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Grade 9 Test Item
Grade 9 Test Item
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Explain how the respiratory and circulatory systems
work together to transport nutrients, gases, and other
molecules to and from the different parts of the body
(S9LT-la-b-26)
Diagram Completion
Directions: Fill in with the needed data to complete the diagram below.
Sequencing Test
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Directions: Arrange the following respiration process by numbering from
1-5.
1. Once the oxygen reaches the cell, it processes nutrients in order to release
energy.
2. The blood delivers the carbon dioxide to the right portion of the heart.
3. After passing through the lungs, the air enters to the left part of the
heart.
4. Carbon dioxide leaves the body through the lungs.
5. Air enters the body through the nose.
Sequence: __________________________________________
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Infer how one’s lifestyle can affect the functioning of
respiratory and circulatory systems (S9LT-lc-27)
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Table Completion
Directions: Classify the diseases caused by smoking cigarettes as
either affecting the respiratory system or circulatory system.
Write your answers in the table below.
Sentence Completion
Directions: Supply the missing term or phrase needed to complete
each sentence.
1. Diseases in the respiratory and circulatory system can be prevented through
_______________.
2. Alcoholic drinks affect the human body by causing_______________.
3. Diseases can be early detected through _______________.
4. Healthy lifestyle includes avoiding vices, proper hygiene and
_________________.
5. Air pollution can cause asthma which is a disease in one of the human organ
systems called __________.
Table Completion
Directions: Given the following human lifestyles below, supply the table
with its possible effects to the respiratory and circulatory
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system.
1. Cigarette smoking 1. 2
3. Stressful 5. 6
environment
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Describe the location of genes in chromosomes
(S9LT-ld-28)
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. The following are parts of the chromosome EXCEPT?
A. chromosomes
B. DNA
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C. genes
D. nucleus
2. Which is NOT true about genes?
A. It is a segment of DNA.
B. It is a protein molecule.
C. It encodes a unique protein.
D. It performs a specialized function in the cell.
3. What is a nucleotide made up of?
A. Sugar, phosphate, genes
B. DNA, genes, chromosomes
C. Guanine, cytosine, adenine
D. Sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
4. What does DNA stand for?
A. deoxyribosenucleic acetyl
B. deoxyribonucleic acid
C. deoxynitrogen acetyl
D. diribonucleic acid
5. All living things contain genetic materials which are also known as
__________.
A. chromosomes
B. DNA
C. genes
D. nucleus
Matching Type
Directions: Match the codon in A with their corresponding
anticodon in B. Answer by writing the letter of your
choice.
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Table Completion
Directions: Identify the parts of the DNA molecule and determine
their corresponding location.
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Explain the different patterns of non-Mendelian
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Inheritance (S9LT-ld-29)
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. Which of the following statements describe the incomplete dominance pattern
of inheritance?
A. one allele is not expressed
B. one allele is dominant over the other.
C. there are three common alleles that control the characteristics.
D. it shows a phenotype that is intermediate between two homozygous
phenotypes.
2. The following are Non-Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance EXCEPT
A. Codominance
B. Multiple allelism
C. Law of Dominance
D. Law of Incomplete Dominance
3. If a female affected with hemophilia X h X h is married to a man with no
hemophilia XY. What is the probability that she will have a daughter with
hemophilia?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
4. If the father has a blood type AB and the mother is heterozygous blood type A.
How many possible blood types would be observed in the resulting offspring?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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5. One man who is affected with color blindness marries a female who is normal
but carrier of the trait. How many percent of their offspring will be affected?
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%
Sentence Completion
Directions: Supply the correct Non-Mendelian Pattern of
Inheritance being described in every statement.
1. When a heterozygote shows a phenotype that is intermediate between the two
homozygous parents, it follows the pattern of inheritance called
_____________________.
2. Human blood type is an example of a trait that follows the pattern of
_________________.
3. Color blindness in human follows the inheritance pattern known as
_______________.
4. When the resulting heterozygotes exhibit the traits of both parents, this pattern
is called____________________________.
5. When the traits are expressed in only one gender, such inheritance pattern is
called___________________.
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3. Would a blood type O child be produced by parents with type B blood?
How?
4. Pink four o’clock flowers are obtained from a cross between pure bred red
flower plant and white flower plant. What made it possible to happen?
5. Which Non-Mendelian pattern of inheritance do you think is appropriate
among animal breeders in your area? Why?
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Relate species extinction to the failure of populations
of organisms to adapt to abrupt changes in the
environment (S9LT-le-f-30)
Table Completion
Directions: Classify the different human activities below as beneficial
or harmful to the condition of species in the ecosystem. Write
those beneficial in COLUMN A and the harmful ones
in COLUMN B.
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Illegal logging kaingin farming tree planting
conservation of resources dynamite fishing wildlife preservation
coral reef recovery animal hunting
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is not.
1. The loss of habitat is the major cause of wildlife depletion.
2. Muro-ami can cause mangrove destruction.
3. Tarsier and monkey-eating eagle are some examples of species that are
extinct.
4. When the population of certain species have become so low, it is considered
endangered.
5. Population increases when members die or move out of an ecosystem.
Diagram Completion
Directions: Fill in the concept map with the missing term/phrase from
the list provided below.
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Differentiate basic features and importance of
photosynthesis and respiration (S9LT-lg-j-31)
Sentence Completion
Directions: Supply with the missing term/phrase to complete each
sentence.
1. The process of respiration takes place in the ________________.
2. The food molecule produced in photosynthesis is called_____________.
3. During cellular respiration, glucose is converted into __________.
4. Aside from light reaction, the other phase of photosynthesis is
______________.
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5. Oxygen is released by plants while carbon dioxide is given off by
___________.
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is not.
1. Chlorophyll-bearing plants can make their own food through the process
photosynthesis.
2. The raw materials of photosynthesis are water and oxygen.
3. Glucose is converted to energy through cellular respiration.
4. Sugar is the source of energy needed in photosynthesis.
5. Photosynthesis and respiration are dependent with each other.
Table Completion
Directions: Differentiate photosynthesis from respiration by filling in the
table with the needed data.
Differences Between Photosynthesis and Respiration
Basis of Comparison Photosynthesis Respiration
Cell part involve 1 2
Product/s 3 4
Main Function 5 6
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Describe how the Bohr model of the atom improved
Rutherford’s atomic model (S9MT-IIa-21)
Sequencing Test
Directions: Arrange the following entries according to the
development of the atomic model. On the given space, write1 for
the earliest and 5 for the most recent atomic model.
matter
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Matching Type
Identification
Directions: Determine what is being described in each item. Write
the answer in your paper.
1. It is the smallest individual part of an element.
2. It is a fairly heavy particle and resides in the nucleus.
3. It represents the number of electrons in the element.
4. It is the subatomic particle found revolving around the nucleus.
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5. These are atoms that have the same number of protons but different number of
neutrons.
F
19
ur
p + = ___ e = ___ n = ___
- 0
(1) 9
her
Ca
40
p + = ___ e = ___ n = ___
tex - 0
(2) 20
her
Ag
108
ur
p + = ___ e = ___ n = ___
- 0
(3) 47
her
I
127
ur
p + = ___ e = ___ n = ___
- 0
(4) 53
here
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(5)
207
text
82 Pb p + = ___ e- = ___ n0 = ___
Diagram Completion
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Diagram Completion
1.
2.
3.
4.
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5.
(Note: Students might be asked to illustrate the two models instead of giving them the
pictures. Then, have the students describe the similarities and differences of the
atomic models of Bohr and Rutherford through a Venn diagram).
