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Seat No -

Total number of questions : 60

PWD1000530_T1 BASIC ELECTRONICS ENGG.


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. An amplifier in which the output voltage is equal to average of input


voltage?

A : Summing amplifier

B : Weighting amplifier

C : Scaling amplifier

D : Averaging amplifier

Q.no 2. Amplifiers and oscillators using BJT, operate in ...... Region

A : Inverted mode

B : Active

C : Cut off

D : Saturation
Q.no 3. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is __________

A : four

B : three

C : one

D : two

Q.no 4. The output of unfiltered half wave or fullwave rectifier is

A : smoth DC voltage

B : steady DC voltage

C : pulsating Dc voltage

D : AC voltage

Q.no 5. The operating point is also called the _______

A : cut off point

B : quiescent point

C : saturation point

D : center point

Q.no 6. Collector of P-N-P transistor is_____

A : Lightly dopped

B : Heavily dopped

C : Moderately dopped

D : Not dopped

Q.no 7. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

A : Negative

B : Positive

C : Zero

D : None of these
Q.no 8. What is one important thing transistors do?

A : Amplify weak signals

B : Rectify line voltage

C : Regulate voltage

D : Emit light

Q.no 9. In forward biased condition, the approximate voltage drop across LED is

A : 0.3 V

B : 0.7 V

C : 6.8V

D : 2.0 V

Q.no 10. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A : power

B : voltage

C : current

D : resistance

Q.no 11. The Op-amp can amplify

A : a.c. signals only

B : d.c. signals only

C : both a.c. and d.c. signals

D : neither d.c. nor a.c. signals

Q.no 12. The only way to close an SCR is with:

A : a trigger input applied to the gate

B : forward breakover voltage

C : low-current dropout

D : valley voltage
Q.no 13. Piezo-electricity is ______________.

A : sound electricity

B : pressure electricity

C : temperature electricity

D : photo electricity

Q.no 14. With negative feedback, the returning signal

A : is proportional to the output current

B : is proportional to the differential voltage gain

C : opposes the input signal

D : aids the input signal

Q.no 15. Maximum rectification efficiency for Bridge Rectifier is ________

A : 0.81

B : 0.818

C : 0.84

D : 0.812

Q.no 16. UTP is popular in LAN technology due to its _______.

A : flexibility

B : low cost

C : ease of installation

D : all of the above

Q.no 17. RTDs are typically connected with other fixed resistors.

A : in a pi configuration

B : in a bridge configuration

C : and variable resistors

D : and capacitors in a filter-type circuit


Q.no 18. If the input to a comparator is a sine wave, the output is a:

A : ramp voltage

B : sine wave

C : rectangular wave

D : sawtooth wave

Q.no 19. Zener diode is used as a

A : an amplifier

B : an rectifier

C : a voltage regulator

D : a multivibrator

Q.no 20. All of the following are basic op-amp input modes of operation EXCEPT

A : inverting mode

B : common-mode

C : double-ended

D : single-ended

Q.no 21. If the PIV rating of the DIODE exceeded then

A : the diode conducts smothly

B : the diode conducts poorly

C : the diode is distroyed

D : the diode behaves like a zener diode

Q.no 22. In a transistor amplifier circuit, VCE = VCB + ___

A : VBE

B : 2 VBE

C : 1.5 VBE

D : 3 VBE
Q.no 23. A _______ is a device that prevents the signal at the end of a bus backbone
from echoing back on to the line

A : repeater

B : horn antenna

C : T-connector

D : terminator

Q.no 24. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of
__________

A : electron current in the emitter

B : electron current in the collector

C : hole current in the emitter

D : donor ion current

Q.no 25. The ratio between the modulating signal voltage and the carrier voltage
is called?

A : Amplitude modulation

B : Modulation frequency

C : Modulation index

D : Ratio of modulation

Q.no 26. A TRIAC__________.

A : can trigger only on positive gate voltages

B : can trigger only on negative gate voltages

C : cannot be triggered with gate voltages

D : can be triggered by either a positive or a negative gate voltage

Q.no 27. The common mode rejection ratio is

A : Very low

B : As high as possible

C : Equal to the voltage gain


D : Equal to the common mode voltage gain

Q.no 28. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 29. One that clips the positive part of the voltage is known as

A : Clipper

B : Clamper

C : Voltage regulator

D : multimeter

Q.no 30. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:

A : beta

B : theta

C : alpha

D : omega

Q.no 31. The AM spectrum consists of

A : Carrier frequency

B : Upper side band frequency

C : Lower side band frequency

D : All of the above

Q.no 32. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called

A : beta

B : alpha

C : omega
D : theta

Q.no 33. The dc current through each diode in a bridge rectifier equals

A : one-fourth the dc load current

B : the load current

C : twice the dc load current

D : half the dc load current

Q.no 34. The arrow in the schematic symbol of a diode points to

A : the n-type material, which is called the cathode

B : the p-type material, which is called the anode

C : the p-type material, which is called the cathode

D : the n-type material, which is called the anode

Q.no 35. Digitil circuit can be made by the repeated use of -----

A : OR gate

B : NAND Gate

C : NOT Gate

D : None of these

Q.no 36. The MSI chip 7474 is

A : Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (TTL).

B : Dual edge triggered D flip-flop (CMOS).

C : Dual edge triggered D flip-flop (TTL).

D : Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (CMOS).

Q.no 37. Function of transducer is to convert

A : Electrical signal into non electrical quantity

B : Non electrical quantity into electrical signal

C : Electrical signal into mechanical quantity


D : All of these

Q.no 38. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by

A : collector voltage

B : emitter voltage

C : base current

D : collector resistance

Q.no 39. To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward


biased with reverse bias applied to which junction?

A : collector-emitter

B : base-collector

C : base-emitter

D : collector-base

Q.no 40. When matching polarity connections have been made and the potential
difference (PD) is above 0.7 V, the diode is considered to be:

A : not working

B : an open switch

C : reverse biased

D : forward biased

Q.no 41. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the
input signals is considered to be which type of amplifier?

A : common-mode

B : darlington

C : differential

D : operational

Q.no 42. Which statement is true for N-P-N transistor

A : Depletion region across B-E and C-B junction is same

B : Depletion region across B-E junction is larger than C-B junction


C : Depletion region across C-B junction is larger than B-E junction.

D : There is no depletion region in N-P-N transistor

Q.no 43. If a 2 mV signal produces a 2 V output, what is the voltage gain?

A : 001

B : 004

C : 100

D : 1000

Q.no 44. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ........

A:9

B : 0.9

C : 900

D : 90

Q.no 45. The ideal diode resistance in forward biased mode is

A : Infinite

B : Zero

C : 50 – 100 Ω

D : 100- 200 Ω

Q.no 46. In an SR latch built from NOR gates, which condition is not allowed

A : S=0, R=0

B : S=0, R=1

C : S=1, R=0

D : S=1, R=1

Q.no 47. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is........ that of the
equivalent Centre tap rectifier.

A : one-half

B : the same as
C : twice

D : four times

Q.no 48. The ideal diode resistance in reversed biased mode is

A : Zero

B : Infinite

C : few MΩ

D : few GΩ

Q.no 49. In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has

A : J = 0, K = 0.

B : J = 1, K = 1.

C : J = 0, K = 1.

D : J = 1, K = 0.

Q.no 50. Brightness of LED is controlled by

A : Forward voltage

B : Doping Level

C : Reversed voltage

D : Forward current

Q.no 51. PIV in Bridge Rectifier is given as ____________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 52. Transistor biasing is done to keep_________in the circuit.

A : proper direct current

B : proper alternating current


C : the base current small

D : collector current small

Q.no 53. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA, then IE is _______

A : 100 mA

B : 100.1 mA

C : 110 mA

D : 110.1 mA

Q.no 54. Which of the following memory device stores information such as
subscriber’s identification number in GSM?

A : Register

B : Flip flop

C : SIM

D : SMS

Q.no 55. The TRIAC can be represented by

A : two SCRs in anti-parallel

B : two SCRs in parallel

C : two diodes in anti-parallel

D : two diodes in parallel

Q.no 56. Convert the binary number (1111000011110000) to hexadecimal number

A : 1010

B : F0F0

C : 7070

D : 5050

Q.no 57. The static V-I curve for the SCR is plotted for

A : Ia (anode current) vs Ig (gate current), Va (anode – cathode voltage) as a parameter

B : Ia vs Va with Ig as a parameter
C : Va vs Ig with Ia as a parameter

D : Ig vs Vg with Ia as a parameter

Q.no 58. Strain gauge is a

A : Active device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance

B : Passive device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

C : Passive device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance

D : Active device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

Q.no 59. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the
current gain will move the Q point:

A : off the load line

B : no where

C : up

D : down

Q.no 60. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is
……..

A : 700 nA

B : 99.3 μA

C : 49.7 μA

D : none of these

Q.no 1. A pn junction that radiates energy as light instead of as heat is called a

A : LED

B : photo-diode

C : photocell

D : Zener diode

Q.no 2. An output that is proportional to the addition of two or more inputs is


from which type of amplifier?

A : differentiator
B : difference

C : summing

D : analog subtractor

Q.no 3. For JK flipflop J = 0, K=1, the output after clock pulse will be

A:1

B : no change.

C:0

D : high impedance.

Q.no 4. Filters in power supplies are used to_________

A : Reduce ripple voltage

B : opposes the ripple voltage

C : increases the output voltage by increasing ripple voltage

D : reduce output voltage by decreasing noise voltage

Q.no 5. Rectification is the process of_________

A : DC to AC conversion

B : AC to AC conversion

C : AC to DC conversion

D : DC to AC to DC conversion

Q.no 6. How many bits are required to store one BCD digit ?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 7. Complement of XNOR and OR is ________ and ________ respectively.

A : NOR, XNOR
B : OR, NOR

C : XOR, NOR

D : XOR, OR

Q.no 8. The device which changes from serial data to parallel data is

A : COUNTER

B : MULTIPLEXER

C : DEMULTIPLEXER

D : FLIP-FLOP

Q.no 9. Maximum rectification efficiency for Half Wave Rectifier is ________

A : 0.4

B : 0.6

C : 0.45

D : 0.48

Q.no 10. In an open-loop op-amp circuit, whenever the inverting input (–) is
negative relative to the noninverting input (+), the output will:

A : swing negative

B : close the loop

C : be balanced

D : swing positive

Q.no 11. The use of negative feedback

A : reduces the voltage gain of an Op-amp

B : makes the Op-amp oscillate

C : makes linear operation possible

D : Both A and B

Q.no 12. Which circuit is used for obtaining desired output waveform in
operational amplifier?
A : Clipper

B : Clamper

C : Peak amplifier

D : Sample and hold

Q.no 13. _______ cable carries signals of higher frequency ranges than _______ cable.

A : Twisted-pair; coaxial

B : Twisted-pair; fiber-optic

C : Coaxial; twisted-pair

D : none of the above

Q.no 14. What are the possible forms of energy transmission that can be
undertaken by a transducer ?

A :  Acoustical

B : Electrical

C : Mechanical

D : All of the above

Q.no 15. Which of the following quantities cannot be measured by a load cell?

A : Pressure

B : Temperature

C : Level

D : All of the above

Q.no 16. The power needs of electrical transducers is ________

A : maximum

B : minimum

C : zero

D : infinite

Q.no 17. Load cells are used for measuring ______________.


A :  Large weights only

B : Small weights only

C : Weights moving in high speed

D :  Slowly moving weights

Q.no 18. Over modulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is ………….
carrier amplitude.

A : Equal to

B : Greater than

C : Less than

D : None of the above

Q.no 19. Consider the following statements:A clamper circuit: 1. adds or subtracts
a dc voltage to a waveform. 2. does not change the waveform. 3. amplifies the
waveform. Which are correct?

A : 1, 2

B : 1, 3

C : 1, 2, 3

D : 2, 3

Q.no 20. In a BJT

A : The base region is sandwiched between emitter and collector

B : The collector is sandwiched between base and emitter

C : The emitter region is sandwiched between base and collector

D : The drain region is sandwiched between emitter and collector

Q.no 21. The logic 0 level of a CMOS logic device is approximately

A : 1.2 volts

B : 0.4 volts

C : 5 volts

D : 0 volts
Q.no 22. What is PSRR value of an ideal op-amp?

A : Zero

B : Unity

C : Infinite

D : Unpredictable

Q.no 23. Which TTL logic gate is used for wired


ANDing

A : Open collector output

B : Totem Pole

C : Tri state output

D : ECL gates

Q.no 24. When an input signal A=01001


is applied to a NOT gate serially, its output signal is

A : 111

B : 10110

C : 10101

D : 11001

Q.no 25. Advantage of LVDT

A : Very fine resolution

B : High accuracy and very good stabilty

C : High sensitivity

D : All of the above

Q.no 26. In LED, when electron meets hole, it falls into a lower energy level and
releases energy in the form of ____

A : EM wave

B : Visible ions

C : Neutron
D : Photon

Q.no 27. unity gain amplifier is a

A : difference amplifier

B : comparator

C : single ended

D : voltage follower

Q.no 28. The magnitude of closed-loop voltage gain (Acl) of an inverting amplifier
equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain Aol

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 29. In an N-P-N transistor, _________are the minority carriers.

A : free electrons

B : holes

C : donor ions

D : acceptor ions

Q.no 30. The major advantage of FM over AM is ……………

A :     Reception is less noisy

B : Higher carrier frequency

C :      Smaller bandwidth

D :       Small frequency deviation

Q.no 31. One of the benefits of encasing a twisted-pair cable in a metal foil
covering is the _______.

A : reduction of crosstalk

B : increase of crosstalk
C : increase in flexibility

D : decrease in costs

Q.no 32. A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because

A : It is used by everybody

B : Any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone

C : All the minization techniques are applicable for optimum NAND gate realization

D : Many digital computers use NAND gates.

Q.no 33. The NAND gate output will be low if the two inputs

A : oo

B : o1

C : 10

D : 11

Q.no 34. A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have

A : 5 states

B : 10
states

C : 32 state

D : Infinite states.

