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For Internal Only

Modul Pelatihan
Academic English Proficiency Test (AcEPT)

Belajar Londo
Jl. Kemusuk - Sawo No. 01
Srontakan, Argomulyo, Kec. Sedayu, Bantul - Yogyakarta
0818 25 1111 @belajarlondo www.belajarlondo.com
Academic English Proficiency Test 1

 LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Part 1
Listening Comprehension

1. Number 1 – 10 test your ability to understand short statements in English. Each


statement will be spoken just once. The statements you hear will not be written
for you. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test
booklet.

1. (A) The library collection is written in South East Asian Languages.


(B) The library collection has varieties of language books and references.
(C) You can find Research and Teaching of Art History in the library collection.
(D) There are no specific areas of reading in the library collection.

2. (A) You will be fine if you return the books late.


(B) The book drop is located just outside the checkout area.
(C) You can return the books you borrowed through the book drop.
(D) Books may not be returned when the library is closed.

3. (A) The campus environment is not very supportive.


(B) You cannot rely on campus environment to improve your academic skills.
(C) You can make the most of the tools from campus to help you succeed
academically.
(D) You can seek advice about non-academic responsibilities by discussing with
your advisor.

4. (A) Your academic advisor can guide you to exceed in class and succeed
academically.
(B) Students can ask their counselor for tips in succeeding in class.
(C) Nobody can ensure your level of success in college except yourself.
(D) University professors can guarantee that students are exceeding and
succeeding in class.

5. (A) You can ask classmates for help if you are studying a Geography module.
(B) When studying a module that contains math, you might need a help
understanding it.
(C) Math modules nowadays do not contain any technical language.
(D) You can ignore the highly technical language when studying a math module.

6. (A) Research Methodology can be found in the courses offered by the department.
(B) The course offerings have three fields in one major class.
(C) Students can go to the campus library to register for Regular Course.
(D) Students are encouraged to explore the four fields offered by the department.

7. (A) Taking fresh water out of the solution is impossible.


(B) There are five processes to make sea water usable.
(C) You have to take fresh water out of the solution in order to make sea water
usable.
(D) We can make sea water usable by just taking fresh water out of the solution.
Academic English Proficiency Test 2

8. (A) Scientists are still conducting research on what makes the green appearance
of lakes.
(B) The green appearance of the water with ditches and lakes is caused by algae.
(C) The clear appearance of water and lakes is caused by algae.
(D) Nobody knows the reason that caused water with ditches and lakes appear
green.

9. (A) You can get a good result despite not rotating the lenses to an accurate angle.
(B) The second lens will absorb the light passed through the first one if the second
lens is rotated 45 degrees.
(C) Two lenses should be rotated 90 degrees.
(D) The light passed through the first lens will be absorbed by the second lens if
the second lens is rotated 90 degrees.

10. (A) You can still catch the shuttle bus at 5:30 if you’ve missed the first one.
(B) The poster section is extended until 9 in the morning.
(C) Shuttle buses will take you back to the exhibition when the poster section is
over.
(D) There are more than two shuttle buses taking you to the hotel.

B) In the part you will hear 5 short talks. After each talk, 2 questions will be asked
based on the information given. Answer the questions following the talk by
choosing A, B, C, or D which best answers the question. Remember, you are not
allowed to take notes or write in your test booklet.

11. (A) Chemical control.


(B) Key areas in crop destruction.
(C) Crop production.
(D) Substances of chemical controls.

12. (A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1

13. (A) Exploring the earth system by scientific studies.


(B) A major program offered by the Geography Department.
(C) The diversity of Modern Earth Sciences.
(D) A broad selection of courses offered by the Geology Department.

14. (A) Scientist.


(B) Undergraduate students.
(C) Earth Science professors.
(D) Graduate students.

15. (A) Rhythm in our breath.


(B) The connection between feelings and breath.
(C) Teaching of the Art of Living.
(D) A non-profit organization started in 1981.

16. (A) Deep, long, and with a beautiful rhythm.


(B) Shallow and fast.
(C) Deep and long.
(D) Shallow, fast, and without any rhythm.
Academic English Proficiency Test 3

17. (A) Plagiarism.


(B) How to avoid copying someone else’s work.
(C) Developing academic integrity.
(D) How not to cut corners in study practices.

18. (A) You might not have time to read and digest material properly.
(B) You might forget to keep track of sources you have used.
(C) You might not have the details you need to acknowledge sources in your work.
(D) You might be tempted to copy and paste someone else’s work without changing them.

19. (A) Alun-alun Lor.


(B) Javanese architecture design in Kraton.
(C) A brief description of The Palace.
(D) Building located in Kraton.
20. (A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 3

 VOCABULARY
1. For the questions 1-15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which the best
completes each blank space in the text.

Text 1
There are very good reasons why the air crew always (1)……………… passengers that it is strictly
forbidden to use cell phones in the cabin of the plane. Modern aircraft depend greatly on
radio waves (2) ……………… numerous functions, such as communication with the control
tower, navigation, and regulation of cabin atmosphere. Radio wave (3) ……………… from a cell
phone can seriously disturb these functions. You may not be aware that even when cell phone
is on standby it still (4) ……………… an electromagnetic signals that (5) ……………… the cellular
network's computer that the phone is active and can be contacted.

1. (A) remember
(B) recall
(C) remind
(D) evoke

2. (A) to perform
(B) to do
(C) to make
(D) to conduct

3. (A) intervention
(B) inception
(C) intrusion
(D) interference

4. (A) blows
(B) penetrates
(C) sends out
(D) blinks
Academic English Proficiency Test 4

5. (A) notifies
(B) announces
(C) declares
(D) broadcasts

Text 2
Communication that flows to a higher level in an organization is called upward
communication. It provides feedback on how well the organization is (6) ……………… The
subordinates use upward communication to (7) ……………… their problems and performances
to their superiors. The subordinates also use upward communication to tell how well they
have understood the downward communication. It can also be used by the employees to share
their views and ideas and to participate in the decision making (8) ……………… Upward
communication leads to a more (9) ……………… and loyal workforce in an organization because
the employees are given a chance to raise and speak dissatisfaction issues to the higher
levels. The managers get to know about the employees feelings towards their jobs, peers,
supervisor and organization in general. Managers can thus (10) ……………… take actions for
improving things.

