Q.

No QUESTION A B C

TAS 200 kt, nil wind CP 100 NM, in case 130 NM 115 NM 70 NM
of 30 kts of head wind component
1 distance to CP will
Become (DH/O+H)

For a great circle on earth the centre may or the centre centre lies on
may not coincide coincides with the axis of
with centre of earth, centre of earth, earth and
2 but radius is same but radius may or radius is
as on earth may not be same always parallel
as of to the plane of
equator

Rhumb line is a regularly curved straight line on all both a and b

line on surface of plotting charts
3 earth which cuts all (i.e mercator,
meridians at same lamberts, PSP)
angle
In transferring posn line with air plot principle of similar curvature of no alteration of
method traingles is used range posn line is hdg should be
4 maintained there for
transference
period
In case unsure of track but sure of G/S. error is maximum in error is minimum there will no
5 To obtain running fix if PL transferred is fix in fix error in fix
parallel to track
the rule of thumb method for making 2 parallel to or ±15 perpendicular to parallel to or
P/L MPP holds good in case line joining deg of major axis of or ±20 deg of ±20 deg to
6 DR Posn to fix ellipse either axis of either axis of
ellipse ellipse
Conversion angle between two points is angle between G/C half the dependent on
and rhumb line brg convergence chlong and
7 joining the two mean latitude
points between two
points
Square rule graphical section on low finding relative maintaining air both a and b
8 speed side of a DR computer can be vectors plot
used for
to find velocity of B wrt A reverse direction of reverse direction reverse
B and add to A of A and add to B direction of A
9 vectorially algebriacally and add to B
vectorially
 Radius of action is (single stationary Maximum in case maximum in case in either of the
10 base) of tail wind on of tail wind in above cases
outbound inbound
The origin of GEOREF system is Equator and 90 deg S latitude south pole and
11 greenwich meridian and 180 deg E/W antemeridian
longitude of greenwich
Last four digits of S 1727 W07833 in 1778 2733 3327
12
Georef will be
Detection distance is derived from sweep the maximum twice the track
width distance at which spacing
an object may be
13 detected from air
under a given set
of conditions
Vignot search is the search for a moving direction of speed known but both speed
object whose movement is direction of and direction of
known but speed movement not movement
14 not known known known

In airway flying navigator is supposed to Hdg (T) and G/S to Trk and Hdg (M) Hdg(T),
give fly and distance to to fly and ETA elapsed time
15 next reporting point next reporting and distance to
poing next reporting
point
16 Isogrivs are lines joining places of equal grid convergence divergence variation
10W is set on VSC, instead of 10E. After port of track stbd of track on track
17
one hour ac will be
Find convergency. Given chlong = 10 10 Cos 30 10 tan 30 10 sin 30
18
deg at 30 deg N
With 3 tons fuel PNR is 600 nm. With 3.5 650 nm 880 nm 700 nm
19
tons fuel PNR will be
With 3 tons fuel PNR is 600 nm. With 3.5 650 nm 880 nm 700 nm
20
tons fuel PNR will be
Compression is expressed as ratio of polar ratio of difference difference
diameter to between Eq between Eq
21 equatorial diameter diameter and diameter and
polar diameter to Polar diameter
Eq diameter
10 km is 32800 ft 52800 ft 60800 ft
22
At ISA conditions, temp at 50000 ft would -85 deg C -56 deg C -36 deg C
23
be
 In RSA calculation, 1500' caters for airflow effect height above temp and alt
obstruction setting error
24

25 Deviation 1W, VSC = 2E, variation will be 1E 3E 1W

Assuming all other conditions to be same, head winds on tail winds on beam winds
26
time to PNR will be maximum in case of outbound outbound
Where there has been no accurate hachures formlines both a and b
27 survey and contours are only approx
values they are called
The direct track from BBG to DPN is 359 change in GC track change in change in
28 and from DPN to BBG is 176. The diff is deviation variation
due to
At the end of a dog leg aircraft will be time spent on one time spent on last diff in time
down wind of the original TMG by wind leg leg spent of the
effect equal to straight leg and
29 the total time
spent on the
dog leg
The correct formula for distance to CP is DO/O+H DTH/TH+To DTo/To+TH
30
For a given wind condition a higher TAS will be close to further from base at the same
31
means that the CP base point
For tactical solutions GS/Grd Dist = GS/TAS = Air GS/TAS = Grs
32
TAS/Air Dist Dist/Grd Dist Dist/Air Dist
If divergence is positive GC is concave to GC convex to GC is a
pole pole straight line

33

Vectored w/v is mean w/v local w/v depends on

the time of
34 restart

35 Least band of error is for ADF brg Astro brg Transit brg
LCB between two bodies can exist if both maintains constant will meet or have maintain equal
bodies velocity already met at a velocity and
36 common posn at opposite track
common time
37 Track and hdg of ac will coincide in nil winds tail winds head winds
 In GEOREF if a posn lies in the dividing of the zone of the zone either a or b
38
meridian the ref letter is westerly to the easterly to posn
In case wind direction changes by 180 posn
dist to CP remains dist to PNR time to PNR
deg the same remains the remains the
same same
39

For losing 1.5 min of time an ac can fly a 60 deg dog leg, a 45 deg dog leg, a 30 deg dog
40 each leg = 2 mins each leg = 4 leg, each leg =
mins 6 mins
Length of NM is max at pole. So the max at pole max at equator both a and b
41
length of km will be
The shortest distance between two points through east through west either a and b
42 diametrically opposite on lat 60 deg N will
be by
W.r.t. grid technique choose the incorrect only mercator chart used in high used in high
statement is used latitudes to latitudes to
43 overcome overcome
problems of great problems of
circle flying convergence
For a given wind condition a higher TAS will be close to further from base at the same
44
means that the PNR base point
Adjustment of distance based on PCTL equilateral triangle isoceles triangle wind triangle
45
utilizes the principle of
For plotting posn lines CA should be relative brg of the true GC brg at magnetic brg
46
applied to ac the source of the ac
Drift is maximum, when w/v is perpendicular to perpendicular to perpendicular
47
the hdg the TMG to reqd track
Convergence is east when grid north lies west true north lies the place is
48 of magnetic north west of grid north east of datum
meridian
CEB is miror image of GC brg on the all orthomorphic mercator mercator and
49
other side of rhumb line on projections lamberts
If the temperature of the gas is kept Boyle’s Law Dalton’s Law Henry’s Law
50 constant then the volume will be inversely
proportional to the pressure.
In a mixture of gases, the total pressure is Boyle’s Law Dalton’s Law Henry’s Law
the sum total of partial pressure exerted
by each gas. Also it follows that the
51 pressure exerted by individual gases in a
mixture is in the same proportion in which
the gases are present in the mixture
volumetrically.
 The weight of a slightly soluble gas that Boyle’s Law Dalton’s Law Henry’s Law
dissolves in a definite weight of a liquid at
52 a given temperature is almost directly
proportional to the pressure of the gas.
The various types of hypoxia is:- Hypoxic hypoxia. Anaemic Stagnate
53
hypoxia. hypoxia.
The symptoms and signs of Hypoxia is Fatigue Emotional Pain
54 outbursts &
Depression
55 Stages of Hypoxia is Indifferent Compensatory Disturbance
Factors affecting hypoxia is: - Rate of ascent. Duration at Ambient temp.
56
altitude.
Preventive measures for Hypoxia is Keep oneself fit. Serviceability of Ensure
oxygen mask availability
57 equipment sufficient
oxygen before
the sortie.
58 Cause of hyperventilation is Fear. Apprehension. Hypoxia.
59 Symptoms and signs of hyperventilation Nausea Dizziness Faintness
Measures to prevent hyperventilation is Control of breathing Sleeping Use of oxygen
60
above 12,000
Decompression sickness is defined as a Bends Chokes ft
Effects on
symptom complex characterised by vision and
61 central nervous
system
disturbance
Predisposing factors for decompression Rate of ascent Temperature Obesity
62
sickness is
The ill effects of rapid decompression is Misting. Sudden drop in Sucking out of
63 temperature. objects from
the ac.
Protective measures to counter effect of Crouching Shouting Rising of legs.
64
Gz+ is
Symptoms and signs of otitic Heavy ear Deafness Bleeding from
65
barotraumas is the ear
Delayed Otitic barotraumas occurs after 4-6 hrs after 4-5 hrs after 5-6 hrs after
66 completion of flying completion of completion of
flying flying
___________may be defined as a Discomfort Sea sickness Air sickness
condition produced primarily by aircraft
67 accelerations in flight and is manifested
by sweating,nausia,vomiting and extreme
weakness
The ________are responsible for colour Cones Rods Non of the
68
vision as well as day or bright light vision above
 The ________are responsible for vision Cones Rods Non of the
69
in dim light and night vision above
Cones require about _____ minutes to 10 5 8
70
regain full sensitivity
Rods require about _____ minutes of 10 30 8
71
darkness to become fully sensitive
Factors affecting night vision is Hypoxia Vitamin A Smoking and
72
alcohol
Predisposing or aggravating factors for Poor visibility Lack of flying Switch over
spatial disorientation is conditions. experience. from VFR to
73 IFR and vice
versa.
As per ICAO regulations a gap of 6 8 12
74 ____hours between last drink and flying
is mandatory
Atmospheric haze on the approach path Closer to the R/W Farther from the Below the glide
75
can create the illusion of being: - R/W path
Positive pressure breathing is essential 10000 ft 25000 ft 30000 ft
76
above an altitude of :-
Morphine is not be given to a person who Unconscious In pain Has severe
77
is: - head injuries
A cold clammy Skin, weak pulse is Hypoxia Decompression Hyperventilatio
78
symptoms of: - Sickness n
The effect of evolution of gases from the Hypoxia Altitude Hyper
79
body fluid is called:- disbarism ventilation
With increasing humidity, TAS for a given decreases increases remains
80
IAS constant
Relationship between TAS and MN is TAS = MN. TAS = MN. TAS = MN. 662
81 662√Rel. Density 662√Rel. √Rel. Temp
pressure
In flight, coefficient of lift depends upon wing section nature of skin angle of attack
82
surface
Profile drag Increases with decreases with remains
increasing speed increasing speed unaffected with
83 changes in
speed
Flying at Vimd, drag will remain constant at Increase with decrease with
84 any altitude increase in increase
altitude altitude
For C of G considerations, the influence chordline fulcrum athwarship
85 of weight is directly dependent on its axis
distance from the
Thrust horse power is not soleley engine efficiency airframe propellor
86
dependent of the engine but is related to efficiency efficiency
 In a gas turbine engine the conversion of 60 to 80 % RPM 40 to 70 % RPM 80 to 90 %
87 fuel energy to gas energy is most efficient RPM
between
Viscosity of an ideal lubricating oil increases with remains reduces with
88 temperature unaffected with temperature
temperature
Limits of V1 less than Vmcg greater than VR greater than
89
Vmbe
Vmbe is effected by weight, pressure weight, pressure weight,
altitude, altitude, runway pressure
temperature, slope, altitude,
90 runway slope configuration temperature,
runway slope,
wind,
configuration

A ducted fan engine, as compared to increased reduced mean increased total

91 turbo jet engine has propulsive speed of the mass flow
efficiency exhaust gases
Some advantages of turbo prop over power available is the engine is power
turbo jet are independent of the more efficient at response to
forward speed of high altitudes throttle
the aircraft, more movement is
92 power is available more rapid
during the initial
stages of the take
off run

Vref is target is equal to 1.1 is more than

Calibarated air Vso where Vso is 1.2 Vmca
93 speed at 50 ft stall speed in
above the threshold landing
configuration
Minimum value is V2/Vs ratio fixed by 1 1.1 1.2
94
regulations is
Basic requirements of an airframe are sufficient strength smooth skin of easy to
the required dismantle for
95 aerodynamic servicing
form
For a wet runway the field limited take off increases does not change depends upon
96
weight runway slope
When an aircraft is stationary its zero 100% depends on
97
propulsive efficiency is throttle settings
When water methanol is used for thrust 40 % : 60 % 60 % : 40 % 50 % : 50 %
98 augmentation, the ratio of water to
methanol used is
 Tachometor are devices used to measure TAS RPM pressure
99
With increase in speed profile drag both profile and both profile
increases, induced induced drag and induced
100 drag decreases increases drag
decreases
While calculating the performance of an take off under the in case of a in case of a
aircraft, V1/VR ratio 0.96 implies that stated conditions is critical engine critical engine
unsafe failure just after failure just after
the calculated the calculated
V1( and below V1 (and below
VR) the reject VR) the
101
take off is unsafe continued take
but a continued off may be
take off is safe unsafe. Tto
reject take off
is preferable

For a jet engine, thrust increases with increase in RPM, decrease in increase in
drop in temperature RPM, increase in RPM, drop in
102 and increase in temperature and temperature
altitude increase in and decrease
altitude in altitude
As the altitude increases the density decreases increases may increase
103
altitude or decrease
For constant TAS, IAS will be max in dry and warm air dry cool air moist and
104
warm
The weight and balance extreme position max forward and max mumber of position of
105 of an aircraft denotes rearward CG passengers that baggage held
position can be carried in the aircraft
Factors limiting improvement on climb field length, flaps, field length, best Vmcg, tyre
106 limit take off weight are tyre pressure L/D ratio, tyre speed limit
speed limit
Take off flight path gross gradient 2.4 percent gross 2.4 percent gross 20 deg bank
requirements are climb gradient for climb gradient for limit for second
107 first segment fourth segment segment above
50 feet

V lift off is is Vr+10percent has to be is the minimum

minimum 1.05 speed at 35
108 Vmu where Vmu feet in case of
is min unstick single engine
speed failure
 SAR is maximum when TAS (knots) 220 - TAS (knots) 230 - TAS (knots)
Fx consumption Fx consumption 240 - Fx
109 (gal.hr) 202 (gal/hr) 210 consumption
(gal/hr) 220
For rectangular wings aspect ratio is span/chord span/ (Span)square/
110
given by (Chord)square wing area
111 SAR is TAS/GFC TAS/Power TAS/SFC
SAR increases with increase in TAS decrease in decrease in
112
power required SFC
RRS is always higher than Vimd Lower than Vimd same as Vimd
113
In case of turbo prop aircraft flying at high altitude medium altitude low altitude
114
about Vimd max endurance is achieved
at
Flying at a constant mach no. if the increases decreases remains same
115 ambient temperature decreases the TAS

Power required by the airframe in colder lesser greater remains same

temperatures is for all
116 temperature
with increase
in humidity
In turbojets with increasing altitude the is not affected decreases increases
117 SFC

Given TORA = 1000 mtrs, clearway = 300 1000 mtrs 1250 mtrs 1300 mtrs
118
mtrs, stopway = 250 mtrs, TODA will be
WAT curves in relation to aircraft weight and thrust wet power, AUW weight and
119
performance means and temperature temperature
Fuel consumption is a function of pressure altitude, density altitude, engine
RPM, AUW, angle AUW, MAP, efficiency, air
120 of attack and wind speed and wind temperature,
velocity velocity relative
density, speed,
AUW
SFC equals TAS/power or GFC/power or TAS/Vimd or
121 TAS/thrust or GFC/thrust or weight/Rel
TAS/SHP GFC/SHP pressuure
Maximum aerodynamical efficiency is when lift is when drag is when L/D ratio
122 obtained maximum minimum is max
 Mcrit is defined as the mach no when drag rises handling of when the
considerably aircraft becomes speed of the
critical local airflow
reaches one
123 mach at the
point of max
camber on the
airfoil

Dry air is lighter than humid heavier than both are

124 air for the same humid air for the equally heavy
volume same volume
For a particular angle of attack - L/D ratio changes with changes with remains
speed density constant,
125 whatever be
the speed or
density
Factors affecting power output of a turbo spped, temp and speed, altitude RPM, temp,
126 prop aircraft are RPM and RPM mixture
strength
For performance planning a "landing" is the time flaps are when L/gear are in visual
assumed to start from fully lowered lowered contact with
127 R/W after a
letdown

Reference zero is the point at which the point at which the point below
all wheels of the rotation is aircraft when
128 aircraft leave the initiated the height of
R/W aircraft is 35' or
50'
129 TAS/Pwr is maximum at Vimd Vimp 1.1 Vimd
The building principle of a gyroscope, the Close to the axis On the periphery Close to the
best efficiency is obtained through the and with a low and with a high axis and with a
130 concentration of the mass? rotation speed. rotation speed. high rotation
speed.
The characteristics of the directional gyro One degree of Two degrees of Two degrees
(DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass freedom, whose freedom, whose of freedom,
system are? vertical axis, horizontal axis whose axis
aligned with the corresponding to aligned with
real vertical to the the reference the vertical to
131 location is direction is the location is
maintained in this maintained in the maintained in
direction by an horizontal plane this direction
automatic erecting by an automatic by an erecting
system. erecting system. system.
 When an aircraft turns 360 degrees with a Too much nose-up Too much nose- Altitude and
constant speed and bank, the pilot and bank correct. up and bank bank correct.
132 observes the following on a classic toohigh.
artifitial horizon?
A slaved directional gyro derives it`s A direct reading The flight The flux valve.
133
directional from? magnetic compass. director.
A turn indicator is built around a 1 degree of 3 degrees of 2 degrees of
134
gyroscope with? freedom. freedom. freedom.
At a low bank angle, the measurement of Angular velocity of Yaw rate of the Pitch rate of
135 rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the aircraft. aircraft. the aircraft.
the?
An airborne instrument, equipped with a An artificial horizon. A turn indicator. A fluxgate
136 gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a compass.
horizontal spin axis is?
The rate-of-turn is the? A      Pitch rate in a Change-of- Yaw rate in a
137 turn. heading rate of turn aircraft.
the aircraft.
In a turn at constant rate, the turn Proportional to the Independent to Proportional to
indicator reading is? aircraft true the aircraft true the aircraft
138 airspeed. airspeed. weight.

An airborne instrument, equipped with a A directional gyro. An artificial A turn

139 gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizon. indicator.
horizontal spin axis is?
An airborne instrument, equipped with a Fluxgate compass. Directional gyro. Turn indicator.
140 gyro with 1 degree of freedOlp and a
horizontal spin axis is a?
The vertical reference unit of a three-axis 1 degree of 1 degree of 2 degrees of
data generator is equipped with a gyro freedom and freedom and freedom and
141 with? horizontal spin axis. vertical spin axis. vertical spin
axis.
Following 180 degree stabilized turn with Too high pitch-up Too high pitch-up Attitude and
142 a constant attitude and bank, the artificial and too low and correct banking
horizon indicates? banking. banking. correct.
The gyro-magnetic compass torque Causes the Causes the Feeds the error
143 motor? directional gyro unit heading indicator detector
to precess. to precess. system.
The heading information originating from Error detector. Erector system. Heading
144 the gyro-magnetic compass flux valve is indicator.
sent to the?
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is A bank or pitch An apparent Too slow
due to the effect of? attitude of the weight and an precession on
145 aircraft. apparent vertical. the horizontal
gimbal ring.
 The pendulum type detector system of A torque motor on 2 torque motors A leveling
the directional gyro feeds? the sensitive axis. arranged erection torque
146 horizontally. motor.

The directional gyro axis spins about the In the latitude 30 In the latitude 45 On the
147
local vertical by 15degree/hour? degree. degree. equator.
Compared with a conventional gyro, a Consumes a lot of Has a longer life Is influenced
148 laser gyro? power. cycle. by
temperature.
Heading information given by a gyro 2 degrees-of- 1 degree-of- 1 degree-of-
149 platform, is given by a gyro at? freedom in the freedom in the freedom in the
vertical axis. horizontal axis. vertical axis.
Among the systematic errors of the" 15°/hour to the 7.5°/hour to the 7.5°/hour to the
directional gyro", the error due to the right. right. left.
150 earth rotation make the north reference
turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean
latitude of 45° N, this reference turns by?
The maximum directional gyro error due 180 degree /hour. 5 degree/hour. 15
151
to the earth rotation is? ' degree/hour.
A directional gyro is: 1. A gyroscope free 1,4. 2,4. 2,3.
around two axis. 2. A gyroscope free
around one axis. 3. capable of self
152 rientation around an earth-tied direction.
4. Incapable of self-orientation around
an earth-tied direction. The combination
which r

For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° Depends only on 0 degree/hour (+ 5

between the 005° Sand 005° N parallels, the aircraft's ground degree/hour.
153 the precession error of the directional speed.
gyro due to apparent drift is equal to?
What is the maximum gyro drift rate that 5 degree per hour. 15 degree per 20 degree per
154
can be caused by earth rotation? hour. hour.
Rigidity increases with? Increasing RPM, Increasing RPM Decreasing
and concentrating and RPM and
155 mass close to the concentrating radius.
centre. mass at the
periphery.
A gravity erection device would be used VSI. DGI. Artificial
156
on? horizon.
What will be the apparent wander on 10° per hour. 15° per hour. Zero.
157 gyroscope when flying on a northerly
track from 05° S to 05° N.
The number of degrees of freedom of a One more than the The same as the One less than
158 gyro is? number of gimbals. number of the number of
gimbals. gimbals.
 A directional gyro requires?   One gimbal, one Two gimbals, two Three gimbals,
degree of freedom degrees of three degrees
159 and a horizontal freedom and a of freedom and
spin axis. horizontal spin a lateral spin
axis. axis.
What type of gyro has a horizontal spin Rate gyro. Displacement Rate
160 axis and one degree of freedom? gyro. integrating
gyro.
Gyro rigidity improves with? Increasing RPM, Increasing RPM Decreasing
mass and radial and mass but RPM but
displacement of decreasing radial increasing
161 mass. displacement of mass and
mass. radial
displacement
of mass.

The dither motor in a ring laser Stabilises the Prevents laser Prevents or
gyroscope? frequency or tbe lock. minimises
162 laser source. transport
wander.
A 2 axis gyro measuring vertical changes 1,3. 1,4. 2,3.
will have? 1. One degree of freedom. 2.
163 Two degrees of freedom. 3. Vertical axis.
4. Horizontal axis.
The properties unique to a gyro include? 1,2. 2,3. 3,4.
164 1. Mass. 2. Inertia. 3. Rigidity. 4.
Precession. 5. Rotational velocity.
The gyro in a DGI has. 1. One 1,3. 1,4. 2,3.
165 degree of freedom. 2. Two degrees of
freedom. 3. Vertical axis. 4. Horizontal
axis.
The gyro in a vertical reference data 1,3. 1,4. 2,3.
generator has? 1. One degree of
166 freedom. 2. Two degrees of freedom. 3.
Vertical axis. 4.Horizontal axis.
The purpose of the torque motor in a gyro Move the selsyn Remove flux Precess the
stabilised magnetic compass is to? stator to calibrate valve errors. directional
167 the compass. gyro.