Q.no 35. What device is similar to an RTD but has a negative temperature
coefficient?

A : Strain gauge

B : Thermistor

C : Negative-type RTD

D : Thermocouple

Q.no 36. In N-P-N transistor______________

A : collector area is greater than emitter area


B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 37. When a light beam is reflected back into the medium, the angle of _______
equals the angle of _______.

A : incidence, reflection

B : incidence,refraction

C : reflection; refraction

D : refraction; recursion

Q.no 38. Zener diode is generally operated in its _________

A : Only in reverse breakdown region

B : Reverse breakdown region as well as forward biased region

C : Sometimes in forward biased region

D : Sometimes in reverse breakdown region

Q.no 39. In P-N-P transistor________

A : emitter area is less than collector area

B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is slightly greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 40. A single and fundamental form of load cell which is basically used as a
transducer in the operation of a weighing machine undergoes the conversion of
___________.

A :  Force into an electrical signal

B : Pressure into an electrical signal

C : Acceleration into an electrical signal

D : Velocity into an electrical signal


Q.no 41. What is the percentage of modulation if the modulating signal is of 7.5V
and carrier is of 9V?

A : 100

B : 91

C : 83.33

D:0

Q.no 42. An AM broadcast station transmits modulating frequencies up to 6 kHz.


If the AM station is transmitting on a frequency of 894 kHz, the values for
maximum and minimum upper and lower sidebands and the total bandwidth
occupied by the AM station are:

A : 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 12 KHz

B : 894 KHz, 884 KHz, 12 KHz

C : 894 KHz, 888 KHz, 6 KHz

D : 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 6 KHz

Q.no 43. Pick out the CORRECT Statements

A : In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same value irrespective
of its position

B : The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal to the number of
symbols in the system

C : It is not always possible to find the exact binary

D : Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of FOUR binary symbols

Q.no 44. Zener breakdown voltage range can be controlled using _________

A : By controlling reverse voltage across PN junction

B : By controlling reverse current across PN junction

C : By controlling dopping level of P-N junction

D : By controlling reverse voltage as well as reverse current across PN junction

Q.no 45. Im = Vm/(Rs + 2Rf + RL) is given for ___________

A : Half Wave Rectifier


B : Full Wave Rectifier

C : Bridge Rectifier

D : Half Wave Rectifier with LC filter

Q.no 46. In TV transmission, picture signal is ……………… modulated.

A : Frequency

B : Phase

C : Amplitude

D : None of the above

Q.no 47. A voltage V = 300 cos 100 t is applied to a half wave rectifier with load
resistance equal to 5 kΩ, the rectifier may be represented by an ideal diode in
series with a resistance of 1 kΩ, the value of Im I given as __

A : 500 mA

B : 50 mA

C : 56.56 mA

D : 52 mA

Q.no 48. How many pins does temperature sensor have?

A : 5 legs

B : 2 legs

C : 4 legs

D : 3 legs

Q.no 49. PIV in Full Wave Rectifier

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 50. The output of a JK flipflop with asynchronous preset and clear inputs is
‘1’. The output can be changed to ‘0’ with one of the following conditions.
A : By applying J = 0, K = 0 and
using a clock.

B : By applying J = 1, K = 0 and using the


clock.

C : By applying J = 1, K = 1 and using the


clock.

D : By applying a synchronous preset input.

Q.no 51. If a noninverting amplifier has an RIN of 1000 ohms and an RFB of 2.5
kilohms, what is the RIN voltage when 1.42 mV is applied to the correct input?

A : 3.5 mV

B : ground

C : 1.42 mV

D : 0.56 mV

Q.no 52. The decimal equivalent of Binary number 11010 is

A : 26

B : 36

C : 16.   

D : 23

Q.no 53. If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7
V applied to the noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?

A : 7.82 V

B : saturation

C : cutoff

D : 9.52 V

Q.no 54. At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband is ………………… of that
of carrier

A :    50%

B : 0.6
C : 0.4

D : 0.25

Q.no 55. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 368 is

A : 1111E8

B : 1.1011E8

C : 1.1101E8

D : 1.111E8

Q.no 56. In forward biased condition, P-N junction causes barrier potential to
____________

A : Increase

B : remain constant

C : Decrease

D : Increase rapidly

Q.no 57. PIV in Half Wave Rectifier is given as ___________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 58. A carrier of 10v peak and frequency 100khz is amplitude modulated by a
sine wave of 4V peak and frequency 1000Hz.Determine the modulation index for
modulated wave, frequencies of sideband components and bandwidth.

A : 0.4,101khz,99khz,2khz

B : 0.5,100khz,97khz,1.5khz

C : 0.3,100khz,96khz,1.5khz

D : 0.1,110khz,97khz,1.5khz

Q.no 59. The diode schematic arrow points to the

A : positive axial lead


B : trivalent-doped material

C : anode lead

D : cathode lead

Q.no 60. If an op-amp has one input grounded and the other input has a signal
feed to it, then it is operating as

A : Common-mode

B : Single-ended

C : Double-ended

D : Noninverting mode
Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD1000530_T1 BASIC ELECTRONICS ENGG.


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Ripple factor for Full Wave Rectifier is

A : 0.45

B : 0.48

C : 0.52

D : 0.82

Q.no 2. In which amplifier the output voltage is equal to the negative sum of all
the inputs?

A : Averaging amplifier

B : Summing amplifier

C : Scaling amplifier

D : All of the mentioned


Q.no 3. _______ has an inner conductor and an outer conductor separated by
insulation.

A : twisted-pair cable

B : fiber-optic cable

C : coaxial cable

D : all of the above

Q.no 4. Electrical transducers generate ________

A : biological signals

B : chemical signals

C : physical signals

D : electrical signals

Q.no 5. 1 Kilo bits are equal to

A : 1000 bits

B : 1024 bits

C : 1012 bits

D : 1008 bits

Q.no 6. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor flow

A : Out of the base lead

B : Into the collector

C : Into the emitter

D : Into the base supply

Q.no 7. An ideal amplifier should have:

A : high input current

B : zero offset

C : high output impedance

D : moderate gain
Q.no 8. Collector of P-N-P transistor is_____

A : Lightly dopped

B : Heavily dopped

C : Moderately dopped

D : Not dopped

Q.no 9. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between


mobile station and MSC?

A : BSS

B : NSS

C : OSS

D : BSC

Q.no 10. Ripple factor for Half Wave Rectifier is

A : 1.21

B : 1.12

C : 1.32

D : 1.42

Q.no 11. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A : power

B : voltage

C : current

D : resistance

Q.no 12. Rectification is the process of_________

A : DC to AC conversion

B : AC to AC conversion

C : AC to DC conversion

D : DC to AC to DC conversion
Q.no 13. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?

A : Cosmic rays

B : Gamma rays

C : β rays

D : X rays

Q.no 14. Base of N-P-N transistor is_____

A : Lightly dopped

B : Heavily dopped

C : Moderately dopped

D : Not dopped

Q.no 15. With negative feedback, the returning signal

A : is proportional to the output current

B : is proportional to the differential voltage gain

C : opposes the input signal

D : aids the input signal

Q.no 16. The Op-amp can amplify

A : a.c. signals only

B : d.c. signals only

C : both a.c. and d.c. signals

D : neither d.c. nor a.c. signals

Q.no 17. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the
current gain will move the Q point

A : down

B : off the load line

C : up

D : nowhere
Q.no 18. Over modulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is ………….
carrier amplitude.

A : Equal to

B : Greater than

C : Less than

D : None of the above

Q.no 19. _______ cable is not susceptible to most noise that is electrical in nature.

A : Twisted-pair

B : Shielded twisted-pair

C : Coaxial

D : Fiber-optic

Q.no 20. In a PLL, to obtain lock, the signal frequency must:

A : come within the lock range

B : be less than the capture frequency

C : come within the capture range

D : be greater than the capture frequency

Q.no 21. Which TTL logic gate is used for wired


ANDing

A : Open collector output

B : Totem Pole

C : Tri state output

D : ECL gates

Q.no 22. A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because

A : It is used by everybody

B : Any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone

C : All the minization techniques are applicable for optimum NAND gate realization
D : Many digital computers use NAND gates.

Q.no 23. In a transistor, ____

A : IC = IE + IB

B : IB = IC + IE

C : IE = IC − IB

D : IE = IC + IB

Q.no 24. Modulating wave can also be known as ______.

A : Total wave

B : Measuring wave

C : Super wave

D : Incubation wave

Q.no 25. The major advantage of FM over AM is ……………

A :     Reception is less noisy

B : Higher carrier frequency

C :      Smaller bandwidth

D :       Small frequency deviation

Q.no 26. The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. the gate is
either

A : a NAND or an EX-OR

B : an OR or an EX-NOR

C : an
AND or an EX-OR

D : a NOR or an EX-NOR

Q.no 27. Why is heat produced in a diode?

A : due to current passing through the diode

B : due to voltage across the diode


C : due to the power rating of the diode

D : due to the PN junction of the diode

Q.no 28. A diac is simply ………………

A : A single junction device

B :    A three junction device

C : A triac without gate terminal

D :   None of the above

Q.no 29. For refraction to occur, the _______ must be of a lower density than the
_______

A :             cladding,core

B :       core,cladding

C :          cladding; jacket

D :        core; Teflon coating

Q.no 30. The output of a Schmitt trigger is a

A : triangle waveform.

B : pulse waveform.

C : sawtooth waveform.

D : sinusoidal waveform.

Q.no 31. Which factor makes twisted-pair cable superior to fiber-optic cable?

A :          signal attenuation

B :         noise resistance

C :          bandwidth range

D :        cost

Q.no 32. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called

A : beta

B : alpha
C : omega

D : theta

Q.no 33. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is
…….

A : 90 V/μs

B : 0.67 V/μs

C : 1.5 V/μs

D : none of these

Q.no 34. When an input of NAND gate is combined ,the gate formed is

A : OR gate

B : AND Gate

C : NOT Gate

D : None of these

Q.no 35. A common-mode signal is applied to

A : The non-inverting input

B : The inverting input

C : Both inputs

D : The top of the tail resistor

Q.no 36. When an input signal A=01001


is applied to a NOT gate serially, its output signal is

A : 111

B : 10110

C : 10101

D : 11001

Q.no 37. In a P-N-P transistor, the current carriers are _______

A : acceptor ions
B : donor ions

C : free electrons

D : holes

Q.no 38. Which logic family provide minimum power dissipation

A : TTL

B : CMOS

C : ECL

D : JFET

Q.no 39. A TRIAC__________.

A : can trigger only on positive gate voltages

B : can trigger only on negative gate voltages

C : cannot be triggered with gate voltages

D : can be triggered by either a positive or a negative gate voltage

Q.no 40. _________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

A : BSS

B : NSS

C : OSS

D : MSC

Q.no 41. A differential amplifier has a common-mode gain of 0.2 and a common-
mode rejection ratio of 3250. What would the output voltage be if the single-ended
input voltage was 7 mV rms?

A : 1.4 mV rms

B : 650 mV rms

C : 4.55 V rms

D : 0.455 V rms

Q.no 42. A triac is equivalent to two SCRs …………..


A : In parallel

B : In series

C : In inverse-parallel

D : None of the above

Q.no 43. In a differential amplifier, the configuration is said to be an 'unbalanced


output', if ________

A : Output voltage is measured between two collectors

B : Output is measured with respect to ground

C : Two input signals are used

D : All of the above

Q.no 44. The diode schematic arrow points to the

A : positive axial lead

B : trivalent-doped material

C : anode lead

D : cathode lead

Q.no 45. With full-wave rectification, current through the load resistor must be

A : in the same direction

B : from the reverse biased diode

C : to the external load

D : in opposite directions

Q.no 46. What is the percentage of modulation if the modulating signal is of 7.5V
and carrier is of 9V?

A : 100

B : 91

C : 83.33

D:0
Q.no 47. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A : voltage

B : current

C : resistance

D : power

Q.no 48. PIV in Full Wave Rectifier

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 49. Which among the following is/are included in DC characteristics of op-
amp?

A : Input bias current

B : Thermal drift

C : Both a and b

D : None of the above

Q.no 50. If a noninverting amplifier has an RIN of 1000 ohms and an RFB of 2.5
kilohms, what is the RIN voltage when 1.42 mV is applied to the correct input?

A : 3.5 mV

B : ground

C : 1.42 mV

D : 0.56 mV

Q.no 51. TRIAC is a:

A : Unidirectional Switch

B : Bidirectional switch

C : Four-directional
D : None of the above

Q.no 52. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the
input signals is considered to be which type of amplifier?

A : common-mode

B : darlington

C : differential

D : operational

Q.no 53. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 368 is

A : 1111E8

B : 1.1011E8

C : 1.1101E8

D : 1.111E8

Q.no 54. In a transistor, the base current is about ________ of emitter current.

A : 0.25

B : 0.2

C : 0.35

D : 05

Q.no 55. In TV transmission, picture signal is ……………… modulated.

A : Frequency

B : Phase

C : Amplitude

D : None of the above

Q.no 56. An inverting amplifier with gain 1 have different input voltage: 1.2v,3.2v
and 4.2v. Find the output voltage?

A : 4.2v

B : 8.6v
C : -4.2v

D : -8.6v

Q.no 57. In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has

A : J = 0, K = 0.

B : J = 1, K = 1.

C : J = 0, K = 1.

D : J = 1, K = 0.

Q.no 58. Which statement is true for N-P-N transistor

A : Depletion region across B-E and C-B junction is same

B : Depletion region across B-E junction is larger than C-B junction

C : Depletion region across C-B junction is larger than B-E junction.

D : There is no depletion region in N-P-N transistor

Q.no 59. Im = Vm/(Rs + Rf + RL) is given for ___________

A : Half Wave Rectifier

B : Bridge Rectifier

C : Bridge Rectifier with LC filter

D : Bridge Rectifier with π filter

Q.no 60. Which of the following modulating signal voltage would cause over-
modulation on a carrier voltage of 10v?

A : 9.5

B : 9.99

C : 10

D : 12

Q.no 1. What is the difference between common-mode and differential-mode


input signals?

