Professional Documents
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Physics
Physics
TINSUKIA REGION
Chief Patron
Shri S V Joglekar
Deputy Commissioner I/c
Tinsukia Region
Patron
Shri Sojan P. John
Assistant Commissioner
PREPARED BY:
1. Mr. Irfan Ahmad, PGT (Physics), KV Oil, Duliajan
2. Mrs. Ch. Kiranmala, PGT (Physics), KV No. 3Imphal
3. Mr. Sanjay Dalal, PGT (Physics), KV Dirang
4. Ms. Shama, PGT (Physics), KV NERIST
MODERATED BY:
1. Sh. P B Pandey, Principal, KV Dinjan
2. Mr. Sriram, PGT(Physics) KV Along
3. Ms. Rini C Verma, PGT(Physics) KV Rangapahat Cantt.
4. Mr. Sachin Kumar, PGT(Physics) KV Dibrugarh
FOREWORD
Providing Support Material to students is a tradition in Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan.
The Support material prepared by the subject experts includes all the necessary changes
introduced by CBSE so as to acquaint our student with the changes in curriculum, pattern and
design of questions, topic-wise weightage of marks, MCQs, VSA, SA, LA-1, LA-2 , topic wise
common errors along with previous years' CBSE questions, CCT based questions and
questions based on Case Study .
This students’ support material is surely a meticulous work undertaken by the subject
experts of the Region with an aim to help students’ excellent learning. This comprehensive
material has been crafted in a lucid language to efface any trace of ambiguity from the learners’
minds. Each unit has been moulded scholastically keeping in mind the doubts that may arise
while a young learner deals with the concept. A variety of questions in different designs, like
Assertion-Reason Questions and Multiple-Choice Questions, have been dealt with, to prepare
the students for every possible pattern that could appear in Term II Examination. Descriptive
questions have been included for detailed reading. Important formulae and the core concept
of each chapter have been highlighted for easy revision. HOTS questions can help the students
to think outside the confines of the textbook. Mind maps will help the students to grasp the
ideas as part of a coherent structure. Inclusion of MCQ based questions is for rapid revision.
This succinct material, prepared as per latest CBSE syllabus, would help the students to
comprehend thoroughly and revise swiftly.
I hope this material will prove to be a good tool for quick revision and will serve the
purpose of enhancing students’ confidence level to help them perform better. Planned study
blended with hard work, good time management and sincerity will help the students reach the
pinnacle of success.
All teachers and students are requested to share their feedback to us.
I express my gratitude to Shri Sojan P John, Assistant Commissioner, KVS RO
Tinsukia, Principal Coordinators, teachers whoever involved in preparation and moderation of
Support Material.
(S.V. Joglekar)
Deputy Commissioner (I/c)
KVS RO Tinsukia
PHYSICS
Class-XII
CHAPTER -8 (ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES)
IMPORTANT POINTS :
*Conduction current and displacement current together have the property of continuity.
Conduction current & displacement current are precisely the same.
Conduction current arises due to flow of electrons in the conductor. Displacement current
arises due to electric flux changing with time.
(6) The EM waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields because these
waves are uncharged.
(7) The electric field vector is responsible for optical effects of an EM waves and is
called light vector as E0 ˃˃ B0 .
(8) In EM waves, the oscillations of electric field and magnetic field are in the same phase.
(9) The EM waves obey principle of superposition.
(10) E.M. waves carry energy, which is shared equally by electric and magnetic fields.
(11) The velocity of electromagnetic waves depends entirely on the electric and magnetic
properties the medium in which they travel and is independent of the amplitude of field
vectors.
Q.The frequency values of, ν1and ν2, for two spectral lines of the e.m. spectrum, are found
to be 5X1020 Hz and 2.5x1011 Hz respectively. Find the ratio, λ1/λ2 of their wavelengths.
Q.Welders wear special goggles or face masks with glass windows to protect their eyes
from electromagnetic radiations. Name the radiations and write the range of their frequency.
Ans. The name of electromagnetic radiation is UV radiations and their frequency range
is 8 x 1014 Hz to 3 x 1016 Hz
Q.Name the characteristics of electromagnetic waves that (i) decreases; (ii) remain constant
in the electromagnetic spectrum as one move from ultraviolet region towards radio wave
region.
Ans. (i) The frequency of the electromagnetic wave decreases. (ii) The speed of
electromagnetic waves remains constant (c= 3x108 m/s).
Q.The velocity of propagation (in vacuum) and the frequency of (i)X-rays and (ii) radio
waves are denoted by (vx,nx) and (vR,nR) respectively. How do the values of (i) vx and vR (ii)
nx and nR compare with each other?
Q. What are the directions of electric and magnetic field vectors relative to each other and
relative to the direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves?
Ans. In electromagnetic waves electric & magnetic fields are oscillate perpendicular to each
other as well as perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
Q. Thin ozone layer on top of stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why?
Ans. The UV rays coming from the Sun are absorbed by ozone layer and prevents it from
reaching the earth and causing damage to life.
Q.Identify the electromagnetic waves whose wavelengths vary as (a) 10-12m ˂ λ ˂ 10-8m (b)
10-3m ˂ λ ˂ 10-1m
Q. Draw a sketch of linearly polarized em waves propagating in the Z-direction. Indicate the
directions of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
Ans:…….
Q. Name the em radiation used for viewing object through haze and fog.
Q.How does the speed of em wave in vacuum depends on absolute permeability and absolute
permittivity?
1
Ans: The speed of em wave in vacuum is given by the relation c = = 3X108 m/s
√μ0 ε0
Ans: X-ray
2 mark QUESTIONS
Q. Why are microwaves found useful for the radar systems in aircraft navigation?
OR State the reason why microwaves are best suited for long distance transmission of
signals?
Ans. Due to short wavelength, microwaves have high penetrating power with respect to
atmosphere and are not diffracted by the obstacle in the path of their propagation. This
makes them suitable for long-distance communication and found useful for the radar
systems in aircraft navigation.
Ans: When electric field oscillates, the water molecules in food also oscillates. When the frequency
of em oscillations matches natural frequency of water molecule, resonance takes place. The
oscillating water molecules impart thermal motion to the surrounding molecules of food. Hence,
food are heated and cooked.
Ans: Infrared radiation are used in photography at night and also in mist and fog
because they have long wavelength and low frequency. As they are having low
frequency, the energy associated with them is also low so they do not scatter much and
can penetrate appreciably through it.
Q.The frequency of an electromagnetic wave is 1.5 X 1018 Hz. Calculate wavelength in angstrom.
From relation c = λf
𝑐 3 x 108 m/s
We have, λ= 𝑓 = 1.5 X 1018 Hz = 2.0 x 10-10 m =2.0 A0
3 mark QUESTIONS
MCQ
Q1. The Amplitude of the magnetic field of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is
Bo = 500 μT. The amplitude of the electric field part of the wave is
(A)153 x 10 4 N/C
(a)X-rays
(b)Infrared rays
(c)Ultraviolet rays
(d)Radio waves
(a)400 m
(b)300m
(c)350m
(d)200
Ans: (b)300m
Q5. The part of the spectrum of the electromagnetic radiation used to cook food is
(a)ultraviolet rays
(b)cosmic rays
(c)X-rays
(d)microwaves
Ans: (d)microwaves
(a)Ultraviolet rays
(b)Infrared rays
(c)X-rays
b) Charge at rest
c) Charge at rest
d) None of these
a) Transverse nature
b) Electromagnetic nature
c) Longitudinal nature
Q9. In electromagnetic waves the phase difference between magnetic and electric field
vectors is
a) Zero
b)𝜋
c) 𝜋 /2
d) 𝜋 /4
Ans: a) Zero
(A)Radio waves
(C) UV rays
(D)X-rays
(a) colour
(c) speed
Write
A if Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
B if Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Q1. Assertion: Electromagnetic waves do not require medium for their propagation.
Ans :C
Ans: A
Ans: D
Ans: A
Reason : Gamma rays are of nuclear origin- but X-rays are produced to sudden deceleration of high
energy electrons while falling on a metal of high atomic number
Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: D
Ans: A
Q9. Assertion : The velocity of em wave depends on Electric and Magnetic properties of medium .
Ans: B
Q10.Assertion: Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves having the smallest wavelength.
Ans: C
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
The electromagnetic (EM) spectrum is the range of all types of EM radiation. Radiation is energy
that travels and spreads out as it goes – the visible light that comes from a lamp in your house and
the radio waves that come from a radio station are two types of electromagnetic radiation. The
other types of EM radiation that make up the electromagnetic spectrum are microwaves, infrared
light, ultraviolet rays, X- rays and gamma rays.
d) Yet to be discovered.
a) Radiotherapy(medicine).
b) Checking fractures.
c) Sterilisation.
d) Explosives.
Ans: d) Explosives.
3. Identify the pair having highest frequency and highest wavelength EM WAVES.
4. What physical quantity is the same for X rays of wavelength 10-10m, red light of wavelength 6800
Ao and radiowaves of wavelength 500m?
b) frequency (f)
c) Scattering
d) Energy (e)
5. which of the following is the best method for production of infrared waves
c) magnetron valve
Gamma rays are used in radiotherapy to treat cancer. They are used to spot tumors. They kill the
living cells and damage malignant tumor.
1.What is the source of gamma rays?
(D)klystron valve
(A) X-ray
(C) UV Ray
(D)Microwave
(A)X rays
(C) UV rays
(D)IR rays
(B) UV rays
(D)Microwave
(A)X ray
(C) UV ray
(D)Visible light
sin 𝑖
i.e µ = sin 𝑟
Refractive index of a medium can never be less than 1 because it is the ratio of speed of
light (c) in vacuum to the speed of light (v) in the medium and light travels with the fastest
speed in vacuum.
Relative refractive index: Relative refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1
is defined as is the ratio of speed of light (𝑣1 ) in medium 1 to the speed of light (𝑣2 ) in
𝑣 𝑛 sin 𝑖
medium. 𝑛21 = 𝑣1 = 𝑛2 =sin 𝑟
2 1
TIPS:
μ of optically rarer medium is lower and that of a denser medium is higher.
μ of denser medium w.r.t. rarer medium is more than 1 and that of rarer medium w.r.t.
denser medium is less than 1. (μair = μvacuum = 1)
In refraction, the velocity and wavelength of light change.
In refraction, the frequency and phase of light do not change.
aμm = ca / cm and aμm = λa / λm
𝑎 sin 𝑖
µ𝑏 =
sin 𝑟
𝑏 sin 𝑟
µ𝑎 =
sin 𝑖
Therefore,
aμb x bμa = 1 or aμ b = 1 / bμa
If a ray of light, after suffering any number of reflections and/or refractions has its path
reversed at any stage, it travels back to the source along the same path in the opposite
direction.
