ACT Crack Geology

Made By: Shahd A.
Gaber
(Test 3-1)
Comets originate from regions of our solar system that are very far from the sun. The
comets are formed from debris thrown from objects in the solar system: they have a
nucleus of ice surrounded by dust and frozen gases. When comets are pulled into the
earth's atmosphere by gravitational forces and become visible, they are called meteors.
Meteors become visible about 50 to 85 km above the surface of Earth as air friction
causes them to glow. Most meteors vaporize completely before they come within 50 km
of the surface of Earth.
The Small Comet debate centers on whether dark spots and streaks seen in images of
the Earth's atmosphere are due to random technological noise or a constant rain of
comets composed of ice. Recently, images were taken by two instruments, UVA and
VIS, which are located in a satellite orbiting in Earth's magnetosphere. UVA and VIS
take pictures of the aurora borealis phenomenon, which occurs in the magnetosphere.
The UVA and VIS technologies provide images of energy, which cannot be seen by the
human eye.
The pictures taken by VIS and UVA both show dark spots and streaks. Scientists
debate whether these spots and streaks are due to a natural incident, such as small
comets entering the atmosphere, or random technological noise. The layers of Earth's
atmosphere are shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber
Two scientists debate whether there is a constant rain of comets burning up in Earth's
magnetosphere.
Scientist 1
Small comets are pulled into Earth's atmosphere by gravitational effects and burn up in
the magnetosphere. They are about 20 to 30 feet in diameter and burn up in the
magnetosphere because they are much smaller than the comets that become meteors.
Comets with larger radii will burn up in portions of the atmosphere much closer to Earth.
About 30,000 small comets enter the Earth's magnetosphere every day. The dark spots
and streaks on UVA and VIS images occur when the small comets begin to boil in the
magnetosphere, releasing krypton and argon and creating gaseous H2O, which
interacts with hydroxyl, OH-, radicals. Images taken by these instruments at different
points in time show the same frequency of dark spots and streaks and give conclusive
evidence in favor of the Small Comet theory. If the spots and streaks were due to
random technological noise, then the frequency of their appearance would fluctuate.
Scientist 2
The dark spots and streaks in the UVA and VIS images are due to technological noise,
not small comets. If the Small Comet Theory were true, and 20 small comets
bombarded Earth's atmosphere per minute, there would be a visible bright object at
least twice every five minutes. This is because, as objects enter the Earth's
mesosphere, they burn up, creating large clouds of ice particles. As the ice particles
vaporize, they have a brightness in the sky approximately equal to that of Venus.
Because comets rarely enter Earth's atmosphere, such bright flashes are rare
occurrences, far less than two times every five minutes, so the Small Comet theory
cannot be correct. Further, since comets originate from regions of space beyond the
orbit of the farthest planet, they contain argon and krypton. If the Small Comet theory
were true and Earth were bombarded by 30,000 comets per day, there would be 500
times as much krypton in the atmosphere as there actually is.
1. According to Scientist 2, which of the following planets in our solar system is most
likely the closest to the region of space where comets originate?
A. Jupiter
B. Venus
C. Neptune
D. Saturn
2. Based on Scientist 1’s viewpoint, a comet that burns up in the thermosphere would
have a diameter of:
F. 5-10 ft.
G. 10-20 ft.
H. 20-30 ft.
J. greater than 30 ft.
3. Which of the following generalizations about small comets is most consistent with
Scientist 1’s viewpoint?
A. No small comet ever becomes a meteor.
B. Some small comets become meteors.
C. Small comets become meteors twice every five minutes.
D. All small comets become meteors.
4. During the Perseids, an annual meteor shower, more than 1 object burning up in the
atmosphere is visible per minute. According to the information provided, Scientist 2
would classify the Perseids as:
F. typical comet frequency in the magnetosphere.
G. unusual comet frequency in the magnetosphere.
H. typical meteor frequency in the mesosphere.
J. unusual meteor frequency in the mesosphere.
5. Given the information about Earth’s atmosphere and Scientist 1’s viewpoint, which of
the following altitudes would most likely NOT be an altitude at which small comets burn
up?
A. 750 km
B. 700 km
C. 650 km
D. 550 km
6. Suppose a study of the dark holes and streaks in the UVA and VIS images revealed
krypton levels in the atmosphere 500 times greater than normal levels. How would the
findings of this study most likely affect the scientists’ viewpoints, if at all?
F. It would strengthen Scientist 1’s viewpoint only.
G. It would strengthen Scientist 2’s viewpoint only.
H. It would weaken both Scientists’ viewpoints.
J. It would have no effect on either Scientist’s viewpoint.
7. Scientist 1 would most likely suggest enhanced imaging technology that can take
pictures of objects in the atmosphere be used to look at what region of the atmosphere
to search for small comets?
A. The region between 15 km above sea level and 50 km above sea level.
B. The region between 50 km above sea level and 85 km above sea level.
C. The region between 85 km above sea level and 600 km above sea level.
D. The region between above 600 km above sea level.
(Test 6-2)
Wind causes topsoil deflation, a type of erosion that is affected by plant and organic
cover as well as water content of the soil. Scientists performed 2 experiments using
equal-sized fields containing the same volume of soil. The soil samples were primarily a
mixture of sand and silt but differed in the percentage of clay they contained. Soil X was
composed of 5% clay and soil Y was composed of 40% clay. Large fans were used to
simulate wind. Topsoil deflation was measured in kilograms per hectare (kg/ha)
following 10 hours of wind.
Experiment 1
A mixture of compost and straw was used to represent plant and organic cover. The
percentage of soil covered with the mixture was considered to approximate an
equivalent percentage of natural vegetative cover. One field remained uncovered, and
the other fields were covered with different percentages of compost and straw. The
topsoil deflation from each field was recorded in Table 1.
Experiment 2
Rainfall was simulated using a sprinkler system. Sprinklers were turned on for either 4
hours or 8 hours for fields of each kind of soil. Two additional fields composed of each
type of soil were left unwatered. Afterward, soil samples were taken from all of the fields
to determine their water content percentage, which was recorded in Table 2. Wind was
applied as in Experiment 1 and topsoil deflation for all fields was recorded in Table 3.
8. According to the results of Experiments 1 and 2, topsoil deflation will be minimized

by:
A. decreased organic cover, increased amount of rainfall, and the use of either Soil
X or Y as topsoil.
B. decreased organic cover, decreased amount of rainfall, and the use of Soil Y as
topsoil.
C. increased organic cover, increased amount of rainfall, and the use of Soil Y as
topsoil.
D. increased organic cover, increased amount of rainfall, and the use of Soil X as
topsoil.
9. If Experiment 1 were repeated using a soil containing 10% clay with 0% organic
cover, which of the following would be the most likely topsoil deflation amount?
F. 110,200 kg/ha
G. 99,800 kg/ha
H. 70,700 kg/ha
J. 60,200 kg/ha
10. To further investigate the effect of water content on erosion from topsoil deflation,
the scientists should repeat Experiment:
A. 1, using a different type of topsoil.
B. 1, using plastic covers over the fields.
C. 2, using no sprinklers.
D. 2, using fields exposed to various amounts of rainfall.
11. What assumption in experimental design is most important to consider when

applying the findings of Experiment 1 to a practical situation?
F. The quantity of topsoil deflation is independent of the percentage of clay present
in the soil.
G. The presence of straw on the soil does not accurately simulate vegetation and
organic cover.
H. Air movement from fans provides an accurate simulation of the wind responsible
for topsoil deflation.
J. Compost is more effective than water content in the prevention of topsoil erosion.
12. In Experiment 2, the water content in the two soil types was similar after 4 hours of
sprinkling, yet the topsoil deflation was significantly different. Which of the following
statements provides the best explanation for these findings?
A. Topsoil erosion is independent of the water content found in the soil.
B. Fields are susceptible to topsoil deflation only when water completely evaporates
from the topsoil.
C. Soil with a lower percentage of clay is more prone to erosion from topsoil
deflation than one with a higher percentage of clay.

D. Water is trapped in the topsoil by wind and this increases the rate of topsoil
deflation.
13. If Experiment 2 were repeated with soil containing 10% clay, which of the following
values would be expected for water content and topsoil deflation in a field following 8
hours of water sprinkling?
F. water content of 17%; topsoil deflation of 13,400 kg/ha
G. water content of 21%; topsoil deflation of 9,700 kg/ha
H. water content of 15%; topsoil deflation of 10,900 kg/ha
J. water content of 14%; topsoil deflation of 101,000 kg/ha
(Test 7-1)
The oceans of Earth are exposed to various climates and consequently have different
physical properties. Deep oceans can be divided into zones based on temperature
gradient and penetration of sunlight. Figure 1 shows the zones of a typical deep-water
ocean, the depth of the zone boundaries in meters (m), and the overall pressure at
those depths in kilopascals (kPa). Figure 2 shows the water temperature in degrees
Celsius (°C) in warmer tropical oceans and cooler temperate oceans at varying depths.
Sound waves are used to measure water temperature at depth, and readings from two
different ocean regions are recorded in Table 1.
Figure 1
Figure 2
1. According to
Figure 1, the regions of several ocean zones overlap. Which of the following pairs of
ocean zones share part of a common depth range?
A. Bathypelagic and mesopelagic

B. Bathypelagic and epipelagic
C. Epipelagic and thermocline

D. Epipelagic and mesopelagic
2. According to Figure 1, an oceanographic reading taken at a total pressure of 1,200

kPa is most likely from which of the following zones?
F. Abyss
G. Continental rise
H. Mixed
J. Continental shelf
3. According to Figure 2, a sonographic measurement of temperature would be unable

to distinguish the difference between tropical and temperate oceans at which of the
following depths?
A. 250 m
B. 500 m
C. 625 m
D. 750 m
4. According to Table 1, the relationship between depth and ocean temperature is best
described by which of the following statements?
F. The water temperature increased with increasing depth in Region 1 only.
G. The water temperature decreased with increasing depth in Region 1 only.
H. The water temperature increased with increasing depth in Region 2 only.
J. The water temperature decreased with increasing depth in Region 2 only.
5. According to Figure 1 and Table 1, if water temperature measurements were taken at

