Department of School Education

Jhajjar

Biology

Question Bank (Class – 12)

2020-21
 MESSAGE

I am immensely glad to know that educators of Jhajjar have executed a mammoth task by producing the
Question Bank which includes all the core subjects of 10th and 12th classes of HBSE.
‘Team work divides the task and multiplies the successes. Educators of Jhajjar have proved it in these
precarious times through their team work. This Question Bank meets the purpose to make learning
accessible for all the stakeholders. It will surely bridge the gap- occurred due to Covid pandemic and
help the students and teachers to understand 2021 Board Examinations as per the new question paper
design and reduced syllabus.
Today our vision has become real and the dream of making education reachable has become true.
Making education accessible to all in a very short span of time due to the pandemic was a great
challenge for all of us but I strongly believe that everything is achievable when we have a team of
dedicated members. The team which was constituted has fulfilled all the expectations we had.
I convey my thanks to all the stakeholders including Sh. B. P. Rana (DEO) Sh. Diljeet Singh (DEEO) Sh.
Naseeb Singh (Principal DIET) Sh. Sudershan Punia (Nodal Officer of E- Learning) Subject Coordinators
and Team Members who have contributed a lot to prepare this Question Bank.
I whole heartedly appreciate and congratulate the whole team for its hard graft.

Wish you all the best!

Director General Secondary Education

Haryana, Panchkula
 Message
The world has been in an unprecedented situation with the spread of corona virus. In this new and
very different ecosystem, education has been largely impacted. There has been a sudden paradigm
shift in teaching media from offline one-on-one classroom education to online methods. Like most
developing countries, with contemporary socio-economical dynamics, India was not prepared for
a full-fledged digital revolution in education. This expeditious transference created uncertainties
regarding universal accessibility of education.
To cope up with this challenge various initiatives have been undertaken in the country for better
percolation of academic content to students. Haryana’s education department launched the ‘Ghar
se Padhao Abhiyan’ to provide online education to students and nurture the teaching-learning
ecosystem. District Jhajjar has excelled in all the aspects of the campaign and despite several
hurdles, teachers and students of the district have performed very well. I extend my heartiest
congratulations to the education department, teachers, mentors and students for their consistent
contribution for the same.
Acknowledging the unfavourable situation as well as the importance of Board examination in the
academic path of a student, I would like the students and teachers to be geared up to give ‘their
best’ for the upcoming board exams. A team of eminent teachers under the guidance of District
Education Officer & District Elementary Education Officer, Jhajjar has been engaged in preparing
this question bank for students of class 10 and 12. With the help of this question bank students will
be able to revise their whole syllabus effectively.
I appreciate the Education Department of Jhajjar on this wonderful initiative. I would like to
convey my best wishes to all the students of class 10 and 12 for their board examinations.

Regards,
 Message
Our late President and a visionary to India’s development, Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam in his book ‘My 2020
Vision for India’ emphasized that a developed India by 2020 should not be a mere vision in the minds of
Indians. It should be a mission we must take up and succeed.
The unprecedented situation of a pandemic in 2020 has not only shook mankind, but also derailed
progress from its original path. Education is an important parameter for development. The teaching
learning process has been detorted by closure of schools and created a gap between teachers, students
and parents.
In the crisis Education Department started the “Ghar se Padhao Abhiyan” which geared up technological
revolution in the education sector and with technology as the new method of teaching- innovative ways
to engage students have come across.
I feel very proud that the Education Department of district Jhajjar has been consistently contributing in
its best capacity to the Ghar se Padhao Abhiyan. With Boards examination around the corner, I
understand that students and teachers might have a feeling that without one-on-one interaction with
students, results might not be the same. On this very note, I would encourage teachers, students and
parents to be optimistic and focus on the putting their best efforts for board preparation.
This initiative to compile a question bank of objective questions is truly a great effort. I congratulate all
Education Officers, Subject Experts, Teaching Faculties for their contribution in the same.
My best wishes to all student of class 10 and class 12 appearing for board exams this year!

Additional Deputy Commissioner

Jhajjar
 Message
I applaud the wonderful work done by the whole team of teachers of District- Jhajjar. All the teachers who
contributed in this project are worth appreciation as they spared much time and prepared relevant questions from
their subjects. This Question Bank will be highly beneficial for students as it is based on the latest design of
Board of School Education Haryana, Bhiwani. I appeal to all the teachers and students to use this question bank
in true spirit and prepare for Board Examinations as it will be highly helpful to you all. I Wish you oceans
of good luck for the upcoming examinations and hope that you will come through the Board Examinations with
flying colours. Though it was tough time for all of us due to Corona Pandemic, our teachers tried their best to
let the study of students continued. All the school heads and teachers are expected to make this question bank
available to concerned students of their schools. I extend my heartiest thanks to all the senior officers of School
Education Department, Worthy Deputy Commissioner Sh. Jitender Dahiya, Worthy ADC, Jhajjar Sh. Jagniwas,
all Administrative Officers, my colleague DEEO, Jhajjar Sh. Diljeet Singh, Principal DIET Machhrauali, Sh.
Naseeb Singh, DPC, Jhajjar Sh. Paramjeet Chahal, Dy. DEOs, Sh. Shubhash Bhardwaj & Mrs. Sanjeet Gill,
All BEOs, Coordinator of this project Sh. Sudershan Punia, all Subject Coordinators, Subject Experts and
Technical Team members for their cooperation and contribution in preparing this Question Bank.

Regards and best wishes to all!

District Education Officer

Jhajjar
 MESSAGE

"EDUCATION IS A SHARED COMMITMENT BETWEEN DEDICATED TEACHERS, MOTIVATED

STUDENTS AND ENTHUSIASTIC PARENTS WITH HIGH EXPECTATIONS"
The world today is changing at such an accelerated rate and we as educators need to pause
and reflect on this entire system of Education. "To Motivate the Late bloomers, To mold the
Mediocre and To Challenge the Gifted” is the teaching notion. To prepare our students for
Board Examinations, our dedicated team has prepared this Question Bank which will be
highly fruitful for students as well for teachers. This Question Bank is the Brainchild of the
conversation among all district level Education Officers and CMGGA Ms. Supriya Sinha. I feel
proud to be a part of this innovative and creative team. Now the Question Bank is in your
hands so teaching community is expected to use it in its true spirit and guide students for
Board Examinations according to new Question Paper Design and reduced syllabus. I
congratulate the entire team for their hard work and dedication as all the members of this
team have worked with full devotion under the guidance of DEO Sh. B.P Rana.

Good Luck for your exam! Hope you score the best grades in all the subjects. All my wishes
are there for you.

District Elementary Education Officer

Jhajjar
 Message

“Our children are the rock on which our future will be built."
- Nelson Mandela

It fills me with pride to see the educators of Jhajjar district committed to their work. I
am immensely glad to know that they have executed a mammoth task by producing the
Question Bank which includes all the subjects.
‘Team work divides the task and multiplies the success.’ Team Jhajjar has proved it in
these precarious times through their team work. This Question Bank meets the purpose
to make learning accessible for all the stakeholders. It will surely bridge the gap-
occurred due to Covid pandemic and help the students and teachers to understand
2021 Board Examinations as per the new question paper design and reduced syllabus.
Today our vision has become real and the dream of making education reachable has
become true. Making education accessible to all in a very short span of time due to the
pandemic was a great challenge for all of us but I strongly believe that everything is
achievable when we have a team of dedicated members. The team which was
constituted has fulfilled all the expectations we had.
I whole heartedly appreciate and congratulate the whole team for its hard graft.

Principal
DIET, Machhrauli
Jhajjar
 Question Bank for Class 12th (Jhajjar)

Motivational Source

1. Sh. Baraham Parkash Rana - DEO, Jhajjar

2. Sh. Diljeet Singh
3. Sh. Naseeb Singh
4. Ms. Supriya Sinha
5. Sh. Paramjeet Chahal
6. Sh. Shubhash Bhardwaj
7. Mrs. Sanjeet Gill
8. Mrs. Nirmal Sharma
9. Sh. Vinod Lamba
10. Sh. Ramniwas Sharma
11. Sh. Rajmal
12. Sh. Shubhash Dahiya
- DEEO, Jhajjar
- Principal, DIET
- CMGGA, Jhajjar
- DPC, Jhajjar
- Dy.DEO, Jhajjar
- Dy.DEEO, Jhajjar
- BEO, Bahadurgarh
- BEO, Beri
- BEO, Jhajjar
- BEO, Matanhail
- BEO, Salhawas

Chief Coordinator

Dr. Sudershan Kumar Punia - Lecturer, DIET Machhrauli cum Distt. Nodal
Officer of Saksham & E- Learning
 BIOLOGY TEAM

Coordinator
Sh. Jitender Kumar Deswal - Lecturer in Biology, DIET Machhrauli

Team Members
1. Mrs. Puneeta Choudhary - Lecturer in Biology, GGSSS Bahadurgarh
2. Mrs. Savita Devi - Lecturer in Biology, GGSSS Bahadurgarh

Technical Team

1. Ms. Sonia Sharma - Computer Teacher, GGSSS Chhara

2. Mrs. Deepika - Computer Teacher, GGSSS Bahadurgarh

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 MCQ’s

1. Process of fusion of haploid cells is

a. Cell cycle
b. Meiosis
c. Mitosis
d. Syngamy

2. Maximum life span of dog is

a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years

3. Vegetative propagation occurs in mint through

a. Runners
b. Suckers
c. Offsets
d. Rhizome

4. Meiosis takes place in

a. Megaspore
b. Meiocytes
c. Coindia
d. Gemmules

5. Flowers are unisexual in

a. Pea
b. Cucumber
c. C.China rose
d. Onion

6. Asexual reproduction through formation of gemmule occurs in

a. Ascidia
b. Hydra
c. Planaria
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d. Spongilla

7. Which of the following flowers only once in the lifetime.

a. Mango
a. Jackfruit
b. Bamboo species
c. Papaya

8. In some plants the female and gamale develops into embryo without fertilization the phenomenon is
known as

a. Autogami
b. Parthenocarpy
c. Syngamy
d. Parthenogenesis.

9. Which of the following organism is hermaphrodite

a. Cockroach
b. Earthworm
c. Frog
d. Housefly

10. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one.

a. Cucurbits and coconuts are Monoecious Plants.

b. Papayas and date palms are dioecious plants
c. Leeches and tapeworms are bisexuals animals.
d. Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animal.

11. A diploid parent plant body produces ……..gametes and haploid parent plant body produces ……..
Gametes
a. Diploid, haploid
b. Haploid, diploid
c. Diploid, diploid
d. Haploid,haploid.

12 In Maize, a meiocyte has 20 chromosomes what will be the number of chromosomes in somatic cell

a. 40
b. 30
c. 20
d. 10

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13.In flowering plants, both male and female gametes are non-motile the method to bring them together
for fertilization is

a. Water
b. Air
c. Pollination
d. Apomixis.

14. The wall of the ovary forms

a. Pericarp
b. Fruit wall
c. Fruit
d. Both a and b.

15.Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as sugarcane is mainly because -

a. Nodes are shorter than internodes

b. B. Nodes have meristematic cells
c. C. Nodes are located near the soil
d. D.Nodes have non-photosynthetic cells.

16.There is no natural death in unicellular organism because

a. They cannot reproduce sexually
b. B.they reproduce by binary fission
c. Parental body is distributed among the offspring.
d. They are microscopic

17. There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends
on.

a. The habitat and morphology of the organism.

b. Morphology of the organism
c. Morphology and physiology of the organism
d. The organism's habitat,physiology and genetic makeup

18. Which of the following is a post fertilization event in flowering plants

a. Transfer of Pollen grains

b. Embryo development
c. Formation of flowers

9
d. Formation of pollen grains

19. The growth phase of an organism before attaining sexual maturity is referred to-

a. Juvenile Phase
b. Vegetative phase
c. Both a and b
d. None of these.

20. Clear cut vegetative, reproductive senescent phases cannot be observed in

a. Annual plant
b. Perennial plants
c. Biennial plants
d. Ephemeral plants

21. Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in

a. 5 years
b. 12 years
c. 50 years
d. 20 years

22. Oestrous cycle is reported in

a. Cows and sheep

b. Humans and monkeys
c. Chimpanzees and Gorillas
d. None of these

23 Which of the following animals show menstrual cycle?

a. Gorilla and chimpanzees

b. Monkeys and humans
c. Orangutans and monks
d. All of these

24. Senescent phase of an organism’s life span can be recognised by

a. Slow metabolism
b. Cessation of reproduction
c. Decreased immunity
d. All of these.

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25. If a fungal thallus has both male and female reproductive structure it will be called-

a. Heterothallic
b. Homothallic
c. Dioecious
d. Monoccious

26 which of the following has the longest life.

a. Banyan tree
b. Tortoise
c. Parrot
d. Elephant.

27. ………. Is a life process that is not essential for an individual’s Survival but for survival of species-

a. Growth
b. Reproduction
c. Respiration
d. Nutrition.

28. Which one of the following processes results in the formation of clones of bacteria.?
a. Regeneration
b. Budding
c. Binary fission
d. Fragmentation.

29. Asexual reproduction is seen in members of kingdom-

a. Monera
b. Plantae
c. Animalia
d. All of these.

30. Which of the following is not used for vegetative propagation?

a. Bud
b. Bulbil
c. Turion
d. Anthezoid.

31. Development of new individual from female gamete without fertilization is termed as

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 a. Syngamy
b. Embryogenesis
c. Oogamy
d. Parthenogenesis

32.Deposition of a calcareous shell around Zygote occurs in.

a. Birds and reptiles

b. Birds and mammals
c. Mammals and reptiles
d. All of these.

33. Select the option which shows Viviparous animals only.-

a. Lizard, Turtle
b. Platypus, crocodile
c. Cow, crocodile
d. Whale, mouse.

34 off springs of oviparous animals are at greater risk of survival as compared to viviparous animals
because.

a. Proper embryonic care and protection is absent

b. Embryo does not develop completely
c. Progenies are of smaller size
d. Genetic variations do not occur.