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how the Quantum Mechanical Model of the
atom describes the energies and positions of the
electrons (S9MT-IIa-22)
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
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C. Aufbau Principle
D. Pauli Exclusion Principle
4. Which of the following states that electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy
first?
A. Hund’s Rule
B. Dalton’s Theory
C. Aufbau Principle
D. Pauli Exclusion Principle
5. Which states that when electrons occupy orbitals of equal energy, one electron
enters each orbital until all orbitals contain one electron with their spins
parallel?
A. Hund’s Rule
B. Dalton’s Theory
C. Aufbau Principle
D. Pauli Exclusion Principle
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Table Completion
Could describe
If no, why not?
Electron a ground state
If yes, name
Configuration atom? Circle
the element.
yes or no.
Multiple choice
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Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
Sequencing Test
Directions: Arrange the following sublevels in order of decreasing
energy: 2p, 4s, 3s, 3d, and 3p. (5 points)
Problem Solving
Directions: Answer the following items as instructed.
A. Write the complete electron configuration for each of the element.
1. lithium
2. fluorine
3. rubidium
4. nickel
5. phosphorus
B. Give the symbol of the atom that corresponds to each electron
configuration. Refer to the periodic table.
1. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
4. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d7 5s1
5. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d10 4f7 5s2 5p6 5d1 6s2
Multiple Choice
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Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that corresponds to the
correct answer.
is ____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. tellurium
B. selenium
C. phosphorus
D. germanium
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A. arsenic
B. nitrogen
C. phosphorus
D. vanadium
5. Which ground-state atom has an electron configuration described
by the following orbital diagram?
A. germanium
B. antimony
C. indium
D. tin
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. Which element has the following ground-state electron configuration? [Kr]5s14d5
A. Mn
B. Mo
C. Nb
D. Re
2. The electron configuration of a ground-state Co atom is __________
A. [Ar]4s23d7
B. 1s22s22p63s23d9
C. [Ne]3s23d7
D. [Ar]4s13d5
1. What is wrong with writing the electron configuration of 1s 2 2s2 3s2 2p6 3p6?
Explain and correct the error. (5 points)
2. Why does one electron in a potassium atom go into the fourth energy level
instead of squeezing into the third energy level along with the eight electrons
that are already there? (5 points)
3. Using Aufbau Diagram, explain why the actual electron configurations for
chromium and copper differs from each other. (5 points)
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain the formation of ionic and covalent bonds
(S9MT-IIa-13)
Cloze Test
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Directions: Complete the paragraph by filling in the blanks with the
appropriate word/s from the box. Write your answers in your
paper.
Ionic covalent
True or False
_____ 1. Ionic and covalent bonding are the results brought by the need for
electrons or the need to remove electrons in order to attain stability.
_____ 2. Ionic bonds have a definite and predictable shape so as low melting
and boiling points.
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_____ 3. When two nonmetallic atoms react together, both of them
need to lose electrons in order to complete their outer shells.
_____ 5. Electrical attraction between the nuclei of adjacent atoms and the
shared electrons causes the atoms in a molecule to be held together. This force of
attraction is called ionic bonding.
Table Completion
Al
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Mg
Ar
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. Which of the elements listed below is the least electronegative?
A. S
B. V
C. Ni
D. P
2. Which of these elements has the greatest electronegativity?
A. Mg
B. Ga
C. Si
D. Ba
3. In which pair of atoms would form a nonpolar covalent bond?
A. Na – Cl
B. H – Cl
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C. Li - Br,
D. Br - Br
4. Which pair of covalent bond atoms would form the greatest
polarity?
A. B–O
B. S–O
C. C–P
D. C–O
5. Which pair of covalent bond atoms would form the least polarity?
A. C – Cl
B. C–C
C. C–H
D. O–C
Table Completion
ELECTRONEGATIVITY
ELEMENTS BOND TYPE
DIFFERENCE
1. Na, Cl
2. Al, Cl
3. H, S
3. H, S
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4. K, F
5. O, O
6. Mg, S
7. Li, Br
8. F, F
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
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C. SeO2
D. MnO2
4. In which of the pair of atoms would form a polar covalent bond?
A. Cl - Cl
B. P - Cl
C. Ca - Cl
D. Cr - Br
5. What type of chemical bond holds the atoms together within a
water molecule?
A. Ionic bond
B. Polar covalent bond
C. Nonpolar covalent bond
D. Coordinate covalent bond
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct, FALSE if it is not.
1. The polarity of covalent bonds increases as the percent ionic
character increases.
2. A charge of 2+ is most likely to form from an atom whose electron
configuration is 1s22s22p63s23p4.
3. The bond in F2 is described as polar covalent.
4. Of the species NO2, NO, and N2, only NO2 is an exception to the
octet rule.
5. The C-Cl bond has less ionic character than the Si-Cl bond.
Identification
Directions: Classify each compound as either IONIC BOND or
COVALENT BOND.
1. CS2 - ____________________________
2. K2S - ____________________________
3. FeF3 - ____________________________
4. PF3 - ____________________________
5. AlF3 - ____________________________
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6. BaS - ____________________________
Diagramming
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Recognize different types of compounds (ionic or
covalent) based on their properties such as melting
point, hardness, polarity, and electrical and thermal
conductivity (S9MT-IIb-14)
Identification
Directions: Determine the following properties/formula as either (A) for
molecular compounds or (B) for ionic compounds.
_______1. KBr
_______2. C2H6
_______3. Have lower melting point
_______4. More soluble in water
_______5. Involves the transfer of electrons
_______6. A poor conductor of electricity
_______7. Is formed by reactions of metals and nonmetals
_______8. The representative unit of this compound is molecule
_______9. Hydrogen bonds exist between these compounds
_______10. Physical state at room temperature is always a solid
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Table Completion
Directions: Compare and contrast the two types of bond by filling in the
table with the appropriate data.
A Comparison of Ionic and Covalent Compounds
Structure
Valence electrons
Electrical conductivity
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Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table by checking the corresponding properties
evident in each compound identified. Write NE if not
evident.
Compounds
Properties
KBr C12H22O11 NaCl H2O
melting/boiling high
point low
hard
hardness
porous
polarity Polar
non polar
conductor
electrical, thermal
conductivity non
conductor
Identification
Directions: Tell whether the following is ionic or molecular in nature.
Write I, if the compound is ionic or M, if the compound is
molecular.
1. SI6
2. NaHCO3
3. CuSO4
4. PBr5
5. CH3Cl
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain properties of metals in terms of their structure
(S9MT-IIc-d-15)
Identification
Directions: Determine if the element is a metal or non-metal by
placing a check mark on the appropriate column.
Element Metal Non- metal
Carbon (C)
Gold (Au)
Platinum (Pt)
Sulfur (S)
Iron (Fe)
Sentence Completion
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Directions: Fill in the blanks by choosing your answers from the terms
inside the box.
malleability high ductility solid
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how ions are formed (S9MT-IIe-f-16)
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Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. When does calcium follow the octet rule when reacting to form a
compound?
A. When it gains electron
B. When it gives up electrons
C. When it does not change its number of electrons
D. When calcium does not follow the octet rule
2. What is the maximum charge for an ion?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
3. How many electrons do nitrogen gain in order to achieve a noble-
gas electron configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4. How many electrons do barium have to lose in order to achieve a
noble-gas electron configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
5. Which rare gas would be used for the gas notation of the electronic
configuration for silver?
A. argon
B. radon
C. xenon
D. krypton
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Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. Which type of bond has mobile electrons within bonding networks?