depths greater than 79.5, the total pressure at those depths would most likely:
A. decrease to less than 101 kPa.
B. increase to more than 900 kPa.
C. stay at 900 kPa.
D. increase to 101 kPa.
(Test 8-1)
A study was conducted regarding the fossil shells of a particular species of turtle that
lives off the coast of the Opulasian Peninsula. Scientists discovered a continuous record
of fossilized shells in the seabed off the coast dating back 120,000 years. In addition to
examining the fossilized turtle shells, the scientists also examined the shells of living
turtles.
From each layer of seabed, the scientists randomly selected five complete, unbroken
fossilized shells. Each shell was carefully prepared, measured, and photographed. A bit
of each shell was then clipped off and sent to a laboratory for radiocarbon dating to
determine the precise age of each shell.
Study 1
All of the living turtles had a distinct band of hexagonal scutes (bony plates) running
the length of their shells, from head to tail. The fossilized shells' scutes were not visible
to the naked eye; however upon application of a particular dye, a similar band of scutes
from head to tail was observed in every shell.
Scutes extending greater than of the length of the shell were labeled major (M),
where scutes extending less than or equal to of the length of the shell were
labeled minor (m). The pattern of scutes was recorded for each fossil. For each time
period, the percent of fossils exhibiting each pattern is given in Table 1.
Study 2
For each shell, the surface area of the shell, the height of the shell's bridge (the part of
the shell linking the upper and lower plates), and the total number of scutes were recorded
(see Figure 1).
For the shells of each age, the average of each measurement was calculated. The
results are presented in Figure 2.
1. In a layer of seabed determined to be 250,000 years old, the scientists found

fragments of twelve turtle shells, but no complete, intact shells. Which of the following is
the most likely reason this layer of seabed was not included in the studies?
A. 250,000 years is too old to obtain an accurate radiocarbon date.
B. Shells that were 250,000 years old would have been irrelevant to the studies.
C. Accurate measurements of the dimensions of the shells could have been
impossible to obtain.
D. The scientists would not have been able to accurately determine the color of the
shells.
2. With regard to the descriptions given in Study 1, the shells with the M-M-m-m-M band
of scutes probably most closely resembled which of the following?
F.
G.
H.
J.
3. According to the results of Study 2, how do the average number of scutes and the
average bridge height of living turtles of the Opulasian Peninsula compare to those of
the turtles of the Opulasian Peninsula from 120,000 years ago? For the living turtles:
A. both the average number of scutes and the average bridge height are larger.
B. both the average number of scutes and the average bridge height are smaller.
C. the average number of scutes is larger, and the average bridge height is smaller.
D. the average number of scutes is smaller, and the average bridge height is larger.
4. Suppose, in Study 1, the scientists had found another seabed layer with fossilized
shells that were radiocarbon dated and found to be 86,000 years old. Based on the
results of Study 1, the scute pattern percents for the group of shells would most likely
have been closest to which of the following?
M-m-M-M-m
F. 100%
G. 50%
H. 36%
J. 26%
5. In Study 2, the average shell surface area of fossilized turtle shells that were 80,000
years old was closest to:
A. 670 cm2
B. 680 cm2
C. 690 cm2
D. 700 cm2
6. Which of the following statements best describes how Study 1 differed from Study 2?
F. In Study 1, the scientists examined 3 characteristics regarding the shape and size
of turtle shells; but in Study 2, the scientists examined the frequency of occurrence of
different patterns of scutes on turtle shells.
G. In Study 1, the scientists examined the frequency of occurrence of different
patterns of scutes on turtle shells; but in Study 2, the scientists examined the
environment in which turtles live.
H. In Study 1, the scientists examined the frequency of occurrence of different
patterns of scutes on turtle shells; but in Study 2, the scientists examined 3
characteristics regarding the shape and size of turtle shells.
J. In Study 1, the scientists examined 3 characteristics regarding the shape and size
of turtle shells; but in Study 2, the scientists examined the environment in which turtles
live.
(Test 10-1)
There are four planets in our solar system called gas giants: Jupiter, Saturn,
Uranus, and Neptune. They are so named because they are composed
largely of gases rather than solids. Figure 1 shows how temperatures of the
atmospheres of Jupiter, Neptune, and Saturn vary with altitude above the
cloud tops. Table 1 gives the composition of the planets in both relative
abundance of gases and the altitude at which those gases are most
abundant. Table 2 gives what the temperature at the cloud tops would be
without greenhouse warming.
Figure 1
Table 2
Planet Temperature at cloud tops without greenhouse warming (K)
Jupiter 100
Neptune 50
Saturn 25
1. According to Figure 1, the temperature of Neptune remains the same as altitude

above the highest cloud tops increases from:
F. -250 km to -200 km.
G. -150 km to -50 km.
H. 0 km to 100 km.
J. 150 km to 200 km.
2. According to Figure 1, the temperature of Jupiter changes the most between:

A. -150 km and -50 km.
B. -50 km and 50 km.
C. 50 km and 100 km.
D. 100 km and 200 km.
3. Considering only the gases listed in Table 1, which gas is more abundant in the
atmosphere of Jupiter than in the atmosphere of either Neptune or Saturn?
F. H
G. CH3
H. NH3
J. He
4. Based on Table 2, the average temperature at Saturn's cloud

tops without greenhouse warming is how many degrees cooler than the temperature
given in Figure 1?
A. 5 K
B. 25 K
C. 75 K
D. 150 K
5. Which of the following statements about H and He in the atmospheres of the 3

planets is supported by the data in Table 1?
F. Both Saturn and Neptune have a higher relative abundance of He than of H.
G. Both Saturn and Jupiter have a higher relative abundance of He than of H.
H. Both Jupiter and Neptune have an equivalent relative abundance of He and H.
J. Both Saturn and Neptune have a lower relative abundance of He than of H.
(Test 11-2)
The magnitude of seismic energy released from an earthquake is often described using
the logarithmic and unit-less Richter scale. Originating at the epicenter, seismic energy
travels through the earth via waves such as L-waves, S-waves, and P-waves.
Earthquakes with a Richter scale magnitude of 5.0 or greater can typically be detected
throughout the world. Figure 1 depicts the layers of the earth and typical travel patterns
of seismic waves. Table 1 lists characteristics of those seismic waves. Figure 2 shows
the number of earthquakes (by magnitude) detected at a particular seismic activity
monitoring station in the past 30 years, as well as the percentage probability of future
earthquakes (by magnitude) in that same region in the next 30 years.
Table 1
Seismic wave Depth range (km) Crust velocity (m/s)
L-wave 0-10 2.0-4.5
S-wave 0-2921 3.0-4.0
P-wave 0-5180 5.0-7.0
Figure 2
6. Figure 1 defines the mesosphere as a region of the Earth that overlaps which of the
following atmospheric layers?
I. Outer core
II. Inner mantle
III. Outer mantle
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
7. A series of seismic waves was observed from an observation station. The average
crust velocity of these waves was 3 m/s, and their maximum depth occurred in the inner
mantle. Based on Figure 1 and Table 1, the seismic waves observed were most likely:
F. L-waves.
G. S-waves.
H. P-waves.
J. K-waves.
8. Given the data in Figure 2, the future probability of an earthquake occurrence

decreases by more than half when comparing which of the following 2 Richter scale
magnitudes?
A. 5.0 and 6.0
B. 6.0 and 6.5
C. 6.5 and 7.5
D. 7.5 and 8.0
9. According to Figure 2, the probability of a future earthquake occurrence is lowest for

which of the following ranges of Richter scale magnitude?
F. 5.5 to 6.0
G. 6.0 to 6.5
H. 6.5 to 7.0
J. 7.0 to 7.5
10. Based on Figure 2, the ratio of Richter scale 5.5 earthquakes to Richter scale 5.0
earthquakes in the last 30 years can be expressed approximately by which of the
following fractions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
(Test 12-1)
In agriculture, soils can be classified based on mineral content (the amount of various
metals present in the soil), and organic content (the percent of soil volume occupied by
material made by living organisms). Ideal concentrations of various minerals are given in
parts per million (ppm) in Table 1. If the levels of different minerals of a soil are all similar,
relative to the optimal levels, the soil is said to be well defined. If the levels of different
minerals in a soil vary widely relative to the optimal levels, the soil is said to be poorly
defined.
Table 1
Mineral Ideal concentration (ppm)
Nitrogen 22
Phosphorus 14
Potassium 129
Chloride 12
Sulfur 88
Iron 6.9
Manganese 2.7
Study 1
Soil was taken from 5 different farms to a laboratory. The soils were desiccated (all
water was removed), and a 1 L sample of each soil was prepared. In order to make sure
that no minerals were trapped within the organic matter of a soil, the organic matter of
each soil was burned by heating the soil to 500°C for 20 minutes. The ash of the organic
matter was removed and the remaining soil analyzed for the concentration of various
minerals. The results are shown, as percent of ideal concentration, in Table 2.
Study 2
To determine the percentage of the mass of each soil composed of organic matter, the
above procedure was repeated, with the soil weighed before being heated to 500°C and
after having the ash removed. The number of live cells (bacteria, fungi, etc.) in a cubic
millimeter of each soil was determined by microscopic analysis. The results are presented
in Table 3.
Table 3
Farm % organic matter # living cells per mm3
1 7.1 2,964
2 8.9 3,920
3 4.8 1,642
4 6.6 2,672
5 18.9 9,467
1. Soils with more living cells per mm3 generally consume more oxygen than soils with
fewer living cells. Based on this information, the soil of which farm would be expected to
consume the most oxygen?
F. Farm 1
G. Farm 2
H. Farm 3
J. Farm 5
2. If, in Study 2, before and after heating a soil sample to 500°C for 20 minutes and
removing the ash, the mass of the sample was approximately the same, which of the
following is the most reasonable conclusion?
A. There was little or no water in the soil.
B. There was a large quantity of water in the soil.
C. There was little or no organic matter in the soil.
D. There was little or no mineral content in the soil.
3. In Study 2, before heating the sample to 500°C, it was necessary for the scientists to
desiccate the soil in order to ensure that:
F. the water was not mistaken for a mineral.
G. the water was not consumed by the living cells.
H. it was possible to count live cells by making sure the soil didn't stick together.
J. the mass of the water was not mistaken for organic matter.
4. Based on Study 2, if the scientists took a soil sample from another farm, and the
number of living cells per mm3 was determined to be 2,100, the % organic matter in that
soil would most likely be:
A. less than 4.8.
B. between 4.8 and 6.6.
C. between 6.6 and 7.1.
D. greater than 7.1.
5. Beans grow fastest in soils with high nitrogen and iron levels. If all other levels were
equal, then based on the results of Study 1, which of the farms would be expected to
produce the fastest growing beans?
F. Farm 5
G. Farm 4
H. Farm 3
J. Farm 2
6. The soil of which of the farms would likely be considered the most well defined,
based on the information in Study 1?
A. Farm 1
B. Farm 2
C. Farm 3
D. Farm 4
(Test 20-1)
Soil salinity is the concentration of potentially harmful salts dissolved in the groundwater
that fills soil pores. Salinity is determined by measuring a soil’s electrical conductivity
(EC) and exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP). High EC indicates a high
concentration of dissolved salt particles; ESP indicates the proportion of electrical
conductivity that is due to dissolved sodium ions.
Soil samples were collected from five different distances west of a particular river.
Figure 1 shows the electrical conductivity of the soil samples at four different depth ranges
measured in milli-Siemens per centimeter (mS/cm).
Figure 1
Figure 2 shows the exchangeable sodium percentage of the five sites at different
depths.
Figure 2
1. Figure 2 indicates that, compared with the soil tested in Sample 1, the soil tested in
Sample 4 contains:
F. a higher percentage of sodium ions throughout.
G. a lower percentage of sodium ions throughout.
H. a higher percentage of sodium ions at shallower depths only.
J. a lower percentage of sodium ions at shallower depths only.
2. According to Figure 2, in the soil collected in Sample 3 at a depth of 30-60 cm,