35. Fleshy buds produced in the axil of leaves, which grow to form New plants when shed and fall on
ground are called-

a. Bulbs
b. Bulbils
c. Tuber
d. Offsets

ANSWER KEY

1.D 2.A 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.D 7.C 8.B 9.B 10.D 11.D 12.C 13.C 14.D 15.B
16.C 17.D 18.B 19.C 20.B 21.B 22.A 23.D 24.D 25.B 26.A 27.B 28.C 29.D
30.D 31.D 32.A 33.D 34.A 35.B
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1. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs is

A. Endothecium
B.MIcrospore mother cells
C.MicrosporeTetrad
D.Pollen grains

2. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an oval are

A Egg, nucellus, embryo sac, , integument

B.Egg,embryo sac nucellus, integument
C.Embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg
D.Egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus

3. Flowers with both androecium and gynoecium are called

A. Bisexual flowers
B. Anther
C. Stamens
D.Unisexual flowers

4. Generative nucleus divides forming

A. 2 Male nuclei
B. 3 male nuclei
C. 2 female nuclei
D. 3 female nuclei

5.Functional megaspore in a flowering plant develops into-

A. Endosperm
B. Ovule
C. Embryo sac
D.Embryo

6.What is the function of the filiform apparatus?

A.guide the entry of pollen tube
B. recognise the suitable Pollen at the stigma
C. produce nectar
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 D.stimulate division of the generative cell

7. Which of the following fruit is produced by parthenocarpy?

A. Brinjal
B. Apple
C. Banana
D. Jackfruit

8.The process of formation of seeds without fertilization in flowering plants is known as-
A.Budding
B.Apomixis
C.Sporulation
D.Somatic hybridization

9. Rewards and attractants are required for

A. entomophily
B. cleistogamy
C. Anemophily
D. hydrophily

10.Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into Inflorescence are usually
pollinated by
A. water
B. bee
C. wind
D. bat

11.A dioecious flowering plant prevents both

A. autogamy and xenogamy
B. autogamy and geitonogamy
C. geitonogamy and cleistogamy
D. none of these

12. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is-
A. 8 celled
B. 7 celled
C. 6 celled
D. 5 celled

13. Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in

A. helianthus
B. commelina
C.Rosa

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 D. gossypium

14. Feathery stigma occurs in

A. pea
B. Datura
C. Wheat
D. caesalpinia

15. Which of the following is not a water pollinated plant ?

A. zostera
B. vallisneria
C. hydrilla
D. cannabis

16.Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large attractively coloured flowers are associated with
A. hydrophily
B. entomophily
C. ornithophily
D. anemophily

17. Endospermic seeds are found in

A. castor
B. barley
C. coconut
D. all of these

18. In albuminous seeds food is stored in non-albuminous seeds,it is stored in

A. endosperm, cotyledons
B. cotyledons,, endosperm
C. nucellus, cotyledons
D. endosperm, radical

19. Persistent nucleus is called as____ and is found in______.

A. perisperm, black pepper
B. perisperm, groundnut
C. endosperm, black paper
D. endosperm, groundnut

20. Polyembryony commonly occurs in

A. banana
B.tomato
C. potato
D. citrus

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 21. The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively
A. endothecium and tapetum
B. epidermis and endodermis
C. epidermis and middle layer
D. epidermis and tapetum

22.Non-essential floral organs in a flower are

A. sepals and petals
B. anther and ovary
C. stigma and filament
D. petals only

23. The stamen represent

A.microsporangia
B. male gametophyte
C. male gametes
D. microsporophylls

24. Anther is generally

A.Monosporangiate
B. Bisporangiate
C. Tetrasporangiate
D. Trisporangiate

25.The innermost layer of anther is a tapetum whose function is

A. dehiscence
B. mechanical
C. nutrition
D. protection

26. study of pollen grains is called

A. micrology
B. anthology
C. palynology
D. pomology

27.If an endosperm Cell of angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in each
cell of the root will be
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 24

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28. The cells of the endosperm have 24 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes
in the
gametes?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 23
D. 32

29. The true embryo develops as a result of fusion of

A. two polar nuclei of embryo sac
B .egg cell and male gamete
C. Synergid and Male gamete
D. male gamete and antipodals

30. The portion of embryonal Axis between plumule (future shoot) and cotyledons is called
A. Hypocotyl
B. epicotyl
C. Coleorhiza
D. Coleoptile
31.______ is not an endospermic seed
A.Pea
B.Maize
C. Castor
D. Wheat

32. Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in-

A. Pea and groundnut
B. Maize and castor
C. castor and groundnut
D. Maize and pea

33. How many pollen mother cells should undergo Meiotic division to produce 64 pollen grains
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D.8

34. How many meiotic cell divisions are required for the formation of 100 pollen grains?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 25
D. 26

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35. One of the the most resistant biological material present in the exine of pollen grain is
A. Pectocellulose
B. Sporopollenin
C. Suberin
D. Cellulose

36. What is the function of germ pore?

A .emergence of radical
B. absorption of water for seed germination
C. initiation of pollen tube
D. all of these

37._______ of the pollen grain divides to form two male gametes.

A.vegetative cell
B. generative cell
C. microspore mother cell
D. none of these

38. The three cells found in the fully developed male gametophyte are-
A. One vegetative cell, one generative cell, one male gamete
B. one vegetative cell, two male gametes
C. one generative cell, two male gametes
D. either A or B

39.Megasporangium along with its protective integuments is called-

A. ovary
B. ovule
C. funicle
D. Chalaza

40.Pollen kit is generally found in

A.Anemophilous flowers
B. Entomophilous flowers
C. Ornithophilous flowers
D. Malacophilous flowers

41.The part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen is

A. Stigma
B. style
C. ovary
D. synergids

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42. Growth of pollen towards embryo sac is-
A. chemotropic
B. thigmotaxis
C. geotropic
C. none of these

43. During the process of fertilization the Pollen tube of the Pollen tube usually enters the
embryo sac through-
A. integument
B. nucellus
C. chalaza
D. Micropyle

44. The total no. Of nuclei involved in double fertilization in angiosperm are-
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

45.Apple is an example of ____fruit.

A. True fruit
B. false fruit
C. Parthenocarpic fruit
D. Apomictic fruit

46.Yucca plant is pollinated by

A. Bird
B. Water
C. Moth
D. Wind

47.Morphological nature of edible part of coconut is

A. Cotyledon
B. Endosperm
C. Perisperm
D. Pericarp

48. The removal of anthers from female flower in artificial hybridization

A. bagging
B. emasculation
C. Rebagging
D. none of these

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49. Production of seeds without fertilization is called as
A. ParthenoGenesis
B. hybridization
C. Emasculation
D. apomixis

50.corn cob tassels are made up of

A. Anther
B. Style of stigma
C. Stipules
D. None of these

Answer Key

1.B 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.C 11.B 12.B 13.B 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.A
20.D 21.D 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.C 26.C 27.C 28.A 29.B 30.B 31.A 32.A 33.C 34.C 35.B 36.C
37.B 38.B 39.B 40.B 41.B 42.A 43.B 44.D 45.B 46.C 47.B 48.B 49.D 50.B

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1.Testes Descent into scrotum in mammals for
a. Spermatogenesis
b. Fertilization
c. Development of sex organs
d. Development of visceral organs

2. Farm produce an enzymatic substance for dissolving egg covering it is called

a. Hyaluronic acid
b. Androgamone
c. Hyaluronidase
d. Diastase

3.Sperms formed from one primary spermatocycle no.

a. 8
b. 4
c. 3
d. 1

4. Spermatids are changed into spermatazoa through

a. Spermiogenesis
b. Spermiation
c. Spermatogenesis
d. Spermatosis

5.leydig's cells secret

a. Progesterone
b. Testosterone
c. Estrogen
d. Corticosterone

6.antrum is cavity of
a. Ovary
b. Graffian follicle
c. Blastula
d. Gastrula

7. Spermiation is the process of release of sperms from

a. Seminiferous tubule
b. Vas deferens
c. Epididymis
d. Prostrat gland

8.A crosomalw reaction of the sperm occurs due to

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a. It's contact with zona pellucida of the ova
b. Reactious within the uterine environment of the female
c. Reactious within the epididymal environment of the female
d. Androgens produced in the uterus

9. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes

a. Spermatogonia
b. Zygote
c. Secondary oocyte
d. Oogonia

10. Male gametes in humans provide nutrition by

a. Sertoli cells
b. Bulburethral cells
c. Leydig's cells
d. None of these

11. What is the other name for fallopian tube?

a. Ampulla
b. Fimbrae
c. Oviduct
d. All

12. Which of the following exhibit strong contraction during delivery of the babymyometriu?
a. Parimetrium
b. Endometrium
c. Myometrium
d. None

13.First meiotic division during oogenesis takes place

a. After ovulation
b. Prior to ovulation
c. During Embryogenesis
d. None

14.Function of corpus luteum is the secrets

a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Testosterone
d. All

15.The cells of morula are known as

a. Blastocysts
b. Oviblasts
c. Oviclasts
d. Blastomeses

16. Which part of the blastocyst attaches with the surface of endometrium?
a. Inner cell mass
b. Trophoblast
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c. Ectoderm
d. Mesoderm

17.Chroionic villi appear are

a. Endometrium
b. Trophoblast
c. Myometrium
d. Perimetrium

18. What is the other name for leydig cells?

a. Sertoli cells
b. Acinar cells
c. Hepatic cells
d. Interestitial cells

19.Gonadotropic releasing hormone is secreted from

a. Hypothalamus
b. Hypophysis
c. Neuro-hypophysis
d. Pars intermediate

20.Acrosome is a part of
a. Chromosome
b. Ribosome
c. Oxysome
d. Soermatozoan

21. Relaxin is secreted by -

a. Endometrium
b. Ovary
c. Pituitary gland
d. Hypothalamus

22. Delivery of the foetus after 9 months is known as -

a. Gestation
b. Gastrulation
c. Parturition
d. Implantation

23. Stem cells are the part of

a. Inner cell mass
b. Ectoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Trophoblast

24. Which of the following is a placental hormone ?

a. Human chrouonic gonadotropin
b. Relaxin
c. Oxytocin
d. None
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25. The nature of the post zygotic division is of
a. Amitotic
b. Mitotic
c. Meiotic
d. Irregular

26. Human females are

a. Homogametic
b. Heterogametic
c. Agametic
d. Monogametic

27.luteal phase during a menstrual cycle is also known as -

a. Proliferation phase
b. Secretary phase
c. Reductive phase
d. Regenerative phase

28. Polar bodies are formed during-

a. Spermatogenesis
b. Oogenesis
c. Embryogenesis
d. All of these

29. Identify gonadal mother cells from the following -

a. Spermatogonia
b. Oogonia
c. Ootid andspermatid
d. A & b

30. The release of eggs from the ovary of human female is called
a. Implantation
b. Getstation
c. Ovulation
d. Parturition

31. Gestation period in human female is -

a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 270 days
d. 210 days

32. The cavity of blastula is known as

a. Coelom
b. Archentron
c. Blastocoel
d. Homocoel

24
33. The binger like projection in the Infundibulum are called
a. Fimbriae
b. Ampulla
c. Isthmus
d. None of these

34. The opening of vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called

a. Clitoris
b. Labia majora
c. Isthmus
d. Hymen
35. The cells which synthesise a secret testicular hormones called Androgens are
a. Germ cells
b. Laydig's cells
c. Sertoli cells
d. None of these
36. Acrosome is made up of
a. Centrzole
b. Rebosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Golgi bodies

37. Oogenesis starts ___________

a. At menopause
b. Before the birth of girl child
c. After the birth of girl child
d. At puberty
38. Human egges are
a. Alecethal
b. Microlecithal
c. Mesolecethal
d. Macrolecithal

39. Middle place of mammalian sperm possess-

a. Mitochondria and centriole
b. Mitochondria only
c. Centriole only
d. Nucleus and mitochondria

40. Parturition occurs due to release of oxytocin hormone that cause ________
a. Stronger uterine contraction
b. Expansion of birth canal
c. Sprinkage of uterus
d. Release of estrogen hormone

41. Monella is a development stage

a. Between the zygote and the blastocyst
b. Between the blastocyst and gastrula
c. Between implantation and parturition
d. After the implantation
25
42. Vas defrens receives the duct and seminal vesicle and forms the
a. Epididymis
b. Urethra
c. Ejaculatory duct
d. Urethral meatus

43. How many functional sperms and hiw many ova, will be formed bi a primary spermatocyte and
a primary oocyte respectively?
a. 1,1
b. 1,4
c. 4,1
d. 4,4

44. Ovulation occurs under the influence of

a. Fsh
b. LH
c. Progesterone
d. Estrogen

45. There is no cell division involved in

a. Spermatogenesis
b. Oogenesis
c. Embryogenesis
d. Spermatogenesis

46. After the release of the secondary oocyte that Graffian follicle develop into
a. Corpus callosum
b. Corpus albicans
c. Corpus luteum
d. Primary follicle

47. Which of the following hormones prepare the uterus for implantation
a. Progesterone
b. Fsh
c. Estrogen
d. LH

48. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of seminar is formed by-

a. Seminal vesicle and bulbourethral gland
b. Bulburethral and prostrate gland
c. Prostate gland, seminal vesicle and bulbourethral gland
d. None of these

49. First menstrual cycle at the time of puberty is called-

a. Ovum
b. Sperm
c. Meuses
d. Menarche
26
 50. Biddu's canal receives_____
a. Eggs
b. Sperms
c. Ammonia
d. Oxygenated blood

51 Acrosome is filled with ____

a. Lipids
b. Hormones
c. Digestive enzymes
d. None of the above

52. How does women sperm locomote?

a. Flagella
b. Cilia
c. Neutrophils
d. None of the above

53. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?

a. 34
b. 44
c. 54
d. 33

54. In oocyte secondary maturation occurs in

a. Ovary
b. Abdominal cavity
c. Fallopian tube
d. Uterus
55.Bartholin's glands are situated
a. On either side of vagina in human female
b. On either side of vas deferens in human male
c. On either side of penis in human male
d. On either side of fallopian tube in human female

ANSWER KEY

1.A 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.A 11.C 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.D 16.B 17.B
18.D 19.A 20.D 21.B 22.C 23.A 24.A 25.B 26.A 27.B 28.B 29.D 30.C 31.C 32.C 33.A
34.D 35.B 36.D 37.B 38.A 39.B 40.A 41.A 42.C 43.C 44.B 45.D 46.C 47.A 48.C
49.D 50.B 51.C 52.A 53.B 54.C 55.A

27
 1. Progesterone present in contraceptive pill is meant for
A. Checking ovulation
B. Preventing fertilization
C. Preventing implantation of Zygote
D. Preventing cleavage

2. Cut prevent
A. Ovulation
B. Fertilization
C. Zygote
D. Cleavage

3. Tubectomy, a method of population control, is performed on

A. Both male and females
B. Males only
C. Females only
D. Only pregnant females

4. Which is related to males?

A. Oral pills
B. Tubectomy
C. Assetomy
D. None of the above

5. In production of test tube babies

A. Fertilization is external and foetus formation internal
B. Fertilization is internal and foetus formation external
C. Both fertilization and foetus formation internal
D. Both fertilization and foetus formation external