6. (A) reacting
(B) behaving
(C) functioning
(D) continuing

7. (A) inform
(B) convey
(C) transmit
(D) announce

8. (A) activity
(B) process
(C) exercise
(D) procedure

9. (A) alert
(B) obliged
(C) forceful
(D) committed

10. (A) eventually


(B) accordingly
(C) automatically
(D) simultaneously
Academic English Proficiency Test 5

Text 3
Sugarcane juice is great for recharging energy because it is rich in carbohydrate and iron.
Green-typed tropical sugarcane is sweetest and juiciest. Being a (11) ……………… product
containing natural sugars, minerals and organic acids, sugarcane juice has many medicinal
properties. It (12) ……………… the stomach, kidneys, heart, eyes, brain and sex organs. The
juice is beneficial in fevers. In febrile disorders which cause fever, where there is a great
protein (13) ………………, liberal intake of sugarcane juice supplies the body with necessary
protein and other food (14) ……………… Sugarcane is very useful in scanty urination. It keeps
the urinary flow clear and helps the kidneys to perform their functions (15) ………………

11. (A) nutritious


(B) wonderful
(C) remarkable
(D) good

12. (A) bone hardness


(B) develop
(C) illness
(D) strengthens

13. (A) recovery


(B) loss
(C) less
(D) condition

14. (A) processing


(B) hygiene
(C) elements
(D) arrange

15. (A) necessary


(B) properly
(C) greatly
(D) form

2. Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D that best collocates (combines) with


each of the underlined words or phrases in the following sentences.

16. Although the two stars tried to keep their relationship secret, news of it soon ……
(A) shown up
(B) popped out
(C) peeped out
(D) leaked out

17. Juan …… a lot of money on travelling.


(A) pays
(B) circulates
(C) buys
(D) spends
Academic English Proficiency Test 6

18. Many people find articles about the private lives of film stars …… reading.
(A) forceful
(B) strong will
(C) obligatory
(D) compulsive

19. The driver …… serious head injuries in the crash.


(A) sustained
(B) developed
(C) contributed
(D) donated

20. George Arthur Lode, accused of murdering his wife, …… on trial today.
(A) forwarded
(B) moved
(C) went
(D) appeared

21. Many areas that …… famines in the past have protected themselves through technologies
and social development.
(A) borned
(B) caused
(C) suffered
(D) made

22. The cell has multiple mechanism …… the accuracy of DNA replication.
(A) certify
(B) create
(C) ensure
(D) examine

23. The House of Commons in the UK decided to …… a ban on smoking in closed public.
(A) impose
(B) rule out
(C) entertain
(D) fall out

24. A broker who represents the buyer and the seller in the same transaction must …… an
intermediary.
(A) accomplish
(B) pretend
(C) act as
(D) conduct
Academic English Proficiency Test 7

25. Scientific research indicates sea levels worldwide have been …… at a rate of 0.14 inches
(3.5 millimeter) per year since the early 1990s.
(A) rising
(B) growing
(C) towering
(D) increasing

26. Several software packages exist for …… computer based simulation modeling.
(A) reaching
(B) passing
(C) operating
(D) running

27. This study identified a number of challenges and possibilities in a system …… to survive
and find dircetion.
(A) resisting
(B) grappling
(C) struggling
(D) existing

28. Professor Haidar always …… his students some feedback on their essays.
(A) supplies
(B) gives
(C) donates
(D) tells

29. Undergraduate students of Universitas Gadjah Mada must …… their degree in less than 10
semesters.
(A) carry out
(B) complete
(C) fulfill
(D) finish

30. The most important aspect of modern Indonesia cuisine is that food mus be halal ……
Islamic food laws.
(A) adjusting to
(B) according to
(C) conforming to
(D) agreeing with
Academic English Proficiency Test 8

 GRAMMAR AND STUCTURE


1. Sentence Completion
Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each blank space
in the text.

1. When friends insist on ……………… expensive gifts, it makes most Americans


uncomfortable.
(A) them to accept
(B) their accepting
(C) they accepting
(D) they accept

2. Based on the premise that light was composed of color, the Impressionists came
to the conclusion ……………… not really black.
(A) which was that shadows
(B) was shadows which
(C) were shadows
(D) that shadows were

3. The Internal Revenue Service ……………… their tax forms by April 15 every year.
(A) makes all Americans file
(B) makes all Americans to file
(C) makes the filing of all Americans
(D) makes all Americans filing

4. Although one of his ships succeeded in sailing all the way back to Spain past the
Cape of Good Hope, Magellan never completed the first circumnavigation of the
world, and ……………… .
(A) most of his crew didn't too
(B) neither most of his crew did
(C) neither did most of his crew
(D) most of his crew didn't also

5. Weathering ……………… the action whereby surface rock is disintegrated or


decomposed.
(A) it is
(B) is that
(C) is
(D) being

6. ……………… a teacher in New England, Webster wrote the Dictionary of the


American Language.
(A) She was
(B) When she was
(C) When was
(D) While
Academic English Proficiency Test 9

7. Tornados, powerful, destructive wind storms, occur most often in the spring when
hot winds ……………… over flat land encounter heavy, cold air.
(A) which to rise
(B) that rising
(C) are rising
(D) rising

8. Because kaolin shrinks in firing at a different rate than ordinary clay, ………………
when creating pottery using both types of clay.
(A) special handling is required
(B) special handling required
(C) a requirement of special handling
(D) the required special handling

9. Charlie Parker, ……………… , was one of the creators of the music style called "bop".
(A) a great jazz improviser who
(B) to improvise great jazz
(C) a great jazz improviser
(D) improved great jazz

10. The symptoms of an allergy vary with the causative agent, ……………… an allergen,
with the part of the body that is affected.
(A) called which
(B) is called
(C) and which is called
(D) which is called

11. In blank verse ……………… of ten syllables, five of which are accented.
(A) line consists of each
(B) consists of each line
(C) each line consists
(D) it consists of each line

12. ……………… a bicameral, or two-chamber, parliament.