approximately what percent of the soil conductivity is due to sodium ions?
A. 14%
B. 17%
C. 24%
D. 44%
3. Based on Figures 1 and 2, the electrical conductivity due to sodium ions in the
sample collected 40 m west of the river was:
F. greatest at a depth of 90-120 cm.
G. greatest at a depth of 0-30 cm.
H. least at a depth of 30-60 cm.
J. least at a depth of 0-30 cm.
4. Based on Figure 2, which of the following figures best represents the exchangeable
sodium percentage for the five soil samples collected at a depth of 90-120 cm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. A student claimed that as soil moves away from a major water source, such as a
river, the salinity of the soil increases. Is this claim supported by Figures 1 and 2?
F. No; the electrical conductivity and exchangeable sodium percentage both
decreased from Sample 1 to Sample 5.
G. No; there was no consistent trend for electrical conductivity and exchangeable
sodium percentage.
H. Yes; the electrical conductivity and exchangeable sodium percentage both
increased from Sample 1 to Sample 5.
J. Yes; the electrical conductivity increased and exchangeable sodium percentage
decreased from Sample 1 to Sample 5.
(Test 22-6)
Earthquakes disrupt the infrastructure of buildings and dwellings by displacing the
ground beneath them as a result of surface waves. The origin of an earthquake is
known as the epicenter. Surface waves propagate from the epicenter outward and are
directly affected by the density of the ground through which they propagate. As seen in
Figure 1, the strength of the wave may be characterized into three distinct types: strong,
moderate, and weak.
Figure 1
In order to study the effect of ground density on wave propagation, a seismologist has
assembled a circular small-scale model with varying densities. Ground density and
propagation duration were controlled in the experiment. In each study, earth and clay
were laid down in a circular pattern with increasing density. Seismometers were
positioned to detect the type of waves propagating at specific locations. A large speaker
was placed 2 m below the surface of the epicenter to mimic an earthquake and each
study was conducted over a period of 2 min with a fixed frequency of 10 Hz.
Study 1
The sound source was adjusted to 60 dB to mimic the impact of a magnitude 5

earthquake. The resulting waveform plot (exhibits wave type as a result of varying
densities and distances from the epicenter) is shown in Figure 2.
Figure 2
Study 2
Study 1 was repeated with the sound source adjusted to 80 dB to mimic the impact of a
magnitude 7 earthquake. The resulting waveform plot is shown in Figure 3.
Figure 3
Study 3
The study was repeated with the sound source adjusted to 100 dB to mimic the impact
of a magnitude 9 earthquake. The resulting waveform plot is shown in Figure 4.
Figure 4
28. According to the results of Study 2, as the distance from the epicenter increases,
the type of wave observed:
F. remained strong.
G. changed from strong to moderate.
H. changed from moderate to strong.
J. remained moderate.
29. According to the results of Studies 2 and 3, which of the following statements
comparing the maximum distance from the epicenter for strong wave propagation and
maximum distance for moderate wave propagation is true?
A. At all ground densities studied, the maximum distance from the epicenter at
which strong waves may propagate was greater than the corresponding maximum
distance from the epicenter at which moderate waves propagated.
B. At all ground densities studied, the maximum distance from the epicenter at
which strong waves may propagate was less than the corresponding maximum distance
from the epicenter at which moderate waves propagated.
C. For some of the ground densities studied, the maximum distance from the
epicenter at which strong waves may propagate was greater than the corresponding
maximum distance from the epicenter at which moderate waves propagated.
D. For some of the ground densities studied, the maximum distance from the
epicenter at which strong waves may propagate was less than the corresponding
maximum distance from the epicenter at which moderate waves propagated.
30. Which of the following factors in the seismologist's studies was NOT directly
controlled?
F. Sound intensity (in dB)
G. Ground density
H. Propagation duration
J. Wave type
31. Consider the relative wavelengths of a moderate wave and a weak wave, as shown
in Figure 1. Which, if either, is less than 100 cm?
A. The wavelength of a moderate wave only.
B. The wavelength of a weak wave only.
C. Both the wavelength of the moderate wave and the wavelength of the weak
wave.
D. Neither the wavelength of the moderate wave nor the wavelength of the weak
wave.
32. Suppose Study 1 were repeated using a sound intensity of 70 dB. The resulting
waveform plot would include which of the wave types referred to in the passage?
F. Strong only
G. Strong and weak waves only
H. Strong and moderate waves only
J. Strong, moderate, and weak waves
33. A study was conducted using a sound intensity between 75 dB and 85 dB. The
minimum ground density where strong waves began propagating ranged from 1,000
kg/m3 to 2,000 kg/m3. Based on the information presented, the distance from the
epicenter was most likely:
A. less than 2.5 m.
B. between 2.5 and 3.5 m.
C. between 3.5 and 4.5 m.
D. greater than 4.5 m.
(Test 23-1)
In the solar system, solid planets and moons are made up of different layers, which
have different compositions. The Earth’s moon is surrounded by an outer crust, which is
visible to observers on Earth. Beneath this crust is a solid lithosphere. Beneath the
lithosphere is another layer called the asthenosphere. This layer is thought to have high
temperatures, so the structure of this layer is said to be plastic, or easily changed. The
innermost region of the moon is called the core, and it is thought to contain iron.
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon travels directly between the Earth and the Sun,
temporarily blocking the transmission of sunlight to the Earth and creating a shadow. Most
solar eclipses are partial, because the moon does not always travel entirely within the
path of the sunlight. However, complete solar eclipses are possible because the moon
and the Sun have approximately the same diameter from the perspective of a viewer on
the Earth. An observer on the Earth would view the sky as occupying 180 degrees. Of
this entire distance, the moon takes up 0.54 degrees while the Sun takes up 0.52 degrees.
Since the Sun appears to take up a smaller section of the sky, the Sun’s rays can be
blocked from traveling to the Earth during a complete solar eclipse (see Figure 1).
Figure 1
The gravitational force exerted on the Earth by the moon, and by the Sun to a lesser
extent, results in water tides, which are the changes in the level of the Earth’s ocean
surface. Figure 2 shows data collected by a tidal station on the western coast of the
United States, showing the change in the ocean water level over a 60-hour period.
During this period, the highest water level was 6 feet above mean sea level, while the
lowest water level was 1 foot below mean sea level (represented by “?1” feet).
Figure 2
The highest and lowest ocean surface levels change over the course of a year. Figure
3 shows the change in the highest and lowest water levels measured by the same tidal
station over a year.
Figure 3
1. Figure 1 shows that a lunar orbiter at point P would be able to view which of the
following?
A. The moon only
B. The Sun only
C. The moon and the Earth only
D. The moon, the Sun, and the Earth
2. According to Figure 1, when the Sun's rays encounter the surface of the moon during
a solar eclipse, the rays most likely:
F. stop transmitting forward and do not continue to the Earth's surface.
G. enter the plastic asthenosphere and are absorbed.
H. reflect off the surface of the moon, and then continue to the Earth.
J. transmit unobstructed to the Earth's surface.
3. Based on Figure 2, for a given set of consecutive days, the time elapsed between the
maximum values of the highest ocean-surface levels would most nearly be:
A. 12 hours.
B. 24 hours.
C. 48 hours.
D. 60 hours.
4. Based on the information provided in Figure 3, during what month was the data in
Figure 2 most likely collected?
F. January
G. March
H. June
J. December
5. According to Figure 2, which of the following statements best describes the ocean
surface level between t = 0 hours and t = 12 hours?
A. The ocean surface level rises continuously during that entire time.
B. The ocean surface level falls continuously during that entire time.
C. The ocean surface level rises and then falls during that time.
D. The ocean surface level falls and then rises during that time.
(Test 23-2)
Approximately 45,000 to 35,000 years ago, Lake Brussia straddled the boundary
between modern Smith and Union counties. The lake was believed to have been
formed as a result of seismic activity in the region. As seen in Figure 1, the cities of
Middleton, West Union, and Basalt Valley rest over the sediment of the ancient lake. In
order to test this hypothesis, a study examining the strata of the region was conducted
using radioactive dating. Inconsistencies in the age of the rock layers indicate the
presence of a fault in the region.
Radioactive dating is a technique which utilizes the amount of radiation exhibited by a

distinct isotope within a sample to approximate its age. Uranium-235 is an isotope
commonly found in varying types of strata with a half-life of approximately 700 million
years. The half-life of an isotope is the time it takes for half of the isotope to decompose.
1,000-m core samples were acquired from three sites between the modern cities of
Middleton and West Union as seen in Figure 2. Figure 3 shows the results of the Uranium-
235 assays for each of the three sites. The age of the rock is determined using a ratio of
the Uranium content in the sample to that of newly formed rock.
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
6. According to Figure 2, the shale layer was thickest at which of the following cities or
sites?
F. Middleton
G. Site 1
H. Site 3
J. West Union
7. According to Figure 2, as the thickness of shale decreases between Sites 2 and 3,

the thickness of limestone residing below:
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. first decreases then increases.
D. remains constant.
8. Based on Figure 2, which of the following graphs best displays the thickness of the
shale layer at Sites 1, 2, and 3?
F.
G.
H.
J.
9. According to Figure 3, at Sites 1, 2, and 3 the highest number of counts of Uranium-
235 detected were recorded at a depth of:
A. less than 300 m below the surface.
B. between 300 and 450 m below the surface.
C. between 450 and 600 m below the surface.
D. greater than 600 m below the surface.
10. The uranium recorded in Sites 1, 2, and 3 is reduced by ? roughly every 0.7 billion
years. Based on Figure 3, and assuming no alteration of this uranium decay, the age of
the rock with the greatest depth surveyed at Site 2 is closest to:
F. 2.8 billion years old.
G. 5.6 billion years old.
H. 280 million years old.
J. 560 million years old.
(Test 33)
Organic molecules (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids) compose and are
produced by living organisms. Scientists believe that simple organic molecules originally
formed from inorganic molecules on primitive Earth. This step is considered a key
precursor to the development of life on our planet. Two leading theories on the origin of
the first organic molecules are described here.
Primordial Soup
The theory that organic molecules formed in the atmosphere of primitive Earth using
energy from lightning is often called the "primordial soup theory." Evidence for this
theory includes the Miller-Urey experiment, in which the conditions believed to exist in
the primitive atmosphere were reproduced to create organic molecules.
The major components of the primitive atmosphere were believed to be methane (CH 4),
ammonia (NH3), hydrogen (H2), and water (H2O). These gases were put into a closed
system and exposed to a continuous electrical charge to simulate lightning storms. After
one week, samples taken from the apparatus contained a variety of organic
compounds, including some amino acids (components of proteins). Figure 4.1 is a
diagram of the apparatus used in the Miller-Urey experiment.
Figure 4.1
Hydrothermal Vents
The theory that organic molecules originally formed in the deep oceans using energy
from inside the earth focuses on the existence of hydrothermal vents. Evidence for this
theory includes the fact that ecosystems of diverse organisms have been found to exist
around hydrothermal vents in the deep ocean. These ecosystems thrive without any
energy input from the sun.
Organic molecules are only stable within a very narrow temperature range.
Hydrothermal vents release hot (300°C) gases originating from inside the earth into the
otherwise cold (4°C) water of the deep ocean. This release of gases causes a
temperature gradient to exist around deep-sea vents. Scientists believe that within this
temperature gradient exist the optimal conditions to support the formation of stable
organic compounds. Figure 4.2 shows a diagram of the gradient produced by deep-sea
vents.
Figure 4.2
1. Which of the following is not an organic molecule?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Water
C. Lipids
D. Nucleic acids
2. Both theories on the origin of organic molecules are based on the assumption that
those molecules:
A. contain different atoms than inorganic molecules.
B. only exist in the atmosphere and deep ocean.
C. have not yet been produced in the laboratory.
D. can be produced from inorganic molecules.
3. In Figure 4.1, the purpose of the heat source is to:

A. produce water vapor for the simulated atmosphere.
B. simulate hydrothermal vents in the deep ocean.
C. reduce inorganic compounds to organic compounds.

