2

Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This test will be a 3 hours Test.
2. This test consists of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics questions with equal weightage of 100
marks.
3. Each question is of 4 marks.
4. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics (Q.no.1 to 30), Chemistry (Q.no.31 to
60) and Mathematics (Q. no.61 to 90). Each part is divided into two sections, Section A consists of 20
multiple choice questions & Section B consists of 10 Numerical value answer Questions.
In Section B, candidates have to attempt only 5 questions out of 10.
5. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices in Section A. For each question 4 marks
will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice and zero mark will be
awarded for unattempted question. For Section B 4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero
for marked for each review / unattempted/incorrect answer.
6. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the students
appearing for the test.
7. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet provided.

PHYSICS
Section - A has been 'removed out'), at a very far off point, P,
located as shown, would be (nearly) :
1. N divisions on the main scale of a vernier
callipers coincide with N + 1 divisions on the Removed Mass of complete
vernier scale. If each division on the main scale Part sphere = M
is of ‘a’ units, the least count of the instrument P
R R
is
a a
(1) (2) x
N +1 N -1
2a 2a 5 GM 8 GM
(3) (4) (1) (2)
N -1 N +1 6 x2 9 x2
2. The gravitational field, due to the 'left over part' 7 GM 6 GM
of a uniform sphere (from which a part as shown, (3) (4)
8 x2 7 x2
3. n moles of an ideal gas undergo a process A ® 7. A body is executing simple harmonic motion. At a
B as shown in the figure. Maximum temperature displacement x from mean position, its potential
of the gas during the process is
A
energy is E1 = 2J and at a displacement y from
2P0
9P0V0 3P0V0 mean position, its potential energy is E2 = 8J.
(1) (2) The potential energy E at a displacement (x + y)
nR 2 nR P0 B
from mean position is
9P0V0 9P0V0 V0 2V (1) 10J (2) 14J
(3) (4) P 0
2nR 4nR V (3) 18J (4) 4J
4. Which of these nuclear reactions is possible – 8. A proton (mass m) accelerated by a potential
23 1 20 difference V flies through a uniform transverse
(1) 11 Na + 1H ¾¾® 10 Ne + 24 He
10 4
magnetic field B. The field occupies a region of
(2) 5 B + 2 He ¾¾® 13 1
7 N + 1H space by width ‘d’. If a be the angle of deviation
10 1 -
(3) 5 B + 0 n ¾¾® 11
5 B+b + n
of proton from initial direction of motion (see
(4) 14 1
® 12 - figure), the value of sin a will be :
7 N + 1H ¾¾ 6 C+b + n
5. White light is incident on the interface of glass Bd
(1) qV
and air as shown in the figure. If green light is 2m
just totally internally reflected then the emerging B
B qd
ray in air contains (2)
2 mV a
(1) yellow, orange, red Green
Air
(2) violet, indigo, blue Glass B q
(3) d
(3) All colours d 2mV
White
(4) All colours
q
except green (4) Bd
2mV
6. What is the conductivity of a semiconductor
sample having electron concentration of 5 × 1018 9. Two wires are made of the same material and
m–3, hole concentration of 5 × 1019 m–3, electron have the same volume. However wire 1 has
mobility of 2.0 m2 V–1 s–1 and hole mobility of cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-
0.01 m2 V–1 s–1 ? sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases
(Take charge of electron as 1.6 × 10–19 C) by Dx on applying force F, how much force is
(1) 1.68 (W – m)–1 (2) 1.83 (W – m)–1 needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
(3) 0.59 (W – m) –1 (4) 1.20 (W – m)–1
(1) 4 F (2) 6 F (3) 9 F (4) F
10. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L (L < (2) is proportional to 1/E
H/2). Cross-sectional area A/5 is immersed such
(3) is p ml
that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid- 3qE
liquid interface with length L/4 in the denser 1 ml
(4) is proportional to but ¹ p
liquid as shown in the fig. The lower density E 3qE
13. A thin convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is put on a
liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure
plane mirror as shown in the figure. When an
P0. Then density of solid is given by
object is kept at a distance ‘a’ from the lens -
5 mirror combination, its image is formed at a
(1) d
4 a
distance in front of the combination. The
H/2 d 3
4 3L/4 value of ‘a’ is :
(2) d L
5
H/2 2d (1) 3f
(3) d
3
(2) f
d 2
(4)
5
11. In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of (3) f
wavelength l, fringe pattern on the screen has (4) 2f
fringe width b. When two thin transparent glass
(refractive index m) plates of thickness t1 and t2 14. A sinusoidal wave is propagating in negative x-
(t1 > t2) are placed in the path of the two beams direction in a string stretched along x-axis. A
respectively, the fringe pattern will shift by a particle of string at x = 2m is found at its mean
distance position and it is moving in positive y-direction at
b ( m - 1) æ t1 ö mb t1 t = 1 sec. The amplitude of the wave, the wavelength
and the angular frequency of the wave are 0.1 meter,
(1) l çè t ÷ø
2
(2) l t2
p/2 meter and 2p rad/sec respectively.
b ( m - 1) l
(3) ( t1 - t2 ) (4) ( m - 1) ( t1 + t2 ) The equation of the wave is
l b
(1) y = 0.1 sin (4p (t – 1) + 8 (x – 2))
12. A dipole consisting of two charges +q and –q joined
(2) y = 0.1 sin ((t – 1) – (x – 2))
by a massless rod of length l, is seen oscillating
with a small amplitude in a uniform electric field of (3) y = 0.1 sin (2p (t – 1) + 4 (x – 2))
magnitude E. The period of oscillation (4) None of these
(1) is proportional to E
15. Velocity–time graph for a body of mass 10 kg is v
shown in figure. Work–done on the body in first
two seconds of the motion is :
v (m/s)
-1
50 ms x
a a