6. A method of sterilization is
A. IVCD
B. Diaphragm
C. Tubectomy
D. Loop

7. Which of the following is mechanical barrier used in birth control

A. Copper T
28
 B. Diaphragm
C . Loop
D. Dalio shield

8. The test which is used for study of genetics and metabolic disorder of an unborn baby is

A. Amniocentesis
B. Erythroblastosis
C. Angiogram
D. Clotting test

9. Oral contraceptive pills function by inhibiting

A. Fertilization
B. Ovulation
C. Reproduction
D. None of the above

10. 'Saheli' a new oral contraceptive for the females was developed by scientist at
A. CSIR New Delhi
B. CDRI Lucknow
C. IISC Bangalore
D. ICMR New Delhi

11. in vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube
A. Either zygote for early embryo 8 called stage
B.Embryo of 32 called stage
C. Zygote only
D.Embryo only upto 8th called stage

12. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) to considered safe to how many weeks of pregnancy
A.18
B.6
C.8
D 12

13. which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India as at
present
A. Diaphragm
B. IUDs
C. Cervical cap
D. Tubectomy

29
 14. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
A. Whose cervical canal is 700 narrow to allow passage of sperms
B. Who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilization
C. You cannot provide an serum
D. Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus

15. Test tube baby program one of the following techniques

A. Intrauterine insemination
B. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
C. Gamete intrafallopian transfer
D. Zygote intrafallopian transfer

16. A copper releasing IUD is

A. Diaphragm
B. Multiload 375
C. LNG-20
D. Saheli

17. Sexually transmitted diseases that can affect both male and female genitals and may damage
eyes and baby born of infected mother is
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhoea
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS
18. Which cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis
A. Jaundice
B. Klinefelter's syndrome
C. Sex and foetus
D. Down's syndrome

19. Lactational amenorrhoea prevents

A. Secretion of milk from breast
B. Conception
C. Secretion of prolactin
D. Spermatogenesis

20.The Function of copper ions in copper releasing IUds is

A. They suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
B. They inhibit gametogenesis
C. They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
D. They inhibit ovulation

30
 21.In case of a couple where mail each having a very low sperm count,which technique will be
suitable for fertilization
A. Intrauterine transfer
B. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
C. Artificial insemination
D. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

22. which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable

A. Gonorrhoea
B. Genital warts
C. Genital lupes
D. Chlamydiasis

23. The method of directly Indian is sperm into ovary assisted reproductive technology is called
A. GIFT
B. LIFT
C. ICSI
D. ET

24. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our
country in
A. 1950
B. 1960
C. 1980
D. 1990
25. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
A. 72 hrs of Coitus
B. 72 hrs of Ovulation
C. 72 hrs of menstruation
D. 72 hrs off implantation

26. Which of the following is ART?

A. IUD's
B. ZIFT
C. GIFT
D. Both b & c

27.which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples when male partner has very low sperm
count
A. IUD
B. GIFT
C. IUI

31
D. None of these

28. Increase IMR and decreased MMR in a population will

A. Cause rapid increase in growth rate
B. Result in decline in growth rate
C. Note coach significant change in growth rate
D. Result in an explosive population

29. Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population

A. Natality and immigration
B. Mortality and emigration
C. Natality and emigration
D. Mortality and immigration
30. The best way to decrease population of a country is
A. Educate people
B. To have better houses
C. To kill people on a large scale
D. To practice and implement family planning.

31. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive

A. User-friendly
B. Irreversible
C. Easily available
D. Least side effects

32. Hepatitis b is transmitted through

A. Blood transfusion
B. Intimate physical contact
C. Sexual contact
D. All of these

33. World AIDS day is

A. December 21
B. December 1
C. November 1
D. June 11
34. Which of the following is a non medicated intrauterine devices (IUD)?
A. cut
B. Lippes loop
C. Cut
D. LNG-20
35. The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is
A. Progesterone-estrogen

32
 B. Growth hormone
C. Thyroxine
D. Luteinising hormone

ANSWER KEY

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.B 10.B 11.A 12.D 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.B
17.B 18.A 19.B 20.A 21.D 22.C 23.C 24.A 25.A 26.D 27.C 28.B 29.A 30.D
31.B 32.D 33.B 34.B 35.A

33
34
1. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the
male progeny the disease is :
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Sex linked dominant
d. Sex linked recessive
2. In Sickle Cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine .Which one of the following triplets code
for Valine.
a. GGG
b. AAG
c. GAA
d. GUG
3. Person having genotype IA IB Would show the blood group as AB. this is because of:
a. Pleiotropy
b. Codominance
c. Segregation
d. Incomplete dominance
4. ZZ/ZW Type of sex determination is seen in
a. Pea cock
b. Snails
c. Cockroach
d. Grasshopper
5. In a dihybrid cross if you get 9:3:3:1 Ratio it denotes that
a. the alleles of the two genes are interacting with each other
b. It is a multigenic inheritance
c. It is a case of multiple allelism
d. The alleles of the two genes are segregating independently
6. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
a. Multiple allelism
b. Mosaicism
c. Pleiotropy
d. Polygenic
7. ……………….Pairs of contrasting traits was studied by Mendel in pea plant
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
8. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as
35
 a. Dominant genes
b. Alleles
c. Linked genes
d. None of these
9. A recessive allele is expressed in:
a. Heterozygous Condition only
b. Homozygous condition only
c. F3 Generation
d. both Homozygous and heterozygous conditions
10. How many kinds of gametes will be produced by AA Bb ccGenotypes
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Nine
11. A heterozygous violet flowers pea plant is crossed to another Homozygous violet f lowered pea plant
.What percent of the progeny plants will have the recessive traits that is white flowers?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
12. A woman with normal vision has a colourblind father. She marries a colourblind man. What
proposition of their children will be colourblind?
a. 0%
b. 20
c. 50%
d. 100%
13. Phenomenon of one gene controlling several phenotypes is
a. Epistasis
b. Pleiotropism
c. Codominance
d. Multiple allelism
14. which one is a test cross?
a. Ww x Ww
b. Ww x ww
c. Ww x ww
d. WW X ww
15. Trisomy of 21st chromosome causes
a. Klinefelter syndrome
b. Turner's syndrome
c. Sickle Cell anaemia
d. Down syndromes
16. Child with blood group O has B group father The father has a type of
a. I O I O

36
 b. I O I B
c. IB IB
d. IA IA
17. Match the condition with chromosomal abnormality or linkage
a. Colour blindness - y Linked
b. Erythroblastosis Fetalis -X Linked
c. Klinefelter syndrome - 44 + XXY
d. Down's syndrome - 44 + XO
18. Which of the following conditions of the zygote would lead to the birth of a normal human female
child.
a. Only one X- chromosome
b. One X and one Y chromosome
c. Two X chromosome
d. Only one Y chromosome.
19. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which F1 generation resembles both the parents
a. Codominance
b. Incomplete dominance
c. law of dominance
d. Inheritance of one gene.
20. Gene which code for a pair of contrasting traits are:
a. Factors
b. Traits
c. Gametes
d. Alleles
21. Turner syndrome is caused by
a. loss of an autosome
b. loss of an X chromosome
c. Trisomy of 21st chromosome
d. Trisomy of 18th chromosome
22. Which of the following muscular disorder is inherited
a. Tetany
b. Muscular dystrophy
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Botulism
23. In Sickle Cell anaemia, Glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets code
for Valine.
a. GGG
b. AAG
c. GAA
d. GUG
24. Persons having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. this is because of
a. Pleiotropy
b. Codominance

37
 c. Segregation
d. Incomplete dominance
25. First geneticist/ father of genetics was
a. De Varies
b. Mendel
c. Darwin
d. Morgan
26. An individual with two identical alleles is is
a. Hybrid
b. Dominant
c. Homozygous
d. Heterozygous
27. A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. what would be the
genotype of both the parents?
a. TT x Tt
b. Tt x Tt
c. TT x TT
d. Tt x tt
28. In the F2 generation of a mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are:
a. Phenotypes- 4, genotypes- 16
b. Phenotypes - 9, genotypes-4
c. Phenotypes- 4 , Genotypes-8
d. Phenotypes -4, genotypes-9
29. The character which appeared in the first filial generation are called
a. Recessive characters
b. Dominant character
c. Holandric characters
d. Lethal characters
30. What will be the distribution of phenotypic features in the first filial generation after a cross between
a Homozygous female and a heterozygous male of a single locus?
a. 3:1
b. 1:2:1
c. 1:1
d. None of these
31. To determine the genotype of a tall plant of F2 generation, Mendel crossed this plant with a dwarf
plant. this cross represents a
a. Test cross
b. Back
c. Reciprocal cross
d. Dihybrid
32. The incorrect statement with regards to haemophilia is
a. It is a recessive disease
b. It is a dominant disease

38
 c. A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is effect
d. It Is a sex linked disease
33. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except
a. It should be able to express itself in the form of “Mendelian characters”
b. It should be able to generate its replica.
c. It should be unstable structurally and chemically.
d. It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution .
34. Mendel obtained wrinkle seeds in due to depression of Sugars instead of starch. it was due to which
enzyme?
a. Amylase
b. Invertase
c. Diastase
d. Absence of starch branching enzyme
35. By which process there is a gain of segment of DNA which results in alteration in Chromosomes.
a. Insertion
b. Duplication
c. Both a and b
d. Deletion
36. In Mendel's experiment which trait is recessive?
a. Yellow pod colour
b. yellow seed colour
c. violet flower
d. Inflated pod
37. Abnormal conditions and mammary gland of man becomes female like
a. Gynecomastia
b. Feminization
c. Gonochorism
d. Gynosism
38. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of
a. Point mutation
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. Co-dominance.
d. Chromosomal aberration
39. In ANTIRRHINUM two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced Red,
Pink and White flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of
the two plants used for hybridization ? Red Flowers colour is determined by RR and white by rr
gene.
a. Rr
b. Rr
c. RR
d. rrrr
40. Who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
a. Mendel

39
 b. Lamarck
c. Sutton and Boveri
d. Sutton and Morgan
41. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of
chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because
a. It reproduces parthenogenetically
b. Smaller female is easily recognisable from larger Male
c. Single meeting producers too young fly
d. It completes its life cycle in about 2 weeks.
42. Phenotypic ratio in plant Snapdragon in F2 Ace
a. 1:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:1
d. 1:2:1
43. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a
genetic cross is called
a. Pedigree analysis
b. Punnett square
c. Chromosome mein
d. Genotype
44. X- Chromosome orX- body was first observed by:
a. Mendel
b. Castle
c. Henking
d. Bateson
45. ¼ TT, ½ Tt, ¼ tt Is binomial expression of
a. (½ T + 1/2t)2
b. (¼ T + 1/4t)2
c. (¼ T+½ t)2
d. (½ T +¼ t)2
46. Which law of Mendel and genetics can be considered universal
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Independent assortment
d. Segregation
47. Mendel's law of segregation is also known as
a. Law of separation
b. Law of dominance
c. Law of purity of gametes
d. Law of independent assortment
48. In diploid set of chromosomes, deletion and addition of member leads to
a. Aneuploidy
b. Euploidy

40
 c. Polyploidy
d. Triploidy
49. In this human Pedigree, the field symbols represent the affected individuals. identify the type of this
Pedigree

a. Autosomal dominant
b. X- linked recessive
c. Autosomal recessive
d. X- Linked dominant
50. From the pedigree chart, one can make an analysis that it is an

a. Autosomal dominant trait

b. Autosomal recessive trait
c. Allosomal dominant trait
d. Allosomal recessive trait

41
ANSWERS:
1. D 26. C
2. D 27. B
3. B 28. D
4. A 29. B
5. D 30. C
6. C 31. A
7. B 32. B
8. B 33. C
9. B 34. D
10.A 35. C
11.A 36. A
12.C 37. A
13.B 38. B
14.B 39. B
15.D 40. C
16.B 41. D
17.C 42. D
18.C 43. B
19.A 44. C
20.D 45. A
21.B 46. D
22.B 47. C
23.D 48. A
24.B 49. C
25.B 50. B

42
1. In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked Together by
a. Glycosidic Bonds
b. Phosphodiester Bond
c. Peptide bonds
d. Hydrogen bonds
2. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of Sugars called
a. Trioses
b. Hexoses
c. Pentoses
d. Polysaccharides
3. The first genetic material could be
a. Protein
b. Carbohydrates
c. DNA
d. RNA
4. Who amongst the following scientist made no contribution in the development of double helix model
for the structure of DNA?
a. Rosalind Franklin
b. Maurice Wilkins
c. Erwin chargaff
d. Meselson and Stahl
5. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs on one strand because
a. DNA molecule been synthesized is very long
b. DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization only in one direction
(5’ → 3’)
c. It is more efficient process
d. DNA ligase has to have a role
6. Which of the following steps in transcription is catalyzed by RNA polymerase
a. Initiation
b. Elongation
c. Termination
d. All the above
7. Which of the following are the function of RNA
a. It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesizing polypeptides.
b. It carries amino acids to ribosomes
c. It is constituents component of ribosome
d. All the above
43
 8. In Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of of N 15/N15.
N15/N14, N14/N14 Containing DNA in the fourth generation would be
a. 1:1:0
b. 1:4:0
c. 0:1:3
d. 0:1:7
9. If the sequence of Nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is5’---ATGAATG-
-3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
a. 5’-- AUGAAUG--3’
b. 5’--UACUUAC--3’
c. 5’--CAUUCAU--3’
d. 5’--GUAAGUA--3’
10. If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is5’--AUG--3’, the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be:
a. 5’--UAC--3’
b. 5’--CAU--3’
c. 5’--AUG--3’
d. 5’--GUA--3’
11. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its:
a. 5’--end
b. 3’--end
c. Anticodon site
d. DHU loop
12. In E coli the Lac Operon get switched on when:
a. lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
b. repressor binds to operator
c. RNA polymerases bind to the operator
d. lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
13. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf
a. r RNA
b. hn RNA
c. m RNA
d. t RNA
14. Mutational event, when Adenine Is replaced by a Guanine it is a case of:
a. Frameshift mutation
b. Transcription
c. Transition
d. Transeversion
15. DNA strands are antiparallel because of the presence of:
a. H - bonds
b. Peptide bonds
c. Disulfide bonds
d. Phosphodiester bonds
16. H .G .Khurana was awarded Nobel Prize for:

