis -primary ciliary dyskinasia
defective ciliary motility caused by defect in dynein protein in cilia
14. Unilateral proptosis is seen in

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Meningioma
C. Graves’ disease
D. Rhinomucomicosis
E. Sarcoidosis

15. Which of these are premalignant

A. Diverticular disease
T B. Ulcerative colitis
T C. Coeliac disease
T D. Adenomatous polyps
E. Ischaemic colitis

16. Pathological fracture is seen in

FT A. Osteogenesis imperfect -insufficiency fractures

TT B. Over carcinoma of bone
T T C. Over benign lesions
F F D. Child abuse
T E. Chronic osteomyelitis
T

17. In postpartum secondary haemorrhage

F A. Commonly occurs within 24 hrs after delivery 24H To 6 weeks

T B. Retained placental pieces are common
C. Packing of the vagina with a vaginal pack
T D. Treatment with antibiotic is necessary
E. Common in multipara

18. Vesico-vaginal fistula is a complication of

T A. Hysterectomy
T B. Pelvic radiotherapy
F C. Chronic UTIs
T D. Pelvic endometriosis
T E. Carcinoma cervix

19. Which of the following are anterior to the oesophagus

T A. Left atrium
T
TT B. Left bronchus
TT C. Left pulmonary artery
F
FF D. Thoracic duct
F E. Accessory hemiazygos

20. In deep vein thrombosis, which of the following are true

T T A. It is common after pelvic surgery Commonest after orthopedic surgery
T T B. Early mobilization is helpful to prevent DVT
T C. Cerebral embolism is recognized - paradoxical embolism when heart defects
T T D. Pulmonary embolism is common
F E. Venogram is contraindicated
Can use in chronic dvt,obese pt, inconclusive uss- kind of cimfirmatory
21. Which of the following cause to give rise to a mass over a surgical scar

TT A.Incisional hernia
T B. Implantation dermoid
F C. Epigastric hernia
TTD. Keloid
TT
E. Haematoma

22. In Fallot's Tetralogy Commonest presentation is exertional dyspnoea, exercise intolerance,

Syncope
F A. Present commonly with cyanotic attacks at birth
F
TF B. Oligemic lung fields are seen
TT C. Right ventricular hypertrophy is seen
T D. Hyper cyanotic attacks are an indication for palliative surgery
F E. Heart failure is common - VSD is large, CCF is rare

23. Acromegaly

T A. Headache is seen
T B. Cardiomyopathy is seen
C. Auditory defects
T D. Is seen with decreased libido
T E. Osteoporosis

24. Ankylosing spondylitis

T A. Morning stiffness is a feature

T B. With exercise, symptoms improve
T C. Plantar fasciitis is a feature
T D. Small joints may not be affected
F E. Renal involvement is common

25. ARDS in adult occurs in

A. Pre-eclampsia
T
T B. Oxygen toxicity
F C. Asthma
T D. Increased intracranial pressure
T E. Pancreatitis

26. Vaccines are available in

A. Hepatitis A
B. Japanese encephalitis
C. Hepatitis B

27. Hepatitis B surface antigen is associated with

A. Haemophilia
B. Glues…..
C. Temporal arteritis
D. Narcotic abuse
E. Male homosexuals
28. Hours after trans hiatal oesophagectomy, dyspnoea can occur due to the following

A. Tension pneumothorax
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Septicaemia
D. Haemorrhage

29. Which of the following are true or false regarding USS

A. Low dose ionizing radiation is seen in ultrasound scan examination

F
F B. Repeated USS examination is not advisable in pregnancy
F C. Pelvic organs are best visualized with empty bladder.
T D. Ascites is readily diagnosed by USS
F E. No value in diagnosis of intussusception

30. In the immediate management of heart failure

A. Make the patient supine position to reduce venous return

B. Give digoxin as it has inotropic effect
C. Frusemide is given as its vasodilatory and diuretic effect
D. Avoid nitrates which have negative inotropic effect
E. Morphine is contraindicated due to its sedative effect

31. Craniopharyngioma

T T A. Calcifications are seen

TF B. Typically present below 25 years bimodal age distribution.5-14y and >65 years
F C. Secrete prolactin
FF TD. Arising from pineal gland pituitary stalk, Rathke's pouch remnant
T T E. Commonly causes diabetes insipidus

32. Abdomen is grossly distended in 2 months old baby with

FTA. Congenital pyloric stenosis gastric outlet obstruction

T B. Hirschsprung's disease
T C. PUJ obstruction
D. Duodenal atresia
E. Mesenteric cyst

33. In congenital pyloric stenosis

F A. Common in the first born female child male,first born
F B. Symptoms can occur since birth 1wk to 12wk
T C. Can be diagnosed by USS
F D. Treated by pyloroplasty pyloromyotomy
T E. Appetite is increased after vomiting, infant vigorously suck

34. In genital tract tuberculosis

A. Infertility is seen
B. Symptoms and signs are vague
C. Diagnosed by endometrial biopsy histologically
D. Cervix is rarely affected
E. Gets the infection by ascending through vagina
35. Erythema multiforme

F A. Commoner in female M>F

B. Seldom affects the face
TTC. Can be caused by viruses
TT D. Is seen in herpes simplex
TT E. Mycoplasma pneumonia

36. Prostate carcinoma

A. Causes gynaecomastia
FF B. Prostate specific antigen is diagnostic
F C. Arise from adenoma
T D. Haematogenous spread is common
T E. Osteosclerotic lesions are seen

37. Baby delivered before 32 weeks POA, which of the following is/are correct

T A. Peri ventricular haemorrhage

F B. Meconium aspiration
T C. Apnoeic attacks
T D. Necrotizing enterocolitis
T
E. Ventricular septal defects

38. 18 months old baby with hypothyroidism can present with

A. Constipation
B. Jaundice
C. Delayed dentition
D. Dysgenesis of femoral epiphysis

39. Intra uterine death is seen in

T A. DM
TB. Post maturity
C. Breech presentation
TD. Eclampsia

40. T/F

T A. Multiple myeloma is common in elderly

F B. Hypotension occurs in dengue haemorrhagic fever
T C. Splenomegaly is seen in chronic myeloid leukaemia
T D. Mattered hilar nodes are seen in sarcoidosis
T
E. Oral contraceptive pill is a predisposing factor for DVT
 Radiology Screening Test 2002

1. T/F regarding trachea

T A. Divided to two main bronchi at the level of sterna angle

F B. Connect directly with left bronchus
TC. Runs downwards and forwards
TD. Carinal angle is 60-70 degrees

2. T/F regarding the brain

F A. Precentral gyrus is in parietal lobe

F B. Choroid plexus is in anterior horn of lateral ventricles
T C. 3rd ventricle is situated in between thalami
T D. Grey matter is present around aqueduct
E. Cortices partially cover the cerebral hemispheres

3. T/F regarding portal circulation

F F A. Portal vein formed by union of splenic vein and inferior mesenteric vein
F B. Common bile duct is situated posterior to portal vein
C. Portal vein drain to centrifugal manner in liver

4. Liver

TTA. Blood supply is by hepatic artery

T B. Caudate lobe directly drains to IVC
T C. Bare area relates to coronary ligament posteriorly
TD. Central veins of lobules drain to hepatic vein
F E. Hepatic artery originates from superior mesenteric artery in 50% of normal population 18.5%
5. T/F

T TA. Meddle meningeal artery rupture leads to EDH

F F B. Fixed dilated pupils of one eye is caused by occipital lobe injury
C. Bradycardia is an early sign of head injury
F TD. EDH in right parietal lobe causes hemiparesis of left side
T TE. Basilar artery can be visualized by contrast enhanced axial CT scan

6. T/F

T A. Broca’s area is situated in inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe

T B. Damage to frontal lobe cause significant impairment in intelligence
T T C. CT scan is the first choice of investigation in suspected intra cerebral injury
T D. Battered children can have chronic SDH

7. Systemic hypertension

A. Cause headache characteristically

B. Recognized cause of congestive cardiac failure
C. Cause retinal haemorrhages
D. Addison’s disease is a cause
E. Glomerular nephritis causes systemic hypertension

8. T/F regarding glomerular filtration rate

T TA. Normal value is 125ml/min
T TB. Reduced by afferent arteriolar constriction
F F C. Unaffected by secretion of ADH
T D. Is reduced in severe burns
F TE. Measured by urea clearance
 9. Normal physiological changes in pregnancy

A. Dilatation of ureters
B. Increased GFR
C. Reduced pulse rate
D. Increased fibrinogen level
E. Reduced RBS, Hb, HCT, Platelet

10. 7 years old girl having G6PD deficiency following are suggestive of the diagnosis

TA. Haemolysis with ingestion of soya beans

T B. Antimalarials can cause haemolysis
T
T C. Sex link inheritance
D. Living in high altitude is contraindicated

11. MCUG
st
F A. Is the 1 line investigation in UTI in children
T B. Visualize urethral anatomy
F C. Contraindicated in infancy
D. Contrast can cause sensitivity
E. Contrast is given with dextrose

12. Urinary tract obstruction

T TA. In posterior urethral valve causes dribbling

T B. Pelvi urethral obstruction can be diagnosed antenatally by USS
- C. Commonly associated with UTI
T TD. Can progress into chronic renal failure

13. Ovarian carcinoma

T A. Usually diagnosed in state III 67%

TB. Staging is done during surgery
C. Treatment is by unilateral removal BSO
F
T D. Treated with calplatinum
T TE. Assessed by Ca 125 after removal in epithelial tumours

14. Intussusceptions

A. Occur commonly in 2 year old children

TB. Adult intussusceptions need surgical treatment
TC. Correction by hydrostatic pressure is contraindicated if ascites is present

15. Small intestine obstruction – Plain X ray abdomen

F A. One or two fluid levels are suggestive of the diagnosis

T B. Shows distended bowel loops with air having valvulae coniventis
T C. No air found in large bowels
D. Phlebolith is appendix

16. T/F regarding the breast

A. Drain to internal mammary nodes in breast carcinoma

B. In breast surgery radial incision prevents damage to lactiferous tubules
C. Intra canaliculus fibroadenoma is commonly found in 3rd decade
D. Mastitis is common is post-menopausal women
17. Post-menopausal bleeding

A. Treated with hormonal therapy

T B. Atrophic vaginitis is a recognized cause
TC. Assessment of endometrial thickness by USS is mandatory
D. Oestrogen secreting tumours can cause

18. Endometriosis

A. Is associates with adenomyosis and fibroids

B. Treated with combined oral contraceptive pills
TC. Haemoptysis is known to occur
TD. Commonest site is ovary

19. Chronic renal failure in childhood

TA. Anaemia is treated with erythropoietin

B. Causes hyponatraemia
C. Hypocalcaemia occur

20. Increased alkaline phosphatase is found in

T A. Paget’s disease
T B. Osteomalacia
F C. Osteoporosis
D. Bone secondaries from breast carcinoma
E. Rheumatoid arthritis

21. Renal biopsy

A. Best site is lateral lower pole

B. Commonest complication is bleeding
C. Contraindicated in nephritic syndrome
D. Easy in small contracted kidneys
E. Fine needle aspiration can diagnose proliferative glomerular nephritis

22. Woman with POA of 16/52 and fundal height of 20 weeks; Which of the following favours the Dx of H.mole

T A. Excessive vomiting
B. Not feeling fetal movements
C. Passing brownish vaginal discharge
TD. Hypertension
TE. Fundal height more than POA

23. Pneumothorax
CXR- L, dicubitus,supine, or expiratory are
T T A. Lateral view of X ray is not routinely done. Not recommonded ,,they rarely yield further important
information than PA inspiratory film
B. Visceral pleura are not visualized
F F C. Mediastinum is pushed to ipsilateral side
T D. Film in expiration is not necessary
E. Air is seen as translucent shadow

24. In cardiac cycle

F A. Systole is longer than diastole

TTB. In exercise, duration of diastole decreases
TTC. In isometric ventricular contraction atrio-ventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed
T D. Valves open once the left ventricle pressure exceeds >80mmHg in normal individuals
25. In congenital dysplasia of hip

A. Waddling gait results

B. Shortening of leg
F C. Treatment is delayed till 9 months age
T D. Can be diagnosed by USS

26. Surgical treatment is necessary in early infancy in

F F A. Fracture clavicle
B. Cleft lip
TC. Increasing hydrocephalus
F F D. Tongue tie
T E. Undescended testis

27. T/F

A. Fracture supracondyle of humerus leads to radial artery damage

B. Fracture shaft humerus leads to wrist drop
C. Injury to tendon of flexor pollicis longus leads to
D. Olecranon fracture can satisfactorily be treated by immobilization

28. Osteomyelitis

F A. Commonest organism is Streptococci staphylococcus aureus

F
T B. Commonest site is epiphysis
T T C. Clinically X ray evidence is similar to Ewing’s sarcoma extensive periostitis in kids
F F D. Can be diagnosed by X ray early in the disease take 10 to 14 days

29. T/F regarding dengue

A. Haemorrhagic shock in secondary infection

B. Dengue shock syndrome leads to wide pulse pressure
C. Transmitted by Aedes albopictus
D. Viral studies are essential in treatment

30. Hepatocellular carcinoma

T A. Common in males
F B. Occur after viral hepatitis A
T C. Tumour having multifocal origin
T D. Causes portal vein thrombosis
T E. Treatment with chemo-embolization is a recognized method of treatment

31. T/F regarding varicose veins

A. In primary varicose veins, deep venous valves are competent

FB. Long saphenous vein pierce fascia at popliteal fossa to drain into deep systemic veins
C. Perforator incompetence can be diagnosed by USS
D. In deep vein thrombosis tying of sapheno-femoral junction is indicated
E. In exercise pressure of superficial veins decreases

32. Hypopituitarism can get in

A. Chromophobe adenoma
B. In congenital toxoplasmosis
C. Hypothalamic cyst
T D.
T Craniopharyngioma
E. Head injury
33. Neuropathic joints

TA. Syphilis
TB. Diabetes mellitus
C. Motor neuron disease
TD. Hemiplegia
TE. Syringomyelia

34. T/F regarding

F A. Vertebral arteries go into 7th cervical vertebral foramen C6
B. Lumbar nerves roots are best visualized by lateral view of a myelogram
T C. L4-L5 disc prolapsed cause L5 sciatica
D. Length of ..................... is 6mm
F E. In adults spinal cord ends at L4 level L2 -L3 intervertebral disc level

35. In ulcerative colitis

A. Rectum can be spared

B. Sacroilitis can occur
C. Barium enema is contra indicated in acute colitis
D. Toxic dilation can be diagnosed by plain X ray abdomen

36. Short stature is caused by

A. Enuchoidism
T T B. Turner’s syndrome
F F C. Marfan syndrome
D. Child treated with systemic corticosteroid for bronchial asthma
T E. Cystic fibrosis
37. T/F regarding normal distribution curve

F F A. 1 SD value indicate 98%

F F B. Bimodal curve is characteristic
T C. Mode and mean include to a same value
D. The left side of the curve become..... at the end
 Radiology Screening Test 2003

1. Causes of Bronchiectasis are

TT A. Measles
TT B. Cystic fibrosis
TT C. Bronchial carcinoma
F
D. Emphysema
TT E. Aspergillosis

2. Which of the following are T/F regarding bronchiectasis

A. There is irreversible dilatation of bronchial walls

B. Fibrosing alveolitis is a cause
F C. Normal CXR excludes the diagnosis
D. HRCT gives nonspecific findings
T E. Associates with absent frontal sinuses

3. Causes for non pacifying kidney in IVU includes

A. Renal artery obstruction

B. Pyelonephritis
C. Subcapsular haematoma
D. Renal vein thrombosis
E. Obstructive nephropathy

4. Regarding tetanus

A. Shorter the incubation period, worse the prognosis

B. Infection with tetanus gives a lifelong immunity
C. Severe disease form can be treated with paralysis only
D. Trunk muscles get involved first
E. Need to exclude meningitis if neck stiffness is present

5. Regarding acromegaly

T A. Increased sweating
T B. Impotence
T C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
D. Metatarsal hooks
E. Basilar invagination

6. Myasthenia gravis

T A. Diplopia
F B. Usually gets bilateral symmetric ocular involvement
F C. During pregnancy the disease remits
F D. There are increase secretions
T E. Characterize with muscle weakness worsening with exercise

7. In a normal ovulatory cycle

A. Size of the ovary increases in size

B. Corpus luteum can be seen by transvaginal ultrasound
C. There is free fluid in pouch of Douglas
D. Estrogen concentration increases
E. Endometrial thickness can be measured accurately by ultrasound scan
 8. Which of the following are T/F

A. Gestational sac could be seen by transvaginal ultrasound scan by 5 weeks

B. Chorion and amnion fuses at first trimester
C. Yalk sac persists throughout pregnancy
D. Fetal bladder can be visualized by 15 weeks

9. Which of the following are T/F

A. Umbilical cord has 2 arteries and 2 veins

B. Localization of placenta for chorionic villus sampling is important in 1st trimester
C. Middle cerebral artery could be seen by fetal Doppler studies
D. Gastroschisis and omphalocele can be differentiated by ultrasound scan

10. Posterior urethral valves

F Prosthatic urethra
F A. Is present in penile urethra
TT B. Can be diagnosed by ultrasound scan antenatally
F C. Cause obstruction when catheterizing -obstruction due to bladder neck hypertrophy
TT D. Causes VUR
T T E. Predisposes to UTIs
11. Which of the following are T/F

A. Lumbar canal widens from L1 to L5

B. Ligamentum flavum can be seen by axial CT scan
C. Anterior longitudinal ligament is directly anterior to subarachnoid space
D. Pars defects are better seen in lateral than oblique X-rays
E. Lateral disc protrusion is detected in myelogram

12. Hyaline membrane disease

F A. Affects term babies

F B. Pleural effusion is a feature
F C. Is due to decreased fluid absorption
T D. Air bronchogram can be seen
F E. Clinical features get worse up to 3 days

13. USS is valuable in relation to GUT diseases

A. It can differentiate solid from cystic

B. Can visualize the ureter outline
C. Can exclude UTI

14. Osteoarthritis

A. Occur more in female than males

B. Involves upper lumbar spine more than lower
C. Involves medial compartment before lateral
D. Osteoporosis gets increased tracer uptake in nuclei studies
E. In hip involvement neck of femur is displaced upwards

15. Hirschsprung’s disease

Migratory failure of ganglion cells/ degeneration
of already migrated cells
T A. Is due to a migratory disorder ganglion
T B. Neonate present with a delay in passing meconium
T C. Predisposes to enterocolitis
16. Intussusception

F A. Commonly occur in neonatal age group

F B. Presence of free peritoneal gas is an indication for hydrostatic reduction
C. 90% presents with a palpable mass
TD. Coiled spring appearance is diagnostic in barium enema
TTE. Meckel’s diverticulum is a cause
specially if diverticulum inverts
17. Fetal hydrops

FT A. Is a self-limiting condition
T B. Iso immunization is a cause Immune hydrops
T T C. Is seen in chorioangioma
T T D. Seen in trisomy 21 18, 13 ,Turner[ 45,XO]
T T E. Fetal ascites can be diagnosed by ultrasound scan

18. Regarding jaundice

T A. Serum alkaline phosphatase increases in obstructive jaundice

F B. Obstruction near porta hepatis gives a dilated gallbladder
F C. Dilated common bile duct is seen in neonatal biliary atresia
F D. Cholangitis is a contraindication for ERCP
F E. Intermittent obstruction is a feature of carcinoma pancreas

19. Regarding pancreatitis

A. Pain aggravates in seated position

B. Serum amylase does not show the severity of the disease
C. Serum amylase decrease later than serum lipase
F D. Increased enhancement is CT scan indicates poor prognosis

20. Primary hyperparathyroidism

T A. Hypercalcaemia
F B. Hyperphosphataemia
T C. Increased calcium excretion from urine
T D. Presents with pancreatitis
T E. Loss of lamina dura

21. Sickle cell disease

A. Frontal bossing
B. Splenomegaly
C. Haematuria
TD. Osteomyelitis salmonella
E. Dactilitis

22. Aortic aneurysm

A. Hypertension is associated
B. Mesenteric ischemia can be seen
C. Supra renal is the commonest level
D. In CT scan dissection can be seen
E. USS accurately diagnoses
23. Exophthalmos

A. Caroticocavernous fistula
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Pseudotumor cerebri
F D. Craniopharyngioma
E. Frontal mucocele