(1) x (2) x

a a
(0,0) 10s t(s)
(1) – 9300 J (2) 12000 J (3) x (4) x
(3) –4500 J (4) –12000 J
16. A charged particle of mass m and having a charge
Q is placed in an electric field E which varies 19. A ring of mass M and radius R lies in x-y plane
with time as E = E0 sin wt. What is the amplitude with its centre at origin as shown. The mass
of the S.H.M. executed by the particle? distribution of ring is non-uniform such that at
QE 0 1 QE 0 any point P on the ring, the mass per unit length
(1) 2 (2) is given by l = l0 cos2q (where l0 is a positive
mw 2 mw 2
2QE 0 constant). Then the moment of inertia of the ring
(3) (4) None of these about z-axis is – y
mw 2 2
17. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of (1) MR
wavelength l, the fastest electron has speed v. 1 P
(2) MR 2 M
R
If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3l/4, 2
q
the speed of the fastest emitted electron will 1M x
(3) 2 l R
become – 0
3 4 1 M
(1) v (2) v (4) p l R
4 3 0
4 4 20. The electric potential V is given as a function of
(3) less than v (4) greater than v
3 3 distance x by V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt. Value of
18. A particle moves along x-axis with initial position electric field at x = 1m is
x = 0. Its velocity varies with x-coordinate as (1) –20 V/m (2) 6 V/m
shown in graph. The acceleration ‘a’ of this (3) 11 V/m (4) 20 V/m
particle varies with x as –
 Section - B
21. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system
to remain in equilibrium, the angle q should be
_____ degree.
q
2m
m m
22. A current of 4A produces a deflection of 30° in
the galvanometer. The figure of merit is _____
A/rad.
23. A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear
bx
mass density m (x) = a + , where x is
L
measured from A. If the CM of the rod lies at
æ 7ö
a distance of ç ÷ L from A, then a and b are
è 12 ø
related as b = xa. Find the value of x.
24. A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has
height 32 m and height of the receiving antenna
is 50 m. What is the maximum distance (in km)
between them for satisfactory communication
in line of sight (LOS) mode?
25. A ball of mass 160 g is thrown up at an angle
of 60° to the horizontal at a speed of 10 ms–1. The
angular momentum of the ball at the highest point
of the trajectory with respect to the point from
which the ball is thrown is _____ kg m2/s.
(g = 10 ms–2)
26. A series LR circuit is connected to an ac source
of frequency w and the inductive reactance is
equal to 2R. A capacitance of capacitive
reactance equal to R is added in series with
L and R. The ratio of the new power factor to the
x
old one is . Find the value of x.
2
27. A mass of 50g of water in a closed vessel, with
surroundings at a constant temperature takes 2
minutes to cool from 30°C to 25°C. A mass of
100g of another liquid in an identical vessel with
identical surroundings takes the same time to
cool from 30° C to 25° C. The specific heat of the
liquid is _____ kcal/kg.
(The water equivalent of the vessel is 30g.)
28. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value
of electric field strength is _____ V/m.
29. An ideal monatomic gas with pressure P, volume
V and temperature T is expanded isothermally to
a volume 2V and a final pressure Pi. If the same
gas is expanded adiabatically to a volume 2V,
P
the final pressure is Pa. The ratio a is _____.
Pi
30. Six resistors of 10W each are connected as
shown. The equivalent resistance between
points X and Y is _____.
X
Y
 CHEMISTRY
Section - A (3) Sodium or potassium salt of a long chain
fatty acid is called soap.
31. Consider the following reactions (4) All of these.
(i) Cd 2+ (aq ) + 2e - ¾¾® Cd (s) , E° = – 0.40 V
35. Electrode potential of the half cell Pt (s) | Hg (l)
(ii) Ag + (aq) + e- ¾¾® Ag(s), E° = 0.80 V | Hg2Cl2(s) | Cl– (aq) can be increased by :
For the galvanic cell involving the above (1) Increasing [Cl–]
reactions. Which of the following is not correct?
(2) Decreasing [Cl–]
(1) Molar concentration of the cation in the
(3) Increasing Hg2Cl2 (s)
cathodic compartment changes faster than
that of the cation in the anodic compartment. (4) Decreasing Hg (l)
36. What is the name of the following reaction :
(2) E cell increase when Cd2+ solution is
diluted. COOEt
(3) Twice as many electrons pass through the
cadmium electrode as through silver
electrode. EtONa
¾¾®
(4) E cell decreases when Ag + solution is
diluted. COOEt
32. A container contains certain gas of mass ‘m’ of
high pressure. Some of the gas has been allowed (1) Knoevenagel reaction
to escape from the container and after some time (2) Perkin reaction
the pressure of the gas becomes half and its (3) Reformatsky reaction
absolute temperature 2/3 rd. The amount of the (4) Dieckmann’s condensation.
gas escaped is
37. Choose the correct options –
(1) 2/3 m (2) 1/2 m
(3) 1/4 m (4) 1/6 m (1) The change of atmospheric temperature
33. The hybrid state of S in SO3 is similar to that of with altitude is called the lapse rate.
(1) C in C2H2 (2) C in C2H4 (2) The gases responsible for greenhouse
(3) C in CH4 (4) C in CO2 effects are CO2, water vapour, CH4 and
34. Choose the correct options – ozone.
(1) Tranquillizers are called psychotherapeutic (3) The order of contribution to the acid rain is
drugs. H2SO4 < HNO3 < HCl
(2) Vitamin C, Vitamin E and b-carotene are (4) Both (1) and (2)
antioxidants.
38. Optically active isomer (A) of (C 5H9Cl) on (1) NH4NO2 (2) (NH4)2SO4
treatment with one mole of H2 gives an optically (3) NH4ClO4 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7
inactive compound (B) compound (A) will be: 43. Flocculation value of BaCl2 is much less than
(1) CH3 CH CH CH2 that of KCl for sol A and flocculation value of
Na2SO4 is much less than that of NaBr for sol B.
CH2Cl
The correct statement among the following is :
(2) Cl CH CH CH CH 3 (1) Both the sols A and B are negatively
charged.
CH 3
(2) Sol A is positively charged and Sol B is
(3) CH3 CH CH2 CH CH2 negatively charged.
(3) Both the sols A and B are positively
Cl charged.
(4) CH3 CH2 CH CH CH2 (4) Sol A is negatively charged and sol B is
positively charged.
Cl
HgSO dil. OH –
39. Which statement is/are correct about ICl 3 44. HC º CH ¾¾¾¾
H SO
4 ® (A) ¾¾¾¾® (B)
5 ºC
2 4
molecule ?
Give the IUPAC name of “B” is –
(1) All I – Cl bonds are equivalent.
(1) 2-butanal
(2) Molecule is polar and non-planar.
(2) 3-hydroxy butanal
(3) All adjacent bond angles are equal.
(3) 3-formyl-2-propanol
(4) All hybrid orbitals of central atom having
(4) 4-oxo-2-propanol
equal s-character.
40. Isopropyl alcohol is obtained by reacting which
of the following alkenes with concentrated Br
2/ hn ® Major (X) ¾¾¾¾¾ Alcoholic
45. ¾¾¾¾ ®
KOH/ D
H2SO4 followed by boiling with H2O?
(1) Ethylene (2) Propylene H - Br
Major (Y) ¾¾¾¾® Major (Z)
(3) 2-Methylpropene (4) Isoprene Peroxide
41. In electro-refining of metal the impure metal is Major final product (Z) is –
used to make the anode and a strip of pure metal
Br
as the cathode, during the electrolysis of an
aqueous solution of a complex metal salt. This (1) (2)
method cannot be used for refining of Br
(1) silver (2) copper Br
(3) aluminium (4) sodium
Br
42. Which of the following compounds does not (3) (4)
give nitrogen gas on heating?
46. Choose the incorrect option –
(1) When a dilute solution of an acid is added O
to a dilute solution of a base, neutralization
reaction takes place. NH
(1)
(2) In acid-base titrations, at the end point, the
amount of acid becomes chemically
equivalent to the amount of base present. NO2
(3) In the case of a strong acid and a strong NO2
base titration, at the end point the solution O
becomes acidic.
(4) In acid-base titrations the end point is (2)
NH
determined by the hydrogen ion
concentration of the solution.
NO2 O