A : phase relationship
B : voltage

C : current

D : apparent power

Q.no 2. gain of common emitter amplifier is determine by the ratio AC output


voltage to

A : collector voltage

B : emitter voltage

C : base voltage

D : drain voltage

Q.no 3. Amplifiers and oscillators using BJT, operate in ...... Region

A : Inverted mode

B : Active

C : Cut off

D : Saturation

Q.no 4. How many entries will be in the truth table of a 3 input NAND gate ?

A:3

B:6

C:8

D:9

Q.no 5. Once a DIAC is conducting, the only way to turn it off is with:

A : a positive gate voltage

B : a negative gate voltage

C : low-current dropout

D : breakover

Q.no 6. In a JK Flip-Flop, toggle means

A : Set Q = 1 and Q = 0.
B : Set Q = 0 and Q = 1.

C : Change the output to the opposite state.

D : No change in output.

Q.no 7.  Which among the following wave is not employed in case of remote
sensing?

A : X-ray

B : Visible ray

C : Thermal IR

D : Radio waves

Q.no 8. A negative clipper removes the ___________ half-cycles of the input voltage.

A : Negative

B : Positive

C : Both positive and negative

D : No part of

Q.no 9. Number of diodes used in Half Wave Rectifier with LC filter is_____

A : One

B : Two

C : Four

D : Six

Q.no 10. RTDs are typically connected with other fixed resistors.

A : in a pi configuration

B : in a bridge configuration

C : and variable resistors

D : and capacitors in a filter-type circuit

Q.no 11. Piezo-electricity is ______________.

A : sound electricity
B : pressure electricity

C : temperature electricity

D : photo electricity

Q.no 12. The most popular connector used with _______ cable is the BNC.

A : twisted-pair

B : shielded twisted-pair

C : coaxial

D : fiber-optic

Q.no 13. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is __________

A : four

B : three

C : one

D : two

Q.no 14. When an input 1 ia applied to NOT gate ,the output is

A:0

B:1

C : Either 0 & 1

D : None of the above

Q.no 15. How many flip flops are required to construct a decade counter

A : 10

B:3

C:4

D:2

Q.no 16. In forward biased condition, the approximate voltage drop across LED is

A : 0.3 V
B : 0.7 V

C : 6.8V

D : 2.0 V

Q.no 17. The linear variable differential transformer transducer is

A : Inductive transducer

B : Non-inductive transducer

C : Capacitive transducer

D : Resistive transducer

Q.no 18. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

A : Negative

B : Positive

C : Zero

D : None of these

Q.no 19. Karnaugh map is used for the purpose


of

A : Reducing the electronic circuits used.

B : To map the given Boolean logic function.

C : To minimize the terms in a Boolean expression.

D : To maximize the terms of a given a Boolean expression.

Q.no 20. The device which changes from serial data to parallel data is

A : COUNTER

B : MULTIPLEXER

C : DEMULTIPLEXER

D : FLIP-FLOP

Q.no 21. With zero volts on both inputs, an OP-amp ideally should have an output
………..
A : equal to the positive supply voltage

B : equal to the negative supply voltage

C : equal to zero

D : equal to CMRR

Q.no 22. A TRIAC can be used as:

A : Switch

B : Lamp dimmer

C : Flasher circuit

D : All of the above

Q.no 23. PSSR is an op-amp parameter which defines the degree of dependence on
variations in _______.

A : temperature

B : pressure

C : power supply voltage

D : slew rate

Q.no 24. In N-P-N transistor______________

A : collector area is greater than emitter area

B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 25. Average load current (ILdc) for Half Wave Rectifier is _______

A : Im/π

B : 2Im/π

C : Im/2π

D : 2Im

Q.no 26. The output impedance of a transistor is _______


A : high

B : zero

C : low

D : very low

Q.no 27. A _______ is a device that prevents the signal at the end of a bus backbone
from echoing back on to the line

A : repeater

B : horn antenna

C : T-connector

D : terminator

Q.no 28. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of
__________

A : electron current in the emitter

B : electron current in the collector

C : hole current in the emitter

D : donor ion current

Q.no 29. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in medicine to


destroy cancer cells?

A : IR-rays

B : Visible rays

C : Gamma rays

D : Ultraviolet rays

Q.no 30. A full adder logic circuit will have

A : Two inputs and one output.

B : Three inputs and three outputs.

C : Two inputs and two outputs.

D : Three inputs and two outputs.


Q.no 31. One of the benefits of encasing a twisted-pair cable in a metal foil
covering is the _______.

A : reduction of crosstalk

B : increase of crosstalk

C : increase in flexibility

D : decrease in costs

Q.no 32. Which of these sets of logic gates are designated as universal gates?

A : NOR, NAND.

B : XOR, NOR, NAND.

C : OR, NOT, AND.

D : NOR, NAND, XNOR.

Q.no 33. In P-N-P transistor________

A : emitter area is less than collector area

B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is slightly greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 34. The logic 0 level of a CMOS logic device is approximately

A : 1.2 volts

B : 0.4 volts

C : 5 volts

D : 0 volts

Q.no 35. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by

A : collector voltage

B : emitter voltage

C : base current

D : collector resistance
Q.no 36. When a light beam is reflected back into the medium, the angle of _______
equals the angle of _______.

A : incidence, reflection

B : incidence,refraction

C : reflection; refraction

D : refraction; recursion

Q.no 37. If the PIV rating of the DIODE exceeded then

A : the diode conducts smothly

B : the diode conducts poorly

C : the diode is distroyed

D : the diode behaves like a zener diode

Q.no 38. In a full wave rectifier the DC load current is equal to 1 ampere, how DC
current is carried by each diode?

A : 1/2 Ampere

B : 1 Ampere

C : 2 Ampere

D : 0 Ampere

Q.no 39. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 40. The interference between the neighbouring base stations is avoided by
_______.

A : Assigning different group of channels

B : Using transmitters with different power level

C : Using different antennas


D : Using different base stations

Q.no 41.  What is the responsibility of MSC in cellular telephone system?

A : Connection of mobile to base stations

B : Connection of mobile to PSTN

C : Connection of base station to PSTN

D : Connection of base station to MSC

Q.no 42. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ........

A:9

B : 0.9

C : 900

D : 90

Q.no 43. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is........ that of the
equivalent Centre tap rectifier.

A : one-half

B : the same as

C : twice

D : four times

Q.no 44. A carrier of 10v peak and frequency 100khz is amplitude modulated by a
sine wave of 4V peak and frequency 1000Hz.Determine the modulation index for
modulated wave, frequencies of sideband components and bandwidth.

A : 0.4,101khz,99khz,2khz

B : 0.5,100khz,97khz,1.5khz

C : 0.3,100khz,96khz,1.5khz

D : 0.1,110khz,97khz,1.5khz

Q.no 45. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the
current gain will move the Q point:

A : off the load line


B : no where

C : up

D : down

Q.no 46. The normal way to turn on a diac is by ………………..

A : Gate current

B : Gate voltage

C : Breakover voltage

D : None of the above

Q.no 47. A ________ is thermally sensitive resistor that exhibits a large change in
resistance

A : Thermistor

B : Resistance Thermometer

C : Thermo couple

D : Semiconductor based sensor

Q.no 48. The ideal diode resistance in forward biased mode is

A : Infinite

B : Zero

C : 50 – 100 Ω

D : 100- 200 Ω

Q.no 49. If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7
V applied to the noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?

A : 7.82 V

B : saturation

C : cutoff

D : 9.52 V

Q.no 50. If an op-amp has one input grounded and the other input has a signal
feed to it, then it is operating as
A : Common-mode

B : Single-ended

C : Double-ended

D : Noninverting mode

Q.no 51. Convert the binary number (1111000011110000) to hexadecimal number

A : 1010

B : F0F0

C : 7070

D : 5050

Q.no 52. Pick out the CORRECT Statements

A : In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same value irrespective
of its position

B : The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal to the number of
symbols in the system

C : It is not always possible to find the exact binary

D : Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of FOUR binary symbols

Q.no 53. The number of control lines for 32 to 1 multiplexer is

A:4

B:5

C : 16

D:6

Q.no 54. Transistor biasing is done to keep_________in the circuit.

A : proper direct current

B : proper alternating current

C : the base current small

D : collector current small


Q.no 55. PIV in Half Wave Rectifier is given as ___________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 56. Which of the following indicates the correct set of combination in radio
waves?

A : Shorter wavelength – high frequency

B : Longer wavelength – less frequency

C : Shorter wavelength – less frequency

D : Longer wavelength – high frequency

Q.no 57. In forward biased condition, P-N junction causes barrier potential to
____________

A : Increase

B : remain constant

C : Decrease

D : Increase rapidly

Q.no 58. Zener breakdown voltage range can be controlled using _________

A : By controlling reverse voltage across PN junction

B : By controlling reverse current across PN junction

C : By controlling dopping level of P-N junction

D : By controlling reverse voltage as well as reverse current across PN junction

Q.no 59. The DIAC can be represented by

A : two SCRs in anti-parallel

B : two SCRs in parallel

C : two diodes in anti-parallel


D : two diodes in parallel

Q.no 60. PIV in Bridge Rectifier is given as ____________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π
Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c


Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c


Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a


Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD1000530_T1 BASIC ELECTRONICS ENGG.


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. An amplifier in which the output voltage is equal to average of input


voltage?

A : Summing amplifier

B : Weighting amplifier

C : Scaling amplifier

D : Averaging amplifier

Q.no 2. Amplifiers and oscillators using BJT, operate in ...... Region

A : Inverted mode

B : Active

C : Cut off

D : Saturation
Q.no 3. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is __________

A : four

B : three

C : one

D : two

Q.no 4. The output of unfiltered half wave or fullwave rectifier is

A : smoth DC voltage

B : steady DC voltage

C : pulsating Dc voltage

D : AC voltage

Q.no 5. The operating point is also called the _______

A : cut off point

B : quiescent point

C : saturation point

D : center point

Q.no 6. Collector of P-N-P transistor is_____

A : Lightly dopped

B : Heavily dopped

C : Moderately dopped

D : Not dopped

Q.no 7. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

A : Negative

B : Positive

C : Zero

D : None of these
Q.no 8. What is one important thing transistors do?

A : Amplify weak signals

B : Rectify line voltage

C : Regulate voltage

D : Emit light

Q.no 9. In forward biased condition, the approximate voltage drop across LED is

A : 0.3 V

B : 0.7 V

C : 6.8V

D : 2.0 V

Q.no 10. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A : power

B : voltage

C : current

D : resistance

Q.no 11. The Op-amp can amplify

A : a.c. signals only

B : d.c. signals only

C : both a.c. and d.c. signals

D : neither d.c. nor a.c. signals

Q.no 12. The only way to close an SCR is with:

A : a trigger input applied to the gate

B : forward breakover voltage

C : low-current dropout

D : valley voltage
Q.no 13. Piezo-electricity is ______________.

A : sound electricity

B : pressure electricity

C : temperature electricity

D : photo electricity

Q.no 14. With negative feedback, the returning signal

A : is proportional to the output current

B : is proportional to the differential voltage gain

C : opposes the input signal

D : aids the input signal

Q.no 15. Maximum rectification efficiency for Bridge Rectifier is ________

A : 0.81

B : 0.818

C : 0.84

D : 0.812

Q.no 16. UTP is popular in LAN technology due to its _______.

A : flexibility

B : low cost

C : ease of installation

D : all of the above

Q.no 17. RTDs are typically connected with other fixed resistors.

A : in a pi configuration

B : in a bridge configuration

C : and variable resistors

D : and capacitors in a filter-type circuit


Q.no 18. If the input to a comparator is a sine wave, the output is a:

A : ramp voltage

B : sine wave

C : rectangular wave

D : sawtooth wave

Q.no 19. Zener diode is used as a

A : an amplifier

B : an rectifier

C : a voltage regulator

D : a multivibrator

Q.no 20. All of the following are basic op-amp input modes of operation EXCEPT

A : inverting mode

B : common-mode

C : double-ended

D : single-ended

Q.no 21. If the PIV rating of the DIODE exceeded then

A : the diode conducts smothly

B : the diode conducts poorly

C : the diode is distroyed

D : the diode behaves like a zener diode

Q.no 22. In a transistor amplifier circuit, VCE = VCB + ___

A : VBE

B : 2 VBE

C : 1.5 VBE

D : 3 VBE
Q.no 23. A _______ is a device that prevents the signal at the end of a bus backbone
from echoing back on to the line

A : repeater

B : horn antenna

C : T-connector

D : terminator

Q.no 24. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of
__________

A : electron current in the emitter

B : electron current in the collector

C : hole current in the emitter

D : donor ion current

Q.no 25. The ratio between the modulating signal voltage and the carrier voltage
is called?

A : Amplitude modulation

B : Modulation frequency

C : Modulation index

D : Ratio of modulation

Q.no 26. A TRIAC__________.

A : can trigger only on positive gate voltages

B : can trigger only on negative gate voltages

C : cannot be triggered with gate voltages

D : can be triggered by either a positive or a negative gate voltage

Q.no 27. The common mode rejection ratio is

A : Very low

B : As high as possible

C : Equal to the voltage gain


D : Equal to the common mode voltage gain

Q.no 28. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 29. One that clips the positive part of the voltage is known as

A : Clipper

B : Clamper

C : Voltage regulator

D : multimeter

Q.no 30. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:

A : beta

B : theta

C : alpha

D : omega

Q.no 31. The AM spectrum consists of

A : Carrier frequency

B : Upper side band frequency

C : Lower side band frequency

D : All of the above

Q.no 32. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called

A : beta

B : alpha

C : omega
D : theta

Q.no 33. The dc current through each diode in a bridge rectifier equals

A : one-fourth the dc load current

B : the load current

C : twice the dc load current

D : half the dc load current

Q.no 34. The arrow in the schematic symbol of a diode points to

A : the n-type material, which is called the cathode

B : the p-type material, which is called the anode

C : the p-type material, which is called the cathode

D : the n-type material, which is called the anode

Q.no 35. Digitil circuit can be made by the repeated use of -----

A : OR gate

B : NAND Gate

C : NOT Gate

D : None of these

Q.no 36. The MSI chip 7474 is

A : Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (TTL).