44
 a. Discovering DNA
b. Discovering RNA
c. Discovering DNA polymerase
d. Chemical synthesis of gene
17. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Ribosomal RNA- carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
b. Transcription-- process by which protein is synthesized
c. Translation-- process by which mRNA carries the information from nucleus to the ribosome.
d. Anticodon-- site of tRNA molecule that contains complementary bases to the triple code on the
mRNA.
18. Operon is:
a. Set of closely linked genes regulating a metabolic Pathways in prokaryotes
b. The sequence of three nitrogen bases determining a single amino acid
c. The sequence of Nitrogen bases in mRNA which codes for single amino acid.
d. A gene responsible for switching on or off other genes.
19. RNA has uracil instead of:
a. Cytosine
b. Guanine
c. Thymine
d. all of these
20. Which amino acids are present in histones?
a. Lysine and Histidine
b. Valine and Histidine
c. Arginine and Lysine
d. Arginine and Histidine
21. AUG codes for:
a. Valine
b. Histidine
c. Phenylalanine
d. Methionine
22. DNA fingerprinting technique was first developed by:
a. Schleiden and Schwann
b. Edward and Steptoe
c. Jeffreys, Wilson and Thien
d. Boysen and Jensen
23. Which one of the following makes use of the RNA template to synthesise DNA?
a. DNA polymerase
b. RNA polymerase
c. Reverse reverse trance
d. DNA dependent RNA polymerase.
24. In the Lac Operon the structural genes are switched off when:
a. Repressor binds to operator
b. Repressor binds to promoter

45
 c. Repressive binds to regulator
d. Repressor binds to inducer
25. A nucleosome is a portion of the chromonema containing:
a. Only histones
b. Both DNA and histones
c. Only DNA
d. Both DNA and RNA
26. In DNA Adenine combines with
a. Thymine
b. Uracil
c. Guanine
d. Cytosine
27. Lac Operon system Lac gene -Z Codes for:
a . Inducer
b. Repressor
C. Promoter
D. β- Galactosidase
28. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of:
a. r- RNA
b. t- RNA
c. m-RNA
d. c- RNA
29. DNA ligase helps in :
a. Removal of nucleotides Residue
b. Linkage of single standard nicks
c. Fragmentation of DNA strand
d. Energy supply for DNA synthesis
30. VNTR Stands for
a. Variable number thymine Repeats
b. Variable number transcription repeats
c. Variable nucleotide tandem repeats
d. Variable number tandem repeats
31. The enzyme that reduces the tension during the unwinding of DNA helix in front of the
replication fork is:
a. Topoisomerase
b. Helicase
c. Ligase
d. Endonuclease
32. After transcription of m RNA splicing takes place to eliminate:
a. Exon
b. Introns
c. Mutons
d. Recons

46
33. Nucleosome contains:
a. H2A, H2B, H3, H4
b. H3, H4
c. H2A, H2B, H3
d. H1, H2A, H2B, H3
34. In a DNA molecule, nitrogen bases are joined to each other by:
a. H- bonds
b. Peptide bonds
c. Glycosidic bonds
d. Phosphodiester Bond
35. Site of protein synthesis is:
a. Ribosomes
b. SER
c. Golgi bodies
d. Lysosomes
36. Which of the following is a stop codon?
a. UAG
b. UGG
c. UCG
d. GUA
37. Operon concept was given by:
a. Jacob and Monad
b. David Baltimore
c. Allec Jeffreys
d. None of the above
38. The haploid content of human DNA:
a. 3.3 x 109bp
b. 3.3 x 109kbp
c. 4.6 x 10 6bp
d. 1.65 x 109bp
39. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:
a. Drosophila melanogaster
b. Escherichia coli
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
40. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:
a. Transformation
b. Tailing
c. Splicing
d. Capping
41. Typical nucleosome contains:
a. 100 bp of DNA helix
b. 200 bp of DNA helix

47
 c. 300 bp of DNA helix
d. 400 bp of DNA helix
42. In transcription in eukaryotes heterogeneous nuclear RNA(hn RNA) is transcribed by:
a. RNA polymerase I
b. RNA polymerase II
c. RNA polymerase III
d. all of these
43. GTP is added to the 5’ end of hn RNA In a process of:
a. Tailing
b. Splicing
c. Capping
d. None of these
44. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by:
a. Har Govind Khurana
b. Alec jeffreys
c. Ian Wilmut
d. Francois jacob
45. The total amount of adenine and thymine in a double stranded DNA is 45% the amount of guanine in this
DNA will be:
a. 22.5%
b. 27.5%
c. 45%
d. 55%
46. Locations or sites in the human DNA where single base DNA differences occur are called:
a. VNTR
b. SSCP
c. SNP
d. Repetitive DNA
47. Human Genome Project was officially started in: in
a. 1989
b. 1990
c. 1985
d. 1993
48. During replication of DNA the two strands of the double helix are separated from each other under the
influence of enzyme:
a. Rep -protein
b. SSBP
c. Initiation protein
d. DNA polymerase
49. The transcription unit is represented by the following diagram. select the correct answer based on this:

48
 a. A- promoter, B- Terminator, C- coding strand, D- structural gene
b. A- promoter, B- coding strand, C- Terminator, D- structural gene
c. A- Terminator, B- coding strand, C- structural gene, D- promoter
d. A- promoter, B- structural gene, C- coding strand, D- Terminator
50. A molecule that acts as a genetic material must fulfill the traits except:
a. it should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
b. it should be able to express itself in the form of “Mendelian characters”
c. It should be able to generate its replica
d. it should be unstable structurally and chemically

49
ANSWERS:
1. B 26. A
2. C 27. D
3. D 28. C
4. D 29. B
5. B 30. D
6. B 31. A
7. D 32. B
8. D 33. A
9. A 34. A
10.B 35. A
11.B 36. A
12.A 37. A
13.D 38. A
14.C 39. B
15.A 40. C
16.D 41. B
17.D 42. B
18.A 43. C
19.C 44. B
20.C 45. B
21.D 46. C
22.C 47. B
23.C 48. A
24.A 49. D
25.B 50. D

50
1. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that:
a. Life arose from living forms only
b. Life can arise from both living and nonliving
c. Life can arise from non- living things only
d. Llfe arise spontaneously, neither from living not from the nonliving
2. The earliest man revolved around
a. 1-1.4 Million years
b. 2.0 -2.5 million years
c. 4 million years
d. 0.6 million years
3. Common ancestor of humans and apes was
a. Dryopithecus
b. Ramapithecus
c. Australopithecus
d. Homeo habilis
4. Flying phalanger and flying squirrels are examples of:
a. Adaptive radiation
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Convergent evolution
5. Dryopithecus lived on earth between:
a. 1-4 million years
b. 4-8 million years
c. 8-15 million years
d. 15-26 million years
6. Paleontological evidence of evolution refer to the:
a. development of embryo
b. August or
c. Fossils
d. Analogous organs
7. The bones of forelimbs of wale, bat, Cheetah and men are similar in structure because:
a. One organism has given rise to another
b. They share a common ancestor
c. Death
d. They have biochemical similarities
8. Analogous organs arise due to:
a. Divergent evolution
b. Artificial selection
c. Genetic drift
d. Convergent evolution
51
9. ( p + q )2 = p2 + 2pq + q2= 1 Represents an equation used in:
a. Population genetics
b. Mendelian Genetics
c. Biometrics
d. Molecular genetics
10. Appearance of antibiotic resistant Bacteria is an example of:
a. Adaptive radiation
b. Transduction
c. Pre-existing variation in population
d. Divergent evolution
11. Fossils are generally found in
a. Sedimentary rocks
b. Igneous rocks
c. Metamorphic rocks
d. Any type of Rock
12. The most accepted line of Descent in human evolution is:
a. Australopithecus →Ramapithecus→ Homosapiens→ Homo habilis
b. Homo erectus → Homo habilus→ Homosapiens
c. Ramapithecus →Homo habilus →Homoerectus→ Homosapiens
d. Australopithecus →Ramapithecus→ Homo erectus→ Homo habilus → Homosapiens
13. Which is an example of link species:
a. Lobe Fish
b. Dodo fish
c. Seaweed
d. Tyrannosaurus rex.
14. Which of the following pairs of structures is considered to be Homologous.
a. Wings of grasshopper and falling off a flying squirrel
b. Forelimbs of a bat and four legs of a horse
c. Tentacles of hydra and arms of Starfish
d. Wing of a bird and wing of a moth
15. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Preventing speciation
b. Speciation through reproductive isolation
c. Random creation of new species
d. No change in the isolated fauna
16. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000cc in:
a. Ramapithecus
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo habilis
d. Homo erectus
17. Darwin's finches provided an excellent evidence in favour of organic evolution. these are related to which
of the following evidences?
a. Anatomy

52
 b. Biogeography
c. Embryology
d. Paleontology
18. An evolutionary process giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats and ways of life is called:
a. Adaptive radiation
b. Adaptation
c. Microevolution
d. Convergent evolution
19. Sweet potato and potato are examples of:
a. Homologous structures
b. Analogous structures
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
20. An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of: of
a. Analogous and vestigial organs
b. Homologous organs only
c. Homologous organs and vestigial organs
d. Homologous and Analogous organs
21. Which of the following define hardy Weinberg’s equations:
a. P2 + 2pq + q 2 =1
b. P2 + pq + q 2 =1
c. P2 + 2pq + q 2 =0
d. q 2 + p 2 + pq = 0
22. Darwin's finches are an excellent example of:
a. Brood parasitism
b. Seasonal migration
c. Connecting links
d. Adaptive radiation
23. Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of kukur Bitha are example of:
a. Vestigial Organs
b. Analogous organs
c. Retrogressive evolution
d. Homologous organs
24. Higher frequency of melanic British modes and DDT resistance in mosquitoes are cited as example for:
a. Point mutation
b. Natural selection
c. Genetic drift
d. Arrival of the fittest
25. Closely related species varying in different traits Express:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Parallel evolution
d. None of these

53
26. H.M.S Beagle is associated with which scientist:
a. Darwin
b. Lamarck
c. Columbus
d. Wallace
27. Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic
recombination and….?
a. Evolution
b. Natural selection
c. Limiting factor
d. Saltation
28. Which of the following was formed in S. Miller’s Experiment?
a. Microspheres
b. Nucleic acids
c. Amino acids
d. UV radiations
29. Which of the following are not analogous organs?
a. Fins of fishes and flippers of whales
b. Stings of honey bee and Scorpion
c. Wing of insect and Wings of pterodactyl
d. Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita.
30. Industrial melanism is an example of:
a. Drug resistance
b. Protective resemblance with the surrounding
c. Darkening of skin due to industries
d. Defensive adaptation of skin against UV radiation
31. Single-step large mutation leading to specification is also called:
a. Founder effect
b. Adaptive radiation
c. Saltation
d. Branching descent
32. In early earth water and carbon dioxide were produced by the combination of oxygen with:
a. Ammonia and methane
b. Organic matter
c. Hydrogen sulphide
d. Hydrogen
33. The primitive atmosphere of earth contained water vapours, hydrogen, ammonia and:
a. carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. Methane
34. Which gas was absent/ least abundant in the early atmosphere?
a. H2O

54
 b. O2
c. CO2
d. NH3
35. Genetic drift is change of
a. Gene frequency in the same generation
b. Appearance of recessive geneP2 + 2P2 + 2pq + q2 =1
c. pq + q2 =1
d. Gene frequency from one generation to the next
36. Oparin and haldane proposed
a. Theory of natural selection
b. That mutation caused specification
c. That the first form of life could have come from preexisting non living organic molecules.
d. That evolution of life forms had been driven by use and disuse of organs.
37. According to the theory of spontaneous generation:
a. Life originated from outer space
b. Life originated from decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
c. Life comes from preexisting life
d. Life can form from both living and nonliving matter.
38. All of the following are ape man stages in origin of man except:
a. Ramapithecus
b. Kenyapithecus
c. Dryopithecus
d. Australopithecus
39. The finches of Galapagos Island provide an evidence in favour of
a. Evolution due to mutation
b. Retrogressive evolution
c. Biogeographical evolution
d. Special creation
40. Who wrote the famous book” Origin of Species”
a. Lamarck
b. Darwin
c. De Varies
d. Mendel

55
ANSWERS:
1. C 21. A
2. B 22. D
3. A 23. D
4. D 24. B
5. D 25. B
6. C 26. A
7. B 27. B
8. D 28. C
9. A 29. D
10.C 30. B
11.A 31. B
12.C 32. C
13.A 33. A
14.B 34. D
15.B 35. B
16.B 36. C
17.B 37. B
18.A 38. C
19.B 39. C
20.D 40. B

56
 UNIT: 3

BIOLOGY AND HUMAN

WELFARE

57
1. Which one is a contagious disease?
a. Ringworm
b. Syphilis
c. Gonorrhea
d. All of the above
2. Droplet infection occurs in case of
a. Influenza
b. Tetanus
c. Rabis
d. Polio
3. Mary Mallon was a career of:
a. Malaria
b. Typhoid
c. Pneumonia
d. Flu
4. Typhoid infection occurs in
a. Blood
b. Intestine
c. Liver
d. Both a and b
5. Passage of blood, mucus and mucous membrane pieces in stool indicate
a. Ascariasis
b. Filariasis
c. Amoebiasis
d. Malaria
6. Persistent subclinical Malaria is produced by:
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. Plasmodium falciparum
7. The term ‘Health’ is defined in many ways. the most accurate definition of health would be:
a. Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition.
b. Health is the reflection of a smiling face
c. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
d. Health is the symbol of economic prosperity.
8. The organism which cause disease in plants and animals are called:
a. Pathogens
b. Vectors
c. Insects
d. Worms
9. The chemical test that is used in diagnosis of typhoid is:
a. ELISA test
b. ESR test
c. PCR test