A natural consequence of the principle of reversibility is that the image and object positions
can be interchanged. These positions are called conjugate positions.
LATERAL SHIFT:
𝑡 sin 𝛿
𝑦 =
cos 𝑟1
𝑡 sin 𝑖1 − 𝑟1
𝑦 =
cos 𝑟1
Special Case:
If i1 is very small, then r1 is also very small.
i.e. sin(i1 – r1) = i1 – r1 and cos r1 = 1
So,
y = t (i1 – r1) or y = t i1(1 – 1 /aμb)
TIPS:
If the observer is in rarer medium and the object is in denser medium then ha < hr. (To a
bird, the fish appears to be nearer than actual depth.)
If the observer is in denser medium and the object is in rarer medium then ha > hr. (To a
fish, the bird appears to be farther than actual height.)
**Critical angle is the angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle of
refraction in the rarer medium is 90°.
Relation between Critical Angle and Refractive Index:
It may be defined as the phenomenon of reflection of light that takes place when a ray of light
travelling in a denser medium gets incident at the interface of the two media at an angle
greater than the critical angle for that pair of media.
*Optical fibre : It is a device which can transmit light signals from one point to another
with very little loss of light intensity.
** Mirage : It is an optical illusion observed in deserts and coal- tarred roads on a hot day .
The objects such as a tree appears inverted and the observer gets the impression as if the
inverted image has been formed by a pool of water .
Let O be a point object placed in the rarer medium on the principal axis of a
convex refracting surface of very small aperture and I be the real image of the
point object o formed as shown in fig.
From triangle AOC
i = α + γ [exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the two non-
adjacent interior angles of the triangle.]
i = tanα + tanγ [since aperture of the surface very small, α and γ are very small so
that α≈tan α and γ≈tan γ]
𝑀𝐴 𝑀𝐴 𝑀𝐴 𝑀𝐴
i= 𝑀𝑂 + [as tan 𝛼 = and tan 𝛽 = ] ……..(1)
𝑀𝐼 𝑀𝑂 𝑀𝐼
sin 𝑖 μ1
According to Snell’s Law, =
sin 𝑟 μ2
𝑖 μ1
= [since aperture of the surface very small, i and r are very small so that i≈sin i and
𝑟 μ2
r≈sin r]
Or µ1i = µ2r ………..(3)
Putting equation (1) and (2) in (3), replacing M by P and rearranging we get
µ1 µ2 µ2 − µ1
+ =
𝑃𝑂 𝑃𝐼 𝑃𝐶
Consider a point size object placed at the point O on the principal axis of a thin convex lens as
shown in the fig.
Since the lens is thin ,the point P1 lies very closed to the optical centre C of the lens. Therefore
,we write 𝑃1 𝑂= 𝐶𝑂, 𝑃1 𝐼1 = 𝐶𝐼1 and 𝑃1 𝐶1 = 𝐶𝐶1
Therefore , For refraction at the first refracting surface LP1N,we have,
µ1 µ2 µ2 − µ1
+ = (as if the image is formed in the denser medium)
𝐶𝑂 𝐶𝐼1 𝐶𝐶 1
For refraction at the second refracting surface LP2N, point I may be considered as the real
image of the virtual object I1 placed in the material of the lens. Actually material of lens does
µ µ µ −µ
not extend beyond the surface LP2N,so,it can be deduced that −𝑃1𝐼 + 𝑃 2𝐼 = −( 𝑃1 𝐶 2)
2 1 2 2 2
Since the lens is thin,the point P2 lies very closed to the optical centre C of the lens. Therefore
,we write 𝑃2 𝐼= 𝐶𝐼, 𝑃2 𝐼1= 𝐶𝐼1 and 𝑃2 𝐶2= 𝐶𝐶2
µ2 µ1 (µ2 −µ1 )
Therefore, + = (as if the object is in the denser medium and the image is
−𝐶𝐼1 𝐶𝐼 𝐶𝐶2
formed in the rarer medium)
Linear Magnification:
Linear magnification produced by a lens is defined as the ratio of the size of the image to the
size of the object.
𝐼 𝑣
𝑚= =
𝑂 𝑢
Magnification in terms of v and f:
𝑓−𝑣
𝑚=
𝑓
Magnification in terms of u and f:
𝑓
𝑚=
𝑓−𝑢
magnification (m) is negative for a real and inverted image and it is positive for a virtual and
erect image.
Power of a Lens:
Power of a lens is its ability to bend a ray of light falling on it. Power of a lens is equal to
the reciprocal of the focal length expressed in metre.
1
Power (P) = 𝑓(𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑒)
SI unit of power is diopter (D). The power of a convex lens is positive and that of a concave
lens is negative.
Lens formula: It is the formula that gives the relationship between object distance (u)
1 1 1
,image distance (v) and focal length (f) of a spherical lens. The formula is -𝑢=
𝑣 𝑓
Combination of thin lenses in contact If a number of thin lenses are placed in contact with
each other then the combination will behaved as a single lens of net focal length (F)and
power(P) given by
1 1 1 1
=𝑓 + 𝑓 + 𝑓 … ..
𝐹 1 2 3
P= 𝑃1 + 𝑃2 + 𝑃3 … … ..
PRISM : Prism is a homogeneous, transparent, refracting material (such as glass)
enclosed by two inclined plane refracting surfaces at some fixed angle called refracting
angle or angle of the prism.
In quadrilateral APOQ,
A + O = 180° …….(1)
(since N1 and N2 are normal)
In triangle OPQ,
r1 + r2 + O = 180° …….(2)
From (1) and (2),
A = r1 + r2
In triangle DPQ,
δ = (i - r1) + (e - r2)
A = r1 + r2 or A = 2r
r=A/2
Using the above conditions in equation , i + e = A + δ we get,
2 i = A + δm or i = (A + δm) / 2
According to Snell’s law,
sin 𝑖 sin 𝑖
𝜇 = =
sin 𝑟1 sin 𝑟
𝐴 + 𝛿𝑚
sin
𝜇= 2
𝐴
sin 2
OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS :
(REFLECTING TYPETELESCOPE):
𝒇
Magnifying Power: M=𝒇𝒐
𝒆
1 MARK QUESTIONS :
Q.Two thin lenses of power +5D and -3D are in contact. What is the focal length of the
combination?
Ans: P= P1+P2=+2D
F= 1/P=1/2 m=50cm
Q.Two thin convex lenses each of focal length 20 cm are placed in contact. Find the focal length of
the compound lens. 1
Ans: f= 10 cm
Q.When light comes from air to glass , the refracted ray is bent towards the normal.Why? 1
Ans: Because the speed of light decreases when light comes from air to glass.
Q. Where should an object be placed from a convex lens to form an image of same size? Can it
happen in case of a concave lens? 1
Ans: At centre of curvature.
No
2 mark questions :
Q.Two lenses of power 10D and -5D are in contact.
i) calculate the power of the new lens.
ii)Where should an object be held from the lens so as to obtain virtual image of magnification 2 ?
Ans: P= P1+P2=+5D
𝑣
Therefore, F= 1/P=1/5 m=20cm ; m=𝑢 = 2
1 1 1
Now, 𝑓 = 𝑣 - 𝑢 => u=-10 cm
Q.A converging lens has a focal length of 20cm in air.it is made up of material of refractive
index 1.5 . If it is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33, what will be its new focal
length?
Ans: hint:
1 μ𝑔 1 1
= (μ − 1) (𝑅 − 𝑅 ) ………….(i)
𝑓
𝑎 𝑎 1 2
1 μ𝑔 1 1
= (μ − 1) (𝑅 − ) ………….(ii)
𝑓𝑤 𝑤 1 𝑅2
Q.Show by drawing ray diagrams, how a totally reflecting glass prism can be used to
deviate a ray of light through i) 900 ii) 1800
Q.A ray-angled crown glass prism with critical angle 410 is placed before an object PQ , in
two positions as shown in the fig(i) and (ii). Trace the paths of the rays from P and Q
passing through the prisms in the two cases.
Q.
Ans:
Q. The magnifying power of an astronomical refracting telescope in the normal adjustment
position is 100.The distance between the objective and the eye-piece is 101 cm. Calculate
the focal lengths of the objective and of the eye-piece. 2
Ans: m=100, L=101 cm, fo = ? ,fe=?
𝒇
For normal adjustment position, m=𝒇𝒐 =100 => fo= 100fe
𝒆
Also , fo+fe=101
Thus , fo= 100cm and fe= 1cm
Q.Two lenses of focal length +0.2m and -0.25 m are place d in contact. Find the total power
of the combination. 2
Ans:
F1=+0.2m .f2= -0.25m
1 1 1 1 1
Now, 𝐹 =𝑓 + 𝑓 =0.2 + −0.25 =5-4=1m-1
1 2
F= 1m
Power ,P=1D
Q. Draw the labelled ray diagram of refracting type Astronomical telescope for distinct
vision. 2
Q. Draw a neat labelled ray diagram showing the image formation at infinity by a compound
microscope. 2
Q The surface of sun glasses is curved, yet their power is 0.Give reason 2
Ans:Both the surfaces of sunglasses are curved and their radii of curvature are equal.
1 1 1
The power of lens, P=𝑓 = (µ − 1) (𝑅 − 𝑅 )= 0 [as 𝑅1 = 𝑅2 ]
1 2
Hence, the power of sunglasses(lens) is 0
3 mark questions :
Q. Three light rays red(R), green (G) and blue(B) are incident on a right angled prism abc at
face ab. The refractive indices of the material pf the prism for red, green and blue
wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. Out of the three which colour ray will
emerge out of face ac? Justify your answer. Trace the path of these rays after passing
through face ab.
Angle of incidence at face ac for all three colours = 450
A ray will get transmitted if the angle of incidence for it is less than the critical angle
for it.
1
i.e. i< ic => sin i <sin ic= μ
1
Now, sin 450 =
√2
Hence, only the red colour(with µ= 1.38 which corresponds to the critical angle more than
450) ray will get transmitted . Blue and green colour rays will undergo total internal
reflection.
Q. Draw a neat labelled ray diagram showing the image formation at the least distance of
distinct vision by a compound microscope. Write the expression for its magnifying power
when the image is formed at infinity 2+1
Ans: 1st part……
−𝐿 𝐷
2nd part: M= 𝑓 x 𝑓
𝑜 𝑒
Q. Draw a neat labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope used in the normal
adjustment position and write the expression of its magnifying power.2+1
Q.The focal length of a concave mirror is f. If an object is placed at a distance x from the
principal focus away from the mirror, What is the ratio of the size of the image to the size of
the object? 3
Ans:Given:
u= -(x+f)
1 1 1
From mirror formula we get 𝑣+ 𝑢 = 𝑓
1 1 1
is + = [as u and f is taken –ve for a concave mirror]
𝑣 −(x+f) −𝑓
1 −𝑥 −f(x+f)
= f(x+f) => v =
𝑣 x
𝐼 𝑣 f(x+f)
𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑛, 𝑂=𝑢 =x(x+f) = f:x
Q. Obtain the relation between critical angle and refractive indices of two media. 3
Q. Discuss the difference between a refracting telescope and reflecting telescope by giving
three points 3
Refracting telescope
2)It suffers from chromatic aberration and hence the image obtained is multicoloured and
blurred.