B : Dual edge triggered D flip-flop (CMOS).

C : Dual edge triggered D flip-flop (TTL).

D : Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (CMOS).

Q.no 37. Function of transducer is to convert

A : Electrical signal into non electrical quantity

B : Non electrical quantity into electrical signal

C : Electrical signal into mechanical quantity


D : All of these

Q.no 38. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by

A : collector voltage

B : emitter voltage

C : base current

D : collector resistance

Q.no 39. To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward


biased with reverse bias applied to which junction?

A : collector-emitter

B : base-collector

C : base-emitter

D : collector-base

Q.no 40. When matching polarity connections have been made and the potential
difference (PD) is above 0.7 V, the diode is considered to be:

A : not working

B : an open switch

C : reverse biased

D : forward biased

Q.no 41. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the
input signals is considered to be which type of amplifier?

A : common-mode

B : darlington

C : differential

D : operational

Q.no 42. Which statement is true for N-P-N transistor

A : Depletion region across B-E and C-B junction is same

B : Depletion region across B-E junction is larger than C-B junction


C : Depletion region across C-B junction is larger than B-E junction.

D : There is no depletion region in N-P-N transistor

Q.no 43. If a 2 mV signal produces a 2 V output, what is the voltage gain?

A : 001

B : 004

C : 100

D : 1000

Q.no 44. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ........

A:9

B : 0.9

C : 900

D : 90

Q.no 45. The ideal diode resistance in forward biased mode is

A : Infinite

B : Zero

C : 50 – 100 Ω

D : 100- 200 Ω

Q.no 46. In an SR latch built from NOR gates, which condition is not allowed

A : S=0, R=0

B : S=0, R=1

C : S=1, R=0

D : S=1, R=1

Q.no 47. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is........ that of the
equivalent Centre tap rectifier.

A : one-half

B : the same as
C : twice

D : four times

Q.no 48. The ideal diode resistance in reversed biased mode is

A : Zero

B : Infinite

C : few MΩ

D : few GΩ

Q.no 49. In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has

A : J = 0, K = 0.

B : J = 1, K = 1.

C : J = 0, K = 1.

D : J = 1, K = 0.

Q.no 50. Brightness of LED is controlled by

A : Forward voltage

B : Doping Level

C : Reversed voltage

D : Forward current

Q.no 51. PIV in Bridge Rectifier is given as ____________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 52. Transistor biasing is done to keep_________in the circuit.

A : proper direct current

B : proper alternating current


C : the base current small

D : collector current small

Q.no 53. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA, then IE is _______

A : 100 mA

B : 100.1 mA

C : 110 mA

D : 110.1 mA

Q.no 54. Which of the following memory device stores information such as
subscriber’s identification number in GSM?

A : Register

B : Flip flop

C : SIM

D : SMS

Q.no 55. The TRIAC can be represented by

A : two SCRs in anti-parallel

B : two SCRs in parallel

C : two diodes in anti-parallel

D : two diodes in parallel

Q.no 56. Convert the binary number (1111000011110000) to hexadecimal number

A : 1010

B : F0F0

C : 7070

D : 5050

Q.no 57. The static V-I curve for the SCR is plotted for

A : Ia (anode current) vs Ig (gate current), Va (anode – cathode voltage) as a parameter

B : Ia vs Va with Ig as a parameter
C : Va vs Ig with Ia as a parameter

D : Ig vs Vg with Ia as a parameter

Q.no 58. Strain gauge is a

A : Active device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance

B : Passive device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

C : Passive device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance

D : Active device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

Q.no 59. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the
current gain will move the Q point:

A : off the load line

B : no where

C : up

D : down

Q.no 60. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is
……..

A : 700 nA

B : 99.3 μA

C : 49.7 μA

D : none of these

Q.no 1. A pn junction that radiates energy as light instead of as heat is called a

A : LED

B : photo-diode

C : photocell

D : Zener diode

Q.no 2. An output that is proportional to the addition of two or more inputs is


from which type of amplifier?

A : differentiator
B : difference

C : summing

D : analog subtractor

Q.no 3. For JK flipflop J = 0, K=1, the output after clock pulse will be

A:1

B : no change.

C:0

D : high impedance.

Q.no 4. Filters in power supplies are used to_________

A : Reduce ripple voltage

B : opposes the ripple voltage

C : increases the output voltage by increasing ripple voltage

D : reduce output voltage by decreasing noise voltage

Q.no 5. Rectification is the process of_________

A : DC to AC conversion

B : AC to AC conversion

C : AC to DC conversion

D : DC to AC to DC conversion

Q.no 6. How many bits are required to store one BCD digit ?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 7. Complement of XNOR and OR is ________ and ________ respectively.

A : NOR, XNOR
B : OR, NOR

C : XOR, NOR

D : XOR, OR

Q.no 8. The device which changes from serial data to parallel data is

A : COUNTER

B : MULTIPLEXER

C : DEMULTIPLEXER

D : FLIP-FLOP

Q.no 9. Maximum rectification efficiency for Half Wave Rectifier is ________

A : 0.4

B : 0.6

C : 0.45

D : 0.48

Q.no 10. In an open-loop op-amp circuit, whenever the inverting input (–) is
negative relative to the noninverting input (+), the output will:

A : swing negative

B : close the loop

C : be balanced

D : swing positive

Q.no 11. The use of negative feedback

A : reduces the voltage gain of an Op-amp

B : makes the Op-amp oscillate

C : makes linear operation possible

D : Both A and B

Q.no 12. Which circuit is used for obtaining desired output waveform in
operational amplifier?
A : Clipper

B : Clamper

C : Peak amplifier

D : Sample and hold

Q.no 13. _______ cable carries signals of higher frequency ranges than _______ cable.

A : Twisted-pair; coaxial

B : Twisted-pair; fiber-optic

C : Coaxial; twisted-pair

D : none of the above

Q.no 14. What are the possible forms of energy transmission that can be
undertaken by a transducer ?

A :  Acoustical

B : Electrical

C : Mechanical

D : All of the above

Q.no 15. Which of the following quantities cannot be measured by a load cell?

A : Pressure

B : Temperature

C : Level

D : All of the above

Q.no 16. The power needs of electrical transducers is ________

A : maximum

B : minimum

C : zero

D : infinite

Q.no 17. Load cells are used for measuring ______________.


A :  Large weights only

B : Small weights only

C : Weights moving in high speed

D :  Slowly moving weights

Q.no 18. Over modulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is ………….
carrier amplitude.

A : Equal to

B : Greater than

C : Less than

D : None of the above

Q.no 19. Consider the following statements:A clamper circuit: 1. adds or subtracts
a dc voltage to a waveform. 2. does not change the waveform. 3. amplifies the
waveform. Which are correct?

A : 1, 2

B : 1, 3

C : 1, 2, 3

D : 2, 3

Q.no 20. In a BJT

A : The base region is sandwiched between emitter and collector

B : The collector is sandwiched between base and emitter

C : The emitter region is sandwiched between base and collector

D : The drain region is sandwiched between emitter and collector

Q.no 21. The logic 0 level of a CMOS logic device is approximately

A : 1.2 volts

B : 0.4 volts

C : 5 volts

D : 0 volts
Q.no 22. What is PSRR value of an ideal op-amp?

A : Zero

B : Unity

C : Infinite

D : Unpredictable

Q.no 23. Which TTL logic gate is used for wired


ANDing

A : Open collector output

B : Totem Pole

C : Tri state output

D : ECL gates

Q.no 24. When an input signal A=01001


is applied to a NOT gate serially, its output signal is

A : 111

B : 10110

C : 10101

D : 11001

Q.no 25. Advantage of LVDT

A : Very fine resolution

B : High accuracy and very good stabilty

C : High sensitivity

D : All of the above

Q.no 26. In LED, when electron meets hole, it falls into a lower energy level and
releases energy in the form of ____

A : EM wave

B : Visible ions

C : Neutron
D : Photon

Q.no 27. unity gain amplifier is a

A : difference amplifier

B : comparator

C : single ended

D : voltage follower

Q.no 28. The magnitude of closed-loop voltage gain (Acl) of an inverting amplifier
equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain Aol

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 29. In an N-P-N transistor, _________are the minority carriers.

A : free electrons

B : holes

C : donor ions

D : acceptor ions

Q.no 30. The major advantage of FM over AM is ……………

A :     Reception is less noisy

B : Higher carrier frequency

C :      Smaller bandwidth

D :       Small frequency deviation

Q.no 31. One of the benefits of encasing a twisted-pair cable in a metal foil
covering is the _______.

A : reduction of crosstalk

B : increase of crosstalk
C : increase in flexibility

D : decrease in costs

Q.no 32. A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because

A : It is used by everybody

B : Any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone

C : All the minization techniques are applicable for optimum NAND gate realization

D : Many digital computers use NAND gates.

Q.no 33. The NAND gate output will be low if the two inputs

A : oo

B : o1

C : 10

D : 11

Q.no 34. A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have

A : 5 states

B : 10
states

C : 32 state

D : Infinite states.

Q.no 35. What device is similar to an RTD but has a negative temperature
coefficient?

A : Strain gauge

B : Thermistor

C : Negative-type RTD

D : Thermocouple

Q.no 36. In N-P-N transistor______________

A : collector area is greater than emitter area


B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 37. When a light beam is reflected back into the medium, the angle of _______
equals the angle of _______.

A : incidence, reflection

B : incidence,refraction

C : reflection; refraction

D : refraction; recursion

Q.no 38. Zener diode is generally operated in its _________

A : Only in reverse breakdown region

B : Reverse breakdown region as well as forward biased region

C : Sometimes in forward biased region

D : Sometimes in reverse breakdown region

Q.no 39. In P-N-P transistor________

A : emitter area is less than collector area

B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is slightly greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 40. A single and fundamental form of load cell which is basically used as a
transducer in the operation of a weighing machine undergoes the conversion of
___________.

A :  Force into an electrical signal

B : Pressure into an electrical signal

C : Acceleration into an electrical signal

D : Velocity into an electrical signal


Q.no 41. What is the percentage of modulation if the modulating signal is of 7.5V
and carrier is of 9V?

A : 100

B : 91

C : 83.33

D:0

Q.no 42. An AM broadcast station transmits modulating frequencies up to 6 kHz.


If the AM station is transmitting on a frequency of 894 kHz, the values for
maximum and minimum upper and lower sidebands and the total bandwidth
occupied by the AM station are:

A : 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 12 KHz

B : 894 KHz, 884 KHz, 12 KHz

C : 894 KHz, 888 KHz, 6 KHz

D : 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 6 KHz

Q.no 43. Pick out the CORRECT Statements

A : In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same value irrespective
of its position

B : The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal to the number of
symbols in the system

C : It is not always possible to find the exact binary

D : Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of FOUR binary symbols

Q.no 44. Zener breakdown voltage range can be controlled using _________

A : By controlling reverse voltage across PN junction

B : By controlling reverse current across PN junction

C : By controlling dopping level of P-N junction

D : By controlling reverse voltage as well as reverse current across PN junction

Q.no 45. Im = Vm/(Rs + 2Rf + RL) is given for ___________

A : Half Wave Rectifier


B : Full Wave Rectifier

C : Bridge Rectifier

D : Half Wave Rectifier with LC filter

Q.no 46. In TV transmission, picture signal is ……………… modulated.

A : Frequency

B : Phase

C : Amplitude

D : None of the above

Q.no 47. A voltage V = 300 cos 100 t is applied to a half wave rectifier with load
resistance equal to 5 kΩ, the rectifier may be represented by an ideal diode in
series with a resistance of 1 kΩ, the value of Im I given as __

A : 500 mA

B : 50 mA

C : 56.56 mA

D : 52 mA

Q.no 48. How many pins does temperature sensor have?

A : 5 legs

B : 2 legs

C : 4 legs

D : 3 legs

Q.no 49. PIV in Full Wave Rectifier

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 50. The output of a JK flipflop with asynchronous preset and clear inputs is
‘1’. The output can be changed to ‘0’ with one of the following conditions.
A : By applying J = 0, K = 0 and
using a clock.

B : By applying J = 1, K = 0 and using the


clock.

C : By applying J = 1, K = 1 and using the


clock.

D : By applying a synchronous preset input.

Q.no 51. If a noninverting amplifier has an RIN of 1000 ohms and an RFB of 2.5
kilohms, what is the RIN voltage when 1.42 mV is applied to the correct input?

A : 3.5 mV

B : ground

C : 1.42 mV

D : 0.56 mV

Q.no 52. The decimal equivalent of Binary number 11010 is

A : 26

B : 36

C : 16.   

D : 23

Q.no 53. If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7
V applied to the noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?

A : 7.82 V

B : saturation

C : cutoff

D : 9.52 V

Q.no 54. At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband is ………………… of that
of carrier

A :    50%

B : 0.6
C : 0.4

D : 0.25

Q.no 55. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 368 is

A : 1111E8

B : 1.1011E8

C : 1.1101E8

D : 1.111E8

Q.no 56. In forward biased condition, P-N junction causes barrier potential to
____________

A : Increase

B : remain constant

C : Decrease

D : Increase rapidly

Q.no 57. PIV in Half Wave Rectifier is given as ___________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 58. A carrier of 10v peak and frequency 100khz is amplitude modulated by a
sine wave of 4V peak and frequency 1000Hz.Determine the modulation index for
modulated wave, frequencies of sideband components and bandwidth.

A : 0.4,101khz,99khz,2khz

B : 0.5,100khz,97khz,1.5khz

C : 0.3,100khz,96khz,1.5khz

D : 0.1,110khz,97khz,1.5khz

Q.no 59. The diode schematic arrow points to the

A : positive axial lead


B : trivalent-doped material

C : anode lead

D : cathode lead

Q.no 60. If an op-amp has one input grounded and the other input has a signal
feed to it, then it is operating as

A : Common-mode

B : Single-ended

C : Double-ended

D : Noninverting mode
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a


Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a


Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a


Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD1000530_T1 BASIC ELECTRONICS ENGG.