D. generate an electrical charge to stimulate the reaction.
4. Ammonia (NH3) is an:

A. inorganic compound.
B. element.
C. amino acid.
D. organic compound.
5. In Figure 4.1, the reaction that produces organic molecules occurs in which part of
the Miller-Urey apparatus?
A. Condenser
B. Large sphere
C. Trap
D. Small sphere
6. Based on the hydrothermal vents theory, which of the following would most likely be
the optimal temperature range for organic molecule formation?
A. Between 0°C and 4°C
B. Higher than 300°C
C. Lower than 300°C
D. Between 4°C and 25°C
7. Which of the following statements would scientists supporting either theory most
likely agree on?
A. At least some organic compounds on Earth likely originated in meteorites from
space.
B. The production of amino acids requires the existence of a temperature gradient.
C. The existence of water on Earth was essential to the original formation of organic
compounds.
D. A single method most likely produced the original versions of all organic
molecules.
8. The specific source of energy used to form simple organic molecules is:
A. addressed in the primordial soup theory only.
B. not discussed in either of the two theories.
C. a major difference between the two theories.
D. the only similarity between the two theories.
9. According to the primordial soup theory, which of the following gases is not believed
to have been a major component of the primitive atmosphere?
A. Methane
B. Hydrogen
C. Water vapor
D. Helium
10. The greatest limitation in the design of the Miller-Urey experiment is the:
A. use of a condenser to cool water vapor.
B. production of a variety of organic compounds.
C. presence of a constant electrical charge.
D. recycling of water throughout the apparatus.
11. The hydrothermal vents theory states that organic molecules originally formed:
A. inside the earth.
B. in the earth's atmosphere.
C. in the deep ocean.
D. within volcanoes.
12. Scientists consider the outcome of the Miller-Urey experiment to be evidence:

A. that refutes the primordial soup theory.
B. in support of the primordial soup theory.
C. that refutes both the primordial soup and the hydrothermal vents theories.
D. in support of the hydrothermal vents theory.
13. According to the passage, temperature gradients exist in the deep ocean due to the:
A. constant release of hot gases into cold water.
B. decreased availability of sunlight at greater depths.
C. existence of ecosystems made up of diverse organisms.
D. reactions that produce organic molecules.
14. Which of the following is a key assumption of the primordial soup theory?
A. Sunlight provided the energy needed to convert inorganic compounds to organic
compounds.
B. The composition of the primitive atmosphere was different than that of the current
atmosphere.
C. Amino acids can be produced from inorganic compounds in the laboratory.
D. Organic compounds can only be produced by the reaction of other organic
compounds.
(Test 65-1)
Astronomers have found over 400 planets orbiting stars. The discovered planets have a
variety of compositions, masses, and orbits. Despite the variety, the universal rules of
physics and chemistry allow scientists to broadly categorize these planets into just a few
types: Gas Giant, Carbon Orb, Water World, and Rocky Earth. Table 1 shows the
composition of the various planet types and typical mass ranges relative to Earth.
Table 1
Table 2 shows a sampling of planets orbiting various stars described in Table 1. These
planets are merely numbered 1–7. Table 2 details the masses and orbital radii of the
planets.
Table 2
1. The data in Table 1 and Table 2 support which of the following statements?
A. Gas Giant planets have the largest orbital radii.
B. Orbital radius is directly related to mass.
C. Orbital radius is inversely related to mass.
D. The data does not support a correlation between mass and orbital radius.
2. According to Table 1 and Table 2, which of the following stars has the most massive
Gas Giant planet orbiting it?
F. Gliese 777
G. OGLE TR 132
H. PSR 1257
J. Gliese 581
3. If a new planet were discovered, with a mass of 325, an orbital radius of 1.5, and a
composition of mostly hydrogen, what would be its most likely classification?
A. Carbon Orb
B. Water
C. Rocky Earth
D. Gas Giant
4. All of the following are true about the star Gliese 581 EXCEPT:
F. Gliese 581 has multiple planets orbiting it.
G. Gliese 581 has the most massive planet orbiting it.
H. Gliese 581 has planets orbiting it that are classified as water.

J. Gliese 581 has only planets with masses less than 50 Earth masses orbiting it.
5. The Rocky Earth planets in Table 2 have what in common?

A. Their masses are less than 20 Earth masses.
B. They are only found in deep space.
C. Hydrogen is a major component of the crust.
D. Their orbits are all less than 1 Earth radius.
(Test 65-2)
A group of researchers studied the greenhouse gas (GHG) and energy savings
associated with rigid plastic foam sheathing used to insulate single-family housing. The
results show the typical annual energy savings for a single house in the United States.
Table 1 displays energy savings for various temperature zones, whereas Table 2 shows
GHGs avoided.
Table 1
Table 2
There is an initial use of energy and GHG released when the insulation is installed, but
large savings result from the use of the product over time. After the “payback” time
expires, there is a net savings in energy and GHG emissions for as long as the
insulation is in place. Figure 1 displays the payback time in years for energy savings
and GHGs avoided.
Figure 1
6. Foam sheathing proved to create the highest energy savings in Zone 5 for what type
of energy?
F. Coal
G. Nuclear
H. Natural Gas
J. Petroleum
7. According to the data presented in Table 1 and Table 2, which of the following is
true?
A. Foam sheathing prevents more HCFC-141b than HCFC-142b from entering the
atmosphere.
B. The yearly energy savings vary more by zone than the yearly GHGs avoided.
C. The warmer the zone, the less the energy savings from petroleum.
D. The U.S. average for GHGs avoided is greatest for carbon dioxide.
8. According to Figure 1, the GHG payback for Zone 3 is approximately:

F. 11 years.
G. 2 years.
H. 13 years.
J. 9 years.
9. According to Table 1, what zone and fuel combination yield the greatest energy
savings after 1 year?
A. Nuclear in Zone 1
B. HCFC-142b in Zone 3
C. Coal in Zone 5
D. Natural gas in Zone 1
10. Ten years after installing rigid plastic foam sheathing in Zone 3, which of the
following is true?
F. The customer will have produced fewer GHGs, but will not yet have saved money
on energy.
G. The customer will have saved money on energy, but will not yet have produced
fewer GHGs.
H. The customer will have neither saved money on energy nor produced fewer
GHGs.
J. The customer will have both saved money on energy and produced fewer GHGs.
11. Based on the data in Table 1, which of the following lists the fuels that yielded the
highest average energy savings, in decreasing order?
A. Natural gas, coal, and nuclear
B. Hydropower, nuclear, and other
C. Coal, natural gas, and nuclear
D. Nuclear, petroleum, and coal
SUBMIT
(Test 67-2)
The Great Lakes Science Center (GLSC) has conducted lakewide surveys of the fish
community in Lake Michigan each fall since 1973 using standard 12 m bottom trawls
along contour at depths of 9 to 110 m at each of seven to nine index transects. The
resulting data on relative abundance, size structure, and condition of individual fishes
are used to estimate various population parameters that are in turn used by state and
tribal agencies in managing Lake Michigan fish stocks.
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
8. According to Figure 1, which species of fish was most prevalent in 1954?

F. Alewife
G. Smelt
H. Bloater
J. Smelt and bloater
9. Based on the information in Figure 4, which of the following statements is true?

A. There were more smelt than sculpin in 2004.
B. There were more bloater than sculpin in 2004.
C. There were more alewife than bloater in 2004.
D. There were more slimy sculpin than alewife in 2004
.
10. According to Figure 2 and Figure 3, which of the following is NOT true about the
size of alewives?
F. There were more 175-mm alewives in 2004 than in 2002.
G. There were fewer 75-mm alewives in 2004 than in 2002.
H. There were fewer 115-mm alewives in 2002 than in 2004.
J. There were more 155-mm alewives in 2004 than in 2002.
11. Considering the fact that the older an alewife fish, the longer it is, and using the data
in Figures 2 and 3, which of the following can be deduced about alewife fish populations
in 2002 and 2004?
A. In 2004 there were more young alewives than in 2002.
B. In 2004 there were more adult alewives than in 2002.
C. In 2004 the fish were, on average, younger than in 2002.
D. In 2004 the greatest percentages of fish were young.
12. Scientists at the GLSC have hypothesized that the bloater population may be
cycling in abundance, with a period of about 30 years. Does the data in Figure 1 support
this hypothesis?
F. No. The population of bloater fish has decreased since 1973.
G. No. In 2004 there were more bloater fish than any other species.
H. Yes. The density of bloater fish steadily increased before 1973 and then
decreased from 1973 to 2003.
J. Yes. In 2004 there were more bloater fish than any other species.
(Test 70-2)
As shown in Figures 1 and 2, the composition of soil varies by zone. Scientists wanted
to determine which types of prairie plants grew best in which zones. To accomplish this,
they visited prairies in Zone 3 and in Zone 4 and determined average plant height and
root depth (see Table 1). They also looked at several 1-acre plots in both Zone 3 and
Zone 4, and recorded the average number of each type of plant found (see Figure 3).
Figure 1
Figure 2
Table 1
Figure 3
7. In which zone is clay found at a depth of –3.5m?
F. Zone 3
G. Zone 4
H. Zones 3 and 4
J. Neither Zone 3 nor 4
8. Of the prairie plants studied, which had the tallest average plant height?
A. Aster
B. Kentucky Blue Grass
C. Indian Grass
D. Compass Plant
9. Based on the data in Figure 3, which of the following can be concluded about the
prevalence of plants per zone?
F. The prairie plants studied grow more easily in Zone 4.
G. The prairie plants studied grow more easily in Zone 3.
H. The prairie plants studied grow equally well in Zone 3 and Zone 4.
J. No conclusion can be drawn about the prevalence of plant growth per zone.
10. A plant growing in which zone would have roots that reach clay first?
A. Zone 3
B. Zone 4
C. None of the plants studied have roots that would reach clay.
D. Plants in Zone 3 and Zone 4 would reach clay at the same depth.
11. The average Lead Plant growing in Zone 3 would have roots that, at their deepest
point, reach down to which of the following soil layers?
F. Sandy clay
G. Clay
H. Gravel
J. Bedrock
(Test 72-1)
Tornado intensity is commonly estimated by analyzing damage to structures and then
correlating it with the wind speed required to produce such destruction. This method is
essential to assigning tornadoes specific values on the Fujita Scale (F scale) of tornado
intensity (see Figure 1).
Figure 1
A tornado is formed when the following occurs: (1) warm, moist air rises into cool, dry
air; (2) when the barrier is breached, a bulge of warm, moist air expands and condenses
to form a cloud; (3) as air moves upward, the resulting instability creates a spiral of air
called a mesocyclone; (4) cold air moves downward and rain falls as the cloud becomes
a supercell; (5) cool, moist air from rain cycles back into a cloud, forming a spinning
wallcloud; and (6) horizontal spiraling wind “tubes” are pushed upward by warm, moist
air, forming a tornado. (See Figure 2.)
Figure 2
The United States has the most tornadoes of any country, and most of these tornadoes
form in an area of the central United States known as “Tornado Alley.” Figure 3 displays
a geographical (state-by-state) breakdown of the occurrence of tornadoes in the United
States in 2005.
Figure 3
1. In Figure 2, the tornado is labeled with which number?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
2. A tornado with an intensity of F4 on the Fujita Scale could have winds of which of the
following speeds?
F. 70 mph
G. 155 mph
H. 190 mph
J. 210 mph
3. Which of the following does NOT precede the formation of a mesocyclone?