3)It also suffers from spherical aberration also.It results in a blurred image.
Reflecting telescope
2)As the objective is not a lens ,it is free from chromatic aberration
Q Give three advantages of reflecting type of telescope over refracting type telescope.
3
Q.A converging lens has a focal length f in air.It is made up of material of refractive index
3/2 . If it is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3, what will be its new focal length?
3.
Ans:
1 μ𝑔 1 1
= (μ − 1) (𝑅 − ) ………….(i)
𝑓
𝑎 𝑎 1 𝑅2
1 μ𝑔 1 1
= (μ − 1) (𝑅 − ) ………….(ii) => 𝑓𝑤 = 4f
𝑓𝑤 𝑤 1 𝑅2
Q.Show by drawing ray diagrams, how a totally reflecting glass prism can be used to
deviate a ray of light through i) 900 ii) 1800 3
5 mark questions :
Q. Draw the ray diagram for refraction occurs from rarer to denser medium at a single
convex spherical refracting surface and derive the relation
μ1 μ μ −μ
+ 𝑣2 = 2 𝑅 1 where the symbols have their usual meaning. 1+4
−𝑢
SAMPLE MCQ
1. A glass lens is immersed in water. What will be the effect on the power of lens?
2. How does the magnifying power of a telescope change on increasing the linear diameter
of its
objective?
3. Which of the following colour of white light deviated most when passes through a prism?
4. Two lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and - 40cm are held in contact. If an object lies at
infinity, image
(A) infinity
(B) 20cm
(C) 40cm
(D) 60cm
(A) speed
(B) frequency
(C) wavelength
6. How does the focal length of a convex lens changes if monochromatic red light is used
instead of
violet light?
7. When a convex lens placed inside a transparent medium of refracting index greater than
that of its
own material
9. A thin prism of 12° angle gives a deviation of 6°. The refracting index of a material of the
prism
(A) 3/2
(B) 4/3
(C) 8/9
(D)9/8
10. The radius of curvature of the convex surface of a plano- convex lens ,whose focal
length Is
(A) 1.5m
(B) 0.15m
(C)0.5m
(D)1 .25m
11. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope in the normal adjustment position Is
100.The distance between objective & the eyepiece is 101cm.what is the focal length of
objective.
(A) 100cm
(B) 1cm
(C) 50 cm
(D) 11cm
12. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in contact. The effective
power of the
combination is:
(A) 45 D
(B) 9 D
(C) 19 D
(D)6 D
Ans: (B) 9 D
(A) violet
(B) red.
(C) orange
(D) yellow
15. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive
index of the lens.
ARQ
Write:
A if Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
B if Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason (R) : An object is always placed above the principal axis in the upward direction.
Ans: A
Ans: C
Ans: A
Reason (R): Air bubbles shine in water due to total internal reflection of light.
Ans: A
√3 . If light travels from diamond to liquid, total internal reflection will take place when
angle
of incidence is 30°.
Reason (R): μ = 1/sin C, where μ is the refractive index of diamond with respect to the
liquid
Ans: D
6. Assertion : Assertion : The optical instruments are used to increase the size of the image
of the object.
Reason : The optical instruments are used to increase the visual angle.
Ans: D
7. Assertion:- The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature R made of
Ans: B
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
The lenses forms different types of images when object placed at different locations. When
a ray is incident
parallel to the principal axis, then after refraction, it passes through the focus or appears to
come from the
focus.
When a ray goes through the optical centre of the lens, it passes without any deviation. If the
object is placed
between focus and optical center of the convex lens, erect and magnified image is formed.
As the object is brought closer to the convex lens from infinity to focus, the image moves
away from the
convex lens from focus to infinity. Also the size of image goes on increasing and the image
is always real
and inverted.
A concave lens always gives a virtual, erect and diminished image irrespective to the
position of the object.
(i) The location of image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at infinity is
(a) at focus
(b) at 2F
(ii) When the object is placed at the focus of concave lens, the image formed is
(iii) The size of image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at the focus of
convex lens is
(a) small
(iv) When the object is placed at 2F in front of convex lens, the location of image is
(a) at F
(c) at infinity
(v) At which location of object in front of concave lens, the image is formed between focus
and optical
centre
(b) at F
(c) at 2F
(d) infinity
2. Nowadays optical fibres are extensively used for transmitting audio and video signals
through long
distances. Optical fibres too make use of the phenomenon of total internal reflection. Optical
fibres are
fabricated with high quality composite glass/quartz fibres. Each fibre consists of a core (
Inner) and cladding
(outer).
When a signal in the form of light is directed at one end of the fibre at a suitable
angle, it undergoes repeated total internal reflections along the length of the fibre and finally
comes out at
Since light undergoes total internal reflection at each stage, there is no appreciable loss in
the intensity of the
light signal. Optical fibres are fabricated such that light reflected at one side of inner surface
strikes the other
at an angle larger than the critical angle. Even if the fibre is bent, light can easily travel
along its length.
b) Its critical angle for core with reference to cladding is too small
3. In optical fibre
Ans: (b) refractive index of core is kept more than that of cladding
4. If critical angle for core with reference to cladding is 60°. The refractive index of core
with respect to
(a)23
(b) 32
(c) 2
(d) 12
Ans: (a)23
A. Huygens principal
Wave front-
a) Wave front is defined as a surface of constant phase.
Depending on the shape of source of light wave front can be of three types-
When the source of light is point source the wave front is spherical.
At a large distance from the source a small portion of the sphere can be
considered as a plane wave front.
1.What type of wave front will emerge from a distant sources and a point source?
==================================================================
=
According to Huygens :-
F = section of
primary wave
front after time t
F2 = surface of
secondary wave
front
1) The idea of secondary wavelets for the propagation of a wave was first given by
2) Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate with
the same
(a) phase (b) amplitude (c) frequency (d) period Ans (a)
3) Light propagates rectilinearly, due to
(a) wave nature (b) wavelengths (c) velocity (d) frequency
Ans (a)
4) Which of the following is correct for light diverging from a point source?
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion for the distance squared.
(b) The wavefront is parabolic.
(c) The intensity at the wavelength does not depend on the distance.
(d) None of these. Ans (a)
AC = AC (common)
BC = AE = vt , AB = EC
BC =v1t
in the same time refracted wave front advance from A to D with speed v2
AD = v2t
𝐵𝐶 𝑉1 𝑡
In Δ ABC Sin i = =
𝐴𝐶 𝐴𝐶
𝐴𝐷 𝑉2 𝑡
In Δ ADC Sin r = 𝐴𝐶 = 𝐴𝐶
Thus we obtain
𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝑖 𝑉1 𝑡 𝐴𝐶 𝑉
= × = 𝑉1 …………….. (i)
sin 𝑟 𝐴𝐶 𝑉2 𝑡 2
𝐶
µ2 = 𝑉 (For Denser medium)
2
PRISM:
A prism bends wavefront towards its base after it pass through the prism.
CONVEX LENS:
When a plane wavefront passes through a convex lensit get converted into
conversing spherical wavefront.
Concave mirror:
After reflection from the concave mirror plane wavefront turns into a conversing
spherical wavefront.
MCQS
(d)none of these
Ans (c)
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Define the term wavefront. Using Huygens wave theory, verify the law of
reflection.
2. Define the term, "refractive index" of a medium. Verify Snell's law of refraction
when a plane wavefront is propagating from a denser to a rarer medium.
7. Using Huygens' principle draw a diagram showing how a plane wave gets
refracted when it is incident on the surface separating a rarer medium from a
denser medium• Hence verify Snell's law of refraction.
5 marks questions
(ii) Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus.
4. (a) State Huygens’ principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how
a plane wavefront incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when
it propagates from rare to denser medium. Hence verify Snell's law.
(b) When a light wave travels from rarer to denser medium,explain the following
with giving reasons:
(i) Does the decreases in speed imply a reduction in energy carried by the light
wave?
(ii) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted light same as the frequency of
incident light.
1. Define the term wave front. State Huygens’ principle of diffraction of light.
2. . Define the term wavefront. Using Huygens wave theory, verify the law of
reflection.
B. INTEREFRENCE OF LIGHT
Superposition principle
i.e 𝑦⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑦1 +𝑦 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗+𝑦
2 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗+𝑦 4 ……………
3 ⃗⃗⃗⃗
For example –
Coherent source
The source of light which emit light wave of same wavelength, same frequency
and in the same phase or having constant phase difference is called coherent source.
In this method the wave front is divided into two or more parts by using
mirror lens or biprism.
(b) By division of amplitude:
In this method the amplitude of incoming beam is divided into two or more
parts by partial reflection or refraction.
Interference of light
Solution- Two independent source of light cannot be coherent because light is emitted
from individual atoms when they return to ground state after excitation. Even the
smallest source of light contains billions and billions of such atoms which obviously
cannot emit light wave in the same phase and hence are non-coherent.
In the double slit experiment two long parallel slits illuminated by parallel
beam of monochromatic light are used as the source of light.
A series of dark and bright strips called brings are observed on the screen point on the
screen where crest fall on crest appear bright due to constructive interference and
called bright bring when crest fall on trough then distractive interference lake place
and appear as dark bring on screen
Bright and dark brings are placed alternately and they are equally spaced.
If S0 is source of white light interference fringes are coloured and their widths are
unequal
Condition for constructive and destructive interference-
Y1 = a Sin ωt
Y2 = b Sin (ωt+ Φ)
ω is angular frequency .
R = √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 + 2𝑎𝑏𝑐𝑜𝑠ɸ
As intensity ∝ (Amplitude)2
∴ I1∝ a2 = ka2
I2 ∝ b2 = kb2
And IR = KR2
= K (a2+b2+2ab Cosϕ)
∴ IR = I1+I2+2√𝐼1 𝐼2 Cosϕ
if X is path difference between the two wave reaching a point with phase difference
then
𝜆 𝜆
X= 2𝜋 ɸ = × 2𝑛𝜋 = 𝑛𝜆
2𝜋
X=nλ
I should be minimum .
Φ = π, 3π, 5π ---------
Φ =(2n+1)π
λ
∴ X= (2n+1) 2
Hence for destructive interference the path difference should be odd integral of half the
wavelength.