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Ripple factor for Full Wave Rectifier is

A : 0.45

B : 0.48

C : 0.52

D : 0.82

Q.no 2. In which amplifier the output voltage is equal to the negative sum of all
the inputs?

A : Averaging amplifier

B : Summing amplifier

C : Scaling amplifier

D : All of the mentioned


Q.no 3. _______ has an inner conductor and an outer conductor separated by
insulation.

A : twisted-pair cable

B : fiber-optic cable

C : coaxial cable

D : all of the above

Q.no 4. Electrical transducers generate ________

A : biological signals

B : chemical signals

C : physical signals

D : electrical signals

Q.no 5. 1 Kilo bits are equal to

A : 1000 bits

B : 1024 bits

C : 1012 bits

D : 1008 bits

Q.no 6. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor flow

A : Out of the base lead

B : Into the collector

C : Into the emitter

D : Into the base supply

Q.no 7. An ideal amplifier should have:

A : high input current

B : zero offset

C : high output impedance

D : moderate gain
Q.no 8. Collector of P-N-P transistor is_____

A : Lightly dopped

B : Heavily dopped

C : Moderately dopped

D : Not dopped

Q.no 9. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between


mobile station and MSC?

A : BSS

B : NSS

C : OSS

D : BSC

Q.no 10. Ripple factor for Half Wave Rectifier is

A : 1.21

B : 1.12

C : 1.32

D : 1.42

Q.no 11. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A : power

B : voltage

C : current

D : resistance

Q.no 12. Rectification is the process of_________

A : DC to AC conversion

B : AC to AC conversion

C : AC to DC conversion

D : DC to AC to DC conversion
Q.no 13. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?

A : Cosmic rays

B : Gamma rays

C : β rays

D : X rays

Q.no 14. Base of N-P-N transistor is_____

A : Lightly dopped

B : Heavily dopped

C : Moderately dopped

D : Not dopped

Q.no 15. With negative feedback, the returning signal

A : is proportional to the output current

B : is proportional to the differential voltage gain

C : opposes the input signal

D : aids the input signal

Q.no 16. The Op-amp can amplify

A : a.c. signals only

B : d.c. signals only

C : both a.c. and d.c. signals

D : neither d.c. nor a.c. signals

Q.no 17. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the
current gain will move the Q point

A : down

B : off the load line

C : up

D : nowhere
Q.no 18. Over modulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is ………….
carrier amplitude.

A : Equal to

B : Greater than

C : Less than

D : None of the above

Q.no 19. _______ cable is not susceptible to most noise that is electrical in nature.

A : Twisted-pair

B : Shielded twisted-pair

C : Coaxial

D : Fiber-optic

Q.no 20. In a PLL, to obtain lock, the signal frequency must:

A : come within the lock range

B : be less than the capture frequency

C : come within the capture range

D : be greater than the capture frequency

Q.no 21. Which TTL logic gate is used for wired


ANDing

A : Open collector output

B : Totem Pole

C : Tri state output

D : ECL gates

Q.no 22. A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because

A : It is used by everybody

B : Any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone

C : All the minization techniques are applicable for optimum NAND gate realization
D : Many digital computers use NAND gates.

Q.no 23. In a transistor, ____

A : IC = IE + IB

B : IB = IC + IE

C : IE = IC − IB

D : IE = IC + IB

Q.no 24. Modulating wave can also be known as ______.

A : Total wave

B : Measuring wave

C : Super wave

D : Incubation wave

Q.no 25. The major advantage of FM over AM is ……………

A :     Reception is less noisy

B : Higher carrier frequency

C :      Smaller bandwidth

D :       Small frequency deviation

Q.no 26. The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. the gate is
either

A : a NAND or an EX-OR

B : an OR or an EX-NOR

C : an
AND or an EX-OR

D : a NOR or an EX-NOR

Q.no 27. Why is heat produced in a diode?

A : due to current passing through the diode

B : due to voltage across the diode


C : due to the power rating of the diode

D : due to the PN junction of the diode

Q.no 28. A diac is simply ………………

A : A single junction device

B :    A three junction device

C : A triac without gate terminal

D :   None of the above

Q.no 29. For refraction to occur, the _______ must be of a lower density than the
_______

A :             cladding,core

B :       core,cladding

C :          cladding; jacket

D :        core; Teflon coating

Q.no 30. The output of a Schmitt trigger is a

A : triangle waveform.

B : pulse waveform.

C : sawtooth waveform.

D : sinusoidal waveform.

Q.no 31. Which factor makes twisted-pair cable superior to fiber-optic cable?

A :          signal attenuation

B :         noise resistance

C :          bandwidth range

D :        cost

Q.no 32. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called

A : beta

B : alpha
C : omega

D : theta

Q.no 33. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is
…….

A : 90 V/μs

B : 0.67 V/μs

C : 1.5 V/μs

D : none of these

Q.no 34. When an input of NAND gate is combined ,the gate formed is

A : OR gate

B : AND Gate

C : NOT Gate

D : None of these

Q.no 35. A common-mode signal is applied to

A : The non-inverting input

B : The inverting input

C : Both inputs

D : The top of the tail resistor

Q.no 36. When an input signal A=01001


is applied to a NOT gate serially, its output signal is

A : 111

B : 10110

C : 10101

D : 11001

Q.no 37. In a P-N-P transistor, the current carriers are _______

A : acceptor ions
B : donor ions

C : free electrons

D : holes

Q.no 38. Which logic family provide minimum power dissipation

A : TTL

B : CMOS

C : ECL

D : JFET

Q.no 39. A TRIAC__________.

A : can trigger only on positive gate voltages

B : can trigger only on negative gate voltages

C : cannot be triggered with gate voltages

D : can be triggered by either a positive or a negative gate voltage

Q.no 40. _________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

A : BSS

B : NSS

C : OSS

D : MSC

Q.no 41. A differential amplifier has a common-mode gain of 0.2 and a common-
mode rejection ratio of 3250. What would the output voltage be if the single-ended
input voltage was 7 mV rms?

A : 1.4 mV rms

B : 650 mV rms

C : 4.55 V rms

D : 0.455 V rms

Q.no 42. A triac is equivalent to two SCRs …………..


A : In parallel

B : In series

C : In inverse-parallel

D : None of the above

Q.no 43. In a differential amplifier, the configuration is said to be an 'unbalanced


output', if ________

A : Output voltage is measured between two collectors

B : Output is measured with respect to ground

C : Two input signals are used

D : All of the above

Q.no 44. The diode schematic arrow points to the

A : positive axial lead

B : trivalent-doped material

C : anode lead

D : cathode lead

Q.no 45. With full-wave rectification, current through the load resistor must be

A : in the same direction

B : from the reverse biased diode

C : to the external load

D : in opposite directions

Q.no 46. What is the percentage of modulation if the modulating signal is of 7.5V
and carrier is of 9V?

A : 100

B : 91

C : 83.33

D:0
Q.no 47. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A : voltage

B : current

C : resistance

D : power

Q.no 48. PIV in Full Wave Rectifier

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 49. Which among the following is/are included in DC characteristics of op-
amp?

A : Input bias current

B : Thermal drift

C : Both a and b

D : None of the above

Q.no 50. If a noninverting amplifier has an RIN of 1000 ohms and an RFB of 2.5
kilohms, what is the RIN voltage when 1.42 mV is applied to the correct input?

A : 3.5 mV

B : ground

C : 1.42 mV

D : 0.56 mV

Q.no 51. TRIAC is a:

A : Unidirectional Switch

B : Bidirectional switch

C : Four-directional
D : None of the above

Q.no 52. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the
input signals is considered to be which type of amplifier?

A : common-mode

B : darlington

C : differential

D : operational

Q.no 53. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 368 is

A : 1111E8

B : 1.1011E8

C : 1.1101E8

D : 1.111E8

Q.no 54. In a transistor, the base current is about ________ of emitter current.

A : 0.25

B : 0.2

C : 0.35

D : 05

Q.no 55. In TV transmission, picture signal is ……………… modulated.

A : Frequency

B : Phase

C : Amplitude

D : None of the above

Q.no 56. An inverting amplifier with gain 1 have different input voltage: 1.2v,3.2v
and 4.2v. Find the output voltage?

A : 4.2v

B : 8.6v
C : -4.2v

D : -8.6v

Q.no 57. In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has

A : J = 0, K = 0.

B : J = 1, K = 1.

C : J = 0, K = 1.

D : J = 1, K = 0.

Q.no 58. Which statement is true for N-P-N transistor

A : Depletion region across B-E and C-B junction is same

B : Depletion region across B-E junction is larger than C-B junction

C : Depletion region across C-B junction is larger than B-E junction.

D : There is no depletion region in N-P-N transistor

Q.no 59. Im = Vm/(Rs + Rf + RL) is given for ___________

A : Half Wave Rectifier

B : Bridge Rectifier

C : Bridge Rectifier with LC filter

D : Bridge Rectifier with π filter

Q.no 60. Which of the following modulating signal voltage would cause over-
modulation on a carrier voltage of 10v?

A : 9.5

B : 9.99

C : 10

D : 12

Q.no 1. What is the difference between common-mode and differential-mode


input signals?

A : phase relationship
B : voltage

C : current

D : apparent power

Q.no 2. gain of common emitter amplifier is determine by the ratio AC output


voltage to

A : collector voltage

B : emitter voltage

C : base voltage

D : drain voltage

Q.no 3. Amplifiers and oscillators using BJT, operate in ...... Region

A : Inverted mode

B : Active

C : Cut off

D : Saturation

Q.no 4. How many entries will be in the truth table of a 3 input NAND gate ?

A:3

B:6

C:8

D:9

Q.no 5. Once a DIAC is conducting, the only way to turn it off is with:

A : a positive gate voltage

B : a negative gate voltage

C : low-current dropout

D : breakover

Q.no 6. In a JK Flip-Flop, toggle means

A : Set Q = 1 and Q = 0.
B : Set Q = 0 and Q = 1.

C : Change the output to the opposite state.

D : No change in output.

Q.no 7.  Which among the following wave is not employed in case of remote
sensing?

A : X-ray

B : Visible ray

C : Thermal IR

D : Radio waves

Q.no 8. A negative clipper removes the ___________ half-cycles of the input voltage.

A : Negative

B : Positive

C : Both positive and negative

D : No part of

Q.no 9. Number of diodes used in Half Wave Rectifier with LC filter is_____

A : One

B : Two

C : Four

D : Six

Q.no 10. RTDs are typically connected with other fixed resistors.

A : in a pi configuration

B : in a bridge configuration

C : and variable resistors

D : and capacitors in a filter-type circuit

Q.no 11. Piezo-electricity is ______________.

A : sound electricity
B : pressure electricity

C : temperature electricity

D : photo electricity

Q.no 12. The most popular connector used with _______ cable is the BNC.

A : twisted-pair

B : shielded twisted-pair

C : coaxial

D : fiber-optic

Q.no 13. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is __________

A : four

B : three

C : one

D : two

Q.no 14. When an input 1 ia applied to NOT gate ,the output is

A:0

B:1

C : Either 0 & 1

D : None of the above

Q.no 15. How many flip flops are required to construct a decade counter

A : 10

B:3

C:4

D:2

Q.no 16. In forward biased condition, the approximate voltage drop across LED is

A : 0.3 V
B : 0.7 V

C : 6.8V

D : 2.0 V

Q.no 17. The linear variable differential transformer transducer is

A : Inductive transducer

B : Non-inductive transducer

C : Capacitive transducer

D : Resistive transducer

Q.no 18. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

A : Negative

B : Positive

C : Zero

D : None of these

Q.no 19. Karnaugh map is used for the purpose


of

A : Reducing the electronic circuits used.

B : To map the given Boolean logic function.

C : To minimize the terms in a Boolean expression.

D : To maximize the terms of a given a Boolean expression.

Q.no 20. The device which changes from serial data to parallel data is

A : COUNTER

B : MULTIPLEXER

C : DEMULTIPLEXER

D : FLIP-FLOP

Q.no 21. With zero volts on both inputs, an OP-amp ideally should have an output
………..
A : equal to the positive supply voltage

B : equal to the negative supply voltage

C : equal to zero

D : equal to CMRR

Q.no 22. A TRIAC can be used as:

A : Switch

B : Lamp dimmer

C : Flasher circuit

D : All of the above

Q.no 23. PSSR is an op-amp parameter which defines the degree of dependence on
variations in _______.

A : temperature

B : pressure

C : power supply voltage

D : slew rate

Q.no 24. In N-P-N transistor______________

A : collector area is greater than emitter area

B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 25. Average load current (ILdc) for Half Wave Rectifier is _______

A : Im/π

B : 2Im/π

C : Im/2π

D : 2Im

Q.no 26. The output impedance of a transistor is _______


A : high

B : zero

C : low

D : very low

Q.no 27. A _______ is a device that prevents the signal at the end of a bus backbone
from echoing back on to the line

A : repeater

B : horn antenna

C : T-connector

D : terminator

Q.no 28. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of
__________

A : electron current in the emitter

B : electron current in the collector

C : hole current in the emitter

D : donor ion current

Q.no 29. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in medicine to


destroy cancer cells?

A : IR-rays

B : Visible rays

C : Gamma rays

D : Ultraviolet rays

Q.no 30. A full adder logic circuit will have

A : Two inputs and one output.

B : Three inputs and three outputs.

C : Two inputs and two outputs.

D : Three inputs and two outputs.


Q.no 31. One of the benefits of encasing a twisted-pair cable in a metal foil
covering is the _______.

A : reduction of crosstalk

B : increase of crosstalk

C : increase in flexibility

D : decrease in costs

Q.no 32. Which of these sets of logic gates are designated as universal gates?

A : NOR, NAND.

B : XOR, NOR, NAND.

C : OR, NOT, AND.

D : NOR, NAND, XNOR.

Q.no 33. In P-N-P transistor________

A : emitter area is less than collector area

B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is slightly greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 34. The logic 0 level of a CMOS logic device is approximately

A : 1.2 volts

B : 0.4 volts

C : 5 volts

D : 0 volts

Q.no 35. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by

A : collector voltage

B : emitter voltage

C : base current

D : collector resistance
Q.no 36. When a light beam is reflected back into the medium, the angle of _______
equals the angle of _______.