(A) Canada has
(B) Having Canada
(C) Because Canada has
(D) That Canada is having

13. The recent of a discovery novel by Harried Wilson, Publish in 1859 ……………… a
landmark in Black American Literature.
(A) has brought to light
(B) light to brought has
(C) brought to light has
(D) has light to brought
Academic English Proficiency Test 10

14. ………………, the first Black denomination in the United States.


(A) Richard Allen founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church
(B) Richard Allen, who founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church
(C) The African Methodist Episcopal Church founded by Richard Allen
(D) The foundation of the African Methodist Episcopal Church by Richard Allen

15. Nutritionists ……………… goat milk to be rich, nourishing, and readily digested.
(A) considering
(B) is considered
(C) are considered
(D) consider

2. Cloze Test
For questions 16-25, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, dan D which best
completes blank spaces.

Text 1

Spectacular swarms of flying ants (16)……………… a common summer


phenomenon. Sometimes people will observe winged ants issuing in large numbers,
pushed out by the wingless workers, from a colony established between a sidewalk
cracks or in a small mound. Other times only the winged forms will be seen
(17)……………… large numbers around certain prominent points in the landscape.
Ants are social insects. The colony is established through the initial efforts
of a mated “queen”, (18) ……………… Originally winged, after mating she sheds her
wings and the no longer used wing muscles are an (19) ……………… source of nutrients
for her during the early stages of colony development. Very, very few queens
successfully survive this period and establish a functional colony.
(20) ………………, if the colony makes it through this period it can begin to grow.
Wingless, non-sexually mature workers are reared which subsequently help expand
the colony. After several years, the colony may be well-established and then some
resources are put into rearing reproductive forms. (21) ……………… the winged ants,
some females – the potential future queens – and the majority males.
(22) ………………, usually following by 3-5 days a heavy rain, the winged
reproductive forms emerge from the colony in large swarms. Such swarming behavior
is usually synchronized by other nearby colonies so large numbers of winged ants
suddenly appear. All matings for the species take place often over the course of a
single day. The males die and mated females (23) ………………
One behavior associated with some ants during mating swarms is
“hilltopping”. This refers to their aggregation around prominent points of a
landscape where they search for mates. A large tree, chimney of a roof or even (24)
……………… might serve as “action site” for swarming winged ants. My favorite
hilltopping site was the top of the US West tower in downtown Denver, which
annually is the site for millions of harvester ants to aggregate.
Although dramatic, swarming ants (25) ……………… or risk of increased and
infestation. Those seen emerging from a colony were always there and are in the
process of leaving the colony permanently. Mated females amongst aggregating
masses similarly disperse from the area.
Academic English Proficiency Test 11

16. (A) is
(B) are
(C) was
(D) were

17. (A) aggregate in


(B) aggregating
(C) aggregating in
(D) in aggregation

18. (A) a mature sexual female


(B) a female mature sexually
(C) a sexual mature female
(D) a sexually mature female

19. (A) important


(B) importance
(C) importantly
(D) importance of

20. (A) Furthermore


(B) Albeit
(C) However
(D) Even so

21. (A) This is


(B) These are
(C) These were
(D) There are

22. (A) in periodical


(B) to be periodical
(C) in periodic
(D) periodically

23. (A) dispersed to attempt establishing a new colony


(B) disperses to attempt establishing a new colony
(C) disperses to attempt established a new colony
(D) disperse to attempt establishing a new colony

24. (A) tractor moving across the plains


(B) a tractor moving across the plains
(C) tractor moving the plains across
(D) a tractor moving the plains across
Academic English Proficiency Test 12

25. (A) do not pose no harm


(B) pose not harm
(C) pose no harm
(D) do not pose not harm

3. Error Identification
For questions 26-40, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, and D which is wrong.

26. Jan Addams had already [A] established Hull House in Chicago [B] and began [C]
her work in the Women's Suffrage Movement when she was awarded [D] the Nobel
prize for peace.

27. The flag of the original first [A] colonies may or may not have been made [B] by
Betsy Ross [C] during the Revolution [D].

28. The most common [A] form of [B] treatment it [C] is mass inoculation and
chlorination of water sources [D].

29. The [A] Pickerel Frog, native to Southern Canada and the Eastern United States,
should be avoided [B] because their [C] skin secretions are lethal to small animals
and irritating [D] to humans.

30. Scientists had previously [A] estimated that the Grand Canyon in Arizona is [B] ten
million years old; but now, by using [C] a more modern dating method, they agree
that the age is closer to six million years [D].

31. Although jogging [A] is a good way to lose weight and improve one's physical
condition, most [B] doctors recommend that the potential jogger begin in a
correct manner [C] by geting [D] a complete checkup.

32. Gunpowder, in some ways [A] the most effective [B] of all [C] the explosive
materials, were [D] a mixture of potassium nitrate, charcoal, and sulfur.

33. As the demand increases, manufacturers who previously [A] produced only a large,
luxury car, is [B] compelled to make [C] a smaller model [D] in order to compete
in the market.

34. Factoring [A] is the process of finding [B] two or more expressions whose [C]
product is equal as [D] the given expression.

35. Schizoprenia, a behavioral disorder typified [A] by a fundamental [B] break with
reality may be triggered [C] by genetic predisposition, stressful [D], drugs, or
infections.