Br CH ONa NH
47. ¾¾¾
2 ® X ¾¾¾¾¾
3 ®Y (3)
Fe, D CH3OH, D
NO2
H
Cl
Product (Y) of this reaction is – (4) O2N NH2
NO2 NO2
Cl
H O+
(1) (2) 49. (X) ¾¾¾
3 ¾
® Y+ Z (Y and Z both give
(C5 H10O)
OCH3 Br
Cl OCH3 the Iodoform test). The compound X is –
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – O – CH2 – CH3
NO2 NO2
H
|
(3) (4) (2) CH 3 - C - O - CH 2 - CH 3
OCH3 |
CH 3
OCH3
(i) NaOI SOCl C H NH (3) CH3 - C - O - CH 2 - CH3
48. A ¾¾¾¾ 6 5
2 ® C ¾¾¾¾¾
® B ¾¾¾¾ 2®
||
(ii) HÅ NaOH
CH 2
Conc. HNO3
D ¾¾¾¾¾® E (Major) E can be – (4) Both (1) and (3)
Conc. H 2SO4
(1 equivalent)
50. If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of
non-volatile, non-electrolytic and non-
associating solute in a solvent (Kb = x K kg mol–1)
is y K, then the depression in freezing point of
solution of same concentration would be (Kf of
the solvent = z K kg mol–1)
2xz yz
(1) K (2) K structure) ?
y x
xz yz
(3) K (4) K
y 2x
Section - B
51. The density of CaF2 (fluorite structure) is 3.18
g/cm3. Find the length of the side of the unit cell
is _____.
52. When the following aldohexose exists in its D-
configuration, the total number of stereoisomers
in its pyranose form is _____.
CHO — CH2 — CHOH — CHOH — CHOH —
CH2OH
53. A 25.0 mm × 40.0 mm piece of gold foil is 0.25 mm
thick. The density of gold is 19.32 g/cm3. How
many gold atoms are in the sheet in terms of
x × 1022? (Atomic weight : Au = 197.0)
54. In a chemical reaction A is converted into
B. The rates of reaction, starting with initial
con centra tions of A a s 2 × 10 –3 M and
1 × 10–3 M, are equal to 2.40 × 10–4 Ms–1 and
0.60 × 10–4 Ms–1 respectively. Find the order of
reaction with respect to reactant A.
55. Rate constant k = 2.303 min–1 for a particular
reaction. The initial concentration of the reactant
is 1 mol/litre then calculatle the rate of reaction
after 1 minute.
56. How many free radicals can be produced during
following reaction (ignoring resonating
NBS, hn
¾¾¾¾®
CCl4
57. An electron has a speed of 30,000 cm sec–1
accurate upto 0.001%. What is the uncertainty
(in cm) in locating it’s position?
58. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is –
46.0 kJ/mol. If the enthalpy of formation of H2
from its atoms is – 436 kJ/mol and that of N2 is –
712 kJ/mol, calculate the average bond enthalpy
of N - H bond in NH3.
59. The rate coefficient (k) for a particular
reaction is 1.3 × 10–4 M–1 s–1 at 100 °C and
1.3 × 10–3 M–1 s–1 at 150 °C. What is the energy
of activation (EA) (in kJ/mol) for this reaction?
(R = molar gas constant = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
60. The e.m.f. of the cell Zn | Zn 2+ (0.01M) | | Fe2+
(0.001M) | Fe at 298 K is 0.2905 then the value of
equilibrium constant for the cell reaction 10x. Find
x.
 MATHEMATICS
Section - A æ x cos3 x - sin x ö
66. Find ò esin x ç ÷ dx
è cos 2 x ø
ì 2
ï 10 - x if - 3 < x < 3 (1) x esin x – esin x sec x + C
61. Given f (x) = í
ï2 - e x -3 if x ³ 3 (2) x ecos x – esin x sec x + C
î
(3) x2 esin x + esin x sec x + C
The graph of f (x) is –
(4) 2x esin x – esin x tan x + C
(1) continuous and differentiable at x = 3
(2) continuous but not differentiable at x = 3 67. The function f : [2, ¥) ® (0, ¥) defined by
(3) differentiable but not continuous at x = 3 f (x) = x2 – 4x + a, then the set of values of ‘a’ for
(4) neither differentiable nor continuous at x = 3 which f(x) becomes onto is
62. The greatest and the least absolute value of (1) (4,¥) (2) [4, ¥)
z + 1,where | z + 4 | £ 3 are respectively (3) {4} (4) f
(1) 6 and 0 (2) 10 and 6
68. If a and b are the real roots of the equation
(3) 4 and 3 (4) None of these
63. The equation x2 – (k – 2) x + (k2 + 3k + 5) = 0 (k Î R) .
(5x – 1)2 + (5y – 2)2 = (l2 – 4l + 4) (3x + 4y – 1)2
represents an ellipse if l Î Find the maximum and minimum values of
(1) (0, 1] (2) (–1, 2) (a 2 + b 2 ) .
(3) (2, 3) (4) (–1, 0)
64. If (– 4, 5) is one vertex and 7x – y + 8 = 0 is one (1) 18, 50/9 (2) 18, 25/9
diagonal of a square, then the equation of second (3) 27, 50/9 (4) None of these
diagonal is 69. The sum of the coefficient of all the terms in the
(1) x + 3y = 21 (2) 2x – 3y = 7 expansion of (2x – y + z)20 in which y do not
(3) x + 7y = 31 (4) 2x + 3y = 21 appear at all while x appears in even powers and
65. Which of the following is always true? z appears in odd powers is –
(1) (~ p Þ q) = ~ q Þ ~ p
2 20 - 1
(2) (~ p Ú q) º Ú p Ú ~ q (1) 0 (2)
2
(3) ~ ( p Þ q) º p Ù ~ q 320 - 1
(3) 219 (4)
(4) ~ ( p Ú q) º ~ p Ù ~ q 2
70. All the five digit numbers in which each 75. If the tangent at any point on the curve x4 + y4 = a4
successive digit exceeds is predecessor are cuts off intercepts p and q on the co-ordinate
arranged in the increasing order. The (105)th axes then the value of p–4/3+q–4/3 is
number does not contain the digit (1) a –4/3 (2) a –1/2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) a 1/2 (4) None
(3) 6 (4) All of these
76. The area bounded by the curve y2 (2a – x) = x3
71. If a, ˆ cˆ are non-coplanar unit vectors such that
ˆ b, and the line x = 2a is
1 ˆ
aˆ ´ (bˆ ´ c)
ˆ = (b + c)
ˆ then the angle between 3pa 2
2 (1) 3pa2 sq. unit (2) sq. unit
2
the vectors â, bˆ is
(1) 3p/4 (2) p/4 3pa 2 6pa 2
(3) p/8 (4) p/2 (3) sq. unit (4) sq. unit
4 5
72. The greatest and the least values of |z1 + z2| if
z1 = 24 + 7i and |z2| = 6 respectively are 77. The expression satisfying the differential
(1) 31, 19
(3) –19, –31
(2) 19, 31
(4) –31, –19
2
(
equation x - 1 ) dy
dx
+ 2 xy = 1 is