A : incidence, reflection

B : incidence,refraction

C : reflection; refraction

D : refraction; recursion

Q.no 37. If the PIV rating of the DIODE exceeded then

A : the diode conducts smothly

B : the diode conducts poorly

C : the diode is distroyed

D : the diode behaves like a zener diode

Q.no 38. In a full wave rectifier the DC load current is equal to 1 ampere, how DC
current is carried by each diode?

A : 1/2 Ampere

B : 1 Ampere

C : 2 Ampere

D : 0 Ampere

Q.no 39. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 40. The interference between the neighbouring base stations is avoided by
_______.

A : Assigning different group of channels

B : Using transmitters with different power level

C : Using different antennas


D : Using different base stations

Q.no 41.  What is the responsibility of MSC in cellular telephone system?

A : Connection of mobile to base stations

B : Connection of mobile to PSTN

C : Connection of base station to PSTN

D : Connection of base station to MSC

Q.no 42. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ........

A:9

B : 0.9

C : 900

D : 90

Q.no 43. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is........ that of the
equivalent Centre tap rectifier.

A : one-half

B : the same as

C : twice

D : four times

Q.no 44. A carrier of 10v peak and frequency 100khz is amplitude modulated by a
sine wave of 4V peak and frequency 1000Hz.Determine the modulation index for
modulated wave, frequencies of sideband components and bandwidth.

A : 0.4,101khz,99khz,2khz

B : 0.5,100khz,97khz,1.5khz

C : 0.3,100khz,96khz,1.5khz

D : 0.1,110khz,97khz,1.5khz

Q.no 45. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the
current gain will move the Q point:

A : off the load line


B : no where

C : up

D : down

Q.no 46. The normal way to turn on a diac is by ………………..

A : Gate current

B : Gate voltage

C : Breakover voltage

D : None of the above

Q.no 47. A ________ is thermally sensitive resistor that exhibits a large change in
resistance

A : Thermistor

B : Resistance Thermometer

C : Thermo couple

D : Semiconductor based sensor

Q.no 48. The ideal diode resistance in forward biased mode is

A : Infinite

B : Zero

C : 50 – 100 Ω

D : 100- 200 Ω

Q.no 49. If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7
V applied to the noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?

A : 7.82 V

B : saturation

C : cutoff

D : 9.52 V

Q.no 50. If an op-amp has one input grounded and the other input has a signal
feed to it, then it is operating as
A : Common-mode

B : Single-ended

C : Double-ended

D : Noninverting mode

Q.no 51. Convert the binary number (1111000011110000) to hexadecimal number

A : 1010

B : F0F0

C : 7070

D : 5050

Q.no 52. Pick out the CORRECT Statements

A : In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same value irrespective
of its position

B : The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal to the number of
symbols in the system

C : It is not always possible to find the exact binary

D : Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of FOUR binary symbols

Q.no 53. The number of control lines for 32 to 1 multiplexer is

A:4

B:5

C : 16

D:6

Q.no 54. Transistor biasing is done to keep_________in the circuit.

A : proper direct current

B : proper alternating current

C : the base current small

D : collector current small


Q.no 55. PIV in Half Wave Rectifier is given as ___________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 56. Which of the following indicates the correct set of combination in radio
waves?

A : Shorter wavelength – high frequency

B : Longer wavelength – less frequency

C : Shorter wavelength – less frequency

D : Longer wavelength – high frequency

Q.no 57. In forward biased condition, P-N junction causes barrier potential to
____________

A : Increase

B : remain constant

C : Decrease

D : Increase rapidly

Q.no 58. Zener breakdown voltage range can be controlled using _________

A : By controlling reverse voltage across PN junction

B : By controlling reverse current across PN junction

C : By controlling dopping level of P-N junction

D : By controlling reverse voltage as well as reverse current across PN junction

Q.no 59. The DIAC can be represented by

A : two SCRs in anti-parallel

B : two SCRs in parallel

C : two diodes in anti-parallel


D : two diodes in parallel

Q.no 60. PIV in Bridge Rectifier is given as ____________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π
Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c


Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c


Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a


Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD1000530_T1 BASIC ELECTRONICS ENGG.


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. An amplifier in which the output voltage is equal to average of input


voltage?

A : Summing amplifier

B : Weighting amplifier

C : Scaling amplifier

D : Averaging amplifier

Q.no 2. Amplifiers and oscillators using BJT, operate in ...... Region

A : Inverted mode

B : Active

C : Cut off

D : Saturation
Q.no 3. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is __________

A : four

B : three

C : one

D : two

Q.no 4. The output of unfiltered half wave or fullwave rectifier is

A : smoth DC voltage

B : steady DC voltage

C : pulsating Dc voltage

D : AC voltage

Q.no 5. The operating point is also called the _______

A : cut off point

B : quiescent point

C : saturation point

D : center point

Q.no 6. Collector of P-N-P transistor is_____

A : Lightly dopped

B : Heavily dopped

C : Moderately dopped

D : Not dopped

Q.no 7. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

A : Negative

B : Positive

C : Zero

D : None of these
Q.no 8. What is one important thing transistors do?

A : Amplify weak signals

B : Rectify line voltage

C : Regulate voltage

D : Emit light

Q.no 9. In forward biased condition, the approximate voltage drop across LED is

A : 0.3 V

B : 0.7 V

C : 6.8V

D : 2.0 V

Q.no 10. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A : power

B : voltage

C : current

D : resistance

Q.no 11. The Op-amp can amplify

A : a.c. signals only

B : d.c. signals only

C : both a.c. and d.c. signals

D : neither d.c. nor a.c. signals

Q.no 12. The only way to close an SCR is with:

A : a trigger input applied to the gate

B : forward breakover voltage

C : low-current dropout

D : valley voltage
Q.no 13. Piezo-electricity is ______________.

A : sound electricity

B : pressure electricity

C : temperature electricity

D : photo electricity

Q.no 14. With negative feedback, the returning signal

A : is proportional to the output current

B : is proportional to the differential voltage gain

C : opposes the input signal

D : aids the input signal

Q.no 15. Maximum rectification efficiency for Bridge Rectifier is ________

A : 0.81

B : 0.818

C : 0.84

D : 0.812

Q.no 16. UTP is popular in LAN technology due to its _______.

A : flexibility

B : low cost

C : ease of installation

D : all of the above

Q.no 17. RTDs are typically connected with other fixed resistors.

A : in a pi configuration

B : in a bridge configuration

C : and variable resistors

D : and capacitors in a filter-type circuit


Q.no 18. If the input to a comparator is a sine wave, the output is a:

A : ramp voltage

B : sine wave

C : rectangular wave

D : sawtooth wave

Q.no 19. Zener diode is used as a

A : an amplifier

B : an rectifier

C : a voltage regulator

D : a multivibrator

Q.no 20. All of the following are basic op-amp input modes of operation EXCEPT

A : inverting mode

B : common-mode

C : double-ended

D : single-ended

Q.no 21. If the PIV rating of the DIODE exceeded then

A : the diode conducts smothly

B : the diode conducts poorly

C : the diode is distroyed

D : the diode behaves like a zener diode

Q.no 22. In a transistor amplifier circuit, VCE = VCB + ___

A : VBE

B : 2 VBE

C : 1.5 VBE

D : 3 VBE
Q.no 23. A _______ is a device that prevents the signal at the end of a bus backbone
from echoing back on to the line

A : repeater

B : horn antenna

C : T-connector

D : terminator

Q.no 24. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of
__________

A : electron current in the emitter

B : electron current in the collector

C : hole current in the emitter

D : donor ion current

Q.no 25. The ratio between the modulating signal voltage and the carrier voltage
is called?

A : Amplitude modulation

B : Modulation frequency

C : Modulation index

D : Ratio of modulation

Q.no 26. A TRIAC__________.

A : can trigger only on positive gate voltages

B : can trigger only on negative gate voltages

C : cannot be triggered with gate voltages

D : can be triggered by either a positive or a negative gate voltage

Q.no 27. The common mode rejection ratio is

A : Very low

B : As high as possible

C : Equal to the voltage gain


D : Equal to the common mode voltage gain

Q.no 28. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 29. One that clips the positive part of the voltage is known as

A : Clipper

B : Clamper

C : Voltage regulator

D : multimeter

Q.no 30. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:

A : beta

B : theta

C : alpha

D : omega

Q.no 31. The AM spectrum consists of

A : Carrier frequency

B : Upper side band frequency

C : Lower side band frequency

D : All of the above

Q.no 32. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called

A : beta

B : alpha

C : omega
D : theta

Q.no 33. The dc current through each diode in a bridge rectifier equals

A : one-fourth the dc load current

B : the load current

C : twice the dc load current

D : half the dc load current

Q.no 34. The arrow in the schematic symbol of a diode points to

A : the n-type material, which is called the cathode

B : the p-type material, which is called the anode

C : the p-type material, which is called the cathode

D : the n-type material, which is called the anode

Q.no 35. Digitil circuit can be made by the repeated use of -----

A : OR gate

B : NAND Gate

C : NOT Gate

D : None of these

Q.no 36. The MSI chip 7474 is

A : Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (TTL).

B : Dual edge triggered D flip-flop (CMOS).

C : Dual edge triggered D flip-flop (TTL).

D : Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (CMOS).

Q.no 37. Function of transducer is to convert

A : Electrical signal into non electrical quantity

B : Non electrical quantity into electrical signal

C : Electrical signal into mechanical quantity


D : All of these

Q.no 38. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by

A : collector voltage

B : emitter voltage

C : base current

D : collector resistance

Q.no 39. To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward


biased with reverse bias applied to which junction?

A : collector-emitter

B : base-collector

C : base-emitter

D : collector-base

Q.no 40. When matching polarity connections have been made and the potential
difference (PD) is above 0.7 V, the diode is considered to be:

A : not working

B : an open switch

C : reverse biased

D : forward biased

Q.no 41. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the
input signals is considered to be which type of amplifier?

A : common-mode

B : darlington

C : differential

D : operational

Q.no 42. Which statement is true for N-P-N transistor

A : Depletion region across B-E and C-B junction is same

B : Depletion region across B-E junction is larger than C-B junction


C : Depletion region across C-B junction is larger than B-E junction.

D : There is no depletion region in N-P-N transistor

Q.no 43. If a 2 mV signal produces a 2 V output, what is the voltage gain?

A : 001

B : 004

C : 100

D : 1000

Q.no 44. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ........

A:9

B : 0.9

C : 900

D : 90

Q.no 45. The ideal diode resistance in forward biased mode is

A : Infinite

B : Zero

C : 50 – 100 Ω

D : 100- 200 Ω

Q.no 46. In an SR latch built from NOR gates, which condition is not allowed

A : S=0, R=0

B : S=0, R=1

C : S=1, R=0

D : S=1, R=1

Q.no 47. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is........ that of the
equivalent Centre tap rectifier.

A : one-half

B : the same as
C : twice

D : four times

Q.no 48. The ideal diode resistance in reversed biased mode is

A : Zero

B : Infinite

C : few MΩ

D : few GΩ

Q.no 49. In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has

A : J = 0, K = 0.

B : J = 1, K = 1.

C : J = 0, K = 1.

D : J = 1, K = 0.

Q.no 50. Brightness of LED is controlled by

A : Forward voltage

B : Doping Level

C : Reversed voltage

D : Forward current

Q.no 51. PIV in Bridge Rectifier is given as ____________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 52. Transistor biasing is done to keep_________in the circuit.

A : proper direct current

B : proper alternating current


C : the base current small

D : collector current small

Q.no 53. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA, then IE is _______

A : 100 mA

B : 100.1 mA

C : 110 mA

D : 110.1 mA

Q.no 54. Which of the following memory device stores information such as
subscriber’s identification number in GSM?

A : Register

B : Flip flop

C : SIM

D : SMS

Q.no 55. The TRIAC can be represented by

A : two SCRs in anti-parallel

B : two SCRs in parallel

C : two diodes in anti-parallel

D : two diodes in parallel

Q.no 56. Convert the binary number (1111000011110000) to hexadecimal number

A : 1010

B : F0F0

C : 7070

D : 5050

Q.no 57. The static V-I curve for the SCR is plotted for

A : Ia (anode current) vs Ig (gate current), Va (anode – cathode voltage) as a parameter

B : Ia vs Va with Ig as a parameter
C : Va vs Ig with Ia as a parameter

D : Ig vs Vg with Ia as a parameter

Q.no 58. Strain gauge is a

A : Active device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance

B : Passive device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

C : Passive device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance

D : Active device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

Q.no 59. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the
current gain will move the Q point:

A : off the load line

B : no where

C : up

D : down

Q.no 60. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is
……..

A : 700 nA

B : 99.3 μA

C : 49.7 μA

D : none of these

Q.no 1. A pn junction that radiates energy as light instead of as heat is called a

A : LED

B : photo-diode

C : photocell

D : Zener diode

Q.no 2. An output that is proportional to the addition of two or more inputs is


from which type of amplifier?

A : differentiator
B : difference

C : summing

D : analog subtractor

Q.no 3. For JK flipflop J = 0, K=1, the output after clock pulse will be

A:1

B : no change.

C:0

D : high impedance.

Q.no 4. Filters in power supplies are used to_________

A : Reduce ripple voltage

B : opposes the ripple voltage

C : increases the output voltage by increasing ripple voltage

D : reduce output voltage by decreasing noise voltage

Q.no 5. Rectification is the process of_________

A : DC to AC conversion

B : AC to AC conversion

C : AC to DC conversion

D : DC to AC to DC conversion

Q.no 6. How many bits are required to store one BCD digit ?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 7. Complement of XNOR and OR is ________ and ________ respectively.

