21 22CSAT Test5 KEY

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T.B.C: P–SIA–D–UPGI PRESTORMINGTM TEST BOOKLET
Serial: 737246 CSAT

A
TEST - 5
Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 200
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1
S.1) Direction for the following 1 (One) item: Read the following Passage and answer the items that
follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 1
The development of factory farms and the physical separation of most of the animals from the land
on which their feed grows are of relatively recent origin, developing especially over the past 25–50
years. Of longer duration, going back well over a century, has been the wide separation between
where people live and where their food is produced. This causes both wasted energy for
transportation of food as well as excess nutrient accumulation in and around urban areas.
1. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage above?
I. Animals cannot live in areas where food is produced.
II. Segregation of living and agricultural land is beneficial.
III. Transportation leads to wastage of energy resources.
(a) Only III
(b) Only I & II
(c) None of the above
(d) All of the above
Solution:
There is no indication that animals cannot live in areas where food is produced or that segregation
has benefits. However, it is mentioned that energy is wasted for transportation of food.
S.2-3) Direction for the following 2 (Two) items: Read the following Passage and answer the items that
PASSAGE 2
The idea that crime can be deterred by increasing costs or by reducing benefits resulting from
committing a crime is known as deterrence hypothesis. However, empirical studies on the impact of
an increase in enforcement on crime rates provide fairly mixed results. Some empirical studies have
reported that deterrence measures reduce crime. However, there also exists a large body of
literature which claims a weak relationship or lack of relationship between criminal sanctions and
crime rates in the long-run; that criminal justice interventions alone have not reduced crime rates
substantially. Even some empirical studies reported that increase in level of policing is positively
associated with crime rates.
The substantial existence of unemployment, poverty and income inequalities neutralizes the effect
of law enforcement on crime rate in the long-run. The lack of deterrent effect in the long-run is the
concept of natural rate of crime. More precisely, it asserts that deterrence measures have only
temporary effect and crime rate will revert to its equilibrium level in the long-run. It entails that
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crime rate cannot be reduced beyond a certain level unless economic and social profile of the
general masses is substantially improved.
2. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
(a) Law enforcement can only provide a temporary reduction the crime rate unless the
masses are uplifted
(b) Deterrence hypothesis entails paying money for committing crimes
(c) Crime rates cannot be controlled in the long-run
(d) Unemployment is the major driver of criminal activities
Solution:
The author mentions that ‘The substantial existence of unemployment, poverty and income
inequalities neutralizes the effect of law enforcement on crime rate in the long-run.’
3. Which of the following statements are true based on the passage above?
I. It has been proven that there is no link between deterrence measures and crime rates.
II. Income inequalities invariably lead to severe crimes.
III. The police are not helpful in controlling crime over a large area.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II & III
(c) Only I & II
(d) None of the above
Solution:
None of the statements given in the question are supported by the information presented in the
passage.
PASSAGE 3
If the word lobbying has been used for a very long time in France and in the world, the lobbyist
trade, has not yet been recognized in our country as a profession in its own right, as in the USA,
and also in other countries in want of economic powers. It has been rigged with many pejorative
connotations because of the secrecy that seems to surround it. But it is important to understand
that this activity is not only about the relations between interest groups and governments. In fact,
it also concerns all the issues inherent to the social and economic life of France and therefore all
her participants.
3
Lobbying is the activity which consists of influencing directly or indirectly any government action or
decision. This profession has not yet been regulated in France, and it is desirable that legislators
address this issue. Lobbying is indeed a very powerful weapon, which, if it is well used and
performed in a professional manner, can provide the French and European enterprises with
competitive advantages, both on the domestic and international markets.
4. What is the best explanation of the views presented in the passage above?
(a) Lobbying is unethical and should be banned
(b) The practice of lobbying gives an unfair advantage to resourceful parties
(c) Lobbying is a potent tool that can provide benefits if used correctly
(d) USA is the only country in the world to recognize lobbying as a profession
Solution:
The author highlights that ‘Lobbying is indeed a very powerful weapon, which, if it is well used and
performed in a professional manner, can provide the French and European enterprises with
competitive advantages, both on the domestic and international markets.’
5. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage above?
I. The impact of lobbying can reach beyond the borders of a country.
II. The French government must give lobbying recognition if it wants to have an international
impact.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
(d) Neither I nor II
Solution:
The passage states that lobbying can have an impact on both, the domestic and international
markets, but there is no indication that the French government must necessarily give lobbying
recognition.
PASSAGE 4
The current WHO definition of health, formulated in 1948, describes health as “a state of complete
physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.” At that
time this formulation was ground-breaking because of its breadth and ambition. It overcame the
negative definition of health as absence of disease and included the physical, mental, and social
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domains. Although the definition has been criticised over the past 60 years, it has never been
adapted. Criticism is now intensifying, and as populations age and the pattern of illnesses changes
the definition may even be counterproductive.
6. What is the main message conveyed by the passage above?
(a) Mental well-being is not a part of health
(b) Health was defined for the first time in the year 1948
(c) The definition of health, as presented by WHO, should be revised
(d) The general population is older now that it was in 1948
Solution:
The author concludes that the current definition of health by WHO may be counterproductive.
PASSAGE 5
Many people who today choose herbal products in lieu of prescription medications assume that
because these products are natural, they must be safe, even when the evidence for this assertion is
essentially anecdotal. Recent studies have shown that herbals are highly variable in quality and
composition, with many marketed products containing little of the intended ingredients and
containing unintended contaminants, such as heavy metals and prescription drugs. A few herbals
are banned outright in several countries.
7. What is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the passage above?
(a) The reality of herbal medicines may have more than what meets the eye
(b) Herbal medicines should be banned
(c) Prescription drugs are more effective than herbal medicines
(d) People are correct in their assumption that herbal products are safe for consumption
Solution:
The passage states that ‘herbals are highly variable in quality and composition, with many