A. ionic
B. metallic
C. polar covalent
D. nonpolar covalent
2. The model for metallic bonding is known as the _____.
A. quantum model
B. Rutherford model
C. electron sea model
D. electron cloud model
3. Which of the following diagrams is that of a metallic atom?
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A. Ionic bond
B. Metallic bond
C. Covalent bond
D. Hydrogen bond
Identification
Directions: Determine the ion to be formed by the following neutral
atom then, indicate its ionic charge.
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5. How many electrons do nitrogen gain in order to achieve a noble-gas electron
configuration? ________
Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table with the correct data. Write NA if it is not
applicable.
Diagramming
Directions: Write the Lewis dot symbol for the following:
1. Chloride Ion
2. Sulfide Ion
3. Calcium Ion
4. Nitride Ion
5. Lead atom
Why is the charge of a Chloride Ion a negative one (-1) even though the 43
Lead
Chlorine to gains
atom Go, Love to Grow,toLive
an electron formto the
Glow
ion? (5points)
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how the structure of the carbon atom affects
the type of bonds it forms (S9MT-IIg-17)
Cloze Test
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTION about hydrocarbons with the
correct TERM.
DESCRIPTION TERM
1. hydrocarbon substituent
A. alkanes
2. alkanes that contain one or more alkyl
B. alkyl group
substituents
C. substituents
3. hydrocarbons that contain only single
D. hydrocarbons
covalent bonds
E. straight-chain
4. organic compounds that contain only
alkanes
carbon and hydrogen
F. branched-
5. alkanes that contain any number of carbons
chain alkanes
one after another in a chain
True or False
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Directions: Classify each of the statement below as: always true (AT),
sometimes true (ST) or never true (NT).
1. Straight-chain alkanes contain 10 carbon atoms.
2. Substituent can take the place of a hydrogen atom on a parent
hydrocarbon molecule.
3. Because a carbon atom contains 6 valence electrons, covalent it
forms 3 bonds.
4. When naming branched-chain hydrocarbons, the names of the
substituent alkyl groups are listed in alphabetical order.
5. Hydrocarbon structural formulas are numbered from right to left.
Multiple Choice
1. The maximum number of bonds a carbon atom can form is ____.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
2. A form of the element carbon that consists of carbon atoms
arranged in a repeating pattern is ____.
A. alkenes
B. fullerene
C. polymers
D. alkyl group
3. Which of the following hydrocarbons are unsaturated?
A. alkanes and alkenes
B. alkanes and alkynes
C. alkenes and alkynes
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D. alkenes and alkanes
4. What is the IUPAC name for CH3---CH2---CH---CH2---CH---CH3 ?
CH3 CH3
A. isooctane
B. isohexane
C. 1,3-dimethylhexane
D. 2,4-dimethylhexane
5. What is the IUPAC name for CH3—CH2---CH2---CH=CH--CH3?
A. hexane
B. 2-hexene
C. 3-hexene
D. 4-hexene
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C. CH3---CH(NH2)---CH3
D. CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2
10. What is the condensed structural formula for 3-pentanone?
A. CH3---CH2—CH2—CH2---CH3
B. CH3---CO---CH2---CH2---CH3
C. CH3---CH2---CO---CH2---CH3
D. CH3---CH2---CH2---CO---CH3
Directions: Write your answer in 2 – sentences for each of the questions that
follow. Please be guided with the rubric.
(Note: Teacher should design a rubric which fits the ability of the
students with the concepts learned as another consideration. Present
and discuss the rubric first before the test is conducted.)
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Subject: Science
Grade: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Recognize the general classes and uses of organic
compounds (S9MT-IIh-18)
Diagram Completion
Directions: Choose the formula from the boxes with the appropriate
functional group in the diagram that follows. Write your answer
on the box inside the circle.
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Note: The diagram above is adapted from the Wikipedia.
Table Completion
Functional
No Compounds Formula Uses
group
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Functional
No Compounds Formula Uses
group
COO-
(CH2)-CH3.
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Functional
No Compounds Formula Uses
group
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
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A. four alkyl groups to one oxygen atom
B. three alkyl groups to one oxygen atom
C. two alkyl groups to same oxygen atom
D. two alkyl group to different oxygen atoms
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9. Which of the following describes a phenol?
A. aromatic
B. strong acid
C. completely soluble in water
D. contains two hydroxyl groups
Multiple Choice
Directions: Choose the word that does not belong to the group.
Write the letter of your answer in your paper.
Group/ Choices
Item No. A B C D
1 Hydroxyl quinone resonance micelle
group
2 carbonyl oxy antiseptic explosive
3 alcohol oxidation Sulfuric acid Carboxylic
acid
4 KMnO4 phenol acidic ether
5 Ester benzene phenol ether
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Use the mole concept to express mass of substance
and vice versa (SMT-IIi-19)
Identification
Directions: Study the relationship that exist between the first pair of
words. To complete the second pair of words, choose the
letter of the word that corresponds to the relationship of the
first pair.
1. dozen: eggs:: mole : ______
A. size
B. atoms
C. grams
D. Avogadro’s number
2. gram atomic mass: element:: gram molecular mass : _______
A. molecule
B. formula unit
C. ionic compound
D. molecular compound
3. mole: 6.02 X 10 23:: molar volume : ________
A. 1 atm
B. 1 mole
C. 22.4 L
D. 273 K
4. oxygen: atom:: sulfur dioxide :: ________
A. ions
B. particles
C. molecules
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D. formula units
5. covalent compounds: molecular mass:: ionic compounds : ________
A. ionic mass
B. atomic mass
C. formula mass
D. compound mass
Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table with the components of the given compound
and give the number of atoms present for each. Please refer to the
given example.
Compound Kind of Atom Number of Atoms
Ex. Sodium (Na) 1
NaCl Chlorine (Cl) 1
1. P2Br4
2. Co(NO3)2
3. Fe2O3
4. N2O3
5. Mg(HSO4)2
Problem Solving
Directions: Calculate the formula/molecular mass of the following
compounds.
A. Formula mass
1. Lithium fluoride (LiF) _______
2. Ammonium fluoride (NH4F) _______
3. Potassium phosphate (K3PO4) _______
4. Calcium nitrate (Ca(NO3)2) _______
5. Magnesium acetate (Mg(C2H3O2)2 ___________
B. Molecular mass
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1. SF6 S = ___________
F = ___________
Total =___________
2. N2F4
N = ___________
F= ___________
Total =___________
3. C2H4O2
C = ___________
H = ___________
O = ___________
Total =___________
4. C2H5OH
C = ___________
H = ___________
O = ___________
Total =___________
5. C12H22O11
C = ___________
H = ___________
O = ___________
Total =___________
Problem Solving
Directions: For each problem given, select its numerical value from the
choices. Some of the responses may be used more than
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once but, if it is not found in the options, write the correct
answer.
A.
12.0
______ 1. Atomic mass, in amu, of C
______ 2. Formula mass, in amu, of CO2 24.0
______ 3. Molar mass, in grams, of CO2
44.0
______ 4. Mass, in grams, of 6.02 x 1023 atoms of C
______ 5. Mass, in grams, of 2.00 moles of CO2
B.
______ 1. Number of moles of S in 2 moles of H2SO4
______ 2. Number of moles of atoms in 2 moles of
A. 1
SO2
B. 2
______ 3. Number of moles of H in 1 mole of
(NH4)3PO4 C. 6
______ 4. Number of moles of O atoms in 3 moles D. 12
of O2
______ 5. Number of moles of O2 molecules in 2
moles of O2
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_____1. (I) Mass of 1 mole of CO2 A. I is greater than II
(II) Mass of 1 mole of NH3 B. I is equal to II
_____2. (I) Moles in 28.0 g of N2 C. I is less than II
(II) Moles in 28.0 g of CO D. I and II cannot be compared
_____3. (I) Molecules in 2 moles of CO because of insufficient information
(II) Molecules in 2 moles of CO2
_____4. (I) Atoms in 3 moles of CO
(II) Atoms in 2 moles of CO2
_____5.(I) Molecules in 28.0 g of N2
(II) Molecules in 28.0 g of O2
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. A mole of a chemical substance represents ________________.