36. Although the Red Cross accepts [A] blood from most donors, the nurses will not
leave [B] you give [C] blood if you have just had [D] a cold.
Academic English Proficiency Test 13

37. The native people of the Americas are called [A] Indians because [B] when
Columbus landed in the Bahamas in 1492 [C], he thought that he has reached [D]
the East Indies.

38. In ancient times and throughout the Middle Ages, many people [A] believed [B]
that the earth [C] is [D] motionless.

39. With his [A] father’s guidance, Mozart begun [B] playing [C] the clavier at the age
of three and composing [D] at the age of five.

40. Programs such as [A] Head Start were developed [B] to prepare [C] children from
deprived situations to enter school without to experience [D] unusual difficulties.
Academic English Proficiency Test 14

 READING COMPREHENSION

Choose the best answer to each question based on the information which is stated or
implied in the text.

Questions 1 – 10
TEXT 1

(1) The west has been supporting Israel attacks and aggression for so long
that it is now time for them to reassess the situation, boarding a ship carrying
humanitarian aid in international waters is clearly an act of aggression and a
violation of International Law.
(5) Sanction should be imposed on Israel by The International Community, let
them feel how to live without having access to food, medicine and international
support. It is not possible for any country on this globe to live when being cut
off from the rest of the world.
What can unarmed civilians especially aid workers do to harm Israel? It is
(10) clear that the Israelis are paranoid about everything. No wonder they are living
on edge, having to be alert every second of the day. Their children and
grandchildren will continue to suffer because of the stubborn aggressive stance
of their parents and grandparents.
(14) Yet, the Israelis brought that on by themselves and they have only
themselves to blame for whatever is happening to them. It is time for the Israelis
to sit down with the Palestinians and to seriously their differences.
To live in peace with their neighbors is not only positive for themselves
but also for their children and grandchildren. Violence only creates more
violence. I am starting to sympathize with Hamas and Hezbollah.
If the Israelis continue their acts of aggression, no country will sympathize
(21) with them. They will be isolated and treated like partials. To usurp Palestinians
lands and then colonize and mistreat their host is an unjustifiable and criminal
act.
The international community should take concrete measures and put a
stop to Israelis military aggression and acts of violence once and for all.

(Lynn van der Zee-Oehmke, The Jakarta Post, 30 June 2010)

1. What does the writer want to convey?


(A) She is against violence among neighboring countries.
(B) She is against Israelis attack on humanitarian ship.
(C) She is against the international community that does not stop violence.
(D) She against the idea of helping Israelis.
2. According to the writer, International Community should
(A) impose sanction on Israel.
(B) fight against Israelis.
(C) live in peace with their neighbors.
(D) stop violence in their countries.
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the writer, as a sanction to Israelis?
(A) Giving no access to food supply
(B) Giving no access to medicine
(C) Blocking any access to international support
(D) Stopping giving humanitarian aid.
Academic English Proficiency Test 15

4. It can be inferred from the text that what happened to Israelis is ...
(A) The responsibility of International Community.
(B) Israelis own fault.
(C) Palestinian's fault.
(D) The responsibility of the United Nation.

5. The world "cut off" in line 7 could best be replaced by:


(A) Treated
(B) Sliced
(C) Isolated
(D) Imposed

6. According to the text, which of the following is TRUE about Israel?


(A) It violates the community's law.
(B) It isolates neighboring countries.
(C) It imposes sanction on Palestinian.
(D) It colonizes and mistreats Palestine.

7. The word "they" in line 14 refers to...


(A) Palestinians
(B) Israelis
(C) Unarmed civilians
(D) Aid workers

8. The phrase "to usurp" in line 21 is closest in meaning to...


(A) Colonize
(B) Wrongfully take
(C) Unlawfully occupy
(D) Exploit

9. In which section of the newspaper might the above text appear?


(A) Letters to editor
(B) Classified ads
(C) Headline news
(D) World in brief

10. Where in the text does the writer mention her strong belief that the world should
put the aggression and violence to an end?
(A) line 21 – 24
(B) line 1 – 4
(C) line 7 – 8
(D) line 9 – 12

Questions 11 – 20
Text 2
(1) A marketer can rarely satisfy everyone in a market. Not everyone likes
the same soft drink auto mobile, college, and movie. Therefore, marketers start
with market segmentation. They identify and profile distinct groups of buyers
who might prefer or require varying products and marketing mixers. Market
(5) segments can be identified by examining demographics psychographics and
behavioral among buyers. The firm decides which segments presents the
greatest opportunity those whose needs the firm can meet in a superior fashion
for each chosen target market, the firm develops a market offering. The offering
Academic English Proficiency Test 16

is example, values developes his car for the target market of buyers for whom
(10) safest a costumers can buy.
Traditionally, a “market” was a physical plan where buyers and sellers
gathered to exchange goods. How marketers view the sellers as the industry and
communications (ads, direct mail, email massages) to the market : in return
(14) they recive money and information (attitudes < sales data).
A global industry is one in which the strategic positions of computitors in
major geographic or national markets are fundamentally affected by their
overall global position. Global firms both large and small plan, operate and
coourdinate their activities and exchanges on a world wide basic.
Today we can distinguish between a market plan and a market space. The
shopping in store; market space is digital, E-commerce business transactions
(21) condected one live has many advantages for both consumers and business,
including, convelence, savings, selection, personalition, and information for
example, online shopping is so convergent that 30 percent, of the order
generated by the web site of REI, a recreational keeping its stores often late or
hiring costumers service representatives. However costumers for lower prices
and is thredering intermediars such as travel agents, stockbokers, insurance
agents, and traditional hetailer. To succed in the on line market space
marketers will need to naergonize and nedefine themselves.

11. What is the author primary concerned with?


(A) Profile distinct groups of buyers.
(B) A global industry.
(C) Target market and segmentation.
(D) Distinguish between a market plan and a market space.

12. The word they in line 3 refers to ……


(A) everyone.
(B) marketers
(C) market segmentation.
(D) buyers.