73. Let P = (–1, 0), Q = (0, 0) and R = (3, 3 3 ) be (1) x 2 y - xy 2 = c

three points. The equation of the bisector of the
angle PQR is (2) ( y 2 - 1) x = y + c
3
(1) x+ y =0 (2) x + 3 y = 0
2 (3) ( x 2 - 1) y = x + c
3 (4) None of these
(3) 3x + y = 0 (4) x + y = 0.
2 78. Let f : R ® R and fn (x) = f (fn–1 (x)) n ³ 2, n Î N,
74. If ò 2 1 + sin xdx = -4 cos (ax + b) + C then the roots of equation
the value of (a, b) is : f3(x) f2(x) f (x) – 25f2(x) f (x) + 175 f (x) = 375,
1 p p which also satisfy equation f (x) = x will be
(1) , (2) 1,
2 4 2 (1) 5 (2) 15
(3) 1, 1 (4) None of these (3) 10 (4) Both (1) and (2)
79. The value of 84. The value of the definite integral,
q2
sin 2 x cos 2 x dq 501p
ò0 sin -1
t dt + ò0 cos -1
t dt is ò 1 + tan q = K
where
q1
p 1003p p
(1) p (2) q2 = and q1 = . The value of K is
2 2008 2008
p _____.
(3) (4) 1 85. The expansion of (1 + x)n has 3 consecutive terms
4
with coefficients in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and can be
80. If a is real and 2ax + sin By + cos Bz = 0 , written in the form nCk : nCk+1 : nCk+2. The sum
x + cos By + sin Bz = 0 , – x + sin By – cos Bz = 0, of all possible values of (n + k) is _____.
then the set of all values of a for which the system 86. The mean and standard deviation of 6
of linear equations has a non-trivial solution, is– observations are 8 and 4 respectively. If each
observation is multiplied by 3, the new standard
(1) [1, 2] (2) [–1, 1] deviation of the resulting observations is _____.
(3) [1, ¥] (4) [2–1/2, 21/2] tan x tan x - sin x sin x
87. The value of lim is
Section - B
x ®0 x3. x
_____.
81. If two vertical poles 20 m and 80 m high stand 88. Three people each flip two fair coins. The
apart on a horizontal plane, then the height (in m) probability that exactly two of the people flipped
one head and one tail, is _____.
of the point of intersection of the lines joining
89. If P(S) denotes the set of all subsets of a given
the top of each pole to the foot of other is _____.
set S, then the number of one-to-one functions
3 from the set S = {1, 2, 3} to the set P(S) is _____.
82. If x + iy = then the value of
cos q + i sin q + 2 90. A triangle ABC satisfies the relation
4x – x2 – y2 is _____. 2 sec 4C + sin 2 2A + sin B = 0 and a point P is
83. Box contains 2 one rupee, 2 five rupee, 2 ten rupee taken on the longest side of the triangle such
and 2 twenty rupee coin. Two coins are drawn at that it divides the side in the ratio 1 : 3. Let Q and
R be the circumcentre and orthocentre of D ABC.
random simultaneously. The probability that their
If PQ : QR : RP = 1 : a : b, then the value of
sum is Rs. 20 or more, is _____. a2 + b2 is _____.
 Mock Test-2
ANSWER KEY
1 (1) 16 (1) 31 (3) 46 (3) 61 (2) 76 (2)
2 (3) 17 (4) 32 (3) 47 (2) 62 (1) 77 (3)
3 (4) 18 (1) 33 (2) 48 (2) 63 (3) 78 (4)
4 (1) 19 (1) 34 (4) 49 (3) 64 (3) 79 (3)
5 (1) 20 (1) 35 (1) 50 (2) 65 (3) 80 (2)
6 (1) 21 (45°) 36 (4) 51 (546) 66 (1) 81 (16)
7 (3) 22 (7.6) 37 (4) 52 (8) 67 (1) 82 (3)
8 (4) 23 (2) 38 (4) 53 (1.47) 68 (1) 83 (0.5)
9 (3) 24 (45.5) 39 (3) 54 (2) 69 (1) 84 (2008)
10 (1) 25 (3) 40 (2) 55 (0.2303) 70 (1) 85 (18)
11 (3) 26 (5) 41 (4) 56 (4) 71 (1) 86 (12)
12 (3) 27 (0.5) 42 (2) 57 (2) 72 (1) 87 (0.75)
13 (4) 28 (6) 43 (4) 58 (964) 73 (3) 88 (0.38)
-2
14 (3) 29 (2 3 ) 44 (2) 59 (60) 74 (1) 89 (336.00)
15 (3) 30 (5) 45 (3) 60 (10.85) 75 (1) 90 (9)

Solutions
PHYSICS Therefore gravitational field due to the left over
part of the sphere
1. (1) Least count of vernier callipers
= value of one division of main scale GM ' 7 GM
= 2
=
– value of one division of vernier scale x 8 x2
Now, N × a = (N + 1) a' 3. (4)
(a' = value of one division of vernier scale) 4. (1) Charge conservation is violated in [2, 3, 4],
N nucleon conservation is violated in (4), (1) works.
a¢ = a
N +1
a æ1ö 1
\ Least count = a - a ¢ = 5. (1) C = sin –1 ç ÷ and m µ
N +1 èmø l
2. (3) Let mass of smaller sphere (which has to be
Yellow, orange and red have higher wavelengths
removed) is m
than green, so m will be less for these rays,
R consequently critical angle for these rays will be
Radius = (from figure)
2 high, hence if green is just totally internally
M m reflected then yellow, orange and red rays will
= emerge out.
4 3 4 æ R ö3
pR pç ÷ 6. (1) The conductivity of semiconductor
3 3 è2ø
M s = e (heµe + hhµh)
Þm= = 1.6 × 10 –19(5 × 1018 ×2 + 5 × 1019 × 0.01)
8
Mass of the left over part of the sphere = 1.6 × 1.05 = 1.68
M 7 1 1
M' = M - = M 7. (3) E1 = kx 2 , E 2 = ky 2 ,
8 8 2 2
 1 10. (1) Weight of cylinder = upthrust due to both
E = k(x + y) 2 = E1 + E 2 + 2 E1E 2 liquids
2
æA 3 ö æ A Lö
= 2 + 8 + 2 16 = 18J V ´ D ´ g = ç ´ L÷ ´ d ´ g + ç ´ ÷ ´ 2d ´ g
è5 4 ø è 5 4ø
8. (4) From figure, sin a = d/R
æA ö A´ L ´ d ´ g D d
Þ çè ´ L÷ø ´ D ´ g = Þ =
5 4 5 4
a R
5
\D= d
a 4
d b ( m - 1) b ( m - 1)
11. (3) Shift = t1 - t2
l l
b ( m - 1)
And we know,
mv 2
= qvB
= ( t1 - t2 )
l
R
mv ml 2
Þ R= 12. (3) I= ;
qB 12
dqB Restoring torque
\ sin a =
mv d 2q
= qElsin q » qEl q =
I
dt 2
q éQ qV = 1 mv 2 ù
sin a = Bd ê ú qEl qEl ´12 2p
2mV ë 2 û \w = = =
I ml 2 T

9. (3) l ml
\T = p
3qE
A Y
13. (4) When object is kept at a distance ‘a’ from
Wire (1) thin convex lens

O
3A Y I1 v

a
l/3
Wire (2) 1 1 1
By lens formula : v – u = f
As shown in the figure, the wires will have the 1 1 1
same Young’s modulus (same material) and the – =
length of the wire of area of cross-section 3A will V (– a) f
be l/3 (same volume as wire 1). 1 1 1
or, = – ...(i)
F/A v f a
For wire 1, Y = ...(i)
D x/l Mirror forms image at equal distance from
F '/ 3 A mirror
For wire 2 , Y = ...(ii)
Dx /( l / 3)