marketed products containing little of the intended ingredients and containing unintended
contaminants, such as heavy metals and prescription drugs.’
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PASSAGE 6
All citizens cannot take direct part in making every decision. Therefore, representatives are elected
by the people. This is how elections become important. Whenever we think of India as a democracy,
our mind invariably turns to the last elections. Elections have today become the most visible
symbol of the democratic process. We often distinguish between direct and indirect democracy. A
direct democracy is one where the citizens directly participate in the day-to-day decision-making
and in the running of the government. The ancient city-states in Greece were considered examples
of direct democracy. Many would consider local governments, especially gram sabhas, to be the
closest examples of direct democracy. But this kind of direct democracy cannot be practiced when a
decision has to be taken by lakhs and crores of people. That is why rule by the people usually
means rule by people’s representatives.
8. What is the most logical corollary that can be drawn from the passage above?
I. A democracy cannot exist without an election process.
II. Direct democracies are unsuitable when large populations are involved.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
It is not given that elections are mandatory for a democracy to exist, but the passage does mention
that ‘this kind of direct democracy cannot be practiced when a decision has to be taken by lakhs
and crores of people.’
9. Which of the following statements are false based on the passage above?
I. Greek democracy was more effective than modern Indian democracy.
II. Gram sabhas are an example of a direct democratic process.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
6
There is no indication in the passage that Greek democracy was more effective. However, it is given
that ‘Many would consider local governments, especially gram sabhas, to be the closest examples of
direct democracy.’
PASSAGE 7
Indigenous peoples in both Canada and the United States have engaged in numerous protests.
Nevertheless, although these protests led to an ongoing national social movement in the United
States, this has not been the case in Canada. Both cases have some key factors necessary for the
formation of national social movements. These common factors include making purposeful political
challenges and using non-institutional tactics of protest. However, other necessary factors—strong
leadership by social movement organizations, well-developed political networks, and the
development of a strong national collective identity—are much weaker in Canada than they are in
the United States.
10. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage above?
(a) Political protests are not as common in Canada as they are in the United States
(b) Canadian government is more effective than the government in USA and hence, there are fewer
protests
(c) Protests become ineffective when they are institutionalized
(d) Leadership and political networks influencing protests are stronger in the United States
than they are in Canada
Solution:
The author highlights that ‘strong leadership by social movement organizations, well-developed
political networks, and the development of a strong national collective identity—are much weaker
in Canada than they are in the United States.’
11. The average weight of 25 oarsmen in a boat is increased by 1.4 kg when one of the crew, who
weighs 72 kg is replaced by a new man. Find the weight of the new man (in kg.)
(a) 96
(b) 112
(c) 90
(d) 107
Solution:
Let the average weight of 25 Oarsmen at the start = x kg
Let the new man’s weight = y kg
According to question
7
Total weight before replacement = 25x
Total weight after replacement = 25 (x + 1.6) = 25x + 40
Here,
25x – 72 + y = 25x + 40
So, Y = 112
12. Prema decided to donate 20% of her salary to an orphanage. On the day of donation, she changed
her mind and donated Rs. 1,649 which was 85% of what she had decided earlier. How much is
Prema’s salary?
(a) Rs. 8,500
(b) Rs. 9,250
(c) Rs. 9,700
(d) Cannot be determined
Solution:
Let Prema’s salary be Rs x,
According to the question,
85% of 20% of x= 1649
So, x 85/100 20/100 = 1649
X= 1649 100 100/85 20
=Rs. 9,700
13. Fresh grapes contain 80% water, while dry grapes contain 10% water. If the weight of dry grapes is
400kg, then what is its total weight when it is fresh?
(a) 2500 kg
(b) 1750 kg
(c) 2000 kg
(d) 1800 kg
Solution:
Let the weight of fresh grapes be x
Quantity of water in it = 80% of x= 4x/5
Quantity of pulp in it = (x-4x/5)= x/5
Quantity of water in 400 kg dry
Grapes = 10% of 400 = 40 kg
Quantity of pulp in it= (400-40) = 360 kg
So, x/5= 360
x= 1800 kg.
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14. Sandra was thrice as old as Peter 6 years back. If Sandra will be five third as old as Peter 6 years
hence, how old is Peter today?
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) 15
Solution:
Let Peter age, 6 years back = x
Sandra age, 6 years back = 3x
So, Peter age, now = x +6
Sandra age, now = 3x + 6
Then,
(5/3) (x+6+6) = (3x+6+6)
5 (x+12) = 3 (3x+12),
x=6
Peter Age, now = (x+6) years = 12 Years
15. Rs. 3288 is divided into three parts, such that first part be double that of second part and second
part be 1/3 of the third part. Find the third part amount?
(a) Rs. 1464
(b) Rs. 1644
(c) Rs. 966
(d) Rs. 398
Solution:
First: Second: Third= 2:1:3
Third part= 3 3288/6= 1644
16. The ratio of the ages of two persons is in the ratio of 7:5 and the difference between their ages is 16
years. Find the sum of the ages of the person after 5 years,
(a) 106 years
(b) 112 years
(c) 116 years
(d) 119 years
Solution:
Age of A = 7x
Age of B = 5x
Here, 7x – 5x =16
x=8
So, Age of A = 56
Age of B = 40
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After 5 years, Sum of their ages = (A + 5) + (B + 5) = 61 + 45 = 106
17. Montana sold an item for Rs. 7,200 and incurred a loss of 25%. At what price should she have sold
the item to gain a profit of 25%?
(a) Rs. 12,000
(b) Rs. 10,500
(c) Rs. 12,500
(d) Rs. 10,000
Solution:
Let Cost Price of item be x
Selling Price = x =
75x/100= 7200
X=7200x100/75= 9600
Selling price after going 25%
S.P. = 9600+(25/100x9600)= 12000
18. A person sold an article at Rs. 8880 and got a profit of 20%. Had he sold the article for Rs. 6882,
how much loss would he have got?
(a) 4%
(b) 7%
(c) 6%
(d) 9%
Solution:
Le the cost price of the article be Rs. X
After 20% profit = 120x/100 = 8880
X = 7400
Now,
Loss percentage, when the article is sold for Rs. 6882.
= [(7400 – 6882)/7400] x 100 = 7%
19. A person sells two headphones for Rs. 999 each. On the first horse he gains 25 percent and on the
second horse he losses 25 percent. Find the percent gain or loss in the transaction.
(a) Loss 6.75%
(b) Gain 6.75%
(c) Loss 6.25%
(d) Gain 6.25%
Solution:
When same quantity is sold at same price and percent gain and loss is same then there is always
loss occurred.
To calculate the loss percent = (common loss or gain/10) 2
10
i.e. (25/10)2 = 6.25% loss
20. The simple interest on a sum of money will be rupees 350 after 3 years. For the next 3 years,
principal becomes 4 times. Then the total interest at the end of 6 years.
(a) 1050
(b) 1750
(c) 1200
(d) 1150
Solution:
350 = P x R x 3/100 … (1)
For the next 3 years, P is 4 times.
So, SI = 4P x R x 3/100 … (2)
Using (1) in (2)
SI = 4 x 350 = 1400
So, total interest at the end of 6 years = 1400 + 350 = 1750
21. Find how many triangles are there in the given image.
(a) 12
(b) 47
(c) 18
(d) 48
Solution:
11
22. Which one of the following images numbered as (1), (2), (3), (4) will be the next image for the given
series?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 4
Solution:
Symbols given in the image Moves CW,
Stars are in odd number.
23. aa_aaa_aaaa_aaaa_b
(a) baaa
(b) bbaa
(c) bbbb
12
(d) bbba
Solution:
Series pattern: aab/aaab/aaaab/aaaaab
Clearly, the number of ‘a’ is increasing by one in the successive sequence.
Required answer = bbba
24. Find the next term in the given series