13. It can be inferred from the text that the purpose of the market segmentation is
……
(A) To meet the needs of buyers.
(B) To distinguish between a market plan and a market space.
(C) To prefer or require varying products and marketing mixers.
(D) To satisfy everyone in a market.

14. The word “psychographic” in line 5 might include the following items, EXCEPT
……
(A) customers’ needs.
(B) buyers’ behavior.
(C) physical plan where buyers and sellers gathered to exchange goods.
(D) riches.

15. Which of the following is true?


(A) Everybody likes the same product.
(B) The same product doesn’t really exist.
(C) Nobody likes the same product.
(D) Everybody is the same product.
Academic English Proficiency Test 17

16. The pronoun “one” in line 15 refers to ……


(A) A global industry.
(B) Strategic positions.
(C) Money and information.
(D) Sales data.

17. The word “sparing” in line 55 is closet in meaning to ……


(A) Fighting.
(B) Saving.
(C) Closing.
(D) Selling.

18. The author gives an example of online shopping in the text to show ……
(A) Many advantages for both consumers and business, including, convelence,
savings, selection, personalition, and information.
(B) E-commerce business transaction.
(C) Online shopping is so convenient retailer.
(D) That is the most convenient ways of shopping in the digital era.

19. Where in the text does the author mentions the modern definition on the market
……
(A) First paragraph.
(B) Second paragraph.
(C) Third paragraph.
(D) Fourth paragraph.

20. Where is the text does the author mention the benefit of on-line transaction?
(A) Line 1 - 10
(B) Line 11-20
(C) 20 – 45
(D) 45 – 50

Questions 21 – 30
Text 4
(1) One of the first principles in advertising is that it is limited in both time
and space. Television and radio commercials are usually only 10 to 60 seconds
long. Print ads are usually no larger than two pages and usually much smaller.
Therefore, an advertisement must do its job quickly; it must get the consumers
(5) attention, identify the product and deliver the seller's messages in a short time
or limited space. In order to do this, advertising often breaks the rules of
grammar, images and even society.
The second basic point is that advertisements usually have two parts; copy
and illustrations. Copy refers to the word in the advertisement. These words
(10) give the sales message. Illustrations are the picture or photograph. Most ads are
a combination of copy and illustrations.
The decision about how much copy and illustration to use depends on how
the advertiser wants to present the sales messages. Understanding how
(14) advertisers make this decision is complex. First we must understand how human
being process or work with information because we do not process all kinds of
information in the same way. We process some kinds of information in order to
understand it. On the other hand, we process other kinds of information
emotionally. This means that we use feelings rather than thinking to understand
the information. As there are two kinds of mental process, there are also two
Academic English Proficiency Test 18

basic ways of presenting a sales message: intellectually and emotionally. An


(21) intellectual presentation uses ideas to get a consumer to buy a product or
service. This kind of ads has a lot of copy. The copy explains to the usage and
benefit of the product or service. Such ads usually appear in magazine or
newspaper where the consumer has unlimited time to process the information.
Ads with an intellectual presentation usually have few illustrations.
26) The second way to present a sales message is emotionally. In an emotional
presentation, the use of the product is often not the most important sales
message. Instead, the advertisement focuses on the buyer's social, psychological
or economics needs. An emotional ad may show how the product or service will
make the consumer's social life better by increasing their appeal, making them
feel more confident or making those people rich. Some of the most effective
ads today are ones that use an emotional presentation.

21. What is the best title for the text?


(A) Basic advertising technique.
(B) The most effective advertising.
(C) Way to present sales massages.
(D) Copy and illustration in advertisement.

22. According to the text which of the following is often being neglected by
advertisement in order to get its jog gone?
(A) The selling message.
(B) The limitation of time.
(C) The consumers' attention.
(D) The society's roles.

23. It is implied in the text that an intellectual presentation of ads ……


(A) Appears on television and in the radio more often.
(B) Uses as many illustration as the emotional presentation.
(C) Is less effective compared to the emotional presentation.
(D) Is for consumer who have limited time to process information.

24. The word "advertisement" can best be replaced by ……


(A) sales message
(B) commercial
(C) copy
(D) Presentation

25. It can be inferred from the text that most advertisers make ads with ……
(A) A combination of copy and illustration.
(B) Effective because they use intellectual presentation.
(C) Using more copy than illustration.
(D) A presentation of sales massager.

26. According to the text, what is the function of the copy?


(A) It presents the products or service costumers.
(B) It process the information of the product intellectually.
(C) It explains the usage and benefits of the products or service.
(D) It sells the uses and benefits of the products or service.
Academic English Proficiency Test 19

27. Which of the following is not true about emotional presentation?


(A) The buyer's social, psychological and economics needs are the focuses.
(B) The use of the product is always the most important sales massage.
(C) It shows how the product or services will make the costumers' social life
better.
(D) It works more effectively compared to intellectual presentation.

28. In the sentence "understanding how advertisers make this decision is complex"
(line 12-14), what decision is the writer of the text is referring to?
(A) How much copy and illustration should be used advertisement.
(B) How the advertiser want to present the sales massages.
(C) How human process or work with all kinds of information.
(D) How human use feelings rather than thinking to understand the information.

29. The text is most likely to be read by those who study


(A) Journalism
(B) Public communication
(C) Marketing
(D) Management

30. Where in the text are the functions of ads being explained?
(A) Line 4-6
(B) Line 24-26
(C) Line 26-29
(D) Line 29-32

Questions 31 – 35
Text 5
(1) A summery of the physical and chemical life must begin, not on the Earth,
but in the Sun; in fact, at the Suns’s very center. It is here that is to be found
the source of the energy that the Sun constantly pours put into space as light
and heat. This energy is liberated at the center of the Sun as billions upon
(5) billions of nuclei of hydrogen atoms collide with each other and fuse together
to form nuclei of helium, and in doing so, release some of the energy that is
stored in the nuclei atoms. The output of light and heat of the Sun requires that
some 600 millions of the years.
The nuclear energy is released at the Sun’s center as high-energy gamma
(10) radiation, a form of electromagnetic radiation like light and radio waves, only
of very much shorter wavelength. This gamma radiation is absorbed by atoms
inside the Sun, to be re-emitted at slightly longer wavelengths. This radiation,
in its turn, is absorbed and re-emitted. As the energy filters through the payers
(14) of the solar interior, it passes througfh the x-ray part of the spectrum,
eventually becoming light. At this stage, it has reached what we call the solar
surface, and can escape, without being absorbed further by solar atoms. A very
small fractions of the Sun’s light and heat is emitted in such directions that,
after passing unihndered through interplanetary space, it hits the Earth.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?