24. Erythema nodosum

T A. Syphilis
T B. Leprosy
T C. Tuberculosis
F D. Rheumatic fever
T E. Drugs

25. Supine X ray of post-operative patient

A. Is done to detect cardiomegaly

B. Nasogastric tube at D10 level is satisfactory
C. Endotracheal tube should be at least about 5cm above the carina
D. Free air can be seen

26. Intestinal obstruction

A. Of colonic type pain is felt in hypogastrium

B. In perforation barium enema is done to diagnose

27. Ureteric obstruction

T A. Can be seen in carcinoma cervix

B. In acute obstruction can lead to anuria
T C. Can lead to extravasation of contrast in IVU
D. Renal colic can present with localize guarding

28. CA cervix

F A. More common in nullipara than multipara

T B. Pain is a late sign
T C. In stage II surgery is the treatment
T D. Endocervix is of adenocarcinoma
E. Prognosis depends more on the spread of the disease at the time of diagnosis, than on the histological type

29. Fibromyomata

A. Never appear at post-menopausal period

B. Hypertrophy when taking OCP
C. Surgery is done for red degeneration
D. Can differentiate from sarcoma in USS
E. When parasitic takes blood supply from mesenteric arteries

30. Regarding shock

A. Pancreatitis can lead to hypovolaemic shock

B. In anaphylaxis complement mediated immune response is the cause
C. Blood supply to the kidney is spared till late than the brain
D. ERCP can lead to septic shock
E. Enterocutaneous fistula can lead to hypovolaemic shock
31. Regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia

T A. Can be assessed by transrectal USS

F B. Leads to prostatic CA
F C. Severity of prostatic enlargement is related to the severity of symptoms
T D. Can lead to obstructive uropathy
T E. Drug therapy is used in the management

32. Regarding breast

F A. Medial side of the breast drains to axillary nodes

F B. Non-cyclical breast lumps are hormone related
C. Screening mammography in 6 monthly is rational if a family Hx of breast CA is present
D. Tamoxifen receptor positive breast CA are prognostically poor
E. Duct papilloma can present with bleeding from nipple

33. Pancreatitis
A. Thrombophlebitis can be seen

34. Regarding testis

A. Arteriograms are done to see vessels

T B. Seminomas of the young are more common than terotomas
T C. Some are present in the abdomen
T D. Teratoma gives rise to increased alpha fetoproteins

35. Statistics

T A. Mode is the most number of times occurring number

F B. In bimodal distribution median, mode and mean coincides
T C. >95% falls in 2SD range
T D. Standard deviation shows the distribution on either side of the mean
E. In bimodal distribution median equals mode

36. T/F regarding military tuberculosis in elderly

A. Hepatosplenomegaly
B. Cause death within 1 to 2 weeks
C. Pleural adhesions are common
D. Negative mantoux test excludes the disease

37. Regarding tuberculosis

A. BCG prevents primary tuberculosis

B. In human mycobacterium tuberculosis is the causative organism
C. TB brain can mimic brain tumour
D. Normal CXR excludes the diagnosis
E. Primary infection can lead to tubercular epididymo-orchitis

38. Regarding deep vein thrombosis

A. Gray scale USS cannot be used to diagnose DVT

B. Normal CXR exclude pulmonary embolism
C. Popliteal vein is deep to popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa
D. Thrombi from veins of thigh are well known to cause pulmonary embolism than veins of calf
E. Superficial femoral vein has no valves
 Radiology Screening Test 2004 September

1. True or false regarding liver

Not in bare area
F A. Oesophagus lies on liver at D 10 level at the bare area of liver
TT B. Bare area lies superiorly
T C. Caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries
TT D. Caudate lobe is termed as segment 1
F E. Echogenicity of the liver is higher than renal cortex Renal cortex= liver
Periportal hyper echoic rim
2. True or false

A. Right main bronchus is longer than the left main bronchus

B. Right pulmonary artery lies anteriorly to left main bronchus at its course to lung root
C. Left main pulmonary arteries goes anterior to bronchus in its course
D. In chest x-ray right hilum is higher than left
E. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve ascends between aorta and main pulmonary artery
F. Aorta arches over left main bronchus

3. True or false regarding cerebral blood supply

MCA
F A. Broca's area is supplied by posterior cerebral artery
F B. Motor cortex of lower limb area is supplied by posterior cerebral artery ACA
T C. Visual cortex is supplied by posterior cerebral artery
D. Superior cerebral vein lies over the third ventricle
F
F E. Ophthalmic branch of internal carotid artery begins in cavernous sinus
4. True or false regarding calcium metabolism

F A. Born mass is normal in osteomalacia

B. Looser zones are seen in osteoporosis
T C. Hypocalcaemia courses neuromuscular irritability
T D. Hyperparathyroidism is associated with nephrocalcinosis
F F E. Conversion of vitamin D to 25-hydroxy calciferol is affected by chronic renal failure
CRF- reduce GFR, reduce vit d activation, reduce DCT reabsorption of Ca
5. Cor Pulmonale

A. Cardiomegaly is an early feature

B. Tall p waves in ECG lead I, II, aVF is an early finding
C. Digoxin is given for supraventricular tachycardia
D. Oedema is not due to fluid retention
E. Cardiac output is increased in early-stage

6. Bronchial carcinoma

T A. Courses in appropriate ADH secretion

T B. Courses Cushing's syndrome
C. Is associated with hyper-cholesterolaemia
D. Solitary pulmonary mass on chest x-ray in asymptomatic patient is indicative of carcinoma bronchus
T E. Metastasized to the adrenal gland

7. Digoxin

A. Increases the strength of cardiac muscle contraction

B. Given for cardiac failure due to atrial fibrillation
C. During treatment k replacement should be done
D. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
E. Toxicity courses visual alterations
 8. Normal ECG

A. Q wave in aVR is a normal finding

B. Negative reflection is normal in aVR
C. PR interval is from the beginning of p to midpoint of QRS
D. In atrial flutter, normal QRS complexes are seen
E. Normally p waves are seen in ventricular fibrillation
F. Sinus tachycardia is a recognise feature in sick sinus syndrome

9. Following are seen in normal abdominal x-ray

F A. Gastric rugae of stomach

T B. Pre-peritoneal fat
T C. Urinary bladder
T D. Psoas shadow
E. Trounces abdominis muscle shadow
F F. Adrenal gland

10. Nephrotic syndrome

F A. Proliferative glomerular nephritis is the commonest cause FSGS

T B. Renal tuberculosis is a course
T C. Causes venous thrombosis
D. Renal biopsy is indicated in management
T E. Diabetic glomerulosclerosis is a course
T
11. True or false regarding acute pancreatitis

A. Hypercalcaemia
B. Increased serum amylase
C. Sentinel loop in x-ray abdomen
D. Pleural effusion
E. Leukopenia

12. Courses of gross cardiomegaly include

A. Congestive cardiac failure

B. Mitral stenosis
C. Ebstein anomaly
D. Pericardial effusion
E. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

13. True or false regarding atrial myxoma

A. It is the commonest cardiac tumour

B. Benign in origin
C. Commonly occurs in right atrium
D. ECG is diagnostic
E. Courses pulmonary hypertension

14. Major criteria of rheumatic fever includes

F A. Arthralgia C- carditis
F B. Evidence of streptococcal infection A-arthritis
F C. Elevated c reactive proteins S- subcutaneous nodules
T D. Subcutaneous nodules -sydernam chorea
F E. Fever E- erythema marginatum
 15. Adult polycystic kidney disease

T TA. Is autosomal dominant

T TB. Is associated with aneurysms of circle of Willis 10% to 30% gets intracranial aneurysms...…. other associated things
T TC. Can present with haematuria 40%, hematuria from cyst rupture 1. liver cysts
T TD. Family members should be screened 2.MVP,TVP
3. colonic diverticula
FE. Unilateral presentation is more common B/L Progressive formation of renal cysts 4.abdominal wall hernia
16. Thyroglossal cyst

F A. Originates from the remnants of 2nd pharyngeal pouch

B. Descend through the hyoid bone
C. Transilluminable
D. It is unlikely after 50 years
T E. Moves with swallowing

17. True or false regarding testis

F A. It originates from the posterior abdominal mesonephrons of urogenital ridge from gonadal ridge medial to mesonephros
F B. Nerve supply is by l1 T12
F C. It is anterior to processes vaginalis anterolateral surface of testis covered with tunica vaginalis , testis is posterior
T TD. Torsion can occur in undescended testes
T E. Seminomas can occur in undescended testes

18. Meningioma

F A. Originate from dura

T B. Occurs in optic nerve
C. Arising from dura is termed as intrathecal-extramedullar
T D. Causes skull sclerosis
T E. Is a benign tumour

19. Complications of mastoiditis

A. Lateral sinus thrombosis

B. Meningitis
C. Facial nerve palsy
D. Cholesteatoma
E. Otosclerosis

20. Courses of the ................include

A. Herpes Zoster
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Reiter’s disease
D. Sjogren syndrome
E. Bechet’s disease

21. Psoriasis

A. Commonest form characteristically appear below 15 years

B. In common form proximal interphalangeal joints are commonly affected than distal interphalangeal joints
C. More common in dark skinned people
D. It is familial
E. Caused by HLA CW6
F. Steroids are used in the treatment
G. Renal involvement is common
 22. Following are more in favour of depression than dementia

A. faecal incontinence
B. aggressive antisocial behaviour
C. Poor libido
D. occurs within the last 3 months
E. Poor concentration

23. D & C is done for

A. Post-menopausal bleeding
T B. Treatment of fibroid
F
F C. Diagnosis of endometriosis
F D. Diagnosis of hyperprolactinaemia
E. Treatment of congestive dysmenorrhoea
F F. Is a treatment of adenomyosis
G. Is used to treat congestive menstrual bleeding

24. Dengue

A. Increased capillary permeability courses fluid loss

B. PCV >20% is an admission criteria
C. Dextran 40% is given to prevent shock
D. Antibodies are positive in 3 days
E. Myocarditis is a complication

25. Features of acromegaly

T A. Courses thickening of Skull vault - inner table

F B. Absence of paranasal sinuses - enlarged sinuses- frontal specially
T C. Tufting of the distal phalanges
T D. Premature osteoarthritis
E. Reduction of angle of mandible

26. Intussusceptions

TA. Ileo-colic is the commonest form

T B. Right hypochondrial mass is common presentation
TC. Ultrasonography is the investigation of choice
TD. Intestinal obstruction is a complication
FE. Saline reduction is done in patients with peritonitis

27. Complications of Hydronephrosis include

A. Hydronephrosis
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Hypertension
D. Traumatic rupture
E. Renal cyst formation

28. Carcinoma breast

A. HRT is a high risk factor

B. Mammography reveals in situ carcinoma of breast
C. Paget's disease of the nipple indicates underlying breast carcinoma
F D. Oestrogen receptor negative patients have a better response to hormone treatment
E. Lung metastasis is due to lymphatic spread
F. Nipple retraction is an indicator of malignancy
G. Mammography predisposes to carcinoma breast
 29. Predisposing factors of carcinoma includes

T A. Polyposis coli
F B. Amoebic colitis
T C. Ulcerative colitis
T D. Rectal polyps
T E. Family history

30. Following complications are more common in multipara than primigravida

F A. Pre-eclampsia common in primi

T B. Postpartum haemorrhage
TT C. Anaemia
F D. Malpresentation
FF E. Prolonged labour

31. Carpal tunnel syndrome

A. Median nerve compression
A. Ulnar nerve is compressed in hand -F B. Thenar muscles- abductor polisis brevis
B. Affects hypothenar muscles -F Oponance pollisis
C. Caused by hyperthyroidism -T
D. Obesity is a course -T
E. Occurs in pregnancy -T
F. Hyperparathyroidism is a course -T

32. ARDS is characterized by

T A. Tachypnoea
T B. Diffuse infiltratory shadows in chest x-ray
- C. Systemic hypotension
T D. Refractory hypoxaemia
F E. Gross pleural effusion

33. True or false regarding varicose veins

A. Saphenofemoral incompetence can be diagnosed by Doppler ultrasound

B. Thrombophlebitis can occur
C. Deep vein thrombosis is a course
D. Ulcers are common on lateral side
E. Lipodermatosclerosis is a complication

34. True or false regarding congenital dysplasia of the hip

L>>R
T A. Commonly occurs in breach deliveries
F B. Right hip is commonly affected than the left
T C. Ultrasound scan is helpful in you diagnosis
T D. Is associated with sternomastoid tumour
T E. Femoral neck (subcapital) epiphyseal ossification can be delayed

35. Benign intracranial hypertension

F F A. Males are commonly affected

F F B. CT scan shows dilated lateral ventricles slit like ventricle- uncommonly
T C. Herniation of brain acquired cerebellar ectopia
F D. Causes gross papilledema
T
F F E. Steroid therapy is given CSF letting, shunt
T F. Commoner in young age
T
T T G. Visual loss is seen rapid or progressive
 36. True or False regarding Myotonic dystrophy

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Serum IgG is elevated
C. Cataract is seen
D. Causes glucose intolerance
E. Proximal muscle weakness
F. Delayed in muscle relaxation

37. Which of the following are True or False regarding UTI in children

T A. Vesico-Ureteric reflux is a cause

F B. Males are more commonly affected than females
F C. MCUG is done in all patients
T D. Gross vesico-ureteric reflux is an indication to screen siblings
F E. 99mTc-DTPA is used to detect renal scars
T F. E. coli is a common cause

38. T/F regarding Tuberculosis,

A. In spinal TB, more than one vertebrae are affected.

B. Involvement of right paratracheal lymph nodes in primary TB.
C. Patchy shadows in Chest X-ray in patient with past Hx of TB is a diagnostic of reactivation of TB
D. Pleural effusion is a presenting feature
E. In intestinal TB, CXR findings are seen

39. Turners syndrome

T T A. Presents with oedema of dorsum of hands and feet at birth

F F B. Genotype is 46 X0 45X
T T C. FSH levels are high
F F D. Gynaecomastia is a feature no breast development
TT E. Short stature is a feature pubertal growth sprout absent

40. Central tendency is derived from

F A. Standard error
T B. Mean
F C. Correlation coefficient
T D. Mode
T E. Median
 Radiology Screening Test 2005

1. Suicidal thoughts are strongly associated with

A. Schizophrenia
B. Hysteria
C. Depression
D. Dementia
E. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

2. In the investigation of flowing diseases MRI is prefer to CT

A. Parenchymal lung diseases
B. Posterior fossa fractures
C. Syringomyelia
D. Insulinoma
E. Intracerebral haemorrhage

3. Re: cystic fibrosis

T A. Inherited in autosomal recessive manner Chromosome 7
F B. Genetic mutation is seen long arm of chromosome 9 In bronchial secretion Cl and Na low
F C. Chloride secretion to bronchial lumen is high
T D. Bronchiectasis changes can be seen in chest x-ray Initially CXR normal, but lately- bronchiectasis,
T E. Absent vas deference is an associations Hyperinflation, lobar collapse, PHT

4. Re: prolapse of lumbar intervertebral disc

A. Is a recognised feature of infective discitis
B. Effecting L4 L5 courses loss of sensation over medial side of dorsum of foot
C. Compression of nerve roots occur at lateral recess
D. Grading is best done by ct scan
E. Causes severe pain in coughing

5. Regarding congenital heart diseases

A. Ostium secundum defects lie high up in the atrial wall
T B. Plethoric lungs are seen in total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
TC. Pulmonary stenosis is a feature of Fallot’s tetrology
T D. Development of cyanosis implies Eisenmenger's syndrome in VSD
T E. Posterior rib notching is a feature of coarctation of aorta

6. True or false re: volvulus (Sigmoid)

F A. Rotation occurs in clockwise direction -counter clock
T B. Peritonitis is a complication
F C. Barium enema reduction is a recognized form of reduction Endoscopy
T D. Ahaustral loop of bowel is seen in plain x-ray abdomen
T E. Constipation is a predisposing factor
7. True or false re: hepatitis A
A. Incubation period is 1 to 2 weeks
T B. Does not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma or chronic active hepatitis
T C. It is not transmitted via blood or blood products
D. Human pooled immunoglobin use protection for three months to contacts
E. Cases liver cell necrosis
 8. True or false re: large intestine
A. Ileocecal valve lies in anterolateral aspect of caecum
F B. Descending colon is supplied by superior mesenteric artery
C. Rectosigmoid junction lies at level of S3
D. Haustrations are better demarcated in ascending colon than descending colon
E. Epidermoid cysts are associated with colonic polyps

9. True or false regarding normal pregnancy

T A. Twin pregnancies associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein
B. Normal transvaginal ultrasound exclude ectopic pregnancy
C. Measurement of foetal abdominal circumference gives accurate measurement of gestational age in me
trimester
D. Ultrasound can detect viability of fetus of four weeks gestation
E. Ultrasound can detect jejunal atresia of fetus

10. True or false re: Fanconi syndrome

T A. May results in rickets.
F B. Splenomegaly is a feature
F C. Prednisolone is used as a treatment
T D. Glycosurea is a presentation
F E. Reabsorption detect of DCT

11. Analysis of patients in general medical ward revealed that 70% of Sinhalese, 30% are Tamils and 10% are
Muslims. This analysis is best graphically distinguish in a
A. Venn diagram
F B. Histogram
C. Linear curve
D. Frequency cumulated Barr chart
T E. Pie chart
GI abnormalities associated with DOWN SYNDRO
ME
12. True or false regarding congenital pyloric stenosis 1.Hirschprung disease 2-15%
F A. Present at birth 1wk to 12wk......commonly4 to 8 wks 2. pyloric stenosis
T B. Male are affected more than females 3. duodenal atresia
T C. Metabolic alkalosis may occur 4.Meckel's diverticulum
5. imperforate anus
T D. Ultrasound can detect hypertrophy of muscles
6.celiac disease 7-20%
T E. Is associated with down syndrome. 7.GORD

13. True or false re: Aspergilloma

F A. Is a complication of ABPA
T B. Seen as a proud mass with a air halo in CXR PA
F C. Is best treated with antifungal drugs
T D. Massive haemoptysis may occur
T E. Occurs in the pre-existing cavity

14. True or false re: torsion of testis
F A. Doesn't occur in maldescended testis
T B. Lies high up in his scrotum
T C. Spontaneous detorsion occur
D. Colour Doppler USS is the first line of investigation
TE. Is small hydrocele association reactive hydrocele
Risk factors for testicular torsion
1.testicular tumor- large testis, likely to get twisted
2.trauma
3.bell clapper deformity- intravaginal torsion
4.cold temperature
5.UDT
6. age -common in adolescents, just before or after birth

colour/ power doppler done in cases which have less evidence

clin
ically for torsion
 15. True or false re: lymphoma
F A. Reed–Sternberg cells are characteristic of NHL In HL
B. Absence of splenomegaly exclude the diagnosis of HL
C. Involvement of Waldeyer's ring of lymph node causes dysphagia
D. Courses bony metastasis
E. Mediastinal masses presentation

16. True or false re: cerebral anatomy,

T A. Hypothalamus lies in the flow of third ventricle

F B. Broca's area is situated in the temporal lobe

F C. Major part of internal capsule is supplied by anterior cerebral artery
T D. Nucleus of six nerve lies in the pons
T E. Medulla is supplied by vertebral artery

17. Re: cross-sectional study of liver

T T A. Caudate lobe is defined as segment 1 Superior boundary is peritonium covering
T B. IVC lies directly against bare area CAudate lobe
T C. Echogenicity is similar to that of right kidney
F T D. Caudate lobe lies within the lesser sac
F F E. Hepatic artery lies posterior to the portal vein in epiploic foramen
HA. CBD anterior

18. True or false re: calculi in urinary tract

F A. Uric acid stone are radiopaque
F B. Is associated with medullary sponge kidney
T C. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy is performed for stone in renal pelvis
F D. Ureteric stones are detected by ultrasound
T E. May coursers sterile pyuria

19. Seven year old girl has g6pd deficiency following statement are correct
T A. Mode of inhabitant's x-linked
B. Air travels to high attitude is contraindicated
F C. Splenectomy is beneficial - usually ineffective
T D. Antimalarial chloroquine may courses haemolyse
E. Ingestion of soya bean causes haemolysis

20. X-ray features of left ventricular failure include

T T A. Small bilateral pleural effusion

F F B. Curly A lines

T C. Prominent pulmonary artery

- D. Small aortic knuckles
T T E. Alveolar oedema

21. True or false re: anatomy of reproductive track

A. Left testicular vein empties into IVC
B. Lymph drainge to testes is to internal iliac nodes
C. Uterus has a limb drainage to superficial inguinal nodes
D. Prosthetic venous plexus are communicated with internal vertebral venous plexus
E. Cervix has lymph drainage to both internal and external iliac lymph nodes

