Choose the correet answer

1) The fertilization usually takes place in which structure

A. Fallopian tube

2) It is one of the external genital organs:

B. Perineum

3) The normal uterine position is:

B. Ante version - ante flexion.

4) Obstetric conjugate extended from the middle of the sacral promontory to

the most prominent point of the back of the symphysis pubis=

B. 10.5em

5) Pelvic land marks of outlet includes

A.Sub pubic angle, Bispinous diameter and Antroposterior diameter.

6) Above the pelvic border line and nas no obstetrical impotency:

B. False pelvis

7) Anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic outlet equal:

C. 11.5 cm.

8) Which of the following is a reproductive organs contains the

endometrium, perimetrium and myometrium.

C. Uterus

9) An important land mark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the

descent of fatal head is known as.

B. Ischial spines

10) Which of the following is a female type of bony pelvis:

C. Gynaecoid pelvis

11) The female internal reproductive organs include:

B. Ovaries, vestibule, Bartholin's glands.

12) The all external female organs are referred to as the:

A. Vulva

13) Transverse diameter of Intel of the pelvic equal.

C. 13 cm

14) Sub pubic angle in female measured approximately.

A. 90-100

15) The function of the ovaries include the following:

B. They are responsible for the release of a mature ovum every month and they are also the chief
producers of the female sex hormones.

16) Each month a developing graffian follicle produce estrogen which

builds up endometrium of uterus happen during

A. Proliferative phase
17) Estrogen peak stimulate secretion of

B. LH

18) Bleeding during menstruation result of shedding of which structure?

A. Endometrium

19) The predominant anterior pituitary hormones that orchestrate the

menstrual cycle include;

B. Follicle stimulating hormone [FSHL]

20) The ovarian cycle comprises all of the following phases except;

A. Secretary.

B. Ovulation.

C. Follicular.

D. Luteal.

21) After ovulation the ovum remains alive for how many hours?

B. 24 hours

22) In human being fertilization of the ovum usually occur in

the…………………

B. Fallopian tube

23)………………million sperm\mL are contained in the ejaculated semen

D. More than 200

24) The result after the union of ovum and sperm is called…………………….

B. Zvgote

25) The morulla reaches the uterine cavity about ------ alter fertilization

C. 72 hours

26) The three embryonic layers of cells formed are the folloWing except:

A. Endometrium

27) The attachment of the embryo to the uterus is called

C-Implantation

28) Umbilical cord contains.

D. Two artery and vein

29) Sure signs of pregnancy all of the following except

A. Enlargement of the abdomen:

30) Examples of objective (probable) signs of pregnancy are

A. Uterine Soufflé:

B. Braxton Hicks contractions:

C. Ballottement

D. All of above

31) Examples of subjective (Presumptive) changes of pregnancy are

A. Quickening

B. Nausea and Vomiting

C. A and B

32) A pregnancy test is done to detect elevated levels of---

B. Human chorionic gonadotropin

33) When the client's last menstrual period began on March 13 the client's

expected delivery date to be approximately which date?

D. December 20

34) The physician asks the nurse to prepare the client for a pelvic

examination. The nurse correctly assists the client into which position?

A. Lithotomy

35) Before the pelvic examination, which intervention by the nurse is most

appropriate?

B. Instruct the client to urinate

36) For clients with uncomplicated pregnancies, it is best to plan monthly

visits for the first 28 weeks and then more frequent visits following which

schedule?

C. Every 2 weeks up to 36 weeks, then weekly for the last month

37) Danger sign of pregnancy include

A. Headache and swelling of the face and fingers

38) Which client would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for

developing complications during pregnancy?

D. A 35-year-old gravida 5 client

39) The nurse correctly instructs the client to contact the physician

immediately under which circumstance?

C.If vaginal bleeding occurs

40) Causes of early bleeding are all the following except

A. Abruption placenta.

41) Which instruction should be given to the client being discharged after

evacuation of a hydatidiform mole?

C. Do not become pregnant for at least 12 months

42) When some parts of the products of conception have been expelled,

while others (placenta and membranes) remain within the uterus, it called.

C. Incomplete abortion

43) The most important education that the nurse can offer after dilatation

and curettage (D&C) of the hydatiform mole is that she must

C. Make sure she adheres to her birth control pills for at least a

year.

44) Which statement by the nurse best explains the meaning of an

incompetent cervix?

B. The cervix cannot support the weight of the fetus.

45) Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when a spontaneous

abortion is inevitable?