(A) The production of solar light and heat.
(B) The physical and chemical nature of life.
(C) The conversion of hydrogren to helium.
(D) Radiation in the x-ray part of the spectrum.
Academic English Proficiency Test 20

32. According to the passage, energy is released in the Sun when ……


(A) helium atoms bind with each other.
(B) Gamma radiation escapes from the spectrum.
(C) Radiation is absorbed by helium.
(D) Nuclei of hydrogen atoms collide.

33. The passage indicates that the in comparison to radio waves, gamma waves ……
(A) produce louder sound
(B) are less magnetic
(C) do not from in the Sun’s center
(D) nuclei of hydrogen atoms collide

34. According to the passage, through which of the following does the energy released
in the Sun pass before it becomes light?
(A) The x-ray part of the spectrum
(B) Electronic space
(C) The solar surface
(D) Interplanetary space
35. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun’s light travels ……
(A) through solid objects in space.
(B) in many different directions.
(C) more slowly than scientists previously believed.
(D) further in summer than in winter.

Questions 36 – 40
Text 6
(1) Artificial flowers are used for scientific as well as for decorative purposes.
They are made from a variety of materials, such as wax and glass, so skillfully
that they can scarcely be distinguished from natural flowers. In making such
models, painstaking and artistry are called for, as well as thorough knowledge
(5) of plant structure. The collection of glass flowers in the Botanical Museum of
Harward University is the most famous in North America and is widely known
throughout the scientific world. In all, there are several thousand models in
colored glass, the work of two artist-naturalists, Leopold Blaschka and his son
Rudolph.
(10) The intention was to have the collection represent at least one member
of each flower family native to the United States. Although it was never
completed. It contains more than seven hundred species representing 164
families of flowering plants, a group of fruits showing the effect of fungus
(14) diseases, and thousands of flower parts and magnified details. Every detail of
these is accurately reproduced in color and structure. The models are kept in
locked cases as they are too valuable and fragile for classroom use.

36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
(A) An Extensive Collection of Glass Flowers.
(B) The Lives of Leopold and Rodolph.
(C) Flowers Native to the United States.
(D) Material Used for Artificial Flowers.

37. Which of the following statements about Leopard and Rudolph Blaschka is true?
(A) They were brothers.
(B) They were artists.
(C) They were florists.
(D) They were farmers.
Academic English Proficiency Test 21

38. It can be inferred from the passage that the goal of Leopold and Rudolph was to
……
(A) created a botanical garden where only exotic United States flowers grew
(B) do a thorough study of plant structure
(C) make a copy of one member of each United States flower family
(D) Show that glass flowers are more realistic than wax flowers

39. In line 9, the word ‘it’ refers to which of the following phrases?
(A) the intention (line 8)
(B) the collection (line 8)
(C) one member (line 8)
(D) each flower family (line 9)

40. Which of the following is NOT included in the display at the Botanical Museum of
Harvard University?
(A) Models of 164 families of flowering plants.
(B) Magnified details of flower parts.
(C) Several species of native birds.
(D) A group of diseased fruits.
Academic English Proficiency Test 22

 COMPOSING SKILLS
In this section of the test, you are required to demonstrate your ability to paraphrase
or recompose sentences and to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are four parts to this section, with special direction for each part.

1. Number 1-8 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number, you are
required to choose the most appropriate paraphrased sentence closest in meaning
to the original one.

1. To achieve 300 on AcEPT test is not an easy job.


(A) An easy job is not to achieve 300 on AcEPT test.
(B) Not an easy job to achieve 300 on AcEPT test.
(C) 300 on AcEPT test is not easy job to achieve.
(D) It is not an easy job to achieve 300 on AcEPT test.

2. Alex has decided not to apply for that position. I translated his application letter
into English.
(A) Alex, who asked me to translate his application letter into English, has
decided not to apply for that position.
(B) Alex, whom I translated his application letter into English, has decided to quit
his job.
(C) Alex, whose application letter I translated into English, has decided to quit
his job.
(D) Alex, I translated his application letter into English has decided to quit his
job.

3. Canada is a very interesting place to visit. It is sometimes called the Big Apple.
(A) To be called the Big Apple, Canada is a very interesting place to visit.
(B) Canada is sometimes called the Big Apple, it was a very interesting place to
visit.
(C) Canada is a very interesting place to visit because it is sometimes called the
Big Apple.
(D) Canada, sometimes called the Big Apple, is a very interesting place to visit.

4. Although the building was comfortable, it was not chosen by our badminton club
as the place for badminton training.
(A) The building was not chosen by our badminton club as it was comfortable
(B) Now that the building was comfortable, the badminton club did not choose it
as the place for our badminton training.
(C) Despite its comfort, the building was not chosen by the badminton club as the
place for our badminton training.
(D) Despite its comfort, our badminton club did not choose the building as the
place for our badminton training.