To indicate true heading, the gyros in a 1,3. 1,4. 2,3.

gyro stabilised platform require? 1.
168 One degree of freedom. 2. Two
degrees of freedom. 3. Vertical axis. 4.
Horizontal axis.
What error is caused by movement of the Transport wander. Earth rate. Real wander.
169
gyro relative to the earth in a DGI?
 Gyro in an artificial horizon requires. 1. 1,3. 1,4. 2,3.
One degree of freedom. 2. Two degrees
170 of freedom. 3. Verticataxis. 4.Horizontal
axis.
Gyroscope rigidity is increased Increasing hub Increasing rim Decreasing
171 by..........RPM and concentrating the mass hub
at the............ of the rotor? .
Gyro with one degree of freedom is used Slaved gyro Directional gyro Turn indicater.
172
in a? compass. unit.
Transport wander when flying east at 400 5.67° per hour. 6.67° per hour. 7.670per hour.
173
Kts at 45 degrees north is?
Transport wander when flying east at 300 (-4.2 degree per (-5.2 degree per 6.2 degree per
174
Kts at 40 degrees south is? hour. hour. hour
Transport wander when flying west at 300 (-2.33° per hour. ( -3.34° per hour. 2.33° per hour.
175
Kts at 25 degrees south is?
Transport wander when flying west at 300 2.33° per hour. 3.34° per hour. (-2.33° per
176
Kts at 25 degrees north is? hour.
Earth rate at 25 degrees south is? 13.59° per hour. 6.34° per hour. (-13.59° per
177
hour.
Earth rate at 45° north is? (-13.59° per hour. ( -10.61° per 13.59° per
178
hour. hour.
179 Earth rate at the equator is? Zero. 15° per hour. (-15° fer hour
Unless authorised by the Commanding Between sunrise In IMC. In air space
Officer for operational or specific flight and sunset. class 'B'.
180 mission, VFR flights shall not be
operated: -
When two aircraft are converging at Power driven Gliders shall give Balloons shall
approximately the same level, the aircraft heavier-than-air way to Airships. give way to
181 that has the other on its right shall give aircraft shall give Gliders
way except as follows: - way to airships,
gliders and
balloons
Minimum Separation between Departing One minute Two minutes One and half
Aircraft, if aircraft are to fly on tracks separation separation minutes
182 diverging by at least 450 immediately after separation
take-off so that lateral separation is
provided is
Minimum Separation between Departing Two and half One minute Two minutes
Aircraft, when the proceeding aircraft is minutes between between take-off between take-
183 40 knots or more faster than the following take-off off
aircraft and both aircraft propose to follow
the same track.
Minimum Separation between Departing Two minutes Five minutes Three minutes
Aircraft, at the time cruising levels are separation separation separation
184 crossed if a departing aircraft will be flown
through the same track.
 __________is to ensure that the crash Cdr (Air) Cdr (Ops) DATCO
tender and/or crash boats and ambulance
185 are all instantly available properly
manned and equipped
Initiating 'AIRMOVE' message in Cdr (Air) Cdr (Ops) DATCO
186
connection with extended flights is by
All incidents of importance or interest Occurrence Log. Aircraft Airfield Surface
taking place during his watch are to be Movement Log. Defects Log
187 recorded in the _______ log by the
DATCO together with details of any
action taken.
The operational objective of the rescue 5 2 3
and fire fighting service should be to
188 achieve response time of ­_____ minutes,
to the end of each runway in optimum
visibility and surface conditions.
A yellow strip superimposed on the red Presence of Landing EmergencyLan
189 square describes Temporary Prohibited dingOnly
Obstructions.
Two yellow diagonals superimposed on Presence of Landing Emergency
190 the red square. Temporary Prohibited Landing Only
Obstructions
Two yellow bars superimposed on the red Presence of Landing EmergencyLan
191 square Temporary Prohibited dingOnly
Obstructions
A white dumb-bell Runways and Runways, Landing Area
Perimeter Tracks Perimeter Track for Light
192 only and Grass Aircraft
Surfaces Service
III
A white dumb-bell with parallel black bars Runways and Runways, Landing Area
across the disc Perimeter Tracks Perimeter Track for LightAircraft
193 only and Grass
Surfaces Service
III
A white bar painted below a white cross Runways and Runways, LandingAreafor
Perimeter Tracks Perimeter Track LightAircraft
194 only and Grass
Surfaces Service
III
VEHICULAR TRAFFIC DURING NIGHT Observe a speed Observe a speed Observe a
195 limit of 30 KMPH. limit of 20 KMPH. speed limit of
22 KMPH
The runway controller's van is to be 13 inches by 13 15 inches by 15 1 inches by 12
196
painted in black and white squares inches inches inches
 Aeronautical lights indicating a desired Approach Lights Runway Lights Threshold
197
line of approach to a runway. Lights
Aeronautical lights arranged along the Approach Lights Runway Lights Threshold
198
edge of the entire length of a runway. Lights
Aeronautical lights so placed as to Approach Lights Runway Lights Threshold
199
indicate the beginning of the runway. Lights
Aeronautical lights arranged along the Approach Lights Runway Lights Threshold
200 length of the taxi track to indicate the Lights
route to be followed by taxying aircraft.
A designated area within a flight Advisory Area. Advisory Route Aerodrome
201 information region where air traffic Control Service
advisory service is available is called
A designated route along which air traffic Advisory Area. Advisory Route Aerodrome
202
advisory service is available is called Control Service
In a letdown Sector 1 procedure is Parallel Entry Offset Entry Direct Entry
203
204 In a letdown Sector 2 procedure is Parallel Entry Offset Entry Direct Entry
In a letdown Sector 3 procedure is Parallel Entry Offset Entry Direct Entry
205
International ground/air visual codes for V X N
206
“Require Assistance”
International ground/air visual codes for V X N
207
“Require Medical Assistance”
International ground/air visual codes for V X N
208
“YES or Affirmative”
International ground/air visual codes for V X N
209
“NO or Negative”
There are _____international NOTAM One Two Three
210
offices in India.
211 There are _____classes of NOTAMs One Two Three
Information regarding Defence A B C
212 Aerodromes is issued under
NOTAM_______series.
Information required by domestic A B C
213 operators only is issued under
NOTAM_______series.
NOTAM message identifier “N” carry the NOTAM contains NOTAM replaces NOTAM
following meaning new information a previous cancels a
214 NOTAM previous
NOTAM
The operational objective of the rescue 5 2 3
and fire fighting service should be to
215 achieve response time of ­_____ minutes,
to the end of each runway in optimum
visibility and surface conditions.
 Naval aircraft while operating in local Single engine - Twin/ multi Twin/ multi
flying areas or on exercises are to make Every 10 minutes engine aircraft engine aircraft
216 position report or "operations normal" call operating singly - operating in
as follows:- Every 20 minutes company
Every 45
minutes
The runway controller's van is to be 13 inches by 13 15 inches by 15 1 inches by 12
217
painted in black and white squares inches inches inches
Details about all accidents/incidents Blue Books Red Books Green Books
218 involving a particular Squadron/Flight/Unit
are to be furnished in
The passenger manifests are to be 1 Year 3 Months 6 months
retained for a period of ……. And are to
219 be produced during the Annual Inspection
of the ship/Air station
The responsibility for the upkeep of the Air Station AA CWE
220
hard surface of the Air Station lies with
221 The FLIP Part I is revised in every 1 year 1-3 years 3-5 years
Naval aircraft while operating in local Single engine - Twin/ multi Twin/ multi
flying areas or on exercises are to make Every 20 minutes engine aircraft engine aircraft
position report or "operations normal" call operating singly - operating in
222 as follows:- Every 40 minutes company -
Every 55
minutes
Initiating 'AIRMOVE' message in Cdr (Air) Cdr (Ops) DATCO
223
connection with extended flights is by
The layout of the gooseneck flares will be At every 250 feet Touch down Halfway to be
in this manner. on either edge of points to be marked by 5
the runway to indicated by 3 flares on port
224 provide runway flares on either side and 2
edge lights.  side (normally flares on
the third flares starboard
are to be side. 
doubled).  
The layout of the gooseneck flares will be At every 210 feet All turning points Taxi holding
in this manner. on either edge of to be doubled position to be
225 the runway to indicated by 4
provide runway gooseneck
edge lights.  flares
 Contractors equipment within the an orange painted an Red painted an orange
movement area on airfields, should carry double crossed double crossed painted double
disc of two feet disc of two feet crossed disc of
diameter fitted to a diameter three feet
pole of convenient fitted to a pole of diameter fitted
height and convenient height to a pole of
226
mounted suitably and mounted convenient
on the equipment. suitably on the height and
equipment. mounted
suitably on the
equipment

Naval aircraft while operating in local Single engine - Twin/ multi Twin/ multi
flying areas or on exercises are to make Every 10 minutes engine aircraft engine aircraft
position report or "operations normal" call operating singly - operating in
227 as follows:- Every 20 minutes company
Every 45
minutes
When lost or in an emergency and unable Fly a triangular Fly a triangular Fly a triangular
to make radio-contact and no transmitter, pattern to the left pattern to the pattern to the
receiver operative, an aircraft is to and hold each right and hold right and hold
heading for two each heading for each heading
228 minutes (jet aircraft one minutes (jet for two minutes
flying above TAS of aircraft flying (jet aircraft
300 Kts - I minute). above TAS of flying above
300 Kts – 30 TAS of 300 Kts
sec). - I minute).

When lost or in an emergency and unable Fly a triangular Fly a triangular Fly a triangular
to make radio-contact and both pattern to the left pattern to the left pattern to the
transmitter and receiver inoperative, an and hold each and hold each right and hold
aircraft is to heading for two heading for one each heading
229 minutes (jet aircraft minutes (jet for two minutes
flying above TAS of aircraft flying (jet aircraft
300 Kts - I minute). above TAS of flying above
300 Kts – 30 TAS of 300 Kts
sec). - I minute).

In the event of a radio communication Continue to fly in Land at the All the above.
230 failure, all transit/ extended flights flying in VMC. nearest suitable
VMC are to  airfield.
The layout of the gooseneck flares will be (a) At every 200 (b) Touch down (c) Halfway to
in this manner. feet on either edge points to be be marked by
of the runway to indicated by 3 2 flares on port
231 provide runway flares on either side and 2
edge lights.  side (normally flares on
the third flares starboard
are to be side. 
doubled).  
 The capsule of ASI is partially evacuated connected to the connected to
232
of air static vent the pitot tube
During descent the blockage of static under read over read under read or
source will cause the ASI to over read,
233 depending
upon pressure
change
RAS is corrected to TAS for Pressure error & Compressibility Density &
234 density error error only Compressibility
error
Compressibility is most significant at low air speed TAS of 300 K TAS in excess
235
ranges of 300 K
In an ASI the sample of static pressure both the capsule the case only the capsule
236
enters and the case only
A leak in the pitot line will cause the ASI over read under read continue to
237
to read correctly
Pitot static system errors are generally Low airspeed High airspeed Manoeuvering
238
the greatest in which range of airspeed speed.
Compressibility error varies with Speed Height Speed and
239
height
Compressibility error causes Overreading of the Underreading of Only A
240
ASI the ASI
Flying at constant TAS the RAS will Increase with Decrease with Increase with
241 decrease of altitude decrease of increase of
altitude altitude
In an ASI a sample of static pressure Both the capsule The case only The capsule
242
enters and the case only
An a/c from place a to B at FL 310 Same pressure Same density Same true
243
maintains level level altitude
Airfield level pressure is QFW QNH QFE
244
An altimeter employs the princilpe of Aneroid Barometer Echo Principle Pulse
245
transmission
You are flying from cold air mass to warm Lesser Greater Same
air mass maintaining constant altitude on
246 your pressure altimeter your true height in
warm air mass will be
In a servo assisted altimeter the lag error is lag error is more lag error is
virtually eliminated than the pressure same as the
247 altimeter pressure
altimeter
Compared to pressure sensitive altimeter eually as accurate less accurate more accurate
248
the servoce assisted altimeter is
The pressure altimeter is calibrated in environmental JSA ISA
249
accordance with lapse rate &
temperature
 Pressure error causes an altimeter to consistently over consistently either over
250
read under read read or under
Due to ground effects the altimeter and Over read Under read read
No effect
251
ASI will
During climb through transition layer you QFE – QNH QFE – QFF QNH – QFE
252
change altimeter setting from;
An altimeter employs the principle of Aneroid Barometer Echo principle Pulse
253
transmission
Density altitude will be equal to pressure At standard Altimeter is set to At sea level
254 altitude when temperature 29.92 inches
conditions
A leak in the pitot line will cause ASI to Over read Under read Read correct
255
RAS is corrected to TAS for Pressure error and Compressibility Density and
256 Density error error only. Compressibility
error.
A leak in the pitot source will Not affect accuracy Cause Mach Cause the
257 of Mach meter. meter to over Mach meter to
read. under read.
In Artificial Horizon if the horizontal bar is Climb Level Glide /
258
above the miniature aircraft it indicates descend
259 Rate of turn is indicated by Rate Gyro Tied Gyro Earth Gyro
During instrument approaches the exact Magnetic DGI Slip and Turn.
260
amount of turn is indicated Compass.
During descent, blockage of static source Under read Over read Under read or
will cause ASI to over read,
depending
261 upon the
pressure
change
EAS is the IAS corrected for the errors of Instrument, Instrument, Instrument,
pressure and pressure and temperature
262 compressibility density deviation and
density
Using IVSI when initiating changes in the indications will be indications are indications are
aircraft pitch attitude reliable when unreliable at all reliable at all
263 aircraft is times times except in
established in an a turn.
unchanging attitude
In a VSI the manoeuvre induced error Has significant Has insignificant Only affects
effect on the effect on the readings when
264 reliability of reliability of an aircraft rolls
readings readings
 When using a VSI a pilot can rely on its readings onlyly rely when can not rely on
in all attitudes of changing to readings
flight horizontal flight especially
265 when change
of pitch attitude
is occurring
In an inertial lead VSI (IVSI), the lag error Is eliminated by Is virtually Is eliminated
feeding a smaple of eliminated by by the use of
static pressure to using a special logorithmatic
266 the case & delaying dashpot presentation
it to the capsule. accelerometer
assembly
In VSI Static pressure is Inside of capsule Static pressure
fed inside and is airtight and is fed inside
267 outside the capsule outside fed with and outside the
static pressure capsule with
time delay
When the VSI glass is broken in a Climb Descent Zero
268
descent it will indicate
Static of VSI blocked during descent VSI Overread Underread Zero
269
will
Vertical speed indicator utilises the Differential of Pitot Differential of Differential of
principle of and static pressure dynamic and instant static
270 static pressure and delayed
static
A/c maintaining constant mach No .6 Increase Decrease None of the
271
enters into warmer air mass its TAS will above
Flying at constant Mach No TAS will Increase with Increase with Decreases with
272 increase of altitude decrease in increase in
altitude altitude
Increase in Dynamic pressure at FL No effect on Increases on Decreases on
273 Indicated Mach No Indicated Mach Indicated Mach
No No
An aircraft flying at 0.78 M climbs by 4000 Be the Same Increase Decrease
ft and thereafter on levelling out maintains
274 same Indicated Mach No .The new TAS
achieved will be
Climbing at a constant Mach number TAS &RAS TAS decreases RAS
275 decrease at same at a faster rate decreases at a
rate than RAS greater rate
Flying at a constant, MACH number speed of sound will speed of sound than
speedTAS
of sound
276 during the climb decrease and TAS will increase and as well as TAS
will increase TAS will will increase.
decrease
 If the ambient temperature increases increase decrease will not be
277 during a level flight, the match number affected.
will:
Mach meter is subject to instrument & instrument and instrument
278 pressure errors density error pressure &
density error
If static vent gets blocked with ice & the over read under read not be subject
aircraft descends rapidly machmeter will to any error
279 because of
dual capsule
system
The Mach meter measures the ambient speed of ratio of dynamic Ratio of pitot
280 sound pressure to the pressure to the
static pressure static pressure
In a Mach meter the pitot & the static Case and capsule One capsule & Their own
281
pressures are fed respectively to the case capsules
A leak in the pitot source will not affect accuracy cause the mach cause the
282 of mach meter meter to over mach meter to
read under read
What information does a mach meter The ratio of TAS to The ratio of IAS The ratio of
283 present the speed of sound to the speed of EAS to the
sound speed of sound
Mach meter gives Speed of sound Ratio of RAS to None is correct
284 the Local speed
of sound
Flying at constant IAS with increase in Increase Decrease Remain same.
285
altitude Mach Number will
Machmeter does not suffer from Position error Density errorCompressibility
286
error
In a Machmeter the pitot & static pressure Case and the One capsule and Their own
287
are fed respectively to capsule the case capsules.
An a/c flying at a given M.No. enters an remain unchanged Decrease Increase
288
error of relatively low temp. The TAS will
While cruising at 30000 feet, indciated in ISA at sea level in ISA at 30000 locally at
289 Mach No. is the aircraft TAS as a decimal feet 30000 feet
fraction of the speed of sound.
When climbing at a constant mach the CAS and TAS the CAS and the CAS will
number below the tropopause through an will both increase. TAS will both decrease and
290 inversion layer: decrease. the TAS will
increase.
Which instrument does not connect to the Altimeter. Vacuum gauge. Airspeed
291
static system? Indicator.
The static pressure error of the static vent deformation of the Mach number of aircraft altitude.
292 on which the altimeter is connected varies aneroid capsule. the aircraft.
substantially with the:
 Compressibility error in the ASI is Accurate calibration Use of a Use of the
normally corrected by: of the instrument calibration card navigation
293 placed next to computer
the instrument
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft higher than the real lower than the equal to the
flying in an atmosphere where all altitude real altitude standard
294 atmosphere layers below the aircraft are altitude
warm is:
Turbulent flow around a pressure head density error. 95% increase in an increase in
295 will cause: manoeuvre the dynamic
induced error. pressure.
Dynamic pressure is given by The static energy The kinetic The static
296 formula: ½ density energy formula: energy formula
x V2 ½ density x V2 = PV2
VNO is the maximum speed: which must never not to be at which the
be exceeded. exceeded except flight controls
297 in still air and can be fully
with caution. deflected.
An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a descent 6,500 ft less than 6,500 ft more than
298 when the static line becomes blocked. 6,500 ft
The altimeter then reads:
How many diaphragms are present in a Three. Two. Four.
299
basic Mach meter?
Pressure error consists of which of the Slipstream error, Configuration Configuration
following: manoeuvre induced change, profile change,
300 errors, turbulence induced errors, manoeuvre
turbulence induced errors,
slipstream
When an altimeter is used for SSR it is The pressure 1013.25 hPa QFE
301
always referenced to: setting in use
SYNOP is recorded every As and when Half an Hour Hourly
302
required
CMR/Weather Warning are generally Half an Hour Hour Two hours
303
issued with a minimum notice of
304 Satellite pictures are received every 1 hour 3 hour 6 hour
305 TAFs are valid for usually 3 hours 6 hours 9 hours
306 Local/Area forecasts are usually valid for 6 hours 9 hours 12 hours
Tephigram is used to assess Temperature at any Humidity at any Instability
307
level level
308 Visibility in Haze is 2-4 km 3-5 km 4-5 km
309 RVR is reported with the help of Scopograph Barograph Anemograph
In Dust raising winds (DRW) visibility is less than 1 km less than 3 km less than 5 km
310
311 Showers would be experianced from CB TCU CU
 An AS cloud patch is likely to cause Drizzle Rain Shower
312
generally
313 In station model values are plotted from PILOT TEMP SYNOP
314 Pressure value plotted in station model is QNH QFE QNE
In station model dew point temperature is Black Red Green
315
plotted in
316 Main SYNOP hours are 00 & 12 UTC 03 & 12 UTC 06 & 12 UTC
Rainfall plotted in station model is of Last 24 hours Last 12 hours Last 3 hours
317
Weather is more or less confined to Stratosphere Troposphere Ionosphere
318

Temperature in stratosphere (with height) Increases Decreases Remains same

319

320 Maximum Ozone concentration is found Stratosphere Troposphere Ionosphere

Mean height of troposphere over Equator 16 km 12 km 10 km
321
is
322 Mean height of Troposphere over poles is 16 km 14 km 10 km
If QNH is set on subsscale on ground the Height Altitude of station Elevation of
323
Altimeter will indicate station
If, QFE is set on ground, the altimeter will Station Elevation Zero ARP Elevation
324
indicate
325 Alticor is used for Recee Missions Bombing ops Interception
When an aircraft flies from High pressure Over read Under read Be same
326
area to low pressure, altimeter will
An aircraft flying A to B expenses drift to Low High Col region
327
starboard, the ac is going towards area of
On a rainy day the length of Runway More Less Same
328 required in comarison to sunny day would
be
Visibility reported by Met section is Inflight visibility Slant visibility Horizontal
329
visibility
Visibility in precipitation depends upon size of drops Intensity of Amount of
330
precipitation precipitation
Visibility in Dust storm should be 5000 m or less less than 5000 m 1000 m or less
331
Visibility in stratosphere is not excellent Mid vision Sun's glaze Haze particles
332
because of
Wind is Horizontal motion Vertical Motion of Both (a) & (b)
333
of air air
Wind is directly proportional to Pressure Pressure Pressure
334 gradient change in last
one hr
 Wind we experience is Geostropic wind Thermal wind Gradient wind
335
Veering means wind direction changing Clockwise sense Anti clockwise Irregular
336
sense
337 Backing means wind direction changing Clockwise Anti clockwise Irregular
338 Jet stream means wind speed is at least 50 kts 60 kts 70 kts
339 Sea breaze is observed in Morning Afternoon Night
Cross winds means component of wind at 90 deg to runway 60 deg to runway Not along or
340 opposite
runway
The DALR value is 1.5 C deg/1000 ft 1.98 C deg/1000 3.00 C
341
ft deg/1000 ft
342 Stratus in India is reported upto 3000' 2500' 2000'
343 Visibility in Cu/Cb clouds can be as low 1000m 500m 100m
344 Bumpiness will be maximum in Ac Sc Cu
345 Line Squall is a line of Cu T Cu & Cu Cb
346 STJ is at lowest latitude in the month of Jan Feb Mar
In India, you can encounter both PFJ & winter Monsoon Pst- monsoon
347
STJ in
Path of maximum speed in jet stream is Core Axis Half-width
348
known as
349 Tropopause is lowest over Equitorial region Polar region Mid- Latitudes

350 Solar radiation received by earth is called Insolation Convection Instability

Earth radiation is in the form of Ultra violet waves Long waves Short waves
351
An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF 020° Right. 030° Right. 040° Right.
reading of 060 Relative. The alteration of
352 heading required to intercept the 120
track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:
The MF band extends from: 3 to 30 KHz. 30 to 300 KHz. 300 to 3000
353
KHz.
What is the maximum range at which a 134 nm 107 nm 91 nm
354 VDF station at 325 ft can provide a
service to an aircraft at FL080?
Which of the following statements is the plane of the electrical the magnetic
correct in respect of a RF signal: polarisation is component of the component of
dictated by the signal is parallel the signal is
355 oscillator unit in the to the aerial. parallel to the
transmitter. aerial.