A. the mass of the substance that will combine with 12.0 g of
carbon
B. the mass of the substance that will combine with 100.0 g of
oxygen
C. 6.02 x 1023 chemical particles of the substance
D. 6.02 x 10–23 grams of the substance
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atoms of sulfur be present?
A. 1.15 moles S
B. 1.25 moles S
C. 1.35 moles S
D. 1.45 moles S
4. Avogadro’s number of phosphorus (P) atoms would have a mass of
________________.
A. 6.02 x 10–23 g
B. 6.02 x 1023 g
C. 15.0 g
D. 31.0 g
5. Which of the following samples has the largest mass in grams?
A. 2 moles of CO2
B. 3 moles of CO
C. 4 moles of H2O
D. 5 moles of H2
6. Which of the following samples contains the greatest number of
atoms?
A. 1 mole of CO2
B. 2 moles of He
C. 3 moles of N2O
D. 4 moles of CO
7. Which of the following is the correct equation for this problem: “How
many atoms are present in 10.0 g S?”
A. 6.02 x 10 23 atoms S
a) 10.0 g S x
1.0 g S
1 mole S 1 atom S
b) 10.0 g S x x
B. 23
32.07 g S 6.02 x 10 moles S
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6.02 x 10 23 atoms S
D. d) 10.0 g S x 23
6.02 x 10 g S
8. The “set-up” for the problem “What is the mass, in grams, of 3.00 x
106 atoms of F?” which follows is correct, except numbers in the
middle conversion factor have been replaced by the letters A and
B. What are the numerical values of A and B, respectively?
A. 1 and 6.02 x 1023
B. 1 and 19.00
C. 6.02 x 1023 and 1
D. 19.00 and 6.02 x 1023
9. Which of the following is the correct equation for this problem: “How
many grams of S are present in 50.0 g of S4N4?”
Why does one mole of carbon have a smaller mass than one mole of
sulfur? How are the atomic structures of these elements different? 61
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Subject Area: Science
Grade: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Determine the percentage composition of a
compound given its chemical formula and vice
versa (S9MT-IIj-20)
Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table with the needed data. The first one has
been done for you.
Compounds Elements Number of Atomic Total
Identified Atoms mass number of
Atoms
Example:
K2CrO4 K 2 19 amu
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Cr 1 24 amu 7
O 4 16 amu
NH4I
Fe(OH)3
Na2CO3
C6H10S2O
KC2H3O2
Problem Solving
Directions: Show the equation used to solve each problem. Round
off the atomic mass to the nearest tenth.
1. Write the general mathematical formula that can be used to
calculate the percent composition by mass of any substance.
2. Use the atomic mass of the elements to determine the percent
composition by mass of sodium and chlorine in sodium chloride.
Sodium = Na = 23.0 g Chlorine = Cl = 35.5 g Sodium
Chloride = NaCl = 58.5 g
3. Use the atomic mass of the elements to find the percent
composition of hydrogen in H2O.
Hydrogen = H = 1.0 g x 2 H = 2.0 g
Oxygen = O = 16.0 g
Water = H2O = 18.0 g
4. Determine the percent composition of oxygen in potassium
chlorate (KClO3)
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Potassium = K = 39.1 g
Chlorine = Cl = 35.5 g
Oxygen = O = 16.0 g x 3 O = 48.0 g
Potassium Chlorate = KClO3 = 122.6 g
5. Determine the percent composition of phosphorus in calcium
phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2.
Calcium = Ca = 40.1 g x 3 = 120.3 g
Phosphorus = P = 31.0 g x 2 = 62.0 g
Oxygen = O = 16.0 g x 8 = 128.0 g
6. Copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate, with the formula CuSO4· 5H2O,
has a deep blue color. When heated to remove the water, the
crystals crumble and turn white. What is the percentage by mass
of water in copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate crystals?
Problem Solving
Directions: For each item, solve the unknown using the IDEAL
technique. Answer the questions that follow. (5 points)
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Describe the different types of volcanoes.
(S9ES -IIIa-25)
Identification
(4)
(3)
(5)
(2)
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(1)
https://georgiasieversblog.blogspot.com/2015/07/parts-of-volcano.html
Matching Type
Direction: Match the DESCRIPTIONS given with the corresponding
PICTURES. Write the letter which corresponds to the correct
answer.
DESCRIPTIONS PICTURES
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1. A broad, slightly domed structure
formed by free- flowing non-
viscous lava. A.
2. A steep-slope structure with
www.zmescience.com
F.
http://google.com
Identification
Directions: Identify the type of volcano being described by the following. Choose
your answer from the word pool.
on Earth
lava
volcanoes
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Differentiate between active and inactive
volcanoes (S9ES -IIIa-27)
Cloze Test
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Direction: Supply the missing term to complete the thought of the following
paragraph.
Table Completion
Direction: Differentiate active volcano and inactive volcano by completing the table.
Types of Volcano
Characteristics
Active Volcano Inactive Volcano
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Diagram Completion Test
Active Inactive
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain what happens when volcanoes erupt.
(S9ES -IIIb-28)
Sequencing Test
Directions: Arrange the following events based on what happens when a volcano
erupt. Use numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 to indicate the arrangement.
_____ When the pressure exceeds the strength of the overlying rock,
fracturing occurs.
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_____ The resulting breaks lead to a further drop in confining pressure,
which in turn, causes, even more, gas bubbles to form.
_____ These gas bubbles then exceed the melting volume in the
magma producing magma foam that can lead into explosive eruptions.
_____ Magma inside the volcano has high temperature. As the magma
is continuously heated, it goes up. As it rises, gas bubbles are developed.
_____ The gas bubbles are trapped and expanded causing the molten
material to swell also, resulting in a gradual increase in pressure within the
volcano.
high temperature
low viscosity
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Matching Type
magma
eruption characterized by
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Illustrate how energy from volcanoes may be
tapped for human use (S9ES –IIIc-d-29)
Sequencing Test
Directions: Arrange the steps of generating electricity in a geothermal
power plant. Illustrate the process using the graphic
organizer.
STEPS
https://www3.epa.gov
Picture Analysis
Directions: Using the diagram below, make a flow chart that will tell
how energy from volcanoes are developed for human
utilization. Use the pictures as your guide.
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain how different factors affect the climate of an
area (S9ES-IIIe-30)
Multiple Choice
Directions: Choose the letter inside the box that best explains the
statements from 1-5.
1. Tropical countries experience different climate from other countries near polar
regions.
2. Tagaytay which is 640 m above sea level has an annual average temperature
of 22.7 °C while Manila which is 10 m above sea level has 27.7 °C annual
average temperature.
3. The southwestern parts of Singapore and Indonesia have lower temperatures
because of the cold air brought by West Australian current.
4. La Paz is a place without a body of water nearby. It tends to have a very high
temperature during day time.
5. Two sides of a mountain grow different kinds of vegetation and differ in
temperature and amount of rainfall.
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Sentence Completion
Directions: Complete the statement by filling in each blank with the
correct word.
Subject: Science
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Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Describe certain climatic phenomena that occur on
a global level. (S9ES-IIIf-31)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with the corresponding
PHENOMENA. Write only the letter of the correct answer.