A. Warm air flowing upward
B. Cool air forming a spinning wall-cloud
C. Cloud formation
D. Moist air condensing
4. Based on the data provided in Figure 3, which of the following states can be inferred
to be part of “Tornado Alley?”
F. Texas
G. Florida
H. Michigan
J. Washington
5. If the wind speed of a tornado was unknown, but it was observed that several brick
buildings in the area sustained minor damage, what value would the tornado be
assigned on the F scale?
A. F0
B. F1
C. F2
D. F3
(Test 77-2)
Solid-phase microextraction (SPME) is a new technique for extracting volatile organic
residue from sediment and water. The technique has several advantages (fast, simple,
precise, sensitive), and requires no solvent. For this technique, a thin fused silica fiber
coated with a stationary phase is exposed to a sample, either by immersion in a water
or air sample or to headspace above an aqueous or solid sample (see Figure 1).
Figure 1: SPME device

Scientists conducted a series of experiments to determine the effectiveness of using
SPME to extract white phosphorus (P4) residues from water. All of the experiments were
done using headspace immersion.
Experiment 1
To see how consistent SPME was, scientists conducted five trials using four different
types of water (reagent grade, well, pond, salt marsh) at an aqueous concentration of
0.14 μg/L. Table 1 displays the results.
Table 1
Experiment 2
Scientists varied the aqueous concentration and tested four different types of water
using SPME, to see the effect on the mass of P4 that could be extracted (see Figure 2).
Figure 2
Experiment 3
To see if sonication had any effect on the results of SPME, scientists ran four trials,
using four identical aqueous samples, at a concentration of 0.14 μg/L. The samples
were analyzed using SPME by three methods: five minutes of sonication, ten minutes of
sonication, and five minutes static. Table 2 displays the results.
Table 2
7. According to Figure 2, as the aqueous concentration increased in the test done using
salt marsh water, the white phosphorus mass:
A. decreased, and then increased.
B. increased and then decreased.
C. increased.
D. decreased.
8. Based on the results from Experiment 3, which trial resulted in the smallest amount of
white phosphorus being extracted?
F. Trial 2 after 5-minutes sonication
G. Trial 3 after 5-minutes static
H. Trial 1 after 5-minutes static

J. Trial 4 after 10-minutes sonication
9. In order for the scientists to conduct these experiments, it was crucial for them to
expose which part of the SPME device to the headspace above the water samples?
A. The plugger
B. The needle
C. The barrel
D. The silica fiber
10. A scientist theorized that more white phosphorus would be extracted from a sample
if it were exposed to a longer period of sonication. Do the results from Experiment 3
support this theory?
F. Yes, because in every trial more white phosphorus was extracted after 10-
minutes sonication than after 5-minutes sonication.
G. Yes, because in every trial more white phosphorus was extracted after 5-minutes
sonication than after 5-minutes static.
H. No, because in Trials 2 and 3 more white phosphorus was extracted after 5-
minutes sonication than after 10-minutes sonication.
J. No, because in all trials more white phosphorus was extracted after 5-minutes
static than after 5-minutes sonication.
11. According to Table 1 the mean results demonstrate that the greatest amount of
white phosphorus can be extracted from which type of water?
A. Reagent
B. Well
C. Pond
D. Salt marsh
12. Based on the results of Experiment 2, if SPME extraction was used on pond water
with an aqueous concentration of 0.2 μg/L, it can be inferred that the amount of white
phosphorus extracted would be closest to:
F. 45 pg.
G. 100 pg.
H. 30 pg.
J. 5 pg.
(Test 80-1)
Air permeability is defined as the ability of soil to transmit air through interconnected air-
filled pores under an imposed air pressure gradient. Air permeability is a function of
volumetric water content, porosity, pore size distribution, and pore geometry. Scientists
used a soil corer air permeameter (SCAP) to digitally measure the flow rates of air
through desert soil under low-pressure gradients. The SCAP measured air permeability
both in situ, with the instrument inserted in the soil and ex situ, after the soil corer had
been removed from the soil. Figures 1 and 2 display the results of field testing
conducted at two of the four sites in Arizona, over the course of three months. The
porosity of the soil at each site is displayed in Figure 3. Figure 4 shows the relationship
between the air pressure used and the flow rate of the air for each site.
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
1. According to Figure 2, the air permeability measured ex situ in October was closest to
which of the following?
F. 5 μm2
G. 15 μm2
H. 20 μm2
J. 30 μm2
2. Based on Figure 4, if the air permeability had been tested at Site 1 using 800 Pa, the
flow rate would most likely have been closest to which of the following?
A. 0.5 m3/s
B. 0.6 m3/s
C. 0.4 m3/s
D. 0.3 m3/s
3. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the difference in air
permeability at Site 1 versus Site 2?
F. The overall air permeability is higher at Site 1 due to the lower porosity of the soil.
G. The overall air permeability is higher at Site 2 due to the higher porosity of the
soil.
H. The overall air permeability at Site 2 is higher because less pressure was used
when testing the soil.
J. The overall air permeability at Site 2 is higher because more pressure was used
when testing the soil.
4. If the data in Figures 1 and 2 is typical of air permeability measurements, one would
most likely make which of the following conclusions about air permeability in situ versus
ex situ?
A. The permeability will always be higher ex situ than in situ.
B. The permeability will always be lower ex situ than in situ.
C. Water permeability is higher than air permeability in situ and ex situ.
D. At high pressures, air permeability is greater in situ than ex situ.
5. According to Figure 1, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding

permeability during the month of November?
F. Permeability was lower than in previous months.
G. Permeability was highest for air measured while the SCAP was still inserted in
the ground.
H. Permeability was highest for air measured after the SCAP had removed a core
from the soil.
J. Permeability was highest for water.
(Test 87-1)
Groundwater is water stored beneath the surface of the Earth. Groundwater chemistry
in 2 bodies of water—drawn from an aquifer and from beneath a wetland—was studied
during a 2000 summer drought and again during the next summer, which had normal
rainfall. Figure 1 shows the methane (CH4) gas concentration in the groundwater at
various depths in the aquifer and wetland. Figures 2 and 3 show the
groundwater conductivity (directly proportional to the concentration of the dissolved
ions) and pH at various depths in the aquifer and wetland, respectively. Also shown are
the locations of the water table and the depths of the aquifer and wetland below this
level.
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
1. According to Figure 2, the conductivity of aquifer groundwater in 2000 at a depth of

250 cm was closest to which of the following?
A. 350 μmho/cm
B. 475 μmho/cm
C. 625 μmho/cm
D. 725 μmho/cm
2. Based on Figure 2, if the pH of aquifer groundwater at a depth of 260 cm had been