A VDF bearing Class A should be ± 2° ± 5° ± 10°

356
accurate to within:
 A pilot wishes to obtain the magnetic QDM QDR QTE
bearing of his aircraft from a VDF station.
357 Which of the following terms would he
use:
Which of the following is an advantage of It is pilot interpreted It only requires a It does not
Ground/DF (VDF) let-down? and does not VHF radio to be require any
require the fitted to the special
assistance of ATC. aircraft. equipment to
358 be fitted to the
aircraft.

Of two sinusoidal waves of the same wave A leads wave wave A leads wave A leads
amplitude and frequency, Wave A is B by 90°. wave B by 180°. wave B by
passing zero going negative when Wave 270°.
359 B is at maximum positive. Which of the
following statements accurately describes
this situation
In which one of the following When contacting When declaring When using
circumstances is ground direction finding ATC to join an emergency on the emergency
360 (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircrafts controlled airspace any frequency. VHF frequency
position? from the open FIR. 121.5 MHz.

Skywaves are not likely to occur by day LF. VHF. MF.

361 or night in which of the following
frequency bands:
A horizontally polarised signal would be horizontal. vertical. horizontal or
362 best received by an aerial which is: vertical.

An aircraft heading 130° (M) has an ADF 190°(M) 200°(M) 210°(M)

reading of 190° Relative. The heading to
363 steer to intercept the 170° track outbound
from the NDB at 30º is:
An aircraft is maintaining track outbound 356°. 000°. 004°
from an NDB with a constant relative
364 bearing of 184°. To return to the NDB the
relative bearing to maintain is:
Which of the following statements are It is operating in the To overcome the In Europe,
true regarding NDB transmitter: MF/HF band. limitations most NDBs
caused by line of operate in the
365 sight frequency
propagation, band 455 -
high-power 1750 kHz.
transmitters must
be used.
 The nominal maximum range of an NDB 45 NM. 100 to 120 nm. 150 to 170 nm.
366
with a transmitter power is 200 watts is:
Given: Compass heading 270° Deviation 224° 226° 046°
367 2°W Variation 30°E Relative bearing 316°
What is the QDR?
Which of the following factors could Scalloping. Atmospheric Phase
368
cause an error of an ADF bearing of an scatter. interference
NDB?
Of the bearing indicators available for use The Relative The Radio The Deviation
369 on ADFs, the most sophisticated one is: Bearing Indicator. Magnetic Indicator.
Indicator.
If an NDB with a transmitter power of 25 100 nm 200 nm 300 nm
KW which has a range of 50 nm is
370 adjusted to give a power output of 100
KW the new range of the NDB will be
approximately:
Which of the following is true about the Its accuracy is the It does not have It should not be
ADF? same by day and a signal failure used at night
by night. warning. because of sky
371 waves.

The variable signal of a conventional 30 Hz frequency 30 Hz amplitude 9960 Hz

372 VOR is: modulated. modulated. frequency
modulated.
The frequency range of a VOR receiver 108 to 117.95 MHz. 108 to 111.95 118 to 135.95
373
is: MHz. MHz.
An aircraft heading 140°(M) bears 120° 130° 315°
320°(T) from a VOR (VAR 10°E). The
374 bearing, selected on the OBS which
would make the VOR/ILS deviation
indicator show TO would be:
375 The ICAO designation for VOR is: A3W A9W J3E
The principle advantage of Doppler VOR the effective range a readout of site errors are
is that: is increased. range as well as considerably
376 bearing is reduced.
obtained.
An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. 6 3 4.5
Assuming no error when using a
deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2°
377 deviation, how many dots deviation from
the centre line of the instrument will
represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the air
 When a maximum range and altitude is The signal from the The terrain will The reception
published for a VOR? VOR will be too cause bends from this VOR
weak to provide and/or scalloping is guaranteed
information when on the VOR free from
you are outside this signal and make harmful
airspace. it inaccurate interference
378 outside from other
standards in the VORs when
airspace outside you are within
the published this airspace.
airspace.

379 The DME frequency band is: UHF VHF HF

An aircrafts DME receiver will accept interrogation and random PRF interrogation
replies to its own interrogations from a reply frequencies which is unique and reply
380 DME transponder and ignore replies to are 63 Mhz apart. to each frequencies
interrogations from other aircraft because transmitter. are 126 Mhz
the: apart.
A DME that has difficulty obtaining a lock- alternates search stays in search stays in search
on: (NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence mode with periods mode without a mode but
frequency, PPS = pulses per second) of memory mode reduction in PRF. reduces PRF
lasting 10 seconds. to max. 60
381 PPS after 100
seconds.

An aircraft DME receiver rejects pulses the transmission the random PRF the pulses are
meant for other aircraft because: and reply is unique to each transmitted in
382 frequencies are 63 aircraft. pairs.
MHz apart.
The DME automatic standby will activate random filler pulses a VOR frequency there are too
the DME interrogator when: from the that has a many aircraft in
383 transponder are frequency paired the area for it
received. DME is selected. to service.
Airborne DME equipment is able to aircraft transmit and aircraft will only aircraft reject
discriminate between pulses intended for receive on different accept unique pulses not
itself and pulses intended for other frequencies. twin pulses. synchronised
384 aircraft because: with its own
random pulse
recurrence
rate.

An aircraft flying at flight level 250 wishes 210 nm. 198 nm. 175 nm.
to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400
385 ft above mean sea level. What is the
maximum range likely to be achieved?
 Consider the following statements on The difference The difference The horizontal
horizontal/slant distance when using between the two is between the two distance is
DME: automatically distances will be always slightly
compensated for in negligible for en- longer than the
all DME equipment. route navigation slant distance.
when the
indicated
386 distance in NM is
more than the
height of the
aircraft above the
DME site, stated
in thousands of
feet.

What is the slant range error for an 0,31 NM. 1,42 NM. 0,57 NM.
aircraft flying at 9000 feet absolute
387 altitude above a DME located at elevation
2000 ft, when the slant range is 12 NM?
A DME receiver is able to distinguish DME is secondary DME Each aircraft
between replies to its own interrogations radar and each transponders transmits
and replies to other aircraft because: aircraft transmits reply to pulses at a
and receives on a interrogations random rate
388 different frequency. with twin pulses and will only
and the airborne accept
equipment ejects synchronised
all other pulses. replies.

Referring to DME, during the search the airborne the airborne the ground
pattern before lock-on. receiver checks transmitter receiver
150 pulse pairs per transmits 150 maintains the
second. pulse pairs per ground
second. transmitter
389 pulse pair
transmission
rate at no more
than 150 per
second.

A VOR and DME are co-located. You VOR and DME DME callsign DME callsign is
want to identify the DME by listening to callsigns were the was not the one with
the callsign. Having heard the same same and transmitted, the the lower pitch
390 callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the: broadcast with the distance that was
same pitch. information is broadcast
sufficient proof of several times.
correct operation.
 The transmission frequency of a DME interference from the airborne static
beacon is 63 MHz removed from the other radars. receiver locking interference.
aircraft interrogator frequency to prevent: on to primary
391 returns from its
own
transmissions.
Given height of aircraft 32.000 feet DME 22,8 nm 16,58 nm 15,1 nm
392 indicated range 16 nm. The actual range
is:
The frequency difference between the 63 GHz; ground 63 MHz; 63 MHz;
signal transmitted by the DME in an reflected signals. interrogation ground
aircraft and the reply signal which is pulses from other reflected
393 transmitted by the ground station is …, aircraft. signals.
and this difference ensures that the
aircraft receiver does not lock-on to…
The OFF flag on aircraft DME mileage the DME is the DME is off. DME is tuned
394 displays indicate: searching. to the wrong
frequency.
In which of the following frequency bands UHF SHF VHF
395
does DME operate?
DME operates on … frequencies and VHF; space wave VHF; sky wave UHF; space
396
uses … propagation: wave
An aircraft at FL 450 is 15 nm from a 13.96 nm. 12.27 NM 15.02 nm.
397
DME. The ground distance is:
On an ILS approach you receive more of fly left and up. fly left and down. fly right and up.
398 the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz
modulation. The action you should take
is:
An ILS category II ground installation is 15 m or less above 60 m or less 15 m on QNH.
one that is capable of providing guidance the horizontal plane above the
399 to a height of: containing the horizontal plane
threshold. containing the
threshold.
The ILS glidepath transmitter is located: No more than 600 About 150 About 300
meters from the meters upwind meters upwind
localizer from the from the
transmitter. threshold and threshold and
400 about 300 meters about 150
from the centre meters from
line of the the centre line
runway. of the runway.

The ILS glidepath operates between: 108 to 112 MHz in 329.3 to 335 108 to 112
401 the VHF band. MHz in the UHF MHz in the
band. UHF band.
A category III ILS system provides the surface of the less than 50 ft. less than 100
402
accurate guidance down to: runway. ft.
 An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach Fly right and fly Fly left and fly Fly right and fly
is receiving less 90 Hz than 150 Hz down. down. up.
403 modulation notes from both the localiser
and glidepath transmitters. The ILS
indication will show:
The upper limit of the vertical coverage of not less than 300 m not less than 7° not less than
the localizer must be: above the highest above the 600 m above
404 point on the horizontal (drawn the horizontal.
approach. from the
localizer).
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a green to yellow to yellow to amber green to red to
colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing red. to blue. black.
405 severity of rain and turbulence is
generally shown by a change of colour
from:
In which frequency band do most SHF UHF EHF
406
airborne weather radars operate?
407 A frequency of airborne weather radar is: 9375 MHz. 9375 GHz. 9375 kHz.
Mode A of SSR interrogator can follow 999 399 400
408
how many tracks?
Every radar transmission send energy out Side lobes Main beam Both (i)&(ii)
409 in directions other than main
transmission, known as
Minimum useful range of a primary radar PW PRI PRP
410
depends upon:
The minimum range of a radar with a 225 metres. 450 metres. 225 ft.
411
pulse width of 1.5 micro/secs is:
If the PRF of a transmitter is stated as 2 picoseconds. 2 nanoseconds. 2
412
500, the corresponding PRI is: microseconds.
The number of satellites required to 4 5 6
413
provide a 3D fix:
What is the inclination to the equatorial 55°. 45°. 35°.
414 plane of the satellites orbit in the
NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
Which GPS frequencies are available for 1227.6 MHz only. 1575.42 MHz 1227.6 MHz
415 commercial air transport? only. and 1575.42
MHz.
The Doppler Navigation System is based Doppler VOR radio waves radar principles
416
on: (DVOR) Navigation refraction in the using
A Doppler shift will occur System
If a transmitter is ionosphere.
When the frequency shift
If a receiver is
moving during distance between moving during
transmission to a a transmitter and reception of
417 fixed position a receiver is transmissions
receiver changing during from a fixed
a transmission position
transmitter
 Sea bias error is due to the is due to the is due to a
movement of the movement of the change in
sea and can be sea and is not Doppler shift
partially corrected affected by the over water and
418 by the land/sea land/sea switch is not affected
switch. by the land/sea
switch

419 The frequency shift in the Doppler is Frequency Frequency of Rx 2VF cos Θ
420 given
Radio by the formula
altimeters operate in the shift/frequency
VHF band of X (speed
SHF bandof a/c) VLF band
421 Radio altimeters operate up to reception
2500 ft X
1500 ft angle of
(Cos 500 ft
Which of the following circumstances will A high rate of depression of
Rising ground Approaching
GPWS not give warning about? descent close to aerial)
ahead with the
422 the ground undercarriage
not locked
down
423 What is the principle of EGPWS? It combines the It sends radar It gives an infra
Which of the following is not an input to a radio
Radioaltimeter
Altimeterwith signals ahead of
ILS localiser red TV picture
Vertical Speed
424 many sensors to the aircraft to of the flight
GPWS? Sensor
Variation is the angular difference compute safe
True north and sense high and
True north path
True through
N and
between descent
magneticrates
northat ground
mag N inahead
the hor cloud
mag N in the
varying heights plane and it is horizontal
named east if the plane and is
425 mag N lies the named west if
east of the true N the true N lies
and vice versa west of the
Mag N

Sensitivity in a magnetic compass can be Increasing moment Increasing the Immersing in a

426 achieved by of inertia magnetic fluid
moment
An aircraft is flying south of equator on a The compass will The indicated The compass
turn to the N always over turn will will always
indicate the turn sometimes be under indicate
more than actual the turn
427 and sometimes
less

Flux value being less reliable at higher Increase Decrease Remain same
428
latitudes time constant must
Coefficient A occurs Equally on all On all headings On all
headings but is greatest on headings but is
429 the cardinal greatest on the
points quadrantal
points
 A compass swing is used to Align compass Align compass Align magnetic
430 north with magnetic north with true north with true
north. north. north.
During deceleration following a landing in No apparent turn. An apparent turn An apparent
431 Northerly direction, the magnetic to the East. turn to the
compass will indicate West.
In the northern hemisphere, during An apparent turn to An apparent turn A constant
deceleration following a landing in an the South. to the North. heading.
432 Easterly direction, the magnetic compass
will indicate
The purpose of a compass fluid is To give efficient To give apparent To reduce
damping to the loss of weight bearing loads
system. thereby on the pivot
effectively and lubricating
433 reducing moment bearing
of inertia. surfaces thus
reducing pivot
friction.

In the detector unit the three spoke valve In the same dir as In the opposite deg displaced
434 proves a field which is H dir as H from H

During flight when are the indications of Only in straight As long as it is During turns If
435 magnetic compass accurate? and level constant bank does not
unaccelerated exceed 18 Deg
The error which causes a magnetic flight.
Dip error Deceleration Northerly
436 compass to indicate a turn to the North error turning error
when on an easterly heading is known as
To receive accurate indications from a Set prior to flight on Calibrated on a Adequately
heading indicate during flight, the a known heading compass rose at powered so
instrument must be regular intervals that it seeks
437 proper
direction

The turning and acceleration errors Increase with the Decrease with Increase with
increase in the the decrease in the decrease in
438 latitude of ac the latitude of ac the latitude of
ac
The effect on magnetic compass when Apparent turn to Apparent turn to Apparent turn
439
accelerating in westerly heading in S/H is South North to East
Maximum variation occurs Between magnetic At magnetic Between the
& geographical equator magnetic
440 pole meridian &
compass
needle
 Deviation due to P is West if it has blue 1 0
441
pole aft when a/c is heading ME.
A/c heading East in SH accelerate 1 0
442
compass reading will overread.
Deviation due to vertical soft iron is 1 0
443 directly proportional to Z & inversely
proportional to H.
In a magnetic compass dip is 1 0
444
compensated by Pendulocity.
22. The compass deviations Change with the Becomes zero at Are not
change of latitude the poles affected with
445 of ac the change of
latitude
To receive accurate indications from a Set prior to flight on Calibrated on a Adequately
heading indicate during flight, the a known heading compass rose at powered so
instrument must be regular intervals that it seeks
446 proper
direction

There are no acceleration errors in a 1 0

447 magnetic compass on Easterly or
Westerly heading.
In a magnetic compass sensitivity is 1 0
448 achieved by large number of small
permanent magnets.
In a magnetic compass a periodicity is 1 0
449
achieved by mixture of alcohol & water.
There are no turning errors in a magnetic 1 0
450 compass when the turn is started from
East or West
The Hard Iron parameter Q & its allied All East or West North or South
451 vertical soft iron causes maximum
deviation on headings
Using magnetic compass in NH while Underread. Overread. Stop short of
452 turning East or West through North turn.

A disadvantage of a VLF (Very Low High surface Frequency instabilit High static interf
1 Frequency) is attenuation

A horizontally polarised radio wave has its Electrical field in the Electrical field in Magnetic field in
2 horizontal plane. the vertical plane. the
horizontal plane
The F layer of the ionosphere May split into two Is weaker than the Is the lowest
3 layers. other layers. layer of the
ionosphere
4 The critical angle of a radio wave Varies with Varies with phase Is constant for
frequency. angle. all
5 Ground wave attenuation is greatest on VLF MF frequencies
HF
Bending of a radio wave by the Earth's VLF MF HF
6 surface is greatest on
The operational principle Frequency compariso Wavelength comparPhase compariso
7 of VOR is bearing determination by
8 The accuracy of VOR radials is better than ±1° ±4° ±6°
The accuracy of VOR radials as
9 determined by the aircraft's equipment if
serviceable is ±1° ±4° ±6°
The principle factors affecting the Aircraft equipment Propagation error, Site error,
accuracy of VOR radials as indicated by the error, site error, site error, aircraft interference
aircraft's equipment are refraction error and equipment error error,
10 propagation error and night effect propagation
error and aircraft
equipment error.
11 The VOR frequency band is 118 Mhz to 136 Mhz, 108 Mhz to 112 Mhz108 Mhz to 117.9
The datum of a Radio Magnetic Indicator True north. Magnetic north. Compass north.
12 (RMI) is
The VOR reference signal is A rotating signal A Limacon. A 9960 Hz sub -
Amplitude carrier
13 Modulated at 30 Hz. Frequency
Modulated at 30
Hz.
The VOR directional signal is A rotating signal A Limacon. A 9960 Hz sub -
frequency carrier
14 Modulated at 30 Hz. amplitude
Modulated at 30
Hz.
In primary radar installations, the pulse width
15 determines the :- maximum range, minimum range, PRF
In primary radar installations, the pulse
16 recurrence frequency determines the :- maximum range, minimum range, pulse width.
Basic radar is the transmission of pulses of PRF PRP Pulse
17 radio energy. The time interval between two Recurrence
consecutive pulses in time is the :- Sequence.
The principle of operation of the Radio Frequency modulation Amplitude modulati Pulse modulation
18 Altimeter is :-
Frequency modulated continuous wave radio Instrument and Instrument and Mushing and
19 altimeter errors are :- mushing fixed/step fixed/step
errors errors errors
Aerials Main landing gear Pressure
20 A radio altimeter indicates the height above altimeter static
the ground of the :- vent
A radio altimeter measures the height of the Time difference Frequency Phase
aircraft above the ground by :- between difference difference
21 the transmitted and between the between the
received signals transmitted and transmitted and
received signals received signals
 To determine the ADF bearing the The loop aerial only The sense aerial Both the loop
22 aerial/aerials used are :- only and sense
aerials
23 The DME frequency band is VLF VHF UHF
A DME transponder becomes saturated
24 if interrogated by a excessive number of 80 aircraft 100 aircraft 120 aircraft
aircraft. It will reply to the nearest
The propagation of sky waves is largely The time of day Atmospheric attenuaThe earth's rotati
25 influenced

Increases with an Increases with a Is constant for

26 With HF sky waves skip distance increase decrease any
in frequency in frequency frequency
Increases as the Greater by night
27 The degree of refraction of a HF Decreases as the frequency than
transmission by the ionosphere frequency increases increases by day
Surface attenuation of a ground wave Decreases as Increases as Increases as
28 frequency frequency frequency
increases increases decreases
Ground waves in the VLF and LF frequency Diffraction and Refraction and Diffraction and
29 bands follow the curvature of the earth. This surface surface refraction
is due mainly to attenuation attenuation
30 Ground wave attenuation is greatest in the LF frequency band MF frequency band HF frequency ban

With Amplitude Modulated transmissions The frequency is Both the frequency The amplitude is
constant and constant and
31
and the amplitude amplitude vary the frequency
varies varies
With Frequency Modulated transmissions The frequency is Both the frequency The amplitude is
constant and constant and the
32
and the amplitude amplitude vary frequency varies
varies

33 Static interference is most severe in the VHF frequency band MF frequency band VLF frequency b

A decrease of
34 Changing a HF/RT frequency from 13315 An increase of the An increase of the the skip
Khz to 6559 Khz would result in dead space critical angle distance
If a frequency of 4 Hertz was transmitted 75 000 000 metres 150 000 000 300 000 000
35 for one second the physical space occupied metres metres
by the signal would be
Sidebands are additional frequencies Modulated by a Frequency Pulse modulated
36 which occur when a carrier wave is frequency lower than modulated
itself
Skip distance is the distance between Successive skywave The distance The distance
touch down points. between the end of between a
37 the ground wave transmitter and
and the first the first skywave
skywave return. return.
 Reception of HF communications by The height of the HF
38 night is affected by The lower reflective layer is communications
ionospheric density. reduced. are not affected.
The HF frequencies used at night Twice the day Half the day The same as the
39 for communication are frequency. frequency. day frequency
The wavelength of a radio wave is The number of The distance The distance
complete cycles travelled by a radio travelled by
40
transmitted in one wave in one a radio wave in
second. second. one cycle