22. True or false re: Takayasu arthritis

T A. Female preponderance
F B. Effect peripheral are vessels predominantly
T C. Present with hypertension
D. Associated with hyperlipidaemia
F E. Normal ESR
23. True post regarding scleroderma
A. Is associated with collagen deposition in subcutaneous tissue
B. May produce dilated oesophagus in barium swallow
C. May cause upper lobe fibrosis
D. Proximal muscle weakness is a feature
E. Generalise osteopenia occurs

24. True or false re: Achalasia Cardia

A. There is a risk of developing adenocarcinoma
B. May courses clinical features similar to Chagas disease
T C. Is treated with balloon dilation
D. Dysphagia for solids rather than for liquids
T E. Aspiration pneumonia occur

25. True or false re: psoriasis,

A. Psoriasis vulgaris produce silvery scaling plaques on extensor aspects of elbow and knee
B. Presentation with sacroiliitis is recognized
C. Involvement of PIP joints are common than the DIP joints
D. Acro-osteolysis is a feature
E. Is known to exacerbate with chloroquine

26. True or false re: the parotid gland

A. Facial nerve lies deep to retromandibular vein in the gland substance
T B. Duct open opposite to the 3rd upper molar tooth
C. Separated from submandibular gland by Stylomandibular ligament
D. The portion adjacent to submandibular gland is covered by the fascia derived from superficial fascia
E. A part comes to lie in the digastric triangle

27. Effect of ionising radiation include,

T A. Cataract
T B. Cerebral atrophy

C. Obesity
T D. Alopecia
T T E. Anaemia
B- absent at birth, prominant by at 2-5 years; again absent by 12 years
28. True or false re: X-rays
A. Plain x-ray abdomen shows normal gallbladder
F B. Convolutional markings of a skull X-ray in a 3 yr old child indicate raised ICP
C. Lingular pathology coursers obstruction of left healed broader in x-ray
D. Soft tissue masses is seen abdominal x-ray in intussusception
E. Hand x-ray is used to assess bone age of infants

29. Re: mycoplasma pneumonia

F A. Clinical features are compatible with CXR feature
T T B. Erythema multiforme is a known extrapulmonary manifestations
C. Erythromycin is used to treat effectively
D. Myocarditis may occur
E. Neutrophil leucocytosis occurs

30. Blood stain nipple discharge in 33 years woman can be due to

A. Galactocoele
B. Paget's disease
C. Ductal papilloma
D. Fat necrosis
E. Chronic mastitis
 31. True or false regarding adenomyosis
A. Causes enlargement of uterus
B. The capsule is formed in the adenomyosis
C. CT scan can distinguish it from fibromyoma of uterus
D. May causes infertility
E. Is treated with hysterectomy

32. True or false regarding hydatidiform mole

Complete/partial
F F A. Arise from amnion
F B. Cause raise serum LH
F C. May cause secondaries in the bone - mets applicable to GT NEOPLASIA
T T D. Compose of male genetic material
T T E. Associated with proliferation of trophoblast

33. True or false re: pre-eclampsia

F A. Risk immediately diminished after parturition 6weeks postpartum
T B. May cause placental obstruction Abruption
T C. Large placentae is a risk factor
F D. May cause reduced blood viscosity - hemoconcentraton
T E. Elevated liver enzyme is poor prognostic factor HELLP syndrome
T

34. A true or false re: middle ear anatomy

T T A. Line by squamous epithelium
T B. Fenestra vestibule is lies in the medial wall -oval window, postero- superior to promontery
F T C. Facial nerve run inferiorly
T T D. Tegmen tympani separate it from middle cranial fossa
T T E. Ossicles are joined by synovial joint.

35. True or false re: midazolam,

Benzodiazapine
F A. It is an opioid derivative
T B. Is used in peripheral arteriography
T C. May cause transient amnesia
F D. Is used as a antidepressant
T E. Is a sedative Anxiolytic

36. DVT of lower limb

T TA. May be feature of underlying malignancy
T B. For positive d diameter test is useful in the diagnosis
F C. Large dose of aspirin is used in the treatment
TT D. May produce pulmonary embolism
TT E. May mimic ruptured baker's cyst clinically

37. T/F re: space in general peritoneal cavity

A. Right and left sub diaphragmatic spaces are separated by ligamentum Teres
B. Omental bursa has no communication to general cavity
C. Pus from pelvic infection tracks to sub hepatic space in medial side of the ascending colon
D. Sub hepatic spacers are found in the lesser sac
E. Free edge of lesser omentum lies posteriorly in Foramen of Winslow

38. Following technical features should be considered in assessing cardiothoracic ratio in CXR -PA
T A. Angulation AP>>>PA
- B. Distance between x-ray beam and patient
Body-mass index Obese- incomplete inspiration- CR increased
T C.D. Degree of inspiration
T E. Degree of penetration
T
Straight,well taken PA cxr
 39. Bronchial carcinoma may result in
T T A. Adrenocortical failure adrenal
Metsinsufficiency by B/L adrenal mets
to b/l adrenals
B. Sequestered lung segments congenital nonfunctioning lung tissue separated from normal tracheobronchial tree, receives
it
atelectasis and variable volume loss in the lung ,phrenic nerve palsy the blood supply from a
T TC. Raised hemidiaphragm berrant systemic
T TD. Peripheral neuropathy artery.
T TE. Generalized pigmentation - paraneoplastic syndrome few cases of lung CA a
ssociated with it
40. Acute osteomyelitis hematogenous OM
T TA. Is a predominant disease in children
T T B. May mimic Ewing sarcoma radiologically
F FC. Produce x-ray abnormalities in the first few days of attack 10Changes
to 15 daysapear late 10-14 days
F FD. Streptococcus is the commonest pathogen staphylococcus
Staphylococcus aureusaureus
F F E. Effect that diaphysis in most cases metaphysis
Epiphysis

diseases seen in sequestered lung segments

1.potentially fatal hemorrhage
2. left to right shunt
3. chronic infections
bronchiectasis
TB
Aspergillosis
4.CA- SqCC
bronchial carcinoid
 Radiology Screening Test 2006

1. Abdominal aorta

A. Crosses the diaphragm at T10 level

B. Has 4 pairs of visceral branches
C. Bifurcated at T4 level
D. Anteriorly related to right renal vein

2. Larynx

A. Composed entirely of hyaline cartilage

B. Found at C4-C6 level
C. Lateral recess is found between piriform recess and valleculae
D. Vocal cord lies inferior to vestibular folds
E. Isthmus is related anteriorly

3. Femoral artery

A. Enter in the thigh behind the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

B. Artery medial to nerve
C. Separated from capsule of hip by Sartorius
D. In the adductor canal lies on the adductor longus
E. Leave the thigh passing over the adductor magnus

4. Shoulder joint

A. Communicate with subacromian fossa

B. Superiorly related to axillary nerve
C. Glenoid labrum is the principal stabilizer of the joint
D. <1/3 of articular surface is covered by glenoid
E. Most frequently dislocated joint in the body

5. CA lung

T A. Centrally – Squamous cell CA

B. Fibrotic lung is associated with squamous cell CA
T C. Spread in to both adrenals
T D. Para neoplasm effects by small cell CA
E. Sclerosing periosteitis is seen in hand X ray

6. Thyroid CA

T A. Most commonly papillary CA

F B. Follicular adenoma and carcinoma usually differentiated with FNAC
F C. Early blood spread in papillary carcinoma than follicular carcinoma
T D. Medullary CA arises from para follicular cells

7. MCUG

F A. Need sedation
B. Undissolved contrast used
C. Difficult to catheterize due to posterior urethral valve
D. Inflate bulb during filling of bladder
E. VUR grade II – when pelvi calyceal dilated
8. PA film of normal chest X-ray

F A. Minor and major fissures can be visualized minor only

F B. Right heart border completely formed by right ventricle RA
C. Anteriorly related to 6th rib…………………
D. Hilar angle formed by superior pulmonary artery and inferior pulmonary vein
E. Intervertebral disc spaces are clearly visualized

9. CT brain

A. Infarction can be seen in grey and white matter

T B. Acute hemorrhages are hyper dense
C. In cerebral atrophy sulci and gyri are prominent
F D. Multiple sclerosis is best diagnosed by CT scan
E. Indicated for diagnosis of meningitis

10. Before the following procedures prophylactic antibiotics

A. DCBR
B. Liver biopsy
C. Transrectal prostate biopsy
D. Nephrostomy

11. Buscopan

TA. Contraindicated in glaucoma

F B. Contraindicated in insulinoma
TC. Dilate stomach
TD. Reduce smooth muscle contraction
E. Given prior to DCBT

12. MRI contraindicated in

A. Patient with pacemaker

B. Cochlear implant
C. CRF
D. DM
E. Pb implant

13. Primary hyperparathyroidism

F A. Common in children
F B. Reduced urinary calcium
T C. Associated with MEN II

14. CA bronchus

T A. Squamous cell carcinomas are common centrally

T B. Squamous cell carcinomas are common in lung fibrosis
T C. Hand periostitis
T D. Metastasis is bilateral adrenals

15. Thyroid carcinoma

T A. Papillary cell carcinoma is the commonest

T B. Blood metastasis is common in follicular than papillary
T C. Medullary carcinoma originates from para follicular cells
T D. Can’t be distinguished follicular carcinoma from follicular adenoma by examination
 Paraneoplastic Xn
16. Hepatocellular carcinoma -hypoglycemia
-hypercalcemia
T A. Associated with hemochromatosis -precausious puberty
T B. Associated with Hepatitis C -carcinoid xn
T C. Associated with paraneoplastic syndrome -gynaecomastia
F D. Common blood supply by postal vein - hepatic artery 94% -hypercholesterolemia
E. Portal vein metastasis can be visualized by CT scan -erythrocytosis
- portal vein tumor thrombus , portal vein thrombosis can occur
17. Following are associated

A. Choriocarcinoma – Brain metastasis

B. Endometriosis – Pleural effusion

18. Down’s syndrome is associated with

F T A. Coarctation of aorta
F T B. Co-existing hypoparathyroidism
T C. Duodenal atresia
T T D. Atlanto-axial subluxation
T E. Ribs 11

19. Acromegaly

F A. Can be caused by posterior pituitary tumor - anterior pitutary

F B. Obtuse mandibular angle
Prognanthism- elongated mandible
T C. Thickened fat pad
F D. A cause of rheumatoid arthritis

20. Para nasal sinuses

TA. Lined by ciliated columnar epithelium

TB. Supplied by trigeminal nerve
TC. Frontal sinus drained through mu. Complex
D. In sinus view of x ray can visualize mu. Complex
TTE. Chronic sinusitis in Kartagener syndrome
21. HIV

A. Symptoms occur after about 10 years

B. In young patients rapidly progress
C. More prone to get infection if CD4 count <100
D. Reticulo-nodular shadow seen in chest X-ray
E. Normocytic normochromic anaemia

22. Typhoid

A. Tachycardia not related to temperature

B. Vaccine gives lifelong immunity
C. Can get erythematous purpuric rash
D. Treat with ciprofloxacin
E. Blood culture done with in 1st week

23. Ulcerative colitis

F A. Transmural ulcer
B. Associated with fibrosing cholangitis
C. Carcinoma more common in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis
T D. Toxic mega colon can occur
T E. Increased mucosal granularity in Ba enema
24. Initial management of anaphylactic shock includes

A. 100% Oxygen
B. Elevate food end
C. Elevate foot end 10mg IV chlorpheniramine
D. 1:1000 IV adrenal
E. IV 5% dextrose

25. Causes of water intoxication

A. 5% dextrose
B. Head injury
C. Ano-rectal washing
D. TURP

26. Insulin secretion is increased by

TA. Glucagon
F B. Beta blockers
F C. Thiazide diuretics
T D. Theophylline

27. Regarding dengue

A. Incubation period is 10-12 days

B. Reduced permeability in shock
C. If PCV >20% need I IV fluid management
D. Hartman is used for replacement of fluid loss

28. Hemolytic uremic syndrome

A. Can cause DIC

B. Increased haptoglobin
C. Complicated with intestinal strictures

29. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A. Gastric mucosal fold hyperplasia

B. Associated with gastric neoplastic cells

30. Total gastrectomy can leads to

A. B12 deficiency
B. Fe deficiency anaemia
C. Dumping syndrome
D. Get hungry after 2 hrs

31. Blood picture

A. Splenectomy (punctuate basophilia)

F B. Pb poisoning (Howell jolly bodies)
T C. CRF – normochromic normocytic anaemia

32. Regarding atypical febrile fits

A. Lasting more than 15 min

B. Generalized tonic clonic
C. Need long term anticonvulsant treatment
33. Regarding normal pregnancy

A. CRL in 8-10 weeks

B. Reduce fibroids

34. In lichen planus

A. Pruritus
B. Purpuric rash
C. mucosal ulcers
D. Koebner phenomenon

35. Regarding Gaussian distribution curve

F A. ±1SD = 95%
B. SE = SD/√n
T C. Mean, Mode and median are same
D. All people are normal

36. Regarding Cauda equina syndrome

A. Loss of sensation in peri coccygeal area

B. Loss of bladder sensation
C. Impotence
D. Upgoing plantar response
E. Spastic paraplegia

37. Regarding heart

A. There are 2 semi lunar cusps

B. Attached to corda tendinie
 Radiology Screening Test 2007

1. X-ray features of left upper lobe consolidation

T T A. Air bronchogram
T B. Obliterated aortic knuckle
F F C. Mediastinal shift
F F D. Elevated ipsilateral hemidiaphragm
F E. Calcification

2. Hypercalcaemia causes

T A. Depression
T B. Peptic ulcer ECG- short QT
T C. Bone pain Prolonged PR
T D. Ureteric colic Wide QRS
F T inversion
E. Prolong QT interval Bradycardia
3. Cavitating lesions of lung are

T A. Metastasis from sarcoma

T B. Wegener’s granulomatosis
T C. Sarcoidosis
D. Neurofibromatosis
T E. Rheumatoid nodule

4. Thymus

A. Ectopic thymus is found in the neck

B. With increasing age hypertrophy of the gland occurs
C. Size increases in Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Is found anterior to the aorta
E. Detected by USS in infants

5. Amenorrhoea occurs in

T A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Galactosaemia
C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
T E. Craniopharyngioma

6. Paranasal sinuses
A. Musocele common in ethmoid sinus
T B. Hypoplasia of sinuses found in Kartagener syndrome - aplastic
T chronic sinusitis due to ciliary dysfunction
or hypoplastic frontal or sphenoidal sinuses
C. Cerebral venous occlusion can occur
D. Osteoma is common in maxillary sinus
E. Commonest CA is adenocarcinoma
7. HSG

A. Done immediately after menstruation

B. Antibiotic prophylaxis given routinely
C. IV pethidine is given prior to the procedure
D. Tubal block of spillage can occur due to corneal spasm
E. Filling defects are only due to submucous fibroid

8. Ectopic pregnancy (tubal)

A. Presented with 14 weeks of amenorrhoea

B. β HCG doubles in 2 days in normal pregnancy
C. Complex adnexal mass is seen
D. Empty sac in uterine cavity seen
E. Decidual reaction is seen in USS

9. Risk factors for acute pancreatitis

Hypocalcemia- complication of pancriatitis
F Result from saponication of fat in retroperitonium
A. Hypocalcaemia Hyper
T B. Hyperlipoprotenaemia
T C. Duodenal diverticulosis Rare cause
T D. Mumps
T E. Azathioprine

10. Colorectal CA

A. 2nd most common cause of cancer death in UK

B. After curative Sx 75% die of recurrence
C. Colonoscopy is done annually after curative surgery
D. Increased morbidity is seen in colonoscopy than Ba enema
E. Colonoscopy is used for surveillance of intraluminal recurrence

11. Ba enema is contraindicated in

T A. Pseudomembranous colitis
T B. Tonic megacolon
T C. Large bowel obstruction
T D. Rectovesical fistula
T E. If rectal biopsy has been done within 48 hrs

12. PTC (Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram) is not done in

A. Ascites
B. INR 1.5
C. If bilirubin level > 20mg/dl
D. USS shows bile duct dilatation
E. Situs inversus

13. Atrophic vaginitis

A. Commonly symptomatic
B. Only occurs in post-menopausal women
C. Treated with local steroids
D. Confirmed by cytology
E. Recognized cause for post-menopausal bleeding
14. Regarding GFR

T T A. Rate is 125ml/min
F FB. Afferent arteriolar constriction increases
T T C. ADH levels affects the GFR
T D. Reduced due to burns
T
F F E. Is measured by urea clearance

15. Postpartum psychoses

A. Occurs within 1st 2weeks of postpartum

B. Delusional thoughts are more common
C. Commonly presented with depression
D. High risk of recurrence is following pregnancy
E. Can be treated successfully

16. Megaloblastic anaemia

F A. occurs in iron deficiency anaemia

T B. occurs after gastrectomy patients
T C. blood film shows oval macrocytes
F D. recover with iron treatment
T E. caused by metformin

17. Vesicle formation is characteristic in

A. Stephen Johnson’s syndrome

B. Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Exfoliative dermatitis
E. Dermatitis herpetiformis

18. Congenital Dislocation of the Hip

A. Common in 1st bone females

T
F B. Effusion can be seen in USS
T C. Associated with breech presentation
T D. Avascular necrosis is a complication
E. USS gives reliable diagnosis than Ortolani test in 1st 3/12 of age

19. Craniopharyngioma
F A. Causes ipsilateral hemianopia
F B. Common in female
T C. Cause galactorrhoea
T D. Causes amenorrhoea
T E. Common in 1st decade of life

20. T/F
A. Paracetamol overdose increases the glutathione storage in liver
T B. Aspirin causes respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis
C. Thiazide inhibits active reabsorption of chloride in distal tubules
D. Verapamil increases calcium iron transport in cardiac muscles
E. Heparin action last for 12 hours
 21. Renal biopsy

A. Done in lateral lower pole of left kidney

B. Bleeding is a common complication
C. Small contracted kidney is easy to biopsy
D. FNAC done for proliferative nephritis
E. Nephrotic syndrome is a contraindication

22. Regarding IVP

T A. Nephrogram is seen due to contrast concentrated in renal tubules

T B. Pelvicalyceal systems seen within 20 minutes in normal study
C. Hypertensive encephalopathy develops in pheochromocytoma patients after IVP
T D. Dehydration aggravate renal failure in DM
E. Out stretched spidery calyceal system seen in polycystic kidney

23. Stridor

A. Congenital goitre
B. Laryngomalacia
C. Pierre Robin Syndrome
D. Branchial cleft cyst
E. Birth trauma

24. Neonatal enterocolitis

F A. Common in caesarean section babies

T B. Preterm babies are more prone
F C. Caused by gram negative bacilli
F D. Ideally confirmed by Ba enema
T
E. Can cause gas in bowel wall

25. Burns

A. Superficial burns are not painful

B. Routinely treated with antibiotics
C. 5% dextrose is the ideal solution if indicated
D. Hyperthermia is a complication
E. Can present with cardiogenic shock

26. CA cervix
F A. Commonly occurs in 50-60yrs
F B. Stage III best treated with surgery
T C. Post coital bleeding is a presentation
T D. MRI is used in accurate staging
T
E. Human papilloma virus can cause it

27. Internal carotid artery

A. Smaller than the external carotid artery
F B. Gives off 3 branches in cervical segment
F
FF C. Goes through foramen magnum
FF D. Found outside the cavernous sinus in its intracranial cause
FF E. Posterior choroidal artery rises from it
28. GOUT

T A. Caused by monosodium urate deposition

F B. Bone manifestations are the early features
C. Osteoporosis is a late manifestation
D. Sacroiliitis is a feature
T E. Alcohol aggravate acute attacks

29. Pituitary gland

A. Size increases in the pubertal age males

B. Enlargement causes visual disturbances
C. Covered by sellae diaphramatica
D. It is absent in Prader-Willi Syndrome
E. Shows low signal intensity in T1 MRI

30. Neonatal brain scan

A. Lateral ventricle size can be measured accurately

B. Cannot differentiate meningocele and encephalocele
C. Can detect shunt failure
D. Can detect intracranial haemorrhage
E. Evidence of congenital infections can be seen

31. Renal artery stenosis

A. Is a uncommon cause of HT
B. Normal IVU exclude the diagnosis
C. Fibro muscular dysplasia commonly affects distal 2/3 of artery
D. Atherosclerosis is a common cause for RAS after 50 years
E. Best treated with angioplasty

32. Causes for pulsatile proptosis

A. Cavernous sinus fistula T

B. Orbital roof fracture
C. Neurofibroma
D. Schwannoma F
E. Orbital varices F

33. Regarding normal distribution curve

A. Median is not equal to mean F
Unimodal
F Median= mean Bell shaped
B. 97% distribution comes under 1 st
SD F 1SD= 68%
F
F C. Left tail is skewed F 2SD =95%
F D. Bimodal distribution is seen 3SD = 99%
T E. Mode is the more frequently occurring number

34. Isotope scan is used to diagnosis of

F A. Pleural effusion
T B. Ectopic thyroid
T C. Renal scarring
F D. CA prostate
E. Pulmonary embolus
35. Lower limb veins

A. Short saphenous vein starts behind the lateral malleolus

B. Saphenofemoral opening one finger breath medial to femoral pulse
C. Superficial veins accompanies the corresponding arteriesF
D. Varicose vein is a presentation of DVT F
E. Point of opening of short saphenous vein into popliteal vein always found in the poplitial fossa.