A. Prepare the client for dilation and curettage (D&C)

46) It is the most common place of ectopic pregnancy

B. Fallopian tubes

47) Which of the following is most indicative of the presence of

hydatidiform mole?

D. A uterus that is larger than expected

48) Which of the following is most indicative of the presence of Threatened

Abortion except?

the ovum from it the uterine wall.

C. Pain is sever may be felt in the supra pubic region.

49) Which statement by the nurse best explains the meaning of missed

Abortion except?

D. The uterus is larger than the period of amenorrhoea.

50) All of the following are types of Abruptio placenta except

C. Extra placeta bleedng

51) All of the following are degree of placenta previa except

A. Placenta previa lateralis

B. Placenta previa marginalis

C. Incomplete central placenta previa

D. None of above
52) Which response by the nurse provides the best explanation regarding

placenta previa?

A. "The placenta is implanted over or close to the internal

cervical opening."

53) When assessing a client with a history of pregnancy-induced

hypertension (PIH), the nurse should thoroughly explore which finding at

each visit?

D. An unexpected weight gain

54) Which instruction regarding the home care ol pregnancy-induced

hypertension (PIH) is most appropriate

C. Eat high-protein foods.

55) While the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, besides monitoring the

Client's vital signs, what other nursing assessment is essential to include?

B. Deep tendon reflexes

56) The main criteria of MgS04 toxicity are-.

B. Loss of patellar reflex, oliguria, respiratory depression.

57) ------------- is characterized by contraction and retraction of the

whole body muscle during fit.

A. Clonic phase

58) Screen for gestational Diabetes at approximately----------------

C. 24 to 28 weeks of pregnancy

59) In patient with prolonged hyperglycemia the fetus is at risk for all of the

following except:

A. Large size and increased risk for birth injury

B. Cephalopelvic disproportion

C. Elevated lung maturity

D. Increased in respiratory distress

60) Management of diabetes mellitus during pregnancy include

A. Diet

B. Exercises

C. Insulin

D. All ofabove

61) Effects of pregnancy on diabetes including all the following except:

B. Increased blood pressure.

62) Insulin resistance can be caused by all of the following except:

A. Decreasing the production of human placental lactogen

63) All the following are indications of termination of pregnancy except

A. History of heart failure in previous pregnancy.

B. Class 3 and class 4.

C. Class1

D. History of heart failure before pregnancy.

64) The following are complications of heart diseases on pregnancy except.

C. Diabetes.

65)………….. Is the commonest cause of anemia in pregnancy.

A. Iron deficiency

66) All of the following it consider effect of anemia during pregnancy to

the fetus except:

A. Anti-partum hemorrhage

67) One of the main physiological changes in the 2nd stage of normal labour

Is ------------------------

A. Active bearing down by abdominal and diaphragmatic

muscles

68) One of the signs of placental separation is ....

B. Sudden gush of blood

69) It is an abnormal or difficult child birth or labor:

C. Dystocia

70) Premonitory signs of labor include the following except:-

C. True labor pain

71) The period between the start of one contraction and its end is called.

A. Duration

72) Management of first stage of labor includes the following except:-

D. Taking history

73) It is exists when the capacity of the pelvic is inadequate to pass

through the birth canal:

A. Cephalo -pelvic disproportion

74) When labor take place within 3 hours could:

A. Prolonged labor

B. Obstructed labor

C. Precipitated laboor

D. Preterm labor

75) All of the following are risk factors for dystocia Except:

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Fetal macrosomia

C. Maternal obesity

D. Maternal smoking

76) Present during third stage of labor felt only vaginaly between upper

and lower uterine segment:

A. Pathological Retraction Ring

B. Constriction Ring

C. Placental separation

D. Obstructed labor

77) The nurse would expect a post partial woman to demonstrate lochia in

which sequence?
A. Rubra, Alba, serosa.

B. Rubra, serosa, Alba.

C. serosa Alba Rubra.

D. Alba Rubra, serosa.

78) Which of the following correctly defines puerperium?

A. The first hour after birth.

B. The 6 weeks following birth

C. The days spent in the hospital.

D. The duration of breast feeding.

79) The nurse is assisting with planning care for a postpartum woman who

has small vulvar hematomas to assist with reducing the swelling the nurse

should.

A. Check the vital signs every 4 hours.

B. Measure the fundal height every 4 hours.

C. Prepare a beat pack for application to the area.

D. Prepare an ice pack for application to the arca

80) Intrapartum factor of puerperal sepsis all the following except

A. Prolonged labor.

B. Instrument delivery.

C. Marked blood loss.

D. Small fetal size.

81) Predisposing factors for secondary extension all of the following

except:
A. Laceration of cervix.