measured in the summer of 2001, it would most likely have been closest to which of the
following?
F. 4.2
G. 5.5
H. 7.2
J. 8.5
3. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the difference in the depth of
wetland groundwater in the 2 years?
A. The amount of groundwater discharged to the wetland was higher during the
drought, so the wetland received more water than normal.
B. The amount of groundwater discharged to the wetland was higher during the
drought, so the wetland received less water than normal.
C. The amount of rainfall received by the wetland was higher during the drought, so
the wetland received more water than normal.
D. The amount of rainfall received by the wetland was lower during the drought, so
the wetland received less water than normal.
4. If the data in Figures 2 and 3 are typical of aquifers and wetlands in general, one
would most likely make which of the following conclusions about the soil layer in an
aquifer and in a wetland?
F. The soil layer in both an aquifer and a wetland is completely above the water
table at all times.
G. The soil layer in both an aquifer and a wetland is completely below the water
table at all times.
H. The soil layer in an aquifer is thicker than the soil layer in a wetland.
J. The soil layer in an aquifer is thinner than the soil layer in a wetland.
5. According to Figure 1, the average concentration of CH4 over the depths of 0 to 300
cm was higher during the summer of:
A. normal rainfall than during the summer of drought in both the aquifer and the
wetland.
B. normal rainfall than during the summer of drought in the aquifer only.
C. drought than during the summer of normal rainfall in both the aquifer and the
wetland.
D. drought than during the summer of normal rainfall in the wetland only.
(Test 92-1)
verage global temperature is influenced by multiple different factors and has gone
through significant changes throughout the history of the earth.
Global temperature affects Earth's oceans. In general, as the average global
temperature increases, glacial and continental ice coverage decreases from melting.
This combined with the thermal expansion of the oceans results in rising sea levels. The
sea level present at any given time over the past 150,000 years can be estimated from
sedimentary rock layer analysis. Figure 1 shows for the years listed the difference in
average global sea level compared to what has been the average temperature value
from 1961 through 1990.
Figure 2
Figure 1 adapted from "Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change Fourth
Assessment Report 2007."
Figure 2 shows the change in both the average global temperature and average global
sea level from the present. The change in average global sea level is determined by:
Figure 2
Figure 2 adapted from Petit et al. "Climate and atmospheric history of the past 420,000
years from the Vostok ice core," Antarctica. Nature 399: 429–436.
Two scientists discuss why the average global sea level has risen over the past 100
years.
Scientist 1
Rising sea levels are a direct result of widespread industrial burning of fossil fuels that
started in the mid-19th century. This activity caused the release of greenhouse gases
like carbon dioxide, which raised the average global temperature. This increase in
temperature led to depleted ice coverage and rapid thermal expansion of oceans.
Figure 1 shows that global sea level was essentially constant until approximately 1900
and has since risen to a level higher than at any time in the past 150,000 years.
Between 1950 and 2000, global average sea level rose by 0.1 m as global temperature
rose approximately 0.5°C. Since 2000 the change in global average sea level has
increased at a rate of 2% per year.
Scientist 2
Rises and falls in the global average sea level occurred many times in the past 150,000
years and well before the industrial revolution of the mid-1800s. In general, global
average sea level rises and falls with global average temperature, as shown in Figure 2.
Industrial activity did not begin until the 1800s and could not have been responsible for
the changes in average global temperature and sea level before that time. The recent
rise in sea level in response to global temperature is not significantly different from
those before 1800, so human activity does not by itself have a measurable effect on
average global sea level.
1. According to Figure 2, over which of the following time intervals did the average
global sea level increase more than 100 times as much as Scientist 1 claims it did
between 1950 and 2000 ?
F. Between 130,000 and 120,000 years ago
G. Between 80,000 and 70,000 years ago
H. Between 50,000 and 30,000 years ago
J. Between 40,000 and 20,000 years ago
2. Which of the following statements about average global temperature would most
likely be supported by Scientist 2 ?
A. Average global temperature has remained essentially constant for the past
150,000 years.
B. Average global temperature is changed only by widespread industrial activity.
C. As the average global temperature decreases, average global sea level
decreases.
D. As the average global temperature decreases, average global sea level
increases.
3. According to Scientist 1, the change in average global sea level has been increasing
at a constant rate since 2000. Given the change in sea level given in Figure 1 for the
year 2000, Scientist 1 would most likely conclude that the average global sea level
change for the year 2003 was closest to which of the following?
F. .046 m
G. .048 m
H. .051 m
J. .053 m
4. Scientist 1 states that average global sea level is currently higher than at any point in
the past 150,000 years. Does Figure 1 provide sufficient basis for this statement?
A. No; Figure 1 shows the change in average global sea level for the past 500 years
only.
B. No; Figure 1 shows the change in average global sea level for the past 150,000
years.
C. Yes; Figure 1 shows the change in average global sea level for the past 500
years only.
D. Yes; Figure 1 shows the change in average global sea level for the past 150,000
years.
5. Assume that the current average sea level at a particular location is measured at 90
m above a fixed geographic landmark. Given Figure 2, the two scientists would most
likely claim that 100,000 years ago, the average sea level above the same mark at that
location was closest to which of the following?
F. 120 m
G. 100 m
H. 60 m
J. 30 m
6. Suppose Scientist 2 stated that there have been times over the past 150,000 years
when average global sea level has been the same as what it is today. To support this
claim, Scientist 2 would most likely cite the sea level data in Figure 2 for which of the
following times?
A. 50,000 years ago
B. 65,000 years ago
C. 115,000 years ago
D. 130,000 years ago
7. Given Figure 1, Scientist 1 would most likely claim that from 1500 to 1800, average
global temperature:
F. varied by less than 1°C, remaining essentially constant.
G. varied by 1°C.
H. increased by more than 1°C.
J. decreased by more than 1°C.
(Test 94)
The Great Lakes are a group of five large lakes located in the United States and
Canada. They make up the largest group of fresh water lakes in the world, and the
Great Lakes-St. Lawrence River system is the largest freshwater system in the world.
Recently, near-historic low water levels have plagued the water system. Two scientists
discuss the causes of low lake levels in the Great Lakes.
Scientist 1
Water levels are part of the ebb and flow of nature. The determining factor in whether
the water level will rise, fall, or remain stable is the difference between the amount of
water coming into a lake and the amount going out. When several months of above-
average precipitation occur with cooler, cloudy conditions that cause less evaporation,
the lake levels gradually rise. Likewise, the lowering of water levels will result from
prolonged periods of lower-than-average precipitation and warmer temperatures.
The recent decline of water levels in the Great Lakes, now at lows not seen since the
mid-1960s, is due to a number of causes. Higher degrees of evaporation from warmer
than usual temperatures in recent years, a series of mild winters, and below-average
snow pack in the Lake Superior basin all contribute to the phenomenon. Since
precipitation, evaporation, and runoff are the major factors affecting the water supply to
the lakes, levels cannot be controlled or accurately predicted for more than a few weeks
into the future. Further, the influence of human regulation on lake levels is
inconsequential. Because water is added through snow and rain and taken away
through evaporation, nature has most of the control over lake levels.
Scientist 2
Several human activities have significantly affected levels and flow of the water in the
Great Lakes. For example, structures have been built to regulate the outflows of both
Lake Superior and Lake Ontario. Lake Superior has been regulated since 1921 as a
result of hydroelectric and navigation developments in the St. Mary's River, such as the
Soo Locks. Lake Ontario has been regulated since 1960 after completion of the St.
Lawrence Seaway and Power Project. Diversions bring water into, and take water out
of, the Great Lakes. Many such diversions were constructed for hydropower generation
and logging. For example, the Lake Michigan diversion at Chicago moves water out of
Lake Michigan and into the Mississippi River for domestic, navigation, hydroelectric, and
sanitation purposes.
In addition, the St. Clair and Detroit rivers have been dredged and modified. This has
caused some drop in the levels of Lake Michigan and Lake Huron. Channel and
shoreline modifications in connecting the channels of the Great Lakes have affected
lake levels and flows as well, because the infilling of shoreline areas can reduce the
flow carrying-capacity of the river. Further, the extensive use of groundwater deposited
in massive aquifers (underground layers of water-bearing permeable rock) in the

Midwest has affected the lake levels. Vast quantities of water deposited in aquifers
surrounding the Great Lakes are taken to population centers outside of the Great Lakes'
watershed (region of land whose water drains into a specified body of water). Thus, the
water in the lakes is not replenished.
1. Which of the following best describes the major point of difference between the
scientists' viewpoints?
F. The major contributing factor of low lake levels.
G. The effects of water use on the environment.
H. The effects of reduced lake levels.
J. The major function of the Great Lakes.
2. With which of the following statements would both scientists likely agree?
A. The probability of lake level fluctuation is small.
B. Human activity is largely responsible for the changes in lake levels.
C. Recent trends show that the lake levels are decreasing.
D. The decreased lake levels are not a major concern.
3. Which of the following statements best describes how Scientist 1 would explain why
human interference is of little importance in determining lake levels?
F. Aquifer use has little effect on lake levels.
G. Rivers flowing into the Great Lakes raise the water levels in the lakes.
H. Dredging or widening rivers can cause reductions in water levels in the lakes.
J. Lake levels are mainly controlled by nature and not manipulated by humans.
4. According to Scientist 2, human activity diverts lake waters, thus:

A. decreasing the density of the water in the lakes.
B. reducing the amount of water in the lakes.
C. increasing the amount of water in the lakes.
D. changing the weather patterns.
5. Scientist 1's viewpoint would most likely be weakened by which of the following
statements?
F. Lake level fluctuation has severe consequences for coastal communities.
G. Studies have shown precipitation and evaporation levels to be stable for the last
50 years.
H. Studies detailing aquifer use announce a dramatic increase in volume in the last
5 years.
J. Recreational boating releases thousands of gallons of petroleum-based
chemicals into the water system each year.
6. Scientist 2 claims that all of the following are human activities that are decreasing
lake levels EXCEPT:
A. destruction of watershed tributaries.
B. diversions for domestic, navigation, hydroelectric, and sanitation purposes.
C. dredging and modification of rivers.
D. infilling of shoreline areas.
7. How would the effect of the use of aquifer water differ from that described by Scientist
2 if all of the water taken from aquifers that surrounds the Great Lakes was
used within the Great Lakes' watershed? The use of aquifer water would:
F. continue to cause decreases in lake levels.
G. affect lake levels to a lesser degree.
H. have an increased effect on receding lake levels.
J. increase levels of pollution within the watershed region.
(Test 101)
The Earth's magnetic field is one of the planet's most significant natural phenomena.
For centuries, the field has been used to aid navigation and exploration, and has been
vital to many major discoveries. The magnetic field of the Earth extends several
thousands of miles into space. It has the effect of shielding the Earth from solar wind,
protecting the planet from dangerous high-energy particles and radiation. The exact
source of the Earth's magnetic field is not certain. The following two Scientists attempt
to explain the phenomenon.
Scientist 1
The Earth's magnetic field is similar to that of a bar magnet tilted 11 degrees from the
spin axis of the Earth. The magnetic field of a bar magnet, or any other type of
permanent magnet, is created by the coordinated motions of electrons within iron
atoms. It is widely accepted that the Earth's core consists of metals. The inner core is
70% as wide as the moon and consists of a solid iron ball, which would exhibit
properties of ferromagnetism (the natural magnetic tendency of iron). The core has its
own rotation and is surrounded by a "sea" of molten rock. The magnetic field grows and
wanes, and the Earth's poles drift and occasionally flip as the rotation of the core
changes. The poles of the magnetic field have "flipped" many times due to the
fluctuations in the rotation of the solid inner core. Other fluctuations in the magnetic field
that can occur on a daily basis are largely the result of interference by solar wind.
Scientist 2
The Earth's magnetic field is attributed to a dynamo effect of circulating electric current
in the molten outer core. Electric currents cause magnetic fields; therefore, the
circulating electric currents in the Earth's molten metallic core are the origin of the
magnetic field. When conducting fluid flows across an existing magnetic field, electric
currents are induced, creating another magnetic field. When this magnetic field
reinforces the original magnetic field, a dynamo is created which sustains itself.
Sitting atop the hot, iron inner core, the Earth's molten outer core churns and moves.
The outer core also has cyclones or whirlpools powered by the Coriolis effects of Earth's
rotation. These complex and unpredictable motions generate the fluctuating magnetic
field. The outer core is seething, swirling, and turbulent, which has been detected by the
constant changes and reversals in polarity throughout the planet's history. Further, iron
has a special characteristic. When it is hotter than 1043 K, its Curie temperature, iron
loses its magnetic properties. Therefore the Earth's magnetic field is caused not by
magnetised iron deposits, but mostly by electric currents in the liquid outer core.
1. Which of the following statements about the Earth's core was implied by Scientist 2?
A. The Earth's inner core is a rotating mass of iron.
B. The Earth's inner core is solely responsible for the magnetic field.
C. The Earth's core is iron and possesses properties similar to a bar magnet.
D. The Earth's core has a temperature above 1043 K.
2. A scientific article stated, "Since 1848, when the strength of the Earth's magnetic field
was first measured, the field has lost 10% of its strength." Which of the scientists'
viewpoints, if any, is (are) in agreement with this statement?
F. Scientist 1 only.
G. Scientist 2 only.
H. Scientist 1 and 2.
J. Neither Scientist 1 nor 2.
3. Researchers notice that volcanic rocks exhibit regular and predictable variations in
their magnetic properties depending on their age. Which of the following statements
about the variations would both scientists most likely agree with?
A. Electric currents in the liquid outer core cause variation in the magnetic properties
of volcanic rock.
B. Solar wind levels at the time the rocks were created determine the magnetic
properties of the rock.
C. The varying magnetic properties of the volcanic rocks are a result of the status of
the Earth's fluctuating magnetic field at the time the rocks cooled.
D. The Earth's magnetic field shields it from solar wind, thereby altering the
magnetic properties of volcanic rocks.
4. Scientists 1 and 2 would most likely disagree about which of the following
statements?
F. The strength of the Earth's magnetic field fluctuates over time.
G. The polarity of the Earth's magnetic field can change over time.
H. The Earth's inner core is surrounded by a liquid outer core.
J. The inner core of the Earth possesses magnetic properties.
5. Do the Scientists differ in their description of the Earth's magnetic field?