36. T/F

A. Bronchioles arise from lobar bronchi

B. Lung segments are separated by pleura
C. High resolution CT can show lung acini
D. Normal Chest X-ray shows peripheral bronchi
E. Right bronchus is longer than left main bronchus

37. T/F

F A. Virtual CT colonoscopy does not need bowel preparation

T B. Pancreatic calcification is best seen by CT than USS
F C. Tc99 DTPA is used to diagnose renal scaring.
T D. EDH shows biconvex hyperdense area in CT
F E. Reduction of intussusception in children by US guided barium enema involve radiation

38. Breast CA

A. Axillary LN dissection done for actual staging

T
B. Females given radiotherapy for Hodgkin’s lymphoma are at high risk for breast CA
C. Axillary dissection leads to significant morbidity
D. Axillary LN status shows the possibility of recurrence

39. Cerebral anatomy

T A. Vertebral artery is the 1st branch of right subclavian artery

F B. Ophthalmic artery arises from maxillary artery F ICA
F C. Pituitary gland completely covered by diaphragma sellae Roof
T D. EDH characteristically seen in CT brain as biconvex hyperdense lesion
F E. Posterior choroidal artery arises from the internal carotid PCA of basilar A
 Radiology screening examination 2008
1. T/F regarding respiratory physiology
T A. Anatomical dead space and physiological dead space mismatch in pulmonary embolism T ?? alveolar DS increases , s
o the physiological DS
T B. V/Q ratio is high in lung apices F
in health Anatomical
T C. Respiratory alkalosis occurs in high altitudes T DS
T D. Hypoxic hypoxia occurs in pulmonary atelectasis T = physiological DS
F E. Oxygen is the treatment for all forms of hypoxia F
Cyanotic CHD- 100% O2 has a little effect
2. Retrosternal benign goitre can cause
A. Dysphagia T
B. Dyspnoea in lying down position T
C. Nocturnal cough T
D. Hoarse voice T
E. Facial venous congestion T

3. Lumbar intervertebral disc

F A. Is a synovial joint Fibrocartilagenous
T B. Annulus fibrosus is weak postero-laterally
C. Has a rich blood supply
F D. In L4/L5 herniation affects L4 than L5 nerve root
L5>>>>L4
4. Median nerve compression at the wrist
A. Paraesthesia over thenar eminence
B. Hand pain
C. Thenar muscle wasting
D. Numbness over anatomical snuff box
E. Inability to flex DIP of thumb

5. T/F
TT A. Uncinate process of the pancreas is posterior to the superior mesenteric artery
F B. Pancreas has a thick fibrous capsule - thin capsule
TT C. Common bile duct lies posterior to the first part of duodenum
T D. Pancreatic tail lies over left kidney
FF E. Splenic vein and inferior mesenteric vein form the portal vein SMV
SMV + splenic
+ Splenic vein vein
T
F. Endoscopic ultrasound can detect small pancreatic tumours

6. Intra abdominal tumours that move with respiration are

T A. Stomach
T B. Liver
F C. Kidney
D. Pancreas
F E. Ascending colon
F
7. T/F
A. 80% of biliary calculi are diagnosed by X-rays
B. MRI is better than CT to detect biliary calculi
C. HIDA- no use in primary biliary atresia

8. Surfactant
F A. Is a protein
T B. Reduce surface tension T
T C. Effect is related to alveolar surface area
T D. Helps to reduce pulmonary oedema T
9. Tumour markers
A. Tumour derived or associated with tumours
B. Can detect in other body fluids than blood
C. Used to monitor response to therapy T
D. Testicular tumour – CEA

10. Branches of external carotid artery

Thyrocervical trunk
F A. Inferior thyroid artery F
F B. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery F -VA
F C. Ophthalmic arteryFfacial artery -ICA
T D. Facial artery T
T E. Lingual artery T

11. Acoustic neuroma

A. Commonly bilateral
F
T B. Associated with sensory neural deafness
T

T C. Is the commonest cerebello-pontine angle tumour

D. Erode internal auditory meatus T
T E. Associated with NF-2 T
12. Regarding ureter

T A. Pass over the tip of lumbar transverse processes

T B. Turns medially at ischial spine
T C. Better seen in IVU prone view
F D. PUJ is the narrowest region
T E. Has a segmental blood supply

13. Lobar consolidation of CXR seen in

A. Pneumoconiosis
B. Primary TB
C. Bronchial CA
D. alveolar proteinosis
E. Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

14. Features of heart failure includes

A. Upper lobe diversion
B. Hilar congestion
C. Kerley B lines
D. Obliteration of costophrenic angles
E. Septal atelectasis

15. Acute otitis media

A. Ascending infection through Eustachian tube is a common mode of transmission

B. Pain is usually a late sign
C. Can diagnose by ear drum examination
D. Associated with lateral sinus thrombosis

16. Regarding liver biochemistry

A. SGPT is specific for liver

B. Alkaline phosphatase > 1000 suggests primary biliary cirrhosis
C. Elevation of both Gamma GT & alkaline phosphatase is specific for liver disease
D. CEA elevates in liver CA
17. Chronic asbestosis exposure can cause
A. Pleural effusion
B. Lung fibrosis
C. Oat cell CA
D. Mesothelioma
E. Pleural plaques

18. Following are pre-cancerous lesions

A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Colonic villous adenoma
C. Chronic IBS
D. Polyposis coli
E. Diverticular disease

19. Ileal strictures are seen in

A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Intestinal TB
D. Chronic malabsorption

20. Sigmoid volvulus

T A. Commonest among elderly
F B. Common among athletes
F C. Abdominal distension more in left side is a feature
T D. Can be effectively treated with non-surgical methods
T E. Can be diagnosed by plain abdominal X-ray

21. High risk for IV contrast medium in following

T A. Bronchial asthma
T B. Neonates
T C. Sickle cell disease
T TD. DM treated with metformin
T T E. Thyrotoxicosis

22. USS is useful in diagnosis of

F A. Pneumoperitoneum
B. Lung metastases
T T C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Acute esophagitis

23. Mucinous cyst adenoma of the ovary

T A. 10% bilateral
F B. Usually occur after menopause
C. Acidic mucopolysaccharide materials is found
F D. Common than serous cyst adenoma
T E. Papilliform growth towards cavity suggests increased risk of malignancy

24. Causes of primary amenorrhoea

T A. Haematocolpus
B. Hypothalamic hamartoma
T C. B/L gonadal dysgenesis
F D. Ovarian dysfunction
 25. Monochorionic twins

A. High risk of growth retardation

B. Increased incidence of immune hydrops fetalis
C. Higher incidence seen after treatment for subfertility
D. Commonly associated with uterine anomalies
E. Associated with high AFP levels

26. Prostate CA

T A. Commonly occurs in the peripheral region

T B. Bone metastases increase osteoblastic activity
T C. Gleason’s grading done with histological findings
T D. PSA is a good guide to monitor response to treatment
F E. AFP is a tumour marker

27. Postpartum psychosis

A. High incidence of recurrence is subsequent pregnancies

B. Delusional ideas are common
C. Usually occurs in first 2/52 post-partum
D. Can be treated effectively
E. Commonly presents with depression

28. Regarding intussusceptions

F A. Common among neonates F

T B. Caecum commonly affected T
T C. USS helpful in diagnosis T
T D. Treated with hydrostatic reduction T
F E. Presents with projectile vomiting F

29. Meckel’s diverticulum

FF A. Is located 12cm from the caecum Mostly 60cm from ileocecal valve, range 45-90 cm
TT B. Is the remnant of vitellointestinal duct omphalomesentric duct/ vitelline duct
T C. Can present with an erythematous nodule in the umbilicus
D. Causes intestinal bleeding in neonate
E. Causes intestinal bleeding in neonate

30. Acanthosis nigricans

T A. Common among obese people

T TB. Underlying malignancy is suspected
F C. Associated with oro facial lesions
F D. Intensely pruritic
T T E. Associated with hirsutism, acne & PCOS

31. Barium studies should not be done in

A. Suspected bowel perforation

T
T B. Within 1/52 of colorectal biopsy
C. Small bowel obstruction
T D. Toxic megacolon
F E. Hirschsprung’s disease - radiological evaluation done by barium enema
32. Following epiphyseal centres are seen in a term new born baby

A. Calcaneus
B. Lower femur
C. Proximal humerus
D. Proximal tibia
E. Distal radius

33. T/F

A. HIV is diagnosed reliably by ELISA

B. Hep. C transmitted by needle stick injury
C. Health care personnel should receive Hep B booster every 5 years.
D. Phenolic compounds (Lysol) used to clean blood spillage
E. Used needle should be recapped

34. Regarding population sampling

A. Healthy people in a rural area. All factory workers in a factory

B. Breast CA 1990-1999 Newly diagnosed breast patients between 1990-1999
C. Blood born viruses: Population of blood donors (Sample)
D. All people in a rural area : People registered in a primary health care clinic (Sample)

35. Fetal maturity is measured by

F A. York sac volume

MSD, CRL for dating
F B. GS volume
F C. CRL
F D. BPD
F E. Neural cord translucency

36. Adult polycystic kidney disease

ADPKD -1. PKD 1 chromosome16 short arm
2. PKD2- chromosome 4 long arm
A. Associated with chromosomal 6 gene defect F
B. Associated with cystic lesion in the liver ARPKD- chromosome 6 short arm
C. Associated with sub arachnoid haemorrhage T
D. Spider leg appearance
E. Predisposes to renal cell carcinoma F not predisposing to RCC

37. ARDS
Mendelson disease- chemical pneumonitis following
T A. Present with acute respiratory failure Aspiration
B. CXR appearances are resemble like Mendelian disease
F C. Best diagnosed with CXR findings
T D. One of the course is cyclophosphamide therapy

38. Axial proptosis seen in

A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Maxillary sinus thrombosis
C. Frontal sinus tumour
D. Optic melanoma

39. Median nerve lesion of wrist

A. Causes thenar muscle wasting
B. Sensory loss at thenar eminence
C. Coin shape sensory loss at dorsum of the hand
D. Defect in distal interphalangeal joint flexion
E. Causes pain at hand
 Radiology screening examination 2009

1. Regarding Dengue,

A. If PCV is > 22% raised, it’s a clear indication for IV fluids.

B. Leucocytosis is a feature.
C. NSAIDS suppositories can be used without any problem.
D. According to WHO guidelines, it is indicated to transfuse platelets if counts <10,000
E. If infected with dengue, it gives a lifelong immunity

2. Long Saphenous vein

A. It starts anterior to lateral malleolus. F

B. Has a connection with short saphenous vein. T
C. Enters femoral vein 3cm below and lateral to pubic tubercle. F 4CM
D. It ascends along with sural nerve. F
E. Accompanies inferior epigastric vein.

3. hysterosalpingogram is contraindicated

A. To do immediately prior and after menstruation.

B. If within 6/52 of tubal or ovarian surgery.
C. If sensitive to contrast.
D. If there is recent pelvic inflammatory disease.
E. In endometriosis.

4. In acute head injury.

F A. MRI is less time consuming than CT.

F B. MRI is better than CT.
T C. MRI has no radiation.
D. Pneumothorax is common following biopsy with CT.
E. Calcification of chondral area of ribs normal in old age.

5. T/F regarding management of acute pancreatitis

F A. High protein diet

T B. IV fluids T
T C. Catheterize the patient T
T D. Opioid analgesics T
T
E. Regular monitoring of blood gases to monitor the process

6. RIF pain occurs in,

T A. Constipation.
F B. Descending colon diverticulitis.
T C. Crohn’s disease.
T D. Ectopic pregnancy. T
T E. Mesenteric lymphadenitis. T
7. X-ray findings

F A. Cholesterol gall bladder stones are radio-opaque.

B. Phleboliths are radio opaque.
T C. Oblique view X-ray abdomen helps to differentiate gall bladder calculi from renal calculi.
T
D. LRT clips can mimic ureteric calculi.

8. Widened mediastinal shadow is associated with,

T A. Rotation of patient. T
T B. Lung collapse.
T C. Normal thymus in an infant. T
T D. Aortic arch in old age.
F E. Expanded chest.

9. Increased endometrial wall thickness is seen.

T A. Endometrial polyps.
T B. Ectopic pregnancy.
T C. Incomplete abortion.
T D. HRT treatment.
T E. Progressing tumour.

10. Regarding pneumoperitoneum.

F A. Erect abdominal X-ray is the investigation of choice.

B. In erect abdominal X-ray multiple gas fluid shadows are seen.
C. In lateral decubitus X-ray gas shadows are seen.
F D. Can diagnosis by USS reliably.
T E. Colonic gas shadows is right hypochondrium may mimic gas under the diaphragm.

11. In myocardial infarction,

A. CK-MB is better than Troponin for evaluation of recurrent MI after 4 days.

B. In NON STEMI Troponin can be positive.
C. Troponin has an association with elevation of liver enzymes.
D. Troponin becomes positive within 1hr of MI.

12. T/F

A. Sharp objects are disposed by incineration.

B. Endoscope is cleaned with 1% hydrochloride solution.
C. It is not necessary to clean the instruments before autoclaving.
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be eradicated by cleaning with Lysol.
E. Pseudomonas can be eradicated by Savlon.

13. T/F

F A. Developing follicle produces progesterone in a normal ovarian cycle.

F B. Corpus luteum produces HCG in pregnancy.
T C. In ovarian cycle LH surge influences the ovulation.
T D. In a normal ovarian cycle small amount of fluid is normal in Pouch of Douglas.
14. In normal pressure hydrocephalus.

A. Increased CSF protein is seen.

T B. Brain atrophy occurs. - minimal, ventriculomegaly is out of proportion to atropy
T C. VP shunts are used as treatment.
T D. Urinary incontinence occurs.
T E. Gait ataxia develops.

15. Regarding statistics.

A. The mean of 4,5,0 is 4.5.

B. Distribution is an item distributed among a population.
C. For a large population it is more accurate rather than for a small population.
D. Standard error decreases if population is large.

16. “Empty sign” can be elicited in following lumps.

A. Sebaceous cyst.
B. Ganglion.
C. Lymphangioma.
D. Cyst of the breast.
E. Haemangioma.

17. Risk of developing nephropathy by contrast media is increased in,

A. Dehydration.
B. Large amount of contrast induction.
C. Long term Diabetes Mellitus.
D. Renal insufficiency.
E. Given with NSAIDS.

18. Regarding pre-eclampsia.

- A. Large placenta is a risk factor.

T B. Eclamptic fits can occur soon after delivery.1/3 of fits occur after delivery,most within 24 hours,allmost all with in48 h
ours,
T C. Prognosis is poor if liver enzymes are elevated.
- D. Abruptio placenta is commonly seen.
F E. Blood viscosity is reduced.

19. In PCOD

T A. DM is lifelong complication
T B. Obesity is an association.
F C. FSH is disproportionately increased than LH.
F D. Androgens are decreased.
 20. Regarding bile duct,

A. In a young individual the width of the common bile duct is 6mm.

B. Pain originating from the bile duct is referred to epigastrium.
F C. Lies anterior to 1st part of duodenum. middle 1/3 CBD is retroduodenal to D1
F D. Opens into anterior surface of duodenum. Ampulla of Vater opens to posteromedial D2
TE. Lies lateral to hepatic artery CBD supraduodenal 1/3 is right side relation to HA

21. Structures which lies anterior to Scalenus anterior muscle are,

A. Phrenic nerve.
B. Subclavian artery.
C. Ascending cervical artery.
D. Transverse cervical artery.
E. Thoracic duct.

22. Regarding male urethra.

T A. Length is 20cm.
T B. Narrowest is membranous urethra.
T C. Rupture of bulbar urethra leads to extravasation of urine to superficial perineum
D. Lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
F E. Internal sphincter is responsible for urinary continence.

23. Which of the following associations are true?

MCUG- PUV
F A. Ascending urography Posterior urethral valve F

B. MRI  Neuronal migratory disease problems.

C. Single contrast Ba enema  Colonic polyps.
T D. US Scan  Pleural fluid

24. T/F

A. HRCT is done with contrast media.

B. Pulmonary arteriography needs catheterization of pulmonary trunk.
C. Bronchiectasis cannot be reliably diagnosed by CT
D. Early ischaemia is seen better with MRI than CT.

25. T/F regarding respiratory functions.

T A. Tidal volume is 500ml. T

T B. Respiratory centre is stimulated by H+ in CSF. T
T C. During inspiration, negative intrathoracic pressure is seen. T
T D. Lung ventilation is 6 l/min.
T E. Basal areas get more blood supply than apical. T
26. Erythrocytosis is seen in,

A. Polycythaemia.
B. Renal parenchymal disease.
C. Renal cell CA.
D. Congenital cyanotic heart diseases.
E. Cerebral haemangioblastoma.
F. Adrenal gland disease

27. T/F

A. Pre-renin is secreted by smooth muscle of Juxta Glomerular apparatus.

B. Juxta Glomerular apparatus is stimulated by constriction of afferent arteriole.
C. Proximal convoluted tubule disease cause reduction in erythropoietin.
D. 25-Hydroxylase conversion occurs in DCT.

28. T/F regarding necrotizing enterocolitis.

T A. Common in pre-term babies.

F B. Common when age >6/52.
F C. Cannot be diagnosed ultrasonically.
T
D. Associated with umbilical catheterization.

29. Nodular shadows in Chest Xray is seen in,

A. Lymphangitis.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Pulmonary AV malformation.
D. Lung abscess.
E. Neurofibroma.

30. ALL
A. Precursor cell are similar to myeloid leukaemia.
B. Commonest in children around 2yrs of age.
C. Commonly associated with Fanconi anaemia.
D. Commonly associated with Pernicious anaemia.

31. Kawasaki disease,

A. Commonly seen <5yrs old children.

B. Berry aneurism rupture is a common association.
C. Neutropenia is seen.
D. ESR is increased.
E. CRP is increased.
F. Associated with myxomas.

32. Oesophageal CA,

A. Is seen in females more than males.
B. Endoscopic USS is the best method for assessment of local invasion.
C. >50% survive more than 5yrs.
D. At the time of diagnosis local invasion is seen.
E. Usually seen as squamous cell CA.
33. Rheumatoid arthritis.

A. Anaemia due to iron deficiency is seen.

B. Morning stiffness lasts more than 1hr.
C. Involvement of large joints is seen.
D. Apical fibrosis is seen in chest Xray.
E. Bilateral uvitis is seen.

34. Management of Nephrotic syndrome.

Fluid and salt restriction

T A. Reduce Na intake.
F B. Increased protein intake.
T C. ACE inhibitors. ARB to reduce protein urea
D. HCT.
T E. Bed rest.

35. Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis,

A. Increased density seen in CT.

TB. Leads to cirrhosis.
C. Increased bilirubin is seen.
D. Diagnosed by biopsy.
TE. Commonly associated with diabetes.

36. Pb poisoning leads to,

hypochromic microcytic anaemia,with basophilic stippling of RBC, IDA co exit with Pb poisoning
F F A. Megaloblastic anaemia.
T T B. Blue line over gums. Burton's line- bluish line in gum tooth interface, due to interaction of circulating lead and sulfur ions r
T TC. Foot drop. eleased by oral micro flora, causing lead sulfide deposition

D. Diabetes.
FF
T E. Renal impairment.
T

37. In normal pregnancy,

F A. Fetus is usually visible in 4/52.