41 The ionospheric density of the E layer Midday in summer. Midday in winter. Midnight in
of the ionosphere is at it greatest at summer.
VOR CDI indications in an aircraft may Certain propeller Co-located DME Quadrantal error.
fluctuate by as much as ±6° may be caused RPM or transmissions
42
by helicopter rotor
speeds,
A VOR ground station transmits An omni-directional A 9960 sub-
a reference signal and a variable signal, the reference signal An omni-directional carrier reference
characteristics of which are: - amplitude modulated reference signal signal amplitude
at 30 Hz and a which carries a modulated at 30
rotating 9960 Hz sub- 9960 Hz sub- Hz and a
carrier variable carrier frequency rotating cardioid
43 signal, modulated at 30 variable signal
Hz and a rotating frequency
variable signal at modulated at 30
1800 RPM which Hz.
gives an apparent
30 Hz amplitude
modulation,
If the variable phase of a VOR 220° 040° 320°
44 transmission lags the reference signal by 40°
the bearing to the VOR is
If a malfunction of the main VOR transmitter The VOR not The VOR not A voice warning
occurs and is shut down, a standby transmitting transmitting the that the VOR is
transmitter may be brought into operation. It the reference signal ident signal not to be used.
45 takes time for the signals to stabilize and the
bearings may be inaccurate. Aircraft are
warned of possible inaccuracies by
To prevent inaccurate bearings being Not transmit the Transmit a voice waRemove the ident
46 transmitted during maintenance a VOR variable
station will:- signal,
2½° from the 5° from the 10° from the
Full scale deflection of the left/right needle selected selected selected
47
on a VOR CDI means an aircraft is more radial or its radial or its radial or its
than:- reciprocal, reciprocal, reciprocal.
An aircraft heading 045° (M), is on a true TO 4 dots left of centrTO needle central, TO 4 dots right o
bearing of 135° from a VOR, variation 8°E. If
48
the OBS is set at 315 the indication on a 5
dot CDI would be :-
 Inbound to the VOR. Outbound from the On the radial
shown by
49 When the VOR OBS meter indicates TO and the course
the LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle of the CDI selector.
is central, the aircraft will be:
When the course selector is set to 105 the The aircraft bears The magnetic track The true bearing
LEFT/RIGHT is centred and the TO/FROM 105° to of the
50
indicator shows TO. This means: (M) from the VOR. the VOR is 105°. aircraft from the
VOR is 105°.
An aircraft bears 045°(T) from a VOR
(variation 13°E). The OBS settings that
51 045 and 225 058 and 238 032 and 212
would centre the LEFT/RIGHT needle of a
CDI would be :-
An aircraft heading 280° (M) is on a bearing
of 090° (M) from a VOR. The OBS setting
52 that should be selected in order to centralise 280° 270° 100°
LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle with TO
indicated is :-
An aircraft heading 220° (M) has the OBS set
at 030. A 5 DOT CDI shows the LEFT/RIGHT
53 021° 039° 201°
needle 4.5 DOTS RIGHT of centre with
FROM indicated. The aircraft is on Radial:
54 The type of emission used by ILS is A1A A8W A3E
ICAO recommends that an ILS localiser
55 should be calibrated for accuracy up to a
distance of.- 18nm, 25nm, 35nm.
An aeroplane is established on an ILS Cimb Descend Maintain level flight.
localiser approaching the outer marker
56 inbound. The ILS CDI shows a 2 dot fly up
command. To intercept the glide slope the
pilot should :-
Assuming that an ILS has a backbeam, an Fly left, On centre line, Fly right.
aircraft overshooting after a missed approach
57 and has passed the localiser transmitter and
is to the left on the extended line of the
runway would have an ILS CDI indication of.-
During the ILS approach, after passing the Initiate the missed Continue the Continue the
outer marker, a glide slope warning flag approach approach approach
58 appears. The CDI needle shows on the glide procedure, to the decision but apply a
slope and all indications appear normal. The height, higher minima.
appropriate action would be:-
Localiser transmission Glide slope transmisBoth localiser
and glide
59
slope
Transmission of the ILS IDENT occurs on
During an ILS approach to runway 03 (QDM the transmissions.
033), if the OBS is set to 030 and the aircraft Fly left, On localiser centre lin
Fly right.
60 is on the centre line the ILS CDI will
indicate :-
 An ILS glide slope is intercepted from below Reduce the initial Avoid departing traffAvoid false glide
61 so as to :- approach
speed,
The ICAO standard height of the ILS I0 metres, 15 metres. 20 metres.
62 reference point is :-
Full scale deflection of the ILS CDI localiser 2.5° from the centre li 5° from the centre li 10° from the centr
63 needle occurs when the aircraft is more than
Full scale deflection of the ILS CDI glide 0.35° 0.7° 1.25°
64 slope needle occurs when the aircraft is
above or below the glide path by more than
Found in various Found on ILS
65 The ILS inner, middle and outer marker flight approach
frequencies are :- guides, plates, 75Mhz.
The maximum safe deviation from the ILS 2 dots fly up, 2½ dots fly up, 3 dots fly up.
66 glide path during an approach using a 5 dot
CDI is :-
ILS middle marker indications are :- 3 dots fly up. Amber light coding White light
alternate dots and coding six
67
dashes, dots per
second,
If the 150 Hz tone predominates in the ILS Fly left, On centre line, Fly right.
68 localiser receiver the CDI indication will be :-
The rate of descent required to stay on the Must be increased if Remains constant Decreases if the
69 ILS glide path: the groundspeed for a given IAS. groundspeed
decreases. decreases.
When making an ILS approach, the localiser The above statement If the needle The above
needle will always be deflected in the colour is indicates that the statement is
area in which the aircraft is flying, regardless true. aircraft is in the false.
of the position or heading of the aircraft. BLUE sector
before reaching
70 the localiser
transmitter it will
give an opposite
indication when the
station is passed.

An ILS has a 3° glide slope. The outer marker

is 4 nm from the runway threshold. If an
71 aircraft passes the outer marker at 1500 feet On glide path 2 dot fly down 4 dot fly down
above airfield elevation, the glide slope
indication that would be shown on a 5 DOT
indicator is :-
The height above the ILS reference point that
72 a CAT 1 ILS ceases to give accurate 100 feet 150 feet 200 feet
guidance is :-
73 An ILS Glide Path can be between: 2 to 4 degrees 2.3 to 3.7 degrees Above 6 degrees
ILS localiser transmissions are protected from
74 interference up to :- 10 nm 18 nm 25 nm
A frequency modulated continuous wave 50 to 60 Mhz 1100 to 120 Mhz 1200 to 250 Mhz
75 radio altimeter operates at a mean frequency
of 4300 Mhz. The limit of the modulation is :-
 A carrier wave with an amplitude of 5 V
is amplitude modulated by an audio
76 48 80 125
frequency with a 4 V amplitude. The resultant
depth of modulation is
A radio wave modulated at a single audible
77 frequency (keyed CW) is classified AIA A2A A3E
Variations of signal strength in NDB receivers Mountain or terrain eff Reflection from thu Night effect
78 known as fading indicates the presence of.-
The accuracy of ADF bearings is affected by The NDB Static produced by Electro-
precipitation static because :- transmission refracts thunderstorms magnetic fields
as it passes through giving heavy rain produced when
rain attracts the ADF rain strikes an
79 needle aircraft reduce
the signal to
noise ratio giving
a broad null
To double the range of an NDB the power
80 must be increased by a factor of. 2 4 8
200 Khz to 800 200 Khz to 1750
81 The ICAO NDB frequency band is :- 200 Khz to 500 Khz Khz Khz
The sense aerial only The loop aerial Both the loop
82 To tune the ADF receiver to an NDB the only and sense
aerials used are :- aerials
A coast line lies in a north/south direction. An Less than 050 50 Greater than 050
aircraft over the sea heading 360(T) receives
83
an ADF bearing of 230 relative.The true
bearing of the aircraft will be :-
Aircraft heading 225(M), ADF RMI reading Maximum Zero Proportional to
090 the quadrantal error of this bearing is :- sine
84 heading times
the signal
strength
An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from
an NDB with a constant relative bearing of
85 356° 000° 004°
184°.To return to the NDB the relative
bearing to maintain is
The heading remains The aircraft's track The aircraft's
The result of flying towards a NDB constant. curves to the track curves to
86
maintaining a 000 relative bearing with a downwind of the the upwind side
crosswind is :- NDB. of the NDB
A radio wave increases speed when crossing The frequency The wavelength No change in eith
87 the coast, leaving the land and passing over changes. changes.
the sea. When this happens:
 The modern ADF uses :- A horizontal crossed A horizontal A pair of coils
loop aerial with an crossed loop aerial which rotate
orthogonal pair of with an orthogonal about a ferrite
coils wound on a pair of coils wound core combined
88 ferrite core fed to a on a ferrite core with a signal
goniometer fed to a from a sense
goniometer and aerial
combined with a
signal from a
sense aerial
An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF
reading of 060 Relative.The heading to steer
89 050(M) 060(M) 070(M)
to intercept the 120° track inbound to the
NDB at 50° is :-
An aircraft heading 100° (M) has an ADF
reading of 210° Relative.The alteration of
90 170 Right 170 Left 180 Left or Right
heading required to intercept the 340° track
inbound to the NDB at 60° is :-
An aircraft heading 130° (M) has an ADF
reading of 190° Relative.The alteration of
91 50°Right 60°Right 70°Right
heading required to intercept the 170° track
outbound from the NDB at 30° is
A radio wave usually increases in speed A change in frequencyA change in wavele No change in
92 when crossing a coast line leaving the land frequency
and passing over the sea resulting in or wavelength
The maximum theoretical VHF 197 SM 226 NM 364 KM
communication range between an aircraft
93
flying at FL 200 and a control tower 255 feet
AMSL is
An aeroplane is inbound to a VOR on radial
065°. VOR variation is 3°W, variation at the
94 247° (M) 249° (M) 251° (M)
aeroplanes position is 5°W. If drift is 4° left
the initial heading to maintain the radial is
An aircraft is on a true bearing of 090° 100 with FROM indicat098 with FROM indi 100 with TO indic
from a VOR. Variation at the VOR is 10°W
95
and at the aircraft 8°W. The CDI left/right
needle will be central when the OBS is set at
VOR B is situated on radial 233°, 120 nm 0928Z 0934Z 0940Z
from VOR A. An aeroplane, GS 300 kts, is
approaching VOR A on radial 143°. At 0900 Z
95 the aeroplane is on radial 098° from B. If the
aeroplane alters heading at 0900 Z for VOR
B the ETA at B will be
An aircraft heading 065°(M) has the VOR CDI
OBS set at 095. The left/right needle of a 5
97
dot CDI is 3 dots left of centre with TO
indicated. The aircraft is on radial :- 101° 269° 281°
 A VOR and a NDB are co-located on an VOR 152° ADF 154 VOR 152°,ADF 152 VOR 154°,ADF 1
aerodrome where the variation is 17°W. An
98 aircraft is flying where the variation is 19°W
on a true bearing of 315° from the
aerodrome. The VOR and ADF readings on
a twin pointer RMI would be :-
A VOR and a NDB are co-located on an VOR 047°, ADF 045 VOR 047°,ADF 047 VOR 045°,ADF 0
aerodrome where the variation is 12°W. An
aircraft is flying where the variation is 10°W
99 on a true bearing of 215° from the
aerodrome. If compass deviation is 2°W, the
VOR and ADF readings on a twin pointer RMI
would be :-
The maximum allowable tolerance of the 178 to 182 FROM 176 to 184 TO 356 to 004 TO
OBS (CDI left/right deviation needle centred)
100
when checking a VOR receiver by use of a
VOT is :-
The approximate height of an aeroplane 930 feet, 1090 feet, 1240 feet,
maintaining a 2.7° glide slope during an ILS
101
approach when over the outer marker, 4 nm
from the runway threshold is :-
Given: ILS GP 2.7 degrees, IAS 117, TAS
102 130, G/S 120. The rate of descent required to
maintain the glide path is :- 585 ft /min. 525 ft/min. 540 ft/min.
An aircraft passes the outer marker which is 4
nm from the threshold of a runway. The CDI
103 shows a 3 DOT fly left indication on a 4 DOT 760 feet 780 feet 795 feet
scale. Using the 1:60 rule, the distance of the
aircraft from the localiser centre line is :-
The approximate height of an aircraft above
104 airfield elevation when on a 3° glide path and 1200 feet 1500 feet 1800 feet
3.8 nm from the ILS reference point is :-
A Cat 1 ILS has a glide path angle of
105 3.3°.What will its coverage be? 1.65° to 5.77° 1.49° to 5.77° 1.65° to 5.94°
The locator NDB type of emission The signal is more The signal is less The ADF needle
recommended by ICAO is A2A because :- stable than A1A affected by night does
effect not wander
106
during
transmission of
the ident
At 1000 Z an aircraft is overhead NB PE
enroute to NDB CN, Track 075(M), Heading
082(M) At 1029 Z NDB PE bears 176
107 Relative and NDB CN bears 353 Relative.The 078(M) 079(M) 081(M)
heading to steer at 1029 Z to reach NDB CN
is :-
The inbound track to NDB is 075°(T),
Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right.The relative
108 353 Relative 000 Relative 007 Relative
bearing to maintained on the radio compass
to reach is :-
 The inbound track to NDB is 075°(T),
109 Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The magnetic 078(M) 085(M) 092(M)
heading to steer to reach is
The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075°(T),
110 Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right.The RMI ADF 085° 078° 092°
bearing to maintain to reach
An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from
an NDB with a constant relative bearing of
111 354 0 6
174° to return to the NDB the relative bearing
to maintain is :-
An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF
reading of 060 Relative.The alteration of
112 020°Right 030°Right 040°Right
heading required to intercept the 120 track
inbound to the NDB at 50° is :-
An aircraft heading 040°(M) has an ADF
reading of 060°Relative is to intercept the
113 120° (M) track inbound to an NDB at 50°.The 050 Relative 060 Relative 080 Relative
relative bearing of the NDB that confirms
track interception is :-
An aircraft heading 325° (M) has an ADF
reading of 330° Relative.The heading to steer
114 310(M) 320(M) 330(M)
to intercept the 280° track inbound to the
NDB at 50° is :-
An aircraft heading 200° (M) has an ADF
reading of 160° Relative.The heading to steer
115 110° (M) 120° (M) 130° (M)
to intercept the 150° track outbound from the
NDB at 30° is :
An aircraft heading 200° (M) has an ADF
reading of 160° Relative is to intercept the
116 150° (M) track outbound from an NDB at 210 Relative 220 Relative 230 Relative
30°.The relative bearing of the NDB that
confirms track interception is :-
An aircraft heading 130° (M) has an ADF
reading of 190° Relative.The heading to steer
117 190° (M) 200° (M) 210° (M)
to intercept the 170° track outbound from the
NDB at 30º is
An aircraft heading 130° (M) has an ADF
reading of 190° Relative is to intercept the
118 170°(M) track outbound from an NDB at 140°Relative 150°Relative 160° Relative
30°.The relative bearing of the NDB that
confirms track interception is :-
An aircraft heading 135° (M) with 13° Right
drift intercepts the 082° (M) track outbound
119 122° Relative 127° Relative 132° Relative
from an NDB. The relative bearing of the
NDB that confirms track interception is :-
 An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8°
right drift and is making good a track parallel
120 to the centre line of an airway but 5 nm off to 015° Relative 011°Relative 002° Relative
the left of the centreline. The ADF reading of
a NDB on the airway centreline 42 nm ahead
of the aircraft is :-
121 The F layer of the ionosphere is called the Kenelly - Heaviside Appleton layer. Gauss layer.
layer.
To hear the ident of an A1A NDB signal it is
122 necessary to select :- BFO ON BFO OFF ADF or
Frequency
123 The ident signal of an A2A NDB is Amplitude modulated
transmitted by ON/OFF keying of the :- Carrier wave modulated tone tone
An aircraft leaves NDB ABC, track 075°(M),
drift 6° Left. NDB XYZ bears 235° relative
124 255°& 316° 261°& 316° 255°& 136°
from the aircraft. What bearings from both
NDBs would be shown on the RMI?
To double the range of primary radar the 4, 8, 16
125 transmission power must be increased by a
factor of.-
1 Pressure gradient over INDIAN sub continent N-S S-N E-W
is directed in following direction during SW
monsoon
2 When water vapour changes directly to a Stagnation Unstable Stable
solid without first becoming a liquid, it is
called: -
3 Tropical Revolving Storms over Bay of NE - E direction E – SE direction W –NW
Bengal initially moves in direction
4 Diurnal variation of temp. is higher in Deep – inland green Desert Coastal areas
areas
5 Diurnal variation of temp. is higher in Deep – inland green Desert Coastal areas
areas
6 Morphine is not be given to a person who is: - Unconscious In pain Has severe
head injuries
7 A cold clammy Skin, weak pulse is symptoms Hypoxia Decompression Hyperventilation
of: - Sickness
8 A temperature inversion in the atmosphere A high degree of A high degree of Either (a) or (b)
indicates: - stability instability
9 In stratosphere, the temperature usually:- Decreases with Remains constant Increases with
height height
10 Maximum concentration of Ozone occurs 12 Km and 15 Km 15 Km and 25 Km 25 Km and 35
between: - Km
11 Thermal wind is due to:- Horizontal pr gradient Vertical temp grad Horizontal Temp
Grad
12 What pressure system would be described on Ridge Trough Col
area in which along its axis pressure is lower
than on either side: -
13 The ionosphere is a layer of the atmosphere Strong Electro Air is ionized by Temperature
in which:- magnetic radiation the sun's radiation falls to absolute
exists zero
14 Atmospheric temperature is least at Tropopause Statopause Mesopause

15 _________ is used to find out horizontal Skopograph Hygrometer Celiometer

visibility
16 RH is independent of Water vapour Temperature Pressure

17 In the centre of col region , the wind is cyclonic anticyclonic variable

18 CAT around mountains will be higher on Wind ward side On top of mountain Lee ward side

19 Sea breeze on a clear day attains maximum Forenoon Afternoon Noon

value during
20 The area of almost uniform pressure between Ridge Trough Col
two highs and two lows is known as : -
21 Visibility is least in Smog Mist Haze
22 The RH is maximum during forenoon afternoon dusk
23 Contrails are always formed above Mintra Drytra Maxtra
__________ level:-
24 Earth radiates heat wave energy in the:- Long wave Short Wave Very short wave
bands
25 Turbulence in wind flow is caused due to Roughness of ground Buildings and Uneven ground
surface super structures profile
26 Humidity on a clear day is minimum during Night Morning Forenoon
27 Atmospheric haze on the approach path can Closer to the R/W Farther from the Below the glide
create the illusion of being:- R/W path
28 At an altitude of 16 KM over India, the 100HPA 200HPA 300HPA
approx. pressure is: -
29 Positive pressure breathing is essential 40000 ft 25000ft 18000ft
above an altitude of :-
30 SE wind means, wind from 100 deg 200 deg 150 deg
31 The surface wind is measured as 15 m above surface 10 m above 1 m above
surface surface
32 In the standard atmosphere, as defined by - 23 degree C - 24 degree C - 25 degree C
ICAO, the temperature at 6 KM above MSL
33 is:-
Water vapour is present even above 10-12 1 0 Either (a) or (b)
kms of the atmosphere
34 Coriolis force is minimum at equator 1 0 Either (a) or (b)
35 Sea Breeze in Tropical Coastal Area is strong Winter nights Pre-monsoon Winter
during afternoons afternoons
36 Wind speed in Low pressure area is of the 17-27 KT <17 KT 28-33 KT
order of
37 A large anvil depicts that Cb is in Cu stage Mature stage Dissipating
stage
38 Path of maximum speed in jet stream is Core Half-width Axis
known as
39 Partly Cloudy skies means cloud coverage of 1-2 okta 3-4 okta 5-7 okta
40 Anabatic winds are winds which blow Down slope & at Up slope and at Up slope in
night night afternoon
1 A 10 % increase in the fuel carried will 5% 10% 15%
increase the distance to PNR by
2 In the 30° Dog-leg,for each minute to be lost, 1 2 3
each leg is flown for ______minutes
3 With a TAS of 400kt, the distance to a PNR in 1194 1204 1150
still air is 1200 nm. The distance(nm) with a
forecast WV at 90 to the track of 40kt will be
4 Radius of action is normally calculated to find endurance of the max dist ac can fly max distance ac
out aircraft along a track within can fly within its
a specified patrol absolute
time endurance

5 QDM is 148, Var is 2 deg East, Dev is 2 deg 146 deg 150 deg 152 deg
West. What will be the QTE?
6 Circumference of a parallel of latitude at 21600 NM 18706 NM 10800 NM
60°N/S is

7 Appropriate ROD for a glide path of 2.6 deg 4.5 m/s 5 m/s 6 M/s
and average ground speed of 100 m/s would
be
8 A CP is calculated for a 1500nm flight 675 nm 825 nm 750 nm
assuming a 50kt head wind component
coming back and comes to 825 nm. It is
discovered that the winds are the wrong way
around. The correct distance to the CP will
be:
9 If thre PNR is calculated to be 880 nm with 928 nm 968 nm 960 nm
4000 kg of fuel available, the distance to PNR
with 4400 kg available, other things being
equal, ewill be approximately:
10 While flying a constant pressure altitude there is no effect of ac performance is the TAS of the
varying density on ac unaffected by ac increases as
performance varying density density
decreases
11 To plot on a mercator chart radio bearings as Added in the N Added in the S Subtracted in
taken by a shore station on an ac, the Hemisphere if the ac Hemisphere if the the S
conversion angle must be is west of the station ac is west of the Hemisphere if
station the ac is West of
12 The visual identification of the position fix air position the station
pin point
vertically beneath the aircraft is called
________
13 The effect on the CP of reducing the TAS is Always increase the Always reduce the Always move it
to: distance to the CP distance to the CP along the track
further away
from the mid-
point
14 In the 60° Dog-leg, it is preferable to make into the wind away from wind wind doesn’t
the first turn matter
15 Departure along a latitude is given by ChlongXsin lat Chlat X sin long Chlong X cos lat

16 Convergence is equal to Chlong X sin lat Chlat X sin long Chlong X cos lat

17 On a Mercator projection the Rhumb Line Concave to the Convex to the

As a straight line
always appears Equator Equator only at the
Equator
18 The effect on the position of the CP of Increase the distance Decrease the Leave the
reducing the TAS if there is a head wind distance distance
component will be to unchanged
19 The primary emergency for which a PNR with Engine failure Emergency at the Any on-board
engine failure is computed for is destination and its emergency
alternates requiring a
landing to be
made as soon
as possible
20 MSA as given in an approach chart gives from the highest from the highest from all the
clearance of 300 meters obstruction within the obstruction within a obstructions
charted area radius of 25 nm of indicated within
the designated the chart area
radio aid
21 Critical point is exactly midway between Fuel carried is just Ground speed out When distance
base and destination when sufficient for the flight and home are between the
equal base and
destination is
small
22 The distance to PNR is maximum in still air condition headwind tailwind
23 In the Layer Tinting method of showing the lower higher no change in
height and shape of land forms, the deeper height
the colour the _______ the land.
24 Compared with still air conditions, the CP with
In the same position, In the same At greater
a strong wind at 90 degree to track will be:with an earlier ETA position, with a distance, with
later ETA the same ETA
25 Winds as experienced during the climb phase is a mean wind is only of academic is important
interest and cannot since it gives an
be used for further indication of
calculations upper level
winds
26 Example of great circle and rhumb line is Meridian Latitude Equator
27 The method used to show the height and spot heights layer tinting contours
shape of land forms is
28 On a flight an aircraft is found to be achieving Less More Same
GSs 10% higher than planned. Assuming all
conditions remain the same, the revised
distance to the PNR will be
29 The distance to a PNR flying directly into a Less than 1200 nm More than 1200 1200nm
50kt head wind is 1200nm. The distance to nm
the PNR with an exactly reciprocal WV will be
30 In flight and flying at the planned TAS, it is Unchanged Nearer to the half- Nearer to
found that the aircraft is achieving faster way point if tail destination
stage times than planned. Presuming the winds forecast
situation remains unchanged, the CP’s
31 position
A plottingwill be is a ------------------- projection Mercator
chart polar both A and B