5. Has she enrolled Professor Royyan's classes?


(A) Do you know has she enrolled Professor Royyan's classes?
(B) Do you know if she has enrolled Professor Royyan's classes?
(C) Do you know she has enrolled Professor Royyan's classes?
(D) Do you know Professor Royyan's classes she has enrolled?
Academic English Proficiency Test 23

6. Simon Santosa defeated Lee Chong Wei in the final round. All his team mates
congratulated him.
(A) Having defeated Lee Chong Wei in the final round, all his team mates
congratulated him.
(B) Defeating Lee Chong Wei in the final round, Simon Santosa Congratulated all
his team mates.
(C) Having defeated Lee Chong Wei in the final round , Simon Santosa was
congratulated by all his team mates.
(D) To be congratulated bay all his team mates, Simon Santosa defeated Lee
Chong Wei in the final round.

7. Had the shop keeper closed the store before you got there?
(A) Had you closed the store before you got there?
(B) Had you got there before the shopkeeper closed the store?
(C) Had the store been closed by the shopkeeper before you got there?
(D) Had the shopkeeper got there before you closed the store?

8. Gadjah Mada University language Center was inaugurated on Kartini's day. It has
become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian students to
study overseas.
(A) Gadjah Mada University language Center was inaugurated on Kartini's day, it
has become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian
students to study overseas.
(B) Gadjah Mada University language Center has become the most important
institution to help prepare Indonesian students to study overseas was
inaugurated on Kartini's day.
(C) Established on Kartini's day, Gadjah Mada University language Center has
become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian students to
study overseas.
(D) It has become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian
students to study overseas. It was inaugurated on Kartini's day.

2. Number 9-16 contain incorrect sentences. The incorrect part of sentence has
been identified for you. You are required to find the correct option to replace
underlined part.

9. The area of Alaska is considerable larger than that of Texas.


(A) Considerably
(B) Considering
(C) Consider
(D) To consider

10. Brain growth is partially produced by the stimulate of ganglia during what is
known as REM sleep.
(A) Stimulating
(B) Stimulation
(C) Stimulate
(D) Stimulated
Academic English Proficiency Test 24

11. Worker bees labor for the good of the hive by collecting food, caring for the
young, and to expand the nest.
(A) Expand
(B) To be expanded
(C) Expanding
(D) Expands

12. Where does a river intersects another river, a city usually is a formed.
(A) A river does
(B) Is a river
(C) A river
(D) A river is

13. Sharing corporate stocks with employees can be an effective way to promote
harmonious, efficiency, and equitability in the workplace.
(A) To be harmonious
(B) Be harmonious
(C) Harmony
(D) Harmoniously

14. Reptiles must always to avoid extremes of temperature if they are to maintain
appropriate body heat.
(A) Avoiding
(B) Avoided
(C) To be avoided
(D) Avoid

15. The construction of sundials was considered to be an acceptable part of sundial’s


educator as late as the seventeenth century.
(A) Education
(B) Educating
(C) Educated
(D) Educator

16. Jekyll Island has been one of George’s state parks in 1954.
(A) On
(B) For
(C) Since
(D) Within

3. Number 17- 34 Choose the most appropriate and correct sentence.

17. (A) When Columbus reached the New World, corn was the most widely grown
plant in the USA.
(B) Columbus reached the New World, corn was the most widely grown plant
in the USA.
(C) Columbus reached the New World corn was the most widely grown plant
in the USA.
(D) It is when Columbus reached the New World, corn was the most widely
grown plant in the USA.
Academic English Proficiency Test 25

18. (A) Cedar Rapids, is a city in east central Iowa, is the governmental seat of
Linn County.
(B) Cedar Rapids, a city in east central Iowa, the governmental seat of Linn
County.
(C) Cedar Rapids, is a city in east central Iowa, the governmental seat of Linn
County.
(D) Cedar Rapids, a city in east central Iowa, is the governmental seat of Linn
County.

19. (A) The Hopi people having occupied their desert homeland in northern
Arizona for at least one thousand years.
(B) The Hopi people have occupied their desert homeland in northern Arizona
for at least one thousand years.
(C) The Hopi people who have occupied their desert homeland in northern
Arizona for at least one thousand years.
(D) The Hopi people have been occupied their desert homeland in northern
Arizona for at least one thousand years.

20. (A) Hillary Clinton is an advocate for children’s rights has been a leading
attorney for the past twenty years.
(B) Hillary Clinton, an advocate for children’s rights, has been a leading
attorney for the past twenty years.
(C) Hillary Clinton is an advocate for children’s rights, she has been a
leading attorney for the past twenty years.
(D) Hillary Clinton, an advocate for children’s rights has been a leading
attorney for the past twenty years.

21. (A) Unless sufficient evidence of criminal behavior is presented to a grand


jury, cannot indict a person.
(B) Unless sufficient evidence of criminal behavior is presented to a grand jury,
it cannot indict a person.
(C) Unless sufficient evidence of criminal behavior is presented to a grand jury,
can it not indict a person.
(D) Unless sufficient evidence of criminal behavior it is presented to a grand
jury, it cannot indict a person.

22. (A) Because what he said is hard to believe.


(B) What he said is hard to believe.
(C) It is hard to believe because what he said.
(D) Hard to believe what he said.
Academic English Proficiency Test 26

23. (A) Water polo is a game it requires an ability to accelerate quickly in the
water and to endure long periods of swimming without rest.
(B) Water polo is a game requires an ability to accelerate quickly in the water
and to endure long periods of swimming without rest.
(C) Water polo is a game that it requires an ability to accelerate quickly in the
water and to endure long periods of swimming without rest.
(D) Water polo is a game that requires an ability to accelerate quickly in the
water and to endure long periods of swimming without rest.

24. (A) Pocahontas, the daughter of Chief Powhatan, she is reputed to have
saved John Smith just before his execution.
(B) Pocahontas, she is the daughter of Chief Powhatan, is reputed to have
saved John Smith just before his execution.
(C) Pocahontas, is the daughter of Chief Powhatan, is reputed to have saved
John Smith just before his execution.
(D) Pocahontas, the daughter of Chief Powhatan, is reputed to have saved John
Smith just before his execution.