T T B. Increased Alpha fetoprotein level is seen in twin pregnancy.
C. HCG is secreted by corpus luteum.
D. CDP is measured for foetal assessment.
TE. Duodenal atresia can be diagnosed antenatally.

HIGH CA125
38. Following tumour markers are correctly matched, 1.ovarian CA
2.benign ovarian tumors
3.endometriosis
A. CEA  Oesophageal disease. F 4. T1 pregnancy
5. menstruation
T B. CA 125  Endometriosis. T 6.pancreatitis
C. HCG  Trophoblastic tumour. T 7.liver chirrosis
8.PID
T D. Alpha fetoprotein  Hepatocellular carcinoma. T 9. fibroid
E. PSA 8ug with normal prostate size can be left alone.
 risk factors for TT
39. Regarding torsion of testis.
1. testicular tumor
2.trauma
T A. Testis lies high up the scrotum. 3.Bell clapper deformity
4.cold temperature
F B. Doesn’t occur in maldescended testis.
5.UDT
T C. Spontaneous detorsion occurs.
TD. Small hydrocele can be associated. reactive hydrocele
FE. Colour Doppler US scan is the first line of investigation.
TT is a clinical diagnosis, if sure of it we proceed with surgery.
imaging done only when we are not sure, and findings are of low suspicion of torsion and of strong suspicion of alternative
40. Paraneoplastic manifestations of CA lung. diagnosis

T T A. Acanthosis nigricans.
F F B. Increased TSH levels. PTH,PTHrP, ADH,ACTH,GHRH increases
? -hypertrophic
hypertropic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
F C. Extra pulmonary osteodystrophy.
osteoarthropathy

T TD. Hypercalcaemia.
T TE. Neuropathy.
 Radiology Screening Test 2010

1. T/F regarding X-rays

A. X ray are monoenergic

B. X rays are totally absorbed by the body F
C. Can induce teratogenicity in humans T
D. Digital X-rays are non radiating F
E. Remain in the room for few minutes after the x ray machine is turned off

2. Which of the following are T/F

T A. CT uses a large amount of X-ray

T B. MRI uses magnetic field
F C. DTPA (renal scintigraphy) used for assessing renal scarring
T
T D. Nuclear medicine studies uses radioisotopes
E. Ultrasound uses sound waves which are inaudible to human ear

3. Which of following are correctly matched

A. Subtle pneumothorax – Inspiratory film

B. Foreign body in bronchus – Expiratory film
C. Extradural haemorrhage – MRI
D. Small pleural effusion – L/S decubitus view
E. Pancoast tumour – Apical view

4. Regarding preeclampsia

F A. Exclusively confined to primi primigravida is a risk factor

F
T B. There is an increased incidence when there is a positive family history
T
T T C. Increased incidence of perinatal deaths
T T D. A common cause of maternal deaths
F F E. Fits are best treated with diazepam MgSO4 -first line
Lorazepam,phenytoin- second line
5. Treatment of anaphylactic shock

T A. IM adrenalin
F B. IM prochloperazine

T C. Nebulization with salbutamol

T D. IV adrenalin
T E. IV Cimetidine

6. Which of the following are intracellular pigments

T A. Melanin
T B. Coal dust
T C. Lipofuscin
T D. Hemosiderin
F E. Glycogen
Intracellular accumulation-? Not a pigment
7. Which of following act on cell membrane receptors

A. Vasopressin T
T
B. Adrenalin T
T
F C. Thyroxin F
T D. Glucagon T
F E. Aldosterone

8. Urinary tract infection in children

F A. 3-5 pus cells in urine microscopy is adequate for the diagnosis

F B. Urine culture yielding >103 CFU/ ml is confirmatory
F C. All culture positive children need antibiotic prophylaxis
T D. USS-KUB is mandatory for all culture positive UTI
T E. Clean catched mid-stream sample is used for culture

9. Bronchiolitis

A. Common in children <1 year old

B. Caused by RSV
C. Apnoea is prominent than wheezing in very young infants
D. Tachypnoea is compatible with degree of hypoxaemia
E. Severe disease occur with cardio vascular anomaly

10. Febrile convulsions

A. More common when there is a positive family history

B. Typical febrile fits lasts for less than 15 minutes
C. Todd’s paralysis occur with atypical febrile convulsions
D. Majority recover within the 1st year
E. More common in children 5-10 years of age

11. Intussusception

A. Common in 5-9 months age group F

B. Can be confirmed by USS T
C. Red currant jelly appearance is a contraindication for hydrostatic reduction F
D. Commonest site is ileocecal region T
E. Free fluid in peritoneum in USS is an indication for hydrostatic reduction F

12. T/F

F A. Pyloric stenosis presents within first 24 hours F 1wk to 12wk

F B. Mid gut rotation causes non bilious vomiting
T C. In tetralogy of Fallot, there’s breathing difficult immediately after feeding
T D. Hirschsprung’s disease presents with chronic constipation T
T E. Duodenal atresia occurs in Downs syndrome T
 13. Features more in favour of schizophrenia in a 50yr old male

A. Onset at 50 years
B. Social withdrawal
C. Persecutory delusions
D. Visual hallucinations
E. Aggressive behaviour

14. Features of orbital floor fractures

A. Affect the visual acuity

B. There is a haziness in the sinus view of maxillary sinus
C. “Tear drop” sign is positive in sinus view
D. There is an entrapment of inferior rectus
E. There is diplopia in upward gaze

15. Unilateral nasal lump

A. Meningioma
B. Basal septal abscess
C. Inverted cell papilloma
D. Antrochoanal polyp
E. Allergic nasal polyp

16. Regarding Larynx

A. Piriform fossa is anterior to larynx

B. Vestibular sinus is in between the false vocal cords
C. Vestibular folds are below vocal cords
D. Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Vocal cords are thickened upper border of cricothyroid membrane

17. Anterior relations of right ureter in a male

D2
F A. First part of duodenum D3 Testicular vessel
F
T B. Testicular artery R-colic vessel
F C. Seminal vesicles - inferior Ileocolic vessel
T D. Ileocolic artery
Root of mesentry
T E. Vas difference Vas difference

18. Assessment of bone age in a child

A. X ray of the left wrist

B. Pisiform is the last bone to ossify in carpal bones
C. Ileal crest is completely fused by 12 years
T D. Lower femoral epiphysis is present in the full term baby
E. Ossification centre of distal radius appears later than ulnar styloid
19. Multiple myeloma is characterized by
T A. Hypercalcaemia
T B. Peripheral lymphocytosis
F C. Elevated albumin levels
D. Remission induced by steroids
F E. Osteosclerotic lesions are seen in bones
20. Osteomalacia
Ca, PO4 decreased
T A. Increased ALP ALP, PTH increased
B. Symmetrical peripheral arthritis
F C. Increased serum calcium
D. Epiphyseal center appearance is delayed
E. Bowed tibia is a feature

21. T/F

T A. Muscle calcification is a feature of juvenile dermatomyositis

B. Sphenoidal wing hypoplasia is seen in neurofibromatosis
C. Hyperostosis is a recognized feature of prolong treatment with retinoids
D. In an adolescent boy presenting with a lump, slipped femoral epiphysis should be considered
E. Ewing’s sarcoma affects metaphysic

22. Regarding blood supply of left ventricle

F A. Subendocardial blood flow is considered to be totally absent during diastole

F B. During systole the blood supply is similar to that of the right ventricle
C. Sympathetic vasodilatory system activation causes increase is blood supply
D. During exercise blood flow increases

23. Which of the following have an autoimmune role

T A. Graves’ disease
T B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
F C. Riedel Thyroiditis
D. De Quervain thyroiditis
E. Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis

24. Regarding mycoplasma pneumonia

A. Occur in 50-60 year age group

B. A nosocomial infection
C. Neutrophil leucocytosis is present
D. X ray features correlate with clinical features
E. Treated with macrolides

25. Symmetrical diaphragmatic elevation is seen in

T A. Obesity T
T B. B/L lower lobe fibrosis
T C. Ascites
T D. Supine position T
F E. Liver abscess F
26. T/F

A. SF ligation eliminates below knee perforator incompetence

B. Palpable cough impulse is present with Saphenofemoral incompetence
C. Warfarin is indicated after SF ligation
D. Below knee sclerotherapy is effective in SF incompetence

27. 50 year old male, smoker for long time presents with occlusion of a small segment of the superficial
femoral system. Which of the following are T/F

A. Graded exercise
B. Aorto-femoral bypass
C. Angioplasty
D. Endovascular sterility
E. Lifetime warfarin therapy

28. Regarding lumbar vertebral discs

A. L3-L4 joint is commonly prolapsed

B. Sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the medial side of the foot seen in L4-L5 disc prolapse
C. Ankle jerk reduced in L5/S1 disc prolapsed
D. Acute urine retention warrants urgent spinal cord decompression

29. DIC in pregnancy is high in

T A. Diabetes
T B. Retained foetal products
T C. Multiple pregnancy
D. Threatened miscarriage
E. Hydatidiform mole

30. Gestational diabetes mellitus

A. Preconceptional glycaemic control reduces fetal anomalies

B. Optimal glycaemic control reduces shoulder dystocia
C. Pre-established DM needs an OGTT
D. Insulin requirement is increased after puerperium
E. For measurement of blood glucose venous blood is preferred

31. Causes of anovulatory subfertility

A. Endometriosis
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Polycystic ovarian disease
D. Obesity

32. Regarding sialogram

A. 5-10ml of water soluble contrast medium is injected
B. Bilateral sialogram can be done at the same time
C. Contraindicated in sialadenitis
D. Contrast media injection is stopped when pain occur
E. Parotid duct opens opposite to the second upper molar tooth
33. Features suggestive of left ventricular failure

F A. Elevated jugular venous pressure

T B. Bilateral fine basal crepts
F C. Ankle oedema
F D. Tender hepatomegaly

34. Regarding osteomyelitis

F F A. X rays are useful within 10 days takes 10 to14 days for positive xray
F B. IV antibiotics for 14 days is enough for complete recovery traditionally duration of AB 4to 6 weeks
T T C. MRI useful for early diagnosis
F F D. Slow uptake is seen in bone scintigraphy increased uptake in WBC scintigraphy.....sulfur colloid
F F E. Surgical treatment is the first line of management
antibiotic therapy
35. Infections causing fetal abnormalities

A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Syphilis
C. Parvo virus
D. Hepatitis A
E. Listeria monocytogenes

36. Absolute contraindications for combined oral contraceptive pills

A. Family history of PVD

B. Focal migraine
C. History of TIA without headache
D. History of pregnancy induced cardiomyopathy
E. Gestational diabetes mellitus

37. Management of perforated peptic ulcer include

A. Intra abdominal gas demonstrated by erect Chest X ray

B. USS is useful in detecting intra abdominal gas
C. All peptic ulcers should be biopsied to exclude malignancy
D. Majority are caused by Helicobacter pylori

38. T/F

A. Trans fontanelle USS is done to detect intracranial haemorrhages

B. Chorea is seen in medulloblastoma
C. Intraocular calcification is seen in retinoblastoma
D. Diffuse idiopathic hyperostosis is a well known SE of retinoid therapy
F E. Erosive arthritis is common in SLE - non erosive

39. Statistics
Variance= mean of squared deviations
F A. Sample SD indicates variation of sample values
B. SE indicates how an estimated value varies from the true value if a new sample is added.
C. If the sample no is large, the estimated value will be very less than the true value.
 Radiology Screening Test 2011
1. T/F regarding X ray

A. X rays are electro magnetic

B. Air in the lung absorb X rays show black in appearance in X ray
C. X rays are dimensional view
D. In PA view X ray beam passes from posterior to anterior T

2. MRI is better than CT in detecting the following

T A. Posterior fossa tumour

F B. Acute cerebral haemorrhage
C. Chronic SAH
T D. Demyelinating lesions in the brain
F E. Calcified areas in brain

3. T/F regarding children in Sri Lanka (Copy right)

A. Neonatal mortality is 16/1000

B. Commonest cause for NNM is prematurity
C. 25% of school children are obese
D. BCG immunization coverage is 90%
E. Commonest cause of nutritional deficiency is iron deficiency

4. Rennin secretion is increased by

A. Increased aldosterone secretion

B. Increased intake of sodium F
C. Hypervolaemia F
D. Hypotension T
E. Increased adrenalin in circulation T

5. Polyhydramnios occur in

T A. Maternal DM
T
F F B. Potters syndrome consequences of oligohydroamnions
T T C. Anencephaly
T T D. Oesophageal atresia
F F E. Polycystic kidney disease

6. T/F regarding PCOS

T A. Oligomenorrhoea
T
T TB. Hirsutism
T C. Hyperinsulinemia
D. Increased ACTH
F E. Low prolactin
can have mild hyperprolatinemia
 7. T/F regarding arch of the aorta
A. It is in the anterior mediastinum
B. Anteriorly related to left brachiocephalic vein
C. Run over the left bronchus
D. In adult ligamentum arteriosum connects aortic arch to pulmonary trunk
E. Seen in CXR-PA view

8. T/F regarding cerebral palsy

A. Commonest cause is birth asphyxia
B. Commonest type is spastic CP
C. All are having some learning difficulty
D. Multidisciplinary approach is needed
E. Presence of hand dominancy less than 12 months suggestive of CP

9. T/F regarding colorectal CA

A. Common in R/colon
B. Majority have family history of breast or colonic cancer
C. Trans rectal USS is better than MRI to assess trans luminal spread
D. Presence of hepatic metastasis renders inoperability
E. 20% have synchronous tumours

10. T/F regarding childhood malignancy

F A. Commonest is AML ALL

T TB. Wilms tumour present with haematuria
C. Neuroblastoma may present in one month
T D. Retinoblastoma present with leukocoria
F E. Secondary brain tumours are common than primary

11. T/F regarding Kawasaki disease

A. Conjunctivitis is a presentation
B. Fever is not a presentation
C. Coronary arterial disease is a presentation
D. Spirochete bacteria is a cause
E. Known to cause profound thrombocytopenia

12. T/F regarding Steven Johnson’s syndrome

A. Subtarsal fibrosis seen in both upper and lower eye lid

B. Causes lifelong immunity, so it does not recur
C. Dry eye is due to lacrimal gland fibrosis
D. Mucous membranes not involved
E. Arthralgia commonly occurs

13. T/F regarding pituitary gland

A. Drain to cavernous sinus
B. Lies below the optic chiasma
C. Pituitary hypophyseal tract communicate with posterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary gland cause no effect on thyroxine secretion
E. Efferent pathway drain to posterior pituitary
14. Regarding typhoid fever
A. Cause erythematous rash in upper abdomen at the end of 1st week
B. Faecal excretion seen in the 1st week
C. Fluoroquinolone is still the drug of choice
D. Carriers known to have organism in the gall bladder for several years
E. Splenomegaly common in 2nd day
15. Anterior relation to right kidney

T A. Liver
F B. Descending colon
F C. Pancreas
F D. Stomach Left kidney
F T
E. Duodenum
T
16. Indication for skeletal survey
A. Battered baby syndrome
B. Rickets
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Hyperparathyroidism
E. Acromegaly

17. Investigation for renal transplant donor include

A. B/L renal angiogram

B. DTPA scan
C. DMSA scan
D. Routine MRI
E. USS guided renal biopsy

18. T/F regarding torsion of the testis

TA. Common in adolescent boys 65% cases 12-18year boys, most frequent among adolescents
T B. Secondary hydrocele seen in the USS reactive hydrocele
TC. Scintigraphy shows absent uptake - rim sign, absent tracer uptake
T D. Spontaneous de torsion can occur
T E. B/L orchidopexy is indicated if testis is viable to prevent future torsion
if not viable ipsilateral orchidectomy+ contralateral orchidopexy

19. T/F regarding wound dressing

A. Hypertonic saline is used in purulent discharge

B. Green colour appearance indicates staphylococcus infection
C. Skin graft is contraindicated if staphylococcus is found
D. Maggots treatment is a recognized treatment in slough wounds
E. Local antibiotics is routinely used in wound dressing

20. T/F regarding celiac trunk

A. Arise at the level of t12
B. Lies behind the omental bursa
C. Lies behind the splenic vein
D. Has 3 main branches
E. Celiac plexus surrounds it
21. T/F regarding glucagon

F A. Secreted by pancreatic islets beta cells alpha cells

T B. Is a peptide hormone
T C.Causes positive inotropic effect by increasing cAMP
T D. Causes hepatic glycogenolysis
T E. Causes hepatic gluconeogenesis

22. Drugs causes hyperprolactinaemia

F A. Bromocriptine F
T B. Chlorpromazine T
F C. Cabergoline F
T D. Metoclopramide T
E. Digoxin

23. Increased sensitivity to diagnostic radiation in

F A. Brain
T B. Bone marrow
T C. Eye - particullary Lens is sensitive
D. Muscle
F
T E. Testis

24. T/F regarding meningitis

T A. Group B streptococcus is the commonest organism in neonates

T B. Elderly high risk to get listeria meningitis
T C. Neisseria meningitides occur in 2-20 years old
T D. Staphylococcal infection common after neurosurgical procedure
F E. Commonest cause in adult is E.coli

25. T/F regarding hepatitis A

A. Commonest cause of hepatitis world wide
B. Destroyed by chlorination
C. Causes aplastic anaemia
D. Usually at presentation jaundice seen
E. Has excellent recovery

26. T/F regarding IUGR

A. High altitude
T T B. PIH
T T C. CMV
T T D. Trisomy 18
T T E. DM

27. T/F regarding DM

A. Type II has autoantibodies

B. Type I has family history
C. Type I presenting with microalbuminuria is normal
D. Metformin causes significant hypoglycaemia
 28. T/F regarding Hodgkin’s disease

A. LN biopsy taken to lab is normal saline

B. More than 2cm yield best diagnosis
C. Type B & T NHL is differentiated by histochemical analysis
D. HL is characteristic with Reed Sternberg cells
E. CMV causes Burkitt’s lymphoma

29. T/F regarding otitis media

A. Myringotomy is the treatment of choice is secretary otitis media

B. Facial nerve palsy is a complication
C. Cholesteatoma causes cerebral complication
D. Conduction hearing loss does not occur in otitis media
E. Commonest mode of infection via pharyngeal Eustachian tube

30. Following are features of internal malignancy

T A. Dermatomyositis Ovarian, breast, lung CA

T
T B. Acanthosis nigricans
T C. Superficial thrombophlebitis
T D. Pruritus
T
E. Erythema nodosum

31. Following are risk factors for ovarian CA

RISK MORE WITH MORE OVULATION LOW RISK IN
T A. Nulliparity 1.nulliparity 1.Pregnancy
2.early menarche, late menaupose 2.multipara
T B. Ovarian induction 3.ovulation induction 3.breast feeding
4 BRCA1, BRCA2 4.OCP
F C. OCP 5HNPCC [lynch II]
F D. Breast feeding
T E. BRCA 1 mutation

32. T/F regarding haemodynamic changes in pregnancy

T A. 50% increase in cardiac output

- B. Peak occur in 1st trimester
- C. Resolve 1st week postpartum
F D. Peripheral resistant increases
T E. Blood pressure falls

33. Following are X linked

T A. Duchene muscular dystrophy

T B. Hunters disease mucopolysaccharidosis ii
TC. Haemophilia A
F F D. Cystic fibrosis AR - chromosome 7, long arm- mutation of a gene cording for Cl
channel
E. Sickle cell disease

34. T/F regarding pancreatic pseudocyst

A. Can present with obstructive jaundice

B. Spontaneous recovery occurs
C. Surgical excision is treatment modality
D. Present as acute abdomen
E. Matured in 4-6 weeks
35. T/F regarding MI

A. Elevated markers in stable angina

B. ECG changes always present at rest in stable angina
C. Acute NSTEMI treated with streptokinase
D. Upward convexity in ST elevation is seen acute MI
E. Acute inferior MI can cause heart block

36. T/F regarding the following

A. Absent iron store in bone marrow seen in iron deficiency anaemia

B. Hepatitis A causes BM aplasia
C. Haemophilia B is X linked

37. T/F regarding GN

A. In adult membranous GN is the major cause for NS

B. Minimal change GN occurs in all age group
C. Majority are immunologically mediated

38. T/F regarding confidence interval (sampling)

A. Increased when the sample size is small

B. Confidence interval of 95% means, 95% of observations fall within that interval.
C. Indicator of statistical difference or otherwise between two samples
D. With odds ratio.......not statistically significant