32 To calculate distance and time to the CP in Reduce TAS for all Reduced TAS for Reduced TAS
the case of engine failure use the: calculations all the distance for GS back but
calculation only full TAS for GS
on
33 Critical point in the presence of winds as Closer to base Same Shifts into wind
compared to nil winds is
34 Maps used for map reading are called plotting maps Special maps Grid maps

35 The compressibility of air varies with altitude altitude speed density

and speed
36 The speed of sound varies as the _________ square square root cube
of the absolute temperature
37 For an observer in north polar latitudes the sun remains sun remains above both a) and b)
below the horizon all the horizon all day are correct
day in winters in summers
38 In the wind triangle The Hdg/TAS vector The Hdg/TAS The Hdg/TAS
always follows the vector and the and W/V vectors
Track/GS vector Track/GS vector always follow
are always in each other
opposition
39 In-flight checks reveal that the fuel flows are 4% more Unchanged 2 % less
4% greater than expected at pre flight
planning. If every thing else is as expected,
the distance to PNR will be
40 The effect on the CP of reducing the TAS is 1 0 Either A or B
to always reduce the distance to the CP
1 India is free of DIP error in compass. 1 0
True/False
2 Example of great circle and rhumb line is Meridian Latitude line Equator
3 Departure along a latitude is given by ChlongXsin lat Chlong X cos lat Chlat X sin
long
4 The maximum distance to PNR is obtained in Strong head winds Strong tail winds Nil winds

5 Critical point in the presence of winds as Same Closer to base Shifts into wind
compared to nil winds is
6 QDM is 148, Var is 2 deg east, and Dev is 2 146 deg 150 deg 152 deg
deg west. What will be the QTE?
7 Appropriate ROD for a glide path of 2.6 deg 4.5 m/s 5m/s 6m/s
and average ground speed of 100 m/s would
be
8 The maps used for map reading are called Plotting maps Topographical Special maps
maps
9 Convergence is equal to Chlong X sin lat Chlat X sin long Chlong X cos lat
10 The basic shape of the Earth is an oblate pear shaped 1 0
spheroid
11 The difference between the Earth's polar 23 25 27
diameter and equatorial diameter is _____
statute miles.
12 The ratio between the difference of Polar and compression depression decilnation
Equatorial diameters and the equatorial
diameter is termed the __________
13 The extremities of the diameter about which equator axis poles
the Earth rotates are called__________
14 West is defined as the direction in which the 1 0 north
Earth is rotating
15 ________ Pole is said to be the pole which South east west
lies to the left of an observer facing east.
16 7. The directions, East, West, North and Cardinal semi cardinal none of these
South are known as the
17 _________directions.
A______ circle is a circle on the surface of a great small radial
sphere whose centre and radius are those of
the sphere itself.
18 ___________ great circle may be drawn one two infinite
through two places on the surface of a sphere
which are not diametrically opposed
19 The shortest distance between any two points largest greater smaller
on the surface of a sphere is the _________
arc of the great circle joining them.
20 The Equator is the great circle whose plane is 1 0 parallel
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the
Earth.
21 ________ are semi-great circles joining the poles meridians equator
poles.
22 Every point on the equator is not necessarily 0 1 is different
equidistant from both poles
23 The angle of inclination between two convergence convergency departure
meridians is known as
24 Rhumb lines are _______ towards the convex concave curved
equator
25 Parallels of latitude are great circles on the 1 0 smaller
surface of the Earth
26 ______ rhumb line may be drawn through two one three
any two points on the surface of earth
27 Parallels of latitude are ________ great circle rhumb lines poles
28 Meridians and ________ are examples of poles axis
rhumb lines which are also great circles.
Equator
29 A ________ line is a regularly curved line on Meridian straight line Rhumb line
the surface of the Earth cutting all meridians
at the same angle.
30 The distance between two given meridians, Departure meridians convergence
measured along a stated parallel is called
________
31 The value of departure decreases with increasing decreasing has no effect
________ latitude
32 The East-West component of the rhumb line convergence magnetic Departure
distance between two points is called inclination
________
33 Departure (nms) = ch long (mins) x sin ch long (mins) x both A and B
(mean lat) cos (mean lat)
34 The advantage of the ______ is that its great circle rhumb line poles
direction is constant
35 the direction of ___ chnages continously with great circle rhumb line meridian
reference to meridians
36 ________ are lines joining places of zero Isogonals Agonals Isoclinic
variation
37 If the variation is east, the Magnetic Compass True
__________bearing will be least.
38 The length of 1/10,000th part of the average kilometer mile statute mile
distance between the equator and either pole
is called ________.
39 A ________ is defined as the length of the statute mile nautical mile kilometer
arc of a great circle which subtends an angle
of one minute at the centre of the Earth
40 _________ is defined as the rate of change velocity speed altitude
of position
41 If the deviation is___________, the Compass East West North
bearing will be best.
42 _______ is defined as the angular distance Longitude Latitude Meridian
from the equator to a point, east or west
along the meridian through that point
43 The length of a nautical mile varies with altitude latitude longitude
_________
44 By convention, the direction on the surface of 1 0 from south
the earth is measured anti-clockwise from
North.
45 Variation is named East (+) or West (-) 1 0 named north or
according to whether the magnetic needle south
lies to the East of West of True North
46 The angular difference between the Magnetic variation deviation magnetic dip
North and the Compass North, is called
____________
47 The __________ of any point is the larger longitude meridians latitude
angular distance along the equator between
the prime meridian and the meridian through
the point.
48 The deviation of a compass will change if its 1 0 remains
position in the aircraft is changed unchanged
49 Deviation experienced by two different 1 0 depends on
compasses is likely to be the same under altitude
identical conditions
50 Deviation is not a constant value for a given variation varies 0 True
compass; instead it varies with the heading of
the aircraft
51 Decompression sickness normally occures 45,000ft 30,000ft 25,000ft
above
52 Otitic Barotrauma can occur during descent 1 0 only ascend
or ascent in flying.
53 The high pressure differential in cabin 1 0
pressurisation of most airlines today is above
12 PSI.
54 Ololith organs are special 'G' meters sensitive linear accelerations Transverse Vertical forces
to accelerations
55 Cones are responsible for Night vision Colour vision Low level of
illumination
56 For night vision adaptation, rods require 10 mts 20 mts 30 mts
57 about
The frquency of inspection of first aid kit in 6 weeks 12 weeks 24 weeks
the PSP is about
58 The frquency of inspection of your personal On condition Monthly Bimonthly
first aid kit is
59 Fast breathing washes out CO2 from the more alkaline. less alkaline acidic
body and the blood becomes
60 Anti 'g' suit increases tolerances to both 1 0
positive and negative 'g'
61 Decompression sickness occurs due to Expansion of Lack of carbon Eating greasy
nitrogen in the blood dioxide in the lungs and faulty foods
before flight.
62 Motion sickness is caused by Continued stimulation Instability in brain Movement of a/c
of tiny portion of inner cells affecting causing
ear which controls balance stomach to
sense of balance create an acid
63 If the temperature of the gas is kept constant Boyle's Law Dalton's Law substance.
Henry's Law
then the volume will be inversely proportional
to the pressure
64 The weight of a slightly soluble gas that Boyle's Law Dalton's Law Henry's Law
dissolves ina definite weight of a liquid at a
given temperature is almost directly
proportional to the pressure of the gas
65 100% oxygen is required from which height 11kms 13kms 15kms
66 The various types of Hypoxia are Hypoxic hypoxia Anaemic hypoxia Stagnate
67 What effect does haze have on the ability to no effect Haze causes eyes hypoxia
Eyes tend to
see traffic or terrain features during flight? to focus at infinity overwork in
haze and do not
detect relative
movement
68 One aid in increasing night vision Look directly at Force the eyes to Increase
effectiveness would be to objects view off center intensity of
interior lighting.
69 Which would most likely result in (a)Insufficient Excessive carbon Insufficient
hyperventilation? oxygen dioxide carbon dioxide.
70 Fat people are more prone to decompression 1 0 thin people are
sickness. equally affected
71 When flying in IMC, rapid head movement 1 0 works with some
while scanning instruments, will ensure all instruments
flying instruments are monitored regularly and
thus prevents disorientation.
72 An injured person with burn injuries should be burns shock. breathing
treated first for
73 One should not fly with a cold in order to brain eyes ear drum
avoid damage to the ........................
74 While flying at night you see a light moving haze autokinetic illusion hypoxia
but suspect it to be a star . You are
experiencing.......................
75 The best way to avoid spatial dis-orientation Instruments watch intuition
is to rely on your .......................
76 Orientation triad consists of seat of pants, vision, vestibular organs, ears, vision, skin
vestibular organs vision, ears
77 Rods in the eyes are for _______ vision. Night vision day vision both
78 Hypoxia is a condition of ______ supply of lack excess both A and B
O2 to the body.
79 Reducing the vertical distance from heart to no effect decreased 'g' increased 'g'
brain results in tolerance tolerance.
80 Disorientation can only happen to 1 0 >1000 hrs not
inexperienced pilots. affected
81 Pressure breathing is required whenever you supersonic more than 2 mach related to
fly hypoxia
82 Pain in the joints are a symptom of hypoxia decompression hyperventilation
sickness
83 Which statement is true regarding alcohol in Alcohol renders a Small amounts of Coffee helps
the human system pilot more alcohol will not metabolise
susceptible to impair flying skills alcohol and
hypoxia alleviates a
hangover.
84 An illusion,that the a/c is at a higher altitude Atmospheric haze Upsloping terrain Downsloping
than it actually is,is produced by terrain.
85 Fast breathing washes out CO2 from the 1 0 becomes more
body and the blood becomes more alkaline. acidic
86 Symptoms of hyperventilation are Nausea dizziness faintness
87 Measures to prevent hyperventilation is control of breathing sleeping use of oxygen
above 12,000 ft
88 Predisposed factors for decompressed rate of ascend obesity age
sickness are
89 Symptoms of ottitic barotraumas is heavy ear deafness bleeding from
ears
90 __________ may be a condition Air sickness disconfort Sea sickness
characterised by nausea , vomiting, extreme
weakness and sweating
91 cones require about _____ minutes to reagin 10 mins 5 mins 8 mins
full sensitivity
92 Factors affecting night vision are hypoxia vitamin A smoking
93 Factors affecting spacial disorientation are poor visibility lack of flying switching from
conditions experience IFR to VFR and
vice versa
94 ______hrs gap is required between last drink 10 12 24
and flying
95 Atmospheric Haze can create an illusion of closer to the R/W farther from the below the glide
being R/W path
96 Positive pressure breathing is essential 10000 ft 40000ft 30000ft
above an altitude of
97 Morphine is not to be given to a person with pain unconscious broken leg

98 Cold clamy skin and weak pulse is a sign of hypoxia hyperventilation decompressed
sickness
99 evolution of gases from body fluid is called hypoxia hyperventilation altitude
disbarism
100 Self medication is suicidal in flying 1 0 can be used
sometimes
101 The ICAO standard atmosphere assumes a 1 0
temperature lapse rate of 1.98deg.F per 1000
feet.
102 All pressure instruments tend to over read in 1 0
ground effect.
103 Pitot static system errors are generally the Low airspeed High airspeed Manoeuvering
greatest in which range of airspeed speed
104 Flying from an area of cold air on a QNH of read the same ) under read over read
1008 mb to an area of colder air, the altimeter
will
105 If the local temp.is lower than ISA the density 1 0
altitude is higher than the pressure altitude
106 A temp. difference of one degree from ISA 1 0
causes density altitude to seperate from
pressure altitude by approx.200 feet.
107 VSI operates on the principal of lag in airflow 1 0
coming to the instrument casing.
108 If the static vent is blocked and the glass of 1 0
the VSI is broken to get a static supply,
during decent the VSI will read zero
109 When the VSI glass is broken in a descent it Climb Descent Zero
will indicate
110 VSI suffers from lag error 1 0
111 VSI utilises the principle of differential of 1 0
instant static and delayed static.
112 Instantaneous (or Inertial Lead) VSI gives an 1 0
immediate response to a vertical departure
from a horizontal flight path by adding an
accelerometer unit to the conventional VSI
components
113 Pressure altitude is obtained by correcting the 1 0
altimeter for temp deviations from ISA
114 The altimeter reads high whenever the ASI 1 0
reads high.
115 If an a/c experiences persistant starboard 1 0
drift in the Northen hemisphere,the Altimeter
will under read.
116 Over reading of an ASI is more dangerous 1 0
than an under reading ASI
117 More the mass of a gyro rotor the greater is Rigidity Precession Gymballing
its Error
118 Compressibility Error in ASI Increases with Decreases with Does not
increase in altitude increase in altitude depend on
119 If the direction of rotation of the rotor in the 1 0 altitude
A/H is clockwise (looking from top), during
acceleration it will show bank to the right.
True/False
120 India is free of DIP error in compass. 1 0
121 The apparent drift in a DI is caused due to 1 0
earth's rotation and change in latitude.
122 Doppler works on the principle of increase in 1 0
frequency as the transmitting object moves
away.
123 If the static vent is blocked and the glass of 1 0
the VSI is broken to get a static supply,
during decent the VSI will read zero.
124 True/False
When the QFE set on the altimeter is ten 1 0
millibars more than the actual over the target
area, the height indicated by the altimeter will
be 300' lesser than the actual height over the
target. True/False
125 Compressibility error in ASI is always 1 0
126 positive.
RAS is IAS corrected for ...... Instrument error Pressure error Both

127 While using ADF, coastal effect can be flying low use NDB located fly higher
avoided by well in land
128 The slip indicator works on rate gyro. 1 0
True/False
129 Pressure altitude is obtained by correcting the 1 0
altimeter for temp deviations from ISA.
130 DI uses the property of Rigidity Precession Both

131 Rate of precession of a gyro is less if the 1 0

rotor speed is more. True/False
132 During Accelaration th A/H indicates false 1 0
climb.
133 Quadrantal error occurs due to bending of 1 0
signals towards aircraft major electrical axis.
134 On circuit at 150 kts,the dynamic source gets More than 150 kts Less than 150 kts 150 kts
blocked.If you now fly at 5000 feet,the ASI
will read
135 In a climb at constant RAS both TAS and 1 0
M.No increases. True/False
136 When flying from high temp. to low temp.,if 1 0
the Mach No.is kept constant,the TAS
decreases. True/False
137 In an ASI a bi-metallic strip is introduced to 1 0
compensate for expansion/contraction of the
linkage due to pressure variations. True/False
138 Compressibility error varies with speed and 1 0
height.
139 Artificial horizon suffers from 1 0
acceleration/deceleration error.
140 If the QNH is not periodically adjusted as the gradually climb gradually descend maintain the
aeroplane flies towards an area of lower same height
pressure,the aeroplane will: amsl
141 Apparent gyro wander at the equater is Maximum Zero Neither

142 A horizontal axis gyro at equator will display No drift, max topple No topple, max No effect.
drift
143 In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic left turn is entered a/c is decelerated an a/c is
compass will normally indicateturn toward from a west heading while on an east or accelerated
north if west heading while on an east
or west heading.
144 In an ASI a bi-metallic strip is introduced to 1 0
compensate for expansion/contraction of the
linkage due to pressure variations.
145 Servo altimeters virtually eliminate time lag 1 0
between the arrival of the new pressure &
the placing of the counters to show the
146 reading.
Pressure altitude is obtained by correcting the 1 0
altimeter for temp deviations from ISA.
147 If any country has promulgated an ADIZ, all 1 0
aircraft operating in that area are to obtain
specific permission before entering the area
for any peacetime missions including SAR
missions
148 Unless authorised by the Commanding Between sunrise and In IMC In air space
Officer for operational or specific flight sunset class 'B'
mission, VFR flights shall not be operated
149 Unless authorised by the Commanding 1 0
Officer for operational or specific flight
mission, VFR flights shall not be operated
150 An aircraft operated, as a controlled flight 1 0
shall maintain continuous listening watch on
the appropriate radio frequency and establish
two-way communication as necessary with
the air traffic control unit
151 Between sunset and sunrise, except when 1 0
otherwise ordered, navigation lights are to be
displayed by aircraft in flight, taxying or
ground running
152 Anti collision lights, are to be switched on 1 0
only after all engines have started up
153 Anti collision may be turned off during flight 1 0
through cloud when the light beam reflects
into the cockpit
154 Vehicles towing aircraft have right of way 1 0
over all other traffic except aircraft landing
and taking off. All other vehicles must give
way to aircraft
155 Whenever approaching the downwind end of 1 0
the duty runway, whether intending to take off
or not, pilots are to halt their aircraft at the
marshalling point from where they will move
only after clearance
156 Aircraft are not to be taxied to test defective- 1 0
brakes unless attended by wing tip men with
chocks
157 An aircraft, which is aware that another 1 0
aircraft is compelled to land, shall give way to
that aircraft
158 An Aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area 1 0
of an aerodrome shall not give way to
aircraft/helicopter taking off or about to take
off
159 An aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an 1 0
airfield, shall whether or not within an
aerodrome traffic zone will make all turns to
the left after taking off or when approaching
for a landing unless otherwise instructed
160 The objective of naval air traffic control 1 0
services is to notify appropriate organisations
regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid and
assist such organisations as required
161 Aerodrome control towers shall issue 1 0
information and clearances to aircraft under
their control to achieve a safe, orderly and
expeditious flow of air traffic on and in the
vicinity of an airfield with the object of
preventing collision
162 Aerodrome control towers are responsible for 1 0
alerting the safety services
163 If the runway in-use is considered unsuitable 1 0
for the operation involved, the pilot may
request permission to use another runway
164 When operating under VMC, it is the 1 0
responsibility of the pilot of an aircraft to avoid
collision with other aircraft
165 An aircraft, which is aware that another 1 0
aircraft is compelled to land, shall give way to
that aircraft
166 An Aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area 1 0
of an aerodrome shall not give way to
aircraft/helicopter taking off or about to take
off
167 An aircraft landing or in the final stages of an 1 0
approach to land will have priority over an
aircraft intending to depart
168 An aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an 1 0
airfield, shall whether or not within an
aerodrome traffic zone will make all turns to
the left after taking off or when approaching
for a landing unless otherwise instructed
169 An approach control unit may be combined 1 0
with an approach radar unit or an aerodrome
control tower
170 An approach control unit may share the 1 0
functions of an area control centre
171 Vehicles towing aircraft have right of way 1 0
over all other traffic except aircraft landing
and taking off. All other vehicles must give
way to aircraft
172 Minimum Separation between Departing One minute Two minutes One and half
Aircraft, if aircraft are to fly on tracks separation separation minutes
diverging by at least 450 immediately after separation
take-off so that lateral separation is provided
is
173 Minimum Separation between Departing Two and half minutes One minute Two minutes
Aircraft, when the proceeding aircraft is 40 between take-off between take-off between take-off
knots or more faster than the following
aircraft and both aircraft propose to follow the
same track
174 IFR flight may be cleared to execute visual 1 0
approach provided the pilot has the airfield in
sight and can maintain visual reference to the
terrain
175 A particular approach procedure will be 1 0
carried out in accordance with the procedures
published in the instrument approach control
unit to expedite traffic
176 Instrument approach will be carried out in 1 0
accordance with the procedures published in
the instrument approach charts of relevant
radio NAVAID
177 A revised expected approach time shall be 1 0
transmitted without any delay whenever it
differs from that previously transmitted by 5
minutes or more
178 If an arriving is making a straight in approach, 1 0
a departing aircraft may take off in any
direction until 5 minutes before the arriving
aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway provided adequate instructions and
clearances have been issued to the aircraft
for ensuring the laid down separation (lateral
and vertical or both) between the arriving and
departing aircraft)

179 The area control provides ATC service to 1 0

controlled flights outside the responsibility of
Aerodrome and Approach control units
180 The objective of Air Traffic Advisory Service 1 0
is to make information on collision hazards
more effective than it would be in the flight
information service
181 Aircraft opting to use advisory service are 1 0
required to comply with the procedures as
applicable to IFR flights
182 Flight information service shall be provided to 1 0
all aircraft which are likely to be affected by
the information which are provided outside
controlled air space by fight information
183 centre
Alerting Service shall be provided to any 1 0
aircraft known or believed to be the subject of
unlawful interference
184 The objective of Air Traffic Advisory Service 1 0
is to make information on collision hazards
more effective than it would be in the flight
information service
185 Aircraft opting to use advisory service are 1 0
required to comply with the procedures as
applicable to IFR flights
186 Initiating 'AIRMOVE' message in connection Cdr (Air) Cdr (Ops) DATCO
with extended flights is by
187 __________is to ensure that the crash tender Cdr (Air) Cdr (Ops) DATCO
and/or crash boats and ambulance are all
instantly available properly manned and
equipped
188 All incidents of importance or interest taking Occurrence Log Aircraft Movement Airfield Surface
place during his watch are to be recorded in Log Defects Log
the _______ log by the DATCO together with
details of any action taken
189 A RANAD LOG giving full details and 1 0
serviceability state of radio, radar and
navigational aids installed at the airstation is
to be maintained at the ATC
190 The RANAD log is to be seen by the Ground 1 0
Radio Officer daily at the ATC and
countersigned
191 Civil aircraft are not permitted to land at naval 1 0
airfields without prior permission of Naval
Headquarters even in emergency
192 Civil aircraft landing in emergency at a naval 1 0
airfield shall not be permitted to take off
without prior clearance by Naval
193 Headquarters
VFR flights in level cruising flight when 1 0
operated above 3000 feet (900 meters) from
the ground or water are to be conducted at
flight levels appropriate to the track as
specified in the system of cruising levels in
force
194 If any country has promulgated an ADIZ, all 1 0
aircraft operating in that area are to obtain
specific permission before entering the area
for any peacetime missions including SAR
missions
195 Unless authorised by the Commanding Between sunrise and In IMC In air space
Officer for operational or specific flight sunset class 'B'
mission, VFR flights shall not be operated
196 Unless authorised by the Commanding 1 0
Officer for operational or specific flight
mission, VFR flights shall not be operated
197 An aircraft operated, as a controlled flight 1 0
shall maintain continuous listening watch on
the appropriate radio frequency and establish
two-way communication as necessary with
the air traffic control unit
198 The 180 deg ambiguity in a radio compass is 1 0
removed by a loop aerial
199 When using ADF for en-route navigation,the magnetic brg true brg relative brg
bearing obtained is:
200 When flying over sea an NDB closer to the 1 0
coast will give less error than one further
inland.
201 In NDB the station code is transmitted by 1 0
MCW
202 Radio compass works on MF range 1 0
203 Quadrantal error occurs due to bending of 1 0
signals towards aircraft major electrical axis.
204 For a given freq, the skip distance does not 1 0
vary with the time of day
205 An a/c flying at 9000 ft could expect to be 98 nm 138 nm 168 nm
within VHF contact of an airfield 1600 ft
AMSL at a max range of approximately
206 Static interference is most likely to be severe VHF LF UHF
on
207 Maximum attenuation of radio waves occurs 1 0
around sunset time
208 For a freq of 200 khz, the wavelength is 150 mtr 1500 mtr 1500 km

209 An MF transmitter’s range over the sea same double half

compared to over the land would be
210 The range of a surface wave varies as the 1 0
square root of its power
211 Full scale deflection on an VOR corresponds 5deg angle 10deg angle 2.5deg angle
to
212 The principle of VOR is measure by Phase 1 0
comparison
213 VOR functions on principle of Bearing by lobe Bearing by phase Bearing by
comparison comparison hyperbolic
comparison
214 With R/T failure to indicate of emergency IFF Mode 3 code 7600 Mode 1 code 7300 Mode 3 code
code is 7700
215 The ranges from the beacon indicated by slant range ground range ground range
DME is only if the
beacon is co-
located with
VOR
216 Beacon saturation is a phenomenon VOR DME ILS
associated with
217 DME is a secondary radar 1 0
218 IFF equipment is a secondary radar 1 0
219 On a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) 1 0
QDM/QTE are indicated continuously and
read off directly
220 Class 'C'bearing given by ATC controller is 10 DEG 2 DEG 5 DEG
correct upto.......deg
221 VASI is an airfield approach aid by night only 1 0
222 SATCOM uses INMARSAT satellites which polar orbiting geostationary equatorial
are orbiting
223 Attenuation means loss in energy of EM Spreading Contact with the Passage
waves or the reduction in amplitude of an EM ground through the
wave. It can occur due to ionosphere
224 For a ground wave attenuation increases 1 0
with an increase in frequency. For a sky
wave attenuation decreases with an increase
in frequency.
225 A horizontally polarised signal would be best 1 0
received by an aerial which is horizontal.
226 In amplitude modulation the amplitude of the 1 0
carrier wave is varied in confirmation with
the audio modulating signal. The frequency
of the carrier remains constant
227 The maximum range for VHF reception is D= 1.25 x √ HT + D= 1.2 x √ HT + D= 1.35 x √ HT
given by the formula : Where D - range in √HR. √HR. + √HR.
nms. HT - ht of the transmitter in ft amsl.
HR - height of the receiver in ft amsl.