4, 6, 6, 30, 100, ____
(a) 230
(b) 330
(c) 430
(d) 530
Solution:
4*1 + 1*2 = 4+2 = 6
6*2 – 2*3 = 12-6 = 6
6*3 + 3*4 = 18+12 = 30
30*4 – 4*5 = 120-20 = 100
100*5 + 5*6 = 500+30 = 530
25. Find the next term in the given series

6, 1, 25, 6, 62, 13, ___
(a) 123
(b) 167
(c) 98
(d) 7
Solution:
2^3 – 2 = 6,
2^2 – 3 = 1,
3^3 – 2 =25,
3^2-3 = 6,
4^3-2 = 62,
4^2-3 = 13,
5^3-2 = 123
S.26-27) Directions (2) Answer the following questions based on the statements given below.
I. There are 3 poles on each side of the road.
II. These six poles are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F
III. The Poles are different colours namely – Golden, Silver, Metallic, Black, Bronze and White.
IV. The poles are of different heights
V. E, the tallest pole, is exactly opposite to the golden coloured pole.
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VI. The shortest pole is exactly opposite to the metallic coloured pole.
VII. F, the black coloured pole, is located between A and D
VIII. C, the bronze coloured pole, is exactly opposite to A
IX. B, the metallic coloured pole, is exactly opposite to F
X. A, the white coloured pole, is taller than C but shorter than D and B
26. Which is the second tallest pole?

(a) A
(b) D
(c) B
(d) None of these
Solution:
Arrangement as per height = E>D/B>A>C>F of poles

It cannot be established that which of the two poles B/D is taller but it is sure that either of B or D
is the second tallest.
27. Which is the colour of the tallest pole?

(a) Golden
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) None of these
Solution:
The colour of tallest pole is silver.
S.28-30) Directions (3) Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. Q is the son of R but R is not the mother of Q.
P and R are married couple. Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter of P and Z is the brother of P.
28. Who is the brother-in-law of R?

(a) P
(b) Z
(c) Y
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(d) X
Solution:
Z is brother-in-law of R
29. How many female members are there in the family?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Solution:
X and P are females
30. Which of these is a pair of brothers?