25. (A) Into the Bermuda triangle the ship sailed never be seen again.
(B) Into the Bermuda triangle the sailing ship never be seen again.
(C) Into the Bermuda triangle to sail the ship never be seen again.
(D) Into the Bermuda triangle sailed the ship never be seen again.

26. (A) Statistic have shown that early winter it is the worst time for traffic
accidents.
(B) Statistic have shown that early winter they are the worst time for traffic
accidents.
(C) Statistic have shown that early winter is the worst time for traffic
accidents.
(D) Statistic have shown that early winter when the worst time for traffic
accidents.

27. (A) It was proposed by the new member on the committee that membership
fees are reduced.
(B) It was proposed by the new member on the committee that membership
fees will be reduced.
(C) It was proposed by the new member on the committee that membership
fees can be reduced.
(D) It was proposed by the new member on the committee that membership
fees be reduced.
Academic English Proficiency Test 27

28. (A) Known as a dandelions, common weedy plant with many rayed yellow
flowers are more popular among children than adult.
(B) Dandelions, common weedy plant with many rayed yellow flowers, are
more popular among children than adult.
(C) In summer, common weedy plant with many rayed yellow flowers are more
popular among children than adult.
(D) Which are dandelions, common plant with many rayed yellow flowers are
more popular among children than adult.

29. (A) While the intermission, the kids all bought popcorn.
(B) At the intermission, the kids all bought popcorn.
(C) During the intermission, the kids all bought popcorn.
(D) On the intermission, the kids all bought popcorn.

30. (A) Everybody congratulated the young teacher for the extreme well
organized seminar.
(B) Everybody congratulated the young teacher for the extremely well
organized seminar.
(C) Everybody congratulated the young teacher for the well organized
extremely seminar.
(D) Everybody congratulated the young teacher for the well organized extreme
seminar.

31. (A) They were happy the train arrived on time and punctually.
(B) They were happy the train arrived on time and not late at all.
(C) They were happy the train arrived on time and at the right platform.
(D) They were happy the train arrived on time and when it was due.

32. (A) We all know that speaking foreign languages is the best way to learn
them.
(B) We all know that speaking foreign languages is the best way to learn it.
(C) We all know that speaking foreign languages is the best way to learn our.
(D) We all know that speaking foreign languages is the best way to learn us.

33. (A) Drivers should look very carefully when turning onto the main street.
(B) Drivers should look very carefully they turning onto the main street.
(C) Drivers should look very carefully when turn onto the main street.
(D) Drivers should look very carefully when they turning onto the main street.

34. (A) His wife was told that he had an accident.


(B) His wife had to told that he had an accident.
(C) His wife is told that he had an accident.
(D) His wife had told that he had an accident.
Academic English Proficiency Test 28

4. Number 35-36 contain jumbled sentences. One of the sentences has been
underlined. You are required to choose the next sentence which logically follows
the underlined one.

35. The scientific study of clouds began in 1803 when Luke Howard, a British
pharmacist and amateur meteorologist, introduced the first system for classifying
clouds.

(A) It is based on the shape, distribution and altitude of clouds.


(B) Although many other procedures for cloud classification have been devised
over the years, Howard’s system is so simple and effective that it is still in
use now.
(C) Howard used their Latin names to identify them.
(D) He identified ten different categories.

36. Synonyms, words that have the same basic meaning, do not always have the same
emotional meaning.

(A) Similarly, a person wants to be slender but not skinny, and aggressive but
not pushy.
(B) Therefore, you should be careful in choosing words because many so-called
synonyms are not really synonymous at all.
(C) For example, the words stingy and frugal both mean “careful with money”.
(D) However to call a person stingy is an insult, while the word frugal has a
much more positive connotation.

5. Number 37-40 contain jumbled sentences. You are required to identify the
correct order to form a good paragraph.

37. (1) The energy that is released by a hurricane in one day exceeds the
total energy consumed by human kind throughout the world.
(2) These violent storms are often a hundred miles in diameter, and
their winds can reach velocities of 75 miles per hour or more.
(3) Hurricanes, which are also called cyclones, exert tremendous
power.
(4) Furthermore, the strong winds and heavy rainfall that accompany
them can completely destroy a small town in a couple of hours.

(A) 1 – 2 –4 –3
(B) 3 – 1 –2 –4
(C) 2 – 3 –4 –1
(D) 3 – 2 –4 –1

38. (1) This in turn contributed to an increase in the population in the


area.
(2) The Egyptian landscape has been changing for centuries.
(3) One of the most notable aspects of this transformation is the year-
round irrigation of land for agricultural purposes, rather than strict
on the annual food.
(4) One area which has undergone dramatic change over the last
7.000 years is Nile River basin.
Academic English Proficiency Test 29

(A) 2 – 3 –4 –1
(B) 2 – 3 –4 –1
(C) 1 – 2 –3 –4
(D) 1 – 2 –3 –4

39. (1) The exercise which involve physical effort such as walking,
swimming, bicycling, and jogging is known as active exercise.
(2) It includes many physical therapy techniques.
(3) Physical training of the human body to improve the way it
functions is known as exercise.
(4) On the other hand, the exercise which involves a machine or the
action of other people is called passive exercise.
(5) The exercise can be categorized as either active or passive.

(A) 3 – 2 –1 –4 - 5
(B) 3 – 5 –2 –4 - 1
(C) 3 – 1 –4 –2 - 5
(D) 3 – 5 –1 –4 - 2

40. (1) As it lays the eggs, it may or may not fertilize them with sperm
from its sperm sac.
(2) The female eggs develop into fertile queens, sterile workers, or
soldiers.
(3) Most of the ants in a colony are workers.
(4) A queen ant digs a hole where it lays its eggs and waits until the
first ants emerge.
(5) Fertilized eggs result in females, while unfertilized eggs produce
males.

(A) 4 – 1 –5 –2 - 3
(B) 4 – 3 –5 –2 - 1
(C) 4 – 5 –2 –3 – 1
(D) 4 – 2 –1 –5 – 3

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