228 The climate conds most favourable for the 1 0

formation of duct propagation are usually
found in tropical and sub-tropical latitudes.
229 The distance between the transmitter and 1 0
the point on the surface where the first sky
return arrives is called the skip dist.
230 VHF and above are straight line propagation. 1 0
The actual range is slightly better than the
mere optical range.
231 Radiating mast is used by NDB. 1 0
232 VHF range for VDF let Down is 3 -/HT(Ft). 1 0
233 When turning right through north in northern Over-read Under-read REMAIN SAME
hemisphere the magnetic compass will
234 In ISO ECHO contour display a broad paint 1 0
indicates violent turbulen-ce
235 Siting of ILS equipment is most critical. 1 0
236 When using ADF for en-route navigation,the magnetic brg. true brg Relative brg
bearing obtained is:
237 In a vertically polarised aerial, the magnetic VERTICAL NORMAL HORIZONTAL
component of the transmission is.........
238 Sea Breeze generally sets in Early morning Around noon Late in the
evening
239 The lines connecting areas of equal wind are Isotacs ISOBARS ISOTHERMS
called............
240 Wind is said to back when direction ANTI CLOCKWISE CLOCKWISE no pattern
changes ..................
241 Stability of atmosphere is determined by wind velocity relative humidity temp lapse rate

242 Clear air turbulance is more prounouced in 1 0

westerly jet stream.
243 A low dew point temperature indicates Low water vapour High water vapour High chances of
content content fog formation
244 In inversion layer temp. increases with height. 1 0
245 The lowest temp. to which air can be cooled 1 0
is called dew point.
246 Orographic ascent is one of the reason for 1 0
formation of thunderstorm.
247 The best way of penetrating a CB is at High level Medium level Low level below
the cloud
248 Widely spaced isobars indicate that the strong weak moderate
pressure gradient in the region is
249 QFE is the observed pressure at an airfield 1 0
corrected for ...........
250 Katabatic is a local wind. 1 0
251 Monsoon depression forms in South Bay of 1 0
Bengal.
252 In a dissipating stage of thunderstorm down 1 0
draught is more than a up draught.
253 Frequency of western disturbances is high in 1 0
summer.
254 When visibility is different in different direction 1 0
the least visibility is reported.
255 The average atmospheric lapse rate is 2 deg 1 0
C per 1000 ft
256 The wind is said to .........if the wind direction VEER BACK
changes clockwise.
257 In India a low is called a cyclonic storm when More than 54 knots More than 34 knots More than 24
wind speed is:- knots
258 Wind speeds are highest when isobars are 1 0
closely placed.
259 Partly cloudy sky means.................oktas of 1 TO 2 3 TO 4 5 TO 7
clouds.
260 Fairly widespread rainfall refers to the 25 26-50 51-75
percentage area covered
261 In the northern hemisphere if an observer 1 0
stands with his back to the wind the low
pressure is to his right.
262 Water vapour is heavier than air. 1 0
263 Dew point is the term denoting Temperature at Temperature to Temperature.at
which evaporation which air must be which fog will
and condensation cooled to become form
points are equal saturated
264 An increase in temperature increases the 1 0
viscosity of air
265 The severest activity of CB is for duration of 2 HRS 30-45 MINS 4 HRS

266 The maximum pressure during the day is 1000 HRS 1400 HRS 0001 HRS
recorded at
267 The assumed mean sea level pressure of QNH QNE QFE
1013.2 mb Is
268 Wind blowing due to the effect of rotation of Geostraphic Gradient Cyclostrophic
the earth is called
269 Local met forcasts are valid in an area at an 1 0
airfield of radius 25NM.
270 Atmosphere has absolute instability when ELR > DALR ELR < DALR ELR > SALR

271 In summer there is a westerly jet stream over 1 0

north India.
272 The forecast given by a met section for a 1 0
particular cross country is a route forcast and
not a flight forecast.
273 Metar is avaiation routine weather report. 1 0
274 Formation of radiation fog occurs when Heavy clouding is Before sunrise Clear skies are
experienced experienced
275 Usually passage of warm moist air over a radiation fog advection fog frontal fog
cold surface causes
276 Ceiling is the base of lowest cloud above 1 0
water/land covering half the sky or more
below 6 km.
277 Clouds of vertical development are feature of 1 0
warm front.
278 The diurnal variation of temperature is lesser 1 0
over the sea than over the land.
279 The rate at which the pressure decreases 1 0
with height is greater near the surface of
earth than at higher altitudes.
280 A lenticular cloud will lead you to expect 1 0
mountain wave
281 Which weather conditions should be Light wind shear and Smooth air and both a and b
expected beneath a low level temperature poor vis. due to light poor vis. due to
inversion layer when the relatve humidity is rain fog,haze,or low
high clouds
282 Advection fog is formed when Warm moist air is Warm moist air Cold dry air
pushed up due to moves over cold passes over
adiabatic expansion land surface large expences
of water
283 Isobars are gnerally drawn at 4 mb intervals 1 0
284 In depression the wind speed is above 8 on 1 0
BEAUFORT SCALE.
285 Maximum cases of ice accretion is found in 0 to -7 deg C -7 to -14 deg C -14 to -20 deg
temperatures between C
286 Wing tip trails can not form below MINTRA 1 0
level.
287 The rate at which pressure decreases at 1 0
higher atmosphere is greater than that near
the earth surface. T/F
288 Glazed ice is the most dangerous form of 1 0
airframe icing.
289 Dry air is stable when:- ELR is more than SALR is less than ELR is greater
DALR ELR than SALR
290 Blade sailing takes place In light winds and In strong winds  In light winds
high rpm and high rpm and low rpm
291 Dynamic Roll over can take place in Strong crosswinds   Winds from any   Calm winds
direction
292 For a constant pitch angle, if rotor rpm is Increase Decrease. Remain
reduced, the coning angle will unchanged

293 The Chetak tail rotor would be less effective Rapid descent at low Steep vertical Quick spot turn
due to vortex ring phenomenon in IAS climb to the left
294 Control power is maximum in Rigid rotors systems Semi-articulated Teetering head
rotor system
295 Power required to drive engine and gearbox   Induced power    Parasite power Rotor profile
accessories is included in power
296 For a constant pitch angle, if rotor rpm is Increase. Remain Decrease
reduced, the coning angle will unchanged
297 The Chetak tail rotor would be less effective Rapid descent at low Steep vertical Quick spot turn
due to vortex ring phenomenon in a IAS climb to the left
298 Control power is maximum in Rigid rotors systems Semi-articulated Teetering heads
rotor systems
299 Directional control in the Chinook helicopter is Differential Collective Differential Cyclic Differential
achieved by pitch. pitch thrust of engines
300 When flying for max range with a headwind Achieve the same Achieve the same Cover greater
of 15 kn, if you fly at 15kn above range distance, as at range distance in the distance than at
speed, you would speed in nil winds, same time. range speed in
but in more time. nil winds.
1 Product of Engine Thrust and TAS is equa Total Power SHP Propulsive powe
2 At zero airspeed, overall efficiency is ___ Max Zero Min
3 For efficient combustion air to fuel ratio 25:1, Thrust 25:1, Weight 15:1, Thrust
4 For speed above Mach 1.4 the intake mus Oblique Normal Bow
5 The ______________ of an EM wave defines Electrical Mechanical Magnetic
6 In a ________ wave diffraction is inversely Sky Surface Ground
7 Geostationary satellite orbit at a height o 38000 kms 30000 kms 24000 kms
8 Q code for aircraft true track to the statio QUJ QTE QDM
9 Example of great circle and rhumb line is Meridian Latitude Equator
10 Departure along a latitude is given by Chlong x sin lat Chlong x cos lat Chlat x sin lat
The maximum distance to PNR is
11 Head winds Tail winds Nil winds
obtained in
12 Critical point in the presence of winds as
Same Closer to base Shifts into wind
13 compared to nil winds is
Appropriate ROD for a glide path of 2.6
14 deg and average ground speed of 100 4.5 5 6
m/s would be (m/s)
15
Convergence is equal to Chlong x sin lat Chlong x cos lat Chlat x sin lat
16
The maps used for map reading are Topographical
17 Plotting maps Special maps
called maps
The method used to show the height and
18 Spot Height Layer tinting Contours
shape of land forms is
A 10 % increase in the fuel carried will
19 5% 10% 20%
increase the distance to PNR by
The temp attained by a parcel of air when
it is compressed (or expanded) Dew point
20 Potential Temp Virtual Temp
adiabatically to a pressure of 1000 mb is Temp
known as
21 Moist air as compared to dry air is Less Dense More Dense Same density
In which part of the atmosphere wx
22 Troposphere Ionosphere Stratosphere
phenomenon takes place
23 Density of air depends upon Pressure Temperature Both
24 The 500 Hpa level is at 3 km 6 km 9 km
By weight the approximate ratio of
25 Oxygen to Nitrogen in the atmosphere is 1:03 1:04 1:05
____
In the International Standard Atmosphere,
26 the temperature at Mean Sea Leave is 15 deg 10 deg 25 deg
____
Temperature and Volume are related
27 Buy Ballots Law Pascal’s Law Charles Law
through
The region in the atmosphere between
28 Troposphere Stratopause Ionosphere
ground and stratosphere is known as
What pressure system would be
29 described on area in which along its axis Ridge Trough Col
pressure is lower than on either side
A layer in the atmosphere where temp
30 Isothermal Exothermal Inversion
does not vary with ht is described as
When water vapour changes directly to a
31 solid without first becoming a liquid, it is Stagnation Unstable Stable
called
32 Lines of equal pressure are called Isallobars Isobars Isotopes
The atmospheric pressure decreases with
33 1 mb / 40 ft 1 mb / 6 m 1 mb / 30 ft
altitude at the following rate
Ac from high to low pressure area its
34 Too high Too low Same
altimeter will read
The atmosphere pressure of an
35 QNH QFE QFF
aerodrome at any time is
An altitude at which prevailing density
36 Pressure Altitude Density Altitude Flight Level
exists is called
The lowest flight level above transition Transition
37 Transition Layer Flight Level
altitude is called Level
Height of Tropopause over equator is
38 8 km 19 km 12 km
about
In Axial Compressor air flow is 90 deg to
39 1 0 45 deg
compressor shaft
The maximum pressure during the day is
40 1000 hrs 1400 hrs 0001 hrs
recorded at
Pressure at mean sea level, roughly
41 300 ft 50 ft 27 ft
equivalent to
42 Coriolis force is max at Equator Poles 45 Deg Lat
Wind flowing under the balance of coriolis Cyclostraphic Geostropic
43 Gradient wind
& pressure gradient forces is known as wind wind
The pressure gradient for land and sea
44 Slack Strong Moderate
breezes to occur should be _____
45 Anemometer is an instrument to measure Wind speed Wind direction None of these
Widely spaced isobars indicate that the
46 Strong Weak Moderate
pressure gradient in the region is
 Dec the
What is the primary purpose of the oil to
47 Cool the fuel Cool the oil viscosity of the
fuel heat exchanger
oil
Propulsive efficiency is given by the
48 2U/U+V 2U/U-V UV/U+V
following formula
In a jet engine about______ % of the
49 40 33 60
energy is utilized to drive the compressor
50 A leak in the pitot line will cause ASI to Overread Underread Read correct
Apparent
Wander in a vertical plane is called Drift Topple
wander
51 Apparent
Wander in a horizontal plane is called Drift Topple
wander
Minimum value of drift occurs at Poles Equator 45 latitude
52 A space gyro has freedom in ____planes 1 2 3
53 A/H employs __________axis gyro Vertical Horizontal Ring Laser
During descent, blockage of static source
54 Underread Overread Indicate correct
will cause ASI to
Compressibility error always causes the
55 Under indicated Over indicated No effect
RAS to be
If the temperature of the gas is kept
56 constant then the volume will be inversely Boyle’s Law Dalton’s Law Henry’s Law
proportional to the pressure
100% oxygen required from _____
57 13000 ft 25000 ft 33000 ft
altitude
Pressure breathing is essential above
58 13000 ft 25000 ft 33000 ft
_____ altitude
59
60 Which one is a type of hypoxia Hypoxic Anaemic Stagnate
61
Hypoxia means inadequate supply of ­
62 CO2 O2 Air
________ to the tissues
Rapid
_____________ means increased rate of
63 Hypoxia Hyperventilation Decompressio
the depth of breathing.
n
Human hearing range is from _____
64 10-10,000 Hz 20-20,000 Hz 30-30,000 Hz
to_______ Hz
Delayed Otitic barotraumas occurs
65 3-Jan 5-Apr 6-Apr
____hrs after completion of flying
___________may be defined as a
condition produced primarily by aircraft
66 accelerations in flight and is manifested Discomfort Sea sickness Air sickness
by sweating, nausia, vomiting and
extreme weakness
The ________are responsible for colour
67 Cones Rods Both
vision as well as day or bright light vision
 The ________are responsible for vision
68 Cones Rods Both
in dim light and night vision
Cones require about _____ minutes to
69 10 5 8
regain full sensitivity
Rods require about _____ minutes of
70 10 30 8
darkness to become fully sensitive
Smoking &
71 Factors affecting night vision is Hypoxia Vitamin A
Alcohol
____________ describes that entire
incidence where the pilot fails to Rapid Spacial
72 Hypoxia
appreciate correctly or is uncertain of the decompression Disorientation
attitude or position
Protection, Protection,
Location, Water,
Five rules for survival in order of Location, Water, Location,
73 Food, protection
precedence are Food & Survival Food, Water &
& Survival Aids
Aids Survival Aids
As per ICAO regulations a gap of
74 ____hours between last drink and flying 6 8 12
is mandatory
Atmospheric haze on the approach path Farther from the Below glide
75 Closer to the R/W
can create the illusion of being ________ R/W path
Unless authorised by the Commanding
Officer for operational or specific flight Between sunrise In airspace
76 In IMC
mission, VFR flights shall not be operated and sunset Class B
__________
Between sunset and sunrise, except
when otherwise ordered, _______ lights
77 Navigation Anti col Landing
are to be displayed by aircraft in flight,
taxying or ground running
Minimum Separation between two
departing Aircraft flying on tracks One minute Two minute Five minute
78
diverging by at least 450 immediately after separation separation separation
take-off is ­__
Minimum Separation between departing
Aircraft when the proceeding aircraft is
One minute Two minute Five minute
79 40 knots or more faster than the following
separation separation separation
aircraft and both aircraft propose to follow
the same track___ ­
Minimum Separation between departing
Aircraft at the time cruising levels are One minute Two minute Five minute
80
crossed if a departing aircraft will be flown separation separation separation
through the same track ­__
 A revised expected approach time shall
be transmitted without any delay
81 2 3 5
whenever it differs from that previously
transmitted by _____ minutes or more.
Initiating 'AIRMOVE' message in
82 connection with extended flights is done Cdr (Air) Cdr (Ops) DATCO
by _______
All incidents of importance or interest
taking place during his watch are to be
Aircraft Airfield surface
83 recorded in the _______ log by the Occurrence Log
Movement Log defects log
DATCO together with details of any
action taken
Civil aircraft landing in emergency at a
84 naval airfield shall not be permitted to FONA AA NHQ
take off without prior clearance by ____
The operational objective of the rescue
and fire fighting service should be to
85 achieve response time of ­_____ minutes, 5 3 2
to the end of each runway in optimum
visibility and surface conditions
The___ is to be set on pressure
altimeters before landing at or taking off QFE QNH QFF
from a naval airfield.
86
The QNH/ QFE value should be supplied
to air traffic control staff by the 30 min 01 hour 45 min
meteorological staff at _______intervals
The distance between two adjacent
87 markers shall be ___ feet with the half 500 1000 1500
way marker marked with the letter 'M'
Two yellow diagonals superimposed on Temporary Landing Emergency
88
the red square indicates ____ Obstructions Prohibited Landing Only
Two yellow bars superimposed on the red Temporary Landing Emergency
89
square _____ Obstructions Prohibited Landing Only
A yellow strip superimposed on the red Temporary Landing Emergency
90
square describes____ Obstructions Prohibited Landing Only
Airfields requiring two runway crossing
91 points are to have written approval of FONA AA NHQ
______
Vehicular traffic during night observe a
92 20 kmph 30 kmph 40 kmph
speed limit of ___
All M/T vehicles which are employed
93 regularly on an airfield movement area Red Orange Yellow
are to be painted bright ______
 The runway controller's van is to be
94 painted in black and white squares size 13 by 13 12 by 12 6 by 12
______ inches
95 Single engine aval aircraft while operating
in local flying areas or on exercises are to 10 20 30
96 make position report every ____ min
Twin/multi engine aircraft while operating
singly in local flying areas or on exercises
97 10 20 30
are to make position report every ____
min
Twin/multi engine aircraft while operating
in comoany in local flying areas or on
98 10 20 30
exercises are to make position report
every ____ min
Overdue action has to be initiated for 30 min past
99 ETA 20 min past ETA
fighters at _____ ETA
Overdue action has to be initiated for MR 30 min past
100 ETA 20 min past ETA
aircraft at _____ ETA
Overdue action has to be initiated for 30 min past
101 ETA 20 min past ETA
helicopters at _____ ETA
The responsibility for initiating diversion Captain of
102 Captain(Air) Both of these
shall rest with the aircraft
No naked lights should be permitted
103 within ____ m of any refuelling or 15 20 30
defuelling operation.
104 IFF Code for U/S R/T 7500 7600 7700
105 IFF Code for hijack 7500 7600 7700
IFF Code for U/S R/T with some other
106 7500 7600 7700
emergency onboard
A designated area within a flight
information region where air traffic Aerodrome
107 Advisory Area Advisory Route
advisory service is available is called Control Service
_______
A designated route along which air traffic
Aerodrome
108 advisory service is available is called Advisory Area Advisory Route
Control Service
_______
International ground/air visual codes for
109 V X N
“Require Assistance”
International ground/air visual codes for
110 V X N
“Require Medical Assistance”
International ground/air visual codes for
111 V X N
“YES or Affirmative”
International ground/air visual codes for
112 V X N
“NO or Negative”
There are _____international NOTAM
113 1 2 3
offices in India
114 There are _____classes of NOTAMs 1 2 3
When information is valid for less than 2
115 hours, NOTAM under­­_____ series is A B C
issued
When information is valid for more than 2
116 hours, NOTAM under­­_____ series is A B C
issued
Information required by domestic
117 operators only is issued under NOTAM A B C
_______ series
Information regarding Defence
118 Aerodromes is issued under NOTAM A B C
_______ series
Cancel
NOTAM message identifier “N” carry the Replace a
119 New information previous
following meaning previous NOTAM
NOTAM
Cancel
NOTAM message identifier “R” carry the Replace a
120 New information previous
following meaning previous NOTAM
NOTAM
Cancel
NOTAM message identifier “C” carry the Replace a
121 New information previous
following meaning previous NOTAM
NOTAM
SELCAL is a facility from ____________
122 Air to ground Ground to air Air to air
only
123 AIP India is published by __________ DGCA Govt of India AAI
Air Ground communication used between
124 A/C and aerodrome control tower shall 25 nm 20 nm 10 nm
have at least coverage of ________
The term waypoint is associated with Procedure Route
125 Radar control
_________ control navigation
SAR services in India are organized in
126 2 4 11
accordance with ICAO Annexe ______
Minimum height for sustained rescue
127 searches at Night is _________ ft 500 250 700
AGL/ASL
No construction of building is permitted
128 within radius of …………….m from 200 300 305
NDB/VOR site
In normal visibility condition PAPI lights
129 should be visible from a distance of 4 3 5
_____NM
An isolated Parking Position should not
130 be located with in …………… of other 100 150 200
parking areas building or Public area.
 In terms of VMC in flt in controlled air
131 space the visibility should be at least 5 8 10
____ km
The speed indicated in Flight plan is
132 IAS TAS Ground speed
_______
Details about all accidents/incidents
133 involving a particular Squadron/Flight/Unit Blue book Red book Green book
are to be furnished in _______
The maximum throw of a monitor of CFT
134 45 55 65
is ______ m
ASR approach is termed as __________
135 Precision Non precision Radar
approach
136 Maximum reading of RVR ___ 1500 m 1800 m 2000 m
Aircraft is required to pass estimates
137 before entering the respective FIR 5 10 12
boundary at least before ____ min
OPS normal call by service aircraft by
138 night in transit is made after every 10 15 20
_____min
The World Ocean is divided into _____
139 8 12 16
NAV AREAS
The responsibility for the upkeep of the
140 hard surface of the Air Station lies with Captain AA SATCO
____
The FLIP Part I is revised in every
141 1 year 1-3 years 3-5 years
______
The estimated time required to proceed
142 from one significant point to another EAT EET ETA
______
The headquarters of ICAO is situated at
143 London Canada Montreal
_______
Alerting Message are accorded ICAO
144 FF GG SS
prefix priority Indicator ____
In a gas turbine combustion occurs at a
145 Volume Velocity Pressure
constant ______
In a dual axial flow twin spool compressor N1 and N2
146 N1 compressor N2 compressor
system, the first stage turbine drives the compressor
What are the two functional elements in a Turbine and Compressor and Impellor and
147
centrifugal compressor? compressor manifold diffuser
What is the first engine instrument
148 indication of a successful start of turbine Decrease in EGT Rise in EGT Rise in RPM
engine
Which of the following engine variable is
Compressor inlet Compressor Turbine inlet
149 the most critical during turbine engine
temp RPM temperature
operation
 The highest heat to metal contact in a jet Turbine inlet
150 Burner cone Exhaust cone
engine is the guide vanes
What is the primary factor which controls
Compressor inlet Compressor
151 the pressure ratio of an axial flow Rotor diameter
temperature inlet pressure
compressor?
152 S.H.P. in a turbo prop. is measured by Thrust meter EPR Torque meter
In a jet engine about______ % of the
153 33 40 60
energy is utilized to drive the compressor
Creep damage will most likely occur in a Compressor
Burner cans Turbine blades
turbo jet engine in section
154
A chemically correct air/fuel mixture is
15:1 by volume 15:1 by weight 18:1 by volume
_______
_______ is the name given to the
unstable airflow that results within the
155 compressor when the airflow, instead of Surging Reverse flow Back pressure
going rearwards in a smooth stream,
starts to flow back and forth.
156 The SI unit of work is _________. Watt Newton metre Joule
Incomplete
157 Combustion losses occur due to Radiation Skin friction
combustion
An a/c has a span 30ft, and a wing area
158 30 50 3
of 300 Sq. Ft. the aspect ratio is
A wing whose tips were lower than the
159 Washout Wash in Anhedral
root would be described as having
When the a/c is in straight and level flight
160 Horizontal Vertical Lateral
the normal axis is
For a conventional aerofoil for ordinary CP to move
CP to move
angles of attack, increase in angle of CP to move forward back and then
backward
161 attack causes forward
In the formula L = CI ½σV²S, at low
IAS TAS RAS
subsonic speed, V =
The aerodynamic center is usually
162 25 40 50
located at about ___ %
In a ‘Power on” glide at a steady speed ,
163 < than drag > than drag #NAME?
thrust is
An a/c flying at 150 kt. IAS at 10,000 ft
compared to an a/c of the same weight, Same angle of Smaller angle of Larger angle of
164
flying at the same IAS at sea level will attack attack attack
have
An a/c has a stalling speed of 100 kt IAS. At speed > 100 At speed < 100
165 At 100 kts
In steady turn it will stall kts kts
166 In a glide the lift force is > weight #NAME? < weight
For a cambered wing section, the zero lift
167 Positive Negative Zero
angle will be
 A cambered airfoil section set at zero
168 angle of attack in an air stream will Negative lift Lift No lift
produce ______
169 The staling angle of attack of a typical
4 10 15
170 aerofoil is approximately
171 On a wing, the force of lift acts
Longitudinal
perpendicular to and the force of drag Chord line Flight path
172 axis
acts parallel to the
During the transition from straight-and-
Is momentarily Remains the Is momentarily
173 level flight to a climb, the angles of attack
decreased same increased
is increased and lift _____
Lift/Drag (L/D) ratio is greatest at an
174 3-4 deg 15-16 deg 8-10 deg
angle of attack of
When induced drag At the stalling When profile
175 Minimum total drag of an a/c occurs
is max speed drag is least
Decreases skin Decreases Increases
176 A high aspect ratio wing
friction drag induced drag induced drag
If the weight of an a/c is increased, the
177 profile drag at a given speed will Remain the same Increase Decrease
________
Symmetrical aerofoil section set at zero
178 angle of attack in an air stream will Lift and drag No lift , No drag Drag but no lift
produce
When the boundary layer changes from Remain the
Decrease Increase
laminar to turbulent it’s depth will same
179 An undercarriage leg has a drag of 3 lb.
at a speed of 100 kt. It’s drag at 200 kts. 6 lb 24 lb 12 lb
IAS would be
For max. Aerodynamic efficiency the wing
180 Rectangular Trapezoidal Elliptical
plan shape would be
A swept wing compared to the same wing
181 Same lift More lift Less lift
without sweep will produce
Root thickness to Span to root Root chord to
182 Taper ratio is the ratio of
tip thickness chord tip chord
On a highly tapered wing without wing At the centre of
At the tip At the root
twist the stall will commence span
183
When a leading edge slot is opened. the
Remain the same Decrease Increase
stalling speed will
The altitude
If the flaps are lowered but airspeed kept The nose must be The nose must
184 must be held
constant, to maintain level flight: raised be lowered
constant
The type of flap which increases wing
185 A split flap A fowler flap A plain flap
area is:
186 An a/c wing stalls at a constant True airspeed Angle of attack IAS
187 A fixed spoiler on the leading edge of the Induce a root Give shorter
Prevent a root stall
188 wing at the root will stall landing run
 Combined
Pitching
189 Dutch roll is Type of slow roll rolling and
instability
yawing motion
Increasing the a/c weight will __________
190 Increase Decrease Not affect
the stalling speed
Longitudinal stability involves the motion
191 Rudder Ailerons Elevator
of the airplane controlled by its
192 The static margin is equal to the distance C of G and neutral C of P and C of G and
193 between: point neutral point C of P
Dutch roll occurs when lateral stability is
194 Equal to Lesser Greater
……….than directional stability.
The Mach No. corresponding to a given Be greater in temp The same at all Be lesser if the
195
a/c TAS will: increases temp temp increases
At speeds approaching Mach 1.0 a shock At the trailing At the point of
196 At the leading edge
wave will appear first edge max thickness
A bow wave develops on the wing at a Just below Mach Equal to Mach Just above
197
speed 1.0 1.0 Mach 1.0
If a standard rate of turn is maintained,
198 1 min 2 min 3 min
how long would it take to turn 360 0
Increase in weight causes gliding ranges
199 Increase Decrease Remain same
to
200 In a climb lift is ________ than weight More Less Equal
Power required for flying level at a given
201 Increase Decrease Remain same
IAS ……… with altitude
While gliding into wind the gliding
202 Increase Decrease Remain same
endurance will
Decreases
What effect does an uphill runway slope Increases takeoff Increases takeoff
takeoff
203 have on takeoff performance? speed distance
distance
Duct propagation is common in HF MF LF
In a micro second, a radio wave travels
204 1 km 3 km 300 m
approximately:
205 In refraction wave changes Direction only Length only Both
The Transmitter operating on MF band,
206 Direct wave Sky wave Ground wave
the radio waves will travel as
A portion of radio energy which travel
207 upward and is received back after Ground wave Sky wave Direct wave
reflection from Ionosphere is
Above critical freq when the transmitter is
208 Direct wave Sky wave Ground wave
operating, the radio waves travel as
The density of electrons is max in
209 D E F
_______ Layer
Night effect is due to change in Very high
210 Higher frequency Lower frequency
ionosphere layer. To avoid use frequency
211 Skip distance is applicable to VHF HF MF
212 Distance from Transmitter to a point Multiple hop
where sky wave is first received is known Dead space Skip distance
213 as ______ propagation
The major factor which influences the sky Power of Time of the
214 Terrain
wave propagation transmitter day
The frequency band for VHF 118 to 137
215 118 to 125 MHz 112 to 137 MHz
communication is MHz
The best frequency for Long Range
216 LF MF HF
Communication is
Phase comparison is only possible
217 between two signals which are of the Amplitude Frequency Phase
same _____________.
When the electrical and the magnetic
components spin about the axis of
218 Vertically Horizontally Axially
advance the signal is called ____
polarised
The technique of circular polarisation is Transmission
219 Interference Rain clutter
used in reducing __________ in radar losses
In frequency modulation the
___________ of the carrier wave remains Wavelength Frequency Amplitude
220 constant
Radio waves are reflected by objects
Wavelength Frequency Antenna height
commensurate with their __________.
In a vertically polarised aerial, the
Both horizontal
221 magnetic component of the transmission Vertical Horizontal
and vertical
is.........
Class A bearing - accurate to within +/-
222 2 5 10
_____ degrees
Class B bearing - accurate to within +/-
2 5 10
_____degrees
223
Class C bearing - accurate to within +/-
2 5 10
_____degrees
Q code for aircraft’s true bearing from the
224 QTE QDR QUJ
station is
Q code for aircraft’s true bearing to the
QTE QDR QUJ
station is
225
Q code for aircraft’s magnetic bearing
QTE QDR QUJ
from the station is
Q code for aircraft’s magnetic bearing to
226 QTE QDR QUJ
the station is
227
Cardioid is used in ADF VOR ILS
228
When using ADF for en-route navigation, Relative
229 Magnetic bearing True bearing
the bearing obtained is bearing
The most vulnerable period for the use of
230 Day Night Winters
ADF is
231 Polar diagram Limacon is used in ADF VOR ILS