𝝓
Show that intensity of resultant wave in interference is given by I ∝4a2 cos2 𝟐
(V. Important)
When two wave of amplitude a and b superimpose then their resultant amplitude is
given by R = √𝒂𝟐 + 𝒃𝟐 + 𝟐𝒂𝒃𝒄𝒐𝒔ɸ
Suppose the amplitudes of two interfering waves are same i.e. a=b
𝜙 𝜙
R=√2𝑎2 (1 + 2𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 2 − 1) = √4𝑎2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 2
Since intensity is proportional to square of amplitude ∴ I ∝R2
𝜙
I ∝ 4a2 cos2 2
Constructive interference:-
R = Rmax = a + b
Destructive Interference:-
Cosϕ = −1
Rmin = (a – b)
∴ Imin ∝ R2min = kR 2= k (a – b) 2
Note:-
If w1 and w2 are width of two slits from which intensities of light I1&I2 emanate then -
𝑤1 𝐼1 𝑎2
= =
𝑤2 𝐼2 𝑏2
Before interference -
I = I1 +I2 = k a2 + k b2
= k (a2 +b2)
After interference -
Imax = k (a + b)2
Imin = k (a - b)2
𝐼𝑀𝐴𝑋 +𝐼𝑀𝐼𝑁 𝑘(𝑎+𝑏)2 +𝑘(𝑎−𝑏)2
Iav = = = k(a2+b2)
2 2
Thus total intensity of two wave is same before and after interference
Path difference = BP – AP
In Δ BPR
1
BF =(𝐵𝑅 2 + 𝑃𝑅 2 )2
1
𝑑 2 2
= {𝐷 + (𝑥 +
2
) }
2
1
𝑑 2 2
( 𝑥+ )
= D [1 + 2
]
𝐷2
Expanding binomially -
𝑑 2
1 (𝑥+ 2 )
BP = D [1 + 2 𝐷2
]
Similarly - Important point about YDSE
𝜆𝐷
x = (2n+1) 2𝑑 Where n= 0,1,2,3----
Fringe width -
The separation between two successive bright or dark fringes is called fringe
width.
β =𝑥𝑛+1 − 𝑥𝑛
(𝑛+1)𝜆𝐷 𝑛𝜆𝐷
= −
𝑑 𝑑
Points to remember:-
𝑛𝜆𝐷 𝜆𝐷 𝑛𝜆𝐷
= +𝑑 −
𝑑 𝑑
If S is size of source , B is distance between source
=
𝜆𝐷 and slit ,𝝀 is wavelength of light ,D is distance
𝑑
between slit and source
Similarly for Bright fringes - 𝒔 𝝀
Then interference take place only when - <
𝒃 𝑫
𝛽′ = X’n+1 – X’n
𝜆𝐷 𝜆𝐷 Angular width of a fringe is
= {2 (n + 1) + 1} 2𝑑 − (2n +1) 2𝑑
𝛃 𝝀
𝜽 = 𝑫= 𝑫
𝜆𝐷 𝜆𝐷
= (2n + 2+1) 2𝑑 − (2n +1) 2𝑑
𝜆𝐷 𝜆𝐷 𝜆𝐷 𝜆𝐷
= (2n + 1) 2𝑑 + 2 2𝑑 – (2𝑛 + 1) 2𝑑 = 𝑑
𝜆𝐷
𝛽′ = 𝑑
Note:-When source of white light is used then interference fringes will be coloured.
==============================================================
=
MCQS
Answer: b
The interference pattern is observed in the soap bubble, thick film, and wedge-
shaped film.
Answer: b
Explanation: Superposition principle is the basic principle used in the
interference of light. When the incoming light waves superimpose
constructively, the intensity increases while when they add destructively, it
decreases.
3. When Two waves of same amplitude add constructively, the intensity becomes
_____________
a) Double b) Half
Answer: c
Explanation: As we know, I ∝ A2. Thus, as the two waves add constructively, their
amplitude becomes twice and hence the intensity becomes four times
a) Straight b) Circular
c) Hyperbolic d) Elliptical
Answer: c
c) Colored fringes will be observed with a white bright fringe at the center
Answer: c
Explanation: When white light is used instead of monochromatic light, all the
seven constituent colours produce their interference pattern. At the centre of
the screen, all the wavelengths meet in phase and, therefore, a white bright
fringe is formed. Then the next fringe will be formed due to violet colour as the
wavelength is shortest for violet colour. This will be followed by indigo, blue till
red colour.
Answer: a
Explanation: When the white light is used, the central fringe is white in colour
while the rest are coloured. Thus, the central fringe can be identified using white
light.
7. Interference is observed only when the phase difference between the two
waves is zero.
a) True b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: For interference pattern, the phase difference between the two rays
must be constant. It is not necessary that the phase difference between the two
rays has to be zero.
a) Distance between the slits b) Distance between the slits and the
screen
Answer: d
9. A thin sheet of refractive index 1.5 and thickness 1 cm is placed in the path of
light. What is the path difference observed?
Answer: c
==============================================================
1 MARK QUESTIONS
1. In Young's double slit experiment, the path difference between two interfering
waves at a point on the screen is 5λ/2 , λ being wavelength of the light used. The
……………..dark fringe will lie at this point.
2. If one of the slits in Young's double slit experiment is fully closed, the new
pattern has central maximum in angular size.
3. Write the conditions on path difference under which (i) constructive (ii)
destructive interference occur in Young's double slit experiment.
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. The figure shows a modified Young's double slit experimental set-up. Here SS2 —
SSI = λ/4.
2. For a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum of the interference pattern
of a monochromatic light of wavelength λ occurs at an angle of λ /a . At
the same angle of λ/a we get a maximum for two narrow slits separated by a
distance 'a'. Explain.
(b) In Young's arrangement to produce interference pattern, show that dark and
bright fringes appearing on the screen are equally spaced.
5. Two slits are made one millimetre apart and the screen is placed one metre
away. What is the fringe separation when blue-green light of wavelength 500 nm
is used?
(b) What kind of fringes do you expect to observe if white light is used
instead of monochromatic light?
(a) In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular
width of the fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1 0. Find the spacing
between the two slits.
(b) Light of wavelength 500 Å propagating in air gets partly reflected from the
surface of water. How will the wavelengths and frequencies of the
reflected and refracted light be affected?
4. (a) ratio of the widths of two slits in Young's double slit experiment is 4 :
1. Evaluate the ratio of intensities at maxima and minima in the
interference pattern. (b) Does the appearance of bright and dark fringes
in the interference pattern violate, in any way, conservation of energy?
Explain.
5 marks questions
Find out the expression for the amplitude of the resultant displacement at a
point and show that the intensity at that point will be I= 4 a2 cos2 ϕ/2 .
Hence establish the conditions for constructive and destructive interference. (b)
What is the effect on the interference fringes in Young's double slit experiment
when (i) the width of the source slit is increased ; (ii) the monochromatic source
is replaced by a source of white light?
(ii) Light waves each of amplitude "a" and frequency ω, emanating from two
coherent light sources superpose at a point. If the displacements due to these
waves is given by Y1 = a cos ωt and Y2 = a cos (ωt +ϕ) where (ϕ) is the phase
difference between the two, obtain the expression for the resultant intensity at
the point.
4. (a) In Young's double slit experiment, describe briefly how bright and dark
fringes are obtained on the screen kept in front of a double slit. Hence obtain the
expression for the fringe width.
(b). The ratio of the intensities at minima to the maxima in the Young's double
slit experiment is 9 : 25. Find the ratio of the widths of the two slits. (Al 2014)
5. (a) In Young's double slit experiment, derive the condition for (i) constructive
interference and (ii) destructive interference at a point on the screen.
(b) . A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 800 nm and 600 nm is used to
obtain the interference fringes in a Young's double slit experiment on a screen
placed 1.4 m away. If the two slits are separated by 0.28 mm, calculate the least
distance from the central bright maximum where the bright fringes of the two
wavelengths coincide. (Al 2012)
6. (a) What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Young's double slit
experiment when
Formula recap
Resultant amplitude of resultant wave will be- R=
√𝒂𝟐 + 𝒃𝟐 + 𝟐𝒂𝒃𝒄𝒐𝒔ɸ where a and b are amplitude of two waves and ɸ is
phase difference between two waves.
For destructive interference the path difference should be odd integral of half the
𝛌
wavelength X= (2n+1) 𝟐
Diffraction of light:
At the point O which is at the bisector plane of the slit, all the waves reach at O
travelling equal optical path and hence are in phase. Thus O is the point of central
maximum.
Let us consider a point P which collects the waves originating from different
points of the slit at an angle θ. The optical path difference between the waves from A
and B reaching at P will be -
Position of minimum:
Let point P is such that path difference BN=𝜆. If we divide slit in two halves AC
and CB then for every point in the upper half AC there is corresponding point in the
𝜆
lower half of CB for which the path difference between the waves reaching P is or
2
phase difference 𝜋 . These wavelets add up distractively to produce minimum.
Similarly other minimum are located at points corresponding to asin θ = 2λ, 3λ, ------nλ
For nth minima- a sin θ = n λ
Position of maximum
If any other point P’ lies on screen (not shown in figure) is such that the path
𝟑𝝀
difference - a sin θ = then P, will be the position of first secondary maximum.
𝟐
Here it is assumed that whole wave is divided in to three equal parts so that path
𝜆
difference between first two Parts is . They will give rise to destructive interference.
2
The third part remains unused and they reinforce each other and produce first
secondary maximum.
a sin θ = λ
2𝜆𝐷
Width of central maximum - 2x = 𝑎
2𝜆
Hence 2θ = 𝑎
Interference Diffraction
1-It is due to super position of two coherent 1-It is due to superposition of secondary
waves. wavelets coming from different part of
same wave front.
2-All the fringes are of same intensity. 2-All the fringes are not of the same
intensity.
4-There is a good contrast between bright and 4-There is poor contrast between bright
dark fringes. and dark brings.
5-Width of interference fringes may or may not 5-Width of diffraction band is always
be equal (for white light fringes are unequal.) unequal.
Fresnel distance
The distance from the slit at which the spreading of light due to diffraction become
equal to the size of the slit is called Fresnel distance.
𝜆
First minimum is formed at angle ϴ= 𝑎
𝜆𝐷
After travelling a distance D the width acquired by the beam due to diffraction is .
𝑎
𝜆𝐷𝐹
At Fresnel distance ϴ=a, Hence a= 𝑎
𝑎2
Or DF = 𝜆
If distance between slit and screen is less than Fresnel distance than diffraction
effect may be regarded as absent. So ray optics may be regarded as limiting case of
wave optics.
2 marks questions
1. Draw the intensity pattern for single slit diffraction and double slit
interference. Hence, state two differences between interference and
diffraction patterns.
2. A parallel beam of light of 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the
first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the centre of the screen.
Calculate the width of the slit.
4. Two convex lenses of same focal length but of aperture Al and A2 (A2 < Al),
are used as the objective lenses in two astronomical telescope having
identical eyepieces. What is the ratio of their resolving power? Which
telescope will you prefer and why? Give reason.
