Chapter -4

1 Design is not the same as analysis. This implies that a) Output of analysis phase consist of smaller
problems to solve during design b) SDLC phases do not need analysis if design is already completed
c) Analysis phase is not different even if the product is designed by different groups d) Multiple
designs can arise for the same problem after analysis depending on the hosting environment e)
Output of design phase is further analyzed in the analysis phase to improve the design

d and e only

c, d and e only

a and d only

a, c and d only

2 Which of the following statements are appropriate for the characteristics given? a) Reusability: Use
of existing resources like programmers, software licenses and hardware used in previous projects b)
Scalability - A good design should be able to scale down in case of business loss and hence lesser
number of users c) Reusability: Use of existing assets like code, sub-routines, functions, modules,
test suites, designs and documentation. d) Scalability - A good design should be able to scale up in
case of business growth and hence increased number of users

a and b only

c and d only

a and c only

b and c only

3 Problem partitioning in design means a) Partitioning of modules to charge more from customers b)
Applying the principle of divide and conquer and remove smaller modules c) Assigning different
problems to different teams d) Partitioning design into simple, medium and complex design modules

c only

b only

None of the above

a and d only

4 What is meant by Design Documentation a) It is description of a software product given to the

customer for future maintenance work. b) A document that serves as a stable reference, outlining all
parts of the software and how they will work c) It usually accompanies an architecture diagram with
pointers to detailed feature specifications d) It is a document written for the customer to review and
decide the scope of the project

b and c only

d only

c and d only
 b and d only

Chapter 5

1 User Interface Design Rules includes a) System should not force a user into unnecessary or
undesired actions b) System should remember pertinent information and put minimum load on the
user memory c) Visual information should be organized as per a standard design for all screens d)
System should focus on performance and not on ease of use for user

a, b and c only

a only

a and b only

d only

2 A good user interface implies good Graphical User Interface. Which of the statements given below
justify this? a) Visual layout based on the real world is far easier to interpret and use. b) User has the
flexibility to simultaneously interact with several related items at any time and can have access to
different system information displayed in different windows. c) Symbolic information manipulation
such as dragging an icon to a trash can is intuitively appealing and easy for the user to remember d)
Usage of metaphors i.e. the abstractions of real-life objects is very confusing to new users

a and d only

a, b and c only

None of the above

b and c only

3 Providing feedback to a user is essential while designing user interfaces. Which of the following are
appropriate examples? a) In a game of "Spider-Solitaire" if a user takes more than few seconds to
play a hint is given by flashing a card. b) The user is shown the correct password when he types the
wrong password repeatedly c) While copying a large set of files from one folder to a pen-drive the
user is warned about the long duration of the process d) The user is shown the security strength of
the password while setting new passwords or changing existing passwords

a and d only

a only

c only

b and d only

4 Which of the following modes can analysts use to gather inputs for designing a good user
interface? a) User interviews – designers meet with end-users b) Observation - designers watch
users as they attempt to perform tasks with the user interface c) Competition Sites - Gather inputs
from users of the competitor's applications and find what sells and what does not d) Marketing input
– Marketing analysis on general trends and customer expectations

d only

a. b and d only

a, c and d only

b, c and d only

5 "Direct manipulation Interfaces" implies a) Direct manipulation interfaces present the interface to
the user in the form of visual models i.e. icons or objects b) Direct manipulation interfaces are tools
to directly manipulate the data on the screens without typing c) User issues commands by
performing actions on icons representing a task e.g. drag a file into another location for changing the
location of a file d) Direct manipulation interfaces are tasks that can be ne by issuing a command like
copy c:\source_folder\*.* destination_folder

a and d only

a and c only

b and c only

b and d only

Chapter -6

1 Including inline comments in program code is one of the guidelines for good coding which a)
Increases the Lines of Code of programs which increases the price the customer pays b) Allows a
person not familiar with the code to quickly understand it c) Helps programmers to avoid coding
mistakes d) Helps a programmer who wrote the code to remember details much later

d only

b and d only

c and d only

a and c only

Ans- b and d only

2 Coding Standards implies a) A mandatory action or rules designed to support and conform to a
defined policy b) Rules that make a policy more meaningful and effective c) Rules which
programmers are expected to follow d) Mandatory Compliance once approved by management

All of the above

a and c only
 b and c only

a and d only

Ans- All of the above

3 Following Coding Standards can lead to a) Blame game among programmers in case of coding
errors b) High level of mistakes when people new to a language are added to projects c) Good profit
to the vendor where customer is charged higher for using standards d) Programmers continuing with
their college learned behavior

None of the above

a, b and c only

b and c only

a and d only

Ans- None of the above

Chapter -7

1 Software Verification stands for a) A process of evaluating software to determine whether the
products satisfy the conditions imposed b) Set of activities that ensure that the software correctly
implements a specific function. c) A dynamic process for checking and testing the real product d) The
review activities or the static testing techniques

a, c and d only

b only

b and c only

a, b and d only

2 In order to test an outsourced application what must an organization do with respect to testing? a)
Ensure that testing is done to detect and gather evidence for a lawsuit against the vendor for
defective software b) Testing must be started only after the vendor has completed the coding phase
c) Testing must be started immediately after the vendor submits a prototype d) Testing must be
planned to be done at customer site after all modules are completed

a, b, c and d only

b, c, d and e only

None of the above

 a, c, d and e only

3 All tests should be traceable to customer requirements. What this statement implies is

The customer hires a good documenter to write the requirements in proper legal language
to avoid legal conflicts later.

Testing must focus only on the customer specified requirements

Software is of no value unless it is tested by the customer with reference to the

requirements

Testing should be so designed that all test cases should be traced back to one or more
customer requirements.

4 Which of the terminologies used in software testing given below are incorrect? a) Bug: A generic
term for error, defect or failure b) Error (or mistake): A flaw generated due to incorrect syntax c)
Defect (fault): Code that does not correctly implement the requirements or intended behavior d)
Failure: A deviation of the software causing the system to perform an undesired action

None of the above

All of the above

a and d only

b and c only

5 "Static Testing” implies a) Effectively in finding at least 30% of errors b) Only successful compilation
c) Examination or review and evaluation using a checklist d) Discovery of dead codes, infinite loops,
uninitialized and unused variables, standard violations.

a, b and d only

a, b and c only

a, c and d only

b, c and d only

6 The differences between static testing and dynamic testing are a) In dynamic testing the software
must actually be compiled and executed b) In static testing the software must be compiled without
syntax errors c) In dynamic testing the software must be tested for functionality and performance d)
In static testing the software is checked using a checklist

All of the above

a and b only

b and c only

c and d only

7 One of the approaches of debugging is called Brute Force. This means a) A rarely used method of
debugging because programmers cannot understand memory dumps b) An approach where the
program is scattered with print statements to print intermediate values to locate the statement
causing errors c) An approach where programs are broken up into smaller parts for debugging d) An
approach where memory storage dumps are taken to find the source of the error

b and d only

a, c and d only

b, c and d only

a, b and c only

8 Cause-Elimination Method uses deduction and induction approaches for debugging. Which of the
following statements are correct to differentiate the two? a) In the deduction approach one
enumerates the causes of error, eliminate each cause of error and tries to reach the right cause b) In
the induction approach one locates data about what program did correctly or incorrectly, makes a
hypothesis about the cause of the error & tries to prove the hypothesis c) In the induction approach
one enumerates the causes of error, eliminate each cause of error and tries to reach the right cause
d) In the deduction approach one locates data about what program did correctly or incorrectly,
makes a hypothesis about the cause of the error & tries to prove the hypothesis

b and c only

a and c only

c and d only

a and b only

9 The V Model of testing depicts the corresponding validation stage for each stage of the verification
phases. Identify the correct statements to justify this. a) The test plans developed during individual
module design phase are executed during Unit Testing b) System testing is execution of the test
plans prepared during requirement analysis stages c) The test plans developed during the High Level
design phase are executed in the system testing stage d) User acceptance Testing stage is execution
of the test plans that are developed during system design phase

b and c only

a and c only

c and d only

a and b only

10 The correct sequence of the different Levels of testing is

Unit, Integration, System and User Acceptance

Unit, System, Integration and User Acceptance

User Acceptance, System, Integration and Unit

System, Integration, User Acceptance and Unit

11 Big-Bang Integration Testing means a) It is the simplest integration testing approach where all the
modules making up a system are integrated in a single step. b) It is the most complex integration
testing approach where all modules are tested at one step. c) It is assumed that all components have
undergone testing at the unit level and have no defects, therefore can be put together and tested. d)
Errors found during integration testing are difficult to localize and debugging to trace the error
across modules is expensive

a, c and d only

a, b and c only

b and d only

a and c only

12 Security Testing is a Non-Functional Testing that implies a) Verification that protection

mechanisms built into a system will protect it from illegal penetration b) Ensuring that software
behaves properly in the presence of a malicious attack. c) Testing done to check whether the
product is secured and not vulnerable to attacks. d) A process that determines that confidential data
stays confidential

a, b and d only

b, c and d only

All of the above

b and d only

13 One of the advantages of top-down integration testing is

No drivers need to be written

No stubs need to be written

Smaller modules can be tested first

Regression testing is not required

Chapter – 8

1 Proactive risk management means a) Send reports of all risks to management on a proactive basis
to avoid management issues b) Identify and correct the root causes of risks on a continuous basis c)
Review the risks on a periodic basis and change or add risks based on review findings d) Change
members who can be a risk to a project because of their proactive working

b and d only

b and c only

a and c only

a and d only

2 Deployment means a) Install and activate software b) Team adapts to the software c) Deactivate all
manual system d) Upgrade and Adapt new systems

a and d only
 b and d only

a, and b only

c and d only

3 Configuration management in software engineering is a) Overall management of the configuration

of the hardware required for the system b) Review of the activities and performance of the
configuration management person c) Managing only the hardware configuration required for a
project d) Overall management of the configuration items generated during the project

a only

b only

c only

d only

4 A baseline is

A milestone in the development of software

A milestone which the management sets to receive payment from the customer

A milestone the organization sets to continue or drop the project

A milestone the customer sets to measure the effectiveness of the vendor

5 What is Risk Management? a) It is a process concerned with identification, measurement, control

and minimization of security risks in information systems b) Is a proactive effort to prepare for risks
before they happen and develop risk mitigation strategies c) It is optimal allocation of resources to
arrive at a cost-effective investment to minimize both risk and costs. d) It involves taking steps to
reduce or eliminate the exposures to loss faced by an organization

a, b and c only

a, c and d only

All of the above

b, c and d only

Chapter -9

1 Quality is related to: a. Zero defects found in products b. Conformance to requirements c. Non-
conformance found in processes d. Customer Acceptance of project

a and d only

b and c only

d only
 a and d only

2 Management must do the following to achieve quality over a long term a) Motivate the employees
with seminars, workshops and institution of programs such as "Quality Improvement" day b) Give
awards the head of the quality department as the best employee of the organization c) Implement a
formal quality control program with worker and management involvement d) Establish financial
incentive packages for workers who assure quality

b only

a, c and d only

a and c only

c and d only

3 Quality management uses “quality assurance” and “quality control”. Which of the statements
correctly highlight the difference between quality assurance (QA) and quality control (QC)? a) QA can
be performed by a manager, customer, auditor or third party reviewer etc. whereas QC is performed
by the practitioners and inspectors b) QC has a broader perspective to provide adequate confidence
that a product or service will satisfy given needs whereas QA has a narrow perspective associated
with the creation of product or project deliverables. c) QA assurance activities are determined
before production work begins but performed while the product is being developed whereas QC
activities are determined and performed during production d) QC assurance does not concern the
specific requirements of the product being developed whereas QA is mainly concerned with the
product that is developed.

d only

a and c only

b and d only

c and d only

4 If data are plotted over time, the resulting chart will be a a) Run chart b) Histogram c) Pareto chart
d) Fishbone diagram

a and b only

c and d only

b and c only

a and d only

5 Cost of quality is a concept that includes: a) Cost necessary for ensuring conformance to
requirements b) Cost of acquisition of the project e.g. presales, technical discussions, site visits etc.
c) Research and development costs related to the project d) Cost necessary for detecting non-
conformance to requirements

a only

b, c and d only

a and d only
 d only

6 Which of these are appropriate for ISO Standards?

It involves huge paper work

It is a process centric standard – “Do what you say”.

It is an easy marketable commodity for organization

It helps only consultants and auditors

7 Achieving Level 5 in SEI assessment is easy because a) There are only 2 Key Processes in Level 5 b)
The organization has already reached ever-improving capability at Level 4 c) All possible
improvements in the processes have been implemented d) The entire organization is convinced that
Quality is important

a, b and c only

None of the above

All of the above

b, c and d only

8 Sigma methodology is based on the philosophy that

Process variations introduce product variations

Variation in product is inversely proportional to variation in processes

Sources of variation can be identified, quantified & mitigated by measuring defects only

Variation exists in every process because of lack of automation

9 Six Sigma is a set of techniques and tools for process improvement and provides businesses with
the tools to improve the capability of their business processes. Which of the statements below are
appropriate in this context? a) It is a rating to describe the maturity of a manufacturing process
indicating its yield or the percentage of defect-free products it creates. b) A six sigma process is one
in which 99.99966% of the products manufactured are statistically expected to be free of defects c)
The purpose of the sigma value is only some number to determine whether a process is able to
restrict the defects to 3.4 defective parts/million d) The term "Sigma" is used as a scale for levels of
'goodness' or quality; it using this scale, it equates to 3.4 defects per one million opportunities

a, b and d only

d only

a, b and c only

c only

10 The overall theme of metrics for any IT project covers a) Effort - productivity, utilization,
throughput b) Defects - Defect-related information c) Budget: cost variance, return on investment d)
Schedule slippage –go-live slippage visible to customer and internal slippage visible to project teams

b, c and d only
 a, c and d only

a, b and c only

All of the above

11 customers benefit by using metrics by measuring a) Whether the productivity of the development
team is consistent b) Whether the final product meets the requirements c) Whether the product is
relatively defect-free. d) Whether the rate of delivery of modules is in equal installments

a and b only

c and d only

b and c only

a and d only

12 Benefits of gathering Process Metrics from projects are a) They help measure specific attributes
of any process to develop set of meaningful metrics that gives indications for improvement b) They
focus more on processes and not on defects which developers are not comfortable with c)
Effectiveness of a process can be measured by deriving a set of metrics based on outcomes of the
process. d) Process metrics gathered over a long period of time can be used for reviewing the
contracts with customer

b and c only

c and d only

a and c only

a and d only

13 “Process Metrics” are difficult to gather in any project? Which of the following are possible
metrics that can be gathered? a) %age of total errors uncovered in requirement, design, coding
phase b) %age of total errors uncovered in testing phase c) %age of effort spent during testing phase
only d) Number of changes during the development

a and b only

b and c only

c and d only

d only

14 Project Metrics does not include?

Schedule Variance

Defect Density

Modules completed

Requirement Stability

15 Productivity is one of the project metrics gathered in a project. Which of the statements given
below are appropriate to explain Productivity? a) It is a measure of output from a related process for
a unit of input. b) Productivity = (Actual Project Effort / Actual Size) spent for the project c) It is a
measure of the input required to produce specific units of output d) Productivity = (Actual Project
Size / Actual Effort) spent for the project

c and d only

a and c only

a and d only

b and d only

16 McCall's 11 quality factors includes a) Efficiency b) Integrity c) Familiarity d) Reliability e)

Reusability

b, c and e only

All of the above

a, b, d and e only

a, b and d only