Bearing by Bearing by
Bearing by lobe
232 VOR functions on the principle of hyperbolic phase
comparison
comparison comparison
233
Frequency range of VOR is: 108-118 MHz 108-120 MHz 100-110 MHz
234
Full scale deflection on a VOR
235 2.5 5 10
corresponds to _____ deg
Max deflection on ILS needle occurs
236 when the A/C is _____ deg from 2.5 5 10
centerline
A one dot deflection on a 4 dot glide
237 0.7 0.17 0.27
slope indicator is____deg
The ILS glide path equipments operates
238 329 to 335 Khz 329 to 335 Mhz 329 to 335 Ghz
between ________
239 Localizer of ILS operates on 75 Mhz 108 Mhz 332 Mhz
Principle of operation if ILS is bearing by Amplitude
240 Phase comparison Lobe comparison
____________ comparison
ILS marker beacon transmitters operate
241 50 75 100
on a frequency of ­________MHz
A Cat I ILS has a DH not lower than
242 100 200 50
_______ft.
A Cat II ILS has a DH not lower than
243 100 200 50
_______ft.
244 Mushing Error pertains to GPS DME Radio altimeter
245 Radio altimeter operates on _____ band UHF VHF SHF
Minimum range of a pulse radar is
246 PRF Pulse width Beam width
governed by
With mode ‘S’ transponder the altitude
247 reporting is done in the increments of 50 100 200
______ft
The ranges from the beacon indicated by
248 Slant range Ground range Both
DME is ______
In Mode C, the height is always
249 referenced to _______, regardless of QNH QFE QNE
altimeter setting
On an Airborne Weather Radar heaviest
250 Green Yellow Red
precipitation is shown by _____ echo
251 Weather Radar is a ________ radar Primary Secondary Precision
If the rotor spinning speed of a TSI is
252 greater than the rated speed the indicated Correct Over readig Under reading
rate of turn will be _________

253 Width of an airway over land is ____ nm 10 15 20

 15 kts wind on beaufort scale
254 2 3 4
corresponds to
Post SW
255 An easterly jet stream is associated with NE monsoon SW monsoon
monsoon
Width of jet stream can be upto
256 100 200 250
______kms
When travelling from warm area to cold TAS remains
257 TAS reduces TAS increases
area at constant mach no. constant
When ELR is between SALR and DALR, Conditionally
258 Stable Unstable
atmosphere is ___ stable
Light rain/drizzle is normally associated
259 Cumulus Stratus Cumulonimbus
with ________type of clouds

260 Blockage of static will cause ASI to _____ No Change Underread Overread

261 If static gets blocked VSI will read ______ No Change Zero Max

262 A space gyro has freedom in ______ plan Three Four One

263 In southern hemisphere the DGI reading wiAbruptly change not change Decrease

264 Drift varies as ___________ Sine of Long sine of Lat Cosine of Long

265 Tephigram is used to access __________ Temperature instability Pressure

Less than 1000

266 RVR is reported only when visibility is ___ Less than 500 mtr less than 2000
mtr

267 The region of relatively flat distribution Anticol Ridge Trough

268 Moist haze is thick but visibility does not 1000 mtrs 200 mtrs 750 mtrs

269 Sub tropical jet stream affects india in t Spring Monsoon non monsoon

270 severe cyclonic storm has winds exceedi 33 knts 48 knts 116 knts

271 The component of total reaction acting perpConing Angle Angle Of Attack rotor thrust

272 _____is measured between the span wise lAngle of Attack coning angle Total Reaction
273 If rotor rpm are maintained constant raisingconing angle Increase Rotor R Decrease Rotor

274 The tendency of fuselage to rotate in oppostorque reaction Counter Torque Couple

275 The angular distance that the pitch operati Backward Angle Leading Angle Angle of Attack

276 The ground cushion effect will ____ power reduce power Increase Power No Change

277 ______ is caused by helicopter achieving aRetreating Blade Stalstatic rollover Dynamic Rollov

278 Settling with power is a condition of power Dynamic Rollover Retreating Blade SAutorotation

279 _____ clouds have a fibrous appearance orStratus Cloud Cumulus clouds Cirrus cloud

280 The effort of friction persist upto about _ 600 mtrs 500mtrs 200 mtrs

281 Velocity of subsonic airflow as it passes t Decreases increases Remain Same

282 A ------ start is when engine starts but fail Incorrect Abrupt 0

283 Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor

Surge Stalling galling

284 ________ instrument will become inoperatiASI VSI Altimeter

285 Red line in a ASI represent ____________Min Power Speed Zero VNE

286 Higher the hydrogen content in the fuel, -----Same higher Lower

287 A space gyro has freedom in ______ plan two Two Three

288 a VOR identification code consists of ____ 4 2 1

289 ________ occurs due to change in refracti Deviation Diffraction Reflection

290 SSR code for aircraft involved in airborne 7500 7600 7007

291 The difference in frequency between the in53 MHZ 65 MHZ 60 MHZ
292 Orbitting Height of GPS satellite is ______ 20200 Kms 30000 Kms 36000 Kms

293 Max unambigous range from Radar is de Beam width Pulse width PRF

294 In a gas turbine engine ------ is limited to TGT TPT TET

295 Middle marker in an ILS should be ideally 1100 m 950 m 1000 m

296 errors in NDB due to night effect will be _ Max Least Zero

297 Bonding connections are tested for -------- resistance Voltage Current

298 side bands are formed when a carrier is m Higher Same Lower

299 Water injection increases thrust by increasin

Volume Pressure Temperature

300 A gas turbine is a constant ------- cycle. Pressure Density Temperature

 Difficulty Level
Correct
D (1-3, 3 being
Answer
easiest

Can't be B 2
predicted using
above data

centre D 3
coincides with
centre of earth
and radius is
same as that of
earth

none of the A 3
above

both b and c A 3

none of the A 2
above

both b and c C 3

all of the above D 3

for solving C 3
wind triangle

none of the C 3
above
maximum in nil D 3
wind case

north pole and B 2

antemeridian
of greenwich
7817 C 3

both a and b B 3

both speed B 3
and direction
unknown

Drift, ETA of D 3
next reporting
point

grivation D 3
none of the A 2
above
5 sin 30 C 3

none of the C 2
above
none of the B 2
above
ratio of Eq A 3
diameter to
Polar diameter

none of the B 3
above
-80 deg C C 2
variation in ac B 3
performance

4E D 3
nil winds D 3

none of the B 2
above

none of the A 3
above

none of the C 3
above

None of the D 3
above
none of the D 3
above
None of the C 2
above
none of the B 2
above

depends upon B 3
the time
between w/v
calculations
VOR brg C 3
both a and b D 3

all of the above D 3

none of the D 3
above
posn of CP B 2
moves closer
to dep

a rate one turn B 3

by 90 deg
method
none of the C 2
above
over north pole D 2

lamberts charts A 3
are used

none of the B 2
above
parallelogram B 2

true R/L brg at B 3

the source
none of the B 3
above
datum D 2
meridian lies
east of the
place
all projections B 2

Newton’ Law A 2

Newton’s Law B 3
Newton’ Law C 2

All the above D 2

All the Above D 3

All the Above D 2

All the above D 2

All the above D 1

All the above D 2

All the above. D 3
All the above A 2

All the above D 1

All the above D 1

All the above D 3

All the above D 1

All the above D 2

1-3 hrs after A 3

completion of
flying
Non of the C 2
above

All the above A 2

All the above B 2

Non of the C 2
above
15 B 1

All the above. D 1

All the above D 2

None of the C 3
above

Above the B 1
glide path
40000 ft D 1

None of the C 3
above
None of the B 2
above
None of the A 2
above
may increase B 3

MN = TAS C 2
662√Rel.
Density
all of the above D 3

none of the A 2
above is
correct

may increase A 1
or decrease

mean B 3
aerodynamic
centre
none of the C 1
above
90 to 100 % D 2
RPM

none of the C 2
above

all of the above D 2

weight, C 1
temperature,
runway slope,
configuration

both a and b D 1

all the above D 2

all the above A 3

no fixed value C 2

both a and b D 2

reduces D 2

none of the A 2
above
None of the B 1
above
none of the B 3
above
profile drag A 3
increases,
induced drag
increases
take off will be C 2
carried out
before V1 in
case of all
engines
serviceable
and after V1 if
critical engine
failes

increase in C 2
RPM, increase
in temperature
and increase in
altitude
none of the C 3
above
moist and cool B 3

none of these A 3

Vmcg, Vmbe B 1

2.4 percent D 2
gross climb
gradient for
second
segment
none of the B 2
above
TAS (knots) D 2
250 - Fx
consumption
(gal/hr) 202
none of these A 3

SFC/GFC A 2
all the above D 2

none of the A 1
above
none of the B 2
above
initially B 2
increases than
decreases
none of the A 2
above

depends upon B 1
various other
factors
none of the C 3
above
none of the D 3
above
none of the C 2
above

none of the B 2
above

when C 3
thrust/drag is
minimum
when sound C 2
barrier is
broked at all
points over the
aircraft

none of the B 3
above

none of the C 2
above

speed, altitude, D 1
RPM, temp

from a height D 2
of 1500' above
the aerodrome
of intended
landing
none of the C 3
above

1:316 Vimd A 1
On the A 2
periphery and
with a low
rotation speed.
One degree of B 2
freedom,
whose
horizontal axis
is maintained
in the
horizontal
plane by an
automatic
erecting
system.
Too much C 1
nose-up and
bank too low.

The air-data- C 3
computer.
0 degree of A 2
freedom.
Roll rate of the B 2
aircraft.

A directional D 3
gyro.

Speed in a B 3
turn.

Inversely D 3
proportional to
the aircraft true
airspeed.
A flux gate A 3
compass.

Gyro-magnetic C 3
compass.

2 degrees of C 2
freedom and
horizontal spin
axis.
Too high pitch C 3
up and too
high banking.
Is fed by the A 1
flux valve.

Amplifier. A 3

The aircraft's A 3
track over the
earth.
A nozzle C 1
integral with
the outer
gimbal ring.
On the North D 2
pole.
Has a fairly B 3
long starting
cycle.
2 degrees-of- B 2
freedom in the
horizontal axis.
10.5° /hour to D 2
the right.

90 degree C 3
/hour.
1,3. A 3

(-5 B 2
degree/hour.

90 degree per B 3
hour.
Increasing B 3
RPM and spin
axis length.

Turn and slip D 1

indicator.
120° per hour. C 2

Not related to B 3
the number of
gimbals.
One gimbal, B 3
one degree of
freedom and a
vertical spin
axis.
Space gyro. A 3

Decreasing A 1
RPM and mass
but increasing
radial
displacement
of mass.

Increases B 2
accuracy at all
rotation rates.

2,4. C 2

All of the C 3
above.

2,4. D 1

2,4. C 2

Align the C 3
heading
pointer with
true heading
prior to flight.
2,4. B 2

Longitude A 2
latitude error.
2,4. C 3

Decreasing B 2
rim

Artificial C 2
horizon.
8.67° per hour. B 1

7.2 degree per A 2

hour.
3.34° per hour. C 2

(-3.34° per C 1
hour.
(-6.34° per D 2
hour.
10.61° per D 2
hour.
6.34 per hour. A 3
Above FL B 2
220.   

Helicopters A 3
shall give way
to Fixed-wing
aircraft 

None of the A 3
above

None of the C 3
above

None of the B 3
above
None of the C 3
above 

None of the C 3
above 
R/T Log A 3

None of the B 2
above 

None of the A 2
above

None of the B 2
above

None of the C 2
above

None of the A 2
above

None of the B 2
above

Emergency D 2
Landing Only

None of the A 1
above

12 inches by D 1
12 inches
Taxiway Lights A 2

Taxiway Lights B 2

Taxiway Lights C 2

Taxiway Lights D 2

None of the A 3
above

None of the B 3
above
None of the A 3
above
All of the B 3
None of the C 3
above
Y A 3

Y B 3

Y D 3

Y C 3

Four D 2

Four B 2
D D 2

G C 2

None of the A 2
above

None of the B 3
above
All Above D 3

12 inches by D 2
12 inches
Purple Books B 3

3 Years D 3

SATCO C 3

2 years C 3
None of the A 3
above

None of the C 3
above 
Beginning and C 3
end of runway
to be marked
by 3 green and
red glim lamps
respectively.

Displaced B 3
threshold to be
marked by 5
flares on either
side.
None of the A
above

None of the C 3
above

None of the C 3
above

None of the A 3
above

None of the C 3
above

(d) Beginning A 3
and end of
runway to be
marked by 3
green and red
glim lamps
respectively.
None of the C 3
above
Both A and B A 2

All of the C 3
above

None of the C 2
above
None of the B 3
above
None of the B 2
above
All of the A 1
above
Density and C 2
temperature
Both A and B A 1

None of the A 2
above

None of the B 1
above
None of the A 1
above
None of the C 3
above
None of the A 3
above
Uncertain A 2

None of the A 3
above

None of the C 1
above
None of the C 2
above
None of the C 3
above
Uncertain B 3

QNH – QNE D 3

None of the A 3
above
None of the A 2
above

None of the B 3
above
All of the C 3
above

None of the A 2
above

Uncertain C 1

All Gyros A 1
Mach Meter B 2

None of the B 2
above

None of the A 3
above

None of the C 1
above

None of the A 2
above
All of the C 2
above

None of the B 2
above

None of the C 2
above

None of the A 2
above
None of the C 3
above
None of the C 3
above

All of the B 2
above
None of the A 1
above

None of the B 1
above

None of the C 2
above

None of the C 1
above

Speed of D 2
sound as well
as TAS will
decrease.
Uncertain B 1

None of the A 2
above

None of the A 2
above

None of the B 3
above

None of the B 3
above
None of the B 2
above

The ratio of A 2
CAS to the
speed of sound
Ratio of TAS to D 2
the local speed
of sound.
None of the A 3
above
None of the A 3
above
None of the C 3
above
None of the B 1
above
None of the C 2
above

the CAS will C 1

increase and
the TAS will
decrease.
Vertical speed B 2
indicator.
static B 2
temperature.
The error is C 3
insignificant
and can be
ignored
the same as A 2
the real altitude

approximately D 2
95% of the
position error.
The kinetic B 2
energy formula
P1V1 = P2V2
with flaps B 3
extended in
landing
position.
zero A 2

One. B 2

Configuration D 2
change,
manoeuvre
induced errors,
turbulence
QNH B 2

Three hour D 2

15 minutes A 1

30 minutes B 1
12 hours D 3
24 hours C 3
All of the D 1
above
2-5 km D 3
Estimation A 2
less than or D 2
equal to 5 km
All of the D 3
Hail B 2

METAR C 1
QFF D 3
Blue B 2

00 & 03 UTC B 1
Since 0300 D 2
UTC
Weather can B 2
occure at any
layer
Initially D 1
remains same
then increases
Mesosphere A 2
8 km A 3

8 km D 3
Zero C 3

None of the B 3
above
Routine flying B 1
Can not be told A 2

Can not be told A 2

None of the A 1
above

Vertical C 2
Visibility
Size of drops D 2
and intensity
less tyhan D 3
1000 m
Both A & B D 1

None of the A 1
above
Pressure B 2
change in last
24 hrs
Cyclostropic A 2
wind
Regular A 3

Regular B 3
80 kts B 2
Any time B 3
80 deg to A 2
runway

5.00 C C 2
deg/1000 ft
1500' C 1
Nil D 1
Tcu D 1
St C 1
Apr B 2
Summer A 3

None of the B 3
above
Tropics B 3

Albedo A 3
Very short C 1
waves
050° Right. B 2

100 to 1000 C 3
KHz.
114 nm A 2

both the B 2
electrical and
magnetic
components
are parralel to
the aerial.
± 20° A 2
QGH B 2

It does not C 2
require any
special
equipment,
apart from a
VHF radio, to
be installed in
the aircraft or
on the ground.

wave A leads A 3
wave B by
360°.

On first contact C 2
with ATC on
crossing an
international
FIR boundary.
HF B 2

the plane of A 3
the aerial does
not matter.
220°(M) B 1

184° A 2

It is very D 3
simple, being
required to
transmit only a
carrier wave
and an
identification.
200 to 220 nm. A 2

044° D 3

Night effect. D 2

The Manually B 3
Rotateable
Card.
400 nm A 2

Sky waves do B 3
not affect the
bearing
accuracy
provided they
come from the
correct NDB.

9960 Hz B 3
amplitude
modulated.
108 to 135.95 A 3
MHz.
320° B 2

A8W B 2
transmitter C 3
frequency
instability is
minimised.
1.5 D 2
You are C 2
guaranteed to
receive no
interference to
the VOR signal
from other
radio
transmissions
as long as you
are within the
air space
published.

FM A 3
pulses are B 2
transmitted in
pairs.

stays in search A 2
mode but
reduces PRF
to max. 60
PPS after
15000 pulse
pairs have
been
transmitted.
the pulses are B 2
unique to each
aircraft.

the DME ident B 2

signal is
received.

each aircraft C 2
has its own
frequency
allocation.

222 nm. D 2
The operator in B 3
the aircraft
should always
make a mental
increase to the
indicated
range, in order
to compensate
for the
difference
between
horizontal and
slant distance.

0,09 NM. D 2

When DME is C 2
in the search
mode it will
only accept
pulses giving
the correct
range.

the aircraft B 2
transmits 24
pulse pairs per
second and the
receiver
checks a
maximum of
150 pulse pairs
per second.

DME callsign is D 3
the one with
the higher pitch
that was
broadcast only
once.
receiver B 1
accepting
replies
intended for
other
interrogators.
6,58 nm C 2

6.3 MHz; C 2
interrogation
pulses from
other aircraft.

any of the D 3
above.

EHF A 3

UHF; sky wave C 2

15.04 nm. B 2

fly right and D 3

down.

60 m on QNH. A 3

As close to the C 2
runway
threshold as
possible
without
causing an
obstruction to
aircraft.

329.3 to 335 B 3
MHz in the
VHF band.
less than 200 A 3
ft.
Fly left and fly D 2
up.

not less than B 3

35° above the
horizontal.

yellow to A 3
orange to red.

VHF A 3

93.75 MHz. A 2
None of the C 3
above
None of the A 2
above

Power O/P A 3

450 ft. A 2

2 milliseconds. D 3

3 A 2

65°. A 3

1227.6 MHz or B 3
1575.42 MHz.

phase C 2
comparison
from ground
All 3 answers D 3
station
are correct
transmissions.
is due to a A 2
change in
Doppler shift
over land and
is partially
corrected by
the land/sea
switch.

(2VF. Cos C 3
Θ .Cos
UHF Φ)/C
band B 3
5000 ft A 2
Approaching B 3
without flaps
lowered

It uses GPS D 2
and aposition
Flap map B 2
database to
sensor
compute
True N safe and B 3
clearance
mag N and fromis
ground
named ahead
east if
the true N lies
to the east of
mag N and
vice versa

All of the B 2
above

The magnet A 2
would turn in
the opposite
direction to
that of the turn
and would
indicate lesser
turn

Dashpot A 2
accelerometer
None of the A 3
above
Get true north A 2
and lubber line
aligned.
A heading A 2
fluctuating
about 360°.
A heading A 2
fluctuating
about 090°.

All of the D 3
above.

Dependent A 2
upon the dir of
flux
In all condition A 2
of flight

Acceleration D 3
error

Periodically A 3
realigned with
the magnetic
compass as
the gyro
precesses
Remain A 3
constant at all
latitudes

Apparent turn A 3
to West
At 45º North or A 3
South
 A 2

A 3

A 3

A 3

All are wrong C 2

Periodically A 2
realigned with
the magnetic
compass as
the gyro
precesses
B 2

A 2

A 2

A 2

None of the C 3
above

Over shoot the A 3

required
amount of turn
None of the abov
C 3

None of the abov

A 3

None of the abov

A 3
None of the abov A 3
None of the abov C 3
None of the abov A 3
None of the abov C 3
None of the abov A 3
None of the abov
B 3

None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov C 3

None of the abov C 3
None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov

B 3

None of the abov B 3

None of the abov A 3

None of the above
B 3

None of the abov A 3

None of the abov
C 3

None of the abov

B 3

None of the abov

B 3
None of the abov
C 3

HF C 3

60 aircraft B 3

None of the abov

B 2

None of the abov

A 2

None of the abov

B 2

None of the abov

B 2

None of the abov

A 2

None of the abov C 3

None of the abov
A 3

None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov C 3

None of the abov
C 3

None of the abov

A 3

None of the abov

A 3

None of the abov

C 3
None of the abov
A 3

None of the abov B 3

None of the abov
C 3

None of the abov A 3

None of the abov
A 3

None of the abov

A 3

None of the abov

A 3

None of the abov

B 3

None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov

A 3
On the
reciprocal of
the radial shown D 3
by the course
selector.
The true track to
the
B 3
VOR is 105°.

None of the above C 3

090° B 3

219° A 3

None of the abov B 3

None of the abov
A 3

None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov

A 3

None of the abov

A 3

None of the abov

B 3
None of the abov
C 3

None of the abov B 3

None of the abov A 3
None of the abov
B 3

None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov

B 3

Blue light coding

two
B 3
dashes per
second.
Maintain Heading A 3
None of the abov
C 3

The YELLOW
sector
is always on the
right when
inbound to a
runway. A 3

None of the above C 3

250 feet C 3

None of the abov A 3

20 nm C 3
None of the abov
A 3
 75 B 3

A9W A 3

None of the abov C 3

C 3

None of the abov

16 B 3

200 Mhz to 1750 C 3

None of the abov
A 3

None of the abov

C 3

None of the abov

A 3

002° A 3

None of the abov

B 3

None of the abov

B 3
None of the
above

B 3

None of the above C 3

None of the above C 3

None of the above C 3

None of the abov

B 2

None of the abov

C 2

None of the abov

C 2

None of the abov

A 2

None of the abov

B 2

None of the abov

B 2
None of the abov

A 2

None of the abov

B 2

350 to 002 FROM

B 2

None of the abov

B 2

C 2
560 ft/min

800 feet B 2

1850 feet A 2

None of the above B 2

None of the abov

C 2

080(M) B 2

None of the abov C 2

None of the above A 2

None of the abov A 2

None of the abov C 2

None of the above B 2

A 2

None of the above

None of the above C 2

None of the above B 2

None of the above A 2

None of the above B 2

None of the above B 2

None of the above B 2

None of the above A 2

None of the abov B 1

None of the abov C 1

B 1
None of the abov

None of the above A 1

2
C

W-E B 1

Sublimation D 3

S – SW direction C 1

Open ocean C 1

Open ocean C 1

None of the C 3
above
None of the B 3
above
None of the B 3
above
None of the C 3
above
None of the B 3
above
None of the C 3
above
None of the B 3
above

None of the B 3
above
None of the C 3
above
None of the A 2
above
None of the C 1
above
None of the C 1
above
None of the C 1
above
Night B 2

Low C 3

Drizzle A 3
dawn C 1
All of the above A 3

All of the above A 3

All above D 2

Afternoon D 3
Above the glide B 3
path
400HPA B 3

33000ft A 3

135 deg D 2
1.5 Km above B 3
surface
- 26 degree C B 3

A 2

A 2
B 1

B 1

B 1

C 1

B 1
C 1

7.50% B 3
 4 D 2

1220 A 1

max dist ac can D 1

fly along a given
track and come
back to base
within a
specified patrol
time
148 deg B 3

Depends on C 1
whether the
latitude is North
or South
7 m/s A 3

Some other A
value

955 nm B 1

none of the C 1
above

B 1

reference C 2
position

Have no effect D 1
in the case of
zero winds or
winds at 90
degree to track
A 2
None of the C 1
above
None of the A 2
above
As a straight line D 1
anywhere on the
projection
Move it nearer C 1
the half-way
point
Fuel shortage B 1

from the highest B 1

obstruction only
in the primary
area

B 1

abeam winds A 3
None of the B 2
above

At shorter B 3
distance, with
the same ETA
is not calculated A 1
since none of
the parameters
are constant

Anti-meridian C 3
All the above D 3

It is impossible D 1
to say

It could be any C 1
value
Nearer to the D 1
departure point

None of the A 1
above
Full TAS for all B 1
calculations

None of the C 3
above
Topographical D 3
maps
Both A and B D 2

double the value B 2

both a) and b) C 1
are wrong

Both b) and c) D 1
above are
correct

4% less D

A 1

A 2

Anti-meridian C 2
none of the B 2
above
exactly beam C 1
winds
no effect C 2

148 deg B 2

7m/s A 1

Grid B 2
maps
Chlat X cos long A 1
none of the B 1
above
30 C 2

dip A 1

meridian C 1

south B 1

north D 1

both of these A 2

equator A 2

none A 1

none of the C 1
above

none of the A 1
above

axis B 1

none of the A 2
above
none of the B 2
above
none of the A 2
above
none of the B 2
above
four B 1

meridians B 2
none of the A 2
above

great circle C 1

convergency A 2
none of the A 2
above
magnetic dip C 2

none of the B 2
above
equator B 2

poles A 2

Isobars B 2

none of the A 2
above
nautical miles A 1

meter B 2

elevation B 1

South B 2

poles A 1

doesn’t vary B 2

from east B 2

none of the A 2
above

meridian B 1

poles C 2

none of the A 2
above
has no relation B 2
none of the C 2
above

10,000ft B 2

only desend A 1

A 1

Gravitational A 3
changes
All the above B 2

60 mts C 1
36 weeks C 3

Quarterly B 1

nothing happens A 3

B 3

none of these A 2

none of these A 3

Newton's Law A 2

Newton's Law C 2

05kms A 2
All of the above D 1
Features appear D 3
to be farther
away than
actual.

none of these B 3

insufficient C 1
carbon
monoxide
none of these A 2

none of these A 2

nausea B 1

mouth C 1

hyperventilation B 2

none of these A 2

ears, vision, A 3
seat of pants
UV vision A 2
none of these A 2

depends on C 3
altitude
none of these B 1

related to C 3
hyperventilation
none of these B 2

alcohol can be A 2
consumed 6hrs
before flying

autokinetic A 2
illusion
has no effect A 2

All of the above D 1

All of the above A 2

All of the above D 2

All of the above D 2

none of these A 2

15 mins C 1

All of the above D 1

All of the above D 2

6 B 1

above the glide B 2

path
15000 ft B 3

severe brain D 2
injuries
spacial C 2
disorientation
none of these C 3

none of these A 1

B 2

B 2

none of the A 2
above
none of the C 1
above

B 2

B 2

A 1

A 2

climb followed A 1
by descent
A 1
A 2

A 1

A 1
 B 1

B 1

A 2

none of the A 2
above
none of the A 1
above
B 1

A 1
B 1

B 2

A 2

B 2

A 2
none of the C 1
above
none of the C 2
above
B 2

A 1

none of the A 2
above
B 2

A 2

A 2

none of the A 2
above
 A 2

A 2

B 2

A 1

A 2

none of the B 1
above

none of the A 2
above
none of the A 1
above
none of the C 2
above

B 2

A 2

A 1

A 2

Above FL 220.    B 2

A 2

A 2
A 2

A 1

A 3

A 2

A 1

A 3

B 1

A 3

A 3

A 2

A 3

A 2
 A 2

A 2

B 1

A 3

A 3

A 1

A 2

A 2

None of the A 1
above

None of the C 1
above

A 2

A 2

A 3
 A 2

A 2

A 3

A 1

A 3

A 2

A 2

A 2

A 2

None of the C 1
above 
None of the C 2
above 

R/T Log A 2
 A 2

A 2

A 1

A 1

A 2

A 1

Above FL 220.    B 2

A 3

A 2

B 2

none of the C 3
above
A 1

A 2

A 2
A 2

B 1
none of the C 2
above

none of the B 2
above
B 1

none of the B 2
above
none of the B 1
above
A 1

none of the B 2
above
A 1

none of the B 1
above

none of the A 1
above
none of the A 1
above

none of the B 2
above
A 2
A 1
A 1

none of the A 1
above
B 1
none of the B 2
above
ALL OF THE D 2
ABOVE

A 2

A 2
 A 1

none of the A 2
above

A 2

A 1

A 2

A 2
B 2
none of the B 2
above
A 2

A 2
none of the C 2
above
none of the C 2
above
none of the B 1
above
none of the A 2
above
none of the A 1
above
atmospheric C 2
pressure
A 1

none of the C 2
above
A 2
B 2

A 1

none of the C 2
above
none of the B 2
above
 A 2

A 2
A 2

A 1

B 1

A 3

A 2

A 1

none of the B 3
above
A 1

2 TO 3 B 3

above 75 C 3

B 2

B 3
none of the B 2
above

B 2

none of the B 2
above
none of the A 1
above
none of the B 3
above
none of the A 3
above
A 1

none of the B 2
above
B 2

A 1
 A 1
none of the C 2
above
none of the B 2
above
A 3

B 2

A 2

A 3

A 1

none of the B 3
above

Cold dry air is B 2

lifted up due to
mountains

B 2
B 2

none of the A 2
above
B 1

B 2

A 2

ELR is less than D 2

DALR
In strong winds D 2
and low rpm
All the above D 1
condition
Decrease A 1
initially and then
regain its initial
value
Quick spot turn C 2
to the right
Articulated rotor A 1
systems
Ancillary power C 2

none of the A 3
above
none of the C 2
above
Articulated rotor A 2
systems
Rudder surfaces B 3

Cover lesser D 1
distance than at
range speed in
nil winds.
BHP C 3
Optimum B 2
15:1, Weight D 3
Perpendicular A 3
Oblique A 2
EM B 3
36000 kms D 1
QFF A 2
Anti-meridian B 3
None B 2
None C 3

None C 3

7 A 2

None A 2

Grid maps B 3

All of these D 1

Nil B 2

None of these B 2

None of these A 3
None of these A 1
None C 3
None B 3
None of these B 3

30 deg A 3

None C 3

None of these A 3

None of these C 3

None of these A 3

Sublimation D 2

None B 3
None C 3

None of these A 3

QNE B 3

None of these B 3

None of these C 3

16 km D 3

None B 3

None B 2

None C 2
None A 3
None C 3

None B 2
Both A 2
None B 3
None B 2

U-V/2UV A 1

75 C 2
None of these B 2
None of these B 2

None of these A 2
None of these B 3
None of these C 3
None of these A 3
None of these B 3

None of these B 2

Newton’s law A 3

41000 ft C 2

41000 ft D 2

All of these D 3

N2 B 3

None of these B 3

None of these B 3

6-May C 3

None of these C 3

None of these A 3
None of these B 3

15 C 2

15 B 2

All of these D 3

Hyperventilatio
C 3
n

None of these A 3

16 C 3

Above glide
B 2
path

Above FL 220 B 3

None of these A 3

None of these A 2

None of these B 2

None of these C 2
10 C 3

None of these C 3

R/T Log A 2

Captain C 2

None of these C 3

QNE B 3

None of these A 3

2000 B 3

None of these B 2

None of these C 2

None of these A 2

Captain A 2

35 mph B 3

White B 3
15 by 15 B 2

45 B 3

45 C 3

45 D 3

60 min past
A 3
ETA
60 min past
C 3
ETA
60 min past
D 3
ETA
None of these C 3

40 C 3

2000 B 3
2000 A 2
2000 C 1

None of these A 3

None of these B 3

Y A 3

Y B 3

Y D 3

Y C 3

4 D 3
4 B 3

G B 3

G A 3

D C 3

D D 3

None of these A 3

None of these B 3

None of these C 3

None of these B 2
ICAO A 3
No specified
A 3
limit

Area
D 3
navigation
12 D 3

1000 D 3

400 C 1

8 A 3

250 A 1
12 B 2

Mach No. B 3

Black book B 3

75 B 2

Visual B 3
2500 m C 3

15 B 3

30 B 3

20 C 3

CWE D 3

2 years C 3

EOBT B 2

Washington C 3

DD C 2

None of these C 2

None of these B 2

None of these C 3

Rise in Fuel
B 3
flow

None of these C 2
None of these C 2

No. of stages
D 3
of compressor
None of these C 2
75 C 2
Combustion
C 3
chamber
18:1 by weight B 2

Compressor
A 3
stall

Calorie C 3
All of the
D 3
above
None of these C 3

Dihedral C 3

None of these B 3

No effect A 3

Ground speed B 3

None of these A 3

None of these A 3

None of these A 2

None of these B 3
None of these C 3
None of these B 3
None of these B 3

None of these C 2

Lateral axis B 3

None of these C 3

None of these A 3

None of these B 2

None of these B 3

None of these A 2

Lift but no drag C 2

None of these B 3

3 lb C 1

Delta C 3

None of these C 2

None of these C 3

None of these A 3

None of these B 2

None of these B 3

None of these B 3
Ground speed B 3
Increase lift B 2
None of these C 2

None of these A 3

Flaps C 2

None of these A 1

None of these C 1

None of these C 2

None of these C 2

None of these C 2

4 min B 3

None of these C 3
None of these B 3
None of these A 2

None of these C 1

Decreases
B 2
takeoff speed
VHF D 3
30 m C 3
None of these A 3
None of these B 3

Space wave B 3

None of these A 3

None of these C 3

None of these B 3
LF A 3
Max range C 3
Height of
C 3
antenna
112 to 136
C 3
MHz
VHF C 3

None of these B 3

Circularly D 2

None of these C 2

Phase C 3

Phase A 3

None of these B 3

15 A 3

15 B 3

15 C 3

QDM A 2

QDM C 2

QDM B 2

QDM D 2

None of these A 3

None of these C 3

Dawn & dusk D 3

VDF B 3

None of these C 3

None of these A 3

None of these C 3

None of these A 3

None of these B 1

None of these B 2
118 Mhz B 3
None of these B 3

None of these B 3

None of these B 2

None of these A 2
Radar altimeter C 2
None of these C 2
PRI B 2

500 B 2

None of these A 3

QFF C 3

None of these C 3

None of these A 3

None of these B 2

40 C 3
5 C 2

Winters B 2

300 A 3

None of these A 3

None of these C 3

Altocumulus B 2

Same C 2

B 2

Ten A 1

Increase D 3

Cosine of Lat B 2

Density B 3

Less than 3500

C 1
mtr

Col D 2

1500 mtrs A 1

Summer C 1

64 knts B 1

Drag C 1

Thrust B 2
Increase Engin A 1

Moment Arm A 2

advance angle D 2

Not Defined A 1

Autorotation B 1

vortex ring state D 2

Nimbus Cloud C 2

300 mtrs A 3

Insignificant B 3

hung D 3

Bowing C 3

Artificial Horizon A 1

Max Speed C 2

Max B 3

ONE C 1

3 D 1

Refraction B 2

7000 C 2

63 MHZ D 3
21000 kms A 2

Modulation C 2

EGT C 2

1050 m D 2

No change B 1

Capacitance A 3

Different C 1

air density D 3

Volume A 2