(a) P and X
(b) P and Z
(c) Q and X
(d) R and Y
Solution:
R and Y is the pair of brothers
PASSAGE 8
The evidence for any role of meat in colon carcinogenesis is quite weak, and since a high proportion
of women of child-bearing age are iron deficient, the consumption of red meat, as a part of balanced
and varied diet, should be actively encouraged. In addition, meat can be a versatile food that adds
variety to eating occasions and is enjoyed by many. Some people choose not to eat meat, for a
variety of reasons, but as there is no evidence that a moderate intake of lean red meat has any
negative effects on health, there is currently no real scientific justification for excluding it from the
diet. Therefore, as recommended in healthy eating advice around the world, lean red meat,
consumed in moderation, can be promoted as part of a healthy balanced diet.
15
31. What is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage given above?
(a) A healthy diet must contain meat
(b) Consumption of meat as a part of a diet is not unhealthy
(c) Pregnant women should primarily consume meat
(d) Humans have evolved to consume meat as a part of their daily diet
Solution:
The author concludes that ‘as recommended in healthy eating advice around the world, lean red
meat, consumed in moderation, can be promoted as part of a healthy balanced diet.’
PASSAGE 9
On the surface, automobile racing appears simply as a popular sport. But in reality, racing serves
as a proving ground for new technology and a battlefield for the giants of automobile industry.
Although human factors are frequently publicized as the reason behind the success or failure of
one racing team or another, engine power, tire adhesion, chassis design, and recently,
aerodynamics probably play a very important role in winning this technology race.
I. There are multiple factors behind the success of a racing team.
II. Automobile racing is one of the most popular sports across the world.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
The author mentions human factors in addition to engine power, tire adhesion, chassis design, and
aerodynamics as the reasons behind the success or failure of one racing team.
PASSAGE 10
Animals play an important role in many people’s lives. In addition to seeing-eye dogs and dogs that
can be trained to detect seizures, animals can also be used in occupational therapy, speech
therapy, or physical rehabilitation to help patients recover. Aside from these designated therapeutic
roles, animals are also valued as companions, which can certainly affect the quality of our lives.
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The better we understand the human-animal bond, the more we can use it to improve people’s
lives.
33. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the passage above?
(a) Animals play an irreplaceable role in sustaining human lives
(b) Animals are more suited for companionship than they are for services
(c) Animals can play a vital role in improving people’s lives
(d) Physical rehabilitation of people is faster with the help of animals than by any other means
Solution:
The author concludes that ‘the better we understand the human-animal bond, the more we can use
it to improve people’s lives.’
PASSAGE 11
For many, money is a mystery. It is not the numbers that are complicated – the math behind
wealth-building is shockingly simple – but it’s the mental baggage that bogs us down: the
psychology, the emotions, the discipline, the peer pressure. While the majority of Indians struggle
with their personal finances, the basics of business are baked into our national subconscious. We
all get that in order to survive and thrive, a company has to make money. What most people fail to
grasp, however, is that the same concept holds true for household finances.
34. What is the main message conveyed by the aforementioned passage?
(a) People are not serious about building their personal wealth
(b) Schools should teach children the basics of financial management
(c) Indian people are not well-versed with personal finance and wealth management
(d) Money brings with it mental baggage including emotional trauma and peer pressure
Solution:
The passage states that ‘the majority of Indians struggle with their personal finances.’
S.35-36) Direction for the following 2 (Two) items: Read the following Passage and answer the items
that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 12
Research has discovered a relationship between work ethic and social policy values like lack of
sympathy for the unemployed, who are regarded as lazy and therefore responsible for their own
predicament. People who hold these values believe that economic, social and other outside
17
environmental conditions should not be considered to be causal agents or excuses for social
deprivation, poverty and related misfortunes. There is clearly an association between these private
beliefs and political values, but the rapid and substantial rise in unemployment in the last decades
of the 20th century, combined with unprecedented changes in technology and several severe
economic depressions, has made these views less plausible.
I. It I doubtful whether people are really responsible for their own misfortunes.
II. Social security is a necessity in modern India.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
The author highlights that ‘but the rapid and substantial rise in unemployment in the last decades
of the 20th century, combined with unprecedented changes in technology and several severe
economic depressions, has made these views less plausible.’
36. Which of the following statements are correct based on the passage given above?
(a) The poverty experienced by people is a direct consequence of their social conditioning
(b) People should be enrolled in workshops to empathize with the economically deprived
(c) People’s personal beliefs do not function in isolation with their political values
(d) Technological change is a precursor to economic depression
Solution:
The passage states that ‘there is clearly an association between these private beliefs and political
values.’
PASSAGE 13
Whenever the annual inflation rate has gone up sharply, say into double-digit, there has been huge
hue and cry, often leading to demands that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) should take action
necessary to bring price levels down. On the other hand, when inflation drops below five per cent,
there is rarely in view an open support for RBI's policies. At present, the rate of inflation is at a very
low level, and perhaps it is time to see that price-stability is also maintained on a sustained basis.
18
Inflation is one of those economic phenomena that affect every citizen, almost every day; yet,
perceptions in India are often at variance with reality. For example, people often ask as to how
during periods of falling inflation, prices still go up. A moment's reflection makes it clear that when
inflation is down, it is only the rate of increase in prices that is down. On the other hand, when
inflation rate edges up, not all are satisfied. For, while nominal incomes go up, the real worth of
incomes is eroded with price-increase. These instances show how popular perceptions are at
variance with the essence of the phenomenon.
I. People lack a clear understanding of how inflation works.
II. The RBI is doing a great job of keeping inflation in check.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
The author mentions that ‘perceptions in India are often at variance with reality,’ but there is no
indication of how well RBI is performing.
38. What is the most logical corollary that follows from the passage given above?
(a) Inflation has been at an all-time low in India in recent years
(b) Inflation affects the general population, but is often misunderstood
(c) Incomes must increase to battle the ever-rising inflation
(d) RBI’s policies are not consummate with the financial needs of the nation
Solution:
The passage states that ‘Inflation is one of those economic phenomena that affect every citizen,
almost every day; yet, perceptions in India are often at variance with reality.’
PASSAGE 14
Most fruits are naturally low in fat, sodium, and calories. None have cholesterol. Moreover, fruits
are sources of many essential nutrients that are under-consumed, including potassium, dietary
fibre, vitamin C, and folate (folic acid). Diets rich in potassium may help to maintain healthy blood
pressure. Furthermore, dietary fibre from fruits, as part of an overall healthy diet, helps reduce
blood cholesterol levels, lowers risk of heart disease and facilitates proper bowel function.
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39. What is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
(a) Eating fruits is necessary for proper bowel movements
(b) Fruits are recommended for patients with high cholesterol
(c) Most diets around the world are based on a fruit-centred concept
(d) Fruits may help in blood pressure regulation
Solution:
The author states that fruits contain potassium and that ‘diets rich in potassium may help to
maintain healthy blood pressure.’
PASSAGE 15
Seshachalam forest is the only place in the world where a particular species of sandalwood, known
as ‘red sanders’, grows. This wood was listed as endangered in 1995 and protected by international
conventions in 1998. From the early 2000s onward, local and small-scale red sanders smuggling
has become globalised traffic. Importantly, it has become a major source of political funding in the
region. Highly valued on international markets, red sanders are cut, moved by sea, air and roads,
and sold to global destinations, China in particular.
I. The highest volume of red sanders trafficked from India goes to China.
II. The smuggling of red sanders is linked with political funding in the Seshachalam region.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
There is no indication that ‘The highest volume of red sanders trafficked from India goes to China,’
but the passage mentions that ‘it has become a major source of political funding in the region.’