39. Hysterosalpingogram

A. Best done between 4th – 6th days of cycle

B. Normal cervical glands are seen
C. High viscos contrast is used
D. Venous intravasation is a common complication
E. Corneal spasm may cause absent spillage

40. Suitable anaesthetic technique

A. In ganglion excision – Local anaesthesia -T

B. Carpal tunnel syndrome – Regional anaesthesia -T
C. Big toe nail removal – Ring block
D. Total mastectomy – Spinal anaesthesia
E. Urinary catheterization – Topical anaesthesia
 Radiology Screening Test 2012
1. Regarding internal carotid artery

F A. Lies on the floor of middle ear

TTB. Enters the skull and divides in to anterior and middle cerebral arteries
TTC. Is medial to abducent nerve
D. Separated from external carotid artery by styloglossus tendon
FF E. Runs in a groove in greater wing of sphenoid bone

2. Phrenic nerve

A. Lies anterior to left superior intercostal vein

B. Supplies the right crus of diaphragm
C. Runs behind the hilum of the right lung
D. Runs anterior to terminal part of thoracic duct
E. Anterior to supra scapular artery

3. Regarding the oesophagus

F F A. Commenced at 4th cervical vertebral level C66th

T T B. Has the opening on diaphragm about 40cm from incisor teeth
F F C. Indented by right bronchus leftL broncus
T T D. Lies posterior to left atrium
F E. Thoracic duct runs interiorly -posteriorly

4. Femoral canal

A. Femoral artery is between the vein and the nerve

B. Superficial epigastric vein joins femoral vein
C. Superficial epigastric artery goes through the saphenous opening
D. Pectineus lies lateral to psoas tendon
E. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve lies within femoral sheath

5. True/False regarding the embryological origin

A. Lachrymal gland – Surface ectoderm

B. Anterior pituitary – Ectoderm
C. Non pigmented ciliary epithelium – Neuro ectoderm
D. Lower part of anal canal – Ectoderm
E. Lens – Mesoderm

6. Tetanus infection

A. Caused by gram negative spore forming rod

B. Produces a powerful endotoxin
C. Inhibits the inhibitory neurotransmitters
D. Typical facial spasms are called Risus sardonicus
E. Sensitive to penicillin
 7. Immunoglobulins

T A. IgG is the only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta

F B. IgA accounts for 75% of Ig s in serum
T C. IgA is secreted by B cells of lamina propria of GIT
D. IgD is mainly found on surface of lymphocytes
T
F E. IgG is produced by transformed T cells

8. Right shift of Oxygen dissociation curve occurs in

FA. Reduced temperature increase in temperature causes right shift

TB. Increased CO2 in blood
F C.Fetal haemoglobin left shift
TD. Increased 2,3 DPG in blood
TE. Increased H+ in blood

9. Gestational DM

A. Caused by increased insulin sensitivity

B. Seen more in singleton pregnancies more than twin pregnancies
C. Some patients managed effectively only by diet control
D. Patients have tendency to develop type II DM
E. Diagnosed by OGTT

10. Dizygotic twins

A. Increased incidence with induction of ovulation

F B. Associated with twin to twin transfusion
C. Commoner than monozygotic twins
D. Are of same sex
E. The pregnancy should be monitored with urinary oestradiol

11. Placenta Accreta is associated with

T A. Previous caesarean section

T B. Placenta previa
F C. Pre-eclampsia
D. Asherman's syndrome
E. Placental calcification

12. Metastatic calcification is seen in

T T A. Hyperparathyroidism
F F B. Tuberculosis
T T C. Sarcoidosis
F F D. Fat necrosis
F
F E. Atheroma
13. Follicle stimulation hormone

T T A. Is an anterior pituitary hormone

GnRH analogue supress LH
F B. Secreted by acidophilic cells FSH
F F C. High levels are seen in patients treated with GNRH analogues for endometriosis
F D. High levels are seen in patients with primary amenorrhea due to Kallmann syndrome
T E. Stimulate secretion of oestrogen by Graafian follicle
Granulosa cell stimulated to produce estrogen
14. MRI is contraindicated in

A. Titanium aneurismal clips

B. Tungsten alloy prosthesis
C. Pregnancy
D. DM
E. Cardiac pace makers

15. T/F regarding MRI

F A. White and grey matter better differentiated in CT than in MRI

T B. Contents of middle and posterior cranial fossa are seen better with MRI than CT
T C. Skull fractures are best assessed by CT
F D. CSF gives a high signal in T1 weighted MRI
F
TT E. White matter shows high signal than grey matter in T1 weighted MRI

16. Plain X ray and the condition are correctly paired

A. Frog lateral view of hip – Slopped upper femoral epiphysis

B. Lateral view of lumbar spine _ Spondylosis of L5
C. AP view neck – Retro pharyngeal abscess
D. AP view shoulder – Posterior dislocation of shoulder
E. AP view wrist – Assessment of bone age in a 1-14 year old boy

17. Pneumoperitoneum is simulated in a Chest X ray by

T A. Gas filled bowel between right dome of diaphragm and liver

T B. Sub phrenic fat
T C. Liver abscess
- -CXR- when associated with portal vein gas can mimic
- D. Pneumatosis intestinalis ligamentum teres sign
E. Paraseptal emphysematous bullae
Mainly affect upper zones
18. Opaque right hemi thorax is seen in

A. Lung agenesis
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Lymphangitis carcinomatosis
D. Pleural effusion
E. Pulmonary embolism
19. Extra dural haemorrhage in non contrast CT brain

A. Associated with an adjacent skull fracture

B. Bi concave
C. Non compression of adjacent brain parenchyma
D. Confined within suture lines
E. Is high density than brain parenchyma

20. Segmental anatomy of the lung

A. Left upper lobe has 3 segments

B. Broncho pulmonary segments are divided by pulmonary artery divisions
C. Superior segment of lower lobe reaches the hilum
D. Inferior lingual segment abuts cardiac apex
E. Right upper bronchus arise from bronchus intermedius

21. Miosis is caused by Caused by cholinergic drugs

A. Cocaine
B. Salbutamol
C. Scopolamine
D. Carbachol
E. Iso fluro phosphate

22. Cholinergic stimulation results in parasympathetic effects

TA. Ciliary muscle contraction near vision

TB. Detrusor muscle contraction

F C. Ejaculation sympathetic alpha mediated , erection PNS

T D. Gall bladder contraction

E. Reduction of inhibition of systemic arterial contractility arteries doesnot have PNS effects

23. Hallucination of touch is seen in

A. Cocaine psychosis
B. Schizophrenia
C. Obsessive neurosis
D. Conversion neurosis
E. Manic depressive psychosis

24. Marked pruritus is seen in following conditions

A. Seborrheic keratosis
B. Atopic eczema
C. Lichen planus
D. Cutaneous vasculitis
E. Dermatitis herpetiformis

25. Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

F A. Seen in babies of 9 months to 1 year 4 to 8 weeks usually. 1wk to 12wk age. rare after 3m
T B. Hypochloraemic alkalosis is seen hypochloraemic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
F C. Division of mucosa is done in Ramstedt's pyloromyotomy antro-pyloritic mass split, leave mucosa intact
F D. Bilious vomiting is seen non bilious, non bloody projectile vomiting
F E. Barium meal is the imagine investigation of choice
USS- high sensitivity, high specificity, 100% acuracy
 26. Kawasaki disease

A. Caused by a spirochete
B. Fever is a constant feature
C. Profound thrombocytopenia is seen
D. Conjunctivitis is a feature
E. Coronary aneurisms are associated

27. X linked inherited disorders

T A. Duchene muscular dystrophy

T B. Haemophilia A
F FC. Cystic fibrosis
D. Sickle cell disease
TE. Hunters syndrome

28. Cystic fibrosis is associated with

T TA. Co pulmonale
F T B. Hepatoma (hepatocellular
- though multinodular
CA) cirrhosis seen, HCC unusual
T CF loss of islet cell mass in pancreas, deficient insulin production+
TC. Insulin dependent DM
T D. Intussusception -Meconium ileus, malabsorption(bulky,smelly stool,increased stool frequency, steatorrhia), FTT,
T
T T E. Hypertrophic osteo arthropathy intussusception(ileocecal), rectal prolapse ,fat soluble vitamin deficiency

29. Renal tubular acidosis

A. Increased urinary acidity is seen

B. Occurs in Wilsons disease
C. Occurs in primary biliary cirrhosis
T D. Hyperkalaemia occurs
E. Seen in chronic pyelonephritis

30. Carcino embryonic antigen

F F A. A mucopolysaccharide Glycoprotein
CEA-1. monitor colorectal CA treatment
F F B. Diagnostic of colorectal carcinoma 2.identify recurrence 3. staging
Endoderm
F F C. Produced by normal fetal mesodermal cells - endodermal origin, foetal GI lining
T T D. Useful to identify recurrence of colorectal carcinoma
T T E. Increased in inflammatory bowel disease UC & CD

31. Increased alpha fetoprotein is seen in

Nephroblastoma aFP rarely high, then it helps in identifng
FA. Bladder carcinoma Prognosis and recurrance
F
F F B. Neuroblastoma VMA, NSE, ferritin, LDH
TC. Hepatocellular carcinoma
T
T TD. Acute hepatitis
T TE. Testicular teratoma
32. Which of the following pathologies paired with the correct term

F A. Increased tissue size by increasing number of cells – Hypertrophy hyperplasia

F

F B. Increased tissue size by increasing size of cells – Hyperplasia hypertrophy

TT C. Reduced size of a normal tissue – Atrophy
F D. Presence of normal tissue in abnormal site – Hamartoma normal cell, normal site >>>excess tumor like growth
F
FF E. Conversion of one abnormal tissue to another – Metaplasia
normal cell type converted to a mature another normal type that can with stand the particular stress well

33. Following infections are correctly paired with the organism

A. Lemierre's syndrome (Internal jugular vein thrombosis) – Fusobacterium necrophorum

B. Ludwig's angina – Alpha haemolytic streptococci
C. Epiglottitis – Haemophilus influezae type B
D. Pseudomembranous colitis – Clostridium butyricum
E. Fournier Gangrene – Epidermophyton fungi

34. Hypercalcaemia is seen in

T A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
T B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Acute pancreatitis
F D. Paget’s disease of bone
T E. Milk alkali syndrome

35. ADH
F F A. Secreted by anterior pituitary
T T B. A neurosecretory hormone
T T C. Elevate in early post-operative period

F D. Increased by reduced plasma osmolality

F T

T T E. Acts on collecting ducts by increasing permeability

36. Followings can be directly measured by spirometry

F A. Residual volume
T B. Tidal volume

F C. Vital capacity
T D. Expiratory reserve volume
TE. Inspiratory capacity

37. Typical features of Achalasia of the oesophagus

A. Recurrent pneumonia
B. Acid reflux
C. Symptomatic relief by pneumatic dilatation
D. Increased incidence of carcinoma
E. Spasm of lower oesophageal sphincter

38. Chronic peptic ulcers

A. Most effective antacid is sodium bi carbonate

B. Antacids containing aluminium causes diarrhoea
C. Antacids containing magnesium causes constipation
D. Bismuth is not used in maintenance therapy
E. Oesophagitis heals less readily than duodenitis after treatment
39. Obstructive jaundice

A. Serum unconjugated bilirubin level increased

B. Serum conjugated bilirubin level decreases
C. Conjugated bilirubin in urine increases
D. Urinary urobilinogen level increases
E. Faecal stercobilin increases

40. Chi squared test

A. Numbers should be converted to percentages before calculation

B. Is used to compare two populations
C. When value increases, the similarity of two populations become greater
D. Degree of freedom is calculated by (columns-1 X rows-1)
E. Used to compare one or more variables among individuals
 Radiology Screening Test 2013
1. Rotator cuff
F A. Supraspinatus tendon inserts inferiorly to the greater trochanter
T B. Teres major muscle Is a part of the rotator cuff
C. Subscapularis tendon runs anteriorly to the joint capsule
T D. There is a bursa between attachment of supraspinatus muscle and acromion
E. Infraspinatus muscle runs posterior to the joint capsule

2. Regarding the coronary arteries

T T A. Coronary sinus drains directly to the right atrium

L- atrioventricular groove
F B. Coronary sinus runs in the posterior interventricular groove
- C. Posterior interventricular artery is a branch of left coronary artery PDA -70% RCA
SA 60% ,AV 80%
T T D. SA node is mainly supplied by the right coronary artery 10% LCA
T T E. Right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus 20% both

3. Regarding pancreas
F F A. Portal vein is anterior to the pancreas
F F B. Splenic artery is anterior to the pancreas
T T C. Uncinate process is posterior to superior mesenteric artery
T D. Transverse mesocolon lies anterior to the pancreas
T
T T E. Tail of the pancreas goes to splenorenal ligament

4. Cavernous sinus
T A. Ophthalmic veins drain in to it
TF
F B. 3rd cranial nerve lies within the cavernous sinus
TT C. Carotid artery lies within it
FFD. Superior roof formed by diaphragmatic sellae
F FE. 6th cranial nerve lies in the lateral wall

5. Increased viscosity of blood seen in

A. High altitude
B. Chronic infections
C. Anaemia
D. Venous blood is less viscous than arterial blood
E. Proteins contributes to the viscosity

6. Airway resistance caused by

A. Glucocorticoids
B. Alpha agonists
C. Dopamine
D. Cholinergic drugs
E. Beta blockers

7. Growth hormone secretion stimulated by

T T A. Exercise
T T B. Sleep
T T C. Starvation

F TD. Free fatty acids

F F E. Hyperglycaemia
8. Hypoadrenalism
A. Cardiomegaly
B. Hypocalcaemia
C. Postural hypotension
D. Hypoglycaemia
E. Reduced Cortisol level at 9 am.

9. Central cyanosis is seen in

T A. COPD
Bright red/pink skin masked cyanosis
F B. Severeanaemia
F C. ASD
F D. Carboxyhaemoglobin
F E. Cyanide poisoning - not cyanotic, cherry red skin due to O2in
Blood, despite tissue hypoxia
10. Klinefelter syndrome
A. Due to non-disjunction in meiosis
B. Is an X linked recessive disorder
C. Cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
D. Cause delayed bone maturity
TE. Due to 47,XXY

11. Features of pseudobulbar palsy

A. Jaw jerk increased
B. Nasal voice
C. Tongue fasciculations
D. Aphasia
E. Mental lability

12. Tetanus
A. Increased reflexes
B. Opisthotonus
C. Altered consciousness
D. Kernig's sign
E. Localized pain and tingling at inoculation site

13. Renal vein thrombosis

- A. Marfan syndrome
T B. Homocysteinuria
T C. Renal amyloidosis
T D. Diabetic nephropathy
T E. Malignancy of the kidney

14. Thoracostomy tube (IC tube)

A. Intermittent clamping for good drainage
B. Enter through upper margin of rib
C. Post procedure X ray, when the last break of the tube is on the external radio
opaque line of the X ray indicates outside pleural cavity
D. Inserted via posterior axillary line
E. Finger exploration is contraindicated before tube insertion
15. Angiogenesis

F A. Acute inflammation
F B. Abscess cavity
C. Granulomatous inflammation
T D. Wound healing
T E. Neoplasm

16. Macroscopic features suggestive of malignancy

T T A. Necrosis
F B. Compression of the surrounding structures!
FC. Formed capsule
F
TD. Invasion of the surrounding structures
T
E. Large size
B or M - can be large or small
17. Organophosphate poisoning

T T A. Bradycardia
T B. Clouding of consciousness
T C. Type 2 respiratory failure
T TD. Fibrosis of the lung
T E. Muscle twitching

18. Hypochromic microcytic anaemia seen in

F FA. Pernicious anaemia - megaloblastic
F B. Aplastic anaemia - N/N
T TC. Hook worm infection IDA
F D. Hypersplenism
F E. Gastric carcinoma B12 pernicious anaemia

19. Surgical causes for vitamin B12 deficiency

T A. Blind loop syndrome
T B. Antral gastric carcinoma
T C. Gastrectomy
T D. Ileal resection
E. Crohn disease -can cause,, but surgical***

20. Barium meal and follow through is indicated in

A. Ileal perforation
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Ileo-colic intussusception
E. Crohn disease

21. Neonatal hypoglycaemia seen in

A. ABO incompatibility
T B. Maternal glucose infusion during labour
T C. Neonates with microphallus Hypogonadism?
D. Term infant with birth weight of 2.8kg
T E. Polycythaemia Hyperviscosity
22. BCG vaccination contraindicated in
A. Symptomatic HIV infected patients
B. PasthistoryofTB
C. Previous BCG vaccination
D. Neonatal antibiotics
E. Inhalation of steroids

23. Doppler ultrasound is more valuable in

F A. Avascular necrosis of the hip
T B. Fetal anaemia
T C. Subclavian Steal syndrome
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
E. Brain death

24. CT more valuable than MRI in imaging

F A. Avascular necrosis of the hip
B. Comminuted fracture of the ankle
C. Temporal lobe epilepsy
F
T D. Lungtumor assessment
F E. Axonal migrating disease of brain

25. Brain tumours in childhood

F A.F 60% is supratentorial
F B. Majority is astrocytoma
T C. Brain stem gliomas do not cause significant increase in intracranial pressure
T D. Craniopharyngioma causes growth failure
E. In brainstem tumours common with CN4 squint commonly

26. Regarding ovarian carcinoma

T
A. Increased risk in BRCA 1 positive
B. MRI used in risk assessment index in ovarian cysts
T C. Majority are due to epithelia tumours
F F D. CA 125 is the main tumour marker in ovarian dysgerminoma LDH, LDH
beta hCG, AFP, inhibin A,B
F E. Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in epithelial tumours CA 125 is for epithelial tumors
dysgerminoma is undifferentiated germ cell tumor

27. Non germinal testicular tumours

- A. Testicular gonadoblastoma - has germ cell + sex cord elemnts
T B. Sertoli cell tumour
T
T T C. Leydig cell tumour
F F D. Choriocarcinoma Germinal non seminomatous
F F E. Teratomas germinal nonseminomatous

28. Inoperable pancreatic CA Is indicated in

A. Involvement of the 2nd part of the duodenum
B. Infiltration around the superior mesenteric artery
C. Involvement of the portal vein
D. Malignant ascites
E. Malignant peritoneal deposits
29. Regarding subfertility
A. Kallmann syndrome cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with anosmia
B. Medical treatment Is very effective in male infertility
C. 50% success rate In assisted fertility
D. PCOD is the main cause for anovulatory infertility
E. HSG and laparoscopy have complementary effects in diagnosis

30. Dating of pregnancy

F A. Regular cycle LRMP is equally effective as 1 st trimester USS

T B. T1 USS is better than T2 USS
F C. In T2 BPD is better than head circumference after 14 weeks
D. 60% reduction of post dates by T1 USS
T E. CRL can be measured up to 14 weeks
9+0 to 13+6weeks

31. Endometriosis
T A. Retrograde menstruation is a causative factor
F B. USS is veryspecific indiagnosis
F C. Commonly presents with primary dysmenorrhea
FD. Menorrhagia is a common symptom
FE. Can be effectively treated with medical treatment

32. In radiology department to protect exposure to patients

A. X ray fitters
B. X ray coli meters
C. Goggles (lead)
D. Thyroid shields
E. Gonadal shields

33. Modern MRI technology

A. Permanent magnet
B. 6 Tesla magnitude
C. Cryo liquid
D. Radio frequency coils
E. Surface coils

34. Statistics
A. Standard deviation is spreading below and above mean
T
F B. SD is the square value of variance SD = square root of varince
T C. Range is the difference between highest and the lowest value
F TD. About 68% of the population lies within 1 SD Within 1 SD 68% of data FROM THE SAMPLE
F TE. 99% of population lies within 3SD. 2 SD = 95%
3SD = 99%
35. In chest X ray findings are significant if present alone without following conditions
A. Deep costo-phrenic angle in supine X ray
F B. Cardiothoracic ration of >0.5 in supine X ray
C. Apical pleural cap
D. U/L dense hilum
E. Prominent pulmonary artery in young female
36. Parathyroid hormone
T T A. Is a polypeptide hormone
B. Transported in blood bound to albumin
F F C. Decreases gut absorption of calcium
F D. Increases urinary calcium excretion
F
T TE. Reduced phosphate re absorption