DESCRIPTIONS PHENOMENA
1. A process of warming which results A. Climate Change
when the atmosphere traps heat B. El Niño
radiating from Earth towards space. C. Global Warming
2. It refers to any significant change in D. Greenhouse Effect
the measures of climate lasting for an E. La Niña
extended period of time.
F. Typhoon
3. A naturally occurring phenomenon
that is linked to a periodic warming in
sea surface temperatures across the
central and east-central Equatorial
Pacific.
4. A phenomenon that describes cooler
than normal ocean surface
temperatures in the Eastern and
Central Pacific Ocean.
5. It refers to the ongoing rise in global
average temperature caused mostly
by increasing concentrations of
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
Identification
Directions: Using the graphic organizer, describe the climatic
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phenomenon shown by the picture. Fill out the boxes with
the needed information.
MEANING
(1.)
CAUSES
(2 – 3)
goldenageofgaia.com
True or False
Directions: Write T on the blank if the statement describes climate
change and write F if the statement does not.
Climate change is . . .
_____ 1. believed to have been caused by human expansion of
greenhouse effect.
_____ 2. any significant change in the measures of climate experienced
for a short period of time.
_____ 3. accompanied by major changes in temperature, precipitation,
or wind patterns.
_____ 4. a problem that affects all abiotic and biotic components of
the planet.
_____ 5. considered as a major environmental concern.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
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Competency: Infer the characteristics of stars based on the
characteristics of the Sun. (S9ES-IIIg-32)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the picture and answer the questions that follow.
https://
heroescommunity.com
1. The color of stars tell its temperature. Give an inference about the temperature
of the following stars in comparison with the sun.
A. Sirius
B. Alpha Centauri A
C. Epsilon Indi
2. If the illustration shows the apparent size of the stars, give an inference about
the distance from the Earth of the following stars in comparison with the sun.
A. 17 Red Dwarfs
B. Procyon
True or False
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Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is
incorrect.
Cloze Test
Direction: Supply the missing term to complete the following
paragraph.
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amount of light received on earth is called ______ brightness. According to
______, stars are classified as supergiant, giant, and dwarf star.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Infer that the arrangement of stars in a group
(constellation) does not change (S9ES-IIIh-33)
Identify different constellations
Recognize variety of constellations
Conclude that the arrangement of stars in a group
(constellation) does not change.
Identification
Directions: Identify the constellation described in the statement.
Choose the correct answer from the box.
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Andromeda Hercules
Cassiopeia Orion
Identification
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Picture Analysis
Direction: Study the illustrations carefully. Then, answer the questions
that follow.
Questions:
1. Are the arrangements of the stars on each of the following constellations in
the night sky of March the same during the month of April?
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Ursa minor
Ursa major
2. Are the positions of each of the following constellation in the night sky of
March the same during the month of April?
Ursa minor
Ursa major
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Observe the position of constellation changes in the
course of a night. (S9ES-IIIi-34)
Multiple Choice
Direction: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. What specific star appears almost motionless in the Northern sky as the earth
rotates?
A. Antares
B. Betelgeuse
C. Polaris
D. Sirius
2. What is the direction of the apparent motion of constellations as seen from the
Earth?
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A. East to west
B. North to south
C. South to north
D. West to east
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Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the illustrations showing the variety of constellations at
different times of the year including the position and
location of each constellation in every month. Write your
observations with the identified constellation on the
provided table.
https://kidscosmos.org https://kidscosmos.org
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https://kidscosmos.org https://kidscosmos.org
Name of Constellation Observation
1. Aquarius
2. Cepheus
3. Cygnus
4. Pieces
5. Ursa Major
True or False
Direction: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is
incorrect.
_____ 1. Constellations apparently move in the sky from east to west.
_____ 2. Same constellations are seen by the viewer at different months
of the year.
_____ 3. Polaris is very close to the north celestial pole making it the
current northern pole star.
_____ 4. Orion and Scorpius are two famous constellations that appear
in opposite parts of the sky.
_____ 5. The revolution of the earth results to the change in position of
the constellations in the sky on a particular night.
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Show which constellations may be observed at
different times of the year using models. (S9ES-IIIj-35)
Table Completion
Direction: Complete the table with the needed information.
Local Name Month of Related Western
Appearance Agricultural Equivalent
Activity
Diagram Completion
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Direction: Identify the uses of constellations.
Uses of
Constellations
DRAWING
1.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
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https://georgiasieversblog.blogspot.com/2015/07/parts-of-volcano.html
Competency: Describe the horizontal and vertical motions of a
projectile (S9FE-IVa-34)
A B C D
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F
G
vx
vy v
Where
v = velocity of projectile
vx = horizontal component of projectile’s
velocity
vy = vertical component of projectile’s
velocity
6. Based on the diagram of projectile motion above showing object’s position and
velocity in equal time interval;
6.1 What pattern do vertical arrows show? What does this pattern mean?
6.2 What pattern do horizontal arrows show? What does this pattern mean?
6.3 What happens to the length of the diagonal arrow as the object
continues its path?
7. Among the three types of arrows, which of them show changes in length? What
does the change in length represent?
8. What factor could have caused this change?
9. How is v related to vx and vy? What mathematical theorem and equation represent
the connection between v, vx, and vy?
10. What can be inferred from the series of illustrations below? (Compare their arrows
and describe what they represent.)
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Completion Test
Directions. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate terms from the box.
projectile perpendicular constant
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Investigate the relationship between the projection
angle of release and the height of range of the
projectile (S9FE-IVa-35)
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2. An athlete jumps from the ground with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of
250 from the horizontal. Determine the time of flight, the horizontal distance and
the height reached by the jumper.
3. A ball is kicked with an initial velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 450 with respect to
the horizontal. Compute the time of flight, the maximum height of the ball and the
horizontal distance traveled.
Identification
Directions. Tell whether the situation shows a projectile. Write Agree if it portrays a
projectile motion, Disagree if it does not portray a projectile.
True or False
Directions: Which of the following situations show projectile motion?
Write True for the statement that is correct and False for the
statement that is incorrect.
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2. A projectile is a moving object that is influenced by the force of gravity and
friction.
3. A projectile has a zero velocity at its peak vertical component.
4. A projectile has a constant vertical velocity.
5. A projectile moves with a constant horizontal velocity.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Relate impulse and momentum to collision of objects
(e.g., vehicular collision) (S9FE-IVb-36)
2. What safety measures are provided on road crossings so that accidents may be
avoided?
3. A speeding motorbike bumps to a heavily loaded delivery truck parked at the side
of the road. Which of the two vehicles will have greater damage? Why?
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4. A man and a girl both sitting at the jeepney were injured when the jeepney
collided with another jeepney. Which of these passengers will experience less
impact force?
5. Why are nets used to catch and save people jumping from burning buildings?
Problem Solving
1. Which object has greater momentum at a forward speed of 5m/s, a 0.1kg tennis
ball or a 0.5 kg basketball?
Multiple Choice
Directions. Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1) Which of the following is the definition of momentum?
A. The product of force and time
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B. The change in velocity per unit time
C. The product of force and distance
D. The product of mass and velocity
4) A 55-kg athlete running at a speed of 8 m/s collided with another 55-kg athlete
moving at 5 m/s. Which statement is true?
A. Both athletes have the same momentum.
B. Athlete running at 8 m/s has less impact force compared to the athlete
moving at 5 m/s.
C. Both athletes will suffer injury because of their same body mass.
D. Athlete running at 5 m/s will sustain greater injury than the athlete
running at 8 m/s.