41. A alone can make 100 baskets in 6 days and B alone can make 100 baskets in 12 days. In how
many days can A and B together make 100 baskets?
(a) 4 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 2 ½ days
(d) 3 ½ days
Solution:
20
A’s 1 day’s work = 1/6
B’s 1 day’s work = 1/12
(A+B)’s 1 day’s work = 1/6+1/12=2+1/12=1/4
A and B together will make 100 baskets in 4 days.
42. A tap can empty a tank in 60 minutes. A second tap can empty it in 90 minutes. If both the taps
operate simultaneously, how much time is needed to empty half the tank?
(a) 36 minutes
(b) 18 minutes
(c) 40 minutes
(d) 30 minutes
Solution:
Work done by 1st tap in one minute= 1/60
Work done by 2nd in one minute = 1/90
Both tap one-minute work = 1/60+1/90= 3+2/180
= 5/180= 1/36
Both tap will empty the tank in 36 minutes. So, both tap will empty half the tank in 18 minutes
43. A wheel of a motorbike has radius 35cm. How many revolutions per minute must the wheel make
so that the speed of the bike is 49.5 km/hr?
(a) 395
(b) 375
(c) 400
(d) 365
Solution:
Circumference = 44/7 x 35= 220cm
Distance travelled in 1 minute (in cm) = 4950000/60= 82500m
Required no. of revolution = 82500/220 = 375.
44. A boat running upstream takes 4 hours 40 minutes to cover a certain running distance, while it
takes 2 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed
of the boat and speed of water current respectively?
(a) 4:3
(b) 5:2
(c) 8:3
Solution:
Let the man’s upstream speed be Ukmph and downstream speed be Dkmph. Then,
Distance covered upstream in 4 hrs 40 min.
Distance covered downstream in 2 hrs.
21
Distance Ratio = (Ux 4 2/3) : (D x 4) = 14U/3: 2D
D/U = 14/6 = 7/3
Required speed ratio = B + C / B – C = 7 / 3
B/C=5/2
45. An inspector is 252 meter behind the thief. The inspector runs 42 meters and the thief runs 30
meters in a minute. In what time will the inspector catch the thief?
(a) 19 minutes
(b) 20 minutes
(c) 18 minutes
(d) 21 minutes
Solution:
Inspector is 252 meter behind the thief. So,
T = Relative Distance / Relative Speed
T = 252 / 42 – 30 = 252 / 12 = 21 minutes
46. Area of a rectangle is equal to the area of the circle whose radius is 42 cm. If the length and the
breadth of the rectangle are in the ratio of 14:11 respectively, what is its perimeter?
(a) 284 cms
(b) 280 cms
(c) 264 cms
(d) 300 cm
Solution:
Area of rectangle = Area of circle
= 22/7 x 42 x 42 = 5544 sq.cm
Let the length and breadth of rectangle be 14x and 11x cm respectively. Then
13x. 12x = 5544
= x² = 5544/14x11 = 36
x= √ =6
Perimeter of rectangle = 2 (14x+11x)
= 50x = 50x6 = 300 cm
47. A metal cube of edge 24 cm is melted and formed into three smaller cubes. If the edges of two
smaller cubes are 12 cm and 16 cm, then find the edge of the third smaller cube.
(a) 20 cm
(b) 24 cm
(c) 28 cm
(d) 31 cm
Solution:
Let the edge of the third cube be x cm
22
Then, x³+12³+16³ = 24³
x³+1728+4096= 13824
x³= 8000
x = 20
48. The sides of a triangular field are 82m, 80m and 18m. The number of rose beds that can be
prepared in the field if each rose bed, on an average, needs 1800 square cm space, is
(a) 4000
(b) 2800
(c) 1800
(d) 3600
Solution:
Area of triangular field
=√ ( )( )( )
= a+b+c/2 = 82+80+18/2= 90m
Area = √ ( ) ( ) ( )
√ = 720m² = 7200000cm²
Number of rose bed= 7200000/1800 = 4000
49. A bag contains 13 white and 7 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability
that they are not of the same colour?
(a) 41/190
(b) 51/190
(c) 99/190
(d) 91/190
Solution:
Probability of getting 2 different colour balls
= Probability of 1 white balls and Probability of 1 Black balls / Total number of balls drawn
= (13C1 x 7C1)/20C2
= 91/190.
50. In how many different ways can 3 boys and 4 girls be arranged in a row such that all the boys
stand together and all the girls stand together?
(a) 75
(b) 576
(c) 288
(d) 244
Solution:
Required number of ways = 4! x 3! x 2!= 288
23
S.51-53) Directions (3) Gurgaon is an important part of the National Capital Region (NCR Delhi) and is a
very progressive town of Haryana State. Of late, it has come to be known as town of mails and high rise
buildings. Now, it can easily be compared to Dubai. The malls in Gurgaon have become very popular
and daily footfall is around 1 lakh which goes up to 1.5 lakh during first week of the month. A survey
conducted on five prominent malls as to the four vital items on which the sale amounts to more than
60% of total revenue, revealed the following information. Mall A earns from ladies garments, artificial
jewellery, cosmetics and electronics. Mall B earns mostly from furniture, cosmetics, sports and
footwear. Mall C’s greatest earnings are from electronics, sports, artificial jewellery and ladies garments.
Mall D’s main revenues are from furniture, footwear, ladies garments and cosmetics. Mall E’s main
earning departments are electronics, artificial jewellery, ladies garments and sports.
51. Which pair of malls earns mostly from electronic items and artificial jewellery but not from furniture
and footwear?
(a) A and B
(b) C and D
(c) A and C
(d) B and E
Solution:
Data is arranged as follows
Mall A Ladies garments, artificial jewellery, cosmetics and electronics
Mall B Furniture, cosmetics, sports and footwear
Mall C Electronics, sports, artificial jewellery and ladies garments
Mall D Furniture, footwear, ladies garments and cosmetics
Mall E Electronics, artificial jewellery, ladies garments and sports.
Malls A and C earn mostly from electronics items and artificial jewellery but not from furniture and
footwear
52. Which of the following malls earns most from sports and electronics but not from cosmetics and
furniture?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
Solution:
Mall E earns most from sports and electronics but not from cosmetics and furniture
53. Which mall does not earn much from ladies garments and artificial jewellery but gets maximum
from footwear and furniture?
(a) A
(b) B
24
(c) C
(d) E
Solution:
Mall B does not earn much from ladies garments and artificial jewellery but gets maximum from
footwear and furniture.
54. Which letter is 10th to the left of 18th letter from left in the English alphabet?
(a) L
(b) J
(c) H
(d) I
Solution:
18th letter from left = R
10th letter to the left of R= 10th letter before R
= (18-10) th = 8th letter from left = H
55. If in a certain code language ‘BETTER’ is written as ‘EHWQBO’ then how will ‘FORMAL’ be written
in that language?
(a) IRJUXI
(b) IRUIXJ
(c) IRUJXI
(d) IRUJIX
Solution:
56. If in a certain code language ‘nikka pa’ means ‘who are you’, ‘kana ta da’ means ‘you may come
here’ and ‘ho ta sa’ means ‘come and go’, then what does ‘nik’ mean in that language?
(a) Who
(b) Are
(c) ‘who’ or ‘are’
25
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of the above
Solution:
nikka pa → who are you ……………...(i)
kana ta da → you may come here …..(ii)
ho ta sa → come and go ………………..(iii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
Ka→you
nik→’who’ or ‘are’
57.
(a) 3
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 60
Solution:
As 16-(3+4+8)= 1
And 20-(5+3+4)=8
Similarly, 18-(5+4+6) = 3
58. Shailendra is shorter than Keshav but taller than Rakesh, Madhav is the tallest. Aashish is a little
shorter than Keshav and little taller than Shailendra. If they stand in the order of increasing
heights, who will be the second?
(a) Aashish
(b) Shailendra
(c) Rakesh
(d) Madhav
Solution:
(K= Keshav,
S= Shailendra,
R= Rakesh,
M= Madhav,
A= Aashish)
According to the question,
K>S>R
Madhav is the tallest
K>A>S
26
On arranging the above data, we get
M>K>A>S>R
Or
R <S< A < K < M
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
1 2 3 4 5
Hence, Shailendra will be the second.
S. 59) Direction (1) In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statement.
The statement is followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and
select the appropriate answer.
59. Statement B>A>S<I>C>L>Y
Conclusions
I. B>L
II. A>Y
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Either Conclusion I or II follows
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(e) Both Conclusions I and II follow
Solution:
B>A>S<I>C>L>Y
Here, statements are already combined
Conclusions
I. B>L (false)
II. A>Y (false)
III.Thus, neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
S. 60) Direction (1) Below is given a figure with four intersecting circles, each representing a group of
persons having the quality written against it. Study the figure carefully and answer the questions that
fellow.
60. People who are not laborious, enterprising and disciplined are represented by
(a) Q
(b) T
27
(c) U
(d) V
(e) None of these
Solution:
People who are only studious are represented by V
61. Deepak said to Nitin, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the
daughter of my father’s wife”. How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?
(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin
(d) Brother-in-law
Solution:
So, the boy is brother of Deepak
S. 62) Direction (1): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Point P is 9m towards the East of point Q. Point R is 5m towards the South of point P. Point S is 3m
towards the West of point R. Point T is 5m towards the North of point S. Point V is 7m towards the
South of point S.
62. Two buses start from the opposite points of a main road, 150 km apart. The first bus runs for 25
km and takes a right turn and then runs for 15 km. It then turns left and runs for another 25 km
and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to the minor break down
the other bus has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance between the
two buses at this point?
(a) 65 km
(b) 80 km
(c) 75 km
(d) 85 km
Solution:
Required distance = PQ=150-(25+25+35) = 65 KM
28
S. 63-65) Directions (3) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
I. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
II. Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
III. S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
IV. R next to U, gets a South facing flat and T gets a North facing flat.
63. Whose flat is between Q and S?