(Delhi 2011)
3 marks questions
1. Two wavelengths of sodium light 590 nm and 596 nm are used, in turn to
study the diffraction taking place at a single slit of aperture 2 x 10 -4 m. The
distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m. Calculate the separation
between the positions of the first maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained
in the two cases. (2/3, Delhi 2013)
3. In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is reduced to half its
original width. How would this affect the size and intensity of the central
maximum?
4. (a) In a single slit diffraction pattern, how does the angular width of the
central maximum vary, when
(b) How is the diffraction pattern different from the interference pattern
obtained in Young's double slit experiment? (Delhi20i1C)
5 marks question
1. In the diffraction due to a single slit experiment, the aperture of the slit is 3
mm. If monochromatic light of wavelength 620 nm is incident normally on
the slit, calculate the separation between first order minima and the 3rd
order maxima on one side of the screen. The distance between the slit and
the screen is 1.5 m. (2/5, Delhi 2019)
2. (a) In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made
double the original width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the
central diffraction band? Explain.
3. When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distant
source, a bright spot in seen at the centre of the obstacle. Explain why.
(3/5, 2018)
9. (a) Explain diffraction of light due to a narrow single slit and the formation
of pattern of fringes on the screen.
(b). Find the relation for width of central maximum in terms of wavelength
'X' width of slit 'a' and separation between slit and screen 'D'.
(c). If the width of the slit is made double the original width, how does it
affect the size and intensity of the central band? (Foreign 2016)
(b). Show that the angular width of the first diffraction fringe is half that of
the central fringe.
11. (a) Describe briefly how a diffraction pattern is obtained on a screen due to a
single narrow slit illuminated by a monochromatic source of light. Hence
obtain the conditions for the angular width of secondary maxima and
secondary minima.
(b) Two wavelengths of sodium light of 590 nm and 596 nm are used in
turn to study the diffraction taking place at a single slit of aperture 2 x 10-6
m. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m. Calculate the
separation between the positions of first maxima of the diffraction pattern
obtained in the two cases.
(b) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and
the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen I m away. It is
observed that the first minimum is a distance of 2.5 mm away from the
centre. Find the width of the slit.
14. (a) Obtain the conditions for the bright and dark fringes in diffraction
pattern due to a single narrow slit illuminated by a monochromatic source.
15. Explain clearly why the secondary maxima go on becoming weaker with
increasing n. (b) When the width of the slit is made double, how would this
affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction band ? Justify.
(Foreign 2012)
practice TEST
===============================================================
Wave theory of electromagnetic radiations explained the phenomenon of interference,
diffraction and polarization. On the other hand, quantum theory of e.m. radiations
successfully explained the photoelectric effect, Compton effect, black body radiations, X-
ray spectra, etc. Thus, radiations have dual nature. i.e. wave and particle nature.
In some case light behave as a wave and in some case it behave as particle. This
nature of light is called dual nature of light.
Note:
In no experiment, matter exists both as a particle and as a wave simultaneously. It is
either the one or the other aspect. i.e. The two aspects are complementary to each other.
The phenomena of emission of electron from the surface of metal are called
electron emission.
i) Thermionic emission: -
This is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from
metal surface when metal surface is heated sufficiently.
ii) Field emission: -
It is the phenomenon of emission of electron from metal surface
under the application of strong electric field.
iii) Secondary emission: -
It is the phenomenon of emission of electron from metal surface
when fast moving electron strike the metal surface.
iv) Photo electric emission: -
It is the phenomenon of emission of electron from the surface of
metal when radiations of suitable frequency fall on metal surface.
The emitted electrons are called photoelectron and current so produced is
called photoelectric current.
The phenomenon of photoelectric effect was discovered by Heinrich Hertz.
Photons are the packets of energy emitted by a source of radiation. One quantum
of light radiation is called a photon.
Photoelectric effect:
Observation by Hertz
i. For a given metal and frequency of incident radiation the no. of electrons emitted
per second is directly proportional to the intensity of incident light .
OR
For a given metal photocurrent is directly proportional to intensity of incident
radiation.
ii. For a given metal below threshold frequency no emission of photo electron takes
place.
iii. Above threshold frequency maximum K.E of emitted photo electron is directly
proportional to the frequency of incident light.
iv. The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process. It takes place in less
than 10-9 second.
Work function: -
Threshold frequency: -
The certain minimum frequency of incident light below which no photo electron
ejects out from the given metal surface is called threshold frequency.
Stopping potential or cut off potential (Vo):
It is the minimum –ve potential V0 given to collector plate w.r.t. emitter
plate at which the photoelectric current becomes zero.
𝟏
At stopping potential KE= 𝟐 mv2 = eVo
iv)Intensity
v/s stopping potential (V0)
At constant frequency magnitude of stopping
potential is independent on the intensity of
incident radiation.
v) Time v/s photo electric current (I)
===============================================================
Photoelectric Effect
1 mark questions
===================================================================
1 mark questions
1. The figure shows the variation of stopping potential Vo with the frequency t) of
the incident radiations for two photosensitive metals P and Q. Which metal has
smaller threshold wavelength ? Justify your answer. (Al 2019)
2. Draw graphs showing variation of photoelectric current with applied voltage for
two incident radiations of equal frequency and different intensities. Mark the
graph for the radiation of higher intensity. (AI 2018)
3. Show on a plot the nature of variation of photoelectric current with the intensity
of radiation incident on a photosensitive surface. (Delhi 2013C)
7. (a) Define the terms, (i) threshold frequency and (ii) stopping potential in
photoelectric effect.
(ii) Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current versus the
intensity of incident radiation on a given photosensitive surface. (Delhi
2014) 14. Two monochromatic radiations of frequencies and > 02) and having
the same intensity are in turn, incident on a photosensitive surface to cause
photoelectric emission. Explain, giving reason, in which case (i) more number of
electrons will be emitted and (ii) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons will be more.
9. Sketch the graphs showing variation of stopping potential with frequency of
incident radiations for two photosensitive materials A and B having threshold
frequencies > DB. (i) In which case is the stopping potential more and why?
10. (ii) Does the slope of the graph depend on the nature of the material used ?
Explain. (Al 2016)
11. Plot a graph showing the variation of photoelectric current with intensity of
light. The work function for the following metals is given. Na : 2.75 ev and Mo
4.175 ev. Which of these will not give photoelectron emission from a
radiation Of wavelength 3300 Å from a laser beam? What happens the source of
laser beam is brought closer? (Foreign 2016)
12. Define the term "cut off frequency„ in photoelectric emission. Threshold
frequency of a metal is f. When the light of frequency 2f is incident on the metal
plate' the maximum velocity of photo-electron is v1 When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5f, the maximum velocity photoelectrons is v2.
Find the ratio of v1 :v2
===================================================================
When photon strikes on metal surface then its energy is spent in two ways
i) A part of energy equal to work function of metal is used in liberating the electron
from the metal surface.
ii) Rest part of energy is used in imparting the maximum K.E to the emitted photo
electron.
∴ E = Φo + K.E
1
hυ = Φo + 2 mv2
h υ0 = Φ0
1 1
∴ h υ = h υ0 + 2 mv2 ⇒ mv2max = h (υ – υ0)
2
(i) If ν < ν0, then ½ mv 2 max is negative, which is not possible. Therefore, for
photoelectric emission to take place ν > ν0 .
(ii) Since one photon emits one electron, so the number photoelectrons emitted per
second is directly proportional to the intensity of incident light.
𝟏
(iii) It is clear that 𝒎𝒗𝟐𝒎𝒂𝒙 ∝ ν as h and ν0 are constant. This shows that K.E. of the
𝟐
photoelectrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident light.
Relation between cut off Potential, frequency of incident radiation and threshold
frequency
K.Emax = h υ –Φ0
(i) According to wave theory, the free electron in the metal surface of the metal
should continuous absorb the incident energy. Show greater the intensity of
incident light, greater should be the energy absorbed by each electron .Thus
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron should increase with increase in
intensity of incident light. This contradicts experimental observation that
maximum KE is independent on intensity of incident light.
(ii) According to wave theory a sufficient instance beam of light should able to
impart enough energy to electron for their ejection. So threshold energy
should not exist. This contradicts the experimental observation.
(iii) In wave picture absorption of energy by electron takes place slowly and
electron takes much time to eject out. This contradicts experimental
observation that emission of electron is a instantaneous process.
The wave associated with moving particle is called matter wave or De-Broglie wave
ℎ
λ = 𝑚𝑣
ℎ ℎ
Matter waves are not
λ = 𝑚𝑐 ⇒ λ=𝑝 electromagnetic waves
because they are not
In case of material particle moving with speed v- produced by accelerated
ℎ ℎ charges.
P=mv ∴ λ=𝑝= 𝑚𝑣
According to De-Broglie -
ℎ
λ= 𝑝 ------- (i)
𝑝2
K.E = 2𝑚 [P = m v]
P2 = 2 m. K.E
P = √2𝑚𝐾. 𝐸
3 3
P = √2𝑚 × 2 𝐾𝑇 [K.E = 2 KT]
2𝑒𝑉
v= √ 𝑚
ℎ
λ=
√2𝑚𝑒𝑉
m = 9.1×10-31kg , e = 1.6×10-19 C
12.27
We get - λ= ×10-10m
√𝑉
12.27
= 𝐴0 [1A0 = 10-10m]
√𝑉
2 marks question
3. A proton and and α-particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Determine the
ratio of
3 marks question
1. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential. Which one
of the two has (i) greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it,
and (ii) lesser momentum? Justify your answer in each case.
(b) How is the momentum of a particle related with its de-Broglie wavelength?
Show the variation on a graph. (Al 2019)
2. An electron microscope uses electrons accelerated by a voltage of 50 KV
Determine the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons. Taking other
factors, such as numerical aperture etc. to be same, how does the resolving
power of an electron microscope compare with that of an optical microscope
which uses yellow light?
3. 77. An electron and a photon each have a wavelength 1.00 nm. Find (i) their
momenta, (ii) the energy of the photon and (iii) the kinetic energy of electron.
FORMULA RECAP
𝒉𝑪
1. Energy of photon, E = h υ = 𝝀
𝒉𝝂 𝒉
2. Momentum of photon, P = mc = =𝝀.
𝒄
𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓
3. Number of photon emitted per second, N = 𝑬𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚
𝑬 𝒉𝝂
4. Equivalent mass, m = 𝑪𝟐 = 𝑪𝟐
𝟏
5. At stopping potential KE= 𝟐 mv2 = eVo
1. Work function of sodium is 2.3 eV. Does it show photoelectric emission for orange
light (λ=6800 A0)
2. Find maximum frequency and minimum wavelength of X-ray produced by 30kev
electrons.
3. The cut-off potential in certain experiment is 1.5 V. Calculate maximum KE of emitted
electrons.
4. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 ×1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power
emitted is 2.0 ×10–3 W. (a) what is the energy of a photon in the light beam? (b) How
many photons per second, on an average, are emitted by the source?
5. The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Find (a) the threshold frequency for
caesium, and (b) the wavelength of the incident light if the photocurrent is brought to
zero by a stopping potential of 0.60 V
6. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with (a) an electron moving with a
speed of 5.4×106 m/s, and (b) a ball of mass 150 g travelling at 30.0 m/s ?
(Ans. (a) λ = 0.135 nm, (b) λ ’= 1.47 ×10–34 m )
7. An electron, an α-particle, and a proton have the same kinetic energy. Which of these
particles has the shortest de Broglie wavelength? ( Ans. α-particle)
8. A particle is moving three times as fast as an electron. The ratio of the de Broglie
wavelength of the particle to that of the electron is 1.813 × 10–4. Calculate the
particle’s mass and identify the particle. (Ans. m = 1.675 × 10–27 kg. The
particle, with this mass could be a proton or neutron )
9. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron, accelerated through a
potential difference of 100 volts? (Ans. 0.123nm)
10. Let an electron requires 5×10 joule energy to just escape from the irradiated
-19
metal. If photoelectron is emitted after 10-9 s of the incident light, calculate the rate
of absorption of energy. If this process is considered classically, the light energy is
assumed to be continuously distributed over the wave front. Now, the electron can
only absorb the light incident within a small area, say 10-19 m2 . Find the intensity of
illumination in order to see the photoelectric effect. (Ans. 5x10-9 Js-1m-2)
11. A beam of photons of intensity 2.5 W m-2 each of energy 10.6eV is incident on
1.0×10-4 m2 area of the surface having work function 5.2eV. If 0.5% of incident
photons emit photo-electrons, find the number of photons emitted in 1s. Find the
minimum and maximum energy of photo-electrons. (Ans 7.35×1011 )
12. The wavelength of a photon and de-Broglie wavelength of an electron have the
2𝜆𝑚𝑐
same value. Show that energy of photon is times the KE of electron.
ℎ
13. Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of the
incident radiation. What does the slope of line with frequency axis indicate?
14. U.V light of wavelength 200nm is incident on polished surface of Fe. Work function
of Fe is 4.5eV Find
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Find the (a) maximum frequency, and (b) minimum wavelength of X-rays produced
by 30 kV electrons.
2. The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6 ×1014Hz is
incident on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the (a)
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons, (b) Stopping potential, and (c)
maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons?
3. The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is the
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?
4. Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is produced by a helium-neon laser.
The power emitted is 9.42 mW. (a) Find the energy and momentum of each photon
in the light beam, (b) How many photons per second, on the average, arrive at a
target irradiated by this beam? (Assume the beam to have uniform cross-section
which is less than the target area ), and (c) How fast does a hydrogen atom have to
travel in order to have the same momentum as that of the photon?
5. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388 × 103 W/m2 .
How many photons (nearly) per square metre are incident on the Earth per second?
Assume that the photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength of 550 nm.
6. In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of the cut-off voltage versus
frequency of incident light is found to be 4.12 × 10–15 Vs. Calculate the value of
Planck’s constant.
7. A 100W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in all directions. The lamp is
located at the centre of a large sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is
incident on it. The wavelength of the sodium light is 589 nm. (a) What is the energy
per photon associated with the sodium light? (b) At what rate are the photons
delivered to the sphere?
8. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2
× 1014 Hz is incident on the metal, predict the cut off voltage for the photoelectric
emission.
9. The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric
emission for incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm?
10. Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. Electrons with a
maximum speed of 6.0 × 105 m/s are ejected from the surface. What is the threshold
frequency for photoemission of electrons?
11. Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon laser which is used in the
photoelectric effect. When light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the
stopping (cut-off) potential of photoelectrons is 0.38 V. Find the work function of the
material from which the emitter is made.
12. Calculate the (a) momentum, and (b) de Broglie wavelength of the electrons
accelerated through a potential difference of 56 V.
13. What is the (a) momentum, (b) speed, and (c) de Broglie wavelength of an electron
with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
14. The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of sodium is 589 nm. Find
the kinetic energy at which (a) an electron, and (b) a neutron, would have the same
de Broglie wavelength.
15. What is the de Broglie wavelength of (a) a bullet of mass 0.040 kg travelling at the
speed of 1.0 km/s, (b) a ball of mass 0.060 kg moving at a speed of 1.0 m/s, and (c) a
dust particle of mass 1.0 × 10–9 kg drifting with a speed of 2.2 m/s?
16. An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1.00 nm. Find (a) their
momentum, (b) the energy of the photon, and (c) the kinetic energy of electron.
17. (a) For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated de Broglie wavelength
be 1.40 × 10–10m? (b) Also find the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron, in thermal
equilibrium with matter, having an average kinetic energy of (3/2) k T at 300 K.
18. Show that the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de Broglie
wavelength of its quantum (photon).
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a nitrogen molecule in air at 300 K? Assume that
the molecule is moving with the root-mean square speed of molecules at this
temperature. (Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.0076 u)
CHAPTER -12 (ATOMS)
GIST of the chapter
Thomson’s model of atom- Every atom consists of fuels Its drawbacks: couldn’t explain large angle
charged sphere in which electrons are embedded like scattering & the origin of spectral series.
seeds in water melon.
r0=2kZe2
Distance of closest approach of the alpha particle in the
1/2mv2
α particle scattering experiment
b=kZe2cotθ/2
Impact parameter of the alpha particle
1/2mv2
Limitations-applicable only for hydrogen like
atoms & couldn’t explain the splitting of spectral
Bohr’s model of atom lines. (not consider electro static force among
the electrons)
Orbit radius of the electron around the nucleus r=e2/4πЄ0mv2, v=2πke2 / nh, r=n2h2mke2
Energy of the electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom En= -me4/8Є02n2h2 = -13.6/n2 eV
E=-2.18x10-18 J / n2
• Angular momentum of electron in any orbit is L = mvr = nh/2π, n=1,2,3,…
integral multiple of h/2π
foil.
ii. Only about 0.14% of incident α-particles
Scatters by more than one degree.
iii. About one α-particle in every 8000
α-particles deflects by 1800.
iv. The number of particles scattered at an angle
ϴ is such that
Conclusion:-
i. Most part of the atom is empty.
ii. Entire charge and mass of atom is concentrated in a tiny core called nucleus.
i. Every atom consists of a central core, called nucleus in which entire +ve charge and
mass of an atom is concentrated.
ii. Size of nucleus is of the order 10-15 meter.
iii. As atom is electrically neutral, the total –ve charge of electrons surrounding
nucleus is equal to total +ve charge on the nucleus.
iv. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular path.
Success of Rutherford atom model:
The classification of elements in the periodic table on the basis of their atomic
number, instead of their atomic weight, was justified.
Limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom:
According to Rutherford’s model of atom an electron is revolving around the nucleus and
has an accelerated motion. According to classical electromagnetic wave theory the
accelerated electron must radiate energy therefore radius of the circular path of revolving
electron should go on decreasing. The electron should then ultimately fall into the nucleus
resulting atom to collapse. But atom is stable and we cannot expect the atom to collapse.
Hence Rutherford atom model failed.
Another limitation of this model was that according to this model atom should emit
continuous spectrum but experimentally it was noted that spectrum of atom is line
spectrum.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--
Q 1. Why is the classical (Rutherford) model for an atom—of electron orbiting around the
nucleus—not able to explain the atomic structure
Ans. As the revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually
fall into the nucleus. So, it was not able to explain the atomic structure.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--
Distance of closest approach (r0)–
The minimum distance between α- particle and nucleus at which α-particle turn
back at 1800 is called distance of closest approach.
At distance of closest approach entire KE change into
electric potential energy.
If Z is atomic number of materials of the foil and +2e is
charge on α-particle then-
Impact parameter:
It is defined as the perpendicular distance of velocity
vector of the alpha –
particle from the centre of the nucleus when it is far
away from the atom.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q 1. What is the distance of closest approach when a 5Mev proton approaches a gold nucleus (Z=79)
(1)
-14
Ans r0 = 2.3 x 10 m.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
v = 2π kze2/nh
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q 1. The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10-11 m. What is the
radius of orbit in the second excited state?
Ans. 4.77 x 10-10 m
-ve sign indicate that electron is bound to the nucleus and is not free to move.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q 1. In Bohr’s theory of model of a Hydrogen atom, name the physical quantity which equals to an
integral multiple of h/2π? (1)
Ans: Angular momentum
Q 2. What is the relation between ‘n’ & radius ‘r’ of the orbit of electron in a Hydrogen atom according
to Bohr’s theory? (1)
Ans: r α n2
Q 3. The size of the nucleus can be estimated by the scattering of which particles (1)
Ans :α particles
Q 4. For an electron in the second orbit of hydrogen, what is the moment of linear momentum as per
the Bohr’s model? (1)
Ans: L=2(h/2π) =h/π (moment of linear momentum is angular momentum)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ionization Energy: -
The minimum energy required to remove an electron from outer most shell of atom
to make it an +vely charged species is called ionization energy.
Ionization energy of H-atom 𝐸∞ − 𝐸0 = 0 − (−13.6) = 13.6𝑒𝑉
Q 3. The wavelength of the first member of Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum is 6563Å.Calculate
the wavelength of the first member of Lyman series in the same spectrum.
Ans: 1215.4Å (2)
Q 4. The energy of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. (2)
a) What does the negative sign signify?
b) How much energy if required to take an electron in this atom from the ground state to the first
excited state?
Ans : a) The electron is bound to the nucleus by electrostatic force of attraction.
b) Ground state E1=-13.6 eV
First excited state E2 = -13.6/22 = -3.4 eV
Required energy ΔE = E2-E1
= -3.4 + 13.6 = 10.2 eV
Q 5. Find the ratio of maximum wavelength of Lyman series in hydrogen spectrum to the maximum
wavelength in Paschen Series? (2)
Ans: 7:108
Q 6. The energy levels of an atom are as shown below. a) Which of them will result in the transition of
a photon of wavelength 275 nm? b) Which transition corresponds to the emission of radiation
maximum wavelength?
(3)
0eV A
-2eV B C
-4.5eV
D
-10eV
Q 7. The spectrum of a star in the visible & the ultraviolet region was observed and the wavelength of
some of the lines that could be identified were found to be 824Å,970Å,1120Å,2504Å,5173Å
&6100Å.Which of these lines cannot belong to hydrogen spectrum? (3)
Ans: 970Å
(3)
Q 9. What is the energy possessed by an ē for n= ?