A. Yes; Scientist 1 claims that the Earth's magnetic field is significant and Scientist 2
does not.
B. Yes; Scientist 1 claims that the Earth's magnetic field is created by the
coordinated motions of electrons within iron atoms and Scientist 2 does not.
C. No; both Scientists claim that the Earth's magnetic field is created from the
circulating electric currents in the Earth's molten outer core.
D. No; neither Scientist discusses the Earth's magnetic field in detail.
6. Suppose a new type of sensor was invented that could detect electric currents in the
outer core. This new technology would:
F. be consistent with the view of Scientist 1 only.
G. be consistent with the view of Scientist 2 only.
H. be consistent with the view of Scientist 1 and 2.
J. have no relevance to either scientist's viewpoint.
7. According to Scientist 1, which of the following assumptions about the source of the
Earth's magnetic field is a major flaw in Scientist 2's theory?
A. The iron in the inner core possesses no magnetic properties.
B. The iron in the liquid outer core possesses ferromagnetic properties.
C. The outer core can conduct electricity.
D. The magnetic field shields the Earth from solar wind.
(Test 107)
A pluvial lake is an ancient lake with high water levels, generally associated with times
of high precipitation. Lake Bonneville was a prehistoric pluvial lake that covered much of
North America's Great Basin region during the last ice age (see Figure 1). Most of the
territory it covered was in present-day Utah, though parts of the lake extended into
present-day Idaho and Nevada. Formed about 32,000 years ago, it existed until about
16,800 years ago, when most of the contents of the lake were released through the Red
Rock Pass in Idaho.
Figure 1
At more than 1,000 feet (305 m) deep and more than 19,691 square miles (50,999.5
km2) in area, Lake Bonneville was nearly as large as Lake Michigan and significantly
deeper. Over time, increasing temperatures in North America caused the lake to begin
drying up, leaving Great Salt Lake, Utah Lake, Sevier Lake, Rush Lake, and Little Salt
Lake as remnants. While each of these lakes is considered a freshwater lake, the
salinity levels are higher than normal. Figure 2 shows a cross-section of part of Utah
Lake and its sediment and bedrock, with measurements taken at the cities of Genola
and Provo and two test sites in between.
Figure 2
1. According to Figure 2, the lake clay deposit is thinnest at which of the following
locations?
A. Genola
B. Test Site 1
C. Test Site 2
D. Provo
2. According to the passage, Lake Bonneville existed in its entirety for approximately
how many years?
F. 32,000
G. 16,800
H. 15,200
J. Cannot be determined from the given information.
3. According to Figure 2, as the thickness of the lake clay increases from Genola to Site
2, the thickness of the bedrock beneath it:
A. increases overall.
B. remains the same.
C. first increases and then decreases.
D. decreases overall.
4. According to Figure 2, which of the following graphs best represents the elevations, in
meters above sea level, of the top of the lake clay layer at Test Sites 1 and 2?
F.
G.
H.
J.
5. Great Salt Lake is fed mainly by 3 tributary rivers that deposit large amounts of
minerals into its waters. The lake is salty because it has no outflow for water other than
evaporation, which is predominately mineralfree. If local temperatures were to decrease
significantly, while freshwater rain were to increase significantly, what would be the
likely resulting change in the salinity of Great Salt Lake?
A. Salinity would decrease.
B. Salinity would increase.
C. Salinity would remain the same.
D. Salinity cannot be predicted.
(Test 114)
In recent decades, astronomers deduced that there is approximately five times more
material in clusters of galaxies than expected based on visible galaxies and hot gas.
Most of the material in these galaxies is, in fact, invisible. Since galaxies are the largest
structures in the universe held together by gravity, some scientists concluded that most
of the matter in the entire universe is invisible. They called this invisible material dark
matter. Two scientists offer theories on whether dark matter exists.
Scientist 1
Recent studies by researchers at Northeastern University and the University of Victoria
may suggest that dark matter- a substance previously considered viable in light of
Newton's theories of gravity-does not actually exist. Dark matter is not readily
observable because it does not directly refract light or energy. Its existence could only
be deduced because of the perceived gravitational effect that it has on surrounding
matter, (i.e., warped galaxies).
This new research is based upon Einstein's theory of general relativity. Although
Newtonian physics may provide for the cohesive nature of solar systems, when applied
to galaxies the 'numbers' do not add up. Because there is not enough visible matter for
the various gravitational equations to balance, dark matter was theorized to make up
this deficit. Without a source for the rest of the missing matter, there was previously
nothing in Newtonian physics to explain the movement or shape of galaxies.
In terms of general relativity, a galaxy, seen collectively, has its own gravity and
essentially drives its own rotation at a constant rate. Aaron Romanowsky of Harvard
University and several colleagues point to the existence of several elliptical-shaped
galaxies surrounded by very little dark matter as evidence that dark matter is not, in fact,
the cause of the warped galaxies. The results of their studies cast doubt on some of the
conventional theories of galaxy formation and manipulation.
This theory does not explain everything, such as how large clusters of galaxies are able
to bind to one another, but it does allow for already proven equations to explain the
motion of galaxies without dark matter.
Scientist 2
Without dark matter, there are many cosmological phenomena that are difficult to
explain. Some scientists believe that the interaction between dark matter and other
smaller, nearby galaxies is causing the Milky Way galaxy to take on a warped, elliptical
profile. This interaction involves two smaller galaxies (called Magellanic Clouds) near
the Milky Way, moving through an enormous amount of dark matter, which in effect
enhances the gravitational pull that the two Magellanic Clouds could exert on the Milky
Way and other surrounding bodies. Computer models from the University of California
at Berkeley seem to support this theory. Without the existence of the dark matter, the
Magellanic Clouds would not have sufficient mass to have such a strong effect on the
bend of the Milky Way galaxy.
The strongest evidence for the validity of this hypothesis rests in Newtonian physics and
the hypothesis that anything with mass will exert a gravitational pull. However, there is
nothing readily observable in the vicinity of the Milky Way with sufficient mass that could
cause such a high level of distortion via gravitational pull.
In addition, theoretical arguments for the existence of dark matter can be made by
looking at the cosmic microwave background in the universe. This "leftover" light
radiation, emitted only a few hundred thousand years after the formation of the
universe, provides information about conditions in the universe on a very large scale.
Measurements of cosmic microwave radiation imply the existence of dark matter,
although even dark matter cannot solve all of the mysteries of the universe.
1. Which of the following statements is most consistent with Scientist 1's viewpoint?
A. The application of the theory of general relativity to observed phenomena
requires the inclusion of dark matter.
B. Einstein invented dark matter to cover up deficiencies in his theory of relativity.
C. Newton's theories are completely dependent upon the proven existence of dark
matter in the universe.
D. New research shows that dark matter is not required to explain astronomers'
observations.
2. According to the passage, a similarity between the two viewpoints is that both
scientists believe that:
F. dark matter has little to no effect on galaxy shape.
G. there are still many unexplained cosmological phenomena.
H. cosmic microwave radiation suggests the presence of dark matter.
J. dark matter can be easily observed in the universe.
3. Which of the following best summarizes Scientist 2's position?

A. The existence of dark matter is a scientific fraud perpetrated by astronomers and
physicists.
B. The existence of dark matter is probable based on currently available evidence.
C. Dark matter is misnamed because it is visible using modern instruments.
D. Dark matter is no longer a necessary part of the general theory of relativity.
4. With which of the following statements would both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2 most
likely agree?
F. Astronomical observations of the known universe are of no value when it comes
to explaining the shape of the Milky Way.
G. Warped galaxies are a convenient fiction created by astronomers and physicists.
H. Newtonian physics can account for the existence of warped galaxies without
resorting to dark matter as part of the explanation.
J. Warped galaxies such as the Milky Way present an astronomical puzzle that is
worth investigating.
5. Scientist 2's position would be most weakened by which of the following

observations?
A. The Magellanic Clouds actually move more quickly than previously thought.
B. The Magellanic Clouds are actually much more massive than previously thought.
C. The Milky Way is warped more than previously thought.
D. U.C. Berkeley computer models are much more accurate than previously
thought.
6. According to the passage, the main point of the disagreement between Scientist 1
and Scientist 2 is:
F. the existence of dark matter in the universe.
G. the source of dark matter in the universe.
H. the likelihood that Einstein was aware of Newton's theories.
J. the existence of the Magellanic Clouds near the Milky Way.
7. Scientist 1's position would be most weakened by:

A. the revelation that Einstein's general theory of relativity is significantly flawed.
B. the appearance of several newly-discovered warped galaxies similar to the Milky
Way.
C. the discovery that previous estimates of the mass of galaxies were too high.
D. proof that Einstein was aware of Newton's theories at the time he postulated his
general theory of relativity.
(Test 121)
Earth's habitability is sustained by the sun. Currently, the sun provides enough light and
warmth to maintain temperature conditions that can support life on our planet. It is
undisputed that the sun is a star. All stars go through phases where they change in size,
temperature, and brightness. Two scientists present their views on how long Earth will
remain habitable.
Scientist 1
Earth's sun has another 7 billion years before it enters the Red Giant phase. Currently,
Earth could not sustain human life during the Red Giant phase. However, it is important
not to believe that human life on Earth will immediately cease to exist as we know it in 7
billion years. Technology has played a huge role in helping humans adapt to conditions
on this planet. We humans have 7 billion years to advance technology and find
solutions to adapt to the atmospheric changes the Red Giant phase would bring. For
instance, creating a large sunshade to protect Earth might allow life to continue even
when the sun enters the Red Giant phase. Another solution would be to develop
technology that would stir the sun and bring new hydrogen to the sun's core. This would
greatly extend the current phase that our sun is in. There is enough time and incentive
to discover ways to thwart the natural progress of nature. Therefore, I believe that
human life on this planet will exist indefinitely.
Scientist 2
The sun will enter its Red Giant phase in about 7 billion years. However, new models
suggest that Earth has less than a billion years before atmospheric carbon dioxide
levels drop to levels that can no longer support photosynthesis. This would lead to a
dramatic temperature increase. Once Earth's average temperature rises to above 70°C,
the oceans will evaporate and Earth's water sources will be almost completely
eliminated. One billion years is not long enough for humans to evolve in order to meet
large atmospheric and environmental changes, or to develop the technology needed to
make Earth habitable. In a billion years, atmospheric changes will eliminate all life on
Earth as we know it. Humans need to accept the reality that advanced life flourishes for
only a limited period of time. Science fiction-inspired plans to create space colonies or
massive sunshades are unrealistic and will not likely be developed in the next billion
years.
1. If the interpretation of Scientist 1 is correct, which of the following generalizations

about technology is most accurate?
A. Technology only develops when there is a dire need for it and plenty of time to
conduct experiments.
B. Some technology can either alter or enhance natural forces.
C. Technology is solely responsible for making the planet habitable.
D. Technology can help prevent the sun from changing indefinitely.
2. Studies show that Venus may once have had an atmosphere and environment
almost identical to Earth's. Now, Venus has no water on its surface or in its atmosphere.
How would Scientist 2 most likely explain the change in Venus's atmosphere and
environment?
F. Venus's living beings were not able to stir the sun to bring new hydrogen to its
core.
G. Venus's sun entered its Red Giant phase much earlier in the planet's
development.
H. The carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere dropped to levels that no longer
supported photosynthesis.
J. Venus's proximity to the sun made it more vulnerable to atmospheric and
environmental changes.
3. Which of the following does Scientist 1 indicate would postpone the sun reaching its
Red Giant phase?
A. Using technology to create space colonies built from pieces of meteorites
B. Using technology to create a giant sunshade to protect Earth from the sun
C. Using technology to change the levels of hydrogen in the sun's core
D. Using technology to increase the amount of hydrogen in Earth's core.
4. Scientist 1 suggests that:

F. humans will always adapt to any changes in Earth's atmosphere and
environment.
G. the earth will no longer be able to sustain human life in 7 billion years.
H. sufficient time and incentive are not necessary elements in advancing
technology.
J. creating sunshades would help to increase levels of carbon dioxide in the air,
which is important in maintaining life on the planet.
5. The passage argues that Scientists 1 and 2 disagree on:

A. whether technology will evolve in time to prevent Earth from becoming
inhabitable.
B. whether the sun will ever enter the Red Giant phase.
C. whether water and a temperate climate are needed for human survival.
D. whether the technology to create space colonies already exists.
6. The views of both scientists are similar because they both argue that:
F. humans will be able to exist indefinitely on Earth.
G. 7 billion years is long enough to create technology that will protect the earth from
a changing sun.
H. the earth is subject to future atmospheric changes.
J. it might be possible to discover new planets that are able to sustain human life.
7. Which of the following findings, if true, would weaken the arguments of Scientist 2?
A. The planet Venus was unable to sustain life when atmospheric changes
occurred.
B. Studies have shown that, during prehistoric times, Earth's temperature reached
75°C.
C. It is impossible to create a space colony large enough to support life for long
periods of time.
D. Recent scientific models have shown that the earth will not be habitable in 1
billion years.
(Test 124)
The term weathering refers to the processes that cause surface rock to disintegrate into
smaller particles or dissolve in water. These processes are often slow, taking place over
thousands of years. The amount of time that rock has been exposed to the elements
(primarily wind and water) influences the degree to which the rock will weather.
Weathering processes are divided into three categories: physical, chemical, and
biological.
Table 1 shows some of the factors that contribute to physical weathering.
Chemical weathering occurs when minerals in rock are chemically altered. Table 2
shows some of the factors that contribute to chemical weathering.
Plants and bacteria contribute to biological weathering. The ultimate product of

biological agents on rock is soil. Table 3 shows some factors of biological weathering.
1. Based on the data in the passage, plants contribute to which of the following types of
weathering?
A. Physical only
B. Both physical and biological
C. Biological only
D. Physical, chemical, and biological
2. According to Table 1, extreme temperature changes can lead to:

F. increased acidity in groundwater.
G. the creation of carbonic acid.
H. the development of salt crystals.
J. cracked and split rock.
3. A layer of fine sediment mixed with some organic material is found surrounding a
rock formation. The most likely cause for this is:
A. chemical weathering.
B. exfoliation.
C. biological weathering.
D. oxidation.
4. Based on Table 2, the factor that contributes most to the alteration of minerals and
rock is:
F. the acidity level.
G. the presence of water.
H. the availability of oxygen.
J. the mineral composition of the rock.
5. According to Table 3, a chelating agent:

A. releases elements into the soil.
B. alters the acidity of groundwater.
C. dissolves rapidly in water.
D. traps elements of the decomposing rock.
6. Rainwater is slightly acidic, and it can dissolve many minerals over time. This process
is most consistent with the mechanism of:
F. exfoliation.
G. oxidation.
H. hydrolysis.
J. chelation.
SUBMIT
(Test 127)
The Great Lakes-Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, and Superior-form the largest
freshwater system in the world. Each of the lakes tends to stratify, or form layers of
warmer and colder water, depending on the season. This is called seasonal turnover. In
winter, for example, the coldest water in the lake lies just below the surface ice. The
water gets progressively warmer at deeper levels. In spring, the sun melts the ice, and
the surface water warms. Because the surface water is still cooler than the layers
below, the water at the surface sinks to the bottom of the lake, forcing the cooler water
at the bottom of the lake to the surface. This mixing, known as spring turnover,
eliminates the temperature stratification that was established during the winter. In the
absence of this thermal layering, wind continues to mix the water to a greater depth,
bringing oxygen (O2) to the bottom of the lake and nutrients to the surface. This results
in a relatively even distribution of O2 throughout the lake. When summer arrives, the
lake again becomes stratified, with warm water at the surface, and cold water at the
bottom. A narrow zone of water undergoing rapid temperature changes separates these
layers. This zone is called the thermocline. Cool, fall temperatures cause the lake water
to mix again, until the surface begins to freeze and the winter stratification is
reestablished.
The stability of the lake's stratification depends on several factors: the lake's depth,
shape, and size, as well as the wind and both the inflow and outflow of lake water.
Lakes with a lot of water flowing into and out of them do not develop consistent and
lasting thermal stratification.
Figure 1 shows an example of lake stratification during the summer.
Figure 1 Cross-section of a lake during the summer.
1. According to Figure 1, the temperature of the water below the thermocline is:
F. higher than the temperature of the water above the thermocline.
G. equal to the temperature of the water above the thermocline.
H. lower than the temperature of the water above the thermocline.
J. equal to the average temperature of the water in the lake.
2. Based on the passage, which of the following best represents O 2 levels in one of the
Great Lakes during the spring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3. According to the passage, the thermocline is:

F. established during the winter.
G. responsible for bringing nutrients to the surface.
H. a zone of constant temperatures.
J. a zone of rapidly changing temperatures.
4. According to the passage, Lake Michigan experiences thermal stratification during:

A. the summer and the winter.
B. the summer only.
C. the spring and fall.
D. the spring only.
5. A small, inland lake, fed by a fast-flowing river was found to have very little thermal
stratification. Based on the passage, this is most likely because:
F. not enough water was flowing into the lake.
G. the inflow of water from the river was too high.
H. the lake was too shallow to support stratification.
J. too much water was flowing out of the lake into the river.
6. According to Figure 1, during the summer, as the depth of the lake increases, the
temperature of the water:
A. decreases suddenly, then gradually increases.
B. increases only.
C. remains stable.
D. decreases only.
7. Based on the passage, the stability of thermal stratification depends on all of the
following EXCEPT:
F. the depth of the lake.
G. seasonal turnover.
H. the amount of wind.
J. water inflow.

ACT Crack Geology

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

ACT Crack Geology

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Made By: Shahd A.

8. According to the results of Experiments 1 and 2, topsoil deflation will be minimized

11. What assumption in experimental design is most important to consider when

deflation than one with a higher percentage of clay.

A. Bathypelagic and mesopelagic

C. Epipelagic and thermocline

2. According to Figure 1, an oceanographic reading taken at a total pressure of 1,200

3. According to Figure 2, a sonographic measurement of temperature would be unable

5. According to Figure 1 and Table 1, if water temperature measurements were taken at

1. In a layer of seabed determined to be 250,000 years old, the scientists found

1. According to Figure 1, the temperature of Neptune remains the same as altitude

2. According to Figure 1, the temperature of Jupiter changes the most between:

4. Based on Table 2, the average temperature at Saturn's cloud

5. Which of the following statements about H and He in the atmospheres of the 3

8. Given the data in Figure 2, the future probability of an earthquake occurrence

9. According to Figure 2, the probability of a future earthquake occurrence is lowest for

2. According to Figure 2, in the soil collected in Sample 3 at a depth of 30-60 cm,

The sound source was adjusted to 60 dB to mimic the impact of a magnitude 5

Radioactive dating is a technique which utilizes the amount of radiation exhibited by a

7. According to Figure 2, as the thickness of shale decreases between Sites 2 and 3,

3. In Figure 4.1, the purpose of the heat source is to:

C. reduce inorganic compounds to organic compounds.

4. Ammonia (NH3) is an:

12. Scientists consider the outcome of the Miller-Urey experiment to be evidence:

H. Gliese 581 has planets orbiting it that are classified as water.

5. The Rocky Earth planets in Table 2 have what in common?

8. According to Figure 1, the GHG payback for Zone 3 is approximately:

8. According to Figure 1, which species of fish was most prevalent in 1954?

9. Based on the information in Figure 4, which of the following statements is true?

1. In Figure 2, the tornado is labeled with which number?

3. Which of the following does NOT precede the formation of a mesocyclone?

Figure 1: SPME device

H. Trial 1 after 5-minutes static

5. According to Figure 1, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding

1. According to Figure 2, the conductivity of aquifer groundwater in 2000 at a depth of

2. Based on Figure 2, if the pH of aquifer groundwater at a depth of 260 cm had been

in massive aquifers (underground layers of water-bearing permeable rock) in the

4. According to Scientist 2, human activity diverts lake waters, thus:

5. Do the Scientists differ in their description of the Earth's magnetic field?

3. Which of the following best summarizes Scientist 2's position?

5. Scientist 2's position would be most weakened by which of the following

7. Scientist 1's position would be most weakened by:

1. If the interpretation of Scientist 1 is correct, which of the following generalizations

4. Scientist 1 suggests that:

5. The passage argues that Scientists 1 and 2 disagree on:

Plants and bacteria contribute to biological weathering. The ultimate product of

2. According to Table 1, extreme temperature changes can lead to:

5. According to Table 3, a chelating agent:

Figure 1 Cross-section of a lake during the summer.

3. According to the passage, the thermocline is:

4. According to the passage, Lake Michigan experiences thermal stratification during:

You might also like