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Infer that the total momentum before and after
collision is equal (S9FE-IVb-37)
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. The law of _______________ of Momentum states that momentum is neither
created nor destroyed.
A. Preservation
B. Conservation
C. Reservation
D. Protection
2. When the baseball bat hits the ball, the change in momentum of the bat is
_________ to the change in momentum of the ball.
A. greater than
B. less than
C. equal to
D. neither
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A. Bus
B. Bicycle
C. Both
D. Neither
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve each problem below.
1. A 500 kg car traveling at 15m/s comes to a complete stop in 5 sec. What is the
retarding force applied?
2. A 65-kg basketball player moving at 7.5 m/s grabs and collides with a stationary
80-kg basketball player. What speed will the basketball players have the moment
after the collision?
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Examine effects and predict causes of collision-
related damages/injuries (S9FE-IVc-38)
Problem Solving
2. A motorcycle rider moving at a rate of 10 m/s collided with another rider moving
at 15 m/s. If both riders have a mass of 80 kg, what is their velocity during the
collision?
Cloze Test
Directions. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate terms from the box.
101
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crumple impact energy collision
Science of Car Safety
(Adapted from: http://www.st-ambrosecollege.org.uk)
Moving cars and the passengers they carry have kinetic energy and many of
the safety features in all modern cars - seat belts, crumple zones, air bags and side
impact bars - are designed to reduce (1)__________________ by absorbing much of
this kinetic energy in the event of a crash. The design of these features also ensures
that the destructive (2)__________________ which would be exerted on
(3)__________________ when a collision occurs, are (4)__________________ as
much as possible.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain energy transformation in various
activities/events (e.g., waterfalls, archery,
amusement rides) (S9FE-IVc-39)
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situations:
1. Grilling a fish
2. Doing laundry using washing machine
3. Drying your hair with a blower
4. Using a computer
5. Lighting a room using solar-powered bulbs.
Problem-Solving
Directions: Solve the problem below.
A 1 kg ball is dropped from rest on certain floors from a tall building. Calculate
the (a) total potential energy (b) kinetic and potential energies of the ball after one
second. Use g = 9.8 m/s2.
1. 10th floor = 30 m
2. 15th floor = 45 m
3. 30th floor = 90 m
Diagram Completion
Directions: Complete the given illustration.
2.________________________
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3. ________________________
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Infer that the total mechanical energy remains the same during any
process (S9FE-IVe-41)
Identification
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3. Farmers planting rice
4. A waiter holding a tray
5. A student dragging a chair
Problem Solving
Directions: Answer the given word problems. Show your complete solutions.
1. How much kinetic energy is gained when 2000 kg of water falls from a height of
40 m?
True or False
1. The total mechanical of the object at the highest point compared with the
total mechanical energy at the lowest point is equal.
4. The total mechanical energy of a body is the sum of its potential energy
and kinetic energy.
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Construct a model to demonstrate that heat can
do work (S9FE-IVe-42)
Sentence Completion
2. Of the methods by which heat may be converted into work, the one that
seems to be __________ efficient is the human body.
3. Heat engines are machines that convert heat energy into __________.
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5. Waste heat from heat engines causes __________ pollution of bodies of
water.
Multiple Choice
Directions. Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that corresponds to the
correct answer.
1. Which of the following methods is the least practical when heat is converted into
work
A. the bicycle
B. the steam engine
C. burning gases
D. atomic reactor
2. Which of the following is not a part of a steam engine?
A. boiler
B. cylinder
C. steam chest
D. commutator
4. In what condition does a refrigerator possibly transfer heat from a colder body to
another at a higher temperature?
Subject: Science
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Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Infer that heat transfer can be used to do work, and that work
involves the release of heat (S9FE-IVe-43)
Identification
Directions: In the figure below, describe the process of heat transfer that can be
used to do work that involves the release of heat.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain why machines are never 100-percent
efficient (S9FE-IVe-44)
Multiple Choice
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Directions. Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that corresponds to the
correct answer.
1. What are machines?
A. Instruments that assist us to do work easier.
B. Devices that help us do work.
C. Tools that fix the damage.
D. Materials that make our work difficult.
2. What is the name for a cyclical machine that transforms heat energy into work?
A. refrigerator
B. thermal motor
C. heat engine
D. Carnot cycle
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D. mechanical efficiency
3. As a concerned citizen in your community, how will avoid, if not lessen the
thermal pollution in your environment?
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain how heat transfer and energy
transformation make heat engines like geothermal
plants work (S9FE-IVe-45)
Cloze Test
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The source of (1)_______________ common in our province is
(2)_______________. It obtains from the earth’s heat. The heat obtained from its
interior is used produce (3)_______________. This runs the (4)_______________
where electricity is generated with the help of a generator which converts
(5)_______________ to electrical energy. (6)_______________, in turn, is
distributed to the community by electric companies. When you turned on the
electric lamps, you tapped into that energy.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain how electrical energy is generated, transmitted, and
distributed (S9FE-IVe-46)
Identification
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1. Energy from splitting the nucleus of the atom
2. Groundwater in contact with hot rocks gets heated
3. Turns windmill blades to pump water or generate electricity
4. Water stored at a high level in dams of rivers
5. From sugar cane used as a gasoline substitute
6. Heat from the sun trapped and concentrated for cooking and heating
7. Material changed to methane gas, a substitute for cooking gas
Short-Answer Test
(A) Directions: Using a flow chart, explain how electrical energy is generated,
transmitted and distributed in the given power plants below.
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Answer Key
Biology– Quarter I
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blood cells to transport oxygen since the sickle cells block the circulation in
small blood vessels.
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Code: S9LT-lc-27 (page 3)
Table Completion
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6. Difficulty in breathing caused by pollutants may lead the heart to work
harder and add strain to arteries. High blood pressure is its consequence
which may lead to stroke, heart attack and kidney failure.
1.D
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. D
Matching Type
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. E
5. B
Table Completion
1. nitrogen bases- center
2. phosphate- sides
3. sugar- sides
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thought is evident.
evident.
Accuracy Free from Few grammatical Evident errors in
grammatical errors grammar were
errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Diagram Completion
1. Species extinction
2. Diseases
3. Habitat destruction
4. Food shortage
5. Pollution
(Note: Answers in 2-5 can be interchanged).
Sentence Completion
1. Mitochondrion
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2. Glucose
3. ATP/energy
4. Calvin Cycle/ Citric Acid Cycle/Light Independent Reaction
5. Animals
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
Table Completion
1. Chloroplast
2. Mitochondrion
3. Glucose & oxygen
4. Energy(ATP) and carbon dioxide
5. To manufacture food from the raw materials in the environment
6. To convert food into a form of energy (ATP)
Chemistry – Quarter II
Code: S9MT-IIa-21 (page 15)
Sequencing Test: 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
Matching Type
1. E
2. A
3. G
4. C
5. B
Identification
1. atom
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2. proton
3. atomic number
4. electron
5. isotopes
Short Answer Test
1. 9, 9, 10
2. 20, 20, 20
3. 47, 47, 61
4. 53, 53, 74
5. 82, 82, 125
Diagram Completion
Tellurium dichloride (TeCl2) - green
Selenium dibromide (SeBr2) - blue
Lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) - red
Sodium fluoride (NaF) - yellow
Cesium iodide (CsI) - violet
Diagram Completion
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Short Answer Test
There were, however, some problems with Rutherford's model: for example it
could not explain the very interesting observation that atoms only emit light at certain
wavelengths or frequencies. Niels Bohr solved this problem by proposing that the
electrons could only orbit the nucleus in certain special orbits at different energy
levels around the nucleus.