A : NOR, XNOR
B : OR, NOR

C : XOR, NOR

D : XOR, OR

Q.no 8. The device which changes from serial data to parallel data is

A : COUNTER

B : MULTIPLEXER

C : DEMULTIPLEXER

D : FLIP-FLOP

Q.no 9. Maximum rectification efficiency for Half Wave Rectifier is ________

A : 0.4

B : 0.6

C : 0.45

D : 0.48

Q.no 10. In an open-loop op-amp circuit, whenever the inverting input (–) is
negative relative to the noninverting input (+), the output will:

A : swing negative

B : close the loop

C : be balanced

D : swing positive

Q.no 11. The use of negative feedback

A : reduces the voltage gain of an Op-amp

B : makes the Op-amp oscillate

C : makes linear operation possible

D : Both A and B

Q.no 12. Which circuit is used for obtaining desired output waveform in
operational amplifier?
A : Clipper

B : Clamper

C : Peak amplifier

D : Sample and hold

Q.no 13. _______ cable carries signals of higher frequency ranges than _______ cable.

A : Twisted-pair; coaxial

B : Twisted-pair; fiber-optic

C : Coaxial; twisted-pair

D : none of the above

Q.no 14. What are the possible forms of energy transmission that can be
undertaken by a transducer ?

A :  Acoustical

B : Electrical

C : Mechanical

D : All of the above

Q.no 15. Which of the following quantities cannot be measured by a load cell?

A : Pressure

B : Temperature

C : Level

D : All of the above

Q.no 16. The power needs of electrical transducers is ________

A : maximum

B : minimum

C : zero

D : infinite

Q.no 17. Load cells are used for measuring ______________.


A :  Large weights only

B : Small weights only

C : Weights moving in high speed

D :  Slowly moving weights

Q.no 18. Over modulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is ………….
carrier amplitude.

A : Equal to

B : Greater than

C : Less than

D : None of the above

Q.no 19. Consider the following statements:A clamper circuit: 1. adds or subtracts
a dc voltage to a waveform. 2. does not change the waveform. 3. amplifies the
waveform. Which are correct?

A : 1, 2

B : 1, 3

C : 1, 2, 3

D : 2, 3

Q.no 20. In a BJT

A : The base region is sandwiched between emitter and collector

B : The collector is sandwiched between base and emitter

C : The emitter region is sandwiched between base and collector

D : The drain region is sandwiched between emitter and collector

Q.no 21. The logic 0 level of a CMOS logic device is approximately

A : 1.2 volts

B : 0.4 volts

C : 5 volts

D : 0 volts
Q.no 22. What is PSRR value of an ideal op-amp?

A : Zero

B : Unity

C : Infinite

D : Unpredictable

Q.no 23. Which TTL logic gate is used for wired


ANDing

A : Open collector output

B : Totem Pole

C : Tri state output

D : ECL gates

Q.no 24. When an input signal A=01001


is applied to a NOT gate serially, its output signal is

A : 111

B : 10110

C : 10101

D : 11001

Q.no 25. Advantage of LVDT

A : Very fine resolution

B : High accuracy and very good stabilty

C : High sensitivity

D : All of the above

Q.no 26. In LED, when electron meets hole, it falls into a lower energy level and
releases energy in the form of ____

A : EM wave

B : Visible ions

C : Neutron
D : Photon

Q.no 27. unity gain amplifier is a

A : difference amplifier

B : comparator

C : single ended

D : voltage follower

Q.no 28. The magnitude of closed-loop voltage gain (Acl) of an inverting amplifier
equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain Aol

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 29. In an N-P-N transistor, _________are the minority carriers.

A : free electrons

B : holes

C : donor ions

D : acceptor ions

Q.no 30. The major advantage of FM over AM is ……………

A :     Reception is less noisy

B : Higher carrier frequency

C :      Smaller bandwidth

D :       Small frequency deviation

Q.no 31. One of the benefits of encasing a twisted-pair cable in a metal foil
covering is the _______.

A : reduction of crosstalk

B : increase of crosstalk
C : increase in flexibility

D : decrease in costs

Q.no 32. A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because

A : It is used by everybody

B : Any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone

C : All the minization techniques are applicable for optimum NAND gate realization

D : Many digital computers use NAND gates.

Q.no 33. The NAND gate output will be low if the two inputs

A : oo

B : o1

C : 10

D : 11

Q.no 34. A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have

A : 5 states

B : 10
states

C : 32 state

D : Infinite states.

Q.no 35. What device is similar to an RTD but has a negative temperature
coefficient?

A : Strain gauge

B : Thermistor

C : Negative-type RTD

D : Thermocouple

Q.no 36. In N-P-N transistor______________

A : collector area is greater than emitter area


B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 37. When a light beam is reflected back into the medium, the angle of _______
equals the angle of _______.

A : incidence, reflection

B : incidence,refraction

C : reflection; refraction

D : refraction; recursion

Q.no 38. Zener diode is generally operated in its _________

A : Only in reverse breakdown region

B : Reverse breakdown region as well as forward biased region

C : Sometimes in forward biased region

D : Sometimes in reverse breakdown region

Q.no 39. In P-N-P transistor________

A : emitter area is less than collector area

B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is slightly greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 40. A single and fundamental form of load cell which is basically used as a
transducer in the operation of a weighing machine undergoes the conversion of
___________.

A :  Force into an electrical signal

B : Pressure into an electrical signal

C : Acceleration into an electrical signal

D : Velocity into an electrical signal


Q.no 41. What is the percentage of modulation if the modulating signal is of 7.5V
and carrier is of 9V?

A : 100

B : 91

C : 83.33

D:0

Q.no 42. An AM broadcast station transmits modulating frequencies up to 6 kHz.


If the AM station is transmitting on a frequency of 894 kHz, the values for
maximum and minimum upper and lower sidebands and the total bandwidth
occupied by the AM station are:

A : 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 12 KHz

B : 894 KHz, 884 KHz, 12 KHz

C : 894 KHz, 888 KHz, 6 KHz

D : 900 KHz, 888 KHz, 6 KHz

Q.no 43. Pick out the CORRECT Statements

A : In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same value irrespective
of its position

B : The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal to the number of
symbols in the system

C : It is not always possible to find the exact binary

D : Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of FOUR binary symbols

Q.no 44. Zener breakdown voltage range can be controlled using _________

A : By controlling reverse voltage across PN junction

B : By controlling reverse current across PN junction

C : By controlling dopping level of P-N junction

D : By controlling reverse voltage as well as reverse current across PN junction

Q.no 45. Im = Vm/(Rs + 2Rf + RL) is given for ___________

A : Half Wave Rectifier


B : Full Wave Rectifier

C : Bridge Rectifier

D : Half Wave Rectifier with LC filter

Q.no 46. In TV transmission, picture signal is ……………… modulated.

A : Frequency

B : Phase

C : Amplitude

D : None of the above

Q.no 47. A voltage V = 300 cos 100 t is applied to a half wave rectifier with load
resistance equal to 5 kΩ, the rectifier may be represented by an ideal diode in
series with a resistance of 1 kΩ, the value of Im I given as __

A : 500 mA

B : 50 mA

C : 56.56 mA

D : 52 mA

Q.no 48. How many pins does temperature sensor have?

A : 5 legs

B : 2 legs

C : 4 legs

D : 3 legs

Q.no 49. PIV in Full Wave Rectifier

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 50. The output of a JK flipflop with asynchronous preset and clear inputs is
‘1’. The output can be changed to ‘0’ with one of the following conditions.
A : By applying J = 0, K = 0 and
using a clock.

B : By applying J = 1, K = 0 and using the


clock.

C : By applying J = 1, K = 1 and using the


clock.

D : By applying a synchronous preset input.

Q.no 51. If a noninverting amplifier has an RIN of 1000 ohms and an RFB of 2.5
kilohms, what is the RIN voltage when 1.42 mV is applied to the correct input?

A : 3.5 mV

B : ground

C : 1.42 mV

D : 0.56 mV

Q.no 52. The decimal equivalent of Binary number 11010 is

A : 26

B : 36

C : 16.   

D : 23

Q.no 53. If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7
V applied to the noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?

A : 7.82 V

B : saturation

C : cutoff

D : 9.52 V

Q.no 54. At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband is ………………… of that
of carrier

A :    50%

B : 0.6
C : 0.4

D : 0.25

Q.no 55. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 368 is

A : 1111E8

B : 1.1011E8

C : 1.1101E8

D : 1.111E8

Q.no 56. In forward biased condition, P-N junction causes barrier potential to
____________

A : Increase

B : remain constant

C : Decrease

D : Increase rapidly

Q.no 57. PIV in Half Wave Rectifier is given as ___________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 58. A carrier of 10v peak and frequency 100khz is amplitude modulated by a
sine wave of 4V peak and frequency 1000Hz.Determine the modulation index for
modulated wave, frequencies of sideband components and bandwidth.

A : 0.4,101khz,99khz,2khz

B : 0.5,100khz,97khz,1.5khz

C : 0.3,100khz,96khz,1.5khz

D : 0.1,110khz,97khz,1.5khz

Q.no 59. The diode schematic arrow points to the

A : positive axial lead


B : trivalent-doped material

C : anode lead

D : cathode lead

Q.no 60. If an op-amp has one input grounded and the other input has a signal
feed to it, then it is operating as

A : Common-mode

B : Single-ended

C : Double-ended

D : Noninverting mode
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a


Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a


Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a


Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD1000530_T1 BASIC ELECTRONICS ENGG.


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. A negative clipper removes the ___________ half-cycles of the input voltage.

A : Negative

B : Positive

C : Both positive and negative

D : No part of

Q.no 2. The common-mode voltage gain is

A : smaller than differential voltage gain

B : equal to voltage gain

C : greater than differential voltage gain

D : None of the above

Q.no 3. The _______ surrounds the _______ in a fiber-optic cable.


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A : fiber,cladding

B : core, fiber

C : core; cladding

D : cladding; core

Q.no 4. What are the possible forms of energy transmission that can be
undertaken by a transducer ?

A :  Acoustical

B : Electrical

C : Mechanical

D : All of the above

Q.no 5. How many bits are required to store one BCD digit ?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 6. The linear variable differential transformer transducer is

A : Inductive transducer

B : Non-inductive transducer

C : Capacitive transducer

D : Resistive transducer

Q.no 7. LED is a type of ________

A : Zener Diode

B : Varactor diode

C : P-N junction Diode

D : Gunn Diode

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Q.no 8. Which circuit is used for obtaining desired output waveform in
operational amplifier?

A : Clipper

B : Clamper

C : Peak amplifier

D : Sample and hold

Q.no 9. RTDs are typically connected with other fixed resistors.

A : in a pi configuration

B : in a bridge configuration

C : and variable resistors

D : and capacitors in a filter-type circuit

Q.no 10. The output of unfiltered half wave or fullwave rectifier is

A : smoth DC voltage

B : steady DC voltage

C : pulsating Dc voltage

D : AC voltage

Q.no 11. The core of an optical fiber is _______.

A : glass

B : plastic

C : metal

D : A or B

Q.no 12. In the common mode, ……………

A : both inputs are grounded

B : the outputs are connected together

C : an identical signal appears on both the inputs

D : the output signal are in-phase


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Q.no 13. Which among the following is having more wavelengths?

A : X-rays

B : Cosmic waves

C : Radio waves

D : Gamma rays

Q.no 14. Ripple factor for Half Wave Rectifier is

A : 1.21

B : 1.12

C : 1.32

D : 1.42

Q.no 15. For silicon diode the barrier potential is approximately equals to

A : 0.3 V

B : 0.7 V

C : 6.8V

D : 2.0 V

Q.no 16. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between
mobile station and MSC?

A : BSS

B : NSS

C : OSS

D : BSC

Q.no 17. In a BJT

A : The base region is sandwiched between emitter and collector

B : The collector is sandwiched between base and emitter

C : The emitter region is sandwiched between base and collector

D : The drain region is sandwiched between emitter and collector


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Q.no 18. Which of the following represents materials used for thickness
measurement using inductive transducer?

A : Material should be magnetic in nature

B : Material should be magnetic and conducting

C : Material should be magnetic and non-conducting

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Choose the false statement.

A : SCR is a bidirectional device

B : SCR is a controlled device

C : In SCR the gate is the controlling terminal

D : SCR are used for high-power applications

Q.no 20. _______ cable carries signals of higher frequency ranges than _______ cable.

A : Twisted-pair; coaxial

B : Twisted-pair; fiber-optic

C : Coaxial; twisted-pair

D : none of the above

Q.no 21. The op amp can amplify

A : AC signals only

B : DC signals only

C : Both ac and dc signals

D : Neither ac not dc signals

Q.no 22. PSSR is an op-amp parameter which defines the degree of dependence on
variations in _______.

A : temperature

B : pressure

C : power supply voltage

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D : slew rate

Q.no 23. The forward break over voltage is maximum when

A : Gate current = ∞

B : Gate current = 0

C : Gate current = -∞

D : It is independent of gate current

Q.no 24. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is
…….

A : 90 V/μs

B : 0.67 V/μs

C : 1.5 V/μs

D : none of these

Q.no 25. In decimal number system what is MSD

A : First digit from left to right

B :  First digit from right to left

C : Middle digit

D : Mean of all digits

Q.no 26. The output of a Schmitt trigger is a

A : triangle waveform.

B : pulse waveform.

C : sawtooth waveform.

D : sinusoidal waveform.

Q.no 27. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of
__________

A : electron current in the emitter

B : electron current in the collector

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C : hole current in the emitter

D : donor ion current

Q.no 28. Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:

A : out of the base lead

B : into the collector

C : into the emitter

D : into the base supply

Q.no 29. What is PSRR value of an ideal op-amp?

A : Zero

B : Unity

C : Infinite

D : Unpredictable

Q.no 30. Output characteristics of common emitter configuration is plotted


between _____

A : IC and VCE at constant IE

B : IC and VCE at constant IB

C : IC and VCB at constant IB

D : IC and VCB at constant IE

Q.no 31. Which of these sets of logic gates are designated as universal gates?

A : NOR, NAND.

B : XOR, NOR, NAND.

C : OR, NOT, AND.

D : NOR, NAND, XNOR.

Q.no 32. Function of transducer is to convert

A : Electrical signal into non electrical quantity

B : Non electrical quantity into electrical signal


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C : Electrical signal into mechanical quantity

D : All of these

Q.no 33. Which factor makes twisted-pair cable superior to fiber-optic cable?