58
 d. Widal test
10. The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a human beings are
formed in :
a. liver of human
b. RBCs of mosquito
c. Salivary glands of mosquito
d. Intestine of human
11. The disease ‘ Chikungunya ‘ is transmitted by
a. House flies
b. Aedes mosquitoes
c. Cockroach
d. Female Anopheles
12. Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. which group of symptoms
are indicative of pneumonia?
a. Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
b. Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
c. Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
d. High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation.
13. The genes causing cancer are:
a. Structural genes
b. Expressor genes
c. Oncogenes
d. Regulatory genes
14. In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form
New tumors. this is a stage of diseases called:
a. Metagenesis
b. Metastasis
c. Teratogenesis
d. Mitosis
15. Which of the following are reason(s) for rheumatoid arthritis? choose the correct option:
1. Lymphocytes become more active
2. Body attacks self cells
3. More antibodies are produced in the body
4. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 4
c. 3 & 4
d. 1 & 3
16. AIDS is caused by HIV. among the following, which one is not mode of transmission of HIV
a. Transfusion of contaminated blood
b. Sharing of infected needles
c. Shaking hands with infected persons
d. Sexual contact with infected persons
17. “ Smack” is a drug obtained from the:
a. Latex of Papaver somniferum
b. Leaves of Cannabis sativa
c. Flowers of Datura
d. Fruits of erythroxylon coca
18. The substance produced by a cell in a viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection
is:
59
 a. Serotonin
b. Colostrum
c. Interferons
d. Histamine
19. Transplantation of tissue/ organs to some certain patients often fails due to rejection of such tissues/
organ by the patient. which type of immune response is responsible for such rejection
a. Autoimmune response
b. Humoral immune response
c. Physiological immune response
d. Cell mediated immune response
20. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the newborn from certain disease is of:
a. Ig G type
b. Ig A type
c. Ig D type
d. Ig E type
21. Opium is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and non-adrenaline. The component causing this
could be
a. Nicotine
b. Tannic acid
c. Curaimin
d. Catechin
22. Anti-venom against snake poison contains:
a. Antigens
b. Antigen-antibody complexes
c. Antibodies
d. Enzymes
23. Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue?
a. Spleen
b. Tonsils
c. Appendix
d. Thymus
24. Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with aging?
a. Pineal
b. Pituitary
c. Thymus
d. Thyroid
25. Hemozoin is:
a. A precursor of hemoglobin
b. A toxin from Streptococcus
c. A toxin from plasmodium species
d. A toxin from haemophilus spaces.
26. One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm
a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Epidermophyton
d. Microsporum
27. A person with Sickle Cell anaemia is
a. More prone to malaria
b. More prone to typhoid
c. Less prone to malaria
60
 d. Less prone to typhoid
28. Tetanus disease is caused by
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Fungus
d. Mycoplasma
29. Lysozyme are found in :
a. Saliva
b. Tears
c. Saliva and tears both
d. Mitochondria
30. Cancer cells are characterized by
a. Uncontrolled growth
b. Spreading to the other body parts
c. Invasion of local tissue
d. All the above
31. Which one of the following is stimulant?
a. LSD
b. Cocaine
c. Opium
d. Heroin
32. Which is an autoimmune disease?
a. Cancer
b. Asthma
c. Erythroblastosis Fetalis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
33. Humoral immunity system is mediated by :
a. B- cells
b. T- cells
c. NK cells
d. Plasma cells
34. Which immunoglobulin is is the largest in size:
a. Ig A
b. Ig D
c. Ig E
d. Ig M
35. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to:
a. Reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
b. Reduction in stem cell production
c. Loss of antibody mediated immunity
d. Loss of cell mediated immunity
36. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between
a. Two light chains
b. Two heavy chains
c. One heavy and one light chain
d. Either between the two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain (depending upon
the nature of antigen)
37. Man in life cycle of plasmodium is:
a. Primary host
b. Secondary host
61
 c. Intermediate host
d. None of these
38. Passive immunity Can be obtained by injecting
a. Antibodies
b. Antigens
c. Antibiotics
d. Vaccination
39. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by:
a. Cocaine
b. Alcohol
c. LSD
d. Morphine
40. Disease existing at or before birth is
a. Congenital
b. Communicable
c. Non communicable
d. None of these
41. Ascaris is most commonly found in:
a. Men
b. Women
c. Children
d. Both a and b
42. When is World AIDS Day celebrated?
a. 23rd May
b. 7th July
c. 14th July
d. 1st December
43. Which alkaloid is found in opium
a. Morphine
b. Codeine
c. Narcotine
d. All the above
44. The term humour in humoral immunity implies
a. Hormones
b. Bone marrow
c. Plasma and lymph
d. Cerebrospinal fluid
45. Typhoid fever is caused by a species of
a. Streptococcus
b. Salmonella
c. Staphylococcus
d. Mycobacterium
46. Filariasis is caused by:
a. Entamoeba
b. Wuchereria
c. Ascaris
d. fasciola
47. If a person shows the production of interference in his body, chances are that he is suffering from:
a. Measles
b. Tetanus
62
 c. Anthrax
d. Malaria
48. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given:
a. Penicillin
b. Streptokinase
c. cyclosporine-A
d. statin
49. Flaming Chain and Florey were awarded by Nobel Prize in 1945 for the discovery of:
a. HIV
b. CT Scan
c. Penicillin
d. antibodies
50. Antibodies are synthesized by:
a. B- lymphocytes
b. Memory T- cells
c. Helper -T- cells
d. T- lymphocytes

63
ANSWERS:
1. D 26. D
2. A 27. C
3. B 28. B
4. D 29. C
5. C 30. B
6. B 31. B
7. C 32. D
8. A 33. A
9. D 34. D
10.C 35. D
11.B 36. C
12.A 37. B
13.C 38. A
14.B 39. B
15.B 40. A
16.C 41. C
17.A 42. D
18.C 43. A
19.D 44. C
20.A 45. B
21.A 46. B
22.C 47. A
23.C 48. B
24.C 49. C
25.C 50. A

64
1. Mexican wheat developed by Norman Barlaug was
a. Triple dwarf
b. Double dwarf
c. Single dwarf
d. None of the above
2. Jaya and Ratna are high yielding, disease resistant and semi dwarf varieties of:
a. Wheat
b. Maize
c. Rice
d. Millets
3. Pusa Swarnim which is the resultant to White rust is improved variety of
a. Wheat
b. Cow pea
c. Cauliflower
d. Brassica
4. Pusa Sawani Variety of okra is resistant to
a. Aphids
b. Jassids
c. Shoot and fruit borer
d. Hill bunt
5. Amino acids deficient in cereals are
a. Glycine and aspartic acid
b. Lysine and tryptophan
c. Methionine and cysteine
d. Glutamic acid and lysine
6. A single cell protein is
a. Spirulina
b. Methylophilus methylotropus
c. Candida utilis
d. All the above
7. The common hormones used in tissue culture are
a. IAA and Kinetin
b. IAA and GA3
c. 2 , 4 D and BAP
d. BAP and Ga3
8. In Meristem culture the explant used is
a. Shoot tip
b. third and fourth nodal sections

65
 c. Both a and b
d. Callus
9. Father of white revolution in India was
a. Swaminathan
b. Kurien
c. Maheshwari
d. Sahni
10. Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it
a. Increases Vigour
b. Improves the breed
c. Increases heterozygosity
d. Increases homozygosity.
10. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of
a. Wheat
b. Rice
c. Millet
d. Tobacco .
11. Which one of the following is not a fungal disease
a. Rust of wheat
b. Smut of Bajra
c. Black rot of crucifers
d. Red rot of sugarcane .
12. In virus infected plants , the meristemetic tissues in both apical and axillary buds are free of
virus because
a. The dividing cells are virus resistant
B. Meristems have antiviral compounds
c. Cell division of meristems are faster than the rate of viral multiplication
d. Viruses cannot multiply within Meristem cells
13. The terms totipotency refers to capacity of a
a. Cell to generate whole plant
b. Bud to generate whole plant
c. seed to germinate
d. Cell To enlarge in size.
14. An explant is:
a. Dead plant
b. Part of the plant
c. Part of the plant used in tissue culture
d. Part of the plant that Express a specific gene
15. India's wheat elding revolution in the 1960 was possible primarily due to
a. Hybrid seed
b. Increased chlorophyll content
c. Mutations resulting in plant height reduction
d. Quantitative trait mutation

66
16. Which one of the following is a marine fish?
a. Rohu
b. Hilsa
c. Catla
d. common crap
17. Which one of the following products of Apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes?
a. Honey
b. oil
c. Wax
d. Royal jelly
18. 33% of India's GDP (Gross Domestic Product) comes from
a. Industry
b. Agriculture
c. Export
d. small scale cottage industries
19. A collection of all the alleles of all the genes of a crop plant is called:
a. Germplasm collection
b. Protoplasm collection
c. Herbarium
d. Somaclonal collection
20. Mule is a product of
a. Breeding
b. Mutation
c. Hybridization
d. Interspecific hybridization
21. One of the following is a disease of poultry
a. Anthrax
b. Ranikhet disease
c. Foot and mouth disease
d. Pebrine disease
22. Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are:
a. Wheat, rice and maize
b. Wheat, rise and barley
c. Wheat, maize and sorghum
d. Rice, Maize and sorghum
23. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with:
a. White revolution
b. Green Revolution
c. Yellow revolution
d. Blue revolution
24. Callus is:
a. Undifferentiated mass of tissue
b. Root formation in culture media

67
 c. Plant hormones
d. Plant by product
25. Rearing of bee is known as:
a. Silviculture
b. Silviculture
c. Apiculture
d. Horticulture
26 . Man made crop Triticale is a hybrid between
a. Wheat and rye
b. Rice and barley
c. Maize and barley
d. Rice and maize
27. Mating between two individuals differing in genotypes to produce genetic variation is called
a. Domestication
b. Introduction
c. Hybridization
d. Mutation
28. Crop plants grown in monoculture are
a. Highly prone to pests
b. Low in yield
c. Intraspecific competition
d. Characterized by poor root system
29. “Pusa Swarnim “ a variety of brassica is resistant to
a. Bacterial blight
b. White Rust
c. Curl and black rot
d. Mosaic virus
30. The most commonly maintained species of bee by beekeepers is:
a. Apis dorsata
b. Apis mellifera
c. Apis indica
d. Apis florea
31. The species of “saccharum” originally grown in India was:
a. S. officinarum
b. S. berberi
c. S. boulardii
d. S. munja
32. “ Himgiri” developed by hybridization and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a
variety of
a. Sugarcane
b. Wheat
c. Chilli
d. Maize

68
33. An example of semi dwarf variety of wheat is:
a. IR -8
b. Sonalika
c. Triticum
d. Saccharum
34. Blue revolution is:
a. Increased exploitation of Aquatic product
b. Increased grain production
c. Increased beef production
d. Increased milk production
35. “Hisardale” is obtained by crossing
a. Bikaneri ewes with merino Rams
b. Superior bowl with superior cow
c. Merino ewes With Bikaneri Rams
d. Horse with donkey
36. Which one of the following varieties is resistant to White rust disease?
a. Pusa Sem 2
b. Pusa Kamal
c. Pusa Swami
d. Pusa Swarnim
37. Interspecific hybridization is mating:
a. More closely related individuals within the same breed for 4 to 6 generations
b. Animals within same breed without having common ancestors
c. Two different related species
d. Superior males and females of different breeds
38. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal breeding because it
a. Helps in accumulation of superior genes
b. Is useful in producing pure lines of animals
c. Is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression
d. Exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection
39. The breeding of unrelated animals which may be between individuals of the same breed but having no
common ancestors or between different breeds for different species is known as
a. Interspecific hybridization
b. Outbreeding
c. Outcrossing
d. Cross breeding
40. MOET Is a program that is used to increase:
a. Herd size
b. Biomass
c. Disease resistance
d. Yield

69
ANSWERS:
1. A 21. B
2. C 22. A
3. D 23. B
4. C 24. A
5. B 25. C
6. D 26. A
7. C 27. C
8. C 28. A
9. B 29. B
10.D 30. B
11.A 31. B
12.C 32. B
13.C 33. B
14.C 34. A
15.C 35. A
16.B 36. D
17.C 37. C
18.B 38. C
19.A 39. B
20.D 40. A

70
 1. Yeast produces enzyme
a. Amylase
b. Maltase
c. zymase
d. All the above
2. The inoculum for Indian curd contains bacteria:
a. Lactobacillus acidophilus
b. lactobacillus bulgaricus
c. Streptococcus thermophilus
d. Streptococcus faecalis
3. Therapeutic value of penicillin was explored by
a. Fleming
b. Chain and Florey
c. Waksman
d. Avery et.al.
4. Statin is obtained from
a. Streptococcus species
b. Trichoderma polysporum
c. Monascus purpureus
d. Endothia species
5. Agricultural practice using biopesticides and biofertilizers is called:
a. Sustainable agriculture
b. Organic farming
c. Biofortified agriculture
d. Proto biotics
6. Formation of biogas from Waste Biomass involve
a. Decomposition
b. Acidogenesis
c. Methanogenesis
d. All the above
7. Azolla is used as biofertilizers as it has
a. Rhizobium
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Mycorrhiza
d. large quantity of humus
8. Spirulina is an:
a. Edible fungus
b. Biofertilizer
71
 c. single cell protein
d. Biopesticides
9. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. the prefix Bt means
a. Barium treated cotton seeds
b. Bigger thread variety of cotton with better tensile strength
c. Produced by biotechnology using restriction enzymes and ligases
d. Carrying an endotoxin gene from bacillus thuringienesis
10. Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by
a. Absorbing inorganic ions from soil
b. Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric nitrogen
c. Protecting the plant from infection
d. Serving as plant growth regulator
11. The enzyme that converts glucose into alcohol
a. Lipase
b. Zymase
c. Diastase
d. Invertase
12. Biogas production from Waste Biomass with the help of methanogenic bacteria is
a. One step process
b. Two step process
c. Three step process
d. Multistep process
13. most famous bacterial fertilizer is
a. Nitrosomonas
b. Nitrobacter
c. Nitro coccus
d. Rhizobium
14. some blue green Algae are used as biofertilizers because they can
a. Fix nitrogen
b. Secret mucilage
c. Perform photosynthesis
d. Grow everywhere
15. “ Bt “ Toxin is
a. Intracellular lipid
b. Intracellular crystalline protein
c. Extracellular crystalline protein
Lipids
16. Which one is used for preparation of bread
a. Lactobacillus
b. Streptobacillus
c. Aspergillus
d. S.cerevisiae
17. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a

72
 a. Chemical process
b. Biological process
c. Physical process
d. Mechanical process
18. which is mainly produced by the activity of an aerobic bacteria on sewage
a. Mustard gas
b. Marsh gas
c. Laughing gas
d. Propane
19. A good producer of citric acid
a. Saccharomyces
b. Aspergillus
c. Pseudomonas
d. Clostridium
20. Statin blood cholesterol lowering agent is commercially obtained from
a. Trichoderma polysporum
b. Acetobacter aceti
c. Clostridium butyricum
d. Monascus purpureus
21. roquefort cheese is ripened by using
a. Type of Yeast
b. Fungus
c. Bacterium
d. Cyanobacterium
22. Which of the following microorganisms as used as biofertilizer
a. Bacillus
b. Azospirillum
c. pseudomonas
d. Saccharomyces
23. Conversion of milk to curd improves its Nutritive value by increasing the amount of
a. Vitamin B 12
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
24. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids
a. Tertiary treatment
b. Secondary treatment
c. Primary treatment
d. Sludge treatment
25. BOD Of wastewater is estimated by measuring the amount of
a. Total organic matter
b. Biodegradable organic matter
c. Oxygen evolution

73
 d. Oxygen consumption
26. Which of the following alcoholic drinks is produced without distillation?
a. Wine
b. Whisky
c. Ram
d. Brandy
27. The technology of biogas production from cow dung was developed in India largely due to the efforts of
a. Gas Authority of India
b. Oil and natural gas Commission
c. Indian culture Agricultural Research Institute and Khadi and village Industries Commission
d. Indian Oil Corporation
28. The free living fungus trichoderma can be used for
a. killing insects
b. Biological control of plant diseases
c. Controlling butterfly caterpillars
d. Producing antibiotics
29. What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge blocks is reduced?
a. It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic matter
b. The centre of locks will become anoxic which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of
loss
c. Flox would increase in size as an aerobic bacteria will grow around flocks
d. Protozoa will grow in large numbers
30. Big holes in Swiss Cheese are made by
a. A machine
b. A bacterium that produces Methane Gas
c. A bacterium producing a large amount of carbon dioxide
d. A fungus that release a lot of gases during its metabolic activities
31. The Residue left after Methane production from cattle dung is
a. Burnt
b. Buried in landfills
c. Used as manure
d. Used in civil construction
32. Methanogens do not produce
a. Oxygen
b. Methane
c. Hydrogen sulphide
d. Carbon dioxide
33. Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can
a. Be abruptly pumped back from sedimentation tank to irrigation tank
b. Absorb pathogenic bacteria present in waste water while sinking to the bottom of settling tank
c. Be discarded and anaerobically digested
d. Absorb colloidal organic matter
34. Which one is the most important role of microorganism for the wellbeing of humans?