(a) T
(b) U
(c) R
(d) P
Solution:
Clearly, T’s flat is between Q and S
64. The flats of which of the pair, other than SU, are diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) PT
(b) QP
(c) QR
(d) TS
Solution:
Flats of Q and P are diagonally opposite to each other.
65. Five girls are sitting in a row. Kalpita is to the left of Mridula. Megha is to the right of Arpana.
Sangeeta is in the middle of Megha and Kalpita. Who among the following is to the extreme right of
the row?
(a) Mridula
(b) Arpana
(c) Kalpita
29
Solution:
Arrangement according to the question is as follows
Clearly, Mridula is to the extreme right of the row.
66. A five-digit number is formed with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. Find the chance
that the number is divisible by 5.
(a) 3/5
(b) 1/5
(c) 2/5
(d) 4/5
Solution:
5-digit number = 5! = 120
Divisible by 5 then last digit should be = 5
Then the remaining position have the possibility = 4! = 24
P= (4! x 5!) = 24/120=1/5
67. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is more than the original
number by 54. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 12, then what is the original number?
(a) 48
(b) 39
(c) 84
(d) 93
Solution:
Let the number be xy
(10y+x) – (10x+y) = 54
y – x =6 and x+y=12
Solving the equations, we get x = 3 and y = 9
So the number is 39.
68. 8 persons are attending an interview for 7 posts of the IAS officers including one home cadre, where
2 of them are eligible for home cadre. In how many ways can people be selected for the
requirements?
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 7
30
(d) 2
Solution:
No., of ways to select an IAS officer with home cadre = 2C 1 = 2
No., of ways to select non home cadre = 7C6 = 7
Total no., of ways = 2*7 = 14.
69. A question is given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the
information in all the three statements and decide that which of the statement(s) is necessarily
required to answer the question.
What is the labelled price of the article?
I. Cost price of the article is Rs. 1000/-
II. Selling price after offering 5% discount on the labelled price is Rs. 912/-
III. Profit earned would have been 28% if no discount was offered.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II combined
Solution:
Let the marked price of the article be Rs. X
From statement II
95 X/100 = 912
x = 912 x 100/95 = Rs. 960
Statement II is sufficient to give the answer.
70. A question is given followed by information in two statements. You have to consider the information
in the two statements and decide that which of the statement(s) is necessarily required to answer
the question.
What is the temperature on Tuesday?
I. Average temperature for Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 34 0C
II. Average temperature for Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday is 38 0C

(a) Only I is sufficient to answer the question
(b) Only II is sufficient to answer the question
(c) Either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
(d) Both I & II are not sufficient to answer the question
Solution:
From I
Monday + Tuesday + Wednesday = 340 C x 3 = 1020 C
From II
Tuesday + Wednesday + Thursday = 380 C x 3 = 1140 C
31
Here, statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
PASSAGE 16
When cancer cells break away from a tumour, they can travel to other areas of the body through
either the bloodstream or the lymph system. Cancer cells can travel through the bloodstream to
reach distant organs. If they travel through the lymph system, the cancer cells may end up in
lymph nodes. Either way, most of the escaped cancer cells die or are killed before they can start
growing somewhere else. But one or two might settle in a new area, begin to grow, and form new
tumours. This spread of cancer to a new part of the body is called metastasis.
71. What is the most logical inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
I. Metastasis is an irreversible condition.
II. Cancer cells travel faster through the bloodstream than they do through the lymph system.
III. Cancers usually spread to various organs before they are detected.
IV. Cancer cells can spread to different organs in the body through the bloodstream.
V. Most of the cancer cells die when they migrate to another organ.
(a) I, II & III
(b) I, II, III & IV
(c) IV & V
(d) Only V
Solution:
The passage states that ‘cancer cells can travel through the bloodstream to reach distant organs’
and that ‘most of the escaped cancer cells die or are killed before they can start growing somewhere
else.’
PASSAGE 17
Urban and peri-urban (UAP) farming refers to the production of food in and around towns or cities.
It is usually done in small areas, due to the limited and expensive nature of the land in such areas.
Over 50% of the world population is currently estimated to live in urban areas. Cities and towns
continue to expand as a result of several factors including economic growth and migration from
rural to urban areas, while agricultural and rural employment opportunities continue to decline or
lag behind population growth.
32
72. What is the most important implication made in the passage above?
(a) People move from villages to cities for economic reasons
(b) Agricultural growth is vital for the sustenance of rural communities
(c) In the future, most of the people in the world will live in cities
(d) Rural land is cheaper than urban land
Solution:
The author highlights that ‘cities and towns continue to expand as a result of several factors
including economic growth’ and that ‘agricultural and rural employment opportunities continue to
decline or lag behind population growth.’
PASSAGE 18
India is the second largest consumer of tobacco globally, and accounts for approximately one-sixth
of the world's tobacco-related deaths. The tobacco problem in India is peculiar, with consumption
of variety of smokeless and smoking forms. Understanding the tobacco problem in India, focusing
more efforts on what works and investigating the impact of sociocultural diversity and cost-
effectiveness of various modalities of tobacco control should be our priority.
73. What is the most important implication made in the passage above?
(a) India will soon become the world’s leading tobacco consumer
(b) Tobacco causes myriad health problems, treatable and untreatable
(c) Tobacco control in India needs to be prioritized with a focussed approach
(d) Most of the people in India use smokeless tobacco
Solution:
The author emphasizes that ‘understanding the tobacco problem in India, focusing more efforts on
what works and investigating the impact of sociocultural diversity and cost-effectiveness of various
modalities of tobacco control should be our priority.’
PASSAGE 19
Some organizations do not have an established security architecture in place, leaving their
networks vulnerable to exploitation and the loss of personally identifiable information (PII). At
times, due to a lack of resources or qualified IT staff, organizations’ networks are connected to the
33
internet directly, or are connected using out-of‐ the-box network appliances with default
configurations attached, with no additional layer of protection. It is important to note that having a
firewall alone is not sufficient to ensure the safety of a network.
Inadequate network protection results in increased vulnerability of the data, hardware, and
software, including susceptibility to malicious software (malware), viruses, and hacking. If the
network contains sensitive information or PII, such as students’ social security numbers, it is
critical that even in a very limited resource environment, minimal user, network and perimeter
security protection mechanisms (such as anti-virus) are implemented, including making sure that
anti-virus software is properly configured. Robust security architecture is essential and provides a
roadmap to implementing necessary data protection measures.
74. Which of the following assumptions are made in the passage above?
I. It is vital to protect organizational data using appropriate tools.
II. Anti-virus software are ineffective against modern hacking methods.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
The author emphasizes that ‘robust security architecture is essential and provides a roadmap to
implementing necessary data protection measures,’ but there is no indication that anti-virus
software are ineffective.
75. What is the most logical inference that can be made from the passage above?
(a) Firewalls provide adequate protection against external infiltration
(b) Security breaches can be avoided if anti-virus software are properly configured
(c) The leak of PII is the most imminent security threat for organizations
(d) Certain malware can breach even the most effective firewalls
Solution:
The passage states that ‘it is critical that even in a very limited resource environment, minimal
user, network and perimeter security protection mechanisms (such as anti-virus) are implemented,
including making sure that anti-virus software is properly configured.’
34
PASSAGE 20
As it is at the core of every crime, theft also requires the intention, or the mens rea, to take a
property dishonestly from the possession of another or to cause wrongful loss to such intended.
This intention being mala fide is very necessary. If such an intention is bona fide then, the case has
to be looked into closely before adjudging it to be theft. Without a mala fide intention, a person
cannot be convicted. Anything attached to the land may become movable property if it is severed
from the Earth and also that the act of severance is in itself an act of theft. Therefore, a thief, who
severs something and takes it away, is put in exactly the same position as if he carried away what
was already severed.
The most important thing in this is that it is not necessary that the thing stolen must be of value.
The thing stolen must have been taken without the consent of the person in the possession of it. A
consent can be express or implied and that consent can be given by any person who is in
possession of that thing or has the relevant authority to do so. However, consent obtained by false
representation will not be considered a valid consent.
76. What is the central focus of the author of the aforementioned passage?
(a) Intention and absence of consent form vital constituents of the concept of theft
(b) It is impossible to prove mala fide intent
(c) Movable property can be stolen without consequence
(d) Most thieves steal valuable property and leave behind things they do not consider of value
Solution:
The author mentions that ‘as it is at the core of every crime, theft also requires the intention’ and
that ‘the thing stolen must have been taken without the consent of the person in the possession of
it.’
I. Mens rea is the Latin word for intention.
II. The concept of theft is independent of the value of the item stolen.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
35
There is no discussion about the roots of the term mens rea, but the passage does mention that ‘it
is not necessary that the thing stolen must be of value.’
PASSAGE 21
The consensus in international law is that a state does not have any obligation to surrender an
alleged criminal to a foreign state, because one principle of sovereignty is that every state has legal
authority over the people within its borders. Such absence of international obligation, and the
desire for the right to demand such criminals from other countries, have caused a web of
extradition treaties or agreements to evolve. When no applicable extradition agreement is in place, a
sovereign may still request the expulsion or lawful return of an individual pursuant to the
requested state’s domestic law. This can be accomplished through the immigration laws of the
requested state or other facets of the requested state's domestic law.
Similarly, the codes of penal procedure in many countries contain provisions allowing for
extradition to take place in the absence of an extradition agreement. Sovereigns may, therefore, still
request the expulsion or lawful return of a fugitive from the territory of a requested state in
the absence of an extradition treaty. No country in the world has an extradition treaty with all
other countries; for example, the US lacks extradition treaties with China, Russia, Namibia,
UAE, North Korea, Bahrain, etc.
78. What is the most logical corollary to the information presented in the passage above?
(a) Extradition treaties are complex and there can be no uniform treaty applicable to all countries
(b) Countries cannot extradite fugitives from countries with whom extradition treaties are non-
existent
(c) No two countries have the same immigration laws
(d) Countries are not bound to surrender fugitives to foreign countries
Solution:
The passage states that ‘a state does not have any obligation to surrender an alleged criminal to a
foreign state, because one principle of sovereignty is that every state has legal authority over the
people within its borders.’
I. Extradition depends upon respective agreements between different countries.
II. The presence of an extradition treaty is not mandatory for the expulsion of fugitives.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
36
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
The passage states that a web of extradition treaties have evolved and that ‘the codes of penal
procedure in many countries contain provisions allowing for extradition to take place in the
absence of an extradition agreement.’
PASSAGE 22
Coffee beans are roasted and extolled for their flavour and smell. The most attractive component in
coffee is caffeine. Its chemical nature represents that it contains numerous components, such as
alkaloids, nitrogenous compounds, carbohydrates, minerals, vitamins, phenolic and lipids. Many
epidemiological studies demonstrate the health risk of large consumption of caffeine due to its
strong relation with inadequate behaviour including sedentary lifestyle and smoking. Most of the
research in humans on health effects is observational. However, results of recent studies exhibited
that drinking coffee in recommended amounts decreased the risk of chronic ailments.
80. What is the most rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage above?
(a) Drinking coffee is harmful to health and must be avoided
(b) Coffee is a complete food source as it contains carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals
(c) Sedentary lifestyle combined with coffee ensures that people are not able to stay healthy
(d) Drinking coffee in moderation may have certain health benefits
Solution:
The author highlights that ‘results of recent studies exhibited that drinking coffee in recommended
amounts decreased the risk of chronic ailments.’
37