37. Haemorrhagic pleural effusion is seen in

A. Pneumococcal pneumonia
B. Amoebic liver abscess
T C. Pulmonary embolism
T D. Lung carcinoma
E. Mesothelioma

38. Breast mammography is superior to breast ultrasound in diagnosis of

A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Microcalcifications
F
C. Lesions in more glandular breast tissue
D. Breastabscess
E. Lesions in the lactating breast

39. Dengue haemorrhagic fever

A. Tourniquet test is used to distinguish from dengue fever
B. Left sided pleural effusions are seen
C. In convalescent period bradycardia and arrhythmia are seen
D. Thrombocytopenia and haemoconcentration is a constant feature
E. Encephalitis is a common complication

40. Irreversible process seen in

T A. Apoptosis
T
T B. Necrosis
T
FC. Metaplasia
F
FD. Hyperplasia
F
F E. Fatty infiltration
 Radiology Screening Test 2014

1. Gentamycin
a) Poorly soluble in lipids
T
T b) Excrete exclusively via kidneys
T c) Block Acetylcholine release at the NMJ /stabilizes post synaptic membrane
F d) Reduced Ach action on preganglionic receptor / act on presynaptic membrane
F e) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of bacteria

2. T/F regarding lateral ventricles

a) Anterior horn of the lateral ventricle is anteriorly covered by the posterior aspect of genu of corpus
callosum
b) Posterior horns of the ventricles are often asymmetrical
c) Thalamostriate vein/arteries is found in the thalamostriate groove
d) Fornix is related medially below corpus callosum
e) The spinothalamic tract……….
f) Fornix of callosum is medially related

3. Upper limb
a) Median nerve lies lateral to brachial artery at distal arm
b) Radial arteries under cover of the extensor carpi radialis
c) Ulnar artery runs deep to pronator teres
d) Brachioradialis separate brachial artery from elbow joint
e) Extensor pollicis longus marks the lateral border of the anatomical snuff box.
f) In forearm, radial artery passes up to flexor carpi ulnaris
g) Radial artery lies deep to FRL in the proximal forearm

4. Regarding development of respiratory system

a) Trachea/oesophagus develops from a bud arising from stomoderm
b) Tracheoesophageal fistula is associated with atresia of the oesophagus
c) Pulmonary agenesis is caused by a disorder in lung bud.
d) Pulmonary hypoplasia can be associated with sliding diaphragmatic hernia
e) Endodermal in origin

5. Regarding branchial arch arteries

F a) First artery supplies the muscle of mastication
F b) Second artery develops in into the facial artery
T c) Fourth left artery is the definitive aortic arch
F d) Fifth artery develops into the descending proximal aorta
T e) Subclavian artery runs anterior to the oesophagus
6. Following are increased in inflammation
T T a) Platelet
T Tb) Ferritin
T Tc) Ceruloplasmin
T Td) Fibrinogen
T Te) CRP
T Tf) Complements
 7. Statistics
a) Analytic studies and inferential studies are the same
b) Descriptive studies can be used to derive mode, mean and median
c) Skewed distribution leads to no further analytical studies
d) The mode lies exactly between each end of array of value ranked in order
e) Null hypothesis explains that there’s a right relationship between two observed values

8. Preparation for ultrasound

F a) Investigation of endometrium by TVS – full bladder
F b) Investigation of prostate – full bladder
T c) Investigation of gallbladder – six hours fasting
F d) CT brain in RTA – Fasting
T
e) X-ray KUB – laxatives

9. 50 years old male with obstructive jaundice is to undergo laparotomy for definitive surgery, preparation of
this patient
a) Correction of HB
b) Chest physiotherapy
c) IV mannitol twice daily for 1week prior to the surgery
d) IV vancomycin daily for 1/52 prior to the surgery
e) Hydration with IV fluid over night to maintain a good UOP

10. Most suitable imagine modality

T a) IVU - VUJ obstruction
F b) DTPA - Renal scar
F c) BA meal and follow through - Crohn’s disease
FF d) MCUG - PUJ obstruction
F e) Skull x-ray - Seizures
11. Vitamin B12
T a) Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein
T b) Hyper segmented neutrophils are found in the blood film in vitamin B12 deficiency
F c) Readily absorbed in jejunum
T d) Essential for metabolism of folic acids in human.
T e) Deficiency causes blindness
T f) Is transported in plasma bound to protein
12. Diagnosed by USS-chest
a) Interstitial lung disease / lung fibrosis
b) Bronchiectasis
c) Thickening of the pleural base / pleural base masses
T d) Pleural effusion
T e) Diaphragmatic paralysis - IOC is a dynamic test like uss or fluoroscopy, to see the
Paradoxical movement of diaphgram
13. Poisoning in children
T a) Chronic lead poisoning lead to constipation
T b) Nomogram is used in the treatment of PCM poisoning
c) Activated charcoal is effective in iron poisoning
T d) Aspirin poisoning leads to respiratory alkalosis / NSAIDS – Metabolic alkalosis
e) Kerosene oil poisoning leads to chemical pneumonitis
14. Vaccine
a) HiB is a subunit
b) Rota is a live vaccine
c) HPV is a recombinant vaccine
d) JE vaccine by government sector is a live one
e) Rabies is a subunit

15. Nerve conduction

a) K efflux is responsible for maintenance of resting membrane potential
b) Opening of ligand gated Na channels causes spike of action potential
c) Opening of long acting Ca channels causes depolarization
d) Increased extracellular K, Increase the threshold for generation of an action potential

16. Congenital anomalies and the causes

T a) Rubella – PDA
T b) Down’s syndrome – septum primum ASD
T c) Marfan syndrome – MR
F d) Turner’s syndrome – PS coarctation of aorta, hypoplastic left heart. bicuspid AV, aortic dissection
e) Lupus antibodies in the mother – Complete heart block - anti SSA& anti SSB
T
17. Regarding carcinoma of cervix
a) Commonest carcinoma among female
b) Spread early to the liver
c) PAP is done annually
d) HSV associated
e) Cryo embolization is a treatment method for carcinoma in situ

18. Dandy-walker syndrome

T a) Agenesis of corpus callosum
T b) dysplasia of cingulate gyrus
T
c) Lipoma of corpus callosum
d) Associated with tuberous sclerosis
e) Associated with fibrous dysplasia
f) Associated with osteogenesis imperfecta

19. Focal nodule hyperplasia of the liver

T a) Benign condition of the liver
F b) OCP is a risk factor
F c) Male and female are equally affected
F d) Has a malignant potential
T
e) Associated with meningioma

20. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is associated with

T a) IBD Autoimmune pancreatitis have biliary
F b) Pancreatitis strictures that mimics PSC
T c) Retro-orbital pseudo tumor & Rh arthritis
T d) Retroperitoneal fibrosis / mediastinal fibrosis
T e) Riedel Thyroiditis
f) Fatty liver

21. Dengue fever

a) Increased plasma leakage invariably seen in hemorrhagic fever
b) Narrowing of the pulse pressure is the earliest sign of a shock
 c) Serum albumin reduced in DF
d) Increased neutrophil count is seen in bleeding

22. Fluid replacement

a) Maintenance dose of a fluid for healthy adult is 1-1.5mL/kg/hr
b) Maintenance dose of a moderate dehydration is 60mL/kg/hr
c) Blood loss should be replaced by an equal volume of crystalloid solution
d) Replacement of 3rd space loses during surgery depend on the duration of surgery
e) NG aspirate replaced by 5% dextrose

23. Blood and blood products

a) ABO inherited – autosomal dominant
b) Stored blood contains increased dextrose, citrate and phosphate/uric acid
c) Acidosis and hyperkalemia increases with time in stored blood
d) O+ is the universal donor
e) Whole blood contains all the clotting factors

24. Anaphylaxis
a) Complement mediated
b) Biphasic reaction is known to occur
c) IV. hydrocortisone is the drug of choice in shock
d) Stridor indicates severe reaction
e) Intra alveolar hemorrhage is a pathological feature

25. Hepatic encephalopathy is aggravated by

T a) Constipation
F b) Lactulose
T c) Benzodiazepine / sedatives
T d) GI blood loss
T e) Diuretics

26. Histological features of sarcoidosis

F a) Epithelial cell infiltration
T b) Langhans giant cells infiltration
F c) Round cell infiltration
F d) Caseation
T e) Schaumann bodies

27. GCS
F Fa) Maximum score is 13
F Fb) Will be 0 in brain dead patient
FF c) Single measurement is the most important than serial measurement
FFd) Only used in patients with head injuries
T Fe) A GCS of lesser value indicates poor prognosis
28. Causes of ptosis
F a) Parasympathetic damage
F b) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
F Fc) Facial nerve palsy
d) Dystrophia myotonica
T Te) Myasthenia gravis
 29. Left lenticular blood supply
a) Increased in isometric contraction
b) Increased during exercise
c) Increased with adenosine
d) Sub endocardial portion of left ventricle receives directly from ventricular cavity
e) Markedly reduced in strenuous exercises

30. Investigation in acute abdomen

F a) Erect abdominal X-ray
F b) Supine CXR
F c) MRI
T d) USS-abdomen
e) Right lateral decubitus X-ray

31. Gaytan gravity

a) The line of gravity lies just behind the hip joint
b) Centre of gravity is just anterior to L2 level
c) Stance phase comprise 60% of gait cycle
d) There is no stance phase during running
e) Gait cycle is two consecutive steps in walking

32. HLA antigen

a) Is used by the MHC
b) Found only in leucocytes
c) Appears two in each leucocytes
d) Associated with transplant reactions
e) Is a glycoprotein

33. Significant symptom in 3 days old neonate which should be investigated further
a) Jaundice extending beyond 3weeks/below umbilicus
b) Sleeping more than 15-16hours/day
c) Bilateral hydrocele
d) Milia on the face
e) No UOP for 24hrs

34. USS in obstetrics

T a) Nuchal translucency – Down’s syndrome
F b) Increased alpha fetoprotein – diagnostic of neural tube defects
T c) CVS safely done before 13 weeks - 10-12 wk
F d) Amniocentesis is safer than CVS before 13 weeks Am-15- 20wk
T e) Cordocentesis at or after 20weeks
f) Cleft lip is usually diagnosed at 20 weeks

35. Splenic injury

a) Pain can be felt at the tip of the left shoulder
b) Rupture of the spleen can occur in a subscapular haematoma even after one month.
c) Trivial trauma can lead to rupture of the spleen in a patient with malaria
d) Grade II spleen injury is managed conservatively
e) Splenic injuries are recognized complication of colonoscopy
 36. Trigeminal nerve
F a) Meckel’s cave contains CSF

F b) Geniculate ganglion belongs to trigeminal nerve

F

T Tc) Maxillary part goes into pterygopalatine fossa

F Fd) Ophthalmic nerve enters the foramen ovale
F F e) Mandibular part travels through cavernous sinus

37. Brain and its higher function

a) Emotion – hippocampus
b) Planning – frontal lobe
c) Memory – temporal lobe
d) Sensory - parietal
e) Muscle tone – Basal ganglia

38. Fractures in children

a) Green stick fractures are unique to children
b) Doesn’t occurs through cartilage growth plate in growing bone
c) Osteogenesis imperfecta can mimic non accidental injury
d) Upper cervical fractures are commoner than lower cervical fractures
e) CT is not indicated if normal cervical spine is seen in cervical spine X-ray

39. Transient synovitis

a) More common in boys
b) Seen following allergic reactions
c) Rx with antibiotics
d) Joint effusion carries a poor prognosis

40. Physiological changes in pregnancy

T a) Increased in cardiac output 40%
F b) Increased in blood volume 70%
F c) Increased in peripheral vascular resistance
T d) Increased in WBC count
T e) Decrease in Hb
 Radiology Screening Test - 2015

1. Regarding sinuses
F a. Ethmoidal air sinus is not present at birth
Tb. Sphenoidal sinus is drained via Sphenoethmoidal recess
F c. Nasolacrimal duct drains in to the inferior conchae inferior meatus
Fd. Maxillary sinus drains in to the anterior aspect of hiatus semilunaris posterior
Fe. Frontal sinus drains in to superior conchae middle meatus

2. Regarding right Vagus in the thorax

T a. Descends lateral to the trachea
F b. Gives recurrent laryngeal nerve in the level of the arch of the aorta
T c. Gives branch to the pulmonary plexus
T d. Descends medial to the arch of Azygos vein
F e. Passes anterior to the R main bronchus

3. Regarding the lung and pleura

a. Two pleurae meet each other at the angle of louis
Tb. L/oblique fissure is lined with the medial border of the scapula when the arm is fully abducted
F c. Right lung crosses the 8th rib at midclavicular level 6th
th
T d. Right pleura crosses the mid axillary level at 10 rib level ? which pleura???? visceral pleura 8th, parietal pleura 10th
th
F e. Left lung lower level is at the 12 rib level posteriorly 10th mid axillary line

4. Duodenum
T a. 1st part invest on a mesentery on both sides
F F b. 3rd part lies on the T3 level L3L3
F F c. Gastroduodenal artery passes anterior to the 1st part of the duodenum posterior
T T d. Common bile duct passes posteriorly to 1st part
F e. Inferior mesenteric vein joins the splenic vein just right to the duodeno-jejunal junction
usually posterior(behind body of pancreas), can be lateral to DJ flexure
5. Correctly match with nerve lesions
T a. Long thoracic nerve - winging of the scapula
F b. Median nerve lesion - hypothenar wasting
T Tc. Ulnar nerve - sensory loss at little finger
F Fd. Waiters tip - lower brachial plexus injury
F e. Elbow flexed - Upper brachial plexus injury Erbs palsy- upper brachial plexes injury
F Elbow extended

6. Adrenaline differs from noradrenaline from, adrenaline having

F a. VMA excrete as metabolite in the urine both NA, AD metabolized in to VMA
b. Levels rarely exceed to cause cardio vascular problems
c. Predominantly acts on beta receptors
F d. Does not acts on the alfa receptors
e. Causes vasodilatation in the skeletal muscle

7. In early LV dysfunction following are reduced

F a. End diastolic volume
b. Stroke volume/ CO
c. Ejection fraction
d. Contractility
e. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
 8. Regarding dermatomyositis occurs in any age, bimodal age peaks - children 5-10 y, adult 50 y
F a. Mainly presents in the adults
b. Rectus femoris involved in the acute stage
c. Fibrosis and fat infiltration seen in the muscle biopsy

9. Regarding the management of Asthma

T a. 100% oxygen can be safely given in the management of severe asthma
b. If tachycardia is present, ipratropium is preferred to beta agonist as bronchodilators
F c. Long acting beta agonist are not used
T d. Carbon dioxide retention indicate the intubation and ventilation

10. Alpha-Fetoprotein is increased in

F F a. Downs syndrome
lower than normal AFP
b. Klinefelter syndrome
T T c. Gastroschisis
T T d. Spina bifida
F e. Maternal DM - this has a decreasing effect on MS AFP, should be
corrected during screening
11. In placental abruption
F a. Blood loss from fetus
T b. In 20% blood loss, cannot be seen externally
T Tc. Hypovolemic shock is a presentation
T Td. Pre-eclampsia is a precipitatory cause

12. Treatments for UV prolapse

T a. Abdominal hysterectomy
F b. Burch Colposuspension - for stress incontinance
F c. Kelly repair Cystocele
T d. Manchester repair
T T e. Pelvic floor exercises
13. Fibroid uterus
Ta. Menorrhagia is a presentation
b. Large fibroid uterus needs serial measurement with USS
c. GnRH analogue causes temporally increase in fibroid in size
d. Menorrhagia is treated with tranexamic acid
Te. HRT leads to increase in its size, after menopause

14. In twin to twin transfusion syndrome, recipient twin is having the following
T T a. Polyhydramnios
F F b. Oligohydramnios Donor T
T Tc. Hydrops fetalis
F Fd. Anaemia
Te. Polycythaemia in TTTS, twin anaemia polycythemia sequence is a variant. there no polyhydroamnions or oligohydroamni
ons ,due to uni directional slow transfusion of blood from o
ne T to other T causing ,anaemia and polycythemia
15. Regarding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
T Ta. It is immune complex mediated disease IgA
F F b. It is due to medium to small artery vasculitis Small vessels
T Tc. Vasculitis rash present with sacral and lower limb area
F d. Majority proceed to end stage renal failure
F
majority resolve, 1-2% ESRD
 16. Mesial temporal sclerosis
T a. Hippocampus neural loss is seen
- b. A cause for febrile convulsion
- controvertial
T c. In adults cause for partial complex seizure
F d. Focal cortical dysplasia is an association -atropy
F e. Surgical excision of a lesion leads to improvement in 15% of patients - 75% to 90%

17. Crouzon syndrome

F F a. Autosomal recessive disorder ADAD with complete penetrance,and variable expressivity....25% case (-)ve FX,freash
FF b. Associated with maxillary hyperplasia
mutation Maxillary
maxillary hypoplasia
hypoplasia can lead to upper airway obstruction and nasal septal deviatio
T T c. Craniosynostosis n
T T d. Cleft palate
F F e. Spina bifida bifid uvula
18. Angiomyolipoma
F F a. 80% associated with tuberous sclerosis 20% associated with TS, 80% sporadic 80% cases of TS has AML
F F b. Type of haemangioma
T T c. CT appearance is diagnostic
* >4cm, symptomatic lesions- elective embolization,& or part
T d. Renal capsular involvement is seen - 88% extending through
ial renal capsule
nephrectomy
T FT e. If a lesion more than 4 cm surgical resection is indicated *retroperitoneal hemorrhage- emergency embolization as life
saving procedure
*< 2cm no need of follow-up as slow growth
19. Following causes watery diarrhoea * mTOR inhibitors - decrease size of AML
F a. Campylobacter jejuni
T b. Bacillus cereus
F c. Salmonella typhi
T d. Vibrio cholera
T
e. Staphylococcus aureus

20. Following causes the bilious vomiting

T a. Mid gut volvulus/ malrotation
T F b. Pyloric stenosis non bilious
F
T TF c. Duodenal atresia can be bilious or non bilious depending on involved part
F F d. Oesophageal atresia

21. Following X-ray feature are seen in a patient with congenital cyanotic heart disease in Day 2 old baby
a. Egg on side appearance
b. Normal chest x-ray
c. Boot shaped heart
d. Notching of the rib
e. Circular shadows show extension above the diaphragmic shadow

22. Management of patient with lower limb varicose ulcer, who has had deep vein thrombosis 5 yrs ago with the
pregnancy
a. Doppler venous scan of leg
b. Strict bed rest
c. Sclerotherapy and wound care
d. Immediate stab avulsion and wound care
e. Intravenous heparin
23. Regarding breast carcinoma
a. Prognosis is better in modified radical mastectomy than breast conservative surgery combined with
radiotherapy
b. Mammography detects the associated microcalcifications
c. Radioisotope scan is negative, rule out all the micrometastasis
d. Locally advanced disease is managed with neo adjuvant chemotherapy

24. Nutrition in surgical patient

a. Basal metabolic energy consumption is 25 Kcal/day
b. Enteral feed is contraindicated in the patient awaiting oesophageal carcinoma
c. Fat gives 90% of energy supply in the enteral feeding
d. Jejunostomy feeding is best given as an infusion
e. 5% dextrose is used as energy, in a parental feeding

25. Following cause fecal incontinence

a. Dementia
b. 3rd degree perineal tear
c. Profuse watery diarrhea
d. Spastic paraplegia

26. Regarding skeletal metastasis

a. Early skeletal metastasis is the natural sequelae of breast carcinoma
b. Renal malignancy is the most common malignancy giving skeletal metastasis
c. Periosteal reaction is prominent in skeletal mets than in primary reaction
d. Tc99 bone scan is the most cost effective method to identify all the skeletal mets
e. Axial skeleton is affected more than the appendicular skeleton

27. Bone tumours

a. CT scan is the best modality in identifying bone marrow oedema
b. Onion skin appearance is seen in osteosarcoma

28. Pneumonia
a. Air bronchogram is seen in Chest X-ray T
b. Silhouette sign localizes the affected lobe T

29. In Paediatrics
a. USS diagnosing of meningitis is more reliable than clinical diagnosis in infancy
b. Subdural empyema is seen with USS
c. CT brain is a definitive feature of evaluation of the meningitis
d. MRI brain demonstrate the early infarcted area