(Answers may vary. Make use of the following rubrics for scoring.)
TOTAL 10pts.
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. A
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Table Completion
1. Yes, carbon.
2. No. It should be 1s2 2s1.
3. Yes, fluorine.
4. No. It should be 1s2 2s2 2p2.
5. No. It should be 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. D
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. D
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Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
True or False
1. True
2. (covalent, ionic) False
3. (loose, gain) False
4. True
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5. (ionic, covalent), False
Table Completion
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. C
3. D
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4. A
5. B
Table Completion
ELECTRONEGATIVITY
ELEMENTS BOND TYPE
DIFFERENCE
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. B
True or False
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1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
Identification
1. Covalent
2. Ionic
3. Ionic
4. Covalent
5. Ionic
6. ionic
Diagramming
B. I.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Answer: Yes, because in order for the metallic element Cesium to gain stability will
transfer its one valence electron to iodine which needs one electron to conform to the
octet rule and also gain stability. The bond that will be form between the metallic
element Cesium and the non-metallic element iodine is ionic bond.
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Proposed rubric for rating the Short Answer Test
Identification
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. B
Table Completion
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11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
Table Completion
Compounds
Properties
KBr C12H22O11 NaCl H2O
melting/boiling high / /
point low / /
Hard / /
hardness
porous / (NE)
polar / /
polarity
non polar / /
conductor / /
electrical, thermal
conductivity non / /
conductor
Identification
1. M
2. I
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3. I
4. M
5. M
Gold (Au) /
Platinum (Pt) /
Sulfur (S) /
Iron (Fe) /
Sentence Completion
1. ductility
2. luster
3. malleability
4. solid
5. high
Short Answer Test
Note: Metals conduct electricity. The delocalised electrons are free to move throughout the structure in
3-dimensions. They can cross grain boundaries. Even though the pattern may be disrupted at the
boundary, as long as atoms are touching each other, the metallic bond is still present.
Liquid metals also conduct electricity, showing that although the metal atoms may be free to move, the
delocalisation remains in force until the metal boils.
1. Rb+
2. Ca2+
3. N3-
4. O2-
5. I-
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1. P -3
2. Se - 2
3. +1
4. 0
5. 3
Table Completion
NA NA
NA NA
Diagramming
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organized organization of was somehow
thought is evident.
evident.
Accuracy Free from Few grammatical Evident errors in
grammatical errors grammar were
errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Cloze Test
1. carbon 6. straight
2. organic 7. branches
3. hydrocarbons 8.alkyl
4. four (4) 9. longest continuous
5. single 10. parent
Matching Type
1. B
2. F
3. A
4. D
5. E
True or False
1. ST
2. AT
3. NT
4. AT
5. ST
Multiple Choice
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1. D
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. D
10. C
1. Cyclic hydrocarbons are more structurally rigid, so their van der Waals
forces are stronger. Thus, it takes more energy (a higher temperature) to
liberate these molecules from the liquid state.
2. In diamond there is a three dimensional network of strong covalent bonds.
This makes diamond extremely hard and because of hardness, diamond is
used in making cutting and grinding tools.
On the other hand, in graphite there are flat layers of carbon atoms. These
layers are held by weak van der Waal’s forces and hence can easily slip one over the
other making graphite extremely soft and slippery. It is for this soft and slippery
nature that graphite is used as a lubricant.
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Criteria/Score 3 2 1 Score
Organization and Relevant Ideas are Ideas are Some ideas were
Content well presented and adequately presented.
organized presented and Organization was
organization of somehow evident.
thought is evident.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S9MT-IIh-18 (page 52)
Diagram Completion
Table Completion
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1. Aliphatic compounds
2. Alicyclic compounds
3. Ethers
4. Esters
5. Aldehyde
6. Ketones
7. Alcohols
8. Amides
9. Amines
10. Amino acids
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. B
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Identification
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. C
Table Completion
Compound Kind of Atom Number of Atoms
Ex. Sodium (Na) 1
NaCl Chlorine (Cl) 1
1. P2Br4 Phosphorus (P) 2
Bromine (Br) 4
2. Co(NO3)2 Cobalt (Co) 1
Nitrogen (N) 2
Oxygen (O) 6
3. Fe2O3 Iron (Fe) 2
Oxygen (O) 3
4. N2O3 Nitrogen (N) 2
Oxygen (O) 3
5. Mg(HSO4)2 Maggnesium (Mg) 1
Hyrogen (H) 2
Sulfur (S) 2
Oxygen (O) 8
Problem Solving
A. Formula mass
1. Lithium fluoride (LiF) 26 formula units
2. Ammonium fluoride (NH4F) 35 formula units
3. Potassium phosphate (K3PO4) 84 formula units
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4. Calcium nitrate (Ca(NO3)2) 164 formula units
5. Magnesium acetate (Mg(C2H3O2)2 ) 142 formula units
A. 1. A
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
B. 1. B
2. C
3. D
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4. C
5. B
C. 1. A
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. A
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. A
Because the mass of a carbon atom is much less (approx. 1/3) than that of the
sulfur atom. If we will carefully examine the Periodic Table, it tells us that the atomic
mass of elemental Carbon (C) is 12.011 g/mol; this is the mass of "Avogadro's
number" of “C” atoms. While sulfur (S) has more nuclear particles than carbon and its
molar quantity has a mass of 32.06 g/mol.
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Proposed rubric for rating the Short Answer Test
(Teacher may adopt his/ her own rubric)
Rubric for Short Answer Test
Criteria/Score 3 2 1 Score
Organization Relevant Ideas Ideas are Some ideas were
and Content are well adequately presented.
presented and presented and Organization
organized organization of was somehow
thought is evident.
evident.
Accuracy Free from Few grammatical Evident errors in
grammatical errors grammar were
errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Table Completion
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Compounds Elements Number Atomic Total number of
Identified of Atoms mass Atoms
Example:
K2CrO4 K 2 19 amu
Cr 1 24 amu 7
O 4 16 amu
NH4I N 1 14 amu
H 4 1 amu 142
I 1 127 amu
Fe(OH)3 Fe 1 56 amu
O 3 16 amu 73
H 3 1 amu
Na2CO3 Na 2 23 amu
C 1 12 amu 51
O 3 16 amu
C6H10S2O C 6 12 amu
H 10 1 amu 61
S 2 32 amu
O 1 16 amu
KC2H3O2 K 1 39 amu
C 2 12 amu 68
H 3 1 amu
O 2 16 amu
Problem Solving
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Problem Solving
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D-efine the problem by listing the given variables.: (1 point)
2. Sulfur makes up 26.7% of the mass of NaHSO 4. Find the mass of the sulfur in 16.8
g of NaHSO4.
26.7% S in NaHSO4
16.8 g NaHSO4
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Given mass of a component/total mass of the components= Unknown mass of the
component/Given mass of the compound
26.7% S = 26.7 g S
26.7 g S xgS
=
100 g NaHSO 4 16.8 g NaHSO 4
X = 4.486 g S
The answer make sense because it is smaller than 26.7 g of the assumed 100 g
NaHSO4.
Problem Solving
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5. Lava 5. C 5. Shield volcano
Cloze Test
1. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology
2. three
3. active
4. inactive
5. potentially active
Table Completion
1. one or more
2. zero/ none
3. molten rocks, ash, smoke, pyroclastic materials
4. none
5. Iraya/Kanlaon/Mayon/Smith/Taal ( answers may vary)
6. Cabaluyan/Cocoro/ Pulung/Tamburok/Urot ( answers may vary)
Diagram Completion
Sequencing Test
3
_____ When the pressure exceeds the strength of the overlying rock,
fracturing occurs.