Ans E=0 (1)
Q 10. Calculate the ratio of wavelength of photon emitted due to transition of electrons of hydrogen
atom from
i) Second permitted level to first level
ii) Highest permitted level to second level (3)
-11
Q 11. The radius of inner most electron orbit of H2 atom is 5.3 x 10 m. What are radii for n=2, 3, 4?
Ans: rn = n2 r1 (3)
MCQ
1. The Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the region
Ans . (b)
3. Which one of the series of hydrogen spectrum is in the visible region
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series
Ans . (b)
4. The Rutherford -particle experiment shows that most of the -particles pass through almost
unscattered while some are scattered through large angles. What information does it give about
the structure of the atom
(a) Atom is hollow
(b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small centre called nucleus
(c) Nucleus is positively charged
(d) All the above
Ans . (d)
5. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of hydrogen is 6561 Å , the wavelength of
the second line of the series should be
(a) 13122 Å (b) 3280 Å
(c) 4860 Å (d) 2187 Å
Ans . (c)
6. In any Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy of the
electron is
(a) 1/2 (b) 2
(c) 1 / 2 (d) – 2
Ans . (c)
7. The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in Bohr's atom is R. The radius of the third orbit
will be
Ans . (c)
9. The minimum energy required to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground state is
a) Positron
b) Electron
c) Proton
d) Neutron
Q3. If number of protons in an atom is equal to (number of electrons + 2). Then the atom is said to be
a) Single ionized positive ion
b) Single ionized positive atom
c) Double ionized positive ion
d) Double ionized positive atom
Q4. Which is the most dense part of an atom?
a) The exact central part of the atom.
b) The region at the center of atom containing neutrons and protons.
c) Outer edge of the atom
d) None of the above
Answer: Q1 – a; Q2 – b; Q3 – c; Q4 – b
Q1. The formula which gives the wavelength of emitted photon when electron jumps from higher
nergy state to lower was given by
a) Balmer
b) Paschen
c) Lymen
d) Rydberg
Q2. What is true about Bohr’s atomic Model
a) His model was unique totally different from other
b) His model is a modification of Rutherford atomic model.
c) His model is a modification of Thomson atomic model.
d) None of the above
t1/2=0.693
Half life
λ
Mean life τ= 1/λ
Alpha,beta,gamma
3 types of radiations
Splitting of a heavy nucleus into lighter
elements.This process is made use of in Nuclear
reactor & Atom bomb
Nuclear Reactor is based upon controlled
nuclear chain reaction and has
1) Nuclear fuel
2) modulator
Nuclear fission
3) control rods
4) coolant
5) shielding
Fusing of lighter nuclei to form a heavy
nucleus.This process takes place in Stars &
Hydrogen bomb.
Controlled Thermonuclear Fusion
Atomic number:-
It is the no. of electrons or protons present in the atom. It is Rep. by Z .
Atomic mass number:-
It is the total number of proton and neutron present in the nucleus. It is
represented by A.
Nuclear size:-
Experimentally it was observed that volume of nucleus zXA is proportional to
its mass number.
Nuclear Density:-
Density of nuclear matter =𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑢𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑢𝑠/𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑢𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑢𝑠
= 1.2×10-15 m
This density of nuclear matter is the same for all elements
Isotopes:-
Atoms of the same element having sane atomic number but different mass
number are called isotopes .
Isotopes differ from one another in number of neutrons.
Isobar:-
Atoms of the different element which have the same atomic weight but different
atomic number are called isobar.
Einstein’s Mass Energy Equivalence:-
Acc. to Einstein mass and energy are interrelated by relation E = mc2.
Where c is the speed of light.
Nuclear Binding Energy:-
Binding energy of a nucleus is the energy with which nucleons are bounded in the
nucleus.
It is measured by the work done to separate the nucleons an infinite distance apart from
the nucleus so that they may not interact with each other .
Consider a nucleus ZXA Where A is atomic mass , Z is atomic number
Let - mp- mass of proton , mn – mass of neutron , MN - mass of nucleus
Mass defect ( Δm) = Mass of nucleon – Mass of nucleus
i.e. Δm = Zmp + (A-Z) mn – MN
Acc. to Einstein’s mass energy equivalence
E = ΔmC2
E = [Zmp + (A-Z) mn – MN] C2
Mass Defect:-
The difference between total mass of nucleus and mass of nucleus is called mass defect.
Mass defect ( Δm) = Mass of nucleon – Mass of nucleus
Mathematically - Δm = Zmp + (A-Z) mn – MN
Packing fraction:-
Packing fraction of nucleus is defined as the mass excess per nucleon.
Packing fraction =���� ������/���� ������ = �−�/�
Binding Energy per Nucleon :-
It is the ratio of the B.E of a
nucleus to the number of nucleons
=��/�
The BE per nucleon is a function of
mass number
Nuclear Force:-
Nuclear forces are strong forces of attraction which hold nucleons in the tiny
nucleus of an atom.
Properties of nuclear forces -
i) These forces are independent of charge.
ii) These are strongest forces in nature.
iii) These are short range forces.
iv) These forces are dependent on spin or angular momentum of nuclei.
v) These forces are non central forces.
vi) These are non-conservation forces.
vii) These forces do not obey inverse square law.
Nuclear forces arise on account of continuous exchange of particles between the
nucleons.
Nuclear Reaction :-
Nuclear reaction represents the transformation
of one stable nucleus into another nucleus .
In nuclear reaction all the following conservation laws are obeyed -
i. Conservation of linear momentum
ii. Conservation of total energy
iii. Conservation of charge
iv. Conservation of number of nucleons
Nuclear Energy:-
Energy obtained from the nucleus of an atom is called nuclear energy.
Two distinct ways of obtaining energy form nucleus are-
1) Nuclear fission . 2) Nuclear fusion .
Nuclear fission -
It is the phenomena of splitting of a heavy nucleus into two or more light nuclei
In nuclear fission reaction energy is +ve i.e. energy is released so it is also called
exothermic.
A thermal neutron can split a heavy nucleus of uranium (U-235) in to Ba-141 and Kr-92
Nuclear fusion -
It is the phenomena of fusing two or more lighter nuclei to form a single heavy
nucleus .
e.g. H + H → 1H2 + -1e2 + v + 0.42Me V
The essential condition for carrying out nuclear fusion is that the temperature of
material should be very high so that particle of material has enough energy to penetrate
the coulomb barrier.
As energy is supplied in nuclear fusion reaction so it is also called endothermic
reaction.
Nuclear Holocaust -
It refer to misuse of nuclear energy by nuclear weapons or other means the first
nuclear holocaust occurred on 6 Aug. 1945 in Hiroshima in Japan during Second World
War .
Thermal Neutrons:-
Slow moving neutrons or low energy neutrons are called thermal neutron .
Their energy ≈1/40 eV and velocity ≈ 2.2 km/s
Nuclear Reactor -
It is a devised which is used to produce nuclear energy for construction purpose .
Principle:- It’s principle is based on the controlled nuclear chain reaction .
Construction:-
Main parts of nuclear reactor are-
1) Nuclear fuel:-commonly used fuel in nuclear reactor are U-233, U-235, Pu-239
2) Moderator:-those materials which slow down fast moving neutrons are called
moderator usually D2O, graphite, deuterium and paraffin are used as moderator.
3) Control Rods:-They have ability to capture the slow neutrons Boron or
cadmium rods are used as control rods
4) Safety Rods:-These are made of materials which has high tendency to absorb
neutron. These rods reduce neutron reproduction factor to less than unity
5) Coolant:-Liquid which has high specific heat is used as coolant. It remove heat
from reactor core. Generally at low temp. Water and heavy water (D2O) serve as
coolant. At higher temp. liquid sodium is used as coolant .
6) Shielding:-The wholes reactor is covered with steel chamber which further
covered by concrete walls of width 2 to 2.5m.So that harmful radiation may not leak .
Working:-
When a slow neutron is made to fall on fuel then nuclear fission reaction starts.
The excess neutrons produced during the reaction are absorbed by control rods and
heat energy is removed by coolant.
To stop nuclear reaction cadmium rods are inserted.
Controlled nuclear chain reaction take place in nuclear reactor and energy thus
produced is used for constructive purpose.
In Bart nuclear reactor working is Apsara, Zerlina, CIR and Dhruva Fast Breeder
Reactor:-
This nuclear reactor use thorium or natural uranium as fuel. In this reactor fast moving
neutrons can cause nuclear fission reaction.
Hence moderator are not used in this reactor .
Nuclear chain reaction
When a thermal neutron strike with U – 235, it undergo nuclear fission reaction.
U -235 + 0n1→56 Ba141 +36 Kr92 + 3 0n1 +Q
The three neutrons produced during this reaction may bring about the fission of three
more u -235 nucleus which produce 9 neutron which again bring nuclear fission of 9
more uranium nuclear and this process continue. This continuous process is called
nuclear chain reaction.
Huge amount of energy is produced during this process.
An atom bomb work in the principle of uncontrolled nuclear chain reaction.
Critical Size: For chain reaction to occur, the size of the fissionable material must be
above the minimum size called ‘critical size’.
If the size of the material is less than the critical size, then all the neutrons are lost.
If the size is equal to the critical size, then the no. of neutrons produced is equal to
the no. of neutrons lost.
If the size is greater than the critical size, then the reproduction ratio of neutrons
is greater than 1 and chain reaction can occur.
Condition for self propagating nuclear chain reaction
i) Secondary neutrons should leak from system
ii) Fuel should be free from impurely where may absorb neutron
iii) The size of nuclear fuel (U-235) should be of certain minimum value such that
no. of neutron product is always larger than neutron absorbed.
Controlled Thermonuclear Fusion
If temperature of material is raised such that particle have enough energy due to
their thermal motion and they can penetrate the coulomb’s barrier this is called
Thermonuclear fusion.
Controlled thermonuclear fusion is the basis of fusion reactor which is source of
unlimited and pollution free energy
1H2 + 1H2 → 1H3 + 1H1 + 4.03 Mev
COMPOSITION OF NUCLEUS
1. What is the relation between the radius of the atom & the mass number? (1)
1/3
Ans: size α A
2. What is the ratio of the nuclear densities of two nuclei having mass numbers in the ratio 1:4?
Ans: 1:1 (1)
3. How many electrons, protons & neutrons are there in an element of atomic number (Z) 11& mass
number (A) 24? (1)
Hint: ne = np =11, nn = (A – Z) = 24 -11 = 13
4. Select the pairs of isotopes & isotones from the following: (2)
i. 13C6 ii.14N7 iii.30P15iv.31P15
Ans: isotopes-iii &iv,isotones-i& ii
5. By what factor must the mass number change for the nuclear radius to become twice? (2)
1
3 2 or 2 3 timeA
NUCLEAR REACTIONS
1. Why heavy water is often used in a nuclear reactor as a moderator? (1)
2. Why is neutron very effective as a bombarding particle in a nuclear reaction? (1)
Ans: Being neutral it won’t experience any electrostatic force of attraction or repulsion.