74
 a. Sewage treatment
b. Production of Methane
c. Biological control of plant diseases
d. Conversion of milk to curd
35. Match the following list of bacteria and their commercial important products:
BACTERIUM PRODUCT
1. Aspergillus nigger a. Lactic acid
2. Acetobacter aceti b. Butyric acid
3. Clostridium butyricum c. Acetic acid
4. Lactobacillus d. Citric acid
a. 1--b, 2--c, 3-- d, 4-- a
b. 1--b, 2--d, 3-- c, 4-- a
c. 1-- d, 2-- c, 3-- b, 4--a
d. 1--d, 2--a, 3-- c, 4-- b
36. Match the item in column A and column B and choose the correct answer
Column A Column B
1. Ladybird beetle a. Methanobacterium
2. Micorriza b. Trichoderma
3. Biological control c. Aphids
4. Biogas d. Glomus
a. 1--b, 2-- d, 3-- c, 4--a
b. 1 -- c, 2-- d, 3-- b, 4-- a
c. 1--d, 2--a, 3-- b, 4-- c
d. 1--c, 2--b, 3--a, 4--d
37. Identify a microorganism that produces Biomass of proteins
a. Monascus purpureus
b. Aspergillus niga
c. Methylophilus methylotrophus
d. Trichoderma polysporum
38. Cyclosporine a used as immunosuppressive agent in organ transplants is produced by
a. Trichoderma
b. Monascus
c. Streptococcus
d. Staphylococcus
39. Viruses of genus Nucleopolyhedrous virus are employed as
a. Gobar gas producer
b. Biological control agent
c. Anaerobic sludge digester
d. Antibiotics
40. Which of the following microbes is used for commercial production of ethanol?
a. Trichoderma polysporum
b. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c. Streptococcus

75
 d. Clostridium butyricum

ANSWERS:
1. D 21. B
2. A 22. B
3. B 23. A
4. C 24. C
5. B 25. D
6. D 26. A
7. B 27. C
8. C 28. B
9. D 29. B
10.A 30. C
11.B 31. C
12.C 32. A
13.D 33. A
14.A 34. A
15.B 35. C
16.D 36. B
17.B 37. C
18.B 38. A
19.B 39. B
20. D 40. B

76
 UNIT: 4

BIOTECHNOLOGY

77
 1. Use of genetically modified organisms or their cells for generating products and services useful to humans
is
b. Recombinant Technology
c. Modern biotechnology
d. Genetic engineering
e. Downstream processing
2. Cutting and pasting of Desired DNA fragments to form Recombinant DNA:
a. Gene splicing
b. Genetic transformation
c. Cloning
d. Annealing
3. The first restriction endonuclease extracted was
a. Eco RI
b. Bam HI
c. Hind II
d. Sma I
4. Who were the first to introduce foreign gene into a plasmid of Escherichia coli
a. Arber, Nathan and Smith
b. Cohen and Boyer
c. Kohler and Milstein
d. Hayes and Lederberg
5. Recognition sequence of each restriction endonuclease is a particular
a. Pre initiation sequence
b. Tail sequence
c. Telomere
d. Palindromic sequence
6. Restriction endonuclease which cuts the DNA strand to produce blunt ends :
a. Eco RI
b. Hind III
c. Bam III
d. Sma I
7. DNA fragments kept over agrose gel are stained with
a. Ethidium Bromide
b. Fast green
c. Aniline blue
d. Carmine

78
8. The plasmid vector obtained from Escherichia coli are commonly used in biotechnology is:
a. Ti
b. pUC-18
c. pBR 322
d. Both pUC -18 and pBR 322
9. Resistance genes present pBR 322 are
a. Penicillin and Ampicillin
b. Ampicillin and tetracycline
c. Tetracycline and Erythromycin
d. Erythromycin and Ampicillin
10. Recognition and cloning site of Ti plasmid is:
a. T- DNA
b. Ampicillin resistance genes
c. Lac gene Z
d. Tetracycline resistance gene
11. Chilled ethyl alcohol is used during rDNA technology for:
a. Precipitation of histones
b. Precipitation of DNA
c. Removal of enzymes
d. Precipitation of cell fragments
12. DNA segment means for transfer to an organism is called
a. Passenger DNA
b. Vehicle DNA
c. Vector DNA
d. Both B and C
13. Taq polymerase works best at
a. 94 degrees celsius
b. 88 degrees celsius
c. 72 degrees celsius
d. 67 degree Celsius
14. An enzyme catalyzing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is
a. Endonuclease
b. Exonuclease
c. DNA ligase
d. Hind -II
15. Which of the statements is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose
gel electrophoresis?
a. DNA can be seen in the visible light
b. DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
c. Ethidium Bromide stained DNA can be seen in the visible light
d. Ethidium Bromide staining DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
16. ‘ Restriction’ in restriction enzyme refers to
a. Cleaving of phosphodiester Bond in DNA by the enzyme

79
 b. Cutting of DNA at specific position only
c. Prevention of multiplication of phage in bacteria
d. All the above
17. A recombinant DNA molecules can be produced in the absence of the following
a. Restriction endonuclease
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA fragments
d. E.Coli
18. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their
a. Charge only
b. Size only
c. Charge to size ratio
d. All the above
19. The most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector is
a. origin of replication(ori)
b. presence of a selectable marker
c. presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
d. its size
20. Significance of ‘ heat shock ‘ method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate
a. Binding of DNA to the cell wall
b. Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
c. Uptake of DNA through transient pore in the bacterial cell wall
d. Expression of antibiotic resistance genes
21. Role of DNA ligase in the construction of a Recombinant DNA molecule is
a. Formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments
b. Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA fragments
c. Ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases
d. None of the above
22. Which of the following steps are catalysed by tag polymerase in PCR reaction
a. Saturation of template DNA
b. Annealing of primers to template DNA
c. Extension of primer and on the template DNA
d. All the above
23. Which of the following statement does not hold true for restriction enzyme
a. It recognise A palindromic nucleotide sequence
b. It is an endonuclease
c. It is isolated from virus
d. It produces the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules
24. The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from
a. Bacillus thuringiensis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
d. Agrobacterium rhizogenesis

80
25. The species used as Natural genetic engineer
a. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
b. Bacillus thurigiensis
c. Aspergillus
d. Drosophila
26. Which of the following cannot be employed as a cloning vector
a. Plastid
b. Plasmid
c. Phage
d. Transposons
27. The recognition sequence of EcoRI is
a. G↓ AATTC
b. G↓ TTAAC
c. G↓ CAATT
d. G↓ ATATTC
28. The construction of the first we component DNA was done by using the native plasmid of
a. Salmonella typhimurium
b. B. thurigiensis
c. Yeast
d. Agrobacterium
29. Molecular scissor is:
a. Peptidase
b. Urease
c. restriction endonuclease
d. Helicase
30. polymerase chain reaction( PCR) is used for
a. DNA identification
b. DNA amplification
c. DNA repair
d. Cleave DNA
31. Stirred tank bioreactor have been designed for
a. Purification of the product
b. Ensuring an aerobic conditions in the culture was
c. Availability of oxygen throughout the process
d. Addition of preservatives to the product
32. GAATTC Is the recognition site for which of the following restriction endonuclease
a. Hind III
b. Eco RI
c. Bam I
d. Hae. III
33. Gel electrophoresis unit separates the DNA according to their
a. Concentration
b. Charge

81
 c. pH
d. Size
34. The source of taq polymerase used in PCR is a
a. Thermophilic fungus
b. Mesophilic fungus
c. Thermophilic bacteria
d. Halophilic bacteria
35. Agarose extracted from seaweeds finds used in
a. PCR
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. Spectrophotometry
d. Tissue culture
36. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. what does ‘co’ part in it stands for:
a. Coenzyme
b. Coli
c. Colon
d. Coelom
37. Which one of the following Bacteria is used for production of transgenic plant
a. Escherichia coli
b. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
c. Bacillus thuringiensis
d. Staphylococcus aureus
38. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature. they are in order of:
a. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
b. Annealing, Extension , Denaturation
c. Extension, Annealing, Denaturation
d. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
39. The end of fragments of DNA molecules are sticky due to:
a. Unpaired bases
b. Free methylation
c. Endonucleases
d. Calcium ions
40. Biolistic gun is suitable for
a. Transformation of plant cells
b. Disarming pathogen vectors
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. Constructing Recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
41. In genetic engineering antibiotics are used:
a. for keeping culture free of infections
b. To select healthy vectors
c. As selectable markers
d. As sequence from where replication starts
42. In the diagrammatic representation of E.coli Vector pBR 322 which given option correctly

82
 identified certain components:

a. rop- reduced osmotic pressure

b. Hind III, E. coli - selectable markers
c. amprR, tetR- Antibiotic resistance genes
d. Ori -Original restriction enzyme.
43. During PCR technique the pairing of primers to ssDNA Segment is called
a. Denaturation
b. Annealing
c. Polymerization
d. isolation
44. Which is not a component of downstream processing
a. Expression
b. Separation
c. Purification
d. preservation
45. Identify a, b, c, d in the given diagram

a. ori , b- amp R, c- tet R, d- Hind III

b. a- Hind III, b-tet R, c-amp R, d- ori
c. a- amp R,b- tet R ,c- Hind III, d- ori
d. a- tet R, b- Hind III, c-ori ,d-amp R
46. GAATTC is the reorganization site for which of the following restriction endonuclease:
a. Hind III
b. EcoRI
c. Bam I
d. Hae III
47. Select the wrong statement
83
 a. Presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue colour colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not
have an insert
b. Retrovirus in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells
c. In micro injection cells are bombarded with high velocity micropipettes of gold or tungsten coated
with DNA
d. Since DNA is hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membrane
e. DNA is a negatively charged molecule.
48. Plasmid is :
a. Fungus
b. Plastid
c. Part of a plasma membrane
d. Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell.
49. Bacillus thuringiensis(Bt) strains have been used for designing novel:
a. Bio-metallurgical technique
b. Bio- mineralization processes
c. Bio- insecticidal plants
d. Bio- fertilizers
50. The technique of insertion of a desired gene into DNA of a plasmid vector is:
a. Gene splicing
b. Gene dressing
c. Gene cloning
d. Gene drafting

84
ANSWERS:
1. B 26. A
2. A 27. A
3. C 28. B
4. B 29. C
5. D 30. B
6. D 31. C
7. A 32. B
8. D 33. D
9. B 34. A
10.B 35. B
11.B 36. B
12.A 37. B
13.C 38. A
14.B 39. A
15.D 40. A
16.C 41. C
17.D 42. C
18.B 43. B
19.A 44. A
20.C 45. A
21.A 46. B
22.C 47. C
23.C 48. D
24.D 49. C
25.A 50. D

85
 1. BT Cotton is not
a. A GM plant
b. Insect resistant
c. A bacterial gene expression system
d. Resistant to all pesticides.
2. C-peptide of human insulin is
a. A part of mature insulin molecule
b. Responsible for formation of disulfide bridges
c. Removed during maturation of proinsulin to insulin
d. Responsible for its biological activity
3. GEAC stands for
a. Genome Engineering Action Committee
b. Ground Environment Action Committee
c. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
d. Genetic Environmental Approval Committee
4. ∝-1 Antitrypsin is used for treating
a. Thrombosis
b. Haemophilia
c. Emphysema
d. Infertility
5. Golden rice is rich in:
a. Vitamin C
b. β-Carotene
c. Ferritin
d. Both B and C
6. protoxin cry protein is converted into talks in inside the insect cut due to
a. Proteolytic enzyme
b. Acidic medium
c. Alkaline medium
d. Amylolytic enzyme
7. GEAC (Genetic engineering approval committee) has been set up under
a. Ministry of Agriculture
b. Ministry of Science and Technology
c. Ministry of Human Resource Development
d. Ministry of External Affairs
8. A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific sequence in a mixture of DNA or RNA molecule could
be:
a. A single-stranded RNA
b. A single-stranded DNA
86
 c. Either RNA or DNA
d. Can be ss DNA but not ssRNA
9. Choose the correct option regarding retrovirus
a. RNA virus that can synthesize DNA during infection
b. DNA virus that can synthesise RNA during infection
c. A ssDNA virus
d. A ds RNA virus
10. The site for production of ADA in the body is:
a. bone marrow
b. Lymphocytes
c. Blood plasma
d. Monocytes
11. The trigger for activation of toxin of bacillus thuringiensis is:
a. Acidic pH of stomach
b. High temperature
c. Alkaline pH of gut
d. Mechanical action in the insect gut
12. Golden rice is
a. Variety of rice grown along the yellow river in China
b. A transgenic rice having gene for β-carotene
c. long store rice having yellow colour tint
d. Wild variety of rice with yellow coloured grains.
13. In RNAi genes are silenced during:
a. ss DNA
b. ds DNA
c. ds RNA
d. ss RNA
14. The first clinical gene therapy was done for treatment of
a. AIDS
b. Cancer
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. SCID
15. ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in the genetic disorder SCID. what is the full form of ADA :
a. Adenosine deoxyaminase
b. Adenosine deaminase
c. Aspartate deamination
d. Arginine deaminase
16. Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the use of
a. Short interfering RNA (RNAi )
b. Antisense RNA
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
17. Exploitation of bioresources of other Nations without an authorisation is called