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P–SIA–D–UPGI PRESTORMINGTM TEST BOOKLET

Serial: 737246 CSAT

Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 200

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

I. Animals cannot live in areas where food is produced.

II. Segregation of living and agricultural land is beneficial.

III. Transportation leads to wastage of energy resources.

(a) Only III

(b) Only I & II

(c) None of the above

(d) All of the above

(b) Deterrence hypothesis entails paying money for committing crimes

(c) Crime rates cannot be controlled in the long-run

(d) Unemployment is the major driver of criminal activities

II. Income inequalities invariably lead to severe crimes.

(b) Only II & III

(c) Only I & II

(d) None of the above

(a) Lobbying is unethical and should be banned

(b) The practice of lobbying gives an unfair advantage to resourceful parties

5. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage above?

I. The impact of lobbying can reach beyond the borders of a country.

(c) Both I & II

(d) Neither I nor II

6. What is the main message conveyed by the passage above?

(a) Mental well-being is not a part of health

(c) The definition of health, as presented by WHO, should be revised

(d) The general population is older now that it was in 1948

(b) Herbal medicines should be banned

(c) Prescription drugs are more effective than herbal medicines

I. A democracy cannot exist without an election process.

(c) Both I & II

(d) Neither I nor II

I. Greek democracy was more effective than modern Indian democracy.

II. Gram sabhas are an example of a direct democratic process.

(c) Both I & II

(d) Neither I nor II

(c) Protests become ineffective when they are institutionalized

24. Find the next term in the given series

25. Find the next term in the given series

26. Which is the second tallest pole?

Arrangement as per height = E>D/B>A>C>F of poles

27. Which is the colour of the tallest pole?

28. Who is the brother-in-law of R?

29. How many female members are there in the family?

30. Which of these is a pair of brothers?

(a) A healthy diet must contain meat

(b) Consumption of meat as a part of a diet is not unhealthy

(c) Pregnant women should primarily consume meat

I. There are multiple factors behind the success of a racing team.

(c) Both I & II

(d) Neither I nor II

(a) Animals play an irreplaceable role in sustaining human lives

(c) Animals can play a vital role in improving people’s lives

34. What is the main message conveyed by the aforementioned passage?