30. Paediatric diagnosis

a. Trapezoid is seen in X-ray
b. Isotope milk scan has low radiation exposure than Contrast medium study
F c. After the USS finding of pyloric stenosis it should be confirmed by upper GI contrast studywhen USS is not diagnostic
UGI
d. Barium meal and follow-through is better than barium enema to visualized small intestineC, not for confirmation
e. Peritonitis is contraindicated for contrast reduction of volvulus
31. Regarding radiological diagnosis
T a. Pleural effusion is early detected by USS than Chest x-ray T
b. MRI arteriogram uses radiocontrast medium T
c. MRI is contraindicated in 2nd trimester of the pregnancy
d. Squamous part of the temporal bone is used in USS brain

32. Radiological nephrology

a. DMSA detects the functioning ectopic kidney
b. USS is better in demonstrating reflux disease than traditional MUCG
F c. CT IVU has low radio exposure than the x-ray IVU
F d. USS guided prostate biopsy is taken from the central zone in the suspected case of prostate cancer
PZ
33. Hepatobiliary system
a. Hepatoma gets blood supply from the portal vein
b. INR > 1.5 is contraindicated in trans jugular liver
c. Biopsy
d. HIDA scan shows enteric excretion of contrast within 24 hrs in the 1ry biliary atresia
e. Transhepatic cholangio-prancreatography is used to demonstrate intrahepatic bile duct stenosis

34. Radiological procedures

a. Digital subtraction angiography uses road map, before extracting the clot
b. CT colonography guided biopsy is used to take biopsy from colonic polyp
c. USS guided steroid injections given to the facet joints of the vertebral column effectively in thin patient

35. Regarding statistical confidence interval

a. Is used to measure statistical difference between two sample
b. If the sample size is small interval is high
c. 95% confidence interval, 95% of sample lie in that range
d. It gives 95% chance that the mean lies in that range
 Radiology Screening Test 2016

1) Regarding eye & orbit

FF a) Superior orbital fissure is margined by zygomatic bone & ethmoid bone
TT b) Frontal bone forms a part of medial wall of orbit
T c) Macula is situated medial to optic disc

F d) Afferent of corneal reflex is passed in optic nerve

TT e) Central retinal artery is an end artery

2) Ventricular myocardial blood supply is increased by

a) Adenosine
b) Isotonic exercise
c) Increased heart rate
d) Hypoxic damage to myocardium
e) Systole

3) Regarding lower limb

a) Femoral pulse is felt in the middle of the inguinal ligament
b) Femoral artery is accompanied by saphenous nerve in the initial part of adductor canal
c) Femora vein lies medial to femoral artery in femoral triangle
d) Inferior epigastric vein demarcates the medial border of distal inguinal ring
e) External pudendal artery supplies the scrotum

4) Regarding parotid gland

a) Duct opens opposite to the 3rd upper molar tooth
b) Secretions are mucoid F
c) Most of the tumours are pleomorphic adenomas
d) Facial nerve damage is a known complication of superficial parotidectomy
e) Viruses causes parotitis

5) Regarding renal system

T a) L kidney is situated anterior to the L iliohypogastric nerve
T b) L ureter is situated anterior to the bifurcation of L common iliac artery
F c) Ureters are covered with peritoneum throughout its abdominal course - Retroperitoneal
d) PUJ is the narrowest part
F e) Posterior urethral valve is located distal to prostatic urethra
Verumontanum site- in prosthatic urethra
6) Regarding breast
T a) Situated between 2nd & 6th ribs
T b) LN are grouped according to the relation of pect minor
F c) Majority of lymph is drained by internal mammary vein
d) xxxxxxx
F e) Part of breast is covered by chest wall fascia

7) Features of fat embolism

a) Confusion
T b) Petechial rash
T c) Bradycardia
F d) Hemoptysis
F e) Fever
T
8) Regarding PUJ obstruction
F a) Results in hydro ureter
F

T b) Complicated by pyonephrosis T
T c) Predispose to renal calculi
F d) Hydronephrosis is corrected immediately following pyeloplasty F
e) Vvv

9) Characteristic features of DIC

F a) Leukocytosis
b) Fragmented blood in peripheral blood - T - hemolysis of passing RBC due to fibrin filled
small vessels, SCHISTOCYTES
T c) Thrombocytopenia
T d) Prolonged prothrombin time
F e) Normal D Dimer - usualy increased, but normal d dimer does not exclude dic

10) Complications of skin wound

T a) Keloid
F b) Scar
T c) Wound dehiscence
T d) Contractures
F e) Epithelial regeneration
11) Following contribute to arterial thrombus formation
a) Turbulent flow
b) Vasodilatation
c) Endothelial damage
d) Hypercoagulability
e) Vasculitis

12) Regarding dengue

a) Belongs to flaviviridae
b) Incubation period is 3 to 10 days
c) Second infection results in milder forms
d) There are several serotypes
e) In endemic areas of the world vaccines are given for prevention

13) Bacterial meningitis

T a) Strep pneumoniae is a common organism
T b) HiB is given as prophylaxis
T c) CSF analysis is diagnostic
F d) Treatment should delay until organism is identified
F e) Dexamethasone is contraindicated
14) Regarding nutritional rickets in a 18 month baby, following can be seen
a) Short stature
b) Normal PTH level
c) Hyperphosphatemia
d) Developmental delay
e) Polyuria
15) Complications of dichorionic twins
F a) Conjoined twin
b) Cord accidents
T c) IUGR
F d) Twin to twin transfusion
T e) Preterm labour
16) Following features are present in type 2 respiratory failure but not in type 1
F a) Central cyanosis
T b) Respiratory acidosis
F c) PaO2 < 60 mmHg
F d) Tachypnea
e) V/Q mismatch
F
17) Cirrhosis of liver
a) Increased jaundice results in progressive deterioration of cirrhosis
b) Hepatic encephalopathy results in hypokalemia
c) Can give rise to hepatoma
d) Results in peripheral vasodilatation

18) Post primary TB

a) Occurs due to reinfection
b) Occurs due to reactivation of dormant focus
c) Can results in miliary TB
d) Can results in cavitation
e) Results in Ghon focus

19) Regarding ASD

T a) Osteum secondum is the commonest
b) Majority present as heart failure
T c) Moderate size defects close spontaneously
T d) Device closure is recommended if symptomatic
e) XXXX syndrome is a known association

20) Regarding diaphragmatic hernia in new born

F a) Commonest in Right side
F

T Fb) Results in contralateral lung hypoplasia

F Fc) Should be corrected immediately
T Td) Scaphoid abdomen is seen
F Fe) Ambu bag ventilation is recommended

21) Regarding neonatal hypothyroidism

a) Commonest cause is thyroid dysgenesis
b) Tx should be started ideally within one month
c) Screening for TSH is done for neonates
d) Overtreatment will result in Craniosynostosis

22) Regarding ovarian tumours

a) Dermoid tumours contain endodermal particles
b) Meigs Xn is associated with fibroma of ovary
c) Serous Ca is the largest
d) Tumours with B/L solid & cystic areas are likely to be mucinous CA
 23) Regarding menopause
a) More than 12 months of amenorrhea in premenopausal women
b) Non-traumatic vertebral fractures are seen
c) Mammography should be done before starting HRT

24) CT is the investigation of choice in following

a) Cerebral infarction
T b) Acute SAH
F c) Pituitary tumours
T d) EDH
F e) Diffuse axonal injury of brain

25) Gadolinium enhanced contrast MRI is contraindicated in

a) Pregnancy
b) Children
c) Lactation
d) Food allergy
e) Renal impairment

26) WTF regarding following pairs

a) Hepatic carcinoma – contrast enhanced USS
b) Fetal anomaly at 20 weeks of POA – TVS
c) Follicular xxxxx – abdominal USS
d) Local staging of rectal CA – Rectal USS
e) Descending thoracic aortic aneurysm – trans esophageal USS

27) In a 30 years old male with BA, following preparations should be done before IVU
F a) Omitting bronchodilators 48 hrs before procedure
T b) Short course of prednisolone
F c) Routine bowel preparations starting 72 hrs before
F d) Omit oral fluids 24hrs before
F e) Prepare as full bladder
28) USS
F a) Uses sound waves in audible range
F b) Causes ionization
T c) Operator dependent
F d) Harmful to the feus in early POA

29) Regarding mammography

TT a) Uses X rays
b) Contraindicated in lactation
T c) Can detect micro calcifications
F
F d) Done in 6 monthly for population screening
e) Not done for evaluation of male breast lesions

30) Regarding sampling

F a) Framing is not needed for randomized sampling
b) Stratified sampling includes subpopulations of rare conditions
c) Several sampling methods can be used in multistage sampling
T d) Systematic sampling is a probability sampling method
31) Familial adenomatous polyposis
F a) X linked dominant
T b) Polyps occurs in adolescence
T c) Results in colorectal CA

F d) APR is the treatment of choice - total colectomy + ileoanal anastomosis

T e) Can be associated with abdominal wall desmoid tumors APR done for rectal CA
32) Complications of DM in pregnancy
TT a) Polyhydramnios
TT b) Fetal macrosomia
T T c) Neonatal hypoglycemia
TT
T d) Placentomegally
T e) IUGR

33) Following are suggestive of non-accidental injury

a) Posterior rib fracture
b) Scapula fracture
c) Clavicle fracture
d) Multiple fractures of varying degree of healing
e) Reduced bone density

34) Posterior hip dislocation

T a) Results in acetabular rim fracture
T b) Commonest form of hip dislocation
F c) Lowe limb abducted & externally rotated
d) Foot drop is an early complication
T e) Should be corrected immediately

35) Regarding sodium reabsorption

T a) Occurs in PCT via Na/H exchanger
F b) Descending loop via aquaporin 1 channels
F c) Ascending limb via epithelial Na channels
T d) DCT via Na/Cl transporter
F
e) Collecting duct via Na/H/Cl transporters

36) Poor prognostic features of ALL in a child

F a) Age of onset 1 – 10 years
T b) Presence of Philadelphia chromosome
T c) WBC count >50 000
T d) Testicular involvement in a boy
F
e) Hyperdiploidy

37) In RA
a) Pain worsens with rest
b) Flitting type joint involvement
c) Majority are Rh factor positive
d) Results in scleromalacia
e) In presence of sicca Xn alternative diagnosis is suggestive
38) Compartment Syndrome
a) Can be excluded if dorsalis pedis pulse is present
b) Tight plaster cast is a cause
c) 4 compartment fasciotomy is the Tx option
d) More common in distal tibial fractures than proximal
e) Cause calf pain on dorsiflexion of foot

39) Placenta previa

a) If presents at 20wks unlikely to get corrected
F
b) If reaches the external os caesarian section should be the mode of delivery
T c) TVS is the best imaging modality
TT d) Can results in IUGR

40) Duodenal ulcers

a) Nocturnal pain is a feature
b) Mostly occur in 2nd part of duodenum
c) Mostly ulcerate the posterior wall
d) Triple therapy is indicated
e) Aspirin is a cause
 Radiology Screening Test - 2017

1) Great saphenous vein

a) Drains the superficial plantar arch in front of the lateral malleolus
b) Has connections with anterior tibial vein
c) Accompanied by sural nerve
d) Pierces cribriform fascia
e) Drains to the femoral vein inferomedial to the pubic tubercle

2) Hip joint
T a) Transverse acetabular ligament bridges the acetabular notch
F b) Ischiofemoral ligament attaches to anterior inferior iliac spine proximally
T c) Joint capsule attached to the intertrochanteric line distally
d) Blood supply to the head of the femur is mainly through the retinacular fibers in children
T e) Ligamentum teres attached to the fovea of the femoral head

3) Regarding the Thyroid

T T a) Isthmus at 2-4th tracheal rings
F T b) Develops from 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches
F F c) Carotid sheath is a lateral relation to the lobes

F d) Supplied by a branch of transverse cervical artery - thyrocervical TRUNK

F F e) Follicles covered by stratified squamous epithelium

4) Clotting pathway
a) Thrombin thrombomodulin complex stabilizes the clot
b) Deficiency in factor VII prolongs the PT
c) Extrinsic pathway initiated by tissue thromboplastin
d) VWF bind and activates Antithrombin III
e) Activated protein C is necessary to activate factor V

5) Regarding carcinoma of the breast

a) Triple negative receptor status has a poor prognosis
b) Target therapy is not useful
c) Paget disease of the breast is indicative of ductal tumour
d) True cut biopsy is a preferred investigation
e) Sentinel node biopsy is used to decide extent of surgery needed

6) Pleural effusion caused by

T a) Pancreatitis
F b) Ankylosing spondylitis Apical fibrosis
T c) Cirrhosis
Uncommon but cause effussions
T d) Mycoplasma pneumonia
T e) Chronic renal failure

7) Achondroplasia
F a) Autosomal recessive
T b) Disproportionately short stature is a feature

T Tc) Associated with Hydrocephalus

T d) Obstructive sleep apnoea is a complication
Te) GH therapy is recommended
8) In a post op patient at ICU, USS is recommended to detect following,
a) Pneumothorax
b) ET tube positioning
c) Paralytic ileus
d) Assessment of volume response
e) Plural effusion

9) WOTF
a) Erect abdominal x-ray can differentiate paralytic ileus from intestinal obstruction
b) To detect Pancreatic calcification CT is more sensitive than USS
c) Multiple sclerosis - CT
d) Radiolucent renal calculi can be identified by USS
e) To assess the Linear undisplaced fracture of neck of femur MRI is used

10) Flail chest

T a) Seen in more than 3 adjacent segmental rib fracture
T b) Can cause pneumothorax
c) Cyanosis is a feature
T d) Paradoxical breathing
F e) Commonly Treated by internal fixation of ribs Not commonly,selected cases only
Majority with analgesia, chest physio
11) A Lump in the groin which increases with standing and reduces when lying down
a) Infantile hydrocoele
b) Femoral hernia
c) Inguino scrotal hernia
d) Saphena varix
e) Psoas abscess

12) Following organisms causes hepatitis

a) E coli
b) Dengue
c) Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
d) EBV
e) CMV

13) WOF are true regarding antenatal diagnosis

F a) Chorionic villus sampling at 12-16weeks
F b) Amniocentesis at 20-22weeks
T c) Beta HCG can be used as a marker in second trimester
F d) NT measured in routine second trimester scan
F e) Maternal Serum alpha fetoprotein levels are higher than amniotic fluid in 2nd trimester

14) PCOS
F F a) LH level decreases Increases
T T b) Insulin resistance
F F c) Menorrhagia oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea
T T d) Recurrent miscarriages or subfertility
T Te) Acanthosis nigricans
15) 1ry amenorrhoea
TTa) Turners syndrome
F
F b) Sheehan’s syndrome
c) Transverse vaginal septum
d) Arcuate uterus
e) Ovarian dermoid

16) In Acute STEMI

a) Door to needle time should be 30 min
b) Medical thrombolysis is the preferred treatment
c) Statins should be started with clinical diagnosis
d) Thrombolysis should not be done till Troponin report available
e) ACEI improves survival

17) Posterior urethral valve

T T a) Poor stream is a presenting symptom
FF b) Can be diagnosed by ascending retrograde urethrogram - Ascending retrograde urethrogram is done to asses anterior urethra,
T T c) Need antibiotic prophylaxis posterior urethra assessed using micturition cystourethrogram.

Td) Associated with cryptorchidism undescended testis

T T e) Can be diagnosed by the ultrasound scan antenatally

18) Following are best

a) Hip joint effusion in a 4 years old child - USS
b) White matter visualization - MRI
c) Ruptured aortic aneurysm - USS
F d) Complex Renal cyst in 50yr old - USS CECT Bosniak classification
e) Breast lump of 22-year-old girl - USS

19) Following can cause hyponatraemia

a) Long Term glucocorticoid therapy
T b) Heart Failure
T c) Hypothyroidism
T d) Liver failure
e) DKA

20) Renin secretion stimulated by

T a) Renal artery stenosis
T b) Heart failure
c) Prostaglandin
F d) ANP
F e) Angiotensin II

21) Cervical Lymphadenopathy is seen in

T a) SLE
b) Lepromatous leprosy
c) Kikuchi disease
d) Cirrhosis
e) Sodium Valproate induced reaction
22) Following are seen in GBS or its variants
a) High CSF protein
b) Areflexia
c) Ophthalmoplegia
d) Ataxia
e) Urine retention

23) Causes for Acute urine retention

T a) Prostatic CA
T b) BPH
T c) Bladder stones
T d) Urethral stricture
T e) Retroverted gravid uterus in pregnancy

24) These are used in staging of gastric CA

F a) Upper GI endoscopy
F b) BA meal
T c) CT abdomen T
T d) Endoscopic USS T
e) CEA level F

25) Fresh PR bleeding

a) Ulcerative colitis
b) Villous adenoma of rectum
c) Sigmoid CA
d) Crohn's’ disease
e) Pneumatosis colon

26) Advantages of MRI over CT

F a) Less time consuming than CT
T b) No radiation risk
T c) Better to assess posterior fossa tumours
d) Better to assess pituitary fossa
e) _____

27) Tetralogy of fallot

a) Cerebral thrombosis occurs after 2 years old child
b) cerebral abscess can occur before 2 years
c) Murmur due to VSD
F
d) S/C morphine given in hypercyanotic spells
T e) Palliative Shunt creation done between systemic and pulmonary circulation

28) IRDS
a) Occurs after 4 hrs of birth
b) Increased in PIH
c) Reticular nodular shadowing CXR
d) Reduced by maternal steroids
e) Increased CO2
29) AIDS defining lesion in HIV patients
a) TB infection in anywhere of body
T
F b) Crohn's Disease
T c) Invasive Cervical CA
d) Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
F
T e) Progressive Multifocal leukoencephalopathy

30) Osteomyelitis occur in any age group, without risk factors common in 2-12 years age, male predominance in any age
a) More Common in children than adults infants- epiphysis,metaphysis, joints
TT children-metaphysis
T b) In adults commonly occur in metaphysis adult- subchondral area, epiphysis
T Tc) Plain X-ray appearance mimics CA in children extensive periosteal reaction mimics ewings sarcoma
F F d) X-ray
st
changes appear within 72 hrs in 10 to 14 days
F F e) 1 line treatment option is surgical antibiotic therapy

31) Regarding infantile pyloric stenosis

T a) Projectile vomiting is a feature
F b) Upper GI contrast studies are essential for the diagnosis if USS not suggestive UGIC
T c) Leads to metabolic alkalosis
d) Target sign is diagnostic in ultrasound scan measurement criteria is there for diagnosis
Te) Pyloromyotomy is the treatment of choice

32) Brainstem glioma

T a) Diplopia
F b) Commonest tumour in post fossa
T c) MRI used in the assessment
T d) Pons is the commonest site
T e) Tectum region has a good prognosis

33) Endometriosis
T a) Adhesions at posterior aspect of ovary
Fb) Can be reliably diagnosed by USS
Tc) GnRH agonists used in treatment

Td) Rising of CA125 indicates recurrence of disease

Te) Cyclical haemoptysis is a symptom

34) Pre-eclampsia
T T a) Chronic HT is a risk factor
T b) Increased risk with subsequent pregnancies
T T c) Proteinuria is a feature
T F d) Visual disturbances indicate imminent eclampsia Ankle clonus indicate imminent eclampsia
T Te) Treatment is termination of pregnancy

35) PPH risk factors

T T a) Multiple pregnancy
F F b) Oligohydramnios
T T c) Past uterine surgery
T Td) Prolonged labour
T Te) Multiparty
36) Postpartum mother presented with SOB + cyanosis. What are the appropriate investigations?
a) Lower Limb duplex venous study
b) V/Q Scan
c) 2D echo
d) CTPA
e) Pelvic MRI

37) Lytic bone lesions seen in

T a) Multiple myeloma
T b) Langerhans Cell histiocytosis
T c) Paget’s disease
T d) Lymphoma
F e) Miliary Tuberculosis
38) Mammography
T a) Can be done in male
F b) Used for guided biopsy
T c) Microcalcifications can be seen
d) Used to differentiate abscess from cancer
F e) Used to differentiate cystic from solid lesions

39) Radiology
F a) TC 99 bone scan doesn't have radiation risk
F b) Isotope bone scan is the investigation of choice to assess skeletal lesions in multiple myeloma
c) ____
d) ___
e) ___

40) Statistics - Sample of 15xx, men, aged 30-60... DBP measured. Mean and median 83. SD 12
F a) 95% of DBP lies between 59 - 107 mmHg 68% between 59-107
b) Nearly symmetrically distributed
F c) 95% lie within +/- 2.6 SE 95% in +/- 1.96 SD
d) Mean of the sample lies within +/- 2SD in 95% confident interval
F e) 5% of people have BP greater than 107 mmHg
50%- 34% is above 107= 16%