87
 a. Biopatenting
b. Biopiracy
c. Bioethics
d. Biotechnology
18. Which one is used in the production of insulin by genetic engineering?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Mycobacterium
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
19. Which of the following cannot be patented?
a. GM plants
b. New success of utility
c. New species of plants
d. Wind energy
20. The genetic defect adenosine deaminase( ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:
a. Administering adenosine deaminase activators
b. Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA in two cells at early embryonic stages
c. Periodic in fusion of genetically engineered Lymphocytes having functional ADA c DNA
d. Enzyme replacement therapy
21. Which of the following has not been synthesized by r- DNA technology?
a. Somatostatin
b. Insulin
c. Haemoglobin
d. Interferon
22. Transgenic animals have been used:
a. For testing the safety of vaccine
b. For testing toxicity of drugs
c. To produce useful biological products
d. All the above
23. Maturation of genetically engineered proinsulin in to insulin takes place after
a. Joining of C peptide
b. Removal of C peptide
c. Removal of disulfide Bond
d. Addition of disulfide Bond
24. Biopiracy is
a. Exploitation of bioresources
b. Patenting bio-resources of others
c. Use of bio resources without authorisation
d. Both B and C
25. The illegal and unlawful development of biomaterials without payment to the inhabitant of their origin is
called:
a. Biopatent
b. Bio war

88
 c. Biotechnology
d. Biopiracy
26. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to
a. Viruses
b. Insects
c. Nematodes
d. Fungi
27. Genetically modified organism (GMO) have been useful for
a. Making crops more tolerant to abiotic stress
b. Helping to reduce post harvest losses
c. Enhancing nutritional value of food
d. All the above
28. Tobacco plants resistant to mat Road have been developed by introduction of DNA that produces:
a. Both sense and antisense RNA
b. An antifeedant
c. Are toxic protein
d. A particular hormone
29. The gene that encodes for Bt protein, specific for cotton bollworm is:
a. cry I Ac
b. cry II Abc
c. cry II Ac
d. cry II Ab
30. RNA interference is essential for
a. Cell defence
b. Cell proliferation
c. Cell differentiation
d. Micropropagation
31. Which part of tobacco plant is infected by meloidogyne incognita
a. Root
b. Flowers
c. Leaf
d. Stem
32. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with adenosine deaminase deficiency?
a. Radiation therapy
b. Gene therapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Immunotherapy
33. cry I Ab Controls
a. Stem borer
b. Corn borer
c. Cotton bollworm
d. Root pest
34. The transgenic animals are those which have:

89
 a. Foreign DNA in some cells
b. Foreign DNA in all of their cells
c. Foreign DNA in all of their cells
d. Both a and c
35. Recombinant DNA or r DNA Technology discovered by:
a. Cohen and Boyer
b. Sutton and Avery
c. Sutton and Boveri
d. All of these
36. Select the correct set of the names for or A, B, C, D

A B C D

a. Proinsulin B- Peptide A- Peptide Insulin

b. Proinsulin A- Peptide B- Peptide Free C- c-peptide
c. Proinsulin A- Peptide B- Peptide Insulin
d. Proinsulin B- Peptide A- Peptide Free C-peptid

90
ANSWERS:
1. D 28. A
2. A 29. A
3. A 30. A
4. A 31. A
5. B 32. B
6. B 33. B
7. B 34. B
8. A 35. A
9. B 36. B
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. D
14. C
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. B
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. D

91
92
1. Animals of colder areas have shorter extremities. it is
A. Allen's rule
B. Bergman's law
C.. Dollo's law
D.Cope's law

2. Hibernation occurring in certain animals is

A. Rhythmic
B. Periodic
C.. Occasional
D. Intermittent

3. Physical and chemical characteristics of soil are studied under

A. Climate characters
B. Biotic factors
C. Edaphic factors
D. Topographic factor

4. Animals that can tolerate water loss equal of one third body weight is
A. Necturus
B. Camel
C. Lizard
D. Chiton
5. Mark the odd one
A.Pisha
B.Hydril
C.Vallisneria
D.casuarina

6. In commensalism
A. Both partners are benefited
B. Both partners are harmed
C. Weaker is benefited while stronger is unharmed
D. None of the above

7. A successful parasite is the one which

A. Grows rapidly
B. Reproduces fast
C. Sticks to host for long
D. Makes minimum demands from its host
93
8. Relationship between two organisms in which one obtains some benefits at the cost of other is
A. Parasitism
B. Predation
C. .symbiosis
D.. Scavenging

9. Root cap is deficient in

A. Hydrophytes
B. Halophytes
C. Xerophytes
D. Heliophytes

10. Which animal is capable of obtaining water by oxidation of lipid

A. Rat
B. Earthworm
C. Mole
D. Kangaroo Rat

11. What is true for the member of same species

A. Capacity of interbreeding
B. Shows same ecological niche
C. Show different type of ecological niche
D. They have different habitat carrying

12. Carrying capacity of a population is determined by

A. Birth date
B. Death rate
C. Limiting resources
D. Reproductive ability

13. The turtle of galapago Island and the goats living there both were eating tender grass state the relationship.
A. Interspecific competition
B. Emigration
C. Predation
D. None of these

14. Which of the following

94
15. Sukker stomla occur in
A. Hydrophytes
B. Xerophytes
C. Mesophytes
D. None of these

16. Exponential population growth is

A. Dn/dt= rn
B. Dt/dn= rn
C. Dn/rn=dt
D. Rn/db=dt

17. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of

A. Landscape
B. Ecosystem
C. Biotic community
D. Populations

18. July 11 is
A. No Tobacco day
B. World health day
C. World population day
D. World environment day

19. Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes & ponds are known to enter-
A. Hibernation
B. Diapause
C. Aestivation
D. None of the above

20. Stomata open at night & close during daytime is.

A. Merophytes
B. Hydrophytes
C. Su
D. Shrubs

21. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell living of hermit crab.The association is
A.Amensalism
B. Echoparasihsm
C. Symbiosis
D. Commensalism

95
22. The plant which produce highly poisonous cardiac glycosides is
A. Cactus
B. Calotropis
C. Acacia
D. Bhang
23. Organisms which tolerate narrow range of of salinity are
A. Euryhaline
B. Stenohaline
C. Eurothermal
D. Hypersecu

24. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores & show vivipary belong the
A. Mesophytes
B. Halophytes
C. Psammophtes
D. Hydrophytes

25. Biosphere is
A. A component in the ecosystem
B. Compost of plants present in the soil
C. Life in the outer space
D. composed of all living organisms on earth interacting with the physical environment.

26. which of the following forest plants control the light conditions at the ground
A. Leans & climbers
B. Shrus
C. Tall trees
D. Herbs

27. If a population of 50 para mozhiyum present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour. What would be the
growth rate of the population
A. 150 per hour
B. 200 per hour
C. 5 per hour
D. 100 per hour

28. A population has more young individuals compared to older individuals. What would be the status of the
population after some years?
A. It will decline
B. It will stabilize
C. It will increase
D. It will first decline and then stabilize

96
29. Which one of the following organism reproduce sexually only once in its lifetime
A. Banana plant
B. Mango
C. Tomato
D. Eucalyptus

30. Lichens are the associations of-

A. Bacteria and fungi
B. Algae and bacteria
C. Algae and fungus
D. Fungus and virus

31. A protozoan reproduces by binary fission.What will be the number of protons in its population after six
generations-
A. 128
B. 24
C. 64
D. 32

32. The term 'niche' refers to

A. Place of living
B. Specific function
C. Habitat and specific function
D. Diversity of species level

33. the interdependent evolution of flowering plant and pollinating insects together is known as
A. Mutualism
B. Co- evolution
C. Commensalism
D. Co-operation

34. The branch of science which studies the interactions among organism and between organisms and physical
environment is called as
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Ethology
D. Etiology

35. What Parameters are used for tiger census in our country's national parks and sanctuaries
A. Faecal pellets only
B. Pugmarks only
C. Actual head counts
D. Pugmarks and faecal pellets

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36. Mango trees do not and cannot grow in temperate regions. The most important environmental factor
responsible for it is
A. Soil
B. Temperature
C. Water
D. Light

37. An animal that can survive at 10 degree Celsius and 40 degree Celsius both, can be placed under the
category of
A. Conformors
.B.Regulators
C. Migratory organisms
D. Modifiers

38. When we are in a hot room, we sweat profusely it is a …….. means of maintaining homeostasis.
A. Morphological
B. Psychological
C. Behavioural
D. None of these

39. Which of the following is an important adaptation of animals of the cold climate?
A. Thin layer of body fat
B. Increased tendency to Shiver
C. Reduced surface area to volume ratio
D. Aestivation

40. Which of the following is an incorrect match

A. Bacteria- thick walled resting spores
B. Bear - Hibernation
C. Zooplankton - Diapause
D. Lizard- aestivation

41. The maximum possible number of individuals that a habitat can support is called its
A. Fecundity
B. Surviving ability
C. Carrying capacity
D. Biotic potential

42. Characteristics of a terrestrial biome are strongly influenced by its

A. Flora
B. Climate
C. Fauna

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 D. All of these
43. The maximum growth rate occurs in
A. Lag phase
B. Exponential phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Senescent phase

44. Mycorrhiza is an example of

A. Decomposers
B. Endoparasitism
C. Symbiotic relationships
D. Ectoparasitism

45. Basic unit of ecological hierarchy is

A. Population
B. Community
C. Ecosystem
D. Individual

46. which of the following is not a part of an organism's physical environment

A. Temperature
B. Light
C. Other organisms
D. Humidity

47. Freshwater organisms cannot survive in a water body that has greater …... than its original habitat.
A. O2 content
B. Depth.
C. salt concentration
D. water clarity

48. when organisms change their location to escape from harsh environment, it is called as

A. Hibernation
B. Vernalization
C.Migration
D. Aestivation

49. Exponential growth is observed in a population when

A. Resources in the habitat are unlimited
B. Each species has the ability to realise its full in innate

99
 C. Both a & b
D. None of these

50. Species interaction with negative influence on both is referred to as

A. Amensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Commensalism
D. Competition

ANSWER KEY
1.A 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.C 7.D 8.A 9.A 10.D 11.A 12.C 13.A 14. 15.B 16.A
17.D 18.C 19.B 20.C 21.D 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.D 26.C 27.D 28.C 29.C 30.C
31.C 32.C 33.B 34.B 35.D 36.B 37.B 38.B 39.A 40.D 41.C 42.B 43.B 44.
45.D 46.C 47.C 48.C 49.C

100
1. What does following diagram indicate?

a. Declining population
b. Constant declining population
c. Increasing population
d. Stable population
2. A snake feed on frog, the hawk feed on this snake, what is the place of snake in food chain?
a. Producer
b. Primary consumer
c. Secondary consumer
d. Tertiary consumer
3. What is correct for the given diagram?

a. Pre-reproductive group people are more in no.

b. Post-reproductive group people are more in no.
c. In it pre-reproductive & post-reproductive age groups are placed respectively.
d. Post reproductive group people are more less.
4. Who is food component of the grazing food chain?
a. Consumer
b. Decomposer
c. Photosynthetic living organism
d. Insects
5. Which of the following uses maximum energy
a. Primary consumer
b. Secondary consumer
c. Decomposer
d. Primary producers
6. As we proceed in food chain Biomass
a. Remains same
b. Decreases
c. Increases
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 d. Initially same & later keep decreasing
7. Who introduced term Ecosystem?
a. Leaneous
b. Odum
c. Aristic
d. Tansley
8. Which of the following is considered as pioneer community in xerarch?
a. Annual herbs
b. Perrenial herbs
c. Shrubs
d. Lichens
9. In Lithosese foleox lichens make the conditions favourable for the growth of
a. Chustose lichens
b. Mosses
c. Annual grasses
d. Perennial grasses
10. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biochemical cycle in ecosystem
a. Water cycle
b. Phosphorus cycle
c. Nitrogen cycle
d. Carbon cycle
11. About 71% of total global carbon is found in
a. Ocean
b. Forests
c. Grasslands
d. Agro ecosystems
12. What percentage of total global carbon is atmospheric carbon?
a. 0.03%
b. 1%
c. 10%
d. 30%
13. Climax community is in a state of
a. Non-equilibrium
b. Equilibrium
c. Disorder
d. Constant change
14. The reservoir for the gaseous type of biogeochemical cycle exists in
a. Stratosphere
b. Atmosphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Lithosphere
15. The zone at the edge of a lake or ocean which is alternatively exposed to air and immersed in water is called
a. Pelagic zone

102
 b. Beuthic zone
c. Lentic zone
d. Lettoral zone
16. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in dense vegetation is called
a. Stratification
b. Species composition
c. Standing crop
d. Trophic structure
17. Which one of the following aspects is not a component of functional unit of ecosystem?
a. Productivity
b. Decomposition
c. Energy flow
d. Ecological pyramid
18. The movement of energy from lower to higher trophic level is
a. Always unidirectional
b. Sometimes unidirectional
c. Always bidirectional
d. Undeterminable
19. An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem
a. Forest
b. Marine
c. Grassland
d. Tundra
20. Which of the following is not a producer?
a. Spirogyra
b. Agaricus
c. Volvox
d. Nostoc
21. Which of the following ecosystems is most productive in terms of net primary production?
a. Desert
b. Tropical rain forests
c. Oceans
d. Estuaries
22. During the process of ecological successor, the changes that take place in communities are
a. Orderly & sequential
b. Random
c. Very quick
d. Not influenced by the physical environment
23. The ultimate energy source of all ecosystem is
a. Producers
b. Organic molecules
c. Carbohydrates
d. Solar radiations

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24. Percentage of photo synthetically active radiation (PAR) in the incident solar radiation is
a. 1-5%
b. 2-10%
c. Less than 50%
d. Approx 100%
25. If 10 Joules of energy is available at the producer level, then amount of energy present at the level of
secondary consumers at
a. 10J
b. 1J
c. 0.1J
d. 0.01J
26. Primary succession occurs on
a. Area destroyed due to forest fix
b. Newly formed river delta
c. Harvested crop field
d. All of these
27. Successions that occurs on soils or areas which have recently lost their community are referred to as:-
a. Primary successions
b. Secondary successions
c. Lithoseres
d. Prisers
28. The rate of secondary succession is faster than primary succession because
a. Soil is already present.
b. Water is available in large quantity.
c. Climax community is already present.
d. PH of soil is favourable.
29. Pyramid of no. is
a. Always upright
b. Always inverted
c. Either upright or inverted
d. Neither upright nor inverted
30. Primary succession occurs in
a. Previously unoccupied area
b. Soil is available already
c. Both A & B
d. None of these
31. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in
a. Tropical savannah
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Grassland
d. Temperate forest
32. Natural reservoir of phosphorus is
a. Sea water

104
 b. Animal bones
c. Rock
d. Fossils
33. In a pond ecosystem, the food chain starts with
a. Zooplauktons
b. Small insects
c. Phytoplanktons
d. Small fishes
34. What is correct for the artificial ecosystem
a. Biodiversity is less.
b. Biodiversity is high.
c. Ecosystem cannot be form by human.
d. It is more stable than natural ecosystem.
35. In the given pyramid of energy which of the following can be placed in first trophic level?
a. Decomposer
b. Plants
c. Both A & B
d. None

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Answers:
1. C 33. C
2. C 34. A
3. A 35. C
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. C

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 1 How many bio-geographical regions are present in India?
A3
B4
C7
D 10
2 Lime is added to the soil which is too
A Sandy
B Salty
C Alkaline
D Acidic

3 Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

ATea
BTeak
C Mango
DWheat
4 Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?
A Sunderbans
B Western Ghats
C Eastern Ghats
D Gangetic Plain

5 Darwin’s finches are a good example of

A Convergent evolution
B Industrial melanism
C Connecting link
D Adaptive radiation

6 Which one of the following is an example ex-situ conservation?

A National park
B Wildlife sanctuary
C Seed bank
D Sacred groves

7 Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots?