F l F' l
From (i) and (ii) , ´ = ´ v v
A Dx 3 A 3Dx I1 I2
Þ F ' = 9F
 Now, again from lens formula 18. (1) The linear relationship between v and x is
v = – mx + C where m and C are positive constants.
I3 I2 dv
\ Acceleration, a = v = -m ( -mx + C)
dx
a/3 \ a = m2x – mC
v Hence the graph relating a to x is
3 1 1 a
– =
a V f
x
3 1 1 1
– + = [From eqn. (i)]
a f a f
Hence, a = 2f
14. (3) The equation of wave moving in negative
19. (1) Divide the ring into infinitely small lengths
x-direction, assuming origin of position at x = 2
of mass dm1. Even though mass distribution is
and origin of time (i.e. initial time) at t = 1 sec.
non-uniform, each mass dm1 is at same distance
y = 0.1 sin (2pt + 4x) R from origin.
Shifting the origin of position to left by 2m, that \ MI of ring about z-axis is
is, to x = 0. Also shifting the origin of time = dm1R2 + dm2 R2 + ...........+ dmnR2 = MR2
backwards by 1 sec, that is to t = 0 sec.
-dV
y = 0.1 sin (2p (t – 1) + 4 (x – 2)) 20. (1) E = V = 5x2 + 10x –9,
dx
15. (3) Acceleration (a) = v – u -d
t E= (5x2 + 10x – 9) = – (10x + 10)
dx
(0 , 50) On putting value of x in it we get,
= < ,5 m / s 2
(10 , 0) E = –(10 × 1 + 10) = –20 V/m
u = 50 m/s 21. (45°) If T is the tension i n the string , Then
\ v = u + at = 50 – 5t T = mg (For outer masses)
Veocity in first two seconds t = 2 2T cos q = 2mg (For inner mass)
v(at t <2) < 40 m / s Eliminating T, we get 2(mg) cos q = 2mg
From work-energy theorem, or cos q = 1/ 2 Þ q = 45°
1 22. (7.6) Here I = 4A
ΧK.E. < W < (402 , 502 )´10 <,4500 J
2 æ 30 ´ p ö p
16. (1) For a particle undergoing SHM with an q= 30° = ç ÷=
amplitude A and angular frequency w, the è 180 ø 6
maximum acceleration = w2A I 4 4´6´7 2´6´7
Here the maximum force on the particle = QE0 Now, k = = = =
q æ öp 22 11
QE 0 ç ÷
\ maximum acceleration = = w2A è6ø
m
QE 0 84
\ A= = = 7.6 A / rad
mw 2 11
1 hc 23. (2) Centre of mass of the rod is given by:
17. (4) mv2 = - f L
2 l bx 2
1 hc 4hc ò (ax + L
) dx aL2 bL2 L æ a + b ö
+ ç ÷
mn '2 = -f= -f. xcm = 0 L = 2 3 = è 2 3ø
2 (3l / 4) 3l bL b
bx aL + a+
Clearly, v ¢ >
4
v
ò L
( a + ) dx 2 2
0
3
 a b mWCW
+ \ Specific heat of liquid , Cl =
7L 2 3 ml
Now =
12 b 50 ´ 1
a+ = = 0.5 kcal / kg
2 100
On solving we get, b = 2a 28. (6) From question,
24. (45.5) Given : hR = 50 m B0 = 20 nT = 20 × 10–9T
hT = 32 m r r r
Maximum distance, dM = ? E0 = B0 ´ C
r r r
Applying, dM = 2Rh T + 2Rh R | E 0 |=| B0 | . | C |= 20 ´ 10-9 ´ 3 ´ 108 = 6 V/m.
(Q velocity of light in vacuum C = 3 × 108 ms–1)
= 2 ´ 6.4 ´106 ´ 32 + 2 ´ 6.4 ´106 ´ 50
-2
= 45.5 km
29. (2 3 ) For isothermal process :
25. (3) Given : m = 0.160 kg
PV = Pi .2V
q = 60°; v = 10 m/s
® ® P = 2Pi ...(i)
Angular momentum L = r ´ m v For adiabatic process
= H mv cos q PVg = Pa (2V)g
v2 sin 2 q é v2 sin 2 q ù (Q for monatomic gas g= 5 3 )
= mv cos q êH = ú
2g ëê 2g ûú 5 5
2 2 or, 2Pi V 3 = Pa (2V) 3 [From (i)]
10 ´ sin 60°´ cos 60°´ 0.160 ´ 10
=
2 ´10 -2
= 3 kg m2/s Pa 2 P
Þ = 5 Þ a =2 3
26. (5) Power factor (old) Pi Pi
R R R 23
= = =
2 2 2 2 5R 30. (5) D
R + XL R + (2R)
Power factor(new)
R R X Y
= =
2 2
R + (X L - XC ) R + (2R - R) 2
2

R C
=
2R Equivalent resistance = 5W
R
New power factor 2R = 5
\ Old power factor = CHEMISTRY
R 2
5R 31. (3) Cd(s) + 2 Ag + (aq) ¾
¾®
27. (0.5) As the surrounding is identical, vessel is
identical time taken to cool both water and liquid Cd 2 + (aq) + Ag (s),
(from 30°C to 25°C) is same 2 minutes, therefore [Cd 2 + ]
0.059
E cell = E °cell – log
æ dQ ö æ dQ ö 2 [Ag + ]2
çè ÷ø =ç ÷
dt water è dt ø liquid
m
(mw C w + W)DT (ml Cl + W) D T 32. (3) Gas equation is PV = RT ...(i)
or, = M
t t
(W = water equivalent of the vessel) P m 2
Again V = 1 R. T ...(ii)
or , m w C w = m l C l 2 M 3
 Divide (i) by (ii) 39. (3) µ2
m 3 µ3
2= ´
m1 2 Cl
3 1 x
\ m1 = m . Gas escaped is then = m a µ1
4 4 I Cl
a
33. (2) Molecule Hybridization x
SO3 µ3 Cl
sp2
C2H2 sp µ2
C2H4 sp2 (µD ¹ 0)
Molecule is polar and planar.
CH4 sp3 Both ÐCl I Cl are equal
CO2 sp Equatorial I – Cl bond has more s-character than
axial I–Cl bond.
34. (4) (1) Tranquillizers are the substances used 40. (2) Since the compound is formed by hydration
for the treatment of mental diseases. These act of an alkene, to get the structure of alkene remove
on higher centres of the central nervous system. a molecule of water from the alcohol.
These are also called psychotherapeutic drugs. -H O
CH3 C H CH 3 ¾¾¾®
2
CH 2 = CHCH 3
(2) Vitamin C, Vitamin E and b-carotene are | Propylene
antioxidants. OH
Isopropyl alcohol
(substances that act against oxidants).
(3) Sodium or potassium salt of a long chain 41. (4) Na reacts vigorously with water (exothermic
process ).
fatty acid is called soap.
D
35. (1) 42. (2) (1) NH4NO2 ¾¾
® N2 + 2H2O

; as [Cl- ] ­, E ­
0.0591 1 (2) (NH4)2SO4 ¾¾
D
® NH3 + H2SO4
E = E° - log
2 [Cl- ]2
(3) 2NH4ClO4 ¾¾
D
® N2 + Cl2 + 2O2 + 4H2O
36. (4) Ester of dicarboxylic acids undergo an D
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ¾¾ ® N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
intramolecular version of the claisen
condensation when a five or six membered ring 43. (4) In first case the given compounds have
can be formed. This reaction is an example of a same anion but different cations having different
Dieckmann’s condensation charge hence they will precipitate negatively
37. (4) (1) The change of atmospheric charged sol i.e. ‘A’.
temperature with altitude is called the lapse rate. In second case the given compounds have
(2) The gases responsible for greenhouse similar cation but different anion with different
effects are CO2, water vapour, CH4 and ozone. charge. Hence they will precipitate positively
(3) The order of contribution to the acid charged sol. i.e. ‘B’.
rain is HgSO
H2SO4 > HNO3 > HCl 44. (2) HC º CH ¾¾¾¾
4®
H2SO4
H2
38. (4) CH3 CH2 CH CH CH 2 ¾¾®
Pt CH 3 - CHO ¾¾¾¾¾¾
®
aldol reaction

Cl OH
|
Et CH Et optically inactive. CH3 – CH – CH2 – CHO
3 2 1
Cl 3-hydroxy butanal
 Br 50. (2) Given kb = x K kg mol–1
Br /hn Alcoholic
DTb = kb × m
45. (3) ¾¾®
2
¾¾¾®
KOH/D \ y= x × m
y K y
(X) (Y)
m< –1
< mol Kg –1
H x K Kg mol x
We know
H – Br
Br H Br DTf = kf × m
¾¾¾® ¾¾®
Peroxide On substituting value of m,
(Z)
yz
46. (3) (1) When a dilute solution of an acid is DTt = K
added to a dilute solution of a base, neutralization x
zM
reaction takes place. 51. (546) Use d =
(2) In acid-base titrations, at the end point, the NA a 3
amount of acid becomes chemically equilvalent to z = 4; M = 40 + 2 × 19 = 78
the amount of base present. zM
(3) In the case of a strong acid and a strong a3 =
base titration, at the end point the solution NA d
becomes neutral (i.e., pH = 7) 4 ´ 78
(4) In acid-base titrations the end point is =
determined by the hydrogen ion concentration 6.022 ´1023 ´ 3.18
of the solution. a = 546 pm
NO2 NO2 52. (8)
47. (2)
1 1
CHO CHOH
6
CH3ONa CH2OH
¾¾¾¾® 2
CH2
2
CH2
CH3OH, D 5 O
Br SNAr Br 3 3 4 1
CHOH CHOH O or HO H OH
Cl OCH3
(X) (Y)
4
CHOH
4
CHOH 3 2
OH
O O H
5
C OH H
5
C
|| NaOI
||
48. (2) X – C – OH3 ¾¾¾Å
® X – C – OH CH2OH CH2OH
H 6 6
O O
|| || D- Aldohexose D- Aldohexopyranose
SOCl 2 Ph,NH 2
¾¾ ¾¾ ↑ X – C – Cl ¾¾¾¾↑ X – C – NH – Ph Thus, total number of stereoisomers in pyranose
O form of D-configuration = 23 = 8
(HNO ∗H SO ) 53. (1.47) Volume of gold foil = 25 × 40 × 0.25 mm3
¾¾ ¾¾¾
3 2 ¾¾
4 ↑
X – C – NH NO2
= 250 × 10–3 cm3
49. (3) Mass of gold foil = 19.32 × 250 × 10–3 g
CH3 – C – O – CH2 – CH3 = 4.83 g
H3O+ 4.83
No. of gold atoms = ´ N A = 1.47 × 1022
CH2 197
(X) 54. (2) A B
CH3 – C – OH + HO – CH2 – CH3 Initial concentration Rate of reaction
(Z) 2 × 10–3 M 2.40 × 10–4 Ms–1
–3
1 × 10 M 0.60 × 10–4 Ms–1
CH2
rate of reaction r = k[A]x
where x = order of reaction
CH3 – C – CH3 hence
O 2.40 × 10–4 = k [2 × 10–3]x ......(i)
(Y) 0.60 × 10–4 = k [1 × 10–3]x ......(ii)
 On dividing eqn.(i) from eqn. (ii) we get 59. (60) According to Arrhenius equation
4 = (2)x k Ea æ 1 1 ö
log 2 = -
\ x=2 k1 2.303R çè T1 T2 ÷ø
i.e. order of reaction = 2
1.3 ´ 10-3 Ea é 1 1 ù
log = -
55. (0.2303) k =
2.303 [A ]
log 0 ; 1.3 ´ 10 -42.303 ´ 8.314 ë 373 423 úû
ê
t [A] Ea é 1 1 ù
1= -
[A 0 ] 2.303 ´ 8.314 ë 373 423 úû
ê
2.303 ´ 1 = 2.303 log
[A] Ea = 60 kJ / mol
[A0 ] 60. (10.85) For this cell, reaction is; Zn + Fe2+ ®
= 10
[A] Zn2+ + Fe
1 0.0591 c 0.0591 c
\ [A] Þ Þ 0.1 E = E° - log 1 ; E° = E + log 1
10 n c2 n c2
\ rate after 1 min r 1= k × [A]
0.0591 10 -2
Þ 2.303 × 0.1 Þ 0.2303 M min–1 E° = 0.2905 + log -3 = 0.32 V.
3
. 1
2 10
0.0591
56. (4) E° = log K eq
2
4 2
0.32 ´ 2 0.32
log K eq = =
0.001 0.0591 0.0295
57. (2) Dv = × 30,000 = 0.3 cm sec–1
100 0.32
According to uncertainty principle, \ K eq = 10 0.0295
h h
Dx . Dp » ; Dx.Dv » Comparing the value of 10x,
4p 4pm
6.625 ´ 10 27 ´ 7 0.32
Dx × 9.1 × 10–28 × 0.3 » x= = 10.847 » 10.85
4 ´ 22 0.0295
Dx » 1.93 cm. » 2
MATHEMATICS
1 3 ˆˆ† NH 3 ;
58. (964) Given N 2 + H 2 ‡ˆˆ f (3 + h) - f (3)
2 2 +
61. (2) f ¢(3 ) = lim
DHf = - 46.0 kJ / mol h ®0 h
ˆˆ† H 2 ; DH f = - 436 kJ / mol
H + H ‡ˆˆ (2 - e h ) - 1 æ e h - 1ö
= lim = - lim ç ÷ = -1
h®0 h h®0 è h ø
ˆˆ† N 2 ; DH f = - 712 kJ / mol
N + N ‡ˆˆ
f (3 - h) - f (3)
1 f ¢(3- ) = lim
ΧH f ∋ NH3 ( < ΧH N,N ∗ h®0 -h
2
3 10 - (3 - h)2 - 1 1 + (6h - h 2 ) - 1
ΧH H,H , ΧH N,H = lim = - lim
2 h ®0 -h h ®0 -h
1 3
,46 < ∋,712( ∗ ∋,436( , ΧH N,H = lim
6h - h 2 =
-6
= -3
2 2 2
h ®0
On calculation - h( 1 + 6h - h 2 + 1)
ΧH N,H < , 964 kJ / mol Hence, f ' (3+) ¹ f (3–)
62. (1) We have |z+1| = |z+4–3| ...(i) 67. (1) f (x) = x2 – 4x + a
Now | z + 4 - 3 | £ | z + 4 | + | -3 | £ 3 + 3 = 6 = x2 – 4x + 4 – 4 + a
[Given | z + 4 | £ 3 & | - 3 | = 3 ] \| z + 1 | £ 6 = (x – 2)2 + (a – 4)
Again | z + 1 | ³ 0 [modulus is always non- So, a Î (4, ¥) for domain [2, ¥) and range (0, ¥)
negative] 68. (1) For real roots D ³ 0
\ Least value of |z + 1| may be zero, which occurs
when z = –1, For z = –1, |z + 4| = |–1 + 4| = 3 (k – 2)2 – 4 (k2+ 3k + 5) ³ 0
Which satisfies the given condition that |z + 4| ³ 3 (k2 + 4 – 4k) – 4k2 – 12k – 20 ³ 0
Hence, the least and the greatest values of | z + 1 | – 3k2 – 16k –16 ³ 0 ; 3k2 + 16k + 16 £ 0
are 0 and 6.
63. (3) æ 4ö
çè k + ÷ø (k + 4) £ 0
2 2 2 3
æ 1ö æ 2ö 2 æ 3x + 4y - 1ö
çè x - ÷ø + çè y - ÷ø = (l - 4l + 4) çè ÷ø Now E = a 2 + b2 ; E = (a + b) 2 - 2ab
5 5 5
æ 1ö
2
æ 2ö
2
3x + 4y - 1 E = (k – 2)2 – 2 (k2 + 3k + 5) = –k2 – 10k – 6
i.e., çè x - ÷ø + çè y - ÷ø = | l - 2 | E = – (k2 + 10k + 6) = – [(k + 5)2 – 19]
5 5 5
is an ellipse. = 19 – (k + 5)2
If 0 < | l – 2 | < 1 i.e., l Î (1, 2) È (2, 3) \ Emin occurs when k = – 4/3
64. (3) One vertex of square is (– 4, 5) and equation 121 171 - 121 50
of one diagonal is 7x – y + 8 = 0 \ Emin = 19 - = =
9 9 9
Diagonal of a square are perpendicular and bisect Emax occurs when k = – 4
each other Emax = 19 – 1 = 18
Let the equation of the other diagonal be y = mx +
c where m is the slope of the line and c is the 20! 20! p
69. (1) (2x)p (-y)q (z)r = 2 (-1)q x p yq z r
y-intercept. p!q!r! p!q!r!
Since this line passes through (– 4, 5) p + q + r = 20, q = 0
\ 5 = –4m + c … (i)
Since this line is at right angle to the line p + r = 20 (p is even and r is odd).
7x – y + 8 = 0 or y = 7x + 8, having slope = 7, even + odd = even (never possible)
-1 Coefficient of such power never occur
\ 7 × m = – 1 or m = \ coefficient is zero
7
Putting this value of m in equation (i) we get 70. (1)
31 Starting with 1 23456789
C=
7
Hence equation of the other diagonal is = 8C4 = 70
1 31 or x + 7y = 31. Starting with 2 3 4 56 7 8 9
y=- x+
7 7
65. (3) p Þ q º ~ p Ú q \~ ( p Þ q) º pÙ ~ q. = 7C4 = 35
Total = 105
sin x æ x cos x - sin x ö
3
(105)th number 26789
66. (1) ò e çç ÷÷ dx
è cos2 x ø 1 ˆ 1
71. ˆ ˆ ˆ - (a.b)c
(1) (a.c)b ˆˆ ˆ= b+ cˆ
= ò esin x x cos x dx – ò esin x tan x sec x dx 2 2
1
ò x d (e )–òe
1
=
sin x sin x
d (sec x) \ a.c ˆˆ= and â.bˆ = -
2 2
= xe{ sin x
-ò e sin x
dx } Þ angle between aˆ and cˆ =
p
and angle
4
{
– esin x sec x - ò esin x sec x cos x dx } between â and bˆ =
3p
= x esin x – esin x sec x + C 4
72. (1) |z1 + z2| £ |z1| + |z2| = |24 + 7i| + 6 = 25 + 6 = 31 75. (1) 4x3 + 4y3 (dy/dx) = 0 Þ dy/dx = –x3/y3
Also, |z1 + z2| = |z1 – (–z2)| ³ ||z1| – |z2|| Equation of tangent, Y – y = – x3/y3 (X–x)
Þ |z1 + z2| ³ | 25 – 6| = 19 Þ y3Y + x3X = x4 + y4 = a4
Hence the least value of |z1 + z2| is 19 and the X Y
Þ + =1
4 3
greatest value is 31. a /x a / y3
4

73. (3) The coordinates of points P, Q, R are Here, p = a4/x3, q = a4/y3

(–1, 0), (0, 0), (3,3 3) respectively..
Þ p -4 / 3 + q -4 / 3 =
a -16 / 3
x -4
+
a -16 / 3
y -4
(
= a -16 / 3 x 4 + y 4 )
Slope of QR = 3 Y R (3, 3 3 )
= a -16 / 3 (a 4 ) = a -4 / 3
Þ tan q = 3 M
76. (2) Let the equation of curve
p y2(2a – x) = x3 ...(i)
Þ q=
3 2p / 3 p /3
X'
P (–1, 0) Q (0, 0)
X and equation of line x = 2a ...(ii)
p The given curve is symmetrical about x-axis and
Þ ÐRQX = Y'
3 passes through origin.
p 2p x3
\ ÐRQP = p - = From (i) we have, y2 =
3 3 2a - x
Let QM bisects the ÐPQR , x3
But < 0 for x > 2a and x < 0
2a - x
2p
\ Slope of the line QM = tan =– 3 So, curve does not lie in the portion x > 2a and
3
x < 0, therefore curve lies in 0 £ x £ 2a .
\ Equation of line QM is (y – 0) = – 3 (x – 0)
\ Area bounded by the curve and line
Þ y= – 3x Þ 3 x + y= 0 2a 2a
x3/2
74. (1) Given
ò 2 1+ sin x dx = -4cos(ax + b) + C
= ò ydx =
ò 2a - x
dx
0 0
Put x = 2a sin2q and dx = 4a sin q cos q dq
æ x xö
Þ ò 2 ç sin + cos ÷ dx = -4cos(ax + b) + C p/2
é3 1 pù
ò 8a
2
è 2 2ø \ I= sin 4 q dq = 8a 2 ê . . ú
0
ë4 2 2û
æ 1 x 1 xö
Þ ò 2. 2ç
è 2
sin +
2 2
cos ÷ dx
2ø æ p/2 G
m + 1 n +1ö
G
2 2 ÷
= –4 cos(ax + b) + C ç using
çè
m
ò n
sin x cos x dx =
2 G
m + n + 2 ÷
÷
0 ø
æ p x p xö 2
Þ ò 2 çè cos 4 sin 2 + sin 4 cos 2 ÷ø dx 3pa 2
= sq. unit
= –4 cos(ax + b) + C 2
77. (3) Rewrite the given differential equation as
æ x pö
Þ ò 2 sin ç + ÷ dx = –4 cos(ax + b) + C follows :
è 2 4ø dy 2x 1
+ 2 y= 2 , which is a linear form
æx pö dx x - 1 x -1
Þ -4 cos ç + ÷ = -4 cos(ax + b) + C
è2 4ø The integrating factor I.F.
1 p ò
2x
dx
Þ a= , b=
=e x 2 -1 = e ln ( x
2 -1)
= x 2 -1
2 4
 Thus multiplying the given equation by
80. (2) For non-trivial solution,
2 dy
( x - 1), we get ( x - 1)
2 + 2 xy = 1
dx 2a sin B cos B
d D= 1 cos B sin B =0
Þ [ y( x 2 - 1)] = 1 -1 sin B - cos B
dx

On integrating we get y( x 2 - 1) = x + c Þ a 2 [- cos 2 B - sin 2 B] - sin B [ - cos B + sin B]

78. (4) f2 (x) = f (f (x)) = f (x) = x
+ cos B [sin B + cos B] = 0
f3 (x) = f (f2 (x)) = f (x) = x
Þ -a 2 + sin 2B + cos 2B = 0 Þ a Î[-1,1]
Þ x3 – 25x2 + 175x – 375 = 0
(x – 5) (x2 – 20x + 75) = 0 81. (16.00)
C(a, 80)
(x – 5)2 (x – 15 ) = 0 Þ x = 5, 15 A (0, 20)
2
sin x
79. (3) Let I1 = ò0 sin -1 t dt M

2
Put t = s in u Þ d t = 2 sin u c o s u d u
Þ dt = sin 2udu
O(0, 0) N B (a, 0)
x
\I1 = ò0 u sin 2u du We put one pole at origin.
cos 2 x BC = 80 m, OA = 20 m
Let I2 = ò0 cos -1 t dt Line OC and AB intersect at M.
2
Put t = cos v Þ dt = - 2 cos v sin v dv To find: Length of MN.
Þ dt = - sin 2 v dv æ 80 - 0 ö
Eqn of OC: y = ç x
x x è a - 0 ÷ø
\I 2 = ò p v ( - sin 2v ) dv = - ò p v sin 2v dv
80
2 2 Þ y= x ...(1)
x a
= -ò p
u sin 2u du [change of variable]
æ 20 - 0 ö
Eqn of AB: y = çè ÷ ( x - a)
2
\ I = I 1 + I2 0-a ø
x x
-20
= ò0 u sin 2u du - ò p u sin 2u du
Þ y= ( x - a) ...(2)
2 a
p At M: (1) = (2)
2 x x 80 -20
( x - a)
ò òp
= u sin 2u du + u sin 2u du - u sin 2u du òp Þ
a
x=
a
0
80 -20 a
2 2 Þ x= x + 20 Þ x =
p a a 5
2 80 a
p
ò
= u sin 2u du =
4
[Integrate by parts] \ y= ´ = 16
a 5
0
 n
3 Ck 1
82. (3.00) x + iy = 85. (18.00) n
=
cos q + i sin q + 2 C k +1 2

1 cos q + i sin q + 2 n! (k + 1)!(n - k - 1)! 1

Þ = Þ =
x + iy 3 k! (n - k)! n! 2
x - iy 1 k +1 1
Þ = [(cos q + 2) + i sin q] or =
( x + iy) ( x - iy) 3 n-k 2
x 1 2k + 2 = n – k
Þ = (cos q + 2) n – 3k = 2 ...... (1)
2 2 3
x +y
n
x2 1 Ck +1 2
Þ - = cos q Similarly, n
=
2 2 3 3 Ck + 2 3
x +y
y 1 n! (k + 2)!(n - k - 2)! 2
and - 2 2
= sin q . =
x +y 3 (k + 1)! (n - k - 1)! n! 3
Squaring and adding, we get
k+2 2
æ
2 2 =
ç x 2 ö æ - y ö÷ 1 n - k -1 3
- ÷ +ç =
ç x 2 + y2 3 ÷ ç x 2 + y2 ÷ 9 3k + 6 = 2n – 2k – 2
è ø è ø
2n – 5k = 8 ...... (2)
1
Þ (3 - 4 x ) + 1 = 0 From (1) and (2)
x + y2
2
n = 14 and k = 4
Þ 3 - 4x = - x 2 - y 2 \ n + k = 18
86. (12.00) Let the observations be x1, x2, x3, x4, x5
Þ 4x - x 2 - y 2 = 3 and x6, so
83. (0.50) Let A be the event such that sum is Rs. 20 6
or more å xi 6
\ P (1) = 1 – P (Total value is < 20) their mean x = i =1
= 8 Þ å xi = 48
6
C2 - 2C2 14 1 1 6 i =1
= 1- 8
= 1- = 1- = On multiplying each observation by 3, we get
C2 28 2 2
the new observations as 3x1, 3x2, 3x3, 3x4, 3x5
and 3x6.
Now, their mean
6

p å 3x i
3 ´ 48
84. (2008.00) q1 + q2 = =x = = i =1
= 24
2 6 6
q2 q2
dq tan q dq Variance of new observations
\ I= ò = ò 1 + tan q
æp ö
q1 1 + tan ç - q÷
6 6
è2 ø
q1
å (3x i - 24) 2 32 å (x i - 8) 2
i =1
q2 dq = = i =1
and also I = ò 6 6
q1 1 + tan q
= 9 × Variance of old observations
q2
1002p 501p = 9 × 42 = 144
\ 2I = ò dq = q2 - q1 = 2008
ÞI=
2008 Thus, standard deviation of new observations
q1
Hence, K = 2008. = Variance = 144 = 12
 (tan x)3/ 2 [1 - (cos x)3/ 2 ] 90. (9.00) 2 sec 4C + sin22A + sin B = 0
87. (0.75) lim .
x ®0 x 3/ 2 .x 2 A = 45°, B = 90° and C = 45°
1 - cos3 x 1 C
lim .
= 1× x ®0 x2 1 + (cos x)3/2 P
1 1 3 Q
= . (1 + cos x + cos 2 x) = = 0.25
2 2 4
88. (0.38) n = 3, P (success) = P (HT or TH) = 1/2
1 A
Þ p=q= and r = 2 R,B
2
2 a
æ 1ö 1 3 Let AQ = a, then BP = ,
P (r = 2) = 3C2 çè ÷ø . = = 0.38 2
2 2 8
a
89. (336.00) Let S = {1, 2, 3} Þ n(S) = 3 PQ = and QR = a
Now, P (S) = set of all subsets of S 2
total no. of subsets = 23 = 8 a2 5a
\ PR = a 2 + =
\ n[P(S)] = 8 4 2
Now, number of one-to-one functions from S ® a 5a
\ 1: a : b = :a : = 1: 2 : 5
8! 2 2
P(S) is 8P3 = = 8 × 7 × 6 = 336.
5! \ a = 2 and b = 5 \ a 2 + b2 = 9