B. Low resistance of the patient.

C. Parametritis.

D. Pelvic thrombophlebits.

82) Local examination to diagnosis of the cause of puerperal pyrexia

includes the following except:-

A. Lochia for amount, color and odour.

B. Uterine size, consistency, tenderness, position, and mobility.

C. Abdominal rigidity and tenderness.

D. The perineum for infected episiotomy or laceratioon.

83) Internal prevention of puerperal sepsis include all the following

except:

A. Strict aseptic and antiseptic measures.

B. Minimize vaginal examination.

C. Early isolation of cases of puerperal sepsis.

D. Prophylactic antibiotics in PROM and prolonged or instrumental

delivery.

84) Treatment of thrombophlebitis include all the following except:-

A. Antibioties

B. Anticoagulation therapy.

C. Immobilization and elastic stocking.

D. Intravenous fluids.

85) All the following signs and symptoms of septicemia except:

A. High fever.

B. Severe headache.

C. Severe tachycardia.

D. Hypertension.

86) To prevent hemorrhage, when should the nurse massage the fundus

during the postpartum period?

A. When the fundus is firm and hard

B. When the fundus is at the umbilicus

C. When the amount of lochia decreases

D. When the fundus is soft and boggy

87) Which finding would the nurse consider abnormal for the

postpartum client who delivered within the past 24 hours?

A. The client has passed a lot of blood clots

B. The client has calf pain when a foot is dorsiflexed.

C. The client has abdominal cramping while breast-feeding.

D. The client's vaginal discharge is dark red

88) During postpartum initlal assessment, the client's fundus is firm and left

of midline. What nursing action is warranted at this time?

A. Massage the uterus vigorously.

B. Have the client empty her bladder.

C. Reassess the client in 4 hours.

D. No action is presently required

89) The nurse correctly instructs the postpartum client to notify the health
care provVider if what occurs?

A. The client experiences difficulty urinating.

B. The lochia becomes creamy yellow after the first postpartum

week.

C. The client experiences unexplained feelings of tearfulness and

sadness.

D. The client's breasts become slightly firm after 48 hours.

90) The colostrum is beneficial to the baby because it contains which

substance?

A. Estrogen, which will prevent the newborn from developing

breakthrough bleeding.

B. Antibodies, which provide protection against certain types

of infections.

C. Predigested fats, which increase the newborn's ability to

absorb fat-soluble vitamins.

D. Digestive enzymes, which increase the newborn's ability to

absorb nutrient.

91) Factors that slow uterine involution include:-

A. Prolonged labor.

B. Incomplete separation and expulsion of placenta.

C. Distended (full) bladder

D. All of the above

92) Which concern would the nurse take priority attention during the first

few hourS postpartum?

A. counseling for contraception

B. Bowel care

C. uterine massage to decrease uterine bleeding

D. Normal activities may be resumed

93) Primary postpartum hemorrhage is described as bleeding that occurring

A. Within the first 24 hours after delivery

B. More than 24 hours to one week after delivery

C. More than one week after delivery

D. All of above

94) Hormonal family planning methods includes the following except:-

A. Oral contraceptive pills

B. Male condom

C. Injectable Contraceptives

D. Implanon

95) Women with the following conditions should not use IUDs:

A. Pregnancy

B. Unexplained vaginal bleeding

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease

D. All of above

96) Barrier family planning methods includes the following except:-

A. Norplant

B. female condom

C. diaphragm
D. spermicidal

T/f

N Q T/F
1 Normal vaginal length ranged between 8-10 m T
2 Bony pelvis: The pelvis is composed of four bones: two hip bones and two sacrum F
3 Android pelvis it is the normal female type. Inlet is slightly transverse oval and Sub F
pubic angle is 90-100 .
4 The function of ovaries are propels the ovum ovum toy the uterus . F
5 False pelvis is above the border line and has no obstetric importance. T
6 The cavity is hallowing roomy part in which all diameters are equal in cm. T
7 The cervix measures 1.5-3.5 cm. (one-third of the whole uterus). F
8 Mons Pubis are bilateral folds of skin and apart of External Genital organs . F
9 Contracted pelvic diameters is one of cause that lead to obstructed labour . T
10 Fertilization typically occurs around 3 weeks after the last normal menstrual period F
in a 28 day cycle.
11 Sex of the fetus is determined at fertilization and depends on whether the ovum is T
fertilized by a Y-bearing sperm or an X- bearing sperm.
12 Fertilization takes places in the outer third of the ampulla of the fallopian tube. T
13 The inner surface of the blastocyst will form the embryonic membranes and helps F
to form the placenta
14 Normally, implantation occurs in the lower uterine segment F
15 Endoderm- forms the central nervous system, special senses, skin, and glands F
16 The decidua is the name given to the endometrium during pregnancy T
17 Too little amniotic fluid (<500 ml at term) termeu oligohydramnios. T
18 Quickening occurs about 18-20 weeks in multigravida, but may occur as early as 16 F
weeks in a primigravida.
19 Morning Sickness 1s experienced during the first trimester of pregnancy and result T
from elevated HCG level and changed carbohydrate metabolism.
20 Urinary frequency, Excessive fatigue and Chadwick,s sign are consider subjective F
changes of pregnancy
21 Skin changes occurs during pregnancy that appear on the abdomin are stria F
gravidarium, cholasma and, linea nigra.
22 Antenatal care is a preventive obstetric program aiming to getting pregnancy, only F
as near to normall as possible.
23 From the objectives of preconception counseling and visit introduce iron F
supplement to prevent neural tube defect (NTD)
24 The high-risk pregnancy need more visit during antenatal care program than usua. T
25 The average weight gain during pregnancy from 10-12 kg. T
26 Warning signs of pregnancy at risk include nausea, F
 Vomiting and heartburn
27 At 32 weeks, cephalopelvic disproportion tests may be done during antenatal care F
program to decide mode of delivery.
28 Traveling is not allowed in patients with history of habitual abortion or premature T
labor.
29 Causes of bleeding in early pregnancy are abortion placenta previa and abruption F
placenta.
30 Incomplete abortion occurs when the fetus dies and is not expelled but it is F
retained in utero for two months or longer.
31 The uterus during vesicular mole is over distension and larger than expected for T
weeks of gestation
32 The high level of (HCG) hormone during early pregnancy indicate ectopic F
pregnancy.
33 Vaginal bleeding in placenta previa 1s painless causeless and recurrent: T
34 Placenta previa is the premature separation of thee placenta from a normally F
implanted site"
35 Abruptio placenta inevitable hemorrhage occurs from separation of an abnormally F
situated placenta.
36 Bleeding In late pregnancy classified as placenta previa and Abruptio placenta only. F
37 In complete central placenta previa the whole T
placenta is implanted over the lower uterine segment,
with the internal os located at the center of the
placenta.
38 Classification of diabetes during pregnancy is gestational Diabetes and pre- T
gestational Diabetes.
39 Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is made when the fasting (12hrs) plasma glucose is T
more than 126 mg/dl
40 Normal labor refers to the actual delivery of the baby. F
41 Each contraction presents three phases increment, acme and decrement T
42 First stage of labor begins with the first true labor contractions & ends with the F
actual delivery of the fetus.
43 Second stage starts from fully cervical dilatation to the actual delivery of the fetus. T
44 Immediately after delivery the uterus lies midway between the symphysis pubis T
and the umbilicus.
45 Breast - feeding and Early, frequent ambulation from factors that delayed F
involution.
46 Lochia serosa is Pinkish yellow discharge containing T
less RBC and more serum and leukocytes lasting to
5-9 days.
47 The temperature is slightly elevated for the first 24 hours and the third day after T
labour.
48 All non-nursing motherS resume menstruation within 6weeks after childbirth. F
49 Taking Hold phase It takes 2-3 days, during which time the mother's first concern F
with her own needs and mostly dependent on others to meet her needs
50 postpartum hemorrhage is blood loss of 500 ml or more from or within the F
reproductive tract before birth
51 Primary postpartum hemorrhage is described as bleeding that occurring within the T
first 24 hours after delivery
52 Secondary postpartum hemorrhage is described as bleeding that occurring within F
the first 24 hours after delivery
53 Companied Oral Contraceptives (COCs) taken during the first7 days of menstrual F
cycle, take I pill every day for 21 day&7day break between packs.
54 Progestin Only Pills (POP) taken daily without break between packs T
55 Progestin Only Pills (POP) taken daily without break between packs T
56 IUD is barrier family planning method F
57 Norplant is 6 match sized deliver low doses of progestin to the bloodstream for 3 F
years
58 Postpartum insertion of IUDs are within the first 48 hours or after 4 weeks T
59 Male condom consider as a natural method of family planning. F
60 Oral contraceptives pills will cure most cases of dysfunctional bleeding. F
61 Surgical method is a permanent procedure that prevent male or female T
reproductive function.
62 From the side effect of implanon is Amenorrhea, irregular bleeding, weight gain, T
acne and headache.