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_____ The resulting breaks lead to a further drop in confining pressure,
which in turn, causes, even more, gas bubbles to form.
_____
5 These gas bubbles then exceed the melting volume in the
magma producing magma foam that can lead into explosive
eruptions.
1
_____ Magma inside the volcano has high temperature. As the magma
is continuously heated, it goes up. As it rises, gas bubbles are
developed.
_____
2 The gas bubbles are trapped and expanded causing the molten
material to swell also, resulting in a gradual increase in pressure
within the volcano.
1. silica content
2. temperature
3. viscosity
4. gas
5. high
Matching Type
1. D 4. E
2. B 5. F
3. C
Code: S9ES –IIIc-d-29 (page 78)
Sequencing Test
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Wells are drilled
deep into the Earth
to pump steam or
hot water to the
surface.
Cooling tower
cools the steam
which it
condenses back
to water.
Picture Analysis
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Wells are drilled deep When the water reaches
into the Earth to pump the surface, the drop in
steam or hot water to the pressure causes the
surface. water to turn into steam.
Picture Analysis
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When the water
Wells are drilled The steam spins
reaches the Cooling tower The cooled water
deep into the the turbine which
surface, the drop cools the steam is pumped back
Earth to pump is connected to a
in pressure which it into the Earth to
steam or hot generator that
causes the water condenses back begin the process
water to the produces
to turn into to water. again.
surface. electricity.
steam.
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Table Completion
Distance from a body area far from a body of Extreme air Extreme
of water water temperature climate
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. E
5. D
Sentence Completion
1. leeward
2. cold
3. increase
4. moderate
5. lower
Code: S9ES-IIIf-31 (page 83)
Matching Type
1. D
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2. A
3. B
4. E
5. C
Identification
1. Global warming refers to the ongoing rise of global average temperature
2. increasing concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
3. deforestation
4. rising temperature
5. shrinking ice sheets
True or False
1. T
2. F
3. T
4. T
5. T
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B. Procyon – As seen from earth, the Procyon is bigger than the sun.
Procyon is nearer to the earth than the sun.
True or False
1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True
Cloze Test
A star is a huge, massive sphere of incandescent gas. They have different
properties, including brightness, color, temperature, mass, and size. The color of the
star indicates its surface temperature. The property of a star described in terms of
magnitude and luminosity is called brightness. The absolute brightness of the star is
the measure of the amount of light it actually gives off while the amount of light
received on earth is called apparent brightness. According to size, stars are classified
as supergiant, giant, and dwarf star.
Identification
1. Hercules
2. Ursa Major
3. Cassiopeia
4. Draco
5. Orion
Identification
1. Hercules
2. Orion
3. Cassiopeia
4. Ursa Major
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5. Draco
Picture Analysis
1. Ursa minor: Yes
Ursa major: Yes
2. Ursa minor: No
Ursa major: No
3. Stars in a group do not change but the position of the
constellation does.
Picture Analysis
Name of Constellation Observation
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True or False
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
Uses of
Constel-lations
Identification
1.
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2. Common Name: The Twins
3. Local Name: Gibbang
4. Related Agricultural Activity: End of planting season; signifies rich
harvest
5. Month of Appearance: April and May
1. The illustration shows an increase in distance covered in the same period of time.
The vertical motion is accelerating or increasing speed.
2. The distance covered by the object is constant within a constant time interval. The
horizontal motion has a constant speed.
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If there is no gravity, no force will pull the object downward towards
the earth. The pull of gravity is responsible for the curved path of the
projectile motion.
6. Based on the diagram showing the same time interval,
6.1 vertical arrows show an increasing length as the motion continues its
motion. This pattern means that the vertical component of the velocity
of projectile motion is increasing.
6.2 the length of the horizontal arrows remains constant. This shows that the
horizontal component of the velocity of projectile motion is constant.
6.3 the length of the diagonal arrows increases. This means that the velocity
of the projectile motion is increasing.
7. The vertical and diagonal arrows show increases in length. This
increase represents acceleration.
8. The pull of gravity is the factor that caused changes in the length of
arrows or changes in velocity.
9. The velocity of projectile v is the combination (vector sum) of
horizontal vx and vertical component vy . This relation is defined by
Pythagorean theorem in which
v=√ v x + v y
2 2
Completion Test
1. Projectile
2. Perpendicular
3. Constant
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4. Accelerated
5. Force
6. Weight
Problem Solving
dx
1. vi =
t
t=
√ 2dy
g
√
2(20 m)
t=
m
9.8 2
s
t=2.02 s
50 m
vi =
2.02 s
vi =24.75m
v f −v i
2. t=
g
v f −v i
t=
g
0−v i sin θ
t=
g
t=−(10 m/ s) ¿ ¿
t=0.43 s
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vx
d x=
2t
v i cos θ
d x=
2t
d x =(10 m/s )¿ ¿ = 10 m
Identification
1. Agree 4. False
2. Disagree 5. Agree
3. Disagree
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. Agree
5. True
1. Van will experience greater damage due to the greater impact force.
4. The man will experience less impact force because he has greater momentum
5. Nets are used to delay the time of impact to minimize or decrease the impact
force
Problem Solving
1. 0.5kg basketball
2. a. 10,000 kg.m/s
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b. -0.5 m/s2
3. 27,000 N
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A
Problem Solving
1. 2.2 m/s
2. 12.5 m/s
Cloze Test
1. Injury 6. Time
2. Forces 7. Crumple
3. Passengers 8. Impact
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4. Minimized 9. Air bag
5. Seat belt 10. collision
Or
Problem Solving
Solution:
K.E. = ½ mv2
(b) after 1 s
KE = 48.02 J
PE = 245.98 J ≈ 296 J
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2. (a) total PE = 441 J
(b) after 1 s
KE = 48.02 J
PE = 392.98 J ≈ 393 J
Diagram Completion
1. Water (in the dam or falls)
2. Electrical energy by the generator
3. Electrical energy used by television
4. Mechanical energy
5. Heat
Problem Solving
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1. 784 000 J
2. 400 N/m
3. 20 N
True or False
1. T
2. F
3. F
4. T
5. T
Sentence Completion
1. lost
2. least
3. mechanical energy
4. steam
5. thermal
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D
Code: S9FE-IVe-43)
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Note: Answers may vary. The teacher may adapt the rubric suggested below in
scoring students’ responses.
Rubric for Short Answer Test
Criteria/Score 3 2 1 Score
Organization and Relevant Ideas are Ideas are adequately Some ideas were
Content well presented and presented and presented.
organized organization of Organization was
thought is evident. somehow evident.
Accuracy Free from Few grammatical Evident errors in
grammatical errors errors grammar were
observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. B
Cloze Test
1. electrical energy
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2. geothermal energy
3. steam
4. turbines
5. mechanical energy
6. electricity
Identification
List of References
Campbel Neil., (1994) Biology 4th Ed. Singapore, Benjamin Cummings Co.
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Philippines: Vibal Publishing House Inc.
Hewitt, Paul (1989). Conceptual physics (6th Ed.) London: Scoot, Foresman
and Company.
WRITERS EDITORS
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4. Cynthia M. Agner
5. Irhyn V. Reyes Palo National High School
Dulag National High School High School
6. Airyn P. Manidlangan
Burauen Comprehensive National High School
7. Norica A. Baroña
Dulag National High School
SOCORRO B. AUSA
Leyte Division Science Coordinator
FELICIDAD T. ESPINOSA
Chief- Curriculum Implementation Division
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