A Species richness
B Endemism
C Accelerated species loss
D Lesser inter-specific competition

8 Sacred groves are especially useful in

AGenerating environmental awareness
B Preventing soil erosion
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C Year-round flow of water in rivers
D Conserving rare and threatened species

9 The term Alpha diversity refers to

A Genetic diversity
B Community and ecosystem diversity
C Species diversity
D Diversity among the plants

10 The percentage of forest cover recommended by the National Forest policy (1988) is
A 33% for plains and 67% for hills
B 37% for plains and 63% for hills
C 20% for plains and 70% for hills
D 23% for plains and 77% for hills

11 Select the correct statement about biodiversity

A The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as
numerous rare animals
B Large scale planting of BT cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity
C Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism
D Conservation of biodiversity in just a fad pursued by the developed countries

12 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

A Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region
B Species endemic to the region
C Endangered species found in the region
D The diversity in the organisms living in the region

13 Global warming can be controlled by [NEET 2013]

A Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel
B Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel
C Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population D Increasing deforestation,
reducing efficiency of energy usage

14. Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation? [NEET
2013] A Field gene banks
B Seed banks
C Shifting cultivation
D Botanical Gardens

15. Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity? [NEET
2013]
A Algae
B Lichens
C Fungi
D Mosses and Ferns
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 16. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of
A Aridity
B Metal toxicity
C Salinity
D Acidity

17. The greatest problem of water conservation is to reduce the amount of

A Precipitation
B Runoff water
C Groundwater
D Evaporation

18. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group:

A Monera
B Plantae
C Fungi
D Animalia

19. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?

A Sunderbans
B Western Ghats
C Eastern Ghats
D Gangetic Plain

20 Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation?

A National park
B Wild life sanctuary
C Zoological garden
D Biosphere reserve

21. An inexhaustible non-conventional universal source of energy is

A. Wind energy
B Solar energy
C Hydrothermal energy
D Tidal energy

22. Which one of the following expanded forms of the followings acronyms is correct?
A IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
B IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
C UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
D EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency

23. Wild life conservation aims at :

(a) Maintaining the ecological process
(b) To enrich the wildlife diversity with exotic species
(c) Preventing migration of species
109
(d) Maintaining the diversity of life

24. Plants like Aegle marmelos, Ocimum sanctum and Ficus religiosa are a group of plants designated as
A Traditional food crops
B Sacred species of plants
C Medicinal plant species
D Lesser known food plants

25. –1°C to 13°C annual variations in the intensity and duration of temperature and 50 to 250 cm
annual variation in precipitation, account for the formation of major biome as:
A Tropical forest
B Coniferous forest
C Temperate forest
D Grassland

26. Sacred groves are especially useful in

A Generating environmental awareness
B Preventing soil erosion
C Year-round flow of water in rivers
D Conserving rare and threatened species

27. Some of the nutrient cycles are labelled as below: Sulphur cycle (a), Phosphorus cycle (b), Carbon
cycle (c) and Nitrogen cycle (d) Of these, the sedimentary cycle is represented by
A (a) only
B (b) only
C (c) only
D (a) and (b) only

28. Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them
(a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers
(b) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebra tes
(c) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
(d) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders The two
correct statements are:
A (a) and (b)
B (b) and (c)
C (c) and (d)
D (a) and (c)

29. Which is the right option for the tallest and the smallest Gymnosperm plant ?
(a) Eucalyptus and Zamiapygmea
(b) Wolffia globosa and Eucalyptus
(c) Sequoia sempervirens and Zamia pygmea
(d) Sequoia sempervirens and Wolffia globosa

110
 30. Which one is odd for species diversity ?
(a) diversity
(b) diversity
(c) diversity
(d) diversity

31. How many biosphere reserves are present in India ?

(a) 41
(b) 34
(c) 14
(d) 43

32. Which is the correct option the Amazon rain forest ?

I. In this rain forest there might be at least two million insects species waiting to be discovered and
named.
II. This forest is known as lungs of the planet.
III. In this forest digging of mine is performed by dynamine.
IV. This forest are destroyed for the cultivation of soyabeans.
V. This forest contains world famous Biodiversity
(a) i, ii, iv, v
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) ii, iii, iv, v
(d) iii, v, iv

33. In which region of South America maximum species of birds can be found ?
(a) Equador
(b) Brazil
(c) Colombia
(d) Peru

34. Which scientist has classified species diversity ?

(a) Thoeprestus
(b) Lineus
(c) Whittaker
(d) Treshaw

35. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds ?

(a) Nilgiri pipit, Rofous babbler, Lesser-Florican
(b) Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet
(c) Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofousbabbler
(d) all the above

36. How many Indian plant species are used to extract essential oils and scents ?
(a) 50
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 (b) 500
(c) 50,000
(d) 5000

37. Which is the correct option.

(a) There is chance inNatural selection in evolutionprocess due to alpha biodiversity
(b) There is chance in Natural selection in process of evolution due to genetic diversity
(c) There is chance in Natural selection in process of evolution due to Ecosystem biodiversity (d) There
is chance in Natural selection in process of due to biocommunity diversity 40. Which is the state plant
of Gujarat ?
(a) Polyalthia
(b) Prosopis
(c) Ficus
(d) Neem

38. Because of deforestation, decreased transpiration leads to

(a) less cloud formation
(b) more cloud formation
(c) more water storage
(d) more oxygen

39. List prepared by International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
for endangered species is classified as
(a) .Brown List
(b).White List
( c) Black List
(d).Red List

40.Term used for species which is in danger of being extinct in near future is
(a).degradability
(b) extinct
(c) endangered
(d) global biodiversity

41. International organization IUCN is abbreviation of

a.Internal Union Council for Natural gas
b. International Union Council for Nature
c. International Union for Conservation of Nature
d. Internal United Council of Nations

42. Major causes of extinction of different species includes

a.habitat loss and over-hunting
b. climate change and pollution
c. deforestation
d. all of above

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 43. Which of the following region has maximum diversity
a) mangrooves
b) temperate rainforest
c) taiga
d)coral reefs

44. Approximately, 50% of total world species are present on

a) tropical rain forest
b) temperate rain forest
c) temperate deciduous forest
d) coral reefs

45. Biodiversity
a) increases towards the equator
b) decreases towards the equator
c) remains same throughout the planet
d) has no effect on change in latitude
46. The most important reason for decrease in biodiversity is
a) habitat pollution
b) introduction of exotic species
c) over-exploitation
d) habitat destruction

46. Dodo is
a) endangered
b) critically endangered
c) rare
d) extinct

47. Blue whale is placed under

a) endangered
b) critically endangered
c) rare
d) extinct

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ANSWER KEY

1 B 18 D 35 B

2 D 19 B 36 C

3 C 20 C 37 C

4 B 21 D 38 A

5 D 22 A 39 C

6 C 23 B 40 C

7 C 24 B 41 D

8 D 25 B 42 A

9 C 26 A 43 B

10 B 27 A 44 A

11 C 28 D 45 C

12 D 29 B 46 D

13 A 30 A 47 A

14 C 31 C

15 C 32 C

16 A 33 D

17 C 34 C

114
1. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award will be given to the individual or communities who worked for protection of
a. Wild plants
b. Wild animals
c. Wild life
d. Plants & animals
2. Methane gas producing field is
a. Wheat field
b. Paddy field
c. Cotton field
d. Groundnut field
3. Air pollution is not caused by
a. Pollen grains
b. Hydroelectric power
c. Industries
d. Automobiles
4. Increase in atmospheric temperature due to CO 2 is
a. Pasteur effect
b. Blackman effect
c. Emerson effect
d. Green house effect
5. Pollution caused by persistent pesticides more hazardous to
a. Herbivores
b. Producer
c. First level carnivores
d. Top carnivores
6. Acid rain will not affect
a. Lithosphere
b. Plants
c. Ozone layer
d. Animals
7. Water bloom are formed by
a. Lemma
b. Hydrilla
c. Water hyacinth
d. Planketonic algae
8. UV radiation from sunlight produces
a. Ozone
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. CO

115
 d. Fluroides
9. Ozone layer found in
a. Stratosphere
b. Lithosphere
c. Troposphere
d. Hemisphere
10. Environment (Protection) Act came into force in?
a. 1986
b. 1989
c. 1992
d. 1993
11. Nutrient environment of water bodies causes
a. Stratification
b. Eutrophication
c. Succession
d. None of these
12. Which one of the following is not a green house gas?
a. Methane
b. CO2
c. CFC’s
d. Hydrogen
13. Polyblend was first developed by
a. Ramesh Chandra Dagar
b. Ahmed Khan
c. Khadi & village industries commission
d. Indian Institute of Science
14. Eutrophication cause a/an
a. Decrease in organic matter
b. Increase in inorganic nutrients
c. Decrease in dissolved oxygen
d. Increase in dissolved oxygen
15. Increase in the concentration of pollutants in higher trophic levels is known as
a. Biodegradation
b. Eutrophication
c. Green house effect
d. Biomagnifications
16. Which of the following causes biomagnifications
a. SO2
b. Mercury
c. DDT
d. Both B & C
17. Nuisance growth of aquatic plants and bloom forming alage in natural water is generally due to high
concentration of

116
 a. Carbon
b. Sulphur
c. Calcium
d. Phosphorus
18. Which one of the following impurities is easiest to remove from waste water?
a. Bacteria
b. Colloides
c. Dissolved solids
d. Suspended solids
19. World’s most problematic aquatic weed is
a. Azolla
b. Wolffia
c. Eichornia
d. Trapa
20. The expanded form of DDT is
a. Dichlorophenyl trichloroethane
b. Dichloro diethyl trichloroethane
c. Dichloro dipysdyl trichloroethane
d. Dichloro diphenyl tetrachloroactate
21. The green scum seen in the fresh water bodies is
a. Blue green algae
b. Red algae
c. Green algae
d. Both A & C
22. A higher biochemical oxygen demand in a particular segment of a river indicates that
a. The segment is free from pollution.
b. Aquatic life has started flourishing.
c. The segment is highly polluted.
d. The river has high number of aquatic animals.
23. The amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water can be estimated by measuring
a. Biochemical oxygen demand
b. The growth of anaerobic bacteria in water
c. Biogeological oxygen demand
d. The growth of aerobic bacteria in water
24. Contamination of water with sewage is indicated by of
a. Escherichia
b. Entamoeba
c. Pseudomonas
d. Leishmania
25. Polyblend is
a. A mixture of two different type of plastic
b. A fine powder of recycled modified plastic
c. A blend of plastic and bitumen

117
 d. None of these
26. DDT has been a major pollutant as it
a. Kills pests
b. Kills aquatic animals
c. Destroys species
d. Is non degradable
27. Fertilisers parred on to fresh water will cause
a. Spurt in aquatic animals
b. Eutrophication
c. Death of plants
d. Decrease in fish population
28. A lake receiving domestic sewage shows
a. Increased fish production
b. Drying due to algae bloom
c. Death of fish due to oxygen depletion
d. Increased food web organization
29. Montreal Protocol is connected with
a. Global warming & climate change
b. Persistent organic pollutants
c. Substance that depletes ozone layer
d. Biosafety of GMO
30. Measuring BOD is a method used for
a. Estimating amount of organic matter in sewage water
b. Working out efficiency of oil driven automobile engines
c. Measuring activity of saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd
d. None of these
31. World ozone day is celebrated on
a. 16 th September
b. 21 st June
c. 5 th June
d. 22 nd April
32. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids.
a. Tertiary treatment
b. Secondary treatment
c. Primary treatment
d. Sludge treatment
33. B.O.D may not be good index for pollution of water bodies receiving effluents from
a. Petroleum industry
b. Sugar industry
c. Domestic sewage
d. Dairy industry
34. Which of the following is not a cause of natural pollution
a. Volcanic erruption

118
 b. UV radiation
c. Forest fire
d. Mercury
35. Which of the following materials takes the largest time for biodegradation
a. Cotton
b. Paper
c. Bone
d. Jute
36. FOAM is associated with
a. STDs
b. STP
c. MTP
d. MOET
37. Shells of egg in bird becomes their (not properly formed) due to the pollution of the pesticides to this is
due to interference in the activity of
a. Calmodulin
b. Mg ATP are
c. Ca ATP are
d. None of these
38. What is the cause of decrease in the population of birds in an aquatic food chain
a. Due to DDT
b. Due to 2, 4D
c. Due to CFCs
d. Due to ABA
39. Biochemical oxygen demand is an indicator of pollution of
a. Air
b. Water
c. Noise
d. Soil
40. As per NFP 1988 how much percent forest cover for plains should be there in India
a. 22
b. 33
c. 44
d. 55

ANSWERS:
1. C 35. C
119
2. B 36. B
3. B 37. C
4. D 38. A
5. D 39. B
6. C 40. B
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. E
20. A
21. D
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. D
27. B
28. C
29. C
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. C
34. D

120
 YOU WERE BORN TO WIN.
BUT TO BE A WINNER,
YOU MUST
PLAN TO WIN,
PREPARE TO WIN AND
EXPECT TO WIN.

“ALL THE BEST”

121