A :          signal attenuation

B :         noise resistance

C :          bandwidth range

D :        cost

Q.no 34. Average load current (ILdc) for Half Wave Rectifier is _______

A : Im/π

B : 2Im/π

C : Im/2π

D : 2Im

Q.no 35. An SCR is a

A : four layer, four junction device

B : four layer, three junction device

C : four layer, two junction device

D : three layer, single junction device

Q.no 36. A single and fundamental form of load cell which is basically used as a
transducer in the operation of a weighing machine undergoes the conversion of
___________.

A :  Force into an electrical signal

B : Pressure into an electrical signal

C : Acceleration into an electrical signal

D : Velocity into an electrical signal

Q.no 37. Which of the following conversion is correct for load cell?

A : Force to strain

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B : Force to displacement

C : Force to voltage

D : Both force to strain and force to displacement

Q.no 38. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a __________ circuit.

A : high resistance to low resistance

B : low resistance to high resistance

C : high resistance to high resistance

D : low resistance to low resistance

Q.no 39. When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is VBE for a C-E
configuration?

A : voltage-divider bias

B : 0.4 V

C : 0.7 V

D : emitter voltage

Q.no 40. A pn junction allows current flow when

A : the n-type material is more positive than the p-type material

B : both the n-type and p-type materials have the same potential

C : the p-type material is more positive than the n-type material

D : there is no potential on the n-type or p-type materials

Q.no 41. An inverting amplifier with gain 1 have different input voltage: 1.2v,3.2v
and 4.2v. Find the output voltage?

A : 4.2v

B : 8.6v

C : -4.2v

D : -8.6v

Q.no 42. PIV in Half Wave Rectifier is given as ___________

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A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 43. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the
input signals is considered to be which type of amplifier?

A : common-mode

B : darlington

C : differential

D : operational

Q.no 44. A differential amplifier has a common-mode gain of 0.2 and a common-
mode rejection ratio of 3250. What would the output voltage be if the single-ended
input voltage was 7 mV rms?

A : 1.4 mV rms

B : 650 mV rms

C : 4.55 V rms

D : 0.455 V rms

Q.no 45. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 368 is

A : 1111E8

B : 1.1011E8

C : 1.1101E8

D : 1.111E8

Q.no 46. The TRIAC can be represented by

A : two SCRs in anti-parallel

B : two SCRs in parallel

C : two diodes in anti-parallel

D : two diodes in parallel


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Q.no 47. A voltage V = 300 cos 100 t is applied to a half wave rectifier with load
resistance equal to 5 kΩ, the rectifier may be represented by an ideal diode in
series with a resistance of 1 kΩ, the value of Im I given as __

A : 500 mA

B : 50 mA

C : 56.56 mA

D : 52 mA

Q.no 48. With a differential gain of 50,000 and a common-mode gain of 2, what is
the common-mode rejection ratio?

A : –87.9 dB

B : –43.9 dB

C : 43.9 dB

D : 87.9 dB

Q.no 49. With full-wave rectification, current through the load resistor must be

A : in the same direction

B : from the reverse biased diode

C : to the external load

D : in opposite directions

Q.no 50. Im = Vm/(Rs + 2Rf + RL) is given for ___________

A : Half Wave Rectifier

B : Full Wave Rectifier

C : Bridge Rectifier

D : Half Wave Rectifier with LC filter

Q.no 51. The diode schematic arrow points to the

A : positive axial lead

B : trivalent-doped material

C : anode lead
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D : cathode lead

Q.no 52. In a transistor, the base current is about ________ of emitter current.

A : 0.25

B : 0.2

C : 0.35

D : 05

Q.no 53. The static V-I curve for the SCR is plotted for

A : Ia (anode current) vs Ig (gate current), Va (anode – cathode voltage) as a parameter

B : Ia vs Va with Ig as a parameter

C : Va vs Ig with Ia as a parameter

D : Ig vs Vg with Ia as a parameter

Q.no 54. Which of the following memory device stores information such as
subscriber’s identification number in GSM?

A : Register

B : Flip flop

C : SIM

D : SMS

Q.no 55. The number of control lines for 32 to 1 multiplexer is

A:4

B:5

C : 16

D:6

Q.no 56. Zener breakdown voltage range can be controlled using _________

A : By controlling reverse voltage across PN junction

B : By controlling reverse current across PN junction

C : By controlling dopping level of P-N junction


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D : By controlling reverse voltage as well as reverse current across PN junction

Q.no 57. Which of the following modulating signal voltage would cause over-
modulation on a carrier voltage of 10v?

A : 9.5

B : 9.99

C : 10

D : 12

Q.no 58. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is
……..

A : 700 nA

B : 99.3 μA

C : 49.7 μA

D : none of these

Q.no 59. PIV in Bridge Rectifier is given as ____________

A : Vm

B : 2Vm

C : 3Vm

D : Vm/π

Q.no 60. If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7
V applied to the noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?

A : 7.82 V

B : saturation

C : cutoff

D : 9.52 V

Q.no 1. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is _______

A : collector

B : base
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C : emitter

D : collector-base junction

Q.no 2. All of the following are basic op-amp input modes of operation EXCEPT

A : inverting mode

B : common-mode

C : double-ended

D : single-ended

Q.no 3. Electrical transducers generate ________

A : biological signals

B : chemical signals

C : physical signals

D : electrical signals

Q.no 4. For Bridge Rectifier ripple factor is __________

A : 0.4

B : 0.42

C : 0.46

D : 0.48

Q.no 5. The operating point is also called the _______

A : cut off point

B : quiescent point

C : saturation point

D : center point

Q.no 6. Complement of XNOR and OR is ________ and ________ respectively.

A : NOR, XNOR

B : OR, NOR

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C : XOR, NOR

D : XOR, OR

Q.no 7. Amplifiers and oscillators using BJT, operate in ...... Region

A : Inverted mode

B : Active

C : Cut off

D : Saturation

Q.no 8. The rate at which fluid flows through a closed pipe can be determined by

A : Determining the mass flow rate

B : Determining the volume flow rate

C : Either (1) or (2)

D : None of these

Q.no 9. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is __________

A : four

B : three

C : one

D : two

Q.no 10. What is one important thing transistors do?

A : Amplify weak signals

B : Rectify line voltage

C : Regulate voltage

D : Emit light

Q.no 11. The device which changes from serial data to parallel data is

A : COUNTER

B : MULTIPLEXER

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C : DEMULTIPLEXER

D : FLIP-FLOP

Q.no 12. _______ has an inner conductor and an outer conductor separated by
insulation.

A : twisted-pair cable

B : fiber-optic cable

C : coaxial cable

D : all of the above

Q.no 13. Load cells are used for measuring ______________.

A :  Large weights only

B : Small weights only

C : Weights moving in high speed

D :  Slowly moving weights

Q.no 14. The use of negative feedback

A : reduces the voltage gain of an Op-amp

B : makes the Op-amp oscillate

C : makes linear operation possible

D : Both A and B

Q.no 15. Maximum rectification efficiency for Half Wave Rectifier is ________

A : 0.4

B : 0.6

C : 0.45

D : 0.48

Q.no 16. A Binary number system has how many digits.

A:0

B:1
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C:2

D : 10

Q.no 17. In a JK Flip-Flop, toggle means

A : Set Q = 1 and Q = 0.

B : Set Q = 0 and Q = 1.

C : Change the output to the opposite state.

D : No change in output.

Q.no 18. Which number system has a base of 16

A : Decimal

B : Octal

C : Hexadecimal

D : None

Q.no 19. Majority carriers in N type semiconductor is

A : Holes

B : Electrons

C : Neutrons

D : Ions

Q.no 20. An output that is proportional to the addition of two or more inputs is
from which type of amplifier?

A : differentiator

B : difference

C : summing

D : analog subtractor

Q.no 21. In LED, when electron meets hole, it falls into a lower energy level and
releases energy in the form of ____

A : EM wave

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B : Visible ions

C : Neutron

D : Photon

Q.no 22. In a transistor amplifier circuit, VCE = VCB + ___

A : VBE

B : 2 VBE

C : 1.5 VBE

D : 3 VBE

Q.no 23. The common mode rejection ratio is

A : Very low

B : As high as possible

C : Equal to the voltage gain

D : Equal to the common mode voltage gain

Q.no 24. In a full wave rectifier the DC load current flows for

A : the complete cycle of input signal

B : only for positive half cycle of the input signal

C : less than half cycle of the input signal

D : more than half cycle but less than complete cycle of the input signal

Q.no 25. The major advantage of FM over AM is ……………

A :     Reception is less noisy

B : Higher carrier frequency

C :      Smaller bandwidth

D :       Small frequency deviation

Q.no 26. In a P-N-P transistor, the current carriers are _______

A : acceptor ions

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B : donor ions

C : free electrons

D : holes

Q.no 27. A TRIAC__________.

A : can trigger only on positive gate voltages

B : can trigger only on negative gate voltages

C : cannot be triggered with gate voltages

D : can be triggered by either a positive or a negative gate voltage

Q.no 28. The voltage gain of a loaded differential amp is

A : Large than the unloaded voltage gain

B : Equal to Rc/ re

C : Smaller than the unloaded voltage gain

D : Impossible to determine

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a necessary component in a clamper


circuit?

A : Diode

B : Capacitor

C : Resistor

D : Independent DC Supply

Q.no 30. A zener diode is always .......... connected.

A : reverse

B : forward

C : either reverse or forward

D : both reverse and forward

Q.no 31. When matching polarity connections have been made and the potential
difference (PD) is above 0.7 V, the diode is considered to be:

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A : not working

B : an open switch

C : reverse biased

D : forward biased

Q.no 32. The voltage where current may start to flow in a reverse-biased pn
junction is called the

A : forward voltage

B : biasing voltage

C : barrier potential

D : breakdown voltage

Q.no 33. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called

A : beta

B : alpha

C : omega

D : theta

Q.no 34. A cordless telephone using separate frequencies for transmission in base
and portable units is known as

A : duplex arrangement

B : half duplex arrangement

C : either (A) or (B)

D : neither (A) nor (B)

Q.no 35. When an input of NAND gate is combined ,the gate formed is

A : OR gate

B : AND Gate

C : NOT Gate

D : None of these

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Q.no 36. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals:

A : the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

B : the open-loop voltage gain

C : the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

D : the input resistance

Q.no 37. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by

A : collector voltage

B : emitter voltage

C : base current

D : collector resistance

Q.no 38. In N-P-N transistor______________

A : collector area is greater than emitter area

B : emitter area is greater than collector area

C : base area is greater than emitter area

D : base area is equal to emitter area.

Q.no 39. Which among the following is/are the feature/s characteristic/s of an
integrated op-amp?

A : Small size

B : High reliability

C : Low cost & less power consumption

D : All of the above

Q.no 40. The output of the phototransistor depends on --------factors.

A : Wavelength of the incident light

B : Area of the light-exposed collector-base junction

C : DC current gain of the transistor.

D : All of the above


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Q.no 41. What is the bandwidth required for FM in which the modulating
frequency is 2Khz and maximum deviation is 10Khz.Assume highest needed
sidebands are 8.

A : 10Khz

B : 24Khz

C : 32khz

D : 12khz

Q.no 42. A ________ is thermally sensitive resistor that exhibits a large change in
resistance

A : Thermistor

B : Resistance Thermometer

C : Thermo couple

D : Semiconductor based sensor

Q.no 43. What is the percentage of modulation if the modulating signal is of 7.5V
and carrier is of 9V?

A : 100

B : 91

C : 83.33

D:0

Q.no 44. If a 2 mV signal produces a 2 V output, what is the voltage gain?

A : 001

B : 004

C : 100

D : 1000

Q.no 45. Convert the binary number (1111000011110000) to hexadecimal number

A : 1010

B : F0F0

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C : 7070

D : 5050

Q.no 46. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A : voltage

B : current

C : resistance

D : power

Q.no 47. How many pins does temperature sensor have?

A : 5 legs

B : 2 legs

C : 4 legs

D : 3 legs

Q.no 48. Brightness of LED is controlled by

A : Forward voltage

B : Doping Level

C : Reversed voltage

D : Forward current

Q.no 49. In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has

A : J = 0, K = 0.

B : J = 1, K = 1.

C : J = 0, K = 1.

D : J = 1, K = 0.

Q.no 50. Strain gauge is a

A : Active device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance

B : Passive device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

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C : Passive device and converts mechanical displacement into a change of resistance

D : Active device and converts electrical displacement into a change of resistance

Q.no 51. The ideal diode resistance in reversed biased mode is

A : Zero

B : Infinite

C : few MΩ

D : few GΩ

Q.no 52. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ........

A:9

B : 0.9

C : 900

D : 90

Q.no 53. Transistor biasing is done to keep_________in the circuit.

A : proper direct current

B : proper alternating current

C : the base current small

D : collector current small

Q.no 54. Pick out the CORRECT Statements

A : In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same value irrespective
of its position

B : The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal to the number of
symbols in the system

C : It is not always possible to find the exact binary

D : Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of FOUR binary symbols

Q.no 55. In a differential amplifier, the configuration is said to be an 'unbalanced


output', if ________

A : Output voltage is measured between two collectors


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B : Output is measured with respect to ground

C : Two input signals are used

D : All of the above

Q.no 56. In an SR latch built from NOR gates, which condition is not allowed

A : S=0, R=0

B : S=0, R=1

C : S=1, R=0

D : S=1, R=1

Q.no 57. At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband is ………………… of that
of carrier

A :    50%

B : 0.6

C : 0.4

D : 0.25

Q.no 58. Which of the following indicates the correct set of combination in radio
waves?

A : Shorter wavelength – high frequency

B : Longer wavelength – less frequency

C : Shorter wavelength – less frequency

D : Longer wavelength – high frequency

Q.no 59. which sensor is LM35?

A : Pressure sensor

B : Humidity sensor

C : Temperature sensor

D : Touch sensor

Q.no 60. Im = Vm/(Rs + Rf + RL) is given for ___________

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A : Half Wave Rectifier

B : Bridge Rectifier

C : Bridge Rectifier with LC filter

D : Bridge Rectifier with π filter

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