3. Why is the control rods made of cadmium? (1)
Ans: They have a very high affinity on neutrons.
4. Name the phenomenon by which the energy is produced in stars. (1)
Ans: Uncontrolled Nuclear fusion
5. Name the physical quantities that remain conserved in a nuclear reaction? (1)
6. What is neutron multiplication factor? For what value of this, a nuclear reactor is said to be critical?
Ans: K=1 (2)
7. 4 nuclei of an element fuse together to form a heavier nucleus. If the process is accompanied by
release of energy, which of the two: the parent or the daughter nuclei would have higher binding
energy per nucleon. Justify your answer. (2)
235
8. If 200MeV energy is released in the fission of single nucleus of 92𝑈, how much fission must occur
to produce a power of 1 kW. (3)
Questions From Previous Year Exams
MCQ
2. The particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical
properties are called
(a) Electrons (b) Protons
(c) Neutrons (d) None of the above
Ans . (c)
3. The neutron was discovered by
6. Which of the following has the mass closest in value to that of the positron
Ans . (b)
Ans . (b)
Ans . (d)
Q2. From R = R0 A1/3how can we conclude that density of almost all the nucleus is same
a) Volume being proportional to square of R density becomes independent of mass number A
b) Volume being proportional to cube of R density becomes independent of mass number A
c) Volume being proportional to R density becomes independent of mass number A
d) Density has no relation with R
Q3. What is the kinetic energy of α-particles bombarded towards the gold nucleus in Geiger and
Marsden classic experiment?
a) 8.8x10-13 Joule
b) 8.8x10-15 Joule
c) 8.8x10-13 Joule
d)8.1 x 10-13 Joule
e) 8.5x10-13 Joule
Answer : Q1 – b; Q2 – b; Q3 – a; Q4 – a
Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
9. Types of Semiconductors:
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Multiple Choice Questions:
Ans: (d)
2. Correct order of relative values of electrical conductivity σ for different types of solid
is:
(a) σ semiconductor > σ insulator> σ metal
(b) σ metal> σ semiconductor > σ insulator
(c) σ semiconductor >σ metal > σ insulator
(d) σ insulator> σ semiconductor >σmetal
Ans : (b)
Ans: (b)
Ans : (d)
Ans : (a)
6. The energy gap between the valence and conduction bands of a substance is 6 eV. The
substance is a:
(a) Conductor
(b) Semiconductor
(c) Insulator
(d) Superconductor
Ans : ©
Ans : ©
Ans : (b)
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(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion: The forbidden energy gap between valence and conduction bands is greater
in silicon than in germanium.
Reason: Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in
germanium.
Ans : (b)
2. Assertion: When the temperature of a semiconductor is increased, then its resistance
decreases.
Reason: The energy gap between valence and conduction bands is very small for
semiconductors.
Ans: (a)
3. Assertion: A p-type semiconductor has net positive charge on it.
Reason: p-type impurity atom has positive charge carriers (holes) in it.
Ans: (d)
4. Assertion: The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is greater
in silicon than in germanium.
Reason: Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in
germanium.
Ans: (b)
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Answers:
1. Elemental semiconductors
2. Fermi energy
3. 5.4 eV
4. N-type
5. P-type
1 Mark questions:
2 Mark questions:
3 Mark questions:
Numericals:
1. A semiconductor has equal electron and hole concentration of 2X108 m-3. On doping
with a certain impurity, the hole concentration increases to 4X1010 m-3.
(i) What type of semiconductor is obtained on doping?
(ii) Calculate the new electron hole concentration of the semiconductor.
(iii) How does the energy gap vary with doping?
Answers:
PN Junction
The device formed by fabricating atomically a wafer of P-type semiconductor to the wafer
of N-type semiconductor is known as P-N junction.
Symbolic Representation
Conduction of current in P_N Junction:
(i) In P-N junction the majority cotters in P-region and majority electrons in N-region start
diffusing due to concentration gradient and thermal disturbance towards N-region and P-
region respectively and combine respectively with electrons and cotters and become neutral.
(ii) In this process of neutralization there occurs deficiency of free current carriers near the
junction and layers of positive ions in N-region and negative ions in P-region are formed.
These ions are immobile. Due to this an imaginary battery or internal electric field is formed
at the junction which is directed from N to P.
(iii) Depletion layer:
(a) The region on both sides of P-N junction in which there is deficiency of free current
carriers, is known as the depletion layer.
(b) Its thickness is o –6)
(c) On two sides of it, there are ions of opposite nature. i.e. donor ion (+ve) on N-side and
acceptor ions (– ve) on P-side.
(d) This stops the free current carriers to crossover the junction and consequently a potential barrier
is formed at the junction.
(e) The potential difference between the ends of this layer is defined as the contact potential or
potential barrier (VB).
(f) The value of VB is from 0.1 to 0.7 volt which depends on the temperature of the junction. It also
depends on the nature of semiconductor and the doping concentration. For germanium and silicon
its values are 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively.
Biasing in p-n junction diode is defined as the application of external voltage to the junction
diode in a certain direction.This can be done in two ways:
(i) Forwarding Biasing
A p-n junction is said to be forward biased when p region of diode is
maintained at a higher potential with respect to the n region. In forward bias,
majority charge carriers in both the regions are pushed through the junction. The
depletion region’s width decreases and junction offers low resistance.
The graphs that show a plot of current flowing through the junction vs the potential
difference applied represent the I-V characteristics of junction diode.
I-V Graph:
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Ans : (d)
Ans : (b)
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(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion: A p-n junction diode can be used even at ultra high frequencies.
Reason: Capacitive reactance of p-n junction diode increases as frequency increases.
Ans: ©
2. Assertion: A hole on p-side of a p-n junction moves to n-side just an instant after
drifting of charge carriers occurs across junction.
Reason: Drifting of charge carriers reduces the concentration gradient across junction.
Ans: (a)
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Fill in the blanks:
1. In p-n junction, the physical distance from one side of the barrier to the other is
known as ___________ barrier.
2. A p-n junction is equivalent to a ___________ with p and n- regions acting as the
pates of a _________ and depletion region as the _______.
3. In pn junction, p-side is known as ___________ and n-side is known as
___________.
4. In germanium p-n diode, the ratio of reverse to forward resistance is ____________.
5. The height of potential barrier in p-n junction diode is ______to temperature in
Kelvin.
Answers:
1. Width of the
2. Capacitor, capacitor,dielectric medium
3. Anode, cathode
4. 4 x104:1
5. Proportional
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1 Mark questions:
1. Can the potential barrier across a p-n junction be measured by simply connecting a
voltmeter across the junction?
Ans: No, because the voltmeter must have a resistance very high compared to the junction
resistance, the latter being nearly infinite.
3. What happens to the width of depletion layer of s p-n junction when it is (i) Forward
biased, (ii) Reverse biased?
Ans: (i) When forward biased, the width of depletion layer decreases.
2 Mark questions:
1. How is forward biasing different from reverse biasing in a p-n junction diode?
2. Draw V-I characteristics for a p-n junction diode.
3. Name the important process that occurs during formation of a p-n junction. Define the
term barrier potential.
3 Mark questions:
1. (i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential
upto a critical voltage?
(ii)Why does reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?
Answer:
2. Describe briefly, with the help of a diagram, the role of two important processes
involved in the formation of a p-n junction.
5 Mark questions:
1. (a) State briefly the process involved in the formation of p-n junction explaining
clearly how depletion region is formed.
(b) Using the necessary circuit diagram, show how the V-I characteristics of a p-n
junction are obtained in (i) forward biasing (ii) Reverse Biasing.
How are these characteristics made use of in rectification?
2. (a) Distinguish between an intrinsic semiconductor and a p-type semiconductor. Give
reason why p-type semiconductor crystal is electrically neutral, although nh>> ne.
(b) Explain, how the heavy doping of both p- amd n- sides of a p-n junction diode
results in the electric field of the junction being extremely high even with a reverse
bias voltage of few volts.
Numericals:
1. The following table provides the set of values V and I obtained for a given diode.
Assuming the characteristics to be nearly linear, over this range, calculate the forward
and reverse bias resistance of the given diode.
V I
Answer:
Forward bias resistance: 20Ω
Reverse bias resistance: 8x106 Ω
2.
3.
**Diode as a
Rectifier:
The
process of converting alternating voltage/current into direct voltage/current is
called rectification.
*Principle:
A junction diode allows current to pass through it only when it is forward
biased.
Half-wave rectifier:
In half wave rectifier, AC voltage to be rectified is connected to the primary
coil of the step-down transformer and secondary coil is connected to the diode
through resistor RL across which output is obtained.
Working:
The p-n junction is forward biased during positive half cycle of the input AC,
as a result, the resistance in p-n junction becomes low and current flows so
that output is received across the load. During negative half cycle, the diode is
reverse biased. So, no output is received across the load.
Full-wave rectifier:
In the full wave rectifier, two p-n junction diodes D1 and D2 are used.
Working:
In the full wave rectifier, output is received across the load resistor throughout.
( In positive half cycle by D1 which is forward biased in this case even though
D2 is reverse biased and in negative half cycle by D2 which is forward biased
in this case even though D1 is reverse biased.)
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1 Mark questions:
Q. 1 If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, what will be the
fundamental frequency in the ripples ?
Ans: 100 Hz
5 Mark questions:
1. Explain with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a
half wave rectifier. Also give the input and output waveforms.
2. Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier and explain its working. Also, give
the input and output waveforms.
Numericals
1. A full wave rectifier uses two diodes, the internal resistance of each diode may be
assumed constant at 25Ω. The transformer r.m.s. secondary voltage from center tap to
each end ofteh secondary is 50 V and load resistance is 975 Ω. Find:
(i) Mean load current
(ii) Rms value of load current
2. In a full wave junction diode rectifier, the input a.c. voltage has r.m.s. value of 10 V.
The transformer used is a step up one having transformation ratio 1:2. Calculate the
D.C. voltage in the rectified output.
Answer: 18V
Special Purpose p-n Junction Diodes:
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Ans : (a)
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Assertion- Reason Questions:
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion: LED emits spontaneous radiation.
Reason: LED are forward biased p-n junctions.
Ans ;(a)
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Important Questions for slow bloomers:
1 Mark questions:
2 Mark questions:
1. Name the optoelectronic device used for detecting optical signals and mention the
biasing in which it is operated. Draw I-V characteristics.
(Hint: Photodiode , operated in reverse biasing).
2. Write any two important advantages of LEDs over the conventional incandescent low
power lamps.
3 Mark questions:
1. Explain with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a photodiode. Write briefly
how it is used to detect the optical signals.
2. How is a light emitting diode fabricated? Briefly state its working?
3. Describe the working principle of a solar cell. Mention three basic processes involved
in the generation of emf?
Answers: