Bee PDF Mcqs by Admin

12/8/2020 https://sppu.wheebox.com/WAC-3/allqusdownloadhtml.ils?
testNo=4535&code=1052000&showTest=320&actForm=edit&set=1
Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60
1000171_T1 BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGG.

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.
2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.
5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.
Q.no 1. If the effective value of the sinusoidal voltage is 111 Volts. Its average value is
A : 100 V
B : 123.21 V
C : 156.51 V
D : 78.48 V
Q.no 2. At higher frequencies , the value of capacitive reactance

Jo
A : increases
in
@
SP
B : decreases
P U
C : remains the same

B
TE
D : increases and also depends on supply voltage

C
H
-T
Q.no 3. From the following which is not the property of line of magnetic force ( Flux )
el
eg
A : They are elastic in nature

ra
m
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12/8/2020 https://sppu.wheebox.com/WAC-3/allqusdownloadhtml.ils?testNo=4535&code=1052000&showTest=320&actForm=edit&set=1
B : They generate from south pole and terminate at north pole
C : They never cross each other
D : They always form closed path
Q.no 4. The alternating voltage is given by v = 141.4 sin(314 t) Volt, its frequency will be
A : 60 Hz
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 150 Hz
Q.no 5. KCL is associated with____________
A : nodal analysis
B : mesh analysis
C : both nodal analysis & mesh analysis
D : can not say
Q.no 6. Flux density in magnetic circuit is measured in
A : meter / weber
B : Amp / meter
C : Tesla
D : weber / meter
Q.no 7. The value of Resistance Temperature Coefficient of material depends upon
A : length of the material

Jo
B : cross sectional area of the material

in
@
C : volume of the material

SP
P
D : nature of the material and temperature

U
B
TE
Q.no 8. The charging and discharging voltage of a capacitor follow

C
H
A : linear curve
-T
el
eg
B : sinusoidal curve
ra
m
C : exponential curve
D : parabolic curve
Q.no 9. When the supply frequency of transformer is doubled then the eddy current loss
A : remains same
B : is reduced by 50 percent
C : is doubled
D : Becomes 4 times the original
Q.no 10. The alternating current is given by i= 14.14 sin(314 t) Volt, its RMS value will be
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 10 Amp
C : 5 Amp
D : 7.07 Amp
Q.no 11. The form factor of a pure sinusoidal wave is
A:1
B : 1.11
C : 1.41
D : 1.21
Q.no 12. In a three phase star connected system the phase difference between phase voltages and
their respetive line voltages is
A : 30 degrees
B : 120 degrees
Jo
in
C : 60 degrees
@
SP
D : 45 degrees
P U
Q.no 13. The phase sequence R-B-Y denotes that emf of

B
TE
C
A : phase R lags that of phase B by 120 degrees

H
-T
B : phase R lags that of phase Y by 120 degrees

el
eg
ra
m
C : phase R leads that of phase B by 120 degrees
D : phase B leads that of phase R by 120 degrees
Q.no 14. The material used for making core of transformer is
A : Silicon steel
B : Copper
C : Manganin
D : Aluminium
Q.no 15. As moisture increases, insulation resistance of paper
A : increases
B : decreases
C : remaims constant
D : slightly increases
Q.no 16. The specific resistance of a material depends upon
A : The type of material, the area of cross section and the length of the conductor
B : The area of cross section and the length of the conductor only
C : The area of cross section of the conductor only
D : The nature of the material of the conductor only
Q.no 17. Frequency of the primary and secondary parameters of the transformer
A : increases with increase in load
B : decreases with increase in load

Jo
C : remains the same for all type of loads

in
@
D : depends on the power factor

SP
P
Q.no 18. In a transformer, which of the following windings has more number of turns ?
U
B
TE
A : Primary winding
C
H
B : Secondary winding
-T
el
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C : High-voltage winding
ra
m
D : Low-voltage winding
Q.no 19. In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one current source, all the
other voltage sources are
A : removed
B : shorted
C : open circuited
D : connected
Q.no 20. An ideal current source is that whose internal resistance is
A : infinite
B : zero
C : high
D : low
Q.no 21. During charging or discharging of a capacitor, no current actually passes through the
A : connecting wires
B : battery
C : dielectric
D : circuit switch
Q.no 22. The power factor in a c circuit is given by
A:Y/G
B:B/G
C:G/Y
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in
D:B/Y
@
SP
Q.no 23. Which of the material has negative temperature coefficient of resistance
P U
A : copper
B
TE
C
B : aluminium
H
-T
C : silver
el
eg
ra
m
D : PVC
Q.no 24. At resonance R-L-C series a c circuit behaves as
A : Purely inductive
B : Purely capacitive
C : Purely resistive
D : partly resistive and partly inductive
Q.no 25. For a fixed supply voltage, the current flowing through a conductor will decrease if
A : cross sectional area of the conductor is increased
B : length of the conductor is increased
C : length of the conductor is reduced
D : cross sectional area is increased and length is decreased
Q.no 26. Insulation resistance is the opposition to the flow of
A : Load current
B : Leakage current
C : Leakage flux
D : Conventional current
Q.no 27. Electrical network having only resistances without energy sources is known as
________________
A : Passive network
B : active network
C : lateral network
Jo
in
D : source network
@
SP
Q.no 28. Inductance (L) of the electro-magnetic circuit is given by

P U
A : Amp-turm
B
TE
C
B : Weber/turn
H
-T
C : Flux linkage per ampere

el
eg
ra
m
D : Tesla
Q.no 29. Thevenin resistance is found by ________
A : Shorting all voltage sources
B : Opening all current sources
C : Opening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
D : Shorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
Q.no 30. The direction of induced emf in a rotating conductor in stationary magnetic field is
given by
A : Flemings Right hand rule
B : Flemings Left hand rule
C : Right hand gripping rule
D : cork screw rule
Q.no 31. For better performance of a transformer , the voltage regulation must be
A : 1 percent
B : as high as possible
C : as low as possible
D : between 1 and 2 percent
Q.no 32. EMF induced in a coil because of self / own changing flux cutting is known as
A : Dynamically induced emf
B : Statically induced emf
C : Self induced emf

Jo
in
D : Mutually induced emf

@
SP
Q.no 33. 1 unit of electrical enrgy equal to how many joules

P U
A : 3.6 J
B
TE
C
B : 3.6 kJ
H
-T
C : 3.6 MJ
el
eg
ra
m
D : 3600 J
Q.no 34. If the frequency of power supply is 60 Hz , the time peroiod of one cycle will be
A : 0.02 sec
B : 20 msec
C : 16.67 msec
D : 0.1667 sec
Q.no 35. Thevenin’s theorem is true for __________
A : Linear networks
B : Non-Linear networks
C : Both linear networks and nonlinear networks
D : Neither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Q.no 36. What must be known in order to calculate the energy used by an electrical appliance?
A : Voltage and current
B : Current and time of operation
C : Power and time of operation
D : Current and resistance
Q.no 37. In case of electro-magnet
A : Magnetic field strength can not be altered
B : Flux direction can not be reversed
C : Flux direction can be reversed but field strength can not be altered
Jo
D : Flux direction can be reversed and field strength can be altered

in
@
Q.no 38. The impedance of a circuit is given by 15 + j 20 ohms. It means that the circuit is
SP
P
A : Purely capacitive
U
B
TE
B : Inductive
C
H
C : Resistive
-T
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eg
D : Purely inductive
ra
m
Q.no 39. Unit of electric field intensity is
A : Newton per Coulomb
B : Newton per meter
C : Coulomb per meter
D : Coulomb per square meter
Q.no 40. 1 kWh equal to
A : 3.6 MJ
B : 36 kJ
C : 360 J
D : 3600 J
Q.no 41. An ideal capacitor does not
A : store energy
B : dissipate energy
C : have electric field
D : contain electric flux
Q.no 42. Capacitor offers infinite reactance at frequency
A : 1000 MHz
B : 1 Hz
C : 0 Hz
D : 10000 MHz
Jo
Q.no 43. Certain coil has 100 turns and is carrying 4 ampere current, MMF of the coil is
in
@
A : 100 amp-turn
SP
P
B : 400 amp-turn
U
B
TE
C : 25 amp-turm
C
H
D : 40 amp-turn
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Q.no 44. For a three phase delta connected load , the line current is equal to ------------ times that
of its phase current.
A : 1.73
B : 1.42
C:2
D:3
Q.no 45. A step-up transformer is the transformer which increases the
A : Current
B : voltag
C : frequency
D : power
Q.no 46. The hot resistance of the filament of a bulb is higher than its cold resistance because the
temperature coefficient of the filament is
A : negative
B : zero
C : infinite
D : positive
Q.no 47. 100 mH inductor on 50 Hz supply offers inductive reactance
A : 37.680 ohms
B : 63.847 ohms
C : 318.47 ohms
Jo
D : 31.4 ohms
in
@
Q.no 48. A balanced star connected load is supplied from three phase 400 V 50 Hz system. Its
SP
phase voltage is
P U
A : 400 V
B
TE
C
B : 230.94 V
H
-T
C : 692.8 V
el
eg
ra
m
D : 100 V
Q.no 49. The direction of force on current carrying conductor is given by
D : cork screw rule
Q.no 50. In a transformer, which of the following windings has larger cross-sectional area ?
A : Primary winding
Q.no 51. A current of 2A flows through a 100 Ohm resistance for 10 hours. The energy consumed
is
A : 0.5 KWh
B : 4 KWh
C : 2 KWh
D : 0.02 KWh
Q.no 52. Which of the following lamps will have the least resistance at room temperature?
A : 25W, 220V
B : 100W, 220V
C : 200W, 220V
Jo
in
D : 60W, 220V
@
SP
Q.no 53. When Two coils are tightly coupled, then coefficient of coupling 'K' is
P U
A : Greater than 1
B
TE
C
B : Less than 1
H
-T
C : Equal to 0.5
el
eg
ra
m
D : Equal to 1
Q.no 54. The alternating voltage is given by v = 141.4 sin(314 t) Volt, its RMS value will be
A : 100 V
B : 141.4 V
C : 200 V
D : 90.21 V
Q.no 55. In a three phase balanced delta connected system all the phase currents are displaced
from each other by
A : 30 degrees
B : 45 degrees
C : 120 degrees
D : 60 degrees
Q.no 56. The capacitance between two plates increases with
A : Shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
B : Shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
C : Larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
D : Larger plate area and larger distance between plates
Q.no 57. If 03 equal resistances are connected in star, their equivalent each DELTA resistance
will be
A : three times
B : one third
Jo
C : two times
in
@
D : two third
SP
P
Q.no 58. When Two coils are magnetically isolated , then coefficient of coupling 'K' is
U
B
TE
A:0
C
H
B:1
-T
el
eg
C : less than 1
ra
m
D : 1.5
Q.no 59. The rms value of an ac sinusoidal current is 10 Amp. Its peak value is
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
D : 28.28 Amp
Q.no 60. If 03 equal resistances are connected in delta, their equivalent each STAR resistance will
be
A : one third
B : three times
C : two times
D : two third
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. The ratio of the area of a sinusoidal wave over a half-cycle to the time period of half cycle
is
A : r.m.s. value
B : Average value
C : Form factor
D : Instantineous value
Jo
in

@
SP

P U
B

TE
C
H

-T
el

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m
A : infinite
B : zero
C : high
D : low
Q.no 4. The maximum flux produced in the core of the transformer is
A : directly proportional to supply frequency
B : directly proportional to supply voltage
C : inversely proportional to load current
D : independent of supply voltage
Q.no 6. If the current in an electric bulb drops by 2 percent, then the power developed reduces by
A : 1 percent
B : 2 percent
C : 4 percent
D : 16 percent
Jo
A : 0.02 sec
in
@
B : 20 msec
SP
P
C : 16.67 msec
U
B
TE
D : 0.1667 sec
C
H

-T
el
eg
A : nodal analysis
ra
m
B : mesh analysis
D : can not say
Q.no 9. Which is a magnetic material
A : copper
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : iron
Q.no 10. Which is not a bilateral element?
A : Resistance
B : Inductor
C : Capacitor
D : Diode
Q.no 11. The primary voltage per turn in a step up transformer is
A : the same as secondary voltage per turn
B : greater than secondary voltage per turn
C : less than secondary voltage per turn
D : depends upon frequency of supply
Q.no 12. The ratio of electric flux density to electric field intensity is called
A : Permeability
Jo
B : Permittivity
in
@
C : Reluctance
SP
P
D : Capacitance
U
B
TE
C
H
A : Primary winding
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Q.no 14. Which of the material has positive temperature coefficient of resistance
A : copper
B : mica
C : pvc
D : dry paper
Q.no 15. Current variation in the one coil causes voltage induced in the other nearby coil is
known as
A : Mutually induced emf
B : Self induced voltage
C : Accidentally Induced emf
D : Dynamically induced emf
Q.no 16. The core of a good designed transformer is made up of
A : solid iron core
B : metallic strips without laminations
C : metallic strips with laminations
D : solid non metallic core

Jo
in

@
SP

P U

B
TE
C
H
-T
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ra
m
Q.no 19. In a magnetic circuit, MMF is …........
A : Directly proportional to voltage applied
B : Inversely proportional to the voltage applied
C : Directly proportional to the product of current in conductor and turns of the coil
D : Directly proportional to the ratio of current in conductor and turns of the coil
Q.no 20. The core of transformer is laminated to reduce
A : Eddy current loss
B : Hysteresis loss
C : Copper loss
D : Frictional loss
Q.no 21. The direct loading test on transfromer is conducted on
A : small capacity transformers only
B : large capacity transformers only
C : power transformers
D : distribution transformers
Q.no 22. If the active and apperent power of an a c circuit are equal in magnetude then its power
factor is
A : 0.5 lag
B : 0.707 lag
Jo
in
C : 0.8 lead
@
SP
D : unity
P U

B
TE
C
A : increases
H
-T
B : decreases
el
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ra
m
Q.no 24. A circuit content one or more sources of energy, then circuit is known as
A : passive
B : active
C : linear
D : non linear
Q.no 25. The phasor addition of all the phase voltages at any instant in three phase symmetrical
system is always
A:0
B:1
C : 120
D : 90
Q.no 26. For same rating , the size of three phase machine is ---------- to that of single phase
machine.
A : more
B : same
C : less
D : can not predict
Jo
in
@

SP
P

U
B
TE
Q.no 28. The amplitude factor of sinusoidal voltage is

C
H
A : 1.57
-T
el
eg
B : 1.11
ra
m
C : 0.636
D : 1.414
Q.no 29. A transformer primary circuit operates at
A : unity power factor
B : Power factor depending upon step up or step down voltage of transformer
C : a power factor which depends upon load
D : zero power factor
Q.no 30. Every current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field will
A : Induces voltage in a conductor
B : Experences force on the conductor
C : Conductor will be heated
D : Conductor will become magnet
A : Load current
B : Leakage current
Jo
C : Leakage flux
in
@
SP
P

U
B
TE
A : meter / weber
C
H
B : Amp / meter
-T
el
eg
C : Tesla
ra
m
D : weber / meter
A : copper
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : PVC
Q.no 35. Which of the following is the unitless quantity?
A : Absolute permittivity
B : Relative permittivity
C : Permittivity of free space
D : Absolute permeability
Q.no 37. Three resistances each of 12 ohms are connected in delta, their equivalent each
resistance in star will be--
A : 4 ohm
B : 12 ohm
C : 36 ohm
Jo
in
D : 6 ohm
@
SP
P
phase voltage is
U
B
TE
A : 400 V
C
H
B : 230.94 V
-T
el
eg
C : 692.8 V
ra
m
D : 100 V
A : 1.73
B : 1.42
C:2
D:3
A : store energy
Q.no 41. Three resistances each of 12 ohms are connected in star, their equivalent each resistance
in delta will be--
A : 6 ohm
B : 36 ohm
C : 12 ohm
D : 2 ohm
Q.no 42. In case of pure inductance connected across AC supply
A : Current and Voltage are out of phase
B : Current and Voltage are in phase

Jo
C : Current lead the voltage by 90 degrees

in
@
D : Current lags the voltage by 90 degrees

SP
P
Q.no 43. An ideal voltage source of 12V when connected to load resistance produce current of 1A.
U
If value of resistance is doubled then current is _____

B
TE
C
A : 1A
H
-T
B : 0A
el
eg
ra
m
C : 0.5A
D : 2A
A : 1000 MHz
B : 1 Hz
C : 0 Hz
D : 10000 MHz
B : Inductive
C : Resistive
A : 37.680 ohms
B : 63.847 ohms
Jo
C : 318.47 ohms
in
@
D : 31.4 ohms
SP
P

U
B
TE
A : Current
C
H
B : voltag
-T
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eg
C : frequency
ra
m
D : power
Q.no 50. An ideal current source of 5A flowing through a resistance of 100 ohm. If value of
resistance is doubled then current is _____
A : 5A
B : 10A
C : 20A
D : 0A
Q.no 51. The total capacitance of four capacitors each of 10 mF connected in series is
A : 0.4 mF
B : 2.5 mF
C : 40 mF
D : 10 mF
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
Jo
in
D : 28.28 Amp
@
SP
Q.no 53. A 10 mF, 20 mF, 25 mF, and 100 mF capacitor are in parallel. The total capacitance is
P U
A : 0.2 mF
B
TE
C
B : 5 mF
H
-T
C : 100 mF
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m
D : 155 mF
If its current is doubled then terminal voltage _____V
A:6
B : 12
C : 10
D : 13
be
A : one third
B : three times
C : two times
D : two third
is
A : 0.5 KWh
B : 4 KWh
C : 2 KWh
D : 0.02 KWh
Q.no 57. Three 100 ohm resistances are connected in star across 400 V three phase supply. If one
of the resistances is disconnected then the line current is
A : 2 Amp
Jo
B : 4 Amp
in
@
C : 8 Amp
SP
P
D : 6.92 Amp
U
B
TE
C
H
A : 100 V
-T
el
B : 141.4 V
eg
ra
m
C : 200 V
D : 90.21 V
Q.no 59. Power rating of the transformer is the product of
A : Primary voltage and secondary current
B : Secondary voltage and primary current
C : Secondary voltage and secondary current
D : Primary voltage and secondary voltage
Q.no 60. A series R-L circuit has resistance of 6 ohms and reactance of 8 ohms. The impedance of
the circuit is
A : 10 ohms
B : 14 ohms
C : 2 ohms
D : 13.43 ohms
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. If 10 resistances each of 15 ohm are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is--ohm
A : zero
B : 15
C : 150
D : 1.5

Jo
A : increases
in
@
SP
B : decreases
P U

B
TE

C
H
-T

el
eg

ra
m
Q.no 5. If 10 resistances each of 15 ohm are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is
A : zero
B : 15
C : 150
D : 1.5
Q.no 7. Pure inductor connected to 200V, 50Hz 1 phase AC supply draws a current of 20A. what
will be the power consumed by it
A : 200 Watt
Jo
in
B : 0 Watt
@
SP
C : 4000 Watt
P U
D : 2000 Watt
B
TE
C
Q.no 8. The peak factor of an alternating current is given by

H
-T
A : Irms / Iav
el
eg
ra
m
B : Iav / Irms
C : Im/Irms
D : Irms/Im
A : copper
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : PVC
A : meter / weber
B : Amp / meter
C : Tesla
D : weber / meter
A : Amp-turm
B : Weber/turn
D : Tesla
Q.no 12. The transformer rating is expressed in VA because
A : flux in the core is constant

Jo
B : frequency is constant
in
@
C : Losses are independent of load power factor

SP
P
D : power factor on both sides is the same

U
B
TE
C
H

-T
el
eg

ra
m
A:1
B : 1.11
C : 1.41
D : 1.21
Q.no 15. The unit of admittance is
A : ohm
B : siemens
C : ampere
D : micro farad
A : remains same
C : is doubled

Jo

in
@

SP
P
Q.no 18. In a transformer electrical power is transferred from one circuit to other without
U
change in the
B
TE
C
A : Voltage
H
-T
B : Current
el
eg
ra
m
C : Impedance
D : Frequency
Q.no 20. EMF induced in a conductor when magnetic field is stationary and conductor is moving
is known as
Q.no 22. Reluctance of the magnetic circuit is
A : Directly proportional to the cross sectional area
B : Directly proportional to the relative permeability

Jo
in
C : Inversely proportional to the length

@
SP
D : Inversely proportional to the relative permeability

P U

B
TE
C
A : infinite
H
-T
B : zero
el
eg
ra
m
C : high
D : low
A : nodal analysis
B : mesh analysis
D : can not say
Q.no 26. The ratio of the area of a sinusoidal wave over a half-cycle to the time period of half
cycle is
A : r.m.s. value
B : Average value
C : Form factor
A : 0.02 sec
B : 20 msec
Jo
in
C : 16.67 msec
@
SP
D : 0.1667 sec
P U
B
TE
given by
C
H

-T
el
eg

ra
m
D : cork screw rule
Q.no 29. According to KCL, Algebric sum of current at a _______ is zero.
A : Mesh
B : Branch
C : Path
D : Junction
A : solid iron core
Q.no 32. The no load input power to a transformer includes
A : iron loss
B : copper loss
Jo
C : iron and copper loss

in
@
D : no losses
SP
P

U
B
TE
A : increases
C
H
B : decreases
-T
el
eg
ra
m
A : 1.57
B : 1.11
C : 0.636
D : 1.414
A : 60 Hz
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 150 Hz
A : store energy
Q.no 37. Transformer works on the principle of
A : mutual induction
B : self-induction
C : magnetic induction
Jo
D : electrostatic induction
in
@
SP
P
A : Primary winding
U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
A : 1000 MHz
B : 1 Hz
C : 0 Hz
D : 10000 MHz
A : negative
B : zero
C : infinite
D : positive
A : 4 ohm
B : 12 ohm
C : 36 ohm
D : 6 ohm
A : 3.6 MJ
B : 36 kJ
C : 360 J
Jo
D : 3600 J
in
@
SP
P

U
B
TE

C
H

-T
el
eg

ra
m
Q.no 44. When 40 resistances each of 40 ohms are connected in parallel, their equivalent
resistance will be--
A : 20 ohm
B : 8 ohm
C : 1 ohm
D : 40 ohm
D : cork screw rule
Q.no 46. For a three phase star connected load , the relation between phase voltage and line
voltage is
A : Phase voltage = Line voltage
B : Phase voltage = 0.8 times the Line voltage
C : Phase voltage = 0.577 times the Line voltage
D : Phase voltage = 2 times the Line voltage
B : Inductive
C : Resistive
Jo
in
@
SP
in delta will be--

P U
A : 6 ohm
B
TE
C
B : 36 ohm
H
-T
C : 12 ohm
el
eg
ra
m
D : 2 ohm
A : 5A
B : 10A
C : 20A
D : 0A
Q.no 50. When Two coils are magnetically isolated, then coefficient of coupling 'K' is
A : Greater than 1
B : Less than 1
C : Equal to 0.5
D : Equal to zero
A:0
B:1
C : less than 1
D : 1.5
is
A : 0.5 KWh
B : 4 KWh
Jo
C : 2 KWh
in
@
D : 0.02 KWh
SP
P
Q.no 53. The total capacitance of four capacitors each of 10 mF connected in series is
U
B
TE
A : 0.4 mF
C
H
B : 2.5 mF
-T
el
eg
C : 40 mF
ra
m
D : 10 mF
Q.no 54. What will be current drawn by a 1 kW electric heater if its resistance in fully heated
condition is 40 ohm?
A : 5A
B : 2.5 A
C : 10A
D : 1.25A
will be
A : three times
B : one third
C : two times
D : two third
A:6
B : 12
C : 10
D : 13
A : 25W, 220V
B : 100W, 220V
Jo
in
C : 200W, 220V
@
SP
D : 60W, 220V
P U
B
TE
from each other by

C
H
A : 30 degrees
-T
el
B : 45 degrees
eg
ra
m
C : 120 degrees
D : 60 degrees
A : Greater than 1
B : Less than 1
C : Equal to 0.5
D : Equal to 1
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
D : 28.28 Amp
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
B : battery
C : dielectric
D : circuit switch

Jo
A : linear curve
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
D : parabolic curve
C
H
-T
el
is known as
eg
ra
m
A:Y/G
B:B/G
C:G/Y
D:B/Y
Q.no 5. The alternating current is given by i= 14.14 sin(377t) Volt, its frequency will be
A : 60 Hz
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 314 Hz
Q.no 6. In an ideal voltage source of 12V when connected to load resistance produce current of
1A. Its terminal voltage will be
A : 11 V
B : 12 V
C : 12.5 V
D : 11.5 V
Q.no 7. If 10 resistances each of 15 ohm are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is--ohm
Jo
in
A : zero
@
SP
B : 15
P U
C : 150
B
TE
C
D : 1.5
H
-T
Q.no 8. Insulation resistance of a cable should be

el
eg
ra
m
A : very high
B : very low
C : zero
D : can not be predicted
Q.no 9. As temperature increases, resistance of which materal increases
A : backelite
B : mica
C : cotton
D : copper
change in the
A : Voltage
B : Current
C : Impedance
D : Frequency
Q.no 11. For parallel combination of capacitors, which of the following remains constant?
A : Flux
B : Charge
C : Current
D : Voltage

Jo
in

@
SP

P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
cycle is
ra
m
A : r.m.s. value
B : Average value
C : Form factor
A : remains same
C : is doubled
A : Permeability
B : Permittivity
C : Reluctance
D : Capacitance
Q.no 17. The alternating current is given by i= 14.14 sin(314 t) Volt, its Average value will be
Jo
A : 14.14 Amp
in
@
B : 10 Amp
SP
P
C : 9 Amp
U
B
TE
D : 7.07 Amp
C
H

-T
el
eg
A : infinite
ra
m
B : zero
C : high
D : low
machine.
A : more
B : same
C : less
D : can not predict
A : zero
B : 15
C : 150
D : 1.5
A : 1.57
Jo
in
B : 1.11
@
SP
C : 0.636
P U
D : 1.414
B
TE
C
Q.no 23. Opposition experienced by flux to set in the core is known as

H
-T
A : Reluctance
el
eg
ra
m
B : Resistance
C : Reactance
D : Impedance
Q.no 24. Which is a magnetic material
A : copper
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : iron
A : nodal analysis
Jo
B : mesh analysis
in
@

SP
P
D : can not say

U
B
TE

C
H
A : Resistance
-T
el
eg
B : Inductor
ra
m
C : Capacitor
D : Diode
Q.no 30. The magnitude of Leakage current is generally in
A : kilo amper
B : amper
C : milli amper
D : micro amper
A : Load current
B : Leakage current
C : Leakage flux
Q.no 32. If the voltage applied to a 250 W,250 V incandescent lamp is 250 V, then the current
flowing at the instant of switching would be
A : 1.25 A
B : less than 1.25 A

Jo
in
C : more than or equal to 1.25 A

@
SP
D : More than 1.25 A

P U
Q.no 33. An ideal voltage source is that whose internal resistance is

B
TE
C
A : infinite
H
-T
B : zero
el
eg
ra
m
C : high
D : low
Q.no 34. Pure inductor connected to 200V, 50Hz 1 phase AC supply draws a current of 20A. what
will be the power consumed by it
A : 200 Watt
B : 0 Watt
C : 4000 Watt
D : 2000 Watt
A : increases
B : decreases
A : 37.680 ohms
B : 63.847 ohms
C : 318.47 ohms
D : 31.4 ohms
A : 20 ohm
Jo
B : 8 ohm
in
@
C : 1 ohm
SP
P
D : 40 ohm
U
B
TE
C
H

-T
el
eg

ra
m
A : Current
B : voltag
C : frequency
D : power
phase voltage is
A : 400 V
B : 230.94 V
C : 692.8 V
D : 100 V
A : 1000 MHz
B : 1 Hz
C : 0 Hz
D : 10000 MHz

Jo
in
@
SP

P U
B
TE

C
H
A : 4 ohm
-T
el
eg
B : 12 ohm
ra
m
C : 36 ohm
D : 6 ohm
A : 3.6 MJ
B : 36 kJ
C : 360 J
D : 3600 J
B : Inductive
C : Resistive
A : negative
B : zero
Jo
in
C : infinite
@
SP
D : positive
P U
B
TE
C
A : Greater than 1
H
-T
B : Less than 1
el
eg
ra
m
C : Equal to 0.5
D : Equal to zero
A : 5A
B : 10A
C : 20A
D : 0A
Q.no 50. The power factor of series R-L-C ac series circuit , at resonance is
A : unity
B : zero
C : 0.5 lagging
D : 0.5 leading
A : 5A
B : 2.5 A
C : 10A
D : 1.25A
A : 25W, 220V
Jo
B : 100W, 220V
in
@
C : 200W, 220V
SP
P
D : 60W, 220V
U
B
TE
C

H
-T
A : 2 Amp
el
eg
ra
m
B : 4 Amp
C : 8 Amp
D : 6.92 Amp
Q.no 54. Soft iron electro-magnet has cross sectional area 10 square centimeter and has 0.6 mWb
flux, what will be the flux density in the core
A : 0.6 Tesla
B : 6 Tesla
C : 3 Wb/sq. meter
D : 0.06 Tesla
will be
A : three times
B : one third
C : two times
D : two third
is
A : 0.5 KWh
B : 4 KWh
C : 2 KWh
D : 0.02 KWh
Jo
in
A : 100 V
@
SP
B : 141.4 V
P U
C : 200 V
B
TE
C
D : 90.21 V
H
-T
el
be
eg
ra
m
A : one third
B : three times
C : two times
D : two third

Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : 30 degrees
B : 120 degrees
C : 60 degrees
D : 45 degrees
Jo
in
A : 14.14 Amp
@
SP
B : 10 Amp
P U
B
C : 5 Amp
TE
C
H
D : 7.07 Amp
-T
el
eg
ra
m
A : Permeability
B : Permittivity
C : Reluctance
D : Capacitance
A : passive
B : active
C : linear
D : non linear
B : battery
C : dielectric
D : circuit switch
A : 1.25 A
Jo
in
A : Primary winding
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
Q.no 8. The insulation resistance of a single core cable is inversely proportional to its
el
eg
ra
m
A : width
B : thickness
C : length
D : resistivity
A : increases
B : decreases
B : Hysteresis loss
C : Copper loss
D : Frictional loss

Jo
A : infinite
in
@
B : zero
SP
P
C : high
U
B
TE
D : low
C
H

-T
el
eg
A : linear curve
ra
m
D : parabolic curve
A : copper
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : PVC
Q.no 15. If the current in an electric bulb drops by 2 percent, then the power developed reduces
by
A : 1 percent
B : 2 percent
C : 4 percent
D : 16 percent
system is always
A:0
B:1
C : 120
D : 90
Jo
A : 60 Hz
in
@
B : 50 Hz
SP
P
C : 100 Hz
U
B
TE
D : 150 Hz
C
H
-T
________________
el
eg
ra
m
A : Passive network
B : active network
C : lateral network
D : source network
A : increases
B : decreases
change in the
Jo
in
A : Voltage
@
SP
B : Current
P U
C : Impedance
B
TE
C
D : Frequency
H
-T
Q.no 23. Which of the material has almost zero temperature coefficient of resistance
el
eg
ra
m
A : copper
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : Nichrome
A : Silicon steel
B : Copper
C : Manganin
D : Aluminium
A : ohm
B : siemens
C : ampere
D : micro farad

Jo

in
@

SP
P

U
B
TE

C
H

-T
el
eg
A : Load current
ra
m
B : Leakage current
C : Leakage flux
machine.
A : more
B : same
C : less
D : can not predict
A : 60 Hz
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 314 Hz
A : 1 percent
Jo
in
@
SP
P U

B
TE
C
H
cycle is
-T
el
eg
A : r.m.s. value
ra
m
B : Average value
C : Form factor
A : Resistance
B : Inductor
C : Capacitor
D : Diode
voltage is

Jo
in

@
SP

P U

B
TE
C

H
-T
A : store energy
el
eg
ra
m
A : 3.6 MJ
B : 36 kJ
C : 360 J
D : 3600 J
A : 1A
B : 0A
C : 0.5A
D : 2A
Jo
A : 4 ohm
in
@
B : 12 ohm
SP
P
C : 36 ohm
U
B
TE
D : 6 ohm
C
H
-T
el
eg
A : unity
ra
m
B : zero
C : 0.5 lagging
D : 0.5 leading
A : 5A
B : 10A
C : 20A
D : 0A
B : self-induction
A : Current
B : voltag
C : frequency
D : power
A : Greater than 1
Jo
in
B : Less than 1
@
SP
C : Equal to 0.5
P U
D : Equal to zero
B
TE
C
H

-T
el
eg
A : negative
ra
m
B : zero
C : infinite
D : positive
A : 20 ohm
B : 8 ohm
C : 1 ohm
D : 40 ohm
A : Primary winding
A : Greater than 1
Jo
in
B : Less than 1
@
SP
C : Equal to 0.5
P U
D : Equal to 1
B
TE
C
H
from each other by

-T
el
eg
A : 30 degrees
ra
m
B : 45 degrees
C : 120 degrees
D : 60 degrees
A : 0.6 Tesla
B : 6 Tesla
C : 3 Wb/sq. meter
D : 0.06 Tesla
A : 2 Amp
B : 4 Amp
C : 8 Amp
D : 6.92 Amp
A : 0.2 mF
B : 5 mF
C : 100 mF
D : 155 mF

Jo

in
@

SP
P

U
B
TE

C
H
-T
el
eg
A : 14.14 Amp
ra
m
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
D : 28.28 Amp
is
A : 0.5 KWh
B : 4 KWh
C : 2 KWh
D : 0.02 KWh
the circuit is
A : 10 ohms
B : 14 ohms
C : 2 ohms
D : 13.43 ohms
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. 1 unit of electrical enrgy equal to how many joules
A : 3.6 J
B : 3.6 kJ
C : 3.6 MJ
D : 3600 J
Jo
A : width
in
@
SP
B : thickness
P U
C : length
B
TE
D : resistivity
C
H
-T

el
eg
A : Load current
ra
m
B : Leakage current
C : Leakage flux
Q.no 4. Current variation in the one coil causes voltage induced in the other nearby coil is known
as
A : zero
B : 15
C : 150
D : 1.5
A : Permeability
B : Permittivity
C : Reluctance
D : Capacitance

Jo
in

@
SP

P U

B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : Silicon steel
B : Copper
C : Manganin
D : Aluminium
A : removed
B : shorted
C : open circuited
D : connected
A : ohm
B : siemens
C : ampere
D : micro farad
A : copper
Jo
in
B : mica
@
SP
C : pvc
P U
D : dry paper
B
TE
C
H
by
-T
el
eg
A : 1 percent
ra
m
B : 2 percent
C : 4 percent
D : 16 percent
Q.no 15. KVL is associated with____________
A : mesh analysis,
B : nodal analysis
D : can not say
Q.no 16. The alternating voltage is given by v = 141.4 sin(314 t) Volt, its average value will be
A : 90.21 V
B : 99.23 V
C : 100 V
D : 141.4 V
system is always
A:0
Jo
in
B:1
@
SP
C : 120
P U
D : 90
B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : kilo amper
B : amper
C : milli amper
D : micro amper
A : meter / weber
B : Amp / meter
C : Tesla
D : weber / meter
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 10 Amp
C : 5 Amp
D : 7.07 Amp
________________
A : Passive network
Jo
in
B : active network
@
SP
C : lateral network
P U
D : source network
B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : increases
B : decreases
Q.no 25. 100 micro farad capacitor on 50Hz supply offers capacitive reactance
A : 21.33 ohms
B : 3.18 47 ohms
C : 15.92 ohms
D : 31.847 ohms
A:1
Jo
B : 1.11
in
@
C : 1.41
SP
P
D : 1.21
U
B
TE
C
H
A : 14.14 Amp
-T
el
eg
B : 10 Amp
ra
m
C : 9 Amp
D : 7.07 Amp
A:Y/G
B:B/G
C:G/Y
D:B/Y
A : 0.02 sec
B : 20 msec
C : 16.67 msec
D : 0.1667 sec
A : solid iron core

Jo

in
@

SP
P
U

B
TE
C
A : 30 degrees
H
-T
B : 120 degrees
el
eg
ra
m
C : 60 degrees
D : 45 degrees
A : 1A
B : 0A
Jo
in
C : 0.5A
@
SP
D : 2A
P U
B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : 20 ohm
B : 8 ohm
C : 1 ohm
D : 40 ohm
A : 4 ohm
B : 12 ohm
C : 36 ohm
D : 6 ohm
A : 1000 MHz
B : 1 Hz
C : 0 Hz
D : 10000 MHz

Jo

in
@

SP
P
D : cork screw rule

U
B
TE
C
H
A : Greater than 1
-T
el
eg
B : Less than 1
ra
m
C : Equal to 0.5
D : Equal to zero
A : unity
B : zero
C : 0.5 lagging
D : 0.5 leading
A : 3.6 MJ
B : 36 kJ
C : 360 J
D : 3600 J
A : 5A
B : 10A
Jo
in
C : 20A
@
SP
D : 0A
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
B : Inductive
el
eg
ra
m
C : Resistive
A : 100 amp-turn
B : 400 amp-turn
C : 25 amp-turm
D : 40 amp-turn
A : Primary winding
the circuit is
A : 10 ohms
B : 14 ohms
C : 2 ohms
D : 13.43 ohms
A : Greater than 1
B : Less than 1
Jo
in
C : Equal to 0.5
@
SP
D : Equal to 1
P U
B
TE

C
H
A:6
-T
el
eg
B : 12
ra
m
C : 10
D : 13
be
A : one third
B : three times
C : two times
D : two third
will be
A : three times
B : one third
C : two times
D : two third
A:0
Jo
B:1
in
@
C : less than 1
SP
P
D : 1.5
U
B
TE

C
H

-T
el
eg

ra
m
A : 25W, 220V
B : 100W, 220V
C : 200W, 220V
D : 60W, 220V
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
D : 28.28 Amp
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

Jo
A : 1 percent
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE

C
H
-T

el
eg
A : ohm
ra
m
B : siemens
C : ampere
D : micro farad
Q.no 6. The rms value of sinusoidal alternating current is given by the relation
A : 0.5 times the Maximum value of current
B : 0.637 times the Maximum value of current
C : 0.577 times the Maximum value of current
D : 0.707 times the Maximum value of current
system is always
A:0
Jo
in
B:1
@
SP
C : 120
P U
D : 90
B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
Q.no 9. Which of the material has almost zero temperature coefficient of resistance
A : copper
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : Nichrome
A:1
B : 1.11
C : 1.41
D : 1.21
A : Amp-turm
B : Weber/turn
D : Tesla

Jo

in
@

SP
P

U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
B : battery
ra
m
C : dielectric
D : circuit switch
cycle is
A : r.m.s. value
B : Average value
C : Form factor
A : Permeability
B : Permittivity
Jo
in
C : Reluctance
@
SP
D : Capacitance
P U
Q.no 18. The laminated transformer core is made up of

B
TE
C
A : Chrome sheet steel

H
-T
B : Silicon sheet steel

el
eg
ra
m
C : Nickel alloy steel stamping
D : Low carbon steel
A : infinite
B : zero
C : high
D : low
A : 1.25 A
A : mesh analysis,
B : nodal analysis
Jo
in

@
SP
D : can not say

P U

B
TE
C
A : kilo amper
H
-T
B : amper
el
eg
ra
m
C : milli amper
D : micro amper
A : removed
B : shorted
C : open circuited
D : connected
change in the
A : Voltage
B : Current
C : Impedance
D : Frequency

Jo

in
@

SP
P

U
B
TE
C
H
A : 90.21 V
-T
el
eg
B : 99.23 V
ra
m
C : 100 V
D : 141.4 V
factor is
A : 0.5 lag
B : 0.707 lag
C : 0.8 lead
D : unity
A : meter / weber
B : Amp / meter
C : Tesla
D : weber / meter
A : Linear networks
Jo
in

@
SP

P U
B
TE
C
A : copper
H
-T
B : aluminium
el
eg
ra
m
C : silver
D : PVC
________________
A : Passive network
B : active network
C : lateral network
D : source network
A : iron loss
B : copper loss
D : no losses
phase voltage is
A : 400 V
B : 230.94 V
C : 692.8 V
D : 100 V
A : 3.6 MJ
Jo
B : 36 kJ
in
@
C : 360 J
SP
P
D : 3600 J
U
B
TE

C
H

-T
el
eg

ra
m
D : cork screw rule
A : Primary winding
voltage is
A : 100 amp-turn
B : 400 amp-turn
C : 25 amp-turm
D : 40 amp-turn
A : Current
B : voltag
Jo
in
C : frequency
@
SP
D : power
P U
B
TE

C
H
A : negative
-T
el
eg
B : zero
ra
m
C : infinite
D : positive
A : 37.680 ohms
B : 63.847 ohms
C : 318.47 ohms
D : 31.4 ohms
in delta will be--
A : 6 ohm
B : 36 ohm
C : 12 ohm
D : 2 ohm
B : self-induction
Jo
in
@
SP
P U

B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : Greater than 1
B : Less than 1
C : Equal to 0.5
D : Equal to zero
A:6
B : 12
C : 10
D : 13

Jo
in

@
SP

P U
B
TE
will be
C
H
A : three times
-T
el
eg
B : one third
ra
m
C : two times
D : two third
the circuit is
A : 10 ohms
B : 14 ohms
C : 2 ohms
D : 13.43 ohms
A : 100 V
B : 141.4 V
C : 200 V
D : 90.21 V
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
D : 28.28 Amp
A : 0.2 mF
B : 5 mF
Jo
in
C : 100 mF
@
SP
D : 155 mF
P U

B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : 25W, 220V
B : 100W, 220V
C : 200W, 220V
D : 60W, 220V
be
A : one third
B : three times
C : two times
D : two third
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 10 Amp
C : 9 Amp
D : 7.07 Amp

Jo

in
@
SP
B : Hysteresis loss
P U
C : Copper loss
B
TE
D : Frictional loss
C
H
-T

el
eg
A : Amp-turm
ra
m
B : Weber/turn
D : Tesla
A : passive
B : active
C : linear
D : non linear
A : nodal analysis
Jo
B : mesh analysis
in
@

SP
P
D : can not say

U
B
TE
C
H
A : 60 Hz
-T
el
eg
B : 50 Hz
ra
m
C : 100 Hz
D : 150 Hz
A : Silicon steel
B : Copper
C : Manganin
D : Aluminium
A : increases
B : decreases

Jo

in
@

SP
P
Q.no 13. Current variation in the one coil causes voltage induced in the other nearby coil is
U
known as
B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : 90.21 V
B : 99.23 V
C : 100 V
D : 141.4 V
Q.no 15. The power factor of series R-L ac circuit is given by
A:X/R
B:R/X
C:R/Z
D:Z/R
A : 30 degrees
B : 120 degrees
C : 60 degrees
D : 45 degrees
A : removed
Jo
B : shorted
in
@
C : open circuited
SP
P
D : connected
U
B
TE
C
system is always
H
-T
A:0
el
eg
ra
m
B:1
C : 120
D : 90
A : increases
B : decreases
Q.no 20. For parallel combination of capacitors, which of the following remains constant?
A : Flux
B : Charge
C : Current
D : Voltage
A : 1.57
Jo
B : 1.11
in
@
C : 0.636
SP
P
D : 1.414
U
B
TE

C
H
A : linear curve
-T
el
eg
ra
m
D : parabolic curve
A : infinite
B : zero
C : high
D : low
Q.no 25. 100 micro farad capacitor on 50Hz supply offers capacitive reactance
A : 21.33 ohms
B : 3.18 47 ohms
C : 15.92 ohms
D : 31.847 ohms
A : solid iron core
A : iron loss
B : copper loss
Jo

in
@
D : no losses
SP
P

U
B
TE
A : Linear networks
C
H
-T
el
eg

ra
m
by
A : 1 percent
B : 2 percent
C : 4 percent
D : 16 percent
A : Mesh
B : Branch
C : Path
D : Junction
A : meter / weber
B : Amp / meter
C : Tesla
Jo
in
D : weber / meter
@
SP
P
change in the
U
B
TE
A : Voltage
C
H
B : Current
-T
el
eg
C : Impedance
ra
m
D : Frequency
A : mesh analysis,
B : nodal analysis
D : can not say
A : 60 Hz
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 314 Hz
A : Primary winding
A : 37.680 ohms
B : 63.847 ohms
C : 318.47 ohms
Jo
D : 31.4 ohms
in
@

SP
P
A : 3.6 MJ
U
B
TE
B : 36 kJ
C
H
C : 360 J
-T
el
eg
D : 3600 J
ra
m
voltage is
A : negative
B : zero
C : infinite
D : positive
in delta will be--
A : 6 ohm
B : 36 ohm
C : 12 ohm
D : 2 ohm
B : self-induction
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
A : 100 amp-turn
B
TE
C
B : 400 amp-turn
H
-T
C : 25 amp-turm
el
eg
ra
m
D : 40 amp-turn
A : 1.73
B : 1.42
C:2
D:3
A : Current
B : voltag
C : frequency
D : power
A : 1A
B : 0A
Jo
C : 0.5A
in
@
D : 2A
SP
P
U
B
TE
A : Greater than 1
C
H
B : Less than 1
-T
el
eg
C : Equal to 0.5
ra
m
D : Equal to zero
B : Inductive
C : Resistive
A : store energy
is
A : 0.5 KWh
B : 4 KWh
C : 2 KWh
D : 0.02 KWh
will be
A : three times
B : one third
Jo
C : two times
in
@
D : two third
SP
P
U
B
TE
A:0
C
H
B:1
-T
el
eg
C : less than 1
ra
m
D : 1.5
A : 0.6 Tesla
B : 6 Tesla
C : 3 Wb/sq. meter
D : 0.06 Tesla
A:6
B : 12
C : 10
D : 13
A : 0.2 mF
B : 5 mF
C : 100 mF
D : 155 mF
A : 25W, 220V
B : 100W, 220V
Jo
C : 200W, 220V
in
@
D : 60W, 220V
SP
P
U
B
TE
C
A : 5A
H
-T
B : 2.5 A
el
eg
ra
m
C : 10A
D : 1.25A
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
D : 28.28 Amp
be
A : one third
B : three times
C : two times
D : two third
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

Jo
A : Mesh
in
@
SP
B : Branch
P U
C : Path
B
TE
D : Junction
C
H
-T
el
eg

ra
m
A : copper
B : mica
C : pvc
D : dry paper
Q.no 5. The direction of induced emf in a rotating conductor in stationary magnetic field is given
by
D : cork screw rule
A : 60 Hz
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 150 Hz

Jo
in
B : Hysteresis loss
@
SP
C : Copper loss
P U
D : Frictional loss
B
TE
C
H
-T
A : 60 Hz
el
eg
ra
m
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 314 Hz
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 10 Amp
C : 5 Amp
D : 7.07 Amp
Q.no 10. The power factor of series R-L ac circuit is given by
A:X/R
B:R/X
C:R/Z
D:Z/R
cycle is
A : r.m.s. value
B : Average value
C : Form factor

Jo
in

@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H

-T
el
eg
A : 30 degrees
ra
m
B : 120 degrees
C : 60 degrees
D : 45 degrees
Q.no 14. The rms value of sinusoidal alternating current is given by the relation
A : 0.5 times the Maximum value of current
B : 0.637 times the Maximum value of current
C : 0.577 times the Maximum value of current
D : 0.707 times the Maximum value of current
A : kilo amper
B : amper
C : milli amper
D : micro amper
is known as
Q.no 17. If 10 resistances each of 15 ohm are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is--
ohm
Jo
A : zero
in
@
B : 15
SP
P
C : 150
U
B
TE
D : 1.5
C
H

-T
el
eg

ra
m
A : nodal analysis
B : mesh analysis
D : can not say
A : Reluctance
B : Resistance
C : Reactance
D : Impedance
system is always
A:0
B:1
C : 120
D : 90

Jo
in

@
SP

P U

B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : Amp-turm
B : Weber/turn
D : Tesla
A : passive
B : active
C : linear
D : non linear
A : 90.21 V
B : 99.23 V
C : 100 V
D : 141.4 V
A : width
Jo
B : thickness
in
@
C : length
SP
P
D : resistivity
U
B
TE
C
machine.
H
-T
A : more
el
eg
ra
m
B : same
C : less
D : can not predict
Q.no 29. As temperature increases, resistance of which materal increases
A : backelite
B : mica
C : cotton
D : copper
B : battery
C : dielectric
D : circuit switch
A : copper
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : PVC
A : 11 V
Jo
in
B : 12 V
@
SP
C : 12.5 V
P U
D : 11.5 V
B
TE
C

H
-T
A : Irms / Iav
el
eg
ra
m
B : Iav / Irms
C : Im/Irms
D : Irms/Im
A : Permeability
B : Permittivity
C : Reluctance
D : Capacitance
A : 1.73
B : 1.42
C:2
D:3

Jo
in

@
SP

P U
D : cork screw rule

B
TE
C

H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : 4 ohm
B : 12 ohm
C : 36 ohm
D : 6 ohm
B : Inductive
C : Resistive
Jo
A : 1A
in
@
B : 0A
SP
P
C : 0.5A
U
B
TE
D : 2A
C
H
-T
el
eg
A : 100 amp-turn
ra
m
B : 400 amp-turn
C : 25 amp-turm
D : 40 amp-turn
A : negative
B : zero
C : infinite
D : positive
A : 1000 MHz
B : 1 Hz
C : 0 Hz
D : 10000 MHz
A : 3.6 MJ
B : 36 kJ
C : 360 J
D : 3600 J
Jo
in
B : self-induction
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C

H
-T
A : 37.680 ohms
el
eg
ra
m
B : 63.847 ohms
C : 318.47 ohms
D : 31.4 ohms
A : Current
B : voltag
C : frequency
D : power
A : 5A
B : 10A
C : 20A
D : 0A
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
D : 28.28 Amp
A : 0.2 mF
Jo
in
B : 5 mF
@
SP
C : 100 mF
P U
D : 155 mF
B
TE
C
H
will be
-T
el
eg
A : three times
ra
m
B : one third
C : two times
D : two third
A : Greater than 1
B : Less than 1
C : Equal to 0.5
D : Equal to 1
A:6
B : 12
C : 10
D : 13
Q.no 56. Capacitive reactance of a capacitor at 50 Hz is 100 ohms. Its capacitive reactance at 100
Hz will be
A : 50 ohms
B : 100 ohms
C : 200 ohms
D : 300 ohms
Jo
in
A : 2 Amp
@
SP
B : 4 Amp
P U
C : 8 Amp
B
TE
C
D : 6.92 Amp
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
A : 100 V
B : 141.4 V
C : 200 V
D : 90.21 V
from each other by
A : 30 degrees
B : 45 degrees
C : 120 degrees
D : 60 degrees
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : iron loss
B : copper loss
D : no losses

Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE

C
H
-T

el
eg
A : copper
ra
m
B : aluminium
C : silver
D : PVC
A : linear curve
D : parabolic curve
A : 90.21 V
B : 99.23 V
C : 100 V
D : 141.4 V
A : Linear networks
Jo
in
@

SP
P

U
B
TE

C
H
A : Irms / Iav
-T
el
eg
B : Iav / Irms
ra
m
C : Im/Irms
D : Irms/Im
Q.no 9. Current variation in the one coil causes voltage induced in the other nearby coil is known
as
given by
D : cork screw rule
A : zero
Jo
B : 15
in
@
C : 150
SP
P
D : 1.5
U
B
TE
C
factor is
H
-T
A : 0.5 lag
el
eg
ra
m
B : 0.707 lag
C : 0.8 lead
D : unity
A : 60 Hz
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 314 Hz
A : Resistance
B : Inductor
C : Capacitor
D : Diode
A : 14.14 Amp
Jo
B : 10 Amp
in
@
C : 5 Amp
SP
P
D : 7.07 Amp
U
B
TE

C
H
A : solid iron core

-T
el
eg

ra
m
A : 1.25 A
is known as

Jo

in
@

SP
P

U
B
TE
Q.no 23. An ideal voltage source is that whose internal resistance is

C
H
A : infinite
-T
el
eg
B : zero
ra
m
C : high
D : low
Q.no 24. If 10 resistances each of 15 ohm are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is--
ohm
A : zero
B : 15
C : 150
D : 1.5
A : Permeability
B : Permittivity
C : Reluctance
D : Capacitance
cycle is
A : r.m.s. value
B : Average value
C : Form factor
A : 30 degrees
Jo
in
B : 120 degrees
@
SP
C : 60 degrees
P U
D : 45 degrees
B
TE
C
H

-T
el
A : 11 V
eg
ra
m
B : 12 V
C : 12.5 V
D : 11.5 V
A : remains same
C : is doubled
A : 60 Hz
B : 50 Hz
C : 100 Hz
D : 150 Hz
A : Reluctance
Jo
B : Resistance
in
@
C : Reactance
SP
P
D : Impedance
U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
B : battery
ra
m
C : dielectric
D : circuit switch
A:1
B : 1.11
C : 1.41
D : 1.21
A : removed
B : shorted
C : open circuited
D : connected
A : Current
B : voltag
C : frequency
D : power
A : 1000 MHz
B : 1 Hz
Jo
in
C : 0 Hz
@
SP
D : 10000 MHz
P U
B
TE
in delta will be--

C
H
A : 6 ohm
-T
el
eg
B : 36 ohm
ra
m
C : 12 ohm
D : 2 ohm
phase voltage is
A : 400 V
B : 230.94 V
C : 692.8 V
D : 100 V
A : Primary winding
D : cork screw rule
B : self-induction
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
A : 100 amp-turn
H
-T
B : 400 amp-turn
el
eg
ra
m
C : 25 amp-turm
D : 40 amp-turn
B : Inductive
C : Resistive
A : 20 ohm
B : 8 ohm
C : 1 ohm
D : 40 ohm
A : 3.6 MJ
B : 36 kJ
C : 360 J
D : 3600 J

Jo
in

@
SP

P U
B
TE

C
H
A : 5A
-T
el
eg
B : 10A
ra
m
C : 20A
D : 0A
A : 37.680 ohms
B : 63.847 ohms
C : 318.47 ohms
D : 31.4 ohms
A : 4 ohm
B : 12 ohm
C : 36 ohm
D : 6 ohm
A : Greater than 1
B : Less than 1
C : Equal to 0.5
D : Equal to 1
from each other by
A : 30 degrees
Jo
B : 45 degrees
in
@
C : 120 degrees
SP
P
D : 60 degrees
U
B
TE
C

H
-T
A : 0.6 Tesla
el
eg
ra
m
B : 6 Tesla
C : 3 Wb/sq. meter
D : 0.06 Tesla
Q.no 54. Capacitive reactance of a capacitor at 50 Hz is 100 ohms. Its capacitive reactance at 100
Hz will be
A : 50 ohms
B : 100 ohms
C : 200 ohms
D : 300 ohms
A : 14.14 Amp
B : 7.07 Amp
C : 10 Amp
D : 28.28 Amp
A : 100 V
B : 141.4 V
C : 200 V
D : 90.21 V
the circuit is
Jo
A : 10 ohms
in
@
B : 14 ohms
SP
P
C : 2 ohms
U
B
TE
D : 13.43 ohms
C
H
-T

el
eg
ra
m
A : 2 Amp
B : 4 Amp
C : 8 Amp
D : 6.92 Amp
A : 0.2 mF
B : 5 mF
C : 100 mF
D : 155 mF
A:6
B : 12
C : 10
D : 13
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
H
-T
H TE
B
e PU
SP
l @
rp Jo
in
Pu
p
Ap el
eg
ra
m
at C
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-T
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SP
l @
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in
Pu
p
Ap el
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m
at C
H
-T
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SP
l @
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in
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p
Ap el
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m
at C
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-T
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SP
l @
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in
Pu
p
Ap el
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ra
m
at C
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-T
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SP
l @
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in
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p
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m
at C
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-T
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SP
l @
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in
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p
Ap el
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m
at C
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l @
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in
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p
Ap el
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m
at C
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SP
l @
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in
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p
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m
at C
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-T
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SP
l @
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in
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p
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m
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in
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in
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ra
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el
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C
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C
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C
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Amrutvahini college of Engineering, Sangamner
Basic Electrical Engineering (103004)
Sample Multi-Choice Questions
UNIT 2 - Electromagnetism
Q.1 The unit of inductance is,
(A) Ohm.
(B) Farad.
(C) Mho.
(D) Henry. Ans: D
Q.2 If a current flowing through a conductor is moving away from the observer and into the plane of the
paper then it is indicated by,
(A) Dot
(B) Cross
(C) Star
(D) Dash Ans: B
Q.3. In case of dynamically induced EMF, direction of induced EMF is given by
(A) Fleming’s rule
(B) Lenz’s law
(C) Faraday’s first law
(D) Faraday’s second law Ans: A
Q.4. EMF induced in a coil due to change in current through it is called ________induction.
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: B
Q.5. EMF induced in a coil due to current change in neighboring coil is called ______ induction.
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: A
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Q.6. Co-efficient of self induction is also called as,

in
(A) self- induction

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(B) Inductance
P
(C) Self- inductance

U
B
(D) Induction Ans :C

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Q.7. The property of a coil due to which it opposes the change of current flowing through itself is called
___________ of the coil.
(A) Static inductance
(B) Dynamic inductance
(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans : C
Q.8. __________ is used to sense the flow of current in a electric circuit.
(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Wattmeter
(D) Galvanometer Ans : D
Q.9. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt only when the current in the coil is
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing
(D) All the above Ans :D
Q.10. The negative sign in the induced EMF of self induction indicates that energy is being absorbed from
the electric circuit and stored as _______ energy in the coil.
(A) mechanical
(B) Electronic
(C) electric
(D) Magnetic Ans :D
Q.11. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of the circuit is
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere
(C) Henry
(D) Linkages Ans : C
Q.12. Unit of induced EMF is
(A) Volt
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(B) Ampere
in
(C) Henry
@
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(D) Linkages Ans :A

P
Q.13. The property of one coil due to which it opposes the change in the other coil is called………….
U
B
between two coils.

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(A) Dynamic inductance

C
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(B) Static inductance

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(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans : D
Q.14. The unit of mutual inductance is,

(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/ Volt
(C) Henry
Q.15. In the expression e = M dI1 / dt, M represents,
(A) Mutual induction
(B) Mutual inductance
(C) Number of lines of force
(D) None of these Ans : B
Q.16. If 0.75 V is induced EMF and resistance offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced current is,
(A) 3.75 A
(B) 3. 75 mA
(C) 3. 75 micro Ampere
(D) 37.5 mA Ans : B
Q.17. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb to 0.3 Wb, then change in flux is______ Wb.
(A) 1.1
(B) 0.5
(C) -0.5
(D) -1.1 Ans : C
Q.18. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if the current is 1 amps, then MMF is ________
(A) 2000 AT
(B) 200 AT
(C) 20 AT
(D) 0.5 AT Ans : B
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Q.19. Leakage factor can be called as,

in
(A) Fringing
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(B) Coefficient of inductance

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P
(C) Magnetic coefficient

U
B
(D) Hopkinson’s coefficient Ans : D

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Q.20. Movement of electrons are called as

C
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(A) MMF
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(B) Current
(C) Voltage
(D) Flux Ans : B
Q.21. Flux density is equal to ________ of flux and area of cross – section.
( A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(D) Fraction Ans : D
Q.22. NI expression is called
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Magnetic intensity Ans : A
Q.23. Expression NI/L is called
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Magnetic intensity Ans :D
Q.24. Expression for mutual inductance is
(A) – L dI /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : B
Q.25. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction is e =
(A) –Nd φ /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
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Q.26. The constant K in case of mutual induction is equal to

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(A) φ1/ φ2
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(B) φ2/ φ1
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(C) φ1/I1
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(D) φ2/I2 Ans : B

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Q.27. Product of the permeability μ0μr is equal to

C
H
(A) Magnetic flux

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(B) Magnetic field
(C) Magnetic intensity
(D) Magnetic field / magnetic intensity Ans : D
Q.28. Expression for self induced emf is
(A) –L dI/dt
(B) MdI1 / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
Q.29. ___ is normally termed as flux linkages.
(A) φ
(B) d φ /dt
(C) N φ
(D) φ /I Ans : C
Q.30. The term N φ /I is generally called as,
(A) Self inductance
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Induced EMF Ans : A
Q.31. In the expression for reluctance S = l /μa of a conduced, letter A represents______ of
the conductor
(A) Total area
(B) Surface area
(C) Cross- sectional area
(D) None of these. Ans : C
Q.32. The points of magnet at which maximum iron pieces accumulate are called ----------- of the magnet.
(A) axes
(B)induction
(C) poles
(D)fluxes Ans:C
Q.33. The second law of magnetism is stated by scientist -------------------.
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(A) Faraday
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(B) Coulomb
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(C) Orested
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(D) Newton Ans:B

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Q.34 concept of magnetic lines of force is introduced by ----------

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(A) Faraday
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(B) Coulomb
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(C) Orested
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(D) Newton Ans:A
Q35. 1 Weber= --------------- lines of force
(A) 108
(B) 106
(C) 103
(D) 10-8 Ans:A
Q36. The unit of magnetic flux is ----------------
(A) Tesla
(B) AT/m
(C) Weber
(D) Henry Ans:A
Q37. The capacity of magnetic pole to accept or radiate certain number of magnetic lines is called----------
-----
(A) Magnetic strength

(B) Pole strength
(C) Flux density
(D) Pole intensity Ans:B
Q38. The direction of magnetic field due to a straight current carrying conductor is given by --------------
(A) Fleming’s left hand rule

(B) Right hand thumb rule
(C) Fleming’s right hand rule
(D) Non of above Ans:B
Q39. The direction of flux around a conductor carrying current away from the observer into the plane of
the paper is ----------------
(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Vertical
(C) Clockwise
(D) Horizontal Ans:A
Q40. The reluctance in magnetic circuit is analogous to ------------ in an electric circuit.
(A) Voltage
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
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(D) E.M.F. Ans:C

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Q41. The relative permeability has ---------------- unit.

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(A) H/m
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(B) Wb/m
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(C) Nm
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(D) No unit Ans:D

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Q42. The ratio of B and H is constant for --------------.

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(A) Cast iron
(B) Cast steel
(C) Free space
(D) Rolled steel Ans:C
Q43. A magnetic circuit has a reluctance of 1x105 AT/Wb and m.m.f. is produced by coil having 100
turns, carrying current of 5 A then the flux produced is ----------- Wb.
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:B
Q44. A magnetic circuit has relative permeability 1000 and length of 50 cm with cross-sectional area of 4
cm2. The amperes required through a coil of 1000 turns to produce the flux of 2mWb are ----------- A.
(A) 3.98
(B) 5.28
(C) 4.989
(D) 1.989 Ans:D
Q45. In a magnetic circuit the flux is given by----------------------.
(A) (mmf)/(reluctance)
(B) (mmf)x(reluctance)
(C) (reluctance)/(mmf)
(D) None of these Ans:A
Q46.In a series magnetic circuit -------- in the circuit is same through all the parts.
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(D) None of these Ans:C
Q47. Accordingly to Kirchhoff’s law, the resultant ----------around a closed magnetic circuit is equal to
algebraic sum of the product of the magnetic field strengths of each part of the circuit.
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(D) None of these Ans:B
Q48. At a junction point in a magnetic circuit, algebraic sum of all the ------ is zero.
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(A) Reluctances
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(B) Mmf
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(C) Flux
(D) Product of flux and reluctances Ans:B
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Q49. ----------- does not exist for a magnetic circuit.

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(A) Mmf
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(B) Reluctance
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(C) Flux
(D) Perfect magnetic insulator Ans:D
Q50. Which is following statement is true?
(A) Energy neither required to create the flux nor required to maintain it.
(B) Energy is required to create the flux but not required to maintain it.
(C) Energy is required to create the flux and also to maintain it
Q51. The flux which completes the path through surrounding air instead of the desired path is called ------
--------.
(A) Useful flux

(B) Mutual flux
(C) Leakage flux
(D) Coercive flux Ans:C
Q52. Ideal value of leakage coefficient is--------------.
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) Infinite
(D) 0.5 Ans:B
Q53. . When a current carrying conductor is brought into magnetic field, the force that moves the
conductor, depends on…………
(A) Length of conductor

(B) direction of current
(C) value of the current
(D) none of these Ans:
Q54. Two current carrying conductors lying parallel to each other are exerting a force of attraction on
each other. The currents are……….
(A) very high

(B) in opposite direction
(C) low
(D) in the same direction Ans:D
Q55. Permeance is analogous to……….
(A) Resistance
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(B) reluctance
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(C) conductance
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(D) none of these Ans:C

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Q56. When a coil consisting of single turn rotates at a uniform speed in a magnetic field, the emf
P
induced is…..
U
B
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(A) steady
(B) alternating
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(C) changing
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(D) reversing Ans:B
Q57. Force required to produce flux in magnetic circuit is.……..
(A) mmf
(B) reluctance
(C) permeability
(D) Magnetic field strength Ans:A
Q58. The emf induced in a conductor of length 1 m moving at right angles to a uniform magnetic field
of flux Density 1.5 Wb/m² with velocity of 50 m/s…
(A) 0
(B) 1.5 V
(C) 75 V
(D) 100 V Ans:C
Q59. The coefficient of self-inductance of a coil is given by
(A) Ф/NI
(B) NI/Ф
(C) NФ/I
(D) ФI/N Ans:C
Q60. The induced emf in a coil of 8 mH carrying 2 A current reversed in 0.04 S
(A) 0.8 V
(B) 0.008 V
(C) 0.16 V
(D) 0.064 V Ans:A
Q61. Two coils have self inductances of 0.09 H and 0.01 H and a mutual inductance of 0.015 H. The
coefficient of coupling between the coils is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.75 Ans:A
Q62. When current carrying conductor and lines of flux are parallel then the force experienced by
conductor is-------------.
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
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(C) Small
in
(D) Unity Ans:A

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Q63. Direction of force experienced by current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by----------
SP
----.
P U
B
(A) Fleming’s right hand rule

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(B) Fleming’s left hand rule

C
(C) End rule

H
(D) Corkscrew rule Ans:B

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Q64. The phenomenon by which emf is obtained from the magnetic flux is called ---------.
(A) Electromagnetic interference

(B) Electromagnetic induction
(C) Magnetic induction
Q65. The dynamically induced emf can be found in ------------
(A) Generator
(B) Transformer
(C) Bulb
Q66. Self inductance L is ----------- number of turns.
(A) Directly proportional to square of

(B) Inversely proportional to square of
(C) Directly proportional to
Q67. A current of 2 A is reversed in 0.1 sec through an inductor of 1H then emf induced is ------ Volt.
(A) 200
(B) -200
(C) -400
(D) 400 Ans:D
Q68. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt only when the current in the coil is-------.
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing
(D) All of above Ans:D
Q69. The property of coil due to which opposes the change in current flowing through itself is called-----
------- of the coil.

(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans:C
Q70. The coil are said to be -------------- when k=1.

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(A) Loosely coupled

(B) Tightly coupled
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(C) Series aiding

SP
(D) Series opposing Ans:B

P U
B
Q71. Two coil have self inductances 100μH and 250μH and coefficient of coupling is 0.253 then their
TE
mutual inductance is---------------.

C
H
(A) 400μH
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(B) 158.11μH
(C) 40μH
(D) 40mH Ans:C
Q72. The unit coefficient of coupling is --------------.
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/Wb
(C) Unit less
(D) H/m Ans:C
Q73. A current through an inductor of 0.4 H is 5 A then the energy stored in it is ----------J
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1 Ans:A
Q74. The energy stored per volume in a magnetic field of flux density 1.373 Wb/m2 is 500 joules then its
relative permeability is ----------------.
(A) 2500
(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
Q75. The ease with which magnetic material forces the magnetic flux through a given medium is-----------
---------.
(A) Permeance
(B) Permeability
(C) Reluctance
(D) Permittivity Ans:B
Q76. In the expression e=MdI1/dt, M represents-----------------

Q77. In the expression for reluctance S=l/μa , letter ‘a’ represent ----------------.
(A) Total area

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(B) Surface area

in
(C) Cross-sectional area

@

SP
Q78. A 0.1 A of current reverses in 0.2 seconds then the rate of changes of current is -----------A/sec.
P U
B
(A) 1
TE
(B) -1
(C) 2
C
H
(D) 0.5 Ans:B

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Q79. If the permeability of a magnetic material is 4π x 10-4 then its relative permeability is------------
(A) 4π x 10-7
(B) 10000
(C) 100
(D) 1000 Ans:D
Q80. The flux density in a magnetic field of cross-sectional area of 0.5 cm2 having a flux of 10μWb is ----
-----T.
(A) 0.2
(B) 5
(C) 50
(D) 1.2 Ans:B
Q81. The maximum working flux density os a lifting electromagnet is 1.9 T and the effective area of a
pole face is circular in cross-section. If the total magnet flux produced is 2444mWb then the radius of
pole face is nearly -------------cm.
(A) 32
(B) 128
(C) 64
(D) 0.64 Ans: C
Q82. The self inductance L is -------------------
(A) Directly proportional to square of number of turns

(B) Inversely proportional to length
(C) Directly proportional to area of cross-section
Q83. The ------------ is reciprocal of the reluctance.
(A) Permeability
(B) Permeance
(C) Susceptance
(D) Resistance Ans:D
Q84. Which of the following nit the property of the magnetic lines of forces?
(A) Never intersect each other

(B) Act like a stretched rubber band
(C) Co not pass through air
(D) Travel from N to S external to magnet Ans:C
Jo
in
Q85. The direction of flux around a conductor carrying current towards the observer out on the plane of
@
the paper is-------------.

SP
(A) Anticlockwise
P
(B) Vertical
U
B
(C) Clockwise
TE

C
H
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Q86. A magnetic circuit has a reluctance of 1x105AT/Wb and m.m.f. is produced by coil having 100 turns,
carrying current of 5 A then flux produced is -----------Wb.
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x 10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:C
Q87. The unit of μ is -----------.
(A) H/m
(B) Wb/m
(C) Nm
(D) Ni unit Ans:A
Q88. For the series aiding coils, the equivalent inductance is---------------
(A) L1+L2+2M
(B) (L1+L2)/2M
(C) L1+L2-2M
(D) None of above Ans:A
Q89. The coil are said to be ------------- when K=1
(A) Loosely couple

(B) tightly coupled
(C) series aiding
(D) series opposing Ans:B
Q90. The energy required to establish the magnetic field is stored into is as ----------energy
(A) kinetic
(B) electrostatic
(C) potential
(D) residual Ans:C
Q91. Energy stored in the magnetic field is given by---------------.
(A) LI2
(B) LI2/2
(C) 2LI2
(D) I2/2L Ans:B
Q92. A current through as inductor of 0.4 H is 5A then the energy stored init is--------J.
Jo
in
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
@
(C) 2
SP
(D) 1 Ans:A
P U
Q93. The energy stored per unit volume in a magnetic field of flux density 1.373 Wb/m2 is 500 J then its
B
TE
permeability is----------------.
C
H
(A) 2500
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(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
Q94. The unit of mutual inductance is --------------.
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/Volt
(C) Henry
(D) Linkage Ans:C
Q95. The maximum value of coefficient is -------------.
(A) 100%
(B) More then 100%
(C) 90%
Q96. The unit of co efficient of coupling is ----------------.
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/m
(C) Unitless
(D) H/m Ans:C
Q97. The unit of flux density is-----------.
(A) Weber
(B) AT
(C) Tesla
(D) All of above Ans:C
Q98. The flux density is given by --------------.
(A) Φxa
(B) φ/a
(C) 1/(φ+a)
(D) Φ+a Ans:B
Q99. The direction of flux internal to magnet is from------------
(A) N- pole to S pole

(B) S-pole to N-pole
(C) Circular
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(D) None of above Ans:B

in
Q100. Concept of lines of force is introduced by -----------------------.

@
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(A) Faraday
P
(B) Coulomb
U
B
(C) Orested
TE
(D) Newton Ans:A

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Amrutvahini College of Engineering, Sangamner
UNIT 3 –Single Phase Transformer & Electrostatics
1) When the primary of a transformer is connected to a d.c. supply, the

a) Primary draws small current b) primary leakage reactance is increased
c) Core losses are increased d) primary may burn out
2) The function of oil in a transformer is
a) To provide insulation and cooling b) to provide protection against lightning
c) To provide protection against short circuit d) to provide lubrication
3) The core flux of a practical transformer with a resistive load
a) is strictly constant with load changes b) increases linearly with load
c) increases by the square root of the load d) decreases with increase of load
4) For an ideal transformer the winding should have
a) maximum resistance on primary side & least resistance on secondary side
b) least resistance on primary side & maximum resistance on secondary side
c) equal resistance on primary & secondary side
d) no ohmic resistance on either side
5) The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when
a) leakage reactances of the two windings are equal
b) resistances of the two windings are equal
c) copper loss is equal to constant loss
d) none of above
6) Transformer operates on………….
a) ac b) dc c) both ac & dc d) none
7) Transformer transfer electrical power from one circuit to other without change in……….
a) voltage b) current c) frequency d) none
8) A transformer works on the principle of……….
a) Faraday’s law b) mutual induction c) self induction c) superposition
9) Both the windings in transformer are……....coupled to each other
a) electrically b) magnetically c) electrically & magnetically d) none
10) The …………….. on both sides of a transformer remains same.
a) power b) current c) voltage d) impedance
11) When d. c. supply is applied to transformer………
a) eddy current losses are more b) hysteresis losses are more
c) d. c. winding resistance is very high d) winding may burn due to high current
12) The core of the transformer is laminated to reduce
a) hysteresis loss b) eddy current loss c) copper loss d) frictional loss
13) Generally ……………. is used for laminations of a transformer core.
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a) high grade silicon steel b) copper c) iron d) manganin

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14) The core provides …………. path to the flux produced.

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a) low reluctance b) low resistance c) low voltage d) none

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15) In a core type transformer

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a) the core encircles the winding b) the winding encircles the core
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c) the limb encircles the yoke d) none of the above

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16) …………… coils are generally used in core type construction.

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a) single layer b) sandwich c) cylindrical d) PVC

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17) ………….construction is used for high voltage transformers.
a) Shell type b) berry type c) core type d) none
18) The average e.m.f. per turn in a transformer is…………..
a) 4fФm b) 4.44fФm c) 4fФmN1 d) 4.44fФmN1
19) The value of flux used in an e.m.f. equation of a transformer is…………..
a) r.m.s. b) Average c) instantaneous d) maximum
20) The maximum flux in the core of a transformer having primary turns equal to 100 is
0.08 Wb. If the frequency of supply is 50 Hz then primary induced e.m.f. is……………..
a) 1776 b) 176 c) 1276 d) 1856
21) R.M.S. value of induced emf per turn in transformer is …………….
a) 4.44fФm b) 4fФm c) 4.44fФmN1 d) 2fФm
22) For a transformer, the induced e.m.f. on primary is 199.8 V with 50 turns at 50 Hz
Frequency then the maximum flux in the core is ……………..
a) 18 mWb b) 79.92 mWb c) 18 Wb d) 0.999Wb
23) For ideal transformer which one of the following is true…………..
a) no loss b) zero winding resistance c) zero leakage flux d) all of these
24) For a 200/100 V transformer having 1 KVA rating, the full load primary current is…
a) 10 A b) 50 A c) 5 A d) 500 A
25) For a 20 KVA, 1000/200 V transformer, the half load secondary current is ………
a) 100 A b) 20 A c) 10 A d) 50 A
26) Transformer ratio in a transformer is equal to…………….
a) E1/E2 b) N1/N2 c) N2/N1 d) I2/I1
27) The transformer rating is expressed in VA because………….
a) on both sides it is constant b) losses are independent of load power factor
c) the frequency is constant on the both sides d) the flux in the core remains constant
28) An isolation transformer (pulse transformer) has turns ratio of………
a) 1 : 10 b) 10 : 1 c) 1 : 1 d) none of these
29) A transformer with secondary full load current of 10 A and secondary no load induced
e.m.f of 200 V will have KVA rating of………………
a)2000 b) 2 c) 20 d) 200
30) In a transformer the high voltage side is………….
a) low current, low impedance side b) high current, low impedance side
c) low current, high impedance side c) none of these
31) In a transformer the low voltage side is………….
a) low current, low impedance side b) high current, low impedance side
c) low current, hi00gh impedance side c) none of these
32) A transformer has a full load regulation of 2 % and its no load voltage is 120 V then its
full load voltage is…….. V
a) 122.4 b) 122.55 c) 160 d) 135.25
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33) For better performance of transformer, the regulation must be…..

a) infinite b) very low c) high d) unity
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34) For leading power factor loads, the regulation of transformer is…………
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a) negative b) positive c) zero d) unity

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35) The voltage regulation of a transformer is positive for ………………. load

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a) inductive b) capacitive c) resistive d) none

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36) Losses which do not occur in transformer are ………………..

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a) copper losses b) frictional losses c) magnetic losses d) none

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37) The loss which varies with load in a transformer is ………………

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a) friction and windage loss b) copper loss c) eddy current loss d) hysteresis loss
38) When a 400 Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz, its KVA rating will be …………….
a) increased to 1/8 b) reduced to 1/8 c) reduced to ¼ c) reduced to 1/2
39) The phase difference between primary & secondary voltages in an ideal transformer
is generally …………
a) 00 b) 1800 c) 900 d) 450
40) Leakage flux in a transformer depends on………….
a) the applied voltage b) the load current c) the mutual flux d) the frequency
41) The efficiency of a transformer at full load 0.8 p.f. lag is 90%. Its efficiency at full load
0.8 lead will be ………………..
a) 90% b) less than 90% c) more than 90% d) none
42) The eddy current loss in a transformer depends on ……………….
a) both voltage & frequency b) voltage alone c) frequency alone d) square of the frequency alone
43) Full load copper loss in a transformer is 1600 W. Find this loss at half load
a) 400 W b) 1600 W c) 800 W d) 6400 W
44) Which of the following machine will have maximum efficiency?
a) Electrical power transformer b) electrical power generator c) induction motor d) DC motor
45) A step up transformer increases …………….. & decreases …………………..
a) power, frequency b) power, voltage c) voltage, current d) current, voltage
46) When a transformer is loaded, the secondary terminal voltage drops. This means power factor is ………………
a) unity b) lagging c) zero d) leading
47 Find the value of eddy current loss, if the supply frequency of a transformer is doubled?
a) remains same b) doubled c) four times d) eight times
48) In a transformer the coils of primary & secondary are placed concentrically to achieve….
a) reduced leakage flux between primary & secondary winding
b) reduced copper loss in the winding c) reduced insulation cost of the winding
d) reduced voltage per turn in the winding `
49) The input power under no load condition of transformer consists of …………….
a) core losses in the transformer b) copper loss in a transformer
c) core losses and very small amount of copper loss in primary
d) significant amount of copper loss along with negligible amount of core losses
50) In a certain loaded transformer, the secondary voltage is one- fourth the primary
voltage. The secondary current is …………..
a) one fourth the primary current b) equal to primary current
c) eight times the primary current d) none of these
ANSWERS
1- d, 2-a, 3-a, 4-d, 5-c, 6-a, 7-c, 8-b, 9-b, 10-a,

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11-d, 12-b, 13-a, 14-a, 15-b, 16-c, 17-a, 18-a, 19-d, 20-a,
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21-a, 22-a, 23-d, 24-c, 25-d, 26-c, 27-b, 28-c, 29-b, 30-c,
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31-b, 32-a, 33-b, 34-a, 35-a, 36-b, 37-b, 38-b, 39-b, 40-b,
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41-a, 42-d, 43-a, 44-a, 45-c, 46-b, 47-c, 48-a, 49-b, 50-d
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Electrostatics
1) The branch dealing with electricity at rest is called ____________.

a) Electromagnetic b) Electro mechanics c) Electrostatics d) None of above
2) The space around a charge or charged body is called__________.
a)Electric field b)Magnetic field c)Electromagnetic field d)Magnetostatic field
3) The electric lines of force always enter or leave a conductor surface at_______.
a) 1800 b) 00 c)450 d) 900
4) _______ is true for electric lines force.
a) They intersect each other at regular interval b)They forms a closed path
c) They can pass only through insulating medium
d) They can enter charged bodies and [pass through them
5) The unit of electric flux________
a) Newton b)Coulomb c)Weber d)Tesla
6) The electric flux passing at right angles through unit area of surface is called_______
a) Electric field strength b)Magnetic flux density
c) Electric flux density d) Electric flux
7) The electric flux density is also called ________
a) Displacement density b)Conduction density c)Magnetic flux density
d) Volume charge density
8) The unit of electric field intensity is ________
a) c/m b)c/m2 c)N/C d)N/m2C
9) The electric field intensity is also measure in _______
a) V/m2 b)V/m c)C/m d)Wb/V
10) The electric field intensity at a point _______
a) F/Q b)Q/F c)B/Q d)1/(2VQ)
11) _________ represents electric field intensity.
a) V/Q b)V/d c)1/(2V2) d)VQ
12) The permittivity is __________
a) The ease with which magnetic flux passes through dielectric medium.
b) The ease with which current passes through given material.
c) The ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to establish in it.
d) None of above
13) The absolute permittivity is measured in__________.
a) H/m b)A/m c)F/m d)N/m
14) The value of Є0 is ________F/m
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a) 8.854x10-10 b)8.854x1012 c)6.657x10-12 d)8.854xz10-12

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15) The relative permittivity is also called as _______ of the material.

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a) Dielectric constant b)Di electric strength

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b) c)Breakdown voltage d) Coulmb’s constant

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16) __________ relation is true

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a) D=Є/E b)D=ЄE b)E=Є/D d)E=ЄD

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17) The unit of ____________ are same.

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a) Electric field strength, potential difference b)Electric field strength , potential gradient
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c)Electric field strength , electric flux density d)Electric flux density , potential gradient
18) _________ represent Coulmb’s law of electrostatics
a) F α Q1Q2 d2 b)F α ( Q1Q2 ) /d2 c)F α d2/(Q1 Q2 ) d)F α 1/(Q1Q2 d2)
19) Two conducting surfaces separated by a dielectric medium is called____
a) Capacitor b)Dipole c)Capacitance d)Inductance
20) Capacitance is_________
a) Property of capacitor to repel charges from its plates
b) Property to store electric charges in the form of static charges
c) Property to store magnetic energy d)Property to breakdown the dielectric
21) The unit of capacitance is_________
a) Farad b)Henry c)Hertz d)Farad/m
22) Capacitance of a capacitor is the ratio of ________
a) P.d. between the plates and the charge b)Charge and the p.d. between the plates
c) Charge and spacing between the plates d)P.d. and thickness of dielectric
23) A capacitance of 1 picofarad means _____ farad.
a) 10-6 b)10-9 c)10-12 d)10-15
24) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is_________
a) Єd/A b)Є/dA c)ЄA/d d)A/Єd
25) The capacitance is charged to 10 V and its capacitance μF then charge on it is_________
a) 10μC b)10nC c)10C d)1μC
26) 2
A capacitor uses the plates of area 25 cm and distance between the plates is 5 cm. then its
capacitance with air as a dielectric is_________
a) 04427 μF b)04427 pF c)0.4427nF d)0.4427 F
27) The charge transferred on the plates of a capacitor is 2 nC while the distance between the plates is
1 mm. if area of cross-section is 10 cm2 and air used as a dielectric then the voltage across the
plates is ___ v
a) 22.580 b)2.5588 c)225.88 d)255.88
28) A capacitor of 10 μF has a charge of 1 mC. If distance between the plate is 1 cm then the electric
field intensity between the plates is_________
a) 10 kv/m b)10 v/m c)0.1V/m d) 8.854 kv/m
29) For a 5 μF capacitor, distance between the plates is 0.5 cm and the electric field intensity is 20
KV/m then the charge on the capacitor is_________
a) 5 μC b)0.5 μC c)5 nC d)0.5 mC
30) A capacitor uses a dielectric of Єr =2 it is charged to 500 V and the distance between the plates is
10 cm then electric flux density between the plates is _________ nC/m2
a) 0.8854 b)88.54 c)8.854 d)0.00885
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31) The p.d. between the plates of a 5 μF capacitor with a charge of 2 mC on it is ______V
in
a) 200 b)100 c)400 d)4000

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32) A 2 μF capacitor connected in a circuit has one plate at +6 V and the other plate at – 6V. the
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charge on the negative plate of the capacitor is___________

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a) + 12 μC b)- 12 μC c) 24 μC d)-24 μC
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33) A parallel plate capacitor with air as dielectric remains connected across a battery e.m.f. 6V the
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charge on the capacitor in this condition is Q. if the separation between the plates is decreased by
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10% in this condition and sufficient time is allowed to attain steady state, the charge on the
capacitor will be_________
a) Increased by 11%, approximately b)Increased by 9%, approximately
c)Decreased by 9%, approximately d)Decreased by 11%, approximately
34) The ability of an insulating medium to resist its breakdown s called its_________
a) Dielectric constant b)Dielectric strength
c) Relative permittivity d) Insulation resistance
35) The dielectric strength is measured in ____
a) KV/N b)V/C c)KV/cm d)F/m
36) ________is not the factor affecting dielectric strength.
a) Temperature b)Moisture c)Size and shape of the plates d)Insulation resistance
37) ________ is the factor affecting dielectric strength
a) Presence of air pockets in material b)Molecular arrangement of material
c) Moisture content d)All of these
38) For the capacitor in series, ________ remains same for all of them.
a) Voltage b)Capacitance c)Charge d)One of these
39) The two capacitor 3 μF and 6 μF are in series then the equivalent capacitance is ________
a) 9μF b)4.5μF c)2μF d)1μF
40) Three capacitors each of capacitances C and breakdown voltage V are connected in series then
the capacitances and breakdown voltage of the combination is_______
a) 3C,V/3 b)C/3,3V c)3C,3V d)C./3,V/3
41) The capacitor 15μF, 10μF and 3μF are connected in series and series combination is connected
across 10 V when the capacitors are fully charged then the charge on 3 μF capacitor is_____
a) 10μC b)15μC c)3μC d)20μC
42) Four 2 μF capacitors are connected in series then the equivalent capacitance is _______μF.
a) 0.5 b)8 c)2 d)4
43) The capacitors of capacitance 4μF and 6μF connected in series. A p. d. of 500 volt is applied to
the outer plates of two capacitor system. Then the charge on each plate of each plate of each
capacitor is numerically_________ μC
a) 500 b)5000 c)1200 d)400
44) Two capacitor 3μF and 6μF connected in series across 100 V d.c. supply. Then the voltage across
3μF capacitor will be ________ V
a) 100 b)66.667 c)33.333 d)0
45) Ten capacitor of 3μF each ar connected in series then the equivalent capacitance is ________μF
a) 0.3 b)3 c)30 d)3.333
46) The energy stored in a capacitor is given by___________
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a) 1/(2CV) b)1/(2CV2) c)v/(2C) d)c2/2v

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47) if the p.d. between the plates is increased by 10% then energy stored in the capacitor increased by
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__________%
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a) 11 b)10 c)2.1 d)21

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48) The capacitor of 10 The capacitor of 10 μF is discharged through a resistance of 100 KΩ then the
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time constant is __________

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a) 1 s b) 1 μs c)1ms d) 0.1 sec

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49) Initially the capacitor act as _________

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a) Open circuit b) Short circuit c)Breakdown d)None of above
50) Four, 2 μF capacitor are connected in parallel the effective capacitance is _________μF
a) 0.5 b) 8 c) 2 d) 4
Answer:
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 D
2 A 12 C 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 A 43 C
4 C 14 D 24 C 34 B 44 B
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 c
6 C 16 B 26 B 36 D 46 B
7 A 17 B 27 C 37 D 47 D
8 C 18 C 28 A 38 C 48 A
9 B 19 A 29 D 39 C 49 B
10 A 20 B 30 B 40 b 50 B
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UNIT-4
Q1. The main advantage of AC is

a) A C Motors are expensive b) A C voltages can be raised or lowered
c) A C transmission is very costly d) None of these
Q2. The main advantages of purely sinusoidal waveform is
a) It’s the only alternative waveform b) It is the only standard waveform
c) Any other waveform can be resolved into series of sinusoidal waveform of different frequencies
d) it produces distorted waveforms when applied
Q 3. The waveform in which magnitude changes but its direction remains same is called
a) pulsating DC b) alternating c) pure DC d) none of these
Q 4. ___________is the advantage of ac
a) The voltages can be raised or lowered b) AC transmission is economical and efficient
c) AC can be converted into DC d) All of the above
Q5. The generation of AC is according to
a) Faraday’s law b) Thevenin’s theorem c) Ohms law d) Kirchoff’s law
Q6. -------------represents maximum of alternating emf
a) BIL b) BLV c) BIV d) LIV
Q7. Standard alternating emf is reprensented as
a) Em tanѲ b) Em CosѲ c) Em sinѲ d) Em2sinѲ
Q8. Standard alternating emf achieves its positive maximum value at Ѳ =
a) 45̊ b) 90̊̊ c) 180° d) 270°
Q9. Standard alternating emf achieves its negative maximum value at Ѳ =
a) 45 b) 90 c) 180 d) 270
Q10. The time taken by an alternating quantity to complete one cycle is called
a) frequency b) speed c) waveform d) time period
Q11. The unit of Frequency
a) rad/sec b) seconds c) Hertz d) Volts
Q12. The relation between f and ω
a) f=1/ w b) w=2π/f c) w=2πf d) w=1/f
Q13. the time period of a sinusoidal waveform with 200Hz frequency is
a) 0.05 sec b) 0.005 sec c) 0.0005 sec d) 0.5 sec
Q14. the value of alternating quantity at a particular instant is called value
a) instantaneous b) peak c) peak to peak d) average
Q15. the waveform which shows repetition of variations after a regular time interval is called
a) non periodic b) sawtooth c) periodic d) triangular
Q16. one cycle responds to
a) π rad b) 90° c) π/4rad d) 2π rad
Q17. In India, the standard frequency of alternating voltage is
a) 60Hz b) 50 Hz c) 100Hz d) 10Hz
Q18. The highest value attained by an alternating quantity during positive or negative half
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cycle is called
a) maximum b) amplitude c) peak d) all of these
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Q 19. ______relation is true

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a) Ѳ=t/w b) w=t/Ѳ c) Ѳ=wt d) w/Ѳ=t

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Q 20. one fourth cycle of 50Hz waveform corresponds to

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a) 10 msec b) 20 msec c) 1msec d) 5msec

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Q 21. for 50 Hz alternating waveform, the angular frequency is rad/sec

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a) 314.16 b) 50 c) 0.126 d) none of these

Q 22. the time corresponds to Ѳ=π/4 rad for a 50 Hz alternating waveform is msec
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a) 5 b) 10 c) 2.5 d) 20
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Q 23. a sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to maximum of 250 V. the voltage at the instant of 60° of
the cycle will be V
a) 150 b) 216.5 c) 125 d) 108.25
Q 24. an ac voltage is given by v=40sin 314t the frequency is Hz
a) 75 b) 50 c) 25 d) 100
Q 25. an ac current is given by i=14.1421 sin100π t then the time taken by it to complete three cycles is
sec
a) 0.02 b) 0.06 c) 0.08 d) 0.01
Q 26. an instantaneous value of an alternating current, having 7.071 A rms value at 120° is
a) 4.33 b) 6.123 c) 8.66 d) 3.061
Q 27. an instantaneous value of an alternating voltage having 50 Hz frequency and maximum
value of 100V at 0.01 sec is
a) 100 b) 100√2 c) 100/√2 d) 0
Q 28. a sinusoidal voltage has a magnitude of 200 V at 150 ° then its maximum value is V
a) 100 b) 400 c) 200 d) 300
Q 29. an AC voltage is given by 100Sin 314t. the frequency is
a) 50 b) 75 c) 25 d) 100
Q 30. the concept of effective value is based on
a) photoelectric effect b) heating effectc) friction d) none of these
Q 31. voltage of domestic ac supply is 230V this represents value
a) peak b) average c) r.m.s d) mean
Q 32. the voltmeter in ac circuit always measure Value
a) average b) maximum c) r.m.s. d) none of these
Q 33. the rms value of an alternating is 10/√2 A then its peak to peak value is
a)10 b) 30 c) 5 d) 20
Q 34. the peak value of an alternating current is Im then its r.m.s. value is
a) Im/√2 b) √2 Im c) Im/2 d) 2Im
Q 35. the peak value of an alternating current is Im then its avg value is
a) 0.5 Im b) 0.637 Im c) Im/√2 d) √2 Im
Q 36. for symmetrical alternating waveform, the average value over a complete cycle is
a) 1 b) √2 c) 0 d) 1/√2
Q 37. the peak value of an alternating wave is 400V, its average value is
a) 254.8 b) 282.6 c) 400 d) 565.5
Q 38. the average value of sinusoidal varying voltage is than its r.m.s. value
a) more b) less c) same as d) none of the above
Q 39. Peak value of sine wave is 200V its average value is
a) 127.4 b) 282.6 c) 400 d) 565
Q 40. The form factor of purely sinusoidal waveform is
a) 1.11 b) 1.21 c) 1.414 d) √2
Q 41. which of the following wave has least value of peak factor?
a) sine b) square c) Triangular d) Full wave rectified sine wave
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Q 42. the peak factor of sinousdally varying voltage is

a) 1.414 b) 1.11 c) 0866 d) 0.707
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Q 43. Alternating quantities are represented by

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a) vectors b) scalars c) phasors d) horizontal

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Q 44. phasors always rotate in direction

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a) clockwise b) anticlockwise c) vertical d) horizontal

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Q 45 ______ projection of a phasor represents an instantaneous value of an alternating quantity

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a) Y axis b) X axis c) Z axis d) none of these

Q 46. Phasor representing i(t)=Im Sinwt rotates at a speed of
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a) Ns b) w c) F d) none of these
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Q 47. The phase of an alternating quantity varies from
a) 0-90 b) 0-180 c) 0-360 d) 180-360
48. Alternating quantity having positive phase has value at t=0
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) infinite
49. An alternating quantity having zero phase value at t=0
50. An alternating quantity having negative phase value at t=0
51. An alternating voltage is given by v(t)=150sin(wt+π/3) V then its phase is
a) 30° b) 90° c) 0° d) 60°
52. When two alternating quantities are in phase then their phase difference is
a) 30° b) 90° c) 0° d) 60°
53. The negative maximum of cosine wave occurs at __ °
a) 45 b) 90 c) 180 d) 270
54. representation gives rms value an alternating quantity
a) phasor b) polar c) rectangular d) none of these
55. the phase of v(t)=100cos(314t+π/4) is
a) 45 b) 90 c) 135 d) 0
56. The phase of e(t)= -Em coswt is
a) 90 b) -90 c) -270 d) 0
57. The polar form of -3+j4 is
a) 5<-53.13 b) 5<53.13 c) 5<-126.86 d) 5<126.86
58. The rectangular form of 5<30
a) 4.33+j2.5 b) - 4.33+j2.5 c) -4.33-j2.5 d) 4.33-j2.5
59. for addition and substraction the phasors must be expressed in
a) rectangular b) cylindrical c) polar d) spherical
60. for multiplication and division ac quantity is expressed in
a) cylindrical b) spherical c) rectangular d) polar
61. the power factor of pure resistive circuit is
a) zero b) unity c) lagging d) leading
62. in purely resistive circuit, the average power is the peak power
a) double b) one half of c) one forth of d) equal to
63. the voltage 200< +45 V is applied to R=5Ω then current is
a) 1000<45 b) 40<45 c) 40<0 d) 1000<0
64. the inductive reactance of an inductor L is
a. w/L b. 2πL/f c. wL d. 2fl
65. the inductive reactance of a coil of L=2mH at 100Hz is
a. 0.7957 b. 314.16 c. 1.2566 d. 2
66. inductive reactance of a coil of L =0.5H at 50Hz is
a. 15.7 b. 157 c. 50 d. 25
67. The average power consumption in a pure inductor is
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a. maximum b. minimum c. zero d infinite

68. For DC supply inductive reactance is
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a. infinite b. 1 c. zero e. none of these

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69. The power curve for a pure inductor is

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a. sine of double frequency b. cosine of double frequency

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c. sine of same frequency as supply frequency d. none of these

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70. In a pure capacitive circuit the current

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a. lags behind the voltage by 90 b. leads the voltage by 90

c. remains in phase with voltage d. none of these
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71. In pure capacitor the voltage current by 90

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a. leads b. in phase c. lags d. none of the above
72. The capacitive reactance of a capacitor C is given by
a. 1/fc b. 1/2πwc c. 2πw/C d. 1/2πfc
73. The average power consumption in a pure capacitor
a. zero b. infinite c. negative d. none of the above
74. The relation between frequency and capacitive reactance is
a. square b. direct c. inverse d. linear
75. the 50 Hz voltage of 100<30 is applied to a pure capacitor of 636.6197 micro farad then current is
a. 20<120 b. 20<30 c. 20<-60 d. 20<0
76. for dc supply capacitive reactance is
a. zero b. infinite c. one d. negative
77. for pure resistance impedance in rectangular form
a. R-jXl b. R+j Xl c. R+j0 d. R-jXc
78. the frequency of instantaneous power in purely capacitive circuit is the frequency
of the applied voltage
a. twice b. same as c. thrice d. half
79. In pure R circuit i(t)=14.14 sin(wt) and v(t)=282.842sin(wt) then average power consumption is W
a. 1000 b. 4000 c. 2000 d. 0
80. voltage of 50Hz and rms value of 100V is applied to an inductor of 2H then current is A
a. 0.159 b. 6.283 c. 2 d. 0
81. ac voltage of v(t)= 282.842 sin(314t) is applied to capacitor of 50μ F then current is
a. 6.28 b. 3.14 c. 0.1519 d. 0
82. what will be phase of current flowing through a pure capacitor if phase of applied voltage is 70̊°?
a. 70 b. 20 c. 160 d. -20
83. what will be the phase of current flowing through a pure inductor if the phase of applied voltage
is- 30̊°?
a. 60 b. -60 c. 120 d.-120
84. if the phase of current flowing through 5Ω pure resistance is 30 ° then phase of voltage across it is
a. 0 b. 30 c. 120 d. -60
85. Phase of current flowing through pure inductor 2μH is -30° then the phase of the voltage across
a. 60 b. -120 c. -30 d. -60
86. A tungsten filament lamp is an example of
a. pure inductor b. pure capacitor c. pure resistor d. none of these
87. Z=0-j50Ω represents purely circuit
a. inductive b. capacitive c. resistive d. none of these
88. Z=0+j25Ω represents purely circuit
a. inductive b. capacitive c. resistive d. none of the above
89. The instantaneous power in an AC circuit is
a. VI b. VI cosΦ c. v(t) i(t) cosΦ d. v(t)i(t)
90. The average power in an AC circuit is
a. VI b. VI cosΦ c. v(t) i(t) cosΦ d. v(t)i(t)
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91. heat produced by an electrical equipment like geyser is proportional to current

a. rms b. average c. square of rms d. square of avg
in
92. two or more ac quantities are represented on the same phasor diagram if they have same
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a. phase b. amplitude c. instantaneous value d. frequency

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93. in the equation i(t)=Im sinwt, i(t) represent______________value

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a. peak b. instantaneous c. rms d. average

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94. an alternating voltage is given by 212.132sin(πt +30) then its rms value and phase are
B
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a. 212.132,30 b. 150,0 c. 150,30 d. 212.132,0

95. A certain inductor draws a current of 2A from 100V supply at 50 Hz when frequency is increased
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to 100Hz then current drawn will be

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a. 2 b. 1 c. 0.5 d. 4
96. a certain conductor draws a current of 2A from 100 V supply at 50Hz when frequency is
increased to 100Hz the current drawn will be?
a. 2A b. 1A c. 0.5A d. 4A
97. At 50 Hz, capacitive reactance of capacitor is 25Ω at what frequency it will become 50Ω
a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 0
98. If pure R and L are connected in series then current will _______the applied voltage
a. lead b. in phase with c. lag d. none of these
99. Current in rectangular form is 20-j40 A is flowing through a pure inductor then the phase of the
applied voltage is
a. -153.43° b. 63.43° c. -26.57° d. 26.57°
100. Current in rectangular form is 20-j40 A is flowing through a pure capacitor then the phase of the
applied voltage is
a. -153.43° b. 63.43° c. -26.57° d. 26.57
Answer-
01-b 14-a 27-d
02-c 15-c 28-a
03-a 16-d 29-a
04-a 17-b 30-b
05-a 18-d 31-c
06-b 19-c 32-c
07-c 20-d 33-d
08-b 21-a 34-a
09-d 22-c 35-b
10-d 23-b 36-c
11-c 24-b 37-a
12-c 25-b 38-b

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13-b 26-c 39-a

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1. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as ______
constant
(a) time
(b) Faraday’s
(c) Boltzman
(d) Faraday’s and Boltzman
Ans: b
2. During the charging of a lead-acid cell

(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
3. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is

(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
4. The output voltage of a charger is

(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
5. During the charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell

(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
6. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead acid cell
has the advantage of
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(a) reducing time of charging

(b) increasing cell capacity
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(c) both (a) and (b)

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(d) avoiding excessive gassing

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Ans: c
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7. A dead storage battery can be revived by

B
(a) adding distilled water

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(b) adding so-called battery restorer

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(c) a dose of H2SO4

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Ans: d
8. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Ans: d
9. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
10. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _____ appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
11. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____ times that of the lead-acid cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
12. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about

(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
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13. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is

(a) silver oxide
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(b) lead oxide

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(c) lead
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(d) zinc powder

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Ans: a
B
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14. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges

C
(a) 500
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(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Ans: d
15. Life of the Edison cell is at least

(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
16. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of

(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
Ans: c
17. In ______ system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or
minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
18. Undercharging....
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Ans: a
9. On overcharging a battery
(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
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Ans: d
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20. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following ratio of
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acid to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3

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(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water

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(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water

B
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water

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(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water

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Ans: c
21. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Ans: d
22. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.

(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
Ans: a
23. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level of plates

(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
Ans: c
24. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
25. _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
26. Dry cell is modification of

(a) Deniell cell
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(b) Leclanche cell

(c) Lead-acid cell
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(d) Edison cell

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Ans: b
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27. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is

B
(a) dilute sulphuric acid

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(b) concentrated sulphuric acid

C
(c) NaOH
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(d) KOH
Ans: d
28. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
29. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of ____ volts.

(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
30. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(b) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
31. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
32. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery

(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Ans: b
33. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?

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(a) Lead-acid battery

(b) Nickel-iron battery
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(c) Dry cell battery

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(d) Silver oxide battery

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Ans: b
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B
34. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be

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(a) 10% of capacity

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(b) 20% of capacity

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(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
35. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Ans: a
36. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is

(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
12. In order to Increase voltage, number of cells are connected in

(A) series.
(B) parallel.
(C) opposite direction.
(D) none of the above.
Answer ⇓
A
13. In order to increase capacity of the battery, number of cells are connected in
(A) series.
(B) parallel.
(C) both above.
(D) none of the above.
Answer ⇓
B
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AMRUTVAHINI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING SANGAMNER
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
BEE MCQs
Prepared by Prof. Atul A. Joshi
Work power energy , RTC, Insulation B. ions

Resistance C. atoms
D. nucleus
THEORY QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH) Ans. A
Que. Two wires A and B of same material Que. The resistance of human body is around
and length L and 2L have radius r and 2r A. 5 ohms
respectively. The ratio of their specific B. 25 ohms
resistance will be C. 250 ohms
A. 1:1 D. 1000 ohms
B. 1:2 Ans. D
C. 1:4
D. 1:8 Que. One commercial unit of energy equals
Ans. A A. 500 watt seconds
B. one watt hour
Que. Two wires A and B of same material C. one Kilowatt hour
and length L and 2L have radius r and 2r D. ten kilowatt hour
respectively. The ratio of their resistances Ans. C
will be
A. 1:1 Que. One coulomb charge equals the charge
B. 2:1 on
C. 4: 1 A. 6.24x1012 electrons
D. 1:8 B. 6.24x1014 electrons
Ans. B C. 6.24x1016 electrons
D. 6.24x1018 electrons
Que. The hot resistance of filament of a bulb Ans. D
is higher than the cold resistance because the
temperature coefficient of filament is Que. Electric pressure is also called
A. negative A. resistance
B. infite B. power
C. zero C. voltage
D. positive D. energy
Ans. D Ans. C
Que. Insulation resistance of the insulating Que. With rise in temperature resistance of
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material should be pure metals

in
A. high A. increases
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B. low B. decreases
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C. zero C. first increases then decreases

D. none of these
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D. remains constant
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Ans. A Ans. A
B
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Que. The flow of current in solids is due to

C
Que. With rise in temperature resistance of

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A. electrons semiconductors
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A. increases
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BEE MCQs
B. decreases
C. first increases then decreases Que. An effort required to drift the
D. remains constant free electrons in one particular direction, in a
Ans. B conductor is called EMF
A. chemical
Que. Which of the following material has B. mechanical
nearly zero temperature coefficient of C. electrical
resistance D. thermal
A. manganin Ans. C
B. porcelain
C. carbon Que. I = /t amp
D. copper A. R
Ans. A B. L
C. Q
Que. Which of the following material has a D. t
negative temperature coefficient of resistance Ans. C
A. copper
B. aluminium Que. The ability of a charged particle to do
C. carbon work is called
D. brass A. potential difference
Ans. C B. electric potential
C. magnitude
Que. Ohm‟s law is not applicable to D. magnetism
A. vaccume tubes Ans. B
B. carbon resistor
C. high voltage circuits Que. The unit of electric potential is
D. circuits at low current densities A. amp
Ans. A B. coulomb
C. volt
Que. Which one of the following does not D. tesla
have negative temperature coefficient Ans. C
A. aluminium
B. paper Que. 1 calorie =
C. rubber A. 4.186 joules
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D. mica B. 0.24 joules

in
Ans. A C. 4186 joules

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D. 4186 KJ
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Que. An electrical effort required to drift the Ans. A

free electrons in one particular direction, in a
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conductor is called Que. Unit of resistivity is

B
A. MMF A. Ω
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B. EMF B. Ω-m
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C. Ω/m
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C. current
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Ans. B Ans. B
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BEE MCQs
D. none of above
Que. Unit of conductance is Ans. C
A. Ohm
B. Siemens Que. Semiconductors have
C. Newton temperature coefficient
D. Henry A. positive
Ans. B B. negative
C. zero
Que. The material having highest value of D. all above
is best conductor Ans. B
A. resistivity
B. conductivity Que. Resistance temperature coefficient is
C. permittivity denoted by
D. all above A. α
Ans. B B. β
C. θ
Que. The material having poorest value of D. Φ
is best insulator. Ans. A
A. resistivity
B. conductivity Que. The RTC at t OC is ratio of
C. permittivity A. change in conductance per degree Celsius
D. all above to the resistance at t 0 C
Ans. B B. change in resistance per degree Celsius to
the resistance at t 0 C
Que. Factors which affect the resistance C. change in initial resistance per degree
Celsius to the resistance at t 0 C
A. length of the material D. all above
B. cross sectional area Ans. B
C. temprature
D. all above Que. Unit of RTC is
Ans. D A. OC
B. /OC
Que. Effect of temperature on resistance C. Ω/OC
depends on of material D. Ω
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A. size Ans. B
in
B. shape
C. nature Que. Insulation resistance is defined as
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D. length opposition to the flow of

Ans. C A. current
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B. voltage
B
Que. Resistance of carbon as the C. leakage current

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temperature increases D. all above

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A. increases Ans. C
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BEE MCQs
Que. Insulation resistance R i = V/I l, in this V C. neutral particles only

is D. both positive and negative charges.
A. voltage between conductor and earth Ans. B
B. voltage between insulation and earth
C. voltage between conductor and insulator Que. Insulators have temperature
D. all above coefficient of resistance
Ans. A A. positive
B. negative
Que. Insulation resistance R i = V/I l, in this I l C. zero
is D. none of the above
A. current Ans. B
B. voltage
C. leakage current Que. Which effect of electrical current is
D. line current utilised in thermal systems
Ans. C A. Magnetic
B. chemical
Que. Insulation resistance is C. heating
proportional to its length D. all above
A. directly Ans. C
B. inversely
C. never Que. As per the Joule,s law the amount of
D. none of above heat produced is proportional to
Ans. B A. I.R
B. V.I
Que. Insulation resistance is inversely C. V.I.t
proportional to its D. I 2 R
A. length Ans. C
B. area
C. diameter Que. Geyser is a example of which system
D. cross sectional area A. Mechanical
Ans. A B. Electrical
C. Thermal
Que. which of the following substance, the D. None of above
resistance decreases with the increase of Ans. B
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temperature?
in
A. carbon Que. Boiling temp. of water is

B. constantan A. 50
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C. copper B. 75
D. silver C. 100
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Ans. A D. 35
B
Ans. C
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Que. The conventional electric current is due

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to the flow of Que. The amount of heat energy required to

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A. positive charges only change the temp. of a given substance

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B. negative charges only

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BEE MCQs
without change in the form of the substance Ans. C

is called as
A. Sensible heat energy Que. The heat energy required to convert a
B. Latent heat energy body from solid state to liquid state is called
C. Both of above as
D. None of above A. Latent heat of fusion
Ans. A B. Latent heat of vapourisation
C. Calorific value
Que. Which statement is correct D. All of above
A. 1cal=4.12 J Ans. A
B. 1cal=4.186 J
C. 1cal=4.44 J Que. The heat energy required to convert
D. 1cal=3.986 J liquid state to gaseous state is called as
Ans. B A. Latent heat of liquification.
B. Latent heat of vapourisation
Que. The amount of heat energy required to C. both of above
change the form of the substance with change D. None of above
in the temp. is called as Ans. B
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy Que. The unit of specific heat capacity is
C. Latent heat of energy A. J/Kg
D. All of above B. J/KgK
Ans. C C. Joule
D. J-Kg
Que. The amount of heat energy obtained by Ans. B
burning the unit mass of the fuel is called as
A. Molecular value Que. WATER-PUMP SET is the example of
B. Calorific value which system
C. Atomic value A. Electro-mechanical system
D. None of above B. Electro-chemical system
Ans. B C. Only electrical system
D. All above
Que. The unit of “THERMAL ENERGY” is Ans. A
A. Kilowatt-hour
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B. Watt-sec Que. The unit of force is

in
C. Joule A. Newton
B. Joule
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D. all of above
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Ans. C C. Newton-metre
D. Joule-Sec.
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Que. which effect of electric current is Ans. A

B
utilized in electric lamps?

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A. Magnetic effect Que. One metre cube holds a water of

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B. Chemical effect A. 1000Kg

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C. Heating effect B. 1000gm

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D. All of above C. 1000miligram

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BEE MCQs
D. none of above Ans. C

Ans. A
Que. Which relationship is correct?
Que. Which relationship is correct A. volume=mass. Density
A. P=T.ω B. volume=mass/density
B. P=T/ ω C. volume=mass +density
C. P=T.v D. none of above
D. P= ω / T Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. Potential energy is given as
ue. Power is defined as A. E=m.g.h
A. capacity to do the work B. E=m.g
B. workdone/time C. E=m.g.t
C. workdone. time D. above all
D. all above Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Kinetic energy is given by
Que. Energy is defined as A. E=1/2 mV 2
A. workdone/time B. E=1/2 mV
B. capacity to do the work C. E=1/2m.t
C. energy=power.resistance D. none of above
D. all above Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following statements is
Que. Effective water head of a Hydro-electric true?
power plant means it‟s A. Electric current is measured in volts
A. loss B. 200 kΩresistance is equivalent to 2MΩ
B. height C. An ammeter has a low resistance and
C. friction must be connected in parallel with a circuit
D. none of above D. An electrical insulator has a high
Ans. B resistance
Ans. D
Que. Efficiency is the ratio of
A. power and time Que. What must be known in order to
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B. output and input calculate the energy used by an electrical

in
C. input and output appliance?

A. voltage and current
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D. above all
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Ans. B B. current and time of operation

C. power and time of operation
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Que. Wind-mill-Generator set is the example D. current and resistance

B
of Ans. C
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A. electro-chemical system
C
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B. electro-thermal system Que. Voltage drop is the

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C. mechanical-electrical system A. maximum potential

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D. all above B. difference in potential between two points

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BEE MCQs
C. voltage produced by a source A. increase

D. voltage at the end of a circuit B. remain same
Ans. B C. decrease
D. none of above
Que. The opposition to the flow of leakage Ans. C
current is called as
A. resistance Que. Which is a good conductor of electricity
B. leakage coefficient A. normal tap water
C. insulation resistance B. pure water
D. all above C. glass
Ans. C D. plastic
Ans. B
Que. The insulation resistance is generally in
A. Ohms Que. As moisture content in the air
B. Mega ohms increases,then the insulation resistance will
C. Mili Ohms A. decrease
D. Micro Ohm B. remain same
Ans. B C. increase
D. none of above
Que. The insulation resistance of a cable is Ans. A
A. directly proportional to length of cable
B. inversly proportional to length of cable Que. When the Humidity in the surrounding
C. remains same with change in length increases, the leakage current in the cable
D. none of above will
Ans. B A. remain same
B. increase
Que. Which is the expression for insulation C. decrease
resistance of a single core cable D. all of above
A. R =ρ l/a Ans. B
B. Ri = (R2 /R1 ) Que. Factors affecting the insulation
C. Ri= (R2 /R1 )
resistance of a cable are
D. R= V/I A. length
Ans. B B. thickness
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C. resistivity of insulating material

Que. As the thickness of insulation layer of a
in
D. all above
cable increases it‟s insulation resistance will Ans. D
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A. increase
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B. decrease Que. What is current?

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C. remain same A. Flow of electrons.

B
D. none of above B. Flow of protons.

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Ans. A C. Flow of Neutrons.

C
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D. None of above.
Que. As the Temprature of surrounding
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Ans. A
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increases the insulation resistance will

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BEE MCQs
Que. What is Resistance? D. All of above.

A. to assist the flow of current. Ans. D
((B to oppose the flow of current.
C. to oppose the flow of voltage. Que. Resistance of material will increase with
D. to assist the flow of voltage. increase of?
Ans. B A. Cross-section area of material.
B. Length of material.
Que. Unit of resistance is. C. Both Length and Cross-section area of
A. Volts. material.
B. Amperes. D. None of above.
C. Ohm. Ans. B
D. Faraday.
Ans. C Que. What will be the effect on the resistance
of conducting material if the temperature
Que. Resistance of material will decrease increases?
with increase of? A. No effect on resistance.
A. Length of material. B. Resistance will increase.
B. Both Length and Cross-section area of C. Resistance will decrease.
material. D. Resistance will remain same.
C. Cross-section area of material. Ans. B
D. All of the above.
of conducting material if the temperature
Que. According to Ohm‟s law current is decreases?
directly proportional to? A. Resistance will remain same.
A. Resistance of material. B. No effect on resistance.
B. Voltage across it. C. Resistance will increase.
C. Both Voltage and Resistance. D. Resistance will decrease.
D. Temp. Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. What will be the effect on the resistance
Que. According to Ohm‟s law current is of insulating material if the temperature
inversely proportional to? increases?
A. Voltage across it. A. No effect on resistance.
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B. Both Voltage and Resistance. B. Resistance will increase.

in
C. Resistance of material. C. Resistance will remain same.

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D. Temp. D. Resistance will decrease.

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Ans. C Ans. D
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Que. What are the factors on which resistance Que. What will be the effect on the resistance
B
of material depends? of insulating material if the temperature

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A. Length and Cross-section area of decreases?

C
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material.
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B. Temperature of material. A. Resistance will remain same.

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C. Specific resistivity of material. B. No effect on resistance.

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C. Resistance will increase. Que. The variation of resistance with

D. Resistance will decrease. temperature is governed by a property called
Ans. C A. Resistance access coefficient (RAC).
B. Resistance nature coefficient (RNC).
Que. What will be the resistance of semi- C. Resistance temperature coefficient (RTC).
conductor at low temperature? D. None of above.
A. Resistance will be high. Ans. C
B. Resistance will be low.
C. No effect on resistance.
D. None of above. Que. Temperature co-efficient of resistance at
Ans. A 00 C is defined as the change in resistance per
ohm original resistance per 0 C change in
Que. What will be the resistance of semi- temperature.
conductor at high temperature? A. True.
A. Resistance will be high B. Fasle.
B. No effect on resistance.. Ans. A
C. Resistance will be low.
D. None of above. Que. Unit of Temperature co-efficient of
Ans. A resistance is.
A. /Ώ/0 C
Que. At low temperature semi-conductor will B. /0 C
behave as? C. 0 C
A. Insulator. D. Ώ/0 C
B. Conductor. Ans. B
C. Semi-conductor.
D. None of above. Que. Temperature co-efficient of resistance
Ans. B α0 is given by.
A. 0
Que. At high temperature semi-conductor
will behave as? B. 0
A. Insulator. C. 0
B. Conductor.
D. 0
C. Semi-conductor.
D. None of above. Ans. A
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Ans. B
Que. Which effect of electrical current is
in
Que. The length of a conductor or a wire is utilised in thermal systems?

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A. Magnetic
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doubled and its cross section is also doubled

then the resistance will. B. chemical
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A. Increases four times. C. heating

B
B. Remains unchange D. all above

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C. Decreases four times. Ans. C

C
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D. Change at random.
Que. If the efficiency of a machine is to be
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Ans. B
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high, what should be low?

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A. input power Que. Which of the following relation is

B. losses incorrect?
C. KWh consumed A.
D. ratio of output to input B. R
Ans. B C. P=V2 /R
D. P=V2R
Que. One Nnewton meter is same as Ans. D
A. one watt Que. The resistance of copper wire 200 m

B. one Joule long is 21 ohms. If its thickness is 0.44 mm,
C. five Joules its specific resistance is around
D. one Joule second A. 2x10-8 Ω-m
Ans. B B. 4x10-8 Ω-m
C. 6x10-8 Ω-m
Que. f I, R, t are the current, resistance and D. 8x10-8 Ω-m
time respectively, then according to Joule‟s Ans. C
Law; heat produced will be proportional
to Que. Two underground cables A and B, each
A. I 2 Rt has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω
B. I 2 Rt 2 resp. each has insulation resistance of 600
C. I 2 R2 t MΩ and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are
D. I 2 R2t2 connected in series, its conductor resistance is
Ans. A
A. 1.2 MΩ
Que. Which resistor will be physically larger B. 0.2 Ω
in size? C. 1.4 Ω
A. 100Ω, 10W D. 1.4 M Ω
B. 10Ω, 50W Ans. C
C. 1MΩ, 0.5W
D. 1KΩ, 1W Que. Two underground cables A and B, each
Ans. B has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω
resp. each has insulation resistance of 600
Que. When current flows through heater coil, MΩ and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are
it glows but supply wiring does not glow connected in parallel, its insulation resistance
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because is
A. 1200 MΩ
in
A. current through supply line flows at

slower speed B. 2400 Ω
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C. 1000 MΩ
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B. supply wiring is covered with insulation

layer D. 1600 Ω
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C. resistance of heater coil is more than Ans. C

B
supply wires
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D. supply wires are made of superior material Que. A 100W electric light bulb is connected
C
H
Ans. C to a 250V supply.The current in the circuit is

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A. 0.3A
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B. 0.4A
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C. 4A A. 1400 ohm
D. 0.6A B. 60 ohm
Ans. B C. 960 ohm
D. 325 ohm
Que. A 100W electric light bulb is connected Ans. C
to a 250V supply. Its hot resistance is
A. 625Ω Que. The energy used by a 1.5kW heater in 5
B. 526Ω minutes is:
C. 62.5Ω A. 5 J
D. 625mΩ B. 450 J
Ans. A C. 7500 J
D. 450000 J
Que. 60 μs is equivalent to: Ans. D
A. 0.06s
B. 0.00006 s Que. If a current of 5A flows for 2 minutes,
C. 1000 minutes the quantity of charge transferred will
D. 0.6 s A. 600C
Ans. B B. 100C
C. 0.6C
Que. The current which flows when 0.1 D. 60C
coulomb is transferred in 10 ms is Ans. A
A. 1A
B. 10A Que. In what time would a current of 1A
C. 10mA transfer a charge of 30 C?
D. 100mA A. 45s
Ans. B B. 30s
C. 65s
Que. The p.d. applied to a 1 kΩ resistance in D. 4s
order that a current of 100 μA may flow is Ans. B
A. 1V
B. 100V Que. How long must a current of 0.1A flow
C. 0.1V so as to transfer a charge of 30 C?
D. 10V A. 5 min
Ans. C B. 5s
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C. 50min
in
Que. The power dissipated by a resistor of D. 50s

4Ωwhen a current of 5A passes through it is Ans. A
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A. 6.25W
B. 20W Que. A force of 4N moves an object 200 cm
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C. 80W in the direction of the force. Work done is

B
D. 100W A. 6J
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Ans. D B. 8J
C
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C. 4J
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Que. A 240V, 60W lamp has a working D. 10J

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resistance of Ans. B
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Que. 0.32mA= ........... μA Que. Which of the following lamps will have
A. 0.0032 least resistance at room temperature?
B. 0.032 A. 25W, 220V
C. 0.00032 B. 100W, 220V
D. 320 C. 200W, 220V
Ans. D D. 60W, 220V
Ans. C
Que. If two cables with their insulation
resistances Ri1 and Ri2 are joined in Que. If the length of a wire of resistance R
series,then their equivalent resistance will be is uniformly stretched to n times its original
A. Ri1 + Ri2 value, its new resistance is
B. Ri1 - Ri2 A. nr
C. Ri1 / Ri2 B. R/n
D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2 C. n2 R
Ans. D D. r/n2
Ans. C
Que. If two cables with their insulation
resistances Ri1 and Ri2 with conductor Que. length of wire having resistance of 1
resistances R 1 and R2 respectively are joined ohm is cut into four equal parts and these four
in parallel ,then their equivalent insulation parts are bundled together side-by-side to
resistance will be form a wire. The new resistance will be
A. Ri1 + Ri2 A. 1/4 ohm
B. Ri1 - Ri2 B. 1/16 ohm
C. Ri1 / Ri2 C. 4 ohm
D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2 D. 16 ohm
Ans. A Ans. B
Que. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200W rated at Que. The resistance of copper wire 25 m
250 V will have resistance ratio as long is found to be 50 Ω. If its diameter is
A. 4:25 1mm, then resistivity of copper is
B. 25:4 A. 1.57µΩ-m
C. 2:5 B. 57Ω-m
D. 5:2 C. 15.7Ω-m
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Ans. C D. 157 Ω-m

in
Ans. A
Que. With three resistances connected in
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parallel, if each dissipates 20 W, the total Que. At 300K the temperature coefficient
power supplied by the voltage source equals of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 /OC and its
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resistance is 1 ohm. The resistance of wire

B
A. 10W will be 2 ohm at

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B. 20W A. 1154 K
C
C. 40W
H
B. 1100 K
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D. 60W C. 1400 K
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Ans. D D. 1127 K
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Ans. B Que. At 00 C a specimen of copper have a

resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co-
Que. Two underground cables A and B, efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per
each has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 00 C Find the value of its temperature co-
0.8 Ω resp. each has insulation resistance of efficient at 700 C
600 MΩ and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are A. 0.003248/0 C
connected in series, its insulation resistance is B. 0.003428/0 C
C. 0.003284/0 C
A. 120 MΩ D. 0.003434/0 C
B. 240 Ω Ans. C
C. 240 MΩ
D. 160 Ω Que. At 00 C a specimen of copper have a
Ans. C resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co-
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per
Que. Two underground cables A and B, 00 C Find the value of resistance at 700 C
each has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and A. 4.5mΏ.
0.8 Ω resp. each has insulation resistance of B. 3.5mΏ.
600 MΩ and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are C. 5.19mΏ.
connected in parallel, its conductor resistance D. 5.5mΏ.
is Ans. C
A. 0.3428Ω
B. 0.240 Ω Que. A certain copper winding has a
C. 0.240 MΩ resistance of 100Ώ at room temperature. RTC
D. 0.160 Ω of copper at 00 C is 0.00428/0 C, calculate the
Ans. A winding resistance if temperature is increased
to 500 C, assume room temperature as 250 C
Que. Match the pair A. 111 Ώ.
Resistance a- /0 C B. 115 Ώ.
Insulation resistance b-siemens C. 109 Ώ.
RTC c-ohm D. 113 Ώ.
Conductance d-MΩ Ans. C
A. 1a,2-b,3-c,4-d
B. 1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b Que. An aluminum conductor has
C. 1-d,2-c,3-a,4-b resistance of 10Ώ AT 200 C and the RTC of
D. all above
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0.0039 per 0 C at 200 C. Find the RTC at 00 C

Ans. C A. 0.000124/0 C
in
Que. If length of cable is doubled, then its B. 0.00423/0 C

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insulation resistance will

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C. 0.00324/0 C
A. reduce by 25% D. 0.0000423/0 C
P
B. reduce by 50%
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Ans. B
B
C. increase by 50%
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D. reduce by 55% Que. Find the resistance of filament of 60

C
Ans. B
H
watt in a 230 V supply lamp at its working

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temperature.
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A. 990 Ώ.
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B. 881.667 Ώ. connected to 220V supply. Which bulb will

C. 981.667 Ώ. glow more brightly?
D. 1000 Ώ. A. 25W bulb
Ans. B B. 100W bulb
C. both will glow with same brightness
D. neither bulb will glow
Que. A single core cable has 1.5cm Ans. B
diameter conductor and thickness of
insulation is 2.2 cm. The resistivity of Que. A 25W, 220V bulb and a 100W,
insulating material is 9.2×1012 Ώ-m. 220V are joined in series and connected to
Determine the insulation resistance per km 220V supply. Which bulb will glow brighter?
length of cable. A. 25W bulb
A. 2×1012 Ώ. B. 100W bulb
B. 2.9×1013 Ώ. C. both will glow with same brightness
C. 2×109 Ώ. D. neither bulb will glow
D. 9.2×1012 Ώ. Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. You are given three bulbs of 25W,
Que. A single core cable has a 5cm 40W and 60W. Which of them has the lowest
diameter conductor and thickness of resistance?
insulation is 2.2 cm. The resistivity of A. 25W bulb
insulating material is 9.2×1012 Ώ-m. B. 40W bulb
Determine the insulation resistance per km C. 60W bulb
length of cable. D. incomplete information
A. 0.55×10-6 Ans. C
B. 55×10-6
C. 0.55×10-12 Que. You have the following electric
D. 0.55×106 appliances:
Ans. A i.1KW, 250V electric heater
ii.1KW, 250V electric kettle
Que. The armature winding of a DC iii.1KW, 250V electric bulb
machine when connected to DC supply of Which of these has the highest resistance?
240 V was drawing a 6 A at 250 C and 25 A A. heater
when heated Evaluate temperature of B. kettle
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armature winding if α of its material at 250 C C. all have equal resistances

is 0.0039/0 C
in
D. electric bulb
A. 1000 C Ans. C
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B. 1100 C
C. 96.790 C Que. The time required for 1KW electric
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D. 98.790 C kettle to raise the temperature of 10 liters of

B
Ans. C water through 10°C is (Specific

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heat of water is 4200 J/KgK)

C
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Que. A 25W, 220V bulb and a 100W, A. 210 sec

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220V bulb are joined in parallel and B. 420 sec

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C. 42 sec
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D. 840 sec A. 0.126Ω

Ans. B B. 0.121Ω
C. 0.125Ω
Que. A 3 Ω resistor having 2 A current D. 0.127Ω
will dissipate the power of Ans. B
A. 2W
B. 6W
C. 4W Que. The coil has resistance of 4Ω at
D. 12 W 220 C.RTC of coil at 220 C is 0.0039 /0 C.
Ans. D After operating the coil at 210V for 2days,
current through coil is 42A. The temperature
Que. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil of coil at this time is………
has the resistance of 2Ω per meter. For a A. 960 C
heater of 1KW at 200V, the length of wire B. 86.10 C
required will be C. 500 C
A. 80m D. 600C
B. 60m Ans. B
C. 40m
D. 20m
Ans. D Que. An immersion water heater takes 1hr to
heat 50Kg of water from 200 C to boiling
Que. How many KW will be required to point. The efficiency of heater is 90%, the
light a factory which has 250 lamps each power rating of heater is……(specific heat of
taking 1.3A at 230V?. water is 4200j/Kg.k)
A. 74750W A. 4.65KWh
B. 7.47KW B. 5.16KWh
C. 325W C. 5.185KW
D. 299W D. 50KW
Ans. A Ans. C
Que.
A factory is supplied with power at 210V. Que. The time taken to raise temperature of
The load consists of 250,60W lamp and 4 880gm of water from 160 C to boiling point if
motor each taking 40amp. Find total current heater takes 2A at 220V is ……….
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demand by factory. (Efficiency of heater is 90% specific heat of

in
A. 40A water is 4200j/Kg.k,)

B. 210A A. 13.08 min
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C. 250A B. 13 hr
D. 231.4A C. 15 min
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Ans. D D. 20 min
B
Ans. A
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Que. A carbon electrode has resistance of

C
H
0.125 at 200 C. What will be resistance of Que. A tap supplies water at 220 C. A man
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electrode at 850 C. RTC of carbon is - 0.005 at takes 1 lit of water per minute at 370 C from
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200 C. geyser. The power rating of geyser is ……

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A. 1000 W Que. A portable machine requires a force

B. 500 W of 200N to move it. If the machine is moved
C. 1050 W through 20m in 25s, power required is
D. 1500 W A. 160kW
Ans. C B. 1600W
C. 16kW
Que. Amount of energy expended in raising D. 160W
temperature of 45 liter of water by 75 0 C is Ans. D
……..
A. 3.937KWh Que. Energy provided by a source e.m.f. of
B. 4.36 KW 5V supplying a current of 3A for 10 minutes
C. 43.6 KWh is
D. 436 KW A. 9kJ
Ans. A B. 65J
C. 25kJ
D. 90kJ
Ans. A
Que. A current of 3A flows for 50 hrs Que. 450 J of energy are converted into
through a 6Ωresistor. The energy consumed heat in 1 minute. The power dissipated is
by the A. 7.5kW
resistor is B. 7.5W
A. 0.9 kWh C. 750W
B. 2.7 kWh D. 600W
C. 9 kWh Ans. B
D. 27 kWh
Ans. B Que. The power rating of a D.C. electric
motor consuming 36 MJ when connected to a
Que. The amount of work done in lifting a 250V supply for 1 hour is
mass of 500 kg to a height of 6m in 30 s, the A. 100W
power developed B. 10W
A. 2943J C. 500W
B. 0.2943J D. 10KW
C. 29.43J Ans. D
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D. 29.43KJ
in
Ans. D Que. A current of 2A flows for 10 hr.

through a100 Ω resistor. The energy
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Que. The power required in lifting a mass consumed by the resistor is

of 500 kg to a height of 6m in 30 s. A. 0.5 kWh
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A. 198J B. 4 kWh
B
B. 981W C. 2 kWh
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C. 198W D. 0.02 kWh

C
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D. 981J Ans. B
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Ans. B
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Que. Amount of heart energy required to C. 40%

raise the temperture of 10kg of water through D. 55.9%
100o C is Ans. D
(Swof water as 4200J/kgK)
A. 4.2kJ Que. A hydroelectric generating plant is
B. 4.2MJ supplied from reservoir of capacity 2 X10 7
C. 42kJ m3 with water head of 200m. Efficiency of
D. 420J system is 0.72. The amount of useful energy
Ans. B is …….
A. 8.8 X 109 Wh
Que. The power required to drive certain B. 7.99 X 109 Wh
machine at 350 rpm is 60 KW. The driving C. 8.855 X 109 Wh
torque produced is ………. D. 7.85 X 109 Wh
A. 1600 N-m Ans. D
B. 1637 N-m
C. 163 N-m Que. The H.P rating of an engine which
D. 16370 N-m drives a generator supplying a load of 7000
Ans. B lamp each taking 0.5A at 250V is
……..(efficiency of generator is 95%)
Que. An electric motor when operated for 30 A. 1234.6H.P
minute consumes 0.75 KWh. The energy loss B. 1172.9H.P
during the process is 300 KJ. The efficiency C. 2000H.P
of motor is …….. D. 500H.P
A. 88.08 % Ans. A
B. 88 %
C. 88.88% Que. A steam power station has an overall
D. 78 % efficiency of 20%.The calorific value of coal
Ans. C used is 7166.67 kcal/kg. The amount of coal
burnt per KWh of electrical energy is ……
Que. An electric motor when operated for 30 A. 2 Kg
minute consumes 0.75 KWh. The energy loss B. 0.6 kg
during the process is 300 KJ. The useful work C. 6 Kg
done by motor is ……… D. 1 Kg
A. 2400 KJ Ans. B
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B. 240 KJ
in
C. 24 J Que. A motor is used to crank an engine

against the torque of 60 N-m at 75 rpm for
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D. 24000 KJ
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Ans. A 8second. The energy requirement of each

start is……
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Que. The total power supplied to an engine A. 41.87 Wh

B
which drives generator is 40.25 KW. B. 4.187W

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Generator delivers 15A to a 100Ω load. The C. 4.187 Wh

C
efficiency of process is ……
H
D. 4500 w
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A. 60% Ans. C
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B. 65%
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Que. A hydro power station has a reservoir hours a day? The effective water head is
capacity of 5x106 m3 .The effective water 220m.The overall efficiency of the power
head is 100m. The penstock, turbine, station is 86.4%.
generator efficiencies are A. 2.316x105 m3
95%,90%,85%respectively. The total energy B. 2.316x106 m3
generated from power station is…. C. 2.316x107 m3
A. 35.61x1015 watt-sec D. 2.316x108 m3
B. 35.61x1010 watt-sec Ans. B
C. 35.61x109 watt-sec
D. 35.61x1011 watt-sec Que. The power required to drive certain
Ans. D machine at 350 rpm is ---- --. The driving
torque produced is 1637 N-m ….
((Q))2_ An electrically driven pump lifts A. 40KW
80m3 of water per min through a height of B. 50 KW
12m.IF overall efficiency of motor-pump set C. 60 KW
is 70%. The input power to motor is …… D. 60 W
A. 224.228Kw Ans. C
B. 156960W
C. 150000W Que. The total power supplied to an engine
D. 200Kw which drives generator is -----. If Generator
Ans. A delivers 15A to a 100Ω load. The efficiency
of process is 55.9%.
Que. A1500V dc motor takes an input of A. 40.25 W
35Kw and drives a load at 1500 rpm. The B. 4025 KW
torque required by the load is 2oo N-m.The C. 402.5KW
efficiency of motor is D. 40.25 KW
A. 85% Ans. D
B. 89.77%
C. 90% Que. The 1234.6 H.P rating engine drives a
D. 70% generator supplying a load of 7000 lamp each
Ans. B taking 0.5A at 250V .efficiency of generator
is
Que. How many joules of energy will be A. 95%
required to melt 50 kg of tin .The m.p of tin is B. 80%
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2350 C and room temperature is 150 C. Latent C. 30%

in
heat of fusion for tin is 55.902 KJ/Kg and D. 50%

specific heat is 0.231KJ/Kg.K Ans. A
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A. 5500 KJ
B. 5000 KJ
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C. 5336.1 KJ Que. An electrically driven pump lifts 80m3

B
D. 6000 KJ of water per min through a height of 12m.IF

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Ans. C overall efficiency of motor-pump set is 70%.

C
H
The input power to motor is 224.228Kw .the

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Que. How much volume of water is used by overall efficiency of motor-pump set is
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100MW power station suppling load for 12 A. 70%.

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B. 75% Ans. B
C. 60%
D. 80% Que. Current carrying conductor is always
Ans. A surrounded by
A. magnetic field
Que. A1500V dc motor takes an input of------ B. electric field
--- and drives a load at 1500 rpm. The torque C. Electricity
required by the load is 2oo N-m.The D. current
efficiency of motor is 89.77% Ans. A
A. 40KW
B. 35Kw Que. The direction of magnetic field
C. 90KW produced by current carrying conductor is
D. 45KW given by
Ans. B A. Lenz‟s law
B. right hand thumb rule
Que. The calorific value of coal used for C. Fleming‟s left hand rule
thermal power generation is D. Kirchoff‟s law
7166.67kcal/kg.The amount of coal burnt per Ans. B
KWh of electrical energy is 0.6 kg. The
steam power station has an overall efficiency Que. Imaginary lines of force originating
of from magnet is called
A. 25% A. current
B. 20%. B. resistance
C. 18% C. flux
D. 22% D. magnetic field
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. when an electric motor having Que. Region surrounded by magnet is called
efficiency of 88.88% is operated for 30 A. magnetic field strength
minute consumes 0.75 KWh. The energy loss B. magnetic field
during the process is ------- C. electric field
A. 200KJ D. resistance
B. 7500J Ans. B
C. 300 KJ
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D. 75KW Que. lines of force is also called

in
Ans. C A. flux
B. current
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Electromagnetism C. resistance
D. flux density
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Que. The complete path followed by the Ans. A

B
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magnetic flux is called

Que. Lines of force passing per unit area is
C
A. electric circuit
H
B. magnetic circuit called

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C. electromagnetism A. magnetic field

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D. electric field B. magnetic flux

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C. magnetic flux density C. Tesla

D. magnetic field strength D. ohms
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. The force experienced between two

current carrying conductors in the same
Que. unit of flux is direction
A. weber A. have force of repulsion between them
B. wb/m2 B. have force of attraction between them
C. Tesla C. remains unaffected
D. AT D. none of above
Ans. A Ans. B
Que. Unit of flux density is Que. Magneto motive force is directly

A. wb/m2 proportional to
B. wb A. no. of turns of coil
C. AT/wb B. current through the coil
D. A C. both a and b
Ans. A D. none of above
Ans. C
Que. Unit of magnetic field
A. wb/m2 Que. The term permeability for a material
B. wb means
C. AT/wb A. the no. of turns on an air core
D. none of above B. the mmf required to produce one unit of
Ans. D magnetic flux
C. the ability of a material to carry electricity
Que. Unit of reluctance is through it
A. AT/wb D. the ability of material to carry magnetic
B. AT lines of force
C. Tesla Ans. D
D. Wb/A
Ans. A Que. An air gap is usually inserted in a
magnetic circuit
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Que. Opposition to the magnetic lines of A. to prevent saturation

in
force is called B. increase flux

A. Flux C. decrease flux
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B. resistance D. increase mmf

C. susceptance Ans. A
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D. reluctance
B
Ans. D Que. Permeability of a material is the ratio of

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A. magnetic field to flux density

C
H
Que. Unit of magnetic field strength is B. magnetic flux density to magnetic field
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A. AT/m strength
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B. AT/wb C. magnetic field strength to flux density

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D. none of above Que. MMF in magnetic circuit is analogous

Ans. B to
A. electric current in electric circuit
Que. The term saturation related to magnetic B. current density in electric circuit
circuit means C. electromotive force(EMF)in electric
A. magnetic field strength increases with circuit
current D. resistance in electric circuit
B. flux density increases with current Ans. C
C. flux density remains constant if magnetic
field strength is increased Que. Reluctance is analogous to
D. magnetic field strength remains constant A. emf in electric circuit
if flux density is increased B. resistivity in electric circuit
Ans. C C. conductivity in electric circuit
D. resistance in electric circuit
Que. The lines of force produced by coil Ans. D
completing their path through air, instead of
intended path is called Que. The magnetic reluctance of a material
A. useful flux A. increases with increasing cross sectional
B. saturated flux area of material
C. air flux B. does not vary with increasing the cross
D. leakage flux sectional area
Ans. D C. decreases with increasing cross sectional
area of material
Que. The bulging of lines of force in air gap D. decreases with increasing the length of
in a magnetic circuit is called material
A. leaking flux Ans. C
B. merging
C. fringing Que. The correct relation in the following is
D. scattering A. ф =
Ans. C
B.
Que. Relative permeability of vacuum is C.
A. 4π × 10-7 H/m D.
B. 1 H/m
Ans. D
Jo
C. 1
in
D. ¼ H/m
Ans. C Que. The permeance in a magnetic circuit
@
SP
corresponds to
Que. Permeability of vacuum is A. resistance in an electric circuit
P U
A. 4π × 10-7 H/m B. emf in an electric circuit

B
B. 1 H/m C. conductivity in electric circuit

TE
C. 1 D. conductance in an electric circuit

C
Ans. D
H
D. ¼ H/m
-T
Ans. A
el
Que. The ampere turns are

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BEE MCQs
A. the product of the number of turns and C. ferromagnetic substances

current of the coil D. vacuum
B. the number of turns of a coil through Ans. C
which current is flowing
C. the currents of all turns of the coil Que. The perfect insulator for magnetic lines
D. the turns of transformer winding of force is
Ans. A A. copper
B. rubber
Que. Leakage factor is defined as the ratio of C. glass
A. flux in air gap by total flux D. none of these
B. Total flux by useful flux Ans. D
C. air gap flux by useful flux
D. total flux by flux produced by solenoid Que. When current carrying conductor is
Ans. B brought into magnetic field, the force that
moves the conductor depends upon
Que. Effect of fringing in magnetic circuit is A. direction of current
A. it increases flux density B. length of conductor
B. its effective area of air gap decreases C. value of current
C. it decreases flux density D. both b and c
D. none of above Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. The magnitude of force experienced by
Que. The force experienced by unit north current carrying conductor placed in
pole when placed at point in a magnetic field magnetic field depends on
is called A. value of flux
A. magnetic field strength at that point B. magnitude of current flowing through
B. exerted force at that point conductor
C. flux C. direction of current
D. magnetic field D. all of above
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. The mechanical force acting on current Que. Two current carrying conductor lying
carrying on conductor when placed in parallel and close to each other. They are
magnetic field is given by relation carrying current in the opposite direction. The
Jo
A. force between them is

A. repulsive
in
B. B. Attractive
@
C.
SP
C. Zero
D. D. none of these
P U
Ans. C Ans. A
B
TE
Que. Which of the following has the highest Que. Two current carrying conductor lying
C
H
magnetic permeability parallel and close to each other. They are

-T
A. paramagnetic substances carrying current in the same direction. The

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B. diamagnetic substances force between them is

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BEE MCQs
A. repulsive Que. Which statement is correct related to

B. Attractive magnetic field produced due to current
C. Zero carrying conductor
D. none of these A. direction of rotation of screw to advance
Ans. B in the direction of current gives the direction
of magnetic field
Que. Two current carrying conductors lying B. If right hand curled fingers shows the
parallel and close to each other are exerting direction of current, thumb gives the direction
force of attraction on each other. The currents of magnetic field
are C. if direction of rotation of screw shows
A. very high current ,tip gives the direction of magnetic
B. in opposite direction field
C. low D. all of these
D. in the same direction Ans. A
Ans. D
Que. Force experienced by current carrying
Que. Two current carrying conductor lying conductors when placed in magnetic field
parallel and close to each other are exerting will be zero when
force of repulsion on each other. The currents A. current in the conductor is maximum
are B. Angle between conductor and field is zero
A. very high C. Both a &b
B. in opposite direction D. None of these
C. low Ans. B
D. in the same direction
Ans. B Que. Relative permeability is defined as the
ratio of
Que. Magnetic field strength due to N long A. magnetic field strength in a medium to
straight conductors carrying current in the flux density in the same medium
same direction is given by B. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to
A. magnetic field strength in vacuum
C. Magnetic flux density in other medium to
B.
flux density in vacuum
C. D. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to flux
D. density in other medium
Jo
Ans. C
Ans. C
in
Que. The ability with which the magnetic

@
Que. Fleming‟s left hand rule is used to find

SP
material allows the flux to pass through a

A. Magnitude of induced emf in conductor given medium is called
P U
B. Direction of magnetic field in conductor A. susceptibility

B
C. Direction of force on current carrying B. permeability

TE
conductor C. conductivity
C
D. Magnitude of flux density

H
D. reluctivity
-T
Ans. C Ans. B
el
eg
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BEE MCQs
Que. Unit of permeability is

A. Que. 1 Tesla is given as
A. 1wb/m2
B.
B. 1wb/cm2
C. C. 1mwb/cm2
D. 1wb/mm2
D.
Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Which part of the magnetic path
Que. Permeability of free space or vacuum is requires largest mmf
defined as the ratio of A. coil
A. magnetic flux density in vacuum to B. core
magnetic field strength C. airgap
B. magnetic flux density in other medium to D. inductance
magnetic field strength Ans. C
C. magnetic field strength to magnetic flux
density in vacuum Que. Soft steel and iron alloy allows easy
D. magnetic field strength in medium to flux flow of a magnetic flux because
density in other medium A. of its high elasticity
Ans. A B. of its high permeability
C. of its high conductivity
Que. Right hand thumb rule is used to find D. of its high reluctance
out Ans. B
A. direction of induced emf
B. direction of magnetic field due to current Que. Magnitude of the magnetic field
carrying conductor strength produced by a coil depends on
C. magnitude of force experienced A. Permeability of the core material
D. direction of force B. the no. of turns of coil
Ans. B C. the magnitude of current flow through the
coil
Que. In Flemings left hand rule, thumb D. all of the above
always represents Ans. D
A. current
B. voltage Que. The relative permeability of air
Jo
C. magnetic field is
D. direction of force on conductor
in
A. 1
Ans. D B. less than 1
@
SP
C. greater than 1
Que. Permeance is to reluctance as D. 1000
P U
conductance is to Ans. A
B
A. inductance
TE
B. resistance Que. Relative permeability of all non

C
C. capacitance
H
magnetic materials is
-T
D. ampere turns A. 300

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Ans. B B. 0.7
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BEE MCQs
C. 1 Que. The strength of the magnetic field

D. 0 around a conductor is directly proportional to
Ans. C A. voltage across the conductor
B. current in the conductor
C. type of material of conductor
Que. Which of the following is non magnetic D. none of above
material? Ans. B
A. iron
B. Mild steel Que. Reluctance of magnetic material is
C. brass A. less than non magnetic material
D. Silicon steel B. more than non magnetic material
Ans. C C. equal to that of non magnetic material
D. none of above
Que. Which of the following is magnetic Ans. A
material?
A. copper Que. The denser the flux
B. silicon steel A. stronger is the magnetic field
C. aluminum B. weaker is the magnetic flux
D. brass C. no effect on the strength of field
Ans. B D. none of above
Ans. A
Que. Flux in the air gap which passes through
the desired path is Que. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given
A. leakage flux by
B. total flux A. Flemings right hand rule
C. useful flux B. Flemings left hand rule
D. all of above C. faradays law of electromagnetic induction
Ans. C D. crock screw rule.
Ans. A
Que. The reluctance of a magnetic circuit
varies with Que. One weber is
A. length × area A. 108 lines of force
B. length / area B. 106 lines of force
C. area/length C. 109 lines of force
Jo
D. (length)2 + area D. none of these

in
Ans. B Ans. A
@
SP
Que. A strength of an electromagnet is Que. Magnetomotive force is given by

determined by A.
P U
A. reluctance B.
B
B. permeability of the core C.

TE
C. mmf D. all of the above

C
H
D. all of above Ans. D

-T
Ans. D
el
Que. In a series magnetic circuit

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BEE MCQs
A. Flux always remains same

B. MMF remains same Que. According to Faraday‟s Laws of
C. Reluctance remains same electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f.is
D. permeability remains same induced in a conductor whenever it
Ans. A A. Lies in magnetic field
B. Cuts magnetic flux
Que. In a parallel magnetic circuit C. moves parallel to the direction of the
A. Flux always remains same magnetic field
B. MMF remains same D. lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux.
C. Reluctance remains same Ans. B
D. permeability remains same
Ans. B Que. When a magnet moves past an object, it
will produce eddy currents in the object if the
Que. The direction of magnetic field by object is
using right hand thumb rule for solenoid is A. a solid
given by B. an insulator
A. curled fingures C. a conductor
B. thumb D. made from the magnetic material
C. fore fingure Ans. D
D. middle fingure
Ans. B Que. Electricity can be generated by rotating
a wire loop between the poles of a magnet. In
Que. The direction of induced e.m.f. is which of the following positions would
given by induce the greatest current in the loop?
A. Flemings right hand rule A. The plane of the loop is parallel to the
B. Flemings left hand rule magnetic field
C. faradays law of electromagnetic induction B. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to
D. crock screw rule. the magnetic field
Ans. A C. The plane of the loop makes an angle of
45° with the magnetic field
Que. Magnitude of induced e.m.f. will be D. The induced current is the same in all
dependent on positions
A. flux density Ans. B
B. rate of change of current
Jo
C. rate of cutting flux Que. In which of the following situations a

in
D. bothb and c voltage is induced in a conductor?

Ans. D A. The conductor moves through the air.
@
SP
B. The conductor is connected to a battery.

Que. According to Lenz‟s law direction of C. The conductor is connected to a motor.
PU
induced e.m.f. is D. The conductor is moved in a magnetic

B
A. Same as cause produced field

TE
B. Perpendicular to cause producing it Ans. D

C
H
C. opposite to cause producing it

-T
D. Non above
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Ans. C
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BEE MCQs
Que. Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic A. Static inductance

induction describes how an electric field can B. Dynamic inductance
be reduced at a point in space by C. Self inductance
A. an electric charge D. Mutual inductance
B. a constant magnetic field Ans. C
C. a changing magnetic field
D. a steady current. Que. is used to sense the flow
Ans. C of current in a electric circuit.
A. Ammeter
Que. In case of dynamically induced emf, B. Voltmeter
direction of induced emf is given by C. Wattmeter
A. Fleming‟s right hand rule D. Galvanometer
B. Lenz‟s law Ans. A
C. Faraday‟s first law
D. Faraday‟s second law Que. The phenomenon of the self induction
Ans. A is felt only when the current in the coil is
A. Changing
Que. Emf induced in a coil due to its own B. Increasing
current is called Induction. C. Decreasing
A. Mutual D. All the above
B. Self Ans. D
C. Dynamic
D. Static
Ans. B Que. The negative sign in the induced emf of
self induction indicates that energy is being
Que. Emf induced in a coil due to current absorbed from the electric circuit and stored
change in neighboring coil is as energy in the coil.
called induction. A. mechanical
A. Mutual B. Electronic
B. Self C. electric
C. Dynamic D. Magnetic
D. Static Ans. D
Ans. A
Que. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of
Jo
Que. Co-efficient of self induction is also the circuit is

in
called as A. Volt
A. self- induction B. Ampere
@
SP
B. Inductance C. Henry
C. Self- inductance D. Linkages
P U
D. Induction Ans. C
B
Ans. C
TE
Que. Unit of induced emf is

C
H
Que. The property of a coil due to which it A. Volt

-T
opposes the change of current flowing B. Ampere

el
through itself is called of the coil. C. Henry

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BEE MCQs
D. Linkages B. Difference
Ans. A C. Product
D. ratio
Que. The property of one coil due to which it Ans. D
opposes the change in the other coil is
called…………. between two coils. Que. NI expression is called
A. Dynamic inductance A. MMF
B. Static inductance B. EMF
C. Self inductance C. Flux linkage
D. Mutual inductance D. Magnetic intensity
Ans. D Ans. A
Que. The unit of mutual inductance Que. Expression is called

is
A. MMF
A. Volt
B. EMF
B. Ampere/ Volt C. Flux linkage
C. Henry
D. Magnetic field strength
D. Linkages Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. Expression for mutual inductance is
Que. In the expression e = M dI/dt , M A. –L dI/dt
represents B. MdI / dt
A. Mutual induction
C. N2 Ф2/ I1
B. Mutual inductance
D. NФ/I
C. Number of lines of force
Ans. C
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. As per Faraday‟s law of
electromagnetic induction, e=
Que. Leakage factor can be called as A. –NdФ/dt
A. Fringing
B. MdI / dt
B. Coefficient of inductance
C. N2 Ф2 / I 1
C. Magnetic coefficient
D. NФ/I
D. Hopkinson‟s coefficient Ans. A
Ans. D
Jo
Que. The constant K in case of mutual

in
Que. Movement of electrons are called as

induction is equal to
A. MMF
@
A. Ф1 /Ф2
SP
B. Current B. Ф2 /Ф1
C. Voltage
P
C. Ф1 /I 1
U
D. Flux D. Ф2 /I1
B
Ans. B
TE
Ans. D
C
H
Que. Flux density is equal to of

Que. Product of the permeability μ 0 μr is
-T
flux and area of cross – section. equal to

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A. Sum
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BEE MCQs
A. Magnetic flux C. value of current

B. Magnetic field D. all of the above
C. Magnetic intensity Ans. D
D. Magnetic flux density / magnetic field
strength Que. When a coil consisting of single turn
Ans. D rotates at uniform speed in magnetic field, the
induced emf is
Que. Expression for self induced emf is A. steady
A. –L dI/dt B. alternating
B. MdI 1 / dt C. changing
C. N 2 Ф2 / I 1 D. reversing
D. NФ/I Ans. B
Ans. A Que. If l is the length of magnetic path, then
magnetizing force is
Que. is normally termed as flux A. N l
linkages. B. NI x ℓ
A. Ф C. ℓ / NI
B. dФ/dt D. NI / ℓ
C. NФ Ans. D
D. Ф/I
Ans. C Que. The amount of energy stored in
magnetic field is
Que. The term NФ/I is generally called A.
as
B.
A. Self inductance
B. Mutual inductance C.
C. Flux linkage
D.
D. Induced emf
Ans. A Ans. B
Que. In the expression for reluctance Que. The unit of energy stored in magnetic
field is
of a conduced, letter „a‟ represents A. Watt
of the core. B. Joule/sec
A. Total area
Jo
C. Joule
B. Surface area D. Joule-sec
in
C. Cross- sectional area Ans. C

@
D. None of these.
SP
Ans. C Que. The amount of energy stored per unit

PU
volume in magnetic field is

B
Que. When a current carrying conductor is A.

TE
brought in to magnetic field, the force that

C
moves the conductor depends on B.

H
A. direction of current. C.
-T
B. length of conductor
el
eg
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BEE MCQs
D. A. in same direction
B. in opposite direction
Ans. B
C. in outward direction
D. in inward direction
Que. The relation between self inductances
Ans. B
L1 and L2 of two side by side placed coils and
the mutual inductance M between them, with
Que. If two coils having self inductances of
coefficient of coupling as K is ….
L1 Henry and L2 Henry are cumulatively
A.
coupled. The mutual inductance between
B.
√ them is M Henry. Then the effective or
C. equivalent inductance is……
√ A. L1 +L2 +2M
D. √ √ B. L1 +L2 -2M
Ans. C C. L1 +L2 +M
D. L1 +L2 -M
Que. If two side by side placed coils are Ans. A
perfectly coupled, then the coefficient of
coupling is…. Que. If two coils having self inductances of
A. less than 1 L1 Henry and L2 Henry are differentially
B. More than 1 coupled. The mutual inductance between
C. equal to 1 them is M Henry. Then the effective or
D. equal to zero equivalent inductance is……
Ans. C A. L1 +L2 +2M
B. L1 +L2 -2M
Que. If two side by side placed coils are C. L1 +L2 +M
loosely coupled, then the coefficient of D. L1 +L2 -M
coupling is…. Ans. B
A. less than 1
B. More than 1 Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300
C. equal to 1 turns over a steel of relative permeability
D. equal to zero 900. If a current of 5 A is passed through the
Ans. A coil. The MMF is
A. 4500 AT
Que. If two side by side placed coils are B. 270000 AT
Jo
cumulatively coupled, then the fluxes in that C. 1500 AT

in
two coils are always …. D. 7500 AT

Ans. C
@
A. in Same direction
SP
B. in Opposite direction
C. in outward direction Que. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb
P U
D. in inward direction to 0.3 Wb, then change in flux is Wb

B
A. 1.1
TE
Ans. A
B. 0.5
C
H
Que. If two side by side placed coils are C. -0.5

-T
differentially coupled, then the fluxes in that D. -1.1

el
two coils are always …. Ans. C

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BEE MCQs
The mutual inductance between them is 5mH

Que. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
the current is 100 mA, then MMF is inductance is……
A. 40 mH
A. 2000 AT B. 20 mH
B. 200 AT C. 35 mH
C. 20 AT D. 25 mH
D. 0.5 AT Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. A straight conductor having an active 10mH and 20mH are differentially coupled.
length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform The mutual inductance between them is 5
magnetic field of 0.6 T. Find the emf Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
produced in the conductor when it is moved inductance is……
perpendicular to the magnetic field at a rate A. 40 mH
of 7 m/s B. 20 mH
A. 0V C. 35 mH
B. 1.26V D. 25 mH
C. 0.18V Ans. B
D. 0.88V
Ans. B Que. What will be the current flowing
through the ring shaped air core when
Que. The coil with self inductance 35mH number of turns is 800 and ampere turns are
carries a current of 4 amp. The amount of 3200
energy stored in it is A. 0.25A
A. 1.12 J B. 2.5A
B. 0.14 J C. 4.0A
C. 0.56 J D. 0.4A
D. 0.28 J Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. If 0.75 V is induced emf and resistance
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced
turns over steel ring of relative permeability current is
900, having mean circumference of 40mm A. 3.75 A
and cross sectional area of 50mm2 . A current
Jo
B. 3. 75 mA
of 25A is passed through coil. Then the mmf
in
C. 3. 75 micro Ampere
of ring is
@
D. 37.5 mA
A. 5000AT
SP
Ans. B
B. 7200AT
P
C. 750AT
U
B
D. 7500 AT Que. A straight conductor having an

TE
Ans. D active length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform

C
H
magnetic field of 0.6 T. Find the emf

-T
produced in the conductor when it is moved

10mH and 20mH are cumulatively coupled.
el
at 300 to the magnetic field at a rate of 7 m/s

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BEE MCQs
A. 0V B. 70mWb
B. 1.26V C. 10.6mWb
C. 0.63V D. 106mwb
D. 0.88V Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. A magnetic circuit has a mmf of
Que. A conductor of 10cm length 400AT and a reluctance of 2 × 105 AT/wb.
carrying a current of 5A placed in uniform The magnetic flux in the magnetic circuit is
magnetic field of flux density 1.25T at 30 0 to A. 3 × 10-5 Wb
the lines of flux. Force acting on conductor B. 2 × 10-3 Wb
will be C. 1.5 × 10-2 Wb
A. 0.3125N D. 2.5 × 10-4 Wb
B. 3.125N Ans. B
C. 1.325N
D. 5.321N Que. A 2cm long coil has 10 turns and
Ans. A carries a current of 750mA. The magnetizing
force of the coil is
Que. A solenoid has a flux of 12mwb and a A. 225 AT/m
flux density of 0.9T.The diameter of B. 675 AT/m
solenoid must be C. 450 AT/m
A. 130.3mm D. 375 AT/m
B. 13.33cm Ans. D
C. 10cm
D. 4.12cm Que. A magnetic core having mean length
Ans. A of 20cm, C/S area of 1 cm2 , µr of 2400 . The
reluctance of the magnetic core is
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 A. 663.48 x 104 AT/wb
turns over steel ring of relative permeability B. 663.48 x 103 AT/wb
900, having mean circumference of 40mm C. 66.348 x 102 AT/wb
and cross sectional area of 50mm2 . A current D. 66.348 x105 AT/wb
of 25A is passed through coil. Then the Ans. B
reluctance of ring is
A. 7×107 AT/Wb Que. If the reluctance of magnetic
B. 0.7×106 AT/Wb material is 65x 105 AT/wb. The no. of amp
Jo
C. 6×107 AT/Wb turns required to produce a flux of 20

in
D. 6×105 AT/Wb mwb

A. 13x103 AT
@
Ans. B
SP
B. 13x104 AT
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 C. 13x102 AT
P U
turns over steel ring of relative permeability D. none of these

B
900, having mean circumference of 40mm Ans. B

TE
and cross sectional area of 50mm2 . A current

C
H
of 25A is passed through coil. The value of Que. An iron ring of 100 cm mean
-T
flux is diameter and 10 cm2 cross section has 1000

el
A. 10.6Wb
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BEE MCQs
turns of copper wire on it. The permeability uniform field of 1.5T. Find the mechanical
of the material is 1500. The reluctance of the force on the conductor.
ring is A. 37.5 N
A. 1.67 x 106 AT/Wb B. 0
C. 53N
B. 16.7 x 106 AT/Wb
D. 75N
C. 1.67 x 105 AT/Wb Ans. D
D. 1.67 x 104 AT/Wb
Ans. A Que. A straight wire 0.5 m long carries a
current of 100A & lies at parallel to the
Que. A coil is wound uniformly over a uniform field of 1.5T. Find the mechanical
steel of relative permeability 900, having a force on the conductor.
mean circumference of 40 mm and cross- A. 373N
sectional area of 50 mm2. The reluctance of B. 0
the steel is C. 53N
A. 707.714 x 103 AT/Wb D. 75N
B. 70.77 x 103 AT/Wb Ans. b
C. 707.714 x 104 AT/Wb
D. 7.07 x 104 AT/Wb Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300
Ans. A turns over a steel ring of relative permeability
900 having mean circumference of 40cm &
Que. A straight conductor having an cross sectional area of 5 cm2. If coil has
active length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform resistance of 100 Ω, & is connected to 250V
magnetic field of 0.6 T. Find the emf DC supply, calculate coil current.
produced in the conductor when it is moved A. 2.5A
parallel to the magnetic field at a rate of 7 B. 3.53 mA
m/s C. 2.8A
A. 0V D. none of these
B. 1.26V Ans. D
C. 0.18V
D. 0.88V Que. A magnetic circuit has a m.m.f. of
Ans. A 400 AT & a reluctance of 2 x 105 AT/wb The
magnetic flux in the magnetic circuit is
Que. In certain electric motor, wire that A. 3 x 10-5wb
Jo
carry a current of 5A are perpendicular to a B. 2 x 10-3wb

in
magnetic field of 0.8 T. What is the force on C. 1.5 x 10-2wb

D. 2.5 x 10-4wb
@
each cm of these wires

SP
A. 0.04 N Ans. B
P
B. 4 N
U
C. 0.4 N Que. In a magnetic circuit the value of B

B
and H are 1.5Tesla and 20 AT/m

TE
D. none of these
Ans. A respectively. The amount of energy stored per
C
H
unit volume in it is
-T
Que. A straight wire 0.5 m long carries a A. 60 J

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current of 100A & lies at right angle to a B. 30 J

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BEE MCQs
C. 15 J B. 0.169H
D. 13.33 J C. 0.011H
Ans. C D. 0.0188H
Ans. C
Que. The magnetic circuit with mean
length of 100 cm and 20cm2 cross sectional Que. A magnetic circuit requires 800
area gives magnetic field strength of 150 A/m ampere turns to produce a certain amount of
along its length, The flux of 6 mWb is flux. If exciting coil of 100 turns has 5 ohms
developed in it. Then the amount of energy resistance, then the voltage to be applied to
stored in it is the exciting coil must be
A. 0.9 J A. 40V
B. 0.45 J B. 20 V
C. 450J C. 10V
D. 18 J D. 5V
Ans. B Ans. A
Que. The magnetic circuit with mean

length of 100 cm and 20cm2 cross sectional Transformer
area gives magnetic field strength of 150 A/m
along its length, The flux of 6 mWb is
developed in it. Then the amount of energy Que. A transformer is used to
stored per unit volume in it is A. change ac voltage to dc voltage
A. 1800J B. change dc voltage to ac voltage
B. 900 J C. step up or step down dc voltages
C. 225 J D. step up or step down ac voltages
D. 450 J Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. The two windings of a transformer are
Que. The self inductances of two side by
side placed coils are 18 mH and 12 mH A. conductively linked
respectively. If the mutual inductance B. inductively linked
between them is 6mH, then the coefficient of C. not linked at all
coupling is…. D. electrically linked
A. 0.245 Ans. B
Jo
B. 0.41
in
C. 088 Que. The magnetically operated device that

@
D. 0.4 can change values of voltage, current, and

SP
Ans. D impedance without changing frequency is

P
called
U
Que. The self inductances of two side by A. Motor

B
side placed coils are 18 mH and 12 mH

TE
B. Generator
respectively. If the coefficient of coupling is
C
C. Transformer
H
0.78, then the mutual inductance between D. Transistor

them is ….
-T
Ans. C
el
A. 0.53H
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BEE MCQs
Que. Transformer is used to change values

Que. The transformer winding across which of
the supply voltage applied is called the A. Frequency
winding. B. Voltage
A. Primary C. Power
B. Secondary D. Power factor
C. Tertiary Ans. B
D. Tapped
Ans. A Que. The path of the magnetic flux in
transformer should have
Que. The transformer winding which is A. Low resistance
connected to the load is called the B. Low reluctance
winding. C. High reluctance
A. Primary D. High conductivity
B. Secondary Ans. B
C. Tertiary
D. Tapped
Ans. B Que. Electrical power is transformed from
one coil to other coil in
Que. If supply frequency of a transformer transformer
increases, the secondary output voltage of the A. Physically
transformer . B. Electrically
A. Decreases C. Magnetically
B. increases D. Electromagnetically
C. remains same Ans. D
D. decreases slightly
Ans. B Que. A transformer operates
A. Always at unity power factor
Que. The horizontal and vertical portions of B. At power factor depending on load
transformer magnetic core are called C. Has its own power factor
as D. At power factor below particular value
A. Limb, yoke Ans. B
B. Yoke, limb
C. Yoke Que. The laminations of transformer core are
Jo
D. Limb made up from

in
Ans. B A. Low carbon steel

B. Silicon sheet steel
@
SP
Que. The principle of working of transformer C. Nickel alloy steel stamping

is based on D. Chrome sheet steel
P U
A. Static induction Ans. B

B
B. Mutual induction
TE
C. Dynamic induction Que. The material used for construction of

C
H
D. Self induction transformer core should have

-T
Ans. B A. Low permeability & high hysteresis loss

el
B. Low permeability & low hysteresis loss

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BEE MCQs
C. High permeability & high hysteresis loss Ans. B

D. high permeability & low hysteresis loss
Ans. D Que. The main function of transformer iron
core is to
Que. Most transformer cores are not made A. Provide strength to the winding
from a solid piece of metal. Instead, they are B. To decrease hysteresis loss
assembled from many thin sheets of metal. C. Decrease the reluctance of magnetic path
This type of construction is D. Reduce eddy current loss
called Ans. C
A. Laminated
B. Toroid Que. The transformer turns ratio
C. H core determines
D. tape wound A. the ratio of primary and secondary
Ans. A voltages
B. the ratio of primary and secondary
Que. The concentric cylindrical winding is currents
used for C. The resistance on other side
A. Core type transformer D. all of the above
B. Shell type transformer Ans. A
C. Berry type transformer
D. None of these Que. Turns ratio of single phase transformer
Ans. A is given as
A. N2/N1
Que. The sandwich type winding is used B. N1/N2
for C. (N1xN2)/N1
A. Core type transformer D. (N1xN2)/N2
B. Berry type transformer Ans. B
C. Shell type transformer
D. None of these Que. A transformer in which the secondary
Ans. C voltage is more than the primary voltage is
called a transformer
Que. Silicon steel is used for transformer A. step-down
core B. step-up
A. To reduce hysteresis loss C. Isolation
Jo
B. To reduce eddy current loss D. Auto

in
C. To reduce both losses Ans. B

@
D. None of these
SP
Ans. A Que. A transformer in which the primary

voltage is more than the secondary voltage is
P U
Que. What is common in two windings of called a transformer

B
transformer A. step-down
TE
A. Electric current B. step-up

C
H
B. Magnetic circuit C. Isolation

-T
C. Winding wire guage D. Auto

el
D. None of these Ans. A

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BEE MCQs
Ans. C
Que. Any transformer flux that does not
follow the core and escapes into the Que. Eddy current losses in transformer core
surrounding air is called is reduced by
A. magnetizing flux A. Increasing the thickness of laminations
B. coupling flux B. Decreasing the thickness of laminations
C. leakage flux C. Decreasing the air gap in magnetic circuit
D. reactance flux D. Using wire of higher guage for winding
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. A transformer that does not isolate the Que. A good transformer oil should be
output from the input is called absolutely free from
transformer A. Sulpher
A. Distribution B. Alkalies
B. step-up C. Moisture
C. Auto D. All of the above
D. Control Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. Single phase core type transformer
Que. Ideal transformer assumptions do not has
include A. One magnetic circuit
A. Zero reactance of the winding B. Two magnetic circuits
B. Zero resistance of the winding C. No magnetic circuit
C. No leakage flux D. None of these
D. No saturation of the core Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. Single phase shell type transformer
Que. The efficiency of the transformer is has
normally is normally in the range A. One magnetic circuit
of B. Two magnetic circuits
A. 50 to 70% C. No magnetic circuit
B. 60 to 75 % D. None of these
C. 80 to 90 % Ans. B
D. 90 to 98%
Jo
Ans. D Que. Natural cooling is better in

in
A. Core type transformer

B. Shell Type transformer
@
Que. The resistance of low voltage side of

SP
transformer C. Both A & B

A. Is equal to resistance of its high voltage D. Berry type transformer
P U
side Ans. A
B
B. Is more than its resistance on high voltage

TE
side Que. EMF equation for single phase

C
H
C. Is less than its resistance on high voltage transformer is

A. E= 4.44 Φm A f N
-T
side
el
D. 0 B. E= 4.44 Bm A N
eg
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BEE MCQs
C. E= 4.44 Bm f N Que. The induced emf in transformer

D. E= 4.44 Φm f N secondary depends on
Ans. D A. Maximum flux in core
B. Frequency
Que. Transformation ratio(K) of transformer C. No of turns on secondary
is D. all of the above
A. N2/N1 Ans. D
B. E1/E2
C. I2/I1 Que. Transformer power rating is usually
D. V1/V2 expressed in
Ans. A A. kW
B. kVA
Que. For Isolation transformer the C. kV
transformation ratio(K) is D. kWh
A. 0 Ans. B
B. Greater than 1
C. Less than 1 Que. In a transformer if secondary turns are
D. 1 doubled, at the same time primary voltage is
Ans. D reduced by half, the secondary voltage
will
Que. In step up transformer the A. Be halved
transformation ratio (K) is_ B. Not change
A. Greater than 1 C. Be four times
B. 1 D. Be reduced to quarter
C. Less than 1 Ans. C
D. 0
Ans. A Que. The no load current in terms of full load
current in a transformer is usually
Que. In step down transformer the A. 1 to 3%
transformation ratio (K) is B. 3 to 9 %
A. Greater than 1 C. 9 to 12%
B. 1 D. 12 to 20%
C. Less than 1 Ans. A
D. 0
Jo
Ans. C Que. Transformer oil is used in transformer

in
to provide
A. Cooling and insulation
@
Que. The primary and secondary voltages in

SP
transformer are B. Cooling and lubrication

A. Always in Phase C. Insulation and lubrication
P U
B. 1800 out of phase D. Insulation, cooling and lubrication

B
C. 900 out of phase Ans. A

TE
D. 300 or 600 out of phase

C
H
Ans. B Que. What is the typical use of

-T
autotransformer
el
A. Toy transformer
eg
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BEE MCQs
B. Control transformer
C. Variable transformer Que. The efficiency of single phase
D. Isolating transformer transformer is calculated as
Ans. C
A.
Que. In any transformer the voltage per turn B.
in primary and secondary
remains C.
A. Always different
B. Always the same
D.
C. Always in ratio of K
Ans. A
D. Sometimes same
Ans. B
Que. The disadvantage of auto transformer
is
Que. If we increase the flux density in case of
A. No separation between primary &
transformer
A. The size of transformer will reduce secondary
B. The distortion in transformer will reduce B. Size is more than normal transformer for
same rating
C. Hysteresis and eddy current losses will
C. More costlier than normal transformer
reduce
D. All
D. None of these will be true
Ans. D
Ans. A
Que. The direct loading test is performed on Que. In a transformer the voltage regulation
will be near to zero when it operates
transformer to find its
at
A. Regulation
A. unity p.f.
B. Efficiency
B. leading p.f.
C. Both
C. lagging p.f.
D. None of these
D. full loaD.
Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. The regulation of transformer is
Que. A transformer steps up voltage by a
calculated as
factor of 100. The ratio of current in the
primary to that in
Jo
A. secondary
in
A. 1
@
B. 100
SP
B. C. 0.01
P
D. 0.1
U
B
C. Ans. B
TE
C
Que. An ideal transformer does not

H
D. change
-T
Ans. A A. Voltage
el
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BEE MCQs
B. Power
C. current Que. The flux involved in EMF equation of a
D. None of these transformer has
Ans. B A. RMS Value
B. Average Value
Que. The flux in transformer C. Total Value
core D. maximum Value
A. increases with load Ans. D
B. decreases with load
C. remains constant irrespective of load Que. If primary of the transformer is
D. none of these connected to dc supply, then
Ans. C A. Primary draws small current
B. primary leakage reactance is increased
Que. Efficiency of transformer is maximum C. core losses are increased
when D. primary may burn out
A. transformer is unloaded Ans. D
B. copper losses is equal to iron losses
C. eddy current losses are equal to hysteresis Que. For an ideal transformer the windings
losses should have
D. it is maximally loaded A. maximum resistance on primary side and
Ans. B least resistance on secondary side
B. least resistance on primary side and
Que. If the supply frequency in transformer is maximum resistance on secondary side
doubled, then C. equal resistance on primary and secondary
A. hysteresis loss also doubles side
B. eddy current loss also doubles D. no ohmic resistance on either side
C. iron losses doubles Ans. D
D. copper losses doubles
Ans. A Que. A transformer does not raise or lower
the voltage of DC supply because
Que. Hysteresis loss in transformer depends A. there is no need to change the DC voltage
on B. DC circuit has more losses
A. both voltage and frequency C. Faradays laws of electromagnetic
B. voltage alone induction become invalid since the rate of
Jo
C. frequency alone change of flux is zero

in
D. none of these D. none of these

Ans. A Ans. C
@
SP
Que. Eddy current loss depends Que. Primary winding of a transformer

P U
on
B
A. both current and frequency A. is always low voltage winding

TE
B. current alone B. is always high voltage winding

C
C. could either be a low or high voltage

H
C. frequency alone
winding
-T
D. none of these
el
Ans. A D. none of these

eg
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BEE MCQs
Ans. C C. core flux remains practically constant

D. primary and secondary voltage remains
Que. Which winding of a transformer has constant
more number of turns Ans. C
A. Low voltage winding
B. High voltage winding Que. The transformer laminations are
C. Primary winding insulated from each other by
D. secondary winding A. mica strip
Ans. B B. thin coat of varnish
C. paper
Que. In a given transformer for a given D. any one of these
applied voltage, which losses remain constant Ans. B
irrespective of change in load
A. Friction and wingdage loss Que. In transformer resistance between
B. copper loss primary and secondary should
C. hysteresis and eddy current loss be
D. none of these A. zero
Ans. C B. 10 ohm
C. 1000 ohm
Que. Main advantage to use autotransformer D. infinity
over two winding transformer Ans. D
A. Hysteresis losses are reduced
B. savings in winding material Que. A good voltage regulation of
C. copper losses are negligible transformer means
D. Eddy current losses are totally eliminated A. output voltage fluctuations from no load to
Ans. B full load is least
B. output voltage fluctuations with power
Que. An ideal transformer is one which has factor is least
C. difference between primary and secondary
A. no losses and magnetic leakage voltage is least
B. interleaved primary and secondary D. difference between primary and secondary
winding voltage is maximum
C. a common core for its primary and Ans. A
secondary
Jo
D. core of stainless steel and winding of pure Que. Negative voltage regulation is indicative
in
copper material that the load is

Ans. A A. Capacitive only
@
SP
B. inductive only
Que. In a practical transformer core losses C. inductive or resistive
P U
remains constant from no load to full load D. none of these

B
because Ans. A
TE
A. value of transformation ratio remains

C
H
constant Que. The size of the transformer core depend

-T
B. permeability of transformer core remains on

el
constant A. frequency
eg
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m
BEE MCQs
B. area of the core A. zoom

C. flux density of the core material B. hum
D. (a) and (b) both C. ringing
Ans. D D. buzz
Ans. B
Que. A shell type transformer has
Que. Part of the transformer which is most
A. high eddy current losses subject to damage from overheating
B. reduced magnetic leakage is
C. negligible hysteresis loss A. iron core
D. none of these B. copper winding
Ans. B C. insulation of the winding
D. transformer tank
Que. Deduction in core losses and increase in Ans. C
permeability are obtained with transformer
employing Que. As per the name plate of transformer,
A. core built up of laminations of cold rolled the secondary normal voltage is 220V. Which
grain oriented steel of the following statement about it is
B. core built up of laminations of hot rolled correct?
steel A. 220V is no load voltage
C. either a or b B. The no load voltage is more than 220V
D. none of these C. The secondary voltage increases with
Ans. C increase in load
D. At a load which draws the rated current &
the voltage becomes less than 220V.
Que. Losses which occur in rotating electric Ans. A
machine and do not occur in transformers
are Que. In which of the following transformer,
A. friction and windage losses part of the primary winding serves as the
B. magnetic losses secondary winding
C. hysteresis and eddy current losses A. Potential transformer
D. copper losses B. Auto transformer
Ans. A C. Step up transformer
D. None of these
Que. Which of the following loss in a
Jo
Ans. B
transformer is zero even at full
in
load
@
Que. The rating of the transformer is given in

A. core loss
SP
kVA instead of kW because

B. friction loss A. kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load
PU
C. eddy current loss pf

B
D. Hysteresis loss B. load power factor is often not known

TE
Ans. B C. it has become customary

C
H
D. total transformer loss depends on VA

Que. The noise produced by transformer is
-T
Ans. B
el
termed as
eg
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BEE MCQs
Que. Increase in secondary current of D. primary mmf smaller than secondary mmf
transformer brings about increase in primary Ans. A
current . This is possible
because Que. Positive voltage regulation occurs in
A. primary and secondary windings are case of transformer for
capacitively coupleD. A. capacitive load
B. primary and secondary windings are B. resistive load only
inductively coupled C. inductive load only
C. primary and secondary windings are D. either inductive or resistive load
conductively coupled Ans. D
D. none of these
Ans. B Que. Cooling of transformer is required so as
to
Que. Transformer for constant voltage A. increase efficiency
application is considered good if its voltage B. reduce losses
regulation is C. reduce humming
A. low D. dissipate the heat generated in the winding
B. high Ans. D
C. zero
D. none of these Que. The transformer efficiency will be
Ans. C maximum at a power factor of
A. 0.8 pf lead
Que. Transformer action needs that the B. unity
magnetic flux linking with the winding must C. 0.8 lag
be D. 0.5 lag or lead
A. constant Ans. B
B. pulsating
C. alternating Que. The regulations of two transformers are
D. none of these (i) 3% and (ii) 97%. The one with better
Ans. C regulation is
A. second
Que. Low voltage windings are placed next B. first
to the core to reduce C. both are same
A. Hysteresis loss D. depends on loading
Jo
B. eddy current loss Ans. B

in
C. insulation requirement
D. copper loss Que. At relatively light loads, the transformer
@
SP
Ans. C efficiency is low because

A. secondary output is low
P U
Que. The relation between the primary and B. transformer losses are high
B
secondary ampere turns of a C. fixed loss is high in proportion to the

TE
transformer output
C
A. exactly equal
H
D. copper loss is small.

-T
B. approximately equal Ans. C

el
C. primary mmf larger than secondary mmf

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BEE MCQs
Que. A dielectric material must be Que. Electric field intensity at any point in an
A. resistor electric field is equal to
B. Insulator A. potential gradient
C. Conductor B. (potential gradient)2
D. Semiconductor C. (potential gradient)1/2
Ans. B D. (potential
gradient)1/3 Ans. A
Que. The energy stored in a capacitor is given
by Que. The lines of forces due to isolated
A. C2 V charged particles are
B. CV 2 /2 A. always straight
C. C2 V/2 B. always curved
D. CV C. sometimes curved
Ans. B D. none of the above
Ans. A
Que. Electrolytic capacitors can be used
for Que. The direction of electric field due to
A. ac only positive charge is
B. dc only A. away from the charge
C. both ac and dc B. towards the charge
D. 50 Hz ac C. both (a) and (b)
Ans. A
Que. If a number of capacitors are connected Que. The unit of capacitance is

in series then the total capacitance of A. Volts/Coulomb
combination is B. Coulomb/Volt
A. greater than the capacitance of largest C. Ohms
capacitor D. Henry/Wb
B. greater than the capacitance of any Ans. B
capacitor
C. smaller than the capacitance of smallest Que. There is repulsive force between two
capacitor charged objects when
D. average of capacitances of all capacitors A. Charges of unlike sign
Jo
Ans. C B. they have the same number of protons

in
C. charges are of same sign

Que. As per Coulomb‟s
@
D. they have the same number of protons

SP
law Ans. C
A. F= Q 1 Q 2 / εo εrd 2
P U
B. F= Q 1 Q 2 / 4 d 2 Que. The capacitance of a capacitor is not

B
C. F= Q1 Q 2 / 4 εo εrd 2 affected by
TE
D. F= Q1 Q 2 /4 εo εrd A. distance between plates

C
H
Ans. C B. area of plates

-T
C. thickness of plates
el
D. all of the above

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BEE MCQs
Ans. C B. The current in the discharging capacitor

grows exponentially
Que. When there is an equal amount of C. The current in the discharging capacitor
positive and negative charges on an object the decays exponentially
object is D. The current in the discharging capacitor
A. Positively charged decreases constantly
B. negatively charged Ans. C
C. neutral
D. supercharged Que. In a capacitor the electric charge is
Ans. C deposited on
A. metal plates
Que. Which of the following statements is B. dielectric
correct? C. both (a) and (b)
A. Air capacitors have a black band to D. none of the above
indicate the outside foil Ans. A
B. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected
in the correct polarity
C. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in Que. Which of the following materials has
the correct polarity the highest value of dielectric constant
D. Mica capacitors are available in A. Glass
capacitance value of 1 to 10 µF B. Vaccum
Ans. B C. Ceramics
D. Oil
Que. For which of the following parameters Ans. C
variation, the capacitance of the capacitor
remains unaffected? Que. Capacitance of air capacitor increases
A. Distance between plates with
B. Area of the plates A. increase in plate area and decrease in
C. Nature of dielectric distance between the plates
D. Thickness of the plates B. increase in plate area and distance between
Ans. D the plates
C. decrease in plate area and value of applied
Que. Which of the following expressions is voltage
correct for electric field strength? D. reduction in plate area and distance
Jo
A. E = D/𝝐 between the plates

B. E = D 2 /𝝐
in
Ans. A
C. E = 𝝅D
@
SP
D. E = 𝝅D 2 Que. A capacitor consists of

Ans. A A. two insulators separated by a conductor
P U
B. two conductors separated by a dielectric

B
Que. Which of the following statements is C. two insulators only

TE
true? D. two conductors only

C
H
A. The current in the discharging capacitor Ans. B

-T
grows linearly
el
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BEE MCQs
Que. A paper capacitor is usually available in B. ½ C2 V

the form of C. CV2
A. tubes D. C2V
B. rolled foil Ans. A
C. disc
D. meshed plates Que. The absolute permittivity of free space
Ans. B is given by
A. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m
Que. Air capacitors are generally available in B. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m
the range C. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m
A. 10 to 400 pF D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
B. 1 to 20 pF Ans. D
C. 100 to 900 pF
D. 20 to 100 pF Que. The relative permittivity of free space is
Ans. A given by „
A. 1
Que. The unit of capacitance is B. 10
A. Henry C. 100
B. Ohm D. 1000
C. Farad Ans. A
D. Farad/m
Ans. C Que. The capacitor preferred for high
frequency circuits is
Que. Voltage across capacitor at any time „t‟ A. air capacitor
during charging from a dc source of voltage B. mica capacitor
V is given by C. electrolytic capacitor
A. ν = Ve-t/λ D. paper capacitor
B. ν = V(1-e-t/λ) Ans. B
C. ν = V2 e-t/λ
D. ν = V 2 (1-e-t/λ) Que. Which of the following capacitors is
Ans. B marked for polarity
A. air
Que. The ratio of electric flux density to B. paper
electric field intensity is called .............. of the C. mica
Jo
medium D. electrolytic
in
A. permeability Ans. D
B. permittivity
@
SP
C. reluctance Que. Which of the following capacitors are

D. capacitance usually used for radio frequency tuining?
P U
Ans. B A. air
B
B. paper
TE
Que. Energy stored in the electric field of a C. mica

C
H
capacitor C when charged from a dc source D. electrolyte

-T
of voltage V is equal to ........... Joule Ans. B

el
A. ½ CV2
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BEE MCQs
Que. The time constant of an R-C circuit is B. 1.0006

defined as the time during which capacitor C.
charging voltage actually rises to -------------- D. none of the above
--percent of its ------------value Ans. B
A. 37, initial
B. 63.2, initial Que. The capacitance of a capacitor is
C. 63.2, final ……… relative permittivity.
D. 37, final A. directly proportional to
Ans. C B. inversely proportional to
C. independent of
Que. The time constant of an R-C circuit is D. directly proportional to square of
defined as the time during which capacitor Ans. A
charging current actually falls to ---------------
-percent of its initial maximum value Que. The most convenient way of achieving
A. 37 large capacitance is by using
B. 63 A. multiplate construction
C. 42 B. decreased distance between plates
D. 73 C. air as dielectric
Ans. A D. dielectric of low permittivity
Ans. A
Que. Permitivity is expressed in
A. Farad/sq-m Que. If the dielectric of a capacitor is
B. weber/metre replaced by a conducting material the
C. Farad/meter A. capacitor will get heated up owing to eddy
D. Weber/ sq- m currents
Ans. C B. plates will get short-circuited
C. capacitor can store infinite charge
Que. Dielectric strength of a material depends D. capacitance will become very high
on Ans. B
A. moisture content
B. temperature Que. Joule / Coulomb is the unit of
C. thickness A. electric field intensity
D. all of the above B. potential
Ans. D C. charge
Jo
D. none of the above.

in
Que. 1 Volt /metre is same as Ans. B

A. 1 metre/coulomb
@
SP
B. 1 Newton metre Que. What is the unit of charge?

C. 1 Newton /Coulomb A. Volt-Amp
P U
D. 1 Joule /Coulomb B. Henery

B
Ans. C C. Farad
TE
D. Coulomb
C
H
Que. The relative permittivity of air Ans. D

-T
is
el
A. 0
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BEE MCQs
Que. What will be the capacitance of four A. C = Є0 A / d

capacitors of equal capacitance „C‟ when B. C = Є0 d / A
connected in parallel? C. C = Є0 Єr A / d
A. 4C D. C= Єr A / d
B. C/4 Ans. C
C. 3C/4
D. C Que. Full load copper loss in a transformer is
Ans. A 400 Watt. At half load, copper losses will
be
Que. A region around a stationary electric A. 400 Watt
charge has B. 100 Watt
A. magnetic field C. 200 Watt
B. electric field D. 50 Watt
C. magnetic field and electric field Ans. B
D. neither magnetic field nor electric field
Ans. B Que. A transformer is working with its
maximum efficiency. If the iron losses are
500 W, the copper loss will
A. 300 W
Que. One Farad is the same as B. 350 W
A. One Coulomb/Volt C. 250 W
B. One Joule/ Coulomb D. 500 W
C. One Joule/ Volt Ans. D
D. One Coulomb / Joule
Ans. A
Que. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single
Que. If Q be the charge and C be the phase transformer, the primary full load
capacitance then the energy stored in the current is
capacitor is A. 909.09 Amp
A. 1/2QC B. 90.90 Amp
B. 1/QC C. 9.09 Amp
C. Q 2 /2C D. 9090.9 Amp
D. Q/2C Ans. C
Ans. C
Jo

in
Que. One Coulomb charge equals the charge phase transformer, the secondary full load
on
@
current is
SP
A. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons A. 90.90 Amp

B. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms
P
B. 9090.9 Amp
U
C. 6.24 x 10 12 electrons C. 909.0 Amp

B
D. none of these
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D. 9.09 Amp
Ans. A
C
Ans. C
H
-T
Que. The capacitance of parallel plate

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capacitor is given as
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BEE MCQs
Que. A transformer has maximum efficiency D. none of these

at ¾ of full load. The ratio of its iron loss and Ans. C
full load copper loss is
A. 16/9 Que. A transformer having 1000 primary
B. 4/3 turns is connected 250 V ac supply. For a
C. 3/4 secondary voltage of 400 volt, the no of
D. 9/16 secondary turns should be
Ans. D A. 1600
B. 250
Que. The full load copper and iron loss of a C. 400
transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W D. 1250
respectively. The copper loss and iron loss at Ans. A
half load will be respectively
A. 3200 W and 2500 W Que. If Copper loss of a transformer at 7/8th
B. 3200 W and 5200 W of the full load is 4900W. Then its full load
C. 1600 W and 1250 W copper loss is
D. 1600 W and 5000 W A. 5600
Ans. D B. 6400
C. 375
Que. In a step down transformer, there is a D. 429
change of 15A in the load current. This Ans. B
results in change of supply current
of Que. A 10 kVA, 3300/240 V, single phase,
A. less than 15 A 50 Hz transformer has a core area of 300 sq.
B. more than 15 A cm. The flux density is 1.3 T. The primary
C. 15A full load current is
D. none of these A. 3.03 amp
Ans. A B. 33.03 amp
C. 30.3 amp
Que. A transformer has 2600 V on primary D. 0.303 amp
side and 260 V on secondary side. The Ans. A
transformation ratio is_
A. 10 Que. The no load voltage at the secondary
B. 5 terminals of single phase transformer is
Jo
C. 0.1 observed as 230 volt. When the transformer

in
D. 9 is loaded, the voltage on secondary side has

reduced to 224 volt. Then the % regulation of
@
Ans. C
SP
transformer for that loading is

A. 2.6%
P U
Que. If the copper loss of a transformer at B. 2.67%

B
70% of full load is 200 W. The full load C. 0%

TE
copper loss is D. none of these

C
H
A. 200 W Ans. A
-T
B. 285.71 W
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C. 408.16W
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BEE MCQs
Que. If two 10 µF capacitors are connected in

parallel, then the effective capacitance will Que. Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF
be and 12 µF are connected in parallel across an
A. 2.5 µF ac source. The maximum current pass
B. 40 µF through
C. 0.4 µF A. 3 µF
D. 20 µF B. 6 µF
Ans. D C. 12 µF
D. all the capacitors
Que. The total capacitance of five capacitor Ans. C
each of 10 µF in series is
A. 10 µF Que. Three capacitors each of the capacity C
B. 2 µF are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be
C. 25 µF obtained by using them
D. none of these A. all in series
Ans. B B. all in parallel
C. two in parallel and third in series with this
Que. Two capacitors of capacitances C 1 =0.1 combination
µF and C2 =0.2 µF are connected in series D. two in series and third in parallel across
across 300V source. The voltage across C 1 this combination.
will be Ans. C
A. 100 V
B. 200 V Que. A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000
C. 150 V µC of charge. The value of capacitance will
D. 300 V be
Ans. B A. 10 F
B. 10 µF
Que. A capacitor stores 0.4C charge at 2 V. C. 100 µF
Its capacitance D. 1000 µF
is Ans. B
A. 0.4 F
B. 0.2 F Que. When 4 Volt e.m.f. is applied across a 1
C. 3.2 F Farad capacitor, it will store energy of
D. 0.8 F A. 2 Joule
Jo
Ans. B B. 4 Joule
in
C. 6 Joule
Que. A 20 mF capacitor is in series with a
@
D. 8 Joule
SP
150 Ohm resistor. The combination is placed Ans. D

across a 40 V dc source. Time constant of the
P U
circuit is Que. If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V

B
A. 8 S the charge in Coulomb will

TE
B. 3 S be
C
H
C. 6 S A. 800 µC
-T
D. 2.4 S B. 900 µC
el
Ans. B C. 1200 µC
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BEE MCQs
D. 1600 µC A. 5.33
Ans. C B. 2
C. 3
Que. The relative permittivity of a material is D. 0.48
10. Its absolute permittivity will be Ans. D
A.
B. Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1
C. MΩ resistor is connected across a100 V dc
D. supply. The time constant of the circuit
Ans. A is .
A. 10 sec
Que. An air capacitor has the same B. 0.1 sec
dimensions that of a mica capacitor. If the C. 10mSec
capacitance of mica capacitor is 6 times that D. 100 Sec
of air capacitor, then relative permittivity of Ans. A
mica is
A. 36 Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1
B. 12 MΩ resistor is connected across a100 V dc
C. 3 supply. The initial value of charging current
D. 6 is .
Ans. D A. 1mA
B. 0.1 mA
Que. Two capacitors of capacitance C 1 and C. 0.01mA
C2 are connected in parallel. A charge Q D. 1.00A
given to them is shared. The ratio of charges Ans. B
Q 1 /Q 2 is .
A. C2 / C1 Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1
B. C1 / C2 MΩ resistor is connected across a100 V dc
C. C1 C2 supply. The capacitor voltage after a time
D. 1/ C1 C2 equal to the time constant is
Ans. B A. 36V
B. 36.6V
Que. Two capacitors have capacitances 25 µF C. 63.2V
when in parallel and 6 µF when in series. D. 63 V
Jo
Their individual capacitances are Ans. C

in
A. 12 µF and 13 µF
Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF has
@
B. 15 µF and 10 µF
SP
C. 14 µF and 11 µF a potential difference of 100V across its

terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ
P
D. none of the above

U
Ans. B resistor. The initial discharging current

B
is .
TE
Que. The total capacitance of two condensers A. 1A

C
H
is .03µF when joined in series and 0.16µ F B. 10A

-T
when connected in parallel. The product of C. 0.01A

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two capacitances will be D. 0.1A

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BEE MCQs
Ans. D D. 0. 295 x 10-6 F

Ans. B
Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF has
a potential difference of 100V across its Que. What is the unit of charge?
terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ A. Volt-Amp
resistor. The time constant of the circuit B. Henery
is . C. Farad
A. 0.1sec D. Coulomb
B. 1sec Ans. D
C. 0.01sec
D. 0.001sec Que. What will be the capacitance of four
Ans. C capacitors of equal capacitance „C‟ when
connected in parallel?
Que. A capacitor consists of two similar A. 4C
plates each 10cm x 10cm mounted parallel B. C/4
and opposite to each other. The value of C. 3C/4
capacitance when distance between them is D. C
1cm and dielectric used is air is . Ans. A
A. 8.854 pF
B. 8.854 µF Que. A region around a stationary electric
C. 8.854 mF charge has
D. 8.854 F A. magnetic field
Ans. A B. electric field
C. magnetic field and electric field
Que. The capacitance of capacitor formed by Ans. B
two parallel plates each 200 cm2 in area
separated by dielectric of 4mm thick is Que. One Farad is the same as
0.0004 µF. If voltage of 20000 V is applied A. One Coulomb/Volt
then the total charge on the plate is B. One Joule/ Coulomb
A. 8 µC C. One Joule/ Volt
B. 8 mC D. One Coulomb / Joule
C. 8 nC Ans. A
D. 8 pC
Jo
Ans. A
in
Que. If Q be the charge and C be the

Que. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area capacitance then the energy stored in the
@
SP
of 2m2 spaced by three slabs of dielectric capacitor is

materials. The relative permitivities are 2, 3 A. 1/2QC
P U
and 6 respectively and thicknesses are B. 1/QC

B
0.4mm, 0.6mm and 0.12 mm respectively. C. Q2 /2C

TE
The combined capacitance is D. Q/2C

C
H
. A. 0.000295 x 10-6 F Ans. C

-T
B. 0.00295 x 10-6 F
el
C. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
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BEE MCQs
Que. What capacitance must be placed in

series with a 15 µF capacitor to give a total Que. The plate area of a parallel-plate
capacitance of 5 µF? capacitor is 0.01 sq. m. The distance between
A. 4 µF the plates is 2.5 cm. If the space between the
B. 7.5 µF plates is filled with an insulating material of
C. 10 µF relative permitivity 5, the capacitance value
D. 25 µF is
Ans. B A. 177.1 x 10-12 F
B. 1.771 x 10-12 F
Que. One Coulomb charge equals the charge C. 17.71 x 10-10 F
on D. 17.71 x 10-12 F
A. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons Ans. D
B. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms
C. 6.24 x 10 12 electrons Que. A parallel-plate capacitor has two plates
D. none of these each of area 2.5 m2 separated by three
Ans. A dielectric materials of thickness 1, 2 and 3
mm and relative permitivities of 2, 4 and 8
Que. The capacitance of parallel plate respectively. The effective capacitance value
capacitor is given as is
A. C = Є0 A / d A. 1.60 x 10-8 F
B. C = Є0 d / A B. 1.60 x 10-10 F
C. C = Є0 Єr A / d C. 1.60 x 10-12 F
D. C= Єr A / d D. 1.60 x 10-9 F
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. Two capacitors of 2 µF and 4 µF are

connected in parallel across 100 V dc supply. Que. A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase
Energy stored in each capacitor will transformer is built on a core having an
be . effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and
A. 0. 1 J and 0. 2 J 60 turns on the secondary winding. The value
B. 0.01 J and 0.02 J of maximum flux density
C. 1J and 2 J A. 1.25 Tesla
D. 0.001 J and 0.002 J B. 1.52 Tesla
Ans. B C. 1.3 Tesla
Jo

in
Que. The plate area of a parallel-plate Ans. A

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capacitor is 0.01 sq. m. The distance between

SP
the plates is 2.5 cm. If the insulating medium Que. A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase
P
is air, its capacitance is transformer is built on a core having an

U
A. 3.54 x 10-12 F effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and

B
TE
B. 35.4 x 10-12 F 60 turns on the secondary winding. The

C. 3.54 x 10-10 F
C
number of turns on the high voltage

H
D. 3.54 x 10-11 F winding

-T
Ans. A A. 600 turns

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BEE MCQs
B. 900 turns B. 61.516 x 10–3 m2

C. 300 turns
C. 26.516 x 10–3 m2
D. 450 turns
Ans. B D. 62.516 x 10–3 m2
Ans. A
Que. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase
transformer has to be worked at a maximum Que. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at
full load its copper loss is 1100 W and its
flux density of 1.1 Web/m2 in the core. The
effective cross sectional area of the core is iron loss is 950 W. The efficiency at full load
for unity power factor is
145 cm2. The no of primary turns A. 99%
A. 930 turns B. 96%
B. 950 turns C. 97.77%
C. 932 turns D. none of these
D. 923 turns Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at
Que. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase full load its copper losses is 1100 W and its
transformer has to be worked at a maximum iron losses is 950 W. The efficiency at 60%
flux density of 1.1 web/m2 in the core. The of full load for 0.8 lagging power factor
effective cross sectional area of the core is is
145 cm2. The no of secondary turns A. 96.97%
A. 71 turns B. 96%
B. 75 turns C. 98%
C. 932 turns D. none of these
D. 923 turns Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. A 500 kVA transformer has iron loss
Que. A 80 kVA, 6000 V/ 400 V, 50 Hz single of 2 kW and full load copper losses of 5 kW.
phase transformer has 80 turns on the The efficiency at 75% of full load and unity
secondary winding. The value of maximum power factor
flux in the core A. 98.13%
A. 25.22 mwb B. 98.73%
B. 22.52 mwb C. 99%
Jo
C. 52.22 mwb D. none of these

Ans. B
in
D. none of these
@
Ans. B
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1
SP
MΩ resistor is connected across a100 V dc

P
Que. A 6600 V/220 V, 50 Hz, step down

U
single phase transformer has 1500 turns on its supply. The initial rate of rise of voltage
B
across the capacitor is

TE
primary side. If its maximum flux density is

1.2 Tesla, then the effective cross sectional A. 0.1V/s
C
B. 10V/s
H
area of core is
-T
C. 0.01V/s
A. 16.516 x 10–3 m2
el
D. 1V/s
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BEE MCQs
Ans. B Que. Two sine waves are said to be in phase

with each other if they achieve their
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 A. zero value at the same time
MΩ resistor is connected across a100 V dc B. maximum value at the time
supply. The voltage across the capacitor 3sec C. minimum value at the same time
after switch on is D. all of the above
A. 25.92V Ans. D
B. 259.2V
C. 2.592V Que. The distance occupied by one complete
D. 25V cycle of the wave is called its
A. time period
Ans. A
B. wavelength
Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF C. velocity
has a potential difference of 100V across its D. frequency
terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ Ans. A
resistor. The discharging current at 2 msec
is Que. The rms value of a sine wave of peak
A. -0.0818A value I m is given by
B. -0.01A A. I m/√2
C. -0.00818A B. I m
D. -1A C. I m/2
Ans. A D. I m/
π Ans.
Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF A
has a potential difference of 100V across its
terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ Que. The average value of a sine wave of
resistor. The initial rate of fall in voltage maximum value I m over one cycle is
across capacitor is A. I m/π
A. 10 4 V/s B. 2I m/π
B. -10 4 V/s C. zero
C. -1 4 V/s D. I m/
D. 10A 2 Ans.
Ans. B C
Que. The time period of a sinusoidal

Jo
AC Circuits waveform with 200 Hz frequency

in
by Joshi Sir
is second.
@
Que. A standard sinusoidal voltage wave changes its A. 0.05

SP
polarity at B. 0.005
P
A. maximum value C. 0.0005

U
B
B. minimum value D. 0.5

TE
C. zero value Ans. B

C
H
D. none of the
-T
above Ans. C
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BEE MCQs
Que. The form factor of a sine wave is Que. The ac system is preferred to dc system
A. 1.01 because
B. 1.11 A. ac voltages can be easily changed in
C. 1.21 magnitude
D. none of the above B. dc motors do not have fine speed control
Ans. B C. high voltage ac transmission is less
efficient
Que. A current is said to be alternating when D. dc voltage can not be used for domestic
it changes in appliances
A. magnitude only Ans. A
B. direction only
C. both magnitude and direction Que. In ac system, we generate sine
D. neither magnitude nor direction waveform because
Ans. C A. it can be easily drawn
B. it produces least disturbance in electrical
Que. An alternating current of 50 Hz circuits
frequency and 100 A maximum value is C. it is nature‟s standard
given by D. other waves can not be produced easily
A. Ans. B
B.
C. √ Que. will work only on dc
D. √ supply.
Ans. B A. electric lamp
B. refrigerator
Que. An alternating current is given by the C. electroplating
expression D. heater
) amperes. Ans. C
The maximum value and frequency of the
current are _ Que. will produce ac voltage.
A. 200 A, 50 Hz A. friction
B. 100√2, 50 Hz B. photoelectric effect
C. 200 A, 100 Hz C. thermal energy
D. 200 A, 25 Hz D. crystal
Ans. A Ans. D
Jo
Que. When two quantities are in quadrature,

in
Que. A coil is rotating in the uniform field of

the phase angle between them will an 8-pole generator. In one revolution of the
@
be
SP
coil, the number of cycles generated by the

A. 45° voltage is
P
B. 90°
U
A. one
B
C. 135° B. two
TE
D. 60° C. four
C
Ans. B
H
D. eight
-T
Ans. C
el
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BEE MCQs
Que. An alternating voltage is given by Que. An alternating voltage is given by

. The frequency of the volts. Its average value
alternating voltage is will be
A. 50 Hz A. 70.7 V
B. 25 Hz B. 50 V
C. 100 Hz C. 63.7 V
D. 75 Hz D. 100 V
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. A sine wave has a maximum value of Que. An alternating current whose average
20 V. Its value at 135° is value is 1 A will produce 1 A dc
A. 10 V under similar conditions.
B. 14.14 V A. less heat than
C. 15 V B. more heat than
D. 5 V C. the same heat as
Ans. B
Que. An alternating voltage is given by
.The time taken by the Que. A sinusoidal alternating current has a
voltage to reach 30 V for the first time maximum value of I m. Its average value will
is be
A. 0.02 second
A.
B. 0.1 second
C. 0.03 second B.
D. 0.005 second C.
Ans. D D. none of the above
Ans. C
Que. A sinusoidal current has a magnitude of
3 A at 120°. Its maximum value will be Que. The area of a sinusoidal wave over a
A. √3 A
half-cycle is
B. √ A A.
C. 2√3 A B.
D. 6 A C.
Ans. C D.
Jo
Ans. B
in
Que. We have assigned a frequency of 50Hz

@
to power system because it Que. An alternating voltage is given by

SP
A. can be easily obtained Its rms value will be

P
B. gives best result when used for operating A. 100 V

U
B
both lights and machinery B. 282.8 V

TE
C. leads to easy calculations C. 141.4 V

C
D. none of the above D. 121.4 V

H
Ans. B Ans. C
-T
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BEE MCQs
Que. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as B. 60Hz, 60°

. Its rms value C. 50 Hz, 60°
D. 50 Hz, -60°
of voltage, frequency and phase angle are
respectively Ans. C
A. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°
B. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90° Que. A sinusoidal voltageV 1 leads another
C. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90° sinusoidal voltage V2 by 180°.
D. 100 V,50 Hz, -90° Then
Ans. D A. voltageV 2 leads voltage V 1 by 180°
B. both voltage have their zero values at the
Que. When two sinusoidal waves are 90° out same time
of phase, then C. both voltages have their peak values at the
A. both have their peak values at the same same time
instant D. all of the above
B. both have their minimum values at the Ans. D
same instant
Que. The rms value of an ac sinusoidal
C. one has its peak value; while the other has
current is 10 A. Its peak value is
zero value
A. 7.07 A
D. none of these
B. 14.14 A
Ans. C
C. 10 A
Que. The direction of current in an ac circuit D. 28.28 A
is Ans. B
A. always in one direction
B. varying from time to time Que. If A=10 45° and B=5 15°, then the
C. unpredictable value of A/B will be
D. from positive to negative A. 50 60°
Ans. B B. 2 60°
C. 2 -30°
Que. Consider the sinusoidal waves: D. 2 30°
and ................................ The Ans. D
phase angle relationship between the two
waves Que. When a phasor is multiplied by –j, it
A. B-wave lags A-wave by 90° gets rotated through in the
Jo
B. B-wave lags A-wave by 60° counterclockwise direction.

in
C. B-wave lags A-wave by 30° A. 90°

@
D. B-wave and A-wave are in phase B. 180°

SP
Ans. A C. 270°
P U
Que. A sinusoidal voltage is expressed as Ans. C

B
TE
V. Its frequency
Que. The rms value of sinusoidally varying
C
and phase angle respectively

H
current is that of its average value.

are
-T
A. more than
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A. 314.16 Hz, 60° B. less than

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BEE MCQs
C. same as Ans. B
Ans. A Que. The filament of a vacuum tube requires
0.4A dc to heat it. The rms value of ac
Que. Alternating voltages and currents are required is
expressed in rms values because _ A. √ A
A. they can be easily determined B. A
B. calculations become very simple C. √ A
C. they give comparison with dc D. 0.4 A
D. none of the above Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. A100 V peak ac is as effective
Que. The average value of sin2 θ over a as dc
complete cycle is A. 100 V
A. +1 B. 50 V
B. -1 C. 70.7 V
C. D. none of the above
D. zero Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. The form factor of a wave is
Que. The average value of sinθ over a 1.
complete cycle is A. sinusoidal
A. zero B. square
B. +1 C. triangular
C. -1 D. sawtooth
D. Ans. B
Ans. A Que. Out of the following wave is
the peakiest.
Que. An alternating current is given by A. sinusoidal
. The average value of squared B. square
wave of this current over a complete cycle C. rectangualr
is D. triangular
A. I 2 m/2 Ans. D
B. I m/π
Jo
C. 2I m/π
in
Que. The peak factor of a sine waveform

D. 2I m
@
is
SP
Ans. A A. 1.11
P
B. 1.414
U
Que. The form factor of a sinusoidal wave C. 2

B
is
TE
D. 1.5
A. 1.414
C
Ans. B
B. 1.11
H
-T
C. 2
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D. 1.5
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BEE MCQs
Que. When a 15V square wave is connected D. 200V

across a 50V ac voltmeter, it will read Ans. A
A. 15V
B. √ V Que. The rms value of a sine wave is 100A.
C. 15/√ V Its peak value is
A. 70.7A
B. 141.4A
Ans. A
C. 150A
Que. The period of a wave is D. 282.8A
A. the same as frequency Ans. B
B. time required to complete one cycle
C. expressed in amperes Que. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V.
This figure represents
A. mean value
Ans. B
B. rms value
C. peak value
Que. The form factor is the ratio of
D. average value
A. peak value to rms value Ans. B
B. rms value to average value
C. average value to rms value Que. The rms value and mean value is the
same in the case of _
A. traingular wave
Ans. B
B. sine wave
C. square wave
Que. The period of a sine wave is 1/50
seconds. Its frequency is D. half wave rectified sine wave
A. 20 Hz Ans. C
B. 30 Hz
C. 40 Hz Que. For the same peak value which of the
following wave will have the highest rms
D. 50 HZ
value?
Ans. D
A. square wave
B. half wave rectified sine wave
Que. A heater is rated as 230V, 10KW, AC.
The value of 230V refers to C. triangular wave
A. average voltage D. sine wave
Jo
Ans. A
B. rms voltage
in
C. peak voltage
Que. For the same peak value which of the
@

SP
following wave will have the least mean

Ans. B
value?
PU
A. half wave rectified sine wave

B
Que. The peak value of a sine wave is 200V.

B. triangular wave
TE
Its average value is

C. sine wave
C
A. 127.4V
H
B. 141.4V D. square wave

-T
C. 282.8V Ans. A
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BEE MCQs
Que. For a sine wave with peak value I max , Que. An ac voltage of 50 Hz has a maximum
the rms value is value of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second
A. 0.5I max after the instant the current is zero will
B. 0.707I max be
C. 0.9I max A. 5V
D. 1.414I ma B. 12.5V
x Ans. B C. 25V
D. 43.8V
Que. Form factor is the ratio of Ans. C
A. average value/rms value
B. average value/peak value Que. For 200V rms value triangular wave, the
C. rms value/average value peak voltage will be
D. rms value/peak value A. 200V
Ans. C B. 222V
C. 282V
Que. For a sine wave with peak value E max , D. 346V
the average value is Ans. D
A. 0.636Emax
B. 0.707Emax Que. The rms value of a half-wave rectified
C. 0.434Emax current is 100 A. Its value for full-wave
D. 1.414Ema rectification would be amperes.
x Ans. A A. 141.4
B. 200
Que. The current in a circuit is given by: C. 200/π
amperes. The maximum D. 40/π
value and frequency of current are Ans. A
A. 50√2 A, 100 Hz
B. 100√2 A, 100 Hz Que. The rms value of a sinusoidal ac current
C. 100 A, 50 Hz is equal to its value at an angle of
D. 70.7 A, 50 Hz degrees.
Ans. C A. 90
B. 60
Que. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time C. 45
period will be D. 30
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A. 0.05 S Ans. C
in
B. 0.005 S
C. 0.0005 S Que. The rms value of alternating current is
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D. 0.5 S given by steady dc current which when

Ans. B flowing through a given circuit for a given
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time produces
B
A. the more heat than produced by ac when

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flowing through the same circuit

C
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B. the same heat as produced by ac when

-T

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BEE MCQs
C. the less heat than produced by ac flowing B. 141.4V

through the same circuit C. 111V
D. none of the above D. 100V
Ans. B Ans. A
Que. The square waveform of current has Que. The negative maximum of a cosine
following relation between rms value and wave occurs at
average value: A. 30°
A. rms value is equal to average value B. 45°
B. rms value of current is greater than C. 90°
average value D. 180°
C. rms value of current is less than average Ans. D
value
D. none of the above Que. The rms value of pure cosine function
Ans. A is
A. 0.5 of peak value
Que. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 B. 0.707 of peak value
Hz with 30A rms current, which of the C. same as peak value
following equation represents the wave? D. zero
A. Ans. B
B.
C.
D. Que. An alternating voltage is given in volts
Ans. A by expression . Its rms
value and frequency are
Que. Which of the following waves has the A. 230V,50 Hz
highest value of peak factor? B. 230V,100 Hz
A. square wave C. 326V,50 Hz
B. sine wave D. 326V,100 Hz
C. half wave rectified sine wave Ans. A
D. triangular wave
Ans. C Que. According to which of the alternating
current values in the cross sectional area of a
Que. The frequency of domestic power conductor with regard to the heating effect is
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supply in India is selected?

in
A. 200 Hz A. peak value

B. half peak value
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B. 100 Hz
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C. 60 Hz C. average value
D. 50 Hz D. rms value
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Ans. D Ans. D
B
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Que. The rms value of half wave rectified Que. The frequency of an alternating current
C
H
sine wave is 200V. The rms value of full is

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wave rectified ac will be A. the speed with which the alternator runs
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A. 282.8V
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B. the number of cycles generated in one Que. A constant current of 2.8A exists in a
minute resistor. The rms value of current is
C. the number of waves passing through a A. 2.8 A
point in one second B. about 2 A
D. the number of electrons passing through a C. 1.4 A
point in one second D. undefined
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. The equation of 50 Hz current sine Que. An alternating current is represented as

wave having rms value of 60 A is . The frequency and
A. rms value of the current are
B. A. 82.76 Hz, 50 A
C. B. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
D. . C. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
Ans. C D. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
Ans. A
Que. The direction of current in an ac
circuit Que. The time period or periodic time T of an
A. is from positive to negative alternating quantity is the time taken in
B. is always in one direction seconds to complete
C. varies from instant to instant A. one cycle
D. can not be determined B. alternation
Ans. C C. none of the above
D. Half cycle
Que. The angular frequency of an alternating Ans. A
quantity is a mathematical quantity obtained
by multiplying the frequency “f” of the Que. The time period of an alternating
alternating quantity by a factor quantity is 0.02 second.Its frequency will
A. be
B. π A. 25 Hz
C. 2π B. 50 Hz
D. 4π C. 100 Hz
Ans. C D. 0.02 Hz
Ans. B
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in
Que. The average value of an unsymmetrical Que. The size (cross-sectional area) of a
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alternating quantity is calculated over conductor, with regard to the heating effect,
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the is determined on the basis of ................value

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A. whole cycle of current to be carried by it

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A. average value
B
B. half cycle
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C. unsymmetrical part of the waveform B. peak value

C
D. first two cycles C. rms value

H
Ans. A D. peak to peak value

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Ans. C
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B. time
Que. The form factor for dc supply voltage is C. time period
always D. all above
A. zero Ans. C
B. unity
C. infinity
D. any value between 0 and 1
Ans. B
Que. The varying alternating Que.

quantity can be represented as phasor.
A. circular
B. sinusoidally
C. rectangular
D. triagular
Ans. B
In the above figure, the phase quantity at A is
Que. The phasors are assumed to be rotated
in direction. A. T
A. clockwise B. T/2
B. anticlockwise C. T/3
C. circular D. T/4
D. all above Ans. D
Ans. B
Que.
Que. In practice, alternating quantities are
represented by their values
A. rms
B. average
C. rectangular
D. polar
Ans. A
In the above figure, the phase quantity at B is
Que. Alternating quantities of
A. T
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frequencies can be represented on same

B. T/2
in
phasor diagram.
C. 3T/4
A. Same
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D. T/4
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B. Different
Ans. C
C. multiple
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D. all above
B
Que. When phase of an alternating quantity is

Ans. A
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positive it means that quantity has some

C
instantaneous value at t=0

H
Que. The phase of alternating quantity at any

A. zero
-T
particular instant is the fraction of

B. positive
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A. phase
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C. negative B. length difference

D. none of the above C. phase difference
Ans. C
negative it means that quantity has some Que. When phase difference between the two
instantaneous value at t=0 alternating quantities is , the two
A. zero quantities are said to be in phase.
B. positive A. one
C. negative B. unity
D. none of the above C. zero
Ans. C D. π/2
Ans. C
Que. The difference between the of Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ),
two alternating quantities is called the phase the „v‟ is said to „i‟ by angle Φ
difference. A. in phase
A. time B. lagging
B. phase angle C. leading
C. Lengths D. all above
D. both a and b Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. The difference between the phase of Que. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ),
two alternating quantities is called the „i‟ is said to „v‟ by angle Φ
the . A. in phase
A. phase difference B. lagging
B. sinedifference C. leading
C. length difference D. all above
D. none of the above Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ),
Que. When phase difference between the two the „v‟ is said to „i‟ by angle Φ
alternating quantities is zero, the two A. in phase
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quantities are said to be in B. lag

in
A. tandom C. lead
B. length
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D. all above
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C. phase Ans. B
D. time
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Ans. C Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin ωt, the

B
„i‟ is said to „v‟ by angle Φ

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Que. When between the two A. in phase

C
H
alternating quantities is zero, the two B. lag

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quantities are said to be in phase. C. lead

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A. time difference D. all above

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Ans. A Que. The diagram in which different

sinusoidal alternating quantities of the same
Que. With respect to reference, plus sign of , are represented by individual phasors
angle indicates indicating exact phase relationship is called
A. leading phasor diagram.
B. lagging A. time
C. inphase B. frequency
D. none of the above C. sign
Ans. A D. shape
Ans. B
Que. With respect to reference, minus sign of
angle indicates Que. The lagging and leading word is relative
A. leading to the
B. lagging A. base
C. inphase B. range
D. none of the above C. reference
Ans. B D. angle
Ans. C
Que. With respect to reference, sign of
angle indicates lead Que. In purely circuit, the current
A. division flowing and voltage applied are in phase
B. plus with each other.
C. minus A. resistive
D. dot B. inductive
Ans. B C. capacitive
Que. With respect to reference, sign of Ans. A
angle indicates lag.
A. division Que. In purely resistive circuit, the current
B. plus and voltage applied are in with each
C. minus other.
D. dot A. opposition
Ans. C B. phase
C. direction
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Que. The diagram in which different D. line

in
sinusoidal alternating quantities of the same Ans. B

frequency, are represented by individual
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phasors indicating exact phase relationship is Que. In purely circuit, current lags
called voltage by 90 degrees.
PU
A. graph A. resistive
B
B. still diagram B. inductive

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C. phasor diagram C. capacitive

C
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D. picture D. none of the above

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Ans. C Ans. B
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Que. In purely Inductive circuit, current D. circuit

voltage by 90 degrees. Ans. B
A. leads
B. lags Que. Inductive reactance is given by
C. in phase A. XL=ωL
D. all above B. XL=2 L
Ans. B C. XL=ΦL
D. XL=ωC
Ans. A
Que. In purely Inductive circuit, current lags
voltage by degrees. Que. Inductive reactance is measured in
A. 30
B. 60 A. Farad
C. 90 B. Henry
D. 120 C. Ohm
Ans. C D. Joule
Ans. C
Que. The inductance offers reactance
to DC Que. Inductive reactance depends on
A. high of applied voltage
B. low A. phase
C. zero B. sign
D. none of the above C. frequency
Ans. C D. speed
Ans. C
Que. The offers zero reactance to
DC Que. Inductive reactance is
A. resistance frequency.
B. inductance A. inversely proportional to
C. permeance B. directly proportional to
D. none of the above C. indepedent of
Ans. B C. none of above
Ans. B
Que. The inductance offers zero
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to DC Que. Inductive reactance is directly

in
A. resistance proportional to .
B. capacitance A. time
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C. reactance B. phase
D. permeance C. frequency
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Ans. C D. phase difference

B
Ans. C
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Que. Pure never consumes power

C
H
A. resistor Que. In purely capacitive circuit, current

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B. inductor voltage by 90 degrees.

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C. starter A. lags
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B. leads
C. in phase Que. Pure never consumes power
D. all above A. resistor
Ans. B B. capacitor
C. starter
Que. In purely capacitive circuit, current D. circuit
leads voltageby degrees. Ans. B
A. 30
B. 60 Que. Inductive reactance is given by
C. 90 A. X C=1/ωC
D. 120 B. X C=1/2𝝅C
Ans. C C. XC=1/ΦC
D. XC=2𝝅fL
Que. The capacitor offers reactance to Ans. A
DC.
A. high Que. is given by XC=1/ωL
B. low A. resistance
C. zero B. inductance
D. none of the above C. inductive reactance
Ans. A D. capacitive reactance
Ans. D
Que. The offers infinite reactance
to DC Que. Capacitive reactance is measured in
A. resistance
B. permeance A. farads
C. capacitance B. henrys
D. none of the above C. ohms
Ans. C D. joules
Ans. C
Que. The capacitance offers infinite
to DC Que. Capacitive reactance is to
A. resistance frequency.
B. capacitance A. inversely proportional
C. reactance B. directly proportional
Jo
D. permeance C. both
in
Ans. C C. none of above

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Ans. A
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Que. The power curve of pure capacitor is

curve of frequency double than Que. Capacitive reactance is inversly
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that of applied voltage proportional to .

B
A. sine A. time
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B. square B. phase
C
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C. tringular C. frequency
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D. sawtooth D. phase difference

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Ans. A Ans. C
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B. both have their minimum values at the

Que. A certain inductor has reactance of 4kΩ same time
at 5kHz. Its reactance at 15 kHz is kΩ. C. one has its peak value, other has zero
A. 8 value
B. 10 D. none of these
C. 12 Ans. C
D. 20
Ans. C Que. The direction of current in an AC
circuit is
Que. The square of aj operator A. always in one direction
A. can never be negative B. varyingtime to time periodically
B. can never be positive C. unpredictable
C. could be either positive or negative D. from positive to negative
D. is equal to j Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. Consider the sinusoidal waves: A sin
Que. A complex number (ωt+30) and B cos(ωt-60). The phase angle
A. is the same as imaginary number relationship between two waves is:
B. has real and imaginary part A. B wave lags A wave by 90 degrees
C. is negative number B. B wave lags A wave by 60 degrees
D. is merely a technical term C. B wave lags A wave by 30 degrees
Ans. B D. B wave and A wave are in phase
Ans. D
Que. The sum of (3+j6) and (-3-j6) is
A. 0+j0 Que. Thereactance of L Henryinductance
B. 6+j12 connected to an AC source of frequency f is
C. -6-j12 ohm.
D. 0-j12 A. fL
Ans. A B. πfL
C. 2 πfL
Que. A sinusoidal voltageis represented as: v D. all above
= 141.4 sin(314.18t-π/2). Its rms value of Ans. C
voltage, frequency and phase angle are
respectively Que. When pure inductance is connected to
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A. 141.42V, 314.16 Hz, 90 degrees an AC sources, the voltage to the current

in
B. 100V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees by

C. 87.92V, 56 Hz, 90 degrees A. lags, 90 degrees
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D. 200V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees B. leads, 90 degrees

Ans. B C. lags, 45 degrees
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D. leads, 45 degrees
B
Que. When two sinusoidal waves are 90 Ans. B

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degrees out of phase, then

C
Que. When a phasor is multiplied by j and –j,

H
A. both have their peak values at the same

-T
time it is rotated through degrees in the

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anticlockwise direction respectively.

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A. 90,270 Ans. B
B. 90,90
C. 90,180 Que. The phase difference between two
D. 270,90 waveforms can be compared when they
Ans. A
A. have the same frequency
Que. The p. f. of purely resistive circuit is B. have the same peak value
C. have the same effective value
A. zero D. are sinusoidal
B. unity Ans. A
C. lagging
D. leading Que. If two sinusoids of the same frequency
Ans. B but of different amplitude and phase
difference are added, the resultant is a
Que. If e1 = 100 sin(2πf) and e2 = 100
sin(2πf-Φ), then A. sinusoid of same frequency
A. e1 lags e2 by Φ B. sinusoid of double the original frequency
B. e1 leads e2 by Φ C. sinusoid of half the original frequency
C. e2 lags e1 by Φ D. non-sinusoid
D. none of the above Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a
Que. The average power in a purely inductive resistor. The rms value of current is
or capacitive circuit over a cycle A. 2.8 A
A. depends on X Lor X C B. 2 A
B. is negative C. 1.4 A
C. is zero D. undefined
D. is positive Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. The power factor of an ordinary bulb is
Que. Inductive reactance of an AC circuit
increases with A. zero
A. increase in frequency B. unity
B. increase in resistance C. more than unity
C. decrease in resistance
Jo
D. less than unity

D. decrease in frequency Ans. B
in
Ans. A
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Que. When aphasor is multiplied by –j, it is

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Que. When the two quantities are in rotated through in counter-clockwise

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quadrature, the phase angle between them direction

B
will be degrees. A. 90
TE
A. 45 B. 180
C
B. 90 C. 270
H
C. 135 D. none of the above

-T
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D. 60 Ans. C
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A. 7 A
Que. If the phasor is multiplied by j, then B. 5 A
C. 1 A
A. only its magnitude changes D. 1.33 A
B. only its direction changes Ans. B
C. both magnitude and direction change
D. none of the above Que. The voltage applied in a circuit is given
Ans. B by 100 60 volts. It can be written as
A. 100 -60
Que. In the complex number 4+j7, 7 is called B. 100 240
the component C. 100 -300
A. real D. none of the above
B. imaginary Ans. C
C. in-phase
D. none of the above Que. The conjugate of -4+j3 is
Ans. D A. 4-j3
B. -4-j3
Que. The reciprocal of a complex number is C. 4+j3
a D. none of the above
A. complex number Ans. B
B. real component only
C. quadrature component only Que. The difference of two conjugate number
D. none of above results in
Ans. A A. a complex number
B. in-phase component only
Que. If two complex numbers are equal, C. quadrature component only
then D. none of the above
A. only their magnitudes will be equal Ans. C
B. only their angles will be equal
C. their in phase and quadrature components Que. The reciprocal of j is
will be separately equal A. j
D. none of above B. -j
Ans. C C. jxj
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Que. A phasor 2 180 can be expressed Ans. B

as
in
A. j2 Que. Two waves of same frequency have

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B. -j2
SP
opposite phase when the phase angle between

C. -2 them is degrees
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D. 2 A. 360
B
Ans. C B. 180
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C. 90
C
Que. A current of (3+j4) A is flowing

H
D. 0
through a circuit. The magnitude of current is
-T
Ans. B
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Que. The power consumed in a circuit D. both (B) and (C)

element will be least when the phase Ans. D
difference between the current and voltageis
degrees. Que. Power factor of the following circuit
A. approx.180 will be unity
B. approx. 90 A. resistive
C. approx. 60 B. pureinductive
D. approx. 0 C. pure capacitive
Ans. B D. both (B) and (C)
Ans. A
Que. Two sinusoidal currents are given by i1
= 100sin(ωt+π/3) and i2 = 150sin(ωt-π/4). Que. In pure resistive circuit
The phase difference between them is A. current lags the voltageby 90 degrees
degrees B. current leads the voltageby 90 degrees
A. 15 C. current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90
B. 50 degrees
C. 60 D. current is in phase with the voltage
D. 105 Ans. D
Ans. D
Que. In pure inductive circuit
Que. Capacitive reactance is more when A. current lags the voltageby 90 degrees
A. capacitance is less and frequency of B. current leads the voltageby 90 degrees
supply is less C. current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90
B. capacitance is less and frequency of degrees
supply is more D. current is in phase with the voltage
C. capacitance is more and frequency of Ans. B
supply is less
D. capacitance is more and frequency of Que. A phasor is
supply is more A. a line which represents the magnitude and
Ans. A phase of an alternatingquantity
B. a line which represents the magnitude and
Que. Pure inductive circuit direction of an alternatingquantity
A. consumes some power on average C. acoloured tag or band for distinction
B. does not take power at all from lines between different phases of a 3 phase supply
Jo
C. takes power from the line during some part D. an instrument used for measuring phases
in
of cycle and returns back during other part of of an unbalanced 3 phase load
cycle Ans. B
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Ans. C Que. Ohm is the unit of all the following
P U
except
B
Que. Power factor of the following circuit A. inductive reactance

TE
will be zero B. capacitive reactance

C
H
A. resistive C. resistance
-T
B. pureinductive D. capacitance
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C. pure capacitive Ans. D

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Que. If A = 10 45 and B = 5 15, then the

Que. For a purely resistive circuit the value of A/B will be
following statement is correct A. 50 60
A. work done is zero B. 2 60
B. power consumed is zero C. 2 -30
C. heat produced is zero D. 2 30
D. power factor is unity Ans. D
Ans. D
Que. The active power of AC circuit is given
Que. For purely inductive circuit if v = Vm by
sin (ωt) then equation of current is A. VI sin Φ
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2) B. I 2 XL
B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2) C. I 2 R
C. i = Im sin (ωt-π) D. I 2 Z
D. i = Im sin (ωt+π) Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. Inductance of coil
Que. For purely capacitive circuit if v = Vm A. is unaffected by the supply frequency
sin (ωt) then equation of current is B. decreses with the increase in supply
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2) frequency
B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2) C. increases with the increase in supply
C. i = Im sin (ωt-π) frequency
D. i = Im sin (ωt+π) D. becomes zero with the increase in supply
Ans. B frequency
Ans. A
Que. For purely resistive circuit if v = Vm sin
(ωt) then equation of current is Que. Which of the following statements
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2) pertains to resistor only
B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2) A. can dissipate considerable amount of
C. i = Im sin (ωt) power
D. i = Im sin (ωt+π) B. can act as energy storage device
Ans. C C. connecting them in parallel increases the
total value
Que. A sinusoidal voltageV 1 leads another D. opposes sudden change in voltage
Jo
sinusoidal voltage V 2 by 180 degrees. Then Ans. A

in
A. voltageV 2 leads voltageV 1 by 180 degrees Que. The length of a phasor in a phasor
@
diagram normally represents the …………

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B. both voltagehave their zero values at the

same time value of the alternating quantity
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C. both voltagehave their peak values at the A. rms or effective

B
same time B. average

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D. all of above C. peak

C
H
Ans. D D. none of these

-T
Ans. A
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Que. The two quantities are said to be in C. product of peak values of current and
phase with each other when voltage
A. the phase difference between two D. product of rms or effective values of
quantities is zero degree or radian current and voltage
B. each of them pass through zero values at Ans. D
the same instant and rise in the same
direction Que. The power factor of an ac circuit is
C. each of them pass through zero values at equal to
the same instant but rises in the opposite A. tangent of the phase angle
directions B. sine of phase angle
D. either (a) or (b) C. unity for a resistive circuit
Ans. D D. unity for a reactive circuit
Ans. C
Que. The phase difference between the two
waveforms can be compared only when they Que. The phasor diagram of voltage and
A. have the same frequency current considering phasors are rotates
B. have the same peak value anticlockwise direction is of
C. have the same effective value
D. are sinusoidal I
Ans. A
V
Que. The phasor diagram for alternating
quantities can be drawn if they have ………
waves A. pure resistance
A. rectangular B. pure inductance
B. sinusoidal C. pure capacitance
C. triangular D. pure capacitance and pure inductance
D. any of these Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. The phasor diagram of voltage and
Que. Which of the following statements current considering phasors are rotates
associated with purely resistive circuits is clockwise direction is of
correct?
A. PF is unity
I
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B. Power consumed is zero

in
C. Heat produced is zero

V
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D. PF is zero
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Ans. A
A. Pure resistance
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Que. Average power in a pure resistive B. pure inductance

B
circuit is equal to C. pure capacitance

TE
A. zero D. pure capacitance and pure inductance

C
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B. product of average values of current and Ans. B

-T
voltage
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Que. The power factor of an ac circuit lies Que. The average value of the current
between from to is
A. 0 and 1 A. 400 π
B. -1 and 1
C. 0 and -1 B.
D. none of these C.
Ans. A D.
Que. The period of a certain sine wave is 10 Ans. B
milliseconds. Its frequency is
A. 10 MHz Que. An alternating current is given by
B. 10 KHz The time taken to generate
C. 10 Hz two cycles of current is
D. 100 Hz A. 0.02 second
Ans. D B. 0.01 second
C. 0.04 second
Que. The rms value of a sine wave of D. 0.05 second
maximum value 10A equals a dc current of Ans. C
ampere.
A. 7.07 Que. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz.
B. 6.37 Its angular frequency
C. 5 is radian/second
D. 5.77 A. 100π
Ans. A B. 50π
C. 25π
Que. The rms value of a sinusoidal voltage D. 5π
with peak-to-peak value of 240 V Ans. A
is V.
A. 84.84 Que. A sine wave of voltage varies from zero
B. 77.82 to maximum of 200V. How much is the
C. 94.68 voltage at theinstant of 30° of the cycle?
D. 89.15 A. 50V
Ans. A B. 82.8V
C. 100V
D. 173.2V
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Ans. C
in
Que. The peak value of a sine wave is 400 V.

Its average value is V.
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Que. How much rms current does a 300W,

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A. 254.6
B. 282.6 200V bulb take from the 200V, 50Hz power
P
line?
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C. 400
B
D. 565.5 A. 0.5 A
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Ans. A B. 1.5 A
C
C. 2 A
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D. 3 A
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Ans. B
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Que. The curve for the instantaneous power

Que. Polar form of v = 100 sin(100πt+π/6) with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
Volt is current is shown in figure is of
A. 61.2371+j35.3553 p p
B. 70.7106 30 v
C. 61.2371 35.3553 i
D. 70.710+ j30 0 
 =t
Ans. B
Que. Rectangular form of V= 100

sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is
A. 61.2371+j35.3553 A. pure resistance
B. 70.7106 30 B. pure inductance
C. 61.2371 35.3553 C. resistance and capacitance
D. 70.710+ j30 D. pure capacitance
Ans. A Ans. A
Que. RMS value of current I = 25 + j40 Amp Que. The curve for the instantaneous power
is with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
A. 57.99 current is shown in figure is of
B. 47.1699
P P
C. 60 + +
v
D. 30 i

Ans. B 0

 2 
= t
2
Que. Two currents I 1 = 1050 and I 2 = 5 - - -

P P
100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then T
I 1 /I 2 =
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A A. pure resistance
B. 2150 A B. pure inductance
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A C. pure capacitance
D. None of the above D. purecapaciatance and pure inductance
Ans. B Ans. B
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Que. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal Que. The curve for the instantaneous power
in
current of 1 A at frequency of 50 Hz. The with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
current is shown in figure is of
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average power dissipated by the inductor is

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A. 0
P
P P
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+ +
B. 3.14 W
B
v
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C. 0.5 W 0
i

   = t
D. 1 W
C
2 2
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Ans. A
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- -
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A. pure resistance Ans. A

B. pure inductance
C. pure capacitance Que. Two currents I 1 = 1050 and I 2 = 5
D. pure capacitance and pure inductance -100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then
Ans. C I 1 -I 2 =
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
Que. An electric iron designed for 110 V B. 5.5596 4.924 A
AC supply was rated at 500 W. It was put C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
across a 220 V D. None of the above
supply. Assuming that at 110 V, it supplied Ans. C
500 W output (i.e. no losses) at the new
voltage it will Que. In purely inductive circuit, if the
supply frequency is doubled and applied voltage is
A. 2500 W halved, the resulting current becomes
B. 2000 W A. one-fourth
C. 500 W B. one-fifth
D. 250 W C. one-half
Ans. B D. one-third
Ans. A
Que. The mean value of the current
from θ=0 to θ= is Que. The product of (-4-j7) and (6-j2)
A. 40π is
A. -24+j14
B. B. 24-j14
C. C. -38-j34
D. D. -24-j14
Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. Inductive reactance of a coil of
Que. An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10 inductance 0.2 H at 50 Hz is ohms.
sin 314 t, the average and rms values of the A. 62.8
current are B. 628
A. 16.36 A, 17.07 A C. 0.2
B. 10 A, 17.07 A D. 10
C. 10 A, 12.25 A
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Ans. A
D. 16.36 A, 12.2 A
in
Ans. C
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Que. If 10 ohm resistor is connected across

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an AC voltagev = 100 sin(314t+300 ), the

Que. Two currents I 1 = 1050 and I 2 = 5 power dissipated through resistor is
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-100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then A. 500 W

B
I 1 +I 2 = B. 1000 W
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A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A C. 250 W

C
B. 5.55964.924 A
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D. 100 W
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
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Ans. A
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D. None of the above

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Que. For a frequency of 50 Hz, the

reactance offered by capacitor is 10 ohms, If Que. A pure capacitor connected across an
the frequency is increased to 100 Hz, the AC voltage consumed 50 W. This
reactance becomes A. is due to the capacitive reactance in ohms
A. 40 ohms B. is due to the current flowing in capacitor
B. 20 ohms C. is due to the size of capacitor
C. 5 ohms D. statement is incorrect
D. 2.5 ohms Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. An alternating current of 50 Hz
Que. Which value of inductance will give frequency has a maximum value of 100 A.
the same reactance as a capacitor of 2 µF Its value 1/600 second after the instant
when both are at 50 Hz? current is zero will be
A. 5 H A. 25 A
B. 10 H B. 12.5 A
C. 15 H C. 50 A
D. 20 H D. 75 A
Ans. A Ans. C
Que. If a 10 ohm resistance is connected to Que. A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero
an AC supply v = 100 sin (314t+370 ) V, the to a maximum of 250 V. The voltage at the
power dissipated by the resistance is instant of 60° of the cycle will be
A. 10 kW A. 150 V
B. 1 kW B. 216.5 V
C. 500 W C. 125 V
D. 250 W D. 108.25 V
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. A coil has X L = 1000 ohm. If both its Que. The alternating voltage
inductance and frequency are doubled, its is applied to a device which
reactance will become ohm offers an ohmic resistance of 20 Ω to the flow
A. 2000 of current in one direction while entirely
B. 500 preventing the flow in the opposite direction.
C. 250 The average value of the current will
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D. 4000 be
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Ans. D A. 5 A
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B. 3.18 A
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Que. A pure inductance connected across C. 1.57 A

250 V, 50 Hz supply consumes 100 W. This D. 1.10 A
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consumption is due to Ans. B

B
A. the big size of the inductor

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B. the reactance of the inductor Que. An alternating current is given by

C
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C. the current flowing in the inductor . Measuring time from ,

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D. the statement given is false the time taken by the current to reach +10 V
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Ans. D for the second time is

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A. 0.05 second Ans. D

B. 0.1 second
C. 0.025 second Que. The voltage in a circuit follows the
D. 0.02 second law: ............................. f the frequency is 25
Ans. C Hz, how long willit take for the voltage to
rise to 50V?
Que. An ac current is given by A. S
. It will achieve a value of
B. S
100A after second.
A. C. S
B. D. S
C. Ans. C
D.
1. A passive network is one which contains D. Junction
A. Only variable resistance 5. A network consists of linear resistors

B. Only some sources of e.m.f. in it and ideal voltage source. If the value of
C. Only two sources of e.m.f. in it the resistors are doubled then voltage
D. No source of e.m.f. in it * across each resistor is
2. A network which contains one or more A. Halved

than one source of e.m.f. is known as B. Doubled
C. Increased four lines
A. Linear network D. Not changed*
B. Non-linear network
C. Passive network 6. A circuit having neither any energy
D. Active network* source nor e.m.f. source is called the
circuit
3. In non-linear network does not satisfy
A. Unilateral
A. Superposition condition B. Bilateral
B. Homogeneity condition C. Passive
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C. Both homogeneity and superposition D. Active

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condition*
D. Homogeneity, superposition and 7. Which of the following is an active
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associative condition element in a circuit?

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4. A closed path made by several branches A. Current source*

B
of the network is known as

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C
A. Branch
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B. Loop*
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B. Resistance D. Electric arc

C. Inductance
D. Capacitance 13. The circuit has resistors ,capacitors and
semiconductor diodes. The circuit will
8. Which of the following is not a bilateral be known as
element ?
A. Constant current source* A. Non-linear circuit*

B. Resister B. Linear circuit
C. Inductor C. Bilateral circuit
D. capacitor D. None of the above
9. The elements which are not capable of

delivering energy by its own are known
as
A. Unilateral elements
B. Nonlinear elements
C. Passive elements*
D. Active elements
10. To neglect a voltage source, the

terminals across the source are
A. Open-circuited
B. Short-circuited*
C. Replaced by some resistance
D. Replaced by inductor
11. For determining the polarity of a voltage

drop across a resistor, it is necessary to
know the
A. Value of resistor
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B. Value of current
in
C. Direction of current flowing through

the resistor*
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D. Value of e.m.f. in the circuit

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12. Which of the following is not a non-

B
linear element?
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A. Gas diode
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B. Heater coil*
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C. Tunnel diode
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14. A dependent source A. R/6

B. 3/2 R*
A. May be a current source or a voltage C. 2R
source* D. 4R
B. Is always a voltage source
C. Is always a current source 20. A delta circuit has each element of value
D. Neither a current source nor a R/2.The equivalent elements of the star
voltage source circuit will be
15. Ideal voltage source have
A. Zero internal resistance*

B. Infinite internal resistance
C. Low value of current
D. Large value of e.m.f.
16. Ideal current source have
A. Zero internal resistance

B. Infinite internal resistance*
C. Low value of voltage
D. Large value of current
17. For a voltage source
A. Terminal voltage is equal to the

source e.m.f.
B. Terminal voltage cannot exceed
source e.m.f.
C. Terminal voltage is always lower
than source e.m.f.
D. Terminal voltage is higher than
source e.m.f.
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18. Constant voltage source is

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A. Active and bilateral

B. Passive and bilateral
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C. Active and unilateral*

B
D. Passive and unilateral

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19. Star circuit has element of resistance

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R/2. The equivalent delta elements will

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A. R/6* A. Resistance is a passive element

B. R/3 B. Inductor is a passive element
C. 2R C. Current source is a passive element*
D. 3R D. Voltage source is an active element
21. In a series parallel circuit, any two 26. Kirchhoff's current law is applicable to
resistance in the same current path must only
be in
A. Junction in a network*
A. Series with each other* B. Closed loops in a network
B. Parallel with each other C. Electric circuits
C. Series with the voltage source
D. Parallel with the voltages source
22. If the energy is supplied from a source

who is resistance is 1 ohm, to a load of
100 ohms, the source will be
A. A voltage source*
B. A current source
C. Both of above
23. A practical current source is represented

by
A. A resistance in series with an ideal

current source
B. A resistance in parallel with an ideal
current source*
C. A resistance in parallel with an ideal
voltage source
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24. The terminals across the source are

in
if a current source is to be neglected

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A. Open-circuited*
B. Short-circuited
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C. Replaced by a capacitor
B
D. Replaced by a source resistance

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25. Which of the following statements is

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incorrect?
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D. Electronic circuits
32. The circuit having some properties in
27. Kirchhoff's current law states that either direction is known as circuit
A. Net current flow at the junction is A. Bilateral*

positive B. Unilateral
B. Algebraic sum of the currents C. Irreversible
meeting at the junction is zero* D. Reversible
C. No current can leave the junction
without some current entering it D.. 33. Which of the following theorems is
Total sum of currents meeting at the applicable for both linear and nonlinear
junction is zero circuits?
28. Kirchhoff's voltage law is related to
A. Junction cards
B. Battery e.m.fs
C. IR drops
D. Both B and C*
29. According to Kirchhoff's voltage law,

the algebraic some of all IR drops and
e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is
always
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Determined by battery e.m.fs.
D. Zero*
30. Kirchhoff's laws are valid for
A. Linear circuits only

B. Passive time invariant circuits
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C. Nonlinear circuits only

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D. Both the linear and nonlinear

circuits only*
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31. Kirchhoff's laws are not applicable to

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circuits with
B
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A. Distributed parameters*
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B. Lumped parameters
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C. Passive elements
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38. Superposition theorem can be applied

only to circuits having
A. Superposition
B. Thevenin's A. Resistive elements
C. KVL * B. Passive elements
D. None of these C. Non-linear elements
D. Linear bilateral elements*
34. Three equal resistances are connected
in star. If this star is converted into 39. The superposition theorem is applicable
equivalent delta, the resistance of both to
the networks will be.......
A. Linear,non-linear and time variant
A. Equal* responses
B. Zero
C. Vive-versa
35. Two ideal voltage sources of unequal

output voltages cannot be placed
in.................
A. Series
B. Parallel*
C. Both series and parallel
36. Thevenin's resistance R th is found
A. By removing voltage sources along

with their internal resistances
B. By short-circuiting the given two
terminals
C. Between any two open terminals
D. Between same open terminals as for
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37. While Thevenizing a circuit between

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two terminals, V th is equal to

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A. Short-circuit terminal voltage

B
B. Open-circuit terminal voltage*

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C. Net voltage available in the circuit

C
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D. E.M.F. of the battery nearest to the

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terminals
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B. Linear,non-linear resistors only
C. Linear responses only* 45. Which law plays a significant role in
D. None of the above the loop analysis of the network?
a. KCL
40. The superposition theorem applicable to b. KVL*
c. Law of Superposition Theorem
A. Voltage only d. None of the above
B. Current only 46. How is the loop analysis different in
C. Both current and voltage* application/functioning level as
D. Current, voltage and power compared to Kirchoff’s law?
a. Utilization of loop currents instead of
41. The superposition theorem requires as branch currents for writing equations
many circuits to be solved as there are b. Capability of branch current to carry
multiple networks
A. Sources, nodes and meshes c. Reduction in the number of unknowns for
B. Sources and nodes complex networks
C. Sources* d. All of the above*
D. Nodes
47. Which is the correct sequential order of
42. Superposition theorem is not applicable steps to be undertaken while applying
for Thevenin’s theorem?
A. Calculation of Thevenin‟s equivalent
A. Voltage calculations voltage
B. Bilateral elements B. Removal of branch resistance through
C. Power calculations* which required current is to be estimated
D. Passive elements C. Estimation of equivalent resistance
between two terminals of the branch
43. In any linear network, the elements like D. Estimation of branch current by schematic
inductor, resistor and capacitor always representation of Thevenin‟s equivalent
circuit
a. Exhibit changes due to change in a. A, C, B, D
temperature b. B, A, C, D*
b. Exhibit changes due to change in voltage c. D, A, C, B
c. Exhibit changes due to change in time d. B, C, D, A
d. Remains constant irrespective of change in
temperature, voltage and time * 48. If a resistor R x is connected between
nodes X and Y, R y between X and Y, R z
44. Which type of networks allow the between Y and Z to form a delta
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physical separability of the network connection, then after transformation to

in
elements (resistors, inductors & star, the resistor at node X is?

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capacitors) for analysis purpose? a) Rx Ry /( Rx +Ry +Rz)*

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a. Lumped Networks* b) Rx Rz/(Rx +Ry +Rz)

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b. Distributed Networks c) RzRy /(Rx +Ry +Rz)

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c. Unilateral Networks d) (Rx +Ry )/(Rx +Ry +Rz)

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d. Bilateral Networks
C
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49. If the resistors of star connected system
are R1 , R2 , R3 then the resistance between
1 and 2 in delta connected system will be?
a) (R1 R2 + R2 R3 + R3 R1 )/R3 *
b) (R1 R2 + R2 R3 + R3 R1)/R1
c) (R1 R2 + R2 R3 + R3 R1 )/R2
d) (R1 R2 + R2 R3 + R3 R1 )/(R1 +R2)
a) 30
b) 31
c) 32*
d) 33
53. Find the equivalent resistance between node 1

50. Find the equivalent resistance at node A and node 2 in the star connected circuit
in the delta connected circuit shown in the shown in the question 52..
figure below. a) 2
b) 29*
a) 1 c) 30
b) 2 d) 31
c) 3
d) 4* 54. In Superposition theorem, while considering
a source, all other voltage sources are?
51. Find the equivalent resistance at node C a) open circuited
in the delta connected circuit shown in the b) short circuited*
c) change its position
d) removed from the circuit
55. In Superposition theorem, while considering

a source, all other current sources are?
a) short circuited
b) change its position
figure in the question 50. c) open circuited*
a) 3.66 d) removed from the circuit
b) 4.66*
c) 5.66 56. In the circuit shown, find the current through
d) 6.66 4Ω resistor using Superposition theorem.
a) 4
. 52. Find the equivalent resistance between b) 5*
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node 1 and node 3 in the star connected circuit c) 6

in
shown below d) 7
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57. Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to

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20V source in the circuit shown below .

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B
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C
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c) 9
d) 9.5
60. In the circuit shown above in question 1 find

the thevenin‟s resistance between terminals A
and B.
a) 1
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1.7*
d) 2.7
61. In the figure shown above in question 1 find

b) 1.5* the current flowing through 24Ω resistor.
c) 2 a) 0.33*
d) 2.5 b) 0.66
c) 0
58. Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to d) 0.99
20V source in the circuit shown.
62. Determine the equivalent thevenin‟s voltage
between terminals A and B in the circuit
shown below.
a) 0.5
b) 0
c) 1 a) 0.333
d) 1.5* b) 3.33
c) 33.3*
59. Consider the circuit shown below. Find the d) 333
equivalent Thevenin‟s voltage between nodes 63. Find the equivalent thevenin‟s resistance
A and B. between terminals A and B in the circuit
shown.
a) 333
b) 33.3
c) 3.33*
d) 0.333
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a) 8
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b) 8.5* shown below.

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a) 5
B
b) 15
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c) 25*
d) 35
65. Find the equivalent thevenin‟s resistance

shown
A) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
d) 0.4
a) 6
b) 6.25 Polyphase AC Circuits
c) 6.5
1. Power in a Three Phase Circuit = .
d) 6.75*
a) P = 3 V Ph IPh CosФ
b) P = √3 V L IL CosФ
c) Both 1 & 2.
between terminals „a‟ and „b‟ in the circuit
shown below. d) None of The Above
ans: c
2. A polyphase system is generated by ?
a) Having two or more generator windings
separated by equal electrical angle.
b) Having generator windings at equal distances
c) None of the above
a) 0.7
d) A and C
b) 1.7
c) 2.7* ans: a
d) 3.7 3. In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three
67. Find the equivalent thevenin‟s resistance generated voltages is ?

between terminals A and B in the circuit a) Infinite (∞)
shown b) Zero (0)
c) One (1)
a) 6 d) None of the above
b) 7 ans: b
c) 8
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d) 9* 4. In a three phase, delta connection ——-

in
a) line current is equal to phase current

68. Find the current through 5Ω resistor in the
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b) Line voltage is equal to phase voltage

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circuit shown . c) None of the above

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d) Line voltage and line current is zero

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B
ans: b
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5. For a star connection network, consuming
9. In the ABOVE question, determine the phase
power of a)8kW and power factor 0.5, the current IY.
inductance and resistance of each coil at a supply a)44.74 183.4⁰A
voltage of 230 Volts, 60 Hz is ? b)45.74 183.4⁰A
a) 0.1H, 8 Ohms c)44.74 183.4⁰A
b) 0.5H, 10 Ohms d) 45.74 -183.4⁰A
c) 0.3H, 7.4 Ohms ans: C
d) 1H, 7 Ohms
10. Determine the power (kW) drawn by the load)
a)21
ans: c
b)22
6. For a star connected three phase AC circuit —— c)23
a) Phase voltage is equal to line voltage and d)24
phase current is three times the line current
ans: d
b) Line voltage is square root three times phase 11. In a balanced three-phase system-delta load, if
voltage and phase current is equal to line
we assume the line voltage is V RY = V 0⁰ as a
current
reference phasor. Then the source voltage V YB is?
c) Phase voltage is equal to line voltage and line
a) V 0⁰
current is equal to phase current
b) V -120⁰
d) None of the above
c) V 120⁰
ans: b d) V 240⁰
7. If the load impedance is Z Ø, the current (I R ) is? ans: b

a)(V/Z) -Ø
b)(V/Z) Ø 12. In the above question, the source
c)(V/Z) 90-Ø voltageVBR is?
d) (V/Z) -90+Ø a)V 120⁰
ans: a b)V 240⁰
c)V -240⁰
8. A three phase, balanced delta connected load d) V -120⁰
of (4+j8) Ω is connected across a 400V, 3 – Ø ans: c
balanced supply. Determine the phase current IR . 13. In a delta-connected load, the relation
Assume the phase sequence to be RYB) between line voltage and the phase voltage is?
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a) 44.74 -63.4⁰A a)line-voltage>phase-voltage

in
b) 44.74 63.4⁰A b)line-voltage<phase-voltage

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c) 45.74 -63.4⁰A c)line-voltage=phase-voltage

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d) 45.74 63.4⁰A d) line voltage >= phase voltage

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ans: c
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ans: a
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14. For delta-connected circuit the correct
relationship is……….. 19. A 3 – φ delta connected symmetrical load
a) VL = Vph consumes P Watts of power from a balanced
b) Iph x √ 3 = IL supply. If the same load is connected in star to the
c) VL = IL x √ 3 same supply then what is the power
d) Both A and B consumption?
ans: d a)P/3
b)3P
15. Three unequal impedances are connected in c)2P
delta to a three phase, three wire system
d) 0.5P
a) The voltage across the three phases will be
different ans: a
b) Both of the phase current and line currents
will be unbalanced 20. In a balanced star connected system the line
c) Phase current will be unbalanced but line voltages are ahead of their respective phase
currents will be balanced voltages by .
d) None of the above a)30o
ans: b b)60o
c)120o
16. To rated voltage of a three phase power d) None of these
system is given as……….
ans: a
a) RMS phase voltage
b) Peak phase voltage
c) RMS line to line voltage
d) Peak line to line voltage
ans: c Batteries
1. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms
of
17. Condition for a balanced 3 - phase load is that, A. Current rating
each phase has the same value of . B. Voltage rating
a)Impedance C. Ampere hour rating
b)Resistance D. None of the above
2. To prevent local action in battery, only
c)Power-factor
............is used in electrolytes
d) All of these A. Pump water
ans: d B. Distilled water
C. Tap water
D. Both A and C
18. Phase voltages of a star connected alternator 3. When two batteries are connected in parallel,
are ER = 240 0o V, EY = 240 -- 120o V and EB = it should be ensured that
240 + 120o V. What is the phase sequence of the A. They have same emf
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system? B. They have same make

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a)RYB C. They have same ampere hour capacity

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b)RBY D. They have identical internal resistance

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c)YRB 4. A Battery is a series or parallel combination of

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electrolytic cells.
d) YBR
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A. True
B
ans: a B. False
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5. Number of cells connected in series provide a D. Pbo2
—– 14. Which of the following battery will burst if
A. High current carrying capacity separator get damaged
B. Higher Voltage A. dry cell
C. Higher power B. zinc chloride cell
D. None of the above C. lithium ion battery
6. Number of cells connected in parallel provide D. lead acid battery
a——- 15. Amp-hr capacity of battery during discharge is
A. High current carrying capacity 30 amp-hr and during charging its 10 amp-hr
B. Higher Voltage then efficiency of battery is
C. Higher power A. 0.3
D. None of the above B. 3
7. The electrode for a battery must be C. 300
A. A semi conductor D. None of the above
B. An insulator 16. If 200 amp-hr battery is discharged at 90 amp
C. A good conductor of electricity for 30 minutes then depth of discharge is
D. A bad conductor of electricity A. 23.5%
8. Each cell has a vent plug B. 22.5%
A. To allow gases out when the cell is on C. 20%
charge D. 60%
B. To add water to the cell if needed 17. Parallel grouping of battery is used for to
C. To check the level of electrolyte increase… .... capacity
D. To do all above functions A. Current
9. Which of the following cell is rechargeable B. Voltage
A. dry cell C. Both current and voltage
B. zinc chloride cell D. None of the above
C. primary cell 18. Series grouping of battery is used for to
D. lead acid battery increase… .... capacity
A. Current
10. Colour of Positive plate in lead acid battery is B. Voltage
A. Dark chocolate brown C. Both current and voltage
B. Grey colour D. None of the above
C. Pink colour 19. Series and Parallel grouping of battery is used
D. Black colour for to increase… .... capacity
11. In lithium ion battery seprator is made up A. Current
from B. Voltage
A. H2so4 C. Both current and voltage
B. Lead D. None of the above
C. Polymer film 20. Positive plate of lead acid battery is made up
D. Pbo2 from
12. In lithium ion battery electron flow during A. Lead peroxide
charging is B. Pure lead
A. Anode to cathode C. Copper
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B. Cathode to anode D. Aluminium

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C. None of the above 21. Positive plate of Lithium ion battery is made
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D. Electrons not present up from

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13. In lithium ion battery Electrolyte is A. Lead peroxide

A. H2so4 B. Pure lead
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B. Lithium salt C. Carbon electrode

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C. Polymer film
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Basic Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions
UNIT-I
FUNDAMENTALS OF ELECTRICITY
1. Which effect of electrical current is utilized in 6. Which statement is correct?

thermal systems? a.1cal=4.12 J
a. Magnetic b.1cal=4.186 J
b. chemical c.1cal=4.44 J
c. heating d.1cal=3.986 J
d. all above ans:b
ans: c
7. The amount of heat energy required to
2. As per the Joule’s law the amount of heat change the state of the substance without
produced is proportional to change in the temperature is called as
a. I.R a. Kinetic energy
b. V.I b. Potential energy
c. V.I.t c. Latent heat energy
d. None of above d. All of above
ans: c ans:c
3. Geyser is a example of which system 8. The amount of heat energy obtained by

a. Mechanical burning the unit mass of the fuel is called as
b. Electrical a. Molecular value
c. Thermal b. Calorific value
d. None of above c. Atomic value
ans: b d. None of above
ans:b
4. Boiling temp. of water is
a.50 9. The unit of “THERMAL ENERGY” is
b.75 a. Kilowatt-hour
c.100 b. Watt-sec
d.35 c. Joule
ans: c d. all of above
ans:c
5. The amount of heat energy required to
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change the temp. of a given substance without 10. Which effect of electric current is utilized in
in
change in the form of the substance is called as electric lamps?

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a. Sensible heat energy a. Magnetic effect

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b. Latent heat energy b. Chemical effect

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c. Both of above c. Heating effect

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d. None of above d. All of above

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11. The heat energy required to convert a body d. none of above

from solid state to liquid state is called as ans:a
a. Latent heat of fusion
b. Latent heat of vaporization 17. Which relationship is correct
c. Calorific value a. P=T.ω
d. All of above b. P=T/ ω
ans: a c. P=T.v d.None of above
ans:a
12. The heat energy required to convert liquid
state to gaseous state is called as 18. Power is defined as
a. Latent heat of liquification. a. capacity to do the work
b. Latent heat of vaporization b. work done/time
c. both of above c. work done. time
d. None of above d. all above
ans: b ans:b
13. The unit of specific heat capacity is 19. Energy is defined as

a. J/Kg a. work done/time
b. J/KgK b. capacity to do the work
c. joules c. energy=power x resistance
d. none of above d. all above
ans: b ans:b
14. MOTOR-PUMP SET is the example of which 20. Effective water head of a Hydro-electric
system power plant means it’s
a. Electro-mechanical system a. loss
b. Electro-chemical system b. height
c. Only electrical system c. friction
d. All above d. none of above
ans: a ans:b
15. The unit of force is 21. Efficiency is the ratio of

a. Newton a. power and time
b. Joule b. output and input
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c. Newton-metre c. input and output

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d. none of above d. above all

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ans: a ans:b
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16. One metre cube holds a water of 22. Wind-mill-Generator set is the example of
B
a.1000Kg a. electro-chemical system

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b.1000gm b. electro-thermal system

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c.1000miligram c. mechanical-electrical system

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d. all above a.0.06s

ans: c b. 0.00006s
c. 1000 minutes
23. Which relationship is correct? d. 0.6 s
a. volume=mass. Density ans: b
b. volume=mass/density
c. volume=mass + density 29. The current which flows when 0.1 coulomb
d. none of above is transferred in 10 ms is
ans: a a. 1A
b. 10A
24. Potential energy is given as c. 10mA
a. E= m.g.h d. 100mA
b. E=m.g ans: b
c. E=m.g.t
d. above all 30. The p.d. applied to a 1 kΩ resistance in
ans: a order that a current of 100 μA may flow is
a. 1V
25. Kinetic energy is given by b. 100V
1
a. 𝐸 = 2 𝑚𝑉 2 c. 0.1V
1 d. 10V
b. 𝐸 = 2 𝑚𝑉
ans:c
1
c. 𝐸 = 2 𝑚𝑡
d. none of above 31. The power dissipated by a resistor of
ans: a 4Ωwhen a current of 5A passes through it is
a. 6.25W
26. A 100W electric light bulb is connected to a b. 20W
250V supply. The current in the circuit is c. 80W
a.0.3A d. 100W
b. 0.4A ans:d
c. 1.4A
d. 0.6A 32. Which of the following statements is true?
ans: b a. Electric current is measured in volts
b. 200 kΩ resistance is equivalent to 2MΩ
27. A 100W electric light bulb is connected to a c. An ammeter has a low resistance and must be
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250V supply. Its hot resistance is connected in parallel with a circuit

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a.625Ω d. An electrical insulator has a high resistance

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b.526Ω ans:d
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c. 62.5Ω
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d. 625mΩ 33. A current of 3A flows for 50 hrs through

B
ans:a a6Ωresistor. The energy consumed by the

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resistor is:
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28. 60 μs is equivalent to: a.0.9 kWh

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b.2.7 kWh ans: a

c.9 kWh 39. In what time would a current of 1A transfer
d.27 kWh a charge of 30 Coulomb?
ans:b a. 45s
b. 30s
34. What must be known in order to calculate c. 65s
the energy used by an electrical appliance? d.4s
a. voltage and current ans: b
b. current and time of operation
c. power and time of operation 40. How long must a current of 0.1A flow so as
d. current and resistance to transfer a charge of 30 Coulomb?
ans: c a. 5 min
b. 5s
35. Voltage drop is the c. 50min
a. maximum potential d. 50s
b. difference in potential between two points ans: a
c. voltage produced by a source
d. voltage at the end of a circuit 41. A force of 4N moves an object 200 cm in the
ans: b direction of the force. Work done is
a. 6 J
36. A 240V, 60Wlamp has a working resistance b. 8 J
of c. 4 J
a. 1400 ohm d. 10 J
b. 60 ohm ans:b
c. 960 ohm
d. 325 ohm 42. The amount of work done in lifting a mass of
ans:c 500 kg to a height of 6min 30 sec ….
a. 2943J
37. The energy used by a 1.5kW heater in 5 b. 0.2943J
minutes is: c. 29.43J
a. 5 J d. 29.43KJ
b. 450 J ans:d
c. 7500 J
d. 450000 J 43. The power required in lifting a mass of 500
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ans:d kg to a height of 6m in 30 sec….

in
a.198J
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38. If a current of 5A flows for 2 minutes, the b. 981W

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quantity of charge transferred will c.198W d. 981J

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a. 600C ans: b
B
b. 100C
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c. 0.6C 44. 0.32mA=. . . . . . μA

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d. 60C a.0.0032
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b.0.032 a. 0.5 kWh

c.0.00032 b. 4 kWh
d.320 c. 2 kWh
ans: d d. 0.02 kWh
ans: b
45. A portable machine requires a force of 200N
to move it. If the machine is moved through 50. Amount of heart energy required to raise
20m in 25s, power required is the temperature of 10kg of water through
a. 160kW 100oC is (Sw of water as 4200J/kgK)
b. 1600W a. 4.2kJ
c. 16kW b.4.2MJ
d.160W c. 42kJ
ans: d d. 420J
ans:b
46. Energy provided by a source e.m.f. of 5V
supplying a current of 3A for 10 minutes is 51. The opposition to the flow of leakage
a.9kJ current is called as
b. 65J a. resistance
c. 25kJ b. leakage coefficient
d. 90kJ c. insulation resistance
ans: a d. all above
ans:c
47. 450 J of energy are converted into heat in 1
minute. The power dissipated is 52. The insulation resistance is generally
a.7.5kW measured in..
b.7.5W a. ohms
c.750W b. Mega ohms
d. 600W c. milli ohms
ans: b d. none of above
ans:b
48. The power rating of a d.c. electric motor
consuming 36 MJ when connected to a 250V 53. The insulation resistance of a cable is
supply for 1 hour is a. directly proportional to length of cable
a. 100W b. inversely proportional to length of cable
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b.10W c. remains same with change in length

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c.500W d. none of above

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d. 10KW ans:b
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ans: d
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54. Which is the expression for insulation

B
49. A current of 2A flows for 10 h through resistance of a single core cable

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a100Ωresistor. The energy consumed by the a. R=ρ l/a

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resistor is
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ρ
b. Ri=2πl 𝑙𝑛(R2/R1) d. all of above
c. Ri=
ρ
(R2/R1) ans: b
2πl
d. none of above
60. Factors affecting the insulation resistance of
ans:b
a cable are
a. length
55. As the thickness of insulation layer of a
b. thickness
cable increases, it’s insulation resistance will
c. resistivity of insulating material
a. increase
d. all above
b. decrease
ans:d
c. remain same
d. none of above
61. If length of cable is doubled, then its
ans: a
insulation resistance will
a. reduce by 25%
56. As the Temperature of surrounding
b. reduce by 50%
increases the insulation resistance will
c. increase by 50%
a. increase
d. reduce by 55%
b. remain same
ans:b
c. decrease
d. none of above
62 .If two cables with their insulation
ans: c
resistances Ri1 and Ri2 are joined in series, then
their equivalent resistance will be
57. Which is a good conductor of electricity?
a. Ri1 + Ri2
a. normal tap water
b. Ri1 - Ri2
b. pure water
c. Ri1 / Ri2
c. glass
d. (Ri1.Ri2) / (Ri1 + Ri2)
d. plastic
ans:d
ans: b
64. If the thickness of insulation layer of cable is

58. As moisture content in the air increases,
doubled, then its insulation resistance will
then the insulation resistance will
a. reduce by 25%
a. decrease
b. increase by 50%
b. remain same
c. increase by 58.5%
c. increase
d. reduce by 55%
d. none of above
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ans:c
ans: a
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65. If two cables with their insulation

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59. When the Humidity in the surrounding

resistances Ri1 and Ri2 with conductor
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increases, the leakage current in the cable will

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resistances R1and R2 respectively are joined in

a. remain same
B
parallel, then their conductor equivalent

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b. increase
resistance will be
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c. decrease
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b. Ri1 - Ri2 71. According to Ohm’s law current in

c. Ri1 / Ri2 conducting material is inversely proportional
d. (R1 R2) / (R1 + R2) to….
ans: d a. Voltage across it.
b. Both Voltage and Resistance.
66. What is current? c. Resistance of material.
a. Flow of electrons. d. None of above.
b. Flow of protons ans:c
c. Flow of Neutrons.
d. None of above. 72. What are the factors on which resistance of
ans: a material depends?
a. Length and Cross-section area of material.
67. What is Resistance? b. Temperature of material.
a. to assist the flow of current. c. Specific resistivity of material.
b. opposition the flow of current. d. All of above.
c. opposition the flow of voltage. ans:d
d. to assist the flow of voltage.
ans:a 73. Resistance of material will increase with
increase of?
68. Unit of resistance is… a. Cross-section area of material.
a. Volts. b. Length of material.
b. Amperes. c. Both Length and Cross-section area of
c. Ohm. material.
d. Faraday. d. None of above.
ans:c ans:b
69. Resistance of material will decrease with 74. What will be the effect on the resistance of
increase of….. conducting material if the temperature
a. Length of material. increases?
b. Both Length and Cross-section area of a. No effect on resistance.
material. b. Resistance will increase.
c. Cross-section area of material. c. Resistance will decrease.
d. None of above. d. Resistance will remain same.
ans:c ans:b
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70. According to Ohm’s law current in the 75. What will be the effect on the resistance of
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conducting material is directly proportional to… conducting material if the temperature

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a. Resistance of material. decreases?

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b. Voltage across. a. Resistance will remain same.

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c. Both Voltage and Resistance. b. No effect on resistance.

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d. None of above. c. Resistance will increase.

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ans:d 81. At high temperature semi-conductor will

behave as?
76. What will be the effect on the resistance of a. Insulator.
insulating material if the temperature b. Conductor.
increases? c. Semi-conductor.
a. No effect on resistance. d. None of above.
b. Resistance will increase. ans:b
c. Resistance will remain same.
d. Resistance will decrease. 82. The length of a conductor or a wire is
ans:d doubled and its cross section is also doubled
then the resistance will.
77. What will be the effect on the resistance of a. Increases four times.
insulating material if the temperature b. Remains unchanged.
decreases? c. Decreases four times.
a. Resistance will remain same. d. Change at random.
b. No effect on resistance. ans:b
c. Resistance will increase.
d. Resistance will decrease. 83. The variation of resistance with
ans:c temperature is governed by a property called.
a. Resistance access coefficient (RAC).
78. What will be the resistance of semi- b. Resistance nature coefficient (RNC).
conductor at low temperature? c. Resistance temperature coefficient (RTC).
a. Resistance will be high. d. None of above.
b. Resistance will be low. ans:c
c. No effect on resistance
d. None of above. 84. Temperature co-efficient of resistance at
ans:a 00C is defined as the change in resistance per
ohm original resistance per 0C change in
79. What will be the resistance of semi- temperature.
conductor at high temperature? a. True.
a. Resistance will be high b. False.
b. No effect on resistance. ans:a
c. Resistance will be low.
d. None of above. 85. Unit of Temperature co-efficient of
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ans:c resistance is.

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80. At low temperature semi-conductor will a. /Ώ/0C.

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behave as? b. /0C.

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a. Insulator. c. 0C.
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d. Ώ/0C.
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b. Conductor.
B
c. Semi-conductor. ans:b
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d. None of above.
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86. Temperature co-efficient of resistance α0 is a. 990 Ω.

given by. b. 881.667 Ω.
𝑅𝑡 −𝑅0
a. 𝛼0 = c. 981.667 Ω.
𝑅0 .𝑡
𝑅0 −𝑅𝑡 d. 1000 Ω.
b. 𝛼0 = 𝑅𝑡 .𝑡 ans:b
𝑅1−𝑅2
c. 𝛼0 = 𝑅1 .𝑡
𝑅2 −𝑅1 92. A single core cable has 1.5cm diameter
d. 𝛼0 =
𝑅0.𝑡 conductor and thickness of insulation is 2.2 cm.
ans:a The resistivity of insulating material is 9.2×1012
Ώ-m. Determine the insulation resistance per
87. At 00C a specimen of copper have a km length of cable.
resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co- a. 2×1012 Ώ.
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per 00C. b. 2.9×1013 Ώ.
Find the value of its temperature co-efficient at c. 2×109 Ώ.
700C. d. 9.2×1012 Ώ.
a. 0.003248/0C. ans:c
b. 0.003428/0C.
c. 0.003284/0C. 93. A single core cable has 1.5cm diameter
d. 0.003434/0C. conductor and thickness of insulation is 2.2 cm.
ans: The resistivity of insulating material is 9.2×1012
Ώ-m. Determine the insulation resistance per
88. At 00C a specimen of copper have a km length of cable. If the working voltage of
resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co- conductor is 1100V, what is the leakage current
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per 00C. per km of cable?
Find the value of resistance at 700C. a. 0.55×10-6A.
a. 4.5mΩ. b. 1.55×10-6A.
b. 3.5mΩ. c. 0.55×10-12A.
c. 5.19mΩ. d. 0.55×106A.
d. 5.5mΩ. ans:a
ans:c
94. The armature winding of a D.C. machine
90. An aluminum conductor has resistance of when connected to D.C. supply of 240 V was
10Ω AT 200C and the RTC of 0.0039 per 0C at drawing 1.6 A at 250C and 1.25 A when heated.
200C .Find the RTC at 00C. Evaluate temperature of armature winding if α
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a. 0.000124/0C. of its material at 250C is 0.0039/0C.

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b. 0.00423/0C. a. 1000C.
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c.0.00324/0C. b. 1100C.
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d. 0.0000423/0C. c. 96.790C.
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ans:b d. 98.790C.
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B
ans:c
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91. Find the resistance of filament of 60 watt in

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a 230 V supply lamp at its working temperature.

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95. If the length of a wire of resistance R is a. negative

uniformly stretched to n times its original value, b. infite
its new resistance is c. zero
a.nR d. positive
b. R/n ans: d
c. n2R
d.r/n2 101. Insulation resistance of the insulating
ans:c material should be
a. high
96. Two wires A and B of same material and b. low
length L and 2L have radius r and 2r c. zero
respectively. The ratio of their specific d. none of these
resistance will be ans:a
a.1:1
b.1:2 102. The flow of current in solids is due to
c.1:4 a. electrons
d.1:8 b. electrons and ions
ans:a c. atoms
d. nucleus
97. Two wires A and B of same material and ans: a
length L and 2L have radius r and 2r
respectively. The ratio of their resistances will 103. The resistance of human body is around
be a. 5 ohms
a.1:1 b. 25 ohms
b.2:1 c. 250 ohms
c.4: 1 d. 1000 ohms
d.1:8 ans:d
ans:b
104. One commercial unit of energy equals
99. A length of wire having resistance of 1 ohm a. 500 watt seconds
is cut into four equal parts and these four parts b. one watt hour
are bundled together side-by-side to form a c. one kilowatt hour
wire. The new resistance will be d. ten kilowatt hour
a.1/4 ohm ans:c
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b.1/16 ohm
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c.4 ohm 105. One coulomb charge equals the charge on

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d.16 ohm a. 6.24x1012 electrons

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ans:b b. 6.24x1014 electrons

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c. 6.24x1016 electrons
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B
100. The hot resistance of filament of a bulb is d. 6.24x1018 electrons

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higher than the cold resistance because the ans:d

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temperature coefficient of filament is

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106. Electric pressure is also called a. copper

a. resistance b. aluminum
b. power c. carbon
c. voltage d. brass
d. energy ans:c
ans:c
112. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
107. With rise in temperature resistance of pure a. vaccum tubes
metals b. carbon resistor
a. increases c. high voltage circuits
b. decreases d. circuits at low current densities
c. first increases then decreases ans:a
d. remains constant
ans:a 113. Which one of the following does not have
negative temperature coefficient
108. With rise in temperature resistance of a. aluminum
semiconductors b. paper
a. increases c. rubber
b. decreases d. mica
c. first increases then decreases ans:a
d. remains constant
ans:b 114. An electrical effort required to drift the
free electrons in one particular direction, in a
109. The resistance of copper wire 200 m long is conductor is called
21 ohms. If its thickness is 0.44 mm, its specific a.MMF
resistance is around b.EMF
a. 1.2x10-8Ω-m c. current
b. 1.4x10-8Ω-m d. all above
c. 1.6x10-8Ω-m ans:b
d. 1.8x10-8Ω-m
ans:c 115. An _______ effort required to drift the free
electrons in one particular direction, in a
110. Which of the following material has nearly conductor is called EMF
zero temperature coefficient of resistance a. chemical
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a. manganin b. mechanical
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b. porcelain c. electrical
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c. carbon d. thermal
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d. copper ans:c
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ans:a
B
116. I = ___ /t amp

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111. Which of the following material has a a. R

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negative temperature coefficient of resistance b. L

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c. Q a. resistivity
d. t b. conductivity
ans:c c. permittivity
d. all above
117. The ability of a charged particle to do work ans:b
is called
a. potential difference 123. The material having poorest value of ____
b. electric potential is best insulator.
c. magnitude a. resistivity
d. magnetism b. conductivity
ans:b c. permittivity
d. all above
118. The unit of electric potential is ___ ans:b
a.amp
b. coulomb 124. The resistance of copper wire 25 m long is
c. volt found to be 50 Ω. If its diameter is 1mm, then
d. tesla resistivity of copper is ___
ans:c a.1.57 µΩ-m
b.1.57 Ω-m
119. 1 calorie = ___ c.15.7 Ω-m
a.4.186 joules d. none of the above
b.0.24 joules ans:a
c.41.86 joules
d. none of the above 125. Factors which affect the resistance _____
ans:a a. length of the material
b. cross sectional area
120. Unit of resistivity is ____ c. temperature
a. Ω d. all above
b. Ω-m ans:d
c. Ω/m
d. all above 126. Effect of temperature on resistance
ans:b depends on ____ of material
a. size
121. Unit of conductance is ___ b. shape
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a. ohms c. nature
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b. siemens d. length
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c. newtons ans:c
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d. none of above
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ans:b 127. Resistance of carbon _____ as the

B
temperature increases
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122. The material having highest value of ____ a. increases

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is best conductor b. remains same

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c. decreases d. all above

d. none of above ans:c
ans:c
133. Insulation resistance Ri = V/Il, in this V is
128. Semiconductors have _____ temperature ____
coefficient a. voltage between conductor and earth
a. positive b. voltage between insulation and earth
b.negative c. voltage between conductor and insulator
c.zero d. all above
d.all above ans:a
ans:b
134. Insulation resistance Ri = V/Il, in this Il is
129. Resistance temperature coefficient is ____
denoted by ____ a. current
a. α b. voltage
b. β c. leakage current
c. θ d. line current
d. Φ ans:c
ans:a
135. Insulation resistance is ______
O
130. The RTC at t C is ratio of _____ proportional to its length
a. change in conductance per degree Celsius to a. directly
the resistance at t0 C b. inversely
b. change in resistance per degree Celsius to the c. not
resistance at t0 C d. none of above
c. change in initial resistance per degree Celsius ans:b
to the resistance at t0 C
d. all above 136. Insulation resistance is inversely
ans:b proportional to its ______
a. length
131. Unit of RTC is ____ b. area
a. OC c. diameter
b. /OC d. cross sectional area
c. Ω/ OC ans: a
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d. all above
in
ans:b 137. Which of the following substance, the

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resistance decreases with the increase of

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132. Insulation resistance is defined as temperature?

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opposition to the flow of ____ a. carbon

B
a. current b. constantan
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b. voltage c. copper
C
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c. leakage current d. silver

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ans:a 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in series,

138. At 300K the temperature coefficient of its insulation resistance is ___
resistance of a wire is 0.00125 /OC and its a.120 MΩ
resistance is one ohm. The resistance of wire b.240 Ω
will be 2 ohm at c.240 MΩ
a. 1154 K d. 160 Ω
b. 1100 K ans:c
c. 1400 K
d. 1127 K 143.Two underground cables A and B, each has
ans: b a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω resp.
each has insulation resistance of 600 MΩ and
139. The conventional electric current is due to 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in parallel,
the flow of its insulation resistance is ___
a. positive charges only a.1200 MΩ
b. negative charges only b.2400 Ω
c. neutral particles only c.1000 MΩ
d. both positive and negative charges. d. 1600 Ω
ans:b ans:c
140. Insulators have _______ temperature 144. Two underground cables A and B, each has
coefficient of resistance a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω resp.
a. positive each has insulation resistance of 600 MΩ and
b. negative 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in parallel,
c. zero its conductor resistance is ___
d. none of the above a.0.3428Ω
ans:b b.0.240 Ω
c.0.240 MΩ
141. Two underground cables A and B, each has d. 0.160 Ω
a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω resp. ans:a
400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in series, 145. Match the pair
its conductor resistance is ___ 1. Resistance a. / 0C
a.1.2 MΩ 2. Insulation resistance b.siemens
b.1.2 Ω 3. RTC c.ohm
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c.1.4 Ω 4. Conductance d.MΩ

in
d. 1.6 Ω a. 1a,2-b,3-c,4-d
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ans:c b.1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b
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c.1-d,2-c,3-b,4-a
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142.Two underground cables A and B, each has d.all above

B
a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω resp. ans:b

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UNIT II
MAGNETIC CIRCUIT & ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. The complete path followed by the magnetic 6. Lines of force is also called
flux is called a. flux
a. electric circuit b. current
b. magnetic circuit c. resistance
c. electromagnetism d. flux density
d. electric field ans:a
ans: b
7. Lines of force passing per unit area is called
2. Current carrying conductor is always a. magnetic field
surrounded by b. magnetic flux
a. magnetic field c. magnetic flux density
b. electric field d. magnetic field strength
c. Electricity ans:c
d. current
ans: a 8. unit of flux is
a. weber
3. The direction of magnetic field produced by b. wb/m2
current carrying conductor is given by c. Tesla
a. Lenz’s law d. AT
b. right hand thumb rule ans:a
c. Fleming’s left hand rule
d. Kirchoff’s law 9. Unit of flux density is
ans: b a. wb/m2
b. wb
4. Imaginary lines of force originating from c. AT/wb
magnet is called d. A
a. current ans:a
b. resistance
c. flux 10. Unit of magnetic field
d. magnetic field a. wb/m2
ans: c b. wb
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c. AT/wb
in
5. Region surrounded by magnet is called d. none of above

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a. magnetic field strength ans:b

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b. magnetic field
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c. electric field 11. Unit of reluctance is

B
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d. resistance a. AT/wb
ans: b b. AT
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c. Tesla d. the ability of material to conduct magnetic

d. Wb/A lines of force
ans:a ans: d
12. Opposition to the magnetic lines of force is 17. An air gap is usually inserted in a magnetic
called circuit
a. Flux a. to prevent saturation
b. resistance b. increase flux
c. susceptance c. decrease flux
d. reluctance d. increase mmf
ans:d ans: a
13. Unit of magnetic field strength is 18. A magnetic circuit requires 800 ampere
a. AT/m turns to produce a certain amount of flux. If
b. AT/wb exciting coil of 100 turns has 5 ohms resistance,
c.Tesla then the voltage to be applied to the exciting
d. ohms coil must be
ans: a a. 40V
b. 20 V
14. The force on two current carrying c.10V
conductors in the same direction d. 5V
a. have force of repulsion between them ans: a
b. have force of attraction between them
c. remains unaffected 19. Permeability of a material is the ratio of
d. none of above a. magnetic field to flux density
ans: b b. flux density to magnetic field strength
c. magnetic field strength to flux density
15. Magneto motive force is directly d. none of above
proportional to ans: b
a. no. of turns of coil
b. current through the coil 20. The term saturation related to magnetic
c. both a and b circuit means
d. none of above a. magnetic field strength increases with
ans: c current
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b. flux density increases with current

in
16. The term permeability for a material means c. flux density remains constant if magnetic
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a. the no. of turns on an air core field strength is increased

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b. the mmf required to produce one unit of d. magnetic field strength remains constant if
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magnetic flux flux density is increased.

B
c. the ability of a material to conduct electricity ans:c

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through it
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21. The lines of force produced by coil b. does not vary with increasing the cross
completing their path through air, instead of sectional area
intended path is called c. decreases with increasing cross sectional area
a. useful flux of material
b. saturated flux d. decreases with increasing the length of
c. air flux material
d. leakage flux ans: c
ans: d
27. The correct relation stated as following is
𝑁
22. The bulging of lines of force in air gap in a a. ф =𝑙/𝑎µ0µ𝑟
magnetic circuit is called
b. NI = B× l/a µ0µr
a. leaking flux
c. N=H×l
b. merging
d. NI = ф × l/µ0µr a
c. fringing
ans: d
d. scattering
ans: c
28. The permeance in a magnetic circuit
corresponds to
23. Relative permeability of vacuum is
a. resistance in an electric circuit
a. 4π × 10-7 H/m
b. emf in an electric circuit
b. 1 H/m
c. conductivity in electric circuit
c.1
d. conductance in an electric circuit
d. ¼ H/m
ans: d
ans: c
29. The ampere turns are

24.MMF in magnetic circuit is analogous to
a. the product of the number of turns and
a. electric current in electric circuit
current of the coil
b. current density in conductor
b. the number of turns of a coil through which
c. electromotive force
current is flowing
d. resistance in electric circuit
c. the currents of all turns of the coil
ans:c
d. the turns of transformer winding
ans:a
25. Reluctance is analogous to
a. emf in electric circuit
30. What will be the current flowing through
b. resistivity
the ring shaped air core when number of turns
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c. conductivity
is 800 and ampere turns are 3200
in

a. 0.25
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ans: d
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b.2.5
P
c.4.0
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26. The magnetic reluctance of a material

d. 0.4
B
a. increases with increasing cross sectional area

TE
ans:c
of material
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31. Leakage factor is defined as the ratio of a. copper

a. flux in air gap by total flux b. rubber
b. Total flux by useful flux c. glass
c. airgp flux by useful flux d. none of these
d. total flux by flux produced by solenoid ans: d
ans: b
37. The force between two parallel current
32. Effect of fringing in magnetic circuit is carrying conductors is given by relation
a. it increases flux density a. I1I2 ×2× 10-7× l/d
b. its effective area of air gap decreases b. I1 dl /I2 ×4π× 10-7
c. it decreases flux density c. I1I2 /2π× 10-7
d. none of above d. I12×4× 10-7ld
ans:c ans: a
33.The force experienced by unit north pole 39. The magnitude of force experienced by
when placed at point in a magnetic field is current carrying conductor placed in magnetic
called field depends on
a. magnetic field strength at that point a. value of flux
b. exerted force at that point b. magnitude of current flowing through
c.flux conductor
d. magnetic field c. direction of current
ans:a d. all of above
ans: d
34. The mechanical force acting on current
carrying on conductor when placed in magnetic 40.Two current carrying conductor lying parallel
field is given by relation and close to each other. They are carrying
a. F= N dф/dt current in the opposite direction. The force
b. F= Blv sinӨ between them is
c. F= BIL sinӨ a. repulsive
d. F=L di/dt b. Attractive
ans: c c. Zero
d. none of these
35. Which of the following has the highest ans: a
magnetic permeability?
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a. paramagnetic substances 41. Two current carrying conductor lying

in
b. diamagnetic substances parallel and close to each other. They are

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c. ferromagnetic substances carrying current in the same direction. The

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d. vacuum force between them is

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ans: c a. repulsive
B
b. Attractive
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36. The perfect insulator for magnetic lines of c. Zero

C
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force is d. none of these

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ans: b of flux density 1.25T at 300 to the lines of flux.

Force acting on conductor will be
42. Two current carrying conductor lying a.0.3125N
parallel and close to each other are exerting b. 3.125N
force of attraction on each other. The currents c.1.325N
are d. 5.321N
a. very high ans: a
b. in opposite direction
c. low 47.Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find
d. in the same direction a. Magnitude of induced emf in conductor
ans: d b. Direction of magnetic field in conductor
c. Direction of force on current carrying
43. Two current carrying conductor lying conductor
parallel and close to each other are exerting d. Magnitude of flux density
force of repulsion on each other. The currents ans: c
are
a. very high2 48. Which statement is correct related to
b. in opposite direction magnetic field produced due to current carrying
c. low conductor
d. in the same direction a. direction of rotation of screw to advance in
ans: b the direction of current gives the direction of
magnetic field
44. Two conductors are carrying 1000A and b. If right hand curled fingers shows the
5000A currents respectively are 5cm apart. The direction of current, thumb gives the direction
force per meter length between two conductors of magnetic field
is c. if direction of rotation of screw shows current
a. 100 N/m ,tip gives the direction of magnetic field
b. 40 N/m d. all of these
c.30 N/m ans: a
d. 20 N/m
ans: d 49. Force experienced by current carrying
45. Magnetic field strength due to N long conductor when placed in magnetic field will be
straight current carrying conductors in the same zero when
direction is given by a. current in the conductor is maximum
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a. H= NI/ 4πd b. Angle between conductor and field is zero

in
b. H= I/ 2πd c. Both a &b

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c. H= NI/ 2πd d. None of these

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d. H=NI/l ans: b
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ans: c
B
50. Relative permeability is defined as the ratio

TE
46. A conductor of 10cm length carrying a of

C
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current of 5A placed in uniform magnetic field

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a. magnetic field strength in a medium to flux c. magnitude of force experienced

density in the same medium d. direction of force
b. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to magnetic ans: a
field strength in vacuum
c. Magnetic flux density in other medium to flux 55. In left hand rule, thumb always represents
density in vacuum a. current
d. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to flux b. voltage
density in other medium c. magnetic field
ans: c d. direction of force on conductor
ans: d
51. The ability with which the magnetic material
allows the flux to pass through a given medium 56. The force between two long current
is called carrying conductor is inversely proportional to
a. susceptibility a. current in one conductor
b. permeability b. product of current in two conductors
c. conductivity c. distance between the two conductors.
d. reluctivity d. radius of conductors
ans: b ans: c
52. Unit of permeability is 57. While comparing magnetic and electric

a. A/m circuit, the point of dissimilarity exists while
b. H/m considering
c. I/m a.mmf and emf
d. m/H b. Reluctance and resistance
ans: b c. flux and current
d. permeance and conductance
53. Permeability of free space or vacuum is ans: c
defined as the ratio of
a. magnetic flux density in vacuum to magnetic 59. Permeance is to reluctance as conductance
field strength is to
b. Magnetic flux density in other medium to a. inductance
magnetic field strength b. resistance
c. Magnetic field strength to magnetic flux c. capacitance
density in vacuum d. ampere turns
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d. Magnetic field strength in medium to flux ans: b

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density in other medium

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ans: a 60. A straight cylindrical solenoid has a flux of

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12mwb and a flux density of 0.9T. The diameter

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54. Right hand thumb rule is used to find out of solenoid must be
B
a. direction of induced emf a.130cm

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b. direction of magnetic field due to current b. 13cm

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carrying conductor c.10cm

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d.5cm 65. the mmf of ring is_____

ans : b a.5000AT
b. 7200AT
61. 1 tesla is given as c.750AT
a. 1wb/m2 d. 7500AT
b. 1wb/cm2 ans:d
c.1mwb/cm2
d. 1wb/mm2 66. The reluctance of ring is______
ans: a a.7×107 AT/Wb
b. 0.7×106 AT/Wb
62. Which part of the magnetic path requires c.6×107 AT/Wb
largest mmf d. 6×105 AT/Wb
a.coil ans: b
b.core
c.airgap 67.The value of flux is _________
d. inductance a.10.7 Wb
ans: c b.70 mWb
c.10.7mWb
63. Soft steel and iron alloy allow easy passage d. 107 mwb
of a magnetic flux because ans: c
a. of its high elasticity
b. of its high permeability 68. The relative permeability of air
c. of its high conductivity is__________
d. of its high reluctance a. 1
ans: b b. less than 1
c. greater than 1
64. Magnitude of the magnetic field produced d. 1000
by a coil is proportional to ans: a
a. Permeability of the core material
b. the no. of turns of coil 69. Relative permeability of all non magnetic
c. the magnitude of current flow through the materials is_____
coil a. 300
d. the product of all above b. 0.7
ans:d c.1
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d. 0
in
Following data should be used for solving 65 to ans: c

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67
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A coil is wound uniformly with 300 turns over 70. Which of the following is non magnetic
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steel ring of relative permeability 900, having material?

B
mean circumference of 40mm and cross a. iron

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sectional area of 50mm2. A current of 25A is b. Mild steel

C
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passed through coil c. brass

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d. Silicon steel
ans: c 76. A strength of an electromagnet is
determined by
71. Which of the following is magnetic material? a. reluctance
a. copper b. permeability of the core
b. silicon steel c.mmf
c. aluminium d. all of above
d. brass ans: d
ans: b
77. The strength of the magnetic field around a
72. Flux in the air gap is called conductor is directly proportional to
a. leakage flux a. voltage across the conductor
b. total flux b. current in the conductor
c. useful flux c. type of material of conductor
d. all of above d. none of above
ans: c ans: b
73. A magnetic circuit has a mmf of 400AT and a 78. Reluctance of magnetic material is
reluctance of 2 × 105 AT/wb. The magnetic flux a. less than non magnetic material
in the magnetic circuit is b. more than non magnetic material
a. 3 × 10-5Wb c. equal to that of non magnetic material
b.2 × 10-3Wb d. none of above
c.1.5 × 10-2Wb ans: a
d. 2.5 × 10-4Wb
ans: b 79. The denser the flux
a. stronger is the magnetic field
74. A 2cm long coil has 10 turns and carries a b. weaker is the magnetic flux
current of 750mA. The magnetizing force of the c. no effect on the strength of field
coil is d. none of above
a. 225 AT/m ans: a
b. 675 AT/m
c.450 AT/m 80. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by
d. 375 AT/m a. Flemings right hand rule
ans: d b. Flemings left hand rule
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c. faradays law of electromagnetic induction

in
75. The reluctance of a magnetic circuit varies d. crock screw rule.

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with ans:a
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a. length × area
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b. length / area 81. Magnitude of induced e.m.f. in a generator

B
c. area/length depend on
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d. (length)2 + area a. flux density

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ans: b b. magnitude of current

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c. rate of cutting flux d. The induced current is the same in all

d. Rate of current discharge. positions
ans:c ans:b
82. According to Lenz’s law direction of induced 86. In which of the following situations a
e.m.f. is. voltage is induced in a conductor?
a. Same as cause produced a. The conductor moves through the air.
b. Perpendicular to cause produced b. The conductor is connected to a battery.
c. opposite to cause produced c. The conductor is connected to a motor.
d. Non above d. The conductor is moved in a magnetic field.
ans:c ans:d
83. According to Faraday’s Laws of 89. In case of dynamically induced emf,

electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f.is induced direction of induced emf is given by
in a conductor whenever it a. Fleming’s right hand rule
a. Lies in magnetic field b. Lenz’s law
b. Cuts magnetic flux c. Faraday’s first law
c. moves parallel to the direction of the d. Faraday’s second law
magnetic field ans:a
d. lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux.
ans:b 90. Emf induced in a coil due to its own current
is called __________Induction.
84. When a magnet moves past an object, it will a. Mutual
produce eddy currents in the object if the b.Self
object is c. Dynamic
a. a solid d. Static
b. an insulator ans:b
c. a conductor
d. made from the magnetic material 91. Emf induced in a coil due to current change
ans:d in neighboring coil is called_________
induction.
85. Electricity can be generated by rotating a a. Mutual
wire loop between the poles of a magnet. In b. Self
which of the following positions would induce c. Dynamic
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the greatest current in the loop? d. Static

in
a. The plane of the loop is parallel to the ans:a

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magnetic field.
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b. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the 92. Co-efficient of self induction is also called
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magnetic field. as__________

B
c. The plane of the loop makes an angle of 45° a. self- induction

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with the magnetic field. b. Inductance

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c. Self- inductance
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d. Induction c. Henry
ans:a d. Linkages
ans:c
93. The property of a coil due to which it
opposes the change of current flowing through 98. Unit of induced emf is_________
itself is called_____ of the coil. a. Volt
a. Static inductance b. Ampere
b. Dynamic inductance c. Henry
c.Self inductance d. Linkages
d. Mutual inductance ans:a
ans:c
99. The property of one coil due to which it
94. ____________is used to sense the flow of opposes the change in the other coil is
current in a electric circuit. called…………. between two coils.
a. Ammeter a. Dynamic inductance
b. Voltmeter b. Static inductance
c. Wattmeter c. Self inductance
d. Galvanometer d. Mutual inductance
ans:a ans:d
95. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt 100. The unit of mutual inductance
only when the current in the coil is is_________
a. Changing a. Volt
b. Increasing b. Ampere/ Volt
c. Decreasing c. Henry
d. All the above d. Linkages
ans:a ans:c
96. The negative sign in the induced emf of self 𝑀𝑑𝑖1

101. In the expression 𝑒 = , M represents
𝑑𝑡
induction indicates that energy is being
a. Mutual induction
absorbed from the electric circuit and stored as
b. Mutual inductance
_______ energy in the coil.
c. Number of lines of force
a. mechanical
d. None of these
b. Electronic
ans:b
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c. electric
in
d. Magnetic
102. If 0.75 V is induced emf and resistance
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ans:d
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offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced

current is
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97. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of the

a. 3.75 A
B
circuit is______
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b. 3. 75 mA
a. Volt
C
c. 3.75μA
H
b. Ampere
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d. 37.5 mA a. MMF
ans:b b. EMF
c. Flux linkage
103. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb to d. Magnetic intensity
0.3 Wb, then change in flux is______ Wb. ans:a
a. 1.1
b. 0.5 109. Expression NI/L is called
c. -0.5 a. MMF
d. -1.1 b. EMF
ans:c c. Flux linkage
d. Magnetic field strength
104. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if the ans:d
current is 100mA, then MMF is ________
a. 2000 AT 110. Expression for mutual inductance is
b. 200 AT a. –L dI/dt
c. 20 AT b. MdI / dt
d. 0.5 AT c. N2 Ф2/ I1
ans:c d. NФ/I
ans:c
105. Leakage factor is also called as
a. Fringing 111. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
b. Coefficient of inductance is e=
c. Magnetic coefficient a. –NdФ/dt
d. Hopkinson’s coefficient b. MdI / dt
ans:d c. N2 Ф2 / I1
d. NФ/I
106. Movement of electrons are called as ans:a
a. MMF
b. Current 112. The constant K in case of mutual induction
c. Voltage is equal to
d. Flux a.Ф1/Ф2
ans:b b.Ф2/Ф1
c.Ф1/I1
107. Flux density is equal to ________ of flux d.Ф2/I1
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and area of cross – section. ans:d

in
a. Sum
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b. Difference 113. Product of the permeability μoμr is equal to

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c. Product a. Magnetic flux

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d. Fraction b. Magnetic field

B
ans:d c. Magnetic intensity

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d. Magnetic flux density / magnetic field

C
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108. NI expression is called strength

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ans:d 119. Two current carrying conductors lying

parallel to each other are exerting a force of
114. Expression for self induced emf is attraction on each other. The currents are
a. –L dI/dt a. Very high
b. MdI1 / dt b. in opposite direction
c. N2 Ф2/ I1 c. low
d. NФ/I d. in the same direction
ans:d ans:d
115. __________is normally termed as flux 120. Two conductors are lying parallel and close
linkages. to each other. They are carrying currents in
a. Ф opposite directions. The force between them is.
b. dФ/dt a. Repulsive
c. NФ b. attractive
d.Ф/I c. zero
ans:c d. none of these
ans:a
116. The term NФ/I is generally called as______
a. Self inductance 121. When a coil consisting of single turn
b. Mutual inductance rotates at uniform speed in magnetic field, the
c. Flux linkage induced emf is____
d. Induced emf a. steady
ans:a b. alternating
c. changing
117. In the expression for reluctance S = l/μA of d. reversing
a conduced, letter A represents_________ of ans:b
the conductor.
a. Total area 122. The emf induced in a conductor of length 1
b. Surface area meter moving at a right angles to a uniform
c. Cross- sectional area magnetic field of flux density 1.5 wb/m2 with
d. None of these. velocity of 50 m/s is.
ans:c a. 0
b.1.5 v
118. When a current carrying conductor is c. 75 v
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brought in to magnetic field, the force that d. 100 v

in
moves the conductor depends on ans:c

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a. direction of current.
SP
b. length of conductor 123. Which of following statements is incorrect.

P
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c. value of current a. Whenever flux linking with the coil or circuit

B
d.all of the above changes, an emf is induced.

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ans:d b. The direction of dynamically induced emf can

C
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be determined by Fleming’s right-hand rule.

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c. the coefficient of self-inductance is ans: d

proportional to the square of number of turns
on it.
d. Coefficient of coupling for tightly coupled coil
is zero.
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UNIT 2 - Electromagnetism
Q.1 The unit of inductance is,
(A) Ohm.
(B) Farad.
(C) Mho.
(D) Henry. Ans: D
Q.2 If a current flowing through a conductor is moving away from the observer and into the plane of the
paper then it is indicated by,
(A) Dot
(B) Cross
(C) Star
(D) Dash Ans: B
Q.3. In case of dynamically induced EMF, direction of induced EMF is given by
(A) Fleming’s rule
(B) Lenz’s law
(C) Faraday’s first law
(D) Faraday’s second law Ans: A
Q.4. EMF induced in a coil due to change in current through it is called ________induction.
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: B
Q.5. EMF induced in a coil due to current change in neighboring coil is called ______ induction.
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: A
Q.6. Co-efficient of self induction is also called as,
Jo
(A) self- induction

in
@
(B) Inductance
SP
(C) Self- inductance

P U
(D) Induction Ans :C

B
TE
C
H
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Q.7. The property of a coil due to which it opposes the change of current flowing through itself is called
___________ of the coil.
(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans : C
Q.8. __________ is used to sense the flow of current in a electric circuit.
(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Wattmeter
(D) Galvanometer Ans : D
Q.9. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt only when the current in the coil is
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing
(D) All the above Ans :D
Q.10. The negative sign in the induced EMF of self induction indicates that energy is being absorbed
from the electric circuit and stored as _______ energy in the coil.
(A) mechanical
(B) Electronic
(C) electric
(D) Magnetic Ans :D
Q.11. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of the circuit is
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere
(C) Henry
Q.12. Unit of induced EMF is
(A) Volt
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(B) Ampere
in
(C) Henry
@
SP
(D) Linkages Ans :A

P
Q.13. The property of one coil due to which it opposes the change in the other coil is called………….
U
B
between two coils.

TE
(A) Dynamic inductance

C
H
(B) Static inductance

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(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans : D
Q.14. The unit of mutual inductance is,

(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/ Volt
(C) Henry
Q.15. In the expression e = M dI1 / dt, M represents,
(D) None of these Ans : B
Q.16. If 0.75 V is induced EMF and resistance offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced current is,
(A) 3.75 A
(B) 3. 75 mA
(C) 3. 75 micro Ampere
(D) 37.5 mA Ans : B
Q.17. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb to 0.3 Wb, then change in flux is______ Wb.
(A) 1.1
(B) 0.5
(C) -0.5
(D) -1.1 Ans : C
Q.18. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if the current is 1 amps, then MMF is ________
(A) 2000 AT
(B) 200 AT
(C) 20 AT
(D) 0.5 AT Ans : B
Jo
Q.19. Leakage factor can be called as,

in
(A) Fringing
@
(B) Coefficient of inductance

SP
P
(C) Magnetic coefficient

U
(D) Hopkinson’s coefficient

B
Ans : D
TE
Q.20. Movement of electrons are called as

C
H
(A) MMF
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(B) Current
(C) Voltage
(D) Flux Ans : B
Q.21. Flux density is equal to ________ of flux and area of cross – section.
( A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(D) Fraction Ans : D
Q.22. NI expression is called
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Magnetic intensity Ans : A
Q.23. Expression NI/L is called
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Magnetic intensity Ans :D
Q.24. Expression for mutual inductance is
(A) – L dI /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : B
Q.25. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction is e =
(A) –Nd φ /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
Jo
Q.26. The constant K in case of mutual induction is equal to

in
(A) φ1/ φ2
@
(B) φ2/ φ1
SP
(C) φ1/I1
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(D) φ2/I2
B
Ans : B
TE
Q.27. Product of the permeability μ0μr is equal to

C
H
(A) Magnetic flux

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(B) Magnetic field
(C) Magnetic intensity
(D) Magnetic field / magnetic intensity Ans : D
Q.28. Expression for self induced emf is
(A) –L dI/dt
(B) MdI1 / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
Q.29. ___ is normally termed as flux linkages.
(A) φ
(B) d φ /dt
(C) N φ
(D) φ /I Ans : C
Q.30. The term N φ /I is generally called as,
(A) Self inductance
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Induced EMF Ans : A
Q.31. In the expression for reluctance S = l /μa of a conduced, letter A represents______ of
the conductor
(A) Total area
(B) Surface area
(C) Cross- sectional area
(D) None of these. Ans : C
Q.32. The points of magnet at which maximum iron pieces accumulate are called ----------- of the magnet.
(A) axes
(B)induction
(C) poles
(D)fluxes Ans:C
Q.33. The second law of magnetism is stated by scientist -------------------.
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(A) Faraday
in
(B) Coulomb
@
(C) Orested
SP
(D) Newton Ans:B

P
Q.34 concept of magnetic lines of force is introduced by ----------

U
B
(A) Faraday
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(B) Coulomb
C
(C) Orested
H
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(D) Newton Ans:A
Q35. 1 Weber= --------------- lines of force
(A) 108
(B) 106
(C) 103
(D) 10-8 Ans:A
Q36. The unit of magnetic flux is ----------------
(A) Tesla
(B) AT/m
(C) Weber
(D) Henry Ans:A
Q37. The capacity of magnetic pole to accept or radiate certain number of magnetic lines is called----------
-----
(A) Magnetic strength

(B) Pole strength
(C) Flux density
(D) Pole intensity Ans:B
Q38. The direction of magnetic field due to a straight current carrying conductor is given by --------------
(A) Fleming’s left hand rule

(B) Right hand thumb rule
(C) Fleming’s right hand rule
(D) Non of above Ans:B
Q39. The direction of flux around a conductor carrying current away from the observer into the plane of
the paper is ----------------
(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Vertical
(C) Clockwise
Q40. The reluctance in magnetic circuit is analogous to ------------ in an electric circuit.
(A) Voltage
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
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(D) E.M.F. Ans:C

in
Q41. The relative permeability has ---------------- unit.

@
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(A) H/m
P
(B) Wb/m
U
B
(C) Nm
TE
(D) No unit Ans:D

C
H
Q42. The ratio of B and H is constant for --------------.

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(A) Cast iron
(B) Cast steel
(C) Free space
(D) Rolled steel Ans:C
Q43. A magnetic circuit has a reluctance of 1x105 AT/Wb and m.m.f. is produced by coil having 100
turns, carrying current of 5 A then the flux produced is ----------- Wb.
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:B
Q44. A magnetic circuit has relative permeability 1000 and length of 50 cm with cross-sectional area of 4
cm2. The amperes required through a coil of 1000 turns to produce the flux of 2mWb are ----------- A.
(A) 3.98
(B) 5.28
(C) 4.989
(D) 1.989 Ans:D
Q45. In a magnetic circuit the flux is given by----------------------.
(A) (mmf)/(reluctance)
(B) (mmf)x(reluctance)
(C) (reluctance)/(mmf)
Q46.In a series magnetic circuit -------- in the circuit is same through all the parts.
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
Q47. Accordingly to Kirchhoff’s law, the resultant ----------around a closed magnetic circuit is equal to
algebraic sum of the product of the magnetic field strengths of each part of the circuit.
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
Q48. At a junction point in a magnetic circuit, algebraic sum of all the ------ is zero.
Jo
in
(A) Reluctances
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(B) Mmf
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(C) Flux
(D) Product of flux and reluctances Ans:B
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B
Q49. ----------- does not exist for a magnetic circuit.

TE
C
(A) Mmf
H
(B) Reluctance
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(C) Flux
(D) Perfect magnetic insulator Ans:D
Q50. Which is following statement is true?
(A) Energy neither required to create the flux nor required to maintain it.
(B) Energy is required to create the flux but not required to maintain it.
(C) Energy is required to create the flux and also to maintain it
Q51. The flux which completes the path through surrounding air instead of the desired path is called ------
--------.
(A) Useful flux

(B) Mutual flux
(C) Leakage flux
(D) Coercive flux Ans:C
Q52. Ideal value of leakage coefficient is--------------.
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) Infinite
(D) 0.5 Ans:B
Q53. . When a current carrying conductor is brought into magnetic field, the force that moves the
conductor, depends on…………
(A) Length of conductor

(B) direction of current
(C) value of the current
(D) none of these Ans:
Q54. Two current carrying conductors lying parallel to each other are exerting a force of attraction on
each other. The currents are……….
(A) very high

(B) in opposite direction
(C) low
(D) in the same direction Ans:D
Q55. Permeance is analogous to……….
(A) Resistance
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(B) reluctance
in
(C) conductance
@
(D) none of these Ans:C

SP
Q56. When a coil consisting of single turn rotates at a uniform speed in a magnetic field, the emf
P
induced is…..
U
B
TE
(A) steady
C
(B) alternating
H
(C) changing
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(D) reversing Ans:B
Q57. Force required to produce flux in magnetic circuit is.……..
(A) mmf
(B) reluctance
(C) permeability
(D) Magnetic field strength Ans:A
Q58. The emf induced in a conductor of length 1 m moving at right angles to a uniform magnetic field
of flux Density 1.5 Wb/m² with velocity of 50 m/s…
(A) 0
(B) 1.5 V
(C) 75 V
(D) 100 V Ans:C
Q59. The coefficient of self-inductance of a coil is given by
(A) Ф/NI
(B) NI/Ф
(C) NФ/I
(D) ФI/N Ans:C
Q60. The induced emf in a coil of 8 mH carrying 2 A current reversed in 0.04 S
(A) 0.8 V
(B) 0.008 V
(C) 0.16 V
(D) 0.064 V Ans:A
Q61. Two coils have self inductances of 0.09 H and 0.01 H and a mutual inductance of 0.015 H. The
coefficient of coupling between the coils is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.75 Ans:A
Q62. When current carrying conductor and lines of flux are parallel then the force experienced by
conductor is-------------.
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
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(C) Small
in
(D) Unity Ans:A

@
Q63. Direction of force experienced by current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by----------
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----.
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(A) Fleming’s right hand rule

B
TE
(B) Fleming’s left hand rule

C
(C) End rule

H
(D) Corkscrew rule Ans:B

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Q64. The phenomenon by which emf is obtained from the magnetic flux is called ---------.
(A) Electromagnetic interference

(B) Electromagnetic induction
(C) Magnetic induction
Q65. The dynamically induced emf can be found in ------------
(A) Generator
(B) Transformer
(C) Bulb
Q66. Self inductance L is ----------- number of turns.
(A) Directly proportional to square of

(B) Inversely proportional to square of
(C) Directly proportional to
Q67. A current of 2 A is reversed in 0.1 sec through an inductor of 1H then emf induced is ------ Volt.
(A) 200
(B) -200
(C) -400
(D) 400 Ans:D
Q68. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt only when the current in the coil is-------.
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing
Q69. The property of coil due to which opposes the change in current flowing through itself is called-----
------- of the coil.

(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans:C
Q70. The coil are said to be -------------- when k=1.

Jo
in
(A) Loosely coupled

(B) Tightly coupled
@
(C) Series aiding

SP
(D) Series opposing Ans:B

P U
Q71. Two coil have self inductances 100μH and 250μH and coefficient of coupling is 0.253 then their
B
TE
mutual inductance is---------------.

C
(A) 400μH
H
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(B) 158.11μH
(C) 40μH
(D) 40mH Ans:C
Q72. The unit coefficient of coupling is --------------.
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/Wb
(C) Unit less
(D) H/m Ans:C
Q73. A current through an inductor of 0.4 H is 5 A then the energy stored in it is ----------J
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1 Ans:A
Q74. The energy stored per volume in a magnetic field of flux density 1.373 Wb/m2 is 500 joules then its
relative permeability is ----------------.
(A) 2500
(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
Q75. The ease with which magnetic material forces the magnetic flux through a given medium is-----------
---------.
(A) Permeance
(B) Permeability
(C) Reluctance
(D) Permittivity Ans:B
Q76. In the expression e=MdI1/dt, M represents-----------------

Q77. In the expression for reluctance S=l/μa , letter ‘a’ represent ----------------.
(A) Total area

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(B) Surface area

in
(C) Cross-sectional area

@

SP
Q78. A 0.1 A of current reverses in 0.2 seconds then the rate of changes of current is -----------A/sec.
P U
B
(A) 1
TE
(B) -1
C
(C) 2
H
(D) 0.5 Ans:B

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Q79. If the permeability of a magnetic material is 4π x 10-4 then its relative permeability is------------
(A) 4π x 10-7
(B) 10000
(C) 100
(D) 1000 Ans:D
Q80. The flux density in a magnetic field of cross-sectional area of 0.5 cm2 having a flux of 10μWb is ----
-----T.
(A) 0.2
(B) 5
(C) 50
(D) 1.2 Ans:B
Q81. The maximum working flux density os a lifting electromagnet is 1.9 T and the effective area of a
pole face is circular in cross-section. If the total magnet flux produced is 2444mWb then the radius of
pole face is nearly -------------cm.
(A) 32
(B) 128
(C) 64
(D) 0.64 Ans: C
Q82. The self inductance L is -------------------
(A) Directly proportional to square of number of turns

(B) Inversely proportional to length
(C) Directly proportional to area of cross-section
Q83. The ------------ is reciprocal of the reluctance.
(A) Permeability
(B) Permeance
(C) Susceptance
(D) Resistance Ans:D
Q84. Which of the following nit the property of the magnetic lines of forces?
(A) Never intersect each other

(B) Act like a stretched rubber band
(C) Co not pass through air
(D) Travel from N to S external to magnet Ans:C
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in
Q85. The direction of flux around a conductor carrying current towards the observer out on the plane of
@
the paper is-------------.

SP
(A) Anticlockwise
P
(B) Vertical
U
B
(C) Clockwise
TE

C
H
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Q86. A magnetic circuit has a reluctance of 1x105AT/Wb and m.m.f. is produced by coil having 100
turns, carrying current of 5 A then flux produced is -----------Wb.
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x 10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:C
Q87. The unit of μ is -----------.
(A) H/m
(B) Wb/m
(C) Nm
(D) Ni unit Ans:A
Q88. For the series aiding coils, the equivalent inductance is---------------
(A) L1+L2+2M
(B) (L1+L2)/2M
(C) L1+L2-2M
Q89. The coil are said to be ------------- when K=1
(A) Loosely couple

(B) tightly coupled
(C) series aiding
(D) series opposing Ans:B
Q90. The energy required to establish the magnetic field is stored into is as ----------energy
(A) kinetic
(B) electrostatic
(C) potential
(D) residual Ans:C
Q91. Energy stored in the magnetic field is given by---------------.
(A) LI2
(B) LI2/2
(C) 2LI2
(D) I2/2L Ans:B
Q92. A current through as inductor of 0.4 H is 5A then the energy stored init is--------J.
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in
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
@
(C) 2
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(D) 1 Ans:A
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Q93. The energy stored per unit volume in a magnetic field of flux density 1.373 Wb/m2 is 500 J then its
B
TE
permeability is----------------.
C
H
(A) 2500
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(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
Q94. The unit of mutual inductance is --------------.
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/Volt
(C) Henry
(D) Linkage Ans:C
Q95. The maximum value of coefficient is -------------.
(A) 100%
(B) More then 100%
(C) 90%
Q96. The unit of co efficient of coupling is ----------------.
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/m
(C) Unitless
(D) H/m Ans:C
Q97. The unit of flux density is-----------.
(A) Weber
(B) AT
(C) Tesla
(D) All of above Ans:C
Q98. The flux density is given by --------------.
(A) Φxa
(B) φ/a
(C) 1/(φ+a)
(D) Φ+a Ans:B
Q99. The direction of flux internal to magnet is from------------
(A) N- pole to S pole

(B) S-pole to N-pole
(C) Circular
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(D) None of above Ans:B

in
Q100. Concept of lines of force is introduced by -----------------------.

@
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(A) Faraday
P
(B) Coulomb
U
B
(C) Orested
TE
(D) Newton Ans:A

C
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Unit III
Part (a) :SINGLE PHASE TRANSFORMER
1. A transformer is used to___________ d. Tapped
a. change ac voltage to dc voltage ans:b
b. change dc voltage to ac voltage
c. step up or step down dc voltages 6. If supply frequency of a transformer
d. step up or step down ac voltages increases, the secondary output voltage of the
ans: d transformer____
a. Decreases
2. The two windings of a transformer b. increases
are__________ c. remains same
a. conductively linked d. decreases slightly
b. inductively linked ans:b
c. not linked at all
d. electrically linked 7. The horizontal and vertical portions of
ans: b transformer magnetic core are called
as_________
3.The magnetically operated device that can a. Limb, yoke
change values of voltage, current, and b. Yoke, limb
impedance without changing frequency is c. Winding, Yoke
the____________ d. Winding, Limb
a. Motor ans:b
b. Generator
c. Transformer 8. The principle of working of transformer is
d. Transistor based on ________
ans:c a. Static induction
b. Mutual induction
4. The transformer winding across which the c. Dynamic induction
supply voltage applied is called the _____ d. Self induction
winding. ans:b
a. Primary
b. Secondary 9. Transformer is used to change values
c. Tertiary of__________
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d. Tapped a. Frequency
in
ans:a b. Voltage
@
c. Power
SP
5. The transformer winding which is connected d. Power factor

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to the load is called the_______ winding. ans:b

B
a. Primary
TE
b. Secondary 10. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer

C
H
c. Tertiary should have __________

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a. Low resistance b. Toroid

b. Low reluctance c. H core
c. High reluctance d. tape wound
d. High conductivity ans:a
ans:b
16. The concentric cylindrical winding is used
11. Electrical power is transformed from one for__________
coil to other coil in transformer_________ a. Core type transformer
a. Physically b. Shell type transformer
b. Electrically c. Berry type transformer
c. Magnetically d. None of these
d. Electromagnetically ans:a
ans:d
17.The sandwich type winding is used
12. A transformer operates___________ for___________
a. Always at unity power factor a. Core type transformer
b. At power factor depending on load b. Berry type transformer
c. Has its own power factor c. Shell type transformer
d. At power factor below particular value d. None of these
ans: b ans:c
13. The laminations of transformer core are 18. Silicon steel is used for transformer
made up from__________ core__________
a. Low carbon steel a. To reduce hysteresis loss
b. Silicon sheet steel b. To reduce eddy current loss
c. Nickel alloy steel stamping c. To reduce both losses
d. Chrome sheet steel d. None of these
ans:b ans:a
14.The material used for construction of 19. What is common in two windings of
transformer core should have___________ transformer?
a. Low permeability & high hysteresis loss a. Electric current
b. Low permeability & low hysteresis loss b. Magnetic circuit
c. High permeability & high hysteresis loss c. Winding wire guage
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d. high permeability & low hysteresis loss d. None of these

in
ans:d ans:b
@
SP
15. Most transformer cores are not made from 20. The main function of transformer iron core
P U
a solid piece of metal. Instead, they are is to__________

B
assembled from many thin sheets of metal. This a. Provide strength to the winding
TE
type of construction is called__________ b. To decrease hysteresis loss

C
H
a. Laminated c. Decrease the reluctance of magnetic path

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d. Reduce eddy current loss d. Auto

ans:c ans:a
21. The emf induced in the primary of a 26. Any transformer flux that does not follow
transformer___________ the core and escapes into the surrounding air is
a. is in phase with the flux called____
b. lags behind the flux by 90 degree a. magnetizing flux
c. leads the flux by 90 degree b. coupling flux
d. is in phase opposition to that of flux c. leakage flux
ans:b d. reactance flux
ans:c
22.The transformer turns ratio
determines_____________ 27. A transformer that does not isolate the
a. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages output from the input is called _____
b. the ratio of primary and secondary currents transformer
c. The resistance on other side a. Distribution
d. all of the above b. step-up
ans:a c. Auto
d. Control
23. Turns ratio of single phase transformer is ans:c
given as__________
a. N2/N1 28. Ideal transformer assumptions do not
b. N1/N2 include____________
c. (N1xN2)/N1 a. Zero reactance of the winding
d. (N1xN2)/N2 b. Zero resistance of the winding
ans:b c. No leakage flux
d. No saturation of the core
24. A transformer in which the secondary ans:a
voltage is more than the primary voltage is
called a _____ transformer 29.The efficiency of the transformer is normally
a. step-down is normally in the range of____________
b. step-up a. 50 to 70%
c. Isolation b. 60 to 75 %
d. Auto c. 80 to 90 %
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ans:b d. 90 to 98%
in
ans:d
@
25. A transformer in which the primary voltage

SP
is more than the secondary voltage is called a 30. The resistance of low voltage side of
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_____ transformer. transformer________

B
a. step-down a. Is equal to resistance of its high voltage side

TE
b. step-up b. Is more than its resistance on high voltage

C
H
c. Isolation side
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c. Is less than its resistance on high voltage side

d.0 36. EMF equation for single phase transformer
ans:c is________
a. E= 4.44 Φm A f N
31. Eddy current losses in transformer core are b. E= 4.44 Bm A N
reduced by_________ c. E= 4.44 BmfN
a. Increasing the thickness of laminations d. E= 4.44 ΦmfN
b. Decreasing the thickness of laminations ans:d
c. Decreasing the air gap in magnetic circuit
d. Using wire of higher guage for winding 37. Transformation ratio(K) of transformer
ans:b is_________
a. N2/N1
32. A good transformer oil should be absolutely b. E1/E2
free from__________ c. I2/I1
a. Sulpher d. V1/V2
b. Alkalies ans:a
c. Moisture
d. All of the above 38. For Isolation transformer the
ans:c transformation ratio(K) is_________
a.0
33. Single phase core type transformer b. Greater than 1
has__________ c. Less than 1
a. One magnetic path d.1
b. Two magnetic paths ans:d
c. No magnetic path
d. None of these 39. In step up transformer the transformation
ans: a ratio (K) is_____________
a. Greater than 1
34. Single phase shell type transformer b.1
b. Two magnetic paths ans: a
c. No magnetic path
d. None of these 40. In step down transformer the
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ans:b transformation ratio (K) is__________

in
a. Greater than 1
@
35. Natural cooling is better in_________ b.1

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a. Core type transformer c. Less than 1

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b. Shell Type transformer d.0

B
c. Both A& B ans:c

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d. Berry type transformer

C
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ans:a
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41. The primary and secondary voltages in 46. Transformer oil is used in transformer to
transformer are___________ provide_______
a. Always in Phase a. Cooling and insulation
b. 1800 out of phase b. Cooling and lubrication
c. 900 out of phase c. Insulation and lubrication
d. 300 or 600 out of phase d. Insulation, cooling and lubrication
ans:b ans:a
42. The induced emf in transformer secondary 47. What is the typical use of
depends on__________ autotransformer____________?
a. Maximum flux in core a. Toy transformer
b. Frequency b. Control transformer
c. No of turns on secondary c. Variable transformer
d. all of the above d. Isolating transformer
ans:d ans:c
43. Transformer rating usually expressed 48. In any transformer the voltage per turn in
in____________ primary and secondary remains____________
a.kW a. Always different
b.kVA b. Always the same
c. kV c. Always in ratio of K
d. kWh d. Sometimes same
ans:b ans:b
44. In a transformer if secondary turns are 49. Full load copper loss in a transformer is 400
doubled, at the same time primary voltage is Watt. At half load, copper losses will
reduced by half, the secondary voltage be___________
will_________ a. 400 Watt
a. Be halved b. 100 Watt
b. Not change c. 200 Watt
c. Be four times d. 50 Watt
d. Be reduced to quarter ans:b
ans:b 50. A transformer is working with its maximum
45. The no load current in terms of full load efficiency. If the iron losses are 500 W, the
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current is usually________ copper loss will__________

in
a. 1 to 3% a. 300 W
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b. 3 to 9 % b. 350 W
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c. 9 to 12% c. 250 W
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d. 12 to 20% d. 500 W
B
ans:a ans:d
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51. If we increase the flux density in case

transformer_______________ 55. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single phase
a. The size of transformer will reduce transformer, the primary full load current
b. The distortion in transformer will reduce is____________
c. Hysteresis and eddy current losses will reduce a. 909.09 Amp
d. None of these will be true b. 90.90 Amp
ans:a c. 9.09 Amp
d. 9090.9 Amp
52. The direct loading test is performed on ans:c
transformer to find its____________
a. Regulation 56. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single phase
b. Efficiency transformer, the secondary full load current
c. Both is________
d. None of these a. 90.90 Amp
ans:c b. 9090.9 Amp
c. 909.0 Amp
53. The regulation of transformer is calculated d. 9.09 Amp
as_________ ans:c
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 57. The disadvantage of auto transformer

a. 𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
is______________
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 a. No separation between primary & secondary
b. 𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 b. Size is more than normal transformer for
same rating
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
c. c. More costlier than normal transformer
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
d. All
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 ans:d
d. 𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
ans:a 58. In a transformer the voltage regulation will
be near to zero when it operates
54. The efficiency of single phase transformer is at____________
calculated as_____________ a. unity p.f.
𝑉2 𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅
a. b. leading p.f.
𝑉2 𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
c. lagging p.f.
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𝑉1 𝐼1 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅ d. full load.

b.
in
𝑉2 𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 ans:b

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c. 𝑉 𝐼 59. A transformer steps up voltage by a factor
1 1 𝐶𝑜𝑠 ∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
P
U
of 100. The ratio of current in the primary to

B
𝑉2 𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅ that in secondary_______________

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d. 𝑉 𝐼 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠

1 1 a.1
C
ans:a
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c.0.01 ans:a
d.0.1
ans:b 65. Eddy current loss depends
on_____________
60. An ideal transformer does not a. both current and frequency
change______________ b. current alone
a. Voltage c. frequency alone
b. Power d. none of these
c. current ans:a
d. None of these
ans:b 66.The flux involved in EMF equation of a
transformer has______________
61. The flux in transformer core____________ a. RMS Value
a. increases with load b. Average Value
b. decreases with load c. Total Value
c. remains constant irrespective of load d. maximum Value
d. none of these ans:d
ans:c
67. A transformer has maximum efficiency at ¾
62. Efficiency of transformer is maximum of full load. The ratio of its iron loss and full load
when___________ copper loss is_________
a. transformer is unloaded a. 16/9
b. copper losses is equal to iron losses b. 4/3
c. eddy current losses are equal to hysteresis c. 3/4
losses d. 9/16
d. it is maximally loaded ans:d
ans:b
68. If primary of the transformer is connected
63. If the supply frequency in transformer is to dc supply, then______
doubled, then_________ a. Primary draws small current
a. hysteresis loss also doubles b. primary leakage reactance is increased
b. eddy current loss also doubles c. core losses are increased
c. iron losses doubles d. primary may burn out
d. copper losses doubles ans:d
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ans:a
in
69. For an ideal transformer the windings

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64. Hysteresis loss in transformer depends should have____________

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on__________ a. maximum resistance on primary side and

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a. both voltage and frequency least resistance on secondary side

B
b. voltage alone b. least resistance on primary side ans

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c. frequency alone maximum resistance on secondary side

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c. equal resistance on primary and secondary 74. In a given transformer for a given applied
side voltage, which losses remain constant
d. no ohmic resistance on either side irrespective of change in load___________
ans:d a. Friction and windage loss
b. copper loss
70. The full load copper and iron loss of a c. hysteresis and eddy current loss
transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W d. none of these
respectively. The copper loss and iron loss at ans:c
half load will be respectively______
a. 3200 W and 2500 W 75. Main advantage to use autotransformer
b. 3200 W and 5200 W over two winding transformer____________
c. 1600 W and 1250 W a. Hysteresis losses are reduced
d. 1600 W and 5000 W b. savings in winding material
ans:d c. copper losses are negligible
d. Eddy current losses are totally eliminated
71. A transformer does not raise or lower the ans:b
voltage of DC supply because________
a. there is no need to change the DC voltage 76. An ideal transformer is one which has
b. DC circuit has more losses _____________
c. Faradays law of Electromagnetic Induction a. no losses and magnetic leakage
are not valid since the rate of change of flux is b. interleaved primary and secondary winding
zero c. a common core for its primary and secondary
d. none of these d. core of stainless steel and winding of pure
ans:c copper material
ans:a
72. Primary winding of a transformer
_____________ 77. In a practical transformer core losses
a. is always low voltage winding remains constant from no load to full load
b. is always high voltage winding because__________
c. could either be a low or high voltage winding a. value of transformation ratio remains
d. none of these constant
ans:c b. permeability of transformer core remains
constant
73. Which winding of a transformer has more c. core flux remains practically constant
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number of turns_______________ d. primary and secondary voltage remains

in
a. Low voltage winding constant

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b. High voltage winding ans.c

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c. Primary winding
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d. secondary winding 78.The transformer laminations are insulated

B
ans:b from each other by_____________

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a. mica strip
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b. thin coat of varnish

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c. paper a. high eddy current losses

d. any one of these b. reduced magnetic leakage
ans:b c. negligible hysteresis loss
d.none of these
79. In transformer resistance between primary ans:b
and secondary should be_____________
a. zero 84. Deduction in core losses and increase in
b. 10 ohm permeability are obtained with transformer
c. 1000 ohm employing______
d. infinity a. core built up of laminations of cold rolled
ans:d grain oriented steel
b. core built up of laminations of hot rolled steel
80. A good voltage regulation of transformer c. either a or b
means___________ d. none of these
a. output voltage fluctuations from no load to ans: c
full load is least
b. output voltage fluctuations with power factor 85. Losses which occur in rotating electric
is least machine and do not occur in transformers
c. difference between primary and secondary are____________
voltage is least a. friction and windage losses
d. difference between primary and secondary b. magnetic losses
voltage is maximum c. hysteresis and eddy current losses
ans:a d. copper losses
ans:a
81. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that
the load is_____________ 86. Which of the following loss in a transformer
a. Capacitive only is zero even at full load__________
b. inductive only a. core loss
c. inductive or resistive b. friction loss
d. none of these c. eddy current loss
ans:a d. Hysteresis loss
ans:b
82. The size of the transformer core depend
on___________ 87. The noise produced by transformer is
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a. frequency termed as _______________

in
b. area of the core a. zoom

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c. flux density of the core material b.hum

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d. (a) and (b) both c. ringing

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ans:d d. buzz
B
ans:b
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83. A shell type transformer has

C
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88. Part of the transformer which is most c. it has become customary

subject to damage from overheating d. total transformer loss depends on VA
is______________ ans:b
a. iron core
b. copper winding 93. Increase in secondary current of
c. insulation of the winding transformer brings about increase in primary
d. transformer tank current . This is possible because___________
ans:c a. primary and secondary windings are
capacitively coupled.
89.In a step down transformer, there is a b. primary and secondary windings are
change of 15A in the load current. This results in inductively coupled
change of supply current of_____________ c. primary and secondary windings are
a. less than 15 A conductively coupled
b. more than 15 A d. none of these
c.15A ans:b
d. none of these
ans:a 94. Transformer for constant voltage
application is considered good if its voltage
90. As per the name plate of transformer, the regulation is_________
secondary normal voltage is 220V. Which of the a. low
following statement about it is correct?_______ b. high
a. 220V is no load voltage c. zero
b. The no load voltage is more than 220V d. none of these
c. The secondary voltage increases with ans:c
increase in load
d. At a load which draws the rated current & 95. Transformer action needs that the magnetic
the voltage becomes less than 220V. flux linking with the winding must
ans:b be_____________
a. constant
91.In which of the following transformer, part b. pulsating
of the primary winding serves as the secondary c. alternating
winding__ d. none of these
a. Potential transformer ans:c
b. Auto transformer
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c. Step up transformer 96. Low voltage windings are placed next to the
in
d. None of these core to reduce_____________

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ans:b a. Hysteresis loss

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b. eddy current loss

P U
92. The rating of the transformer is given in kVA c. insulation requirement

B
instead of kW because__________ d. copper loss

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a. kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load pf ans:c

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b. load power factor is often not known

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97. The relation between the primary and

secondary ampere turns of transformer ---------- 102. A transformer has 2600 V on primary side
and 260 V on secondary side. The
a. exactly equal transformation ratio is_
b. approximately equal a.10
c. primary mmf larger than secondary mmf b.5
d. primary mmf smaller than secondary mmf c.0.1
ans:a d.9
ans:c
98. Positive voltage regulation occurs in case of
transformer for______________ 103. If the copper loss of a transformer at 70%
a. capacitive load of full load is 200 W. The full load copper loss is
b. resistive load only ________
c. inductive load only a. 200 W
d. either inductive or resistive load b. 285.71 W
ans:d c.408.16W
d. none of these
99. Cooling of the transformer is required so as ans:c
to_____________
a. increase the efficiency 104. A transformer having 1000 primary turns is
b. to reduce the losses connected 250 V ac supply. For a secondary
c. to reduce humming voltage of 400 volt, the no of secondary turns
d. to dissipate the heat generated in the should be________
winding a.1600
ans:d b.250
c.400
100. The transformer efficiency will be d.1250
maximum at a power factor of ____________ ans:a
a. 0.8pf lead
b. unity 105. If Copper loss of a transformer at 7/8th of
c. 0.8 lag the full load is 4900W. Then its full load copper
d. 0.5 lag or lead loss is____
ans:b a.5600
b.6400
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101. The regulations of two transformers are (i) c.375

in
3% and (ii) 97%. The one with better regulation d.429

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is______ ans:b
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a. second
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b. first 106. At relatively light loads, the transformer

B
c. both are same efficiency is low because__________

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d. depends on loading a. secondary output is low

C
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ans:b b. transformer losses are high

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c. fixed loss is high in proportion to the output effective cross sectional area of the core is 145
d. copper loss is small. cm2. The no of secondary turns___
ans:c a.71 turns
b.75 turns
107.A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase c.932 turns
transformer is built on a core having an d.923 turns
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 60 ans:a
turns on the secondary winding. The value of
maximum flux density___ 111. A 80 kVA, 6000 V/ 400 V, 50 Hz single
a.1.25 Tesla phase transformer has 80 turns on the
b.1.52 Tesla secondary winding. The value of maximum flux
c.1.3 Tesla in the core________
d.none of the above a.25.22mwb
ans:a b.22.52mwb
c.52.22mwb
108. A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase d. none of these
transformer is built on a core having an ans:b
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 60
turns on the secondary winding. The number of 112. A 6600 V/220 V, 50 Hz, step down single
turns on the high voltage winding________ phase transformer has 1500 turns on its
a. 600 turns primary side. If its maximum flux density is 1.2
b. 900 turns Tesla, then the effective cross sectional area of
c. 300 turns core is _____
d. 450 turns a.16.516  10–3 m2
ans:b b.61.516  10–3 m2
c.26.516  10–3 m2
109. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase d.62.516  10–3 m2
transformer has to be worked at a maximum ans:a
flux density of 1.1 wb/m2 in the core. The
effective cross sectional area of the core is 145 113. A 10 kVA, 3300/240 V, single phase, 50 Hz
transformer has a core area of 300 sq. cm. The
cm2. The no of primary turns___
flux density is 1.3 tesla. The primary full load
a. 930 turns
current is ___________
b. 950 turns
a. 3.03 amp
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c. 932 turns
b. 33.03 amp
in
d. 923 turns
c. 30.3 amp
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ans:c
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d. 0.303 amp
P
ans:a
110. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase
U
B
transformer has to be worked at a maximum

TE
114.A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at full

flux density of 1.1 web/m2 in the core. The
C
load its copper losses is 1100 W and its iron

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losses is 950 W. The efficiency at full load for efficiency at 75% of full load and unity power
unity power factor is___________ factor__________
a. 99% a.98.13%
b.96% b.98.73%
c.97.77% c.99%
d. none of these d. none of these
ans:c ans:b
115. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at full 117: The no load voltage at the secondary
load its copper losses is 1100 W and its iron terminals of single phase transformer is
losses is 950 W. The efficiency at 60% of full observed as 230 volt. When the transformer is
load for 0.8 lagging power factor is___________ loaded, the voltage on secondary side has
a.96.97% reduced to 224 volt. Then the % regulation of
b.96% transformer for that loading is_______
c.98% a.2.6%
d. none of these b.2.67%
ans:a c.0%
d. none of these
116. A 500 kVA transformer has iron loss of 2 ans:a
kW and full load copper losses of 5 kW. The
Unit III
Part (b) ELECTROSTATICS
1. A dielectric material must be________ 3. Electrolytic capacitors can be used

a. resistor for__________________________
b. Insulator a. a.c. only
c. Conductor b. d.c. only
d. Semiconductor c. both a.c. and d.c.
ans:b d. 50 Hz a.c.
ans:b
2. The energy stored in capacitance is given
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by__________________________ 4. If two 10 µF capacitors are connected in

in
a. C2V parallel, then the effective capacitance will

@
b. CV2/2 be_________
SP
c. C2V/2 a.2.5 µF
P
d. CV b.40 µF
U
B
ans:b c.0.4 µF
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d.20 µF
C
ans:d
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5. If a number of capacitors are connected in c. 6 s

series then the total capacitance of combination d. 2.4s
is_____ ans: b
a. greater than the capacitance of largest
capacitor 10. Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF, and 12
b. greater than the capacitance of any capacitor µF are connected in parallel across an a.c.
c. smaller than the capacitance of smallest source. The maximum current pass through
capacitor ________________
d. average of the capacitance of all capacitor a.3 µF
ans:c b.6 µF
c.12 µF
6.The total capacitance of five capacitor each of d. all the capacitors
10 µF in series is________________ ans:c
a.10 µF
b.2 µF 11.As per Coulomb’s law___________________
c.25 µF a. F= Q1Q2 / εoεrd2
d. none of these b. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋d2
ans:b c. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋 εoεrd2
d. F= Q1Q2 /4𝜋 εoεrd
7. Two capacitors of capacitance C1=0.1 µF and ans: c
C2=0.2 µF are connected in series across 300V
source. The voltages across C1 will be________ 12. Electric field intensity at any point in an
a. 100 V electric field is equal to_______
b. 200 V a. potential gradient
c. 150 V b. (potential gradient)2
d. 300 V c. (potential gradient)1/2
ans:b d. (potential gradient)1/3
ans: a
8. A capacitor stores 0.4C charge at 2 V. Its
capacitance is___________________________ 13. The lines of forces due to isolated charged
a. 0.4 F particle are___________
b. 0.2 F a. always straight
c. 3.2 F b. always curved
d. 0.8 F c. sometimes curved
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ans:b d. none of the above

in
ans: a
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9. A20mF capacitor is in series with a 150 ohm

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resistor. The combination is placed across a 40V 14. The direction of electric field due to positive
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dc source. Time constant of the circuit charge is___

B
is_____________________ a. away from the charge

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a. 8 s b. towards the charge

C
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b. 3 s c. both (a) and (b)

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d. none of the above d. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance

ans: a value of 1 to 10 µF
ans: b
15. The unit of capacitance is
a. Volts/Coulomb 20. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are
b. Coulomb/Volt given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be
c. Ohms obtained by using them
d. Henry/Wb a. all in series
ans: b b. all in parallel
c. two in parallel and third in series with this
16. There is repulsive force between two combination
charged objects when d. two in series and third in parallel across this
a. Charges of unlike sign combination.
b. they have the same number of protons ans:c
c. charges are of same sign
d. they have the same number of protons 21. For which of the following parameter
ans: c variation, the capacitance of the capacitor
remains unaffected?
17. The capacitance of a capacitor is not a. Distance between plates
affected by b. Area of the plates
a. distance between plates c. Nature of dielectric
b. area of plates d. Thickness of the plates
c. thickness of plates ans: d
d. all of the above
ans: c 22. Which of the following expression is correct
for electric field strength?
18. When there is an equal amount of positive a. E = D/𝝐
and negative charges on an object the object is b. E = D2/𝝐
a. Positively charged c. E = 𝝅D
b. negatively charged d. E = 𝝅D2
c. neutral ans: a
d. supercharged
ans:c 23. Which of the following statement is true?
a. The current in the discharging capacitor
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19. Which of the following statements is grows linearly

in
correct? b. The current in the discharging capacitor

@
a. Air capacitors have a black band to indicate grows exponentially

SP
the outside foil c. The current in the discharging capacitor

PU
b. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in decays exponentially

B
the correct polarity d. The current in the discharging capacitor

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c. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the decreases constantly

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correct polarity ans:c

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24. In a capacitor the electric charge is 29. Air capacitors are generally available in the
deposited on range
a. metal plates a. 10 to 400 pF
b. dielectric b. 1 to 20 pF
c. both (a) and (b) c. 100 to 900 pF
d. none of the above d. 20 to 100 pF
ans:a ans:a
25. Which of the following materials has the 30. The unit of capacitance is
highest value of dielectric constant? a. Henry
a. Glass b. Ohm
b. Vaccum c. Farad
c. Ceramics d. Farad/m
d. Oil ans:c
ans: c
31. A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000 µC of
26. Capacitance of air capacitor increases with charge. The value of capacitance will be
a. increase in plate area and decrease in a. 10 F
distance between the plates b. 10 µF
b. increase in plate area and distance between c. 100 µF
the plates d. 1000 µF
c. decrease in plate area and value of applied ans:b
voltage
d. reduction in plate area and distance between 32. Voltage across capacitor at any time‘t’
the plates during charging from a D.C. source of voltage V
ans: a is given by
a. ν = Ve-t/λ
27. A capacitor consists of b. ν = V(1-e-t/λ)
a. two insulators separated by a conductor c. ν = V2e-t/λ
b. two conductor separated by a dielectric d. ν = V2(1-e-t/λ)
c. two insulators only ans:b
d. two conductors only
ans:b 33. The ratio of electric flux density to electric
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field intensity is called ………. of the medium

in
28. A paper capacitor is usually available in the a. permeability

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form of b. permittivity
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a. tubes c. reluctance
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b. rolled foil d. capacitance

B
c. disc ans:b
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d. meshed plates
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34. Energy stored in the electrical field of a 39. If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V the
capacitor C when charged from a D.C, source of charge in Coulomb will be_______________
voltage V is equal to …….. Joule a. 800 µC
a. ½ CV2 b. 900 µC
b. ½ C2V c. 1200 µC
c. CV2 d. 1600 µC
d. C2V ans:c
ans:a
40. Which of the following capacitors is marked
35. The absolute permittivity of free space is for polarity____________________?
given by a. air
a. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m b. paper
b. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m c. mica
c. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m d. electrolyte
d. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m ans: d
ans:d
41. Which of the following capacitor are usually
36. The relative permittivity of free space is used for radio frequency tuning__________
given by a. air
a. 1 b. paper
b. 10 c. mica
c. 100 d. electrolyte
d. 1000 ans: b
ans:a
42. The time constant of an R-C circuit is
37. When 4 Volt e.m.f. is applied across a 1 defined as the time during which capacitor
Farad capacitor, it will store energy of charging voltage actually rises to ----------------
a. 2 Joule percent of its ---------- value
b. 4 Joule a.37, initial
c. 6 Joule b.63.2, initial
d. 8 Joule c.63.2, final
ans:d d.37, final
ans: c
38. The capacitor preferred for high frequency
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circuits is 43. The time constant of an R-C circuit is

in
a. air capacitor defined as the time during which capacitor

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b. mica capacitor charging current actually falls to ----------------

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c. electrolytic capacitor percent of its initial maximum value

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d. paper capacitor a.37

B
ans:b b.63
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c.42
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ans: a a. directly proportional to

b. inversely proportional to
44. Permittivity is expressed in_______ c. independent of
a. Farad/sq-m d. directly proportional to square of
b. weber/metre ans: a
c. Farad/meter
d. weber/ square metre 50. An air capacitor has the same dimensions
ans:c that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance of
mica capacitor is 6 times that of air capacitor,
45. Dielectric strength of a material depends then relative permittivity of mica is
on_________________ a. 36
a. moisture content b. 12
b. temperature c. 3
c. thickness d. 6
d. all of the above ans: d
ans: d
51. The most convenient way of achieving large
46. 1 Volt /metre is same as capacitance is by using
a. 1 metre/coulomb a. multiplate construction
b. 1 Newton metre b. decreased distance between plates
c. 1 Newton /Coulomb c. air as dielectric
d. 1 Joule /Coulomb d. dielectric of low permittivity
ans: c ans: a
47. The relative permittivity of air is__________ 52. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2 are
a.0 connected in parallel. A charge Q given to them
b.1.0006 is shared. The ratio of charges Q1/Q2 is
c. 8.854 × 10−12 a. C2/ C1
d. none of the above b. C1/ C2
ans:b c. C1 C2
d. 1/ C1 C2
48. The relative permittivity of a material is 10. ans: b
Its absolute permittivity will be
a. 8.854 × 10−11 𝐹/𝑀 53. Two capacitors have capacitance 25 µF
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b. 9 × 108 𝐹/𝑀 when in parallel and 6 µF when in series. Their

in
c. 5 × 10−5 𝐹/𝑀 individual capacitances are

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d. 9 × 105 𝐹/𝑀 a. 12 µF and 13 µF

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ans: a b. 15 µF and 10 µF
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c. 10 µF and 8 µF
B
49. The capacitance of a capacitor is ……… d. none of the above

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relative permittivity ans:b

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54. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by ans:b

a conducting material the
a. capacitor will get heated up owing to eddy 59. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm
currents resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.
b. plates will get short-circuited Determine the initial rate of rise of voltage
c. capacitor can store infinite charge across the capacitor.
d. capacitance will become very high a. 0.1V/s
ans:b b. 10V/s
c. 0.01V/s
55. The total capacitance of two condensers is d. 1V/s
.03µF when joined in series and 0.16µF when ans:b
connected in parallel. The products of two
capacitance will be__________ 60. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm
a.5.33 resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.
b.2 Determine the capacitor voltage after a time
c.3 equal to the time constant.
d.0.48 a.36V
ans:d b.36.6V
c.63.2V
56. Joule / Coulomb is the unit of d.63 V
a. Electric field potential ans:c
b. Potential
c. charge 61. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm
d. none of the above. resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.
ans:b Determine the voltage across the capacitor
3sec. after switch on.
57 .A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm a.25.92V
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. b.259.2V
Determine the time constant of the circuit c.2.592V
a. 10 sec. d.25V
b. 0.1 sec ans:a
c. 10mSec
d. 100 Sec 62. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a
ans:a potential difference of 100V across its
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terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ resistor.

in
58. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm Find Initial discharging current.
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resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. a.1A

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Determine the initial value of charging current. b.10A

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a. 1mA c.0.01A
B
b. 0.1 mA d.0.1A
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c. 0.01mA ans:d
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d. 1.00A
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63. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a 67. The capacitance of capacitor formed by two
potential difference of 100V across its parallel plates each 200 cm2 in area separated
terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm by dielectric of 4mm thick is 0.0004µF. If
resistor. Find discharging current at 2m Sec. voltage of 20000 V is applied then the total
a. - 0.0818A charge on the plate is
b. - 0.01A a. 8µC
c. - 0.00818A b. 8mC
d. - 1A c. 8nC
ans:a d. 8pC
ans: a
64. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a
potential difference of 100V across its 68. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area of
terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm 2m2 spaced by three slabs of dielectric
resistor. Find initial rate of fall in voltage across materials. The relative permittivity’s are 2,3 and
capacitor. 6 respectively and thickness are 0.4mm, 0.6mm
a. 10 4 V/s and 0.12 mm respectively. Find the combined
b. -10 4 V/s capacitance.
c. -1 4 V/s a. 0.000295 x 10-6 F
d. 10A b. 0.00295 x 10-6 F
ans:b c. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
d. 0. 295 x 10-6 F
65. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a ans: b
potential difference of 100V across its
terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm 69. What is the unit of charge?
resistor. Find time constant of the circuit. a. Volt-Amp
a. 0.1sec b. Henery
b. 1sec c. Farad
c. 0.01sec d. Coulomb
d. 0.001sec ans: d
ans:c
70. What will be the capacitance of four
66. A capacitor consists of two similar plates capacitors of equal capacitance ‘C’ when
each 10cm x 10cm mounted parallel and connected in parallel
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opposite to each other. What is the value of a. 4C

in
capacitance when distance between them is b. C/4

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1cm and dielectric used is air. c. 3C/4

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a. 8.854 pF d. C
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b. 8.854 µF ans: a
B
c. 8.854 mF
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d. 8.854 F 71. A region around a stationary electric charge

C
H
ans: a has
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a. magnetic field or A

b. electric field c. C = d
c. magnetic field and electric field d. C = Єr A / d
d. neither magnetic field nor electric field ans: c
ans: b
77. Two capacitors of 2 µF and 4 µF are
72. One Farad is the same as connected in parallel across 100 V D.C. supply.
a. One Coulomb/Volt Determine (i) Energy stored on each capacitor
b. One Joule/Coulomb a. 0. 1 J and 0. 2 J
c. One Joule/Volt b. 0.01 J and 0.02 J
d. One Coulomb /Joule c 1 J and 2 J
ans: a d. 0.001 J and 0.002 J
ans: b
73 . If Q be the charge and C be the capacitance
then the energy stored in the capacitor is 78. The capacitance composit capacitor is given
a. 1/2QC as
b. 1/QC oA
c. Q2/2C a. C = d d2 d3
1
+ +
d. Q/2C r r r
1 2 3
ans: c
b. C = Є0 d / A
74.What capacitance must be placed in series or A
c. C = d
with a 15µF capacitor to give a total capacitance
of 5µF d. C = Єr A / d
a. 4µF ans: a
b. 7.5µF
c. 10µF 79. The plate area of a parallel-plate capacitor is
d. 25µF 0.01 sq. m. The distance between the plates is
ans: b 2.5 cm. The insulating medium is air. Find its
75. One Coulomb charge equals the charge on capacitance.
a. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons a 3.54 x 10-12 F
b. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms b. 35.4 x 10-12 F
c 6.24 x 10 12electrons c 3.54 x 10-10 F
d. none of these d. 3.54 x 10-11 F
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ans: a ans: a
in
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76. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is 80. The plate area of a parallel-plate capacitor is
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given as 0.01 sq. m. The distance between the plates is

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2.5 cm. What would be its capacitance, if the

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a. C = Є0 A / d
B
space between the plates is filled with an

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b. C = Є0 d / A
insulating material of relative permittivity 5?
C
a 177.1 x 10-12 F
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b. 1.771 x 10-12 F ans: a

c . 17.71 x 10-10 F
d. 17.71 x 10-12 F
ans: d
81.A parallel-plate capacitor has two plates

each of area 2.5 m2 separated by three
dielectric materials of thickness 1, 2 and 3 mm
and relative permittivity’s of 2, 4 and 8
respectively. Calculate (i) the capacitance of the
capacitor
a. 1.60 x 10-8 F
b. 1.60 x 10-10 F
c. 1.60 x 10-12 F
d. 1.60 x 10-9 F
Unit IV
Part (a) : AC Fundamentals
1. A standard sinusoidal voltage wave changes 4. The distance occupied by one complete cycle
its polarity at________ of the wave is called its________
a. maximum value a. time period
b. minimum value b. wavelength
c. zero value c. velocity
d. none of the above d. frequency
ans:c ans:a
2. The period of a certain sine wave is 10 5. The rms value of a sine wave of peak value Im
milliseconds. Its frequency is________ is given by_______
a.10 MHz a. Im/√2
b.10 KHz b. Im
c.10 Hz c. Im/2
d.100 Hz d. Im/π
ans:d
ans:a
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3. Two sine waves are said to be in phase with

in
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each other if they achieve their______ 6.The average value of a sine wave of maximum
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a. zero value at the same time value Im over one cycle is_______
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b. maximum value at the time a. Im/π

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c. minimum value at the same time b. 2Im/π

B
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d. all of the above c. zero

C
ans:d d. Im/2
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ans:c 12. A current is said to be alternating when it

changes in_______
7. The rms value of a sine wave of maximum a. magnitude only
value 10A equals a dc current of b. direction only
______ampere. c. both magnitude and direction
a.7.07 d. neither magnitude nor direction
b.6.37 ans:c
c.5
d.5.77 13. An alternating current of 50 Hz frequency
ans:a and 100 A maximum value is given by______
a.𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛628𝑡
8.The rms value of a sinusoidal voltage with b.𝑖 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
peak-to-peak value of 240 V is________V. c.𝑖 = 100√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
a.84.84 d.𝑖 = 100√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛157𝑡
b.77.82 ans:b
c.94.68
d.89.15 14. An alternating current of 50 Hz frequency
ans:a has a maximum value of 100 A. Its value 1/600
second after the instant current is zero will
9. The time period of a sinusoidal waveform be________
with 200 Hz frequency is________second. a. 25 A
a.0.05 b. 12.5 A
b.0.005 c. 50 A
c.0.0005 d. 75 A
d.0.5 ans:c
ans:b
15.A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to a
10. The peak value of a sine wave is 400 V. Its maximum of 250 V. The voltage at the instant of
average value is_________ 60° of the cycle will be________
a.254.6 V a. 150 V
b.282.6 V b. 216.5 V
c.400 V c. 125 V
d.565.5 V d.108.25 V
ans:a ans:b
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in
11. The form factor of a sine wave is_____ 16. An alternating current is given by the
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a.1.01 𝜋
expression 𝑖 = 200 sin(314𝑡 + 3 ) amperes.
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b.1.11
P

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c.1.21
current are_________
B
d. none of the above

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a. 200 A, 50 Hz
ans:b
C
b. 100√2, 50 Hz
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c. 200 A, 100 Hz ans:a

d. 200 A, 25 Hz
ans:a 21.In ac system, we generate sine waveform
because_______
17.The average value of the current 𝑖 = a. it can be easily drawn
𝜋
200 sin 𝑡 from 𝑡 = 0 to 𝑡 = 2 is ______ b. it produces least disturbance in electrical
a. 400 π circuits
400 c. it is nature’s standard
b. 𝜋
1
d. other waves can not be produced easily
c.400 ans:b
𝜋
d.400
ans:b 22.__________will work only on dc supply.
a. electric lamp
18. When two quantities are in quadrature, the b. refrigerator
phase angles between them will be________ c. electroplating
a.45° d. heater
b.90° ans:c
c.135°
d.60° 23.An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =
ans:b 20 sin 157𝑡. The frequency of the alternating
voltage is_____
19.The alternating voltage 𝑒 = 200 sin 314𝑡 is a.50 Hz
applied to a device which offers an ohmic b.25 Hz
resistance of 20 Ω to the flow of current in one c.100 Hz
direction while entirely preventing the flow in d.75 Hz
the opposite direction. The average value of the ans:b
current will be_________
a.5 A 24. An alternating current is given by 𝑖 =
b.3.18 A 10 sin 314𝑡. The time taken to generate two
c.1.57 A cycles of current is____
d.1.10 A a. 0.02 second
ans:b b. 0.01 second
c. 0.04 second
20. The ac system is preferred to dc system d. 0.05 second
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because_______ ans:c
in
a. ac voltages can be easily changed in

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magnitude 25. A sine wave has a maximum value of 20 V.

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b. dc motors do not have fine speed control Its value at 135° is______
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c. high voltage ac transmission is less efficient a. 10 V

B
b. 14.14 V
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d. dc voltage can not be used for domestic

c. 15 V
C
appliances
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ans:b a. less heat than

b. more heat than
26. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 = c. the same heat as
30 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 .The time taken by the voltage to d. none of the above
reach 30 V for the first time is_____ ans:b
a. 0.02 second
b. 0.1 second 32. A sinusoidal alternating current has a
c. 0.03 second maximum value of Im. Its average value will
d. 0.005 second be_______
ans:d 𝐼𝑚
a. 𝜋
𝐼𝑚
b.
27. A sinusoidal current has a magnitude of 3 A 2𝜋
𝐼𝑚
at 120°. Its maximum value will be_____ c. 2 𝜋
a.√3 A d.none of the above
√3
b. A ans:c
2
c.2√3 A
33.The area of a sinusoidal wave over a half-
d. 6 A
cycle is________
ans:c
a.𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2
b.2 × 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
29. An alternating current is given by 𝑖 =
c.𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 𝜋
10 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Measuring time from 𝑡 = 0, the
d. .𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2𝜋
time taken by the current to reach +10 V for the
ans:b
second time is_________
a. 0.05 second
34. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =
b. 0.1 second
200 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value will be_____
c. 0.025 second
a. 100 V
d. 0.02 second
b. 282.8 V
ans:c
c. 141.4 V
d. 121.4 V
30. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =
ans:c
100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 volts. Its average value will
be________
35. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as 𝑣 =
a. 70.7 V 𝜋
141.4 sin(314.18𝑡 − 2 ) . Its rms value of
b. 50 V
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c. 63.7 V voltage, frequency and phase angle are

in
d. 100 V respectively_______
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a. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°

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ans:c
b. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
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31. An alternating current whose average value c. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90°

B
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is 1 A will produce_________1 A dc under d. 100 V,50 Hz, -90°

C
similar conditions. ans:d

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b. both voltage have their zero values at the

36. When two sinusoidal waves are 90° out of same time
phase, then__________ c. both voltages have their peak values at the
a. both have their peak values at the same same time
instant d. all of the above
b.both have their minimum values at the same ans:d
instant
c. one has its peak value; while the other has 41.The rms value of an ac sinusoidal current is
zero value 10 A. Its peak value is_________
d. none of these a. 7.07 A
ans:c b. 14.14 A
c. 10 A
37. The direction of current in an ac circuit d. 28.28 A
is___________ ans:b
a. always in one direction
b. varying from time to time 42. If A=10∠45° and B=5∠15°, then the value of
c. unpredictable A/B will be_________
d. from positive to negative a. 50∠60°
ans:b b. 2∠60°
c. 2∠-30°
38. Consider the sinusoidal waves: 𝐴 sin(𝜔𝑡 + d. 2∠30°
30°) and 𝐵 sin(𝜔𝑡 − 60°) . The phase angle ans:d
relationship between the two waves________
a. B-wave lags A-wave by 90° 43. When a phasor is multiplied by –j, it gets
b. B-wave lags A-wave by 60° rotated through in the counterclockwise
c. B-wave lags A-wave by 30° direction.
d. B-wave and A-wave are in phase a.90°
ans:a b.180°
c.270°
39. A sinusoidal voltage is expressed as 𝑣 = d. none of the above
𝜋
20 sin(314.16𝑡 + 3 ) V. Its frequency and ans:c
phase angle respectively are____________
a. 314.16 Hz, 60° 44. The rms value of sinusoidally varying current
b. 60Hz, 60° is_________that of its average value.
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c. 50 Hz, 60° a. more than

in
d. 50 Hz, -60° b. less than

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ans:c c. same as
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40. A sinusoidal voltage v1 leads another ans:a

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sinusoidal voltage v2 by 180°. Then__________

45. Alternating voltages and currents are
C
a. voltage v2 leads voltage v1 by 180°

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expressed in rms values because______

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a. they can be easily determined 50. The filament of a vacuum tube requires 0.4A
b. calculations become very simple dc to heat it. The rms value of ac required
c. they give comparison with dc is______
d. none of the above a.0.4 × √2 A
ans:c b.0.4 ÷ 2 A
c.0.8 ÷ √2 A
46.The average value of sin2θ over a complete d. 0.4 A
cycle is_________ ans:d
a. +1
b. -1 51. A100 V peak ac is as effective as_____dc.
1
c. a. 100 V
2
d. zero b. 50 V
ans:c c. 70.7 V
47.The average value of sinθ over a complete ans:c
cycle is_________
a. zero 52. The form factor of a ________wave is 1.
b. +1 a. sinusoidal
c. -1 b. square
d.
1 c. triangular
2
d. sawtooth
ans:a
ans:b

53. Out of the following _________wave is the
𝐼𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃. The average value of squared wave of
peakiest.
this current over a complete cycle is________
a. sinusoidal
a. I2m/2
b. square
b. Im/π
c. rectangualr
c. 2Im/π
d. triangular
d. 2Im
ans:d
ans:a
54. The peak factor of a sine waveform

49. The form factor of a sinusoidal wave
is_______
is______
a.1.11
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a.1.414
b.1.414
in
b.1.11
c.2
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c.2
d.1.5
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d.1.5
ans:b
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ans:b
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B
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55.When a 15V square wave is connected

across a 50V ac voltmeter, it will read______
C
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a.15V 1
c.700
b.15 × √2 V 1
d.600
c.15/√2 V
ans:d
d.none of the above
ans:a
61. A heater is rated as 230V, 10KW, AC. The
value of 230V refers to___________
56.A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its
a. average voltage
angular frequency is_______radian/second.
b. rms voltage
a.100π
c. peak voltage
b.50π
c.25π
ans:b
d.5π
ans:a
62. The peak value of a sine wave is 200V. Its
average value is_______
57. The period of a wave is____________
a.127.4V
a. the same as frequency
b.141.4V
b. time required to complete one cycle
c.282.8V
c. expressed in amperes
d.200V
ans:a
ans:b
63. The rms value of a sine wave is 100A. Its

58. The form factor is the ratio of _________
peak value is _______
a. peak value to rms value
a.70.7A
b. rms value to average value
b.141.4A
c. average value to rms value
c.150A
d.282.8A
ans:b
ans:b
59. The period of a sine wave is 1/50 seconds.

64. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This
Its frequency is_______
figure represents________
a. 20 Hz
a. mean value
b. 30 Hz
b. rms value
c. 40 Hz
c. peak value
d. 50 HZ
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d. average value
ans:d
in
ans:b
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60. An ac current is given by 𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛100𝜋𝑡.

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65. The rms value and mean value is the same

It will achieve a value of 100A
P
in the case of_______

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after_____second.
B
1
a. traingular wave
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a.900 b. sine wave

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1
b.800 c. square wave
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d. half wave rectified sine wave 70. The current in a circuit is given by: 𝑖 =
ans:c 100 sin 314𝑡 amperes. The maximum value and
frequency of current are_________
66. For the same peak value which of the a.50√2 A, 100 Hz
following wave will have the highest rms value? b.100√2 A, 100 Hz
a.square wave c. 100 A, 50 Hz
b.half wave rectified sine wave d. 70.7 A, 50 Hz
c.triangular wave ans:c
d.sine wave
ans:a 71. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period
will be_________
67. For the same peak value which of the a. 0.05 S
following wave will have the least mean value? b. 0.005 S
a. half wave rectified sine wave c. 0.0005 S
b. triangular wave d. 0.5 S
c. sine wave ans:b
d. square wave
ans:a 72. An ac voltage of 50 Hz has a maximum value
of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second after the
68. For a sine wave with peak value Imax, the rms instant the current is zero will be_________
value is_______ a.5V
a. 0.5Imax b.12.5V
b. 0.707Imax c.25V
c. 0.9Imax d.43.8V
d. 1.414Imax ans:c
ans:b
73. For 200V rms value triangular wave, the
69. Form factor is the ratio of_________ peak voltage will be______
a. average value/rms value a.200V
b. average value/peak value b.222V
c. rms value/average value c.282V
d. rms value/peak value d.346V
ans:c ans:d
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69. For a sine wave with peak value Emax, the 74. A sine wave of voltage varies from zero to
in
average value is______ maximum of 200V. How much is the voltage at

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a. 0.636 Emax the instant of 30° of the cycle?

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b. 0.707Emax a.50V
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c. 0.434 Emax b.82.8V

B
d. 1.414Emax c.100V
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ans:a d.173.2V
C
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ans:c
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a. rms value is equal to average value

75. How much rms current does a 300W, 200V b. rms value of current is greater than average
bulb take from the 200V, 50 Hz power line? value
a.0.5 A c. rms value of current is less than average
b.1.5 A value
c.2 A d. none of the above
d. 3 A ans:a
ans:b
80. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz
76. The rms value of a half-wave rectified with 30A rms current, which of the following
current is 100 A. Its value for full-wave equation represents the wave?
rectification would be_________amperes. a.42.42 sin 314𝑡
a.141.4 b.60 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
b.200 c.30 sin 50𝑡
c. 200/π d.84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
d. 40/π ans:a
ans:a
81. Which of the following waves has the
77. The rms value of a sinusoidal ac current is highest value of peak factor?
equal to its value at an angle of ______degrees. a. square wave
a.90 b. sine wave
b.60 c. half wave rectified sine wave
c.45 d. triangular wave
d.30 ans:c
ans:c
82.The frequency of domestic power supply in
78. The rms value of alternating current is given India is_____
by steady (dc) current which when flowing a. 200 Hz
through a given circuit for a given time b. 100 Hz
produces________ c. 60 Hz
a. the more heat than produced by ac when d. 50 Hz
flowing through the same circuit ans:d
b. the same heat as produced by ac when
flowing through the same circuit 83. The rms value of half wave rectified sine
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c. the less heat than produced by ac flowing wave is 200V. The rms value of full wave
in
through the same circuit rectified ac will be__________

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d. none of the above a.282.8V

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ans:b b.141.4V
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c.111V
B
79. The square waveform of current has d. 100V

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following relation between rms value and ans:a

C
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average value:
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84. The voltage in a circuit follows the law: 𝑣 = b. half peak value
100 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡. If the frequency is 25 Hz, how long c. average value
will d. rms value
it take for the voltage to rise to 50V? ans:d
1
a.50 S
1 89. The frequency of an alternating current
b.100S
is________
1
c.300S a. the speed with which the alternator runs
1 b. the number of cycles generated in one
d. 600S
minute
ans:c
c. the number of waves passing through a point
in one second
85. The negative maximum of a cosine wave
d. the number of electrons passing through a
occurs at________
point in one second
a.30°
ans:c
b.45°
c.90°
90. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave
d.180°
having rms value of 60 A is______
ans:d
a.60 sin 25𝑡
b.60 sin 50𝑡
86. The rms value of pure cosine function
c.84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
is_________
d42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡.
a. 0.5 of peak value
ans:c
b. 0.707 of peak value
c. same as peak value
91. An electric iron designed for 110 V AC
d. zero
supply was rated at 500 W. It was put across a
ans:b
220 V supply. Assuming that at 110 V, it
supplied 500 W output (i.e. no losses) at the
87. An alternating voltage is given in volts by
new voltage it will supply_________
expression 𝑣 = 326 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value and
a. 2500 W
frequency are____
b. 2000 W
a.230V,50 Hz
c. 500 W
b. 230V,100 Hz
d. 250 W
c. 326V,50 Hz
ans:b
d. 326V,100 Hz
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ans:a
in
92. The direction of current in an ac

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circuit________
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88. According to which of the alternating

a. is from positive to negative
current values in the cross sectional area of a
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b. is always in one direction

conductor with regard to the heating effect is
B
c. varies from instant to instant

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selected?
d. can not be determined
C
a. peak value
H
ans:c
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b. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
93. The angular frequency of an alternating c. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
quantity is a mathematical quantity obtained by d. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
multiplying the frequency “f” of the alternating ans:a
quantity by a factor_________
𝜋
a. 2 98. The time period or periodic time T of an
b.π alternating quantity is the time taken in seconds
c.2π to complete_____________
d.4π a. one cycle
ans:c b. alternation
c. none of the above
94. The average value of an unsymmetrical d. Half cycle
alternating quantity is calculated over ans: a
the_________
a. whole cycle 99. The time period of an alternating quantity is
b. half cycle 0.02 second. Its frequency will be________
c. unsymmetrical part of the waveform a. 25 Hz
d. first two cycles b. 50 Hz
ans:a c. 100 Hz
d. 0.02 Hz
95. The mean value of the current 𝑖 = 20 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 ans: b
𝜋
from θ=0 to θ= is_______
2
100. An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10 sin 314
a.40π
40
t, the average and rms values of the current
b. are____
𝜋
1
c. a. 16.36 A, 17.07 A
40
𝜋
d.40 b. 10 A, 17.07 A
c. 10 A, 12.25 A
ans:b
d. 16.36 A, 12.2 A
ans:c
96. A constant current of 2.8A exists in a
resistor. The rms value of current is______
101. The size (cross-sectional area) of a
a. 2.8 A
conductor, with regard to the heating effect, is
b. about 2 A
determined on the basis of ……….. value of
c. 1.4 A
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current to be carried by it
d. undefined
in
a. average value
ans:a
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b. peak value
SP
c. rms value
P
97. An alternating current is represented as 𝑖 =

U
𝜋 d. peak to peak value

70.7 sin(520𝑡 + 6 ) . The frequency and rms
B
ans:c
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value of the current are_________

C
a. 82.76 Hz, 50 A
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102. The form factor for dc supply voltage is a. phase

always b. time
a. zero c. time period
b. unity d. all above
c. infinity ans:c
d. any value between 0 and 1
ans:b 108.
103. The ________ varying alternating quantity

can be represented as phasor.
a) circular
b) sinusoidally
c) rectangular
d) triagular In the above figure, the phase quantity at A is
ans:b _______
a. T
104. The phasors are assumed to be rotated in b. T/2
_________ direction. c. T/3
a) clockwise d. T/4
b) anticlockwise ans:d
c) circular
d) all above 109.
ans:b
105. In practice, alternating quantities are

represented by their _______ values
a. rms
b. average
c. rectangular
_______
d. polar
a. T
ans:a
b.T/2
c.3T/4
106. Alternating quantities of ____ frequencies
d. T/4
can be represented on same phasor diagram.
ans:c
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a. Same
in
b. Different
110. When phase of an alternating quantity is
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c. multiple
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d. all above
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_______ instantaneous value at t=0

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ans: a
a. zero
B
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b. positive
107. The phase of alternating quantity at any
C
c. negative
H
particular instant is the fraction of ______

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d. none of the above b. length difference

ans:b c. phase difference
111. When phase of an alternating quantity is ans:c
negative it means that quantity has some
_______ instantaneous value at t=0 116. When phase difference between the two
a. zero alternating quantities is _______, the two
b. positive quantities are said to be in phase.
c. negative a. one
d. none of the above b. unity
ans:c c. zero
d. π/2
112. The difference between the _____ of two ans:c
alternating quantities is called the phase
difference. 117. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ), the ‘i’
a. time is said to be _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ
b. phase angle a. in phase
c. Lengths b. lagging
d. both a and b c. leading
ans:b d. all above
ans:b
113. The difference between the phase of two
alternating quantities is called the________. 118. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ), the
a. phase difference ‘v’ is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ
b. sine difference a. in phase
c. length difference b. lagging
d. none of the above c. leading
ans:a d. all above
ans:c
114. When phase difference between the two
alternating quantities is zero, the two quantities 119. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ), the
are said to be in _____ ‘i’ is said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ
a. tandom a. in phase
b. length b. lagging
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c. phase c. leading
in
d. time d. all above

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ans:c ans:c
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115. When ____________ between the two 120. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ), the
B
alternating quantities is zero, the two quantities ‘v’ is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ
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are said to be in phase. a. in phase

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a. time difference b. lag

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c. lead ans:c
d. all above
ans:b 126. The diagram in which different sinusoidal
alternating quantities of the same frequency,
121. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin ωt, the ‘i’ is are represented by individual phasors indicating
said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ exact phase relationship is called ________
a. in phase a. graph
b. lag b. still diagram
c. lead c. phasor diagram
d. all above d. picture
ans:a ans:c
122. With respect to reference, plus sign of 127. The diagram in which different sinusoidal
angle indicates _______ alternating quantities of the same _____, are
a. leading represented by individual phasors indicating
b. lagging exact phase relationship is called phasor
c. in phase diagram.
d. none of the above a. time
ans:a b. frequency
c. sign
123. With respect to reference, minus sign of d. shape
angle indicates _______ ans:b
a. leading
b. lagging 128. The lagging and leading word is relative to
c. in phase the ______
d. none of the above a. base
ans:b b. range
c. reference
124. With respect to reference, _____ sign of d. angle
angle indicates lead. ans:c
a. division
b. plus 129. Polar form of v = 100 sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is
c. minus ________
d.dot a.61.2371+j35.3553
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ans:b b.70.7106∟30
in
c. 61.2371∟35.3553
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125. With respect to reference, _____ sign of d. 70.710+ j30

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angle indicates lag. ans:b

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a. division
B
b. plus 130. Rectangular form of V= 100 sin(100πt+π/6)

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c. minus Volt is ________

C
H
d.dot a.61.2371+j35.3553
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b.70.7106∟30 135.In purely _____ circuit, the current flowing

c. 61.2371∟35.3553 and voltage applied are in phase with each
d. 70.710+ j30 other.
ans:a a. resistive
b. inductive
131. RMS value of current I = 25 + j40 Amp is c.capacitive
_______ d. none of the above
a.57.99 ans:a
b.47.1699
c.60 136. In purely resistive circuit, the current and
d.30 voltage applied are in ______ with each other.
ans:b a. opposition
b. phase
132. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A c. direction
flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1+I2 = d. line
________ ans:b
a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
b. 5.55964.924 A 137. In purely _______ circuit, current lags
c. 7.296+ j12.58 A voltage by 90 degrees.
d. None of the above a. resistive
ans:a b. inductive
c. capacitive
133. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A d. none of the above
flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1-I2 ans:b
=________
a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A 138. In purely Inductive circuit, current _____
b. 5.5596∟4.924 A voltage by 90 degrees.
c. 7.296+ j12.58 A a. leads
d. None of the above b. lags
ans:c c. in phase
d. all above
134. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A ans:b
flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1/I2
=________ 139. In purely Inductive circuit, current lags
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a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A voltage by _______ degrees.

in
b. 2150 A a. 30
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c. 7.296+ j12.58 A b.60

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d. None of the above c.90

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ans:b d.120
B
ans:c
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140.The inductance offers _____ reactance to d. capacitive reactance

DC. ans:c
a. high
b. low 146. Inductive reactance is measured in ______
c. zero a. Farad
d. none of the above b. Henry
ans:c c. Ohm
d. Joule
141. The _________ offers zero reactance to ans:c
DC.
a. resistance 147. Inductive reactance depends on ______ of
b. inductance applied voltage
c. permeance a. phase
d. none of the above b. sign
ans: b c. frequency
d. speed
142. The inductance offers zero _________ to ans:c
DC
a. resistance 148. Inductive reactance is _________
b. capacitance frequency.
c. reactance a. inversely proportional to
d. permeance b. directly proportional to
ans:c c. indepedent of
c. none of above
143. Pure ______ never consumes power ans:b
a. resistor
b. inductor 149. Inductive reactance is directly proportional
c. starter to ________.
d. circuit a. time
ans:b b. phase
c. frequency
144. Inductive reactance is given by_____ d. phase difference
a.XL=ωL ans:c
b.XL=2πL
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c.XL=ΦL 150. In purely capacitive circuit, current ______

in
d.XL= ωC voltage by 90 degrees.

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ans:a a. lags
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b. leads
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145.______is given by XL=ωL c. in phase

B
a. resistance d. all above

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b. inductance ans:b
C
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c. inductive reactance
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151. In purely capacitive circuit, current leads c. XC=1/ΦC

voltage by _______ degrees. d. XC=2𝝅fL
a. 30 ans:a
b.60
c.90 157.______is given by XC=1/ωL
d.120 a. Inductive resistance
ans:c b. inductive capacitance
c. inductive reactance
152. The capacitor offers _____ reactance to d. capacitive reactance
DC. ans:d
a. high
b. low 158. Capacitive reactance is measured in
c. zero ______
d. none of the above a. farads
ans:a b. henrys
c. ohms
153. The _________ offers infinite reactance to d. joules
DC. ans:c
a. resistance
b. permeance 159. Capacitive reactance is _________ to
c. capacitance frequency.
d. none of the above a. inversely proportional
ans:c b. directly proportional
c. both
154. The capacitance offers infinite _________ c. none of above
to DC ans:a
a. resistance
b. capacitance 160. Capacitive reactance is inversly
c. reactance proportional to ________.
d. permeance a. time
ans:c b. phase
c. frequency
155. Pure ______ never consumes power d. phase difference
a. resistor ans:c
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b. capacitor
in
c. starter 161. A certain inductor has reactance of 4kΩ at

@
d. circuit 5kHz. Its reactance at 15 kHz is _____ kΩ.

SP
ans:b a.8
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b.10
B
156. Capacitive reactance is given by_____ c.12

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a. XC=1/ωC d.20
C
H
b. XC=1/2𝝅C ans:c
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b. 100V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees

162. In purely inductive circuit, if the frequency c. 87.92V, 56 Hz, 90 degrees
is doubled and applied voltage is halved, the d. 200V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees
resulting current becomes____ ans:b
a. one-fourth
b. one-fifth 168. When two sinusoidal waves are 90 degrees
c. one-half out of phase, then ____
d. one-third a. both have their peak values at the same time
ans:a b. both have their minimum values at the same
time
163. The square of a j operator _____ c. one has its peak value, other has zero value
a. can never be negative d. none of these
b. can never be positive ans:c
c. could be either positive or negative
d. is equal to j 169. The direction of current in an AC circuit is
ans:b _____
a. always in one direction
164. A complex number_____ b. varying time to time periodically
a. is the same as imaginary number c. unpredictable
b. has real and imaginary part d. from positive to negative
c. is negative number ans:b
d. is merely a technical term
ans:b 170. Consider the sinusoidal waves: A sin
(ωt+30) and B cos(ωt-60). The phase angle
165. The sum of (3+j6) and (-3-j6) is ____ relationship between two waves is:
a.0+j0 a. B wave lags A wave by 90 degrees
b.6+j12 b. B wave lags A wave by 60 degrees
c. -6-j12 c. B wave lags A wave by 30 degrees
d. 0-j12 d. B wave and A wave are in phase
ans:a ans:d
166. The product of (-4-j7) and (6-j2) is______ 171. Inductive reactance of a coil of inductance
a. -24+j14 0.2 H at 50 Hz is ____ ohms.
b. 24-j14 a.62.8
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c. -38-j34 b.628
in
d. -24-j14 c.0.2
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ans:c d.10
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ans:a
PU
167. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as: v =

B
141.4 sin(314.18t-π/2). Its rms value of voltage, 172. The reactance of L Henry inductance
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frequency and phase angle are respectively____ connected to an AC source of frequency f is

C
H
a.141.42V, 314.16 Hz, 90 degrees ______ ohm.

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a. f L frequency is increased to 100 Hz, the reactance

b. πfL becomes____
c. 2 πfL a.40 ohms
d. all above b.20 ohms
ans:c c.5 ohms
d.2.5 ohms
173. When pure inductance is connected to an ans:c
AC sources, the voltage____ to the current by
____ 178. If e1 = 100 sin2πf and e2 = 100 sin(2πf-Φ),
a. lags, 90 degrees then _____
b. leads, 90 degrees a. e1 lags e2 by Φ
c. lags, 45 degrees b. e1 leads e2 by Φ
d. leads, 45 degrees c. e2 lags e1 by Φ
ans:b d. none of the above
ans:c
174. If 10 ohm resistor is connected across an
AC voltage v = 100 sin(314t+300), the power 179. The average power in a purely inductive or
dissipated through resistor is _____ capacitive circuit over a cycle____
a.500 W a. depends on XL or XC
b.1000 W b. is negative
c.250 W c. is zero
d.100 W d. is positive
ans:b ans:c
175.When a phasor is multiplied by j and –j, it is 180. Inductive reactance of an AC circuit

rotated through ______ degrees in the increases with ____
anticlockwise direction respectively. a. increase in frequency
a.90, 270 b. increase in resistance
b.90, 90 c. decrease in resistance
c.90, 180 d. decrease in frequency
d.270, 90 ans:a
ans:a
181.The phase difference between two
176.The p. f. of purely resistive circuit is ____ waveforms can be compared when they _____
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a. zero a. have the same frequency

in
b. unity b. have the same peak value

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c. lagging c. have the same effective value

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d. leading d. are sinusoidal

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ans:b ans:a
B
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177. For a frequency of 50 Hz, the reactance

C
H
offered by capacitor is 10 ohms, If the

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182. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but 187. In the complex number 4+j7, 7 is called the
of different amplitude and phase difference are ______ component
added, the resultant is a ______ a. real
a. sinusoid of same frequency b. imaginary
b. sinusoid of double the original frequency c. in-phase
c. sinusoid of half the original frequency d. none of the above`
d. non-sinusoid ans:d
ans:a
188. The reciprocal of a complex number is
183. A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a a_____
resistor. The rms value of current is ____ a. complex number
a. 2.8 A b. real component only
b. 2 A c. quadrature component only
c. 1.4 A d. none of above
d. undefined ans:a
ans:a
189. If two complex numbers are equal,
184. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal then_____
current of 1 A at frequency of 50 Hz. The a. only their magnitudes will be equal
average power dissipated by the inductor is b. only their angles will be equal
____ c. their in phase and quadrature components
a.0 will be separately equal
b. 3.14 W d.none of above
c. 0.5 W ans:c
d. 1 W
ans:a 190. A phasor 2∟180 can be expressed as____
a.j2
185. The power factor of an ordinary bulb is b.-j2
_____ c.-2
a. zero d.2
b. unity ans:c
c. more than unity
d. less than unity 191. A current of (3+j4) A is flowing through a
ans:b circuit. The magnitude of current is _____
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a. 7 A
in
186. If the phasor is multiplied by j, then ____ b. 5 A

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a. only its magnitude changes c. 1 A

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b. only its direction changes d. 1.33 A

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c. both magnitude and direction change ans:b

B

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ans:b 192. The voltage applied in a circuit is given by

C
H
100∟60 volts. It can be written as ____

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a. 100∟-60 b. approx. 90
b.100∟240 c. approx. 60
c. 100∟-300 d. approx. 0
d. none of the above ans:b
ans:c
198. Two sinusoidal currents are given by i1 =
193. The conjugate of -4+j3 is _____ 100sin (ωt+π/3) and i2 = 150sin(ωt-π/4). The
a. 4-j3 phase difference between them is _____
b. -4-j3 degrees
c.4+j3 a.15
d. none of the above b.50
ans:b c.60
d.105
194. The difference of two conjugate number ans:d
results in _____
a. a complex number 199. Capacitive reactance is more when____
b. in-phase component only a. capacitance is less and frequency of supply is
c. quadrature component only less
d. none of the above b. capacitance is less and frequency of supply is
ans:c more
c. capacitance is more and frequency of supply
195. The reciprocal of j is ____ is less
a.j d.capacitance is more and frequency of supply
b.-j is more
c.jxj ans:a
d.none of the above
ans:b 200. Pure inductive circuit ______
a. consumes some power on average
196. Two waves of same frequency have b. does not take power at all from lines
opposite phase when the phase angle between c. takes power from the line during some part
them is ___ degrees of cycle and returns back during other part of
a.360 cycle
b.180 d. none of the above
c.90 ans: c
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d.0
in
ans: b 211. Power factor of the following circuit will be

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zero
SP
197.The power consumed in a circuit element a. resistive

P
U
will be least when the phase difference b. pure inductive

B
between the current and voltage is ____ c. pure capacitive

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degrees. d. both (b) and (c)

C
H
a. approx.180 ans:d
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212. Power factor of the following circuit will be 217. For a purely resistive circuit the following
unity statement is correct
a. resistive a. work done is zero
b. pure inductive b. power consumed is zero
c. pure capacitive c. heat produced is zero
d. both (b) and (c) d. power factor is unity
ans:a ans:d
213. In pure resistive circuit _____ 218. Which value of inductance will give the
a. current lags the voltage by 90 degrees same reactance as a capacitor of 2 µF when
b. current leads the voltage by 90 degrees both are at 50 Hz?
c. current can lead or lag the voltage by 90 a. 5 H
degrees b. 10 H
d. current is in phase with the voltage c. 15 H
ans:d d. 20 H
and:a
214. In pure inductive circuit _____
a. current lags the voltage by 90 degrees 219. For purely inductive circuit if v = Vm sin
b. current leads the voltage by 90 degrees (ωt) then equation of current is _____
c. current can lead or lag the voltage by 90 a. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
degrees b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
d. current is in phase with the voltage c. i = Im sin (ωt-π)
ans:a d. i = Im sin (ωt+π)
ans:a
215. A phasor is _____
a. a line which represents the magnitude and 220. For purely capacitive circuit if v = Vm sin
phase of an alternating quantity (ωt) then equation of current is _____
b. a line which represents the magnitude and a. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
direction of an alternating quantity b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
c. a colored tag or band for distinction between c. i = Im sin (ωt-π)
different phases of a 3 phase supply d. i = Im sin (ωt+π)
d. an instrument used for measuring phases of ans:b
an unbalanced 3 phase load
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ans:b 221. For purely resistive circuit if v = Vm sin (ωt)

in
then equation of current is _____

@
216. Ohm is the unit of all the following except a.i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
SP
a. inductive reactance b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)

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b. capacitive reactance c. i = Im sin (ωt)

B
c. resistance d. i = Im sin (ωt+π)

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d. capacitance ans:c
C
H
ans:d
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el

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222. A sinusoidal voltage v1 leads another d. becomes zero with the increase in supply
sinusoidal voltagev2 by 180 degrees. Then ____ frequency
a. voltage v2 leads voltage v1 by 180 degrees ans:a
b. both voltage have their zero values at the
same time 227. A pure inductance connected across 250 V,
c. both voltage have their peak values at the 50 Hz supply consumes 100 W. This
same time consumption is due to_____
d. all of above a. the big size of the inductor
ans:d b. the reactance of the inductor
c. the current flowing in the inductor
223. If A = 10∟45 and B = 5∟15, then the d. the statement given is false
value of A/B will be___ ans:d
a.50∟60
b.2∟60 228. Which of the following statements pertains
c. 2∟-30 to resistor only
d.2∟30 a.can dissipate considerable amount of power
ans:d b.can act as energy storage device
c. connecting them in parallel increases the
224. A coil has XL = 1000 ohm. If both its total value
inductance and frequency are doubled, its d. opposes sudden change in voltage
reactance will become ___ ohm ans:a
a.2000
b.500 229. A pure capacitor connected across an AC
c.250 voltage consumed 50 W. This
d.4000 a. is due to the capacitive reactance in ohms
ans:d b. is due to the current flowing in capacitor
c. is due to the size of capacitor
225. The active power of AC circuit is given by d. statement is incorrect
___ ans:d
a. VI sin Φ
b. I2XL 230. The length of a phasor in a phasor diagram
c.I2R normally represents the ………… value of the
d.I2Z alternating quantity
ans:c a. rms or effective
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b. average
in
226. Inductance of coil____ c. peak

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a. is unaffected by the supply frequency d. none of these

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b. decreses with the increase in supply ans:a

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frequency
B
c. increases with the increase in supply 231. The two quantities are said to be in phase
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frequency with each other when

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a. the phase difference between two quantities d. product of rms or effective values of current
is zero degree or radian and voltage
b. each of them pass through zero values at the ans:d
same instant and rise in the same direction
c. each of them pass through zero values at the 236. The power factor of an ac circuit is equal to
same instant but rises in the opposite directions a. tangent of the phase angle
d. either (a) or (b) b. sine of phase angle
ans:d c. unity for a resistive circuit
d. unity for a reactive circuit
232. The phase difference between the two ans:c
waveforms can be compared only when they
a. have the same frequency 237. The curve for the instantaneous power
b. have the same peak value with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
c. have the same effective value current is shown in figure is of
d. are sinusoidal
ans:a p p
v
233. The phasor diagram for alternating i


quantities can be drawn if they have ……… 0
 t
waves
a. rectangular
b. sinusoidal
c. triangular a.pure resistance
d. any of these b.pure inductance
ans:b c. resistance and capacitance
d.pure capacitance
234. Which of the following statements Ans: a
associated with purely resistive circuits is
correct? 238. The curve for the instantaneous power
a. PF is unity with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
b. Power consumed is zero current is shown in figure is of
c. Heat produced is zero
P P
d. PF is zero + +
v
ans:a i
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
 2 
0
 t
in
2
235. Average power in a pure resistive circuit is
@
equal to - -
SP
P P
T
a. zero
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b. product of average values of current and a. pure resistance

B
voltage b. pure inductance

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c. product of peak values of current and voltage c. pure capacitance

C
H
d. pure capacitance and pure inductance

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el

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Answer: b b. pure inductance

c. pure capacitance
239. The curve for the instantaneous power d. pure capacitance and pure inductance
with respect to the waveforms of voltage & Answer: c
current is shown in figure is of
241. The phasor diagram (Q. No. 243) of voltage
P
+
P
+
and current considering phasors are rotates
v clockwise direction is of
i
0  a. Pure resistance
   t
2 2 b. pure inductance
- - c. pure capacitance
P P
a.pure resistance Answer: b
b. pure inductance
c. pure capacitance 242. The power factor of an ac circuit lies
d. pure capacitance and pure inductance between
Answer: c a. 0 and 1
b. -1 and 1
240. The phasor diagram of voltage and current c. 0 and -1
considering phasors are rotates anticlockwise d. none of these
direction is of ans:a
V
a. pure resistance
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in
@
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B
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C
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UNIT 3 – Electrostatics
1) The branch dealing with electricity at rest is called ____________.

a) Electromagnetic b) Electromechanics
b) E lectrostatics d) None of above
2) The space around a charge or charged body is called__________.
a) Electric field
b) Magnetic field
c) Electromagnetic field
d) Magnetostatic field
3) The electric lines of force always enter or leave a conductor surface at_______.
a) 1800 b) 00
b) 450 c) 900
4) _______ is true for electric lines force.
a) They intersect each other at regular interval
b) They forms a closed path
c) They can pass only through insulating medium
d) They can enter charged bodies and [pass through them
5) The unit of electric flux________
a) Newton
b) Coulomb
c) Weber
d) Tesla
6) The electric flux passing at right angles through unit area of surface is called_______
a) Electric field strength
b) Magnetic flux density
c) Electric flux density
d) Electric flux
7) The electric flux density is also called ________
a) Displacement density
b) Conduction density
Jo
in
c) Magnetic flux density

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d) Volume charge density

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8) The unit of electric field intensity is ________

P
a) c/m
U
B
b) c/m2
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c) N/C
C
d) N/m2C
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9) The electric field intensity is also measure in _______
a) V/m2
b) V/m
c) C/m
d) Wb/V
10) The electric field intensity at a point _______
a) F/Q
b) Q/F
c) B/Q
d) 1/(2VQ)
11) _________ represents electric field intensity.
a) V/Q
b) V/d
c) 1/(2V2)
d) VQ
12) The permittivity is __________
a) The ease with which magnetic flux passes through dielectric medium.
b) The ease with which current passes through given material.
c) The ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to establish in it.
d) None of above
13) The absolute permittivity is measured in__________.
a) H/m
b) A/m
c) F/m
d) N/m
14) The value of Є0 is ________F/m
a) 8.854x10-10
b) 8.854x1012
c) 6.657x10-12
d) 8.854xz10-12
15) The relative permittivity is also called as _______ of the material.
a) Dielectric constant
b) Di electric strength
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c) Breakdown voltage
in
d) Coulmb’s constant
@
16) __________ relation is true

SP
a) D=Є/E
P
b) D=ЄE
U
B
c) E=Є/D
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d) E=ЄD
C
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17) The unit of ____________ are same.
a) Electric field strength, potential difference
b) Electric field strength , potential gradient
c) Electric field strength , electric flux density
d) Electric flux density , potential gradient
18) _________ represent Coulmb’s law of electrostatics
a) F α Q1Q2 d2
b) F α ( Q1Q2 ) /d2
c) F α d2/(Q1 Q2 )
d) F α 1/(Q1Q2 d2)
19) Two conducting surfaces separated by a dielectric medium is called____
a) Capacitor
b) Dipole
c) Capacitance
d) Inductance
20) Capacitance is_________
a) Property of capacitor to repel charges from its plates
b) Property to store electric charges in the form of static charges
c) Property to store magnetic energy
d) Property to breakdown the dielectric
21) The unit of capacitance is_________
a) Farad
b) Henry
c) Hertz
d) Farad/m
22) Capacitance of a capacitor is the ratio of ________
a) P.d. between the plates and the charge
b) Charge and the p.d. between the plates
c) Charge and spacing between the plates
d) P.d. and thickness of dielectric
23) A capacitance of 1 picofarad means _____ farad.
a) 10-6
b) 10-9
Jo
c) 10-12
in
d) 10-15
@
24) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is_________

SP
a) Єd/A
P
b) Є/dA
U
B
c) ЄA/d
TE
d) A/Єd
C
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25) The capacitance is charged to 10 V and its capacitance μF then charge on it is_________
a) 10μC
b) 10nC
c) 10C
d) 1μC
26) A capacitor uses the plates of area 25 cm2 and distance between the plates is 5 cm. then
its capacitance with air as a dielectric is_________
a) 04427 μF
b) 04427 pF
c) 0.4427nF
d) 0.4427 F
27) The charge transferred on the plates of a capacitor is 2 nC while the distance between the
plates is 1 mm. if area of cross-section is 10 cm2 and air used as a dielectric then the
voltage across the plates is ___ v
a) 22.580
b) 2.5588
c) 225.88
d) 255.88
28) A capacitor of 10 μF has a charge of 1 mC. If distance between the plate is 1 cm then the
electric field intensity between the plates is_________
a) 10 kv/m
b) 10 v/m
c) 0.1V/m
d) 8.854 kv/m
29) For a 5 μF capacitor, distance between the plates is 0.5 cm and the electric field intensity
is 20 KV/m then the charge on the capacitor is_________
a) 5 μC
b) 0.5 μC
c) 5 nC
d) 0.5 mC
30) A capacitor uses a dielectric of Єr =2 it is charged to 500 V and the distance between the
plates is 10 cm then electric flux density between the plates is _________ nC/m2
a) 0.8854
Jo
b) 88.54
in
c) 8.854
@
d) 0.00885
SP
31) The p.d. between the plates of a 5 μF capacitor with a charge of 2 mC on it is ______V
P U
a) 200
B
b) 100
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c) 400
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d) 4000
32) A 2 μF capacitor connected in a circuit has one plate at +6 V and the other plate at – 6V.
the charge on the negative plate of the capacitor is___________
a) + 12 μC
b) - 12 μC
c) - 24 μC
d) -24 μC
33) A parallel plate capacitor with air as dielectric remains connected across a battery e.m.f.
6V the charge on the capacitor in this condition is Q. if the separation between the plates
is decreased by 10% in this condition and sufficient time is allowed to attain steady state,
the charge on the capacitor will be_________
a) Increased by 11%, approximately
b) Increased by 9%, approximately
c) Decreased by 9%, approximately
d) Decreased by 11%, approximately
34) The ability of an insulating medium to resist its breakdown s called its_________
b) Dielectric strength
c) Relative permittivity
d) Insulation resistance
35) The dielectric strength is measured in ____
a) KV/N
b) V/C
c) KV/cm
d) F/m
36) _ ________is not the factor affecting dielectric strength.
a) Temperature
b) Moisture
c) Size and shape of the plates
37) ________ is the factor affecting dielectric strength
a) Presence of air pockets in material
b) Molecular arrangement of material
Jo
c) Moisture content
in
d) All of these
@
38) For the capacitor in series, ________ remains same for all of them.
SP
a) Voltage
P U
b) Capacitance
B
c) Charge
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d) One of these
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39) The two capacitor 3 μF and 6 μF are in series then the equivalent capacitance is
________
a) 9μF
b) 4.5μF
c) 2μF
d) 1μF
40) Three capacitors each of capacitances C and breakdown voltage V are connected in series
then the capacitances and breakdown voltage of the combination is_______
a) 3C,V/3
b) C/3,3V
c) 3C,3V
d) C./3,V/3
41) The capacitor 15μF, 10μF and 3μF are connected in series and series combination is
connected across 10 V when the capacitors are fully charged then the charge on 3 μF
capacitor is_____
a) 10μC
b) 15μC
c) 3μC
d) 20μC
42) Four 2 μF capacitors are connected in series then the equivalent capacitance is
_______μF.
a) 0.5
b) 8
c) 2
d) 4
43) The capacitors of capacitance 4μF and 6μF connected in series. A p. d. of 500 volt is
applied to the outer plates of two capacitor system. Then the charge on each plate of each
plate of each capacitor is numerically_________ μC
a) 500
b) 5000
c) 1200
d) 400
44) Two capacitor 3μF and 6μF connected in series across 100 V d.c. supply. Then the
Jo
voltage across 3μF capacitor will be ________ V

in
a) 100
@
b) 66.667
SP
c) 33.333
P U
d) 0
B
45) Ten capacitor of 3μF each ar connected in series then the equivalent capacitance is
TE
________μF
C
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a) 0.3
b) 3
c) 30
d) 3.333
46) The energy stored in a capacitor is given by___________
a) 1/(2CV)
b) 1/(2CV2)
c) v/(2C)
d) c2/2v
47) if the p.d. between the plates is increased by 10% then energy stored in the capacitor
increased by __________%
a) 11
b) 10
c) 2.1
d) 21
48) The capacitor of 10 The capacitor of 10 μF is discharged through a resistance of 100 KΩ
then the time constant is __________
a) 1 s b) 1 μs
b) 1ms c) 0.1 sec
49) Initially the capacitor act as _________
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Breakdown
d) None of above
50) Four, 2 μF capacitor are conneted in parallel the effective capacitance is _________μF
a) 0.5 b) 8 c) 2 d) 4
Answer:
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 D
2 A 12 C 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 A 43 C
4 C 14 D 24 C 34 B 44 B
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 c
Jo
6 C 16 B 26 B 36 D 46 B
in
7 A 17 B 27 C 37 D 47 D
@
8 C 18 C 28 A 38 C 48 A
SP
9 B 19 A 29 D 39 C 49 B
P
10 A 20 B 30 B 40 b 50 B
U
B
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C
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
ELECTROSTATICS
1. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled,
the force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15
Ans: b
2. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is 200 N/C. If
the distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C
(b) 600 N/C
(c) 800 N/C
(d) 1200 N/C
Ans: c
3. The lines of force due to charged particles are

(a) always straight
(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
4. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is
Jo
(a) proportional to d
in
(b) inversely proportional to d

@
(c) inversely proportional to d

SP
(d) none of the

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B
above Ans: b
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C
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5. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .
(a) away from the charge
(b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the
above Ans: a
6. A field line and an equipotential surface are

(a) always parallel
(b) always at 90°
(c) inclined at any angle 0
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
7. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the existence of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) electric
field Ans: d
8. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the
capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become
zero Ans: b
9. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is

(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.
Jo
8F
in
Ans: a
@
SP
10. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having

P
(a) low permittivity

U
B
(b) high permittivity

TE
(c) permittivity same as that of air

C
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air

H
Ans: b
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el
eg
11. The units of capacitance are

ra
m
(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/W
b Ans: b
12. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is

(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50
uF
Ans: a
13. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net cararitance is

(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50
uF
Ans: b
14. A dielectric material must be

(a) resistor
(b) insulator
(c) good conductor
(d) semi
conductor Ans: b
15. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for

(a) D.C. only
(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as
A.C. Ans: a
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16. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by

in
(a) distance between plates

@
(6) area of plates

SP
(c) thickness of plates

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(d) all of the

B
above Ans: c
TE
C
17. Which of the following is not a vector ?

H
(a) Linear momentum

-T
el
(b) Angular momentum

eg
(c) Electric field

ra
(d) Electric
m
m
ra
eg
el
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H
C
TE
B
PU
SP
@
in
Jo
potential Ans: b
18. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being charged from a constant voltage
source are separated apart by means of insulated handles, then the
(a) Voltage across the plates increases
(b) voltage across the plates decreases
(c) charge on the capacitor decreases
(d) charge on the capacitor increases
Ans: b
19. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the
circuit because
(a) varying voltage produces the charg¬ing and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can
flow Ans: a
20. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times
greater than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ?
(a) 50
(6)
100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Ans:
b
21. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) Air capacitors have a blackband to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be con¬nected in the correct polarity
(c) Ceramic capacitors must be con¬nected in the correct polarity
(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF
Ans: b
22. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of

(a) 0.0002
Jo
(b) 0.002
in
(c) 0.02
@
(d)
SP
0.2
P
Ans:
U
B
a
TE
C
23. "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
H
amount oflcharge enclosed".

-T
The above statement is associated with

el
eg
(a) Coulomb's square law

ra
(b) Gauss's law

m
(c) Maxwell's first law
(d) Maxwell's second law
Jo
in
@
SP
P
U
B
TE
C
H
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eg
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m
Ans: b
24. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Ans: c
25. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor
remains unaffected ?
(a) Distance between plates
(b) Area of the plates
(c) Nature of dielectric
(d) Thickness of the
plates Ans: d
26. Which of the following statement is true ?

(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
Ans: b
27. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
(c) E = jtD
(d) E=
nD2
Ans: a
28. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in

(a) metal plates
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(b) dielectric
in

@
(d) none of the

SP
above Ans: b
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29. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
B
TE
(a) Glass
C
(b) Vacuum
H
-T
(c) Ceramics
el
(d) O
eg
il
ra
Ans:
m
m
ra
eg
el
-T
H
C
TE
B
PU
SP
@
in
Jo
c
30. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Silver plated mica capacitor
(d) None of the
above Ans: c
31. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Ans: b
32. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper
capacitor Ans: b
33. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
(d) none of the
above Ans: a
34. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) ze
ro
Ans: c
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in
35. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is

@
(a) zero
SP
(6) proportional to applied voltage

P U
(c) proportional to value of capacitance

B
TE
(d) both (b) and (c)

above Ans: a
C
H
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36. In a capacitive circuit

el
(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge

eg
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge

ra
m
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
Jo
in
@
SP
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B
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C
H
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m
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
37. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference
between plates will
(a) remain uncharged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) become
zero Ans: b
38. Capacitance increases with

(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Ans: a
39. A capacitor consists of

(a) two insulators separated by a con¬ductor
(b) two conductors separated by an in¬sulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors
only Ans: b
40. A gang condenser is a

(a) polarised capacitor
(6) variable capacitor
(c) ceramic capacitor
(d) none of the
above Ans:
41. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of

(a) tubes
(b) rolled foil
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(c) disc
in
(d) meshed
@
plates Ans: b
SP
P
42. Air capacitors are generally available in the range

U
B
(a) 10 to 400 pF
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(b) 1 to 20 pF
C
H
(c) 100 to 900 pF

-T
(d) 20 to 100
el
pF Ans: a
eg
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m
(a) henry
(b) ohm
(c) farad
(d) farad/
m Ans: c
44. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000
uF Ans: b
45. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong con¬nections,
which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any-of the
above Ans: c
46. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of
voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) C
V
Ans
:a
47. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by

(a) 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m)
(6) 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m)
Jo
(c) 8.854 x KT11 F/m

(d) 8.854 x 10"12 F/m
in
Ans: b
@
SP
48. The relative permittivity of free space is given by

P U
(a) 1
B
TE
(b) 10
C
(c) 100
H
(d) 1000
-T
Ans: a
el
eg
49. Electric field intensity is a quantity

ra
(a) scalar
m
(b) vector
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
50. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8
joules
Ans: d
51. The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is

(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
52. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) vo
lts
Ans: c
53. While testing a capacitor with ohm-metre, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final
resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) lea
ky
Jo
Ans: d
in
@
54. If a 6 (iF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will be

SP
(a) 800 uC
P
(b) 900 uC
U
B
(c) 1200 uC
TE
(d) 1600
C
uC Ans: c
H
-T
el
55. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
eg
(a) Ceramic capacitor

ra
(b) Paper capacitor

m
(c) Both will be of equal size
(d) None of the above
Jo
in
@
SP
P
U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Ans: a
56. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF
condenser to make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200
pF Ans:
b
57. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions.
Which will have more value of capacitance ?
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied
voltage Ans: a
58. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Pap
er Ans:
b
59. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolyt
ic Ans: d
3.73. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually

Jo
(a) 20 to 60 volts
in
(b) 200 to 1600 volts

@
(c) 2000 to 3000 volts

SP
(d) more than 10000

P
volts Ans:
U
B
TE
60. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly

C
(a) 200
H
(b) 100
-T
el
(c) 3 to 8
eg
(d) 1 to
ra
2 Ans:
m
m
ra
eg
el
-T
H
C
TE
B
PU
SP
@
in
Jo
c
61. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 1
0
Ans
:b
62. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity ?

(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolyt
ic Ans: d
63. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ?
(a) Air capacitor
(c) Paper capacitor
(d) None of the
above Ans: b

(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage
breakdown rating for a capacitor .
(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the
capacitance value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for
the combina¬tion
(d) A capacitor can store charge be¬cause it has a dielectric between two conductors
Ans: b
65. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of

(a) ± 5%
(b) ± 10%
Jo
(c) ± 15%
in
(d) ± 20%
@
Ans: b
SP
P
66. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ?
U
B
(a) Paper capacitor

TE
(b) Mica capacitor

C
(c) Ceramic disc capacitor

H
-T
(d) None of the

el
above Ans: b
eg
ra
67. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a
m
distance of 0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
68. The units of volume charge density are

(a) Coulomb/metre
(b) Coulomb/metre
(c) Coulomb/metre
(d) Coulomb/metr
e Ans: c
69. "The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any
closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface".
(a) Gauss's law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) Faraday's law
(d) Lenz's
law Ans: a
70. Dielectric strength of mica is

(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
(c) 50 to 200 kV/mm
(d) 300 to 500
kV/mm Ans: c
71. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by

(a) 0.1 to 0.4
(b) 0.5 to 1.0
(c) 2.0 to 4.0
(d) 5 to 100
Jo
Ans: d
in
@
72 capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.

SP
(a) Paper
P
(b) Air
U
B
(c) Mica
TE
(d) Electrolyt
C
H
ic Ans: b
-T
el
73. capacitors can be used only for D.C.

eg
(a) Air
ra
m
(b) Paper
(e) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
74. capacitors are used in transistor circuits.

(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolyt
ic Ans: a
75. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceram
ic Ans: b
76. The inverse of capacitance is called

(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastan
ce Ans: d
77. When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is

(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) zero
(d) any of the
above Ans: a
78. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the
material of high permittivity.
Jo
(a) smaller
in
(b) greater
@

SP
(d) none of the

P U
above Ans: b
B
TE
79. field is associated with the capacitor.

C
H
(a) Electric
-T
(b) Magnetic
el
(c) Both (a) and (b)

eg

ra
m
Ans: a
80. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged to a potential difference of 10,000 V.

The energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 50 joules
(b) 150 joules
(c) 200 joules
(d) 250
joules Ans:
d
81. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the in¬ternal
diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
Ans: b
82. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential
difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
(d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
Ans: d
83. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) potential gradient
(d) char
ge Ans:
d
84. The relative permittivity has the following units

Jo
(a) F/m
in
@
(b) m/F
SP
(c) Wb/m
P
(d) no
U
B
units Ans:
TE
c
C
H
85. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a
-T
charged body is known as

el
(a) pholoelectric effect

eg
ra
(b) chemical effect

m
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Jo
in
@
SP
P
U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Ans: d
86. A unit tube of flux is known as tube

(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
(d) None of the
above Ans: b
87. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is
called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge
density Ans: a
88. The unit of electric instensity is

(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2
/C
Ans:
89. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
(a) Faraday's laws
(b) Kirchhoff s laws
(c) Coulomb's laws
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
90. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit
cross section at that point.
(a) Electric intensity
Jo
(6) Magnetic flux density

in
(c) Electric flux

@
(d) None of the

SP
above Ans: a
PU
91. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point.
B
TE
(a) electric flux

C
(b) magnetic flux density

H

-T
el
(d) none of the

eg
above Ans: c
ra
m
92. Electric displacement is a quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
93. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.

(6) Electric flux
(c) Magnetic flux
(d) Magnetic flux
density Ans: a
94. The unit of dielectric strength is given by

(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/
V2
Ans: a
95. Dielectric strength with increasing thickness

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
96. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its

(a) capacitance
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) none of the
above Ans: a
Jo
in
97. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
@
(a) Inductance
SP
(b) Capacitance
P U
(c) Potential gradient

B
TE
(d) None of the

above Ans: b
C
H
-T
98. A capacitance of 100 fiF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 £2. The time
el
constant of the circuit is

eg
(a) 0.2 s
ra
(b) 0.4 s
m
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.
8s
Ans:
d
99. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient ismaximum at the surface of the

(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulat
or Ans: b
100. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor
charging voltage actually rises to percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 63.2, initial
(c) 63.2, final
(d) 37,
final Ans:
c
101. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the
charging current falls to percent of its initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 7
3
Ans
:a
102. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by

(a) plate area
(b) plate separation
(c) nature of dielectric
Jo

in
(e) all of the

@
above Ans:
SP
P U
103. A capacitor consists of two

B
(a) ceramic plates and one mica disc

TE
(b) insulators separated by a dielectric

C
H
(c) silver-coated insulators

-T
(d) conductors separated by an insulator

el
Ans: d
eg
ra
104. Permittivity is expressed in

m
(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/metre
(c) Weber/metre
Jo
in
@
SP
P
U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
(d) Weber/sq-
m Ans: b
105. Dielectric strength of a material depends on

(a) moisture content
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the
above Ans: d
106. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown
voltage is applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Ans: c
107. Which medium has the least dielectric strength ?

(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Quartz
(c) Glass
(d) A
ir
Ans:
d
108. 1 volt/metre is same as

(a) 1 metre/coulomb
(6) 1 newton metre
(c) 1 newton/metre
(d) 1
joule/coulomb
Ans: c
Jo
109. One volt is the same as

in
@
(a) one joule/coulomb

SP
(b) one coulomb/joule

P
(c) one coulomb

U
B
(d) one
TE
joule Ans:
C
a
H
-T
110. The capacitance between two plates increases with

el
eg
(a) shorter plate area and higher ap¬plied voltage

ra
(6) shorter plate area and shorter dis¬tance between them

m
(c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher,applied voltage
(d) larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
Ans: d
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
111. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging
circuit is given by
(a) CIR
(b) 1/RC
(c) RC
(d) R
IC
Ans:
c
112. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien's bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay's
bridge Ans: c
113. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactor
y Ans: b
114. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest
dimensions ?
(a) Aluminium foil capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(d) Paper
capacitor Ans: c
115. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then

(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
Jo
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the
charging body
in
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
@
SP
(d) it remains as
such Ans: b
P U
B
TE
116. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the
(a) charge of the charged conductor
C
H
(6) capacity of the charged conductor

-T
(c) potential of the charged conductor

el
eg
(d) all of the

ra
above Ans: b
m
117. Paper condenser is
(a) always polarised
(6) usually of fixed value
(c) electrolytic condenser
(d) a variable
condenser Ans: b
118. Mica capacitors are characterised by all of thte following except

(a) stable operation
(b) accurate value
(c) low leakage reactance
(d) low
losses Ans:
c
119. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4 mm apart. The
strength of electric field is
(a) 100 kV/m
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
(d) 2
kV/m
Ans: a
120. For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading should

(a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resis¬tance
(6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
(c) go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there
(d) not move at
all Ans: a
121. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is

(a) infinity
(b) few kilo ohms
Jo
(c) few megaahms

in
(d) ze
@
ro
SP
Ans:
P
d
U
B
TE

C
(a) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 \iF

H
(b) Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
-T
el
(c) Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity

eg
(d) Ceramic capacitors must be con¬nected in correct polarity

ra
Ans: c
m
123. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
(c) Mica capacitor
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
124. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide

(a) low capacitance
(b) fixed capacitance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) large value of
capacitance Ans: d
125. In order to remove static electricity from machinery

(a) construct insulated cabins
(b) insulate the machinery
(c) ground the framework
(d) humidify the
surroundings Ans: c
126. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges,
then this third charge will
(a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges
(b) remain in stable equilibrium
(c) not be in equilibrium
(d) be in unstable
equilibrium Ans: b
127. A region around a stationary electric charge has

(a) an electric field
(b) a magnetic field
(d) none of the
above Ans: a
128. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in

Jo
(a) insulation
in
(b) conductor
@
(c) outer sheath

SP
(d) uniformly all

P U
over Ans: a
B
TE
129. Dielectric strength of medium

C
H
(a) increases with rise in temperature

-T
(b) increases with moisture content

el
(c) is same for all insulating materials

eg

ra
m
Ans: d
130. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a
force of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulo
mb Ans: b
131. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in

(a) J/mm
(b) C/m2
(c) kV/mm
(d) N/m
m Ans:
c
132. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close
together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be
(a) 5 times smaller than before
(b) 5 times greater than before
(c) 10 times greater than before
(d) 25 times larger than before
Ans: d
133. Which is the most superior dielectric out of the following ?

(a) Air
(b) Glass
(c) Bakelite
(d) Pap
er Ans:
c
134. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength

(a) decreases
Jo
(b) increases
in
@
(c) reduces to zero

SP
(d) remain
P
unchanged Ans: a
U
B
TE
135. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather

C
(a) surface is moistened

H
(b) conductive dressing is done

-T
el
(c) oil compound dressing is done

eg
(d) talcum powder is sprayed on the surface

ra
Ans: b
m
136. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(d) Ceramic
capacitor Ans: c
137. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
(d) none of the
above Ans: a
138. A condenser suitable for D.C. only is

(a) metallic plate variable gang condenser
(b) metallic paper capacitor
(c) oil impregrated paper condenser
(d) poled aluminium electrolytic condenser
Ans: d
139. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in

(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) dielectric as well as metal plates
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
MAGNETISM AND ELECTROMAGNETISM
1. Tesla is a unit of
(a) field strength
(b) inductance
Jo
(c) flux density

in
(d) fl
@
SP
ux
P U
B
Ans:
TE
C
c
H
-T
el
2. A permeable substance is one

eg
(a) which is a good conductor

ra
m
(6) which is a bad conductor
(c) which is a strong magnet
(d) through which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Ans: d
3. The materials having low retentivity are suitable for making

(a) weak magnets
(b) temporary magnets
(c) permanent magnets
(d) none of the
above Ans: b
4. A magnetic field exists around

(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) moving
charges Ans: d
7. Ferrites are materials.

(a) paramagnetic
(b) diamagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
8. Air gap has eluctance as compared to iron or steel path

(a) little
(b) lower
(c) higher
(d) ze
ro
Ans:
b
Jo
9. The direction of magnetic lines of force is

in
(a) from south pole to north pole

@
(b) from north pole to south pole

SP
(c) from one end of the magnet to another

P
(d) none of the

U
B
above Ans: b
TE
C
10. Which of the following is a vector quantity ?

H
(a) Relative permeability

-T
el
(b) Magnetic field intensity

eg
(c) Flux density

ra
(d) Magnetic
m
m
ra
eg
el
-T
H
C
TE
B
PU
SP
@
in
Jo
potential Ans: b
11. The two conductors of a transmission line carry equal current I in opposite directions.
The force on each conductor is
(a) proportional to 7
(b) proportional to X
(c) proportional to distance between the conductors
(d) inversely proportional to
I Ans: b
12. A material which is slightly repelled by a magnetic field is known as

(a) ferromagnetic material
(b) diamagnetic material
(c) paramag>etic material
(d) conducting
material Ans: b
13. When an iron piece is placed in a magnetic field

(a) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to go away
from the piece
(b) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to pass
through the piece
(c) the magnetic field will not be affected
(d) the iron piece will
break Ans: b
14. Fleming's left hand rule is used to find

(a) direction of magnetic field due to current carrying conductor
(b) direction of flux in a solenoid
(c) direction of force on a current car¬rying conductor in a magnetic field
(d) polarity of a magnetic
pole Ans: c
15. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the magnetisation force is known as

(a) flux density
(b) susceptibility
Jo
(c) relative permeability

in
(d) none of the

@
above Ans: b
SP
P
16. Magnetising steel is normals difficult because

U
B
(a) it corrodes easily

TE
(6) it has high permeability

C
H
(c) it has high specific gravity

-T
(d) it has low

el
permeability Ans: d
eg
ra
m
17. The left hand rule correlates to
(a) current, induced e.m.f. and direc¬tion of force on a conductor
(b) magnetic field, electric field and direction of force on a conductor
(c) self induction, mutual induction and direction of force on a conductor
(d) current, magnetic field and direc¬tion of force on a conductor
Ans: d
18. The unit of relative permeability is

(a) henry/metre
(b) henry
(c) henry/sq. m
(d) it is
dimensionless Ans: d
19. A conductor of length L has current I passing through it, when it is placed parallel to a
magnetic field. The force experienced by the conductor will be
(a) zero
(b) BLI
(c) B2LI
(d) B
LI2
Ans: a
20. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional to
(a) radius of conductors
(b) current in one conductor
(c) product of current in two conduc¬tors
(d) distance between the conductors
Ans: d
21. Materials subjected to rapid reversal of magnetism should have

(a) large area oiB-H loop
(b) high permeability and low hysteresis loss
(c) high co-ercivity and high reten-tivity
(d) high co-ercivity and low
Jo
density Ans: b
in
@
22. Indicate which of the following material does not retain magnetism permanently.
SP
(a) Soft iron

P U
(b) Stainless steel

B
TE
(e) Hardened steel

C

H
Ans: a
-T
el
23. The main constituent of permalloy is

eg
(a) cobalt
ra
m
m
ra
eg
el
-T
H
C
TE
B
PU
SP
@
in
Jo
(b) chromium
(c) nickel
(d) tungste
n Ans: c
24. The use of permanent magnets is. not made in

(a) magnetoes
(6) energy meters
(c) transformers
(d) loud-
speakers Ans: c
25. Paramagnetic materials have relative permeability

(a) slightly less than uuity
(b) equal to unity
(c) slightly more than unity
(d) equal to that ferromagnetic mate rials
Ans: c
26. Degaussing is the process of

(a) removal of magnetic impurities
(b) removing gases from the materials
(c) remagnetising metallic parts
(d) demagnetising metallic parts
Ans:
27. Substances which have permeability less than the permeability of free space are known as
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) bipol
ar Ans: c
28. Two infinitely long parallel conductors in vacuum anf' separated 1 metre between centres
>rhen a current of 1 ampere flows thn. ugh each conductor, produce on each otLer a force of
(a) 2 x 1(T2 N/m)
Jo
(b) 2 x KT3 N/m

in
(c) 2 x 10"5 N/m

@
(d) 2x 1(T7 N/m)

SP
Ans: d
P U
B
29. In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents

TE
(a) voltage
C
H
(b) current
-T
(c) magnetic field

el
eg
ra
m
(d) direction of force on the conductor
Ans: c
30. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material ?

(a) Tungsten
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Nic
kel Ans:
d
31. Ferrites are a sub-group of

(a) non-magnetic materials
(b) ferro-magnetic materials
(c) paramagnetic materials
(d) ferri-magnetic
materials Ans: d
32. Gilbert is a unit of

(a) electromotive force
(b) magnetomotive force
(c) conductance
(d) permittivit
y Ans: b
33. The working of a meter is based on the use of a permanent magnet. In order to protect the
meter functioning from stray magnetic fields
(a) meter is surrounded by strong magnetic fields
(b) a soft iron shielding is used
(c) a plastic shielding is provided
(d) a shielding of anon-magnetic material is used
Ans: b
34. Reciprocal of permeability is

(a) reluctivity
Jo
(b) susceptibility
in
(c) permittivity
@
(d) conductanc
SP
e Ans: a
PU
35. The relative permeability is less than unity is case of

B
TE
(a) ferromagnetic materials

C
(b) ferrites
H
-T
(c) non-ferrous materials

el
(d) diamagnetic
eg
materials Ans: d
ra
m
36. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density ?
(a) weber
(b) lumens
(c) tesla
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
37. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been removed is known as
(a) permeance
(b) residual magnetism
(c) susceptance
(d) reluctan
ce Ans: b
38. Which of the following is not a unit of flux?

(a) Maxwell
(b) Telsa
(c) Weber
(d) All of the
above Ans: b
39. Which of the following is expected to have the maximum permeability ?

(a) Brass
(b) Copper
(c) Zinc
(d) Eboni
te Ans: d
40. One telsa is equal to

(a) 1 Wb/mm2
(b) 1 Wb/m
(c) 1 Wb/m2
(d) 1
mWb/m2
Ans: c
Jo
in
42. Out of the following statements, concerning an electric field, which statement is not true
@
?
SP
(a) The electric intensity is a vector quantity

P U
(b) The electric field intensity at a point is numerically equal to the force exerted upon a
B
charge placed at that point

TE
(c) An electric field is defined as a point in space at which an electric charge would
C
H
experienc* a force
-T
(d) Unit field intensity in the exertion of a force of one newton on a charge of one
el
coulomb
eg
Ans: b
ra
m
43. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the induced e.m.f. does not depend upon
(a) resistance of the coil
(b) motion of the magnet
(c) number of turns of the coil
(d) pole strength of the
magnet Ans: a
44. One maxwell is equal to

(a) 10 webers
(b) 10 webers
(c) 10 webers
(d) 10
webers Ans:
d
46. When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the terminals of a battery, the
field at the centre of the circle
(a) will be zero
(b) will be infinite
(c) will depend on the amount of e.m.f. applied
(d) will depend on the radius of the circle
Ans: d
47. Susceptibility is positive for

(a) non-magnetic substances
(b) diamagnetic substances
(c) ferromagnetic substances
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
48. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are separated by 20 mm,
the force per metre of length of each conductor will be
(a) 100 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 1 N
Jo
(d) 0.1
in
N Ans:
@
d
SP
P
49. A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a current of 10 A and is situated at right angles to a
U
B
magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T ; the force on the conductor will be
TE
(a) 240 N
C
(6) 24 N
H
(c) 2.4 N
-T
el
(d) 0.24
eg
N Ans: c
ra
m
50. A 200 turn coil having an axial length of 30 mm and a radius of 10 mm is pivoted in a
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T. If the coil carries a current of 0.5 A, the torque
acting on the coil will be
(a) 4.8 N-m
(b) 0.48 N-m
(e) 0.048 N-m
(d) 0.0048 N-
m
[Hint. Torque = 2BIlNr N-
m] Ans: c
51. The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of 1A flows through the coil. If the length of
the magnet circuit is 200 mm, what is the magnetic field strength ?
(a) 2500 AT/m
(b) 250 AT/m
(c) 25 AT/m
(d) 2.5
AT/m Ans:
b
52. What is the magnitude and the direction of force per 1.1m length of a pair of conductors of
a direct current linecarrying 10 amperes and spaced 100 mm apart ?
(a) 22 x 10"8 N
(b) 22 x 10"7 N
(c) 22 x 10-6 N
(d) 22 x 10"5 N
Ans: d
53. A square cross-sectional magnet has a pole strength of 1 x 10 Wb and cross sectional area
of 20 mm x 20 mm. What is the strength at a distance of 100 mm from the unit pole in air ?
(a) 63.38 N/Wb
(b) 633.8 N/Wb
(c) 6338 N/Wb
(d) 63380 N/Wb
Ans: c
56. The unit of flux is the same as that of

Jo
(a) reluctance
in
(b) resistance
@
(c) permeance
SP
(d) pole
P
U
strength Ans: d
B
TE
57. Unit for quantity of electricity is

C
H
(a) ampere-hour
-T
(b) watt
el
eg
(c) joule
ra
(d) coulomb
m
Ans: d
58. The Biot-savart's law is a general modification of

(a) Kirchhoffs law
(b) Lenz's law
(c) Ampere's law
(d) Faraday's
laws Ans: c
61. The most effective and quickest may of making a magnet from soft iron is by
(a) placing it inside a coil carrying current
(b) induction
(c) the use of permanent magnet
(d) rubbing with another magnet
Ans: a
62. The commonly used material for shielding or screening magnetism is

(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) soft iron
(d) bra
ss Ans:
c
63. If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended magnetic needle, the
magnetic needle shall start rotating with a velocity
(a) less than that of disc but in opposite direction
(b) equal to that of disc and in the same direction
(c) equal to that of disc and in the opposite direction
(d) less than that of disc and in the same direction
Ans: d
64. A permanent magnet

(a) attracts some substances and repels others
(b) attracts all paramagnetic substan¬ces and repels others
Jo
(c) attracts only ferromagnetic sub¬stances

in
(d) attracts ferromagnetic substances and repels all others

@
Ans: a
SP
P
65. The retentivity (a property) of material is useful for the construction of

U
B
(a) permanent magnets

TE
(b) transformers
C
(c) non-magnetic substances

H
-T
(d) electromagnet
el
s Ans: a
eg
ra
66. The relative permeability of materials is not constant.

m
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) insulati
ng Ans: c
67. The materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than air.
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) dielectr
ic Ans: c
68. Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard materials is more in shape as compared to
magnetically soft materials.
(a) circular
(b) triangular
(c) rectangular
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
69. A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two piece of same length, the
magnetic moment of each piece will be
(a) M
(6) M/2
(c) 2 M
(d) M
/4
Ans:
b
70. A keeper is used to

(a) change the direction of magnetic lines
(b) amplify flux
(c) restore lost flux
Jo
(d) provide a closed path for

in
flux Ans: d
@
SP
71. Magnetic moment is a

P
(a) pole strength

U
B
(6) universal constant

TE
(c) scalar quantity

C
(d) vector
H
quantity Ans: d
-T
el
eg
72. The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will affect
ra
(a) reluctance of conductor

m
(b) resistance of conductor
Jo
in
@
SP
P
U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
(c) (a) and (b) b >th in the same way
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
73. The uniform magnetic field is

(a) the field of a set of parallel conductors
(b) the field of a single conductor
(c) the field in which all lines of mag¬netic flux are parallel and equidis¬tant
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
74. The magneto-motive force is

(a) the voltage across the two ends of exciting coil
(b) the flow of an electric current
(c) the sum of all currents embraced by one line of magnetic field
(d) the passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil
Ans: c
75. What will be the current passing through the ring shaped air cored coil when number of
turns is 800 and ampere turns are 3200 ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans
:b
76. What will be the magnetic potential difference across the air gap of 2 cm length in
magnetic field of 200 AT/m ?
(a) 2 AT
(b) 4 AT
(c) 6 AT
(d) 10
AT
Ans: b
Jo

in
@
(a) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is lower than its outside surface
SP
(6) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero

P
(e) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is greater than its outside surface
U
B
(d) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is same as on its outside surface Ans: d
TE
C
78. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with fixed number of
H
turns. How does the mag

-T
netic induction B varies inside the coil if an iron core is threaded into coil without
el
eg
dimensional change of coil ?

ra
(a) Decreases
m
(b) Increases
(c) Remains same
(d) First increases and then decreases depending on the depth of iron in¬sertion
Ans: b

(a) decreases with increasing cross sectional area of material
(6) increases with increasing cross-sec-tional area of material
(c) does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material
(d) any of the
above Ans: a
80. The initial permeability of an iron rod is

(a) the highest permeability of the iron rod
(b) the lowest permeability of the iron rod
(c) the permeability at the end of the iron rod
(d) the permeability almost in non-magnetised state
Ans: d
82. How does the magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field ?
(a) It assures a position right angle to magnetic field
(b) It starts rotating
(c) It assures a position which follows a line of magnetic flux
(d) None of the
above Ans: c
83. In a simple magnetic field the strength of magnet flux

(a) is constant and has same value in energy part of the magnetic field
(6) increases continuously from initial value to final value
(c) decreases continuously from initial value to final value
(d) first increases and then decreases till it becomes zero
Ans: d
84. The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as

(a) a line vertical to the flux lines
Jo
(b) the mean length of a ring shaped coil

in
(c) a line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field

@
SP
(d) a line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path
Ans: d
P U
B
85. The bar magnet has

TE
(a) the dipole moment

C
H
(b) monopole moment

-T
(c) (a) and (b) both

el
(d) none of the

eg
above Ans: a
ra
m
86. Which of the following materials are dia-magnetic ?
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Silver and copper
(d) Ir
on
Ans:
c
87. Which of the following type of materials are not very important for engineering
applications ?
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
(d) None of the
above Ans: c
88. The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies between

(a) KT3 and 1CT6
(b) 1CT3 and 1CT7
(c) KT4 and KT8
(d) 10"2 and
KT5 Ans: a
89. For which of the following materials the saturation value is the highest ?
(a) Ferromagnetic materials
(6) Paramagnetic materials
(c) Diamagnetic materials
(d) Ferrit
es Ans: d
90. The magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetisation because of

(a) orbital motion of electrons
(b) spin of electrons
Jo
(c) spin of nucleus

in
(d) either of these

@
(e) all of the

SP
above Ans: c
P U
B
91. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero ?
TE
(a) Diamagnetic materials

C
H
(b) Ferrimagnetic materials

-T
(c) Antiferromagnetic materials

el
(d) Antiferrimagnetic
eg
materials Ans: c
ra
m
92. The attraction capacity of electromagnet will increase if the
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
(a) core length increases i
(b) core area increases
(c) flux density decreases
(d) flux density
increases Ans: d

(a) The conductivity of ferrites is better than ferromagnetic materials
(b) The conductivity of ferromagnetic materials is better than ferrites
(c) The conductivity of ferrites is very high
(d) The conductivity of ferrites is same as that of ferromagnetic materials
Ans: a
96. Temporary magnets are used in

(a) loud-speakers
(b) generators
(c) motors
(d) all of the
above Ans: d
97. Main causes of noisy solenoid are

(a) strong tendency of fan out of lami-nations at the end caused by repul¬sion among
magnetic lines of force
(b) uneven bearing surface, caused by dirt or uneven wear between moving and
stationary parts
(c) both of above
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
99. Strength of an electromagnet can be increased by

(a) increasing the cross-sectional area
(b) increasing the number of turns
(c) increasing current supply
(d) all above
methods Ans:
Jo
in
100. Core of an electromagnet should have

@
(a) low coercivity

SP
(6) high susceptibility

P

U
B
(d) none of the

TE
above Ans: c
C
H
101. Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed by

-T
el
(a) heating
eg
(b) hammering
ra
m
(c) by inductive action of another magnet
(d) by all above
methods Ans: d
MAGNETIC CIRCUIT
1. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to

(a) increase m.m.f.
(b) increase the flux
(c) prevent saturation
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
2. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is

(a) less than one
(b) more than one
(c) more than 10
(d) more than 100 or
1000 Ans: d
3. The unit of magnetic flux is

(a) henry
(b) weber
(c) ampereturn/weber
(d) ampere/metr
e Ans: b
4. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to in an electric circuit.

(a) resistance
(b) resistivity
Jo
(c) conductivity
in
@
(d) conductanc
SP
e Ans: c
P U
5. Point out the wrong statement.

B
TE
Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it

C
(a) lowers their power efficiency

H
(b) increases their cost of manufacture

-T
el
(c) leads to their increased weight

eg
(d) produces fringing

ra
m
Ans: a

(a) 1
(b) 1 H/m
(c) 1/4JI
(d) 4n x 10-'
H/m Ans: a
7. Permanent magnets are normally made of

(a) alnico alloys
(b) aluminium
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought
iron Ans: a
8. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by percent.

(a) 25
(b) 5
0
(c)41
.4
(d) 100
Ans: c
9. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores
which have permeability and hystersis loss.
(a) high, high
(b) low, high
(c) high, low
(d) low,
low Ans:
c
10. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum

(a) at 63.2% of its maximum steady value
Jo
(b) at the start of the current flow

in
(c) after one time constant

@
(d) near the final maximum value of current

SP
Ans: b
P U
B
11. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
TE
(a) time constant remains unchanged

C
H
(b) initial rate of rise of current is doubled

-T
(c) final steady current is doubled

el
eg
(d) time constant is

ra
halved Ans: a
m
12. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is Vs
(a) 50
(b) 2
0 (c)
0.05
(d) 500
Ans:
b
13. A material for good magnetic memory should have

(a) low hysteresis loss
(b) high permeability
(c) low retentivity
(d) high
retentivity Ans: d
14. Conductivity is analogous to

(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) permeability
(d) inductan
ce Ans: c
15. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to

(a) rapid reversals of its magnetisation
(b) flux density lagging behind magnetising force
(c) molecular friction
(d) it high
retentivity Ans: d
16. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which
have retentivity and coercivity.
(a) low, high
(b) high, high
(c) high, low
Jo
(d) low,
in
low Ans:
@
b
SP
17. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the hysteresis loss in this material
P U
will be
B
(a) zero
TE
(b) small
C
H
(c) large
-T
(d) none of the

el
eg
above Ans: c
ra
m
18. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because
(a) it has good residual magnetism
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
(b) its hysteresis loop has large area
(c) its mechanical strength is high
(d) its mechanical strength is
low Ans: a
19. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has

(a) low co-ercivity
(b) low retentivity
(c) low hysteresis loss
(d) high co-
ercivity Ans: c
20. Conductance is analogous to

(a) permeance
(b) reluctance
(c) flux
(d) inductan
ce Ans: a
21. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
(a) reluctivity
(c) permeance
(d) reluctan
ce Ans: d
22. The unit of retentivity is

(a) weber
(b) weber/sq. m
(c) ampere turn/metre
(d) ampere
turn Ans: b
23. Reciprocal of reluctance is

(a) reluctivity
Jo
(b) permeance
in
(c) permeability
@
SP
(d) susceptibilit
y Ans: b
P
U
B
24. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared
TE
with which parameter of electrical circuit ?

C
H
(a) E.m.f.
-T
(b) Current
el
(c) Current density

eg
(d) Conductivity
ra
m
Ans: b
25. The unit of reluctance is

(a) metre/henry
(b) henry/metre
(c) henry
(d) 1/henr
y Ans: d
26. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
(a) ferrites have high resistance
(b) ferrites are magnetic
(c) ferrites have low permeability
(d) ferrites have high hysteresis
Ans: d
27. Hysteresis loss least depends on

(a) volume of material
(b) frequency
(c) steinmetz co-efficient of material
(d) ambient temperature
Ans: d
28. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce

(a) copper loss
(b) eddy current loss
(c) hysteresis loss
(d) all of the
above Ans: b
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through
the coil changes is known as
Jo
(a) self-inductance
in
(b) mutual inductance

@
SP
(c) series aiding inductance

P
(d) capacitan
U
B
TE
ce Ans: a
C
H
-T
2. As per Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is induced in a conductor

el
whenever it
eg
ra
m
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field Ans:
3. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistan
ce Ans: a
4. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase
(c) when more area for each turn is provided
(d) when permeability of the core increases
Ans: a
5. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,

(a) lesser its weber-turns
(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
(c) greater the flux produced by it
(d) longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
Ans: d
6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil.
The inductance of the coil will
Jo
(a) increase
in
(b) decrease
@
(c) remain the same

SP
(d) initially increase and then decrease

P
Ans: b
U
B
TE
7. An open coil has

C
(a) zero resistance and inductance

H
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance

-T
el
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance

eg
(d) zero resistance and high inductance

ra
m
Ans: b
8. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadruple
d Ans: b
9. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied
voltage Ans: c
10. The direction of incViced e.m.f. can be found by

(a) Laplace's law
(b) Lenz's law
(c) Fleming's right hand rule
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage
law Ans: b
11. Air-core coils are practically free from

(a) hysteresis losses
(b) eddy current losses
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
12. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the

(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
Jo
(d) rate of change of flux-

in
linkages Ans: d
@
SP
13. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils depends on

P
(a) permeability of the core

U
B
(b) the number of their turns

TE
(c) cross-sectional area of their com-mon core

C
H
(d) all of the

-T
above Ans: d
el
eg
14. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because

ra
m
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertf-cally
Ans: b
15. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is
due to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulo
mb Ans: b
16. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?

(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
(d) All of the
above Ans: b
17. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to

(a) voltage across the inductance
(b) magnetic field
(d) neither (a) nor
(b) Ans: b
18. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
(d) All of the
above Ans: b
Jo
19. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?

in
(a) Apparent power is zero

@
(b) Relative power is.zero

SP
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero

P U
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
B
Ans: c
TE
C
20. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?

H
-T
(a) Ohm
el
(b) Henry
eg
(c) Ampere turns

ra
m
(d) Webers/metr
e Ans: b
21. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current
must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4
A/s
Ans: d
22. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core
length is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the in ductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24m
H
(d)48m
H Ans:
a
23. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is
0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12
mH
Ans: c
24. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If
the two coils are connected in series aiding, the total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
Jo
(d) 48
in
mH
@
Ans: b
SP
P
25. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increased to 400
U
turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be
B
TE
(a) 6 mH
C
(b) 14 mH
H
(c) 24 mH
-T
el
(d) 48
eg
mH
ra
Ans: d
m
26. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If
the two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24
H
Ans: c
27. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling
will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d)
zero
Ans:
b
28. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance
is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000
ohms Ans: d
29. A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1
tesla with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 5
0V
Ans:
c
30. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) induced current
Jo
(b) charge
in
(c) energy
@
(d) induced
SP
e.m.f. Ans: c
P U
B
31. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla.
TE
The force on the conductor will be nearly

C
H
(a) 50 N
-T
(b) 120 N
el
(c) 240 N
eg
ra
(d) 480
m
N Ans:
b
32. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Ans: a
33. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
(d) none of the
above Ans: c
34. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in

flux which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02
Wb Ans:
d
35. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time
interval must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5
s
Ans:
c
36. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
(a) Air core
Jo
(b) Laminated iron core

in
(c) Iron core

@
(d) Powdered iron

SP
core Ans: a
P U
B
37. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of
TE
inductance is
C
(a) 3500 mH
H
(b) 350 mH
-T
el
(c) 250 mH
eg
(d) 150
ra
mH Ans:
m
b
38. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75
uH
Ans: b
39. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in a coil.

The value of inductance is
(a) 5 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H
(d) 10
H
Ans: c
40. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and
capacitance Ans: b
41. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in

(a) unchanged inductance
(b) increased inductance
(c) zero inductance
(d) reduced
inductance Ans: d
42. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil
is not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
Jo
(d) the resistance of magnetic path

in
Ans: b
@
SP
43. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving.
P
(a) Yes
U
B
(b) N
TE
o
C
Ans:
H
-T
44. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator
el
eg
rule.
ra
(a) Yes
m
m
ra
eg
el
-T
H
C
TE
B
PU
SP
@
in
Jo
(b) N
Ans:
o
a
45. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) N
o
Ans:
b
46. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) N
o
Ans:
a
47. When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines of flux,
the force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) N
o
Ans:
b
48. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts
when the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) N
o
Ans:
b
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SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Unit I: Elementary Concepts
SESSION I MCQ
1 Materials with lots of free electrons are called…..
A. Conductors B. insulators
C. Semiconductors D. Filters
2. The unit of electrical charge is the…..
A. Coulomb B. joule
C. Volt D. watt
3. Current flows in a circuit when…..
A. a switch is opened
B. a switch is closed
C. the switch is either open or closed

D. there is no voltage
4. Which of the following is not a type of energy source?

A. Generator
B. Rheostat
C. solar cell
D. Battery
5. Flow of electron is called as……..
A. voltage
B. current
Jo
C. capacitance
in
@
D. inductance
SP
6. Opposition to the flow of current called as …….

P U
B
A. resistance B. current C. voltage D. capacitance

TE
C
7. A material that does not allow current under normal conditions is a(n)…..
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
A. Insulator B. conductor
C. Semiconductor D. valence
8. A multimeter measures….
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. current, voltage, and resistance
9. An ammeter is an electrical instrument used to measure…..
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
SESSION 2 MCQ
1. For which of the following substances, resistance decreases with temperature?
1. Copper
2. Platinum
3. Mercury
4. Carbon
Answer: 4
2. Determine the length of a copper wire that has resistance of 0.172  and a cross-sectional area
of 1 x 10-4 m2. The resistivity of copper is 1.72 x 10-8  m.
(a) 0.1 m
(b) 10 m
Jo
(c) 100 m
in
(d) 1000 m
@
Ans-D
SP
P U
B
TE
SESSION 3 MCQ
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
1. Unit of RTC ……
a. Ampere
b. /˚c
c. ohm
d. ˚c
Ans: b
SESSION 4 MCQ
1. Unit of insulation resistance.

A. Ohm/ meter
B.Amperes
C. Ohm
D. none of these.
Ans: C
2 .Ri = ………
a. . Ri = V/I
 R 
b. Ri =  ln  2 
2 l  R1 
c. Ri = ρ/ 2пl * R1 *R2
d. Ri = ρ/ 2пl * R1 /R2
Ans: b
SESSION 5 MCQ
1. The unit of power is _______

A. watt per second
B. Joule
Jo
C. Kilojoules
in
D. joule per second

@
SP
Answer: D
P
U
B
TE
2.3730 watts = ______h.p.

C
A. 5
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
B. 2
C. 746
D. 6
Answer: A
3. Power is a measure of the _______
A. rate of change of momentum

B. force which produces motion
C. change of energy
D. rate of change of energy
Answer: D
4. 1.5 kW = ______ watts
A. 1500
B. 150
C. 15000
D. 15
Answer: A
5. Name the physical quantity which is equal to the product of force and velocity.
A. Work
B. Energy
C. Power
D. acceleration
Answer: C
Jo
in
SESSION 6 MCQ
@
SP
1. Work done = Force x _______

P
A. Distance
U
B. Acceleration
B
TE
C. Velocity
C
D. Speed
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Answer: A
2. The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a
measure of ___________.
A. Current
B. Potential difference
C. Resistance
D. Power
Answer: B
3.1 joule = 1 _______

A. N m2
B.
C. N m
D. N2 m2
Answer: B
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Unit II: Electromagnetism
SESSION : 07 MCQ
1. What are the effects of moving a closed wire loop through a magnetic field?
a. A voltage is induced in the wire.
b. A current is induced in the wire.
c. The polarity across the wire depends on the direction of motion.
d. All of the above
2. The current going away from the observer is represented by a
a) Dot
b) Cross
c) Line
d) Circle
3. The current flowing towards the observer is represented by
a) Dot
b) Cross
c) Line
d) Circle
4. A solenoid of 100cm is wound on a brass tube. If the current through the coil is 0.5A, the
number of turns necessary over the solenoid to produce a field strength of 500AT/m at the centre
of coil are
a) 500
b) 1700
c) 100
Jo
in
d) 1000
@
SP
5. Basic source of magnetism is ______________.

a) Charged particles alone
P U
b) Movement of charged particles

B
c) Magnetic dipoles
TE
d) Magnetic domains
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
SESSION : 08 MCQ
1. Permeability is the inverse equivalent of which electrical term?
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Resistance
d. Conductance
2.What is the flux density of a magnetic field whose flux is 3000 microWb and cross-sectional
area is 0.25 m2 ?
a. 12,000 microT
b. 83,330 T
c. 0 T
d More information is needed in order to find flux density.
3.How much flux is there in a magnetic field when its flux density is 5000 T and its cross-
sectional area is 300 mm2 ?
a. 16.67 mWb
b 5.0 microWb
c. 3.0 mWb
d. 1.5 microWb
SESSION : 09 MCQ
1. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to__________in an electric circuit
a) reluctivity
b) resistivity
c) conductivity
d)conductance
Jo
in
2. Mmf in magnetic circuit is analogous to_________in electric circuit.

@
a)resistance
SP
P
b)charge
U
B
TE
c)emf
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
d)reactance
3. Reluctance in magnetic circuit is analogous to_________in electric circuit.
a)resistance
b)charge
c)emf
d)reactance
4.Flux density in magnetic circuit is analogous to_________in electric circuit.
a)charge density
b)charge
c)current density
d)electron density
5.Permeance in magnetic circuit is analogous to_________in electric circuit.
a)permittivity
b)conductance
c)resistance
d)reactance
SESSION : 10 MCQ
Jo
in
1. There will be force of attraction between two current-carrying conductors if the currents are
@
SP
in __________ direction.
P U
a. Same
B
b. Opposite
TE
c. None of these
C
H
d. Cannot say
-T
el
eg
ra
m
2. The direction of induced current is obtained by
a) Fleming's left-hand rule

b) Maxwell's right-hand thumb rule
c) Ampere's rule
d) Fleming's right-hand rule
SESSION : 11 MCQ
1) The force experienced by a current carrying conductor lying parallel to magnetic field is
a) BIl
b) BIlsinθ
c) HiL
d)zero
2) Fleming's right hand rule shows the direction of induced current when a conductor moves in a
magnetic field. The First finger represents the
a) direction of the Field.
b) direction of induced current
c) direction of induced emf
d)none of these
SESSION : 12 MCQ
1. In the phenomenon of mutual induction
a) Magnetic coupling takes place between two coils carrying a current.
b) The unit of the coefficient of coupling k is Henry.
c) The coefficient of coupling k can have any value from 0 to ∞.
d) Mutual inductance M is proportional to the sum of self-inductances of coils
Jo
in
2) If the current in an inductor doubles, the energy stored in the inductor will
@
(a) Remain the same,

SP
(b) Double,
P
(c) Quadruple,
U
(d) Halve.
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
m
ra
eg
el
-T
H
C
TE
B
PU
SP
@
in
Jo
Unit III: Single Phase Transformers and
Electrostatics
SESSION 13 MCQ
1 The value of flux used in a EMF equation of a transformer is ----------------

a) R.m.s
b) Average
c) Maximum
d) Instantaneous
2 For 400V/100V transformer, the secondary turns are 16 then the primary turns are --------
a) 4
b) 64
c) 16
d) 8
3 When the turns ratio of transformer is 20 and primary ac voltage is 12V, the secondary
voltage is ---------------
a) 12 V
b) 120 V
c) 240 V
d) 2400 V
4 For a transformer the turns ratio is 10 : 1 then its primary resistance of 10 Ω will be ----------
When referred to secondary.
a) 1 Ω
b) 0.1 Ω
c) 0.01 Ω
d) 10 Ω
5 The Emf Equation of transformer in secondary side is ----------
a) 4.44fϕmN1
b) 4.44fϕmN2
Jo
c) 4.44fϕmN1N2
in
d) 4.44fϕmN2
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
SESSION 14 MCQ
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
1A transformer has 200 W iron losses at full load. The iron loss at half full load is --------
a) 100 W
b) 200 W
c) 300 W
d) 400 W
2Full load copper loss in transformer is 1600 W. At half load the loss will be --------------
a) 400
b) 1600
c) 3200
d) 6400
3Hysteresis loss in a transformer depends upon -----------

a) Voltage alone
b) Both voltage and frequency
c) Frequency alone.
d) Square of voltage alone.
SESSION 15 MCQ
1) For better performance of transformer, the regulation must be -------------

a) High
b) Infinite
c) Very low
d) None of these
2) At what power factor, the voltage regulation of a transformer can be zero.

a) Leading power factor
b) Lagging power factor
c) Unity power factor
d) Zero power factor
3) For an Ideal transformer efficiency and regulation should be-

Jo
in
a) Low, high
@
b) High, low
SP
P
c) Both high
U
B
d) Both low
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
SESSION 16 MCQ
1) Autotransformer works on the principle of

a) Self-induction
b) Mutual induction
c) Self and mutual induction
d) None of these.
2) An advantage of autotransformer is
a) Copper saving
b) Efficiency is 100%
c) Highly stable voltage
d) None of these
3) An autotransformer-----------------
a) Increases the iron loss
b) Converts single phase to three Phase.
c) Uses common winding between single phase and three phase
d) None
4) In ---------------------of the following autotransformer is used.

a) Traction
b) Dimmerstat
c) Lathe machine
d) Tube light
Jo
in
@
SP
P
SESSION 17MCQ
U
B
TE
1).A capacitor is charged to 100mC and the energy stored is 10J then the capacitor value is-
C
-------------
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
a) 50µF
b) 5µF
c) 0.5µF
d) 500µF
2) Two capacitor 3µF and 6µF are in parallel and combination is connected across 100V
supply then the charge on 6µF is -----------------µC
a) 300
b) 600
c) 1200
d) 100
3) A capacitor is charged to 100mC and the energy stored is 10J then the capacitor value is--
e) 50µF
f) 5µF
g) 0.5µF
h) 500µF
4) A capacitor is made up of two dielectric having constant 2 and 5 with thickness 1mm and
2 mm respectively. If area of cross section is 50 cm2then capacitance is -------------------
a) 110.075pF
b) 49.188pF
c) 8.854µF
d) 2.03nF
5) The ability of an insulating medium to resists its breakdown is called its----------------

SESSION 18 MCQ
Jo
in
1 When fully charged capacitor to V is discharged through R, the expression for the capacitor
@
voltage is -----------
SP
P U
a)
B
TE
b)
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
c)
d)
2 When a capacitor ‘C’ is charge through resistance R then the initial rate of rise of
capacitor voltage is ------------
a) VRC
b) V/RC
c) VR/C
d) VC/R
3 Two capacitor 2 µF and 8 µF are in series and the combination is connected across 50V ,
then the energy stored in 8 µF capacitor is ----------µJ
a) 200
b) 100
c) 400
d) 2000
4.A capacitor of 1µF, is charged to 100 V. It is disconnected and then connected across another
1µF capacitor. Then the new voltage across them is --------------------
a) 100V
b) 50V
c) 150V
d) 0V
5.A capacitor of 1µF is charged through resistor of 1MΩ from a 100 V source then voltage
across capacitor after 2 sec is--------------------
a) 36.8 V
b) 63.212V
c) 86.466V
d) 100V
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
H
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el
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ra
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Unit IV: AC Fundamentals
SESSION 19 MCQ
Q1)The another name for rms current or rms voltage is-
a. Crest value
b. Effective value ,virtual value
c. Peak value
d. None
2) The ratio of form factor is-
a. RMS Value/AVG Value

b. AVG Value/Peak Value
c. RMS Value/MAX Value
d. MAX Value/RMS Value
Q3) The ratio of Peak factor is-
a. RMS Value/AVG Value

b. AVG Value/Peak Value
c. RMS Value/MAX Value
d. MAX Value/RMS Value
Q4 ) The time taken by alternating quantity to complete its cycle is known as
a. Waveform
b. Cycle
c. Time period
d. Frequency
Q 5) The graph of instantaneous value of an alternating quantity plotted against time is
a. Waveform
Jo
b. Cycle
in
c. Time period
@
d. Frequency
SP
P
U
B
TE
C
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
SESSION 20 MCQ
Q 1) The RMS value of current or voltage is __________ times the maximum value of voltage or
current
a. 0.637
b. 0.707
c. 1.414
d. 1.11
Q2)The another name for rms current or rms voltage is-
e. Crest value
f. Effective value ,virtual value
g. Peak value
h. None
Q3) The average value of voltage is -----times of peak voltage.
a. 0.637
b. 0.642
c. 0.14
d. 1.11
Q4) A Resultant current is made up of two components, a 10A DC component and a sinusoidal
component of max value 14.14A.the average value of resultant current is ----A.
a. 0
b. 24.14
c. 10
d. 4.14
Q5) The RMS Value of sinusoidal AC Current is equal to its value at an angle of ----- degree.
Jo
a. 60
in
b. 45
@
c. 30
SP
d. 90
P U
B
TE
C
SESSION 21 MCQ
H
-T
el
eg
ra
m
Q1) From the voltage equation, eA=Em sin100πt & eB=Em sin (100 πt+ π/6), it is obvious that-
a. A leads B by 30 degree
b. B achieves its maximum value 1/600 second before A
c. B lags behind A
d. A achieves its zero value 1/600 second before B
Q 2) The relation between Phasor diagram of voltage and current in pure inductive circuit is
a. Current lags voltage by 900

b. Voltage lags current by 900
c. Current lags voltage by 1800
d. Voltage lags current by 1800
Q 3) The relation between Phasor diagram of voltage and current in pure capacitive circuit is
a. Current lead voltage by 900

b. Voltage lead current by 900
c. Current lags voltage by 900
d. Voltage lags current by 1800
SESSION 22 MCQ
Q 1) I1= 10ej50&I2=5e-j100 in 1 phase the addition of current is given by
a. 6.196<26.2
b. 14.546<60
c. 2<150
d. 25<24
Q2) A complex current wave is given by-i=5+5sin 100 πt. Its average value is-
a. 10
Jo
b. 0
in
@
c. Root50
SP
d. 5
P U
Q 3) The resultant of 3 voltages are e1,e2 ,e3 are if e1=20sinwt e2=30sin(wt-π/4)

B
e3=40cos(wt+π/6)
TE
C
H
a. 25.10<32.33
-T
el
eg
ra
m
b. 20.18<31.32
c. 32.68<68.32
d. 32.32<25.10
Q 4) The voltage of 200 < + 450 V is applied to R = 5 Ω then the current is ___________A
a) 1000<450
b) 40 < + 450
c) 40<00
d) 1000<00
Q 5) The division of 10<600 and (3+j4) is ____________
a) 2< -173.130
b) 2<6.870
c) 50<113.13010
d) 2<113.130
SESSION 23 MCQ
Q 1) An instantaneous of an alternating current having RMS value of 7.01 A at 1200 is
a) 4.33 A
b) 6.123 A
c) 8.66 A
d) 3.061 A
Q2) An alternating voltage is given by –v=30sin314t,the time taken by the voltage to reach 30v
for first time is-
a. 0.02sec
Jo
b. 0.1sec
in
@
c. 0.03sec
SP
d. 0.005sec
P U
Q3) An alternating voltage is given by v=20sin157t.the frequency of alternating voltage is

B
TE
a. 50Hz
C
H
b. 25Hz
-T
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m
c. 100Hz
d. 75Hz
Q 4) The value of capacitor is 50µf then capacitive reactance is
a. 60.60 Ω
b. 60.99 Ω
c. 63.66 Ω
d. 59.22 Ω
Q 5) An alternating current is given by i= 14.14sin377t , the time taken to reach 10 A is
a. 2.5 ms
b. 2.083 ms
c. 3 ms
d. 2.11 ms
SESSION 24 MCQ
Q 1) Z= 0 + j 50 Ω represents ---------------- circuit
a) Purely resistive
b) Purely inductive
c) Purely capacitive
d) None of these
Q 2) For a d.c. supply capacitive reactance is _____________
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) One
Jo
d) Negative
in
@
Q 3) Average power consumption in pure capacitor is _____________

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a) Zero
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b) Infinite
B
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c) One
C
d) Negative
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Q 4) The voltage of 200 < + 450 V is applied to R = 5 Ω then the current is ___________A
e) 1000<450
f) 40 < + 450
g) 40<00
h) 1000<00
Q 5) If pure R and Pure L are connected in series, the current will ___________ the applied
voltage
a) Lead
b) In phase with
c) A lag
d) None of these
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in
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B
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C
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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING D. nucleus
Ans. A
UNIT IA Que. The resistance of human body is around
THEORY QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH) A. 5 ohms
B. 25 ohms
Que. Two wires A and B of same material and C. 250 ohms
length L and 2L have radius r and 2r D. 1000 ohms
respectively. The ratio of their specific Ans. D
resistance will be
A. 1:1 Que. One commercial unit of energy equals
B. 1:2 A. 500 watt seconds
C. 1:4 B. one watt hour
D. 1:8 C. one Kilowatt hour
Ans. A D. ten kilowatt hour
Ans. C
Que. Two wires A and B of same material and
length L and 2L have radius r and 2r Que. One coulomb charge equals the charge
respectively. The ratio of their resistances will on
be A. 6.24x1012 electrons
A. 1:1 B. 6.24x1014 electrons
B. 2:1 C. 6.24x1016 electrons
C. 4: 1 D. 6.24x1018 electrons
D. 1:8 Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. Electric pressure is also called
Que. The hot resistance of filament of a bulb is A. resistance
higher than the cold resistance because the B. power
temperature coefficient of filament is C. voltage
A. negative D. energy
B. infite Ans. C
C. zero
D. positive Que. With rise in temperature resistance of
Ans. D pure metals
A. increases
Que. Insulation resistance of the insulating B. decreases
material should be C. first increases then decreases
A. high D. remains constant
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B. low Ans. A
in
C. zero
D. none of these
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Que. With rise in temperature resistance of

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Ans. A semiconductors
P
A. increases
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Que. The flow of current in solids is due to B. decreases

B
A. electrons
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C. first increases then decreases

B. ions
C
D. remains constant
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C. atoms
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Ans. B A. chemical
B. mechanical
Que. Which of the following material has C. electrical
nearly zero temperature coefficient of D. thermal
resistance Ans. C
A. manganin
B. porcelain Que. I = ___/t amp
C. carbon A. R
D. copper B. L
Ans. A C. Q
D. t
Que. Which of the following material has a Ans. C
negative temperature coefficient of resistance
A. copper Que. The ability of a charged particle to do
B. aluminium work is called
C. carbon A. potential difference
D. brass B. electric potential
Ans. C C. magnitude
D. magnetism
Que. Ohm‟s law is not applicable to Ans. B
A. vaccume tubes
B. carbon resistor Que. The unit of electric potential is ___
C. high voltage circuits A. amp
D. circuits at low current densities B. coulomb
Ans. A C. volt
D. tesla
Que. Which one of the following does not Ans. C
have negative temperature coefficient
A. aluminium Que. 1 calorie = ___
B. paper A. 4.186 joules
C. rubber B. 0.24 joules
D. mica C. 4186 joules
Ans. A D. 4186 KJ
Ans. A
Que. An electrical effort required to drift the
free electrons in one particular direction, in a Que. Unit of resistivity is ____
conductor is called __ A. Ω
A. MMF B. Ω-m
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B. EMF C. Ω/m
in
C. current D. all above

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D. all above Ans. B

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Ans. B
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Que. Unit of conductance is ___

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Que. An _______ effort required to drift the A. Ohm

B
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free electrons in one particular direction, in a B. Siemens

C
conductor is called EMF C. Newton

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D. Henry C. zero
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
Que. The material having highest value of
____ is best conductor Que. Resistance temperature coefficient is
A. resistivity denoted by ____
B. conductivity A. α
C. permittivity B. β
D. all above C. θ
Ans. B D. Φ
Ans. A
Que. The material having poorest value of
____ is best insulator. Que. The RTC at tOC is ratio of _____
A. resistivity A. change in conductance per degree Celsius
B. conductivity to the resistance at t 0C
C. permittivity B. change in resistance per degree Celsius to
D. all above the resistance at t0C
Ans. B C. change in initial resistance per degree
Celsius to the resistance at t0C
Que. Factors which affect the resistance _____ D. all above
A. length of the material Ans. B
B. cross sectional area
C. temprature Que. Unit of RTC is ____
D. all above A. OC
Ans. D B. /OC
C. Ω/OC
Que. Effect of temperature on resistance D. Ω
depends on ____ of material Ans. B
A. size
B. shape Que. Insulation resistance is defined as
C. nature opposition to the flow of ____
D. length A. current
Ans. C B. voltage
C. leakage current
Que. Resistance of carbon _____ as the D. all above
temperature increases Ans. C
A. increases
B. remains same Que. Insulation resistance Ri = V/Il, in this V
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C. decreses is ____
in
D. none of above A. voltage between conductor and earth

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Ans. C B. voltage between insulation and earth

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C. voltage between conductor and insulator

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Que. Semiconductors have _____ temperature D. all above

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coefficient Ans. A
B
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A. positive
C
B. negative
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Que. Insulation resistance Ri = V/Il, in this Il is D. none of the above
____ Ans. B
A. current
B. voltage Que. Which effect of electrical current is
C. leakage current utilised in thermal systems
D. line current A. Magnetic
Ans. C B. chemical
C. heating
Que. Insulation resistance is ______ D. all above
proportional to its length Ans. C
A. directly
B. inversely Que. As per the Joule,s law the amount of heat
C. never produced is proportional to
D. none of above A. I.R
Ans. B B. V.I
C. V.I.t
Que. Insulation resistance is inversely D. I2R
proportional to its ______ Ans. C
A. length
B. area Que. Geyser is a example of which system
C. diameter A. Mechanical
D. cross sectional area B. Electrical
Ans. A C. Thermal
D. None of above
Que. which of the following substance, the Ans. B
resistance decreases with the increase of
temperature? Que. Boiling temp. of water is
A. carbon A. 50
B. constantan B. 75
C. copper C. 100
D. silver D. 35
Ans. A Ans. C
Que. The conventional electric current is due Que. The amount of heat energy required to
to the flow of change the temp. of a given substance without
A. positive charges only change in the form of the substance is called as
B. negative charges only A. Sensible heat energy
C. neutral particles only B. Latent heat energy
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D. both positive and negative charges. C. Both of above

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Ans. B D. None of above

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Ans. A
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Que. Insulators have _______ temperature

P
coefficient of resistance Que. Which statement is correct

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A. positive A. 1cal=4.12 J
B
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B. negative B. 1cal=4.186 J
C
C. zero C. 1cal=4.44 J
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D. 1cal=3.986 J B. Latent heat of vapourisation
Ans. B C. both of above
D. None of above
Que. The amount of heat energy required to Ans. B
change the form of the substance with change
in the temp. is called as Que. The unit of specific heat capacity is
A. Kinetic energy A. J/Kg
B. Potential energy B. J/KgK
C. Latent heat of energy C. Joule
D. All of above D. J-Kg
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. The amount of heat energy obtained by Que. WATER-PUMP SET is the example of
burning the unit mass of the fuel is called as which system
A. Molecular value A. Electro-mechanical system
B. Calorific value B. Electro-chemical system
C. Atomic value C. Only electrical system
D. None of above D. All above
Ans. B Ans. A
Que. The unit of “THERMAL ENERGY” is Que. The unit of force is

A. Kilowatt-hour A. Newton
B. Watt-sec B. Joule
C. Joule C. Newton-metre
D. all of above D. Joule-Sec.
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. which effect of electric current is utilized Que. One metre cube holds a water of
in electric lamps? A. 1000Kg
A. Magnetic effect B. 1000gm
B. Chemical effect C. 1000miligram
C. Heating effect D. none of above
D. All of above Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. Which relationship is correct
Que. The heat energy required to convert a A. P=T.ω
body from solid state to liquid state is called as B. P=T/ ω
A. Latent heat of fusion C. P=T.v
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B. Latent heat of vapourisation D. P= ω / T

in
C. Calorific value Ans. A

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D. All of above
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Ans. A ue. Power is defined as

P
A. capacity to do the work

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Que. The heat energy required to convert B. workdone/time

B
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liquid state to gaseous state is called as C. workdone. time

C
A. Latent heat of liquification. D. all above

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Ans. B Que. Kinetic energy is given by
A. E=1/2 mV2
Que. Energy is defined as B. E=1/2 mV
A. workdone/time C. E=1/2m.t
B. capacity to do the work D. none of above
C. energy=power.resistance Ans. A
D. all above
Ans. B Que. Which of the following statements is
true?
Que. Effective water head of a Hydro-electric A. Electric current is measured in volts
power plant means it‟s B. 200 kΩresistance is equivalent to 2MΩ
A. loss C. An ammeter has a low resistance and must
B. height be connected in parallel with a circuit
C. friction D. An electrical insulator has a high resistance
D. none of above Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. What must be known in order to
Que. Efficiency is the ratio of calculate the energy used by an electrical
A. power and time appliance?
B. output and input A. voltage and current
C. input and output B. current and time of operation
D. above all C. power and time of operation
Ans. B D. current and resistance
Ans. C
Que. Wind-mill-Generator set is the example
of Que. Voltage drop is the
A. electro-chemical system A. maximum potential
B. electro-thermal system B. difference in potential between two points
C. mechanical-electrical system C. voltage produced by a source
D. all above D. voltage at the end of a circuit
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. Which relationship is correct? Que. The opposition to the flow of leakage
A. volume=mass. Density current is called as
B. volume=mass/density A. resistance
C. volume=mass +density B. leakage coefficient
D. none of above C. insulation resistance
Ans. B D. all above
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Ans. C
in
Que. Potential energy is given as

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A. E=m.g.h Que. The insulation resistance is generally in

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B. E=m.g A. Ohms
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C. E=m.g.t B. Mega ohms

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D. above all C. Mili Ohms

B
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Ans. A D. Micro Ohm

C
Ans. B
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Que. The insulation resistance of a cable is Que. When the Humidity in the surrounding
A. directly proportional to length of cable increases, the leakage current in the cable will
B. inversly proportional to length of cable A. remain same
C. remains same with change in length B. increase
D. none of above C. decrease
Ans. B D. all of above
Ans. B
Que. Which is the expression for insulation
resistance of a single core cable Que. Factors affecting the insulation resistance
A. R =ρ l/a of a cable are
ρ
B. Ri =2πl 𝑙𝑛(R2/R1) A. length
ρ B. thickness
C. Ri=2πl (R2/R1)
C. resistivity of insulating material
D. R= V/I D. all above
Ans. B Ans. D
Que. As the thickness of insulation layer of a Que. What is current?

cable increases it‟s insulation resistance will A. Flow of electrons.
A. increase B. Flow of protons.
B. decrease C. Flow of Neutrons.
C. remain same D. None of above.
D. none of above Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. What is Resistance?
Que. As the Temprature of surrounding A. to assist the flow of current.
increases the insulation resistance will ((B to oppose the flow of current.
A. increase C. to oppose the flow of voltage.
B. remain same D. to assist the flow of voltage.
C. decrease Ans. B
D. none of above
Ans. C Que. Unit of resistance is.
A. Volts.
Que. Which is a good conductor of electricity B. Amperes.
A. normal tap water C. Ohm.
B. pure water D. Faraday.
C. glass Ans. C
D. plastic
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Ans. B Que. Resistance of material will decrease with

in
increase of?
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Que. As moisture content in the air A. Length of material.

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increases,then the insulation resistance will B. Both Length and Cross-section area of
A. decrease
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material.
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B. remain same C. Cross-section area of material.

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C. increase D. All of the above.

D. none of above
C
Ans. C
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A. Resistance will remain same.
Que. According to Ohm‟s law current is B. No effect on resistance.
directly proportional to? C. Resistance will increase.
A. Resistance of material. D. Resistance will decrease.
B. Voltage across it. Ans. D
C. Both Voltage and Resistance.
D. Temp. Que. What will be the effect on the resistance
Ans. B of insulating material if the temperature
increases?
Que. According to Ohm‟s law current is A. No effect on resistance.
inversely proportional to? B. Resistance will increase.
A. Voltage across it. C. Resistance will remain same.
B. Both Voltage and Resistance. D. Resistance will decrease.
C. Resistance of material. Ans. D
D. Temp.
of insulating material if the temperature
Que. What are the factors on which resistance decreases?
of material depends?
A. Length and Cross-section area of material. A. Resistance will remain same.
B. Temperature of material. B. No effect on resistance.
C. Specific resistivity of material. C. Resistance will increase.
D. All of above. D. Resistance will decrease.
Ans. D Ans. C
Que. Resistance of material will increase with Que. What will be the resistance of semi-
increase of? conductor at low temperature?
A. Cross-section area of material. A. Resistance will be high.
B. Length of material. B. Resistance will be low.
C. Both Length and Cross-section area of C. No effect on resistance.
material. D. None of above.
Ans. B
Que. What will be the resistance of semi-
Que. What will be the effect on the resistance conductor at high temperature?
of conducting material if the temperature A. Resistance will be high
increases? B. No effect on resistance..
A. No effect on resistance. C. Resistance will be low.
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B. Resistance will increase. D. None of above.

in
C. Resistance will decrease. Ans. A

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D. Resistance will remain same.

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Ans. B Que. At low temperature semi-conductor will

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behave as?
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Que. What will be the effect on the resistance A. Insulator.

B
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of conducting material if the temperature B. Conductor.

C
decreases? C. Semi-conductor.
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D. None of above. Que. Temperature co-efficient of resistance α0
Ans. B is given by.
𝑅𝑡 −𝑅0
A. α0= 𝑅𝑜 .𝑡
Que. At high temperature semi-conductor will 𝑅𝑜 −𝑅𝑡
behave as? B. α0= 𝑅𝑡 .𝑡
𝑅1−𝑅2
A. Insulator. C. α0= 𝑅1 𝑡
B. Conductor. 𝑅2
C. Semi-conductor. D. α0= 𝑅𝑜 .𝑡
Ans. B
Que. Which effect of electrical current is
Que. The length of a conductor or a wire is utilised in thermal systems?
doubled and its cross section is also doubled A. Magnetic
then the resistance will. B. chemical
A. Increases four times. C. heating
B. Remains unchange D. all above
C. Decreases four times. Ans. C
D. Change at random.
Ans. B Que. If the efficiency of a machine is to be
high, what should be low?
Que. The variation of resistance with A. input power
temperature is governed by a property called B. losses
A. Resistance access coefficient (RAC). C. KWh consumed
B. Resistance nature coefficient (RNC). D. ratio of output to input
C. Resistance temperature coefficient (RTC). Ans. B
D. None of above.
Ans. C Que. One Nnewton meter is same as
_________
A. one watt
Que. Temperature co-efficient of resistance at B. one Joule
00C is defined as the change in resistance per C. five Joules
ohm original resistance per 0C change in D. one Joule second
temperature. Ans. B
A. True.
B. Fasle. Que. f I, R, t are the current, resistance and
Ans. A time respectively, then according to Joule‟s
Law; heat produced will be proportional
Que. Unit of Temperature co-efficient of to________
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resistance is. A. I2Rt

in
A. /Ώ/0C B. I2Rt2
C. I2R2t
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B. /0C
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C. 0C D. I2R2t2
D. Ώ/0C
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Ans. A
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Ans. B
B
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Que. Which resistor will be physically larger

in size?
C
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A. 100Ω, 10W
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B. 10Ω, 50W Ans. C
C. 1MΩ, 0.5W
D. 1KΩ, 1W Que. Two underground cables A and B, each
Ans. B has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω
resp. each has insulation resistance of 600 MΩ
Que. When current flows through heater coil, and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in
it glows but supply wiring does not glow parallel, its insulation resistance is ___
because_______ A. 1200 MΩ
A. current through supply line flows at slower B. 2400 Ω
speed C. 1000 MΩ
B. supply wiring is covered with insulation D. 1600 Ω
layer Ans. C
C. resistance of heater coil is more than supply
wires Que. A 100W electric light bulb is connected
D. supply wires are made of superior material to a 250V supply.The current in the circuit is
Ans. C A. 0.3A
B. 0.4A
Que. Which of the following relation is C. 4A
incorrect? D. 0.6A
A. 𝑃 = 𝑉𝐼 Ans. B
B. 𝑃 = 𝐼 2 R
C. P=V2/R Que. A 100W electric light bulb is connected
D. P=V2R to a 250V supply. Its hot resistance is
Ans. D A. 625Ω
B. 526Ω
C. 62.5Ω
UNIT IB D. 625mΩ
Ans. A
Que. The resistance of copper wire 200 m long
is 21 ohms. If its thickness is 0.44 mm, its Que. 60 μs is equivalent to:
specific resistance is around A. 0.06s
A. 2x10-8Ω-m B. 0.00006 s
B. 4x10-8Ω-m C. 1000 minutes
C. 6x10-8Ω-m D. 0.6 s
D. 8x10-8Ω-m Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. The current which flows when 0.1
Que. Two underground cables A and B, each coulomb is transferred in 10 ms is
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has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω A. 1A

in
resp. each has insulation resistance of 600 MΩ B. 10A

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and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in C. 10mA

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series, its conductor resistance is ___ D. 100mA

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A. 1.2 MΩ Ans. B
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B
B. 0.2 Ω
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C. 1.4 Ω Que. The p.d. applied to a 1 kΩ resistance in

order that a current of 100 μA may flow is
C
D. 1.4 M Ω
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A. 1V Que. How long must a current of 0.1A flow so
B. 100V as to transfer a charge of 30 C?
C. 0.1V A. 5 min
D. 10V B. 5s
Ans. C C. 50min
D. 50s
Que. The power dissipated by a resistor of Ans. A
4Ωwhen a current of 5A passes through it is
A. 6.25W Que. A force of 4N moves an object 200 cm in
B. 20W the direction of the force. Work done is
C. 80W A. 6J
D. 100W B. 8J
Ans. D C. 4J
D. 10J
Que. A 240V, 60W lamp has a working Ans. B
resistance of
A. 1400 ohm Que. 0.32mA=. . . . . . μA
B. 60 ohm A. 0.0032
C. 960 ohm B. 0.032
D. 325 ohm C. 0.00032
Ans. C D. 320
Ans. D
Que. The energy used by a 1.5kW heater in 5
minutes is: Que. If two cables with their insulation
A. 5 J resistances Ri1 and Ri2 are joined in
B. 450 J series,then their equivalent resistance will be
C. 7500 J A. Ri1 + Ri2
D. 450000 J B. Ri1 - Ri2
Ans. D C. Ri1 / Ri2
D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2
Que. If a current of 5A flows for 2 minutes, Ans. D
the quantity of charge transferred will
A. 600C Que. If two cables with their insulation
B. 100C resistances Ri1 and Ri2 with conductor
C. 0.6C resistances R1and R2respectively are joined in
D. 60C parallel ,then their equivalent insulation
Ans. A resistance will be
A. Ri1 + Ri2
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Que. In what time would a current of 1A B. Ri1 - Ri2

in
transfer a charge of 30 C? C. Ri1 / Ri2

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A. 45s D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2

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B. 30s Ans. A
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C. 65s
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D. 4s Que. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200W rated at

B
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Ans. B 250 V will have resistance ratio as________

C
A. 4:25
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B. 25:4 Que. The resistance of copper wire 25 m
C. 2:5 long is found to be 50 Ω. If its diameter is
D. 5:2 1mm, then resistivity of copper is ___
Ans. C A. 1.57µΩ-m
B. 57Ω-m
Que. With three resistances connected in C. 15.7Ω-m
parallel, if each dissipates 20 W, the total D. 157 Ω-m
power supplied by the voltage source equals Ans. A
_______
A. 10W Que. At 300K the temperature coefficient of
B. 20W resistance of a wire is 0.00125 /OC and its
C. 40W resistance is 1 ohm. The resistance of wire will
D. 60W be 2 ohm at
Ans. D A. 1154 K
B. 1100 K
Que. Which of the following lamps will have C. 1400 K
least resistance at room temperature? D. 1127 K
A. 25W, 220V Ans. B
B. 100W, 220V
C. 200W, 220V Que. Two underground cables A and B,
D. 60W, 220V each has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and
Ans. C 0.8 Ω resp. each has insulation resistance of
600 MΩ and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are
connected in series, its insulation resistance is
UNIT IC ___
A. 120 MΩ
Que. If the length of a wire of resistance R B. 240 Ω
is uniformly stretched to n times its original C. 240 MΩ
value, its new resistance is D. 160 Ω
A. nr Ans. C
B. R/n
C. n2R Que. Two underground cables A and B,
D. r/n2 each has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and
Ans. C 0.8 Ω resp. each has insulation resistance of
600 MΩ and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are
Que. length of wire having resistance of 1 ohm connected in parallel, its conductor resistance
is cut into four equal parts and these four parts is ___
are bundled together side-by-side to form a A. 0.3428Ω
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wire. The new resistance will be B. 0.240 Ω

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A. 1/4 ohm C. 0.240 MΩ

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B. 1/16 ohm D. 0.160 Ω

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C. 4 ohm Ans. A
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D. 16 ohm
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Que. Match the pair

B
Ans. B
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Resistance a- /0C
C
Insulation resistance b-siemens

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RTC c-ohm
Conductance d-MΩ Que. An aluminum conductor has resistance
A. 1a,2-b,3-c,4-d of 10Ώ AT 200C and the RTC of 0.0039 per 0C
B. 1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b at 200C. Find the RTC at 00C
C. 1-d,2-c,3-a,4-b A. 0.000124/0C
D. all above B. 0.00423/0C
Ans. C C. 0.00324/0C
Que. If length of cable is doubled, then its D. 0.0000423/0C
insulation resistance will Ans. B
A. reduce by 25%
B. reduce by 50% Que. Find the resistance of filament of 60
C. increase by 50% watt in a 230 V supply lamp at its working
D. reduce by 55% temperature.
Ans. B A. 990 Ώ.
B. 881.667 Ώ.
Que. At 00C a specimen of copper have a C. 981.667 Ώ.
resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co- D. 1000 Ώ.
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per 00C Ans. B
Find the value of its temperature co-efficient at
700C
A. 0.003248/0C Que. A single core cable has 1.5cm
B. 0.003428/0C diameter conductor and thickness of insulation
C. 0.003284/0C is 2.2 cm. The resistivity of insulating material
D. 0.003434/0C is 9.2×1012 Ώ-m. Determine the insulation
Ans. C resistance per km length of cable.
A. 2×1012 Ώ.
Que. At 00C a specimen of copper have a B. 2.9×1013 Ώ.
resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co- C. 2×109 Ώ.
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per 00C D. 9.2×1012 Ώ.
Find the value of resistance at 700C Ans. C
A. 4.5mΏ.
B. 3.5mΏ. Que. A single core cable has a 5cm diameter
C. 5.19mΏ. conductor and thickness of insulation is 2.2
D. 5.5mΏ. cm. The resistivity of insulating material is
Ans. C 9.2×1012 Ώ-m. Determine the insulation
resistance per km length of cable.
Que. A certain copper winding has a A. 0.55×10-6
resistance of 100Ώ at room temperature. RTC B. 55×10-6
Jo
of copper at 00C is 0.00428/0C, calculate the C. 0.55×10-12

in
winding resistance if temperature is increased D. 0.55×106

@
to 500C, assume room temperature as 250C Ans. A

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A. 111 Ώ.
B. 115 Ώ.
P
Que. The armature winding of a DC

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C. 109 Ώ. machine when connected to DC supply of 240

B
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D. 113 Ώ. V was drawing a 6 A at 250C and 25 A when

C
Ans. C heated Evaluate temperature of armature

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winding if α of its material at 250C is Ans. C
0.0039/0C
A. 1000C Que. The time required for 1KW electric
B. 1100C kettle to raise the temperature of 10 liters of
C. 96.790C water through 10°C is__________(Specific
D. 98.790C heat of water is 4200 J/KgK)
Ans. C A. 210 sec
B. 420 sec
Que. A 25W, 220V bulb and a 100W, 220V C. 42 sec
bulb are joined in parallel and connected to D. 840 sec
220V supply. Which bulb will glow more Ans. B
brightly?
A. 25W bulb Que. A 3 Ω resistor having 2 A current will
B. 100W bulb dissipate the power of _________
C. both will glow with same brightness A. 2W
D. neither bulb will glow B. 6W
Ans. B C. 4W
D. 12 W
Que. A 25W, 220V bulb and a 100W, 220V Ans. D
are joined in series and connected to 220V
supply. Which bulb will glow brighter? Que. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil
A. 25W bulb has the resistance of 2Ω per meter. For a
B. 100W bulb heater of 1KW at 200V, the length of wire
C. both will glow with same brightness required will be________
D. neither bulb will glow A. 80m
Ans. A B. 60m
C. 40m
Que. You are given three bulbs of 25W, D. 20m
40W and 60W. Which of them has the lowest Ans. D
resistance?
A. 25W bulb Que. How many KW will be required to light
B. 40W bulb a factory which has 250 lamps each taking
C. 60W bulb 1.3A at 230V?.
D. incomplete information A. 74750W
Ans. C B. 7.47KW
C. 325W
Que. You have the following electric D. 299W
appliances: Ans. A
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i.1KW, 250V electric heater

in
ii.1KW, 250V electric kettle Que.

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iii.1KW, 250V electric bulb A factory is supplied with power at 210V. The
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Which of these has the highest resistance? load consists of 250,60W lamp and 4 motor
P
A. heater each taking 40amp. Find total current demand

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B. kettle by factory.
B
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C. all have equal resistances A. 40A

C
D. electric bulb B. 210A

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C. 250A C. 15 min
D. 231.4A D. 20 min
Ans. D Ans. A
Que. A carbon electrode has resistance of Que. A tap supplies water at 220C. A man
0.125 at 200C. What will be resistance of takes 1 lit of water per minute at 370C from
electrode at 850C. RTC of carbon is - 0.005 at geyser. The power rating of geyser is ……
200C. A. 1000 W
A. 0.126Ω B. 500 W
B. 0.121Ω C. 1050 W
C. 0.125Ω D. 1500 W
D. 0.127Ω Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. Amount of energy expended in raising
temperature of 45 liter of water by 750C is
Que. The coil has resistance of 4Ω at ……..
220C.RTC of coil at 220C is 0.0039 /0C. After A. 3.937KWh
operating the coil at 210V for 2days, current B. 4.36 KW
through coil is 42A. The temperature of coil at C. 43.6 KWh
this time is……… D. 436 KW
A. 960C Ans. A
B. 86.10C
C. 500C
D. 600C UNIT ID
Ans. B
Que. A current of 3A flows for 50 hrs

Que. An immersion water heater takes 1hr to through a 6Ωresistor. The energy consumed by
heat 50Kg of water from 200C to boiling point. the
The efficiency of heater is 90%, the power resistor is
rating of heater is……(specific heat of water is A. 0.9 kWh
4200j/Kg.k) B. 2.7 kWh
A. 4.65KWh C. 9 kWh
B. 5.16KWh D. 27 kWh
C. 5.185KW Ans. B
D. 50KW
Ans. C Que. The amount of work done in lifting a
mass of 500 kg to a height of 6m in 30 s, the
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power developed
in
Que. The time taken to raise temperature of A. 2943J

@
880gm of water from 160C to boiling point if B. 0.2943J

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heater takes 2A at 220V is ………. (Efficiency C. 29.43J

P
of heater is 90% specific heat of water is D. 29.43KJ

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4200j/Kg.k,)
B
Ans. D
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A. 13.08 min
C
B. 13 hr
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Que. The power required in lifting a mass of B. 4 kWh
500 kg to a height of 6m in 30 s. C. 2 kWh
A. 198J D. 0.02 kWh
B. 981W Ans. B
C. 198W
D. 981J Que. Amount of heart energy required to
Ans. B raise the temperture of 10kg of water through
100oC is
Que. A portable machine requires a force of (Swof water as 4200J/kgK)
200N to move it. If the machine is moved A. 4.2kJ
through 20m in 25s, power required is B. 4.2MJ
A. 160kW C. 42kJ
B. 1600W D. 420J
C. 16kW Ans. B
D. 160W
Ans. D Que. The power required to drive certain
machine at 350 rpm is 60 KW. The driving
Que. Energy provided by a source e.m.f. of torque produced is ……….
5V supplying a current of 3A for 10 minutes is A. 1600 N-m
A. 9kJ B. 1637 N-m
B. 65J C. 163 N-m
C. 25kJ D. 16370 N-m
D. 90kJ Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. An electric motor when operated for 30
Que. 450 J of energy are converted into heat minute consumes 0.75 KWh. The energy loss
in 1 minute. The power dissipated is during the process is 300 KJ. The efficiency of
A. 7.5kW motor is ……..
B. 7.5W A. 88.08 %
C. 750W B. 88 %
D. 600W C. 88.88%
Ans. B D. 78 %
Ans. C
Que. The power rating of a D.C. electric
motor consuming 36 MJ when connected to a Que. An electric motor when operated for 30
250V supply for 1 hour is minute consumes 0.75 KWh. The energy loss
A. 100W during the process is 300 KJ. The useful work
B. 10W done by motor is ………
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C. 500W A. 2400 KJ
in
D. 10KW B. 240 KJ
@
Ans. D C. 24 J
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D. 24000 KJ
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Que. A current of 2A flows for 10 hr. Ans. A

U
through a100 Ω resistor. The energy consumed

B
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by the resistor is Que. The total power supplied to an engine

C
A. 0.5 kWh which drives generator is 40.25 KW.

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Generator delivers 15A to a 100Ω load. The Ans. C
efficiency of process is ……
A. 60% Que. A hydro power station has a reservoir
B. 65% capacity of 5x106 m3 .The effective water head
C. 40% is 100m. The penstock, turbine, generator
D. 55.9% efficiencies are 95%,90%,85%respectively.
Ans. D The total energy generated from power station
is….
Que. A hydroelectric generating plant is A. 35.61x1015 watt-sec
supplied from reservoir of capacity 2 X107 m3 B. 35.61x1010 watt-sec
with water head of 200m. Efficiency of system C. 35.61x109 watt-sec
is 0.72. The amount of useful energy is ……. D. 35.61x1011 watt-sec
A. 8.8 X 109 Wh Ans. D
B. 7.99 X 109 Wh
C. 8.855 X 109 Wh ((Q))2_ An electrically driven pump lifts 80m3
D. 7.85 X 109 Wh of water per min through a height of 12m.IF
Ans. D overall efficiency of motor-pump set is 70%.
The input power to motor is ……
Que. The H.P rating of an engine which drives A. 224.228Kw
a generator supplying a load of 7000 lamp B. 156960W
each taking 0.5A at 250V is ……..(efficiency C. 150000W
of generator is 95%) D. 200Kw
A. 1234.6H.P Ans. A
B. 1172.9H.P
C. 2000H.P Que. A1500V dc motor takes an input of
D. 500H.P 35Kw and drives a load at 1500 rpm. The
Ans. A torque required by the load is 2oo N-m.The
efficiency of motor is
Que. A steam power station has an overall A. 85%
efficiency of 20%.The calorific value of coal B. 89.77%
used is 7166.67 kcal/kg. The amount of coal C. 90%
burnt per KWh of electrical energy is …… D. 70%
A. 2 Kg Ans. B
B. 0.6 kg
C. 6 Kg Que. How many joules of energy will be
D. 1 Kg required to melt 50 kg of tin .The m.p of tin is
Ans. B 2350C and room temperature is 150C. Latent
heat of fusion for tin is 55.902 KJ/Kg and
Jo
Que. A motor is used to crank an engine specific heat is 0.231KJ/Kg.K

in
against the torque of 60 N-m at 75 rpm for A. 5500 KJ

@
8second. The energy requirement of each start B. 5000 KJ

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is…… C. 5336.1 KJ
P
A. 41.87 Wh D. 6000 KJ
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B. 4.187W Ans. C
B
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C. 4.187 Wh
C
D. 4500 w
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Que. How much volume of water is used by B. 75%
100MW power station suppling load for 12 C. 60%
hours a day? The effective water head is D. 80%
220m.The overall efficiency of the power Ans. A
station is 86.4%.
A. 2.316x105 m3 Que. A1500V dc motor takes an input of-------
B. 2.316x106 m3 -- and drives a load at 1500 rpm. The torque
C. 2.316x107m3 required by the load is 2oo N-m.The efficiency
D. 2.316x108m3 of motor is 89.77%
Ans. B A. 40KW
B. 35Kw
Que. The power required to drive certain C. 90KW
machine at 350 rpm is------. The driving torque D. 45KW
produced is 1637 N-m …. Ans. B
A. 40KW
B. 50 KW Que. The calorific value of coal used for
C. 60 KW thermal power generation is
D. 60 W 7166.67kcal/kg.The amount of coal burnt per
Ans. C KWh of electrical energy is 0.6 kg. The steam
power station has an overall efficiency of
Que. The total power supplied to an engine A. 25%
which drives generator is-----. If Generator B. 20%.
delivers 15A to a 100Ω load. The efficiency of C. 18%
process is 55.9%. D. 22%
A. 40.25 W Ans. B
B. 4025 KW
C. 402.5KW Que. when an electric motor having efficiency
D. 40.25 KW of 88.88% is operated for 30 minute consumes
Ans. D 0.75 KWh. The energy loss during the process
is -------
Que. The 1234.6 H.P rating engine drives a A. 200KJ
generator supplying a load of 7000 lamp each B. 7500J
taking 0.5A at 250V .efficiency of generator is C. 300 KJ
A. 95% D. 75KW
B. 80% Ans. C
C. 30%
D. 50%
Ans. A UNIT IIA
Jo
in
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Que. An electrically driven pump lifts 80m3 of Que. The complete path followed by the
SP
water per min through a height of 12m.IF magnetic flux is called

P
overall efficiency of motor-pump set is 70%. A. electric circuit

U
The input power to motor is 224.228Kw .the

B
B. magnetic circuit
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overall efficiency of motor-pump set is C. electromagnetism

C
A. 70%. D. electric field

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Ans. B Ans. C
Que. Current carrying conductor is always

surrounded by
A. magnetic field Que. unit of flux is
B. electric field A. weber
C. Electricity B. wb/m2
D. current C. Tesla
Ans. A D. AT
Ans. A
Que. The direction of magnetic field produced
by current carrying conductor is given by Que. Unit of flux density is
A. Lenz‟s law A. wb/m2
B. right hand thumb rule B. wb
C. Fleming‟s left hand rule C. AT/wb
D. Kirchoff‟s law D. A
Ans. B Ans. A
Que. Imaginary lines of force originating from Que. Unit of magnetic field
magnet is called A. wb/m2
A. current B. wb
B. resistance C. AT/wb
C. flux D. none of above
D. magnetic field Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. Unit of reluctance is
Que. Region surrounded by magnet is called A. AT/wb
A. magnetic field strength B. AT
B. magnetic field C. Tesla
C. electric field D. Wb/A
D. resistance Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Opposition to the magnetic lines of force
Que. lines of force is also called is called
A. flux A. Flux
B. current B. resistance
C. resistance C. susceptance
D. flux density D. reluctance
Jo
Ans. A Ans. D
in
@
Que. Lines of force passing per unit area is Que. Unit of magnetic field strength is
SP
called A. AT/m
P
A. magnetic field B. AT/wb

U
B. magnetic flux C. Tesla

B
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C. magnetic flux density D. ohms

C
D. magnetic field strength Ans. A

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Que. The term saturation related to magnetic
Que. The force experienced between two circuit means
current carrying conductors in the same A. magnetic field strength increases with
direction current
A. have force of repulsion between them B. flux density increases with current
B. have force of attraction between them C. flux density remains constant if magnetic
C. remains unaffected field strength is increased
D. none of above D. magnetic field strength remains constant if
Ans. B flux density is increased
Ans. C
Que. Magneto motive force is directly
proportional to Que. The lines of force produced by coil
A. no. of turns of coil completing their path through air, instead of
B. current through the coil intended path is called
C. both a and b A. useful flux
D. none of above B. saturated flux
Ans. C C. air flux
D. leakage flux
Que. The term permeability for a material Ans. D
means
A. the no. of turns on an air core Que. The bulging of lines of force in air gap in
B. the mmf required to produce one unit of a magnetic circuit is called
magnetic flux A. leaking flux
C. the ability of a material to carry electricity B. merging
through it C. fringing
D. the ability of material to carry magnetic D. scattering
lines of force Ans. C
Ans. D
Que. Relative permeability of vacuum is
Que. An air gap is usually inserted in a A. 4π × 10-7 H/m
magnetic circuit B. 1 H/m
A. to prevent saturation C. 1
B. increase flux D. ¼ H/m
C. decrease flux Ans. C
D. increase mmf
Ans. A Que. Permeability of vacuum is
A. 4π × 10-7 H/m
Que. Permeability of a material is the ratio of B. 1 H/m
Jo
A. magnetic field to flux density C. 1

in
B. magnetic flux density to magnetic field D. ¼ H/m

@
strength Ans. A
SP
C. magnetic field strength to flux density

P
D. none of above Que. MMF in magnetic circuit is analogous to

U
Ans. B A. electric current in electric circuit

B
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B. current density in electric circuit

C
C. electromotive force(EMF)in electric circuit

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D. resistance in electric circuit Que. Leakage factor is defined as the ratio of
Ans. C A. flux in air gap by total flux
B. Total flux by useful flux
Que. Reluctance is analogous to C. air gap flux by useful flux
A. emf in electric circuit D. total flux by flux produced by solenoid
B. resistivity in electric circuit Ans. B
C. conductivity in electric circuit
D. resistance in electric circuit Que. Effect of fringing in magnetic circuit is
Ans. D A. it increases flux density
B. its effective area of air gap decreases
Que. The magnetic reluctance of a material C. it decreases flux density
A. increases with increasing cross sectional D. none of above
area of material Ans. C
B. does not vary with increasing the cross
sectional area Que. The force experienced by unit north pole
C. decreases with increasing cross sectional when placed at point in a magnetic field is
area of material called
D. decreases with increasing the length of A. magnetic field strength at that point
material B. exerted force at that point
Ans. C C. flux
D. magnetic field
Que. The correct relation in the following is Ans. A
𝑁𝑥𝑎
A. ф = 𝑙µ0µ𝑟
𝑙
Que. The mechanical force acting on current
B. 𝑁𝐼 = 𝐵 × 𝜇 carrying on conductor when placed in
0𝜇 𝑟 𝑎
C. 𝑁 = 𝐻𝑥𝑙 magnetic field is given by relation
∅𝑥 𝑙 𝑑∅
D. 𝑁𝐼 = 𝜇 𝜇 𝑎 A. 𝐹 = 𝑁 𝑑𝑡
0 𝑟
Ans. D B. 𝐹 = 𝐵𝑙𝑉𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
C. 𝐹 = 𝐵𝐼𝑙𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝑑𝑖
Que. The permeance in a magnetic circuit D. 𝐹 = 𝐿 𝑑𝑡
corresponds to Ans. C
A. resistance in an electric circuit
B. emf in an electric circuit Que. Which of the following has the highest
C. conductivity in electric circuit magnetic permeability
D. conductance in an electric circuit A. paramagnetic substances
Ans. D B. diamagnetic substances
C. ferromagnetic substances
Jo
Que. The ampere turns are D. vacuum

in
A. the product of the number of turns and Ans. C

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current of the coil

SP
B. the number of turns of a coil through which Que. The perfect insulator for magnetic lines
P
current is flowing of force is

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C. the currents of all turns of the coil A. copper

B
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D. the turns of transformer winding B. rubber

Ans. A
C
C. glass
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D. none of these A. very high
Ans. D B. in opposite direction
C. low
Que. When current carrying conductor is D. in the same direction
brought into magnetic field, the force that Ans. D
moves the conductor depends upon
A. direction of current Que. Two current carrying conductor lying
B. length of conductor parallel and close to each other are exerting
C. value of current force of repulsion on each other. The currents
D. both b and c are
Ans. D A. very high
B. in opposite direction
Que. The magnitude of force experienced by C. low
current carrying conductor placed in magnetic D. in the same direction
field depends on Ans. B
A. value of flux
B. magnitude of current flowing through Que. Magnetic field strength due to N long
conductor straight conductors carrying current in the
C. direction of current same direction is given by
𝑁𝐼
D. all of above A. 𝐻 = 4𝜋𝑑
Ans. D 𝐼
B. 𝐻 = 2𝜋𝑑
𝑁𝐼
Que. Two current carrying conductor lying C. 𝐻 = 2𝜋𝑑
parallel and close to each other. They are 𝑁𝐼
carrying current in the opposite direction. The D. 𝐻 = 𝑙
force between them is Ans. C
A. repulsive
B. Attractive Que. Fleming‟s left hand rule is used to find
C. Zero A. Magnitude of induced emf in conductor
D. none of these B. Direction of magnetic field in conductor
Ans. A C. Direction of force on current carrying
conductor
Que. Two current carrying conductor lying D. Magnitude of flux density
parallel and close to each other. They are Ans. C
carrying current in the same direction. The
force between them is Que. Which statement is correct related to
A. repulsive magnetic field produced due to current
B. Attractive carrying conductor
Jo
C. Zero A. direction of rotation of screw to advance in

in
D. none of these the direction of current gives the direction of

@
Ans. B magnetic field

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B. If right hand curled fingers shows the

P
Que. Two current carrying conductors lying direction of current, thumb gives the direction
U
parallel and close to each other are exerting of magnetic field

B
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force of attraction on each other. The currents C. if direction of rotation of screw shows
current ,tip gives the direction of magnetic
C
are
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D. all of these B. magnetic flux density in other medium to
Ans. A magnetic field strength
C. magnetic field strength to magnetic flux
Que. Force experienced by current carrying density in vacuum
conductors when placed in magnetic field will D. magnetic field strength in medium to flux
be zero when density in other medium
A. current in the conductor is maximum Ans. A
B. Angle between conductor and field is zero
C. Both a &b Que. Right hand thumb rule is used to find out
D. None of these A. direction of induced emf
Ans. B B. direction of magnetic field due to current
carrying conductor
Que. Relative permeability is defined as the C. magnitude of force experienced
ratio of D. direction of force
A. magnetic field strength in a medium to flux Ans. B
density in the same medium
B. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to Que. In Flemings left hand rule, thumb always
magnetic field strength in vacuum represents
C. Magnetic flux density in other medium to A. current
flux density in vacuum B. voltage
D. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to flux C. magnetic field
density in other medium D. direction of force on conductor
Ans. C Ans. D
Que. The ability with which the magnetic Que. Permeance is to reluctance as
material allows the flux to pass through a conductance is to
given medium is called A. inductance
A. susceptibility B. resistance
B. permeability C. capacitance
C. conductivity D. ampere turns
D. reluctivity Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. 1 Tesla is given as
Que. Unit of permeability is A. 1wb/m2
𝐴 B. 1wb/cm2
A. 𝑚
𝐻 C. 1mwb/cm2
B. D. 1wb/mm2
𝑚
𝑙
C. 𝑚 Ans. A
Jo
𝐻
in
D. 𝑙 Que. Which part of the magnetic path requires

@
Ans. B largest mmf

SP
A. coil
P
Que. Permeability of free space or vacuum is B. core

U
defined as the ratio of C. airgap

B
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A. magnetic flux density in vacuum to D. inductance

magnetic field strength
C
Ans. C
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B. silicon steel
Que. Soft steel and iron alloy allows easy flow C. aluminum
of a magnetic flux because D. brass
A. of its high elasticity Ans. B
B. of its high permeability
C. of its high conductivity Que. Flux in the air gap which passes through
D. of its high reluctance the desired path is______
Ans. B A. leakage flux
B. total flux
Que. Magnitude of the magnetic field strength C. useful flux
produced by a coil depends on D. all of above
A. Permeability of the core material Ans. C
B. the no. of turns of coil
C. the magnitude of current flow through the Que. The reluctance of a magnetic circuit
coil varies with
D. all of the above A. length × area
Ans. D B. length / area
C. area/length
Que. The relative permeability of air D. (length)2 + area
is__________ Ans. B
A. 1
B. less than 1 Que. A strength of an electromagnet is
C. greater than 1 determined by
D. 1000 A. reluctance
Ans. A B. permeability of the core
C. mmf
Que. Relative permeability of all non D. all of above
magnetic materials is_____ Ans. D
A. 300
B. 0.7 Que. The strength of the magnetic field
C. 1 around a conductor is directly proportional to
D. 0 A. voltage across the conductor
Ans. C B. current in the conductor
C. type of material of conductor
D. none of above
Que. Which of the following is non magnetic Ans. B
material?
A. iron Que. Reluctance of magnetic material is
Jo
B. Mild steel A. less than non magnetic material

in
C. brass B. more than non magnetic material

@
D. Silicon steel C. equal to that of non magnetic material

SP
Ans. C D. none of above

P
Ans. A
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Que. Which of the following is magnetic

B
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material? Que. The denser the flux

C
A. copper A. stronger is the magnetic field

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B. weaker is the magnetic flux C. fore fingure
C. no effect on the strength of field D. middle fingure
D. none of above Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given
Que. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by
by A. Flemings right hand rule
A. Flemings right hand rule B. Flemings left hand rule
B. Flemings left hand rule C. faradays law of electromagnetic induction
C. faradays law of electromagnetic induction D. crock screw rule.
D. crock screw rule. Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. Magnitude of induced e.m.f. will be
Que. One weber is dependent on
A. 108 lines of force A. flux density
B. 106 lines of force B. rate of change of current
C. 109 lines of force C. rate of cutting flux
D. none of these D. bothb and c
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. Magnetomotive force is given by Que. According to Lenz‟s law direction of

A. 𝐻 × 𝑙 induced e.m.f. is
B. ∅ × 𝑆 A. Same as cause produced
C. 𝑁 × 𝐼 B. Perpendicular to cause producing it
D. all of the above C. opposite to cause producing it
Ans. D D. Non above
Ans. C
Que. In a series magnetic circuit
A. Flux always remains same Que. According to Faraday‟s Laws of
B. MMF remains same electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f.is induced
C. Reluctance remains same in a conductor whenever it
D. permeability remains same A. Lies in magnetic field
Ans. A B. Cuts magnetic flux
C. moves parallel to the direction of the
Que. In a parallel magnetic circuit magnetic field
A. Flux always remains same D. lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux.
B. MMF remains same Ans. B
C. Reluctance remains same
Jo
D. permeability remains same Que. When a magnet moves past an object, it

in
Ans. B will produce eddy currents in the object if the

@
object is
SP
Que. The direction of magnetic field by using A. a solid

P
right hand thumb rule for solenoid is given B. an insulator

U
by____ C. a conductor
B
TE
A. curled fingures D. made from the magnetic material

C
B. thumb Ans. D
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Ans. B
Que. Electricity can be generated by rotating a
wire loop between the poles of a magnet. In Que. Emf induced in a coil due to current
which of the following positions would induce change in neighboring coil is called_________
the greatest current in the loop? induction.
A. The plane of the loop is parallel to the A. Mutual
magnetic field B. Self
B. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the C. Dynamic
magnetic field D. Static
C. The plane of the loop makes an angle of 45° Ans. A
with the magnetic field
D. The induced current is the same in all Que. Co-efficient of self induction is also
positions called as__________
Ans. B A. self- induction
B. Inductance
Que. In which of the following situations a C. Self- inductance
voltage is induced in a conductor? D. Induction
A. The conductor moves through the air. Ans. C
B. The conductor is connected to a battery.
C. The conductor is connected to a motor. Que. The property of a coil due to which it
D. The conductor is moved in a magnetic field opposes the change of current flowing through
Ans. D itself is called_____ of the coil.
A. Static inductance
Que. Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic B. Dynamic inductance
induction describes how an electric field can C. Self inductance
be reduced at a point in space by D. Mutual inductance
A. an electric charge Ans. C
B. a constant magnetic field
C. a changing magnetic field Que. ____________is used to sense the flow
D. a steady current. of current in a electric circuit.
Ans. C A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
Que. In case of dynamically induced emf, C. Wattmeter
direction of induced emf is given by D. Galvanometer
A. Fleming‟s right hand rule Ans. A
B. Lenz‟s law
C. Faraday‟s first law Que. The phenomenon of the self induction is
D. Faraday‟s second law felt only when the current in the coil is
Jo
Ans. A A. Changing
in
B. Increasing
@
Que. Emf induced in a coil due to its own C. Decreasing

SP
current is called __________Induction. D. All the above

P
A. Mutual Ans. D
U
B. Self
B
TE
C. Dynamic
C
D. Static
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Que. The negative sign in the induced emf of C. Number of lines of force
self induction indicates that energy is being D. None of these
absorbed from the electric circuit and stored Ans. B
as _______ energy in the coil.
A. mechanical Que. Leakage factor can be called as
B. Electronic A. Fringing
C. electric B. Coefficient of inductance
D. Magnetic C. Magnetic coefficient
Ans. D D. Hopkinson‟s coefficient
Ans. D
Que. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of
the circuit is______ Que. Movement of electrons are called as
A. Volt A. MMF
B. Ampere B. Current
C. Henry C. Voltage
D. Linkages D. Flux
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. Unit of induced emf is_________ Que. Flux density is equal to ________ of
A. Volt flux and area of cross – section.
B. Ampere A. Sum
C. Henry B. Difference
D. Linkages C. Product
Ans. A D. ratio
Ans. D
Que. The property of one coil due to which it
opposes the change in the other coil is Que. NI expression is called
called…………. between two coils. A. MMF
A. Dynamic inductance B. EMF
B. Static inductance C. Flux linkage
C. Self inductance D. Magnetic intensity
D. Mutual inductance Ans. A
Ans. D
𝑁𝐼
Que. Expression is called
𝑙
Que. The unit of mutual inductance
A. MMF
is_________
B. EMF
A. Volt
C. Flux linkage
B. Ampere/ Volt
D. Magnetic field strength
Jo
C. Henry
Ans. D
in
D. Linkages
@
Ans. C
Que. Expression for mutual inductance is
SP
A. –L dI/dt
P
Que. In the expression e = M dI/dt , M

U
B. MdI / dt
represents
B
C. N2 Ф2/ I1
TE
A. Mutual induction
D. NФ/I
C
B. Mutual inductance
Ans. C
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D. Induced emf
Que. As per Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic Ans. A
induction, e=
A. –NdФ/dt 𝑙
Que. In the expression for reluctance𝑆 = 𝜇𝑎
B. MdI / dt
C. N2 Ф2 / I1 of a conduced, letter „a‟ represents_________
D. NФ/I of the core.
Ans. A A. Total area
B. Surface area
Que. The constant K in case of mutual C. Cross- sectional area
induction is equal to D. None of these.
A. Ф1/Ф2 Ans. C
B. Ф2/Ф1
C. Ф1/I1 Que. When a current carrying conductor is
D. Ф2/I1 brought in to magnetic field, the force that
Ans. D moves the conductor depends on
A. direction of current.
Que. Product of the permeability μ0μr is equal B. length of conductor
to C. value of current
A. Magnetic flux D. all of the above
B. Magnetic field Ans. D
C. Magnetic intensity
D. Magnetic flux density / magnetic field Que. When a coil consisting of single turn
strength rotates at uniform speed in magnetic field, the
Ans. D induced emf is____
A. steady
Que. Expression for self induced emf is B. alternating
A. –L dI/dt C. changing
B. MdI1 / dt D. reversing
C. N2 Ф2/ I1 Ans. B
D. NФ/I Que. If l is the length of magnetic path, then
Ans. A magnetizing force is
A. N l
Que. __________is normally termed as flux B. NI x ℓ
linkages. C. ℓ / NI
A. Ф D. NI / ℓ
B. dФ/dt Ans. D
C. NФ
Jo
D. Ф/I Que. The amount of energy stored in

magnetic field is____
in
Ans. C 1
A. 𝐸 = 2 𝐶𝐼 2
@
SP
The term NФ/I is generally called 1

Que. B. 𝐸 = 2 𝐿𝐼 2
P
as______ 1
U
A. Self inductance C. 𝐸 = 2 𝐿𝑉 2
B
1
TE
B. Mutual inductance D. 𝐸 = 2 𝐶𝑉 2
C
C. Flux linkage
Ans. B
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Ans. A
Que. The unit of energy stored in magnetic
field is____ Que. If two side by side placed coils are
A. Watt cumulatively coupled, then the fluxes in that
B. Joule/sec two coils are always ….
C. Joule A. in Same direction
D. Joule-sec B. in Opposite direction
Ans. C C. in outward direction
D. in inward direction
Que. The amount of energy stored per unit Ans. A
volume in magnetic field is____
1
A. 𝐸 = 2 𝐵𝐿 Que. If two side by side placed coils are
1 differentially coupled, then the fluxes in that
B. 𝐸 = 2 𝐵𝐻 two coils are always ….
1
C. 𝐸 = µ𝐻 A. in same direction
2
1 B. in opposite direction
D. 𝐸 = 2 𝜇𝐵 C. in outward direction
Ans. B D. in inward direction
Ans. B
Que. The relation between self inductances L1
and L2 of two side by side placed coils and the Que. If two coils having self inductances of L1
mutual inductance M between them, with Henry and L2 Henry are cumulatively coupled.
coefficient of coupling as K is …. The mutual inductance between them is M
A. 𝑀 = 𝐾𝑥𝐿1 𝐿2 Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
𝐾
B. 𝑀 = 𝐿 𝐿 inductance is……
1 2
𝑀 A. L1+L2+2M
C. 𝐾 = B. L1+L2-2M
𝐿1 𝐿2
D. 𝐾 = 𝑀𝑥 𝐿1 𝐿2 C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. If two side by side placed coils are
Que. If two coils having self inductances of L1
perfectly coupled, then the coefficient of
Henry and L2 Henry are differentially coupled.
coupling is….
The mutual inductance between them is M
A. less than 1
Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
B. More than 1
inductance is……
C. equal to 1
A. L1+L2+2M
D. equal to zero
B. L1+L2-2M
Ans. C
Jo
C. L1+L2+M
in
D. L1+L2-M
Que. If two side by side placed coils are
@
Ans. B
loosely coupled, then the coefficient of
SP
coupling is….
P U
A. less than 1
UNIT IIB
B
B. More than 1
TE
C. equal to 1
C
D. equal to zero
H
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Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 turns
turns over a steel of relative permeability 900. over steel ring of relative permeability 900,
If a current of 5 A is passed through the coil. having mean circumference of 40mm and
The MMF is________ cross sectional area of 50mm2. A current of
A. 4500 AT 25A is passed through coil. Then the mmf of
B. 270000 AT ring is_____
C. 1500 AT A. 5000AT
D. 7500 AT B. 7200AT
Ans. C C. 750AT
D. 7500 AT
Que. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb to Ans. D
0.3 Wb, then change in flux is______ Wb
A. 1.1 Que. If two coils having self inductances of
B. 0.5 10mH and 20mH are cumulatively coupled.
C. -0.5 The mutual inductance between them is 5mH
D. -1.1 Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
Ans. C inductance is……
A. 40 mH
Que. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if B. 20 mH
the current is 100 mA, then MMF is ________ C. 35 mH
A. 2000 AT D. 25 mH
B. 200 AT Ans. A
C. 20 AT
D. 0.5 AT Que. If two coils having self inductances of
Ans. C 10mH and 20mH are differentially coupled.
The mutual inductance between them is 5
Que. A straight conductor having an active Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform magnetic inductance is……
field of 0.6 T. Find the emf produced in the A. 40 mH
conductor when it is moved perpendicular to B. 20 mH
the magnetic field at a rate of 7 m/s C. 35 mH
A. 0V D. 25 mH
B. 1.26V Ans. B
C. 0.18V
D. 0.88V Que. What will be the current flowing through
Ans. B the ring shaped air core when number of turns
Que. The coil with self inductance 35mH A. 0.25A
Jo
carries a current of 4 amp. The amount of B. 2.5A

in
energy stored in it is ____ C. 4.0A

@
A. 1.12 J D. 0.4A
SP
B. 0.14 J Ans. C
P
C. 0.56 J
U
D. 0.28 J Que. If 0.75 V is induced emf and resistance

B
TE
Ans. C offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced

C
current is
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A. 3.75 A B. 0.7×106 AT/Wb
B. 3. 75 mA C. 6×107 AT/Wb
C. 3. 75 micro Ampere D. 6×105 AT/Wb
D. 37.5 mA Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300
turns over steel ring of relative permeability
UNIT IIC 900, having mean circumference of 40mm and
cross sectional area of 50mm2. A current of
Que. A straight conductor having an 25A is passed through coil. The value of flux
active length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform is _________
magnetic field of 0.6 T. Find the emf produced A. 10.6Wb
in the conductor when it is moved at 300 to the B. 70mWb
magnetic field at a rate of 7 m/s C. 10.6mWb
A. 0V D. 106mwb
B. 1.26V Ans. C
C. 0.63V
D. 0.88V Que. A magnetic circuit has a mmf of
Ans. C 400AT and a reluctance of 2 × 105 AT/wb.
The magnetic flux in the magnetic circuit is
Que. A conductor of 10cm length carrying A. 3 × 10-5Wb
a current of 5A placed in uniform magnetic B. 2 × 10-3Wb
field of flux density 1.25T at 300 to the lines of C. 1.5 × 10-2Wb
flux. Force acting on conductor will be D. 2.5 × 10-4Wb
A. 0.3125N Ans. B
B. 3.125N
C. 1.325N Que. A 2cm long coil has 10 turns and
D. 5.321N carries a current of 750mA. The magnetizing
Ans. A force of the coil is
A. 225 AT/m
Que. A solenoid has a flux of 12mwb and a B. 675 AT/m
flux density of 0.9T.The diameter of solenoid C. 450 AT/m
must be D. 375 AT/m
A. 130.3mm Ans. D
B. 13.33cm
C. 10cm Que. A magnetic core having mean length
D. 4.12cm of 20cm, C/S area of 1 cm2, µr of 2400 . The
Ans. A reluctance of the magnetic core is
Jo
A. 663.48 x 104 AT/wb

in
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 B. 663.48 x 103 AT/wb

@
turns over steel ring of relative permeability C. 66.348 x 102 AT/wb

SP
900, having mean circumference of 40mm and D. 66.348 x105 AT/wb

P
cross sectional area of 50mm2. A current of Ans. B

U
B
25A is passed through coil. Then the

TE
reluctance of ring is______ Que. If the reluctance of magnetic material

is 65x 105 AT/wb. The no. of amp turns
C
A. 7×107 AT/Wb
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required to produce a flux of 20 A. 0.04 N
mwb__________ B. 4 N
A. 13x103 AT C. 0.4 N
B. 13x104AT D. none of these
C. 13x102AT Ans. A
D. none of these
Ans. B Que. A straight wire 0.5 m long carries a
current of 100A & lies at right angle to a
Que. An iron ring of 100 cm mean diameter uniform field of 1.5T. Find the mechanical
and 10 cm2 cross section has 1000 turns of force on the conductor.
copper wire on it. The permeability of the A. 37.5 N
material is 1500. The reluctance of the ring B. 0
is___________ C. 53N
D. 75N
A. 1.67 x 106 AT/Wb Ans. D
B. 16.7 x 106 AT/Wb
C. 1.67 x 105 AT/Wb Que. A straight wire 0.5 m long carries a
current of 100A & lies at parallel to the
D. 1.67 x 104 AT/Wb
uniform field of 1.5T. Find the mechanical
Ans. A
force on the conductor.
A. 373N
Que. A coil is wound uniformly over a steel
B. 0
of relative permeability 900, having a mean
C. 53N
circumference of 40 mm and cross-sectional
D. 75N
area of 50 mm2. The reluctance of the steel is
Ans. b
___
A. 707.714 x 103 AT/Wb
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300
B. 70.77 x 103 AT/Wb
turns over a steel ring of relative permeability
C. 707.714 x 104 AT/Wb
900 having mean circumference of 40cm &
D. 7.07 x 104 AT/Wb
cross sectional area of 5 cm2. If coil has
Ans. A
resistance of 100 Ω, & is connected to 250V
DC supply, calculate coil current.
Que. A straight conductor having an
A. 2.5A
active length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform
B. 3.53 mA
magnetic field of 0.6 T. Find the emf produced
C. 2.8A
in the conductor when it is moved parallel to
D. none of these
the magnetic field at a rate of 7 m/s
Ans. D
A. 0V
B. 1.26V
Jo
Que. A magnetic circuit has a m.m.f. of

C. 0.18V
in
400 AT & a reluctance of 2 x 105 AT/wb The

D. 0.88V
@
magnetic flux in the magnetic circuit is

Ans. A
SP
A. 3 x 10-5wb
P
B. 2 x 10-3wb
U
Que. In certain electric motor, wire that

C. 1.5 x 10-2wb
B
carry a current of 5A are perpendicular to a

TE
D. 2.5 x 10-4wb
magnetic field of 0.8 T. What is the force on
C
Ans. B
each cm of these wires
H
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Que. The self inductances of two side by
Que. In a magnetic circuit the value of B side placed coils are 18 mH and 12 mH
and H are 1.5Tesla and 20 AT/m respectively. respectively. If the coefficient of coupling is
The amount of energy stored per unit volume 0.78, then the mutual inductance between them
in it is ____ is ….
A. 60 J A. 0.53H
B. 30 J B. 0.169H
C. 15 J C. 0.011H
D. 13.33 J D. 0.0188H
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. The magnetic circuit with mean length Que. A magnetic circuit requires 800
of 100 cm and 20cm2 cross sectional area ampere turns to produce a certain amount of
gives magnetic field strength of 150 A/m flux. If exciting coil of 100 turns has 5 ohms
along its length, The flux of 6 mWb is resistance, then the voltage to be applied to the
developed in it. Then the amount of energy exciting coil must be
stored in it is ____ A. 40V
A. 0.9 J B. 20 V
B. 0.45 J C. 10V
C. 450J D. 5V
D. 18 J Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. The magnetic circuit with mean length UNIT IIIA

of 100 cm and 20cm2 cross sectional area
gives magnetic field strength of 150 A/m
along its length, The flux of 6 mWb is Que. A transformer is used to___________
developed in it. Then the amount of energy A. change ac voltage to dc voltage
stored per unit volume in it is ____ B. change dc voltage to ac voltage
A. 1800J C. step up or step down dc voltages
B. 900 J D. step up or step down ac voltages
C. 225 J Ans. D
D. 450 J
Ans. C Que. The two windings of a transformer are
__________
Que. The self inductances of two side by A. conductively linked
side placed coils are 18 mH and 12 mH B. inductively linked
respectively. If the mutual inductance between C. not linked at all
Jo
them is 6mH, then the coefficient of coupling D. electrically linked

in
is…. Ans. B
@
A. 0.245
SP
B. 0.41 Que. The magnetically operated device that

P
C. 088 can change values of voltage, current, and

U
D. 0.4
B
impedance without changing frequency is

TE
Ans. D called____________
C
A. Motor
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B. Generator D. Self induction
C. Transformer Ans. B
D. Transistor
Ans. C Que. Transformer is used to change values
of__________
Que. The transformer winding across which A. Frequency
the supply voltage applied is called the _____ B. Voltage
winding. C. Power
A. Primary D. Power factor
B. Secondary Ans. B
C. Tertiary
D. Tapped Que. The path of the magnetic flux in
Ans. A transformer should have __________
A. Low resistance
Que. The transformer winding which is B. Low reluctance
connected to the load is called the_______ C. High reluctance
winding. D. High conductivity
A. Primary Ans. B
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Tapped Que. Electrical power is transformed from one
Ans. B coil to other coil in transformer_________
A. Physically
Que. If supply frequency of a transformer B. Electrically
increases, the secondary output voltage of the C. Magnetically
transformer____. D. Electromagnetically
A. Decreases Ans. D
B. increases
C. remains same Que. A transformer operates___________
D. decreases slightly A. Always at unity power factor
Ans. B B. At power factor depending on load
C. Has its own power factor
Que. The horizontal and vertical portions of D. At power factor below particular value
transformer magnetic core are called Ans. B
as_________
A. Limb, yoke Que. The laminations of transformer core are
B. Yoke, limb made up from__________
C. Yoke A. Low carbon steel
Jo
D. Limb B. Silicon sheet steel

in
Ans. B C. Nickel alloy steel stamping

@
D. Chrome sheet steel

SP
Que. The principle of working of transformer Ans. B

P
is based on ________
U
A. Static induction Que. The material used for construction of

B
TE
B. Mutual induction transformer core should have___________

C
C. Dynamic induction A. Low permeability & high hysteresis loss

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B. Low permeability & low hysteresis loss
C. High permeability & high hysteresis loss Que. The main function of transformer iron
D. high permeability & low hysteresis loss core is to__________
Ans. D A. Provide strength to the winding
B. To decrease hysteresis loss
Que. Most transformer cores are not made C. Decrease the reluctance of magnetic path
from a solid piece of metal. Instead, they are D. Reduce eddy current loss
assembled from many thin sheets of metal. Ans. C
This type of construction is called__________
A. Laminated Que. The transformer turns ratio
B. Toroid determines_____________
C. H core A. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages
D. tape wound B. the ratio of primary and secondary currents
Ans. A C. The resistance on other side
D. all of the above
Que. The concentric cylindrical winding is Ans. A
used for__________
A. Core type transformer Que. Turns ratio of single phase transformer is
B. Shell type transformer given as__________
C. Berry type transformer A. N2/N1
D. None of these B. N1/N2
Ans. A C. (N1xN2)/N1
D. (N1xN2)/N2
Que. The sandwich type winding is used Ans. B
for___________
A. Core type transformer Que. A transformer in which the secondary
B. Berry type transformer voltage is more than the primary voltage is
C. Shell type transformer called a _____ transformer
D. None of these A. step-down
Ans. C B. step-up
C. Isolation
Que. Silicon steel is used for transformer D. Auto
core__________ Ans. B
A. To reduce hysteresis loss
B. To reduce eddy current loss Que. A transformer in which the primary
C. To reduce both losses voltage is more than the secondary voltage is
D. None of these called a _____ transformer
Ans. A A. step-down
Jo
B. step-up
in
Que. What is common in two windings of C. Isolation

@
transformer_________ D. Auto
SP
A. Electric current Ans. A

P
B. Magnetic circuit
U
C. Winding wire guage Que. Any transformer flux that does not follow
B
TE
D. None of these the core and escapes into the surrounding air is
C
Ans. B called____
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A. magnetizing flux B. Decreasing the thickness of laminations
B. coupling flux C. Decreasing the air gap in magnetic circuit
C. leakage flux D. Using wire of higher guage for winding
D. reactance flux Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. A good transformer oil should be
Que. A transformer that does not isolate the absolutely free from__________
output from the input is called _____ A. Sulpher
transformer B. Alkalies
A. Distribution C. Moisture
B. step-up D. All of the above
C. Auto Ans. C
D. Control
Ans. C Que. Single phase core type transformer
has__________
Que. Ideal transformer assumptions do not A. One magnetic circuit
include____________ B. Two magnetic circuits
A. Zero reactance of the winding C. No magnetic circuit
B. Zero resistance of the winding D. None of these
C. No leakage flux Ans. A
D. No saturation of the core
Ans. A Que. Single phase shell type transformer
has__________
Que. The efficiency of the transformer is A. One magnetic circuit
normally is normally in the range B. Two magnetic circuits
of____________ C. No magnetic circuit
A. 50 to 70% D. None of these
B. 60 to 75 % Ans. B
C. 80 to 90 %
D. 90 to 98% Que. Natural cooling is better in_________
Ans. D A. Core type transformer
B. Shell Type transformer
Que. The resistance of low voltage side of C. Both A & B
transformer________ D. Berry type transformer
A. Is equal to resistance of its high voltage Ans. A
side
B. Is more than its resistance on high voltage Que. EMF equation for single phase
side transformer is________
Jo
C. Is less than its resistance on high voltage A. E= 4.44 Φm A f N

in
side B. E= 4.44 Bm A N
@
D. 0 C. E= 4.44 Bm f N
SP
Ans. C D. E= 4.44 Φm f N
P
Ans. D
U
Que. Eddy current losses in transformer core is

B
TE
reduced by_________ Que. Transformation ratio(K) of transformer

C
A. Increasing the thickness of laminations is_________

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A. N2/N1 Que. Transformer power rating is usually
B. E1/E2 expressed in____________
C. I2/I1 A. kW
D. V1/V2 B. kVA
Ans. A C. kV
D. kWh
Que. For Isolation transformer the Ans. B
transformation ratio(K) is_________
A. 0 Que. In a transformer if secondary turns are
B. Greater than 1 doubled, at the same time primary voltage is
C. Less than 1 reduced by half, the secondary voltage
D. 1 will_________
Ans. D A. Be halved
B. Not change
Que. In step up transformer the transformation C. Be four times
ratio (K) is_____________ D. Be reduced to quarter
A. Greater than 1 Ans. C
B. 1
C. Less than 1 Que. The no load current in terms of full load
D. 0 current in a transformer is usually________
Ans. A A. 1 to 3%
B. 3 to 9 %
Que. In step down transformer the C. 9 to 12%
transformation ratio (K) is__________ D. 12 to 20%
A. Greater than 1 Ans. A
B. 1
C. Less than 1 Que. Transformer oil is used in transformer to
D. 0 provide_______
Ans. C A. Cooling and insulation
B. Cooling and lubrication
Que. The primary and secondary voltages in C. Insulation and lubrication
transformer are___________ D. Insulation, cooling and lubrication
A. Always in Phase Ans. A
B. 1800 out of phase
C. 900 out of phase Que. What is the typical use of
D. 300 or 600 out of phase autotransformer____________
Ans. B A. Toy transformer
B. Control transformer
Jo
Que. The induced emf in transformer C. Variable transformer

in
secondary depends on__________ D. Isolating transformer

@
A. Maximum flux in core Ans. C

SP
B. Frequency
P
C. No of turns on secondary Que. In any transformer the voltage per turn in

U
D. all of the above primary and secondary remains____________

B
TE
Ans. D A. Always different

C
B. Always the same

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C. Always in ratio of K
D. Sometimes same Que. The disadvantage of auto transformer
Ans. B is______________
A. No separation between primary &
Que. If we increase the flux density in case of secondary
transformer_______________ B. Size is more than normal transformer for
A. The size of transformer will reduce same rating
B. The distortion in transformer will reduce C. More costlier than normal transformer
C. Hysteresis and eddy current losses will D. All
reduce Ans. D
D. None of these will be true
Ans. A Que. In a transformer the voltage regulation
will be near to zero when it operates
Que. The direct loading test is performed on at____________
transformer to find its____________ A. unity p.f.
A. Regulation B. leading p.f.
B. Efficiency C. lagging p.f.
C. Both D. full loaD.
D. None of these Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. A transformer steps up voltage by a
Que. The regulation of transformer is factor of 100. The ratio of current in the
calculated as_________ primary to that in secondary_______________
A. 1
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 −𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 B. 100
A. 𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
C. 0.01
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 −𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
D. 0.1
B. Ans. B
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 −𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 Que. An ideal transformer does not
C. 𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 change______________
A. Voltage
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 −𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
D. B. Power
C. current
Ans. A
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. The efficiency of single phase
transformer is calculated as_____________
𝑉2 𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅ Que. The flux in transformer
Jo
A. 𝑉 𝐼 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 core____________
2 2 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 +𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠 𝑠
in
V 1 I 1 Cos∅ A. increases with load

B.
@
V 2 I 2 Cos∅ +iron loss +copper loss B. decreases with load

V 1 I 1 Cos∅
SP
C. V C. remains constant irrespective of load

1 I 1 Cos ∅+iron loss +copper loss
P
D. none of these
U
Ans. C
B
D. 𝑉 𝐼
TE
1 1 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 +𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠

C
Ans. A
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Que. Efficiency of transformer is maximum D. primary may burn out
when___________ Ans. D
A. transformer is unloaded
B. copper losses is equal to iron losses Que. For an ideal transformer the windings
C. eddy current losses are equal to hysteresis should have____________
losses A. maximum resistance on primary side and
D. it is maximally loaded least resistance on secondary side
Ans. B B. least resistance on primary side and
maximum resistance on secondary side
Que. If the supply frequency in transformer is C. equal resistance on primary and secondary
doubled, then_________ side
A. hysteresis loss also doubles D. no ohmic resistance on either side
B. eddy current loss also doubles Ans. D
C. iron losses doubles
D. copper losses doubles Que. A transformer does not raise or lower the
Ans. A voltage of DC supply because________
A. there is no need to change the DC voltage
Que. Hysteresis loss in transformer depends B. DC circuit has more losses
on__________ C. Faradays laws of electromagnetic induction
A. both voltage and frequency become invalid since the rate of change of flux
B. voltage alone is zero
C. frequency alone D. none of these
D. none of these Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. Primary winding of a transformer
Que. Eddy current loss depends _____________
on_____________ A. is always low voltage winding
A. both current and frequency B. is always high voltage winding
B. current alone C. could either be a low or high voltage
C. frequency alone winding
D. none of these D. none of these
Ans. A Ans. C
Que. The flux involved in EMF equation of a Que. Which winding of a transformer has
transformer has______________ more number of turns_______________
A. RMS Value A. Low voltage winding
B. Average Value B. High voltage winding
C. Total Value C. Primary winding
Jo
D. maximum Value D. secondary winding

in
Ans. D Ans. B
@
SP
Que. If primary of the transformer is Que. In a given transformer for a given applied
P
connected to dc supply, then______ voltage, which losses remain constant

U
A. Primary draws small current irrespective of change in load___________

B
TE
B. primary leakage reactance is increased A. Friction and wingdage loss

C
C. core losses are increased B. copper loss

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C. hysteresis and eddy current loss B. 10 ohm
D. none of these C. 1000 ohm
Ans. C D. infinity
Ans. D
Que. Main advantage to use autotransformer
over two winding transformer____________ Que. A good voltage regulation of transformer
A. Hysteresis losses are reduced means___________
B. savings in winding material A. output voltage fluctuations from no load to
C. copper losses are negligible full load is least
D. Eddy current losses are totally eliminated B. output voltage fluctuations with power
Ans. B factor is least
C. difference between primary and secondary
Que. An ideal transformer is one which has voltage is least
_____________ D. difference between primary and secondary
A. no losses and magnetic leakage voltage is maximum
B. interleaved primary and secondary winding Ans. A
C. a common core for its primary and
secondary Que. Negative voltage regulation is indicative
D. core of stainless steel and winding of pure that the load is_____________
copper material A. Capacitive only
Ans. A B. inductive only
C. inductive or resistive
Que. In a practical transformer core losses D. none of these
remains constant from no load to full load Ans. A
because__________
A. value of transformation ratio remains Que. The size of the transformer core depend
constant on___________
B. permeability of transformer core remains A. frequency
constant B. area of the core
C. core flux remains practically constant C. flux density of the core material
D. primary and secondary voltage remains D. (a) and (b) both
constant Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. A shell type transformer has
Que. The transformer laminations are insulated _______________
from each other by_____________ A. high eddy current losses
A. mica strip B. reduced magnetic leakage
B. thin coat of varnish C. negligible hysteresis loss
Jo
C. paper D. none of these

in
D. any one of these Ans. B

@
Ans. B
SP
Que. Deduction in core losses and increase in

P
Que. In transformer resistance between permeability are obtained with transformer

U
primary and secondary should employing______

B
TE
be_____________ A. core built up of laminations of cold rolled

C
A. zero grain oriented steel

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B. core built up of laminations of hot rolled A. 220V is no load voltage
steel B. The no load voltage is more than 220V
C. either a or b C. The secondary voltage increases with
D. none of these increase in load
Ans. C D. At a load which draws the rated current &
the voltage becomes less than 220V.
Ans. A
Que. Losses which occur in rotating electric
machine and do not occur in transformers Que. In which of the following transformer,
are____________ part of the primary winding serves as the
A. friction and windage losses secondary winding__
B. magnetic losses A. Potential transformer
C. hysteresis and eddy current losses B. Auto transformer
D. copper losses C. Step up transformer
Ans. A D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following loss in a
transformer is zero even at full Que. The rating of the transformer is given in
load__________ kVA instead of kW because__________
A. core loss A. kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load
B. friction loss pf
C. eddy current loss B. load power factor is often not known
D. Hysteresis loss C. it has become customary
Ans. B D. total transformer loss depends on VA
Ans. B
Que. The noise produced by transformer is
termed as _______________ Que. Increase in secondary current of
A. zoom transformer brings about increase in primary
B. hum current . This is possible because___________
C. ringing A. primary and secondary windings are
D. buzz capacitively coupleD.
Ans. B B. primary and secondary windings are
inductively coupled
Que. Part of the transformer which is most C. primary and secondary windings are
subject to damage from overheating conductively coupled
is______________ D. none of these
A. iron core Ans. B
B. copper winding
Jo
C. insulation of the winding Que. Transformer for constant voltage

in
D. transformer tank application is considered good if its voltage

@
Ans. C regulation is_________

SP
A. low
P
Que. As per the name plate of transformer, the B. high

U
secondary normal voltage is 220V. Which of C. zero

B
TE
the following statement about it is D. none of these

C
correct?_______ Ans. C
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B. unity
Que. Transformer action needs that the C. 0.8 lag
magnetic flux linking with the winding must D. 0.5 lag or lead
be_____________ Ans. B
A. constant
B. pulsating Que. The regulations of two transformers are
C. alternating (i) 3% and (ii) 97%. The one with better
D. none of these regulation is______
Ans. C A. second
B. first
Que. Low voltage windings are placed next to C. both are same
the core to reduce_____________ D. depends on loading
A. Hysteresis loss Ans. B
B. eddy current loss
C. insulation requirement Que. At relatively light loads, the transformer
D. copper loss efficiency is low because__________
Ans. C A. secondary output is low
B. transformer losses are high
Que. The relation between the primary and C. fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
secondary ampere turns of a D. copper loss is small.
transformer___________ Ans. C
A. exactly equal
B. approximately equal Que. A dielectric material must be________
C. primary mmf larger than secondary mmf A. resistor
D. primary mmf smaller than secondary mmf B. Insulator
Ans. A C. Conductor
D. Semiconductor
Que. Positive voltage regulation occurs in case Ans. B
of transformer for______________
A. capacitive load Que. The energy stored in a capacitor is given
B. resistive load only by__________________________
C. inductive load only A. C2V
D. either inductive or resistive load B. CV2/2
Ans. D C. C2V/2
D. CV
Que. Cooling of transformer is required so as Ans. B
to_____________
A. increase efficiency Que. Electrolytic capacitors can be used
Jo
B. reduce losses for__________________________

in
C. reduce humming A. ac only

@
D. dissipate the heat generated in the winding B. dc only

SP
Ans. D C. both ac and dc

P
D. 50 Hz ac
U
Que. The transformer efficiency will be Ans. B

B
TE
maximum at a power factor of ____________

C
A. 0.8 pf lead
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Que. If a number of capacitors are connected B. Coulomb/Volt
in series then the total capacitance of C. Ohms
combination is_____ D. Henry/Wb
A. greater than the capacitance of largest Ans. B
capacitor
B. greater than the capacitance of any Que. There is repulsive force between two
capacitor charged objects when
C. smaller than the capacitance of smallest A. Charges of unlike sign
capacitor B. they have the same number of protons
D. average of capacitances of all capacitors C. charges are of same sign
Ans. C D. they have the same number of protons
Ans. C
Que. As per Coulomb‟s
law___________________ Que. The capacitance of a capacitor is not
A. F= Q1Q2 / εoεrd2 affected by
B. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋d2 A. distance between plates
C. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋 εoεrd2 B. area of plates
D. F= Q1Q2 /4𝜋 εoεrd C. thickness of plates
Ans. C D. all of the above
Ans. C
Que. Electric field intensity at any point in an
electric field is equal to_______ Que. When there is an equal amount of
A. potential gradient positive and negative charges on an object the
B. (potential gradient)2 object is
C. (potential gradient)1/2 A. Positively charged
D. (potential gradient)1/3 B. negatively charged
Ans. A C. neutral
D. supercharged
Que. The lines of forces due to isolated Ans. C
charged particles are___________
A. always straight Que. Which of the following statements is
B. always curved correct?
C. sometimes curved A. Air capacitors have a black band to indicate
D. none of the above the outside foil
Ans. A B. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in
the correct polarity
Que. The direction of electric field due to C. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in
positive charge is___ the correct polarity
Jo
A. away from the charge D. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance

in
B. towards the charge value of 1 to 10 µF

@
C. both (a) and (b) Ans. B

SP

P
Ans. A Que. For which of the following parameters

U

B
TE
Que. The unit of capacitance is remains unaffected?

C
A. Volts/Coulomb A. Distance between plates

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B. Area of the plates B. increase in plate area and distance between
C. Nature of dielectric the plates
D. Thickness of the plates C. decrease in plate area and value of applied
Ans. D voltage
D. reduction in plate area and distance
Que. Which of the following expressions is between the plates
correct for electric field strength? Ans. A
A. E = D/𝝐
B. E = D2/𝝐 Que. A capacitor consists of
C. E = 𝝅D A. two insulators separated by a conductor
D. E = 𝝅D2 B. two conductors separated by a dielectric
Ans. A C. two insulators only
D. two conductors only
Que. Which of the following statements is Ans. B
true?
A. The current in the discharging capacitor Que. A paper capacitor is usually available in
grows linearly the form of
B. The current in the discharging capacitor A. tubes
grows exponentially B. rolled foil
C. The current in the discharging capacitor C. disc
decays exponentially D. meshed plates
D. The current in the discharging capacitor Ans. B
decreases constantly
Ans. C Que. Air capacitors are generally available in
the range
Que. In a capacitor the electric charge is A. 10 to 400 pF
deposited on B. 1 to 20 pF
A. metal plates C. 100 to 900 pF
B. dielectric D. 20 to 100 pF
C. both (a) and (b) Ans. A
Ans. A Que. The unit of capacitance is
A. Henry
B. Ohm
Que. Which of the following materials has the C. Farad
highest value of dielectric constant D. Farad/m
A. Glass Ans. C
B. Vaccum
Jo
C. Ceramics Que. Voltage across capacitor at any time „t‟

in
D. Oil during charging from a dc source of voltage V

@
Ans. C is given by
SP
A. ν = Ve-t/λ
B. ν = V(1-e-t/λ)
P
Que. Capacitance of air capacitor increases

U
with C. ν = V2e-t/λ
B
TE
A. increase in plate area and decrease in D. ν = V2(1-e-t/λ)

C
distance between the plates Ans. B

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B. paper
Que. The ratio of electric flux density to C. mica
electric field intensity is called ………. of the D. electrolytic
medium Ans. D
A. permeability
B. permittivity Que. Which of the following capacitors are
C. reluctance usually used for radio frequency tuining?
D. capacitance A. air
Ans. B B. paper
C. mica
Que. Energy stored in the electric field of a D. electrolyte
capacitor C when charged from a dc source of Ans. B
voltage V is equal to …….. Joule
A. ½ CV2 Que. The time constant of an R-C circuit is
B. ½ C2V defined as the time during which capacitor
C. CV2 charging voltage actually rises to ----------------
D. C2V percent of its ---------- value
Ans. A A. 37, initial
B. 63.2, initial
Que. The absolute permittivity of free space is C. 63.2, final
given by D. 37, final
A. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m Ans. C
B. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m
C. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m Que. The time constant of an R-C circuit is
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m defined as the time during which capacitor
Ans. D charging current actually falls to ----------------
percent of its initial maximum value
Que. The relative permittivity of free space is A. 37
given by „ B. 63
A. 1 C. 42
B. 10 D. 73
C. 100 Ans. A
D. 1000
Ans. A Que. Permitivity is expressed in_______
A. Farad/sq-m
Que. The capacitor preferred for high B. weber/metre
frequency circuits is C. Farad/meter
A. air capacitor D. Weber/ sq- m
Jo
B. mica capacitor Ans. C

in
C. electrolytic capacitor
@
D. paper capacitor Que. Dielectric strength of a material depends

SP
Ans. B on_________________
P
A. moisture content
U
Que. Which of the following capacitors is B. temperature

B
TE
marked for polarity____________________ C. thickness

C
A. air D. all of the above

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Ans. D D. none of the above.
Ans. B
Que. 1 Volt /metre is same as
A. 1 metre/coulomb Que. What is the unit of charge?
B. 1 Newton metre A. Volt-Amp
C. 1 Newton /Coulomb B. Henery
D. 1 Joule /Coulomb C. Farad
Ans. C D. Coulomb
Ans. D
Que. The relative permittivity of air
is__________ Que. What will be the capacitance of four
A. 0 capacitors of equal capacitance „C‟ when
B. 1.0006 connected in parallel?
C. 8.854 × 10−12 A. 4C
D. none of the above B. C/4
Ans. B C. 3C/4
D. C
Que. The capacitance of a capacitor is ……… Ans. A
relative permittivity.
A. directly proportional to Que. A region around a stationary electric
B. inversely proportional to charge has______
C. independent of A. magnetic field
D. directly proportional to square of B. electric field
Ans. A C. magnetic field and electric field
Que. The most convenient way of achieving Ans. B
large capacitance is by using
A. multiplate construction
B. decreased distance between plates
C. air as dielectric Que. One Farad is the same as
D. dielectric of low permittivity A. One Coulomb/Volt
Ans. A B. One Joule/ Coulomb
C. One Joule/ Volt
Que. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced D. One Coulomb / Joule
by a conducting material the Ans. A
A. capacitor will get heated up owing to eddy
currents Que. If Q be the charge and C be the
B. plates will get short-circuited capacitance then the energy stored in the
Jo
C. capacitor can store infinite charge capacitor is ___________

in
D. capacitance will become very high A. 1/2QC

@
Ans. B B. 1/QC
SP
C. Q2/2C
P
Que. Joule / Coulomb is the unit of D. Q/2C

U
A. electric field intensity Ans. C

B
TE
B. potential
C
C. charge
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Que. One Coulomb charge equals the charge
on Que. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single
A. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons phase transformer, the secondary full load
B. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms current is________
C. 6.24 x 10 12 electrons A. 90.90 Amp
D. none of these B. 9090.9 Amp
Ans. A C. 909.0 Amp
D. 9.09 Amp
Que. The capacitance of parallel plate Ans. C
capacitor is given as
A. C = Є0 A / d Que. A transformer has maximum efficiency
B. C = Є0 d / A at ¾ of full load. The ratio of its iron loss and
C. C = Є0 Єr A / d full load copper loss is_________
D. C= Єr A / d A. 16/9
Ans. C B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 9/16
Ans. D
UNIT IIIB
Que. The full load copper and iron loss of a
Que. Full load copper loss in a transformer is transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W
400 Watt. At half load, copper losses will respectively. The copper loss and iron loss at
be___________ half load will be respectively______
A. 400 Watt A. 3200 W and 2500 W
B. 100 Watt B. 3200 W and 5200 W
C. 200 Watt C. 1600 W and 1250 W
D. 50 Watt D. 1600 W and 5000 W
Ans. B Ans. D
Que. A transformer is working with its Que. In a step down transformer, there is a
maximum efficiency. If the iron losses are 500 change of 15A in the load current. This results
W, the copper loss will__________ in change of supply current of_____________
A. 300 W A. less than 15 A
B. 350 W B. more than 15 A
C. 250 W C. 15A
D. 500 W D. none of these
Ans. D Ans. A
Jo
Que. A transformer has 2600 V on primary

in
side and 260 V on secondary side. The

phase transformer, the primary full load
@
transformation ratio is_

current is____________
SP
A. 10
A. 909.09 Amp
P
B. 5
U
B. 90.90 Amp C. 0.1

B
C. 9.09 Amp
TE
D. 9
D. 9090.9 Amp
C
Ans. C
Ans. C
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A. 2.6%
B. 2.67%
Que. If the copper loss of a transformer at 70% C. 0%
of full load is 200 W. The full load copper loss D. none of these
is ________ Ans. A
A. 200 W
B. 285.71 W Que. If two 10 µF capacitors are connected in
C. 408.16W parallel, then the effective capacitance will
D. none of these be_________
Ans. C A. 2.5 µF
B. 40 µF
Que. A transformer having 1000 primary turns C. 0.4 µF
is connected 250 V ac supply. For a secondary D. 20 µF
voltage of 400 volt, the no of secondary turns Ans. D
should be________
A. 1600 Que. The total capacitance of five capacitor
B. 250 each of 10 µF in series is________________
C. 400 A. 10 µF
D. 1250 B. 2 µF
Ans. A C. 25 µF
D. none of these
Que. If Copper loss of a transformer at 7/8th of Ans. B
the full load is 4900W. Then its full load
copper loss is____ Que. Two capacitors of capacitances C1=0.1
A. 5600 µF and C2=0.2 µF are connected in series
B. 6400 across 300V source. The voltage across C1
C. 375 will be________________
D. 429 A. 100 V
Ans. B B. 200 V
C. 150 V
Que. A 10 kVA, 3300/240 V, single phase, 50 D. 300 V
Hz transformer has a core area of 300 sq. cm. Ans. B
The flux density is 1.3 T. The primary full
load current is ___________ Que. A capacitor stores 0.4C charge at 2 V. Its
A. 3.03 amp capacitance
B. 33.03 amp is___________________________
C. 30.3 amp A. 0.4 F
D. 0.303 amp B. 0.2 F
Jo
Ans. A C. 3.2 F
in
D. 0.8 F
@
Que. The no load voltage at the secondary Ans. B

SP
terminals of single phase transformer is

P
observed as 230 volt. When the transformer is Que. A 20 mF capacitor is in series with a 150
U
loaded, the voltage on secondary side has Ohm resistor. The combination is placed
B
TE
reduced to 224 volt. Then the % regulation of across a 40 V dc source. Time constant of the
C
transformer for that loading is_______ circuit is_____________________

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A. 8 S B. 900 µC
B. 3 S C. 1200 µC
C. 6 S D. 1600 µC
D. 2.4 S Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. The relative permittivity of a material is
Que. Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF and 10. Its absolute permittivity will be
12 µF are connected in parallel across an ac A. 8.854 × 10−11 𝐹/𝑀
source. The maximum current pass through B. 9 × 108 𝐹/𝑀
________________ C. 5 × 10−5 𝐹/𝑀
A. 3 µF D. 9 × 105 𝐹/𝑀
B. 6 µF Ans. A
C. 12 µF
D. all the capacitors Que. An air capacitor has the same dimensions
Ans. C that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance of
Que. Three capacitors each of the capacity C then relative permittivity of mica is
are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be A. 36
obtained by using them B. 12
A. all in series C. 3
B. all in parallel D. 6
C. two in parallel and third in series with this Ans. D
combination
D. two in series and third in parallel across this Que. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2
combination. are connected in parallel. A charge Q given to
Ans. C them is shared. The ratio of charges Q1/Q2
is________.
Que. A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000 A. C2/ C1
µC of charge. The value of capacitance will be B. C1/ C2
A. 10 F C. C1 C2
B. 10 µF D. 1/ C1 C2
C. 100 µF Ans. B
D. 1000 µF
Ans. B Que. Two capacitors have capacitances 25 µF
when in parallel and 6 µF when in series.
Que. When 4 Volt e.m.f. is applied across a 1 Their individual capacitances are
Farad capacitor, it will store energy of A. 12 µF and 13 µF
A. 2 Joule B. 15 µF and 10 µF
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B. 4 Joule C. 14 µF and 11 µF
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C. 6 Joule D. none of the above

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D. 8 Joule Ans. B
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Ans. D
P
Que. The total capacitance of two condensers

U
Que. If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V the

B
is .03µF when joined in series and 0.16µ F

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charge in Coulomb will be_______________ when connected in parallel. The product of

C
A. 800 µC two capacitances will be__________

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A. 5.33 Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF has a
B. 2 potential difference of 100V across its
C. 3 terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ
D. 0.48 resistor. The time constant of the circuit
Ans. D is______.
A. 0.1sec
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 MΩ B. 1sec
resistor is connected across a100 V dc supply. C. 0.01sec
The time constant of the circuit is__________. D. 0.001sec
A. 10 sec Ans. C
B. 0.1 sec
C. 10mSec Que. A capacitor consists of two similar plates
D. 100 Sec each 10cm x 10cm mounted parallel and
Ans. A opposite to each other. The value of
capacitance when distance between them is
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 MΩ 1cm and dielectric used is air is______.
resistor is connected across a100 V dc supply. A. 8.854 pF
The initial value of charging current B. 8.854 µF
is____________. C. 8.854 mF
A. 1mA D. 8.854 F
B. 0.1 mA Ans. A
C. 0.01mA
D. 1.00A
Ans. B Que. The capacitance of capacitor formed by
two parallel plates each 200 cm2 in area
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 MΩ separated by dielectric of 4mm thick is 0.0004
resistor is connected across a100 V dc supply. µF. If voltage of 20000 V is applied then the
The capacitor voltage after a time equal to the total charge on the plate is________
time constant is________ A. 8 µC
A. 36V B. 8 mC
B. 36.6V C. 8 nC
C. 63.2V D. 8 pC
D. 63 V Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area
Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF has a of 2m2 spaced by three slabs of dielectric
potential difference of 100V across its materials. The relative permitivities are 2, 3
terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ and 6 respectively and thicknesses are 0.4mm,
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resistor. The initial discharging current 0.6mm and 0.12 mm respectively. The
in
is_______. combined capacitance is____________.

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A. 1A A. 0.000295 x 10-6 F
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B. 10A B. 0.00295 x 10-6 F

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C. 0.01A C. 0.0295 x 10-6 F

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D. 0.1A D. 0. 295 x 10-6 F

B
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Ans. D Ans. B
C
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Que. What is the unit of charge? C. 10 µF
A. Volt-Amp D. 25 µF
B. Henery Ans. B
C. Farad
D. Coulomb Que. One Coulomb charge equals the charge
Ans. D on
A. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons
Que. What will be the capacitance of four B. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms
capacitors of equal capacitance „C‟ when C. 6.24 x 10 12 electrons
connected in parallel? D. none of these
A. 4C Ans. A
B. C/4
C. 3C/4 Que. The capacitance of parallel plate
D. C capacitor is given as
Ans. A A. C = Є0 A / d
B. C = Є0 d / A
Que. A region around a stationary electric C. C = Є0 Єr A / d
charge has______ D. C= Єr A / d
A. magnetic field Ans. C
B. electric field
C. magnetic field and electric field Que. Two capacitors of 2 µF and 4 µF are
D. neither magnetic field nor electric field connected in parallel across 100 V dc supply.
Ans. B Energy stored in each capacitor will
be_________.
Que. One Farad is the same as A. 0. 1 J and 0. 2 J
A. One Coulomb/Volt B. 0.01 J and 0.02 J
B. One Joule/ Coulomb C. 1J and 2 J
C. One Joule/ Volt D. 0.001 J and 0.002 J
D. One Coulomb / Joule Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. The plate area of a parallel-plate
capacitor is 0.01 sq. m. The distance between
Que. If Q be the charge and C be the the plates is 2.5 cm. If the insulating medium
capacitance then the energy stored in the is air, its capacitance is________
capacitor is ___________ A. 3.54 x 10-12 F
A. 1/2QC B. 35.4 x 10-12 F
B. 1/QC C. 3.54 x 10-10 F
C. Q2/2C D. 3.54 x 10-11 F
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D. Q/2C Ans. A
in
Ans. C
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Que. The plate area of a parallel-plate

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Que. What capacitance must be placed in capacitor is 0.01 sq. m. The distance between
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series with a 15 µF capacitor to give a total the plates is 2.5 cm. If the space between the
U
capacitance of 5 µF?
B
plates is filled with an insulating material of

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A. 4 µF relative permitivity 5, the capacitance value

C
B. 7.5 µF is___________
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A. 177.1 x 10-12 F Que. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase
B. 1.771 x 10-12 F transformer has to be worked at a maximum
C. 17.71 x 10-10 F flux density of 1.1 Web/m2 in the core. The
D. 17.71 x 10-12 F effective cross sectional area of the core is 145
Ans. D
cm2. The no of primary turns___
Que. A parallel-plate capacitor has two plates A. 930 turns
each of area 2.5 m2 separated by three B. 950 turns
dielectric materials of thickness 1, 2 and 3 mm C. 932 turns
and relative permitivities of 2, 4 and 8 D. 923 turns
respectively. The effective capacitance value Ans. C
is__________
A. 1.60 x 10-8 F Que. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase
B. 1.60 x 10-10 F transformer has to be worked at a maximum
C. 1.60 x 10-12 F flux density of 1.1 web/m2 in the core. The
D. 1.60 x 10-9 F effective cross sectional area of the core is 145
Ans. A cm2. The no of secondary turns___
A. 71 turns
B. 75 turns
UNIT IIIC C. 932 turns
D. 923 turns
Ans. A
transformer is built on a core having an Que. A 80 kVA, 6000 V/ 400 V, 50 Hz single
phase transformer has 80 turns on the
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and
secondary winding. The value of maximum
60 turns on the secondary winding. The value
flux in the core________
of maximum flux density___
A. 25.22 mwb
A. 1.25 Tesla
B. 22.52 mwb
B. 1.52 Tesla
C. 52.22 mwb
C. 1.3 Tesla
D. none of these
Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. A 6600 V/220 V, 50 Hz, step down
single phase transformer has 1500 turns on its
transformer is built on a core having an
primary side. If its maximum flux density is
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 1.2 Tesla, then the effective cross sectional
60 turns on the secondary winding. The area of core is _____
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number of turns on the high voltage

A. 16.516 x 10–3 m2
in
winding________
B. 61.516 x 10–3 m2
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A. 600 turns
C. 26.516 x 10–3 m2
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B. 900 turns
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C. 300 turns D. 62.516 x 10–3 m2

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D. 450 turns
B
Ans. A
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Ans. B
C
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Que. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at B. 259.2V
full load its copper loss is 1100 W and its iron C. 2.592V
loss is 950 W. The efficiency at full load for D. 25V
unity power factor is___________ Ans. A
A. 99%
B. 96% Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF
C. 97.77% has a potential difference of 100V across its
D. none of these terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ
Ans. C resistor. The discharging current at 2 msec
is_____
Que. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at A. -0.0818A
full load its copper losses is 1100 W and its B. -0.01A
iron losses is 950 W. The efficiency at 60% of C. -0.00818A
full load for 0.8 lagging power factor D. -1A
is___________ Ans. A
A. 96.97%
B. 96% Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF has
C. 98% a potential difference of 100V across its
D. none of these terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ
Ans. A resistor. The initial rate of fall in voltage
across capacitor is____________
Que. A 500 kVA transformer has iron loss A. 10 4 V/s
of 2 kW and full load copper losses of 5 kW. B. -10 4 V/s
The efficiency at 75% of full load and unity C. -1 4 V/s
power factor__________ D. 10A
A. 98.13% Ans. B
B. 98.73%
C. 99%
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 UNIT IVA

supply. The initial rate of rise of voltage across Que. A standard sinusoidal voltage wave
the capacitor is_________ changes its polarity at________
A. 0.1V/s A. maximum value
B. 10V/s B. minimum value
C. 0.01V/s C. zero value
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D. 1V/s D. none of the above

in
Ans. B Ans. C
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SP
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 Que. Two sine waves are said to be in phase
P
with each other if they achieve their______

U
supply. The voltage across the capacitor 3sec

B
A. zero value at the same time

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after switch on is__________ B. maximum value at the time

C
A. 25.92V C. minimum value at the same time

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D. all of the above B. direction only
Ans. D C. both magnitude and direction
D. neither magnitude nor direction
Que. The distance occupied by one complete Ans. C
cycle of the wave is called its________
A. time period Que. An alternating current of 50 Hz
B. wavelength frequency and 100 A maximum value is given
C. velocity by______
D. frequency A. 𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛628𝑡
Ans. A B. 𝑖 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
C. 𝑖 = 100 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
Que. The rms value of a sine wave of peak D. 𝑖 = 100 2𝑠𝑖𝑛157𝑡
value Imis given by_______ Ans. B
A. Im/√2
B. Im Que. An alternating current is given by the
C. Im/2 𝜋
expression 𝑖 = 200 sin⁡
(314𝑡 + 3 ) amperes.
D. Im/π
Ans. A The maximum value and frequency of the
Que. The average value of a sine wave of A. 200 A, 50 Hz
maximum value I m over one cycle is_______ B. 100√2, 50 Hz
A. Im/π C. 200 A, 100 Hz
B. 2Im/π D. 200 A, 25 Hz
C. zero Ans. A
D. Im/2
Ans. C Que. When two quantities are in quadrature,
the phase angle between them will
Que. The time period of a sinusoidal be________
waveform with 200 Hz frequency A. 45°
is________second. B. 90°
A. 0.05 C. 135°
B. 0.005 D. 60°
C. 0.0005 Ans. B
D. 0.5
Ans. B Que. The ac system is preferred to dc system
because_______
Que. The form factor of a sine wave is_____ A. ac voltages can be easily changed in
A. 1.01 magnitude
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B. 1.11 B. dc motors do not have fine speed control

in
C. 1.21 C. high voltage ac transmission is less efficient

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D. none of the above D. dc voltage can not be used for domestic

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Ans. B appliances
Ans. A
P U
Que. A current is said to be alternating when it

B
Que. In ac system, we generate sine waveform

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changes in_______
because_______
C
A. magnitude only
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A. it can be easily drawn

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B. it produces least disturbance in electrical
circuits Que. An alternating voltage is given by
C. it is nature‟s standard 𝑣 = 30 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 .The time taken by the
D. other waves can not be produced easily voltage to reach 30 V for the first time is_____
Ans. B A. 0.02 second
B. 0.1 second
Que. __________will work only on dc supply. C. 0.03 second
A. electric lamp D. 0.005 second
B. refrigerator Ans. D
C. electroplating
D. heater Que. A sinusoidal current has a magnitude of 3
Ans. C A at 120°. Its maximum value will be_____
A. √3 A
Que. _________will produce ac voltage. 3
B. 2 A
A. friction
B. photoelectric effect C. 2√3 A
C. thermal energy D. 6 A
D. crystal Ans. C
Ans. D
Que. We have assigned a frequency of 50Hz to
Que. A coil is rotating in the uniform field of power system because it_______
an 8-pole generator. In one revolution of the A. can be easily obtained
coil, the number of cycles generated by the B. gives best result when used for operating
voltage is________ both lights and machinery
A. one C. leads to easy calculations
B. two D. none of the above
C. four Ans. B
D. eight
Ans. C Que. An alternating voltage is given by
𝑣 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 volts. Its average value will
Que. An alternating voltage is given by be________
𝑣 = 20 sin 157𝑡. The frequency of the A. 70.7 V
alternating voltage is_____ B. 50 V
A. 50 Hz C. 63.7 V
B. 25 Hz D. 100 V
C. 100 Hz Ans. C
D. 75 Hz
Ans. B Que. An alternating current whose average
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value is 1 A will produce_________1 A dc

in
Que. A sine wave has a maximum value of 20 under similar conditions.

A. less heat than
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V. Its value at 135° is______

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A. 10 V B. more heat than

C. the same heat as
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B. 14.14 V
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C. 15 V D. none of the above

B
Ans. B
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D. 5 V
C
Ans. B
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Que. A sinusoidal alternating current has a
maximum value of I m. Its average value will Que. The direction of current in an ac circuit
be_______ is___________
𝐼𝑚 A. always in one direction
A. 𝜋
𝐼𝑚 B. varying from time to time
B. 2𝜋 C. unpredictable
𝐼𝑚
C. 2 𝜋 D. from positive to negative
D. none of the above Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. Consider the sinusoidal waves:
Que. The area of a sinusoidal wave over a 𝐴sin⁡(𝜔𝑡 + 30°) and 𝐵sin⁡ (𝜔𝑡 − 60°). The
half-cycle is________ phase angle relationship between the two
A. 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2 waves________
B. 2 × 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 A. B-wave lags A-wave by 90°
B. B-wave lags A-wave by 60°
C. 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 𝜋
C. B-wave lags A-wave by 30°
D. 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2𝜋
D. B-wave and A-wave are in phase
Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. An alternating voltage is given by
Que. A sinusoidal voltage is expressed as
𝑣 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value will be_____ 𝜋
A. 100 V 𝑣 = 20 sin⁡(314.16𝑡 + 3 ) V. Its frequency
B. 282.8 V and phase angle respectively
C. 141.4 V are____________
D. 121.4 V A. 314.16 Hz, 60°
Ans. C B. 60Hz, 60°
C. 50 Hz, 60°
Que. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as D. 50 Hz, -60°
𝜋 Ans. C
𝑣 = 141.4 sin⁡(314.18𝑡 − 2 ). Its rms value of
voltage, frequency and phase angle are
Que. A sinusoidal voltageV1 leads another
respectively_______
sinusoidal voltage V2 by 180°.
A. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°
Then__________
B. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
A. voltageV2 leads voltage V1by 180°
C. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90°
B. both voltage have their zero values at the
D. 100 V,50 Hz, -90°
same time
Ans. D
C. both voltages have their peak values at the
same time
Que. When two sinusoidal waves are 90° out
D. all of the above
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of phase, then__________
Ans. D
in
A. both have their peak values at the same

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instant
Que. The rms value of an ac sinusoidal current
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B. both have their minimum values at the same

is 10 A. Its peak value is_________
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instant
A. 7.07 A
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C. one has its peak value; while the other has

B
B. 14.14 A
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zero value
C. 10 A
D. none of these
C
D. 28.28 A
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Ans. B B. +1
C. -1
Que. If A=10∠45° and B=5∠15°, then the 1
D. 2
value of A/B will be_________
Ans. A
A. 50∠60°
B. 2∠60° Que. An alternating current is given by
C. 2∠-30° 𝑖 = 𝐼𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃. The average value of squared
D. 2∠30° wave of this current over a complete cycle
Ans. D is________
A. I2m/2
Que. When a phasor is multiplied by –j, it gets B. Im/π
rotated through_______in the C. 2Im/π
counterclockwise direction. D. 2Im
A. 90° Ans. A
B. 180°
C. 270° Que. The form factor of a sinusoidal wave
D. none of the above is______
Ans. C A. 1.414
B. 1.11
Que. The rms value of sinusoidally varying C. 2
current is_________that of its average value. D. 1.5
A. more than Ans. B
B. less than
C. same as Que. The filament of a vacuum tube requires
D. none of the above 0.4A dc to heat it. The rms value of ac
Ans. A required is______
A. 0.4 × 2 A
Que. Alternating voltages and currents are
B. 0.4 ÷ 2 A
expressed in rms values because______
A. they can be easily determined C. 0.8 ÷ 2 A
B. calculations become very simple D. 0.4 A
C. they give comparison with dc Ans. D
Ans. C Que. A100 V peak ac is as effective
as_____dc
Que. The average value of sin2θ over a A. 100 V
complete cycle is_________ B. 50 V
A. +1 C. 70.7 V
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B. -1 D. none of the above

in
1 Ans. C
C.
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2
D. zero
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Que. The form factor of a ________wave is 1.

Ans. C A. sinusoidal
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B. square
B
Que. The average value of sinθ over a

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C. triangular
complete cycle is_________ D. sawtooth
C
A. zero
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Que. Out of the following _________wave is Que. A heater is rated as 230V, 10KW, AC.
the peakiest. The value of 230V refers to___________
A. sinusoidal A. average voltage
B. square B. rms voltage
C. rectangualr C. peak voltage
D. triangular D. none of the above
Ans. D Ans. B
Que. The peak factor of a sine waveform Que. The peak value of a sine wave is 200V.
is_______ Its average value is_______
A. 1.11 A. 127.4V
B. 1.414 B. 141.4V
C. 2 C. 282.8V
D. 1.5 D. 200V
Ans. B Ans. A
Que. When a 15V square wave is connected Que. The rms value of a sine wave is 100A.
across a 50V ac voltmeter, it will read______ Its peak value is _______
A. 15V A. 70.7A
B. 15 × 2 V B. 141.4A
C. 15/ 2 V C. 150A
D. none of the above D. 282.8A
Ans. A Ans. B
Que. The period of a wave is____________ Que. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V.
A. the same as frequency This figure represents________
B. time required to complete one cycle A. mean value
C. expressed in amperes B. rms value
D. none of the above C. peak value
Ans. B D. average value
Ans. B
Que. The form factor is the ratio of _________
A. peak value to rms value Que. The rms value and mean value is the
B. rms value to average value same in the case of_______
C. average value to rms value A. traingular wave
D. none of the above B. sine wave
Ans. B C. square wave
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D. half wave rectified sine wave

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Que. The period of a sine wave is 1/50 Ans. C

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seconds. Its frequency is_______

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A. 20 Hz Que. For the same peak value which of the

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B. 30 Hz following wave will have the highest rms

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value?
B
C. 40 Hz
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D. 50 HZ A. square wave
C
Ans. D B. half wave rectified sine wave

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C. triangular wave Que. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time
D. sine wave period will be_________
Ans. A A. 0.05 S
B. 0.005 S
Que. For the same peak value which of the C. 0.0005 S
following wave will have the least mean D. 0.5 S
value? Ans. B
A. half wave rectified sine wave
B. triangular wave
C. sine wave
D. square wave
Ans. A
Que. For a sine wave with peak value Imax, the Que. An ac voltage of 50 Hz has a maximum
rms value is_______ value of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second
A. 0.5Imax after the instant the current is zero will
B. 0.707Imax be_________
C. 0.9Imax A. 5V
D. 1.414Imax B. 12.5V
Ans. B C. 25V
D. 43.8V
Que. Form factor is the ratio of_________ Ans. C
A. average value/rms value
B. average value/peak value Que. For 200V rms value triangular wave, the
C. rms value/average value peak voltage will be______
D. rms value/peak value A. 200V
Ans. C B. 222V
C. 282V
Que. For a sine wave with peak value E max, the D. 346V
average value is______ Ans. D
A. 0.636Emax
B. 0.707Emax Que. The rms value of a half-wave rectified
C. 0.434Emax current is 100 A. Its value for full-wave
D. 1.414Emax rectification would be_________amperes.
Ans. A A. 141.4
B. 200
Que. The current in a circuit is given by: C. 200/π
𝑖 = 100 sin 314𝑡 amperes. The maximum D. 40/π
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value and frequency of current are_________ Ans. A

in
A. 50√2 A, 100 Hz
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B. 100√2 A, 100 Hz Que. The rms value of a sinusoidal ac current

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C. 100 A, 50 Hz is equal to its value at an angle of

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D. 70.7 A, 50 Hz ______degrees.
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Ans. C A. 90
B
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B. 60
C
C. 45
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D. 30 A. 200 Hz
Ans. C B. 100 Hz
C. 60 Hz
Que. The rms value of alternating current is D. 50 Hz
given by steady dc current which when Ans. D
flowing through a given circuit for a given
time produces________ Que. The rms value of half wave rectified sine
A. the more heat than produced by ac when wave is 200V. The rms value of full wave
flowing through the same circuit rectified ac will be__________
B. the same heat as produced by ac when A. 282.8V
flowing through the same circuit B. 141.4V
C. the less heat than produced by ac flowing C. 111V
through the same circuit D. 100V
D. none of the above Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. The negative maximum of a cosine wave
Que. The square waveform of current has occurs at________
following relation between rms value and A. 30°
average value: B. 45°
A. rms value is equal to average value C. 90°
B. rms value of current is greater than average D. 180°
value Ans. D
C. rms value of current is less than average
value Que. The rms value of pure cosine function
D. none of the above is_________
Ans. A A. 0.5 of peak value
B. 0.707 of peak value
Que. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 C. same as peak value
Hz with 30A rms current, which of the D. zero
following equation represents the wave? Ans. B
A. 42.42 sin 314𝑡
B. 60 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
C. 30 sin 50𝑡 Que. An alternating voltage is given in volts
D. 84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡 by expression 𝑣 = 326 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value
Ans. A and frequency are____
A. 230V,50 Hz
Que. Which of the following waves has the B. 230V,100 Hz
highest value of peak factor? C. 326V,50 Hz
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A. square wave D. 326V,100 Hz

in
B. sine wave Ans. A

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C. half wave rectified sine wave

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D. triangular wave Que. According to which of the alternating

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Ans. C current values in the cross sectional area of a

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conductor with regard to the heating effect is

B
TE
Que. The frequency of domestic power supply selected?

C
in India is_____ A. peak value

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B. half peak value A. whole cycle
C. average value B. half cycle
D. rms value C. unsymmetrical part of the waveform
Ans. D D. first two cycles
Ans. A
Que. The frequency of an alternating current
is________ Que. A constant current of 2.8A exists in a
A. the speed with which the alternator runs resistor. The rms value of current is______
B. the number of cycles generated in one A. 2.8 A
minute B. about 2 A
C. the number of waves passing through a C. 1.4 A
point in one second D. undefined
D. the number of electrons passing through a Ans. A
point in one second
Ans. C Que. An alternating current is represented as
𝜋
𝑖 = 70.7 sin⁡(520𝑡 + ). The frequency and
6
Que. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave rms value of the current are_________
having rms value of 60 A is______ A. 82.76 Hz, 50 A
A. 60 sin 25𝑡 B. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
B. 60 sin 50𝑡 C. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
C. 84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 D. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
D. 42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. The time period or periodic time T of an
Que. The direction of current in an ac alternating quantity is the time taken in
circuit________ seconds to complete_____________
A. is from positive to negative A. one cycle
B. is always in one direction B. alternation
C. varies from instant to instant C. none of the above
D. can not be determined D. Half cycle
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. The angular frequency of an alternating Que. The time period of an alternating quantity
quantity is a mathematical quantity obtained is 0.02 second.Its frequency will be________
by multiplying the frequency “f” of the A. 25 Hz
alternating quantity by a factor_________ B. 50 Hz
𝜋
A. 2 C. 100 Hz
B. π D. 0.02 Hz
Jo
C. 2π Ans. B
in
D. 4π
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Ans. C Que. The size (cross-sectional area) of a

SP

P
determined on the basis of ……….. value of

U
B
Que. The average value of an unsymmetrical current to be carried by it

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alternating quantity is calculated over A. average value

C
the_________ B. peak value

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C. rms value Que. The phase of alternating quantity at any
D. peak to peak value particular instant is the fraction of ______
Ans. C A. phase
B. time
Que. The form factor for dc supply voltage is C. time period
always D. all above
A. zero Ans. C
B. unity
C. infinity
D. any value between 0 and 1
Ans. B
Que. The ________ varying alternating Que.

quantity can be represented as phasor.
A. circular
B. sinusoidally
C. rectangular
D. triagular
Ans. B
Que. The phasors are assumed to be rotated in _______
_________ direction. A. T
A. clockwise B. T/2
B. anticlockwise C. T/3
C. circular D. T/4
D. all above Ans. D
Ans. B
Que.
Que. In practice, alternating quantities are
A. rms
B. average
C. rectangular
D. polar
Ans. A
_______
Que. Alternating quantities of ____
A. T
frequencies can be represented on same phasor
B. T/2
Jo
diagram.
C. 3T/4
in
A. Same
D. T/4
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B. Different
Ans. C
SP
C. multiple
P
D. all above
U

Ans. A
B

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C
A. zero
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B. positive C. phase difference
C. negative D. none of the above
Ans. B
Que. When phase difference between the two
Que. When phase of an alternating quantity is alternating quantities is _______, the two
negative it means that quantity has some quantities are said to be in phase.
_______ instantaneous value at t=0 A. one
A. zero B. unity
B. positive C. zero
C. negative D. π/2
Ans. C
Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ),
the „v‟ is said to _______ „i‟ by angle Φ
Que. The difference between the _____ of two A. in phase
alternating quantities is called the phase B. lagging
difference. C. leading
A. time D. all above
B. phase angle Ans. C
C. Lengths
D. both a and b
Ans. B Que. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ),
the „i‟ is said to _______ „v‟ by angle Φ
Que. The difference between the phase of two A. in phase
alternating quantities is called the________. B. lagging
A. phase difference C. leading
B. sinedifference D. all above
C. length difference Ans. C
Ans. A Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ),
the „v‟ is said to _______ „i‟ by angle Φ
Que. When phase difference between the two A. in phase
alternating quantities is zero, the two B. lag
quantities are said to be in _____ C. lead
A. tandom D. all above
B. length Ans. B
C. phase
Jo
D. time Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin ωt, the „i‟

in
Ans. C is said to _______ „v‟ by angle Φ

@
A. in phase
SP
Que. When ____________ between the two B. lag

P
alternating quantities is zero, the two C. lead

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quantities are said to be in phase. D. all above

B
TE
A. time difference Ans. A

C
B. length difference
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Que. With respect to reference, plus sign of indicating exact phase relationship is called
angle indicates _______ phasor diagram.
A. leading A. time
B. lagging B. frequency
C. inphase C. sign
D. none of the above D. shape
Ans. A Ans. B
Que. With respect to reference, minus sign of Que. The lagging and leading word is relative
angle indicates _______ to the ______
A. leading A. base
B. lagging B. range
C. inphase C. reference
D. none of the above D. angle
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. With respect to reference, _____ sign of Que. In purely _____ circuit, the current
angle indicates lead flowing and voltage applied are in phase with
A. division each other.
B. plus A. resistive
C. minus B. inductive
D. dot C. capacitive
Ans. A
Que. With respect to reference, _____ sign of
angle indicates lag. Que. In purely resistive circuit, the current and
A. division voltage applied are in ______ with each other.
B. plus A. opposition
C. minus B. phase
D. dot C. direction
Ans. C D. line
Ans. B
Que. The diagram in which different
sinusoidal alternating quantities of the same Que. In purely _______ circuit, current lags
frequency, are represented by individual voltage by 90 degrees.
phasors indicating exact phase relationship is A. resistive
called ________ B. inductive
A. graph C. capacitive
Jo
B. still diagram D. none of the above

in
C. phasor diagram Ans. B

@
D. picture
SP
Ans. C Que. In purely Inductive circuit, current _____

P
voltage by 90 degrees.
U
Que. The diagram in which different A. leads

B
TE
sinusoidal alternating quantities of the same B. lags

C
_____, are represented by individual phasors C. in phase

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D. all above C. XL=ΦL
Ans. B D. XL=ωC
Ans. A
Que. In purely Inductive circuit, current lags Que. Inductive reactance is measured in
voltage by _______ degrees. ______
A. 30 A. Farad
B. 60 B. Henry
C. 90 C. Ohm
D. 120 D. Joule
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. The inductance offers _____ reactance to Que. Inductive reactance depends on ______
DC of applied voltage
A. high A. phase
B. low B. sign
C. zero C. frequency
D. none of the above D. speed
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. The _________ offers zero reactance to Que. Inductive reactance is _________
DC frequency.
A. resistance A. inversely proportional to
B. inductance B. directly proportional to
C. permeance C. indepedent of
D. none of the above C. none of above
Ans. B Ans. B
Que. The inductance offers zero _________ to Que. Inductive reactance is directly
DC proportional to ________.
A. resistance A. time
B. capacitance B. phase
C. reactance C. frequency
D. permeance D. phase difference
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. Pure ______ never consumes power Que. In purely capacitive circuit, current
A. resistor ______ voltage by 90 degrees.
Jo
B. inductor A. lags
in
C. starter B. leads
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D. circuit C. in phase
SP
Ans. B D. all above

P
Ans. B
U
Que. Inductive reactance is given by_____

B
TE
A. XL=ωL Que. In purely capacitive circuit, current leads

C
B. XL=2πL voltageby _______ degrees.

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A. 30 Que. Inductive reactance is given by_____
B. 60 A. XC=1/ωC
C. 90 B. XC=1/2𝝅C
D. 120 C. XC=1/ΦC
Ans. C D. XC=2𝝅fL
Ans. A
Que. The capacitor offers _____ reactance to
DC. Que. ______is given by XC=1/ωL
A. high A. resistance
B. low B. inductance
C. zero C. inductive reactance
D. none of the above D. capacitive reactance
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. The _________ offers infinite reactance Que. Capacitive reactance is measured in
to DC ______
A. resistance A. farads
B. permeance B. henrys
C. capacitance C. ohms
D. none of the above D. joules
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. The capacitance offers infinite Que. Capacitive reactance is _________ to

_________ to DC frequency.
A. resistance A. inversely proportional
B. capacitance B. directly proportional
C. reactance C. both
D. permeance C. none of above
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. The power curve of pure capacitor is Que. Capacitive reactance is inversly
________ curve of frequency double than that proportional to ________.
of applied voltage A. time
A. sine B. phase
B. square C. frequency
C. tringular D. phase difference
D. sawtooth Ans. C
Ans. A
Jo
Que. A certain inductor has reactance of 4kΩ

in
Que. Pure ______ never consumes power at 5kHz. Its reactance at 15 kHz is _____ kΩ.
@
A. resistor A. 8
SP
B. capacitor B. 10
P
C. starter C. 12
U
D. circuit D. 20
B
TE
Ans. B Ans. C
C
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Que. The square of aj operator _____ D. from positive to negative
A. can never be negative Ans. B
B. can never be positive
C. could be either positive or negative Que. Consider the sinusoidal waves: A sin
D. is equal to j (ωt+30) and B cos(ωt-60). The phase angle
Ans. B relationship between two waves is:
A. B wave lags A wave by 90 degrees
Que. A complex number_____ B. B wave lags A wave by 60 degrees
A. is the same as imaginary number C. B wave lags A wave by 30 degrees
B. has real and imaginary part D. B wave and A wave are in phase
C. is negative number Ans. D
D. is merely a technical term
Ans. B Que. Thereactance of L Henryinductance
connected to an AC source of frequency f is
Que. The sum of (3+j6) and (-3-j6) is ____ ______ ohm.
A. 0+j0 A. fL
B. 6+j12 B. πfL
C. -6-j12 C. 2 πfL
D. 0-j12 D. all above
Ans. A Ans. C
Que. A sinusoidal voltageis represented as: v = Que. When pure inductance is connected to an
141.4 sin(314.18t-π/2). Its rms value of AC sources, the voltage____ to the current by
voltage, frequency and phase angle are ____
respectively____ A. lags, 90 degrees
A. 141.42V, 314.16 Hz, 90 degrees B. leads, 90 degrees
B. 100V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees C. lags, 45 degrees
C. 87.92V, 56 Hz, 90 degrees D. leads, 45 degrees
D. 200V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. When a phasor is multiplied by j and –j,
Que. When two sinusoidal waves are 90 it is rotated through ______ degrees in the
degrees out of phase, then ____ anticlockwise direction respectively.
A. both have their peak values at the same A. 90,270
time B. 90,90
B. both have their minimum values at the same C. 90,180
time D. 270,90
C. one has its peak value, other has zero value Ans. A
Jo
D. none of these
in
Ans. C Que. The p. f. of purely resistive circuit is

@
____
SP
Que. The direction of current in an AC circuit A. zero

P
is _____ B. unity
U
A. always in one direction C. lagging

B
TE
B. varyingtime to time periodically D. leading

C
C. unpredictable Ans. B
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B. sinusoid of double the original frequency
Que. If e1 = 100 sin(2πf) and e2 = 100 sin(2πf- C. sinusoid of half the original frequency
Φ), then _____ D. non-sinusoid
A. e1 lags e2 by Φ Ans. A
B. e1 leads e2 by Φ
C. e2 lags e1 by Φ Que. A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a
D. none of the above resistor. The rms value of current is ____
Ans. C A. 2.8 A
B. 2 A
Que. The average power in a purely inductive C. 1.4 A
or capacitive circuit over a cycle____ D. undefined
A. depends on XLor XC Ans. A
B. is negative
C. is zero Que. The power factor of an ordinary bulb is
D. is positive _____
Ans. C A. zero
B. unity
Que. Inductive reactance of an AC circuit C. more than unity
increases with ____ D. less than unity
A. increase in frequency Ans. B
B. increase in resistance
C. decrease in resistance Que. When aphasor is multiplied by –j, it is
D. decrease in frequency rotated through ____ in counter-clockwise
Ans. A direction
A. 90
Que. When the two quantities are in B. 180
quadrature, the phase angle between them will C. 270
be ____ degrees. D. none of the above
A. 45 Ans. C
B. 90
C. 135 Que. If the phasor is multiplied by j, then ____
D. 60 A. only its magnitude changes
Ans. B B. only its direction changes
C. both magnitude and direction change
Que. The phase difference between two D. none of the above
waveforms can be compared when they _____ Ans. B
A. have the same frequency
B. have the same peak value Que. In the complex number 4+j7, 7 is called
Jo
C. have the same effective value the ______ component

in
D. are sinusoidal A. real

@
Ans. A B. imaginary
SP
C. in-phase
P
Que. If two sinusoids of the same frequency D. none of the above

U
but of different amplitude and phase difference Ans. D

B
TE
are added, the resultant is a ______

C
A. sinusoid of same frequency

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Que. The reciprocal of a complex number is Ans. B
a_____
A. complex number Que. The difference of two conjugate number
B. real component only results in _____
C. quadrature component only A. a complex number
D. none of above B. in-phase component only
Ans. A C. quadrature component only
Que. If two complex numbers are equal, Ans. C
then_____
A. only their magnitudes will be equal Que. The reciprocal of j is ____
B. only their angles will be equal A. j
C. their in phase and quadrature components B. -j
will be separately equal C. jxj
D. none of above D. none of the above
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. A phasor 2 180 can be expressed Que. Two waves of same frequency have
as____ opposite phase when the phase angle between
A. j2 them is ___ degrees
B. -j2 A. 360
C. -2 B. 180
D. 2 C. 90
Ans. C D. 0
Ans. B
Que. A current of (3+j4) A is flowing through
a circuit. The magnitude of current is _____ Que. The power consumed in a circuit element
A. 7 A will be least when the phase difference
B. 5 A between the current and voltageis ____
C. 1 A degrees.
D. 1.33 A A. approx.180
Ans. B B. approx. 90
C. approx. 60
Que. The voltage applied in a circuit is given D. approx. 0
by 100 60 volts. It can be written as ____ Ans. B
A. 100 -60
B. 100 240 Que. Two sinusoidal currents are given by i1 =
C. 100 -300 100sin(ωt+π/3) and i2 = 150sin(ωt-π/4). The
Jo
D. none of the above phase difference between them is _____

in
Ans. C degrees
@
A. 15
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Que. The conjugate of -4+j3 is _____ B. 50

P
A. 4-j3 C. 60
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B. -4-j3 D. 105
B
TE
C. 4+j3 Ans. D
C

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Que. Capacitive reactance is more when____ B. current leads the voltageby 90 degrees
A. capacitance is less and frequency of supply C. current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90
is less degrees
B. capacitance is less and frequency of supply D. current is in phase with the voltage
is more Ans. B
C. capacitance is more and frequency of
supply is less Que. A phasor is _____
D. capacitance is more and frequency of A. a line which represents the magnitude and
supply is more phase of an alternatingquantity
Ans. A B. a line which represents the magnitude and
direction of an alternatingquantity
Que. Pure inductive circuit ______ C. acoloured tag or band for distinction
A. consumes some power on average between different phases of a 3 phase supply
B. does not take power at all from lines D. an instrument used for measuring phases of
C. takes power from the line during some part an unbalanced 3 phase load
of cycle and returns back during other part of Ans. B
cycle
D. none of the above Que. Ohm is the unit of all the following
Ans. C except
A. inductive reactance
Que. Power factor of the following circuit will B. capacitive reactance
be zero C. resistance
A. resistive D. capacitance
B. pureinductive Ans. D
C. pure capacitive
D. both (B) and (C) Que. For a purely resistive circuit the
Ans. D following statement is correct
A. work done is zero
Que. Power factor of the following circuit will B. power consumed is zero
be unity C. heat produced is zero
A. resistive D. power factor is unity
B. pureinductive Ans. D
C. pure capacitive
D. both (B) and (C) Que. For purely inductive circuit if v = Vm sin
Ans. A (ωt) then equation of current is _____
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
Que. In pure resistive circuit _____ B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
A. current lags the voltageby 90 degrees C. i = Im sin (ωt-π)
Jo
B. current leads the voltageby 90 degrees D. i = Im sin (ωt+π)

in
C. current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90 Ans. A

@
degrees
SP
D. current is in phase with the voltage Que. For purely capacitive circuit if v = Vm
sin (ωt) then equation of current is _____
P
Ans. D
U
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
B
TE
Que. In pure inductive circuit _____ B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)

C. i = Im sin (ωt-π)
C
A. current lags the voltageby 90 degrees

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D. i = Im sin (ωt+π) Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following statements
Que. For purely resistive circuit if v = Vm sin pertains to resistor only
(ωt) then equation of current is _____ A. can dissipate considerable amount of power
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2) B. can act as energy storage device
B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2) C. connecting them in parallel increases the
C. i = Im sin (ωt) total value
D. i = Im sin (ωt+π) D. opposes sudden change in voltage
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. A sinusoidal voltageV1 leads another Que. The length of a phasor in a phasor
sinusoidal voltage V2 by 180 degrees. Then diagram normally represents the …………
____ value of the alternating quantity
A. voltageV2 leads voltageV1 by 180 degrees A. rms or effective
B. both voltagehave their zero values at the B. average
same time C. peak
C. both voltagehave their peak values at the D. none of these
same time Ans. A
D. all of above
Ans. D Que. The two quantities are said to be in phase
with each other when
Que. If A = 10 45 and B = 5 15, then the A. the phase difference between two quantities
value of A/B will be___ is zero degree or radian
A. 50 60 B. each of them pass through zero values at the
B. 2 60 same instant and rise in the same direction
C. 2 -30 C. each of them pass through zero values at the
D. 2 30 same instant but rises in the opposite
Ans. D directions
D. either (a) or (b)
Que. The active power of AC circuit is given Ans. D
by ___
A. VI sin Φ Que. The phase difference between the two
B. I2XL waveforms can be compared only when they
C. I2R A. have the same frequency
D. I2Z B. have the same peak value
Ans. C C. have the same effective value
D. are sinusoidal
Jo
Que. Inductance of coil____ Ans. A

in
A. is unaffected by the supply frequency

@
B. decreses with the increase in supply Que. The phasor diagram for alternating
SP
frequency quantities can be drawn if they have ………

P
C. increases with the increase in supply waves

U
frequency A. rectangular
B
TE
D. becomes zero with the increase in supply B. sinusoidal

C
frequency C. triangular
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D. any of these Que. The phasor diagram of voltage and
Ans. B current considering phasors are rotates
clockwise direction is of
Que. Which of the following statements
associated with purely resistive circuits is
I
correct?
A. PF is unity
V
B. Power consumed is zero
C. Heat produced is zero
D. PF is zero A. Pure resistance
Ans. A B. pure inductance
C. pure capacitance
Que. Average power in a pure resistive circuit D. pure capacitance and pure inductance
is equal to Ans. B
A. zero
B. product of average values of current and Que. The power factor of an ac circuit lies
voltage between
C. product of peak values of current and A. 0 and 1
voltage B. -1 and 1
D. product of rms or effective values of C. 0 and -1
current and voltage D. none of these
Ans. D Ans. A
Que. The power factor of an ac circuit is equal

to UNIT IVB
A. tangent of the phase angle
B. sine of phase angle Que. The period of a certain sine wave is 10
C. unity for a resistive circuit milliseconds. Its frequency is________
D. unity for a reactive circuit A. 10 MHz
Ans. C B. 10 KHz
C. 10 Hz
Que. The phasor diagram of voltage and D. 100 Hz
current considering phasors are rotates Ans. D
anticlockwise direction is of
Que. The rms value of a sine wave of
I maximum value 10A equals a dc current of
______ampere.
A. 7.07
Jo
V
B. 6.37
in
C. 5
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A. pure resistance D. 5.77

SP
B. pure inductance Ans. A

P
C. pure capacitance
U
D. pure capacitance and pure inductance

B
Que. The rms value of a sinusoidal voltage

TE
Ans. C with peak-to-peak value of 240 V

C
is________V.
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A. 84.84 C. 100V
B. 77.82 D. 173.2V
C. 94.68 Ans. C
D. 89.15
Ans. A Que. How much rms current does a 300W,
200V bulb take from the 200V, 50Hz power
line?
Que. The peak value of a sine wave is 400 V. A. 0.5 A
Its average value is_________V. B. 1.5 A
A. 254.6 C. 2 A
B. 282.6 D. 3 A
C. 400 Ans. B
D. 565.5
Ans. A Que. Polar form of v = 100 sin(100πt+π/6)
Volt is ________
Que. The average value of the current 𝑖 = A. 61.2371+j35.3553
𝜋
200 sin 𝑡 from 𝑡 = 0 to 𝑡 = 2 is ______ B. 70.7106 30
A. 400 π C. 61.2371 35.3553
400 D. 70.710+ j30
B. 𝜋 Ans. B
1
C. 400
𝜋 Que. Rectangular form of V= 100
D. 400
sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is ________
Ans. B A. 61.2371+j35.3553
B. 70.7106 30
Que. An alternating current is given by C. 61.2371 35.3553
𝑖 = 10 sin 314𝑡. The time taken to generate D. 70.710+ j30
two cycles of current is____ Ans. A
A. 0.02 second
B. 0.01 second Que. RMS value of current I = 25 + j40 Amp
C. 0.04 second is _______
D. 0.05 second A. 57.99
Ans. C B. 47.1699
C. 60
Que. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its D. 30
angular frequency is_______radian/second Ans. B
A. 100π
B. 50π Que. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -
C. 25π
Jo
100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then

D. 5π
in
I1/I2 =________
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Ans. A A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A

SP
B. 2150 A
Que. A sine wave of voltage varies from zero
P
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
U
to maximum of 200V. How much is the

B

voltage at theinstant of 30° of the cycle?
TE
Ans. B
A. 50V
C
H
B. 82.8V
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Que. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal Que. The curve for the instantaneous power
current of 1 A at frequency of 50 Hz. The with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
average power dissipated by the inductor is current is shown in figure is of
____
A. 0 P P
+
+
B. 3.14 W v
C. 0.5 W 0
i

D. 1 W    t
2 2
Ans. A
- -
P P
Que. The curve for the instantaneous power

with respect to the waveforms of voltage & A. pure resistance
current is shown in figure is of B. pure inductance
p p C. pure capacitance
v D. pure capacitance and pure inductance
i
Ans. C

0
 t
UNIT IVC
Que. An electric iron designed for 110 V
A. pure resistance AC supply was rated at 500 W. It was put
B. pure inductance across a 220 V
C. resistance and capacitance supply. Assuming that at 110 V, it supplied
D. pure capacitance 500 W output (i.e. no losses) at the new
Ans. A voltage it will
supply_________
Que. The curve for the instantaneous power A. 2500 W
with respect to the waveforms of voltage & B. 2000 W
current is shown in figure is of C. 500 W
P P
D. 250 W
+ +
Ans. B
v
i 
 
0

2
t
Que. The mean value of the current
𝜋
2
𝑖 = 20 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 from θ=0 to θ=2 is_______
-
P
-
P A. 40π
T
40
B. 𝜋
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A. pure resistance 1
C. 40
in
B. pure inductance 𝜋
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C. pure capacitance D. 40
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D. purecapaciatance and pure inductance Ans. B

P
Ans. B
U
Que. An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10

B
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sin 314 t, the average and rms values of the

C
current are____
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A. 16.36 A, 17.07 A D. 10
B. 10 A, 17.07 A Ans. A
C. 10 A, 12.25 A
D. 16.36 A, 12.2 A Que. If 10 ohm resistor is connected across
Ans. C an AC voltagev = 100 sin(314t+300), the
power dissipated through resistor is _____
Que. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 A. 500 W
-100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then B. 1000 W
I1+I2 =________ C. 250 W
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A D. 100 W
B. 5.55964.924 A Ans. A
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
D. None of the above Que. For a frequency of 50 Hz, the
Ans. A reactance offered by capacitor is 10 ohms, If
the frequency is increased to 100 Hz, the
Que. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 reactance becomes____
-100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then A. 40 ohms
I1-I2 =________ B. 20 ohms
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A C. 5 ohms
B. 5.5596 4.924 A D. 2.5 ohms
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A Ans. C
Ans. C Que. Which value of inductance will give
the same reactance as a capacitor of 2 µF when
Que. In purely inductive circuit, if the both are at 50 Hz?
frequency is doubled and applied voltage is A. 5 H
halved, the resulting current becomes____ B. 10 H
A. one-fourth C. 15 H
B. one-fifth D. 20 H
C. one-half Ans. A
D. one-third
Ans. A Que. If a 10 ohm resistance is connected to
an AC supply v = 100 sin (314t+370) V, the
Que. The product of (-4-j7) and (6-j2) power dissipated by the resistance is
is______ A. 10 kW
A. -24+j14 B. 1 kW
B. 24-j14 C. 500 W
C. -38-j34 D. 250 W
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D. -24-j14 Ans. C
in
Ans. C
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Que. A coil has XL = 1000 ohm. If both its

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Que. Inductive reactance of a coil of inductance and frequency are doubled, its
P
inductance 0.2 H at 50 Hz is ____ ohms. reactance will become ___ ohm

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A. 2000
B
A. 62.8
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B. 628 B. 500
C
C. 0.2 C. 250
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D. 4000 A. 5 A
Ans. D B. 3.18 A
C. 1.57 A
Que. A pure inductance connected across D. 1.10 A
250 V, 50 Hz supply consumes 100 W. This Ans. B
consumption is due to_____
A. the big size of the inductor Que. An alternating current is given by
B. the reactance of the inductor 𝑖 = 10 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Measuring time from 𝑡 = 0,
C. the current flowing in the inductor the time taken by the current to reach +10 V
D. the statement given is false for the second time is_________
Ans. D A. 0.05 second
B. 0.1 second
Que. A pure capacitor connected across an C. 0.025 second
AC voltage consumed 50 W. This D. 0.02 second
A. is due to the capacitive reactance in ohms Ans. C
B. is due to the current flowing in capacitor
C. is due to the size of capacitor Que. An ac current is given by 𝑖 =
D. statement is incorrect 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛100𝜋𝑡. It will achieve a value of 100A
Ans. D after_____second.
1
A. 900
Que. An alternating current of 50 Hz 1
frequency has a maximum value of 100 A. Its B. 800
value 1/600 second after the instant current is 1
C. 700
zero will be________ 1
A. 25 A D. 600
B. 12.5 A Ans. D
C. 50 A
D. 75 A Que. The voltage in a circuit follows the
Ans. C law: 𝑣 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡. If the frequency is 25
Hz, how long willit take for the voltage to rise
Que. A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to 50V?
1
to a maximum of 250 V. The voltage at the A. 50 S
instant of 60° of the cycle will be________ 1
A. 150 V B. 100 S
1
B. 216.5 V C. 300 S
C. 125 V 1
D. 108.25 V D. 600 S
Ans. B Ans. C
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in
Que. The alternating voltage 𝑒 =

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200 sin 314𝑡 is applied to a device which

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offers an ohmic resistance of 20 Ω to the flow

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of current in one direction while entirely

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preventing the flow in the opposite direction.

B
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The average value of the current will

C
be_________
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Unit II
Part (a) ELECTROSTATICS
1. A dielectric material must be________ c. smaller than the capacitance of smallest

a. resistor capacitor
b. Insulator d. average of the capacitance of all capacitor
c. Conductor ans:c
d. Semiconductor
ans:b 6.The total capacitance of five capacitor each of
10 µF in series is________________
2. The energy stored in capacitance is given a.10 µF
by__________________________ b.2 µF
a. C2V c.25 µF
b. CV2/2 d. none of these
c. C2V/2 ans:b
d. CV
ans:b 7. Two capacitors of capacitance C1=0.1 µF and
C2=0.2 µF are connected in series across 300V
3. Electrolytic capacitors can be used source. The voltages across C1 will be________
for__________________________ a. 100 V
a. a.c. only b. 200 V
b. d.c. only c. 150 V
c. both a.c. and d.c. d. 300 V
d. 50 Hz a.c. ans:b
ans:b
8. A capacitor stores 0.4C charge at 2 V. Its
4. If two 10 µF capacitors are connected in capacitance is___________________________
parallel, then the effective capacitance will a. 0.4 F
be_________ b. 0.2 F
a.2.5 µF c. 3.2 F
b.40 µF d. 0.8 F
c.0.4 µF ans:b
d.20 µF
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ans:d 9. A20mF capacitor is in series with a 150 ohm

in
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5. If a number of capacitors are connected in resistor. The combination is placed across a 40V
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series then the total capacitance of combination dc source. Time constant of the circuit
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is_____ is_____________________
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a. greater than the capacitance of largest a. 8 s

B
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capacitor b. 3 s
C
b. greater than the capacitance of any capacitor c. 6 s

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d. 2.4s ans: a
ans: b
10. Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF, and 12 a. Volts/Coulomb
µF are connected in parallel across an a.c. b. Coulomb/Volt
source. The maximum current pass through c. Ohms
________________ d. Henry/Wb
a.3 µF ans: b
b.6 µF
c.12 µF 16. There is repulsive force between two
d. all the capacitors charged objects when
ans:c a. Charges of unlike sign
b. they have the same number of protons
11.As per Coulomb’s law___________________ c. charges are of same sign
a. F= Q1Q2 / εoεrd2 d. they have the same number of protons
b. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋d2 ans: c
c. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋 εoεrd2
d. F= Q1Q2 /4𝜋 εoεrd 17. The capacitance of a capacitor is not
ans: c affected by
a. distance between plates
12. Electric field intensity at any point in an b. area of plates
electric field is equal to_______ c. thickness of plates
a. potential gradient d. all of the above
b. (potential gradient)2 ans: c
c. (potential gradient)1/2
d. (potential gradient)1/3 18. When there is an equal amount of positive
ans: a and negative charges on an object the object is
a. Positively charged
13. The lines of forces due to isolated charged b. negatively charged
particle are___________ c. neutral
a. always straight d. supercharged
b. always curved ans:c
c. sometimes curved
d. none of the above 19. Which of the following statements is
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ans: a correct?
in
a. Air capacitors have a black band to indicate

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14. The direction of electric field due to positive the outside foil
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charge is___ b. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in

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a. away from the charge the correct polarity

B
b. towards the charge c. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the

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c. both (a) and (b) correct polarity

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d. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance

value of 1 to 10 µF 24. In a capacitor the electric charge is
ans: b deposited on
a. metal plates
20. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are b. dielectric
given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be c. both (a) and (b)
obtained by using them d. none of the above
a. all in series ans:a
b. all in parallel
c. two in parallel and third in series with this 25. Which of the following materials has the
combination highest value of dielectric constant?
d. two in series and third in parallel across this a. Glass
combination. b. Vaccum
ans:c c. Ceramics
d. Oil
21. For which of the following parameter ans: c
remains unaffected? 26. Capacitance of air capacitor increases with
a. Distance between plates a. increase in plate area and decrease in
b. Area of the plates distance between the plates
c. Nature of dielectric b. increase in plate area and distance between
d. Thickness of the plates the plates
ans: d c. decrease in plate area and value of applied
voltage
22. Which of the following expression is correct d. reduction in plate area and distance between
for electric field strength? the plates
a. E = D/𝝐 ans: a
b. E = D2/𝝐
c. E = 𝝅D 27. A capacitor consists of
d. E = 𝝅D2 a. two insulators separated by a conductor
ans: a b. two conductor separated by a dielectric
c. two insulators only
23. Which of the following statement is true? d. two conductors only
a. The current in the discharging capacitor ans:b
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grows linearly
in
b. The current in the discharging capacitor 28. A paper capacitor is usually available in the
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grows exponentially form of

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c. The current in the discharging capacitor a. tubes

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decays exponentially b. rolled foil

B
d. The current in the discharging capacitor c. disc

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decreases constantly d. meshed plates

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ans:c ans:b
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34. Energy stored in the electrical field of a

29. Air capacitors are generally available in the capacitor C when charged from a D.C, source of
range voltage V is equal to …….. Joule
a. 10 to 400 pF a. ½ CV2
b. 1 to 20 pF b. ½ C2V
c. 100 to 900 pF c. CV2
d. 20 to 100 pF d. C2V
ans:a ans:a
30. The unit of capacitance is 35. The absolute permittivity of free space is
a. Henry given by
b. Ohm a. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m
c. Farad b. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m
d. Farad/m c. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m
ans:c d. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ans:d
31. A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000 µC of
charge. The value of capacitance will be 36. The relative permittivity of free space is
a. 10 F given by
b. 10 µF a. 1
c. 100 µF b. 10
d. 1000 µF c. 100
ans:b d. 1000
ans:a
32. Voltage across capacitor at any time‘t’
during charging from a D.C. source of voltage V 37. When 4 Volt e.m.f. is applied across a 1
is given by Farad capacitor, it will store energy of
a. ν = Ve-t/λ a. 2 Joule
b. ν = V(1-e-t/λ) b. 4 Joule
c. ν = V2e-t/λ c. 6 Joule
d. ν = V2(1-e-t/λ) d. 8 Joule
ans:b ans:d
33. The ratio of electric flux density to electric 38. The capacitor preferred for high frequency
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field intensity is called ………. of the medium circuits is

in
a. permeability a. air capacitor

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b. permittivity b. mica capacitor

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c. reluctance c. electrolytic capacitor

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d. capacitance d. paper capacitor

B
ans:b ans:b
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39. If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V the ans: a

charge in Coulomb will be_______________
a. 800 µC 44. Permittivity is expressed in_______
b. 900 µC a. Farad/sq-m
c. 1200 µC b. weber/metre
d. 1600 µC c. Farad/meter
ans:c d. weber/ square metre
ans:c
40. Which of the following capacitors is marked
for polarity____________________? 45. Dielectric strength of a material depends
a. air on_________________
b. paper a. moisture content
c. mica b. temperature
d. electrolyte c. thickness
ans: d d. all of the above
ans: d
41. Which of the following capacitor are usually
used for radio frequency tuning__________ 46. 1 Volt /metre is same as
a. air a. 1 metre/coulomb
b. paper b. 1 Newton metre
c. mica c. 1 Newton /Coulomb
d. electrolyte d. 1 Joule /Coulomb
ans: b ans: c
42. The time constant of an R-C circuit is 47. The relative permittivity of air is__________
defined as the time during which capacitor a.0
charging voltage actually rises to ---------------- b.1.0006
percent of its ---------- value c. 8.854 × 10−12
a.37, initial d. none of the above
b.63.2, initial ans:b
c.63.2, final
d.37, final 48. The relative permittivity of a material is 10.
ans: c Its absolute permittivity will be
a. 8.854 × 10−11 𝐹/𝑀
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43. The time constant of an R-C circuit is b. 9 × 108 𝐹/𝑀

in
defined as the time during which capacitor c. 5 × 10−5 𝐹/𝑀

@
charging current actually falls to ---------------- d. 9 × 105 𝐹/𝑀

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percent of its initial maximum value ans: a

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a.37
B
b.63 49. The capacitance of a capacitor is ………

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c.42 relative permittivity

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a. directly proportional to 54. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by

b. inversely proportional to a conducting material the
c. independent of a. capacitor will get heated up owing to eddy
d. directly proportional to square of currents
ans: a b. plates will get short-circuited
c. capacitor can store infinite charge
50. An air capacitor has the same dimensions d. capacitance will become very high
that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance of ans:b
then relative permittivity of mica is 55. The total capacitance of two condensers is
a. 36 .03µF when joined in series and 0.16µF when
b. 12 connected in parallel. The products of two
c. 3 capacitance will be__________
d. 6 a.5.33
ans: d b.2
c.3
51. The most convenient way of achieving large d.0.48
capacitance is by using ans:d
a. multiplate construction
b. decreased distance between plates 56. Joule / Coulomb is the unit of
c. air as dielectric a. Electric field potential
d. dielectric of low permittivity b. Potential
ans: a c. charge
d. none of the above.
52. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2 are ans:b
connected in parallel. A charge Q given to them
is shared. The ratio of charges Q1/Q2 is 57 .A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm
a. C2/ C1 resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.
b. C1/ C2 Determine the time constant of the circuit
c. C1 C2 a. 10 sec.
d. 1/ C1 C2 b. 0.1 sec
ans: b c. 10mSec
d. 100 Sec
53. Two capacitors have capacitance 25 µF ans:a
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when in parallel and 6 µF when in series. Their

in
individual capacitances are 58. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm

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a. 12 µF and 13 µF resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.

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b. 15 µF and 10 µF Determine the initial value of charging current.

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c. 10 µF and 8 µF a. 1mA
B
d. none of the above b. 0.1 mA

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ans:b c. 0.01mA
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ans:b
59. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm potential difference of 100V across its
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm
Determine the initial rate of rise of voltage resistor. Find discharging current at 2m Sec.
across the capacitor. a. - 0.0818A
a. 0.1V/s b. - 0.01A
b. 10V/s c. - 0.00818A
c. 0.01V/s d. - 1A
d. 1V/s ans:a
ans:b
60. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm potential difference of 100V across its
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm
Determine the capacitor voltage after a time resistor. Find initial rate of fall in voltage across
equal to the time constant. capacitor.
a.36V a. 10 4 V/s
b.36.6V b. -10 4 V/s
c.63.2V c. -1 4 V/s
d.63 V d. 10A
ans:c ans:b
61. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm 65. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. potential difference of 100V across its
Determine the voltage across the capacitor terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm
3sec. after switch on. resistor. Find time constant of the circuit.
a.25.92V a. 0.1sec
b.259.2V b. 1sec
c.2.592V c. 0.01sec
d.25V d. 0.001sec
ans:a ans:c
62. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a 66. A capacitor consists of two similar plates
potential difference of 100V across its each 10cm x 10cm mounted parallel and
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terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ resistor. opposite to each other. What is the value of
in
Find Initial discharging current. capacitance when distance between them is

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a.1A 1cm and dielectric used is air.

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b.10A a. 8.854 pF
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c.0.01A b. 8.854 µF
B
d.0.1A c. 8.854 mF
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ans:d d. 8.854 F
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a. magnetic field
67. The capacitance of capacitor formed by two b. electric field
parallel plates each 200 cm2 in area separated c. magnetic field and electric field
by dielectric of 4mm thick is 0.0004µF. If d. neither magnetic field nor electric field
voltage of 20000 V is applied then the total ans: b
charge on the plate is
a. 8µC 72. One Farad is the same as
b. 8mC a. One Coulomb/Volt
c. 8nC b. One Joule/Coulomb
d. 8pC c. One Joule/Volt
ans: a d. One Coulomb /Joule
ans: a
68. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area of
2m2 spaced by three slabs of dielectric 73 . If Q be the charge and C be the capacitance
materials. The relative permittivity’s are 2,3 and then the energy stored in the capacitor is
6 respectively and thickness are 0.4mm, 0.6mm a. 1/2QC
and 0.12 mm respectively. Find the combined b. 1/QC
capacitance. c. Q2/2C
a. 0.000295 x 10-6 F d. Q/2C
b. 0.00295 x 10-6 F ans: c
c. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
d. 0. 295 x 10-6 F 74.What capacitance must be placed in series
ans: b with a 15µF capacitor to give a total capacitance
of 5µF
69. What is the unit of charge? a. 4µF
a. Volt-Amp b. 7.5µF
b. Henery c. 10µF
c. Farad d. 25µF
d. Coulomb ans: b
ans: d 75. One Coulomb charge equals the charge on
a. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons
70. What will be the capacitance of four b. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms
capacitors of equal capacitance ‘C’ when c 6.24 x 10 12electrons
connected in parallel d. none of these
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a. 4C ans: a
in
b. C/4
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c. 3C/4 76. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is

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d. C given as
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ans: a a. C = Є0 A / d
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b. C = Є0 d / A
71. A region around a stationary electric charge
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or A 80. The plate area of a parallel-plate capacitor is

c. C = d 0.01 sq. m. The distance between the plates is
d. C = Єr A / d 2.5 cm. What would be its capacitance, if the
ans: c space between the plates is filled with an
insulating material of relative permittivity 5?
77. Two capacitors of 2 µF and 4 µF are a 177.1 x 10-12 F
connected in parallel across 100 V D.C. supply. b. 1.771 x 10-12 F
Determine (i) Energy stored on each capacitor c . 17.71 x 10-10 F
a. 0. 1 J and 0. 2 J d. 17.71 x 10-12 F
b. 0.01 J and 0.02 J ans: d
c 1 J and 2 J
d. 0.001 J and 0.002 J 81.A parallel-plate capacitor has two plates
ans: b each of area 2.5 m2 separated by three
dielectric materials of thickness 1, 2 and 3 mm
78. The capacitance composit capacitor is given and relative permittivity’s of 2, 4 and 8
as respectively. Calculate (i) the capacitance of the
oA capacitor
a. C = d d2 d3 a. 1.60 x 10-8 F
1
+ + b. 1.60 x 10-10 F
r r r
1 2 3
c. 1.60 x 10-12 F
b. C = Є0 d / A
d. 1.60 x 10-9 F
or A ans: a
c. C = d
d. C = Єr A / d
ans: a
79. The plate area of a parallel-plate capacitor is

0.01 sq. m. The distance between the plates is
2.5 cm. The insulating medium is air. Find its
capacitance.
a 3.54 x 10-12 F
b. 35.4 x 10-12 F
c 3.54 x 10-10 F
d. 3.54 x 10-11 F
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ans: a
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Unit II
Part (b) AC FUNDAMENTALS
1. A standard sinusoidal voltage wave changes ans:a

its polarity at________
a. maximum value 6.The average value of a sine wave of maximum
b. minimum value value Im over one cycle is_______
c. zero value a. Im/π
d. none of the above b. 2Im/π
ans:c c. zero
d. Im/2
2. The period of a certain sine wave is 10 ans:c
milliseconds. Its frequency is________
a.10 MHz 7. The rms value of a sine wave of maximum
b.10 KHz value 10A equals a dc current of
c.10 Hz ______ampere.
d.100 Hz a.7.07
ans:d b.6.37
c.5
3. Two sine waves are said to be in phase with d.5.77
each other if they achieve their______ ans:a
a. zero value at the same time
b. maximum value at the time 8.The rms value of a sinusoidal voltage with
c. minimum value at the same time peak-to-peak value of 240 V is________V.
d. all of the above a.84.84
ans:d b.77.82
c.94.68
4. The distance occupied by one complete cycle d.89.15
of the wave is called its________ ans:a
a. time period
b. wavelength 9. The time period of a sinusoidal waveform
c. velocity with 200 Hz frequency is________second.
d. frequency a.0.05
ans:a b.0.005
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c.0.0005
in
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5. The rms value of a sine wave of peak value Im d.0.5

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is given by_______ ans:b

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a. Im/√2
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b. Im 10. The peak value of a sine wave is 400 V. Its

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c. Im/2 average value is_________

C
d. Im/π a.254.6 V
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b.282.6 V a. 150 V
c.400 V b. 216.5 V
d.565.5 V c. 125 V
ans:a d.108.25 V
ans:b
11. The form factor of a sine wave is_____
a.1.01 16. An alternating current is given by the
𝜋
b.1.11 expression 𝑖 = 200 sin(314𝑡 + ) amperes.
3
c.1.21 The maximum value and frequency of the
d. none of the above current are_________
ans:b a. 200 A, 50 Hz
b. 100√2, 50 Hz
12. A current is said to be alternating when it c. 200 A, 100 Hz
changes in_______ d. 200 A, 25 Hz
a. magnitude only ans:a
b. direction only
c. both magnitude and direction 17.The average value of the current 𝑖 =
d. neither magnitude nor direction 𝜋
200 sin 𝑡 from 𝑡 = 0 to 𝑡 = is ______
2
ans:c
a. 400 π
400
13. An alternating current of 50 Hz frequency b. 𝜋
1
and 100 A maximum value is given by______ c.400
a.𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛628𝑡 𝜋
d.400
b.𝑖 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
ans:b
c.𝑖 = 100√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
d.𝑖 = 100√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛157𝑡 18. When two quantities are in quadrature, the
ans:b phase angles between them will be________
a.45°
14. An alternating current of 50 Hz frequency b.90°
has a maximum value of 100 A. Its value 1/600 c.135°
second after the instant current is zero will d.60°
be________ ans:b
a. 25 A
b. 12.5 A 19.The alternating voltage 𝑒 = 200 sin 314𝑡 is
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c. 50 A applied to a device which offers an ohmic

in
d. 75 A resistance of 20 Ω to the flow of current in one

@
ans:c
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direction while entirely preventing the flow in

P
the opposite direction. The average value of the

U
15.A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to a current will be_________

B
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maximum of 250 V. The voltage at the instant of a.5 A

60° of the cycle will be________
C
b.3.18 A
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c.1.57 A a. 0.02 second

d.1.10 A b. 0.01 second
ans:b c. 0.04 second
d. 0.05 second
20. The ac system is preferred to dc system ans:c
because_______
a. ac voltages can be easily changed in 25. A sine wave has a maximum value of 20 V.
magnitude Its value at 135° is______
b. dc motors do not have fine speed control a. 10 V
c. high voltage ac transmission is less efficient b. 14.14 V
d. dc voltage can not be used for domestic c. 15 V
appliances d. 5 V
ans:a ans:b
21.In ac system, we generate sine waveform 26. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =

because_______ 30 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 .The time taken by the voltage to
a. it can be easily drawn reach 30 V for the first time is_____
b. it produces least disturbance in electrical a. 0.02 second
circuits b. 0.1 second
c. it is nature’s standard c. 0.03 second
d. other waves can not be produced easily d. 0.005 second
ans:b ans:d
22.__________will work only on dc supply. 27. A sinusoidal current has a magnitude of 3 A

a. electric lamp at 120°. Its maximum value will be_____
b. refrigerator a.√3 A
c. electroplating √3
b. 2 A
d. heater
c.2√3 A
ans:c
d. 6 A
ans:c
23.An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =
20 sin 157𝑡. The frequency of the alternating
voltage is_____
a.50 Hz
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b.25 Hz
in
c.100 Hz
a. 0.05 second
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d.75 Hz
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b. 0.1 second
ans:b
P
c. 0.025 second
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d. 0.02 second
B

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ans:c
10 sin 314𝑡. The time taken to generate two
C
H
cycles of current is____

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29. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 = ans:c

be________ 34. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as 𝑣 =
𝜋
a. 70.7 V 141.4 sin(314.18𝑡 − 2 ) . Its rms value of
b. 50 V voltage, frequency and phase angle are
c. 63.7 V respectively_______
d. 100 V a. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°
ans:c b. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
c. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90°
30. An alternating current whose average value d. 100 V,50 Hz, -90°
is 1 A will produce_________1 A dc under ans:d
similar conditions.
a. less heat than 35. When two sinusoidal waves are 90° out of
b. more heat than phase, then__________
c. the same heat as a. both have their peak values at the same
d. none of the above instant
ans:b b. both have their minimum values at the same
instant
31. A sinusoidal alternating current has a c. one has its peak value; while the other has
maximum value of Im. Its average value will zero value
be_______ d. none of these
𝐼𝑚
a. ans:c
𝜋
𝐼𝑚
b. 2𝜋
𝐼𝑚 36. The direction of current in an ac circuit
c. 2 𝜋
is___________
d.none of the above a. always in one direction
ans:c b. varying from time to time
c. unpredictable
32. The area of a sinusoidal wave over a half- d. from positive to negative
cycle is________ ans:b
b.2 × 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 37. Consider the sinusoidal waves: 𝐴 sin(𝜔𝑡 +
c.𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 𝜋 30°) and 𝐵 sin(𝜔𝑡 − 60°) . The phase angle
d. .𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2𝜋 relationship between the two waves________
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ans:b a. B-wave lags A-wave by 90°

in
b. B-wave lags A-wave by 60°

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33. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 = c. B-wave lags A-wave by 30°

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200 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value will be_____ d. B-wave and A-wave are in phase
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a. 100 V ans:a
B
b. 282.8 V
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c. 141.4 V
C
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d. 121.4 V
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38. A sinusoidal voltage is expressed as 𝑣 = d. none of the above

𝜋
20 sin(314.16𝑡 + ) V. Its frequency and ans:c
3
phase angle respectively are____________
a. 314.16 Hz, 60° 43. The rms value of sinusoidally varying current
b. 60Hz, 60° is_________that of its average value.
c. 50 Hz, 60° a. more than
d. 50 Hz, -60° b. less than
ans:c c. same as
39. A sinusoidal voltage v1 leads another ans:a
sinusoidal voltage v2 by 180°. Then__________
a. voltage v2 leads voltage v1 by 180° 44. Alternating voltages and currents are
b. both voltage have their zero values at the expressed in rms values because______
same time a. they can be easily determined
c. both voltages have their peak values at the b. calculations become very simple
same time c. they give comparison with dc
d. all of the above d. none of the above
ans:d ans:c
40.The rms value of an ac sinusoidal current is 45.The average value of sin2θ over a complete
10 A. Its peak value is_________ cycle is_________
a. 7.07 A a. +1
b. 14.14 A b. -1
1
c. 10 A c. 2
d. 28.28 A d. zero
ans:b ans:c
41. If A=10∠45° and B=5∠15°, then the value of 46.The average value of sinθ over a complete
A/B will be_________ cycle is_________
a. 50∠60° a. zero
b. 2∠60° b. +1
c. 2∠-30° c. -1
d. 2∠30° 1
d.
2
ans:d
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ans:a
in
42. When a phasor is multiplied by –j, it gets

@

rotated through in the counterclockwise
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direction.
P

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a.90°
B
a. I2m/2
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b.180°
b. Im/π
C
c.270°
c. 2Im/π
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d. 2Im 53. The peak factor of a sine waveform

ans:a is_______
a.1.11
48. The form factor of a sinusoidal wave b.1.414
is______ c.2
a.1.414 d.1.5
b.1.11 ans:b
c.2
d.1.5 54.When a 15V square wave is connected
ans:b across a 50V ac voltmeter, it will read______
a.15V
49. The filament of a vacuum tube requires 0.4A b.15 × √2 V
dc to heat it. The rms value of ac required c.15/√2 V
is______ d.none of the above
a.0.4 × √2 A ans:a
b.0.4 ÷ 2 A
c.0.8 ÷ √2 A 55.A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its
d. 0.4 A angular frequency is_______radian/second.
ans:d a.100π
b.50π
50. A100 V peak ac is as effective as_____dc. c.25π
a. 100 V d.5π
b. 50 V ans:a
c. 70.7 V
d. none of the above 56. The period of a wave is____________
ans:c a. the same as frequency
b. time required to complete one cycle
51. The form factor of a ________wave is 1. c. expressed in amperes
a. sinusoidal d. none of the above
b. square ans:b
c. triangular
d. sawtooth 57. The form factor is the ratio of _________
ans:b a. peak value to rms value
b. rms value to average value
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52. Out of the following _________wave is the c. average value to rms value
in
peakiest. d. none of the above

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a. sinusoidal ans:b
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b. square
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c. rectangualr 58. The period of a sine wave is 1/50 seconds.

B
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d. triangular Its frequency is_______

ans:d a. 20 Hz
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b. 30 Hz a. mean value
c. 40 Hz b. rms value
d. 50 HZ c. peak value
ans:d d. average value
ans:b
59. An ac current is given by 𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛100𝜋𝑡.
It will achieve a value of 100A 64. The rms value and mean value is the same
after_____second. in the case of_______
1 a. traingular wave
a.900
1 b. sine wave
b.
800 c. square wave
1
c. d. half wave rectified sine wave
700
1 ans:c
d.600
ans:d
65. For the same peak value which of the
following wave will have the highest rms value?
60. A heater is rated as 230V, 10KW, AC. The
a.square wave
value of 230V refers to___________
b.half wave rectified sine wave
a. average voltage
c.triangular wave
b. rms voltage
d.sine wave
c. peak voltage
ans:a
ans:b
66. For the same peak value which of the
following wave will have the least mean value?
61. The peak value of a sine wave is 200V. Its
a. half wave rectified sine wave
average value is_______
b. triangular wave
a.127.4V
c. sine wave
b.141.4V
d. square wave
c.282.8V
ans:a
d.200V
ans:a
67. For a sine wave with peak value Imax, the rms
value is_______
62. The rms value of a sine wave is 100A. Its
a. 0.5Imax
peak value is _______
b. 0.707Imax
a.70.7A
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c. 0.9Imax
b.141.4A
in
d. 1.414Imax
c.150A
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ans:b
SP
d.282.8A
ans:b
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68. Form factor is the ratio of_________

B
a. average value/rms value

TE
63. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This

b. average value/peak value
C
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c. rms value/average value

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d. rms value/peak value d.346V

ans:c ans:d
68. For a sine wave with peak value Emax, the 73. A sine wave of voltage varies from zero to
average value is______ maximum of 200V. How much is the voltage at
a. 0.636 Emax the instant of 30° of the cycle?
b. 0.707Emax a.50V
c. 0.434 Emax b.82.8V
d. 1.414Emax c.100V
ans:a d.173.2V
ans:c
69. The current in a circuit is given by: 𝑖 =
100 sin 314𝑡 amperes. The maximum value and 74. How much rms current does a 300W, 200V
frequency of current are_________ bulb take from the 200V, 50 Hz power line?
a.50√2 A, 100 Hz a.0.5 A
b.100√2 A, 100 Hz b.1.5 A
c. 100 A, 50 Hz c.2 A
d. 70.7 A, 50 Hz d. 3 A
ans:c ans:b
70. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period 75. The rms value of a half-wave rectified
will be_________ current is 100 A. Its value for full-wave
a. 0.05 S rectification would be_________amperes.
b. 0.005 S a.141.4
c. 0.0005 S b.200
d. 0.5 S c. 200/π
ans:b d. 40/π
ans:a
71. An ac voltage of 50 Hz has a maximum value
of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second after the 76. The rms value of a sinusoidal ac current is
instant the current is zero will be_________ equal to its value at an angle of ______degrees.
a.5V a.90
b.12.5V b.60
c.25V c.45
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d.43.8V d.30
in
ans:c ans:c
@
SP
72. For 200V rms value triangular wave, the 77. The rms value of alternating current is given
P U
peak voltage will be______ by steady (dc) current which when flowing
B
a.200V through a given circuit for a given time

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b.222V produces________
C
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c.282V
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a. the more heat than produced by ac when d. 50 Hz

flowing through the same circuit ans:d
b. the same heat as produced by ac when
flowing through the same circuit 82. The rms value of half wave rectified sine
c. the less heat than produced by ac flowing wave is 200V. The rms value of full wave
through the same circuit rectified ac will be__________
d. none of the above a.282.8V
ans:b b.141.4V
c.111V
78. The square waveform of current has d. 100V
following relation between rms value and ans:a
average value:
a. rms value is equal to average value 83. The voltage in a circuit follows the law: 𝑣 =
b. rms value of current is greater than average 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡. If the frequency is 25 Hz, how long
value will
c. rms value of current is less than average it take for the voltage to rise to 50V?
value 1
a.50 S
d. none of the above 1
b. S
ans:a 100
1
c. S
300
79. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz 1
d. S
600
with 30A rms current, which of the following
ans:c
equation represents the wave?
a.42.42 sin 314𝑡
84. The negative maximum of a cosine wave
b.60 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
occurs at________
c.30 sin 50𝑡
a.30°
d.84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
b.45°
ans:a
c.90°
d.180°
80. Which of the following waves has the
ans:d
highest value of peak factor?
a. square wave
85. The rms value of pure cosine function
b. sine wave
is_________
c. half wave rectified sine wave
a. 0.5 of peak value
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d. triangular wave
b. 0.707 of peak value
in
ans:c
c. same as peak value
@
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d. zero
81.The frequency of domestic power supply in
ans:b
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India is_____
B
a. 200 Hz
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b. 100 Hz
C
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c. 60 Hz
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86. An alternating voltage is given in volts by supplied 500 W output (i.e. no losses) at the
expression 𝑣 = 326 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value and new voltage it will supply_________
frequency are____ a. 2500 W
a.230V,50 Hz b. 2000 W
b. 230V,100 Hz c. 500 W
c. 326V,50 Hz d. 250 W
d. 326V,100 Hz ans:b
ans:a
91. The direction of current in an ac
87. According to which of the alternating circuit________
current values in the cross sectional area of a a. is from positive to negative
conductor with regard to the heating effect is b. is always in one direction
selected? c. varies from instant to instant
a. peak value d. can not be determined
b. half peak value ans:c
c. average value
d. rms value 92. The angular frequency of an alternating
ans:d quantity is a mathematical quantity obtained by
multiplying the frequency “f” of the alternating
88. The frequency of an alternating current quantity by a factor_________
𝜋
is________ a.
2
a. the speed with which the alternator runs b.π
b. the number of cycles generated in one c.2π
minute d.4π
c. the number of waves passing through a point ans:c
in one second
d. the number of electrons passing through a 93. The average value of an unsymmetrical
point in one second alternating quantity is calculated over
ans:c the_________
a. whole cycle
89. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave b. half cycle
having rms value of 60 A is______ c. unsymmetrical part of the waveform
a.60 sin 25𝑡 d. first two cycles
b.60 sin 50𝑡 ans:a
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c.84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
in
d42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. 94. The mean value of the current 𝑖 = 20 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃

@
ans:c 𝜋
from θ=0 to θ=2 is_______
SP
P
a.40π
U
90. An electric iron designed for 110 V AC 40

B
supply was rated at 500 W. It was put across a b. 𝜋

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1
220 V supply. Assuming that at 110 V, it c.
C
40
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𝜋
d.40 b. 10 A, 17.07 A
ans:b c. 10 A, 12.25 A
d. 16.36 A, 12.2 A
95. A constant current of 2.8A exists in a ans:c
resistor. The rms value of current is______
a. 2.8 A 100. The size (cross-sectional area) of a
b. about 2 A conductor, with regard to the heating effect, is
c. 1.4 A determined on the basis of ……….. value of
d. undefined current to be carried by it
ans:a a. average value
b. peak value
96. An alternating current is represented as 𝑖 = c. rms value
𝜋 d. peak to peak value
70.7 sin(520𝑡 + 6 ) . The frequency and rms
ans:c
a. 82.76 Hz, 50 A
101. The form factor for dc supply voltage is
b. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
always
c. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
a. zero
d. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
b. unity
ans:a
c. infinity
d. any value between 0 and 1
97. The time period or periodic time T of an
ans:b
alternating quantity is the time taken in seconds
to complete_____________
102. The ________ varying alternating quantity
a. one cycle
b. alternation
a) circular
c. none of the above
b) sinusoidally
d. Half cycle
c) rectangular
ans: a
d) triagular
ans:b
98. The time period of an alternating quantity is
0.02 second. Its frequency will be________
103. The phasors are assumed to be rotated in
a. 25 Hz
_________ direction.
b. 50 Hz
a) clockwise
c. 100 Hz
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b) anticlockwise
d. 0.02 Hz
in
c) circular
@
ans: b
d) all above
SP
ans:b
P
99. An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10 sin 314 t,

U
the average and rms values of the current

B
104. In practice, alternating quantities are

TE
are____
C
a. 16.36 A, 17.07 A
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a. rms
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b. average
c. rectangular
d. polar
ans:a
105. Alternating quantities of ____ frequencies

can be represented on same phasor diagram. In the above figure, the phase quantity at B is
a. Same _______
b. Different a. T
c. multiple b.T/2
d. all above c.3T/4
ans: a d. T/4
ans:c
106. The phase of alternating quantity at any
particular instant is the fraction of ______ 109. When phase of an alternating quantity is
a. phase positive it means that quantity has some
b. time _______ instantaneous value at t=0
c. time period a. zero
d. all above b. positive
ans:c c. negative
107. ans:b
110. When phase of an alternating quantity is

negative it means that quantity has some
a. zero
b. positive
In the above figure, the phase quantity at A is c. negative
_______ d. none of the above
a. T ans:c
b. T/2
c. T/3 111. The difference between the _____ of two
d. T/4 alternating quantities is called the phase
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ans:d difference.
in
a. time
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108. b. phase angle

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c. Lengths
P
d. both a and b
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B
ans:b
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112. The difference between the phase of two 117. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ), the
alternating quantities is called the________. ‘v’ is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ
a. phase difference a. in phase
b. sine difference b. lagging
c. length difference c. leading
d. none of the above d. all above
ans:a ans:c
113. When phase difference between the two 118. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ), the
alternating quantities is zero, the two quantities ‘i’ is said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ
are said to be in _____ a. in phase
a. tandom b. lagging
b. length c. leading
c. phase d. all above
d. time ans:c
ans:c
119. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ), the
114. When ____________ between the two ‘v’ is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ
alternating quantities is zero, the two quantities a. in phase
are said to be in phase. b. lag
a. time difference c. lead
b. length difference d. all above
c. phase difference ans:b
ans:c 120. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin ωt, the ‘i’ is
said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ
115. When phase difference between the two a. in phase
alternating quantities is _______, the two b. lag
quantities are said to be in phase. c. lead
a. one d. all above
b. unity ans:a
c. zero
d. π/2 121. With respect to reference, plus sign of
ans:c angle indicates _______
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a. leading
in
116. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ), the ‘i’ b. lagging

@
is said to be _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ c. in phase

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a. in phase d. none of the above

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b. lagging ans:a
B
c. leading
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d. all above 122. With respect to reference, minus sign of

C
H
ans:b angle indicates _______

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a. leading 127. The lagging and leading word is relative to

b. lagging the ______
c. in phase a. base
d. none of the above b. range
ans:b c. reference
d. angle
123. With respect to reference, _____ sign of ans:c
angle indicates lead.
a. division 128. Polar form of v = 100 sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is
b. plus ________
c. minus a.61.2371+j35.3553
d.dot b.70.7106∟30
ans:b c. 61.2371∟35.3553
d. 70.710+ j30
124. With respect to reference, _____ sign of ans:b
angle indicates lag.
a. division 129. Rectangular form of V= 100 sin(100πt+π/6)
b. plus Volt is ________
c. minus a.61.2371+j35.3553
d.dot b.70.7106∟30
ans:c c. 61.2371∟35.3553
d. 70.710+ j30
125. The diagram in which different sinusoidal ans:a
alternating quantities of the same frequency,
are represented by individual phasors indicating 130. RMS value of current I = 25 + j40 Amp is
exact phase relationship is called ________ _______
a. graph a.57.99
b. still diagram b.47.1699
c. phasor diagram c.60
d. picture d.30
ans:c ans:b
126. The diagram in which different sinusoidal 131. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A
alternating quantities of the same _____, are flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1+I2 =
Jo
represented by individual phasors indicating ________

in
exact phase relationship is called phasor a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A

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diagram. b. 5.55964.924 A
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a. time c. 7.296+ j12.58 A

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b. frequency d. None of the above

B
c. sign ans:a
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d. shape
C
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132. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A b. 24-j14

flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1-I2 c. -38-j34
=________ d. -24-j14
a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A ans:c
b. 5.5596∟4.924 A
c. 7.296+ j12.58 A 138. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as: v =
d. None of the above 141.4 sin(314.18t-π/2). Its rms value of voltage,
ans:c frequency and phase angle are respectively____
a.141.42V, 314.16 Hz, 90 degrees
133. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A b. 100V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees
flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1/I2 c. 87.92V, 56 Hz, 90 degrees
=________ d. 200V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees
a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A ans:b
b. 2150 A
c. 7.296+ j12.58 A 139. When two sinusoidal waves are 90 degrees
d. None of the above out of phase, then ____
ans:b a. both have their peak values at the same time
b. both have their minimum values at the same
134. The square of a j operator _____ time
a. can never be negative c. one has its peak value, other has zero value
b. can never be positive d. none of these
c. could be either positive or negative ans:c
d. is equal to j
ans:b 140. The direction of current in an AC circuit is
_____
135. A complex number_____ a. always in one direction
a. is the same as imaginary number b. varying time to time periodically
b. has real and imaginary part c. unpredictable
c. is negative number d. from positive to negative
d. is merely a technical term ans:b
ans:b
141. Consider the sinusoidal waves: A sin
136. The sum of (3+j6) and (-3-j6) is ____ (ωt+30) and B cos(ωt-60). The phase angle
a.0+j0 relationship between two waves is:
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b.6+j12 a. B wave lags A wave by 90 degrees

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c. -6-j12 b. B wave lags A wave by 60 degrees

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d. 0-j12 c. B wave lags A wave by 30 degrees

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ans:a d. B wave and A wave are in phase

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ans:d
B
137. The product of (-4-j7) and (6-j2) is______

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a. -24+j14
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142.When a phasor is multiplied by j and –j, it is 147. In the complex number 4+j7, 7 is called the
rotated through ______ degrees in the ______ component
anticlockwise direction respectively. a. real
a.90, 270 b. imaginary
b.90, 90 c. in-phase
c.90, 180 d. none of the above`
d.270, 90 ans:d
ans:a
148. The reciprocal of a complex number is
143. If e1 = 100 sin2πf and e2 = 100 sin(2πf-Φ), a_____
then _____ a. complex number
a. e1 lags e2 by Φ b. real component only
b. e1 leads e2 by Φ c. quadrature component only
c. e2 lags e1 by Φ d. none of above
d. none of the above ans:a
ans:c
149. If two complex numbers are equal,
144.The phase difference between two then_____
waveforms can be compared when they _____ a. only their magnitudes will be equal
a. have the same frequency b. only their angles will be equal
b. have the same peak value c. their in phase and quadrature components
c. have the same effective value will be separately equal
d. are sinusoidal d.none of above
ans:a ans:c
145. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but 150. A phasor 2∟180 can be expressed as____
of different amplitude and phase difference are a.j2
added, the resultant is a ______ b.-j2
a. sinusoid of same frequency c.-2
b. sinusoid of double the original frequency d.2
c. sinusoid of half the original frequency ans:c
d. non-sinusoid
ans:a 151. A current of (3+j4) A is flowing through a
circuit. The magnitude of current is _____
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146. If the phasor is multiplied by j, then ____ a. 7 A

in
a. only its magnitude changes b. 5 A

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b. only its direction changes c. 1 A

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c. both magnitude and direction change d. 1.33 A

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d. none of the above ans:b

B
ans:b
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152. The voltage applied in a circuit is given by

C
H
100∟60 volts. It can be written as ____

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a. 100∟-60 b.50
b.100∟240 c.60
c. 100∟-300 d.105
d. none of the above ans:d
ans:c
158. A phasor is _____
153. The conjugate of -4+j3 is _____ a. a line which represents the magnitude and
a. 4-j3 phase of an alternating quantity
b. -4-j3 b. a line which represents the magnitude and
c.4+j3 direction of an alternating quantity
d. none of the above c. a colored tag or band for distinction between
ans:b different phases of a 3 phase supply
d. an instrument used for measuring phases of
154. The difference of two conjugate number an unbalanced 3 phase load
results in _____ ans:b
a. a complex number
b. in-phase component only 159. A sinusoidal voltage v1 leads another
c. quadrature component only sinusoidal voltagev2 by 180 degrees. Then ____
d. none of the above a. voltage v2 leads voltage v1 by 180 degrees
ans:c b. both voltage have their zero values at the
same time
155. The reciprocal of j is ____ c. both voltage have their peak values at the
a.j same time
b.-j d. all of above
c.jxj ans:d
d.none of the above
ans:b 160. If A = 10∟45 and B = 5∟15, then the
value of A/B will be___
156. Two waves of same frequency have a.50∟60
opposite phase when the phase angle between b.2∟60
them is ___ degrees c. 2∟-30
a.360 d.2∟30
b.180 ans:d
c.90
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d.0 161. The length of a phasor in a phasor diagram

in
ans: b normally represents the ………… value of the

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alternating quantity
SP
157. Two sinusoidal currents are given by i1 = a. rms or effective

P
U
100sin (ωt+π/3) and i2 = 150sin(ωt-π/4). The b. average

B
phase difference between them is _____ c. peak

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degrees d. none of these

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a.15 ans:a
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162. The two quantities are said to be in phase

with each other when
a. the phase difference between two quantities
is zero degree or radian
b. each of them pass through zero values at the
same instant and rise in the same direction
c. each of them pass through zero values at the
same instant but rises in the opposite directions
d. either (a) or (b)
ans:d
163. The phase difference between the two

waveforms can be compared only when they
a. have the same frequency
b. have the same peak value
c. have the same effective value
d. are sinusoidal
ans:a
164. The phasor diagram for alternating

quantities can be drawn if they have ………
waves
a. rectangular
b. sinusoidal
c. triangular
d. any of these
ans:b
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Unit IV
Part (a): POLYPHASE A.C. CIRCUITS
1 Three phase star connected balanced c. Three times the corresponding line
system the magnitude of line current voltage
is equal to d. 1.73 times phase voltage
a. One-third the phase current ans: b
b. Equal to the corresponding phase
current 5 In a balanced three-phase load, each
c. Three times the corresponding phase phase has
current a. An equal amount of power
d. Zero b. One-third of total power
c. Two-thirds of total power
ans: b d. A power consumption equal to
√3VL IL
2 Three phase star connected balanced
system the magnitude of line voltage ans: a
is equal to
a. One-third the line voltage 6 In a three-phase system, the voltages
b. Equal to the corresponding line are separated by
voltage a. 450
c. Three times the corresponding line b. 900
voltage c. 1200
d. 1.73 times phase voltage d. 1800
ans: d ans: c
3 Three phase Delta connected 7 Advantage of three phase system

balanced system the magnitude of over single phase system
line current is equal to a. Power factor of three-phase motor is
a. One-third the phase current greater than single-phase motor for
b. Equal to the corresponding phase same rating.
current b. Three-phase motors are self-starting
c. Three times the corresponding phase
c. The rating of three-phase motor and
current
d. 1.73 times phase current three-phase transformer are about
150% greater than single-phase
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ans: d motor or transformer with a similar

in
frame size.
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4 Three phase delta connected balanced d. All of the above

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system the magnitude of line voltage

P
is equal to
U
ans: d
B
a. One-third the line voltage

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b. Equal to the corresponding phase

8 Three phase system the load is said to
C
voltage
H
be balanced only when

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a. loads in each phase are equal in b. VL IL cos

magnitude c. 3 VL IL cos
b. loads in each phase are equal in
nature d. 3 Vph Iph cos
c. loads in each phase are equal in ans: c
magnitude and nature 12 Three phase delta connected
d. All of the above balanced system the total power
drawn from the circuit is
ans: c a. Vph Iph cos
b. VL IL cos
9 Three phase system is said to be
symmetrical c. 3VL IL cos
a. when voltages of same frequency in d. 3Vph Iph cos
different phases are equal in
magnitude
ans: d
b. when voltages of same frequency are
displaced from each other by equal
phase angle 13 Three phase star connected balanced
c. when voltages of same frequency in system the total power drawn from
different phases are equal in the circuit is
magnitude and displaced from each a. Vph Iph cos
other by equal phase angle b. VL IL cos
d. All of the above
c. 3 VL IL cos
ans: c d. 3 Vph Iph cos
10 Three phase star connected balanced ans: c

system the total power drawn from
the circuit is 14 A balanced delta-connected load of
a. Vph Iph cos (4 + j 3) Ohm/phase is connected to a
b. VL IL cos 3 phase 400 V supply. Calculate
c. Phase current
3VL IL cos
d. 3Vph Iph cos a. 80 Amp
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b. 138.56 Amp
in
ans: d c.
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50 Amp
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d. 150 Amp
P
11 Three phase star connected balanced

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system the total power drawn from

B
Ans: a
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the circuit is
C
a. Vph Iph cos

H
15 A balanced delta-connected load of

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(4 + j 3) Ohm/phase is connected to a
3 phase 400 V supply. Calculate Line 18 A balanced star-connected load of 5
current  36.860 Ohm per phase is connected
a. 80 Amp to a 3-phase, 400 V supply. Calculate
b. 138.56 Amp power factor
c. 50 Amp a. 0.6 lagging
d. 150 Amp b. 0.6 leading
c. 0.8 lagging
ans: b d. 0.8 leading
15 A balanced delta-connected load of ans: c

(4 + j 3) Ohm/phase is connected to a
3 phase 400 V supply. Calculate 19 A balanced star-connected load is
power factor supplied from a symmetrical 3-phase
a. 0.6 lagging 400 V, 50 Hz system. The current in
b. 0.6 leading each phase is 30 ampere and lags 300
c. 0.8 lagging behind the phase voltage. Find phase
d. voltage
0.8 leading
a. 400 Volt
b. 230.9 Volt
ans: c
c. 220 Volt
d. 200 Volt
16 A balance Ohm per phase is
connected to a 3-phase, 400 V
supply. Calculate phase current ans: b
a. 46.182 Amp
b. 79.98 Amp 20 A balanced star-connected load is
c. 30 Amp supplied from a symmetrical 3-phase
400 V, 50 Hz system. The current in
d. 100 Amp each phase is 30 ampere and lags 300
behind the phase voltage. Find
ans: a impedance of the circuit
a. 13.33 300
17 A balanced star-connected load of 5 b. 7.698  450
 36.860 Ohm per phase is connected
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c. 7.698  600
to a 3-phase, 400 V supply. Calculate
in
Line current
d. 7.698  300
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a. ans: d
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46.182 Amp
b.
P
9.98 Amp
U
c.
B
30 Amp
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d. 100 Amp
C
ans: a
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Part (b) :SINGLE PHASE TRANSFORMER
1. A transformer is used to___________ b. Secondary

a. change ac voltage to dc voltage c. Tertiary
b. change dc voltage to ac voltage d. Tapped
c. step up or step down dc voltages ans:b
d. step up or step down ac voltages
ans: d 6. If supply frequency of a transformer
increases, the secondary output voltage of the
2. The two windings of a transformer transformer____
are__________ a. Decreases
a. conductively linked b. increases
b. inductively linked c. remains same
c. not linked at all d. decreases slightly
d. electrically linked ans:b
ans: b
7. The horizontal and vertical portions of
3.The magnetically operated device that can transformer magnetic core are called
change values of voltage, current, and as_________
impedance without changing frequency is a. Limb, yoke
the____________ b. Yoke, limb
a. Motor c. Winding, Yoke
b. Generator d. Winding, Limb
c. Transformer ans:b
d. Transistor
ans:c 8. The principle of working of transformer is
based on ________
4. The transformer winding across which the a. Static induction
supply voltage applied is called the _____ b. Mutual induction
winding. c. Dynamic induction
a. Primary d. Self induction
b. Secondary ans:b
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c. Tertiary
in
d. Tapped 9. Transformer is used to change values

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ans:a of__________
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a. Frequency
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5. The transformer winding which is connected b. Voltage

B
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to the load is called the_______ winding. c. Power

a. Primary d. Power factor
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ans:b 15. Most transformer cores are not made from

a solid piece of metal. Instead, they are
10. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer assembled from many thin sheets of metal. This
should have __________ type of construction is called__________
a. Low resistance a. Laminated
b. Low reluctance b. Toroid
c. High reluctance c. H core
d. High conductivity d. tape wound
ans:b ans:a
11. Electrical power is transformed from one 16. The concentric cylindrical winding is used
coil to other coil in transformer_________ for__________
a. Physically a. Core type transformer
b. Electrically b. Shell type transformer
c. Magnetically c. Berry type transformer
d. Electromagnetically d. None of these
ans:d ans:a
12. A transformer operates___________ 17.The sandwich type winding is used

a. Always at unity power factor for___________
b. At power factor depending on load a. Core type transformer
c. Has its own power factor b. Berry type transformer
d. At power factor below particular value c. Shell type transformer
ans: b d. None of these
ans:c
13. The laminations of transformer core are
made up from__________ 18. Silicon steel is used for transformer
a. Low carbon steel core__________
b. Silicon sheet steel a. To reduce hysteresis loss
c. Nickel alloy steel stamping b. To reduce eddy current loss
d. Chrome sheet steel c. To reduce both losses
ans:b d. None of these
ans:a
14.The material used for construction of
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transformer core should have___________ 19. What is common in two windings of

in
a. Low permeability & high hysteresis loss transformer?

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b. Low permeability & low hysteresis loss a. Electric current

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c. High permeability & high hysteresis loss b. Magnetic circuit

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d. high permeability & low hysteresis loss c. Winding wire guage

B
ans:d d. None of these

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ans:b
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20. The main function of transformer iron core 25. A transformer in which the primary voltage
is to__________ is more than the secondary voltage is called a
a. Provide strength to the winding _____ transformer.
b. To decrease hysteresis loss a. step-down
c. Decrease the reluctance of magnetic path b. step-up
d. Reduce eddy current loss c. Isolation
ans:c d. Auto
ans:a
21. The emf induced in the primary of a
transformer___________ 26. Any transformer flux that does not follow
a. is in phase with the flux the core and escapes into the surrounding air is
b. lags behind the flux by 90 degree called____
c. leads the flux by 90 degree a. magnetizing flux
d. is in phase opposition to that of flux b. coupling flux
ans:b c. leakage flux
d. reactance flux
22.The transformer turns ratio ans:c
determines_____________
a. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages 27. A transformer that does not isolate the
b. the ratio of primary and secondary currents output from the input is called _____
c. The resistance on other side transformer
d. all of the above a. Distribution
ans:a b. step-up
c. Auto
23. Turns ratio of single phase transformer is d. Control
given as__________ ans:c
a. N2/N1
b. N1/N2 28. Ideal transformer assumptions do not
c. (N1xN2)/N1 include____________
d. (N1xN2)/N2 a. Zero reactance of the winding
ans:b b. Zero resistance of the winding
c. No leakage flux
24. A transformer in which the secondary d. No saturation of the core
voltage is more than the primary voltage is ans:a
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called a _____ transformer

in
a. step-down 29.The efficiency of the transformer is normally

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b. step-up is normally in the range of____________

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c. Isolation a. 50 to 70%
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d. Auto b. 60 to 75 %
B
ans:b c. 80 to 90 %
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d. 90 to 98%
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ans:d
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35. Natural cooling is better in_________

30. The resistance of low voltage side of a. Core type transformer
transformer________ b. Shell Type transformer
a. Is equal to resistance of its high voltage side c. Both A& B
b. Is more than its resistance on high voltage d. Berry type transformer
side ans:a
c. Is less than its resistance on high voltage side
d.0 36. EMF equation for single phase transformer
ans:c is________
a. E= 4.44 Φm A f N
31. Eddy current losses in transformer core are b. E= 4.44 Bm A N
reduced by_________ c. E= 4.44 BmfN
a. Increasing the thickness of laminations d. E= 4.44 ΦmfN
b. Decreasing the thickness of laminations ans:d
c. Decreasing the air gap in magnetic circuit
d. Using wire of higher guage for winding 37. Transformation ratio(K) of transformer
ans:b is_________
a. N2/N1
32. A good transformer oil should be absolutely b. E1/E2
free from__________ c. I2/I1
a. Sulpher d. V1/V2
b. Alkalies ans:a
c. Moisture
d. All of the above 38. For Isolation transformer the
ans:c transformation ratio(K) is_________
a.0
33. Single phase core type transformer b. Greater than 1
b. Two magnetic paths ans:d
c. No magnetic path
d. None of these 39. In step up transformer the transformation
ans: a ratio (K) is_____________
a. Greater than 1
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34. Single phase shell type transformer b.1

in

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b. Two magnetic paths ans: a

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c. No magnetic path
B
d. None of these 40. In step down transformer the

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ans:b transformation ratio (K) is__________

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a. Greater than 1
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b.1 c. 9 to 12%
c. Less than 1 d. 12 to 20%
d.0 ans:a
ans:c
46. Transformer oil is used in transformer to
41. The primary and secondary voltages in provide_______
transformer are___________ a. Cooling and insulation
a. Always in Phase b. Cooling and lubrication
b. 1800 out of phase c. Insulation and lubrication
c. 900 out of phase d. Insulation, cooling and lubrication
d. 300 or 600 out of phase ans:a
ans:b
47. What is the typical use of
42. The induced emf in transformer secondary autotransformer____________?
depends on__________ a. Toy transformer
a. Maximum flux in core b. Control transformer
b. Frequency c. Variable transformer
c. No of turns on secondary d. Isolating transformer
d. all of the above ans:c
ans:d
48. In any transformer the voltage per turn in
43. Transformer rating usually expressed primary and secondary remains____________
in____________ a. Always different
a.kW b. Always the same
b.kVA c. Always in ratio of K
c. kV d. Sometimes same
d. kWh ans:b
ans:b
49. Full load copper loss in a transformer is 400
44. In a transformer if secondary turns are Watt. At half load, copper losses will
doubled, at the same time primary voltage is be___________
reduced by half, the secondary voltage a. 400 Watt
will_________ b. 100 Watt
a. Be halved c. 200 Watt
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b. Not change d. 50 Watt

in
c. Be four times ans:b

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d. Be reduced to quarter 50. A transformer is working with its maximum

SP
ans:b efficiency. If the iron losses are 500 W, the

P U
45. The no load current in terms of full load copper loss will__________
B
current is usually________ a. 300 W

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a. 1 to 3% b. 350 W
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b. 3 to 9 % c. 250 W
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d. 500 W
ans:d 𝑉2𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅
d. 𝑉 𝐼
1 1 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
ans:a
51. If we increase the flux density in case
transformer_______________
55. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single phase
a. The size of transformer will reduce
transformer, the primary full load current
b. The distortion in transformer will reduce
is____________
c. Hysteresis and eddy current losses will reduce
a. 909.09 Amp
d. None of these will be true
b. 90.90 Amp
ans:a
c. 9.09 Amp
d. 9090.9 Amp
52. The direct loading test is performed on
ans:c
a. Regulation
56. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single phase
b. Efficiency
transformer, the secondary full load current
c. Both
is________
d. None of these
a. 90.90 Amp
ans:c
b. 9090.9 Amp
c. 909.0 Amp
53. The regulation of transformer is calculated
d. 9.09 Amp
as_________
ans:c
a. 57. The disadvantage of auto transformer
is______________
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 a. No separation between primary & secondary
b. 𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
b. Size is more than normal transformer for
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 same rating
c.
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 c. More costlier than normal transformer
d. All
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
d. ans:d
ans:a
58. In a transformer the voltage regulation will
54. The efficiency of single phase transformer is be near to zero when it operates
at____________
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calculated as_____________
a. unity p.f.
in
𝑉2𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅
a.
b. leading p.f.
@
𝑉2𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠

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c. lagging p.f.
P
b. 𝑉 𝐼 d. full load.
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ans:b
B
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c.
C
𝑉1𝐼1 𝐶𝑜𝑠 ∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠

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59. A transformer steps up voltage by a factor 64. Hysteresis loss in transformer depends
of 100. The ratio of current in the primary to on__________
that in secondary_______________ a. both voltage and frequency
a.1 b. voltage alone
b.100 c. frequency alone
c.0.01 d. none of these
d.0.1 ans:a
ans:b
65. Eddy current loss depends
60. An ideal transformer does not on_____________
change______________ a. both current and frequency
a. Voltage b. current alone
b. Power c. frequency alone
c. current d. none of these
d. None of these ans:a
ans:b
66.The flux involved in EMF equation of a
61. The flux in transformer core____________ transformer has______________
a. increases with load a. RMS Value
b. decreases with load b. Average Value
c. remains constant irrespective of load c. Total Value
d. none of these d. maximum Value
ans:c ans:d
62. Efficiency of transformer is maximum 67. A transformer has maximum efficiency at ¾

when___________ of full load. The ratio of its iron loss and full load
a. transformer is unloaded copper loss is_________
b. copper losses is equal to iron losses a. 16/9
c. eddy current losses are equal to hysteresis b. 4/3
losses c. 3/4
d. it is maximally loaded d. 9/16
ans:b ans:d
63. If the supply frequency in transformer is 68. If primary of the transformer is connected
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doubled, then_________ to dc supply, then______

in
a. hysteresis loss also doubles a. Primary draws small current

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b. eddy current loss also doubles b. primary leakage reactance is increased

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c. iron losses doubles c. core losses are increased

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d. copper losses doubles d. primary may burn out

B
ans:a ans:d
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69. For an ideal transformer the windings b. High voltage winding

should have____________ c. Primary winding
a. maximum resistance on primary side and d. secondary winding
least resistance on secondary side ans:b
b. least resistance on primary side ans
maximum resistance on secondary side 74. In a given transformer for a given applied
c. equal resistance on primary and secondary voltage, which losses remain constant
side irrespective of change in load___________
d. no ohmic resistance on either side a. Friction and windage loss
ans:d b. copper loss
c. hysteresis and eddy current loss
70. The full load copper and iron loss of a d. none of these
transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W ans:c
respectively. The copper loss and iron loss at
half load will be respectively______ 75. Main advantage to use autotransformer
a. 3200 W and 2500 W over two winding transformer____________
b. 3200 W and 5200 W a. Hysteresis losses are reduced
c. 1600 W and 1250 W b. savings in winding material
d. 1600 W and 5000 W c. copper losses are negligible
ans:d d. Eddy current losses are totally eliminated
ans:b
71. A transformer does not raise or lower the
voltage of DC supply because________ 76. An ideal transformer is one which has
a. there is no need to change the DC voltage _____________
b. DC circuit has more losses a. no losses and magnetic leakage
c. Faradays law of Electromagnetic Induction b. interleaved primary and secondary winding
are not valid since the rate of change of flux is c. a common core for its primary and secondary
zero d. core of stainless steel and winding of pure
d. none of these copper material
ans:c ans:a
72. Primary winding of a transformer 77. In a practical transformer core losses

_____________ remains constant from no load to full load
a. is always low voltage winding because__________
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b. is always high voltage winding a. value of transformation ratio remains

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c. could either be a low or high voltage winding constant

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d. none of these b. permeability of transformer core remains

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ans:c constant
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c. core flux remains practically constant

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73. Which winding of a transformer has more d. primary and secondary voltage remains
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number of turns_______________ constant

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a. Low voltage winding ans.c

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d. (a) and (b) both

78.The transformer laminations are insulated ans:d
from each other by_____________
a. mica strip 83. A shell type transformer has
b. thin coat of varnish _______________
c. paper a. high eddy current losses
d. any one of these b. reduced magnetic leakage
ans:b c. negligible hysteresis loss
d.none of these
79. In transformer resistance between primary ans:b
and secondary should be_____________
a. zero 84. Deduction in core losses and increase in
b. 10 ohm permeability are obtained with transformer
c. 1000 ohm employing______
d. infinity a. core built up of laminations of cold rolled
ans:d grain oriented steel
b. core built up of laminations of hot rolled steel
80. A good voltage regulation of transformer c. either a or b
means___________ d. none of these
a. output voltage fluctuations from no load to ans: c
full load is least
b. output voltage fluctuations with power factor 85. Losses which occur in rotating electric
is least machine and do not occur in transformers
c. difference between primary and secondary are____________
voltage is least a. friction and windage losses
d. difference between primary and secondary b. magnetic losses
voltage is maximum c. hysteresis and eddy current losses
ans:a d. copper losses
ans:a
81. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that
the load is_____________ 86. Which of the following loss in a transformer
a. Capacitive only is zero even at full load__________
b. inductive only a. core loss
c. inductive or resistive b. friction loss
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d. none of these c. eddy current loss

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ans:a d. Hysteresis loss

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ans:b
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82. The size of the transformer core depend

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on___________ 87. The noise produced by transformer is

B
a. frequency termed as _______________

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b. area of the core a. zoom

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c. flux density of the core material b.hum

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c. ringing 92. The rating of the transformer is given in kVA

d. buzz instead of kW because__________
ans:b a. kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load pf
b. load power factor is often not known
88. Part of the transformer which is most c. it has become customary
subject to damage from overheating d. total transformer loss depends on VA
is______________ ans:b
a. iron core
b. copper winding 93. Increase in secondary current of
c. insulation of the winding transformer brings about increase in primary
d. transformer tank current . This is possible because___________
ans:c a. primary and secondary windings are
capacitively coupled.
89.In a step down transformer, there is a b. primary and secondary windings are
change of 15A in the load current. This results in inductively coupled
change of supply current of_____________ c. primary and secondary windings are
a. less than 15 A conductively coupled
b. more than 15 A d. none of these
c.15A ans:b
d. none of these
ans:a 94. Transformer for constant voltage
application is considered good if its voltage
90. As per the name plate of transformer, the regulation is_________
secondary normal voltage is 220V. Which of the a. low
following statement about it is correct?_______ b. high
a. 220V is no load voltage c. zero
b. The no load voltage is more than 220V d. none of these
c. The secondary voltage increases with ans:c
increase in load
d. At a load which draws the rated current & 95. Transformer action needs that the magnetic
the voltage becomes less than 220V. flux linking with the winding must
ans:b be_____________
a. constant
91.In which of the following transformer, part b. pulsating
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of the primary winding serves as the secondary c. alternating

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winding__ d. none of these

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a. Potential transformer ans:c

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b. Auto transformer
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c. Step up transformer 96. Low voltage windings are placed next to the
B
d. None of these core to reduce_____________

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ans:b a. Hysteresis loss

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c. insulation requirement b. first

d. copper loss c. both are same
ans:c d. depends on loading
ans:b
97. The relation between the primary and
secondary ampere turns of transformer ---------- 102. A transformer has 2600 V on primary side
and 260 V on secondary side. The
a. exactly equal transformation ratio is_
b. approximately equal a.10
c. primary mmf larger than secondary mmf b.5
d. primary mmf smaller than secondary mmf c.0.1
ans:a d.9
ans:c
98. Positive voltage regulation occurs in case of
transformer for______________ 103. If the copper loss of a transformer at 70%
a. capacitive load of full load is 200 W. The full load copper loss is
b. resistive load only ________
c. inductive load only a. 200 W
d. either inductive or resistive load b. 285.71 W
ans:d c.408.16W
d. none of these
99. Cooling of the transformer is required so as ans:c
to_____________
a. increase the efficiency 104. A transformer having 1000 primary turns is
b. to reduce the losses connected 250 V ac supply. For a secondary
c. to reduce humming voltage of 400 volt, the no of secondary turns
d. to dissipate the heat generated in the should be________
winding a.1600
ans:d b.250
c.400
100. The transformer efficiency will be d.1250
maximum at a power factor of ____________ ans:a
a. 0.8pf lead
b. unity 105. If Copper loss of a transformer at 7/8th of
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c. 0.8 lag the full load is 4900W. Then its full load copper
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d. 0.5 lag or lead loss is____

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ans:b a.5600
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b.6400
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101. The regulations of two transformers are (i) c.375

B
3% and (ii) 97%. The one with better regulation d.429

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is______ ans:b
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106. At relatively light loads, the transformer 110. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase
efficiency is low because__________ transformer has to be worked at a maximum
a. secondary output is low flux density of 1.1 web/m2 in the core. The
b. transformer losses are high effective cross sectional area of the core is 145
c. fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
cm2. The no of secondary turns___
d. copper loss is small.
a.71 turns
ans:c
b.75 turns
c.932 turns
107.A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase
d.923 turns
ans:a
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 60
turns on the secondary winding. The value of
111. A 80 kVA, 6000 V/ 400 V, 50 Hz single
maximum flux density___
phase transformer has 80 turns on the
a.1.25 Tesla
secondary winding. The value of maximum flux
b.1.52 Tesla
in the core________
c.1.3 Tesla
a.25.22mwb
d.none of the above
b.22.52mwb
ans:a
c.52.22mwb
d. none of these
ans:b
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 60 112. A 6600 V/220 V, 50 Hz, step down single
turns on the secondary winding. The number of phase transformer has 1500 turns on its
turns on the high voltage winding________ primary side. If its maximum flux density is 1.2
a. 600 turns Tesla, then the effective cross sectional area of
b. 900 turns core is _____
c. 300 turns a.16.516  10–3 m2
d. 450 turns b.61.516  10–3 m2
ans:b
c.26.516  10–3 m2
d.62.516  10–3 m2
ans:a
transformer has to be worked at a maximum
flux density of 1.1 wb/m2 in the core. The 113. A 10 kVA, 3300/240 V, single phase, 50 Hz
effective cross sectional area of the core is 145
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cm2. The no of primary turns___ flux density is 1.3 tesla. The primary full load
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a. 930 turns current is ___________

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b. 950 turns a. 3.03 amp

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c. 932 turns b. 33.03 amp

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B
d. 923 turns c. 30.3 amp

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ans:c d. 0.303 amp

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ans:a
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116. A 500 kVA transformer has iron loss of 2

114.A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at full kW and full load copper losses of 5 kW. The
load its copper losses is 1100 W and its iron efficiency at 75% of full load and unity power
losses is 950 W. The efficiency at full load for factor__________
unity power factor is___________ a.98.13%
a. 99% b.98.73%
b.96% c.99%
c.97.77% d. none of these
d. none of these ans:b
ans:c
117: The no load voltage at the secondary
115. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at full terminals of single phase transformer is
load its copper losses is 1100 W and its iron observed as 230 volt. When the transformer is
losses is 950 W. The efficiency at 60% of full loaded, the voltage on secondary side has
load for 0.8 lagging power factor is___________ reduced to 224 volt. Then the % regulation of
a.96.97% transformer for that loading is_______
b.96% a.2.6%
c.98% b.2.67%
d. none of these c.0%
ans:a d. none of these
ans:a
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UNIT I
ELECTROMAGNETISM
1. The complete path followed by the magnetic 6. Lines of force is also called
flux is called a. flux
a. electric circuit b. current
b. magnetic circuit c. resistance
c. electromagnetism d. flux density
d. electric field ans:a
ans: b
7. Lines of force passing per unit area is called
2. Current carrying conductor is always a. magnetic field
surrounded by b. magnetic flux
a. magnetic field c. magnetic flux density
b. electric field d. magnetic field strength
c. Electricity ans:c
d. current
ans: a 8. unit of flux is
a. weber
3. The direction of magnetic field produced by b. wb/m2
current carrying conductor is given by c. Tesla
a. Lenz’s law d. AT
b. right hand thumb rule ans:a
c. Fleming’s left hand rule
d. Kirchoff’s law 9. Unit of flux density is
ans: b a. wb/m2
b. wb
4. Imaginary lines of force originating from c. AT/wb
magnet is called d. A
a. current ans:a
b. resistance
c. flux 10. Unit of magnetic field
d. magnetic field a. wb/m2
ans: c b. wb
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c. AT/wb
in
5. Region surrounded by magnet is called d. none of above

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a. magnetic field strength ans:b

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b. magnetic field
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c. electric field 11. Unit of reluctance is

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d. resistance a. AT/wb
ans: b b. AT
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c. Tesla d. the ability of material to conduct magnetic

d. Wb/A lines of force
ans:a ans: d
12. Opposition to the magnetic lines of force is 17. An air gap is usually inserted in a magnetic
called circuit
a. Flux a. to prevent saturation
b. resistance b. increase flux
c. susceptance c. decrease flux
d. reluctance d. increase mmf
ans:d ans: a
13. Unit of magnetic field strength is 18. A magnetic circuit requires 800 ampere
a. AT/m turns to produce a certain amount of flux. If
b. AT/wb exciting coil of 100 turns has 5 ohms resistance,
c.Tesla then the voltage to be applied to the exciting
d. ohms coil must be
ans: a a. 40V
b. 20 V
14. The force on two current carrying c.10V
conductors in the same direction d. 5V
a. have force of repulsion between them ans: a
b. have force of attraction between them
c. remains unaffected 19. Permeability of a material is the ratio of
d. none of above a. magnetic field to flux density
ans: b b. flux density to magnetic field strength
c. magnetic field strength to flux density
15. Magneto motive force is directly d. none of above
proportional to ans: b
a. no. of turns of coil
b. current through the coil 20. The term saturation related to magnetic
c. both a and b circuit means
d. none of above a. magnetic field strength increases with
ans: c current
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b. flux density increases with current

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16. The term permeability for a material means c. flux density remains constant if magnetic
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a. the no. of turns on an air core field strength is increased

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b. the mmf required to produce one unit of d. magnetic field strength remains constant if
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magnetic flux flux density is increased.

B
c. the ability of a material to conduct electricity ans:c

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21. The lines of force produced by coil b. does not vary with increasing the cross
completing their path through air, instead of sectional area
intended path is called c. decreases with increasing cross sectional area
a. useful flux of material
b. saturated flux d. decreases with increasing the length of
c. air flux material
d. leakage flux ans: c
ans: d
27. The correct relation stated as following is
22. The bulging of lines of force in air gap in a 𝑁
a. ф =𝑙/𝑎µ0µ𝑟
magnetic circuit is called
b. NI = B× l/a µ0µr
a. leaking flux
c. N=H×l
b. merging
d. NI = ф × l/µ0µr a
c. fringing
ans: d
d. scattering
ans: c
28. The permeance in a magnetic circuit
corresponds to
a. resistance in an electric circuit
a. 4π × 10-7 H/m
b. emf in an electric circuit
b. 1 H/m
c. conductivity in electric circuit
c.1
d. conductance in an electric circuit
d. ¼ H/m
ans: d
ans: c
29. The ampere turns are

24.MMF in magnetic circuit is analogous to
a. the product of the number of turns and
a. electric current in electric circuit
current of the coil
b. current density in conductor
b. the number of turns of a coil through which
c. electromotive force
current is flowing
c. the currents of all turns of the coil
ans:c
d. the turns of transformer winding
ans:a
25. Reluctance is analogous to
a. emf in electric circuit
30. What will be the current flowing through
b. resistivity
the ring shaped air core when number of turns
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c. conductivity
in

a. 0.25
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ans: d
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b.2.5
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c.4.0
U

d. 0.4
B
a. increases with increasing cross sectional area

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ans:c
of material
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31. Leakage factor is defined as the ratio of a. copper

a. flux in air gap by total flux b. rubber
b. Total flux by useful flux c. glass
c. airgp flux by useful flux d. none of these
d. total flux by flux produced by solenoid ans: d
ans: b
37. The force between two parallel current
32. Effect of fringing in magnetic circuit is carrying conductors is given by relation
a. it increases flux density a. I1I2 ×2× 10-7× l/d
b. its effective area of air gap decreases b. I1 dl /I2 ×4π× 10-7
c. it decreases flux density c. I1I2 /2π× 10-7
d. none of above d. I12×4× 10-7ld
ans:c ans: a
33.The force experienced by unit north pole 39. The magnitude of force experienced by
when placed at point in a magnetic field is current carrying conductor placed in magnetic
called field depends on
a. magnetic field strength at that point a. value of flux
b. exerted force at that point b. magnitude of current flowing through
c.flux conductor
d. magnetic field c. direction of current
ans:a d. all of above
ans: d
34. The mechanical force acting on current
carrying on conductor when placed in magnetic 40.Two current carrying conductor lying parallel
field is given by relation and close to each other. They are carrying
a. F= N dф/dt current in the opposite direction. The force
b. F= Blv sinӨ between them is
c. F= BIL sinӨ a. repulsive
d. F=L di/dt b. Attractive
ans: c c. Zero
d. none of these
35. Which of the following has the highest ans: a
magnetic permeability?
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a. paramagnetic substances 41. Two current carrying conductor lying

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b. diamagnetic substances parallel and close to each other. They are

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c. ferromagnetic substances carrying current in the same direction. The

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d. vacuum force between them is

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ans: c a. repulsive
B
b. Attractive
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36. The perfect insulator for magnetic lines of c. Zero

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force is d. none of these

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ans: b of flux density 1.25T at 300 to the lines of flux.

Force acting on conductor will be
42. Two current carrying conductor lying a.0.3125N
parallel and close to each other are exerting b. 3.125N
force of attraction on each other. The currents c.1.325N
are d. 5.321N
a. very high ans: a
b. in opposite direction
c. low 47.Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find
d. in the same direction a. Magnitude of induced emf in conductor
ans: d b. Direction of magnetic field in conductor
c. Direction of force on current carrying
43. Two current carrying conductor lying conductor
parallel and close to each other are exerting d. Magnitude of flux density
force of repulsion on each other. The currents ans: c
are
a. very high2 48. Which statement is correct related to
b. in opposite direction magnetic field produced due to current carrying
c. low conductor
d. in the same direction a. direction of rotation of screw to advance in
ans: b the direction of current gives the direction of
magnetic field
44. Two conductors are carrying 1000A and b. If right hand curled fingers shows the
5000A currents respectively are 5cm apart. The direction of current, thumb gives the direction
force per meter length between two conductors of magnetic field
is c. if direction of rotation of screw shows current
a. 100 N/m ,tip gives the direction of magnetic field
b. 40 N/m d. all of these
c.30 N/m ans: a
d. 20 N/m
ans: d 49. Force experienced by current carrying
45. Magnetic field strength due to N long conductor when placed in magnetic field will be
straight current carrying conductors in the same zero when
direction is given by a. current in the conductor is maximum
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a. H= NI/ 4πd b. Angle between conductor and field is zero

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b. H= I/ 2πd c. Both a &b

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c. H= NI/ 2πd d. None of these

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d. H=NI/l ans: b
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ans: c
B
50. Relative permeability is defined as the ratio

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46. A conductor of 10cm length carrying a of

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current of 5A placed in uniform magnetic field

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a. magnetic field strength in a medium to flux c. magnitude of force experienced

density in the same medium d. direction of force
b. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to magnetic ans: a
field strength in vacuum
c. Magnetic flux density in other medium to flux 55. In left hand rule, thumb always represents
density in vacuum a. current
d. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to flux b. voltage
density in other medium c. magnetic field
ans: c d. direction of force on conductor
ans: d
51. The ability with which the magnetic material
allows the flux to pass through a given medium 56. The force between two long current
is called carrying conductor is inversely proportional to
a. susceptibility a. current in one conductor
b. permeability b. product of current in two conductors
c. conductivity c. distance between the two conductors.
d. reluctivity d. radius of conductors
ans: b ans: c
52. Unit of permeability is 57. While comparing magnetic and electric

a. A/m circuit, the point of dissimilarity exists while
b. H/m considering
c. I/m a.mmf and emf
d. m/H b. Reluctance and resistance
ans: b c. flux and current
d. permeance and conductance
53. Permeability of free space or vacuum is ans: c
defined as the ratio of
a. magnetic flux density in vacuum to magnetic 59. Permeance is to reluctance as conductance
field strength is to
b. Magnetic flux density in other medium to a. inductance
magnetic field strength b. resistance
c. Magnetic field strength to magnetic flux c. capacitance
density in vacuum d. ampere turns
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d. Magnetic field strength in medium to flux ans: b

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density in other medium

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ans: a 60. A straight cylindrical solenoid has a flux of

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12mwb and a flux density of 0.9T. The diameter

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54. Right hand thumb rule is used to find out of solenoid must be
B
a. direction of induced emf a.130cm

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b. direction of magnetic field due to current b. 13cm

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carrying conductor c.10cm

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d.5cm 65. the mmf of ring is_____

ans : b a.5000AT
b. 7200AT
61. 1 tesla is given as c.750AT
a. 1wb/m2 d. 7500AT
b. 1wb/cm2 ans:d
c.1mwb/cm2
d. 1wb/mm2 66. The reluctance of ring is______
ans: a a.7×107 AT/Wb
b. 0.7×106 AT/Wb
62. Which part of the magnetic path requires c.6×107 AT/Wb
largest mmf d. 6×105 AT/Wb
a.coil ans: b
b.core
c.airgap 67.The value of flux is _________
d. inductance a.10.7 Wb
ans: c b.70 mWb
c.10.7mWb
63. Soft steel and iron alloy allow easy passage d. 107 mwb
of a magnetic flux because ans: c
a. of its high elasticity
b. of its high permeability 68. The relative permeability of air
c. of its high conductivity is__________
d. of its high reluctance a. 1
ans: b b. less than 1
c. greater than 1
64. Magnitude of the magnetic field produced d. 1000
by a coil is proportional to ans: a
a. Permeability of the core material
b. the no. of turns of coil 69. Relative permeability of all non magnetic
c. the magnitude of current flow through the materials is_____
coil a. 300
d. the product of all above b. 0.7
ans:d c.1
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d. 0
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Following data should be used for solving 65 to ans: c

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67
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A coil is wound uniformly with 300 turns over 70. Which of the following is non magnetic
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steel ring of relative permeability 900, having material?

B
mean circumference of 40mm and cross a. iron

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sectional area of 50mm2. A current of 25A is b. Mild steel

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passed through coil c. brass

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d. Silicon steel
ans: c 76. A strength of an electromagnet is
determined by
71. Which of the following is magnetic material? a. reluctance
a. copper b. permeability of the core
b. silicon steel c.mmf
c. aluminium d. all of above
d. brass ans: d
ans: b
77. The strength of the magnetic field around a
72. Flux in the air gap is called conductor is directly proportional to
a. leakage flux a. voltage across the conductor
b. total flux b. current in the conductor
c. useful flux c. type of material of conductor
d. all of above d. none of above
ans: c ans: b
73. A magnetic circuit has a mmf of 400AT and a 78. Reluctance of magnetic material is
reluctance of 2 × 105 AT/wb. The magnetic flux a. less than non magnetic material
in the magnetic circuit is b. more than non magnetic material
a. 3 × 10-5Wb c. equal to that of non magnetic material
b.2 × 10-3Wb d. none of above
c.1.5 × 10-2Wb ans: a
d. 2.5 × 10-4Wb
ans: b 79. The denser the flux
a. stronger is the magnetic field
74. A 2cm long coil has 10 turns and carries a b. weaker is the magnetic flux
current of 750mA. The magnetizing force of the c. no effect on the strength of field
coil is d. none of above
a. 225 AT/m ans: a
b. 675 AT/m
c.450 AT/m 80. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by
d. 375 AT/m a. Flemings right hand rule
ans: d b. Flemings left hand rule
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c. faradays law of electromagnetic induction

in
75. The reluctance of a magnetic circuit varies d. crock screw rule.

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with ans:a
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a. length × area
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b. length / area 81. Magnitude of induced e.m.f. in a generator

B
c. area/length depend on
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d. (length)2 + area a. flux density

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c. rate of cutting flux d. The induced current is the same in all

d. Rate of current discharge. positions
ans:c ans:b
82. According to Lenz’s law direction of induced 86. In which of the following situations a
e.m.f. is. voltage is induced in a conductor?
a. Same as cause produced a. The conductor moves through the air.
b. Perpendicular to cause produced b. The conductor is connected to a battery.
c. opposite to cause produced c. The conductor is connected to a motor.
d. Non above d. The conductor is moved in a magnetic field.
ans:c ans:d
83. According to Faraday’s Laws of 89. In case of dynamically induced emf,

electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f.is induced direction of induced emf is given by
in a conductor whenever it a. Fleming’s right hand rule
a. Lies in magnetic field b. Lenz’s law
b. Cuts magnetic flux c. Faraday’s first law
c. moves parallel to the direction of the d. Faraday’s second law
magnetic field ans:a
d. lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux.
ans:b 90. Emf induced in a coil due to its own current
is called __________Induction.
84. When a magnet moves past an object, it will a. Mutual
produce eddy currents in the object if the b.Self
object is c. Dynamic
a. a solid d. Static
b. an insulator ans:b
c. a conductor
d. made from the magnetic material 91. Emf induced in a coil due to current change
ans:d in neighboring coil is called_________
induction.
85. Electricity can be generated by rotating a a. Mutual
wire loop between the poles of a magnet. In b. Self
which of the following positions would induce c. Dynamic
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the greatest current in the loop? d. Static

in
a. The plane of the loop is parallel to the ans:a

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magnetic field.
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b. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the 92. Co-efficient of self induction is also called
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magnetic field. as__________

B
c. The plane of the loop makes an angle of 45° a. self- induction

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with the magnetic field. b. Inductance

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c. Self- inductance
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d. Induction c. Henry
ans:a d. Linkages
ans:c
93. The property of a coil due to which it
opposes the change of current flowing through 98. Unit of induced emf is_________
itself is called_____ of the coil. a. Volt
a. Static inductance b. Ampere
b. Dynamic inductance c. Henry
c.Self inductance d. Linkages
d. Mutual inductance ans:a
ans:c
99. The property of one coil due to which it
94. ____________is used to sense the flow of opposes the change in the other coil is
current in a electric circuit. called…………. between two coils.
a. Ammeter a. Dynamic inductance
b. Voltmeter b. Static inductance
c. Wattmeter c. Self inductance
d. Galvanometer d. Mutual inductance
ans:a ans:d
95. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt 100. The unit of mutual inductance
only when the current in the coil is is_________
a. Changing a. Volt
b. Increasing b. Ampere/ Volt
c. Decreasing c. Henry
d. All the above d. Linkages
ans:a ans:c
96. The negative sign in the induced emf of self 𝑀𝑑𝑖1

101. In the expression 𝑒 = 𝑑𝑡
, M represents
induction indicates that energy is being
a. Mutual induction
absorbed from the electric circuit and stored as
b. Mutual inductance
_______ energy in the coil.
c. Number of lines of force
a. mechanical
d. None of these
b. Electronic
ans:b
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c. electric
in
d. Magnetic
102. If 0.75 V is induced emf and resistance
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ans:d
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offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced

current is
P U
97. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of the

a. 3.75 A
B
circuit is______
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b. 3. 75 mA
a. Volt
C
c. 3.75μA
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b. Ampere
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d. 37.5 mA a. MMF
ans:b b. EMF
c. Flux linkage
103. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb to d. Magnetic intensity
0.3 Wb, then change in flux is______ Wb. ans:a
a. 1.1
b. 0.5 109. Expression NI/L is called
c. -0.5 a. MMF
d. -1.1 b. EMF
ans:c c. Flux linkage
d. Magnetic field strength
104. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if the ans:d
current is 100mA, then MMF is ________
a. 2000 AT 110. Expression for mutual inductance is
b. 200 AT a. –L dI/dt
c. 20 AT b. MdI / dt
d. 0.5 AT c. N2 Ф2/ I1
ans:c d. NФ/I
ans:c
105. Leakage factor is also called as
a. Fringing 111. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
b. Coefficient of inductance is e=
c. Magnetic coefficient a. –NdФ/dt
d. Hopkinson’s coefficient b. MdI / dt
ans:d c. N2 Ф2 / I1
d. NФ/I
106. Movement of electrons are called as ans:a
a. MMF
b. Current 112. The constant K in case of mutual induction
c. Voltage is equal to
d. Flux a.Ф1/Ф2
ans:b b.Ф2/Ф1
c.Ф1/I1
107. Flux density is equal to ________ of flux d.Ф2/I1
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and area of cross – section. ans:d

in
a. Sum
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b. Difference 113. Product of the permeability μoμr is equal to

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c. Product a. Magnetic flux

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d. Fraction b. Magnetic field

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ans:d c. Magnetic intensity

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d. Magnetic flux density / magnetic field

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108. NI expression is called strength

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ans:d 119. Two current carrying conductors lying

parallel to each other are exerting a force of
114. Expression for self induced emf is attraction on each other. The currents are
a. –L dI/dt a. Very high
b. MdI1 / dt b. in opposite direction
c. N2 Ф2/ I1 c. low
d. NФ/I d. in the same direction
ans:d ans:d
115. __________is normally termed as flux 120. Two conductors are lying parallel and close
linkages. to each other. They are carrying currents in
a. Ф opposite directions. The force between them is.
b. dФ/dt a. Repulsive
c. NФ b. attractive
d.Ф/I c. zero
ans:c d. none of these
ans:a
116. The term NФ/I is generally called as______
a. Self inductance 121. When a coil consisting of single turn
b. Mutual inductance rotates at uniform speed in magnetic field, the
c. Flux linkage induced emf is____
d. Induced emf a. steady
ans:a b. alternating
c. changing
117. In the expression for reluctance S = l/μA of d. reversing
a conduced, letter A represents_________ of ans:b
the conductor.
a. Total area 122. The emf induced in a conductor of length 1
b. Surface area meter moving at a right angles to a uniform
c. Cross- sectional area magnetic field of flux density 1.5 wb/m2 with
d. None of these. velocity of 50 m/s is.
ans:c a. 0
b.1.5 v
118. When a current carrying conductor is c. 75 v
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brought in to magnetic field, the force that d. 100 v

in
moves the conductor depends on ans:c

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a. direction of current.
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b. length of conductor 123. Which of following statements is incorrect.

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c. value of current a. Whenever flux linking with the coil or circuit

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d.all of the above changes, an emf is induced.

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ans:d b. The direction of dynamically induced emf can

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c. the coefficient of self-inductance is ans: d

proportional to the square of number of turns
on it.
d. Coefficient of coupling for tightly coupled coil
is zero.
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Basic Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice
Questions
MCQ’s for Phase 2 Examination

Prepared by Prof. Nipin K K
Unit III
Part (a) :SINGLE PHASE TRANSFORMER
1. A transformer is used to___________

a. change ac voltage to dc voltage 5. The transformer winding which is connected
b. change dc voltage to ac voltage to the load is called the_______ winding.
c. step up or step down dc voltages a. Primary
d. step up or step down ac voltages b. Secondary
ans: d c. Tertiary
d. Tapped
2. The two windings of a transformer ans:b
are__________
a. conductively linked 6.If supply frequency of a transformer increases,
b. inductively linked the secondary output voltage of the
c. not linked at all transformer____
d. electrically linked a.Decreases
ans: b b.increases
c.remains same
3.The magnetically operated device that can d.decreases slightly
change values of voltage, current, and ans:b
impedance without changing frequency is
the____________ 7.The horizontal and vertical portions of
a. Motor transformer magnetic core are called
b. Generator as_________
c. Transformer a.Limb,yoke
d. Transistor b.Yoke, limb
ans:c c.Winding, Yoke
d. Winding, Limb
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4. The transformer winding across which the ans:b

in
supply voltage applied is called the _____

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winding. 8.The principle of working of transformer is

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a. Primary based on ________

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b. Secondary a.Static induction

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B
c. Tertiary b.Mutual induction

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d. Tapped c.Dynamic induction

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ans:a d.Self induction

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Dr. D.Y. Institute of Technology, Pimpri, Pune-411018Page 1

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Questions
ans:b
14.The material used for construction of
9.Transformer is used to change values transformer core should have___________
of__________ a. Low permeability & high hysteresis loss
a.Frequency b. Low permeability & low hysteresis loss
b.Voltage c. High permeability & high hysteresis loss
c.Power d. high permeability & low hysteresis loss
d.Power factor ans:d
ans:b
15. Most transformer cores are not made from a
10.The path of the magnetic flux in transformer solid piece of metal. Instead, they are assembled
should have __________ from many thin sheets of metal. This type of
a.Low resistance construction is called__________
b.Low reluctance a. Laminated
c.High reluctance b. Toroid
d.High conductivity c. H core
ans:b d. tape wound
ans:a
11. Electrical power is transformed from one coil
to other coil in transformer_________ 16. The concentric cylindrical winding is used
a. Physically for__________
b. Electrically a. Core type transformer
c. Magnetically b.Shell type transformer
d. Electromagnetically c.Berry type transformer
ans:d d.None of these
ans:a
12. A transformer operates___________
a. Always at unity power factor 17.The sandwich type winding is used
b. At power factor depending on load for___________
c. Has its own power factor a.Core type transformer
d. At power factor below particular value b.Berry type transformer
ans: b c.Shell type transformer
d.None of these
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13. The laminations of transformer core are ans:c

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made up from__________
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a. Low carbon steel 18.Silicon steel is used for transformer

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b. Silicon sheet steel core__________

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c. Nickel alloy steel stamping a.To reduce hysteresis loss

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d. Chrome sheet steel b.To reduce eddy current loss

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ans:b c.To reduce both losses

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Questions
d.None of these d. (N1xN2)/N2

ans:a ans:b
19.What is common in two windings of 24. A transformer in which the secondary voltage
transformer? is more than the primary voltage is called a
a.Electric current _____ transformer
b.Magnetic circuit a. step-down
c.Winding wire guage b. step-up
d.None of these c.Isolation
ans:b d. Auto
ans:b
20.The main function of transformer iron core is
to__________ 25. A transformer in which the primary voltage is
a.Provide strength to the winding more than the secondary voltage is called a
b.To decrease hysteresis loss _____ transformer.
c.Decrease the reluctance of magnetic path a. step-down
d.Reduce eddy current loss b. step-up
ans:c c.Isolation
d.Auto
21.The emf induced in the primary of a ans:a
transformer___________
a.is in phase with the flux 26.Any transformer flux that does not follow the
b.lags behind the flux by 90 degree core and escapes into the surrounding air is
c.leads the flux by 90 degree called____
d.is in phase opposition to that of flux a.magnetizing flux
ans:b b.coupling flux
c.leakage flux
22.The transformer turns ratio d.reactance flux
determines_____________ ans:c
a. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages
b. the ratio of primary and secondary currents 27.A transformer that does not isolate the
c. The resistance on other side output from the input is called _____
d. all of the above transformer
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ans:a a.Distribution
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b.step-up
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23. Turns ratio of single phase transformer is c.Auto

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given as__________ d.Control

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a. N2/N1 ans:c
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b. N1/N2
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c. (N1xN2)/N1
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Questions
28.Ideal transformer assumptions do not 33.Single phase core type transformer

include____________ has__________
a.Zero reactance of the winding a.One magnetic path
b.Zero resistance of the winding b.Two magnetic paths
c.No leakage flux c.No magnetic path
d.No saturation of the core d.None of these
ans:a ans:a
29.The efficiency of the transformer is normally 34.Single phase shell type transformer
is normally in the range of____________ has__________
a.50 to 70% a.One magnetic path
b.60 to 75 % b.Two magnetic paths
c.80 to 90 % c.No magnetic path
d.90 to 98% d.None of these
ans:d ans:b
30.The resistance of low voltage side of 35.Natural cooling is better in_________

transformer________ a.Core type transformer
a.Is equal to resistance of its high voltage side b.Shell Type transformer
b.Is more than its resistance on high voltage side c.Both A& B
c.Is less than its resistance on high voltage side d.Berry type transformer
d.0 ans:a
ans:c
36.EMF equation for single phase transformer
31.Eddy current losses in transformer core are is________
reduced by_________ a.E= 4.44 Φm A f N
a.Increasing the thickness of laminations b.E= 4.44 Bm A N
b.Decreasing the thickness of laminations c.E= 4.44 BmfN
c.Decreasing the air gap in magnetic circuit d.E= 4.44 ΦmfN
d.Using wire of higher guage for winding ans:d
ans:b
37.Transformation ratio(K) of transformer
32.A good transformer oil should be absolutely is_________
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free from__________ a.N2/N1

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a.Sulpher b.E1/E2
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b.Alkalies c.I2/I1
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c.Moisture d.V1/V2
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d.All of the above ans:a

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ans:c
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Questions
38.For Isolation transformer the transformation 43.Transformer rating usually expressed

ratio(K) is_________ in____________
a.0 a.kW
b.Greater than 1 b.kVA
c.Less than 1 c.kV
d.1 d.kWh
ans:d ans:b
39.In step up transformer the transformation 44.In a transformer if secondary turns are
ratio (K) is_____________ doubled, at the same time primary voltage is
a.Greater than 1 reduced by half, the secondary voltage
b.1 will_________
c.Less than 1 a.Be halved
d.0 b.Not change
ans:a c.Be four times
d.Be reduced to quarter
40.In step down transformer the transformation ans:b
ratio (K) is__________ 45.The no load current in terms of full load
a.Greater than 1 current is usually________
b.1 a.1 to 3%
c.Less than 1 b.3 to 9 %
d.0 c.9 to 12%
ans:c d.12 to 20%
ans:a
41.The primary and secondary voltages in
transformer are___________ 46.Transformer oil is used in transformer to
a.Always in Phase provide_______
b.1800 out of phase a.Cooling and insulation
c.900 out of phase b.Cooling and lubrication
d.300 or 600 out of phase c.Insulation and lubrication
ans:b d.Insulation, cooling and lubrication
ans:a
42.The induced emf in transformer secondary
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depends on__________ 47.What is the typical use of

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a.Maximum flux in core autotransformer____________?

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b.Frequency a.Toy transformer

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c.No of turns on secondary b.Control transformer

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d.all of the above c.Variable transformer

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ans:d d.Isolating transformer

C
ans:c
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Questions
ans:c
48.In any transformer the voltage per turn in
primary and secondary remains____________ 53.The regulation of transformer is calculated
a.Always different as_________
b.Always the same
c.Always in ratio of K 𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
a. 𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
d.Sometimes same
ans:b 𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
b.
49.Full load copper loss in a transformer is 400
Watt. At half load, copper losses will c. 𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
be___________
a.400 Watt 𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
d.
b.100 Watt 𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
c.200 Watt ans:a

d.50 Watt
ans:b 54.The efficiency of single phase transformer is
50.A transformer is working with its maximum calculated as_____________
efficiency. If the iron losses are 500 W, the a. 𝑉 𝐼
copper loss will__________
a.300 W 𝑉1𝐼1 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅
b.
b.350 W 𝑉2𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
c.250 W c. 𝑉 𝐼
1 1 𝐶𝑜𝑠 ∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
d.500 W
ans:d 𝑉2𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅
d.
𝑉1𝐼1 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
51.If we increase the flux density in case ans:a

transformer_______________
a.The size of transformer will reduce 55. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single phase
b.The distortion in transformer will reduce transformer, the primary full load current
c.Hysteresis and eddy current losses will reduce is____________
d.None of these will be true a.909.09 Amp
ans:a b.90.90 Amp
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c.9.09 Amp
in
d.9090.9 Amp
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52.The direct loading test is performed on

ans:c
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a.Regulation
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b.Efficiency 56.For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single phase

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c.Both transformer, the secondary full load current

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d.None of these is________

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a.90.90 Amp 61.The flux in transformer core____________

b.9090.9 Amp a. increases with load
c.909.0 Amp b.decreases with load
d.9.09 Amp c.remains constant irrespective of load
ans:c d.none of these
ans:c
57.The disadvantage of auto transformer
is______________ 62.Efficiency of transformer is maximum
a.No separation between primary & secondary when___________
b.Size is more than normal transformer for same a. transformer is unloaded
rating b.copper losses is equal to iron losses
c.More costlier than normal transformer c.eddy current losses are equal to hysteresis
d.All losses
ans:d d.it is maximally loaded
ans:b
58.In a transformer the voltage regulation will be
near to zero when it operates at____________ 63.If the supply frequency in transformer is
a.unity p.f. doubled, then_________
b.leading p.f. a. hysteresis loss also doubles
c.lagging p.f. b. eddy current loss also doubles
d.full load. c. iron losses doubles
ans:b d. copper losses doubles
ans:a
59.A transformer steps up voltage by a factor of
100. The ratio of current in the primary to that in 64.Hysteresis loss in transformer depends
secondary_______________ on__________
a.1 a.both voltage and frequency
b.100 b.voltage alone
c.0.01 c.frequency alone
d.0.1 d.none of these
ans:b ans:a
60.An ideal transformer does not 65.Eddy current loss depends on_____________
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change______________ a.both current and frequency

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a.Voltage b.current alone

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b.Power c.frequency alone

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c.current d.none of these

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d.None of these ans:a

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ans:b
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Questions
66.The flux involved in EMF equation of a a.3200 W and 2500 W

transformer has______________ b.3200 W and 5200 W
a.RMS Value c.1600 W and 1250 W
b.Average Value d.1600 W and 5000 W
c.Total Value ans:d
d.maximum Value
ans:d 71.A transformer does not raise or lower the
voltage of DC supply because________
67. A transformer has maximum efficiency at ¾ a.there is no need to change the DC voltage
of full load. The ratio of its iron loss and full load b.DC circuit has more losses
copper loss is_________ c.Faradays law of Electromagnetic Induction are
a.16/9 not valid since the rate of change of flux is zero
b.4/3 d.none of these
c.3/4 ans:c
d.9/16
ans:d 72.Primary winding of a transformer
_____________
68. If primary of the transformer is connected to a.is always low voltage winding
dc supply, then______ b.is always high voltage winding
a.Primary draws small current c.could either be a low or high voltage winding
b.primary leakage reactance is increased d.none of these
c.core losses are increased ans:c
d.primary may burn out
ans:d 73.Which winding of a transformer has more
number of turns_______________
69.For an ideal transformer the windings should a.Low voltage winding
have____________ b.High voltage winding
a.maximum resistance on primary side and least c.Primary winding
resistance on secondary side d.secondary winding
b.least resistance on primary side ans maximum ans:b
resistance on secondary side
c.equal resistance on primary and secondary 74. In a given transformer for a given applied
side voltage, which losses remain constant
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d.noohmic resistance on either side irrespective of change in load___________

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ans:d a.Friction and windage loss

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b.copper loss
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70.The full load copper and iron loss of a c.hysteresis and eddy current loss
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transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W d.none of these

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respectively. The copper loss and iron loss at half ans:c

C
load will be respectively______

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75.Main advantage to use autotransformer over c.1000 ohm

two winding transformer____________ d.infinity
a.Hysteresis losses are reduced ans:d
b.savings in winding material
c.copper losses are negligible 80.A good voltage regulation of transformer
d.Eddy current losses are totally eliminated means___________
ans:b a.output voltage fluctuations from no load to full
load is least
76.An ideal transformer is one which has b.output voltage fluctuations with power factor
_____________ is least
a.no losses and magnetic leakage c.difference between primary and secondary
b.interleaved primary and secondary winding voltage is least
c.a common core for its primary and secondary d.difference between primary and secondary
d.core of stainless steel and winding of pure voltage is maximum
copper material ans:a
ans:a
81.Negative voltage regulation is indicative that
77.In a practical transformer core losses remains the load is_____________
constant from no load to full load a.Capacitive only
because__________ b.inductive only
a.value of transformation ratio remains constant c.inductive or resistive
b.permeability of transformer core remains d.none of these
constant ans:a
c.core flux remains practically constant
d.primary and secondary voltage remains 82.The size of the transformer core depend
constant on___________
ans.c a.frequency
b.area of the core
78.The transformer laminations are insulated c.flux density of the core material
from each other by_____________ d.(a) and (b) both
a.mica strip ans:d
b.thin coat of varnish
c.paper 83.A shell type transformer has
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d.any one of these _______________

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ans:b a.high eddy current losses

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b.reduced magnetic leakage

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79.In transformer resistance between primary c.negligible hysteresis loss

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and secondary should be_____________ d.none of these

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a.zero ans:b
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b.10 ohm
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84.Deduction in core losses and increase in d.transformer tank

permeability are obtained with transformer ans:c
employing______
a.core built up of laminations of cold rolled grain 89.In a step down transformer, there is a change
oriented steel of 15A in the load current. This results in change
b.core built up of laminations of hot rolled steel of supply current of_____________
c.either a or b a.less than 15 A
d.none of these b.more than 15 A
ans:c c.15A
d.none of these
85.Losses which occur in rotating electric ans:a
machine and do not occur in transformers
are____________ 90.As per the name plate of transformer, the
a.friction and windage losses secondary normal voltage is 220V. Which of the
b.magnetic losses following statement about it is correct?_______
c.hysteresis and eddy current losses a.220V is no load voltage
d.copper losses b.The no load voltage is more than 220V
ans:a c.The secondary voltage increases with increase
in load
86.Which of the following loss in a transformer is d.At a load which draws the rated current & the
zero even at full load__________ voltage becomes less than 220V.
a.core loss ans:b
b.friction loss
c.eddy current loss 91.In which of the following transformer, part of
d.Hysteresis loss the primary winding serves as the secondary
ans:b winding__
a.Potential transformer
87.The noise produced by transformer is termed b.Auto transformer
as _______________ c.Step up transformer
a.zoom d.None of these
b.hum ans:b
c.ringing
d.buzz 92.The rating of the transformer is given in kVA
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ans:b instead of kW because__________

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a.kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load pf

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88. Part of the transformer which is most subject b.load power factor is often not known
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to damage from overheating is______________ c.it has become customary

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a.iron core d.total transformer loss depends on VA

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b.copper winding ans:b

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c.insulation of the winding

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93.Increase in secondary current of transformer 97.The relation between the primary and
brings about increase in primary current . This is secondary ampere turns of transformer ----------
possible because___________
a.primary and secondary windings are a.exactly equal
capacitively coupled. b.approximately equal
b.primary and secondary windings are c.primarymmf larger than secondary mmf
inductively coupled d. primary mmf smaller than secondary mmf
c.primary and secondary windings are ans:a
conductively coupled
d.none of these 98.Positive voltage regulation occurs in case of
ans:b transformer for______________
a.capacitive load
94.Transformer for constant voltage application b.resistive load only
is considered good if its voltage regulation c.inductive load only
is_________ d.either inductive or resistive load
a.low ans:d
b.high
c.zero 99.Cooling of the transformer is required so as
d.none of these to_____________
ans:c a.increase the efficiency
b.to reduce the losses
95.Transformer action needs that the magnetic c.to reduce humming
flux linking with the winding must d. to dissipate the heat generated in the winding
be_____________ ans:d
a.constant
b.pulsating 100.The transformer efficiency will be maximum
c.alternating at a power factor of ____________
d.none of these a.0.8pf lead
ans:c b.unity
c.0.8 lag
96. Low voltage windings are placed next to the d.0.5 lag or lead
core to reduce_____________ ans:b
a.Hysteresis loss
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b.eddy current loss 101. The regulations of two transformers are (i)
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c.insulation requirement 3% and (ii) 97%. The one with better regulation
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d.copper loss is______

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ans:c a.second
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d.depends on loading
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ans:b 106.At relatively light loads, the transformer

efficiency is low because__________
102. A transformer has 2600 V on primary side a.secondary output is low
and 260 V on secondary side. The transformation b.transformer losses are high
ratio is_ c.fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
a.10 d.copper loss is small.
b.5 ans:c
c.0.1
d.9 107.A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase
ans:c transformer is built on a core having an effective
cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 60 turns on
103. If the copper loss of a transformer at 70% of the secondary winding.The value of maximum
full load is 200 W. The full load copper loss is flux density___
________ a.1.25 Tesla
a.200 W b.1.52 Tesla
b.285.71 W c.1.3 Tesla
c.408.16W d.none of the above
d.none of these ans:a
ans:c
104. A transformer having 1000 primary turns is transformer is built on a core having an effective
connected 250 V ac supply. For a secondary 2
cross sectional area of 120 cm and 60 turns on
voltage of 400 volt, the no of secondary turns
should be________ the secondary winding. The number of turns on
a.1600 the high voltage winding________
b.250 a.600 turns
c.400 b.900 turns
d.1250 c.300 turns
ans:a d.450 turns
ans:b
105.If Copper loss of a transformer at 7/8th of the
full load is 4900W. Then its full load copper loss 109.A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase
is____ transformer has to be worked at a maximum flux
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a.5600 density of 1.1 wb/m in the core. The effective

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b.6400
2
cross sectional area of the core is 145 cm . The
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c.375
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d.429 no of primary turns___

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ans:b a.930 turns

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b.950 turns
C
c.932 turns
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d.923 turns b.33.03 amp

ans:c c.30.3 amp
d.0.303 amp
110. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase ans:a
transformer has to be worked at a maximum flux
2 114.A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at full load
density of 1.1 web/m in the core. The effective
its copper losses is 1100 W and its iron losses is
2 950 W. The efficiency at full load for unity power
cross sectional area of the core is 145 cm . The
no of secondary turns___ factor is___________
a.71 turns a. 99%
b.75 turns b.96%
c.932 turns c.97.77%
d.923 turns d.none of these
ans:a ans:c
111.A 80 kVA, 6000 V/ 400 V, 50 Hz single phase 115.A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at full load
transformer has 80 turns on the secondary its copper losses is 1100 W and its iron losses is
winding. The value of maximum flux in the 950 W. The efficiency at 60% of full load for 0.8
core________ lagging power factor is___________
a.25.22mwb a.96.97%
b.22.52mwb b.96%
c.52.22mwb c.98%
d.none of these d.none of these
ans:b ans:a
112.A 6600 V/220 V, 50 Hz, step down single 116.A 500 kVA transformer has iron loss of 2 kW
phase transformer has 1500 turns on its primary and full load copper losses of 5 kW. The
side. If its maximum flux density is 1.2 Tesla, then efficiency at 75% of full load and unity power
the effective cross sectional areaof core is _____ factor__________
a.16.516 × 10–3 m2 a.98.13%
b.61.516 × 10–3 m2 b.98.73%
c.99%
c.26.516 × 10–3 m2
d.none of these
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d.62.516 × 10–3 m2
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ans:b
ans:a
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117: The no load voltage at the secondary

113.A 10 kVA, 3300/240 V, single phase, 50 Hz
P
terminals of single phase transformer is

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observed as 230 volt. When the transformer is
B
flux density is 1.3 tesla.The primary full load

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loaded, the voltage on secondary side has

current is ___________
C
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reduced to 224 volt. Then the % regulation of c.0%

transformer for that loading is_______ d.none of these
a.2.6% ans:a
b.2.67%
Unit III
Part (b) ELECTROSTATICS
1.A dielectric material must be________ ans:d

a.resistor 5.If a number of capacitors are connected in
b.Insulator series then the total capacitance of combination
c.Conductor is_____
d.Semiconductor a.greater than the capacitance of largest
ans:b capacitor
b. greater than the capacitance of any capacitor
2. The energy stored in capacitance is given c.smaller than the capacitance of smallest
by__________________________ capacitor
a. C2V d. average of the capacitance of all capacitor
b. CV2/2 ans:c
c. C2V/2
d. CV 6.The total capacitance of five capacitor each of
ans:b 10 µF in series is________________
a.10 µF
3. Electrolytic capacitors can be used b.2 µF
for__________________________ c.25 µF
a.a.c.only d.none of these
b.d.c.only ans:b
c.botha.c.andd.c.
d.50 Hz a.c. 7. Two capacitors of capacitance C1=0.1 µF and
ans:b C2=0.2 µF are connected in series across 300V
source. The voltages across C1 will be________
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4.If two 10 µF capacitors are connected in a.100 V

in
parallel, then the effective capacitance will b.200 V

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be_________ c.150 V
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a.2.5 µF d.300 V
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b.40 µF ans:b
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c.0.4 µF
C
d.20 µF
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8.A capacitor stores 0.4C charge at 2 V. Its d. (potential gradient)1/3

capacitance is___________________________ ans: a
a.0.4 F
b.0.2 F 13.The lines of forces due to isolated charged
c.3.2 F particle are___________
d.0.8 F a.always straight
ans:b b. always curved
c.sometimes curved
9. A20mF capacitor is in series with a 150ohm d.none of the above
resistor. The combination is placed across a 40V ans: a
dc source. Time constant of the circuit
is_____________________ 14.The direction of electric field due to positive
a.8 s charge is___
b.3 s a.away from the charge
c.6 s b.towards the charge
d.2.4s c.both (a) and (b)
ans: b d.none of the above
ans: a
10. Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF, and 12
µFare connected in parallel across an a.c. source. 15. The unit of capacitance is
The maximum current pass through a. Volts/Coulomb
________________ b. Coulomb/Volt
a.3 µF c. Ohms
b.6 µF d. Henry/Wb
c.12 µF ans: b
d.all the capacitors
ans:c 16. There is repulsive force between two
charged objects when
11.As per Coulomb’s law___________________ a.Charges of unlike sign
a.F= Q1Q2 / εoεrd2 b.they have the same number of protons
b.F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋d2 c.charges are of same sign
c. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋 εoεrd2 d.they have the same number of protons
d. F= Q1Q2 /4𝜋 εoεrd ans: c
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17. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected

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12.Electric field intensity at any point in an by

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electric field is equal to_______ a. distance between plates

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a.potential gradient b. area of plates

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b.(potential gradient)2 c. thickness of plates

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c. (potential gradient)1/2 d. all of the above

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ans: c
22. Which of the following expression is correct
18. When there is an equal amount of positive for electric field strength?
and negative charges on an object the object is a. E = D/𝝐
a. Positively charged b. E = D2/𝝐
b. negatively charged c. E = 𝝅D
c. neutral d. E = 𝝅D2
d. supercharged ans: a
ans:c
23. Which of the following statement is true?
19. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The current in the discharging capacitor grows
a. Air capacitors have a black band to indicate linearly
the outside foil b. The current in the discharging capacitor grows
b. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in exponentially
the correct polarity c. The current in the discharging capacitor
c. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the decays exponentially
correct polarity d. The current in the discharging capacitor
d. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance decreases constantly
value of 1 to 10 µF ans:c
ans: b
24. In a capacitor the electric charge is deposited
20. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are on
given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be a. metal plates
obtained by using them b. dielectric
a. all in series c. both (a) and (b)
b. all in parallel d. none of the above
c. two in parallel and third in series with this ans:a
combination
d. two in series and third in parallel across this 25. Which of the following materials has the
combination. highest value of dielectric constant?
ans:c a. Glass
b. Vaccum
21. For which of the following parameter c. Ceramics
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a. Distance between plates

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b. Area of the plates 26. Capacitance of air capacitor increases with

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c. Nature of dielectric a. increase in plate area and decrease in distance

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d. Thickness of the plates between the plates

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b. increase in plate area and distance between a. 10 F

the plates b. 10 µF
c. decrease in plate area and value of applied c. 100 µF
voltage d. 1000 µF
d. reduction in plate area and distance between ans:b
the plates
ans: a 32. Voltage across capacitor at any time‘t’ during
charging from a D.C. source of voltage V is given
27. A capacitor consists of by
a. two insulators separated by a conductor a. ν = Ve-t/λ
b. two conductor separated by a dielectric b. ν = V(1-e-t/λ)
c. two insulators only c. ν = V2e-t/λ
d. two conductors only d. ν = V2(1-e-t/λ)
ans:b ans:b
28.A paper capacitor is usually available in the 33. The ratio of electric flux density to electric
form of field intensity is called ………. of the medium
a. tubes a. permeability
b. rolled foil b. permittivity
c. disc c. reluctance
d. meshed plates d. capacitance
ans:b ans:b
29. Air capacitors are generally available in the 34. Energy stored in the electrical field of a
range capacitor C when charged from a D.C, source of
a. 10 to 400 pF voltage V is equal to …….. Joule
b. 1 to 20 pF a. ½ CV2
c. 100 to 900 pF b. ½ C2V
d. 20 to 100 pF c. CV2
ans:a d. C2V
ans:a
a. Henry 35. The absolute permittivity of free space is
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b. Ohm given by
a. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m
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c. Farad
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d. Farad/m b. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m

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ans:c c. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m

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d. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m

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31. A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000 µC of ans:d

C
charge. The value of capacitance will be

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36. The relative permittivity of free space is given 41. Which of the following capacitor are usually
by used for radio frequency tuning__________
a. 1 a. air
b. 10 b.paper
c. 100 c.mica
d. 1000 d.electrolyte
ans:a ans: b
37. When 4 Volt e.m.f. is applied across a 1 Farad 42. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined
capacitor, it will store energy of as the time during which capacitor charging
a. 2 Joule voltage actually rises to ----------------percent of
b. 4 Joule its ---------- value
c. 6 Joule a.37, initial
d. 8 Joule b.63.2, initial
ans:d c.63.2, final
d.37, final
38. The capacitor preferred for high frequency ans: c
circuits is
a. air capacitor 43. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined
b. mica capacitor as the time during which capacitor charging
c. electrolytic capacitor current actually falls to ----------------percent of its
d. paper capacitor initial maximum value
ans:b a.37
b.63
39.If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V the c.42
charge in Coulomb will be_______________ d.73
a. 800 µC ans: a
b.900 µC
c.1200 µC 44. Permittivity is expressed in_______
d.1600 µC a.Farad/sq-m
ans:c b.weber/metre
c. Farad/meter
40. Which of the following capacitors is marked d. weber/ square metre
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for polarity____________________? ans:c

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a. air
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b.paper 45. Dielectric strength of a material depends

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c.mica on_________________
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d.electrolyte a.moisture content

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ans: d b.temperature
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c.thickness
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d.all of the above d. 6

ans: d ans: d
46.1Volt /metre is same as 51. The most convenient way of achieving large
a. 1 metre/coulomb capacitance is by using
b. 1 Newton metre a. multiplate construction
c. 1 Newton /Coulomb b. decreased distance between plates
d. 1 Joule /Coulomb c. air as dielectric
ans: c d. dielectric of low permittivity
ans: a
47. The relative permittivity of air is__________
a.0 52. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2 are
b.1.0006 connected in parallel. A charge Q given to them
c. 8.854 × 10−12 is shared. The ratio of charges Q1/Q2 is
d.none of the above a. C2/ C1
ans:b b. C1/ C2
c. C1 C2
48. The relative permittivity of a material is 10.Its d. 1/ C1 C2
absolute permittivity will be ans: b
a. 8.854 × 10−11 𝐹/𝑀
b. 9 × 108 𝐹/𝑀 53. Two capacitors have capacitance 25 µF when
c. 5 × 10−5 𝐹/𝑀 in parallel and 6 µF when in series. Their
d. 9 × 105 𝐹/𝑀 individual capacitances are
ans: a a. 12 µF and 13 µF
b. 15 µF and 10 µF
49. The capacitance of a capacitor is ……… c. 10 µF and 8 µF
relative permittivity d. none of the above
a. directly proportional to ans:b
b. inversely proportional to
c. independent of 54. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by a
d. directly proportional to square of conducting material the
ans: a a. capacitor will get heated up owing to eddy
currents
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50. An air capacitor has the same dimensions b. plates will get short-circuited
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that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance of c. capacitor can store infinite charge
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mica capacitor is 6 times that of air capacitor, d. capacitance will become very high
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then relative permittivity of mica is ans:b

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B
a. 36
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b. 12 55.The total capacitance of two condensers is

C
c. 3 .03µF when joined in series and 0.16µFwhen

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connected in parallel. The products oftwo d.1V/s

capacitance will be__________ ans:b
a.5.33
b.2 60. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm
c.3 resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.
d.0.48 Determine the capacitor voltage after a time
ans:d equal to the time constant.
a.36V
56.Joule / Coulomb is the unit of b.36.6V
a. Electric field potential c.63.2V
b.Potential d.63 V
c. charge ans:c
d.none of the above.
ans:b 61. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.
57 .A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm Determine the voltage across the capacitor 3sec.
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. after switch on.
Determine the time constant of the circuit a.25.92V
a. 10 sec. b.259.2V
b. 0.1 sec c.2.592V
c. 10mSec d.25V
d. 100 Sec ans:a
ans:a
58. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm potential difference of 100V across its terminals.
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. It is discharged through 1 KΩ resistor. Find Initial
Determine the initial value of charging current. discharging current.
a.1mA a.1A
b.0.1 mA b.10A
c.0.01mA c.0.01A
d.1.00A d.0.1A
ans:b ans:d
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59. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm

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resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. 63. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a
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Determine the initial rate of rise of voltage potential difference of 100V across its terminals.
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across the capacitor. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm resistor. Find

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a.0.1V/s discharging current at 2m Sec.

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b.10V/s a.- 0.0818A

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c.0.01V/s b.- 0.01A

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c. - 0.00818A a. 8µC
d.- 1A b. 8mC
ans:a c. 8nC
d. 8pC
64. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a ans: a
potential difference of 100V across its terminals.
It is discharged through 1 K Ohm resistor. Find 68.A parallel plate capacitor has plate area of
initial rate of fall in voltage across capacitor. 2m2 spaced by three slabs of dielectric materials.
a. 10 4 V/s The relative permittivity’s are 2,3 and 6
b. -10 4 V/s respectively and thickness are 0.4mm, 0.6mm
c. -1 4 V/s and 0.12 mm respectively. Find the combined
d. 10A capacitance.
ans:b a. 0.000295 x 10-6 F
b. 0.00295 x 10-6 F
65. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a c. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
potential difference of 100V across its terminals. d. 0. 295 x 10-6 F
It is discharged through 1 K Ohm resistor. Find ans: b
time constant of the circuit.
a. 0.1sec 69. What is the unit of charge?
b. 1sec a. Volt-Amp
c. 0.01sec b.Henery
d. 0.001sec c. Farad
ans:c d. Coulomb
ans: d
66. A capacitor consists of two similar plates
each 10cm x 10cm mounted parallel and 70.What will be the capacitance of four
opposite to each other.What is the value of capacitors of equal capacitance ‘C’ when
capacitance when distance between them is 1cm connected in parallel
and dielectric used is air. a. 4C
a. 8.854 pF b. C/4
b. 8.854 µF c. 3C/4
c. 8.854 mF d. C
d. 8.854 F ans: a
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ans: a
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71. A region around a stationary electric charge

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67. The capacitance of capacitor formed by two has

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parallel plates each 200 cm2 in area separated by a. magnetic field

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dielectric of 4mm thick is 0.0004µF. If voltage of b. electric field

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20000 V is applied then the total charge on the c. magnetic field andelectric field
C
plate is d. neither magnetic field nor electric field

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ans: b
77.Two capacitors of 2 µF and 4 µF are
72. One Farad is the same as connected in parallel across 100 V D.C. supply.
a. One Coulomb/Volt Determine (i) Energy stored on each capacitor
b. One Joule/Coulomb a. 0. 1 J and 0. 2 J
c. One Joule/Volt b. 0.01 J and 0.02 J
d. One Coulomb /Joule c 1 J and 2 J
ans: a d. 0.001 J and 0.002 J
ans: b
73 . If Q be the charge and C be the capacitance
then the energy stored in the capacitor is 78.The capacitance composit capacitor is given
a. 1/2QC as
b. 1/QC a.C =
c. Q2/2C b.C = Є0 d / A
d. Q/2C c. C =
ans: c d.C = Єr A / d
ans: a
74.What capacitance must be placed in series
with a 15µF capacitor to give a total capacitance 79. The plate area of a parallel-plate capacitor is
of 5µF 0.01 sq. m. The distance between the plates is
a. 4µF 2.5 cm. The insulating medium is air. Find its
b. 7.5µF capacitance.
c. 10µF a 3.54 x 10-12 F
d. 25µF b. 35.4 x 10-12 F
ans: b c 3.54 x 10-10 F
75. One Coulomb charge equals the charge on d. 3.54 x 10-11 F
a. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons ans: a
b. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms
c 6.24 x 10 12electrons 80.The plate area of a parallel-plate capacitor is
d. none of these 0.01 sq. m. The distance between the plates is
ans: a 2.5 cm. What would be its capacitance, if the
space between the plates is filled with an
76. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is insulating material of relative permittivity 5?
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a 177.1 x 10-12 F
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given as
b. 1.771 x 10-12 F
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a.C = Є0 A / d
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c . 17.71 x 10-10 F
b.C = Є0 d / A
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d. 17.71 x 10-12 F
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c. C = ans: d
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d.C = Єr A / d
ans: c
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81.A parallel-plate capacitor has two plates each

of area 2.5 m2 separated by three dielectric
materials of thickness 1, 2 and 3 mm and relative
permittivity’s of 2, 4 and 8 respectively. Calculate
(i) the capacitance of the capacitor
a. 1.60 x 10-8 F
b. 1.60 x 10-10 F
c. 1.60 x 10-12 F
d. 1.60 x 10-9 F
ans: a
Unit IV
Part (a) : AC Fundamentals
4.The distance occupied by one complete cycle
1.A standard sinusoidal voltage wave changes its of the wave is called its________
polarity at________ a.time period
a.maximum value b.wavelength
b.minimum value c.velocity
c.zero value d.frequency
d.none of the above ans:a
ans:c
5.The rms value of a sine wave of peak value Imis
2.The period of a certain sine wave is 10 given by_______
milliseconds. Its frequency is________ a.Im/√2
a.10 MHz b.Im
b.10 KHz c.Im/2
c.10 Hz d.Im/π
d.100 Hz
ans:d ans:a
3.Two sine waves are said to be in phase with 6.The average value of a sine wave of maximum
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each other if they achieve their______ value Im over one cycle is_______
in
a.zero value at the same time a. Im/π

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b.maximum value at the time b. 2Im/π

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c.minimum value at the same time c.zero

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d.all of the above d.Im/2

B
ans:d ans:c
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7.The rms value of a sine wave of maximum 12.A current is said to be alternating when it
value 10A equals a dc current of ______ampere. changes in_______
a.7.07 a.magnitude only
b.6.37 b.direction only
c.5 c.both magnitude and direction
d.5.77 d.neither magnitude nor direction
ans:a ans:c
8.The rms value of a sinusoidal voltage with 13.An alternating current of 50 Hz frequency and
peak-to-peak value of 240 V is________V. 100 A maximum value is given by______
a.84.84 a.𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛628𝑡
b.77.82 b.𝑖 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
c.94.68 c.𝑖 = 100√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
d.89.15 d.𝑖 = 100√2𝑠𝑖𝑛157𝑡
ans:a ans:b
9.The time period of a sinusoidal waveform with 14.An alternating current of 50 Hz frequency has
200 Hz frequency is________second. a maximum value of 100 A. Its value 1/600
a.0.05 second after the instant current is zero will
b.0.005 be________
c.0.0005 a.25 A
d.0.5 b.12.5 A
ans:b c.50 A
d.75 A
10.The peak value of a sine wave is 400 V. Its ans:c
average value is_________
a.254.6 V 15.A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to a
b.282.6 V maximum of 250 V. The voltage at the instant of
c.400 V 60° of the cycle will be________
d.565.5 V a.150 V
ans:a b.216.5 V
c.125 V
11.The form factor of a sine wave is_____
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d.108.25 V
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a.1.01 ans:b
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b.1.11
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c.1.21 16.An alternating current is given by the

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d.none of the above expression 𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛(314𝑡 +

𝜋
) amperes.
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ans:b
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b.100√2, 50 Hz d.dc voltage can not be used for domestic

c.200 A, 100 Hz appliances
d.200 A, 25 Hz ans:a
ans:a
21.In ac system, we generate sine waveform
17.The average value of the current 𝑖 = 200 because_______
𝜋
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑡 from 𝑡 = 0 to 𝑡 = 2 is ______ a.it can be easily drawn
a.400 π b.it produces least disturbance in electrical
400 circuits
b.
𝜋 c.it is nature’s standard
1
c.400 d.other waves can not be produced easily
𝜋
d. ans:b
400
ans:b
22.__________will work only on dc supply.
18.When two quantities are in quadrature, the a.electric lamp
phase angles between them will be________ b.refrigerator
a.45° c.electroplating
b.90° d.heater
c.135° ans:c
d.60°
ans:b 23.An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 = 20
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 157𝑡 . The frequency of the alternating
19.The alternating voltage 𝑒 = 200 voltage is_____
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 314𝑡 is applied to a device which offers a.50 Hz
an ohmic resistance of 20 Ω to the flow of b.25 Hz
current in one direction while entirely c.100 Hz
preventing the flow in the opposite direction. d.75 Hz
The average value of the current will ans:b
be_________
a.5 A 24.An alternating current is given by 𝑖 = 10
b.3.18 A 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 314𝑡. The time taken to generate two
c.1.57 A cycles of current is____
a.0.02 second
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d.1.10 A
in
ans:b b.0.01 second

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c.0.04 second
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20.The ac system is preferred to dc system d.0.05 second

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because_______ ans:c
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B
a.ac voltages can be easily changed in magnitude

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b.dc motors do not have fine speed control 25.A sine wave has a maximum value of 20 V. Its
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c.high voltage ac transmission is less efficient value at 135° is______

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a.10 V ans:c
b.14.14 V
c.15 V 31.An alternating current whose average value is
d.5 V 1 A will produce_________1 A dc under similar
ans:b conditions.
a.less heat than
26.An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 = b.more heat than
30 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 .The time taken by the voltage to c.the same heat as
reach 30 V for the first time is_____ d.none of the above
a.0.02 second ans:b
b.0.1 second
c.0.03 second 32.A sinusoidal alternating current has a
d.0.005 second maximum value of Im. Its average value will
ans:d be_______
𝐼𝑚
a. 𝜋
27.A sinusoidal current has a magnitude of 3 A at 𝐼𝑚
b.
120°. Its maximum value will be_____ 2𝜋
𝐼𝑚
a.√3 A c. 2 𝜋
√3
b. A d.none of the above
2
ans:c
c.2√3 A
d.6 A
33.The area of a sinusoidal wave over a half-cycle
ans:c
is________
29.An alternating current is given by 𝑖 =
b.2 × 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
c.𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 𝜋
d. .𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2𝜋
ans:b
a.0.05 second
b.0.1 second
c.0.025 second
200 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value will be_____
d.0.02 second
a.100 V
ans:c
b.282.8 V
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c.141.4 V
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d.121.4 V
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ans:c
be________
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a.70.7 V
35.A sinusoidal voltage is represented as 𝑣 =
B
b.50 V
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𝜋
141.4 𝑠𝑖𝑛(314.18𝑡 − ). Its rms value of
c.63.7 V 2
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d.100 V
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voltage, frequency and phase angle are c.50 Hz, 60°

respectively_______ d.50 Hz, -60°
a.141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90° ans:c
b.100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
c.87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90° 40.A sinusoidal voltage v1 leads another
d.100 V,50 Hz, -90° sinusoidal voltage v2 by 180°. Then__________
ans:d a.voltage v2 leads voltage v1 by 180°
b.both voltage have their zero values at the same
36.When two sinusoidal waves are 90° out of time
phase, then__________ c.both voltages have their peak values at the
a.both have their peak values at the same instant same time
b.both have their minimum values at the same d.all of the above
instant ans:d
c.one has its peak value; while the other has zero
value 41.The rms value of an ac sinusoidal current is 10
d.none of these A. Its peak value is_________
ans:c a.7.07 A
b.14.14 A
37.The direction of current in an ac circuit c.10 A
is___________ d.28.28 A
a.always in one direction ans:b
b.varying from time to time
c.unpredictable 42.If A=10∠45° and B=5∠15°, then the value of
d.from positive to negative A/B will be_________
ans:b a.50∠60°
b.2∠60°
38.Consider the sinusoidal waves: 𝐴𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝜔𝑡 + c.2∠-30°
30°) and 𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝜔𝑡 − 60°). The phase angle d.2∠30°
relationship between the two waves________ ans:d
a.B-wave lags A-wave by 90°
b.B-wave lags A-wave by 60° 43.When a phasor is multiplied by –j, it gets
c.B-wave lags A-wave by 30° rotated through in the counterclockwise
d.B-wave and A-wave are in phase direction.
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ans:a a.90°
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b.180°
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39.A sinusoidal voltage is expressed as 𝑣 = c.270°

𝜋
P
20 𝑠𝑖𝑛(314.16𝑡 + 3 ) V. Its frequency and phase d.none of the above

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ans:c
B
angle respectively are____________

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a.314.16 Hz, 60°

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44.The rms value of sinusoidally varying current ans:a

is_________that of its average value.
a.more than 49.The form factor of a sinusoidal wave is______
b.less than a.1.414
c.same as b.1.11
d.none of the above c.2
ans:a d.1.5
ans:b
45.Alternating voltages and currents are
expressed in rms values because______ 50.The filament of a vacuum tube requires 0.4A
a.they can be easily determined dc to heat it. The rms value of ac required
b.calculations become very simple is______
c.they give comparison with dc a.0.4 × √2 A
d.none of the above b.0.4 ÷ 2 A
ans:c c.0.8 ÷ √2 A
d.0.4 A
46.The average value of sin2θ over a complete ans:d
cycle is_________
a.+1 51.A100 V peak ac is as effective as_____dc.
b.-1 a.100 V
1
c.2 b.50 V
d.zero c.70.7 V
ans:c d.none of the above
ans:c
47.The average value of sinθ over a complete
cycle is_________ 52.The form factor of a ________wave is 1.
a.zero a.sinusoidal
b.+1 b.square
c.-1 c.triangular
1
d.2 d.sawtooth
ans:b
ans:a
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53.Out of the following _________wave is the

48.An alternating current is given by 𝑖 =
in
peakiest.
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a.sinusoidal
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b.square
a. I2m/2
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c.rectangualr
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b.Im/π
B
d.triangular
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c.2Im/π
ans:d
C
d.2Im
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54.The peak factor of a sine waveform is_______ b.30 Hz

a.1.11 c.40 Hz
b.1.414 d.50 HZ
c.2 ans:d
d.1.5
ans:b 60.An ac current is given by 𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛100𝜋𝑡.
It will achieve a value of 100A after_____second.
1
55.When a 15V square wave is connected across a.900
a 50V ac voltmeter, it will read______ 1
b.
a.15V 800
1
b.15 × √2 V c.700
1
c.15/√2 V d.600
d.none of the above ans:d
ans:a
61.A heater is rated as 230V, 10KW, AC. The
56.A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its value of 230V refers to___________
angular frequency is_______radian/second. a.average voltage
a.100π b.rms voltage
b.50π c.peak voltage
c.25π d.none of the above
d.5π ans:b
ans:a
62.The peak value of a sine wave is 200V. Its
57.The period of a wave is____________ average value is_______
a.the same as frequency a.127.4V
b.time required to complete one cycle b.141.4V
c.expressed in amperes c.282.8V
d.none of the above d.200V
ans:b ans:a
58.The form factor is the ratio of _________ 63.The rms value of a sine wave is 100A. Its peak
a.peak value to rms value value is _______
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b.rms value to average value a.70.7A

in
c.average value to rms value b.141.4A

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d.none of the above c.150A

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ans:b d.282.8A
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ans:b
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B
59.The period of a sine wave is 1/50 seconds. Its

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frequency is_______ 64.The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This

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a.20 Hz
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a.mean value b.average value/peak value

b.rms value c.rms value/average value
c.peak value d.rms value/peak value
d.average value ans:c
ans:b
69.For a sine wave with peak value E max, the
65.The rms value and mean value is the same in average value is______
the case of_______ a.0.636 Emax
a.traingular wave b. 0.707Emax
b.sine wave c.0.434 Emax
c.square wave d. 1.414Emax
d.half wave rectified sine wave ans:a
ans:c
70.The current in a circuit is given by: 𝑖 = 100
66.For the same peak value which of the 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 314𝑡 amperes. The maximum value and
following wave will have the highest rms value? frequency of current are_________
a.square wave a.50√2 A, 100 Hz
b.half wave rectified sine wave b.100√2 A, 100 Hz
c.triangular wave c.100 A, 50 Hz
d.sine wave d.70.7 A, 50 Hz
ans:a ans:c
67. For the same peak value which of the 71.For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will
following wave will have the least mean value? be_________
a.half wave rectified sine wave a.0.05 S
b.triangular wave b.0.005 S
c.sine wave c.0.0005 S
d.square wave d.0.5 S
ans:a ans:b
68.For a sine wave with peak value Imax, the rms 72.An ac voltage of 50 Hz has a maximum value
value is_______ of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second after the
a. 0.5Imax instant the current is zero will be_________
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b. 0.707Imax a.5V
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c. 0.9Imax b.12.5V
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d. 1.414Imax c.25V
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ans:b d.43.8V
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ans:c
B
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69.Form factor is the ratio of_________

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a.average value/rms value

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73.For 200V rms value triangular wave, the peak ans:c

voltagewill be______
a.200V 78.The rms value of alternating current is given
b.222V by steady (dc) current which when flowing
c.282V through agiven circuit for a given time
d.346V produces________
ans:d a.the more heat than produced by ac when
74.A sine wave of voltage varies from zero to b.the same heat as produced by ac when flowing
maximum of 200V. How much is the voltage at through the same circuit
theinstant of 30° of the cycle? c.the less heat than produced by ac flowing
a.50V through the same circuit
b.82.8V d.none of the above
c.100V ans:b
d.173.2V
ans:c 79.The square waveform of current has
following relation between rms value and
75.How much rms current does a 300W, 200V average value:
bulb take from the 200V, 50Hz power line? a.rms value is equal to average value
a.0.5 A b.rms value of current is greater than average
b.1.5 A value
c.2 A c.rms value of current is less than average value
d.3 A d.none of the above
ans:b ans:a
76.The rms value of a half-wave rectified current 80.If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz
is 100 A. Its value for full-wave rectification with 30A rms current, which of the following
would be_________amperes. equation represents the wave?
a.141.4 a.42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 314𝑡
b.200 b.60 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
c.200/π c.30 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 50𝑡
d.40/π d.84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
ans:a ans:a
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77.The rms value of a sinusoidal ac current is 81.Which of the following waves has the highest
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equal to its value at an angle of ______degrees. value of peak factor?

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a.90 a.square wave

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b.60 b.sine wave

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c.45 c.half wave rectified sine wave

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d.30 d.triangular wave

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ans:c a.0.5 of peak value

b.0.707 of peak value
82.The frequency of domestic power supply in c.same as peak value
India is_____ d.zero
a.200 Hz ans:b
b.100 Hz
c.60 Hz 87.An alternating voltage is given in volts by
d.50 Hz expression 𝑣 = 326 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value and
ans:d frequency are____
a.230V,50 Hz
83.The rms value of half wave rectified sine wave b. 230V,100 Hz
is 200V. The rms value of full wave rectified ac c. 326V,50 Hz
will be__________ d. 326V,100 Hz
a.282.8V ans:a
b.141.4V
c.111V 88.According to which of the alternating current
d. 100V values in the cross sectional area of a conductor
ans:a with regard to the heating effect is selected?
a.peak value
84.The voltage in a circuit follows the law: 𝑣 = b.half peak value
100 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡. If the frequency is 25 Hz, how long c.average value
will d.rms value
it take for the voltage to rise to 50V? ans:d
1
a.50 S
1 89.The frequency of an alternating current
b. S
100 is________
1
c.300S a.the speed with which the alternator runs
1 b.the number of cycles generated in one minute
d. 600S
c.the number of waves passing through a point
ans:c
in one second
85.The negative maximum of a cosine wave d.the number of electrons passing through a
point in one second
occurs at________
ans:c
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a.30°
in
b.45°
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90.The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave

c.90°
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having rms value of 60 A is______

d.180°
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ans:d a.60 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 25𝑡

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b.60 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 50𝑡

B
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c.84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
86.The rms value of pure cosine function
C
d42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡.
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is_________
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ans:c 95.The mean value of the current 𝑖 = 20 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃

𝜋
from θ=0 to θ= is_______
2
91.An electric iron designed for 110 V AC supply a.40π
was rated at 500 W. It was put across a 220 V 40
b.
supply. Assuming that at 110 V, it supplied 500 𝜋
1
W output (i.e. no losses) at the new voltage it will c.40
𝜋
supply_________ d.40
a.2500 W ans:b
b.2000 W
c.500 W 96.A constant current of 2.8A exists in a resistor.
d.250 W The rms value of current is______
ans:b a.2.8 A
b.about 2 A
92.The direction of current in an ac c.1.4 A
circuit________ d.undefined
a.is from positive to negative ans:a
b.is always in one direction
c.varies from instant to instant 97.An alternating current is represented as 𝑖 =
d.can not be determined 𝜋
70.7 𝑠𝑖𝑛(520𝑡 + ). The frequency and rms
6
ans:c
a.82.76 Hz, 50 A
93.The angular frequency of an alternating
b.41.38 Hz, 25 A
quantity is a mathematical quantity obtained by
c.41.38 Hz, 50 A
multiplying the frequency “f” of the alternating
d.82.76 Hz, 25 A
quantity by a factor_________
𝜋 ans:a
a. 2
b.π 98. The time period or periodic time T of an
c.2π alternating quantity is the time taken in seconds
d.4π to complete_____________
ans:c a. one cycle
b. alternation
94.The average value of an unsymmetrical c. none of the above
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alternating quantity is calculated over d. Half cycle

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the_________ ans: a
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a.whole cycle
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b.half cycle 99.The time period of an alternating quantity is

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c.unsymmetrical part of the waveform

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0.02 second. Its frequency will be________

B
d.first two cycles a. 25 Hz

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ans:a b. 50 Hz
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d. 0.02 Hz a) clockwise
ans: b b) anticlockwise
c) circular
100. An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10 sin 314 d) all above
t, the average and rms values of the current ans:b
are____
a. 16.36 A, 17.07 A 105. In practice, alternating quantities are
b. 10 A, 17.07 A represented by their _______ values
c. 10 A, 12.25 A a. rms
d. 16.36 A, 12.2 A b. average
ans:c c. rectangular
d. polar
101.The size (cross-sectional area) of a ans:a
determined on the basis of ……….. value of 106. Alternating quantities of ____ frequencies
current to be carried by it can be represented on same phasor diagram.
a. average value a. Same
b. peak value b. Different
c. rms value c. multiple
d. peak to peak value d. all above
ans:c ans: a
102. The form factor for dc supply voltage is 107.The phase of alternating quantity at any
always particular instant is the fraction of ______
a. zero a. phase
b. unity b. time
c. infinity c. time period
d. any value between 0 and 1 d. all above
ans:b ans:c
103. The ________ varying alternating quantity 108.

a) circular
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b) sinusoidally
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c) rectangular
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d) triagular
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ans:b
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B
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104. The phasors are assumed to be rotated in _______

C
_________ direction. a. T
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b. T/2 112.The difference between the _____ of two

c. T/3 alternating quantities is called the phase
d. T/4 difference.
ans:d a.time
b.phase angle
109. c.Lengths
d.both a and b
ans:b
113.The difference between the phase of two

alternating quantities is called the________.
a.phase difference
In the above figure, the phase quantity at B is b.sine difference
_______ c.length difference
a. T d.none of the above
b.T/2 ans:a
c.3T/4
d. T/4 114. When phase difference between the two
ans:c alternating quantities is zero, the two quantities
are said to be in _____
110. When phase of an alternating quantity is a.tandom
positive it means that quantity has some b.length
_______ instantaneous value at t=0 c.phase
a. zero d. time
b.positive ans:c
c.negative
d.none of the above 115. When ____________ between the two
ans:b alternating quantities is zero, the two quantities
are said to be in phase.
111. When phase of an alternating quantity is a.time difference
negative it means that quantity has some b.length difference
_______ instantaneous value at t=0 c.phase difference
a. zero d.none of the above
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b.positive
in
ans:c
c.negative
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d.none of the above

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116. When phase difference between the two

ans:c
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alternating quantities is _______, the two

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quantities are said to be in phase.

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a.one
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b.unity
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c.zero c. lead
d.π/2 d. all above
ans:c ans:a
117. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ), the ‘i’ 122. With respect to reference, plus sign of angle
is said to be _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ indicates _______
a. in phase a. leading
b. lagging b.lagging
c. leading c.inphase
d. all above d.none of the above
ans:b ans:a
118. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ), the ‘v’ 123. With respect to reference, minus sign of
is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ angle indicates _______
a. in phase a. leading
b. lagging b.lagging
c. leading c.inphase
d. all above d.none of the above
ans:c ans:b
119. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ), the ‘i’ 124. With respect to reference, _____ sign of
is said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ angle indicates lead.
a. in phase a. division
b. lagging b.plus
c. leading c.minus
d. all above d.dot
ans:c ans:b
120. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ), the ‘v’ 125. With respect to reference, _____ sign of
is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ angle indicates lag.
a. in phase a. division
b. lag b.plus
c. lead c.minus
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d. all above d.dot

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ans:b ans:c
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121. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin ωt, the ‘i’ is 126. The diagram in which different sinusoidal
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said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ alternating quantities of the same frequency, are
B
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a. in phase represented by individual phasors indicating

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b. lag exact phase relationship is called ________

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a.graph
b.still diagram 131. RMS value of current I = 25 + j40 Amp is
c.phasor diagram _______
d.picture a.57.99
ans:c b.47.1699
c.60
127.The diagram in which different sinusoidal d.30
alternating quantities of the same _____, are ans:b
represented by individual phasors indicating
exact phase relationship is called phasor 132. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A
diagram. flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I 1+I2
a.time =________
b.frequency a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
c.sign b. 5.55964.924 A
d.shape c. 7.296+ j12.58 A
ans:b d. None of the above
ans:a
128.The lagging and leading word is relative to
the ______ 133. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A
a.base flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I 1-I2
b.range =________
c.reference a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
d.angle b. 5.5596∟4.924 A
ans:c c. 7.296+ j12.58 A
d. None of the above
129. Polar form of v = 100 sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is ans:c
________
a.61.2371+j35.3553 134. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A
b.70.7106∟30 flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I 1/I2
c. 61.2371∟35.3553 =________
d. 70.710+ j30 a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
ans:b b. 2150 A
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c. 7.296+ j12.58 A
in
130. Rectangular form of V= 100 sin(100πt+π/6) d. None of the above

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Volt is ________ ans:b

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a.61.2371+j35.3553
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b.70.7106∟30 135.In purely _____ circuit, the current flowing

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c. 61.2371∟35.3553
B
and voltage applied are in phase with each other.

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d. 70.710+ j30 a.resistive

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ans:a b.inductive
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c.capacitive c.zero
d.none of the above d.none of the above
ans:a ans:c
136.In purely resistive circuit, the current and 141.The _________ offers zero reactance to DC.
voltage applied are in ______ with each other. a.resistance
a.opposition b.inductance
b.phase c.permeance
c.direction d.none of the above
d.line ans:b
ans:b
142. The inductance offers zero _________ to DC
137.In purely _______ circuit, current lags a.resistance
voltage by 90 degrees. b. capacitance
a.resistive c.reactance
b.inductive d.permeance
c.capacitive ans:c
d.none of the above
ans:b 143.Pure ______ never consumes power
a.resistor
138.In purely Inductive circuit, current _____ b.inductor
voltage by 90 degrees. c.starter
a.leads d.circuit
b.lags ans:b
c.in phase
d.all above 144.Inductive reactance is given by_____
ans:b a.XL=ωL
b.XL=2𝜋L
139.In purely Inductive circuit, current lags c.XL=ΦL
voltage by _______ degrees. d.XL=ωC
a. 30 ans:a
b.60
c.90 145.______is given by XL=ωL
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d.120 a.resistance
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ans:c b.inductance
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c.inductive reactance
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140.The inductance offers _____ reactance to d.capacitive reactance

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DC. ans:c
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a. high
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b.low 146.Inductive reactance is measured in ______

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a.Farad a. 30
b.Henry b.60
c.Ohm c.90
d.Joule d.120
ans:c ans:c
147.Inductive reactance depends on ______ of 152.The capacitor offers _____ reactance to DC.
applied voltage a. high
a.phase b.low
b.sign c.zero
c.frequency d.none of the above
d.speed ans:a
ans:c
153.The _________ offers infinite reactance to
148. Inductive reactance is _________ DC.
frequency. a.resistance
a. inversely proportional to b.permeance
b.directly proportional to c.capacitance
c.indepedent of d.none of the above
c.none of above ans:c
ans:b
154. The capacitance offers infinite _________
149. Inductive reactance is directly proportional to DC
to ________. a.resistance
a.time b. capacitance
b.phase c.reactance
c.frequency d.permeance
d.phase difference ans:c
ans:c
155.Pure ______ never consumes power
150.In purely capacitive circuit, current ______ a.resistor
voltage by 90 degrees. b.capacitor
a.lags c.starter
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c.in phase ans:b

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d.all above
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ans:b 156.Capacitive reactance is given by_____

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a.XC=1/ωC
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151.In purely capacitive circuit, current leads b.XC=1/2𝝅C

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voltageby _______ degrees. c.XC=1/ΦC

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d.XC=2𝝅fL
ans:a 162.In purely inductive circuit, if the frequency is
doubled and applied voltage is halved, the
157.______is given by XC=1/ωL resulting current becomes____
a.Inductive resistance a.one-fourth
b.inductive capacitance b.one-fifth
c.inductive reactance c.one-half
d.capacitive reactance d.one-third
ans:d ans:a
158.Capacitive reactance is measured in ______ 163.The square of aj operator _____

a.farads a.can never be negative
b.henrys b.can never be positive
c.ohms c.could be either positive or negative
d.joules d.is equal to j
ans:c ans:b
159.Capacitive reactance is _________ to 164.A complex number_____

frequency. a.is the same as imaginary number
a.inversely proportional b.has real and imaginary part
b.directly proportional c.is negative number
c.both d.is merely a technical term
c.none of above ans:b
ans:a
165.The sum of (3+j6) and (-3-j6) is ____
160.Capacitive reactance is inversly proportional a.0+j0
to ________. b.6+j12
a.time c.-6-j12
b.phase d.0-j12
c.frequency ans:a
d.phase difference
ans:c 166.The product of (-4-j7) and (6-j2) is______
a.-24+j14
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a.8 d.-24-j14
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167.A sinusoidal voltageis represented as: v = d.10

141.4 sin(314.18t-π/2). Its rms value of voltage, ans:a
frequency and phase angle are respectively____
a.141.42V, 314.16 Hz, 90 degrees 172.The reactance of L Henry inductance
b. 100V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees connected to an AC source of frequency f is
c. 87.92V, 56 Hz, 90 degrees ______ ohm.
d. 200V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees a.fL
ans:b b.πfL
c.2 πfL
168.When two sinusoidal waves are 90 degrees d.all above
out of phase, then ____ ans:c
a.both have their peak values at the same time
b. both have their minimum values at the same 173.When pure inductance is connected to an
time AC sources, the voltage____ to the current by
c.one has its peak value, other has zero value ____
d. none of these a.lags, 90 degrees
ans:c b. leads, 90 degrees
c. lags, 45 degrees
169.The direction of current in an AC circuit is d. leads, 45 degrees
_____ ans:b
a.always in one direction
b.varying time to time periodically 174.If 10 ohm resistor is connected across an AC
c.unpredictable voltagev = 100 sin(314t+300), the power
d.from positive to negative dissipated through resistor is _____
ans:b a.500 W
b.1000 W
170.Consider the sinusoidal waves: A sin (ωt+30) c.250 W
and B cos(ωt-60). The phase angle relationship d.100 W
between two waves is: ans:b
a.B wave lags A wave by 90 degrees
b. B wave lags A wave by 60 degrees 175.When a phasor is multiplied by j and –j, it is
c. B wave lags A wave by 30 degrees rotated through ______ degrees in the
d. B wave and A wave are in phase anticlockwise direction respectively.
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171.Inductive reactance of a coil of inductance c.90,180

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0.2 H at 50 Hz is ____ ohms. d.270,90

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b.628
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c.0.2 176.The p. f. of purely resistive circuit is ____

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a.zero 181.The phase difference between two

b.unity waveforms can be compared when they _____
c.lagging a.have the same frequency
d.leading b.have the same peak value
ans:b c.have the same effective value
d.are sinusoidal
177.For a frequency of 50 Hz, the reactance ans:a
offered by capacitor is 10 ohms, If the frequency
is increased to 100 Hz, the reactance 182.If two sinusoids of the same frequency but
becomes____ of different amplitude and phase difference are
a.40 ohms added, the resultant is a ______
b.20 ohms a.sinusoid of same frequency
c.5 ohms b.sinusoid of double the original frequency
d.2.5 ohms c.sinusoid of half the original frequency
ans:c d.non-sinusoid
ans:a
178.If e1 = 100 sin2πf and e2 = 100 sin(2πf-Φ),
then _____ 183.A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a
a.e1 lags e2 by Φ resistor. The rms value of current is ____
b.e1 leads e2 by Φ a.2.8 A
c. e2 lags e1 by Φ b.2 A
d.none of the above c.1.4 A
ans:c d.undefined
ans:a
179.The average power in a purely inductive or
capacitive circuit over a cycle____ 184.A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal
a.depends on XLor XC current of 1 A at frequency of 50 Hz. The average
b.is negative power dissipated by the inductor is ____
c.is zero a.0
d.is positive b.3.14 W
ans:c c.0.5 W
d.1 W
180.Inductive reactance of an AC circuit ans:a
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increases with ____

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a.increase in frequency 185.The power factor of an ordinary bulb is

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b.increase in resistance _____

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c.decrease in resistance a.zero

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d.decrease in frequency b.unity

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ans:a c.more than unity

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d.less than unity

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ans:b
191.A current of (3+j4) A is flowing through a
186.If the phasor is multiplied by j, then ____ circuit. The magnitude of current is _____
a.only its magnitude changes a.7 A
b.only its direction changes b.5 A
c.both magnitude and direction change c.1 A
d.none of the above d.1.33 A
ans:b ans:b
187.In the complex number 4+j7, 7 is called the 192.The voltage applied in a circuit is given by
______ component 100∟60 volts. It can be written as ____
a.real a.100∟-60
b.imaginary b.100∟240
c.in-phase c.100∟-300
d.none of the above` d.none of the above
ans:d ans:c
188.The reciprocal of a complex number is 193.The conjugate of -4+j3 is _____

a_____ a.4-j3
a.complex number b.-4-j3
b.real component only c.4+j3
c.quadrature component only d.none of the above
d.none of above ans:b
ans:a
194.The difference of two conjugate number
189.If two complex numbers are equal, results in _____
then_____ a.a complex number
a.only their magnitudes will be equal b.in-phase component only
b.only their angles will be equal c.quadrature component only
c.their in phase and quadrature components will d.none of the above
be separately equal ans:c
d.none of above
ans:c 195.The reciprocal of j is ____
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190.A phasor 2∟180 can be expressed as____ b.-j

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a.j2 c.jxj
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d.2
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196.Two waves of same frequency have a.consumes some power on average

opposite phase when the phase angle between b.does not take power at all from lines
them is ___ degrees c.takes power from the line during some part of
a.360 cycle and returns back during other part of cycle
b.180 d.none of the above
c.90 ans:c
d.0
ans:b 211.Power factor of the following circuit will be
zero
197.The power consumed in a circuit element a.resistive
will be least when the phase difference between b.pure inductive
the current and voltageis ____ degrees. c.pure capacitive
a.approx.180 d.both (b) and (c)
b.approx. 90 ans:d
c.approx. 60
d.approx. 0 212. Power factor of the following circuit will be
ans:b unity
a.resistive
198.Two sinusoidal currents are given by i1 = b.pure inductive
100sin(ωt+π/3) and i2 = 150sin(ωt-π/4). The c.pure capacitive
phase difference between them is _____ d.both (b) and (c)
degrees ans:a
a.15
b.50 213.In pure resistive circuit _____
c.60 a.current lags the voltageby 90 degrees
d.105 b.current leads the voltageby 90 degrees
ans:d c.current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90
degrees
199.Capacitive reactance is more when____ d.current is in phase with the voltage
a.capacitance is less and frequency of supply is ans:d
less
b.capacitance is less and frequency of supply is 214. In pure inductive circuit _____
more a.current lags the voltageby 90 degrees
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c.capacitance is more and frequency of supply is b.current leads the voltageby 90 degrees
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less c.current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90

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d.capacitance is more and frequency of supply is degrees

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more d.current is in phase with the voltage

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ans:a ans:a
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200.Pure inductive circuit ______ 215.A phasor is _____

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a.a line which represents the magnitude and ans:a

phase of an alternatingquantity
b.a line which represents the magnitude and 220.For purely capacitive circuit if v = Vm sin (ωt)
direction of an alternatingquantity then equation of current is _____
c.a colored tag or band for distinction between a.i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
different phases of a 3 phase supply b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
d.an instrument used for measuring phases of an c. i = Im sin (ωt-π)
unbalanced 3 phase load d. i = Im sin (ωt+π)
ans:b ans:b
216.Ohm is the unit of all the following except 221.For purely resistive circuit if v = Vm sin (ωt)
a.inductive reactance then equation of current is _____
b.capacitive reactance a.i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
c.resistance b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
d.capacitance c. i = Im sin (ωt)
ans:d d. i = Im sin (ωt+π)
ans:c
217.For a purely resistive circuit the following 222.A sinusoidal voltagev1 leads another
statement is correct sinusoidal voltagev2 by 180 degrees. Then ____
a.work done is zero a.voltagev2 leads voltagev1 by 180 degrees
b.power consumed is zero b.both voltagehave their zero values at the same
c.heat produced is zero time
d.power factor is unity c. both voltagehave their peak values at the
ans:d same time
d.all of above
218.Which value of inductance will give the same ans:d
reactance as a capacitor of 2 µF when both are
at 50 Hz? 223.If A = 10∟45 and B = 5∟15, then the value
a.5 H of A/B will be___
b.10 H a.50∟60
c.15 H b.2∟60
d.20 H c.2∟-30
and:a d.2∟30
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219.For purely inductive circuit if v = Vm sin (ωt)

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then equation of current is _____ 224.A coil has XL = 1000 ohm. If both its
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a.i = Im sin (ωt-π/2) inductance and frequency are doubled, its

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b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2) reactance will become ___ ohm

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c. i = Im sin (ωt-π) a.2000

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d. i = Im sin (ωt+π) b.500

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c.250 b.is due to the current flowing in capacitor

d.4000 c.is due to the size of capacitor
ans:d d. statement is incorrect
ans:d
225.The active power of AC circuit is given by ___
a.VI sin Φ 230. The length of a phasor in a phasor diagram
b. I2XL normally represents the ………… value of the
c.I2R alternating quantity
d.I2Z a. rms or effective
ans:c b. average
c. peak
226.Inductance of coil____ d. none of these
a.is unaffected by the supply frequency ans:a
b.decreses with the increase in supply frequency
c.increases with the increase in supply frequency 231. The two quantities are said to be in phase
d.becomes zero with the increase in supply with each other when
frequency a. the phase difference between two quantities
ans:a is zero degree or radian
b. each of them pass through zero values at the
227.A pure inductance connected across 250 V, same instant and rise in the same direction
50 Hz supply consumes 100 W. This consumption c. each of them pass through zero values at the
is due to_____ same instant but rises in the opposite directions
a.the big size of the inductor d. either (a) or (b)
b.the reactance of the inductor ans:d
c.the current flowing in the inductor
d.the statement given is false 232. The phase difference between the two
ans:d waveforms can be compared only when they
a. have the same frequency
228.Which of the following statements pertains b. have the same peak value
to resistor only c. have the same effective value
a.can dissipate considerable amount of power d. are sinusoidal
b.can act as energy storage device ans:a
c.connecting them in parallel increases the total
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value 233. The phasor diagram for alternating

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d.opposes sudden change in voltage quantities can be drawn if they have ……… waves
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ans:a a. rectangular
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b. sinusoidal
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229.A pure capacitor connected across an AC c. triangular

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voltage consumed 50 W. This d. any of these

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a.is due to the capacitive reactance in ohms ans:b

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p p 237.The curve for the instantaneous power with

v 234. Which respect to the waveforms of voltage & current is
i of the shown in figure is of

0
 t following
statements
associated
with purely
resistive
P P
+ + circuits is
v
i
correct?

 
a. PF 0

2
t
is unity
2
b. Power a.pure resistance
-
P
-
P b.pure inductance
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c. resistance and capacitance
consumed is zero
d.pure capacitance
c. Heat produced is zero
Ans: a
d. PF is zero
ans:a
238. The curve for the instantaneous power with
respect to the waveforms of voltage & current is
235. Average power in a pure resistive circuit is
shown in figure is of
equal to
a. zero
b. product of average values of current and
voltage
c. product of peak values of current and voltage
d. product of rms or effective values of current
and voltage
ans:d
P
+
P
+
a.pure resistance
v b.pure inductance
236. i The power
0  c. pure capacitance
 
 t factor of an
2 2
ac circuit is
- - Answer: b
P P equal to
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a. tangent of the phase angle

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239. The curve for the instantaneous power with

b. sine of phase angle
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respect to the waveforms of voltage & current is

c. unity for a resistive circuit
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shown in figure is of
d. unity for a reactive circuit
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241. The phasor diagram (Q. No. 243) of voltage

and current considering phasors are rotates
clockwise direction is of
a.pure resistance a.Pure resistance
b.pure inductance b. pure inductance
c. pure capacitance c. pure capacitance
d.pure capacitance and pure inductance d.pure capacitance and pure inductance
Answer: c Answer: b
240. The phasor diagram of voltage and current 242. The power factor of an ac circuit lies
considering phasors are rotates anticlockwise between
direction is of a. 0 and 1
b. -1 and 1
I c. 0 and -1
d. none of these
V ans:a
a. pure resistance
b. pure inductance
c. pure capacitance
d.pure capacitance and pure inductance
Answer: c
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ELECTRICAL
ENGINEERING
MOST IMPORTANT
770 MCQs
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www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MOST IMPORTANT 770 MCQ
1. The ratio of voltage and electric current in a closed circuit
a. remains constant b. varies c. increases d. falls
Ans-c
2. The curve representing ohm's law is
a. sine function b. Linear c. a parabola d. a hyperbola
Ans-b
3. The resistance of a conductor having length l area of cross section a and resistivity ρ is given
as:
a. ρa/l b. ρl/a c. ρla d. l/ρ
Ans-b
4. The resistance of wire varies inversely as
a. area of cross section b. length c. resistivity d. temperature
Ans-a
5. Which of the following quantities are same in all parts of a series circuit?
a. voltage b. power c. current d. resistance
Ans-c
6. Which of the following statements is false in case of a series circuit?
a. the voltage drop across each resister is same
b. the current flowing through each resistor is the same

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c. applied voltage is equal to the sum of voltage drops across individual resistors are additive
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d.none
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7. A resistance of 30 ohm is connected across 240v supply. If a resistance R ohm is connected in
parallel with 30ohm resistor across the same supply, the current drawn becomes triple of original
one The unknown resistor R is
a. 15ohm b. 10ohm c. 5ohm d.30ohm
Ans-a
8. Three resistors, each of R ohms, are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any
two terminals will be:
a. 2/3 R b. 3/2R c. R d. 3R
Ans-a
9. Which of the following is not correct?
a. P=V/R^2 b. P=VI c. I=√ (P/R) d. V=√PR
Ans-
10. A 100W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 100W bulb is replaced by a
40w bulb, the heater output will :
a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same
Ans-b
11. The voltage applied across an electric iron is halved. The power consumption of the iron will
be:
a. one-half b. one-fourth c. 1/√2times d. three-fourth
Ans-b
12. Resistance of 200w,250v lamp will be
a. 625ohm b. 1250ohm c.312.5ohm d.31.25ohm

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Ans-c
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13. Two heaters rated at 1000w, 250v each are connected in series across a 250v, 50Hz ac
P
supply. The total power drawn from the supply will be:
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a. 1000w b. 500w c. 250w d.2000w

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2| www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
Ans-b
14. A 200w, 100v lamp is to be operated on 250v supply. The additional resistance required to be
connected in series will be:
a. 125ohm b. 50ohm c. 75ohm d.25ohm
Ans-c
15. Kirchoff's laws are valid for
a. linear ckt only b. passive time invariant ckt
c. non-linear ckt only d. both linear & non-linear ckt
Ans-d
16. KCL is applicable only to
a. electric circuits b. electronic circuits
c. junctions in a network d. closed loop in a network
Ans-c
17. KVL is concerned with
a. IR drop b. battery emf c. junction node d. both a and b
Ans-c
18. A wye arrangement of resistances has each resistance of 3ohm, the equivalent delta
arrangement will have each resistance of values.
a. 9ohm b. 6ohm c. 3ohm d. 1ohm
Ans-a
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19. A battery is connected to a resistance causing a current of 0.5A in the circuit. The current
in
drops to 0.4 when an additional resistance of 5? is connected in series . The current will drop to
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0.2A when the resistance is further increased by

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a. 10 ohm b. 15ohm c. 25ohm d.5 ohm

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20. Cells are connected in series in order to increase the
a. current capacity b. life of the cells c. voltage rating d. terminal voltage
Ans-c
21. Cells are connected in parallel in order to increase
a. life of the cells b. efficiency c. current capacity d. voltage rating
Ans-c
22. When two cells are connected in parallel , it should ensure that have
a. identical internal resistances b. equal emfs c. same ampere hour capacity
Ans-b
23.The capacity of a battery is expressed in

a. amperes b. amperes-hour c. watts d. watt-hour
Ans-b
24. A series resonant circuit implies
a. zero pf and maximum current b. unity pf and maximum current
c. unity pf and minimum current d. zero pf and minimum current
Ans-c
25. which one is classified as integrating instrument?
a. D'arsonval galvanometer b. ampere-hour meter c. ohm-meter d. ammeter
Ans-b
26. Which of the following types of instrument is an integrating instrument?

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a. power factor meter b. energy meter c. watt meter d. frequency meter

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Ans-b
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27. Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so that
a. its range is high b. Its accuracy is high
c. it may draw current minimum possible d. its sensitivity is high
Ans-c
28. If a voltmeter is connected like a ammeter in series with a load
a. the measurement reading will be too high b. Almost no current will flow in the circuit
c. the meter will burn out d. an inadmissably high current will flow
Ans-b
29. A multirange instrument (ammeter or voltmeter) has
a. Multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter b. variable coil turns
c. multi -coil arrangement d. any of the above
Ans-a
30. The S.I. unit of power is

a. henry b. coulomb c. watt d. watt-hour
Ans-c
31. Electric pressure is also called
a. resistance b. power c. voltage d. energy
Ans-c
32 The substances whfch have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are
called
a. insulators b. inductors c. semi-conductors d. conductors
Ans-d
33. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
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a. Cast iron b. Copper c. Carbon d. Tungsten

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Ans-b
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34. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?

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a. Copper b. Gold c. Silver d. Paper

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35. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
a. resistance b. reluctance c. conductance d. inductance
Ans-cc
36 . Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) reluctance (d) capacitance
Ans-a
37. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
(a) length (b) area of cross-section (c) temperature (d) resistivity
Ans-b
38. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases (d) remains constant
Ans-a
39. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases (d) remains constant
Ans-a
40. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its
specific resistance is around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m (b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 10""8 Q-m (d) 1.8 x 10"8 Q-m
Ans-c
41. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms (b) 10 ohms (c) 15 ohms (d) 55 ohms
Ans-a
42. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
(a) voltmeter (b) rheostat (c) wattmeter (d) galvanometer
Ans-d
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43. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage across the resistor is
in
(a) 33 V (b) 66 v (c) 80 V (d) 132 V

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44. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance of the light
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bulb is (a) 400 ohm (b) 600 ohm (c) 800 ohm (d) 1000 ohm
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45. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of
one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other ?
(a) 18 ohm (b) 36 ohm (c) 48 ohm (d) 64 ohm
Ans-b
46. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when
connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 ohm. If the same four wires are connected is series
the effective resistance will be
(a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohm (c) 3 ohm (d) 4 ohm
Ans-d
47. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and
12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A (b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A (c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A (d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans-b
48. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy (b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few micro second (d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans-c
49. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Manganin (b) Porcelain (c) Carbon (d) Copper
Ans-a
50. You have to replace 1500 ohm resistor in radio. You have no 1500 ohm resistor but have
several 1000 ohm ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel (b) two in parallel and one in series (c) three in parallel (d) three in series
Ans-b
51. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
(a) same current passes in turn through both (b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents (d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Ans-a
52. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents (b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive (d) Power are additive
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53. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
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(a) Copper (b) Aluminum (c) Carbon (d) Brass

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54. Ohm's law is not applicable to
(a) vacuum tubes (b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits (d) circuits with low current densities
Ans-a
55. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?
(a) Iron (b) Silver (c) Copper (d) Carbon
Ans-b
56. For which of the following 'ampere second' could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance (b) Charge (c) Power (d) Energy
Ans-b
57. All of the following are equivalent to watt except
(a) amperes square ohm (b) joules/sec. (c) amperes x volts (d) amperes/volt
Ans-d
58. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10W is likely to be a
(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor
Ans-c
59. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans-a
60. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(b) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Ans-b
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61. Insulating materials have the function of

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(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires

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(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
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(c) conducting very large currents

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(d) storing very high currents

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62. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in
(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Ans-d
63. The minimum charge on an ion is
(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom zero
Ans-b
64. In a series circuit with unequal resistances
(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Ans-c
65. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans-c
66. A 3 ohm resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of
(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 12 watts
Ans-d
67. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
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(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an voltmeter

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68. The resistance of a few metres of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
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(a) practically zero(b) low(c) high (d) very high

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69. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance (b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches (d) is zero in the highest resistive branch
Ans-c
70. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Ans-a
71. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns open
(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Ans-b
72. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of the
following statement is true ?
(a) The current through each bulb in same
(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
Ans-a
73. Two resistances Rl and R2 are connected in series across the voltage source where R2>R1.
The largest drop will be across
(a) R2
(b) R1
(c) either Rl or R2
(d) none of them
Ans-a
74. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with
potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ?
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(a) 5 joules
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(b) 10 joules
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(c) 15 joules
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(d) 20 joules
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75. A closed switch has a resistance of
(a) zero
(b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) infinity
Ans-a
76. The hot resistance of the bulb's filament is higher than its cold resistance because the
temperature co-efficient of the filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree
Ans-c
77. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans-d
78. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
(a) to prevent leakage of current (b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factor (d) none of above factors
Ans-c
79. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it
Ans-a
80. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit ?
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
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(d) Resistance
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81. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100
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W bulb, the heater output will

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(a) decrease
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(b) increase
(c) remain same
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(d) heater will burn out
Ans-b
82. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes,
using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
Ans-a
83. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Ans-d
84. Resistance of a tungsten as applied voltage increases
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
Ans-b
85. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects
Ans-c
86. Resistance of a material always decreases if
(a) temperature of material is decreased
(6) temperature of material is increased
(c) number of free electrons available become more
(d) none of the above is correct
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Ans: c
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87. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?

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(a) Input power (b) Losses (c) True component of power

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(d) kWh consumed (e) Ratio of output to input

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88. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due
to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Ans: a
89. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
90. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
91. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the
magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
92. It becomes more difficult to remove
(a) any electron from the
(6) first electron from the orbit
(c) second electron from the orbit
(d) third electron from the orbit
Ans: d
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93. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
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(a) reduce
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(b) increase
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(c) decrease
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(d) become zero

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Ans: c
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94. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
95. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of the
following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will brighter (b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright (d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Ans: b
96. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
97. In the case of direct current
(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Ans: a
98. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This
suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
Ans: b
99. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
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(c) remains same

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100. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

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(a) parallel
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(b) series
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(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
101. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
Ans: c
102. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching
operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
Ans: a
103. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) capacitance (d) impedance
Ans: b
104. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without
change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
(a) 1/9 times (b) 3 times (c) 9 times (d) unchanged
Ans: c
105. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a portion
of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
106. A field of force can exist only between
(a) two molecules
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(b) two ions

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(c) two atoms

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(d) two metal particles

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107. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called

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(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
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(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
108. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a
109. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
110. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm's law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
111. 3 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two
corners
?
(a) 3/2 Q (b 6 Q (c) 4 Q (d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
112. Ohm's law is not applicable to
(a) semi-conductors (b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors (d) high currents
Ans: a
113. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four
times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40
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ohms the resistance of other conductor will be

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(a) 160 ohms

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(b) 80 ohms
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(c) 20 ohms
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(d) 10 ohms
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114. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 £2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at
200 V, the length of wire required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
115. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/°C
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
(d) mhos/°C
Ans: c
116. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans: d
117. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
118. The condition for the validity under Ohm's law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end
Ans: a
119. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor
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and an insulator
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(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity
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of metal and insulator

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(c) A semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied voltage
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(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator
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Ans: a
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120. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it
(a) has lower wantage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tappings
Ans: b
121. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical
cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is
(a) 50%
(b) 60% (c) 100% (d) 150%
Ans: a
122. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero
Ans: b
123. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much
greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors
Ans: c
124. All good conductors have high
(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
Ans: a
125. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(a) charcoal (b) copper
(c) nichrome
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(d) graphite
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Ans: c
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126. Voltage dependent resistors are used

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(a) for inductive circuits

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(6) to supress surges

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(c) as heating elements

(d) as current stabilizers
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Ans: b
127. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
(a) 1840 (b) 1840 (c) 30 (d) 4
Ans: a
128. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
129. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power
supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
130. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
131. If, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule's law
heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
132. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
(a) lead and zinc
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(b) chromium and vanadium

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(c) nickel and chromium

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(d) copper and silver

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Ans: c
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133. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one microampere current to flow
through it.The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
Ans: a
134. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ?

(a) Compounds of silver
(6) Liquid metals
(c) Metallic alloys
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
135. Conductance : mho ::
(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Ans: a
136. 1 angstrom is equal to
(a) 10-8 mm (6) 10"6 cm (c) 10"10 m (d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
137. One newton metre is same as
(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second
Ans: b
138. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled, the
force will be
(a) 60 N
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(b) 30 N
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(c) 40 N
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(d) 15 N
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Ans: b
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139. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the
distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C
(b) 600 N/C
(c) 800 N/C
(d) 1200 N/C
Ans: c
140. The lines of force due to charged particles are
(a) always straight(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved(d) none of the above
Ans: b
141. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is
(a) proportional to d
(b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d
Ans: b
142. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .
(a) away from the charge (b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
Ans: a
143. A field line and an equipotential surface are
(a) always parallel(b) always at 90°
(c) inclined at any angle 0(d) none of the above
Ans: b
144. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the existence of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) electric field
Ans: d
145. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the of an , the capacitance will
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(a) decrease
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(b) increase
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(c) remains unchanged

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(d) become zero

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146. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is
(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.8 F
Ans: a
147. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Ans: b
148. The units of capacitance are
(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/Wb
Ans: b
149. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: a
150. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net cararitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: b
151. A dielectric material must be
(a) resistor
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(b) insulator
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(c) good conductor

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(d) semi conductor

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Ans: b
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152. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
(a) D.C. only

(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.
Ans: a
153. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by
(a) distance between plates
(6) area of plates
(c) thickness of plates
Ans: c
154. Which of the following is not a vector ?
(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Electric field
(d) Electric potential
Ans: b
155. Two plates of a parallel capacitor after being charged from a constant voltage source are
separated apart by means of insulated handles, then the
(a) Voltage across the plates
(b) voltage across the plates decreases
(c) charge on the capacitor decreases
(d) charge on the capacitor increases
Ans: b
156. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit
because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Ans: a
157. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times greater
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than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ?

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(a) 50 (b) 100

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(c) 150 (d) 200

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Ans: b
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(a) Air capacitors have a blackband to indicate the outside foil

(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
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(c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF
Ans: b
159. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of
(a) 0.0002
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.02
(d) 0.2
Ans: a
160. "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
amount oflcharge enclosed".The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb's square law
(b) Gauss's law
(c) Maxwell's first law
(d) Maxwell's second law
Ans: b
161. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be
obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Ans: c
162. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains
unaffected ?
(a) Distance between plates
(b) Area of the plates
(c) Nature of dielectric
(d) Thickness of the plates
Ans: d
163. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
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(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially

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(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially

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(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly

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Ans: b
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164. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
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(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
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(c) E = jtD
(d) E= nD2
Ans: a
165. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
Ans: b
166. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil
Ans: c
167. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(c) Silver plated mica capacitor
Ans: c
(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Ans: b
169. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
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Ans: b
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170. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
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(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts

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(6) capacitor in series with each contact

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(c) resistance in line

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Ans: a
171. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) zero
Ans: c
172. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Ans: a
173. In a capacitive circuit
(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
Ans: b
174. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference
between plates will
(a) remain uncharged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) become zero
Ans: b
175. Capacitance increases with
(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Ans: a
176. A capacitor consists of
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(a) two insulators separated by a conductor

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(b) two conductors separated by an insulator

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(c) two insulators only

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(d) two conductors only

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Ans: b
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177. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of
(a) tubes
(b) rolled foil
(c) disc
(d) meshed plates
Ans: b
178. Air capacitors are generally available in the range
(a) 10 to 400 pF
(b) 1 to 20 pF
(c) 100 to 900 pF
(d) 20 to 100 pF
Ans: a

(a) henry
(b) ohm
(c) farad
(d) farad/m
Ans: c
180. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF
Ans: b
181. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections,
which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(d) Any-of the above
Ans: c
182. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of
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voltage V is equal to joules

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(a) CV2
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(b) C2V
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(c) CV2
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(d) CV
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Ans: a
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183. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by (a) 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m)
(6) 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m)
(c) 8.854 x KT11 F/m (d) 8.854 x 10"12 F/m
Ans: b
184. The relative permittivity of free space is given by
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100 (d) 1000
Ans: a
185. Electric field intensity is a quantity
(a) scalar
(b) vector
Ans: b
186. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Ans: d
187. The capacitor preferred for high circuits is
(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
Ans: b
188. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts
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Ans: c
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189. While testing a capacitor with ohm-metre, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final
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resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
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(a) short-circuited
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(b) open circuited

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(c) alright
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(d) leaky
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Ans: d
190. If a 6 mF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will be
(a) 800 uC
(b) 900 uC
(c) 1200 uC
(d) 1600 uC
Ans: c
191. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Both will be of equal size
Ans: a
192. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser to
make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF
Ans: b
193. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions. Which
will have more value of capacitance ?
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied voltage
Ans: a
194. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper
Ans: b
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195. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
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(a) Mica
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(b) Paper
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(c) Ceramic
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(d) Electrolytic
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Ans: d
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196. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually
(a) 20 to 60 volts
(b) 200 to 1600 volts
(c) 2000 to 3000 volts
(d) more than 10000 volts
Ans:b
197. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 3 to 8
(d) 1 to 2
Ans: c
198. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Ans: b
199. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity ?

(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
200. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ?
(a) Air capacitor
(c) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage breakdown
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rating for a capacitor .

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(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the capacitance
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value of 500 pF
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(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the
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combination
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(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two conductors
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Ans: b
202. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of
(a) ± 5% (b) ± 10% (c) ± 15% (d) ± 20%
Ans: b
203. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic disc capacitor
Ans: b
204. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a distance
of
0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
205. The units of volume charge density are
(a) Coulomb/metre
(b) Coulomb/metre
(c) Coulomb/metre
(d) Coulomb/metre
Ans: c
206. "The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any
closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface".
(a) Gauss's law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) 's law
(d) Lenz's law
Ans: a
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207. Dielectric strength of mica is

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(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
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(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
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(c) 50 to 200 kV/mm

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(d) 300 to 500 kV/mm

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Ans: c
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208. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by (a) 0.1 to 0.4
(b) 0.5 to 1.0(c) 2.0 to 4.0 (d) 5 to 100
Ans: d
209 capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: b
210. capacitors can be used only for D.C.
(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
211. capacitors are used in transistor circuits.
(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: a
212. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceramic
Ans: b
213. The inverse of capacitance is called
(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastance
Ans: d
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214. When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is

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(a) uniform
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(b) non-uniform
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(c) zero
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(d) any of the above

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Ans: a
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215. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the material of
high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
Ans: b
216. field is associated with the capacitor.
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
Ans: a
217. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged to a potential difference of 10,000 V. The
energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 50 joules
(b) 150 joules
(c) 200 joules
(d) 250 joules
Ans: d
218. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the internal
diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
Ans: b
219. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential
difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
(d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
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Ans: d
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220. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as

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(a) current
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(b) voltage
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(d) charge
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Ans: d
221. The relative permittivity has the following units
(a) F/m
(b) m/F
(c) Wb/m
(d) no units
Ans: c
222. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a charged
body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Ans: d
223. A unit tube of flux is known as tube
(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
Ans: b
224. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge density
Ans: a
225. The unit of electric intensity is
(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2/C
Ans:c
226. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
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(a) Faraday's laws

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(b) Kirchhoff s laws

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(c) Coulomb's laws

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Ans: c
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227. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit cross
section at that point.
(6) Magnetic flux density
(c) Electric flux
Ans: a
228. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point.
(a) electric flux
(b) magnetic flux density
Ans: c
229. Electric displacement is a quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector
Ans: b
230. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.
(6) Electric flux
(c) Magnetic flux
(d) Magnetic flux density
Ans: a
231. The unit of dielectric strength is given by
(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/V2
Ans: a
232. Dielectric strength with increasing thickness
(a) increases
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(b) decreases
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(c) remains unaltered

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Ans: b
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233. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its

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(a) capacitance
(b) charge
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(c) energy
Ans: a
234. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Potential gradient
Ans: b
235. A capacitance of 100 pF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 ohm. The time
constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s
Ans: d
236. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the
(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulator
Ans: b
237. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging
voltage actually rises to _ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 63.2, initial
(c) 63.2, final
(d) 37, final
Ans: c
238. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the
charging current falls to percent of its initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
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(c) 63
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(d) 73
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Ans: a
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239. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by
(a) plate area
(b) plate separation
(c) nature of dielectric
(e) all of the above
Ans:e
240. A capacitor consists of two
(a) ceramic plates and one mica disc
(b) insulators separated by a dielectric
(c) silver-coated insulators
(d) conductors separated by an insulator
Ans: d
241. Permittivity is expressed in
(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/metre
(c) Weber/metre
(d) Weber/sq-m
Ans: b
242. Dielectric strength of a material depends on
(a) moisture content
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
243. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is
applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
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Ans: c
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244. Which medium has the least dielectric strength ?

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(a) Paraffin wax

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(b) Quartz
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(c) Glass
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(d) Air
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Ans: d
245. 1 volt/metre is same as
(a) 1 metre/coulomb(6) 1 newton metre(c) 1 newton/metre(d) 1 joule/coulomb
Ans: c
246. One volt is the same as
(a) one joule/coulomb
(b) one coulomb/joule
(c) one coulomb
(d) one joule
Ans: a
247. The capacitance between two plates increases with
(a) shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
(6) shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
(c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher,applied voltage
(d) larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
Ans: d
248. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging
circuit is given by
(a) CIR
(b) 1/RC
(c) RC
(d) RIC
Ans: c
249. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien's bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay's bridge
Ans: c
250. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
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(d) satisfactory
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Ans: b
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251. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest
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dimensions ?
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(a) Aluminium foil capacitor

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(b) Mica capacitor

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(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: c
252. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then
(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the charging
body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
(d) it remains as such
Ans: b
253. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the
(a) charge of the charged conductor
(6) capacity of the charged conductor
(c) potential of the charged conductor
Ans: b
254. Paper condenser is
(a) always polarised
(6) usually of fixed value
(c) electrolytic condenser
(d) a variable condenser
Ans: b
255. Mica capacitors are characterised by all of thte following except
(a) stable operation
(b) accurate value
(c) low leakage reactance
(d) low losses
Ans: c
256. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4 mm apart. The
strength of electric field is
(a) 100 kV/m
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
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(d) 2 kV/m
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Ans: a
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257. For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading should

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(a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance
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(6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
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(c) go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there

(d) not move at all
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Ans: a
258. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is
(a) infinity
(b) few kilo ohms
(c) few megaahms
(d) zero
Ans: d
(a) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 \iF
(b) Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(c) Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
(d) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
Ans: c
260. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor (b) Electrolytic capacitor (c) Mica capacitor (d) none of the above
Ans: c
261. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide
(a) low capacitance
(b) fixed capacitance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) large value of capacitance
Ans: d
262. In order to remove static electricity from machinery
(a) construct insulated cabins
(b) insulate the machinery
(c) ground the framework
(d) humidify the surroundings
Ans: c
263. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges, then
this third charge will
(a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges
(b) remain in stable equilibrium
(c) not be in equilibrium
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(d) be in unstable equilibrium

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Ans: b
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264. A region around a stationary electric charge has

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(a) an electric field

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(b) a magnetic field

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Ans: a
265. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
(a) insulation
(b) conductor
(c) outer sheath
(d) uniformly all over
Ans: a
266. Dielectric strength of medium
(a) increases with rise in temperature
(b) increases with moisture content
(c) is same for all insulating materials
Ans: d
267. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a force
of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulomb
Ans: b
268. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in
(a) J/mm (b) C/m2 (c) kV/mm (d) N/mm
Ans: c
269. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close
together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be
(a) 5 times smaller than before
(b) 5 times greater than before
(c) 10 times greater than before
(d) 25 times larger than before
Ans: d
270. Which is the most superior dielectric out of the following ?

(a) Air
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(b) Glass
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(c) Bakelite
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(d) Paper
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Ans: c
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271. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength

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(a) decreases
(b) increases
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(c) reduces to zero
(d) remain unchanged
Ans: a
272. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather
(a) surface is moistened
(b) conductive dressing is done
(c) oil compound dressing is done
(d) talcum powder is sprayed on the surface
Ans: b
273. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(d) Ceramic capacitor
Ans: c
274. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: a
275. A condenser suitable for D.C. only is
(a) metallic plate variable gang condenser
(b) metallic paper capacitor
(c) oil impregrated paper condenser
(d) poled aluminium electrolytic condenser
Ans: d
276. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates (b) dielectric
(c) dielectric as well as metal plates (d) none of the above
Ans: b
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(a) increase m.m.f.

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(b) increase the flux

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(c) prevent saturation

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Ans: c
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278. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is
(a) less than one
(b) more than one
(c) more than 10
(d) more than 100 or 1000
Ans: d
(a) henry
(b) weber
(c) ampereturn/weber
(d) ampere/metre
Ans: b
280. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to in an electric circuit.
(a) resistance
(b) resistivity
(c) conductivity
(d) conductance
Ans: c
281. Point out the wrong statement.
Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it
(a) lowers their power efficiency
(b) increases their cost of
(c) leads to their increased weight
(d) produces fringing
Ans: a
(a) 1
(b) 1 H/m
(c) 1/4JI
(d) 4n x 10-' H/m
Ans: a
283. Permanent magnets are normally made of
(a) alnico alloys
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(b) aluminium
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(c) cast iron

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(d) wrought iron

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Ans: a
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284. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by percent.
(a) 25(b) 50 (c)41.4 (d) 100
Ans: c
285. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which
have permeability and hystersis loss.
(a) high, high
(b) low, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: c
286. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum
(a) at 63.2% of its maximum steady value
(b) at the start of the current flow
(c) after one time constant
(d) near the final maximum value of current
Ans: b
287. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
(a) time constant remains unchanged
(b) initial rate of rise of current is doubled
(c) final steady current is doubled
(d) time constant is halved
Ans: a
288. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly
connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is Vs
(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 0.05 (d) 500
Ans: b
289. A material for good magnetic memory
(a) low hysteresis loss
(b) high permeability
(c) low retentivity
(d) high retentivity
Ans: d
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290. Conductivity is analogous to

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(a) retentivity
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(b) resistivity
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(c) permeability
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(d) inductance
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Ans: c
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291. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to
(a) rapid reversals of its magnetization (b) flux density lagging behind magnetising force
(c) molecular friction (d) it high retentivity
Ans: d
292. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have retentivity and
coercivity.
(a) low, high
(b) high, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: b
293. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is , the hysteresis loss in this material will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) large
Ans: c
294. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because
(a) it has good residual magnetism
(b) its hysteresis loop has large area
(c) its mechanical strength is high
(d) its mechanical strength is low
Ans: a
295. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has
(a) low co-ercivity
(b) low retentivity
(c) low hysteresis loss
(d) high co-ercivity
Ans: c
(a) permeance
(b) reluctance
(c) flux
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(d) inductance
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Ans: a
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297. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
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(a) reluctivity
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(c) permeance
(d) reluctance
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Ans: d
(a) weber
(b) weber/sq. m
(c) ampere turn/metre
(d) ampere turn
Ans: b
(a) reluctivity
(b) permeance
(c) permeability
(d) susceptibility
Ans: b
300. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared
with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
(a) E.m.f.
(b) Current
(c) Current density
(d) Conductivity
Ans: b
(a) metre/henry
(b) henry/metre
(c) henry
(d) 1/henry
Ans: d
302. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
(a) ferrites have high resistance
(b) ferrites are magnetic
(c) ferrites have low permeability
(d) ferrites have high hysteresis
Ans: d
303. Hysteresis loss least depends on
(a) volume of material (b) frequency
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(c) steinmetz co-efficient of material(d) ambient temperature

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Ans: d
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304. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce

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(a) copper loss

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(b) eddy current loss

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(c) hysteresis loss

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Ans: b
305. "The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of
electricity".The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton's law
(b) Faraday's law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday's law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss's law
Ans: c
306. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as
constant
(a) time (b) Faraday's (c) Boltzman
Ans: b
307. During the charging of a lead-acid cell
(a) its voltage
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
308. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its
(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
309. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
310. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery
are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
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(c) lead peroxide and lead

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Ans: c
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310. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its positive plate is
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(a) dark grey

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(b) brown
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(c) dark brown
(d) none of above
Ans: c
311. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are
(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH (d) all of the above
Ans: d
312. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
Ans: b
313. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Ans: c
314. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
Ans: c
315. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Ans: b
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316. Cells are connected in series in order to

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(a) increase the voltage rating

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(6) increase the current rating

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(c) increase the life of the cells

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Ans: a
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317. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel.The output voltage is
(a) 1 V (6) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
318. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
Ans: c
319. Duringthe charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell
(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
320. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead
acid cell has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(d) avoiding excessive gassing Ans: c
321. A dead storage battery can be revived by
(a) adding
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Ans: d
322. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance
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Ans: d
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323. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

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(a) maintain proper electrolyte level

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(b) increase its reserve capacity

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(c) prevent sulphation

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(d) keep it fresh and fully charged

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Ans: d
324. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence
produce electricity during
charging or discharging are known as materials.
(a) passive (b) active (c) redundant (d) inert
Ans: b
325. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
326. It is noticed that durmg charging
(a) there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic
lead (Pb)
Ans: e
327. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen
(a) both anode and cathode become PbS04
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy
Ans: d
328. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
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329. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between

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(a) 25 to 35%
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(b) 40 to 60%
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(c) 70 to 80%
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(d) 90 to 95%
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Ans: c
330. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in
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(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours
Ans: b
331. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on
(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e
332. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _ appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
333. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
334. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly times that of the lead- acid cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
335. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
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(c) 1.7 V
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(d) 2.1 V
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Ans: c
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336. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about

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(a) 40%
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(b) 60%
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(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: d
337. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is
(a) silver oxide
(b) lead oxide (c) lead (d) zinc powder
Ans: a
338. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500 (b) 700 (c) 1000 (d) 1250
Ans: d
339. Life of the Edison cell is at least
(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
340. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
Ans: a
341. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
342. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
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(d) dilute H2SO4

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Ans: d
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343. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of

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(a) copper
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(b) lead
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(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
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Ans: c
344. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
(a) its chemical constituents
(b) on the strength of its electrolyte
(c) its temperature (d) all above
Ans: d
345. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
346. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to
1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(d) active state
Ans: b
347. In system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or
minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
348. Over charging
(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Ans: d
349. Undercharging
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(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte

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(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte

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(c) produces excessive gassing

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(d) increases the temperature

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Ans: a
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350. Internal short circuits are caused by

(a) breakdown of one or more separators
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(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
Ans: c
351. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) none of the above
Ans: a
352. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens
because of
(a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
(b) topping up with electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging
(d) low level of electrolyte
(e) all above
Ans: e
353. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are
called materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
354. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as
(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
Ans: b
355. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond
(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
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Ans: a
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356. On overcharging a battery

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(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials

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(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery

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(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte

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(d) none of the above will occur

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Ans: d
357. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Ans: d
358. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Ans: d
359. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Ans: a
360. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of
(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Ans: d
361. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Ans: b
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362. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

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(a) in well ventilated location

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(b) in clean and place

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(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged

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(d) in location having all above features

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Ans: d
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363. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Ans: d
364. Batteries are charged by
(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans: d
365. Cell short circuit results in

(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above
Ans: d
366. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by
(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
367. Capacity of dry cells is
(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
Ans: a
368. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of
(a) glass
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(b) plastic
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(c) wood
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(d) all above

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Ans: d
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369. Sulphated cells are indicated by

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(a) the loss of capacity of the cell

(6) the decrease of the specific gravity
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(c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge
(d) all above conditions
Ans: d
370. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following
ratio of acid towater to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
371. Local action in a battery is indicated by
(a) excessive gassing under load conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit
Ans: d
372. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
Ans: d
373. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
374. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
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(d) current drawing will be very high

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Ans: d
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375. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
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(a) lowered
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(b) raised
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(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
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Ans: a
376. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
377. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.
(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
Ans: a
378. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear
(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices
Ans: d
379. Excessive charging a battery tends to
(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
(d) bring about all above changes
Ans: d
380. Shelf life of a small dry cell is
(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
Ans: b
381. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of
(a) ions
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(b) holes
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(c) electrons
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Ans: a
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382. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be the level of plates
(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
Ans: c
383. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
384. of electrolytelndicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
385. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Ans: d
386. Dry cell is modification of
(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Lead-acid cell
(d) Edison cell
Ans: b
387. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in
(a) Ah
(b) Vh
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(c) Wh
in
(d) kWh
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Ans: a
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388. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is

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(a) dilute sulphuric acid

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(b) concentrated sulphuric acid

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(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
389. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is Edison cell.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than
Ans: b
390. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
391. The body of Edison cell is made of
(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
392. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.95
(c) 1.1 (d) 1.21
Ans: d
393. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
394. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of volts from fully charged state to fully discharged
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state.
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(a) 1.0
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(b) 1.5
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(c) 2.4
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(d) 2.9
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Ans: c
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395. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to change the active material
of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
396. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces heat.
(a) no
(b) very little
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
397. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
398. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of volts.
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
399. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon
(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors
Ans: d
400. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?
(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
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(6) High power to weight ratio

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(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity
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(d) All of the above

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Ans: d
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401. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in

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(a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing

(b) warping of plates
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(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
402. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused
(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
403. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container.
This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
(c) to discharge both of the above functions
(d) to discharge none of the above functions
Ans: c
404. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different meta's should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each
other
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
(d) All above three conditions are necessary
Ans: d
405. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
406. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
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(c) Lithium
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(d) Mercury
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Ans: c
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407. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery

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(a) water is poured into acid

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(b) acid is poured into water

(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
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Ans: b
408. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?
(a) Lead-acid battery
(b) Nickel-iron battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery
Ans: b
409. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?
(a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide
Ans: a
410. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Ans: c
411. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V
(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
412. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be
(a) 10% of capacity
(b) 20% of capacity
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
413. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
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(b) they have same make

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(c) they have same ampere-hour capa-city

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(d) they have identical internal resistance

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Ans: a
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414. A typical output of a solar cell is

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(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
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(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
415. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Ans: d
416. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be
maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance
Ans: c
417. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is
(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
418. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of
(a) charged ions
(b) chemical energy
(c) electrostatic energy
(d) electromagnetic energy
Ans: b
419. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an ? (a)
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
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Ans: b
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420. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ?
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(a) Temperature of surroundings

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(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte

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(c) Rate of discharge

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Ans: d
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421. Cells are connected in parallel to
(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance
Ans: b
422. A constant-voltage generator has
(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance
Ans: c
423. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through the
coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
424. As per Farada y's laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is induced in a conductor
whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Ans: c
425. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Ans: a
426. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
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(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase

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(c) when more area for each turn is provided

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(d) when permeability of the core

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Ans: a
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427. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,

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(a) lesser its weber-turns

(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
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(c) greater the flux produced by it
(d) longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
Ans: d
428. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The
inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Ans: b
429. An open coil has
(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and high inductance
Ans: b
430. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Ans: b
431. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage
Ans: c
432. The direction of incViced e.m.f. can be found by
(a) Laplace's law
(b) Lenz's law
(c) Fleming's right hand rule
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(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law

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Ans: b
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433. Air-core coils are practically free from

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Ans: c
434. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the
(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
(d) rate of change of flux-linkages
Ans: d
435. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils depends on

(a) permeability of the core
(b) the number of their turns
(c) cross-sectional area of their com-mon core
Ans: d
436. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertf-cally
Ans: b
437. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is due
to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Ans: b
438. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?
(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
Ans: b
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439. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to

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(a) voltage across the inductance

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(b) magnetic field

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(d) neither (a) nor (b)

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Ans: b
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440. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
Ans: b
441. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?
(a) Apparent power is zero
(b) Relative power is.zero
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
Ans: c
442. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?

(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(c) Ampere turns
(d) Webers/metre
Ans: b
443. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current
must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Ans: d
444. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core length
is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the in ductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH (d)48mH
Ans: a
445. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is
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0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is

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(a) 4 mH
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(b) 5 mH
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(c) 6 mH
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(d) 12 mH
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Ans: c
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446. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If the
two coils are connected in series aiding, the total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: b
447. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increased to 400
turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: d
448. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If the
two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Ans: c
449. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling
will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Ans: b
450. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms
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Ans: d
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451. A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 tesla
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with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
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(a) 10 V
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(6) 15 V
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(c) 25V
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(d) 50V
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Ans: c
452. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) induced current
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) induced e.m.f.
Ans: c
453. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The
force on the conductor will be
nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Ans: b
454. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right
angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Ans: a
455. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
Ans: c
456. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in flux
which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
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(d) 0.02 Wb
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Ans: d
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457. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time interval
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must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?

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(a) 0.01 s
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(b) 0.1 s
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(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Ans: c
458. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core
Ans: a
459. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of
inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Ans: b
460. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Ans: b
461. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in a coil.

The value of inductance is
(a) 5 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H
(d) 10 H
Ans: c
462. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
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(c) Capacitance only

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(d) Inductance and capacitance

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Ans: b
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463. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in

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(a) unchanged inductance

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(b) increased inductance

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(c) zero inductance
(d) reduced inductance
Ans: d
464. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is
not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
(d) the resistance of magnetic path
Ans: b
465. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:a
466. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
467. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
468. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
469 When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines of flux, the
force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
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Ans: b
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470. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts when
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the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit weber turns.
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(a) Yes
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(b) No
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Ans: b
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471. Laminations of core are generally made of
(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
472. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of lamina-tions of a D.C.
machine?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
473. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to
(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Ans: d
474. The resistance of armature winding depends on
(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
Ans: d
475. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
476. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of
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(a) copper lugs

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(b) resistance wires

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(c) insulation pads

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Ans: a
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477. In a commutator
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(a) copper is harder than mica

(b) mica and copper are equally hard
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(c) mica is harder than copper
Ans: c
478. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
479. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
Ans: b
480. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates
(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor
Ans: b
481. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb
points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans: d
482. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
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(d) needle bearing

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Ans: a
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483. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

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(a) severe sparking

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(b) rough commutator surface

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(c) imperfect contact

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Ans: d
484. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
485. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is
fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
486. In a four-pole D.C. machine
(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
487. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used
(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
488. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage con-trol
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
489. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of
(a) current
(b) voltage
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(c) speed
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(d) none of above

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Ans: c
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490. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in

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(a) speed
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(b) load
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(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
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Ans: b
491. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
492. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of
(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
493. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then
induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv (b)Blv2 (c)Bl2v (d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
494. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils,
the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
495. The material for commutator brushes is generally
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
496. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
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(c) mica
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(d) insulating varnish

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Ans: c
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497. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors which
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(a) lie under south pole

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(b) lie under north pole

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(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
498. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic neutral
axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
499. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is
(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
500. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Ans: d
501. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
502. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in
(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the
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voltage
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(d) all above

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Ans: d
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503. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is

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(a) wave wound

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(b) lap wound

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(c) delta wound
(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
504. Welding generator will have
(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
505. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to
(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
506. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
507. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
508. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is
(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches
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Ans: d
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509. A D.C. welding generator has

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(a) lap winding

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(b) wave moving

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(c) duplex winding

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Ans: a
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510. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?
(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt generators
Ans: d
511. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator
(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
512. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by
(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
Ans: a
513. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on
(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
514. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators
(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
Ans: c
515. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing direct
current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
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(b) Commutator
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(c) Eye bolt

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(d) Equilizer rings

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Ans: b
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516. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
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(a) using conductor of annealed copper

(b) using commutator with large number of segments
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(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
517. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for
(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
518. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature while
generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
519. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
Ans: c
520. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains , if
the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
521. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon
(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
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Ans:d
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522. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of

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(a) silicon steel

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(b) copper
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(c) non-ferrous material

(d) cast-iron
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Ans: a
523. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires
(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders
(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
Ans: d
524. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is
connected
(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
Ans: c
525. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to increasethe generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
526. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
527. D.C. series generator is used
(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose
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Ans: c
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528. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any magnetism in the
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poles
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(a) series generator

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(b) shunt generator

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(c) compound generator

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(d) self-excited generator

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Ans: d
529. Interpole flux should be sufficient to
(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating e.m.f. induced in the coil
(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
530. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries is

(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any of'the above
Ans: c
531. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
532. Permeance is the reciprocal of
(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
533. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles
(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f.
Ans: a
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534. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to

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(a) flux/pole
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(b) speed of armature

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(c) number of poles

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Ans: b
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535. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral axis,
when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
536. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the coil
is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
537. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
538. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed
increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
539. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is
(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
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540. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by

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(a) speed limitation

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(b) armature heating

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(c) insulation restrictions

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(d) saturation of iron

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Ans:
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541. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact
(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
Ans: b
542. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means
(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles
Ans: b
543. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is
0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
544. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
545. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as to
bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
546. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies
(a) along neutral axis
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(b) along field axis

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(c) in any of the above positions

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(d) in none of the above positions

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Ans: a
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547. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be
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(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt

(b) differentially compounded long shunt
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(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
548. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C. machine
(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
549. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.
(a) Insulation failure between two com-mutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
Ans: d
550. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to
(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
551. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to
(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
552. A D.C. generator can be considered as
(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump
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Ans: c
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553. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f. induced
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is to be utilised is called
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(a) rotor
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(b) stator
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(c) field
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(d) armature
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Ans: d
554. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of
(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
555. Lap winding is composed of
(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: a
556. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
557. An exciter for a turbo generator is a
(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator
Ans: b
558. In case of a flat compounded generator
(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
(c) voltage remains constant irrespective of the load
(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
Ans: c
559. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on
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no-load ?
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(a) Series generator

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(b) Shunt generator

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(c) Compound generator

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(d) Separately excited generator

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Ans: a
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560. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
Ans: d
561. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is
(a) almost zero
(b) less than noload terminal voltage
(c) more than noload terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage
Ans: c
562. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is
(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage
Ans: b
563. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the following
reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
564. In a D.C. generator

(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic - armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop - armature reaction
(d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic
Ans: c
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565. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature
in
voltage wave
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(a) will be zero

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(b) will be of 5 Hz
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(c) willbeof5xiVHz
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(d) will be of v Hz 5
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Ans: b
566. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit voltage
will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
567. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
Ans: a
568. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
569. Armature reaction in a generator results in
(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the centre of all poles
(d) magnetising the centre of all poles
Ans: a
570. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would produce
high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation
failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans: d
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571. Wave winding is composed of

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Ans: c
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572. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
573. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines
Ans: c
574. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
Ans: c
575. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
Ans: a
576. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for which of
the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads Ans: d
577. A D.C. generator works on the principle of
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
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Ans: c
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578. A series generator can self-excite

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(a) only if the load current is zero

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(b) only if the load current is not zero

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(c) irrespective of the value of load current

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Ans: b
579. A shunt generator can self-excite
(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resis-tance in the field circuit
Ans: a
580. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the load
current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Ans: c
581. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
Ans: c
582. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance
of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their
e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V (b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V (d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
583. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have '
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
584. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
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(a) to increase the series flux

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(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.

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(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
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(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
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Ans: d
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585. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is preferred ?
(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
586. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
587. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Ans: c
588. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator having duplex lap
winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
589. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
590. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by
(a) external current
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(b) armature current

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(c) shunt current

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(d) load current

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Ans: d
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591. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
592. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
593. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over compounded
generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
(d) unequal series field resistances
Ans: a
594. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run, the
first is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of primemover
(d) check armature insulation resistance
Ans: a
595.No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
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596. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by

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(a) interchanging supply terminals

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(b) interchanging field terminals

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(c) either of (a) and (b) above

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Ans: b
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597. Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?
(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) blower
Ans: c
598. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: a
599. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
600. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
601. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
Ans: d
602. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
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(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor

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(c) resultant force on conductor

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Ans: a
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603. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
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(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %

(b) the armature current will reduce
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(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
604. Starters are used with D.C. motors because
(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Ans: d
605. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Ans: c
606. A D.C. series motor is that which
(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
607. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because
(a) it the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor
Ans: b
608. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
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Ans: d
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609. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will

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(a) run at normal speed

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(b) not run

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(c) run at lower speed

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(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by eddy currents
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Ans: d
610. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy is
used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
611. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
612. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
613. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is
(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: a
614. A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors
(a) iip to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
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615. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
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(a) The motor will stop

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(b) The motor will continue to run

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(c) The armature may burn

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(d) The motor will run noisy

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Ans: c
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616. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
617. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the armature
will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
618. These days D.C. motors are widely used in
(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
619. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is
D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator Ans: c
620. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
621. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
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(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.

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(d) to reduce the sparking

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Ans: d
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622. A three point starter is considered suitable for

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(a) shunt motors

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(b) shunt as well as compound motors

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(c) shunt, compound and series motors
(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
623. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the efficiency
of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
624. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of
(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
Ans: b
625. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
626. Which of the following /rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C.
motor
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
627. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
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(d) Centrifugal pumps

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Ans: b
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628. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally

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(a) low
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(b) around 500 Q

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(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
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Ans: a
629. The speed of a D.C. series motor is
(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
Ans: d
630. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor
will be equal to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
Ans: c
631. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
Ans: a
632. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
633. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
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634. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
in
loads?
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(a) Series motor

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(b) Shunt motor

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(c) Cumulatively compounded motor

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Ans: c
635. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to th£ motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
(d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
636. D.C. series motors are used
(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
637. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc'ompounded
Ans: c
638. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
639. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in
(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
Ans: d
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640. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive atmosphere ?
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(a) Series motor

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(b) Shunt motor

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(c) Air motor

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(d) Battery operated motor

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Ans: c
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641. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
Ans: c
642. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better unifor-mity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the mag-netic path
Ans: a
643. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio of back
e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
644. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is
(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. =1 /2x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = 1/2 x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
645. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
646. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order of
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
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(6) 10 to 15 per cent

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(c) 20 to 25 per cent

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(d) 50 to 75 per cent

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Ans: a
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647. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
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(a) Series motor

(b) Shunt motor
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Ans: a
648. Three point starter can be used for
(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor
Ans: d
649. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because
(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
Ans: b
650. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
651. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor,
compound motor will have to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
652. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is
required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
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(d) D.C. motor

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(e) None of the above

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Ans: d
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653. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt field suddenly opens

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(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series motor
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(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the same direction
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(d) the motor will not work and come to stop Ans: a
654. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
Ans: b
655. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
656. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
657. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to
(a) field flux only
(b) armature current only
Ans: b
658. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
efficiency ?
(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c
659. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of
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(a) centrifugal pumps

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(b) elevators
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(c) steel rolling mills

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(d) colliery winders

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Ans: d
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660. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
661. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
Ans: a
662. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a heavy
current from flowing though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans: a
663. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by
(a) increasing the resistance in armature circuit
(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit
(c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
(d) reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
Ans: b
664. If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. shunt motor is
(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
665. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed by
the motor will
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(a) remain unchanged

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(b) reduce to one-fourth value

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(c) increase four folds

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(d) be doubled
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Ans: a
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666. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
Ans: b
667. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying
(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
Ans: d
668. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
669. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is changed
(a) torque will remain constant
(b) torque will change but power will remain constant
(c) torque and power both will change
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change
Ans: b
670. Which motor has the poorest speed control?
(a) Differentially compounded motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
671. The plugging gives the
(a) zero torque braking
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(b) smallest torque braking

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(c) highest torque braking

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Ans: c
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(a) constant voltage drive

(b) constant current drive
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(c) constant torque drive
Ans: c
673. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next higher H.P.
motor
Ans: d
674. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer following
kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
675. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: d
676. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
677. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
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(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current

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(b) Torque is proportional to armature current

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(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current

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(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to square of
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armature current
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Ans: d
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678. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators ?

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(c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run motor)
(d) Reluctance motor
(e) Synchronous motor
Ans: c
679. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling and many kinds of timers ?
(c) Induction motor
Ans: d
680. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor.
Ans: a
681. Ward-Leonard control is basically a
(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method
Ans: a
682. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
683. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by
(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and generator together
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Ans: a
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684. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is

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(a) high initial cost

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(b) high maintenance cost

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(c) low efficiency at Hght loads

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Ans: d
685. Regenerative method of braking is based on that
(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
Ans: b
686. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on
(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals
(b) Maximum value of flux density
(c) Volume and grade of iron
(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air
Ans: d
687. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
(a) Loss of efficiency
(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
688. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have
highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
689. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
Ans: c
690. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon
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(a) magnetic field

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(b) active length of the conductor

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(c) current flow through the conductors

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(d) number of conductors

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(e) radius of armature

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(f) all above factors

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Ans: f
691. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving
(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
692. In a manual shunt motor starter
(a) over load is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
(6) over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series with the load
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with the load
Ans: a
693. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
Ans: d
694. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
Ans: d
695. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
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696. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
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(a) 100 W
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(b) 500 W
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(c) 1000 W
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(d) 1500 W
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Ans: b
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697. The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C. generator is
(a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) copper losses = 0
(d) variable losses = constant losses
Ans: d
698. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
Ans: a
699. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in
(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
700. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
701. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
702. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors of
large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne's test
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(b) Hopkinson's test

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(c) Field test

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(d) Brake test

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Ans: c
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703. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is conducted at

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(a) no-load
(b) part load
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(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
704. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors
(a) motor is run as a generator
(b) motor is reversed in direction
(c) motor is run at reduced speed
Ans: a
705. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
Ans: d
706. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators ?
(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
Ans: a
707. In variable speed motor
(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
Ans: b
708. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is
(a) self-induced e.m.f.
(b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
Ans: c
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709. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing and
in
speed control
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(a) drum type controller is used

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(b) three point starter is used

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(c) four point starter is used

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(d) all above can be used

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Ans: a
710. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop
Ans: a
711. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time and
some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: a
712. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle and peak
value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: c
713. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
Ans: a
714. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in
(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
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Ans: b
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715. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is possible
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by
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(a) reducing the field current

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(b) decreasing the armature current

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(c) increasing the armature current

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(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: a
716. One D.C. motor another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
Ans: a
717. The insulating material for a
(a) low cost (b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength (d) all of the above
Ans: d
718. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury ?
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
Ans: c
719. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?
(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
Ans: d
720. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: a
721. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
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722. The bedding on a cable consists of

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(a) hessian (b)

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(c) any of the above

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Ans: c
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723. The insulating material for cables should
(a) be acid proof (b) be non-inflammable
(c) be non-hygroscopic (d) have all above properties
Ans: d
724. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath is provided.
(a) earthing connection (b) bedding
(c) armouring (d) none of the above
Ans: b
725. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Ans: c
726. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
727. cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage
Ans: d
728. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect cables.
(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables
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Ans: a
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729. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at

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(a) armour
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(b) bedding
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(c) conductor surface

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(d) lead sheath

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Ans: d
730. In single core cables armouring is not done to
(a) avoid excessive sheath losses (b) make it flexible
(c) either of the above (d) none of the above
Ans: a
731. Dielectric strength of rubber is around
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
732. Low tension cables are generally used upto
(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
733. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at
(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
734. High tension cables are generally used upto
(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
735. The surge resistance of cable is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
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(d) 100 ohms

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Ans: c
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736. PVC stands for

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(a) polyvinyl chloride (b) post varnish conductor (c) pressed and varnished cloth
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(d) positive voltage conductor (e) none of the above

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Ans: a
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737. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
738. In capacitance grading of cables we use a dielectric.
(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
739. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
740. The material for armouring on cable is usually
(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire
Ans: c
741. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are
(a) oil
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted
(d) armoured
Ans: a
742. The relative permittivity of rubber is
(a) between 2 and 3 (b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10 (d) between 12 and 14
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Ans: a
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743. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV because

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(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature

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(b) skin effect dominates on the conductor

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(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material

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(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of voids

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Ans: d
744. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance
(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
Ans: c
745. In cables the charging current
(a) lags the voltage by 90°
(b) leads the voltage by 90°
(c) lags the voltage by 180°
(d) leads the voltage by 180°
Ans: b
746. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced by
one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
Ans: a
747. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
748. In the cables, sheaths are used to
(a) prevent th from entering the cable `(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation (d) none of the above
Ans: a
749. The intersheaths in the cables are used to
(a) minimize the stress
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(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation

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(c) provide proper stress distribution

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Ans: c
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750. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is

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(a) same at the conductor and the sheath

(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath
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(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
Ans: c
751. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
Ans: c
752. The insulation of the cable decreases with
(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
(c) either (a) or (b)
Ans: a
753. A cable carrying alternating current has
(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
754. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at
(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
755. Capacitance grading of cable implies
(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to counter the effect of inductance
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Ans: a
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756. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth

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(a) to minimise temperature stresses

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(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil

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(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc.
(d) for all of the above reasons
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Ans: c
757. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is
(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
758. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually
(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
759. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
(a) mica insulated
(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
Ans: c
760. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride (b) Vulcanised rubber (c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas(e) none of the above Ans: d
761. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
762. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
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(d) alloy with chromium

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Ans: a
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763. The insulating material should have

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(b) high resistivity

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(c) high dielectric strength

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Ans: d
764. The advantage of oil filled cables is
(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
Ans: d
765. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
Ans: a
766. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
(a) presence of moisture (b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage (d) all of the above
Ans: d
767. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
768. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is used.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
769. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient 'draw in system' of
laying of underground cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
770. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical trees.
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(a) Yes
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(b) No
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Ans: a
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ELECTRICAL
ENGINEERING
OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTIONS
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
NO OF
UNIT NAME QNS
1A DC GENERATORS 124
1B DC MOTORS 123
2 TRANSFORMERS 135
THREE PHASE INDUCTION
3A MOTORS 101
SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION
3B MOTORS 110
4 SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS 124
TRANSMISSION AND
5A DISTRIBUTION 102
5B CABLES 56
TOTAL 875
1. A. DC GENERATORS
1. Laminations of core are generally made of

(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
2. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of laminations of a D.C.

machine ?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
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Ans: c
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3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to

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(a) reduce the bulk

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(b) provide the bulk

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(c) insulate the core

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(d) reduce eddy current loss

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Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur

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Ans: d
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on

(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
Ans: d
5. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of

(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
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(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
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(c) brazing
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(d) welding
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Ans: b
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9. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction
of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
Ans: b
10. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates

(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor
Ans: b
11. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the
thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated
e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings
Ans: a
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13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

(a) severe sparking
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(b) rough commutator surface

(c) imperfect contact
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Ans: d
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14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors
is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
16. In a four-pole D.C. machine

(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used

(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
18. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator

(a) is amenable to better voltage con-trol
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(b) is more stable

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(c) has exciting current independent of load current

(d) has all above features
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Ans: d
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B
19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

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(a) current
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(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
20. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
23. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of

(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then
induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
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25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen
coils, the pole pitch will be
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(a) 4
(b) 8
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(c) 16
B
(d) 32
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Ans: b
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26. The material for commutator brushes is generally

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors
which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic
neutral axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
30. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is

(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
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(d) none of above

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Ans: a
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31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
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(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover

B
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft

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(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts

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(d) all above
Ans: d
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
33. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in

(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the
voltage
(d) all above
Ans:
34. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is

(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound
(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
35. Welding generator will have

(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
36. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to

(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
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(c) number of armature conductors

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(d) number of armature turns

Ans: a
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37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
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(a) rotary converter

B
(b) mercury are rectifier

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(c) induction motor D.C. generator set

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(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is

(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
39. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is

(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
40. A D.C. welding generator has

(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
Ans: a
41. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?

(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature
winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt generators
Ans: d
42. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator

(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
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(c) reduces interpoles flux density

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(d) results in sparking trouble

Ans: a
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43. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by

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(a) electromagnets
B
(b) permanent magnets

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Ans: a
44. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on

(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
45. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators

(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing
direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
48. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for

(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
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(c) high voltage, low current

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(d) low voltage, low current

Ans: b
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49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature
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while generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A
B
and B will be
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(a) 2 : 3
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(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains
constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon

(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the ad¬jacent pole shoes
Ans:
53. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) non-ferrous material
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
9.63. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires

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(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size

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(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders

(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
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Ans: d
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B
54. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is

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(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is
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(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
Ans: c
55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to increase the generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure
that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
57. D.C. series generator is used

(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose
Ans: c
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any residual
magnetism in the poles
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
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(d) self-excited generator

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Ans: d
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59. Interpole flux should be sufficient to

(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
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(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux

B
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating e.m.f. induced in the
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coil
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(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
60. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries is

(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any of'the above
Ans: c
61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
62. Permeance is the reciprocal of

(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
63. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles

(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f.
Ans: a
64. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to

(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
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(c) number of poles

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Ans: b
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65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral
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axis, when
B
(a) there is no load on|he generator

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(b) the generator runs on full load

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(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the
coil is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed
increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
69. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is

(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
70. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by

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(a) speed limitation

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(b) armature heating

(c) insulation restrictions
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(d) saturation of iron

Ans:
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B
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
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(a) imperfect brush contact

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(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
Ans: b
72. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means

(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature
resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of

(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as
to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies

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(a) along neutral axis

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(b) along field axis

(c) in any of the above positions
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(d) in none of the above positions

Ans: a
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B
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be
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(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt

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(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C. machine

(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
79. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.

(a) Insulation failure between two com-mutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
Ans: d
80. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to

(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
81. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to

(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
82. A D.C. generator can be considered as

(a) rectifier
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(b) primemover
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(c) rotating amplifier

(d) power pump
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Ans: c
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83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f.
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induced is to be utilised is called

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(a) rotor
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(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
84. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of

(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
85. Lap winding is composed of

Ans: a
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
87. An exciter for a turbo generator is a

(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator
Ans: b
88. In case of a flat compounded generator

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(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage

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(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator

(c) voltage remains constant irrespec¬tive of the load
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(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator

Ans: c
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B
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on
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no-load ?
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(b) Shunt generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
Ans: d
91. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) almost zero
(b) less than noload terminal voltage
(c) more than noload terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage
Ans: c
92. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage
Ans: b
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the
following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
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94. In a D.C. generator

(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic - armature reaction
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(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop

(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop - armature reaction
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(d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic

B
Ans: c
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95. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature
voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) willbeof5xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
Ans: b
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit
voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will
be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
99. Armature reaction in a generator results in

(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the centre of all poles
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(d) magnetising the centre of all poles

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Ans: a
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100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would
produce high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its
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own insulation failure.

B
(a) Series field

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(b) Compensating field

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(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans: d
101. Wave winding is composed of

Ans: c
102. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of

(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in
parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
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(b) Series generators

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(c) Compound generators

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Ans: a
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106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for
B
which of the following reasons ?

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(a) The direction of that generator is reversed

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(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads
Ans: d
107. A D.C. generator works on the principle of

(a) Lenz's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
Ans: c
108. A series generator can self-excite

(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero
(c) irrespective of the value of load current
Ans: b
109. A shunt generator can self-excite

(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resis-tance in the field circuit
Ans: a
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the
load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
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(a) will be less than 250 V

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(b) will always be 250 V

(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
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Ans: c
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B
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field
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resistance of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load
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circuit. If their e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V
(b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have
'
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: d
115. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is preferred ?

(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
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117. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by

(a) increasing its field resistance
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(b) decreasing its field resistance

(c) increasing its speed
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(d) decreasing its speed

B
Ans: c
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118. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator having duplex lap
winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
120. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by

(a) external current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
121. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
122. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
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Ans: c
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123. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over
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compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
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(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings

B
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers

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(d) unequal series field resistances

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Ans: a
124. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run,
the first thing to do is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of primemover
(d) check armature insulation resis¬tance
Ans: a
1. B. DC MOTOR
1. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?

(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be preferred ?

(a) Series motor
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(b) Shunt motor

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(c) Differentially compound motor

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Ans: a
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B
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?

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(a) Series motor

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(b) Shunt motor

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(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring

(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
Ans: d
8. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
10. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
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(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially

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(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting

Ans: d
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11. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced

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(a) the speed will increase abruptly

B
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load

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(c) the speed will remain almost/constant

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(d) the speed will reduce
Ans: c
12. A D.C. series motor is that which

(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
13. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because

(a) it limits the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor
Ans: b
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
15. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will

(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy
is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
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(c) any of the above method

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(d) none of the above method

Ans: a
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17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
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(a) more than the normal speed

B
(b) loss than the normal speed

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(c) normal speed

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(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
19. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is

(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
Ans: a
20. A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors

(a) iip to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
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(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors

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Ans: d
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23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the
armature will be
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(a) almost negligible

B
(b) rated full-load current

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(c) less than full-load current

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(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
24. These days D.C. motors are widely used in

(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular
motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
27. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking
Ans: d
28. A three point starter is considered suitable for

(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
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(c) shunt, compound and series motors

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(d) all D.C. motors

Ans: b
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29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the
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efficiency of the motor will be

B
(a) 100%
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(b) around 90%

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(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
30. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of

(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
Ans: b
32. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of
D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated
torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
35. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally

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(a) low
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(b) around 500 Q

(c) 1000 Q
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(d) infinitely large

Ans: a
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B
36. The speed of a D.C. series motor is

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(a) proportional to the armature current

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(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
Ans: d
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the
motor will be equal
to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
Ans: d
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41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
loads?
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(a) Series motor

(b) Shunt motor
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B

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Ans: c
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42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to th£ motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses (d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
43. D.C. series motors are used

(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc'ompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
46. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in

(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
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Ans: d
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47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive
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atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
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(b) Shunt motor

B
(c) Air motor

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(d) Battery operated motor

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Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease
?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better unifor-mity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the mag-netic path
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio
of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
51. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is

(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
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(c) Variable speed operation

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(d) Fixed speed operation

Ans: c
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53. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order of

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(a) 2 to 3 per cent

B
(6) 10 to 15 per cent

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Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
55. Three point starter can be used for

(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor
Ans: d
56. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because

(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
Ans: b
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor,
compound motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
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(b) under compounded

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(c) cumulatively compounded

(d) differentially compounded
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Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is
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required.
B
(a) Single phase capacitor start

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(b) Induction motor

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(d) D.C. motor
Ans: d
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt field suddenly opens

(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the same direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make
use of
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
Ans: a
64. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to

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(a) field flux only

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(b) armature current only

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Ans: b
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B
65. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
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efficiency ?
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(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c
66. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of

(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
(d) colliery winders
Ans: d
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b

(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
Ans: a
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a
heavy current from flowing though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans: a
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70. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by

(a) increasing the resistance in armature circuit
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(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit

(c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
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(d) reducing the resistance in the armature circuit

B
Ans: b
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71. If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. shunt motor is
(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed
by the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(6) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
Ans: b
74. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying

(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
Ans: d
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
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Ans: a
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76. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is changed

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(a) torque will remain constant

(b) torque will change but power will remain constant
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(c) torque and power both will change

B
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change

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Ans: b
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77. Which motor has the poorest speed control?

(a) Differentially compounded motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
78. The plugging gives the

(a) zero torque braking
(b) smallest torque braking
(c) highest torque braking
Ans: c

(a) constant voltage drive
(b) constant current drive
(c) constant torque drive
Ans: c
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next higher
H.P. motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer
following kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
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(c) dynamic braking

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(e) any of the above
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Ans: b
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82. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
B

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(c) Universal motor
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to
square of armature current
Ans: d
85. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators ?

(c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run motor)
(e) Synchronous motor
Ans: c
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and many kinds
of timers ?
(c) Induction motor
Ans: d
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87. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?

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(a) Series motor

(b) Shunt motor
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(d) Differentially compounded motor.
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Ans: a
B
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88. Ward-Leonard control is basically a

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(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method
Ans: a
89. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
90. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by

(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and gen¬erator together
Ans: a
91. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is

(a) high initial cost
(b) high maintenance cost
(c) low efficiency at Hght loads
Ans: d
92. Regenerative method of braking is based on that

(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
Ans: b
93. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on

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(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals

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(b) Maximum value of flux density

(c) Volume and grade of iron
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(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air

Ans: d
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B
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
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(a) Loss of efficiency

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(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have
highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load
current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
Ans: c
97. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon

(a) magnetic field
(b) active length of the conductor
(c) current flow through the conductors
(d) number of conductors
(e) radius of armature
(f) all above factors
Ans: f
98. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving

(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
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Ans: d
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99. In a manual shunt motor starter

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(a) over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
(6) over load relay is connected in paral¬lel and no volt relay in series with the load
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(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
B
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with the load
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Ans: a
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100. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
Ans: d
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a
D.C. generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
104. The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C. generator is

(a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(c) copper losses = 0
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(d) variable losses = constant losses

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Ans: d
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105. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
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(b) rated r.p.m.

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(c) rated voltage

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Ans: a
106. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in

(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors
of large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne's test
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
110. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is conducted at

(a) no-load
(b) part load
(c) full-load
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(d) overload
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Ans: c
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111. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors

(a) motor is run as a generator
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(b) motor is reversed in direction

B
(c) motor is run at reduced speed

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Ans: a
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112. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
Ans: d
113. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators ?

(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
Ans: a
114. In variable speed motor

(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
Ans: b
115. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is

(a) self-induced e.m.f.
(b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
Ans: c
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing
and speed control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
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Ans: a
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117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
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(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
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centrifugal stresses
B
(c) nothing will happen to motor

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(d) motor will come to stop

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Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time
and some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle
and peak value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
Ans: a
121. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in

(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is
possible by
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(a) reducing the field current

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(b) decreasing the armature current

(c) increasing the armature current
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(d) increasing the excitation current

(e) none of the above methods
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Ans: a
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123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and
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driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
Ans: a
2. TRANSFORMERS
1. Which of the following does not change in a transformer ?

(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Frequency
Ans: c
2. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary

(a) through cooling coil
(b) through air
(c) by the flux
Ans: c
3. A transformer core is laminated to

(a) reduce hysteresis loss
(b) reduce eddy current losses
(c) reduce copper losses
(d) reduce all above losses
Ans: b
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4. The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a transformer

in
depends on
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(a) tightness of clamping

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(b) gauge of laminations

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(c) size of laminations

B

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Ans: d
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5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-load
current ?
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent
(b) 2 to 5 per cent
Ans: b
6. The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have

(a) high resistance
(b) high reluctance
(c) low resistance
(d) low reluctance
Ans: d
7. No-load on a transformer is carried out to determine

(a) copper loss
(b) magnetising current
(c) magnetising current and loss
(d) efficiency of the transformer
Ans: c
8. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be

(a) lkV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 100 kV
(d) 330 kV
Ans: b
9. Sumpner's test is conducted on trans-formers to determine

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(a) temperature
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(b) stray losses

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(c) all-day efficiency

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Ans: a
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C
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is around
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(a) 1.7 Wb/m2
(b) 2.7 Wb/m2
(c) 3.7 Wb/m2
(d) 4.7 Wb/m2
Ans: a
The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when

(a) copper losses = hysteresis losses
(c) eddy current losses = copper losses
(d) copper losses = iron losses
Ans: d
12. No-load current in a transformer

(a) lags behind the voltage by about 75°
(b) leads the voltage by about 75°
(c) lags behind the voltage by about 15°
(d) leads the voltage by about 15°
Ans: a
13. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to

(a) provide support to windings
(b) reduce hysteresis loss
(c) decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
(d) reduce eddy current losses
Ans: c
14. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation ?

(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Buchholz relay
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(d) Exciter
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Ans: d
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15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short
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circuited
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(a) High voltage side

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(b) Low voltage side

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(c) Primary side
(d) Secondary side
Ans: b
16. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional area
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: a
17. A transformer transforms

(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: c
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because
(a) there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
(b) a D.C. circuit has more losses
(c) Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux
is zero
Ans: c
19. Primary winding of a transformer

(a) is always a low voltage winding
(b) is always a high voltage winding
(c) could either be a low voltage or high voltage winding
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Ans: c
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20. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns ?

(a) Low voltage winding
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(b) High voltage winding

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(c) Primary winding

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Ans: b
21. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of

(a) 100 per cent
(b) 98 per cent
(c) 50 per cent
(d) 25 per cent
Ans: b
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
Ans: c
23. A common method of cooling a power transformer is

(a) natural air cooling
(b) air blast cooling
(c) oil cooling
Ans: c
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by an angle of
about
(a) 180°
(b) 120"
(c) 90°
(d) 75°
Ans: d
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25. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon

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(a) supply frequency

(b) load current
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(c) power factor of load

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Ans: d
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26. In the transformer the function of a conservator is to

(a) provide fresh air for cooling the transformer
(b) supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need
(c) protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to heating
Ans: c
27. Natural oil cooling is used for transformers upto a rating of

(a) 3000 kVA
(b) 1000 kVA
(c) 500 kVA
(d) 250 kVA
Ans: a
28. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at

(a) nearly full load
(b) 70% full load
(c) 50% full load
(d) no load
Ans: a
29. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is

(a) at no load
(b) at 50% full load
(c) at 80% full load
(d) at full load
Ans: b
30. Transformer breaths in when

(a) load on it increases
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(b) load on it decreases

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(c) load remains constant

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Ans: b
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31. No-load current of a transformer has

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(a) has high magnitude and low power factor

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(b) has high magnitude and high power factor
(c) has small magnitude and high power factor
(d) has small magnitude and low power factor
Ans: d
32. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils

(a) to provide free passage to the cool¬ing oil
(b) to insulate the coils from each other
Ans: a
33. Greater the secondary leakage flux

(a) less will be the secondary induced e.m.f.
(b) less will be the primary induced e.m.f.
(c) less will be the primary terminal voltage
Ans: a
34. The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up transformer is

(a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary
(b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
(c) to decrease the magnitude of mag-netizing current
(d) to provide all above features
Ans: c
35. The power transformer is a constant

(a) voltage device
(b) current device
(c) power device
(d) main flux device
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Ans: d
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36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
(a) leakage reactance
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(b) per unit impedance

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(c) efficiencies
C
(d) ratings
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Ans: b
37. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer and K is the

transformation ratio then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be
(a) R2/VK
(b) R2IK2
(c) R22!K2
(d) R22/K
Ans: b
38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with
regard to polarity ?
(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the power factor of
common load
(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
(c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: b
39. Ifthe percentage impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are different,
then
(a) transformers will be overheated
(b) power factors of both the trans-formers will be same
(c) parallel operation will be not possible
(d) parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which the two
transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the common load
Ans: d
40. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on

(a) primary side
(b) secondary side
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(c) low voltage side

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(d) high voltage side

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Ans: c
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41. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design

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(a) reduces weight per kVA

C
(6) reduces iron losses

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(c) reduces copper losses
(d) increases part load efficiency
Ans: a
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of
(a) ionizing air
(b) absorbing moisture
(c) cleansing the transformer oil
(d) cooling the transformer oil.
Ans: b
43. The chemical used in breather is

(a) asbestos fibre
(b) silica sand
(c) sodium chloride
(d) silica gel
Ans: d
44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary inductances. The
statement is
(a) true
(b) false
Ans: b
45. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of

(a) volts
(b) amperes
(c) kW
(d) kVA
Ans: d
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46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic forces, is termed as
in
(a) magnetostrication
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(b) boo
(c) hum
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(d) zoom
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Ans: c
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47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as CBmax = maximum flux density)
(a) Bmax
(b) Bmax1-6
(C) Bmax1-83
(d) B max
Ans: b
48. Material used for construction of transformer core is usually

(a) wood
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) silicon steel
Ans: d
49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is usually

(a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm
(b) 4 mm to 5 mm
(c) 14 mm to 15 mm
(d) 25 mm to 40 mm
Ans: a
50. The function of conservator in a transformer is

(a) to project against'internal fault
(b) to reduce copper as well as core losses
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation of
temperature of sur-roundings
Ans: d
51. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is

(a) 33 kV.
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(6) 66 kV
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(c) 132 kV
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(d) 400 kV
Ans: d
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52. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is

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(a) zero
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(b) 1 ohm
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) infinite
Ans: d
53. A transformer oil must be free from

(a) sludge
(b) odour
(c) gases
(d) moisture
Ans: d
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on

(a) auto-transformers
(b) air-cooled transformers
(c) welding transformers
(d) oil cooled transformers
Ans: d
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil unless the oil
temperature exceeds
(a) 50°C
(b) 80°C
(c) 100°C
(d) 150°C
Ans: d
56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer could be

(a) fluctuating load
(b) poor insulation
(c) mechanical vibrations
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(d) saturation of core

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Ans: d
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57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum efficiency around
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(a) 90% load

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(b) zero load

C
(c) 25% load

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(d) 50% load
Ans: d
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the material for
transformer core ?
(a) Mechanical strength
(6) Low hysteresis loss
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High permeability
Ans: c
59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when

(a) load is unbalanced only
(b) load is balanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
Ans: b
60. Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when

(a) load is balanced only
(b) load is unbalanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
Ans: c
61. Buchholz's relay gives warning and protection against

(a) electrical fault inside the transformer itself
(b) electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
(c) for both outside and inside faults
Ans: a
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62. The magnetising current of a transformer is usually small because it has

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(a) small air gap

(b) large leakage flux
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(c) laminated silicon steel core

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(d) fewer rotating parts

C
Ans: a
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63. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer ?

(a) Frequency
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
Ans: a
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for
transformer core ?
(a) Low hysteresis loss
(b) High permeability
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Adequate mechanical strength
Ans: c
65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon

(a) load current
(b) load current and voltage
(c) load current, voltage and frequency
(d) load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
Ans: a
66. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have

(a) high reluctance
(b) low reactance
(c) high resistance
(d) low resistance
Ans: b
67. Noise level test in a transformer is a

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(a) special test

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(b) routine test

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(c) type test

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Ans: c
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C
68. Which of the foJIowing is not a routine test on transformers ?

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(a) Core insulation voltage test
(b) Impedance test
(c) Radio interference test
(d) Polarity test
Ans: c
69. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at

(a) leading power factor
(b) lagging power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) zero power factor
Ans: a
70. Helical coils can be used on

(a) low voltage side of high kVA trans¬formers
(b) high frequency transformers
(c) high voltage side of small capacity transformers
(d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Ans: a
71. Harmonics in transformer result in

(a) increased core losses
(b) increased I2R losses
(c) magnetic interference with communication circuits
Ans: d
72. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually

(a) copper core
(b) cost iron core
(c) air core
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(d) mild steel core

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Ans: c
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73. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will
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be
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(a) 6400 W
C
(b) 1600 W
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(c) 800 W
(d) 400 W
Ans: d
1.74. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. equation of a transformer is

(a) average value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) maximum value
(d) instantaneous value
Ans: c
L.75. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces

(a) hysteresis loss
(c) copper losses
Ans: a
76. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area ?

(a) Primary winding
(b) Secondary winding
(c) Low voltage winding
(d) High voltage winding
Ans: d
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload
Ans: c
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.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two
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winding transformer ?
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
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(b) Saving in winding material

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(c) Copper losses are negligible

C
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated

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Ans: b
79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
(a) the current on secondary side is negligible
(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
Ans: c
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal
percentage impedance. This is likely to result in
(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries
(b) power factor of one of the trans¬formers is leading while that of the other lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
(d) loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric
temperature during day and
night is taken care of by which part of transformer
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
(d) Buchholz relay
Ans: a
82. An ideal transformer is one which has

(a) no losses and magnetic leakage
(b) interleaved primary and secondary windings
(c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
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Ans: a
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83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
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(a) flux density remains unaffected

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(b) iron losses are reduced

C
(c) core flux density is reduced

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(d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from noload to
fullload because
(a) value of transformation ratio remains constant
(b) permeability of transformer core remains constant
(c) core flux remains practically constant
(d) primary voltage remains constant
(c) secondary voltage remains constant
Ans: c
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that
(a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) copper loss > iron loss
Ans: a
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,"the iron loss will
(a) not change
(b) decrease
(c) increase
Ans: c
87. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the load is

(a) capacitive only
(b) inductive only
(c) inductive or resistive
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Ans: a
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88. Iron loss of a transformer can be measured by

(a) low power factor wattmeter
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(b) unity power factor wattmeter

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(c) frequency meter

C
(d) any type of wattmeter

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Ans: a
89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron core will be
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a
90. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by

(a) mica strip
(6) thin coat of varnish
(c) paper
Ans: b
91. Which type of winding is used in 3phase shell-type transformer ?

(a) Circular type
(b) Sandwich type
(c) Cylindrical type
(d) Rectangular type
Ans: b
92. During open circuit test of a transformer

(a) primary is supplied rated voltage
(b) primary is supplied full-load current
(c) primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
(d) primary is supplied rated kVA
Ans: a
93. Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

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(b) copper losses

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(c) core losses

(d) eddy current losses
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Ans: c
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C
94. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

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(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: b
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is necessary that they should
have
(a) same efficiency
(b) same polarity
(c) same kVA rating
(d) same number of turns on the secondary side.
Ans: b
96. The transformer oil should have _____ volatility and _____ viscosity.
(a) low,low
(b) high,high
(c) low,high
(d) high,low
Ans: a
97. The function of breather in a transformer is

(a) to provide oxygen inside the tank
(b) to cool the coils during reduced load
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
Ans: d
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed ?
(a) Step-up transformer
(b) Step-down transformer
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(c) Potential transformer

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(d) Current transformer

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Ans: d
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99. The size of a transformer core will depend on

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(a) frequency
C
(b) area of the core

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(c) flux density of the core material
(d) (a) and (b) both
Ans: d
100. N atural air coo ling is generally restricted for transformers up to

(a) 1.5 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 15 MVA
(d) 50 MVA
Ans: a
101. A shell-type transformer has

(a) high eddy current losses
(b) reduced magnetic leakage
(c) negligibly hysteresis losses
Ans: b
102. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero

(a) on full-load
(b) on overload
(c) on leading power factor
(d) on zero power factor
Ans: c
103. A transformer transforms

(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) current and voltage
(d) power
Ans: d
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104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply in India ?
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(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
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(c) 66 kV
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(d) 122 kV
C
Ans: d
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105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are obtained with transformer
employing
(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
Ans: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end turns are heavily
insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by the shunting
capacitance of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of transformer from damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer from damage
Ans: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the applied voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in trans formers
are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
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Ans: a
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109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
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(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses

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(b) friction and windage losses

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(c) copper losses

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Ans: a
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase transformer having
a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
(c) Its rating is 2 kVA
(d) Its secondary current is 20 A
(e) It is a step-up transformer
Ans: d
111 The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited under operating

conditions because it
(a) avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
(b) is safe to human beings
(c) protects the primary circuit
Ans: a
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary should be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Ans: d
113. A good voltage regulation of a transformer means

(a) output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least
(b) output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least
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(c) difference between primary and secondary voltage is least

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Ans: a
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114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur
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at
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(a) 0.8 leading power factor

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(b) 0.8 lagging power factor
(c) zero power factor
(d) unity power factor
Ans: d
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution
transformers ?
(a) Overfluxing protection
(b) Buchholz relay
(c) Overcurrent protection
Ans: b
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to
lightning and switching ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Thermal overload relays
(c) Breather
(d) Conservator
Ans: a
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be
determined by
(a) short-circuit test
(b) back-to-back test
(c) open circuit test
Ans: b
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the highest temperature
safely ?
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(a) Cellulose
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(b) Asbestos
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(c) Mica
(d) Glass fibre
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Ans: c
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C
119. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from outside ?

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(a) Bushings
(b) Core
(c) Primary winding
Ans: a
120. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as

(a) zoom
(b) hum
(c) ringing
(d) buzz
Ans: b
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load ?
(a) Core loss
(b) Friction loss
(c) Eddy current loss
(d) Hysteresis loss
Ans: b
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer ?
(a) poor insulation
(b) Overload
(c) loose connections
(d) Core saturation
Ans: d
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur
in
(a) core
(b) windings
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(c) tank
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Ans: b
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124. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to

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(a) load changes

C
(b) oil in the transformer

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(c) magnetostriction
(d) mechanical vibrations
Ans: c
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by its
(a) temperature rise
(b) dielectric strength of oil
(c) voltage ratio
(d) copper loss
Ans: c
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low because
(a) copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
(b) iron loss is increased considerably
(c) voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
(d) secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Ans: a
127. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to measure

(a) insulation resistance
(b) copper loss
(c) core loss
(d) total loss
(e) efficiency
(f) none of the above
Ans: c
128. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine

(a) core loss
(b) copper loss
(c) efficiency
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(d) magnetising current

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(e) magnetising current and loss

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Ans: e
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129. The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is equal to the ratio of

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(a) primary turns to secondary turns

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(b) secondary current to primary current

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(c) secondary induced e.m.f. to primary induced e.m.f.
(d) secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage
Ans: c
130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is
(a) iron core
(b) copper winding
(c) winding insulation
(d) frame or case
(e) transformer tank
Ans: c
131. If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than the rated voltage

(a) its power factor will deteriorate
(b) its power factor will increase
(c) its power factor will remain unaffected
(d) its power factor will be zero
Ans: a
132. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its
transformation ratio is
(a) approximately equal to one
(b) less than one
(c) great than one
Ans: a
133. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
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(d) zero
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Ans: c
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134. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load current. This results
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in change of supply current of

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(a) less than 15 A

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(b) more than 15 A

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(c) 15 A
Ans: a
135. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric motors of the same
power are
(a) about the same
(6) much smaller
(c) much higher
(d) somewhat smaller
Ans: c
3. A. THREE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS
1. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel ?

(a) Bearings
(b) Shaft
(c) Statorcore
Ans: c
2. The frame of an induction motor is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) cast iron
(c) aluminium
(d) bronze
Ans: b
3. The shaft of an induction motor is made of

(a) stiff
(b) flexible
(c) hollow
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Ans: a
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4. The shaft of an induction motor is made of

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(a) high speed steel

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B
(b) stainless steel

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(c) carbon steel

C
(d) cast iron

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Ans: c
5. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally

(a) less than 1%
(b) 1.5%
(c) 2%
(d) 4%
Ans: a
6. In medium sized induction motors, the slip is generally around

(a) 0.04%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 4%
(d) 14%
Ans: c
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in order
to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Ans: d
8. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased

(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase
(d) the windage losses will increase
Ans: b
9. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) copper
(b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
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(d) aluminium
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Ans: c
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10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will
be
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(a) 200 Hz
B
(b) 50 Hz
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(c) 2 Hz
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(d) 0.2 Hz
Ans: c
11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an
induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Ans: c
The efficiency of an induction motor can be expected to be nearly

(a) 60 to 90%
(b) 80 to 90%
(c) 95 to 98%
(d) 99%
Ans: b
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
Ans: d
14. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is

(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full-load torque
(d) slightly more than full-load torque
Ans: a
15. A double squirrel-cage induction motor has

(a) two rotors moving in oppsite direction
(b) two parallel windings in stator
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(c) two parallel windings in rotor

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(d) two series windings in stator

Ans: c
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16. Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of

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(a) single phase motors

B
(b) variable speed motors

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(c) low horse power motors

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(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
17. The term 'cogging' is associated with

(a) three phase transformers
(b) compound generators
(c) D.C. series motors
(d) induction motors
Ans: d
18. In case of the induction motors the torque is

(a) inversely proportional to (Vslip)
(b) directly proportional to (slip)2
(c) inversely proportional to slip
(d) directly proportional to slip
Ans: d
19. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have

(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Ans: b
20. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux
density in the air gap is
(a) absent
(b) small
(c) large
(d) infinity
Ans: b
21. An induction motor is identical to

(a) D.C. compound motor
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(c) synchronous motor

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(d) asynchronous motor

Ans: d
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22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
B
(a) zero frequency

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(b) the same frequency as the slip fre-quency

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(c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
(d) high value for the satisfactory speed control
Ans: b
23. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the
squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Ans: a
24. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by

(a) low voltage supply
(b) high loads
(c) harmonics develped in the motor
(d) improper design of the machine
Ans: c
25. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to start cage induction
motor of the following type
(a) star connected only
(b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both
Ans: c
26. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with autostarter is
(a) k/torque with direct switching
(6) K x torque with direct switching
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching
(d) k2/torque with direct switching
Ans: c
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27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of doouble squirrel-cage induction motor is
in
constructed the two cages can be

considered
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(a) in series
(b) in parallel
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(c) in series-parallel
B
(d) in parallel with stator

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Ans: b
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28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: a
29. Stepless speed control of induction motor is possible by which of the following
methods ?
(a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
(b) Changing the number of poles
(c) Cascade operation
Ans: b
30. Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is used for

(a) squirrel-cage induction motors only
(b) slip ring induction motors only
Ans: b
31. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the circle represents
(a) slip
(b) rotor current
(c) running torque
(d) line voltage
Ans: b
32. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side ?
(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
(b) Slip-ring induction motor
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Ans: b
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33. If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged

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(a) the motor will run in reverse direction

(b) the motor will run at reduced speed
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(c) the motor will not run

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(d) the motor will burn

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Ans: a
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34. An induction motor is

(a) self-starting with zero torque
(b) self-starting with high torque
(c) self-starting with low torque
(d) non-self starting
Ans: c
35. The maximum torque in an induction motor depends on

(a) frequency
(b) rotor inductive reactance
(c) square of supply voltage
Ans: d
36. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors

(a) rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings
(b) rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings
(c) rotor conductors are kept open
(d) rotor conductors are connected to insulation
Ans: b
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Ans: d
38. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to

(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
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39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following
except
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(a) changing supply frequency

(b) changing number of poles
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(c) changing winding resistance

B
(d) reducing supply voltage

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Ans: c
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40. The 'crawling" in an induction motor is caused by

(a) high loads
(6) low voltage supply
(c) improper design of machine
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
Ans: d
41. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to
(a) 0.2 lagging
(b) 0.2 leading
(c) 0.5 leading
(d) unity
Ans: a
42. The 'cogging' of an induction motor can be avoided by

(a) proper ventilation
(b) using DOL starter
(c) auto-transformer starter
(d) having number of rotor slots more or less than the number of stator slots (not equal)
Ans: d
43. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the
normal speed, the phenomenon will be termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
Ans: c
44. Slip of an induction motor is negative when

(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the syn-chronous speed of the field and are in the same
direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the syn-chronous speed of the field and are in the same
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direction
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Ans: c
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45. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motorfor the same H.P. will be
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(a) bigger
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(b) smaller
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(c) same
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Ans: b
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: a
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the
motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: c
48. Low voltage at motor terminals is due to

(a) inadequate motor wiring
(b) poorely regulated power supply
(c) any one of the above
Ans: c
49. In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and rotor slots is that
(a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots
(c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots
Ans: c
50. Slip ring motor is recommended where

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(a) speed control is required

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(6) frequent starting, stopping and reversing is required

(c) high starting torque is needed
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(d) all above features are required

Ans: d
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B
51. As load on an induction motor goes on increasing

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(a) its power factor goes on decreasing

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(b) its power factor remains constant
(c) its power factor goes on increasing even after full load
(d) its power factor goes on increasing upto full load and then it falls again
Ans: d
52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short circuited rotor will move
(a) in the opposite direction as the direction of the rotating field
(b) in the same direction as the direction of the field
(c) in any direction depending upon phase squence of supply
Ans: b
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) it will run in reverse direction
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) motor takes five to seven times its fullload current
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: c
54. The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble the speedload
characteristics of which of the
following machines
(c) universal motor
Ans: b
55. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft
?
(a) Ball bearings
(b) Cast iron bearings
(c) Bush bearings
Ans: a
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56. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 30% lower than its rated voltage.
in
The pump runs. What will

eventually happen ? It will
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(a) stall after sometime

(b) stall immediately
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(c) continue to run at lower speed without damage

B
(d) get heated and subsequently get damaged

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Ans: d
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57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for the following r.p.m.
Which motor will be the
costliest ?
(a) 730 r.p.m.
(b) 960 r.p.m.
(c) 1440 r.p.m.
(d) 2880 r.p.m.
Ans: a
58. A 3-phase slip ring motor has

(a) double cage rotor
(6) wound rotor
(c) short-circuited rotor
Ans: b
59. The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is

(a) twice the full load torque
(b) 1.5 times the full load torque
(c) equal to full load torque
Ans: b
60. Short-circuit test on an induction motor cannot be used to determine

(a) windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) transformation ratio
(d) power scale of circle diagram
Ans: a
61. In a three-phase induction motor

(a) iron losses in stator will be negligible as compared to that in rotor
(6) iron losses in motor will be neg¬ligible as compared to that in rotor
(c) iron losses in stator will be less than that in rotor
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(d) iron losses in stator will be more than that in rotor

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Ans: d
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62. In case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging means

(a) pulling the motor directly on line without a starter
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(b) locking of rotor due to harmonics

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(c) starting the motor on load which is more than the rated load
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(d) interchanging two supply phases for quick stopping

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Ans: d
63. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram for an induction
motor ?
(a) Block rotor test only
(b) No load test only
(c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test
Ans: d
64. In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are placed deep in the rotor
to
(a) improve starting torque
(b) reduce copper losses
(c) improve efficiency
(d) improve power factor
Ans: a
65. In a three-phase induction motor

(a) power factor at starting is high as compared to that while running
(b) power factor at starting is low as compared to that while running
(c) power factor at starting in the same as that while running
Ans: b
66. The vafcie of transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found by

(a) open-circuit test only
(b) short-circuit test only
(c) stator resistance test
Ans: b
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found from
(a) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only
(c) short-circuit test only
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(d) noue of the above

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Ans: c
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68. The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is

(a) parabola
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(b) hyperbola
B
(c) rectangular parabola

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(d) straigth line

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Ans: c
69. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of

appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque
(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
Ans: d
70. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by adding
(a) external inductance to the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor
(c) external capacitance to the rotor
(d) both resistance and inductance to rotor
Ans: b
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on
full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Ans: d
72. The complete circle diagram of induetion motor can be drawn with the help of data
found from
(a) noload test
(6) blocked rotor test
(c) stator resistance test
Ans: d
73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually given slight skew
(a) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
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(b) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars

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(c) to ensure easy fabrication

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Ans: a
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74. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is maximum
B
(a) at the unit value of slip

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(b) at the zero value of slip

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(c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to the resistance
per phase
(d) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor
Ans: c
75. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of
the induction motor is zero ?
(a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
(b) The rotor will not run
(c) The rotor will run at very high speed
(d) The torque produced will be very large
Ans: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be used to determine
(a) efficiency
(b) power factor
(c) frequency
(d) output
Ans: a
77. Blocked rotor test on induction motors is used to find out

(a) leakage reactance
(b) power factor on short circuit
(c) short-circuit current under rated voltage
Ans: d
78. Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually

(a) graphite
(b) grease
(c) mineral oil
(d) molasses
Ans: b
79. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when

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(a) it is run on load

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(b) it is run in reverse direction

(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
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(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit

Ans: d
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B
80. Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases exist ?
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(a) Air motor

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(b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
Ans: a
81. The torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor least depends on

(a) rotor current
(b) rotor power factor
(c) rotor e.m.f.
(d) shaft diameter
Ans: d
82. In an induction motor if air-gap is increased

(a) the power factor will be low
(b) windage losses will be more
(c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction motor
Ans: a
83. In induction motor, percentage slip depends on

(a) supply frequency
(b) supply voltage
(c) copper losses in motor
Ans: c
84. When /?2 is tne rotor resistance, .X2 the

rotor reactance at supply frequency
and s the slip, then the condition for maximum torque under running condi-tions will be
(a) sR2X2 = 1 (b) sR2 = X2
(c) R2 = sX2 id) R2 = s2X2
Ans: c
85. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has
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(a) high inductance arid low resistance

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(b) low inductance and high resistance

(c) low inductance and low resistance
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(d) high inductance and high resis¬tance

Ans: a
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B
86. The low power factor of induction motor is due to

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(a) rotor leakage reactance

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(b) stator reactance
(c) the reactive lagging magnetizing current necessary to generate the magnetic flux
Ans: d
87. Insertion of reactance in the rotor circuit

(a) reduces starting torque as well as maximum torque
(b) increases starting torque as well as maximum torque
(c) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque remains unchanged
(d) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque decreases
Ans: a
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an induction motor to develop a given torque
(a) decreases the rotor current
(b) increases the rotor current
(c) rotor current becomes zero
(d) rotor current rernains same
Ans: d
89. For driving high inertia loods best type of induction motor suggested is
(a) slip ring type
(b) squirrel cage type
Ans: a
90. Temperature of the stator winding of a three phase induction motor is obtained by
(a) resistance rise method
(b) thermometer method
(c) embedded temperature method
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
91. The purpose of using short-circuit gear is

(a) to short circuit the rotor at slip rings
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(b) to short circuit the starting resis¬tances in the starter

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(c) to short circuit the stator phase of motor to form star

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Ans: a
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92. In a squirrel cage motor the induced e.m.f. is

B
(a) dependent on the shaft loading

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(b) dependent on the number of slots

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(c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in the rotor
Ans: c
93. Less maintenance troubles are experienced in case of

(a) slip ring induction motor
(6) squirrel cage induction motor
Ans: b
94. A squirrel cage induction motor is not selected when

(a) initial cost is the main consideration
(b) maintenance cost is to be kept low
(c) higher starting torque is the main consideration
(d) all above considerations are involved
Ans: c
95. Reduced voltage starter can be used with

(a) slip ring motor only but not with squirrel cage induction motor
(b) squirrel cage induction motor only but not with slip ring motor
(c) squirrel cage as well as slip ring induction motor
Ans: c
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor where
(a) high starting torque is required
(b) load torque is heavy
(c) heavy pull out torque is required
Ans: a
97. In a star-delta starter of an induction motor

(a) resistance is inserted in the stator
(b) reduced voltage is applied to the stator
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(c) resistance is inserted in the rotor

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(d) applied voltage per1 stator phase is 57.7% of the line voltage
Ans: d
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98. The torque of an induction motor is

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(a) directly proportional to slip

B
(b) inversely proportional to slip

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(c) proportional to the square of the slip

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Ans: a
99. The rotor of an induction motor runs at

(a) synchronous speed
(b) below synchronous speed
(c) above synchronous speed
Ans: b
100. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by
(a) increasing slip
(b) increasing current
Ans: c
101. Insertion of resistance in the stator of an induction motor

(a) increases the load torque
(b) decreases the starting torque
(c) increases the starting torque
Ans: b
3. B. SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS
1. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have

(a) high resistance and low inductance
(b) low resistance and high inductance
(c) high resistance as well as high inductance
(d) low resistance as well as low inductiance
Ans: b
2. If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-circuited

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(a) the motor will not start

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(b) the motor will run

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(c) the motor will run in reverse direction

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(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
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Ans: a
B
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3. In capacitor start single-phase motors

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(a) current in the starting winding leads the voltage

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(b) current in the starting winding lags the voltage
(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage in running winding
Ans: a
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in series with
the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement between starting and running
winding can be nearly
(a) 10°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Ans: d
6. In a split phase motor

(a) the starting winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(b) the running winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(c) both starting and running windings are connected through a centrifugal switch
(d) centrifugal switch is used to control supply voltage
Ans: a
7. The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at starting is

(a) more than i.he rated torque
(b) rated torque
(c) less than the rated torque
(d) zero
Ans: d
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8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque ?
in
(a) Capacitor start motor

(b) Capacitor run motor
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(c) Split phase motor

(d) Shaded pole motor
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Ans: a
B
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9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power factor ?
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(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Split phase motor
Ans: a
10. In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually consist of

(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with running winding
(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is short-circuited and carries only induced
current
(c) a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel with running winding
Ans: b
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced by the use of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to disconnect 'starting winding when motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed
(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque, then which of the
following motor will be
preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
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Ans: a
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14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor will be
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(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
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(c) 300 uF
B
(d) 400 uF
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Ans: c
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15. In repulsion motor direction of rotation of motor

(a) is opposite to that of brush shift
(b) is the same as that of brush shift
(c) is independent of brush shift
Ans: b
16. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch

(a) disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
(b) disconnects main winding of the motor
(c) reconnects the main winding the motor
(d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: a
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is found to be
ground. Most probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on to supply with its
capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
19. Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?

(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
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Ans: d
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20. Which of the following motors is inherently self starting ?

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(a) Split motor

(b) Shaded-pole motor
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(c) Reluctance motor

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(d) None of these

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Ans: b
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21. The direction of rotation of an hysteresis motor is determined by

(a) interchanging the supply leads
(b) position of shaded pole with respect to main pole
(c) retentivity of the rotor material
(d) none of these
Ans: b
22. Burning out of windings is due to

(a) short circuited capacitor
(b) capacitor value hiving changed
(c) open circuiting of capacitor
Ans: a
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the
connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
24. Short-circuiter is used in

(a) repulsion induction motor
(b) repulsion motor
(c) repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: c
25. The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is

(a) 95% to 99%
(b) 80% to 90%
(c) 50% to 75%
(d) 5% to 35%
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Ans: d
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26. In a capacitor start single-phase motor, when capacitor is replaced by a resistance

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(a) torque will increase

(b) the motor will consume less power
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(c) motor will run in reverse direction

B
(d) motor will continue to run in same direction

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Ans: d
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27. The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is usually

(a) lagging
(b) always leading
(c) unity
(d) unity to 0.8 leading
Ans: a
28. A shaded pole motor can be used for

(a) toys
(b) hair dryers
(c) circulators
Ans: d
29. A hysteresis motor works on the principle of

(a) hysteresis loss
(b) magnetisation of rotor
(c) eddy current loss
(d) electromagnetic induction
Ans: a
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest starting torque ?
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
31. For which of the applications a reluctance motor is preferred ?

(a) Electric shavers
(b) Refrigerators
(c) Signalling and timing devices
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: c
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32. The motor used on small lathes is usually

(a) universal motor
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(c) single-phase capacitor run motor
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(d) 3-phase synchronous motor

B
Ans: c
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33. Which of the following motors is preferred for tape-recorders ?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Two value capacitor motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
34. A single-phase induction motor is

(a) inherently self-starting with high torque
(b) inherently self-starting with low torque
(c) inherently non-self-starting with low torque
(d) inherently non-self-starting with high torque
Ans: c
35. A schrage motor can run on

(a) zero slip
(b) negative slip
(c) positive slip
Ans: d
36. A universal motor can run on

(a) A.C. only
(6) D.C. only
(c) either A.C. or D.C.
Ans: c
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing and control
purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
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38. Single phase induction motor usually operates on

(a) 0.6 power factor lagging
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(b) 0.8 power factor lagging

(c) 0.8 power factor leading
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(d) unity power factor

B
Ans: a
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39. In split-phase motor iauxiliary winding is of
(a) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(b) thick wire placed at the top of the slots
(c) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(d) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
Ans: c
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running purposes is
(a) air capacitor
(b) paper spaced oilfilled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C. supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
Ans: a
43. In A.C. series motor compensating winding is employed to

(a) reduce the effects of armature reaction
(b) increase the torque
(c) reduce sparking at the brushes
Ans: c
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44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is generally used in time
in
phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
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(b) Capacitor start capacitor run

(c) Shaded pole
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(d) Universal
B
Ans: c
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45. Which of the following motors has highest starting torque ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Shaped pole motor
(c) Capacitor-start motor
(d) Split-phase motor
Ans: c
46. The repulsion-start induction-run motor is used because of

(a) good power factor
(b) high efficiency
(c) minimum cost
(d) high starting torque
Ans: d
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the motor is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs more attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
(d) Balancing of rotor
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
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50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will be around
in
(a) 100 to 150 W

(b) 40 to 75 W
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(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
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Ans: a
B
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51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor starting torque ?
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(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Capacitor motor
(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque
Ans: c
52. Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists ?

(a) Gradually varying load
(b) Non-reversing, no-load start
(c) Reversing, light start
(d) Reversing, heavy start
Ans: d
53. The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by using

(a) gear trains
(b) V-belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power factor will be low
because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
Ans: a
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56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by reversing the flow
in
of current through
(a) armature winding
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(b) field winding

(c) either armature winding or field winding
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B
Ans: c
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57. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?
(a) Split phase motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations therefore
these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
60. A reluctance motor

(a) is self-starting
(b) is constant speed motor
(c) needs no D.C. excitation
Ans: d
61. In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must have

(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) susceptibility
Ans: a
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62. The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of

(a) aluminium
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(b) cast iron

(c) chrome steel
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(d) copper
B
Ans: c
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63. The electric motor used in portable drills is
(a) capacitor run motor
(b) hysteresis motor
(c) universal motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load whenever switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors
(c) Pistol drills
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
66. Torque developed by a single phase induction motor at starting is

(a) pulsating
(b) uniform
(c) none of the above
(d) nil
Ans: d
67. In split phase motor main winding is of

(a) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(b) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(c) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(d) thick wire placed at the top of the" slots
Ans: c
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68. In repulsion motor, maximum torque is developed when

in
(a) brush axis is at 45° electrical to the field axis

(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
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(c) brush axis is at 90° electrical to the field axis

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Ans: a
B
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69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of synchronous speed of
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motor, it would result in
(a) damage to the starting winding
(b) damage to the centrifugal switch
(c) overloading of running winding
Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is similar to that of a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
71. In a ceilingfan employing capacitor run motor

(a) secondary winding surrounds the primary winding
(b) primary winding surrounds the secondary winding
(c) both are usual arrangements
Ans: a
72. The shaded pole motor is used for

(c) medium starting torque
(d) very high starting torque
Ans: b
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel to the shaft
because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
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74. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor is same as that of

(a) A.C. motor
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(c) D.C. series motor
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B
Ans: c
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75. The purpose of stator winding in the compensated repulsion motor is to
(a) provide mechanical balance
(b) improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
(c) prevent hunting in the motor
(d) eliminate armature reaction
Ans: b
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
Ans: b
77. The motor used for the compressors is

(a) d.c. series motor
(b) shaded pole motor
(c) capacitor-start capacitor-run motor
(d) reluctance motor
Ans: c
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load increases with speed ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Three-phase series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
79. In repulsion motor, zero torque is developed when

(a) brush axis is 45° electrical to field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is 90° electrical to field axis
Ans: d
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80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor at about ____
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percent of synchronous speed

(a) 30 to 40
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(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
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(d) 100
B
Ans: b
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81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is disconnected from the
circuit by means of a
(a) magnetic relay
(b) thermal relay
(c) centrifugal switch
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the most likely defect is
(a) worn bearings
(b) short-circuit in the winding
(c) open-circuit in the winding
Ans: a
83. Which of the following motors is used in tape-recorders ?

(a) Hysteresis motor
(c) Capacitor-run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor where frequent
reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rush¬ing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small
home air-conditioners
because
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost non-destructible capacitor
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(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high power factor
in
(d) it is quiet in operation

Ans: c
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86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two capacitors fails to
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open then
B
(a) motor will not come upto speed

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(b) motor will not carry the load

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(c) current drawn by the motor will be excessively high
(d) electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability, suffer break down
Ans: d
87. In a universal motor, the most common cause of brush sparking is

(a) open armature winding
(b) shorted armature winding
(c) shorted field winding"
(d) high commutator mica
Ans: e
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower
Ans: c
89. Most of the fractional horsepower motors have either

(a) hard and annealed bearings
(b) ball or roller bearings
(c) soft and porous bearings
(d) plain or sleeve bearings
Ans: d
90. Which of the following statements regarding reluctance-start motor is incorrect ?

(a) It is similar to reluctance motor
(b) It is basically an induction motor and not a synchronous one
(c) So far as its basic working principle is concerned, it is similar to shaded pole motor
(d) the air-gap between rotor and salient poles is non- uniform
Ans: a
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor while it is running we
should
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(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to supply with
in
reversed connection of main or auxiliary winding

(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to supply with reversed
@
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connections of the main winding

(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and after motor comes to
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rest then connect auxiliary winding to the supply

B
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and im-mediately
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connect it to supply
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Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that it cannot maintain
synchronous speed the motor will
(a) become unstable
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: b
94. A shaded pole motor does not possess

(a) centrifugal switch
(b) capacitor
(c) commutator
Ans: d
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors
(d) solidly
Ans: a
96. Which of the following statements regarding a reluctance motor is incorrect ?

(a) It cannot be reversed, ordinarily
(b) It requires no D.C. field excitation for its operation
(c) It is nothing else but a single-phase, salient pole synchronous-induction motor
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(d) Its squirrel cage-rotor is of unsym-metrical magnetic construction in order to vary

in
reluctance path bet¬ween stator and rotor

Ans: a
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97. A universal motor is one which

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(a) can be operated either on D.C. or A.C. supply at approximately the same speed and
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output
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(b) can be marketed internationally

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(c) runs at dangerously high speed on no-load
Ans: a
98. A repulsion motor is equipped with

(a) slip rings
(b) commutator
Ans: b
99. The capacitors used in single-phase capacitor motors have no

(a) voltage rating
(b) dielectric medium
(c) polarity marking
(d) definite value
Ans: c
100. If a D.C. series motor is operated on A.C. supply, it will

(a) spark excessively
(b) have poor efficiency
(c) have poor power factor
Ans: d
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is disconnected from
supply, it continues to run only on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
102. Which of the following statements regarding repulsion-start induction motor is

incorrect ?
(a) It requires more maintenance of commutator and other mechanical devices
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(b) It makes quite a bit of noise on starting

in
(c) In fractional horse power motors, it has replaced the capacitor motors
(d) It is not easily reversed
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Ans: c
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103. A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series motor has

B
(a) smaller brush width

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(b) less number of field turns

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(c) more number of armature turns
(d) less air gap
Ans: e
104. Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is

(a) equal to full load current
(b) less than full load current
(c) slightly more than full load current
(d) several times the full load current
Ans: c
105. Speed control of a universal motor is achieved by

(a) varying field flux with tapped field windings
(b) connecting rheostat in series
(c) applying variable voltage by means of silicon controlled rectifier
(d) applying variable voltage by means of variable auto-transformer
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
106. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record players and tape-
recorders because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes of upto 1 W output
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in amplitude and phase
Ans: d
107. Which of the following statements regarding hysteresis motor is in incorrect ?

(a) It is extremely sensitive to fluctuations in supply voltage
(b) Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor hysteresis loss
(c) It is extremely quiet in operation
(d) It accelerates from rest to full-speed almost instantaneously
Ans: a
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108. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase induction motoris correct
in
?
(a) It requires only one winding
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(b) It can rotate in one direction only

(c) It is self-starting
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(d) It is not self-starting

B
Ans: d
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109. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
110. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by using

(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
4. SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS
1. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because

(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Ans: b
2. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
3. A pony motor is basically a

(a) small induction motor
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(c) D.C. shunt motor

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(d) double winding A.C./D.C. motor

@
Ans: a
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4. A synchronous motor can develop synchronous torque

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(a) when under loaded

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(b) while over-excited

C
(c) only at synchronous speed

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(d) below or above synchronous speed
Ans: c
5. A synchronous motor can be started by

(a) pony motor
(b) D.C. compound motor
(c) providing damper winding
Ans: d
6. A three-phase synchronous motor will have
(a) no slip-rings
(b) one slip-ring
(c) two slip-rings
(d) three slip-rings
Ans: c
7. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is likely to occur
?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Ans: a
8. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor suddenly gets
disconnected
(a) the motor stops
(b) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(c) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
Ans: a
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of a synchronous motor
varies as
(a) V
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(b) V312
in
(c) V2
(d) 1/V
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Ans: a
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10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the load angle
B
is
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(a) zero
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(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: c
11. A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when it is

(a) under-loaded
(b) over-loaded
(c) under-excited
(d) over-excited
Ans: d
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation. Now if the load on
the motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will increase
Ans: d
13. Mostly, synchronous motors are of

(a) alternator type machines
(6) induction type machines
(c) salient pole type machines
(d) smooth cylindrical type machines
Ans: c
14. The synchronous motor is not inherently self-starting because

(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous speed in an instant is
absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous speed is absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz frequency currents
Ans: a
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15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes more armature current
in
because
(a) the increased load has to take more current
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(b) the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take more current
(c) the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor current
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(d) the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more motor current
B
Ans: b
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16. Synchronous motor always runs at
(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
Ans: a
17. An over-excited synchronous motor takes

(a) leading current
(b) lagging current
Ans: a
18. The working of a synchronous motor is similar to

(a) gear train arrangement
(b) transmission of mechancial power by shaft
(c) distribution transformer
(d) turbine
Ans: b
19. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor corresponds to operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading
Ans: b
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. £& depends on
(a) d.c. excitation only
(b) speed of the motor
(c) load on the motor
(d) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: a
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21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is 6° electrical, its value in
mechanical degrees is
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(a) 2
(b) 3
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(c) 4
B
(d) 6
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Ans: b
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22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
(a) field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) power factor and field current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans: a
23. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
Ans: c
24. A synchronous motor can operate at

(a) lagging power factor only
(6) leading power factor only
(c) unity power factor only
(d) lagging, leading and unity power factors
Ans: d
25. In a synchronous motor which loss varies with load ?

(a) Windage loss
(b) Bearing friction loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) Core loss
Ans: c
26. A synchronous motor can be made self starting by providing

(a) damper winding on rotor poles
(b) damper winding on stator
(c) damper winding on stator as well as rotor poles
Ans: d
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27. The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be damped out by

(a) maintaining constant excitation
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(b) running the motor on leading power factors

(c) providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces
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(d) oscillations cannot be damped

B
Ans: c
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28. The shaft of synchronous motor is made of
(a) mild steel
(b) chrome steel
(c) alnico
(d) stainless steel
Ans: a
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power factor will be
(a) leading
(b) lagging
(c) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
30. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is always

(a) 1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
31. The percentage slip in case of a synchronous motor is

(a) 1%
(b) 100%
(c) 0.5%
(d) zero
Ans: d
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value by
(a) changing the load
(b) changing the supply voltage
(c) changing frequency
(d) using brakes
Ans: c
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33. A synchronous motor will always stop when

in
(a) supply voltage fluctuates

(b) load in motor varies
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(c) excitation winding gets disconnected

(d) supply voltage frequency changes
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Ans: c
B
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34. riunting in a synchronous motor takes place

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(a) when supply voltage fluctuates
(b) when load varies
(c) when power factor is unity
(d) motor is under loaded
Ans: b
35. When load on an over-excited or under excited synchronous*motor is increased, rate

of change of its armature current as compared with that of power factor is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) twice
Ans: b
36. The rotor copper losses, in a synchronous motor, are met by

(a) d.c. source
(b) armature input
(c) motor input
(d) supply lines
Ans: a
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: c
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the number of poles
are made half, the speed of
the rotor of a synchronous motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
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Ans: d
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39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at the same
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speed ?
(a) Universal motor
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(b) Synchronous motor

B
(c) Induction motor

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Ans: b
40. Synchronsizingpower of a synchronous machine is

(a) direcly proportional to the synchronous reactance
(6) inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
(a) equal to the synchronous reactance
Ans: b
41. Synchronous motors are

(a) not-self starting
(b) self-starting
(c) essentially self-starting
Ans: a
42. The standard full-load power factor ratings for synchronous motors are
(a) zero or 0.8 leading
(b) unity or 0.8 lagging
(c) unity or 0.8 leading
(d) unity or zero
Ans: c
43. A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to load increases
essentially by increase in
(a) back e.m.f.
(c) power factor
(d) torque angle
Ans: b
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an equivalent
induction motor. This is mainly
because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
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(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field

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(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant

(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
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Ans: b
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45. A synchronous motor working at leading power factor can be used as

B
(a) voltage booster

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(b) phase advancer

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(c) noise generator
(d) mechanical synchronizer
Ans: b
46. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) carbon or graphite
(b) brass or steel
(c) silver or gold
(d) copper or aluminium
Ans: b
47. An over excited synchronous motor is used for

(a) fluctuating loads
(b) variable speed loads
(c) low torque loads
(d) power factor corrections
Ans: d
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of the following
will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
Ans: d
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will usually fall in range
(a) 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
(c) 85 to 95%
(d) 99 to 99.5%
Ans: c
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should have proper
(a) voltage rating
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(b) current rating

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(c) power factor

(d) speed
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Ans: b
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53. Slip-rings in a synchronous motor carry

B
(a) direct current

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(b) alternating current

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(c) no current
Ans: a
54. A synchronous machine with large air gap has

(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less sensitive to load
variations
Ans: d
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has higher values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
Ans: c
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the load is increased
three times, its torque angle
becomes approximately
(a) one-third
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) six times
(e) nine times
Ans: c
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called _____ angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
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58. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor ?

(a) Damper winding
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(b) Star-delta starter

(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
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(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit

B
Ans: c
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59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, becomes more than the
synchronous speed during hunting, the
damper bars develop
(a) inductor motor torque
(b) induction generator torque
(c) synchronous motor torque
(d) d.c. motor toque
Ans: b
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound round induction motor
is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator, in polyphase
multipolar synchronous motors
running at full load, is of the order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
62. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when

(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
Ans: b
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor changes

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(a) applied voltage of the motor

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(b) motor speed

(c) power factor of power drawn by the motor
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Ans: c
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64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action, field winding is
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usually
(a) connected to D.C. supply
(b) short-circuited by low resistance
(c) kept open-circuited
Ans: b
65. Which of the following motors will be used in electric clocks ?

(c) A.C. induction motor
(d) A.C. synchronous motor
Ans: d
66. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing current at lagging
power factor from constant
voltage supply, its field excitation is increased, then its power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation operates with such an
excitation that it takes power
at lagging power factor. Now if the applied voltage of the synchronous motor goes down,
the power factor of the
synchronous motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
Ans: c
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by induction motor action and
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connecting field discharge resistance across field, starting and accelerting torque is
in
produced by
(a) induction motor torque in field winding
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(b) induction motor torque in damper winding

(c) eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces
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(d) reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the rotor

B
(e) all of the above methods

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Ans: e
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69. Armature of a synchronous machine is

(a) of reducing number of slip rings on the rotor
(b) armature is associated with large power as compared to the field circuits
(c) of difficulty of providing high voltage insulation on rotor
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d
70. If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a constant load is decreased from
its normal value, ignoring effects of armature reaction, it leads to
(a) increase in both armature current and power factor angle
(b) increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature current
(c) increase in both armature current and power factor which is lagging
(d) increase in torque angle but decrease in back e.m.f.
Ans: a
71. When a 3-phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero power factor lagging load,
the armature field affects
the main field in the following way
(a) augments it directly
(b) directly opposes it
(c) cross-magnetises it
Ans: b
72. Stability of a synchronous machine

(a) decreases with increase in its excitation
(b) increases with increase in its excitation
(c) remains unaffected with increase in excitation
Ans: b
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of induction motor
because
(a) stator supply is relieved of responsibility of producing magnetic field
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(b) mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted

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(c) synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed

(d) synchronous motor has large air gap
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Ans: a
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74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical load and drawing current at a
B
leading power factor from

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constant voltage supply its field excitation is increased, its power factor
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(a) will become more
(b) will become less
(c) will remain unchanged
Ans: b
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When the load is increased,
the armature current drawn
by it increases because
(a) speed of the motor is reduced
(b) power factor is decreased
(c) Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied voltage)
(d) Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is increased
Ans: d
76. If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited, motor

(a) will refuse to start
(b) will overheat in spots
(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step
Ans: a
77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole synchronous motor gets suddenly open-
circuited, then
(a) it runs at a slower speed
(b) the motor stops
(c) it continues to run at the same speed
(d) it runs at a very high speed
Ans: b
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor fields rotate simultaneously ?
(a) D.C. motor
(c) Universal motor
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(e) Induction motor

Ans: d
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79. The speed of a synchronous motor

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(a) increases as the load increases

B
(b) decreases as the load decreases

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(c) always remains constant

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Ans: c
80. A rotory converter can also be run as a

(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) d.c. series motor
(c) d.c. compound motor
(d) induction motor
(e) synchronous motor
Ans: e
81. The maximum speed variation in a 3-phase synchronous motor is

(a) 10 per cent
(b) 6 per cent
(c) 4 per cent
(d) 2. per cent
(e) zero
Ans: e
82. Which of the following resistances can be measured by conducting insulation

resistance test on a synchronous motor ?
(a) Phase to phase winding resistance
(b) Stator winding to earthed frame
(c) Rotor winding to earthed shaft
Ans: d
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to pull into
synchronism after applying D.C. field
current ?
(a) High field current
(b) Low short circuit ratio
(c) High core losses
(d) Low field current
Ans: d
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84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed depends on all of the
following except
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(a) rotor excitation

(b) maximum value of coupling angle
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(c) direction of rotation

B
(d) supply voltage

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Ans: c
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85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence exists when the motor
is
(a) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(b) under-loaded
(c) over-loaded
Ans: a
86. In a synchronous motor, damper windings are provided on

(a) stator frame
(b) rotor shaft
(c) pole faces
Ans: c
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on leading power factor will be
(a) more than the supply voltage
(b) less than the supply voltage
(c) equal to the supply voltage
Ans: a
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running with normal
excitation is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(6) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor
Ans: c
89. The net armature voltage of a synchronous motor is equal to the

(a) vector sum of Eb and V
(b) arithmetic sum of Eb and V
(c) arithmetic difference of Eb and V
(d) vector difference of Eh and V
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Ans: d
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90. The ratio of starting torque to running torque in a synchronous motor is

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(a) zero
(b) one
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(c) two
B
(d) infinity
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Ans: a
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91. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. Eb depends on

(a) load on the motor
(b) d.c. excitation only
(c) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: b
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the direction of its field current
is reversed
(a) the motor will stop
(b) the motor continue to run in the same direction
(c) the winding of the motor will burn
(d) the motor will run in the reverse direction
Ans: b
93. The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase synchronous motor

(a) remains constant at all loads
(b) varies with speed
(c) varies with the load
(d) varies with power factor
Ans: a
94. The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the angle between

(a) the supply voltage and the back e.m.f.
(b) magnetising current and back e.m.f.
(c) the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
Ans: c
95. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due to

(a) windage friction
(b) variable load
(c) variable frequency
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(d) variable supply voltage

in
Ans: a
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96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a synchronous motor can be
changed to new fixed value ?
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(a) By changing the supply frequency

B
(b) By interchanging any two phases

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(c) By changing the applied voltage

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(d) By changing the load.
Ans: a
97. In a synchronous motor, V-curves represent relation between

(a) armature current and field current
(b) power factor and speed
(c) field current and speed
(d) field current and power factor
Ans: a
98. In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency, pole number and load
torque all are halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 3000 r.p.m.
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
(c) 750 r.p.m.
Ans: b
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at constant full load, 100%
excitation and unity power fac
tor. On changing the excitation only, the armature current will have
(a) no change of power factor
(b) lagging power factor with over-excitation
(c) leading power factor with under-excitation
(d) leading power factor with over-excitation
Ans: d
100. Which of the following motors is non-self starting ?

(b) synchronous motor
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Wound round induction motor
Ans: b
101. In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in the armature at noload is
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approximately equal to the applied voltage, then

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(a) the motor is said to be fully loaded

(b) the torque generated is maximum
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(c) the excitation is said to be zero per cent

(d) the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
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Ans: d
B
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102. In a synchronous motor, the damping winding is generally used to

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(a) prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
(b) reduce the eddy currents
(c) provide starting torque only
(d) reduce noise level
Ans: a
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power factor will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
Ans: c
104. The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous motor depends on

(a) number of poles
(b) flux density
(c) rotor speed
(d) rotor excitation
Ans: d
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing
its synchronism, is known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pull-out torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque
Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
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Ans: c
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107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not vary with load?
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(a) Windage loss

(b) Copper losses
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(c) Any of the above

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Ans: a
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108. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the increase in

(a) flux density
(b) horse power rating
(c) speed
Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core surface in a
synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous motor is usually about
(a) one hour
(b) one minute
(c) one second
Ans: c
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous motor will pull into
synchronism at rated rotor
supply voltage and frequency is known as
(a) pull-up torque
(b) pull-in torque
(c) pull-out torque
Ans: b
112. A synchronous machine with low value of short-circuit ratio has

(a) lower stability limit
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(6) high stability limit

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(c) good speed regulation

(d) good voltage regulation
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Ans: a
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B
113. The construction of a synchronous motor resembles

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(a) a series motor

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(b) an induction motor
(c) an alternator
(d) a rotary converter
Ans: c
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor is open circuited,
the motor will
(a) stop
(b) run as induction motor
(c) function as static condenser
(d) burn with dense smoke
Ans: a
115 For power factor correction, synchronous motors operate at

(a) no-load and greatly over-excited fields
(b) no-load and under-excited fields
(c) normal load with minimum excitation
(d) normal load with zero excitation
Ans: a
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop at rest for any
angular position of the rotor, at rated
stator supply voltage and frequency, is known as
(a) locked-rotor torque
(b) synchronous torque
(c) pull up torque
(d) reluctance torque
Ans: a
117. Exciters of synchronous machines are

(a) d.c. shunt machines
(b) d.c. series machines
(c) d.c. compound machines
Ans: a
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118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as the angle
between the
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(a) rotor and stator teeth

(b) rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
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(c) rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity

B

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Ans: b
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119. If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the supply is running on no load
and is having negligible loss
then
(a) the stator current will be zero
(b) the stator current will be very small
(c) the stator current will be very high
(d) the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage
Ans: a
120 The armature current of the synchronous motor

(a) has large values for low excitation i niy
(b) has large values for high excitation only
(c) has large values for low and high excitation
Ans: c
121. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor will depend on

(a) the rotor excitation only
(b) the supply voltage only
(c) the rotor excitation and supply volt-age both
(d) the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle (90°)
Ans: d
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and does not drive a
mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
Ans: c
123. A synchronous motor develops maximum power when load angle is

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(a) 45°
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(b) 60°
(c) 90°
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(d) 120°
Ans: c
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B
124. In a synchronous motor, the breakdown torque is

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(a) directly proportional to applied voltage

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(b) directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage
(c) inversely proportional to applied voltage
Ans: a
5. A. TRANSMISSION AND DISTRIBUTION
1. By which of the following systems electric power may be transmitted ?

(a) Overhead system
(b) Underground system
Ans: c
2 are the conductors, which connect the consumer's terminals to the distribution
(a) Distributors
(b) Service mains
(c) Feeders
Ans: b
3. The underground system cannot be operated above

(a) 440 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
Ans: d
4. Overhead system can be designed for operation upto
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c
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5. If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and depreciation on the capital
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outlay is equal to the

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annual cost of electrical energy wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost will be
P
minimum and the corresponding size of conductor will be most economical. This statement
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is known as
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(a) Kelvin's law

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(b) Ohm's law

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(c) Kirchhoffs law
(d) Faraday's law
Ans: a
6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite oil or any preservative compound
have life
(a) from 2 to 5 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Ans: c
7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of
electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Ans: d
8. Galvanised steel wire is generally used as

(a) stay wire
(b) earth wire
(c) structural components
Ans: d
9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are

(a) 40—50 metres
(b) 60—100 metres
(c) 80—100 metres
(d) 300—500 metres
Ans: c
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10. The corona is considerably affected by which of the following ?

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(a) Size of the conductor

(b) Shape of the conductor
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(c) Surface condition of the conductor

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Ans: d
B
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11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines ?
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(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
Ans: d
12. 310 km line is considered as

(a) a long line
(b) a medium line
(c) a short line
Ans: a
13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly
loaded line is called the
(a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect
Ans: b
14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt admittance is called the
(a) surge impedance of the line
(b) conductance of the line
(c) regulation of the line
Ans: a
15. Which of the following is the demerit of a 'constant voltage transmission system' ?
(a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system
(b) Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line terminals
(c) Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of higher terminal
reactances
(d) Improvement of power factor at times of moderate and heavy loads
(e) Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size in case of long-
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distance heavy power

in
transmission
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Ans: a
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16. Low voltage cables are meant for use up to

B
(a)l.lkV
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(b)3.3kV
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(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: e
17. The operating voltage of high voltage cables is upto

(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: d
18. The operating voltage of supertension cables is upto

(a) 3.3 kV
(b) 6.6 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
19. The operating voltage of extra high tension cables is upto

(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
(e) 132 kV
Ans: d
20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables ?
(a) Direct laying
(b) Draw-in-system
(c) Solid system
Ans: d
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
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(b) losses in the conductor

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(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings

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Ans:
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22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too hot ?
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(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels
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(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst

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(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will lead to ionization
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of dielectric losses with
temperature
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and lowest in first cost
?
(a) Radial system
(b) Ring system
(c) Inter-connected system
Ans: a
24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator
(b) shunt wound generator
(c) synchronous generator
Ans: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following methods is employed for
solution of network problems
in interconnected system ?
(a) Circulating current method
(b) Thevenin's theorem
(c) Superposition of currents
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
26. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables ?

(a) Cross or short-circuit fault
(b) Open circuit fault
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(c) Breakdown of cable insulation

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Ans: d
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27. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a cable is

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(a) crystallisation of the lead through vibration

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(b) chemical action on the lead when buried in the earth

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(c) mechanical damage

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Ans: d
28. The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers is

(a) 110 V
(b) 210 V
(c) 230 V
(d) 400 V
Ans: c
29. Most of the high voltage transmission lines in India are

(a) underground
(b) overhead
Ans: b
30. The distributors for residential areas are

(a) single phase
(b) three-phase three wire
(c) three-phase four wire
Ans: c
31. The conductors of the overhead lines are

(a) solid
(b) stranded
(c) both solid and stranded
Ans: b
32. High voltage transmission lines use

(a) suspension insulators
(b) pin insulators
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Ans: a
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33. Multicore cables generally use

(a) square conductors
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(b) circular conductors

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(c) rectangular conductors

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(d) sector-shaped conductors

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Ans: d
34. Distribution lines in India generally use

(a) wooden poles
(b) R.C.C. poles
(c) steel towers
Ans: b
35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is
(a) lead
(b) paper
(c) rubber
Ans: b
36. The loads on distributors systems are generally

(a) balanced
(b) unbalanced
Ans: b
37. The power factor of industrial loads is generally

(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: b
38. Overhead lines generally use

(a) copper conductors
(b) all aluminium conductors
(c) A.C.S.R. conductors
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(d) none of these

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Ans: c
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39. In transmission lines the cross-arms are made of

(a) copper
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(b) wood
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(c) R.C.C.
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(d) steel
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Ans: d
40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
Ans: b
41. Transmission line insulators are made of

(a) glass
(b) porcelain
(c) iron
(d) P.V.C.
Ans: b
42. The material commonly used for sheaths of underground cables is

(a) lead
(b) rubber
(c) copper
(d) iron
Ans: a
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Ans: c
44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is approximately equal to
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
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Ans: c
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45. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at

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(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV
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(c) 66 kV
B
(d) 400 kV
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Ans: c
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46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are cross-connected in order to
(a) boost the generated voltage
(b) balance loads on both sides of the neutral
(c) make both machine^ run as unloaded motors
(d) equalize voltages on the positive and negative outers
Ans: d
47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
(b) both balancers run as motors
(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor
(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor
Ans: c
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire feeder is
increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
(d) 100 percent
Ans: b
49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. As
compared to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the middle point is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-half
(d) twice
Ans: a
50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same maximum
voltage to earth uses only
(a) 31.25 percent of copper
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(b) 33.3 percent of copper

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(c) 66.7 percent of copper

(d) 125 percent of copper
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Ans: a
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51. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?

B
(a) 6.6 kV
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(b) 8.8 kV
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(c) 11 kV
(d) 13.2 kV
Ans: b
52. For an overhead line, the surge impedance is taken as

(a) 20-30 ohms
(b) 70—80 ohms
(c) 100—200 ohms
(d) 500—1000 ohms
Ans: c
53. The presence of ozone due to corona is harmful because it

(a) reduces power factor
(b) corrodes the material
(c) gives odour
(d) transfer energy to the ground
Ans: b
54. A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to

(a) distributors
(b) generating stations
(c) service mains
Ans: a
55. The power transmitted will be maximum when

(a) corona losses are minimum
(b) reactance is high
(c) sending end voltage is more
(d) receiving end voltage is more
Ans: c
56. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on

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(a) primary transmission

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(b) secondary transmission

(c) primary distribution
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(d) secondary distribution

Ans: d
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B
57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission lines ?
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(a) Steel cored aluminium

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(b) Galvanised steel
(c) Cadmium copper
Ans: d
58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators ?
(a) Quartz
(b) Kaolin
(c) Felspar
(d) Silica
Ans: d
59. There is a greater possibility of occurence of corona during

(a) dry weather
(b) winter
(c) summer heat
(d) humid weather
Ans: d
60. Which of the following relays is used on long transmission lines ?

(a) Impedance relay
(b) Mho's relay
(c) Reactance relay
Ans: b
61. The steel used in steel cored conductors is usually

(a) alloy steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) mild steel
(d) high speed steel
Ans: c
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62. Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable ?

in
(a) Radial system

(b) Tree system
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(c) Ring main system

(d) All are equally reliable
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Ans: c
B
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63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for transmission lines
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possess ?
(a) Low cost
(b) High mechanical strength
(c) Longer life
Ans: d
64. Transmission voltage of llkV is normally used for distances upto

(a) 20—25 km
(b) 40—50 km
(c) 60—70 km
(d) 80—100 km
Ans: a
65. Which of the following regulations is considered best?

(a) 50%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 2%
Ans: d
66. Skin effect is proportional to

(a) (conductor diameter)
(b) (conductor diameter)
(c) (conductor diameter)
(d) (conductor diameter)
Ans: c
67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle
(b) triangle
(c) ellipse
(d) catenary
Ans: d
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68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is
(a) insulin
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(b) bitumen
(c) varnish
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(d) no insulation is required

B
Ans: d
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69. Which of the followingbus-bar schemes has the lowest cost ?
(a) Ring bus-bar scheme
(b) Single bus-bar scheme
(c) Breaker and a half scheme
(d) Main and transfer scheme
Ans: b
70. Owing to skin effect

(a) current flows through the half cross-section of the conductor
(b) portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current and core of the
conductor carries less current
(c) portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and core of the conductor
carries more current
Ans: b
71. By which of the following methods string efficiency can be improved ?

(a) Using a guard ring
(b) Grading the insulator
(c) Using long cross arm
Ans: d
72. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to

(a) compensate for skin effect
(b) neutralise proximity effect
(c) reduce line inductance
(d) increase the tensile strength
Ans: d
73. By which of the following a bus-bar is rated ?

(a) Current only
(b) Current and voltage
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(c) Current, voltage and frequency

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(d) Current, voltage, frequency and short time current

Ans: d
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74. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when

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(a) line is energized

B
(b) there is no current in the line

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(c) line is on full load

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(d) circuit breaker is not open
Ans: b
75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary ?
(a) Circuit breakers
(b) Isolators
(c) Load break switch
(d) Circuit breakers and load break switches
Ans: b
76. In a substation the following equipment is not installed

(a) exciters
(b) series capacitors
(c) shunt reactors
(d) voltatre transformers
Ans: a
77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around the conductor
exceeds
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) 30 kV (maximum v^lue)/cm
Ans: d
78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is compensated by installing
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
(c) synchronous motors
(d) all of above
Ans: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are
(a) dead ended
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(b) at intermediate anchor towers

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Ans: c
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80. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is

B
(a) non-sinusoidal
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(b) sinusoidal
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(c) triangular
(d) square
Ans: a
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
82. Aluminium has a specific gravity of

(a) 1.5
(b) 2.7
(c) 4.2
(d) 7.8
Ans: b
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the transmission voltage should
be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Ans: a
84. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors have higher values
except
(a) specific volume
(6) electrical conductivity
(c) co-efficient of linear expansion
(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section
Ans: b
85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution feeder,
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will be most economical ?

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(a) Static condenser

(b) Synchronous condenser
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(c) Tap changing transformer

(d) Booster transformer
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Ans: d
B
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86. In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are provided on

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(a) primary winding
(b) secondary winding
(c) high voltage winding
Ans: b
87. Constant voltage transmission entails the following disadvantage

(a) large conductor area is required for same power transmission
(b) short-circuit current of the system is increased
Ans: b
88. On which of the following factors skin effect depends ?

(a) Frequency of the current
(b) Size of the conductor
(c) Resistivity of the conductor material
Ans: d
89. The effect of corona can be detected by

(a) presence of zone detected by odour
(b) hissing sound
(c) faint luminous glow of bluish colour
Ans: d
90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should
be in the range
(a) 150 to 220 kV
(b) 100 to 120 kV
(c) 60 to 100 kV
(d) 20 to 50 kV
Ans: a
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91. In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected ?
in
(a) Short transmission lines

(b) Medium transmission lines
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(c) Long transmission lines

(d) Medium as well as long transmission lines
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Ans: a
B
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92. When the interconnector between two stations has large reactance
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(a) the transfer of power will take place with voltage fluctuation and noise
(b) the transfer of power will take place with least loss
(c) the stations will fall out of step because of large angular displacement between the
stations
Ans: c
93. The frequency of voltage generated, in case of generators, can be increased by

(a) using reactors
(b) increasing the load
(c) adjusting the governor
(d) reducing the terminal voltage
Ans: c
94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar voltage will
(a) fall
(b) rise
(c) remain unchanged
Ans: c
95. The angular displacement between two interconnected stations is mainly due to
(a) armature reactance of both alternators
(b) reactance of the interconnector
(c) synchronous reactance of both the alternators
Ans: a
96. Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are generally used in

(a) reactors
(b) generators
(c) transformers
Ans: b
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97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the load VAR
requirement is
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(a) large
(b) small
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(b) fluctuating
B

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Ans: b
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98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage regulator is effected by
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) varying the reactance
(d) variable transformer
Ans: c
99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, it is due
to
(a) permeability variation
(b) corona
(c) skin effect
(d) unsymmetrical fault
Ans: c
100. The following system is not generally used

(a) 1-phase 3 wire
(b) 1-phase 4 wire
(c) 3-phase 3 wire
(d) 3-phase 4 wire
Ans: a
101. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the

(a) resistivity of conductor material increases
(b) permeability of conductor material increases
(c) diameter increases
(d) frequency increases
Ans: a
102. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth
which of the following will happen ?
(a) Current will flow to earth
(b) Supply voltage will drop
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(c) Supply voltage will increase

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(d) No current will flow in the conductor

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Ans: a
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5. B. DC GENERATORS
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1. The insulating material for a cable should have

C
(a) low cost

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(b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength
Ans: d
2. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury ?

(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
Ans: c
3. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?

(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
Ans: d
4. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: a
5. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
6. The bedding on a cable consists of

(a) hessian cloth
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(b) jute
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Ans: c
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7. The insulating material for cables should

B
(a) be acid proof

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(b) be non-inflammable
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(c) be non-hygroscopic
(d) have all above properties
Ans: d
8. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath _____ is provided.

(a) earthing connection
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
Ans: b
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Ans: c
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
11 cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage
Ans: d
12. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect _____ cables.

(a) unsheathed cables
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(b) armoured
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(c) PVC sheathed cables

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Ans: a
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13. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at

B
(a) armour
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(b) bedding
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(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath
Ans: d
14. In single core cables armouring is not done to

(a) avoid excessive sheath losses
(b) make it flexible
Ans: a
15. Dielectric strength of rubber is around

(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
16. Low tension cables are generally used upto

(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
17. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at

(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
18. High tension cables are generally used upto

(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
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(c) 66 kV
in
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
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19. The surge resistance of cable is

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(a) 5 ohms
B
(b) 20 ohms
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(c) 50 ohms
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(d) 100 ohms
Ans: c
20. PVC stands for

(a) polyvinyl chloride
(b) post varnish conductor
(c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor
Ans: a
In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing

(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
22. In capacitance grading of cables we use a ______ dielectric.

(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
23. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond

(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
24. The material for armouring on cable is usually

(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire
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Ans: c
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25. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are

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(a) oil filled

B
(b) S.L. type

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(d) armoured
Ans: a
26. The relative permittivity of rubber is

(a) between 2 and 3
(b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10
(d) between 12 and 14
Ans: a
27. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV because

(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature
(b) skin effect dominates on the conduc¬tor
(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of voids
Ans: d
28. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance

(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
Ans: c
29. In cables the charging current

(a) lags the voltage by 90°
(b) leads the voltage by 90°
(c) lags the voltage by 180°
(d) leads the voltage by 180°
Ans: b
30. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced
by one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
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(c) four times

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Ans: a
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31. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
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dielectric strength of insulation should be

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(a) 5 kV/mm
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(b) 10 kV/mm
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(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
32. In the cables, sheaths are used to

(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation
Ans: a
33. The intersheaths in the cables are used to

(a) minimize the stress
(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) provide proper stress distribution
Ans: c
34. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is

(a) same at the conductor and the sheath
(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath
(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
Ans: c
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
Ans: c
36. The insulation of the cable decreases with

(a) the increase in length of the insulation
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(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation

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Ans: a
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37. A cable carrying alternating current has

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(a) hysteresis losses only

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(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only

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(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
38. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at

(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
39. Capacitance grading of cable implies

(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to counter the effect of
inductance
Ans: a
40. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth

(a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc.
(d) for all of the above reasons
Ans: c
41. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is

(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
42. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually

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(a) 0.04 mm
in
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm

(e) 3 to 5 mm
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(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
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B
43. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably

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(a) mica insulated

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(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
Ans: c
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride
(b) Vulcanised rubber
(c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas
Ans: d
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
46. Copper as conductor for cables is used as

(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
Ans: a
47. The insulating material should have

(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
Ans: d
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48. The advantage of oil filled cables is

(a) more perfect impregnation
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(b) smaller overall size

(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
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B
Ans: d
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49. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
Ans: a
50. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on

(a) presence of moisture
(b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage
Ans: d
51. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
51. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is used.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
52. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient 'draw in system'
of laying of underground cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
53. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical trees.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
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54. Rubber is most commonly used insulation in cables.

(a) Yes
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(b) No
Ans: a
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B
55. Polyethylene has very poor dielectric and ageing properties.

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(a) Yes
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(b) No
Ans: b
56. The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead alloy or of aluminium.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
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Electrical
Engineering
Questions
with
Answers
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2017
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TSPSC-AEE- 2017 Questions with Answers
(ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING)
01. A generating station has a maximum 04. The inductance of single phase two wire
demand of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% and power transmission line per km gets doubled
a plant capacity factor of 50%. The reserve when the
capacity of the plant is (a) Distance between wires is doubled
(a) 5 MW (b) 4 MW (b) Distance between the wires is increased
(c) 6 MW (d) 10 MW four fold
01. Ans: (c) (c) Distance between the wires is increased
as square of the original distance
02. A 100 km long transmission line is loaded at (d) Radius of the wire is doubled
110 kV. If the loss of the line is 15 MW and 04. Ans: (c)
the load is 150 MVA, the resistance of the
line is 05. The dielectric strength of impregnated
(a) 8.06 ohms per phase papers is about
(b) 0.806 ohms per phase (a) 20 kV/mm (b) 30 kV/mm
(c) 0.0806 ohms per phase (c) 15 kV/mm (d) 5 kV/mm
(d) 80.6 ohms per phase 05. Ans: (b)
02. Ans: (a)
06. HVDC transmission is preferred to EHV AC
03. When the load on a transmission line is because
equal to the surge impedance loading (a) HVDC terminal equipments are
(a) The receiving end voltage is less than inexpective
the sending end voltage (b) VAR compensation is not required in
(b) The sending end voltage is less than the HVDC systems
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receiving end voltage (c) System stability can be improved

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(c) The receiving end voltage is more than (d) Harmonic problem is avoided
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the sending end voltage 06. Ans: (c)

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(d) The receiving end voltage equal to the

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sending end voltage

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03. Ans: (d)

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ACE Engineering Academy Hyderabad|Delhi|Bhopal|Pune|Bhubaneswar| Lucknow|Patna|Bengaluru|Chennai|Vijayawada|Vizag |Tirupati | Kukatpally| Kolkata

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:2: TSPSC-AEE-2017 Questions with Key
07. Zero-sequence current is used for relaying required inductive reactance for neutral
purpose only in the case of grounding is
(a) Phase over current relay (a) 0.05 p.u. (b) 0.0166 p.u.
(b) Phase impedance relay (c) 0.1 p.u. (d) 0.15 p.u.
(c) Ground over current relay 10. Ans: (b)
(d) Ground impedance relay
07. Ans: (d) 11. The critical clearing time of a fault in power
system is related to
08. A 10 kVA, 400 V/200 V single phase (a) Reactive power limit
transformer with 10% impedance draws a (b) Steady state stability limit
steady short-circuit line current of (c) Short-circuit current limit
(a) 250A (b) 50 A (d) Transient stability limit
(c) 150 A (d) 350 A 11. Ans: (d)
08. Ans: (a)
12. If the inertia constant H of a machine of 200
09. In a 3-phase extra-high voltage cable, a MVA is 2 p.u., its value corresponding to
metallaic screen around each core insulation 400 MVA will be
is provided to (a) 4 p.u. (b) 2 p.u.
(a) Facilitate heat dissipation (c) 1.0 p.u. (d) 0.5 p.u.
(b) Give mechanical strength 12. Ans: (c)
(c) Obtain longitudinal electric stress
(d) Obtain radial electric stress 13. In case of a 3-phase short-circuit fault in a
09. Ans: (b) system, the power fed into the system is
(a) Mostly reactive
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10. The severity of line to ground and three (b) Reactive only
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phase faults at the terminals of an unloaded (c) Mostly active

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synchronous generator is to be same. If the (d) Active and Reactive both equal
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terminal voltage is 1.0 pu, Z1=Z2=j0.1 p.u. 13. Ans: (a)

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and Z0= j0.05 p.u. for the alternator, then the

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14. The maximum demand of a consumer is 2 18. The X/R ratio for 220 kV line as compared
kW and his daily energy consumption is 20 to 400 kV line is
units. His load factor is (a) Equal (b) Greater
(a) 10% (b) 42% (c) Smaller (d) Not equal
(c) 60% (d) 41.6% 18. Ans: (b)
14. Ans: (d)
19. Large size steam plants and nuclear plants
15. In order to quench the are quickly and also are suitable for
optimize the dimensions generally (a) Intermediate loads
(a) Air blast C.B. is preferred (b) Base loads
(b) Oil C.B. is preferred (c) Both base and peak loads
(c) SF6 C.B. is preferred (d) Peak loads
(d) Minimum oil C.B. is preferred 19. Ans: (b)
15. Ans: (c)
20. Transmission of power by a.c. cables is
16. If a voltage-controlled bus is treated as load impossible beyond
bus, then which one of the following limits (a) 500 km (b) 300 km
would be violated? (c) 250 km (d) 45 km
(a) Active power (b) Reactive power 20. Ans: (d)
(c) Voltage (d) Phase angle
16. Ans: (b) 21. The corona loss in a 50 Hz system is 0.25
kW/ph/km. At a frequency of 60 Hz, the
17. A suspension type insulator has three units corona loss would be
with self-capacitance C and ground (a) 0.30 kW/ph/km (b) 0.36 kW/ph/km
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capacitance of 0.2 C having a string (c) 028 kW/ph/km (d) 0.21 kW/ph/km
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efficiency of 21. Ans: (c)

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(a) 80% (b) 82%

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(c)78% (d) 76% 22. Which of the two generalized constants of a

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17. Ans: (c) transmission line are equal?

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(a) B & C (B) A & B 26. Approximation transfer function of

(c) A & D (D) B & D 10
is
22. Ans: (c) S  1S  2
(a) 10/S+1 (b) 10/S+2
23. A 100 km transmission line is designed for a (c) 5/S+1 (d) 5/S+1
nominal voltage of 132 kV and consists of 26. Ans: (c)
one conductor per phase. The line reactance
is 0.726 ohm/km. The static transmission 27. The gain margin of a system is 0 dB. It
capacity of the line, in MW, would be represents a
(a) 240 (b) 132 (a) Stable system
(c) 416 (d) 720 (b) Unstable system
23. Ans: (a) (c) Marginally stable system
(d) Conditionally stable system
24. Poles are real and negative and equal then 27. Ans: (c)
the system is _____ damped system
(a) Undamped 28. Find out damping ratio of second order
(b) Underdamped under-damped impulse response is e(t) =
(c) Critically damped 1.8e–8t sin 6t
(d) Overdamped (a) 0.707 (b) 0
24. Ans: (c) (c) 0.8 (d) 1
28. Ans: (c)
25. Order of the open loop transfer function
is_____ to order of closed loop transfer 29. For the circuit shown, find out the type of
function the damped system
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(a) not equal (b) equal

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(c) less than (d) greater than

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25. Ans: (b)

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Vs C =2 Farads
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(a) Under-damped system 33. Which of the following is correct

(b) Overdamped system (S  1)
G (s)  for the polar plot?
(c) Undamped system S(S  2)
(d) Critically damped system (a) One clockwise direction

29. Ans: (d) (b) Two clockwise direction
(c) One anti-clockwise direction
30. Find the steady state error ess for (d) Two anti-clockwise direction
r(t)=(t–5t2) u(t) 33. Ans: (a)
(a) Infinity (b) Zero
(c) 5 (d) 1 34. The critical point lies within the nyquist plot
30. Ans: (a) then the system is
(a) Marginally stable
31. Which of the following is located on root (b) Unstable
K(S  2) (c) Stable
locus when G(s)  ?
S(S  4) (d) Undetermined
(a) S = –2 (b) S = –4 34. Ans: (b)
(c) S = –  (d) S = –j2.2
31. Ans: (a,b & c) 35. Which of the following is lead compensator?
(S  1) (S  10)
(a) (b)
32. Find out break in point / break away point of (S  10) (S  8)
Unity feedback Transfer Function (S  12) (S  4)

(c) (d)
(S  10) (S  2)
K (S  4)
G (s) 
S(S  2) 35. Ans: (a)
(a) S = –1.1 and S = –3.5
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(b) S = 0.9 and S = –1.8 36. Find out maximum frequency of the transfer
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(c) S = –1.1 and S = –6.8 (S  1)

function G (s) 
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(S  2)
(d) S = –6.8 and S = –1.8
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32. Ans: (c) (a) 1 rad/sec (b) 2rad/sec

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(c) 0.5 rad/sec (d) 2 rad/sec

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37. In lag compensator the damping ratio, gain 41. Standardization of potentiometers is done in
and steady state error (ess) are order that, they become
(a) Decreases, Decreases and Increases (a) Accurate
(b) Decreases, Increases and Increases (b) Precise
(c) Increases, Increases and Decreases (c) Accurate and direct reading
(d) Increases, Decreases and Decreases (d) Accurate and precise
37. Ans: (d) 41. Ans: (c)
38. Find the K value for unity feedback transfer 42. Maxwell's Inductance-Capacitance bridge is
k used for measurement of inductance of
function G (s)  when ess= 80%
S(S  1) (a) Low Q coils
(a) 1 (b) 5 (b) Medium Q coils
(c) 8 (d) 2 (c) High Q coils
38. Ans: (a) (d) Low and medium Q coils
42. Ans: (b)
39. Horizontally mounted moving iron
instruments use 43. If the distance of screen from a CRT to
(a) Eddy current damping center of deflection plates is 15 cm, the
(b) Electromagnetic damping length of deflection plates is 2 cm, the
(c) Fluid friction damping distance between the plates is 1 cm and
(d) Air friction damping accelerating voltage is 500 V, deflection
39. Ans: (d) sensitivity is
(a) 33.2 V/cm (b) 0.03 cm/V
40. Light load adjustments for induction type (c) 66.4 V/cm (d) 0.015 cm/V
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energy meters are usually done at 43. Ans: (b)

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(a) 10% of full load current

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(b) 5% of full load current 44. Gearing, blacklash, friction between moving
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(c) 50% of full load current parts and scale accuracies are generally
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(d) 1% of full load current known as

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40. Ans: (b)

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(a) Instrument errors (a) Eliminating the effect of earth

(b) Interference errors capacitances
(c) Calibration errors (b) Eliminating the effect of intercomponent
(d) Interaction errors capacitances
44. Ans: (a) (c) Eliminating the effect of stray
electrostatic fields
45. In a single phase induction energy meter, in
(d) Shielding the bridge elements
order to obtain true value of energy, the
48. Ans: (a)
shunt magnetic flux should lag behind the
applied voltage by
49. Torque/weight ratio of an instrument
(a) 90 (b) 0
indicates
(c) 45 (d) 60
(a) Selectivity (b) Accuracy
45. Ans: (a) (c) Fidelity (d) Sensitivity
49. Ans: (d)
46. Thermocouple instruments can be used for a
frequency range upto
50. Which of the following factors limit the
(a) 100Hz
deflection of the pointer of a PMMC
(b) 5000 Hz
instrument of about 90?
(c) 1 MHz
1. Its damping mechanism
(d) 50 MHz and above
2. Linearity of magnetic field in which the
46. Ans: (d)
coil moves
3. Control spring arrangement
47. Loading effect is principally caused by
4. Shape of pole shoe for the horse shoe
instruments
magnet
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(a) High resistance (b) Low sensitivity

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Select the correct answer using the code

(c) High sensitivity (d) High range
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given below:
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47. Ans: (b)

(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 4
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B
48. Wagner's earth devices are used in AC (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 4
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50. Ans: (c)

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bridge circuits for

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51. A 10V range voltmeter is rated for 50A

full-scale current. The total resistance of 55. ______ signal is generated by combining
voltmeter is RD and WR signals with IO/M.
(a) 200k (b) 100k (a) Control (b) System
(c) 50 k (d) 400 k (c) Register (d) Memory
51. Ans: (a) 55. Ans: (a)
52. Which one of the following frequency meter 56. The 8086 fetches instruction one after
is suitable for measuring radio frequency? another from _____ of memory.
(a) Vibrating reed frequency meter (a) Code segment (b) IP
(b) Weston frequency meter (c) ES (d) SS
(c) Electrical resonance frequency meter 56. Ans: (a)
(d) Heterodyne frequency meter

52. Ans: (d) 57. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when _____.
(a) The sum is more than 16 bits
53. Integrating principle in the digital (b) Signed numbers go out of their range
measurement is the conversion of after an arithmetic operation
(a) Voltage to time (c) Carry and sign flags are set
(b) Voltage to frequency (d) Subtraction
(c) Voltage to current 57. Ans: (b)
(d) Current to voltage

53. Ans: (b) 58. A ______ Instruction at the end of interrupt
service program takes the execution back to
54. If MN/MX is low the 8086 operates in - the interrupted program.

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(a) Forward (b) Return

in
______ mode.
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(a) Minimum (b) Maximum (c) Data (d) Line

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58. Ans: (b)

P
(c) Minimum & Maximum

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54. Ans: (b)

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: 10 : TSPSC-AEE-2017 Questions with Key
59. Which microprocessor accepts the program 63. Which of the following notations have two
written for 8086 without any changes? repetitions of zero ?
(a) 8085 (b) 8088 (P) 1’s complement with radix of number
(c) 80186 (d) 80188 being 2
59. Ans: (b) (Q) 7’s complement with radix of number
being 8.
60. In an R-C phase shift oscillator, the (R) 9’s complement with radix of number
minimum number of R-C networks to be being 10.
connected in cascade will be (S) 10’s complement with radix of number
(a) One (b) Two being 10
(c) Three (d) Four Select the correct answer using the codes
60. Ans: (c) given below:
(a) P,Q and S (b) P and R
61. The multivibrator circuit which processes (c) Q, R and S (d) P,Q and R
one stable state and one quasi stable is 63. Ans: (d)
(a) Astabel
(b) Monostable 64. Which of the following circuits come under
(c) Bistable the class of sequential logic circuits ?
(d) Schmitt trigger circuit P. Full adder
61. Ans: (b) Q. Full subtractor
R. Half adder
62. Introducing a resistor in the emitter of a S. JK flip
common amplifier stabilizes the DC T. Counter
operating point against variations in Select the correct answer from the codes
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(a) Only the temperature given below:

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(b) Only the  of the transistor (a) P and Q (b) Q and R

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(c) Both temperature and  (c) R and S (d) S and T

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64. Ans: (d)

B
(d) Neither temperature nor 

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62. Ans: (c)

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65. Which signal of 8085 microprocessor is across the load. For conduction angle , the
used to insert wait states ? main diode and freewheeling diode would
(a) Ready (b) ALE respectively, conduct for
(c) HOLD (d) INTR (a)  ,    (b)  , 
65. Ans: (a) (c) ,  (d)  –, 
69. Ans: (b)
66. In an 8085 microprocessor, the contents of
accumulator, after the following instructions
70. A single-phase full-bridge diode rectifier
are executed will become
delivers a load current of 10A, which is
XRA A
ripple free. Average and rms values of diode
MVI B F0H
currents are respectively
SUB B
(a) 10A, 7.07A (b) 5A, 10A
(a) 01 H (b) 0F H (c) F0 H (d) 10 H
(c) 5A, 7.07A (d) 7.07A, 5A
66. Ans: (d)
70. Ans: (c)
67. The frequency stability of the oscillator

output is maximum in _____. 71. In a thyristor, holding current is
(a) Crystal oscillator (a) More than latching current IL
(b) Phase shift oscillator (b) Less than IL
(c) LC oscillator (c) Equal to IL
(d) Wien bridge oscillator (d) Very small
67. Ans: (a) 71. Ans: (b)
68. In an npn transistor, _____ are the minority 72. Turn-on time of an SCR in series with RL
carriers. circuit can be reduced by
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(a) Free electrons (b) Acceptor ions (a) Increasing circuit resistance R
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(c) Donor ions (d) Holes (b) Decreasing R

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68. Ans: (d)

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(c) Increasing circuit inductance L

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(d) Decreasing L
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69. A single-phase one-pulse diode rectifier is

72. Ans: (d)
C
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feeding an RL load with freewheeling diode

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73. For an UJT employed for the triggering of (b) Two full converters connected back to
an SCR, stand-off ratio  = 0.64 and dc back
source voltage VBB is 20V. The UJT would (c) Two full converters connected in
trigger when the emitter voltage is parallel.
(a) 12.8V (b) 13.1V (d) Two semiconverters connected back to
(c) 10V (d) 5V back.
73. Ans: (b) 77 Ans: (b)
74. In a single-phase full converter, for 78. In dc choppers per unit ripple is maximum
continuous conduction, each pair of SCRs when duty cycle is
conduct for (a) 0.2 (b) 0.5
(a) –  (b)  (c) 0.7 (d) 0.9
(c)  (d)  +  78. Ans: (b)
74. Ans: (b)

79. A dc chopper is fed from 100V dc. Its load
75. In a 3-phase half-wave rectifier, if per phase voltage consists of rectangular pulse of
input is 200 V, then the average output duration 1 msec in an overall cycle time of 3
voltage is msec, the average output voltage and ripple
(a) 233.91 V (b) 116.95V factor for this chopper are respectively.
(c) 202.56 V (d) 101.28V (a) 25V, 1 (b) 50V, 1
75. Ans: (a) (c) 33.33V 2 (d) 33.33V,1

79. Ans: (c)
76. In a single-phase full converter, the number
of SCRs conducting during overlap is 80. In single pulse modulation of PWM
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(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 inverters, third harmonic can be eliminated

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76 Ans: (d) if pulse width is equal to

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(b) 60 
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(a) 30
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77. The four-quadrant dual operation requires (c) 120 (d) 150
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(a) Two full converters in series

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80. Ans: (c)

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81. In a single phase voltage controller with RL 84. As compared to power MOSFET, a BJT has
load, ac output power can be controlled if (a) Lower switching losses but higher
(a) Firing angle  >  (load phase angle) and conduction losses
conduction angle  =  (b) Higher switching losses and higher
(b)  >  and  <  conduction losses
(c)    and  =  (c) Higher switching losses but lower

conduction losses
(d)    and   
(d) Lower switching losses and lower
81. Ans: (b)
conduction losses.
84. Ans: (c)
82. A cycloconverter is a
(a) frequency change r(fc) from higher to
85. Which of the following is also called as
lower frequency with one-stage conversion
voltage commutation?
(b) fe from higher to lower frequency with
(a) CLASS A (b) CLASS B
two-stage conversion
(c) CLASS C (d) CLASS D
(c) fc from lower to higher frequency with
85. Ans: (d)
one-stage conversion
(d) Either (a) or (c)
86. Surge current rating of an SCR specifies the
82. Ans: (d)
maximum
(a) Repetitive current with sine wave
83. The function of snubber circuit connected
(b) Non-repetitive current with sine wave
across an SCR is to
(c) Non-repetitive current with rectangular
dv
(a) Suppress
dt wave
dv (d) Repetitive current with rectangular wave

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(b) Increase
dt 86. Ans: (b)
in
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dv
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(c) Decrease
dt 87. An unsaturated dc shunt motor runs at its
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(d) Keep transient overvoltage at a constant rated speed when rated voltage is applied to
B
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value it. If the supply voltage to the motor is

C
reduced by 25%, the speed of the motor

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83. Ans: (a)

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(a) Increases by 25% 91. A three phase slip ring induction motor with
(b) Remains the same chopper controlled resistance has its torque
(c) Decreases by 25% proportional to
(d) Decrease only slightly by an amount less (a) Rotor current
than 25% (b) Stator resistance
87. Ans: (b) (c) Square of rotor current
(d) Square root of rotor current
88. In v/f control method,
91. Ans: (c)
(a) The maximum torque decreases
(b) The motor speed increases
92. In static Kramer drive, motor turns ratio is
(c) The maximum torque is constant
0.6, the firing angle is 120. The motor slip
(d) The maximum torque increases
is
88. Ans: (c)
(a) 0.633 (b) 0.533
89. A dc series motor is controlled by chopper. (c) 0.833 (d) 0.733

92. Ans: (c)
V = 600 V, Ra +Rf = 0.1, Km = 410-3 N-
m/A2, Ia = 300A, duty cycle = 0.6. Power
93. A DC chopper is used for regenerative
input to the motor is
braking of a separately excited DC motor.
(a) 98 W (b) 108 kW
The DC supply voltage is 400V. The
(c) 88 kW (d) 100 kW
armature current during regenerative braking
89. Ans: (b)
is kept constant at 300 A with negligible
ripple. For a duty cycle of 60% the power
90. In static rotor resistance control method, the
return to the DC supply is
effective external resistance is
(a) 78 kW (b) 58 kW
R 1   
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(a) R2 (1 –) b)
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(c) 38 kW (d) 48 kW
(c) R (1–) (d) R (1 – )2
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93. Ans: (d)

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90. Ans: (c)

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(a) Electric are heating 98. The average speed of a train is independent
(b) Resistance heating of
(c) Induction heating (a) Duration of steps
(d) Dielectric heating (b) Acceleration and braking retardation
94. Ans: (b) (c) Distance between stops
(d) Running time
95. In which of the following welding methods, 98. Ans: (a)
the molten metal is poured for joining the
metals ? 99. Nichrome wires can be safely used for
(a) Gas welding heating upto
(b) Thermit welding (a) 1200 C (b) 1400 C
(c) TIG welding (c) 1500 C (d) 2000 C
(d) Arc welding 99. Ans: (a)
95. Ans: (b)
100. V being the voltage impressed on a
96. Which of the following vapour/gas will give dielectric, dielectric loss is proportional to
yellow colour in a filament lamp? (a) V (b) V2
(a) Helium (b) Mercury (c) 1/V (d) V–2
(c) Magnesium (d) Sodium 100. Ans: (b)
96. Ans: (d)
101. The coefficient of adhesion is
97. For continuously running rolling mills with (a) Zero in traction systems
intermittent loading, the most suitable DC (b) Low in case of AC traction high in DC
drive is traction
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(a) DC series motor

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(c) High in AC traction low in case of DC

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(b) DC shunt motor traction

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(c) DC differentially compound motor (d) Same on AC and DC traction systems

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(d) DC cumulatively compound motor

B
101. Ans: (c)

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97. Ans: (d)

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102. In HPSV lamps, traces of neon gas 106. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is
(a) Helps in stabilizing the arc more pronounced at
(b) Changes the colour of light (a) Lower frequencies
(c) Prevents the vaporization of filament (b) Higher frequencies
(d) Assists during starting to develop enough (c) Lower voltage
heat to vaporize sodium (d) Higher voltages
102. Ans: (d) 106. Ans: (a)
103. Which of the following lamp light output is 107. In an electric press, mica is used
comparable with that of day light? (a) As an insulator
(a) Fluorescent lamp (b) As a device for power factor
(b) Sodium vapour lamp improvement
(c) Mercury vapour lamp (c) For dielectric heating
(d) Halogen lamp (d) For induction heating
103. Ans: ( ) 107. Ans: (a)
104. Bearings used to support axles of traction 108. Gray iron is usually welded by
coaches are (a) Gas welding
(a) Ball bearings (b) Bush bearings (b) TIG welding
(c) Roller bearings (d) Journal bearings (c) MIG welding
104. Ans: (c) (d) Arc welding
108. Ans: (a)
105. Change in the frequency of supply does not
affect the 109. Three resistances each of R ohms are
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(a) Dielectric heating connected to form a triangle. The resistance

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(b) Electrical resistance heating between any two terminals will be

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(c) Induction heating (a) R (b) 3R/2

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(d) Microwave heating

B
(c) 3R (d) 2R/3

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105. Ans: (b) 109. Ans: (d)

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110. If the number of branches in a network is 114. In a pure inductive circuit, if the supply
'B', the number of nodes is 'N' and the frequency is reduced to half, the current will
number of dependent loops is 'L', then the be
number of independent node equations will (a) Reduced to one fourth
be (b) Reduced to half
(a) N+L–1 (b) B–1 (c) Doubled
(c) B–N (d) N–1 (d) Four times at high
110. Ans: (d) 114. Ans: (c)
111. Which of the following theorems can be

115. A 200 H coil has a Q of 250 at resonance
applied to any network linear or non-linear,
frequency of 800 kHz. The effective
active or passive, time variant or time
resistance of coil is
invariant?
(a) 8 (b) 4
(a) Thevenin Theorem
(c) 2 (d) 1
(b) Norton Theorem
115. Ans: (b)
(c) Telligen Theorem
(d) Superposition Theorem
116. Fourier series does not exist for the
111. Ans: (c)
functions x2+y2= 4 because
(a) function is single valued
112. A passive 2-port network is in a steady state,
(b) function is not a single valued
compared to its input, the steady state output
(c) function is not continuous
can never offer
(d) function is continuous
(a) Higher voltage (b) Lower impedance
116. Ans: (b)
(c) Greater power (d) Better regulation
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112. Ans: (c)

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117. The power delivered to a 3-phase load can

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be measured by the use of two wattmeters

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113. Change in the circuit voltage will affect

P
only when the

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(a) Resonant frequency (b) Q factor

B
(a) load is unbalanced

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(c) Current (d) Bandwidth

(b) load is balanced
C
113. Ans: (c)

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(c) three phase load is connected to the 120. A 200 V, 50 Hz inductive circuit takes
source through three wires current of 10 amp, lagging 30o. The
(d) three phase load is connected to the inductive reactance of the circuit is
source through four wires (a) 20  (b) 16 
117. Ans: (c) (c) 17.32  (d) 10 
120. Ans: (d)
118. Measurement of power and power factor of
a 3-phase system by two wattmeter method 121. The surface integral of the electrical field
can be obtained in case of intensity is the
1. Balanced load and balanced source (a) net flux eliminating from the surfaces
2. Balanced source with 3-phase 3-wire (b) Electrical charge
unbalanced load (c) Charge density
3. Unbalanced source with 3-phase 3-wire (d) Flux density
balanced load 121. Ans: (a)
4. Balanced source with 3-phase 4-wire
unbalanced load 122. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
5. unbalanced and unbalanced source (a) Magnetic potential
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 (b) Susceptibility
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (c) Magnetic flux intensity
118. Ans: (d) (d) Magnetic flux density
122. Ans: (d)
119. The time constant of an RC circuit is defined
as the time taken by the voltage across the 123. Which law is synonymous to the occurrence
capacitor to become_____ of its final value of diamagnetism?
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(a) 63.2% (b) 36.8%

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(a) Ampere’s law

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(c) 50% (d) 100% (b) Maxwell’s law

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119. Ans: (a) (c) Coloumb’s law

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(d) Lenz’s law

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123. Ans: (d)

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124. A 220 V DC machine has an armature D. Retardation test

resistance of 1 . If the full load current is List-II
20A, the difference in the induced voltages 1. Efficiency
when the machine is running as a motor and 2. Separation of iron and friction losses
as a generator is 3. Open and short circuited armature coils
(a) 20 V (b) Zero 4. Temperature rise
(c) 40 V (d) 50 V Codes
124. Ans: (c) A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
125. Under which of the following conditions is a (b) 2 4 1 3
DC motor provided with compensating (c) 3 4 1 2
winding used? (d) 2 1 4 3
1. Wide range of speed control above 126. Ans: (c)
normal
2. Wide range of steady load variation with 127. In a DC shunt generator working on load,
no speed control the brushes are moved forward in the
3. Wide range of rapid variation in load. direction of rotation, as a result of this,
Select the correct answer using the codes commutation will
given below: (a) Improve but terminal voltage will fall
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (b) Worsen and terminal voltage will fall
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 (c) Improve and terminal voltage will rise
125. Ans: (a) (d) worsen and terminal voltage will rise
127. Ans: (a)
126. Match List-I and List-II and select the
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A. Voltage drop test

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B
B. Hopkinson’s test
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C. Swinburne’s test
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128. What are the slot wedges in a DC machine 3. Reduce the risk of voltage shock in case
made of? of insulation breakdown
(a) Mild steel (b) Silicon steel 4. Reduce the core loss
(c) Fibre (d) Cast iron From these, the correct answer is
128. Ans: (c) (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 2, 3
129. A transformer has a percentage resistance of 131. Ans: (d)
2% and percentage reactance of 4%. What
are its regulations at power factor 0.8 132. For a constant load current, transformer
lagging and 0.8 leading respectively? maximum efficiency occurs at
(a) 4% and 0.8% (a) any power factor
(b) 3.2% and 1.6% (b) zero power factor leading
(c) 1.6% and 3.2% (c) zero power factor lagging
(d) 4.8% and 0.6% (d) unity power factor
129. Ans: (a) 132. Ans: (d)
130. In a transformer, zero voltage regulation at 133. The hysteresis and eddy current losses of a
full load is single phase transformer working on 200 V,
(a)Not possible 50 Hz supply are Ph and Pe respectively.
(b) Possible at unity power factor load The percentage decrease in these when
(c) Possible at leading power factor load operated on a 160 V, 40 Hz supply are
(d) Possible at lagging power factor laod (a) 32, 36 (b) 20, 36
130. Ans: (c) (c) 25, 50 (d) 40, 80

133. Ans: (b)
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131. In a transformer, low voltage winding is

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placed near the core in case of concentric 134. Potier reactance of an alternator is almost
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the same as
P
windings so as to
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(a) Field winding reactance

B
1. Reduce the leakage flux

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(b) Total armature reactance

C
2. Reduce the insulation requirement

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(c) Leakage reactance of field winding 137. Skew of rotor bar eliminates
(d) Armature leakage reactance 1. The effect of space harmonics
134. Ans: (d) 2. The entire effect of crawling
3. Magnetic noise
135. A synchronous motor operates at 0.8 pf 4. Vibration due to unequal force developed
lagging. If the field current of the motor is on rotor
continuously increased 137. Ans: (d)
1. The power factor decreases upto a
certain value of field current and 138. It is desirable to eliminate 5th harmonic
thereafter it increases. voltage from the phase voltage of an
2. The armature current increases upto a alternator. The coils should be short pitched
certain value of field current and by, an electrical angle of
thereafter it decreases. (a) 30o (b) 36o
3. The power factor increases upto a certain (c) 72o (d) 18o
value of field current and thereafter it 138. Ans: (b)
decrease
4. The armature current decreases upto a 139. The speed of a 3-phase induction motor is
certain value of field current and controlled by controlling its supply
thereafter it, increases. frequency. If the speed of the machine is
From these, the correct answer is reduced by reducing the frequency by 50%
(a) 1, 2 (b) 3, 4 of the rated frequency; to keep the flux in
(c) 1, 3 (d) 2, 4 the machine constant, the motor voltage
135. Ans: (b) compared to rated voltage must be
(a) increased by 25%
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136. In wound rotor alternator, reactive power is (b) increased by 50%

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maximum at a load angle of (c) decreased by 50%

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(a) 90 (b) 180 (d) decreased by 25%
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(c) 0o (d) 45o 139. Ans: (c)

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136. Ans: (c)

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140. Consider the following statements: In a 3-phase induction motor connected to a

Star delta starter is used in 3-phase induction 3-phase supply; if one of the lines suddenly
motor because it gets disconnected, then the
1. Prevents heating of the motor winding 1. Motor will come to a standstill
2. Ensures permissible minimum starting 2. Motor will continue to run at the same
current speed with line current unchanged
3. Is regulated by electricity authority 3. Motor will continue to run at a slightly
4. Ensures smooth run up to full load speed with increase in the line current
Of these statements 4. Rotor current will have both of sf and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (2s)f component frequencies where s is
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct the slip and f is the supply frequency
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct Of these statements:
(d) 1 and 2 are correct (a) 1 and 4 are correct
140. Ans: (d) (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
141. The power output of 3-phase induction (d) 2 and 3 are correct
motor is 15 kW and the corresponding slip is 143. Ans: (c)
4%. The rotor ohmic loss will be
144. For successful parallel operation of two
(a) 600 W (b) 625 W
single phase transformer, the essential
(c) 650 W (d) 700 W
condition is that their
141. Ans: (b)
(a) Percentage impedances should be equal
(b) Turns ratio should be exactly equal
142. The starting torque of a 3-phase induction
(c) Polarities must be properly connected
motor varies as
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(d) kVA ratings should be equal

(a) V2 (b) V (c) V1/2 (d) 1/V
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144. Ans: (c)

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142. Ans: (a)

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145. For eliminating nth harmonic from the emf

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143. Consider the following statements:

B
generated in the phase of 3-phase alternator,

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the chording angle should be

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1 s
(a) n  full pitch (b)  full pitch (c) (1 s) (d)
n 1 s
2 3 147. Ans: (c)
(c)  full pitch (d)  full pitch
n n
145. Ans: (b) 148. For C coils and P poles, the distance
between the coils connected by an equalizer
146. Consider the following statements: ring is
1. A grid connected induction generator C C
(a) (b)
always supplies leading reactive power P 2
to the bus 2C C
(c) (d)
2. An overexcited synchronous motor P 2P
draws current at a lagging power factor 148. Ans: (c)
3. An underexcited synchronous generator

connected to an infinite bus works at a 149. If the discharge is 1 m3/s and head of the
leading power factor water is 1 m, then the power generated by
4. The torque angle of a synchronous the alternator in one hour (assume 100%
machine is the angle between the efficiency of generator and turbine) will be
excitation voltage and the gap voltage 73

(a) 10 kW (b) kW
75
Of these statements
746
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (c) kW (d) 100 kW
75
(b) 3 and 4 are correct
149. Ans: (c)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
150. Which one of the following is employed as a
146. Ans: (c)
moderator by CANDU type of slow thermal
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in
nuclear reactors?
147. The approximate value of efficiency of a
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(a) Water (b) Heavy water

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three phase induction motor running at a slip

P
(c) Graphite (d) Beryllium

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‘s’ is given by
B
150. Ans: (b)

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1 s
(a) (b)
C
1 s 1 s
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Basic Electrical Engineering Multiple choice questions
MCQ’s for Phase 2 Examination

Prepared by Prof. Nipin K K
Unit 3: Single Phase Transformers and Electrostatics

“Basic Materials Used in Transformer Parts”.
1. The majority of power transformers in use throughout the world are oil filled using a mineral oil.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In majority power transformers dielectric material used is the oil, which serves the dual
purpose of providing insulation and as a cooling medium to conduct away the losses which are produced
in the transformer in the form of heat.
2. Dielectric mineral oil is used in ____________

a) Small transformers
b) Medium transformers
c) Large transformers
d) In all transformers
Answer: c
Explanation: Because of the fire hazard associated with mineral oil, it has been the practice to use designs
for smaller transformers which do not contain oil. It is usual, therefore, to locate transformers with
mineral oil, out of doors where a fire is more easily dealt with and consequentially the risks are fewer.
3. The purpose of the transformer core is to provide ____________
a) High reluctance path
b) Low reluctance path
c) High inductive path
d) High capacitive path
Answer: b
Explanation: The purpose of a transformer core is to provide a low-reluctance path for the magnetic flux
linking primary and secondary windings. In doing so, the core experiences iron losses due to hysteresis
and eddy currents flowing within it which, in turn, show themselves as heating of the core material.
4. Transformer core is designed to reduce ______________

a) Hysteresis loss
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b) Eddy current loss

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c) Hysteresis loss and Eddy current loss

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d) Cannot be determined
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Answer: c
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Explanation: Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are the losses which take place in core of the
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transformer thus they are also termed as core losses. While other losses take place in winding or in air gap
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which can’t be dealt with core design.

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Dr D Y Patil Institute of Technology, Pimpri, PunePage 1

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5. Transformers windings are generally made of __________

a) Steel
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Steel iron alloy
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to avoid losses due to loading current, winding materials must be chosen wisely.
Winding conductors are thus made of copper or more precisely saying they are made of high conductivity
copper by some industrial processes.
6. Before using oil in transformers, insulation material was _________

a) Asbestos
b) Cotton
c) Low grade pressboard in air
d) Kraft paper
Answer: d
Explanation: At the time of discovery of transformer, people were using asbestos, cotton, low grade
pressboard in air for insulation purpose. Further, Kraft paper was invented which became much popular
insulation material.
7. Which transformer insulation material is best compare to Kraft paper?

a) Oil
b) Asbestos
c) Low grade pressboard
d) Cotton
Answer: a
Explanation: Newly developed oil-filled transformers have capabilities much greater than those
transformers which used Kraft paper as dielectric material. Also, electrical properties of Kraft paper
depend on physical and chemical properties of paper.
8. Which of the following is not the property of oil that should be fulfilled before using in transformer?
a) Low viscosity
b) High flash point
c) Low electrical strength
d) High chemical stability
Answer: c
Explanation: There are various important parameters that oil must follow for its use in oil cooled
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transformer. These parameters include low viscosity, high stability, high flash point, high electrical
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strength, low pour point.

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9. Transformer ratings are given in _____________

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a) kW
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b) kVAR
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c) HP
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d) kVA
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Answer: d
Explanation: There are two types of losses in a transformer, Copper Losses and Iron Losses or Core
Losses or Insulation Losses. Copper losses (I 2R) depends on current passing through transformer winding
while Iron losses or Core Losses or Insulation Losses depends on Voltage. That’s why the rating of
Transformer is in kVA.
10. Function of transformer is to _________________

a) Convert AC to DC
b) Convert DC to AC
c) Step down or up the DC voltages and currents
d) Step down or up the AC voltages and currents
Answer: d
Explanation: A Transformer does not work on DC and operates only on AC, therefore it Step up of Step
down the level of AC Voltage or Current, by keeping frequency of the supply unaltered on the secondary
side.
11. What is the dielectric strength of a transformer oil?
a) 1 kV
b) 35 kV
c) 100 kV
d) 330 kV
Answer: b
Explanation: For mineral oil, an accepted minimum dielectric strength is 30 kV for transformers with a
high-voltage rating of 230 kV and above and 27 kV for transformers with a high-voltage rating below 230
kV. New oil should pass the condition of a minimum dielectric strength of 35 kV by ASTM methods of
testing.
12. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?

a) Conservator
b) Breather
c) Buchholz relay
d) Exciter
Answer: d
Explanation: Conservator, breather, Buchholz relay are the parts which are much important in transformer
construction in order to maintain temperature of the transformer and to work transformer with good
efficiency.
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13. The insulating material that can withstand the highest temperature safely is _______________
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a) Cellulose
b) Asbestos
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c) Mica
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d) Glass fibre
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Answer: c
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Explanation: Mica is extremely stable when it is exposed to moisture and extreme temperatures to
maintain superior electrical properties as an insulator. The mechanical properties of mica allow it to be
cut, punched, stamped and machined to close tolerances along with maintenance of a high thermal
conductivity.
14. The part of a transformer which is visible from outside _______________
a) Bushings
b) Core
c) Primary winding
d) Secondary winding
Answer: a
Explanation: Core, primary winding, secondary winding of a transformer are generally kept in closed
container filled with an oil so that, oil acts as a coolant and provides electrical neutrality also. Thus, only
bushings are visible from outside.
“Transformer Construction (Core)”.

1. Transformer core is generally made of ___________
a) Single block of core material
b) By stacking large number of sheets together
c) Can be made with any of the above method
Answer: b
Explanation: Transformer core experiences eddy current losses when transformer is in the operations. In
order to reduce eddy current losses, it is advisable to use large number of sheets laminated from each
other are stick together than using one single block.
2. Transformer core is constructed for ______________
a) Providing least effective magnetic linkage between two windings
b) Providing isolation between magnetic linkages of one coil from another
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c) Providing most effective magnetic linkage between two windings

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Answer: c
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Explanation: Transformer core is so chosen that it will provide low reluctance path and will transfer
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maximum amount of flux from one winding to other, providing most effective magnetic linkage between
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two windings.
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3. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

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a) High frequency power supplies are light weight

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b) Transformer size gets reduced at high frequency

c) Transformer size is more at higher frequency
d) High frequency power supplies are light weight and transformer size gets reduced at high frequency
Answer: d
Explanation: From the induced emf equation of transformer emf is given by E ∝ φf. For same emf, φf =
constant φ1f1 = φ2f2 i.e. B1A1f1 = B2A2f2. For constant flux density B1 = B2. A1f1 = A2f2. For high
frequency f2 > f1, A2 < A1. Thus, at high frequencies transformer size get reduced and also light weight.
4. Transformer operating at 25-400 Hz frequency contain core made of _____________

a) Highly permeable iron
b) Steel alloy
c) Air core
d) Highly permeable iron and Steel alloy
Answer: d
Explanation: When core is made of highly permeable iron or steel alloy (cold-rolled, grain oriented sheet
steel). This transformer is generally called an iron-core transformer. Transformers operated from 25–400
Hz are invariably of iron-core construction.
5. In various radio devices and testing instruments we use ______________
a) Iron core transformer
b) Air core transformer
c) W/O core transformer
d) Any transformer can be used
Answer: a
Explanation: In special cases, the magnetic circuit linking the windings may be made of nonmagnetic
material, in which case the transformer is referred to as an air-core transformer. The air-core transformer
is of interest mainly in radio devices and in certain types of measuring and testing instruments.
6. Which type of flux does transformer action need?
a) Constant magnetic flux
b) Increasing magnetic flux
c) Alternating magnetic lux
d) Alternating electric flux
Answer: c
Explanation: The energy transfer in a transformer, is from one winding to another, entirely through
magnetic medium it is known as transformer action. Therefore, transformer action requires an alternating
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or time varying magnetic flux in order to transfer power from primary side to secondary side. Since
induced emf in the winding is due to flux linkage.
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7. Different core construction is required for core type and shell type transformer.
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a) True
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b) False
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B
Answer: a
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Explanation: In the “closed-core” type transformer, the primary and secondary windings are wound
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outside and surround the core ring. In the “shell type” transformer, the primary and secondary windings
pass inside the steel magnetic circuit (core) which forms a shell around the windings.
8. There is only one magnetic flux path in the circuit. The transformer is definitely ________________
a) Core type
b) Shell type
c) Can be any of the above
d) Depends on other parameters
Answer: a
Explanation: In core type transformer, winding is placed on two core limbs, while in case of shell type
transformer, winding is placed on mid arm of the core. Other limbs will be used as mechanical support.
Core type transformers have only one magnetic flux path.
9. Which of the following is correct statement?
a) Core type transformer has more output than shell type
b) Core type transformer has higher efficiency compare to shell type
c) Core type transformer has lower efficiency than shell type
d) Can’t predict
Answer: c
Explanation: In core type winding is surrounded with considerable part of core whereas in shell type core
is surrounded with considerable part of winding of transformer. In core type output is less, because of
losses. In shell type transformer output is high because of less loss, thus efficiency will be more in case of
shell transformer.
10. Core type transformer is with ____________________
a) Large size
b) Small size
c) High voltage
d) Everywhere
Answer: a
Explanation: Core type is very useful when we need large size of the transformer with operation at low
voltage. While shell type transformer is very useful when we need small size high voltage. Cooling is
more in core type.
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11. Which of the following is the correct statement?

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a) Shell type has more mechanical protection

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b) Cooling is more in shell type

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c) In core type sandwiched wiring is used

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d) In core type concentric winding is used

Answer: d
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Explanation: Shell type has less mechanical protection to coil while Core type has better mechanical
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protection to coil. Core type is easy to repair and maintain. In core type transformer concentric cylindrical
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winding are used. In shell type transformer sandwiched winding are used.
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12. What is the purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer?

a) Provide support to windings
b) Reduce hysteresis loss
c) Decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
d) Reduce eddy current losses
Answer: c
Explanation: Iron core is used in a transformer to carry flux from one winding to another winding, so
there should be minimum opposition to flux passing through iron core. Hence, transformer function is to
decrease the reluctance of magnetic path.
13. What is the thickness of laminations used in a transformer?

a) 0.1 mm to 0.5 mm
b) 4 mm to 5 mm
c) 14 mm to 15 mm
d) 25 mm to 40 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: Laminations are made to reduce the eddy currents and is made of thin strips. Generally, the
steel transformer lamination range for 50 Hz varies from 0.25mm to 0.5mm, if it is a 60 Hz transformer
then it ranges from 0.17–0.27mm.
“Transformer Construction (Winding)”.

1. In the transformer which of the following winding has got more cross-sectional area?
a) Copper winding
b) Steel winding
c) Aluminium winding
d) Iron winding
Answer: a
Explanation: The wire used for carrying current in a transformer winding is either copper or aluminium.
While aluminium wire is lighter and less expensive than copper wire, a larger cross-sectional area of
conductor must be used to carry the same amount of current as with copper.
2. Primary winding of a transformer ______________

a) Is always a high voltage winding
b) Is always a low voltage winding
c) Could either be a low voltage or high voltage winding
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Answer: c
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Explanation: Primary winding used in a transformer, can be at higher or lower voltage potential,
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depending on the number of turns with secondary winding. For step up and step-down transformers
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primary winding will be at lower and higher potential respectively.

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B
3. Which winding has more number of turns?

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a) Low voltage winding

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b) High voltage winding

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c) Primary winding
d) Secondary winding
Answer: b
Explanation: High voltage winding always has a large number of turns, as voltage is directly proportional
to the number of turns. If large numbered winding is present on primary side then the transformer is step
down transformer.
4. Part of the transformer which undergoes most damage from overheating is ___________
a) Iron core
b) Copper winding
c) Winding insulation
d) Frame or case
Answer: c
Explanation: Copper windings carry current through them. The heat loss producing in any winding
carrying current is proportional to the square of the current passing through it multiplied with resistance.
For large transformers, current is very high, so heating causes most of the damage to insulation material.
5. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur in ___________
a) Core
b) Windings
c) Tank
Answer: b
Explanation: Copper windings carry currents in a transformer. The loss in form of heat in copper winding
carrying current is proportional to the square of the current passing through them multiplied by the
resistance of the winding. This loss is dissipated in heat and corresponding temperature rise.
6. If secondary number of turns are higher then, transformer is called _________

a) Step-down
b) Step-up
c) One-one
d) Autotransformer
Answer: b
Explanation: When secondary number of turns are higher compare to primary, voltage induced in
secondary windings will obviously high. Thus, this transformer is used for stepping up the output voltage
by keeping frequency constant.
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7. If primary number of turns are higher then, transformer is called _________

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a) Step-down
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b) Step-up
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c) One-one
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d) Autotransformer
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Answer: a
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Explanation: When primary number of turns are higher compare to secondary, voltage induced in
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secondary windings will obviously low compare to primary. Thus, this transformer is used for stepping
down the output voltage by keeping frequency constant.
8. If a transformer is having equal number of turns at primary and secondary then transformer is called as
_______________
a) Step-down
b) Step-up
c) One-one
d) Autotransformer
Answer: c
Explanation: A transformer is having equal number of turns at primary and secondary then transformer is
called as one-one transformer. This transformer have turns ratio equal to 1, so is the voltage ratio for the
one-one transformer.
9. One to one transformers are used because ______________

a) To isolate any part of circuit electrically
b) To get more voltage at secondary
c) To get less voltage at secondary
d) To reduce losses, present in circuit
Answer: a
Explanation: In one to one transformers, we have same number of turns in primary and in secondary. So,
increasing/ reducing voltage is not possible. They are generally used to isolate one part of circuit from
another part of circuit, electrically.
10. Same type and kind of insulations are not used in all types of transformers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The windings of huge power transformers use conductors with heavier insulation and are
assembled with greater mechanical support and the winding layers are insulated from each other, this is
known as minor insulation for which pressed board or varnished cloth is used. While for major insulation
and insulating cylinders, they are made of specially selected pressed board or synthetic resin bounded
cylinders, is used between LV and core and LV and HV.
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11. Sandwiched type of winding is used in ____________

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a) In all transformers
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b) In core type transformers

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c) In shell type transformers

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d) In all transformers except shell and core type transformers

Answer: c
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Explanation: According to the construction of transformers core type transformers don’t require
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sandwiched wiring. While, in the shell type transformer, the primary and secondary windings pass inside
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the steel magnetic circuit (core) which forms a shell around the winding.
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“Ideal Transformer”.
1. A transformer cannot work on the DC supply because __________________
a) There is no need to change the DC voltage
b) A DC circuit has more losses
c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux is zero
Answer: c
Explanation: For DC supply the direction and the magnitude of the supply remains constant, produced
flux will be constant. Thus, rate of change of flux through the windings will be equal to zero. As a result,
voltage at secondary will always be equal to 0.
2. An ideal transformer has infinite primary and secondary inductances.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The primary and secondary windings have zero resistance. It means that there is no ohmic
power loss and no resistive voltage drop in the ideal transformer. An actual transformer has finite but
small winding resistances.
3. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is ______________

a) Zero
b) Very small
c) Cannot be predicted
d) Infinite
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the primary and secondary windings are not connected to each other, one can say there
exists the resistance of infinite ohms. These windings are connected to each other magnetically not
electrically.
4. Identify the correct statement relating to the ideal transformer.
a) no losses and magnetic leakage
b) interleaved primary and secondary windings
c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings
d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
Answer: a
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Explanation: There is no leakage flux so that all the flux is confined to the core and links both the
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windings. An actual transformer does have a small amount of leakage flux which can be accounted in
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detailed analysis by appropriate circuit modelling.

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5. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that _____________
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a) copper loss = iron loss

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b) copper loss < iron loss

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c) copper loss > iron loss

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d) cannot be determined
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Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum efficiency of a transformer is defined at the that values when, copper losses
become completely equal to the iron losses. In all other cases the efficiency will be lower than the
maximum value.
6. Which of the following statement regarding an ideal single-phase transformer is incorrect? Transformer
is having a turn ratio of 1: 2 and drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V AC supply is incorrect?
a) It’s a step-up transformer
b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
c) Its rating is 2 kVA
d) Its secondary current is 20 A
Answer: d
Explanation: Since turns ratio is equal to 1:2 the transformer will give higher voltage at secondary with
respect to the primary voltage, and current in secondary thus will be halved. In last option current is
doubled which is opposite to the ratings given.
7. Ideal transformer core has permeability equal to _____
a) Zero
b) Non-zero finite
c) Negative
d) Infinite
Answer: d
Explanation: The core has infinite permeability so that zero magnetizing current is needed to establish the
requisite amount of flux in the core. The core-loss (hysteresis as well as eddy-current loss) is considered
zero.
8.Turns ratio of the transformer is directly proportional to ____________
a) Resistance ratio
b) Currents ratio
c) Voltage ratio
d) Not proportional to any terms
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the voltage expression, emf induced in the primary is directly proportional to
the change in the flux with respect to the time and number of turns of the primary winding. Similarly, for
secondary winding.
9. Which of the following statement is correct regarding turns ratio?

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a) Current ratio and turns ratio are inverse of each other

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b) Current ratio is exactly same to the voltage ratio

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c) Currents ratio is exactly same to the turns ratio

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d) Voltage ratio and turns ratio are inverse of each other

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Answer: a
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B
Explanation: Voltage ratio of transformer winding is exactly similar to the turns ratio of transformer,
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while voltage ratio and turns ratio is exactly inverse of the currents ratio. Hence, by knowing any of these
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quantities on can identify the type of transformer.

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10. Which of the following is the expression for emf induced in primary with voltage applied to primary
of an ideal transformer?
a) e=V
b) V= √2*e*cos ωt
c) e= √2*V*cos ωt
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: For an ideal transformer having a primary of N1 turns and a secondary of N2 turns on a
common magnetic core. The voltage of the source to which the primary is connected is v = √2 V cos wt.
while the secondary is initially assumed to be an open circuited. As a consequence, flux f is established in
the core such that e = v = N1 dφ/dt.
11. Which of the following is the wrong expression?
a) i1N1=i2N2
b) i1v1=i2v2
c) i1N2=i2N1
d) v2N1=v1N2
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the transformation ratio, current flowing through the transformer is inversely
proportional to the number turns of winding and voltage applied across it. While, voltage applied is
directly proportional to the number of turns.
12. For transformer given, turns ratio is equal to a, what will be the impedance of primary with respect to
secondary?
a) a2 times the secondary impedance
b) a times secondary impedance
c) secondary impedance/a
d) secondary impedance/a2
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of impedances on primary to the secondary is directly proportional to the inverse
of square of turns ratio of transformer. Hence primary impedance to the secondary impedance ratio will
be 1/ a2.
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13. Power transformed in the ideal transformer with turns ratio a is _______
a) a2 times primary
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b) a times primary
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c) primary power/ a2
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d) primary power
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Answer: d
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Explanation: In an ideal transformer, voltages are transformed in the direct ratio of turns, currents in the
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inverse ratio and impedances in the direct ratio squared; while power and VA remain unaltered. Thus,
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primary power= secondary power.

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14. For a transformer with primary turns 100, secondary turns 400, if 200 V is applied at primary we will
get ___________
a) 80 V at secondary
b) 800 V at secondary
c) 1600 V at secondary
d) 3200 V at secondary
Answer: b
Explanation: Voltage in the primary of the transformer will get modified in the transformer secondary,
according to the number of turns. Thus, turns are modified with 4 times the primary, we’ll get 4 times
higher voltage at secondary.
15. For a transformer with primary turns 400, secondary turns 100, if 20A current is flowing through
primary, we will get ___________
a) 80A at secondary
b) 5A at secondary
c) 800A at secondary
d) 40A at secondary
Answer: a
Explanation: Current in the primary of the transformer will get modified in the transformer secondary,
according to the number of turns, in inverse proportion. Thus, turns are modified with 1/4 times the
primary, we’ll get 4 times higher current at secondary.
“Cooling Techniques for Transformer”.

1. Which is the most common, famous and adopted method of cooling of a power transformer?
a) Air blast cooling
b) Natural air cooling
c) Oil cooling
d) Any of the above method can be used
Answer: c
Explanation: Oil acts as a best coolant material, for transformer cooling. Due to its high efficiency as a
coolant it is most widely used in transformers. Not only same but Oil with suitable properties can be used
for various power transformers according to their ratings.
2. Function of conservator in an electrical transformer is __________

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a) Supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need

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b) Provide fresh air for cooling the transformer

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c) Protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to heating
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d) Cannot be determkned
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Answer: c
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Explanation: When transformer is loaded and when ambient temperature rises, the volume of oil inside
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transformer increases as oil expands. A conservator tank properly installed on transformer provides
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required space to this expanded transformer oil. It performs another function as a reservoir for transformer
insulating oil.
3. Natural oil cooling method have some limitations due to which it is adopted for transformers up to a
rating of ____________
a) 3000 kVA
b) 1000 kVA
c) 500 kVA
d) 250 kVA
Answer: a
Explanation: For the transformers n higher kVA ratings can be used with this cooling method. While
transformers having capacity beyond 5 MVA, due to some improper limitations forced cooling is used.
Natural cooling is based on the important phenomenon seen in fluids that when oil is heated up, moves in
upward direction.
4. What is the function of spacers?

a) To insulate the coils from each other
b) To provide free passage to the cooling oil
c) To insulate coils and provide free passage
Answer: b
Explanation: The winding layers of transformer are separated by spacers. One or more spacers are
provided here, along with at least one integrated electrical discharge barrier extending off the central body
of the spacer in the vicinity of the area where the spacer is in contact with a winding.
5. Which of the following is the most important quality required for chemical in breather, so that it can be
used perfectly in an electrical transformer?
a) Ionizing air
b) Absorbing moisture
c) Cleansing the transformer oil
d) Cooling the transformer oil
Answer: b
Explanation: Most of the power generation plants use silica gel breathers fitted to the conservator of oil
filled transformers. The purpose of silica gel breathers is to absorb the moisture in the air sucked in by the
transformer during the breathing process.
6. Which chemical is used in breather?

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a) Asbestos fibre
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b) Silica sand
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c) Sodium chloride
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d) Silica gel
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Answer: d
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B
Explanation: In order to absorb moisture from air while breathing process, breather chemical is used. So,
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breather chemical should possess the required ability of absorbing moisture. In all chemicals available as
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on today, silica gel is most perfect and best material that can be used for such process.
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7. A transformer oil used in an electrical transformer must be free from ________

a) Gases
b) Odour
c) Sludge
d) Moisture
Answer: d
Explanation: Transformer oil serves the purpose of cooling and it also acts as an insulator between
primary and secondary winding, thus it must be free from moisture else it will conduct electric current
through it, leading to failure of a transformer.
8. On which of the following transformer, Buchholz’s relay can be fixed on?

a) Auto-transformers
b) Air-cooled transformers
c) Welding transformers
d) Oil cooled transformers
Answer: d
Explanation: Buchholz relay is used in transformers for protection against all kinds of faults. Buchholz
relay is a famous and mostly used gas-actuated relay, which is installed to serve its best in oil-immersed
transformers. It gives an alarm, via its electrical circuitry, if any fault occurs in the transformer.
9. Gas is liberated due to temperature limit and due to dissociation of transformer oil after ___________
a) 50°C
b) 80°C
c) 100°C
d) 150°C
Answer: d
Explanation: Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil. But when the oil
temperature exceeds 1500, it dissociates and liberates. It is found that hydrogen H 2 and methane CH4 are
produced in large quantity if internal temperature of transformer rises up to 150 oC to 300oC due to
abnormal thermal stresses.
10. Buchholz’s relay will give warning and protection against ___________
a) Electrical fault inside the transformer itself
b) Electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
c) For both outside and inside faults
Answer: a
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Explanation: Buchholz relay is used in transformers for protection against all kinds of faults which are
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tend to happen inside a transformer. It is most famous gas-actuated relay which is installed in an oil-
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immersed transformer.
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11. Which of the following listed component will see and perform according to changes in volume of
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transformer cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric temperature during day and night?
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a) Conservator
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b) Breather
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c) Bushings
d) Buchholz relay
Answer: a
Explanation: Conservator is an additional tank provided with transformer which stores oil when it gets
expanded due to temperature rise. It also serves another important purpose that is, as a reservoir of
transformer oil. Thus, at all temperature variations of day and night transformer can work without any
problem.
12. What should be ideal volatility and ideal viscosity of the transformer oil?
a) Low, low
b) High, high
c) Low, high
d) High, low
Answer: a
Explanation: Transformer oil has a low viscosity, high flash point, high dielectric strength, high
resistivity. It has a low pour point and low volatility with good gas absorbing properties, while It resists
oxidation, sludging and emulsification with water.
13. What is the function of breather in a transformer?
a) To provide oxygen inside the tank
b) To cool the coils during reduced load
c) To cool the transformer oil
d) To arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most of the power generation stations use silica gel breathers fitted to conservator of oil
filled transformers. The most used purpose of these silica gel breathers is to arrest the moisture when the
outside air is sucked in by the transformer during the breathing process.
14. Natural air cooling method can’t be adopted because of some unavoidable effects, beyond _______
a) 1.5 MVA
b) 5 MVA
c) 15 MVA
d) 50 MVA
Answer: a
Explanation: Smaller size transformers are immersed in a tank containing transformer oil. The
transformer oil because temperature properties, which is surrounding the core and windings gets heated,
expands and moves upwards. It then flows downwards by the inside of tank walls which cause it to drop
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temperature and oil goes down to the bottom of the tank from where it rises once again completing the
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circulation cycle
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“Real Transformer and Equivalent Circuit”.

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1. When does transformer breath in?

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a) load on it increases
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b) load on it decreases
c) load remains constant
Answer: b
Explanation: Transformer in the low loading condition, also called extreme condition (lower
temperature), oil inside contracts and then air is taken inside thus breath in to main via the balloon like
structure through silica gel breather.
2. A transformer transforms ________________

a) voltage
b) current
c) power
d) frequency
Answer: c
Explanation: Since, in a transformer voltage and current is changed according to the number of turns
simultaneously, we call that power is transformed, though the magnitude remains same. Frequency is kept
constant.
3. Greater the secondary leakage flux ___________
a) less will be the secondary induced emf
b) less will be the primary induced emf
c) less will be the primary terminal voltage
Answer: a
Explanation: Since emf induced in the transformer coils is directly proportional to the change in the flux
with respect to time, we can say that if flux reduces the change in flux after some time will be less which
will induce less voltage in secondary.
4. Which of the following is not the purpose of iron core in a step-up transformer?
a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary
b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
c) to decrease the magnitude of magnetizing current
d) to provide all above features
Answer: c
Explanation: In real transformers, the two coils are generally wound onto the same iron core. The purpose
of the iron core is to provide the path for the magnetic flux generated by the current flowing around the
primary coil, so that as much of it as possible also links the secondary coil, with minimum losses.
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5. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on

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a) Primary side
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b) Secondary side
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c) Low voltage side

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d) Can be connected to any side

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Answer: d
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Explanation: The turns ratio is different with different tappings and hence different voltages are obtained
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with different tappings adjustment. The tappings are placed either on high voltage or low voltages or
sometimes on both high and low voltage windings to get required output.
6. Helical coils can be used at _____________

a) low voltage side of high kVA transformers
b) high frequency transformers
c) high voltage side of small capacity transformer
d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Answer: a
Explanation: Helical winding is used for low voltage and high current winding of large generator
transformers. Due to its distinct design that is spiral form, small number of turns and high current, some
additional eddy-current losses may happen in winding.
7. In real transformer, primary winding has _________
a) Infinite resistance
b) Zero resistance
c) Some finite resistance
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: For a real transformer on load, both the primary and secondary have finite resistances which
are uniformly spread throughout the winding. These resistances give rise to associated copper (I2R)
losses.
8. Both resistances and leakage reactances of the transformer windings are __________
a) Series effects
b) Parallel effects
c) Series-parallel effects
d) Cannot say
Answer: a
Explanation: Both resistances and leakage reactances of the transformer windings are series effects and
for low operating frequencies at which the transformers are commonly employed (power frequency
operation is at 50 Hz only), these can be regarded as lumped parameters.
9. To convert an ideal transformer into a practical transformer we add ____________

a) Primary winding resistance and secondary winding resistance
b) Primary winding leakage reactance and secondary winding leakage reactance
c) Primary winding resistance, leakage and secondary winding leakage reactance
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Answer: c
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Explanation: We consider all resistances i.e. of primary and secondary as series parameters of equivalent
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circuit of transformer, while all leakage reactances are also connected into the circuit as series parameters.
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10. Parallel parameters in a transformer equivalent circuit contains ___________

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a) Gi and Bm
b) R1 and X1
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c) R2 and X2
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Answer: a
Explanation: Primary and secondary resistances and leakage reactances are the series parameters in the
transformer equivalent circuit. So, these are not included in parallel parameters. Parallel parameters
contain Gi and Bm in which current Ii and Im flows respectively.
11. When does capacitor is included in equivalent circuit of transformer?

a) Transformer of very high VA rating
b) Transformer with very high frequency operation
c) Transformer with less VA
d) Never
Answer: b
Explanation: The passive lumped T-circuit representation of a transformer discussed above is adequate
for most power and radio frequency transformers. In transformers operating at higher frequencies, the
interwinding capacitances are often significant and must be included in the equivalent circuit.
12. The size of a transformer core will depend on _____________
a) frequency
b) area of the core
c) flux density of the core material
d) frequency and area of the core
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the frequency of transformer size of the core of transformer changes. While
area of core also depends upon many parameters like operating voltage, capacity of transformer, hence all
these contribute to the size of the core.
13. A single phase transformer has specifications as 250 KVA, 11000 V/415 V, 50 Hz. What are the
values of primary and secondary currents?
a) Primary current = 602.4A, Secondary current = 22.7A
b) Secondary current = 202.7A, Primary current = 602.4A
c) Primary current = 22.7A, Secondary current = 602.4A
d) Primary current = 11.35A, Secondary current = 301.2A
Answer: c
Explanation: Primary current is defined as the ratio of rated capacity of transformer to the rated primary
voltage of the transformer. Rated primary current= Rated power/voltage= 250000/11000= 22.7 A.
Similarly calculating for secondary current gives secondary current = 602.4A.
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14. A 25 KVA transformer is constructed to a turns ratio of N1/N2 = 10. The impedance of primary
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winding is 3+j5 ohms and of secondary winding is 0.5+j0.8 ohms. What will be the impedance of
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transformer when referred to primary?

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a) 53j + 85 ohms
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b) 53 + 85j ohms
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c) 3.5 + 5.8j ohms

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d) Can’t be calculated
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Answer: b
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Explanation: Given turns ratio is 10. Thus, secondary resistance when referred to the primary is equal to
k2*Z2, so net impedance on primary is equal to primary impedance + k^2*Z2 . Substituting all the terms
we get net impedance = 53 + 85j ohms.
“Approximate Circuit of Transformer”.

1. If R is the resistance of secondary winding of an electrical transformer and K is the transformation ratio
then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be _________
a) R/VK
b) R/K2
c) R2/K2
d) R2/K
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistances or more precisely impedances are transformed in the ratio of inverse square of
the transformation ratio or turns ratio. Thus, primary to secondary resistance is equal to reciprocal of
square of turns ratio.
2. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design ________________
a) reduces weight per kVA
b) reduces iron losses
c) reduces copper losses
d) increases part load efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: If a material is having higher flux density it will store and transfer maximum amount of flux
from primary to secondary, which will be very helpful as less core material will be required and weight
per KVA will get reduced.
3. The value of flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer is _______________

a) average value
b) rms value
c) maximum value
d) instantaneous value
Answer: c
Explanation: In the emf equation flux involved is maximum flux. Thus, here we can conclude that as flux
increase/decrease emf at the secondary also increases/decreases. Emf varies according to the AC wave
input.
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4. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area?

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a) Primary winding
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b) Secondary winding
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c) Low voltage winding

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d) High voltage winding

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Answer: d
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Explanation: Winding having less cross-sectional area may be primary or secondary winding. For high
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voltage winding cross sectional area is less while for low voltage winding cross sectional are is more, due
to inverse proportionality.
5. In constant frequency (50 Hz) power transformers, approximate form is used with ___________
a) π equivalent model
b) T equivalent model
c) π and T equivalent both
d) Another model
Answer: b
Explanation: In constant frequency (50 Hz) power transformers, approximate forms of the exact T-circuit
equivalent of the transformer are commonly used. Thus, we lump all series parameters of the circuit on
either side of T circuit.
6. Exciting current in an electrical transformer will not be affected much if primary is excited with E
rather than V.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Since winding resistances and leakage reactances are very small, V1 = E1 even under
conditions of load. Therefore, the exciting current drawn by the magnetizing branch (Gi || Bm) would not
be affected significantly by shifting it to the input terminals, i.e. it is now excited by V1 instead of E1.
7. In approximate equivalent circuit of the transformer _______________
a) All resistances and inductances are lumped before magnetizing branch
b) All resistances and inductances are lumped after magnetizing branch
c) Resistances and inductances aren’t changed
d) Any of the above will work
Answer: b
Explanation: Since Io is very small compare to like about 5-10% of full load current, voltage drop can be
approximated to very large extent. These all resistances and inductances are in series, combined with each
other to give approximate equivalent circuit.
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8. Final approximate equivalent circuit contains _________

a) Only equivalent X series branch
b) Only equivalent Z series branch
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c) Only equivalent R series branch

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d) Any of the above

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Answer: a
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Explanation: We combine all series parameters of equivalent circuit together to get approximate
equivalent circuit of the transformer, where we assume that equivalent resistance is zero as it is negligible,
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and parallel branch is removed.

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“Transformer Losses”.
1. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, which of the following losses remain constant
irrespective of load changes?
a) Friction and windage losses
b) Copper losses
c) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
Answer: c
Explanation: Hysteresis and eddy current losses together called as core-loss in a transformer. These losses
remain constant for constant voltage and frequency applied to a transformer, these components remain
same irrespective of load.
2. On which of the following degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a
transformer depends?
a) Tightness of clamping
b) Gauge of laminations
c) Size of laminations
d) Tightness of clamping, gauge and size of laminations
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanical vibrations produced in a transformer are directly effective due to the tightness of
the clamping, gauge og laminations, size of laminations as well. There are various methods in order to
reduce their effects.
3. Variations in a hysteresis loss in a transformer (Bmax = maximum flux density) ____________
a) Bmax
b) Bmax1.6
c) Bmax3.83
d) Bmax/2
Answer: b
Explanation: According to Steinmetz’s formula, the heat energy dissipated due to hysteresis is given by
Wh=ηβmax1.6, and hysteresis loss is thus given by Ph≈ Whf ≈ηfβmax1.6. That exponetital term varies
fraom 1.4 -1.8 and is equal to 1.6 for iron.
4. Leakage flux in the transformer depends on _____________________

a) Load current
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b) Load current and voltage

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c) Load current, voltage and frequency

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d) Load current, voltage, frequency and power factor

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Answer: a
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Explanation: Leakage flux is directly proportional to the current, as if is current increased net value of
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flux increases thus, flux leakage also increases which further contribute to the losses as it is then not able
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to link with secondary windings .

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5. The full-load copper loss of a transformer is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will be _______
a) 6400 W
b) 1600 W
c) 800 W
d) 400 W
Answer: d
Explanation: Copper losses are defined as I2*R losses many times, as they are directly proportional to the
square of current flowing through them. Thus, copper losses will reduce if load is reduced that too in
square proportion.
6. Silicon steel used in laminations, because it reduces ________________

a) Hysteresis loss
b) Eddy current losses
c) Copper losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrical steels are also known as lamination steel or silicon steel. The main special thing
related to the silicon steel is, its magnetic properties such as small hysteresis area and hence, small energy
dissipation per cycle, thus low core loss.
7. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss will ___________
a) Not change
b) Decrease
c) Increase
Answer: c
Explanation: As frequency increases, the flux density in the core decreases but as the iron loss is directly
proportional to the frequency hence effect of increased frequency will be reflected in increase of the iron
losses.
8. Which of the following can measure iron loss of a transformer?
a) Low power factor wattmeter
b) Unity power factor wattmeter
c) Frequency meter
d) Any type of wattmeter
Answer: a
Explanation: As the secondary side is open in OC, the entire coil will be purely inductive in nature. So,
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the power will be lagging due to inductive property of the circuit. So LPF (Low power factor) wattmeter
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is used in open circuit test of transformer.

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9. How reduction in core losses and increase in permeability can be obtained simultaneously in a
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transformer?
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a) Core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel

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b) Core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet

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c) Cannot be determined
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d) Frequency Meter
Answer: a
Explanation: CRGO is supplied by the producing mills in coil form and has to be cut into laminations,
which are then used in transformer core, which is an integral part of any transformer. Grain-oriented steel
is used in large power, distribution transformers and in certain audio output transformers also.
10. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in transformer are ______
b) Magnetic losses
c) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
d) Copper losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Windage and friction losses occur in rotating parts of a machine generally in rotor of the
machine, thus they will never occur in transformer, as transformer does not contain any rotating part at its
secondary unlike induction motor.
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11. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, which losses remain constant irrespective of load
changes?
a) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
b) Friction and windage losses
c) Copper losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Hysteresis and eddy current losses are voltage and frequency dependent losses that too from
primary side thus, load change will not make any effect on these losses and they will remain constant as
long as voltage and frequency is constant.
12. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load?
a) Core loss
b) Friction loss
c) Eddy current loss
d) Hysteresis loss
Answer: b
Explanation: Friction losses are involved with rotating parts of a machine. Since in a transformer all parts
are stationary, friction losses will always be equal to zero, irrespective of the loading condition.
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13. A shell-type transformer has __________

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a) High eddy current losses

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b) Reduced magnetic leakage

c) Negligible hysteresis losses
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Answer: b
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Explanation: Since windings are brought closer in shell type compare to core type transformer, leakage of
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flux is very less in shell type transformer. Most of the flux gets linked with both of the coils though there
is some leakage which can’t be avoided.
“Efficiency”.
1. When will be the efficiency of a transformer maximum?
a) Copper losses = hysteresis losses
b) Hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
c) Eddy current losses = copper losses
d) Copper losses = iron losses
Answer: d
Explanation: When the variable copper losses of a transformer becomes equal to the fixed iron losses of a
transformer then we will get maximum efficiency. From these losses we’ll get the value of current
required.
2. Efficiency of a power transformer is near to the ___________

a) 100 per cent
b) 98 per cent
c) 50 per cent
d) 25 per cent
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the transformer obtained from various experiments conducted on various
loads showed the efficiency greater than 90% always. Transformer thus, can be said highly efficient
device.
3. On which factors transformer routine efficiency depends upon?
a) Supply frequency
b) Load current
c) Power factor of load
d) Load current and power factor of load
Answer: d
Explanation: Efficiency of the transformer can be calculated by the output power divided by input power.
Both of these powers include power factor in their calculations while load current and load voltage is also
required in calculations.
4. Normal transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at ___________

a) Nearly full load
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b) 70% full load

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c) 50% full load

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d) No load
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Answer: a
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Explanation: Every device is manufactured to get maximum efficiency at the rated loads, i.e. full load.
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Thus, transformer will give the maximum efficiency at nearly full load. Internal losses are so adjusted to
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get maximum efficiency.

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5. At which load condition maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer will be achieved?

a) At no load
b) At 60% full load
c) At 80% full load
d) At full load
Answer: b
Explanation: The main difference between power transformer and distribution transformer is distribution
transformer is designed for maximum efficiency at 60% to 70% load as these transformers normally
doesn’t operate at full load all the time.
6. Power transformers other than distribution transformers are generally designed to have maximum
efficiency around ______
a) No-load
b) Half-load
c) Near full-load
d) 10% overload
Answer: c
Explanation: Similar to normal transformers power transformers are also designed to get maximum
efficiency at load which is near to the full load of a transformer specified. Only in the case distribution
transformer maximum efficiency is achieved at 60% of full load.
7. For a transformer given, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur at ______
a) 0.8 leading power factor
b) 0.8 lagging power factor
c) Zero power factor
d) Unity power factor
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum efficiency for a transformer will be achieved at full load. While in the case of
power factor also every device is set to get maximum efficiency at unity power factor. Thus, one will
have maximum efficiency if load is nearly equal to full load and at unity power factor.
8. Why efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low?

a) Copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
b) Iron loss is increased considerably
c) Voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
d) Secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Answer: a
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Explanation: At heavy loads current drawn by the transformer circuit increases, as we know, variable
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copper losses are proportional to the square of the current. Thus, we’ll get higher copper loss in
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proportion to the output.

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9. The efficiencies of transformers compared to electric motors of the same power are ___________
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a) About the same

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b) Much smaller
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c) Much higher
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d) Can’t comment
Answer: c
Explanation: Transformer is a highly efficient device compare to all other electrical instruments. In motor
we need to add windage and friction losses along with the copper losses and iron losses thus, we’ll get lee
efficiency for motor compare to transformer.
10. A transformer having maximum efficiency at 75% full load will have ratio of iron loss and full load
copper loss equal to ___________
a) 4/3
b) 3/4
c) 9/16
d) 16/9
Answer: c
Explanation: Condition for maximum efficiency is, Copper loss= Iron loss, i.e. Pc= I2 R = Pi. transformer
can be operated at any load but maximum efficiency occurs at a particular load condition only. Let x be
that load factor corresponds to maximum efficiency. Given that, maximum efficiency will occur at 3/4
load. The load factor= (3/4)2.
11. What is the correct formula of efficiency of a device?
a) Input /output
b) Output/losses
c) 1- (losses/ (output + losses))
Answer: c
Explanation: Efficiency of any device is equal to the ratio of output power to the input power. Here, one
can write input power is equal to the addition of output power with losses. Thus, expressing all these
terms mathematically will give the answer.
12. A 500 kVA transformer is having efficiency of 95% at full load and also at 60% of full load; both at
unity power factor. Then Pi is ___________
a) 16.45 kW
b) 9.87 kW
c) 14.57 kW
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency of a transformer is given by, [transformer capacity*loading/ (capacity*loading +
Pi + k2*PC)]. Thus, η= 500*1/ (500 + Pi +PC) = 0.95. also from the second condition given η= 500*0.6/
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(500*0.6 + Pi +0.6^2*PC) = 0.95. Thus, solving simultaneously we get 9.87 kW.

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13. A 500 kVA transformer is having efficiency of 95% at full load and also at 60% of full load; both at
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unity power factor. Then Pc is ___________

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a) 16.45 kW
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b) 9.87 kW
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c) 14.57 kW
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Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a transformer is given by, [transformer capacity*loading/ (capacity*loading +
Pi + k2*PC)]. Thus, η= 500*1/ (500 + Pi +PC) = 0.95. also from the second condition given η= 500*0.6/
(500*0.6 + Pi +0.62*PC) = 0.95. Thus, solving simultaneously we get an answer 16.45 kW.
14. For a power transformer operating at full load it draws voltage and current equal to 200 V and 100 A
respectively at 0.8 pf. Iron and copper losses are equal to 120 kW and 300kW. What is the efficiency?
a) 86.44%
b) 96.44%
c) 97.44%
d) 99.12%
Answer: c
Explanation: Power output= VI cosθ= 200*100*0.8 = 16000 W (Independent of lag and lead). While total
losses are equal to iron loss+ k2*copper losses =120+ 300= 420 W. Efficiency is equal to 1-
420/(16000+420)= 97.44%.
“Voltage Regulation-1”.
1. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is _______
a) 33 kV
b) 66 kV
c) 132 kV
d) 00 kV
Answer: d
Explanation: Transmission voltage in power transfer in India (highest) is 750KV AC and these lines are
erected by Power Grid Corporation for interstate connections throughout India. However, work on
800KV is in the progress. DC transmission voltage (highest) in India is 600KV.
2. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at _______
a) Leading power factor
b) Lagging power factor
c) Unity power factor
d) Zero power factor
Answer: a
Explanation: At leading power factor the voltage regulation is given by I*(Rcosφ- Xsinφ). Thus, at a
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particular condition of angle φ we may get zero voltage regulation. While in lagging power factor case we
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have + sign in the above formula.

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3. What will happen to a given transformer if it made to run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency?
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a) Flux density remains unaffected

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b) Iron losses are reduced

B
c) Core flux density is reduced

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d) Core flux density is increased

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Answer: d
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Explanation: E=4.44fNAB is the emf equation for a transformer, now as E is kept constant we can say
frequency is inversely proportional to the B value. Thus, as frequency increases we will get less core flux
density and vice-versa.
4. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from no load to full load because
___________
a) Value of transformation ratio remains constant
b) Permeability of transformer core remains constant
c) Core flux remains practically constant
d) Primary voltage remains constant
Answer: c
Explanation: The reason behind core-iron loss being constant is that hysteresis loss and eddy current loss
both are dependent on the magnetic properties of the material which is used in the construction and design
of the core of the transformer.
5. Negative voltage regulation indicates ___________

a) Capacitive loading only
b) Inductive loading only
c) Inductive or resistive loading
Answer: a
Explanation: The sign -ve arises in the voltage regulation calculations when, the load connected to the
transformer is leading in the nature. The only condition when we’ll get negative voltage regulation when
second term is higher than first term.
6. When will a transformer have regulation closer to zero?
a) On full-load
b) On overload
c) On leading power factor
d) On zero power factor
Answer: c
Explanation: Since voltage regulation of a transformer in the leading loading condition is not additive in
nature, at particular power factor in leading we can get zero voltage regulation. While, in lagging
condition we’ll get ultimately non-zero VR.
7. A good voltage regulation of a transformer indicates ______________
a) output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least
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b) output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least

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c) difference between primary and secondary voltage is least

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d) difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum

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Answer: a
P
Explanation: Voltage regulation is defined as rise in the voltage when the transformer is thrown off from
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B
full load condition to no-load condition. Thus, least voltage regulation means output fluctuations
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depending on the load are very less.

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8. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and switching?
a) Horn gaps
b) Thermal overload relays
c) Breather
d) Conservator
Answer: a
Explanation: Arcing horns in a transformer form a spark gap across the insulator with a lower breakdown
voltage than the air path along the insulator surface, so an overvoltage it will cause the air to break down
and the arc to form between the arcing horns, diverting it away from the surface of the insulator.
9. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is ______________
a) Unity
b) Lagging
c) Leading
d) Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: When the leading load is connected to the transformer difference of Rcosφ and Xsinφ is
multiplied with the current, thus we may get -ve, zero voltage regulations at this condition. That is
minimum voltage regulation.
“Voltage Regulation – 2”.

1. Voltage regulation of transformer is given by _____________
a) E2-V2/V2
b) E2-V2/E2
c) V2-E2/E2
d) V2-E2/V2
Answer: b
Explanation: Voltage regulation is defined as change in the voltage or rise in voltage when transformer is
load is thrown off. Thus, it is the difference of the no load voltage with the full load voltage divide by full
load voltage to get % increase.
2. On which load power factor zero voltage regulation will be achieved?

a) 0
b) 1
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c) Leading
in
d) Lagging
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Answer: c
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Explanation: At leading power factor the voltage regulation can be negative or zero. This can be found
from this equation % regulation = εxcosθ – εrsinθ. Bu substituting the appropriate value of angle one can
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check this mathematically.

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3. A transformer has resistance and reactance in per unit as 0.01 and 0.04 pu respectively. What will be its
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voltage regulation for 0.8 power factor lagging and leading?

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a) 3.2% and 1.6%

b) 3.2% and -1.6%
c) 1.6% and -3.2%
d) Can’t be defined
Answer: b
Explanation: Voltage regulation for lagging power factor = (R cosθ + X sinθ) × 100, Voltage regulation
for 0.8 lagging power factor = (0.01×0.8+0.04×0.6) × 100 = 3.2%. Voltage regulation for leading power
factor = (R cosθ – X sinθ) × 100, Voltage regulation for 0.8 leading power factor = (0.01×0.8-0.0 4×0.6)
× 100 = -1.6%.
4. At which power factor one will get maximum voltage regulation?

a) 0
b) 1
c) Leading
d) Lagging
Answer: d
Explanation: At lagging power factor the voltage regulation is given by I*(Rcosφ+ Xsinφ). Thus, at a
particular condition of angle φ we will get maximum voltage regulation. While in leading power factor
case we have – sign in the above formula.
5. Which is the correct phasor equation indicating the transformer voltages lagging?
a) V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ+ X sinφ)
b) V2 = V1 + I*(R cosφ+ X sinφ)
c) V1 = V2 + I*(X cosφ+ X sinφ)
d) V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ+ R sinφ)
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the phasor diagram drawn for lagging current, we will have positive sign in the
voltage regulation formula thus, V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ+ X sinφ) gives the correct relation, while
V1 indicates the primary voltage.
6. Which is the correct phasor equation indicating the transformer voltages leading?
a) V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ- X sinφ)
b) V2 = V1 + I*(R cosφ- X sinφ)
c) V1 = V2 + I*(X cosφ- X sinφ)
d) V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ- R sinφ)
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the phasor diagram drawn for leading current, we will have negaitive sign in
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the voltage regulation formula thus, V1 = V2 + I*(R cosφ- X sinφ) gives the correct relation, while V1
in
indicates the primary voltage.

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7. What is the correct formula to get power factor angle in leading condition?
P
a) tan φ= X/R
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b) tan φ= R/X
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c) cos φ = R/√(R2+X2)
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d) cos φ= R/X
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Answer: b
Explanation: For leading condition derivative of voltage regulation with respect to φ is obtained and
solved for the power factor angle calculations we’ll get tan φ = R/X for leading condition, for lagging
condition we’ll get tan φ= X/R.
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8. What is the correct formula to get power factor angle in lagging condition?
a) sin φ= X/R
b) tan φ= R/X
c) cos φ = R/√(R2+X2)
d) cos φ= R/X
Answer: c
Explanation: For lagging condition derivative of voltage regulation with respect to φ is obtained and
solved for the power factor angle calculations we’ll get tan φ = R/X for leading condition, for lagging
condition we’ll get tan φ= X/R. In terms of cosine function, we’ll get cos φ = R/√(R2+X2).
9. Zero voltage regulation of a transformer is achieved at 1 pf leading.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Though zero voltage regulation occurs at leading power factor condition, it is not occurring
at unity power factor leading. As at unity power factor leading, cos term will be equal to 1. Hence, we’ll
get some non-zero VR at unity power factor.
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“Electrostatic Properties”.
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1. The permittivity is also called

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a) Electrostatic energy
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b) Dielectric constant
c) Dipole moment
d) Susceptibility
Answer: b
Explanation: The term permittivity or dielectric constant is the measurement of electrostatic energy stored
within it and therefore depends on the material.
2. Dielectric constant will be high in

a) Conductors
b) Semiconductors
c) Insulators
d) Superconductors
Answer: c
Explanation: Materials that have very less conductivity like ceramics, plastics have higher dielectric
constants. Due to their low conductivity, the dielectric materials are said to be good insulators.
3. Under the influence of electric field, the dielectric materials will get charged instantaneously. State
True/False.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The dielectrics have the ability of storing energy easily when an electric field is applied as
their permittivity is relatively higher than any other materials.
4. Insulators perform which of the following functions?
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Provide electrical insulation
d) Allows current leakage at interfaces
Answer: c
Explanation: Insulators is a non-conducting material which prevents the leakage of electric current in
unwanted directions. Thus it is used to provide electrical insulation.
5. Which of the following properties distinguish a material as conductor, insulator and semiconductor?
a) Free electron charges
b) Fermi level after doping
c) Energy band gap
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d) Electron density
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Answer: c
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Explanation: The only parameter that classifies the material as conductor or insulator or semiconductor is
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the band gap energy. It is the energy required to make the electrons conduct. This is low of conductors,
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average for semiconductors and very high for insulators. This means it requires very high energy to make
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an insulator conduct.
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6. Semiconductors possess which type of bonding?

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a) Metallic
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b) Covalent
c) Ionic
d) Magnetic
Answer: b
Explanation: Conductors exhibit metallic bonding. Insulators exhibit ionic bonding and semiconductors
exhibit covalent bonding due to sharing of atoms.
7. Find the susceptibility of a material whose dielectric constant is 2.26.

a) 1.26
b) 3.26
c) 5.1
d) 1
Answer: a
Explanation: Electric susceptibility is the measure of ability of the material to get polarised. It is given by,
χe = εr – 1.Thus we get 1.26.
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8. The bound charge density and free charge density are 12 and 6 units respectively. Calculate the
susceptibility.
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 72
Answer: c
Explanation: The electric susceptibility is given by, χe = Bound free density/Free charge density. χe =
12/6 = 2. It has no unit.
9. The susceptibility of free space is
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) ∞
Answer: b
Explanation: For free space/air, the relative permittivity is unity i.e, εr = 1. Thus χe = εr – 1 = 0. The
susceptibility will become zero in air.
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10. When the electric field becomes zero, which of the following relations hold good?
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a) E = P
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b) D = P
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c) B = P
d) H = P
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Answer: b
B
Explanation: The electric flux density of a field is the sum of εE and polarisation P. It gives D = εE + P.
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When electric field becomes zero, it is clear that D = P.

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“Electric Fields”.
1. The conventional direction of electric field is ________
a) Positive to negative
b) Negative to positive
c) No specific direction
d) Direction cannot be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: The conventional direction of field lines is from positive to negative. The field lines
originate at the positive charge and terminate at the negative charge.
2. Electric field originates at __________

a) Positive charge
b) Negative charge
c) Neither positive nor negative
d) Both positive and negative
Answer: a
Explanation: Electric field originates at the positive charge and terminates at the negative charge. The
conventional direction of field is from positive to negative.
3. Electric field terminates at ________

a) Positive charge
b) Negative charge
c) Neither positive nor negative
d) Both positive and negative
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric field originates at the positive charge and terminates at the negative charge. The
conventional direction of field is from positive to negative.
4. Which among the following statements is true with regard to electric field lines?
a) Electric field lines always intersect
b) Electric field lines may or may not intersect
c) Electric field lines can be seen
d) Electric field lines never intersect
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Answer: d
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Explanation: Electric field lines can never intersect because the field lines represent the field strength. If
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the lines intersect it means that at that point there are two different values for electric field which is not
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possible.
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B
5. Which, among the following, is the field where electric charge experiences a force?
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a) Electric field
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b) Magnetic field
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c) Gravitational field
d) Electric, magnetic or gravitational field
Answer: a
Explanation: Charges experience a force in an electric field because charges come under the influence of
a field which already has charges- electric field.
6. A field that spreads outwards in all directions is __________

a) Linear
b) Radial
c) Weak
d) Strong
Answer: b
Explanation: A radial field is one which spreads in all directions. This field is known as the radial field
because it spreads out radially from a source.
7. In uniform fields, all points have ________ field strength.

a) Zero
b) Same
c) Infinity
d) Different
Answer: b
Explanation: A uniform field is one-as the word suggests-in which the field is spread over an area and at
every point in the field the, strength of the field is the same.
8. Which, among the following is the correct expression for electric field?
a) E=F/C
b) E=F*C
c) E=F/Q
d) E=F*Q
Answer: c
Explanation: Electric field is the force per unit charge hence, the correct expression among the following
is: E=F/Q.
9. What happens when one material is rubbed against another?

a) The material becomes electrically neutral
b) The material becomes electrically charged
c) The material becomes negatively charged
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d) The material becomes positively charged

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Answer: b
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Explanation: When one material is rubbed against another, there is transfer of charges from one material
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to another hence the material becomes electrically charged.

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10. The insulant between the two plates of a capacitor is called _______
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a) Conductor
b) Semi-conductor
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c) Dielectric
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d) Superconductor
Answer: c
Explanation: The material between the two plates of a capacitor is an insulator, more specifically known
as a dielectric.
“Electric Field Strength and Electric Flux Density”.
1. Gauss law is applicable for_________

a) Point charge
b) Sheet charge
c) Line charge
d) Point, sheet and line charge
Answer: d
Explanation: Gauss law states that the total electric flux through any closed surface is equal to the charge
enclosed by that surface.Hence it is applicable for all point, surface and volume.
2. “Total electric flux through any closed surface is equal to the charge enclosed by that surface”. This is
the statement for?
a) Gauss law
b) Lenz law
c) Coloumb’s law
d) Faraday’s law
Answer: a
Explanation: Total electric flux through any closed surface is equal to the charge enclosed by that surface
is the statement for Gauss law because among the four laws, Gauss law deals with electric flux.
3. Electric flux density is a function of_______
a) Volume
b) Charge
c) Current
d) Voltage
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric flux density is the charge per unit area. Hence it is a function of charge and not any
of the other values.
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4. As charge increases, what happens to flux density?

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a) Increases
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b) Decreases
P
c) Remains constant
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d) Becomes zero
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Answer: a
C
Explanation: Electric flux density is the charge per unit area. The expression for flux density is:
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D=Q/A. Electric flux is directly proportional to charge, hence as charge increases, electric flux also
increases.
5. As area increases, what happens to electric flux density?

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric flux density is the charge per unit area. The expression for flux density is:
D=Q/A. Electric flux is inversely proportional to area, hence as area increases, electric flux decreases.
6. Which, among the following, is the correct expression for electric flux density?
a) D=epsilon*E
b) D=epsilon/E
c) D2=epsilon*E
d) D=epsilon*E2
Answer: a
Explanation: Electric flux density is directly proportional to the electric field, epsilon(permittivity of free
space) being the constant of proportionality. Hence D=epsilon*E.
7. Strength of the electric field is ___________

a) Directly proportional to the force applied
b) Inversely proportional to the force applied
c) Directly proportional to the square of the force applied
d) Inversely proportional to the square of the force applied
Answer: a
Explanation: Electric field intensity is the force per unit charge, hence it id directly proportional to the
force applied.
8. The force applied to a conductor is 10N, if the charge in the conductor is 5C, what is the electric field
intensity?
a) 10V/m
b) 2V/m
c) 3V/m
d) 15V/m
Answer: b
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Explanation: Electric field intensity is the force per unit charge. The formula is:
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E=F/Q= 10/5= 2V/m.

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9. What is the electric flux density in free space if the electric field intensity is 1V/m?
a) 7.76*10-12C/m2
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b) 8.85*10-12C /m2
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c) 1.23*10-12C /m2
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d) 3.43*10-12C /m2
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Answer: b
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Explanation: The formula for electric filed density is:

D=epsilon*E= 1*8.85*110 -12= 8.85*10-12C /m2.
10. If the charge in a conductor is 16C and the area of cross section is 4m2. Calculate the electric flux
density.
a) 64C/m2
b) 16C/m2
c) 4C/m2
d) 2C/m2
Answer: c
Explanation: Flux density is the charge per unit area. The formula is:
D=Q/A= 16/4= 4C/m2.
“Relative Permittivity”.
1. In order to obtain a high value for capacitance the permittivity of the dielectric medium should be?
a) Low
b) High
c) Zero
d) Unity
Answer: b
Explanation: Form the expression:
C=epsilon*A/d.
From this expression, it is seen that capacitance is directly proportional to the permittivity, hence for
capacitance value to be high, permittivity value should be high.
2. Find the capacitance of a capacitor whose area of cross section of the plates is 4m2 and distance of
separation between the plates is 2m. The capacitor is placed in vacuum.
a) 1.77*10-11F
b) 1.34*10-11F
c) 2.33*10-11F
d) 5.65*10-11F
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for finding the value of capacitance is:
C=epsilon*A/d.
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The medium is free space hence, epsilon= 8.85*10-12.

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Therefore, C=8.85*10 -12*4/2= 1.77*10-12F.

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3. What is relative permittivity?

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a) Equal to absolute permittivity

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b) Ratio of actual permittivity to absolute permittivity

B
c) Ratio of absolute permittivity to actual permittivity

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d) Equal to actual permittivity

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Answer: b
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Explanation: Relative permittivity is the ratio of actual permittivity to the relative permittivity of the
medium. As the actual permittivity increases the relative permittivity also increases.
4. What happens to relative permittivity when actual permittivity decreases?

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
medium. Relative permittivity is directly proportional to actual permittivity. Hence, as actual permittivity
increases, relative permittivity also increases.
5. What is the relative permittivity when the actual permittivity is 4F/m?
a) 4.57*10-11
b) 4.57*1012
c) 4.57*1011
d) 4.57*10-12
Answer: c
Explanation: Relative permittivity= Actual permittivity/ Absolute permittivity.
Relative permittivity= 4/(8.85*10-12)= 4.57*1011.
6. What happens to absolute permittivity when relative permittivity increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: c
Explanation: Absolute permittivity does not depend on the value of relative permittivity. Absolute
permittivity is the permittivity of free space and it is a constant value= 8.85*10-12F/m.
7. Calculate the actual permittivity of a medium whose relative permittivity is 5.

a) 4.43*10-11F/m
b) 4.43*10-12F/m
c) 4.43*1011F/m
d) 4.43*1012F/m
Answer: a
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Explanation: Actual permittivity= Relative permittivity*absolute permittivity.

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Actual permittivity= 5*8.85*10-12= 4.43*10-11F/m.

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8. What is the unit for relative permittivity?

a) F/m
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b) Fm
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c) F/m2
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d) No unit
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Answer: d
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medium. Since it is a ratio, and we know that a ratio does not have any unit, relative permittivity does not
have any unit.
9. Which, among the following, will be unity in free space?

a) Absolute permittivity
b) Relative permittivity
c) Actual permittivity
d) Both absolute and relative permittivity
Answer: b
Explanation: Relative permittivity is constant for a particular medium. For air or free space ,it is unity.
Absolute permittivity does not depend on the medium, its value is always constant=8.85*10 -12F/m. Actual
permittivity is the product of relative permittivity and absolute permittivity.
10. Which, among the following, do not have any unit?

c) Actual permittivity
d) Both absolute and relative permittivity
Answer: b
medium. Since it is a ratio, and we know that a ratio does not have any unit, relative permittivity does not
have any unit.
“Composite Dielectric Capacitor”.

1. Potential drop in a dielectric is equal to _______
a) Electric field strength*thickness
b) Electric field strength*area of cross section
c) Electric field strength
d) Zero
Answer: a
Explanation: When a dielectric is introduced between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor, the
potential difference decreases by the value of the product of electric field strength*thickness which is the
potential difference of the dielectric.
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2. The electric field strength is 10N/C and the thickness of the dielectric is 3m. Calculate the potential
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drop in the dielectric.

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a) 10V
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b) 20V
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c) 30V
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d) 40V
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Answer: c
C
Explanation: The potential drop in a dielectric= electric field strength*area of cross section= 10*3= 30V.
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3. The electric fields of dielectrics having the same cross sectional area in series is related to their relative
permittivities in which way?
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Equal
d) Not related
Answer: b
Explanation: Let us consider two plates having fields E1 and E2 and relative permittivities e1 and e2.
Then, E1=Q/(e0*e1*A) and E2=Q/(e0*e2*A), where e0=absolute permittivity and A=area of cross
section. From the given expression, we see that E1/E2=e2/e1, hence the electric field is inversely
proportional to the relative permittivities.
4. What happens to the capacitance when a dielectric is introduced between its plates?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: The capacitance of a capacitance increases when a dielectric is introduced between its plates
because the capacitance is related to the dielectric constant k by the equation:
C=ke0A/d.
5. Calculate the relative permittivity of the second dielectric if the relative permittivity of the first is 4.
The electric field strength of the first dielectric is 8V/m and that of the second is 2V/m.
a) 32
b) 4
c) 16
d) 8
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between the two electric fields and the relative permittivities is:
E1/E1=e2/e1. Substituting the given values, we get e2=16.
6. What happens to the potential drop between the two plates of a capacitor when a dielectric is
introduced between the plates?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
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d) Becomes zero
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Answer: b
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potential difference decreases because the potential difference of the dielectric is subtracted from it.
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7. If the potential difference across the plates of a capacitor is 10V and a dielectric having thickness 2m is
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introduced between the plates, calculate the potential difference after introducing the dielectric. The
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electric field strength is 2V/m.

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a) 4V
b) 6V
c) 8V
d) 10V
Answer: b
Explanation: When a dielectric is introduced between the plates of a capacitor, its potential difference
decreases.
New potential difference= potential difference without dielectric-potential difference of dielectric= 10-
2*2= 6V.
8. Calculate the capacitance if the dielectric constant=4, area of cross section= 10m2 and the distance of
separation between the plates is 5m.
a) 7.08*10-11F
b) 7.08*1011F
c) 7.08*10-12F
d) 7.08*10-10F
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression to find capacitance when a dielectric is introduced between the plates is:
C=ke0A/d. Substituting the given values in the equation, we get C= 7.08*10 -11F.
9. A dielectric is basically a ________

a) Capacitor
b) Conductor
c) Insulator
d) Semiconductor
Answer: c
Explanation: A dielectric is basically an insulator because it has all the properties of an insulator.
10. What happens to the potential difference between the plates of a capacitor as the thickness of the
dielectric slab increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
decreases.
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New potential difference= potential difference without dielectric-potential difference of dielectric. Hence
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as the thickness of the dielectric slab increases, a larger value is subtracted fro the original potential
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difference.
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“Dielectric Strength”.
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1. The unit for dielectric strength is ____________

a) V/m2
b) MV/m2
c) MV/m
d) Vm
Answer: b
Explanation: Dielectric strength is the potential gradient required to cause a breakdown in the material.
Potential gradient is the ratio of voltage and length, its unit is MV/m.
2. If the Voltage increases, what happens to dielectric strength?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Potential gradient is the ratio of voltage and length. Hence as potential increases, dielectric strength also
increases.
3. The electric fields of dielectrics having the same cross sectional area in series is related to their relative
permittivities in which way?
c) Equal
d) Not related
Answer: b
Explanation: Let us consider two plates having fields E1 and E2 and relative permittivities e1 and e2.
Then, E1=Q/(e0*e1*A) and E2=Q/(e0*e2*A), where e0=absolute permittivity and A=area of cross
section. From the given expression, we see that E1/E2=e2/e1, hence the electric field is inversely
proportional to the relative permittivities.
4. If the potential difference in a material is 4MV and the thickness of the material is 2m, calculate the
dielectric strength.
a) 2MV/m
b) 4MV/m
c) 6MV/m
d) 8MV/m
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Answer: a
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Potential gradient is the ratio of voltage and thickness.

Dielectric strength= V/t= 4/2= 2MV/m.
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5. If the dielectric strength of a material is 4MV/m and its potential difference is 28MV, calculate the
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thickness of the material.

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b) 7m
c) 5m
d) 11m
Answer: b
V/dielectric strength= t= 28/4=7m.
6. If the thickness of the material increases, what happens to the dielectric strength?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
Potential gradient is the ratio of voltage and thickness. Hence as thickness increases, dielectric strength
decreases.
7. The thickness of a material having dielectric strength 10MV/m is 5m, calculate the potential difference.
a) 2MV
b) 10MV
c) 50MV
d) 100MV
Answer: c
V=t*dielectric strength= 5*10=50MV.
8. What happens to the potential drop between the two plates of a capacitor when a dielectric is
introduced between the plates?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
potential difference decreases because the potential difference of the dielectric is subtracted from it.
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a) Capacitor
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b) Conductor
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c) Insulator
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d) Semiconductor
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Answer: c
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Explanation: A dielectric is basically an insulator because it has all the properties of an insulator.
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10. What happens to the potential difference between the plates of a capacitor as the thickness of the
dielectric slab increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
decreases.
New potential difference= potential difference without dielectric-potential difference of dielectric. Hence
as the thickness of the dielectric slab increases, a larger value is subtracted fro the original potential
difference.
“Capacitors in Parallel”.
1. What is the total capacitance when three capacitors, C1, C2 and C3 are connected in parallel?
a) C1/(C2+C3)
b) C1+C2+C3
c) C2/(C1+C3)
d) 1/C1+1/C2+1/C3
Answer: b
Explanation: When capacitors are connected in parallel, the total capacitance is equal to the sum of the
capacitance of each of the capacitors. Hence Ctotal=C1+C2+C3.
2. Calculate the total capacitance.
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) 10F
b) 15F
c) 13F
d) 20F
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when capacitors are connected in parallel is the sum of all the
capacitors= 1+2+10= 13F.
3. Calculate the voltage across AB if the total change stored in the combination is 13C.
a) 1V
b) 2V
c) 3V
d) 4V
Answer: a
capacitors= 1+2+10= 13F. V=Q/C= 13/13=1V.
4. Calculate the charge in the 2F capacitor.
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a) 200C
b) 100C
c) 300C
d) 400C
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the capacitors are connected in parallel, the voltage across each is the same, it does not
get divided. Q=CV= 2*100=200C.
5. Calculate the charge in the 1F capacitor.
a) 200C
b) 100C
c) 300C
d) 400C
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the capacitors are connected in parallel, the voltage across each is the same, it does not
get divided. Q=CV= 1*100=100C.
6. Calculate the total charge of the system.
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a) 200C
b) 100C
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Answer: c
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capacitors=1+2=3F. Q=CV= 3*100= 300V.
7. When capacitors are connected in parallel, the total capacitance is always __________ the individual
capacitance values.
a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
Answer: a
capacitance of each of the capacitors. Hence Ctotal=C1+C2+C3. Since it is the sum of all the capacitance
values, total capacitance is greater the the individual capacitance values.
8. When capacitors are connected in parallel, what happens to the effective plate area?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: When capacitors are connected in parallel, the top plates of each of the capacitors are
connected together while the bottom plates are connected to each other. This effectively increases the top
plate area and the bottom plate area.
9. Three capacitors having capacitance equal to 2F, 4F and 6F are connected in parallel. Calculate the
effective parallel.
a) 10F
b) 11F
c) 12F
d) 13F
Answer: c
capacitance of each of the capacitors. Hence Ctotal=C1+C2+C3= 2+4+6=12F.
10. Two capacitors having capacitance value 4F, three capacitors having capacitance value 2F and 5
capacitors having capacitance value 1F are connected in parallel, calculate the equivalent capacitance.
a) 20F
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b) 19F
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c) 18F
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d) 17F
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Answer: b
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capacitance of each of the capacitors. Hence Ctotal=4+4+2+2+2+1+1+1+1+1=19F.

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“Capacitors in Series”.
1. What is the total capacitance when two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series?
a) (C1+C2)/C1C2
b) 1/C1+1/C2
c) C1C2/(C1+C2)
d) C1+C2
Answer: c
Explanation: When capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance is:
1/Ctotal=1/C1+1/C2, therefore Ctotal= C1C2/(C1+C2).
2. N capacitors having capacitance C are connected in series, calculate the equivalent capacitance.
a) C/N
b) C
c) CN
d) N/C
Answer: d
1/Ctotal= 1/C+1/C+1/C+……..N times.
1/Ctotal=N/C.
Ctotal=C/N.
3. When capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance is ___________ each individual
capacitance.
a) Greater than
b) Less then
c) Equal to
d) Insufficient data provided
Answer: b
1/Ctotal=1/C1+1/C2. Since we find the reciprocals of the sum of the reciprocals, the equivalent
capacitance is less than the individual capacitance values.
4. What is the equivalent capacitance?
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c) 2.45F
d) 2.75F
Answer: b
1/Ctotal=1/C1+1/C2= 1/2+1= 0.667F.
5. When capacitors are connected in series ___________ remains the same.

a) Voltage across each capacitor
b) Charge
c) Capacitance
d) Resistance
Answer: b
Explanation: When capacitors are connected in series, the charge remains the same because the same
amount of current flow exists in each capacitor.
6. When capacitors are connected in series _______________ Varies

a) Voltage across each capacitor
b) Charge
c) Capacitance
d) Resistance
Answer: a
Explanation: When capacitors are connected in series, the voltage varies because the voltage drop across
each capacitor is different.
7. Four 10F capacitors are connected in series, calculate the equivalent capacitance.
a) 0.2F
b) 0.4F
c) 0.5F
d) 0.6F
Answer: b
1/Ctotal=1/C1+1/C2+1/C3+1/C4=1/10+1/10+1/10+1/10=0.4F.
8. Calculate the charge in the circuit.

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) 66.67C
b) 20.34C
c) 25.45C
d) 30/45C
Answer: a
1/Ctotal=1/C1+1/C2= 1/2+1=0.667F.
Q=CV= 1.5*100= 66.67C.
9. Calculate the voltage across the 1F capacitor.
a) 33.33V
b) 66.67V
c) 56.56V
d) 23.43V
Answer: b
1/Ctotal=1/C1+1/C2= 1/2+1=0.667F.
Q=CV= 1.5*100= 66.67C.
V across the 1F capacitor= 66.67/1= 66.67V.
10. Calculate the voltage across the 2F capacitor.
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a) 33.33V
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b) 66.67V
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c) 56.56V
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d) 23.43V
Answer: a
1/Ctotal=1/C1+1/C2= 1/2+1=0.667F.
Q=CV= 1.5*100= 66.67C.
V across the 1F capacitor= 66.67/2= 33.33V.
“Energy Stored in a Charged Capacitor”.

1. Work done in charging a capacitor is ____________
a) QV
b) 1/2QV
c) 2QV
d) QV2
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that work done= Q2/2C.
Substituting C as Q/V, we get work done= Q/2V.
2. Energy stored in 2000mF capacitor charged to a potential difference of 10V is?

a) 0.1J
b) 0.2J
c) 0.3J
d) 0.4J
Answer: a
Explanation: From the expression:
WD= CV2/2= 0.1J.
3. When do we get maximum energy from a set of capacitors?
a) When they are connected in parallel
b) When they are connected in series
d) Both in series and parallel
d) Insufficient information provided
Answer: a
Explanation: We get maximum energy when capacitors are connected in parallel because the equivalent
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capacitance is larger than the largest individual capacitance when connected in parallel. The relation
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between capacitance and energy is:

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Energy=CV2/2, hence as the capacitance increases, the energy stored in it also increases.
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4. If the charge stored in a capacitor is 4C and the value of capacitance is 2F, calculate the energy stored
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in it.
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a) 2J
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b) 4J
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c) 8J
d) 16J
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression for finding the value of energy is:
U=Q2/2C= 4*4/(2*2)= 4J.
5. If the charge in a capacitor is 4C and the energy stored in it is 4J, find the value of capacitance.
a) 2F
b) 4F
c) 8F
d) 16F
Answer: a
U=Q2/2C.
Substituting the values of U and Q, we get C=2F.
6. If the charge in a capacitor is 4C and the energy stored in it is 4J, calculate the voltage across its plates.
a) 2V
b) 4V
c) 8V
d) 16V
Answer: a
U=Q2/2C.
Substituting the values of U and Q, we get C=2F.
V=Q/C, hence V=4/2=2V.
7. Calculate the energy in the 2F capacitor.

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c) 64J
d) 6.4kJ
Answer: d
WD= CV2/2= 2*802/2=6400J=6.4kJ.
8. Calculate the energy in the 4F capacitor.
a) 128kJ
b) 1.28kJ
c) 12.8kJ
d) 1280J
Answer: c
WD= CV2/2= 4*802/2=12800J=12.8kJ.
9. Calculate the energy stored in the combination of the capacitors.

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a) 192kJ
b) 1.92kJ
c) 19.2kJ
d) 1920J
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance is: Ceq=4+2=6F.
From the expression:
WD= CV2/2= 6*802/2=19200J=19.2kJ.
10. What is the energy in a capacitor if the voltage is 5V and the charge is10C?
a) 6.25J
b) 2.35J
c) 6.54J
d) 4.55J
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that Q/V=C. Hence the value of capacitance is 2F.
From the expression:
U=Q2/2C, we get U= 6.25J.
“Charging and Discharging Currents”.
1. Which of the following charging and discharging of a capacitor?

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a) Time constant
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b) Current
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c) Power
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d) Voltage
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Answer: a
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Explanation: The time constant in a circuit consisting of a capacitor is the product of the resistance and
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the capacitance. Smaller the time constant, faster is the charging and discharging rate and vice versa.
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2. What is the initial current while charging a capacitor?

a) High
b) Low
c) 0
Answer: a
Explanation: The initial current of a capacitor is very high because the voltage source will transport
charges from one plate of the capacitor to the other plate.
3. What is the final current while charging a capacitor?
a) High
b) Zero
c) Infinity
d) Low
Answer: b
Explanation: The final current is almost equal to zero while charging a capacitor because the capacitor is
charged up to the source voltage.
4. What happens to the current flow in a fully charged capacitor?
a) Current flow stops
b) Current flow doubles
c) Current flow becomes half its original value
d) Current flow becomes one-fourth its original value
Answer: a
Explanation: When a capacitor is fully charged, it does not store any more charge. There is no change in
charge with time. Current is the rate of change of charge, hence it becomes zero, or stops.
5. A capacitor is charged to a voltage of 400V and has a resistance of 20ohm. Calculate the initial value of
discharge current.
a) 10A
b) 0A
c) Infinity
d) 20A
Answer: d
Explanation: When the capacitor is discharging the value of initial current is a finite one. The finite initial
current value is found using ohm’s law: I=V/R= 400/20= 20A.
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6. A capacitor is charged to a voltage of 400V and has a resistance of 20ohm. Calculate the final value of
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discharge current.
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a) 10A
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b) 0A
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c) Infinity
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d) 20A
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Answer: b
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Explanation: In a discharging circuit, the final voltage is equal to zero as all the positive and negative
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charges have combined. Since the voltage is equal to zero, the current is also equal to zero as voltage is
directly proportional to current by ohm’s law.
7. When will be capacitors fully charged?

a) When voltage is zero
b) When the supply voltage is equal to the capacitor voltage
c) When voltage is infinity
d) When capacitor voltage is equal to half the supply voltage
Answer: b
Explanation: When the capacitor voltage is equal to the source voltage, it means that all the charges have
moved from one plate of the capacitor to the other.
8. What happens to the capacitor when the capacitor voltage is equal to the source voltage?
a) The charging phase of the capacitor is over
b) The discharging phase of the capacitor is over
c) The capacitor is switched off
d) The capacitor is switched on
Answer: a
Explanation: When the capacitor voltage is equal to the source voltage, it means that all the charges have
moved from one plate of the capacitor to the other. Hence the capacitor is charged and the charging phase
is over.
9. A capacitor is charged to a voltage of 400V and has a resistance of 20ohm. Calculate the final value of
charging current.
a) 10A
b) 0A
c) Infinity
d) 20A
Answer: d
Explanation: The final value of charging current in a capacitor is equal to the initial value of discharging
current in it. Hence the final value of charging current is: Vc/R=20A.
10. A capacitor is charged to a voltage of 400V and has a resistance of 20ohm. Calculate the initial value
of charging current.
a) 10A
b) 0A
c) Infinity
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d) 20A
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Answer: b
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Explanation: Initially, there’s 0V voltage in a capacitor. As the capacitor charges, the voltage increases.
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Since voltage is proportional to current by ohm’s law, initial current is also equal to zero.
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Unit 3: Single Phase Transformers
● E.M.F. Equation of transformer are:

𝐸1 = 4.44𝑓∅𝑚 𝑁1 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
𝐸2 = 4.44𝑓∅𝑚 𝑁2 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠
𝑁
● Transformation Ratio,𝐾 = 𝑁2
1
𝐸 𝑁2 𝐼
● Voltage Ratio,𝐸2 = 𝑁1
= 𝐾𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜, 𝐼1 = 𝐾
1 2
𝑉𝐼 𝑉𝐼
1 1
● KVA Rating of Transformer = 1000 2 2
= 1000 ….1000 to express in KVA
𝐾𝑉𝐴 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 ×1000
● 𝐼1 𝑎𝑡 𝑓𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 = , 𝐼2 𝑎𝑡 𝑓𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 =
𝑉1
𝐾𝑉𝐴 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 ×1000
… … (1000 𝑡𝑜 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑡 𝐾𝑉𝐴 𝑡𝑜 𝑉𝐴)
𝑉2
𝑅
● 𝑅𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑜 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑦 𝑅′ 2 = 𝐾22 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅′ 1 = 𝐾 2 𝑅1
𝐸2 −𝑉2
● % Voltage Regulation = × 100
𝑉2
1.67
● Hysteresis Loss =𝐾ℎ 𝐵𝑚 𝑓𝑣𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠
Kh =Hysteresis constant depends on material, B m=Maximum flux density, f= frequency
V= volume of the core
● Eddy current loss = 𝐾𝑒 𝐵𝑚 2 𝑓 2 𝑡 2 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒
Ke= Eddy current constant and t= Thickness of core
● Pi= Iron loss = Hysteresis + Eddy current loss
● Pcu=I2= (KVA)2
● Total Losses = Iron Loss + Copper Losses =Pi+Pcu
(𝑉𝐴𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔)×𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑠 ∅
● % 𝜂 = (𝑉𝐴𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔)×𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑠 ∅+𝑃 +𝑃 × 100
𝑖 𝑐𝑢
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Objective Type Questions & Answers for Online Examination
Q.1Alternating voltages can be raised or lowered with the help of -----

a) Generator
b) Transformer
c) Induction motor
d) Universal motor
Q.2In a transformer electrical power is transformed from one circuit to other without
Change in the -----
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Frequency
d) None of these
Q.3 A transformer works on the principle of -------
a) Faraday’s Law
b) Mutual induction
c) Seld induction
d) superposition
Q.4 The primary and secondary windings of a transformer are ----- coupled to each other.
a) Electrically
b) Magnetically
c) Electrically and magnetically
d) None of these
Q.5 The ------ on both sides of a transformer remains same.
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Power
d. Impedance
Q.6 The d.c.supply is not used for the transformer as -----
a. Eddy current losses are more
b. Hysteresis losses are more
c. D.C. winding resistance is very high
d. Burning of windings due to high current is possible.
Q.7 The flux in the transformer core is -----
a. Rotating
b. Partly rotating
c. Partly alternating
d. Purely alternating
Q.8 The core of the transformer is laminated to reduce
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a. Eddy current lo
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b. Hysteresis loss
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c. Copper loss
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d. Friction loss
Q.9 The vertical portion on which coils are wound in a transformer is called----.
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a. Core
B
b. Yoke
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c. Joint
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d. limb
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Q.10 Generally ----- is used for laminations of a transformer core.
a. High grade silicon steel
b. Copper
c. Iron
d. Manganin
Q.11The core provides---- path to the flux produced.
a. Low resistance
b. Low reluctance
c. Low voltage
d. None of these
Q.12 The laminations in transformer core are overlapped so as ----
a. To keep core resistance small
b. To increase the flux in the core
c. To avoid the air gap at the joints
d. To provide high reluctance path
Q.13 In a core type transformer----
a. The core encircles the winding
b. The winding encircles the core
c. The limb encircles yoke
Q.14 ------ construction has a double magnetic circuit.
a. Berry type
b. Core type
c. Shell type
d. None of these
Q.15 In a shell type construction ------
c. The limb encircles yoke
Q.16 ------ coils are generally used in shell type construction.
a) Single layer
b) Sandwich
c) Cylindrical
d) PVC
Q.17 ------ coils are generally used in core type construction
a) Single layer
b) Sandwich
c) Cylindrical
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d) PVC
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Q.18 In ---- of transformer, the coils can be easily removed for maintenance purpose.
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a. Berry type
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b. Core type
c. Shell type
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d. None of these
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Q.19 ---- construction is used for high voltage transformers
a. Berry type
b. Core type
c. Shell type
d. None of these
Q.20 The average e.m.f. per turn in a transformer is ----
a. 4 𝑓∅𝑚
b. 4.44 𝑓∅𝑚
c. 2𝑓∅𝑚
d. 𝑓∅𝑚
Q.21For a 50 Hz transformer, the primary turns are 100 and maximum flux in the core
is 0.08 Wb,then the primary induced e.m.f. is------
a. 1856 V
b. 1276 V
c. 176 V
d. 1776 V
Q.22 R.M.S. Value of the induced e.m.f. per turn in transformer is ----
a. 4.44 𝑓∅𝑚
b. 4 𝑓∅𝑚
c. 2𝑓∅𝑚
d. 𝑓∅𝑚
Q.23For a transformer, the induced e.m.f. on primary is 199.8 V with 50 turns at 50 Hz
Frequency then the maximum flux in the core is ------
a) 79.92 mWb
b) 18 mWb
c) 18 Wb
d) 0.999 Wb
Q.24 An ideal transformer is the one having ------
a) No losses
b) Zero resistance windings
c) Zero leakage flux
d) All of these
Q.25The turns ratio is ---- to current ratio.
b) Equal
c) Inversely proportional
d) None of these
Q.26 For a 250/25 V transformer having 1 KVA rating, the full load primary current is ---
a) 40 A
Jo
b) 4 A
in
c) 0.4A
@
d) 0.04 A
SP
Q.27 Transformation ratio in a transformer is equal to ----

𝐸
P
a) 𝐸1
U
2
B
𝑁1
b)
TE
𝑁2
𝑁2
C
c)
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𝐼2
d) 𝐼1
Q.28The transformer rating is expressed in VA because -----
a) On both sides it is constant
b) Losses are independent of load power factor
c) The frequency is constant on the load side
d) The flux in the core remains constant
Q.29 An isolation transformer has turns ratio of ----
a) 1:10
b) 10:1
c) 1:1
d) None of these
Q.30 A transformer has secondary full load current of 10 A and secondary no
load inducede.m.f. of 200 V, then its KVA rating is ----
a) 2000
b) 200
c) 2
d) 20
Q.31The regulation of a transformer is defined as ------
a) Rise in terminal voltage when loaded
b) Fall in terminal voltage when loaded
c) Change in secondary terminal voltage from no-load to full load as a percentage
Of secondary no load terminal voltage
d) Change in flux from no-load to full-load
Q.32 For better performance of transformer, the regulation must be -----
a) high
b) infinite
c) very low
d) none of these
Q.33The no load voltage of transformer is 400 volts, while it drops to 395 V on full
load then its regulation is ------ %
a) 1.265
b) 12.65
c) -1.265
d) 0
Q.34 Losses which do not occur in transformer are ----
a) Copper loss
b) Magnetic losses
c) Friction losses
d) None of these
Q.35 The losses which vary with load in a power transformer are ------
Jo

in
b) Copper losses
@
c) Eddy current losses

SP
d) Hysteresis losses
P
Q.36 The core losses are dissipated in the form of -----

U
B
a. Heat
TE
b. Magnetic hum
C
c. Light
H
d. Electric energy
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Q.37 A transformer core is laminated to reduce the -----
a. Hysteresis loss
b. Eddy current loss
c. Leakage reactance
d. All of these
Q.38 Which loss is variable in a transformer?
a. Eddy current loss
b. Copper loss
c. Core loss
d. Friction loss
Q.39 When the supply frequency of a transformer is doubled then the hysteresis
losses ------
a. Remain same
b. Reduced by 50%
c. Doubled
d. Becomes 4 times
Q.40 The expression for the hysteresis loss is -----
a. 𝐾ℎ 𝐵𝑚 2.67 𝑓𝑣
b. 𝐾ℎ 𝐵𝑚 1.67 𝑓𝑣
c. 𝐾ℎ 𝐵𝑚 2.67 𝑓 2 𝑣
d. 𝐾ℎ 𝐵𝑚 1.67 𝑓𝑣 2
Q.41 The expression for the eddy current loss is -----
a. 𝐾𝑒 𝐵𝑚 𝑓 2 𝑡 2
b. 𝐾𝑒 𝐵𝑚 𝑓𝑡 2
c. 𝐾𝑒 𝐵1.67 𝑚 𝑓 2 𝑡 2
d. 𝐾𝑒 𝐵𝑚 2 𝑓 2 𝑡 2
Q.42 Regulation and efficiency of a transformer should be respectively ----
a. High, high
b. High, low
c. Low, high
d. Low, low
Q.43 The advantage of direct loading test is ----
a. Efficiency at any load can be predicted without actually loading
b. Equivalent circuit parameters can be obtained
c. The results are accurate
d. None of these
Q.44 On no load efficiency of the transformer --------
a. 100
b. 0
Jo
c. 90
in
d. 98
@
Q.45As the load current increases, the regulation of the transformer ------
SP
a. Increases
P
b. Decreases
U
B
c. Remains same
TE
d. None of these
C
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Q.46 An autotransformer -------
a. Increases the iron losses
b. Converts single phase to three phase supply
c. Uses common winding between primary and secondary
d. None of these
Q.47 The advantage of autotransformer is -------
a. Gives highly stable voltage
b. Copper saving
c. Efficiency is 100%
d. None of these
Q.48 In ------ of the following an autotransformer is used.
a. Dimmerstat
b. Traction
c. Leath machine
d. Tube light
Q.49 The efficiency of autotransformer is ---- the two winding transformer.
a. Less than
b. More than
c. Same as
d. None of these
Q.50 What will be eddy current loss if the supply frequency of a transformer
becomes double?
a. Eight times
b. Remains same
c. Doubled
d. Four times
Jo
in
@
SP
P U
B
TE
C
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Unit 3:Electrostatics
Electric flux, ψ= Q coulombs (numerically)

Electric flux density or displacement density,
𝛹 𝑄 𝐶
𝐷 = 𝐴 = 𝐴 𝑚2 … … . 𝑎𝑠𝛹 = 𝑄
𝐹
Electric field intensity, 𝐸 = 𝑄 𝑁/𝐶
𝑉
𝐸 = 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑑 = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑒𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑉 = 𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑒𝑑𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
𝑑
E is also measured in V/m
𝐷
Permittivity, 𝜀 = 𝐸 𝐹/𝑚
1
Permittivity of free space, 𝜖0 = = 8.854 × 10−12 𝐹/𝑚
36𝜋×109
𝜀
Relative permittivity, 𝜀𝑟 = 𝜀 𝑖. 𝑒. 𝜀 = 𝜀𝑟 𝜀0 𝑛𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
0
The relative permittivity is the dielectric constant of the material
𝐷 = 𝜀𝐸 = 𝜀0 𝜀𝑟 𝐸𝐶/𝑚2
𝐾𝑄 𝑄 1 1
Coulomb’s Law, 𝐹 = 𝑑12 2 𝑁𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑠, 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝐾 = 4𝜋𝜀 = 4𝜋𝜀 𝜀
𝑟 0
𝑄
Capacitance 𝑄 = 𝐶𝑉𝑖. 𝑒. 𝐶 = 𝑉 Farads
𝜀𝐴 𝜀0 𝜀𝑟𝐴
Parallel Plate Capacitor, 𝐶 = = 𝐹
𝑑 𝑑
1 1 1 1 1
For ‘n’ capacitors in series, = + + + …+
𝐶𝑒𝑞 𝐶1 𝐶2 𝐶3 𝐶𝑛
For all capacitors in series, the charge on all of them is always same, but the
Voltage across them is different.
For the Capacitors in parallel,
𝑄1 = 𝐶1 𝑉, 𝑄2 = 𝐶2 𝑉, 𝑄3 = 𝐶3 𝑉
For ‘n’ capacitors in parallel, 𝐶𝑒𝑞 = 𝐶1 + 𝐶2 + 𝐶3 + ⋯ + 𝐶𝑛
For the capacitors in parallel,
𝑄 = 𝑄1 + 𝑄2 + 𝑄3 = 𝐶1 𝑉 + 𝐶2 𝑉 + 𝐶3 𝑉
In general, for a composite capacitor with ‘n’ dielectrics,

𝜀0 𝐴 𝜀0 𝐴
Jo
𝐶𝑒𝑞 = 𝑡𝑘 = 𝑡1 𝑡2 𝑡𝑛
∑𝑛𝑘=1
𝜀𝑟1 + 𝜀𝑟2 + ⋯ + 𝜀𝑟𝑛
in
𝜀𝑟𝑘
@
SP
P
The expression for the charging current and the voltage across the capacitor are,
U
B
TE
𝑉
R-C charging, 𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖 = 𝑅 𝑒 −𝑡𝑖𝐶𝑅 𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑉𝑐 = 𝑉(1 − 𝑒 −𝑡𝑖𝐶𝑅 )
C
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𝜏 = 𝐶𝑅𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠 = 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
The expressions for the discharging current and the voltage across the capacitor,
𝑉 −𝑡𝑖𝐶𝑅
R-C discharging, 𝑉𝑐 = 𝑉𝑒 −𝑡𝑖𝐶𝑅𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑖=𝑅𝑒
Objective Questions & Answers for Online Examination
Q.1 The space around a charge or charged body is called -----

a. electric field
b. magnetic field
c. electromagnetic field
d. magnetostatic field
Q.2The electric lines of force always enter or leave a conducting surface at -----
a. 1800
b. 00
c. 450
d. 900
Q.3 The total number f lines of force in any particular electric field is called ----
a. Electric flux
b. Magnetic flux
c. Electric flux density
d. Electric field strength
Q.4 The unit of flux is ----
a. Newton
b. Coulomb
c. Weber
d. tesla
Q.5 The electric flux passing at right angles through unit area of surface is called -----
a. electric field strength
b. magnetic flux density
c. electric flux density
d. electric flux
Q.6 The unit of electric flux density is -----
a. weber
b. weber/m2
c. coulomb
d. coulomb/m2
Q.7 The force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at any point in the electric
Field is ------
Jo
a. displacement intensity
in
b. electric field intensity

@
c. electric potential
SP
d. electric flux density

P
Q.8 The unit of electric field intensity is ------

U
a. c/m
B
TE
b. c/m2
c. N/C
C
H
d. N/m2C
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Q.9 The electric field intensity at a point is -------
a. F/Q
b. Q/F
c. B/Q
d. ½ VQ
Q.10 Higher the value of E means ----

a. Stronger is the electric field
b. Weaker is the electric field
c. Electric field is zero
d. None of these
Q.11 The permittivity is -----
a. The ease with which magnetic flux passes through dielectric medium
b. The ease with which current can pass through given material
c. The ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux
To establish in it.
d. None of these
Q.12 The ratio of electric flux intensity to electric field intensity is called -----
c) Permittivity of free space
d) None of these
Q.13 The absolute permittivity is measured in -----
a) H/m
b) A/m
c) F/m
d) N/m
Q.14 The value of 𝜀0 is ---- F/m
a) 8.854 x 10-10
b) 8.854 x 10+12
c) 6.657 x 10-12
d) 8.854 x 10-12
Q.15 The relative permittivity of vaccum is -------
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Unity
d) None of these
Q.16 ------relation is true.
𝜀
a) 𝐷 = 𝐸
b) 𝐷 = 𝜀𝐸
Jo
𝜀
c) 𝐸 = 𝐷
in
d) 𝐸 = 𝜀𝐷
@
Q.17 Electric field intensity is numerically equal to ------

SP
a) Potential difference
P U
b) electric potential
B
c) potential gradient
TE
d) electric force
C
Q.18 The units of -------- are same.

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a) Electric field strength, potential difference
b) Electric field strength, potential gradient
c) Electric field strength, electric flux density
d) electric flux density, potential gradient
Q.19 ------ represents Coulomb’s law of electrostatics.

a) 𝐹 = 𝑄1 𝑄2 𝑑 2
𝑑2
b) 𝐹 = 𝑄
1 𝑄2
𝑄1 𝑄2
c) 𝐹 = 𝑑2
1
d) 𝐹 = 𝑄 2
1 𝑄2 𝑑
Q.20 If Q1=Q2= 1 C and distance between them is 1 m then the force between them
Is ------------N.
a) 9 x 1010
b) 9 x 109
1
c)
9×109
d) 0.1 𝑋1011
Q.21 The constant of proportionality in Coulomb’s Law depends on surrounding and
Given by ----------
a) 4𝜋𝜀
b) 4𝜋𝜀0
1
c) 4𝜋𝜀
0
1
d) 4𝜋𝜀𝑟 𝜀0
Q.22 ----- is used as a dielectric in a capacitor.
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Paper
d) carbon
Q.23 Capacitance is ------
a) property of capacitor to repel charge from its plates
b) property to store electric energy in the form of static charges
c) property to store magnetic energy
d) property to breakdown the dielectric
Q.24 Capacitance of a capacitor is the ratio of -------
a) p.d.between the plates and the charge
b) charge and the p.d. between the plates
c) charge and spacing between the plates
Jo
d) p.d. and thickness of dielectric

in
Q.25 ------- is false statement.

@
a) Capacitance is proportional to area of cross section of plates

SP
b) Capacitance is proportional to distance between the plates

P
c) Capacitance is proportional to relative permittivity of dielectric

U
B
d) Capacitance is inversely proportional to distance between the plates

TE
Q.26 The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is -----

C
𝜀𝑑
a) 𝐴
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𝜀
b) 𝑑𝐴
𝜀𝐴
c) 𝑑
𝐴
d) 𝜀𝑑
Q.27 The capacitor is charged to 10V and its capacitance is 1µF then charge on it is----
a) 10µC
b) 10 nC
c) 10C
d) 1µC
Q.28 A capacitor uses the plates of area 25 cm2 and distance between the plates
is 5cm.Then its capacitance with air as a dielectric is -----
a) 0.4427 µF
b) 0.4427 pF
c) 0.4427 nF
d) 0.4427 F
Q.29 The charge transferred on the plates of a capacitor is 2 nC while the
distance between the plates is 1mm.If area of cross section is 10 cm2 and air is used
as
A dielectric then the voltage across the plates is -------V.
a) 22.580
b) 2.5588
c) 225.88
d) 22.558
Q.30 A capacitor of 10µF has a charge of 1mC.If the distance between the plates is 1 cm
Then the electric field intensity between the plates is -----
a) 10 KV/m
b) 10V/m
c) 0.1 V/m
d) 8.854 KV/m
Q.31 For a 5µF capacitor, distance between the plates is 0.5 cm and the electric field
Intensity is 20kV/m then the charge on the capacitor is --------
a) 5 µC
b) 0.5 µC
c) 5 nC
d) 0.5 mC
Q.32 A capacitor uses a dielectric of 𝜀𝑟 =2. It is charged to 500 V and the
distance between the plates is 10 cm then the electric flux density between the plate
Is ------nC/m2.
Jo
a) 0.8854
in
b) 88.54
@
c) 8.854
SP
d) 0.00885
P
Q.33 The p.d. between the plates of a 5µF capacitor with a charge of 2mC on it is ----V
U
a) 200
B
TE
b) 100
C
c) 400
H
d) 4000
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Q.34A 2 µF capacitor connected in a circuit has one plate at +6 V and the other plate at
-6 V. the charge on the negative plate of the capacitor is -----
a) +12 µC
b) -12 µC
c) +24 µC
d) -24 µC
Q.35 A parallel plate capacitor with air as dielectric remains connected across a battery
ofe.m.f. 6V.The charge on the capacitor in this condition is Q.If the separation
between the plates is decreased by 10% in this condition and sufficient time is
allowed to attain steady state, the charge on the capacitor will be ------
a) Increased by 11% approximately
b) Increased by 9 % approximately
c) Decreased by 9 % approximately
d) Decreased by 11 % approximately
Q.36 The ability of an insulating medium to resist its breakdown is called its -----
Q.37 For the capacitor in series, -------- remains same for all of them.
a) Coltage
b) Capacitance
c) Charge
d) None of these
Q.38 If three capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance is ------
1
a) 1 1 1
+ +
𝐶1 𝐶2 𝐶3
b) 𝐶1 + 𝐶2 + 𝐶3
1 1 1
c) + +
𝐶1 𝐶2 𝐶3
d) 𝑛𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑜𝑓𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒
Q.39 The two capacitors 3µF and 6µF are in series then the equivalent capacitance is -----
a) 9 µF
b) 4.5 µF
c) 2 µF
d) 1 µF
Q.40 Three capacitors connected in series have equivalent capacitance of 2 µF. If one of
the capacitor is removed the effective capacitance becomes 3µF, then the value of
capacitance which is removed is --------µF.
a) 0.5
Jo
b) 8
in
c) 2
@
d) 4
SP
Q.41 For the capacitors in parallel ------ remains same.

P
a) Voltage
U
B
b) Charge
TE
c) Flux
C
d) None of these
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Q.42 Two capacitors 3 µF and 6 µF are in parallel and combination is connected across
100 V supply then the charge on 6 µF is -------µC.
a) 300
b) 600
c) 1200
d) 100
Q.43 Two capacitors in series give equivalent capacitance of 20 µF and when in parallel
give equivalent capacitance of 3.75 µF then the two capacitors are ------
a) 4 µF, 16 µF
b) 5 µF, 15 µF
c) 10 µF, 10 µF
d) 11 µF, 9 µF
Q.44 Four,2µF capacitors are connected in parallel then the effective capacitance
is ---- µF.
a) 0.5
b) 8
c) 2
d) 4
Q.45 A capacitor C1 is charged to a voltage V0 from battery.After disconnecting
from battery, is connected to other uncharged capacitor C2.Then the new
voltage across the combination will be --------
𝐶1
a) 𝐶 +𝐶 𝑉0
1 2
𝐶2
b) 𝑉
𝐶1 +𝐶2 0
𝐶1 +𝐶2
c) 𝑉0
𝐶 1
𝐶1 +𝐶2
d) 𝑉0
𝐶2
Q.46 A capacitor is made up of three dielectrics of relative permittivity values
of 𝜀𝑟1, 𝜀𝑟2 , 𝜀𝑟3 and thicknesses of 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 , 𝑡3 respectively ------------
𝑡 𝑡 𝑡
a) 𝜀0 𝐴 (𝜀 1 + 𝜀 2 + 𝜀 3 )
𝑟1, 𝑟2, 𝑟3,
b) 𝜀0 𝐴[𝑡1 𝜀𝑟1 + 𝑡2 𝜀𝑟2 + 𝑡3 𝜀𝑟3 ]
𝜀 𝐴
c) 𝑡1 𝑡02 𝑡3
+ +
𝜀𝑟1, 𝜀𝑟2, 𝜀𝑟3,
d) None of these
Q.47 A capacitor is made up of two dielectric having constants 2 and 5 with thicknesses
1 mm and 2mm respectively. If area of cross section is 50 cm2 then capacitance is--
a) 110.075 pF
b) 49.188 pF
Jo
c) 8.854 µF
in
d) 2.03 nF
@
Q.48 The energy stored in a capacitor is given by --------

SP
1
a) 2 𝐶𝑉
P
1
U
b) 𝐶𝑉 2
B
2
TE
1
c) 𝑄𝑉 2
2
C
1𝐶
H
d) 2𝑉
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Q.49 A capacitor is charged to 100 mC and the energy stored is 10 J then voltage across
capacitor is -----
a) 100V
b) 1KV
c) 200V
d) 2KV
Q.50If the p.d. between the plates is increased by 10% then the energy stored in the
Capacitor increases by ----------%
a) 11
b) 10
c) 2.1
d) 21
Q.51 What fraction of the energy drawn from the charging battery is stored in a capacitor?
a) 100%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 70.7%
Q.52As capacitor charges, the voltage across it ------
a) Decreases exponentially
b) Increases instantly
c) Increases exponentially
d) Decreases instantly
Q.53 Initially the capacitor acts as --------
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Breakdown
d) None of these
Q.54In the steady state, the capacitor acts as ------
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Breakdown
d) None of these
Q.55 If capacitor ‘C’ is charged through resistance R then the time constant is --------
1
a) 𝑅𝐶
𝑅
b) 𝐶
c) 𝑅𝐶
𝐶
d) 𝑅
Q.56 A charging time constant of RC circuit is time required by the capacitor voltage to rise
Jo
From -----------
in
a) 0 to 90% of final value

@
b) 0 to 36.8% of final value

SP
c) 0 to 63.2% of its initial maximum value

P
d) None of these
U
B
Q.57 A charging time constant of RC circuit is time required by charging current to fall --
TE
a) To 36.8% of its initial maximum value

C
b) To zero from its initial maximumvalue

H
c) To 63.2% of its initial maximum value

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d) None of these
Q.58 The expression for the charging current through while charging C through
resistor R is
𝑉 −𝑡𝑖𝑅𝐶
a) 𝑅𝐶 𝑒
𝑉
b) 𝑒 −𝑡𝑖𝑅𝐶
𝑅
c) 𝑉(1 − 𝑒 −𝑡/𝑅𝐶 )
𝑉
d) 𝑅 (1 − 𝑒 −𝑡/𝑅𝐶 )
Q.59 A capacitor of 1 µF is charged through resistor of 1M𝛺 from a 100 V source
then voltage across capacitor after 2 sec is ------
a) 36.8 V
b) 63.212 V
c) 86.466 V
d) 100 V
Q.60 Initial charging current through a capacitor is 40µA when charged through 1.5 M𝛺
resistance then supply voltage is -----
a) 20 V
b) 40 V
c) 60 V
d) 80 V
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@
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P
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B
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C
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Unit 3- Single Phase A. C circuits
1. In purely resistive circuit voltage and current are _________with each other.
a. Lagging
b. Leading
c. In Phase
d. None of above
2. Power in purely resistive circuit is given by ________.

a. VI
b. VICos Ø
c. Zero
d. None of these
3. If power factor = 1 ,it means that _________

a. Input = Output
b. Circuit is resistive
c. Circuit is inductive
d. None of above
4. In purely inductive circuit current equation is given as________.

a. i = Im Sin ωt
b. i = Im Sin ωt + 90°
c. i = Im Sin ωt - 90°
d. None of above
5. In case of Inductive circuit ,frequency is ___________ proportional to the

inductance and inductive reactance.
a. Directly
b. Inversely
c. No Effect
d. None of above
6. In inductive circuit ,when Inductance or inductive reactance increase current

decreases but circuit power factor ___________.
a. Increases
b. Also Decreases
c. Remain Same
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7. The average power in purely inductive circuit is _______.

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a. Zero
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b. VI Cos Ø
c. VI sin Ø
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d. None of these
B
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8. Current in purely inductive circuit _______voltage by 90°.

a. Leads
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b. Lags
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c. Align
d. None of above
9. Current equation in purely inductive circuit is given by _________.
a. i = Im Sin ωt
b. i = Im Sin ωt + 90°
c. i = Im Sin ωt - 90°
d. None of above
10. Capacitive reactance is given by the formula ________.
a. Xc= 1/ 2πfc
b. Xc = 2πfc
c. Xc= 0
d. None of above.
11. In pure capacitive circuit, the power is _________.
a. Infinite
b. Maximum
c. Minimum
d. Zero
12. In single phase a.c circuits VI represents __________Power?
a. Active
b. Reactive
c. Apparent
d. Real
13. Reactive power is given as _________?
a. VI
b. VI Cos Ø
c. VI sin Ø
d. None of these
14. ____________Equation gives power factor of circuit.
a. R/Z
b. R x Z
c. XZ
d. None of above
15. In a capacitive circuit when Capacitance increases then power factor ________?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same
d. None of above
16. If current and Voltage are 90 Degree out of phase ,then power will be ______?
a. Maximum
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b. Normal
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c. Minimum
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d. Zero
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P
17. Using formula P= VI Cos Ø we can find __________?

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a. Voltage of circuit
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b. Current of circuit
C
c. Power factor of circuit

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d. None of above
18. Power Factor (Cos Ø) = ____________?

a. kW/kVA
b. R/Z
c. The Cosine of angle between Current and voltage
d. All of the above
19. In series R-L-C circuit at resonance _________?

a. XL = X C
b. XL ˂ X C
c. XL ˃ X C
d. None of above
20. At resonance condition value of cos Ø is _________?

a. 1
b. Less than 1
c. More than 1
d. None of above
21. At resonant frequency, the voltage across capacitor is _______ the voltage across
inductor.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) greater than or equal to
d) equal to
22. In series RLC circuit, the voltage across capacitor and inductor are ______ with each
other.
a) in phase
b) 180⁰ out of phase
c) 90⁰ out of phase
d) 45⁰ out of phase
23. The expression of resonant frequency in a series resonant circuit is?

a) 1/(2π√C)
b) 1/( 2π√L)
c) 2π√LC
d) 1/(2π√LC)
24. The relationship between Impedance and Admittance is _______.

a. Z = 1/Y
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b. Z = 1+ Y
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c. Z= 1-Y
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d. Z= 2Y
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25. Components of Admittance are ___________.

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a. Resistance and conductance

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b. Conductance and susceptance

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c. Conductance and permanence

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d. None of above
24. For the circuit given below, the approximate value of reactance, impedance, current and
power factor is———-respectively.
1. 35 Ohms, 90 Ohms, 1 Amperes, 1

2. 4 Ohms, 104.8 Ohms, 1.9 Amperes, 0.95
3. 40 Ohms, 100 Ohms, 5 Amperes, 0.5
4. 50 Ohms, 200 Ohms, 2 Amperes, 0.7
25. For the circuit given in previous question, the power consumed is—-
1. 200 Watts
2. 361 Watts
3. 300 Watts
4. 500 Watts
26. Power Factor for the circuit given below is——–
1. 1
2. 0.8
3. 0.9
4. 0.5
27. In a pure resistive circuit

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A. Current lags behind the voltage by 90o

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B. Current leads the voltage by 90o

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C. Current can lead or lag the voltage by 90o

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D. Current is in phase with the voltage

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28. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit
A. Depends upon the magnitude of R

B. Depends upon the magnitude of L
C. Depends upon the magnitude of C
D. Depends upon the magnitude of R, L and C
29. A series R-L-C circuit draws a current at a leading power factor at
A. More than resonant frequency

B. Less than resonant frequency*
C. Resonant frequency
30. In a series R-L-C circuit at resonance
A. wLC = 1
B. wL2C2 = 1
C. w2LC = 1*
D. w2L2C = 1
31. In a R-L-C circuit
A. Power is consumed in resistance only and is equal to I SquareR

B. Exchange of power does not take place between resistance and supply mains
C. Exchange of power take place between capacitor and supply mains
D. All of the above*
32. Under the condition of resonance in R-L-C series circuit, the power factor of the
circuit is
A. 0.5 lagging
B. 0.5 leading
C. Unity
D. Zero
33. A series R-L-C circuit will have unity power factor if operated at a frequency of
A. 1/LC
B.1/w2 LC
C. 1/w2 LC
D. 1/ 2 Π √ LC*
34. The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to..........of VR and VL
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in
A. Phasor sum*
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B. Arithmetic sum
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C. Sum of the squares

D.Algebraic sum
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B
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35. The power factor of an AC circuit is equal to

C
H
A. Cosine of the phase angle*

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B. Sine of the phase angle
C. Unity for a resistive circuit
D. Unity for a reactive circuit
36. The power factor of an AC circuit lies between
A. 0 and 1
B. -1 and 1
C. 0 and -1
D. None of these
37. A circuit component that oppose the change in the circuit voltage is
A. Resistance
B. Capacitance*
C. Inductance
D. All of the above
38. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in
A. C only
B. L only
C. R only
D. All of the above
39. In an AC circuit a low value of KVAR compared with KW indicates
A. Low efficiency
B. High power factor
C. Unity power factor
D. Maximum load current
40. The unit of frequency is
A. Cycle
B. Cycle-second
C. Hertz/second
D. Hertz
41. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic resistance the electrical power
converted into heat is
A. Apparent power
B. True power*
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C. Reactive power
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42. In an AC circuit ( sine wave ) with R and L in series

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A. Voltage across R and L 180o out of face

B
B. The voltage across R lags the voltage across L by 90o*

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C. The voltage across R leads the voltage across L by 90o

C
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D. Voltage across R and L are in phase

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43. In AC circuit the power curve is a sine wave having
A. Double the frequency of voltage*

B. Same frequency as that of voltage
C. Half the frequency of the voltage
D. Three times the frequency of the voltage
44. A current is set to be alternating when it changes in
A. Magnitude only
B. Direction only
C. Both magnitude and direction*
45. A boiler at home is switched on to the a.c. mains supply in power at 230 V, 50 Hz.
The frequency of instantaneous power consumed is
A. 0 Hz
B. 50 Hz
C. 100 Hz*
D. 150 Hz
46. The power factor of an ordinary electric bulb is
A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Slightly more than unity
D. Slightly less than unity*
47. The power factor of practical inductor is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Lagging*
D. Leading
48. Unit of reactive power is
A. VA
B. Watt
C. VAR*
D. Ohm
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49. Real part of admittance is.......... and the imaginary part is........
in
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A. Impedance, resistance
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B. Resistance, impedance
C. Susceptance, inductance
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D. Conductance, Susceptance*
B
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50. Capacitive Susceptance is a measure of
A. A purely capacitive circuit's ability to pass current*

B. A purely capacitive circuit's ability to resist the flow of current
C. The extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
D. Reactive power in a circuit
51. Unit of inductive reactance is
A. Henry
B. Millihenry
C. Wb
D. Ohm*
52. A pure capacitance connected across 50 Hz, 230 V supply consumes 0.04 W. This
consumption is attributed to
A. Ohmic loss due to ohmic resistance of plates

B. Loss of energy in dielectric
C. Capacitive reactance in ohms
D. Both A and B*
53. A circuit with a resistor, inductor and capacitor in series is resonant of fo Hz. If the all
the component of values are now doubled the new resonant frequency is
A. 2fo
B. Still fo
C. fo/4
D. fo/2*
54. Pure inductive circuit
A. Consumes some power on average

B. Does not take power at all from a line
C. Takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it
during other part of the cycle*
55. In a pure inductive circuit
A. The current is in phase with the voltage

B. The current legs behind the voltage by 90o *
C. The current leads the voltage by 90o
D. The current can lead or a leg by 90o
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56. In a purely inductive circuit

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A. Actual power is zero*

B. Reactive power is zero
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C. Apparent power is zero

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57. In a purely inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
A. Be reduced by half
B. Be doubled*
C. Be four times as high
D. Be reduced to ¼
58. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
A. Be reduced by half*
B. Be doubled
C. Be four times at high
D. Be reduced to one fourth
59. Capacitive reactance is more when
A. Capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less*

B. Capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
C. Capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
D. Capacitance is more and the frequency of supply is more
60. Find the value of the instantaneous voltage if the resistance is 2 ohm and the
instantaneous current in the circuit is 5A.
a) 5V
b) 2V
c) 10V*
d) 2.5V
61. The power for a purely resistive circuit is zero when?

a) Current is zero
b) Voltage is zero
c) Both current and voltage are zero
d) Either current or voltage is zero*
62. The correct expression for the instantaneous current in a resistive circuit is?
a) i=Vm(sinwt)/R*
b) i=Vm(coswt)/R
c) i=V(sinwt)/R
d) i=V(coswt)/R
63. The correct expression for the instantaneous current if instantaneous voltage is
Vm(sint) in an inductive circuit is?
a) i = Vm(sint)/X L
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b) i = Vm(cost)/XL
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c) i = -Vm(sint)/X L
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d) i = -Vm(cost)/XL *
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64. A resistance of 7 ohm is connected in series with an inductance of 31.8mH. The

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circuit is connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the current in the
B
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circuit.
a) 2.2A
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b) 4.2A
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c) 6.2A
d) 8.2A*

circuit is connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the phase difference.
a) -55.1*
b) 55.1
c) 66.1
d) -66.1

circuit is connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the voltage across
the resistor.
a) 31.8V
b) 57.4V*
c) 67.3V
d) 78.2V

circuit is connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the voltage across
the inductor.
a) 52V
b) 82V*
c) 65V
d) 76V
68. Which, among the following, is the correct expression for φ.

a) φ=tan-1 (XL/R)*
b) φ=tan-1 (R/XL)
c) φ=tan-1 (XL*R)
d) φ=cos-1 (XL/R)
69. For an RL circuit, the phase angle is always ________

a) Positive
b) Negative*
c) 0
d) 90
70. What is sinϕ from impedance triangle?

a) XL/R
b) XL/Z*
c) R/Z
d) Z/R
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71. What is impedance at resonance?

in
a) maximum
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b) minimum*
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c) zero
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72. What is tanϕ for RC circuit?

a) XC/R*
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b) XL/R
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c) R/Z
d) Z/R
73. What is the resonance condition?

a) When XL>XC
b) When XL<XC
c) When XL=XC *
d) When XC=infinity
74. The combination of resistance and reactance known as ___________

a) Susceptance
b) Impedance*
c) Conductance
d) Admittance
75. If in an alternating current circuit, resistance is 5 ohm, capacitive reactance is 12 ohm,

what is the impedance?
a) 5 ohm
b) 10 ohm
c) 12 ohm
d) 13 ohm*
76. If in an alternating current circuit, impedance is 26 ohm, capacitive reactance is 24

ohm, what is the resistance?
a) 25 ohm
b) 10 ohm*
c) 12 ohm
d) 23 ohm
77. If in an alternating current circuit, capacitance of 30 µF is connected to a supply of

200V,50Hz. Find the current in the circuit.
a) 1.38 A*
b) 1.89 A
c) 1.74 A
d) 0.89 A
78. If in an alternating current circuit, capacitance C is connected to a supply of

200V,50Hz. Current in the circuit is 1.89 A. Find the capacitance C.
a) 30 µF*
b) 20 µF
c) 10 µF
d) 15 µF
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Padmashree Dr. D Y Patil Institute of Engineering and Technology,
Pimpri, Pune 411018
Basic Electrical Engg.

Attempt all the questions given below: (only √ tick to the right answer)
1. The unit of relative permittivity from the electrostatics is --------.
a) Wb b) F / m
c) none d) m / F
2. The single phase a c circuit operates at 230 V supply, frequency 50 Hz the time required to reach
positive maximum value is …..
a) 0.005 sec b) 0.02 sec

c) 0.01 sec d) 0.001 sec
3. The current in a c circuit is i =20sin(wt – π / 3), the waveform of current will start at…..
a) 00 b) 600
c) 900 d)1800
4. The copper losses of transformer at 80% of full load is 512 watt, then the value of it at full load…
a) 80 watt b) 512 watt
c) 640 watt d) 800 watt
5. The a c circuit consist Z = 0 + j 20 Ω, having frequency of 50 Hz, the 20 Ω represents
a) capacitive reactance b) inductive reactance
c) resistance d) impedance
6. The form factor of ac fundamental voltage is …….
a) V / Vav b) Vav / V
c) Vm / Vav d) Vm / V
7. The voltage in a c circuit is v = 100sinwt and current i = 20sinwt the value of resistance is …
a) 5 Volt b) 5 amp
c) 5 Ohm d) 5 ohm / m
8. The single phase a c transformer having rating of 100 kVA, 440 V / 11 kV, 50 Hz, the secondary
current at 0.8 p f lagging is ……
a) 9.09 A b) 9.09 mA
c) 90.9 A d) 0.909 A
9. The parallel plate capacitor having dielectric medium air, distance between plates is 30 mm, cross section
area 30 mm2 , the capacitance of capacitor will be …..
a) 885.4 pF b) 88.54 pF
c) 0.8854 pF d) 8.854 pF
10. The single phase transformer with iron losses of 100 W, copper losses at full load 512 W having
10 kVA, 440 / 230 V, 50 Hz , 0.8 leading power factor, then the efficiency of transformer at Half of
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the full load will be…….

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a) 94.607 % b) 92.89 %
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c) 96.607 % d) 96.89 %
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11. An a c circuit v = 200sin(wt – π/3) and i = 100sin(wt + π/6), the phase difference between voltage
and current is ……
a) 900 b) 600
c) 300 d) 1200
12. The equivalent capacitance of the two capacitor connected in series is

a) C1 + C2 b) C1/C2
c) C1C2 /(C1+C2) d) C2 /(C1+C2)
13. The shell type of transformer consists……pattern.
a) concentric winding b) sandwich winding
c) lap winding d) wave winding
14. The current in ac circuit is i = 50sin(wt – π/2) A, the rms and average value of current is …… A
respectively.
a) 60, 60 b) 50, 50
c) 34.35, 30.85 d) 35.35, 31.85
15. The capacitor having 50 µF connected with resistance of 50 MΩ, then the time constant of the
circuit will be ……
a) 10 mSec b) 100 mSec
c) 1000 mSec d) 0.1 sec
16. The reciprocal of time period in a c fundamental is known as ……

a) frequency b) angular velocity
c) cycle d) instantaneous value
17. The cylindrical capacitor has capacitance of 100 µF with potential difference of 100 Volt then the
energy stored in circuit is ------- J
a) 50 b) 5
c) 0.5 d) 0.05
18. The eddy current losses in transformer is a part of ……
a) Copper losses b) Iron losses
c) Variable losses d) mechanical losses
19. “The current is leading to the voltage by π/2 angle” is true for ….. a c circuit.
a) purely capacitive b) purely inductive
c) purely resistive d) collective
20. The charging action of capacitor is like…..
a) resistance b) inductance
c) reluctance d) cell or battery
21. Transformer of 440 / 200 V , 50 Hz , 0. 8 p f having direct loading test data as follows:
No load: – 400 V, 0 A, 0 watt, Full load: – 398 V, 4.5 A, 100 watt on secondary side, then the
regulation of transformer is …. %
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
22. The a c circuit having v = 200 sinwt and i = 100 sin(wt + π/2) , then the capacitance of the
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capacitor at 60 Hz will be….. µF.

in
a) 132.96 b) 1326.96
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c) 1.3296 d) 0.13296
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Padmashree Dr. D Y Patil Institute of Engineering and Technology,
Pimpri, Pune 411018
Roll No. Div. Date
MCQ Test of Basic Electrical Engg.
Attempt all the questions given below: (only √ tick to the right answer)
1. The unit of reluctance from the magnetic circuit is --------.
a) Wb b) AT / Wb
c) Tesla d) Wb / AT
2. Three lamps of rating 100 W is connected in parallel and combination operates on 230 Volt, if
middle lamp get blown OFF then what will be the current in other two lamps of the circuit and
voltage across the middle lamp.
a) 0 A, 0 V b) 0.435 A, 230 V
c) 0 A, 230V d) 0.435A, 0 V
3. The electric pump is lifting the 30 m3 of water per hour to the height of 1500 cm having overall
efficiency of system is 80%, what will be the current taken by motor if supply voltage is 200 Volt.
a) 5.109 A b) 7.664 A
c) 5. 333 A d) 5. 666A
4. A 400 W lamp operates for 4 hours per day then its energy consumption per day is
a) 4 units b) 4 Wh
c) 1.6 units d) 0.4 Wh
5. A coil has resistance of 12 Ω at 20 OC and its RTC at is 0.003 / OC at 0 OC then it’s resistance at
50 OC is ------ Ω
a) 13.77 b) 13.55
c) 13.02 d) 13.88
6. A uniformly wound air cored circular coil has length of magnetic path is 20 cm and dia. of 25 cm.
The flux produced is 20 mWb , then the MMF of the coil will be ….. AT
a) 64828.89 b) 30522.85
c) 22966.85 d) 50522.85
7. The magnetic circuit having self inductance of 0.2 H when a current of 5 A is reversed in 0.2 sec
then the induced emf across the coil is ….
a) 5 Volt b) – 5 Volt
c) 5 Ohm d) 5 Volt/amp
8. A cable has conductor diameter of 1.2 cm and the thickness of the insulation is 1.5 cm. If the
resistivity of insulation is 2.758 x 1012 Ω-m then find the length of the cable having insulation
resistance of 550 MΩ.
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a) 700 m b) 800 m
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c) 1 Km d) 5 Km
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9. The force exerted on a body rotating at a perpendicular distance of 5 cm from the axis is 100 N
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then the torque acted on that body is ------

B
a) 0.5 N-m b) 5 N-Cm

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c) 5 N-m d) 500 N-m

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10. A water immersion heater is used for the heating water from 230 Volt supply having quantity of
water 100 liters specific heat capacity 4187 J/Kg-0Kwith rise in temperature of 50OC. Overall
efficiency of process is 90% when process take time of 35 minutes, then the rating of water
immersion heater will be …. KW
a) 111.1 b) 11.1
c) 1.111 d) 1111.1
11. In Flemings Left Hand rule the middle finger and thumb of the right hand represents
respectively…..
a) Magnetic Flux, Force b) Magnetic Flux, Current
c) Current, Force d) EMF, Motion
12 The two coils having no. of turns 400, 600 respectively with total reluctance value of 1200000
then the mutual inductance of the coil is …. H
a) 0.1 b) 0.2
c) 0.01 d) 0.02
13 The coil having self inductance 0.5 H with no. of turns 1000 and exciting current of 2 amp then
the flux produces in the coil ….. mWb
a) 10 b) 0.1
c) 1 d) 0.01
14 The filament lamp temperature increases then the value of resistance …….
a) remains same b) decreases
c) increases d) increases as well as decreases
15 Two current carrying conductor placed in the magnetic field with medium air or vacuum carries
current 1A each, length of magnetic region is 1 m and distance between them is 1 m then the force
experienced is ……. N
a) 2 b) 2 π
c) 2 x 10-7 d) 4 π
16. ------- represents correct expression.

a) ρt2 = ρt1 [ 1 + αt0(t1 – t2)] b) ρt2 = ρt1 [ 1 + αt1(t1 – t2)]
c) ρt2 = ρt1 [ 1 + α0(t2 – t1)] d) ρt2 = ρt1 [ 1 + αt1(t2 – t1)]
17. The cylindrical coil has no. of turns 300 with current of 6 A having flux of 20 mWb then the
energy stored in magnetic circuit is ------- J
a) 1.8 b) 0.18
c) 180 d) 18
18. The hot resistance of a tungsten lamp is about 10 times the cold resistance. Accordingly, cold
resistance of a 100 W, 200 V tungsten lamp will be --------- Ω.
a) 4000 b) 400
c) 40 d) 4
19 The EMF is the term in electric circuit then similar term in magnetic circuit is ……
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a) MMF b) PPF
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c) Permittivity d) Reliability
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20. Which of the following is not the same as watt?

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a) joule / sec b) ampere /volt

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c) ampere x volt d) (ampere)2 x ohm

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Answers
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1) b
2) d
3) b
4) c
5) c
6) a
7) a
8) c
9) c
10) b
11) d
12) b
13) c
14) c
15) c
16) d
17) c
18) c
19) a
20) b
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Unit 1: Electromagnetism
“Magnetic Field”.
1. What is the magnetic field outside a solenoid?
a) Infinity
b) Half the value of the field inside
c) Double the value of the field inside
d) Zero
Answer: d
Explanation: There are no magnetic lines of force outside a solenoid, hence the magnetic field
outside a solenoid is zero.
2. Which, among the following qualities, is not affected by the magnetic field?
a) Moving charge
b) Change in magnetic flux
c) Current flowing in conductor
d) Stationary charge
Answer: d
Explanation: A stationary charge is not affected by a magnetic field because stationary charges do
not have any velocity. Magnetic field cannot occur in a particle having zero velocity.
3. When a charged particle moves at right angles to the magnetic field, the variable quantity is?
a) Momentum
b) Speed
c) Energy
d) Moment of inertia
Answer: a
Explanation: When a charged particle moves perpendicular to the field, its speed remains the same
whereas its velocity keeps on changing. Momentum is the product of the mass of the particle and the
velocity if the particle, hence since velocity varies, momentum also varies.
4. If the flow of electric current is parallel to the magnetic field, the force will be ______
a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) Maximum
d) Half the original value
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Answer: a
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Explanation: Force is a cross product. A cross product involves the sine of the angle between them. If two
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quantities are parallel to each other, the angle between them is zero. Sin(0) is zero, hence force is zero.
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5. The ratio of magnetic force to electric force on a charged particle getting undeflected in a field is?
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a) 1
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d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: When a charged particle is undeflected in a field, the magnitude of the magnetic force and
electric force acting on the particle is the same, hence the ratio is 1.
6. What is the strength of magnetic field known as ________

a) Flux
b) Density
c) Magnetic strength
d) Magnetic flux density
Answer: d
Explanation: Strength of magnetic filed is also known as magnetic flux density. It is the amount of
magnetic flux lines crossing through unit area.
7. Weakest force in nature is?
a) Electric force
b) Gravitational force
c) Weak force
d) Magnetic force
Answer: a
Explanation: Gravitational force is the weakest force in nature as it does not bind anything strongly with
its help.
8. How can a magnetic field be produced?

a) Using a permanent magnet
b) Electric current
c) Using a temporary magnet
d) Using a permanent magnet or electric current
Answer: d
Explanation: An electric filed as well as a permanent magnet produces a magnetic field whereas a
temporary magnets fails to do so.
9. Can we see magnetic flux lines?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the strength of the field
d) Only when field strength is very large
Answer: b
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Explanation: No, we cannot see magnetic flux lines as the “lines of magnetic flux” is purely an imaginary
in
concept to understand the magnetic field clearly.

@
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10. Magnetic Field lines move from _______

a) North to south
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b) South to north
B
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c) West to east
d) East to west
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Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic field lines originate at the north pole and terminate at the south pole of the magnet.
“Direction of Magnetic Field”.

1. Field lines move from __________
a) North to south
b) South to north
c) West to east
d) East to west
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic field lines originate at the north pole and terminate at the south pole of the magnet.
2. Magnetic field lines ___________ at the North Pole.
a) Emerge
b) Converge
c) Neither emerge nor converge
d) Either emerge or converge
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic field lines emerge at the north pole. Field lines seem to emerge at the north pole
because they originate at the north pole.
3. Magnetic field lines ___________ at the south pole.

a) Emerge
b) Converge
Answer: b
Explanation: Magnetic field lines converge at the south pole. Field lines seem to converge at the south
pole because they end at the south pole.
4. Which of the following is used to determine the direction of magnetic field in a current carrying
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conductor?
in
a) Left hand thumb rule

@
b) Right hand thumb rule

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c) Right hand palm rule

P
d) Left hand palm rule

U
Answer: b
B
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Explanation: The right hand thumb rule determines the direction of magnetic field in a current carrying
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conductor. The rule states that when we align our right thumb in the direction of the current and curl our
fingers around it, the direction of our fingers is the direction of the magnetic field.
5. According to Flemming’s left hand rule, the index finger denotes?
a) Direction of magnetic field
b) Direction of current
c) Direction of force
d) Direction of force as well as current
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Flemming’s left hand rule, the index finger denotes the direction of magnetic
field, the thumb denoted the direction of force and the middle finger denoted the direction of current.
6. According to Flemming’s left hand rule, the middle finger denotes?
Answer: b
7. According to Flemming’s left hand rule, the thumb denotes?

Answer: c
8. The relation between the direction of force and the direction of magnetic field is _________
a) Same direction
b) Opposite direction
c) Perpendicular
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
Explanation: When a conductor carries a certain value of current, the force developed in the conductor,
the current in the conductor and the magnetic field in the conductor are mutually perpendicular to each
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other.
in
9. The relation between the direction of current and the direction of magnetic field is ________
@
SP
a) Same direction
P U
c) Perpendicular
B
TE
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
C
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other.
10. The relation between the direction of current and the direction of force is _________
a) Same direction
c) Perpendicular
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
other.
“Magnetic Field Due to an Electric Current”
1. If the flow of electric current is parallel to the magnetic field, the force will be ______
a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) Maximum
Answer: a
2. The force existing between two infinite parallel conductors is inversely proportional to ________
a) Radius of the conductors
b) Current in one of the conductors
c) The product of the current in the two conductors
d) The distance between the two conductors
Answer: d
Explanation: When current is flowing in two different conductors, the force between the two conductors
is directly proportional to the product of the current in the two conductors and inversely proportional to
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the distance between the two conductors.

in
@
3. When the distance of operation between the two conductors increases, what happens to the force
SP
between the two conductors?

P
a) Increases
U
b) Decreases
B
TE
c) Remains the same

C
d) Becomes zero
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Answer: b
Explanation: When the distance of separation increases, the force between the two conductors decrease
because force between two conductors is inversely proportional to the distance of separation between
them.
conductor?
Answer: b
5. According to Flemming’s left hand rule, the index finger denotes ________
Answer: a
6. According to Flemming’s left hand rule, the middle finger denotes _________
Answer: b
7. According to Flemming’s left hand rule, the thumb denotes _________

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in
Answer: c
@
SP
P U
8. The relation between the direction of force and the direction of magnetic field in a current carrying
B
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conductor is?
a) Same direction
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c) Perpendicular
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
other.
9. The relation between the direction of current and the direction of magnetic field in a current carrying
conductor is?
a) Same direction
c) Perpendicular
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
other.
10. The relation between the direction of current and the direction of force in a current carrying conductor
is?
a) Same direction
c) Perpendicular
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
other.
“Magnetic Field of a Solenoid”

1. The magnetic field strength of a solenoid can be increased by inserting which of the following
materials as the core?
a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Iron
d) Aluminium
Answer: c
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Explanation: The Magnetic field of a solenoid increases when we insert a iron core because, iron is a
in
ferromagnetic material and ferromagnetic materials help in increasing the magnetic property.
@
SP
2. If a coil is wound around a steel core and electric current is passed through the coil, the steel core acts
as a?
P U
a) Electromagnet
B
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b) Permanent magnet
C
c) Neither electromagnet nor permanent magnet

H
d) Either electromagnet or permanent magnet

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Answer: b
Explanation: When a coin is wound around a steel core, the steel core behaves as a permanent magnet
because it is a ferromagnetic material and once it becomes magnetic it does not lose its magnetic property.
3. What is the formula for magnetic field due to a solenoid?

a) μnI
b) μn2
c) μNI
d) μN2I2
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field due to a solenoid is:
B= μnI, where μ is the permeability, n is the number of turns per unit length and I is the current in the
solenoid.
4. What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the number of turns increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field of a solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns in it. Hence
as the number of turns increases, the magnetic field also increases.
5. What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the current increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field of a solenoid is directly proportional to the current in it. Hence as the
current increases, the magnetic field also increases.
6. What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the length of the solenoid increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
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Explanation: The magnetic field of a solenoid is inversely proportional to the length. Hence as the length
in
increases, the magnetic field decreases.

@
SP
7. What is the magnetic field outside a solenoid?

a) Infinity
P U
b) Half the value of the field inside

B
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c) Double the value of the field inside

d) Zero
C
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Answer: d
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Explanation: There are no magnetic lines of force outside a solenoid, hence the magnetic field outside a
solenoid is zero.
8. The current in a solenoid is 30A, the number of turns per unit length is 500 turns per metre. Calculate
the magnetic field if the core is air.
a) 18.84T
b) 18.84mT
c) 1.84T
d) 1.84mT
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnetic field in a solenoid is given by:
B=μnI
Substituting the values in the given values in the equation, B=18.84mT.
9. The magnetic field of the solenoid is 18.84mT, the number of turns per unit length is 500 turns per
metre. Calculate the current if the core is air.
a) 300A
b) 30A
c) 3A
d) 300mA
Answer: b
B=μnI
Substituting the values in the given values in the equation, I=30A.
10. The magnetic field of the solenoid is 18.84mT, the current is 30A. Calculate the number of turns per
unit length if the core is air.
a) 1500 turns/m
b) 1000 turns/m
c) 500 turns /m
d) 2000 turns/m
Answer: c
B=μnI
Substituting the values in the given values in the equation n=500 turns/m
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in
@
SP
P U
B
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C
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“Force on a Current Carrying Conductor”.
1. What is the expression for force in a current carrying conductor?
a) F=Kq1/r2
b) F=Kq2/r2
c) F=Kq1q2/r2
d) F=Kq1q2/r
Answer: c
Explanation: The force in a current carrying conductor is directly proportional to the product of the two
charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. Hence F=Kq1q2/r 2, where
K is the constant of proportionality.
2. Force in a conductor is__________ to the product of the charges.

c) Not related
Answer: a
charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
3. Force in a conductor is __________ to the square of the distance between the charges.
c) Not related
Answer: b
charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
4. Calculate the force between two charges having magnitude 3nC and 2nC separated by a distance of
2micro m.
a) 13.5N
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b) 13.5kN
in
c) 1.35N
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d) 1.35kN
SP
Answer: b
P

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F=Kq1q2/r2, the value of K being 9*109, we get F=13.5kN.

B
TE
5. If the flow of electric current is parallel to the magnetic field, the force will be?
C
H
a) Zero
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b) Infinity
c) Maximum
Answer: a
6. The ratio of magnetic force to electric force on a charged particle getting undeflected in a field is
______
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: a
7. Weakest force in nature is __________
a) Electric force
c) Weak force
d) Magnetic force
Answer: a
its help.
8. According to Flemming’s left hand rule, the thumb denotes?
Answer: c
9. The relation between the direction of force and the direction of magnetic field is __________
a) Same direction
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c) Perpendicular
in
d) Unrelated
@
Answer: c
SP
P
U
B
other.
TE
10. The relation between the direction of current and the direction of force is ________
C
H
a) Same direction
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c) Perpendicular
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
other.
“Force Determination”.
1. Which, among the following, is the correct expression for force in a current carrying conductor?
a) F=Bi
b) F=B2il
c) F=Bil
d) F=Bl2
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct expression for force in a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is F=Bil,
where B is the magnetic field, i is the current in the conductor and l is the length of the conductor.
2. When the current in the current carrying conductor increases, what happens to the force in the
conductor which is at right angles to the magnetic field?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: The force at right angles to the magnetic field of a current carrying conductor increases
when the current increases because it is directly proportional to the force.
3. When the length of the conductor in the current carrying conductor increases, what happens to the force
in the conductor which is at right angles to the magnetic field?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
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c) Remains the same

in
d) Becomes zero
@
Answer: a
SP
P
when the length of the conductor increases because it is directly proportional to the force.
U
B
4. When the magnetic field intensity in the current carrying conductor increases, what happens to the
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force in the conductor which is at right angles to the magnetic field?

C
a) Increases
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b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
when the magnetic field intensity increases because it is directly proportional to the force.
5. The unit for force in a current carrying conductor is _________
a) Newton
b) Tesla
c) Weber/metre
d) Ampere
Answer: a
Explanation: The unit foe force in a current carrying conductor is newton because it is a force and the unit
of force is newton.
6. If the flow of electric current is parallel to the magnetic field, the force will be ________
a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) Maximum
Answer: a
7. The ratio of magnetic force to electric force on a charged particle getting undeflected in a field is
___________
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: a
8. If the intensity of magnetic field is 100T, the length of the conductor is 3m and the current in the
conductor is 10A, calculate the magnitude of force perpendicular to the electric field.
a) 300N
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b) 30N
in
c) 30kN
@
d) 3kN
SP
Answer: d
P
Explanation: The formula for calculating the value of the force which is perpendicular to the electric field
U
B
is:
TE
F=Bil
C
Substituting the values from the question, we get F=3kN.

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9. Weakest force in nature is ________
a) Electric force
c) Weak force
d) Magnetic force
Answer: a
its help.
10. The relation between the direction of force and the direction of magnetic field is _________
a) Same direction
c) Perpendicular
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
other.
“Magnetomotive Force and Magnetic Field Strength”.

1. What is a permeable substance?
a) Any good conductor
b) Any bad conductor
c) Any strong magnet
d) Any substance through which the magnetic lines of force can pass easily
Answer: d
Explanation: A permeable substance is one through which the magnetic lines of force can pass through
easily.
2. Materials having good retentivity are?
a) Strong magnets
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b) Weak magnets
in
c) Temporary magnets
@
SP
d) Permanent magnets
Answer: c
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Explanation: Materials having low retentivity are temporary magnets because they can retain the
B
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magnetic strength for only some time.

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3. Magnetic field exists along which of the following?
a) Moving charges
b) Stationary charges
c) Copper
d) Iron
Answer: a
Explanation: Moving charges have a magnetic field associated with them because they have magnetic
flux lines associated with it.
4. The direction of magnetic lines of force are?

a) From north pole to south pole
b) From south pole to north pole
c) No specific direction
d) From one end of the magnet to the other
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic lines of force originate at the north pole and terminate at the south pole hence they
are from the north pole to the south pole.
5. Magnetic force lines ___________ at the north pole.
a) Emerge
b) Converge
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic force lines emerge at the north pole. Force lines seem to emerge at the north pole
because they originate at the north pole.
6. When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces, which of the following are true?
a) The magnet loses its magnetism
b) The magnet has only north pole left
c) The magnet has only south pole left
d) The magnet turns into two new bar magnets
Answer: d
Explanation: When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces, it forms two differ bar magnets. This happens
because the broken pieces of the magnet forms a separate north and south pole for itself as monopoles do
not exist.
7. When an electric current flows into the page, what is the direction of the magnetic field?
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a) Clockwise
in
b) Anti-clockwise
@
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d) Parallel to the current

P
Answer: a
U
B
Explanation: when the current flows into the page, the magnetic field is clockwise because of the right
TE
hand thumb rule, we orient our thumb into the page and our fingers curl in the clockwise direction.
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8. When an electric current flows out of the page, what is the direction of the magnetic field?
a) Clockwise
b) Anti-clockwise
d) Parallel to the current
Answer: b
Explanation: when the current flows out of the page, the magnetic field is anti-clockwise because of the
right hand thumb rule, we orient our thumb out of the page and our fingers curl in the anti-clockwise
direction.
conductor?
Answer: b
10. The relation between the direction of current and the direction of magnetic field is?
a) Same direction
c) Perpendicular
d) Unrelated
Answer: c
other.
“Permeability of Free Space or Magnetic Constant”.

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1. Permeability of free space is also known as _________

in
a) Magnetic constant
@
b) Electric constant
SP
c) Electrostatic constant
P
d) Magnetostatic constant
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Answer: a
B
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Explanation: The permeability of free space is also known as magnetic constant. The permittivity of free
C
space is the electrostatic constant.

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2. A substance whose permeability is less than the permeability of free space is?
a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
d) Not a magnetic substance
Answer: a
Explanation: A diamagnetic material creates a magnetic field opposing that of the external magnetic field
and it repels the external magnetic field. Hence its permeability is less than that of free space.
3. Which, among the following, have negative susceptibility?

a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic susceptibility is the degree of magnetisation of a material in response to the
external magnetic field. Diamagnetic substances repel the magnetic field and hence have negative
susceptibility.
4. Which, among the following, have positive susceptibility?
a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
Answer: b
external magnetic field. Paramagnetic substances weakly attract to the magnetic field and hence have
positive susceptibility.
5. A substance whose permeability is more than the permeability of free space is?
a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
Answer: b
Explanation: A paramagnetic material creates a magnetic field which is weakly attracted to that of the
external magnetic field. Hence its permeability is more than that of free space.
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6. The unit for permeability of free space is?

in
a) Henry
@
b) Henry-m
SP
c) Henry/m
P
d) Henry/m2
U
B
Answer: c
TE
Explanation: Magnetic permeability is the constant of proportionality between the magnetic flux density
C
and magnetic field strength of a given medium. Hence it has units henry/m.
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7. Which, among the following, is a correct expression for ∫0.
a) ∫0=BH
b) ∫0=B/H
c) ∫0=H/B
d) ∫0=BH2
Answer: b
Explanation: Magnetic permeability is the constant of proportionality between the magnetic flux density
and magnetic field strength of a given medium. Hence ∫0=B/H.
8. Calculate the magnetic flux density if the magnetic field strength is 2A/m.
a) 4*pi/10-7T
b) 8*pi/10-7T
c) 10*pi/10-7T
d) 12*pi/10-7T
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that:
∫0=B/H
Substituting the value of H from the question, we get B= 8*pi/10 -7T.
9. Calculate the magnetic field strength if the magnetic flux density is 4*piT.
a) 10-7/16*pi2A/m
b) 10-7A/m
c) 107A/m
d) 10-7A
Answer: c
∫0=B/H
Substituting the value of B from the question, we get H = 107A/m.
10. Calculate the magnetic flux density if the magnetic field strength is 3A/m.
a) 4*pi/10-7T
b) 8*pi/10-7T
c) 10*pi/10-7T
d) 12*pi/10-7T
Answer: d
∫0=B/H
Substituting the value of H from the question, we get B= 12*pi/10 -7T.
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in
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SP
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B
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C
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“Relative Permeability”
1. What is the unit for relative permeability?
a) H-m
b) H/m
c) H2/m
d) No unit
Answer: d
Explanation: Relative permeability is the ratio of permeability of the material to the permeability of free
space. Since it is a ratio, it does not have any units.
2. Which of the following expressions is correct with respect to relative permeability?
a) B=∫r∫0/H
b) B=∫r∫0H
c) B=∫r/∫0H
d) B=∫r∫0/H2
Answer: b
Explanation: For a non magnetic material: B=∫0H. Hence for a material having relative permeability ∫r,
B=∫r∫0H.
3. A substance whose relative permeability is less than the permeability of free space is?
a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
Answer: a
and it repels the external magnetic field. Hence its relative permeability is less than that of the free space.
4. A substance whose relative permeability is more than the permeability of free space is?
a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
Answer: b
external magnetic field. Hence its permeability is more than that of free space.
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5. Diamagnetic substances have relative permeability_____________

in
a) Greater than 1
@
b) Less than 1
SP
c) Equal to 1
d) Zero
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Answer: b
B
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C
and it repels the external magnetic field. Hence it has relative permeability less than 1.
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6. Paramagnetic substances have relative permeability_____________
a) Greater than 1
b) Less than 1
c) Equal to 1
d) Zero
Answer: a
external magnetic field. Hence it has relative permeability greater than 1.
7. As the temperature increases up to the Curie temperature, the relative susceptibility of ferromagnetic
materials?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: The susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials increases with the increase in temperature and
then it decreases when the temperature goes beyond the Curie temperature.
8. As the temperature increases beyond the Curie temperature, the relative susceptibility of ferromagnetic
materials?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
Explanation: The susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials increases with the increase in temperature and
then it decreases when the temperature goes beyond the curie temperature.
9. Which, among the following, have positive susceptibility?

a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
Answer: b
external magnetic field. Paramagnetic substances weakly attract to the magnetic field and hence have
positive susceptibility.
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in
10. Which, among the following, have negative susceptibility?

@
a) Diamagnetic
SP
b) Paramagnetic
P
c) Ferromagnetic
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B

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Answer: a
C

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external magnetic field. Diamagnetic substances repel the magnetic field and hence have negative
susceptibility.
“Reluctance”.
1. Reciprocal of reluctance is __________
a) Permeance
b) Susceptibility
c) Resistance
d) Conductance
Answer: a
Explanation: The reciprocal of reactance is permeance. It is the ability of a material to allow the passage
of magnetic lines of flux.
2. Reactance is ________________ to the length of the material.
c) Not related
d) Depends on the area of the material
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for reluctance is:
S= l/∫0 ∫rA.
From the formula, we can see that reluctance is directly proportional to the length of the material.
3. Reactance is ________________ to the area of cross section the material.

c) Not related
d) Depends on the length of the material
Answer: b
Explanation: The formula for reluctance is:
S= l/∫0 ∫rA.
From the formula, we can see that reluctance is inversely proportional to the area of cross section of the
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material.
in
4. When the length of the material increases, what happens to reluctance?

@
a) Increases
SP
b) Decreases
P
c) Remains the same

U
B
d) Becomes zero
TE
Answer: a
C
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m
Explanation: Reluctance is directly proportional to the length of the material hence as length increases,
reluctance also increases.
5. When the area of cross section of the material increases, what happens to reluctance?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
Explanation: Reluctance is inversely proportional to the area of cross section of the material hence as area
increases, reluctance decreases.
6. Unit of reluctance is?
a) AWb
b) A2/Wb
c) Wb/A
d) A/Wb
Answer: d
Explanation: Reluctance is the force per unit flux, hence its unit is A/Wb.
7. The electrical equivalent of reluctance is?

a) Resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) Conductance
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance is the opposition to the flow of charge, similarly reluctance is the opposition to
the flow of magnetic flux.
8. As the magnetic field strength increases, reluctance?

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
Explanation: Reluctance is directly proportional to the strength of magnetic field, hence as the strength of
magnetic field increases, the reluctance increases.
9. As the magnetic flux density increases, the reluctance _____________
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a) Increases
in
b) Decreases
@
SP
c) Remains the same

d) Becomes zero
P U
Answer: b
B
TE
Explanation: Reluctance is inversely proportional to the magnetic flux density, hence as magnetic flux
density increases, reluctance decreases.
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10. Calculate the reluctance when the magnetomotive force is 10A turns and the flux is 5Wb.
a) 0.5A/Wb
b) 5A/Wb
c) 10A/Wb
d) 2A/Wb
Answer: d
F=phi*S
Substituting the given values from the question:
S=2A/Wb.
“Electromagnetic Induction”.
1. An E.M.F. can be induced by _________
a) Change in magnetic field
b) Change in the area of cross section
c) Change in angle between magnetic field and area
d) Change in magnetic field, area and angle
Answer: d
Explanation: It is the dot product of magnetic field vector and area vector.
emf=BAcos(theta), hence if either of the three, that is, magnetic field, area or angle changes, thee emf
will change.
2. What happens to the current in a coil while accelerating a magnet inside it?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Reverses
Answer: a
Explanation: A chance in magnetic field induces an emf. When there is an emf, there has to be a current.
Hence, when the magnet is moved inside a coil, the current in it increases.
3. What is the consequence of motor effect?

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a) Current
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b) Voltage
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c) Electromagnetic induction
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d) EMF
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Answer: c
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Explanation: Motor effect is when a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field experiences a force,
B
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hence its consequence is electromagnetic induction.

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4. The total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is termed as?
a) Voltage
b) EMF
c) Magnetic flux
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of magnetic flux lines per unit area is the magnetic flux, because flux is the
number of field lines per unit area.
5. The formula for induced emf is __________

a) emf=B2l
b) emf=Bil
c) emf=Blv
d) emf=B2v
Answer: c
Explanation: The formula for induced emf is: emf=Blv, where B is the magnetic field, l is the length of
the conductor and v is the velocity with which it is moving in the magnetic field.
6. If a conductor 0.2m long moves with a velocity of 0.3m/s in a magnetic field of 5T, calculate the emf
induced.
a) 0.3V
b) 0.03V
c) 30V
d) 3V
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for induced emf is: emf=Blv. Substituting the values of B, l and v from the
question, we get emf=0.3V.
7. Find the length of a conductor which is moving with a velocity 0.4m/s in a magnetic field of 8T,
inducing an emf of 20V.
a) 50m
b) 5m
c) 6.25m
d) 0.5m
Answer: c
Explanation: The formula for induced emf is: emf=Blv. Substituting the values of B, emf and v from the
question, we get l=6.25m.
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8. Find the strength of magnetic field in a conductor 0.5m long moving with a velocity of 10m/s, inducing
in
an emf of 20V.
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a) 1T
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b) 2T
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c) 3T
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d) 4T
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Answer: d
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Explanation: The formula for induced emf is: emf=Blv. Substituting the values of l, emf and v from the
question, we get B=4T.
9. What does emf stand for?
a) Electronic magnetic force
b) Electromotive force
c) Electromagnetic force
d) Electromated force
Answer: b
Explanation: emf stands for electromotive force. It is the voltage developed by any source of electrical
energy.
10. What is emf?
a) Force
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) Flux
Answer: b
Explanation: Electromotive force is not actually a force. It is basically a voltage. It is the voltage
developed by any source of electrical energy.
“Direction of Induced EMF”.

1. According to Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic inductance, an emf is induced in a conductor
whenever?
a) The conductor is perpendicular to the magnetic field
b) Lies in the magnetic field
c) Cuts magnetic lines of flux
d) Moves parallel to the magnetic field
Answer: c
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Explanation: An emf is induced, according to Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic inductance, whenever

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the conductor in a magnetic field cuts the magnetic lies of flux, varying the flux per unit area, and hence
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the magnetic field which induces an emf.

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2. Direction of induced emf is determined by __________

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a) Fleming’s left hand rule

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b) Fleming’s right hand rule

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c) Faraday’s law
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Answer: b
Explanation: Fleming’s left hand rule stated that if the index finger points towards magnetic flux, the
thumb towards the motion of the conductor, then the middle finger points towards the induced emf.
3. “The direction of an induced e.m.f. is always such that it tends to set up a current opposing the motion
or the change of flux responsible for inducing that e.m.f.”, this is the statement for?
a) Fleming’s left hand rule
b) Fleming’s right hand rule
c) Faraday’s law
d) Lenz’s law
Answer: d
Explanation: The above statement is that of Lenz’s law. It is used to determine the direction of the
induced emf.
4. According to Fleming’s right hand rule, the thumb points towards?
a) Current
b) E.M.F.
c) Motion of the conductor
d) Magnetic flux
Answer: c
5. According to Fleming’s right hand rule, the index finger points towards?
a) Current
b) E.M.F.
d) Magnetic flux
Answer: d
6. According to Fleming’s right hand rule, the middle finger points towards?
a) Current
b) E.M.F.
d) Magnetic flux
Answer: b
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7. The relation between direction of induced emf and direction of motion of the conductor is?
a) Parallel
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b) Equal
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c) Not related
d) Perpendicular
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Explanation: According to Fleming’s right hand rule, the induced emf, the motion of the conductor and
the magnetic flux are mutually perpendicular.
8. The relation between direction of induced emf and direction of magnetic flux is _______
a) Parallel
b) Equal
c) Not related
d) Perpendicular
Answer: d
9. The relation between direction of magnetic flux and direction of motion of the conductor is _______
a) Parallel
b) Equal
c) Not related
d) Perpendicular
Answer: d
10. North pole induces __________

a) Clockwise current
b) Anti-clockwise current
c) Zero current
d) Infinite current
Answer: b
Explanation: A north pole will always induce an anti-clockwise current whereas a south pole will always
induce a clockwise current due to electromagnetic theory.
“Magnitude of EMF Induced in a Coil”.

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1. The formula for induced emf is ______

a) emf=B2l
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b) emf=Bil
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c) emf=Blv
d) emf=B2v
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Answer: c
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2. Which, among the following, is the formula for induced emf?
a) e=d(phi)/dt
b) e=dt/d(phi)
c) e=t*phi
d) e=t2phi
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula foe induced emf is e=d(phi)/dt because the induced emf is the flux linkage per
unit time.
a) 50m
b) 5m
c) 6.25m
d) 0.5m
Answer: c
induced.
a) 0.3V
b) 0.03V
c) 30V
d) 3V
Answer: a
5. What is emf?
a) Force
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) Flux
Answer: b
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an emf of 20V.
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a) 1T
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b) 2T
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c) 3T
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d) 4T
Answer: d
7. The emf induced in a coil having N turns is?

a) e=phi/t
b) e=N*phi/t
c) e=N*phi*t
d) e=N2*phi*t
Answer: b
Explanation: The emf induced in a coil having N turns is, e=N*phi/t. This is because, the emf in a single
coil is the flux linkage per unit time, that is, phi/t. Hence the flux induced in N turns is N*phi/t.
8. An E.M.F. can be induced by _______
Answer: d
Explanation: The dot product of magnetic field vector and area vector.
will change.

a) Current
b) Voltage
d) EMF
Answer: c
10. The total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is termed as _______
a) Voltage
b) EMF
c) Magnetic flux
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Answer: b
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“Magnitude of the Generated or Induced EMF”.
1. Which, among the following, is the formula for induced emf?
a) e=d(phi)/dt
b) e=dt/d(phi)
c) e=t*phi
d) e=t2phi
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula foe induced emf is e=d(phi)/dt because the induced emf is the flux linkage per
unit time.
2. The formula for induced emf is _______

a) emf=B2l
b) emf=Bil
c) emf=Blv
d) emf=B2v
Answer: c
induced.
a) 0.3V
b) 0.03V
c) 30V
d) 3V
Answer: a
a) 50m
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b) 5m
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c) 6.25m
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d) 0.5m
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Answer: c
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an emf of 20V.
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a) 1T
b) 2T
c) 3T
d) 4T
Answer: d
6. What is emf?
a) Force
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) Flux
Answer: b
7. An E.M.F. can be induced by _________
Answer: d
Explanation: The dot product of magnetic field vector and area vector.
will change.
8. The emf induced in a coil having N turns is?
a) e=phi/t
b) e=N*phi/t
c) e=N*phi*t
d) e=N2*phi*t
Answer: b
Explanation: The emf induced in a coil having N turns is, e=N*phi/t. This is because, the emf in a single
coil is the flux linkage per unit time, that is, phi/t. Hence the flux induced in N turns is N*phi/t.
9. The total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is termed as ________
a) Voltage
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b) EMF
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c) Magnetic flux
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Answer: b
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b) Voltage
d) EMF
Answer: c
“Energy Stored in an Inductor”.

1. If the current in a coil having a constant inductance of L henrys grows at a uniform rate, what is the
value of the average current?
a) I
b) I/2
c) I/4
d) 0
Answer: b
Explanation: The average current is the average of the current which flows in the inductor. Hence it is I/2.
2. What is the power in the magnetic field if the current in a coil has a constant inductance of L henrys
grows at a uniform rate?
a) LI/2t
b) LI2/2t
c) L/2It
d) L/2I2t
Answer: b
Explanation: The average current is I/2. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is LI/t V. Power= VI, hence the
average power= I/2*LI/t.
3. What is the energy stored in the magnetic field if the current in a coil has a constant inductance of L
henrys grows at a uniform rate?
a) LI/2
b) LI2/2
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c) L/2I
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d) L/2I2
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Answer: b
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Explanation: The average current is I/2. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is LI/t V. Power= VI, hence the
P
average power= I/2*LI/t. The total energy stored= power*t= LI2/2.

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4. Find the average current in an inductor if the total current in the inductor is 26A.
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a) 10A
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b) 26A
c) 13A
d) 5A
Answer: c
Explanation: Average current= I/2.
Substituting the value of I from the equation, average current= 13A.
5. Calculate the power in an inductive circuit if the inductance is 10H, the current flowing in the inductor
is 2A in 4s.
a) 50W
b) 4W
c) 5W
d) 10W
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression for power in an inductive circuit is:
P= LI2/2
Substituting the values from the given question, we get P=5W.
6. Calculate the value of stored energy in an inductor if the value of inductance is 20H and 4A of current
flows through it.
a) 220J
b) 150J
c) 190J
d) 160J
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for energy in an inductor is:
W= LI2/2t
Substituting the values from the given question, we get W= 160J.
7. Calculate the emf induced in an inductor if the inductance is 10H and the current is 2A in 4s.
a) 2.5V
b) 1.5V
c) 3.5V
d) 5V
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for emf in an inductive circuit is:
emf= LI/2t
Substituting the values from the given question, we get emf= 2.5V.
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8. Calculate the value of emf in an inductor if the value of inductance is 15H and an average current of 5A
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flows through it in 10s.

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a) 15V
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b) 7.5V
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c) 10V
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d) 5.5V
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Answer: b
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Explanation: The expression for emf in an inductive circuit is:
emf= LI/2t, where I/2 is the average current.
Substituting the values from the given question, we get emf= 2.5V.
9. Calculate the current in an inductor if the energy stored is 160J and the inductance is 20H.
a) 1A
b) 2A
c) 3A
d) 4A
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for energy in an inductor is:
W= LI2/2t
Substituting the values from the given question, we get I=4A.
10. Find the time taken for the current in an inductor to change to 2A from 0A if the power in the inductor
is 5W. The value of inductance is 10H.
a) 1s
b) 2s
c) 3s
d) 4s
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for power in an inductive circuit is:
P= LI2/2
Substituting the values from the given question, we get t=4s.
“Electric and Magnetic Circuits”.

1. While comparing electric and magnetic circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared with which
parameter of electrical circuit?
a) E.M.F
b) Current
c) Current density
d) Conductivity
Answer: B

a) Henry
b) Weber
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c) Ampere-turn/weber
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d) Ampere/meter
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Answer: B
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3. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to ______________ in an electric circuit.

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B
a) Resistance
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b) Resistivity
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c) Conductivity
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d) Conductance
Answer: C
a) Permeance
b) Reluctance
c) Flux
d) Inductance
Answer: A
a) Reluctivity
b) Permeance
c) Permeability
d) Susceptibility
Answer: B

a) Weber
b) Weber/ sq.m
c) Ampere turn/meter
d) Ampere turns
Answer B

a) Increase mmf
b) Increase the flux
c) Prevent saturation
d) None of the above
Answer: C

a) Meter/ Henry
b) Henry/meter
c) Henry
d) 1/ Henry
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Answer: D
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OBJECTIVE
TYPE
QUESTIONS
ELECTRICAL
ENGINEERING
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Code: AE10 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Code: AE10 Subject: ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

PART - I
TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is
(A) conductively linked. (B) inductively linked.
(C) not linked at all. (D) electrically linked.
Ans : B
Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off.
The motor will
(A) come to stop.
(B) continue to run at synchronous speed.
(C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
Ans: B
Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
(B) it will fail to start.
(C) it will not develop high starting torque.
(D) all are true.
Ans: A
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Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full
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load speed is about

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(A) 50 Hz. (B) 20 Hz.

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(C) 2 Hz. (D) Zero.

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B
Ans: C
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Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement

(A) can be precisely controlled.
(B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
Ans: A
Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is

(A) low at light load only.
(B) low at heavy load only.
(C) low at light and heavy load both.
(D) low at rated load only.
Ans: A
Q.7 The generation voltage is usually

(A) between 11 KV and 33 KV. (B) between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(C) between 400 KV and 700 KV. (D) None of the above.
Ans: A
Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding
produces
(A) damping torque.
(B) eddy current torque.
(C) torque aiding the developed torque.
(D) no torque.
Ans: D
Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output
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voltage will be
in
(A) A square wave. (B) A sine wave.

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(C) A triangular wave. (D) A pulse wave.

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Ans: A
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Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to
(A) I a . (B) I a2 .
1 1
(C) . (D) .
Ia I a2
Ans: B
Q.11 In a 3 – phase induction motor running at slip ‘s’ the mechanical power developed
in terms of air gap power Pg is
Pg
(A) (s − 1)Pg . (B)
(1 − s ) .
(C) (1 − s )Pg . (D) s ⋅ Pg .
Ans: C
Q.12 In a 3 – phase induction motor the maximum torque
(A) is proportional to rotor resistance r2 .
(B) does not depend on r2 .
(C) is proportional to r2 .
(D) is proportional to r22 .
Ans: B
Q.13 In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is

(A) stationary w.r.t. armature. (B) rotating w.r.t. field.
(C) stationary w.r.t. field. (D) rotating w.r.t. brushes.
Ans: C
Q.14 In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at

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(A) unity p.f. (B) leading p.f.

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(C) lagging p.f. (D) zero p.f. leading.

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Ans: B
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Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively
at load angles of
(A) 90 o ,90 o . (B) < 90 o ,90 o .
(C) 90 o , > 90 o . (D) 90 o , < 90 o .
Ans: D
Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz

supply. The secondary output voltage will be
(A) 3.6 V. (B) 2.5 V.
(C) 3.0 V. (D) 6.0 V.
Ans: C
Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer

(A) is in phase with the flux. (B) lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(C) leads the flux by 90 degree. (D) is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Ans: C
Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state
operation is zero for a
(A) dc machine. (B) 3 phase induction machine.
(C) synchronous machine. (D) single phase induction machine.
Ans: all options are correct
Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit
through
(A) slip rings. (B) commutator segments.
(C) solid connections. (D) carbon brushes.
Ans: C
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Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power
in
factors is the
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(A) squirrel cage induction motor. (B) wound rotor induction motor.
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(C) synchronous motor. (D) DC shunt motor.

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B
Ans: C
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Q.21 A hysteresis motor

(A) is not a self-starting motor. (B) is a constant speed motor.
(C) needs dc excitation. (D) can not be run in reverse speed.
Ans: B
Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is

(A) a dc series motor.
(B) a dc shunt motor.
(C) an ac two-phase induction motor.
(D) an ac series motor.
Ans: B
Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the

(A) operating voltage. (B) power factor.
(C) current to be carried. (D) type of insulation used.
Ans: C
Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply
frequency is
(A) electric arc heating (B) induction heating
(C) electric resistance heating (D) dielectric heating
Ans: C
Q.25 A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load
and unity power-factor. At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage
regulation will be
(A) 4.5%. (B) less than 4.5%.
(C) more than 4.5%. (D) 4.5% or more than 4.5%.
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Ans: C
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% R = Vr cos Φ + Vx sin Φ
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= Vr
P
p.f = cos Φ =1 ∴ Φ =00

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∴
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kVA = kW & kVAR =0 www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com

No reactive power component

Percentage regulation (%R) = Vr cos Φ ± Vx sin Φ
When cos Φ = 0.8 lagging
%R = Vr cos Φ + Vx sin Φ
= Vr (0.8) + Vx (0.6)
%R = (0.8)Vr +(0.6) Vx at p.f 0.8 lagging
and %R = Vr at unity p.f
Q.26 In a dc shunt motor the terminal voltage is halved while the torque is kept constant.
The resulting approximate variation in speed ' ' ' I a ' will be
(A) Both I a are doubled. (B) I a is doubled.
(C) I a is halved. (D) I a is halved.
Ans: B
N α V – IaR or N α Eb
T α Ia Φ , Φ α Ia
∴ T α Ia2
Q.27 A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction
motor. When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The
speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is
(A) 1500 r.p.m. (B) 1425 r.p.m.
(C) 25 r.p.m. (D) 75 r.p.m.
Ans: D
NS = 120f /P = 120 x 50 /4 =1500rpm

N = NS ( 1-s) = 1500 (1-0.05) = 1425
∴relative speed = 1500 – 1425 = 75 rpm
Q.28 An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging
case. If it is required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor
leading, the required excitation will be
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(A) less. (B) more.

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(C) more or less. (D) the same.

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Ans: B
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Over excitation gives leading power factor and under excitation gives lagging p.f .
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Q.29 A ceiling fan uses

(A) split-phase motor.
(B) capacitor start and capacitor run motor.
(C) universal motor.
(D) capacitor start motor.
Ans: D
To give starting torque and to maintain speed.
Q.30 A stepper motor is
(A) a dc motor. (B) a single-phase ac motor.
(C) a multi-phase motor. (D) a two phase motor.
Ans: D
Stepper motor works on 1-phase-ON or 2-phase –ON modes of operation
Q.31 The ‘sheath’ is used in cable to
(A) provide strength to the cable.
(B) provide proper insulation.
(C) prevent the moisture from entering the cable.
(D) avoid chances of rust on strands.
Ans: A
The sheath in underground cable is provided to give mechanical strength.
Q.32 The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a

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(A) dc motor. (B) induction motor.

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(C) synchronous motor. (D) universal motor.

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Ans: D
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The universal motor is suitable for AC & DC both supply systems.

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Q.33 A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance
across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals
(A) 0.2 Amp. (B) 5 Amps.
(C) 10 Amps. (D) 20 Amps.
Ans: A
I1= V1 /R1 = 120/600 = 0.2 (η = 100%, losses are zero ∴V1 = VR = I1R1)
Q.34 A dc shunt generator has a speed of 800 rpm when delivering 20 A to the load at the
terminal voltage of 220V. If the same machine is run as a motor it takes a line
current of 20A from 220V supply. The speed of the machine as a motor will be
(A) 800 rpm. (B) more than 800 rpm.
(C) less than 800 rpm. (D) both higher or lower than 800 rpm.
Ans: C
Ng= Eg (60A / Φpz) Eg = V + Ia Ra ; in generator
Nm= Eb (60A / Φpz) Eb = V - Ia Ra ; in motor
Eg > E b for same terminal voltage
Therefore, Ng > N m
Q.35 A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of
poles of the motor are
(A) 4. (B) 6.
(C) 12. (D) 8.
Ans: A
N= Ns (1-S) = NS –NS x S
1440 = Ns (1-S)
Ns = 1440 / (1-S)
Ns = (120 f/ p) = 120 x 50/p = 6000 p
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Ns will be closer to N i.e 1440

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When P=2 ; Ns = 3000 rpm , not close to N

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When P=4 ; Ns = 1500 rpm , it is closer to N

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Therefore P =4 for N=1440

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Q. 36 In a 3-phase synchronous motor

(A) the speed of stator MMF is always more than that of rotor MMF.
(B) the speed of stator MMF is always less than that of rotor MMF.
(C) the speed of stator MMF is synchronous speed while that of rotor MMF is zero.
(D) rotor and stator MMF are stationary with respect to each other.
Ans: D
Because, Motor is magnetically locked into position with stator, the rotor poles are
engaged with stator poles and both run synchronously in same direction Therefore,
rotor & stator mmf are stationary w.r.t each other.
Q.37 In a capacitor start single-phase induction motor, the capacitor is connected
(A) in series with main winding.
(B) in series with auxiliary winding.
(C) in series with both the windings.
(D) in parallel with auxiliary winding.
Ans: B
To make single phase motor self start. We split the phases at 90 degree. Hence, motor
behaves like a two phase motor.
Q.38 A synchro has
(A) a 3-phase winding on rotor and a single-phase winding on stator.
(B) a 3-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor.
(C) a 3-phase winding on stator and a single-phase winding on rotor.
(D) a single-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor.
Ans: C
Synchros : The basic synchro unit called a synchro transmitter. It’s construction
similar to that of a Three phase alternator.
Q.39 As the voltage of transmission increases, the volume of conductor
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(A) increases. (B) does not change.

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(C) decreases. (D) increases proportionately.

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Ans: C
P
Decreases due to skin effect.

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Q.40 The size of the feeder is determined primarily by

(A) the current it is required to carry.
(B) the percent variation of voltage in the feeder.
(C) the voltage across the feeder.
(D) the distance of transmission.
Ans: A
Size of conductor depends upon amount of current flow.
Q. 41 The boundary of the protective zone is determined by the
(A) Location of CT (B) sensitivity of relay used
(C) Location of PT (D) None of these
Ans: B
The boundary of the protective zone is determined by the sensitivity of relay used. If
the relay is more sensitive, the protective zone will be increased.
Q.42 In a three phase transformer, if the primary side is connected in star and secondary
side is connected in delta, what is the angle difference between phase voltage in the
two cases.
(A) delta side lags by -30°. (B) star side lags by -30°.
(C) delta side leads by 30°. (D) star side leads by -30°.
Ans: C
This is vector group and has +30° displacement. Therefore, delta side leads by +30°.
Q.43 To achieve low PT error, the burden value should be ____________.

(A) low (B) high
(C) medium (D) none of the above
Ans: A
In a Potential transformer, burden should be in permissible range to maintain errorless
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measurement.
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Q.44 Slip of the induction machine is 0.02 and the stator supply frequency is 50 Hz.
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What will be the frequency of the rotor induced emf?

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(A) 10 Hz. (B) 50 Hz.

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(C) 1 Hz. (D) 2500 Hz.

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Ans: C
Given : s = 0.02 ; f = 50 Hz
Therefore, frequency of rotor induced emf = s f
= 0.02 x 50 = 1.0 Hz
Q.45 A 4 pole lap wound dc shunt motor rotates at the speed of 1500 rpm, has a flux of 0.4
mWb and the total number of conductors are 1000. What is the value of emf?
(A) 100 Volts. (B) 0.1 Volts.
(C) 1 Volts. (D) 10 Volts.
Ans: D
Given N = 1500 rpm, Φ = 0.4 mWb, Z = 1000, P = 4, & A= 4
Therefore, Eb = NΦPZ / 60 A
= 1500 x 0.4 x 4 x 1000 x 10-3 / 60 x 4
= 60/6 = 10 volts
Q.46 The synchronous reactance of the synchronous machine is ______________.
(A) Ratio between open circuit voltage and short circuit current at constant field
current
(B) Ratio between short circuit voltage and open circuit current at constant field
current
(C) Ratio between open circuit voltage and short circuit current at different field
current
(D) Ratio between short circuit voltage and open circuit current at different field
current
Ans. A
The Synchronous reactance of a synchronous machine is a total steady state reactance,
presented to applied voltage, when rotor is running synchronously without excitation.
Therefore , XS = Ef / IS
= Emf of OC for same If / short circuit current
Q.47 A 3 stack stepper motor with 12 numbers of rotor teeth has a step angle of
____________.
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(A) 12° (B) 8°

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(C) 24° (D) 10°

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Ans. D
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Given m = 3, Nr = 12
B
Step angle = 360 / m x Nr = 360 /3 x 12 = 10°

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Q.48 In case of a universal motor, torque pulsation is minimized by _________.

(A) load inertia (B) rotor inertia
(C) both rotor and load inertia (D) none of the above
Ans: C
In a universal motor, torque pulsation is minimized by rotor and load inertia.
Q.49 Oil-filled cable has a working stress of __________ kV/mm

(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 13 (D) 15
Ans: D
This is defined by dielectric strength of mineral oil i.e. 15 kV/mm.
Q.50 Inverse definite minimum time lag relay is also called ___________
(A) pilot relay. (B) differential relay.
(C) over current relay. (D) directional overcurrent relay.
Ans: B
Inverse definite minimum time lag relay characteristic is inverse but minimum time is
fixed. The operating time is inversely proportional to the magnitude of actuating
quantity.
Q.51 Specific heat of nickel –chrome is _____________

(A) 0.112 (B) 0.106.
(C) 0.108. (D) 0.110.
Ans: None of these
Specific heat of Nickel-Chrome is 440 J/kg°C to 450 J/kg°C
Q.52 The polarity test is not necessary for the single-phase transformer shown in Fig. 1
so as to correctly determine _____________of the transformer.
(A) shunt branch parameters.
(B) transformation ratio.
(C) series parameters.
(D) any of the above characteristics.
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Ans: D
Polarity test is required for parallel operation of transformers to know the direction of
current flow in secondary circuit w.r.t primary circuit.
Q.53 The short-circuit ratio of a typical synchronous machine is obtained from the OCC
and SCC curves of Fig.2 as
oa
(A)
ob
oa ′
(B)
ob ′
oa
(C)
ob ′
oc ′
(D)
ob
Ans: B
As shown in SCC curve the ratio of two field currents
Q.54 The speed-torque characteristics of a DC series motor are approximately similar to

those of the _________motor.
(A) universal (B) synchronous
(C) DC shunt (D) two-phase
Ans: A
Universal motor has same characteristics as DC series motor and also known as an a.c
series motor.
Q. 55 The rotor frequency for a 3 phase 1000 RPM 6 pole induction motor with a slip of
0.04 is________Hz
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 2
Ans: D
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Given: N=1000 rpm ; P= 6; s= 0.04;

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and f = NP/ 120

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= 10006/120
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= 50 Hz
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Rotor frequency fr=sf = 0.0450

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= 2.0 Hz
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Q.56 The torque-speed characteristics of an a.c. operated universal motor has a

______characteristic and it______ be started under no-load condition.
(A) inverse, can (B) nearly inverse, can
(C) inverse, cannot (D) nearly inverse, cannot
Ans: C
If torque is zero then speed may exceed up to infinite, that is dangerous for machine
and machine can be damaged.
N α 1/ T
Q.57 In the heating process of the ________type a simple method of temperature control is
possible by means of a special alloy which loses its magnetic properties at a particular
high temperature and regains them when cooled to a temperature below this value.
(A) Indirect induction over (B) core type induction furnace
(C) coreless induction furnace (D) high frequency eddy current
Ans: D
Magnetic property of alloy changes with change of the temperature and
Heat is produced due to eddy current = i2R and i α f2
Q.58 In order to reduce the harmful effects of harmonics on the A.C. side of a high voltage
D.C. transmission system ______are provided.
(A) synchronous condensers (B) shunt capacitors
(C) shunt filters (D) static compensators
Ans: C
Xc= 1/ ωc
Q.59 An a.c. tachometer is just a ________with one phase excited from the carrier
frequency.
(A) two-phase A.C. servomotor (B) two-phase induction motor
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(C) A.C. operated universal motor (D) hybrid stepper motor.

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This is a special purpose machine whose stator coil can be energized by electronically
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switched current.
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Q.60 The torque, in a _____________is proportional to the square of the armature current
(A) DC shunt motor (B) stepper motor
(C) 2-phase servomotor (D) DC series motor
Ans: D
Ta α Φ.Ia and Φ α Ia ; therefore Ta α Ia2
Q.61 The synchronous speed for a 3 phase 6-pole induction motor is 1200 rpm. If the
number of poles is now reduced to 4 with the frequency remaining constant, the rotor
speed with a slip of 5% will be _________.
(A) 1690 rpm (B) 1750 rpm
(C) 1500 rpm (D) 1710 rpm
Ans: D
Given : Ns1 =1200 , P1= 6,
P2 = 4, s = 0.05,
Frequency f = NsP/120
= 1206/120 = 60 Hz
rotor frequency f/ = s.f = 0.05 60 = 3.0 Hz
Now, Ns2 = 120 60 /4 = 1800 and Ns – N = 120 f / P2
Therefore, N=Ns- 120 f / P2 = 1800-1200.0560/4 = 1800-90 = 1710
Q.62 The eddy current loss in an a-c electric motor is 100 watts at 50 Hz. Its loss at 100
Hz will be
(A) 25 watts (B) 59 watts
(C) 100 watts (D) 400 watts
Ans: D
Eddy current losses α f2
New loss α (2f)2
New loss α 4f2
∴ 4 times
Q.63 The maximum power for a given excitation in a synchronous motor is developed
when the power angle is equal to
(A) 0o (B) 45o
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(C) 60o (D) 90o

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Ans: A
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P = VI cosΦ
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Pmax = VI
B
∴Φ = 00
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Q. 64 A commutator in a d.c. machine

(A) Reduces power loss in armature.
(B) Reduces power loss in field circuit.
(C) Converts the induced a.c armature voltage into direct voltage.
(D) Is not necessary.
Ans: C
As name suggests, it commutes ac into dc.
Q.65 The speed of a d.c. shunt motor at no-load is
(A) 5 to 10% (B) 15 to 20%
(C) 25 to 30% (D) 35 to 40%
higher than its speed at rated load.
Ans: A
Ta α Φ Ia ,, Φ = constant,
∴T α Ia
N α Eb α Eb b
Q.66 The efficiency of a transformer is mainly dependent on

(A) core losses. (B) copper losses.
(C) stray losses. (D) dielectric losses.
Ans: A
Core loss has prominent value over other losses
Q.67 When two transformers are operating in parallel, they will share the load as under:
(A) proportional to their impedances.
(B) inversely proportional to their impedances.
(C) 50% - 50%
(D) 25%-75%
Ans: A
High rating transformer has higher impedance.
kVA rating α Impedance of transformer
Q.68 If the voltage is reduced to half, the torque developed by an induction motor will be
reduced to
1 1
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(A) of original torque. (B) of original torque.

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1 1
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(C) of original torque. (D) of original torque.

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8 16
P
Ans: B
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B
Tg α V or Tg α Pm (rotor gross output)

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or N, so E
initially
less speed is less. www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
Q.69 A 3-phase, 400 votts, 50 Hz, 100 KW, 4 pole squirrel cage induction motor with a
rated slip of 2% will have a rotor speed of
(A) 1500 rpm (B) 1470 rpm
(C) 1530 rpm (D) 1570 rpm
Ans: B
N = NS (1-S) and NS =120 f / p
=120 x 50 /4 = 1500 rpm
∴N= 1500 (1-0.02) =1470 rpm
Q.70 If the phase angle of the voltage coil of a directional relay is 50 o , the maximum
torque angle of the relay is
(A) 130o (B) 100o
(C) 50 o (D) 25o
Ans: C
Torque α Power
Power α Voltage
Therefore, It has same angle as ‘V’ has.
Q.71 The voltage at the two ends of a transmission line are 132 KV and its reactance is
40 ohm. The Capacity of the line is
(A) 435.6 MW (B) 217.8 MW
(C) 251.5 MW (D) 500 MW
Ans: A
Line capacity is determined by power of line
P = (V2/R) or (V2/Z) when cos Φ =1
Q.72 A 220/440 V, 50 Hz, 5 KVA, single phase transformer operates on 220V, 40Hz
supply with secondary winding open circuited. Then
(A) Both eddy current and hysteresis losses decreases.
(B) Both eddy current and hysteresis losses increases.
(C) Eddy current loss remains the same but hysteresis loss increases.
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(D) Eddy current loss increases but hysteresis loss remains the same.
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Ans: A
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Wh = khfBm e = ke f m
Therefore, hysteresis and eddy current losses will be decreased when frequency
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2.B
kand
1.6 W www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
Q.73 A synchronous motor is operating on no-load at unity power factor. If the field
current is increased, power factor will become
(A) Leading & current will decrease
(B) Lagging & current will increase.
(C) Lagging & current will decrease.
(D) Leading & current will increase.
Ans: A
Initially synchronous motor is operating at no load and unity power factor. When
field current increases, the excitation will increase. Therefore, p.f will be leading and
current will be I CosΦ < I
Q.74 A d.c. shunt motor runs at no load speed of 1140 r.p.m. At full load, armature reaction
weakens the main flux by 5% whereas the armature circuit voltage drops by 10%. The
motor full load speed in r.p.m. is
(A) 1080 (B) 1203
(C) 1000 (D) 1200
Ans: A
N2 / N1 =Eb2 /Eb1 x Φ 1 / Φ2 ; Φ2 = 0.95Φ 1 ; Eb2 = 0.9Eb1
∴ N2 /1140 = 0.9 x 1/0.95
N2 = 1080
Q.75 The introduction of interpoles in between the main pole improves the performance of
d.c. machines, because
(A) The interpole produces additional flux to augment the developed torque.
(B) The flux waveform is improved with reduction in harmonics.
(C) The inequality of air flux on the top and bottom halves of armature is
removed.
(D) A counter e.m.f. is induced in the coil undergoing commutation.
Ans: D
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Counter e.m.f is produced, it neutralizes the reactive emf.

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Q.76 The rotor power output of a 3-phase induction motor is 15 KW and corresponding slip
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is 4%. The rotor copper loss will be

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(A) 600 W. (B) 625 W

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(C) 650 W (D) 700 W

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Ans: B
Rotor copper losses = rotor input- rotor output
and output = (1-s) input
∴ Input = output/(1-s) = 15000 /1-0.04 = 15625
∴ loss = 15625 -1500 = 625 watt
Q.77 The direction of rotation of hysteresis motor is reversed by
(A) Shift shaded pole with respect to main pole
(B) Reversing supply lead
(C) Either A or B
(D) Neither A nor B
Ans: A
This motor used single phase, 50Hz supply and stator has two windings. These are
connected continuously from starting to running.
Q.78 A 1.8°step, 4-phase stepper motor has a total of 40 teeth on 8 pole of stator. The
number of rotor teeth for their rotor will be
(A) 40 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 80
Ans: B
Step angle ‘β’ = NS – Nr / NS Nr x 360
∴ 1-8 = -40 + Nr/40 Nr x 3600
Nr = 50
Q.79 Low head plants generally use
(A) Pelton Turbines (B) Francis Turbine
(C) Pelton or Francis Turbine (D) Kaplan Turbines
Ans: A
In the hysterisis motor, the direction of rotation can be reversed by shifting the
shaded pole region with respect to main pole. But not by changing supply lead
because it has ac supply.
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Q.80 The charging reactance of 50 Km length of line is 1500Ω. The charging reactance for
in
100Km length of line will be

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(A) 1500 Ω (B) 3000 Ω

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(C) 750 Ω (D) 600 Ω

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Ans: B
Characteristic reactance per km = 1500/50 = 30 ohms
∴ Characteristic reactance per 100km = 30 x 100 = 3000 ohms
Q.81 Electric ovens using heating elements of _______________ can produce temperature
upto 3000°C.
(A) Nickel (B) Graphite
(C) Chromium (D) Iron
Ans: C
Chromium has high melting point.
Q.82 In DC generators, armature reaction is produced actually by

(A) Its field current. (B) Armature conductors.
(C) Field pole winding. (D) Load current in armature.
Ans: D
Because load current in armature gives rise to armature mmf which react with
main field mmf.
Q.83 Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
(A) Rating. (B) Leakage reactance.
(C) Efficiency. (D) Per-unit impedance.
Ans: A
Transformers having higher kVA rating will share more load.
Q.84 As compared to shunt and compound DC motors, the series DC motor will have the
highest torque because of its comparatively ____________ at the start.
(A) Lower armature resistance. (B) Stronger series field.
(C) Fewer series turns. (D) Larger armature current.
Ans: D
T α Φ Ia
Φ α Ia
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T α Ia 2
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Q.85 A 400kW, 3-phase, 440V, 50Hz induction motor has a speed of 950 r.p.m. on full-
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load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be _______________.
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P
(A) 0.06 (B) 0.10

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(C) 0.04 (D) 0.05

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Ans: D
N = Ns (1-S)
950 = 120 x 50 (1-S)/6
S = 0.05
Q.86 Reduction in the capacitance of a capacitor-start motor, results in reduced
(A) Noise. (B) Speed.
(C) Starting torque. (D) Armature reaction.
Ans: C
Reduction in the capacitance reduces starting voltage, which results in reduced
starting torque.
Q.87 Regenerative braking
(A) Can be used for stopping a motor.
(B) Cannot be easily applied to DC series motors.
(C) Can be easily applied to DC shunt motors
(D) Cannot be used when motor load has overhauling characteristics.
Ans: B
Because reversal of Ia would also mean reversal of field and hence of Eb
Q.88 At present level of technology, which of the following method of generating electric
power from sea is most advantageous?
(A) Tidal power. (B) Ocean thermal energy conversion
(C) Ocean currents. (D) Wave power.
Ans: A
At present level of technology, tidal power for generating electric power from sea
is most advantageous because of constant availability of tidal power.
Q.89 If the field circuits of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor gets suddenly open
circuited, then
(A) The motor stops.
(B) It continues to run at the same speed.
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(C) Its runs at the slower speed.

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(D) It runs at a very high speed.

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Ans: B
The motor continues to run at the same speed because synchronous motor speed
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Q.90 Electric resistance seam welding uses __________ electrodes.

(A) Pointed (B) Disc.
(C) Flat (D) Domed
Ans: B
Disc type electrodes are used for electric resistance seam welding.
Q.91 For LV applications (below 1 kV), ______________ cables are used.
(A) Paper insulated. (B) Plastic.
(C) Single core cables. (D) Oil filled.
Ans: C
For low voltage applications single core cables are suitable.
Q.92 No load current in a transformer:
(A) lags the applied voltage by 90°
(B) lags the applied voltage by somewhat less than 90°
(C) leads the applied voltage by 90°
(D) leads the applied voltage by somewhat less than 90°
Ans: B
The primary input current under no load conditions has to supply (i) iron losses in
the core i.e hysteresis loss and eddy current loss (ii) a very small amount of Cu loss
in the primary (there being no Cu loss in secondary as it is open)
Q.93 A transformer operates most efficiently at 3/4th full load. Its iron (PI) and copper
loss (PCu) are related as:
(A) PI PCu = 16 9 (B) PI PCu = 4 3
(C) PI PCu = 3 4 (D) PI PCu = 9 16
Ans: D
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If PCu is the Cu loss at full load, its value at 75% of full load is
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PCu x (0.75)2 = 9/16 PCu

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At maximum efficiency, it equals the iron loss PI which remains constant through
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out. Hence max. efficiency at

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PI = 9/16 PCu
Or PI / PCu = 9/16
Q.94 In a salient pole synchronous machine (usual symbols are used):

(A) x q > x d (B) xq = xd
(C) xq < xd (D) xq = 0
Ans: C
Since reluctance on the q axis is higher, owing to the larger air gap, hence xq < xd
Q.95 The armature of a dc machine is laminated to reduce:

(A) Eddy current loss (B) Hysteresis loss
(C) copper losses (D) friction and windage losses
Ans: A
Thinner the laminations, greater is the resistance offered to the induced e.m.f.,
smaller the current and hence lesser the I2R loss in the core.
Q.96 The resistance representing mechanical output in the equivalent circuit of an

induction motor as seen from the stator is:
1  r2'
(A) r2'  −1 (B)
s  s
1  r2
(C) r22  −1 (D)
s  s
Ans: A
Mechanical Power developed by the rotor (Pm) or gross power developed by rotor
(Pg)
= rotor input –rotor Cu losses
= (3I/2 R2/ / S) -(3I/2 R2/ )
= 3I/2 R2/ (1/ S -1)
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Q.97 A single phase Hysteresis motor

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(A) can run at synchronous speed only

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(B) can run at sub synchronous speed only

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(C) can run at synchronous and super synchronous speed

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B
(D) can run at synchronous and sub synchronous speed

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Ans: A
The rotor revolves synchronously because the rotor poles magnetically lock up with
the revolving stator poles of opposite polarity
Q. 98 The temperature of resistance furnaces can be controlled by changing the:

(A) applied voltage (B) number of heating elements
(C) circuit configuration (D) All of the above
Ans: D
Temperature of resistance furnaces can be controlled by changing either applied
voltage or by number of heating elements or by circuit configuration.
Q.99 The line trap unit employed in carrier current relaying:

(A) offers high impedance to 50 Hz power frequency signal
(B) offers high impedance to carrier frequency signal
(C) offers low impedance to carrier frequency signal
(D) Both (A) & (C)
Ans: B
The line trap unit employed in carrier current relaying offers high impedance to
carrier frequency signal.
Because carrier frequency range is 35 km – 500 kHz
XL = 2 Π f l
Where f increases XL will also increases
Q.100 For a line voltage V and regulation of a transmission line R

(A) R ∝ V (B) R ∝ 1
V
(C) R ∝ V 2
(D) R ∝ 1
V2
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Ans: B
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R α 1/V
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Regulation = (V0 – VL ) / V0 , if VL is high the (V0 – VL ) will be low.

P U
Therefore R α 1/V
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PART - II
NUMERICALS
Q.1 Calculate the voltage regulation of a transformer in which ohmic drop is 2% and
the reactance drop in 5% of the voltage at 0.8 lagging power factor. (7)
Ans: The expression for % voltage regulation is
V 20 − V 2 ,
% voltage regulation= X …(1)
V 2 , fl
where V2 fl = rated secondary voltage while supplying full load at a specified power
factor.
And V20 = secondary voltage when load is thrown off
Equation (1) can be written as
I ( R cos X sin )
% Voltage regulation = X 100
V2
= 100  + 
_________
…(2)
V  V 
The quantities within the brackets are given in the problem as 2%( percent ohmic
drop) and 5% (percent reactance drop). Also
plus sign in Equation (2) is because of the lagging nature of current.
Here cos 0.8 and hence sin φ = 12 − (0.8) 2 = 0.6
Now
Voltage regulation = 2% X 0.8 + 5% X 0.6

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= (1.6 + 3.0)%
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= 4.6%
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Hence voltage regulation = 4.6%

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IR
.2+
fl φ
= 0 cos
1is0 the  φ 1power
lagging IX φfactorsin
2.100 www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
 The (2)
angle.
Q.2 Derive the expression of torque produced in a d.c. motor. (7)

Ans:
force on con
c)
Fig. C1 Torque production in dc machine
Fig. C1 shows the flux density wave in the air gap and the conductor current
distribution in the developed armature for one pole-pair. The force on the
conductors is unidirectional. Each conductor, as it moves around with the
armature, experiences a force whose time variation is a replica of the flux
density(B).
Therefore, the average conductor force
f c ( av ) = Bav l I c (1)
where Bav = average flux density over a pole.
l = active conductor length, and I c =conductor current
Total force
F = zf c ( av ) = Bav I c lz , where z=total number of conductors (2)
This force (and therefore torque) is constant because both the flux density wave and
current distribution are fixed in space at all times. Now the torque developed is
T = B I lzr (3)
where r is the mean air gap radius
The flux/pole can be expressed as
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Bav p l (4)
@
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2π r
where τ p = polepitch =
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φ
=
ductors
conductor τ current
fluxdensity
___________
av c B (I www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
so
 2π r 
φ = B av  l
 P 
or
P 1
Bav = X (5)
2 rl
Substituting for Bav in (3)

P 1
T = X I c lzr
2 rl
or
PI c z ( P ) X I c z
T = =
2 2
A lap winding is assumed here. It has A=p parallel paths such that the armature
current Ia divides out into ‘A’ paths giving a conductor current of
Ia
Ic =
A
Thus
φ Ia z  P 
T= X   Nm
2π  A 
zP
T =K I where K a = =constant (6)
2π A
Q.3 A 230 V d.c. shunt motor with constant field drives a load whose torque is
proportional to the speed. When running at 750 rpm it takes 30 A. Find the speed
at which it will run if a 10 ohm resistance is connected in series with the armature.
The armature resistance may be neglected. (7)
Ans: Fig. C2 shows a dc shunt motor

f
Ra
230 V
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Ia
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aπ a
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Using equation 6 of Question 2, the torque
T= K a I a
Original variables are T1, 1, N1, Ia1 Ea1
Final variables are T2, 2, N2, I a2 Ea2
T1 K a 1I a 1 Ia
Now = = 1 (1)
T2 K a 2Ia 2 I a2
Here 1 2 as flux is constant
Since torque is proportional to speed
T1 N1 I a1
= = from equation (1) (2)
T2 N 2 I a 2
N2
And I a 2 = I a1 (3)
N1
Ea1 VT 0 K N
Back emf = = a 1
Ea2 VT − I a2 R Ka N2
230 − I a 2 X 10 N 2
Or =
230 N1
N 
230 − 10 X I a1 X  N2 
 1 N2
Or =
230 N1
N 
230 −10 X 30 X  N2 
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 1 N2
Or =
in
230 N1
@
This gives
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P
N2
( 230 + 300) = 230
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Therefore
230
N 2 = N1
530
230
= 750 X
530
= 326rpm
Q.4 The power input to a 500 V, 50 Hz, 6 pole 3 phase squirrel cage induction motor
running at 975 rpm is 40 KW. The stator losses are 1 KW and the friction and
windage losses are 2 KW. Calculate
(i) Slip (ii) Rotor copper loss
(iii) Mechanical power developed (iv) The efficiency. (7)
120 f 50
Ans: Synchronous speed(N s )= = 120 X = 1000RPM
P 6
ωs − ωm 2π X 1000 − 2π X 975 25
Slip = = = = 0.025
ωs 2π X 1000 1000
Power across air gap(PG) = power input - stator copper loss
Thus PG=40KW-1KW=39KW
Rotor copper loss=sPG=0.025*39=0.975KW
Gross mechanical output=(1-s)PG=39-0.975=38.025KW
Net mechanical output=Gross mechanical output-friction and winding loss
= (38.025-2.000)KW
=36.025KW
36.025
Efficiency = =
Jo
Power input
in
≈ 90%
@
Note: Assume that the core loss is included in friction and windage loss and the total
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loss under this head is 2.0 kW

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Q.5 A 120V, 60Hz, 1/4hp universal motor runs at 2000 rpm and takes 0.6A when
connected to a 120V d.c. source. Determine the speed, torque and power factor of the
motor when it is connected to a 120V, 60 Hz, supply and is loaded to take 0.6A (rms)
of current. The resistance and inductance measured at the terminals of the motor are
20 ohm and 0.25H respectively. (7)
Ans: Universal Motor: (A) When connected to a d.c. source it runs at 2000RPM and
takes 0.6A [Fig F1]
120V
DC Source b
Eb = 120 − 0.6 X 20 = 120 − 12 = 108V

n1Z P
Eb ( d .c.) X Kndc 108V
60 A
When connected an ac source [120 Volts, 60Hz supply]

it takes 0.6A of current
1 n2 Z P Kn ac
E a ( ac ) RM S *
2 60 A 2
Rmotor=20 Ω
Lmotor=0.25H
Xmotor=2 π X60X0.25
Or, Xmotor=94.25 Ω
Jo
From the phasor diagram

in
@
Ea( ac ) + Ia R = V 2 − (Ia X )2
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P
Ea(ac) =−0.6X20 + 1202 −(0.6X94.25)2

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φ
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= −12 + 105.84 = 93.84 V
Assume, same flux for the same current (i.e. 0.6 Adc and 0 .6 rm s
Ea( dc ) φ ndc ndc

= =
Ea( ac ) φ nac nac
Therefore
93.84
nac = 2000 X = 1737.78rpm
108
Ea( ac ) + Ia R 93.84 +12
Power factor, cosφ = = = 0.88 lag
V 120
Pmech = Ea( ac ) I a = 93.84 X 0.6 = 56.3W
Pmech 56.3
Tdev = = = 0.309N − m
ωm 2π X
1737.78
60
Q.6 For a 4 KVA, 200/400 V, 50 Hz, 1 – phase transformer, calculate the efficiency,
voltage at the secondary terminals and primary input current when supplying a full
– load secondary current at 0.8 lagging power factor.
The following are the test results:
Open circuit with 200 V applied to the L.V. side: 0.8 A, 70 W. Short circuit with
20 V applied to the H.V. side: 10 A, 60 W. (14)
Ans: The transformer is supplying full-load secondary current at 0.8 lagging power
factor
4 KVA 4000VA
Full load secondary current = = = 10 A
400V 400V
From the open circuit test, core losses = 70W
From the S.C. test, full load copper losses = 60W
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(a) Efficiency
in
@
 V2 I 2 cos θ 
SP
η =  X 100
 V2 I 2 cos θ + core losses + full load copper losses 
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 4000 X 0.8 
=  X 100
 4000 X 0.8 + 70 + 60 
 3200 
=  X 100 = 96.1%
 3300 
(b) voltage at the secondary terminals is determined as follows with the help of
equivalent circuit of Fig A3
eq
Xeq
200V E1 E2
V1
I2
a X e/
θ E 1 = V2 a I2
a R e/
Fig. A3 Equivalent circuit referred to primary
Primary equt. resistance = r1 + a2r2 = a2 [equt. resistance referred to secy]

Also primary equt. reactance =x1 + a2x2 = a2 [equt. reactance referred to secy]
200 1
Where a = =
400 2
From the short circuit test conducted on the secondary side.
20
Z= = 2Ω
10
60W
R= = 0. 6Ω
10 2
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X = 2 2 − (0.6) 2 = 3.64 = 1.91Ω

in
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0.6
Equt. Resistance referred to primary Re′ = a 2 R = = 0.15 Ω
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1.91
Equt. reactance referred to primary X e′ = a 2 X = ≈ 0.48Ω
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( E1 + IRe′′ cos φ + IX e′ sin φ ) + ( IX e′ cos φ − IRe′ sin φ )

2 2
= 200 2
(E1 + 20 x 0.15 x0.8 + 20 x 0.48 x 0.6)2 + (20 x 0.48 x 0.8 – 20 x 0.15 x 0.6)2 = 2002
⇒ ( E1 + 8.16) + ( 5.88) = 2002
2 2
This gives E1 ≈ 191.75

E2 = 191.75 x 2 = 383.5
So voltage at secondary terminals =383.5V
Primary input current with full load secondary current =20A
Q.7 Draw the per phase approximate equivalent circuit of a 3 – phase induction motor
at slip ‘s’ and derive the expression for electromagnetic torque developed by the
motor. Derive also the condition for maximum torque and the expression for the
maximum torque. (14)
Ans:
R1 X1 X’2
a
I1 I0 I’2
V
Xm R
R1
a
Fig B3 shows the per-phase exact equivalent circuit of a 3-phase induction motor. The
power crossing the terminals ’ab’ in Fig B3 is the electrical power input per phase
minus the stator copper loss and iron loss; Thus it is the power that is transferred from
the stator to the rotor via the air gap. It is also known as the power across the air gap.
3(I 2′ ) R 2′
2
The Power across the air gap (Pa ) =

Jo
s
in
Rotor speed is = (1 s ) s mech.rad./s

@
Electromagnetic torque developed is obtained as

SP
(1 - s) s m = (1 – s) PG
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3 ( I 2′ ) R2′
2
PG
or T = =
ωs sωs
dT
The condition (that is, slip) for maximum torque is obtained by equating to zero.
ds
With the approximation of I1 = I 2′ in Fig. B3 or using the approximate equivalent
circuit.
V
I 2′ = 1/ 2
( R1 + R2 / s ) + ( X 1 + X 2 )
2
3( I2′ ) R2′
2
′ 2
3RV
T= = 2
(I)
sωs sωs ( R1 + R2 / s) +( X1 + X2 )
2 2 1/2
dT
Equating to zero gives the slip at maximum torque as
ds
R2′
sm = ±
2 1/ 2
R12 + ( X 1 + X 2 )
Also substitution of sm for s in (I) gives the maximum torque as
3 V2
Tmax =
2ωs R + R 2 + X + X 2
1 1 ( 1 2)
Q.8 A 230 V d.c. series motor has an armature resistance of 0.2 Ω and series field
resistance of 0.10 Ω . Determine:
(i) the current required to develop a torque of 70 Nm at 1200 rpm
(ii) percentage reduction in flux when the machine runs at 2000 rpm at half the
current. (14)
Ans:
DC Series Motor:
Jo
in
= =
@
Back emf a .
60 A 60 A
SP
60 A
P
Define K n
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=
φ
′_____________________________
Z
ZP
E Pn ′ ′ n
ZP    www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
n _____________
So Ea ( A)
Kn
1 P ZP
Also T = φ Ia Z = φ Ia .
2π A 2π A
ZP ZP 60 1 60
= . = .
2π A 60 A 2π K n 2π
I 60
So T= aX
Kn 2
Also for a series motor
Ea = V-Ia (Ra+Rse)----------------(B)
where V is the applied voltage and Ia is the current through armature and series field.
Here Ra =.2 Ω and Rse = .1Ω
From (A) and (B)
n
230 I a (0.2 0.1)
Kn
1200
230 0.3I a _____________ (C )
Kn
60
also 70 = .I a
2 Kn
or
70 2 _____________
X ( D)
Kn 60 I a
From (C) and (D)
1200 X 70 X 2π
= 230 − 0.3I a
60 I a
8796
Jo
or = 230 − 0.3I a
in
Ia
@
⇒ 0.3I a 2 − 230 I a + 8796 = 0

SP
P
This gives I a = 40.33 A or 726.33 A

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The second value (726.33A) is inadmissible.

(i) Hence the current required to develop a torque of 70Nm at 1200RPM is
40.33A
(ii) Machine runs at 2000RPM
n2 2
230 0.3 X 20.17
Kn
2
2000 230 6.05
Kn
2000 2
224 ______________ ( E )
Kn
1200
From (C) 230 0.3(40.33) 217.9 _____________ ( F )
Kn
Division of (F) by (E) gives

1200 217.9
=
2000 2 224
or
1200 X 224
2
= = 0.617
2000 X 217.9
This gives 2 0.617
or reduction in flux in the second case is 38.3% of the original flux.
Q.9 The effective resistance of a 3 – phase, Y – connected 50 Hz, 2200 V synchronous

generator is 0.5 Ω per phase. On short circuit a field current of 40 A gives the full
load current of 200 A. An emf (line to line) of 1100 V is produced on open circuit
with the same field current. Determine the synchronous impedance. Also compute
the power angle and voltage regulation at full – load 0.8 lagging p.f. (14)
Ans: The occ and scc characteristics of the synchronous generator are given in
Fig. M4
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φ
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open circuit voltage for I of 40 A

Synchronous impedance Z s =
short circuit current for the same I f of A
1100
Thus Xs ≈ Zs = = 3.18Ω
3 X200
E f − Vt ( rated )
Percentage voltage regulation is defined as X100%
Vt ( rated )
The phasor diagram is given in Fig. M5
Ef
s
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in
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Fig. M5 Phasor diagram

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θ
δφ
Icos
t=
V
IX 0.8
200A
f(rated)
40
2200
Here Vt ( rated ) =
3
cos 0.8
(Vt )
2
Ef 2 Ira cos IX s sin ( IX s cos Ira sin ) 2
where Vt(terminal voltage) and Ef (field voltage) are per phase values
E f = 1731.62 + 448.82 = 1788.8
E f − Vt ( rated )
Percent regulation = X 100
Vt ( rated )
1788.8 − 1270
⇒ % reg n = X 100 = 48.85%
1270
448.8
tan δ = = 0.259
1731.6
δ =14.5o
Thus power angle = 14.5
o
Q.10 A 100 KVA, 2400/240 V, 50 Hz, 1-phase transformer has no-load current of 0.64
A and a core loss of 700 W, when its high voltage side is energized at rated voltage
and frequency. Calculate the two components of no-load current. If this transformer
supplies a load current of 40 amp at 0.8 lagging power factor at its low voltage
side, determine the primary current and its power factor. Ignore leakage impedance
Jo
drop. (12)
in
@
Ans:
SP
100 KVA, 2400/240 V, 50Hz, 1-Φ

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φ
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φ −
No load: -
Io = 0.64 A
Wo= 700W
Iron loss current = 700/2400 =0.2916 A
Now , Io2 = Iw2 + Iµ2
Magnetizing component Iµ = (Io2 – Iw2)1/2
= (0.642 – 0.29162)1/2
= 0.5697 A
On load :-
I2 = 40 A
Φ2 = 0.8 lag
cos Φ o = Wo/(Vo Io)

= 700/(2400x0.64)
= 0.455
Φo = cos –1 0.455
= 62.88o
Jo
in
Φ2 = cos –1 0.8
@
= 36.86o
SP
P
Now, turn ratio K =V1/V2 = 240/ 2400 = 0.1

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I21 = KI2 = 40x0.1 = 4 A
Angle between I0 and I21 = 62.88o – 36.86o
= 26.02o
I0 = 0.64 ∠–62.88o
I21 = 4∠–36.86o
I1 = Io + I21 = 0.64 [cos( 62.88) – j sin (62.88) ] + 4[ cos(36.86) – jsin( 36.86) ]

= 4.583
I1 = 4.583 A
cos Φ1 = cos 40.37 =0.7618 lag

Q.11 A shunt generator has an induced emf of 254 V. When the generator is loaded, the
terminal voltage is 240 V. Neglecting armature reaction, find the load current if
the armature resistance is 0.04 ohm and the field circuit resistance is 24 ohms. (10)
Ans:
Eg = 254 V
V = 240 V
Ra= 0.04 Ω, Rsh = 24Ω
Eg = V + Ia Ra
Eg = V + (IL + Ish) Ra
Jo
Ish = V / R sh = 240/24 = 10A.

in
@
Substituting the values in the above expression,

SP
254 = 240 + (IL + 10) 0.04

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IL = 340A
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Q.12 The shaft output of a three-phase 60- Hz induction motor is 80 KW. The friction
and windage losses are 920 W, the stator core loss is 4300 W and the stator copper
loss is 2690 W. The rotor current and rotor resistance referred to stator are
respectively 110 A and 0.15 Ω . If the slip is 3.8%, what is the percent efficiency?
(12)
Ans:
Pm =output = 80 KW
Windage and Friction losses = 920W

Stator core loss = 4300 W
Stator copper loss = 2690W
Slip = 3.8%
Gross mech output = Pm + windage and friction losses
= 80 KW + 920 W
= 80.92KW
rotor input / rotor gross output = 1/(1–s)
rotor input = rotor gross output / (1–s) = 80.92 KW /(1–0.038) = 84.11 KW
we know that ;
stator input = rotor input + stator core loss + stator cu loss
= 84.11 KW +4300 W + 2690 W = 91.1 KW
%η = (rotor output / stator input) x 100
= (80/91.1) x 100 KW
= 87.81 %
Q.13 A 6 pole 3 phase induction motor develops 30 H P including mechanical losses
totalling 2 H P, at a speed of 950 RPM on 550 volt, 50 Hz mains. If the power
factor is 0.88 and core losses are negligible, calculate:
(i) The slip
(ii) The rotor copper loss

Jo
in
(iii) The total input power if the stator losses are 2 Kw

@
SP
(iv) The line current. (6)

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Ans:
P=6, 3ϕ, output = 30 H.P
Mech. loss = 2 H.P
N = 950 rpm
V= 550 V
f = 50 Hz.
cosϕ = 0.88
slip, S = (Ns – Nr)/Ns
Ns = 120 f / P = 120 x50/6 = 1000 r.p.m.
slip = (1000–950)/100 =0.05
Rotor gross output = output + Mech. loss = 30 +2 =32 H.P.
Rotor cu loss/ Rotor gross output = S/(1–S)
Rotor cu loss = 0.05x32/0.95 = 1.684 H.P. = 1.684 x 0.746 = 1.323 KW
Rotor input = Rotor gross output/(1–S) = 32 /0.95 = 33.68 H.P.
Total input = Rotor input + cu loss + core loss
(33.68x745.7 W) + 2000 W + 0 = 27.115 KW
Line current = Total input/ (1.732 x 550 x 0.88)
= 32.34 ampere
Q.14 If the motor is fed from a 50 Hz 3 phase line, calculate:
(i) number of poles

Jo
(ii) slip at full load

in
(iii) frequency of rotor voltage

@
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(iv) speed of rotor field wrt rotor

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(v) speed of rotor field wrt to stator

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(vi) speed of rotor field wrt stator field
(vii) speed of rotor at a slip of 10 percent. (6)
Ans:
(i) Ns= 120f/P
P=120 * 50/1000=6;
(ii) S= (1000 – 950)/1000 =0.05;
(iii) frequency of rotor voltage =Sf=0.05x50=2.5 Hz
(iv) Speed of rotor field w.r.t. rotor =(120Sf)/P =120x2.5/6= 50 rpm
(v) Speed of rotor field w.r.t stator = 950+50=1000 rpm;
(vi) Speed of rotor field w.r.t stator field =1000–1000=0 rpm;
(vii) Speed of rotor at a slip of 10%= Ns (1–S)=900 rpm;
Q.15 Three single-phase, 50 kVA, 2300/ 230 V, 60 Hz transformers are connected to form
a 3-phase, 4000V / 230-V transformer bank. The equivalent impedance of each
transformer referred to low-voltage is 0.012 + j 0.016 Ω . The 3-phase transformer
supplies a 3-phase, 120 kVA, 230 V, 0.85 power-factor (lagging) load.
(i) Draw a schematic diagram showing the transformer connection.
(ii) Determine the winding currents of the transformer.
(iii) Determine the primary voltage (line to line) required. (3 x 3)
Ans: Given :
single phase ; P0 = 50kVA ; 2300/230V, 60Hz
no. of transformers are 3 (three) to form a 3 Φ transformer
4000/230V , P0 = 120 kVA , 230V and cosΦ =0.85 lagging

Jo
in
Z02 = (0.012 + j 0.016) Ω and

@
Z01 = Z02 /K2

SP
P
(i) Schematic diagram to show transformer connection

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(ii) Calculation of winding currents of transformer:

Given , P0 = 120 kVA
P0 =√ 3 VLIL cosΦ
IL = Iph ; VL = √ 3 Vph ( star connection)
∴ IL = 120 x cos Φ x 103 / √ 3 VL cosΦ
= 120 x 103 /√ 3 x 230
= 30.12 amp
Jo
∴ secondary line current = 30.12 amp.

in
@
(iii) Primary current I1 = k I2

SP
= 230/4000 x 30.12 = 1.732 amp.

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Primary line voltage = 4000 volts.

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Q.16 A pair of synchronous machines, on the same shaft, may be used to generate power at
60 Hz from the given source of power at 50 Hz. Determine the minimum number of
poles that the individual machines could have for this type of operation and find the
shaft-speed in r.p.m. (4+4)
Ans: Motor & generator (synchronous machine) are coupled. Therefore,
NS(m) = NS(g)
NS(m) = 120 fm /Pm ; NS(g) = 120 fg / Pg
Where : NS(m) = synchronous speed of motor
NS(g) = synchronous speed of generator
fm = frequency of motor power
fg = frequency of generator power
Pm = motor poles
Pg = generator poles
∴ 120 fm /Pm = 120 fg / Pg
120 x 50 / Pm = 120 x 60 /Pg
∴ Pg /Pm = 6/5
Pg : Pm = 6 : 5
Therefore minimum requirement of poles for motor
Pm = 10 (5 x 2)
Pg = 12 (6 x 2)
Now synchronous speed or shaft speed = 1200 x 50 / 10 = 600 rpm
Q.17 A 240V dc shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.4 ohm and is running at the
full-load speed of 600 r.p.m. with a full load current of 25A. The field current is
constant; also a resistance of 1 ohm is added in series with the armature. Find the
speed (i) at the full-load torque and (ii) at twice the full-load torque.
(6)
Ans: In a DC shunt motor
V = 240V
Ra = 0.4Ω
Jo
in
N1 = 600rpm (full load speed)

@
Ia = 25A and, ISh is constant

SP
R = 1 Ω added in series with armature

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Eb1 = V - IaRa
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= 240 -25 x 0.4

= 230 volts
Eb2 = V - Ia (Ra+ R)
= 240 -25 ( 0.4+ 1)
= 201 volts
Now N1 / N2 = Eb1 / Eb2 x Φ 2 / Φ 1 (Φ1 = Φ2 = constant)
N2 = N1 x Eb2 / Eb1 at full load torque
= 600 x 201/ 230
= 534.78
∴ (i) speed of motor at full load = 535 rpm
Now,
N3 / N1 = Eb3 / Eb1 x Φ1 / Φ 3 (Φ1 = Φ2= Φ3 = constant)
And Eb3 at twice the full load torque
∴ Ia2 = 2 Ia = 50 amp.
∴ Eb3 = 240 -50 (1 +0.4) = 240 – 70 = 170 volts.
N3 = N1 x Eb3 / Eb1 = 600 x 170 /230 = 443.47 rpm
(ii) speed of motor at twice of load = 443 rpm
Q.18 A 400V, 4-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase, 10 hp, star connected induction motor has a no
load slip of 1% and full load slip of 4%. Find the following:
(i) Syn. speed (ii) no-load speed (iii) full-load speed.
(iv) frequency of rotor current at full-load (v) full-load torque. (5 x 2 = 10)
Ans: Given :
VL = 400 volts ; P = 4 nos, 50 Hz,
P0 = 10 HP = 735.5 x 10 = 7355 watt
i. Synchronous speed NS = 120 f / p
= 120 x 50 / 4 = 1500 rpm
ii. No load speed at s = 0.01
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N0 = NS ( 1 – s) = 1500 ( 1- 0.01)
in
= 1485 rpm
@
SP
iii. Full load speed at sf = 0.04

P
Nfl = NS (1-sf ) = 1500 ( 1-0.04)

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= 1440 rpm
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iv. Frequency of rotor current (fr) = sf .f = 0.04 x 50

= 2.0 Hz
v. Full load torque at shaft
TSh = 9.55 P0 / Nfl
= 9.55 x 7355 /1440
= 48.78 Nm
Q.19 A 2.2 kVA, 440 / 220 V, 50 Hz, step-down transformer has the following parameters
referred to the primary side : Re1 = 3 ohms, Xe1 = 4 ohms, Rc1 = 2.5K ohms and
X m1 = 2Kohms . The transformer is operating at full-load with a power-factor of
0.707 lagging. Determine the voltage regulation of the transformer. (10)
Ans:
Given : P0 = 2.2 kVA , 440/220 V , 50 Hz
R01 = 3Ω , X01 = 4Ω , Rm= 2.5kΩ , Xm = X0 = 2kΩ
cosΦ = 0.707 lagging
Therefore sinΦ = 0.707
Find Voltage regulation
cosΦ = 0.707 ; therefore Φ = 45o

(Voltage drop) = I2 (R01 cosΦ + X01 sinΦ)
and I2 = P0/ V2 cosΦ
= 2.2 x 103 x 0.707 / 220 x 0.707
= 1 x 10
I2 = 10A
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Voltage drop = 10 (3 x 0.707 + 4 x 0.707)

in
= 10 (4.950)
@
= 49.50 Volts
SP
Therefore, Voltage regulation = ( voltage drop /V2 ) x 100

P
= (49.50 / 220) x 100 = 22.50%

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Q.20 A 9-kVA, 208 V, 3-phase, Y-connected, synchronous generator has a winding

resistance of 0.1 ohm per phase and a synchronous reactance of 5.6 ohms per phase.
Determine the voltage generated (exciting emf) by the machine when it is delivering
full-load at 0.8 power-factor lagging at rated voltage. Calculate the voltage regulation
for rated load at 0.8 power-factor (leading). (10)
Ans:
P0 = √3VL IL cos Φ = 9kVA ; IL = Iph = P0 / √3VL cos Φ
VL = 208 V ; 3Φ ; Y connected synch. Gen.
VL = √3VP ; IL = IPh ; p.f = 0.8 Vph = VL / √3 = 208 / √3 = 120V
Ra = 0.1Ω /ph. , Xa = 5.6Ω /ph
Find Eg = ? , Regulation = ?
I = P0 / √3VL cos Φ = (9 x 10 3 x 0.8)/ (208 x 0.8 x 1.73) = 25 Amp.
Eg = √ (VP cosΦ + I Ra)2 + (V sinΦ + I X1)2

= √ (120 x 0.8 + 25 x 0.1)2 + (120 x 0.6 + 25 x 5.6)2
Eg = √ (96+2.5)2 +(72+140)2
= 233.76 Volts
% regulation = (Eg V/ Eg ) x 100
={ (233.76 -208)/ 233.76 } x 100
= 11.02%
Q.21 A 240-V, 20 hP, 850 r.p.m., shunt motor draws 72A when operating under rated
conditions. The respective resistance of the armature and shunt field are 0.242 ohm
and 95.2 ohms, respectively. Determine the percent reduction in the field
flux required to obtain a speed of 1650 r.p.m., while drawing an armature current of
50.4 A. (9)
Ans:
Given V = 240V
Pi = 20hp = 20 x 735.5 watt = 14.71 kW
Find Change in flux =?
Ish = V/ Rsh = 240 / 95.2 = 2.5 Amp

N1 = 850 rpm ; IL = 72 Amp. At rated load
Ra = 0.242, Rsh = 95.2Ω
N2 = 1650 rpm , Ia2 = 50.4 Amp
Jo
∴ Eb1 = V – Ia1 Ra
in
= 240 – 69.47 x 0.242 = 223.19 volt

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and Eb2 = V – Ia2 Ra

SP
= 240 – 50.4 x 0.242 = 227.80 volt

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Eb1 / Eb2 = N1 Φ1/ N2 Φ2

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Therefore, Φ 1/ Φ2 = (Eb1 / Eb2 ) x (N2 / N1)

= (223.19 / 227.80) x (1650 / 850) = 36826.35/19363
Φ 1/ Φ2 = 1.90/1 = 19/10
Therefore, change in flux ∆Φ = (Φ 1 - Φ2 )/ Φ1 x 100
= 9/19 x 100 = 47.37%
Q.22 The power input to the rotor of a 3-phase, 50 Hz, 6 Pole induction motor is 80 kW.
The rotor emf makes 100 complete alternations per minute. Find
(i) the slip (ii) the motor speed and (iii) the mechanical power developed by the
motor. (10)
Ans:
Given Pi = 80 kW ; 50Hz
P=6
Rotor frequency f / =(100/60) = 5/3 = 1.67 Hz
S = f / / f = (5/3) / 50 = 0.033
Mechanical Power developed by motor = (1-S) Pi
= (1- 1/30) x 80 kW = 77.33kW
Q.23 The parameters of the equivalent circuit of a 150-kVA,2400/240V transformer are:

R1=0.2ohm, R2=2 x 10– 3 ohm , X1=0.45 ohm, X2= 4.5 x 10– 3 ohm,
Ri =10 kohm, Xm = 1.6 kohm as seen from 2400 volts side.
Calculate:
(i) open circuit current, power and PF when LV side is excited at rated voltage.(8)
(ii) The voltage at which the HV side should be excited to conduct a short-circuit
test (LV side) with full-load current flowing. What is the input power and its
power factor? (8)
Ans: Given Rating = 150kVA ∴ Po =150kVA
2400/240 V ∴ V2 = 2400V; V1 = 240 V
R1 = 0.2Ω X1 = 0.45Ω
-3
R2 = 2 x 10 Ω X2 = 4.5 x10-3Ω
Ri = 10 kΩ Xm = 1.6kΩ
Jo
Find I2o = ?, P2o = ?, cos Φ2o = ?,

in
when L.V side is excited & H.V side is open circuit.

IfL = ?, Pi = ?, cos Φi = ?,
@
SP
when H.V side is excited & short circuit at L.V side

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(i) Open Circuit power = V1 I0 cos Φ0

= 240 x I0 cos Φ o …(1)
I0 = V1/Zm ; V1 = 240 volts; ;
Zm = √(102 + 1.62) = 10.13 kΩ (Zm = √ R12 + Xm2)
I0 = 240 / 10.13 = 23.69 x 10-3 Amp. Or 23.69 mA.

Power factor cos Φ0 = Ri / Zm
= 10/10.13
cos Φ0 = 0.987
Now open circuit power (W0i) = 240 x I0 x cos Φ 0

= 240 x 23.69 x 10-3 x 0.987
W0i = 5.6 watt
(ii) R01 = R1 + R2 / K2 (K = V2 /V1 )

= 0.2 + 2x10-3/100
= 0.20002Ω
X01 = X1 + X2 / K2
= 0.45 + 4.5x10-3/100
= 0.450045Ω
Jo
Z01 = √ (R012 + X012)

in
= 0.4924Ω
@
Full load primary current (I1) = 150000/2400 = 62.5 Amp (max.)

SP
Short circuit p.f. = R01 / Z01 = 0.20002 / 0.4924 = 0.406

P
VSC = I1Z01 = 62.5 x 0.4924 = 30.78 Volt

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∴ power absorbed = I12 R01 = (62.5)2 x 0.20002 = 781.33 Watt

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∴ Input Power = Out put power + power absorbed

= 150000 + 781.33
= 150781.33 W
= 150.781 kW
Q.24 A 3300 Volts, delta connected motor has a synchronous reactance per phase
(delta) of 18 ohm. It operates at a leading power factor of 0.707 when drawing
800 kW from the mains. Calculate its excitation emf. (8)
Ans:
Given VL =Vph = 3300V ; cosΦ = 0.707 leading ;
Pi =800 kw = √3 VLIL cosΦ
∴IL = 800 x 103/ √3 x3300 x 0.707

Iph = IL /√3 = 114.30 Amp.
Now, excitation e.m.f (E0) will be :
E0 =√ (Vph cosΦ)2 + (Vph sinΦ + IphXph)2
=√ (3300 x 0.707)2 + (3300 x 0.707+ 114.3 x 18)2
=4.9712 x 103 or 4971.22 Volts
Q.25 A 250 Volts dc shunt motor has Rf=150 ohm and Ra = 0.6 ohm. The motor
operates on no-load with a full field flux at its base speed of 1000 rpm with Ia = 5
Amps. If the machine drives a load requiring a torque of 100 Nm, calculate
armature current and speed of the motor. (8)
Jo
Ans: Given V = 250 V

in
Rf = 150 Ω
@
Ra = 0.6Ω
SP
i. operate no load and full load flux

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No = 1000 rpm & Iao = 5 amp.

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ii. On Load Taf = 100 Nm,

Iaf = armature full load current
Eb1 = Back emf at No load
Eb2 = Back emf at full load
N2 = full load speed
Find Iaf = ? ; & N2 = ?
At No load Iao = 5 amp.
Eb1 = V- Ia Ra (1)
= 250 - 5 x 0.6
= 250 - 3 = 247 volts
& Eb2 = N0 ( φPZ/60A) (2)
Eb2 / N0 = φPZ/60A = 247/1000 = 0.247
Now Eb2 at full load
Eb2 = N0 ( φPZ/60A) = V- Iaf Ra
Eb2 = N2 x 0.247= 250- Iaf x 0.6 (3)
Now Ta at no load
Ta0 = 9.55 Eb1 Ia0 / N0
= 9.55 x 247 x 5 / 1000 = 11.79 Nm
T1 / T2 = I1 / I2
Ta0 / Taf = Ia0 / Iaf
11.75/100 = 5/Iaf
∴ Iaf = 500/ 11.79 = 42.41 amp
Therefore, armature current at full load =42.41 amp
Put this value in equation (3)
N2 x 0.247 = 250 - 42.41 x 0.6
∴ N2 = 224.55/ 0.247 = 909.13 rpm
∴ Full load speed = 909 rpm
Q.26 A 400Volts, 1450 rpm, 50 Hz, wound-rotor induction motor has the following
Jo
circuit model parameters.

in
@
R1= 0.3 ohm R2=0.25 ohm

SP
X1=X2=0.6 ohm Xm= 35 ohm

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Rotational loss =1500 W. Calculate the starting torque and current when the motor
B
is started direct on full voltage. (8)

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Ans:
V = 400V; N = 1450 rpm ; f =50 Hz
R1 = 0.3 Ω R2’ = 0.25 Ω ; X1 =X2’ = 0.6 Ω ; X0 = 35Ω
Rotational losses =1500 W
Find starting torque T1 = ? If =?
R01 = R1 + R2/ = 0.3 + 0.25 =0.55 Ω

X01 = X1 + X2/ = 0.6 + 0.6 =1.2 Ω
Z01 = √ (R012 + X012 )=√0.552 + 1.22 = 1.32Ω
S = R2/ / √{R12 +(X1 + X2 / )2 } = 0.25 /√0.32 +( 0.12)2

= 0.25 / √1.53 = 0.2021
∴ NS = N/ (1-S) = 1450 / (1-0.2) = 1812 rpm
I2/ = If = Vph / √{( R1 + R2/ )2 +( X1 + X2/ )2 }
= 400/√3 (Vph = VL / √3 let motor Y connected)

√ (0.55)2 + (1.2)2
Or If = V/Z01 = 400/√3
1.32
= 175.16 amp.
Torque developed by rotor

Tg = (3 I2/ R2/ )/ S
2πNS /60
Or Tg = (3 I2/ R2/ ){(1-S)/ S } Nm (N = (1-S)NS )
2πN /60
Jo
= 3 x (175.16) x 0.25 x (0.8/0.2)

in
(2 x 3.14 x 1450) /60

@
= 606.86 Nm
SP
P
TShaft = (3 I2/ R2/ ){(1-S)/ S }- rotational losses Nm

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B
2πN /60
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(N = (1-S)NS )
= 606.86 - 1500/151.67
= 596.97 Nm
Q.27 A universal motor (ac–operated) has a 2-pole armature with 960 conductors. At a
certain load the motor speed is 5000 rpm and the armature current is 4.6 Amps, the
armature terminal voltage and input power are respectively 100 Volts and 300
Watts.
Compute the following, assuming an armature resistance of 3.5 ohm.
(i) Effective armature reactance.
(ii) Maximum value of useful flux/pole. (8)
Ans: P = 2; Z = 960; N= 5000
Ii =Ia= 4.6 amp ; V1 =100 volts
Pi =300W find Xa and φm = ?
P1 = V1I1cos φ
∴ cos φ = P1 / V1I1
= 300/ 100 x 4.6 = 0.652
Ebdc = V - IaRa or (NφPZ / 60A )
= 100 - 4.6 x 3.5
= 100 -16.1 = 83.9 volts
Ebac = Vcosφ - IaRa

Jo
in
= 100 x 0.652 - 4.6 x 3.5 = 49.11 volts

@
And V2 =((Ebac + IaRa )2 + (Ia Xa)2

SP
P
(4.6 Xa )2 = 1002 - (65-2)2

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21.16 Xa2 = 5749
Xa = 16.48 ohms
Ebdc = (NφmPZ / 60A)
∴ φm = E bdc x 60 A/ NPZ
Flux
∴ φm = 83.9 x 60 x 2 / 5000 x 2 x 960 (A=P)
= 1.048 x 10-3 wb
Q.28 A single phase 50 Hz generator supplies an inductive load of 5,000kW at a power

factor of 0.707 lagging by means of an overhead transmission line 20 km long. The
line resistance and inductance are 0.0195 ohm and 0.63 mH per km. The voltage at
the receiving end is required to be kept constant at 10 kV. Find the sending end
voltage and voltage regulation of the line. (8)
Ans:
Given 1 φ, 50 Hz ; cosφ = 0.707 lagging
Transmission length = 20 km
Generator supply inductive load = 5000kW = kVAR
R = 0.0195 ohms/km , L = 0.63 mH
VR = 10kV
Find sending end voltage VS = ? & % regulation =?; distance =20km
∆V = VS -VR ( drop in line )
(VS -VR )=RP + XQ/ VR {Active Power (P) = Reactive Power (Q)}
= 0.0195 x 20 x 5000 x 103 + 3.96 x 5000 x 10-3 / 10 x 103
Vs ={0.0195 x 20 x 5000 x 103 + 3.96 x 5000 x 10-3 / 10 x 103 } + 10 x
103 volts
= 1.2175 x 104 volts
Jo
= 12.175 kVolts
in
% Regulation = (VS -VR )/ VS x 100

@
SP
= 17.86%
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Q.29 A 37.7 HP, 220 V d.c shunt motor with a full load speed of 535 rpm is to be braked
by plugging. Estimate the value of resistance which should be placed in series with
it to limit the initial current to 200 A. (8)
Ans:
P0 = 37.7 HP = 37.7 x 735.5 W = 27.73 kW
NL = 535 rpm braked by plugging ; Ia = 200A
V =220 v
Under plugging :
Ia = V + Eb / (R + Ra )
and Eb = 27.73 x 103 / 200 (assume negligible losses)
= 138.65 Volts
200 = 220 + 138.65/(R + Ra )
R + Ra = 358.65 /200 = 1.79 ohm
R = value of added resistance in series with armature resistance
Ra = armature resistance
Q.30 The losses of a 30 kVA, 2000/200 V transformer are

Iron losses: 360 W
Full load copper losses : 480 W
Calculate the efficiency at unity power factor for (i) full load and (ii) half load. Also
determine the load for maximum efficiency; also compute the iron and copper losses
for this maximum efficiency condition. (12)
Ans:
Jo
in
Given: 30 kVA, 2000/ 200 Volts, Wi =360 W

Wc = 480 W, cosΦ=1
@
SP
(i) at full load unity p.f.

Total losses = 360+480 = 840 W
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At Full load, output at unity p.f. = 301= 30 kW

B
Therefore, Efficiency = (30/(30+0.84)) 100

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(ii) At half load and unity p.f.
Wc = 480( ½)2 = 120 W
Wi = 360 W
Total losses = 360+120 = 480 W
At half load, output at unity p.f = 30/21= 15 kW
Therefore, Efficiency = (15/(15+0.48)) 100
= 96.90 %
(iii) The load for maximum efficiency and condition for max. efficiency.
Efficiency ( ή ) = ( V1I1 cosΦ - losses )/ V1I1 cosΦ
= ( V1I1 cosΦ - I12R01- Wi )/ V1I1 cosΦ
I 1 Ro 1 Wi
=1 −
V 1 R 1 cos Φ V 1 R 1 cos Φ
Differentiating above equation for maximum efficiency
Therefore,
dn R01 Wi
=0- - =0
dI1 V1cosΦ V1I1cosΦ
and
R01 Wi
=
V1cosΦ V1I1cosΦ
Therefore,
Wi = Wc
and load current, Il = (√ Wi /R02 )
Q.31 A 22 KV, 3 phase star-connected turbo- alternator with a synchronous impedance of

1.4 Ω /phase is delivering 240 MW at unity p.f. to a 22 KV grid. If the excitation is
increased by 25%, then the turbine power is increased till the machine delivers 280
MW. Calculate the new current and power factor. (10)
Ans:
Given : VL = 33 kV, 3 phase, star connected Synchronous Generator
∴ Vph = 33/√3 = 19.1 kV
Zph = 1.4Ω
P01 = 240 MW = 240 x 106 Watt
Jo
cos Φ 1 = 1
in
Ψ2 = 1.25Ψ1 (Flux / excitation)

@
P02 = 280 MW = 280 x 106 Watt

SP
Find IL2 = ? ; cos Φ 2 =?

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B
Eg1 /ph = Vph1 + Iph1 Zph

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= (33 x 103 /√3) + {(240 x 106 /√3 x 33 x 103) x 1.4}

(P01 =√3 VL1 IL1 cos Φ1 & IL1 = Iph 1)
= 24.98 x 103 volts
≈ 25 kV
Now
E g1/ph Ψ1
=
E g 2/ph Ψ2
Ψ2 = 1.25Ψ1 , due to 25% increased excitation )
Ψ2
Eg2 /ph = Eg1 /ph *
Ψ1
∴ Eg2 /ph = 31.23kV
or Eg2 /ph = Vph + I2 Zph
I2 ph = Eg2 -V/Zph = 12.125 x 103 / 1.4
= 8.66 kA
Now P02 =√3 VL IL2 cos Φ 2 ( IL2 = Iph 2 : VL = VL1 = VL2 ; P02 = 280 MW )
cos Φ 2 = P02 /√3 VL IL2
= 280 x 10 6 / √3 x 33 x 8.66 x 106
= 280 / 495
= 0.565 leading
Q.32 A 250 V DC shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.55 Ω and runs with a full
load armature current of 30A. The field current remaining constant, if an additional
resistance of 0.75 Ω is added in series with the armature, the motor attains a speed of
633 rpm. If now the armature resistance is restored back to 0.55 Ω , find the speed
with (i) full load and (ii) twice full load torque. (12)
Ans:
Given Ra =0.55 Ω,
RT =0.75 additional resistance in series with armature
V = 250V
Ia = 30A at full load Then N2 = 633 rpm
Ish = Constt.
Find N1 = ? at full load ; N3 = ? at double load
N1 α V - Ia1Ra
Jo
N2 α V - Ia2 (Rt+Ra) Ia1 = Ia2 = 30 Amp; If =constt.

in
N 1 V − I a1 Ra
∴ =
@
N2 − a2 Ra
SP
P
∴ = 250 – 30 x 0.55 . = 233.5

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250 – 30 (0.55 + 0.75) 211

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N2
= 1.106
N1
N1 = N2 *1.106 = 700.5
N1 = 701 r.p.m at full load without Rt
Speed N3 at twice full load torque without Rt
N 1 V − I a1 Ra
=
N3 − a3 Ra
∴ =. 250 – 30 x 0.55 . = 233.5

250 – 60 * 0.55 217
N1
= 1 . 076
N3
∴N3 = N1 / 1.076 = 701/1.076 = 651 rpm
Speed of motor at twice full load torque = 651 rpm
Q.33 A 4-pole, 3 phase, 400 V, 50 Hz, induction motor has the following parameters for its
circuit model (rotor quantities referred to the stator side) on an equivalent-star basis:
R 1 = 1.6Ω. X1 = 2.4Ω. R 12 = 0.48 Ω, X 12 = 1.2Ω and = 40 Ω . Rotational
losses are 720 W. Neglect stator copper losses. For a speed of 1470 rpm, calculate the
input current, input power factor, net mechanical power output, torque and efficiency.
(12)
Ans:
Given:
P =4
VL = 400 V
f = 50 HZ
R1 = 1.6 Ω, X1 = 2.4 Ω ; R2/ =0.48 Ω ; X2/ = 1.2 Ω
Xm = X0 = 40 Ω
Rotational losses = 720 W; Wi = 0 Watt
N=1470 rpm
Jo
Find I1 = ? ; cos Φ = ? ; Pmo = ?; TS = ? ; η=?

in
NS = 120 f / P = 120 x 50 / 4 = 1500 rpm

@
SP
Therefore, s = (Ns – N)/ NS = (1500 – 1470)/1500 = 0.02

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Input current I1 = V1 / Z01

B
V1 =400 V; Let Ro is negligible

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Z01 = Z1 + ZAB ; where ZAB is the impedance between point A and B

Z1 = (R1 + jX1) = (1.6 + j 2.4)
ZAB = j Xm [ R12/S + jX/2 ] / { (R/2/S) + jX/2 + j Xm}
= j40 (0.48 / 0.02 + j1.2) / {0.48 / 0.02 + j (1.2 + 40)}
= {j40 (24 + j 1.2)}/ [24 + j (41.2)]
= {(j960 – 48) x (24 – j41.2)}/{(24 + j41.2)(24 – j41.2) }
= {j960 x 24 + 960 x 41.2 – 48 x 24 + j 48 x 41.2}/{ (24)2+ (41.2)2}
= j 23040 +38400 + j 1977.6
= (38400 + j 25017.6 )/ (576 + 1697.44)

= 16.89 + j 11
ZAB = 16.9 + j11 = 20.16 ∟33o
∴ Z01 = (1.6 + j 2.4) + (16.9 + j11) = 18.5+ j13.4 = 22.84 ∟35.9 o
(i) ∴ I1 = V1/Z01 = (400/√3 ) ∟0 o / 22.84 ∟35.9 o = 10.24 ∟-35.9 o
(ii) p.f = cos Φ
= cos 35.9o
= 0.81
(iii) Mech. total power = (1-S)P2 ; Where P2 is the power of air gap
2
= (1-0.02) 3I2 (R2/ / S)
= 0.98 x 3 x I21 RAB
= 0.98 x 3 x (10.24)2 + 16.9
= 5209.95
= 5210 Watt
Net Mech. Power = Total Mechanical Power – Rotational Losses
= 5210 – 720
Pmo = 4490 Watt
(iv) Net Torque = Pmo / ( 2 Π N/60)

= 4490 / (2 x 3.14 x 1470/60)
N = 1500 (1-0.02) = 1470 rpm
= 4490 x 60 / 6.28 x 1470 = 29.18 Nm
Jo
TS = 29.18 Nm
in
(v) output power = 4490

@
(a) Stator ‘core’ losses W1 = 0

SP
(b) Stator ‘Cu’ losses = 3I12 R1 = 3 x (10.24)2 x 1.6

P
= 3 x 167.77
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= 503.31 Watt
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(c) Rotor ‘Cu’ losses = 3I2 /2 R2 = SP2

= 0.02 x 3 x (10.24)2 x 16.9
= 106.32 Watt
(d) Rotational losses = 720 Watt
Therefore: Efficiency (η) = (output / output + losses) x 100
= 4490 x 100/ 4490 + (0+503.31+106.32+720)

= 77.39 %
Q.34 A universal motor has a 2-pole armature with 1020 conductors. When it is operated
on load with a.c. supply with an armature voltage of 150, the motor speed is 5400
RPM. The other data is:
Input power : 360 W
Armature current : 5.2 A
Armature resistance: 5.5 Ω
Compute (i) the effective armature reactance and (ii) maximum value of armature
flux per pole. (10)
Ans: Given:
P=2; Va = 150 V; N = 5400 rpm
Z=1020; Pi = 360 MW; Ia = 5.2A;
Ra = 5.5Ω
Find Xa =?; Φmax per pole=?
f = NP/120 = 5400 x 2 /120 = 90Hz

E abc = Va - IaRa
= 150 – 5.2 x 5.5
= 121.4 V
Now Eb = NΦ PZ/60A
∴ Φ m = Eb x 60 A / NPZ
= 121.4 x 60 x 2 / 5400 x 2 1020
= 1.4568 x 10 4 / 1.102 x 106
Jo
= 1.322 x 10-2 wb per pole

in
Now Ia = Va /Za
@
∴ Za = Va / Ia = 150 /5.2 = 28.84 Ω

SP
Za =√Ra2 +Xa2 = 28.84 Ω

P U
∴ Ra2 +Xa2 = 832 Ω

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Xa2 = 832 - Ra2

= 832 -5.52
= 801.75
∴ Xa =2 8.32 Ω
Q.35 A 50 KVA, 2300/230 V, 60 Hz transformer has a high voltage winding resistance of

0.65 Ω and a low-voltage winding resistance of 0.0065 Ω . Laboratory tests showed
the following results:
Open circuit test: V = 230 V, I =5.7A, P = 190 W
Short circuit test: V=41.5 V, I=21.7 A, P=No wattmeter was used.
(a) Compute the value of primary voltage needed to give rated secondary voltage
when the transformer is connected as a step-up one and is delivening 50 KVA at
a power factor of 0.8 lagging. (12)
(b) Compute the efficiency under conditions of part (a). (4)
Ans:
Given : P0 = 50 kVA, V1 = 2300V , V2 = 230V, f = 60 Hz
R1 = 0.65Ω (H.V.Side), R2 = 0.0065Ω (L.V Side)
Lab test: O.C (H.V.Side) : V= 230 V, I =5.7A, P = 190 watt
S.C (L.V.Side), : V= 41.5 V, I =21.7A, P = ? watt
Find (a) V1 for rated V2 when acts as step up transformer and delivering 50kVA at
cos Φ = 0.8
(b) efficiency
At S.C test
Z02 = VSC / I2 = 41.5 /21.7 = 1.912Ω & K =1/10
∴Z01 = Z02 / K2 = 1.912 x 102 = 191.2 Ω
R01 = R1 + R2/ = 0.65 + 0.0065/100 (K =1/10, H.V side is R2)
R01 = 0.13 Ω
R02 = R01 x K2 = 0.13 / 100 = 0.0013 Ω
Now X01 = √ Z012 – R201 = √ (191.2)2 – (0.13)2
X01 = 191.2 Ω
& X02 = √ Z022 – R202 = √ (1.912)2 – (0.0013)2
Jo
X01 = 1.912 Ω
in
Total transformer voltage drop referred to secondary

@
VD2 = I2 ( R02 cosΦ2 + X02 sinΦ2)

SP
= 21.7 ( 0.0013 x 0.8 + 1.92x 0.6) = 21.7 (1.153)

P
= 25.02 Volts
U
∴V1/ = V1 + VD2 = 230 + 25.02 = 255.02 Volts.

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∴V1 =255.02 volts for V2 = 2300 volts rated value as step up.
Efficiency of Transformer = output/ Input
= 50 x 1000 x 0.8 .
output + losses (core Losses + Cu losess)
40000 .
40000 + 190 + I1 R1+ I22 R2
2
40000 .
40000 + 190 + (5.7)2 x 0.65+ (21.7)2 x 0.0065
(note: low voltage winding is short circuited)
40000 .
40000 + 32.49 x 0.65+ 470.89 x 0.0065
40000 .
40000 + 21.12 + 3.06
= 99.93%
Q.36 A three-phase, 335-hp, 2000V, six pole, 60 Hz, Y-connected squirrel-cage

induction motor has the following parameters per phase that are applicable at
normal slips:
r1 = 0.2Ω. x1 = x12 = 0.707Ω,
r21 = 0.203Ω. rc = 450Ω
x φ = 77Ω
The rotational losses are 4100 watts. Using the approximate equivalent circuit,
compute for a slip of 1.5%.
a. the line power factor and current.
b. developed torque.
c. efficiency. (8+4+4)
Ans:
Jo
Given: 3 phase , 335 HP, 50 Hz, V = 2000V Induction motor

in
P0 = 335 x 735.5 watt Rotational losses = 4100 watt; Slip (s) = 0.015
@
P = 6 nos., Y connected
SP
∴ IL = Iph & VL =√3 Vph

Vph = VL / √3 = 2000 / √3 = 1154.70 volts
P U
B
Find : p.f = ? , Line current IL = ? , Tg = ? , and η = ?

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= www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
Sol: (i) R1 = 0.2Ω, R2/ = 0.203 Ω

X1 = X2/ = 0.707 Ω
x0 = 77 Ω , R0 = 450 Ω
R01 = R1 + R2/ = 0.2 + 0.203 = 0.403 Ω
X01 = X1 + X2/ = 0.707 + 0.707 = 1.414 Ω
Z01 =√ R012 + X012 = √ (0.403)2 + (1.414)2 = 1.47 Ω
Load current I2/ = IL

∴ I2/ = VPh / (R1 + R2/ / s) + j( X1 + X2/)
= 1154.7 ∟00 / (0.2 + 0.203/0.015) + j (0.707 + 0.707)
= 1154.7 ∟00 /13.733 + j 1.414 = 1154.7 ∟00 / 13.80 ∟5.880
= 83.67 ∟-5.880
∴ IL = 83.67 Amp.
P.f = cos ( -5.880) = -0.99 lagging
(ii) Torque generated (Tg) or developed = (9.55 x 3 I2/2 R2/ / s)/ NS

{NS = 120 f /p = 120x50/6 = 1000 rpm}
= (9.55 x 3 x (83.67)2 x 0.203 / 0.015)/ 1000
Tg = 2.714 x 103 Nm
(iii) Efficiency of machine = output / output + losses

Total losses = Rotational losses + rotor ‘Cu’ losses + stator ‘Cu’ losses
Rotational losses = 4100 watt = 4.1 kW
Jo
rotor ‘Cu’ losses = 3 I2/2 + R2 = 3 x (83.67)2 x 0.203 = 4.26 kW

in
stator ‘Cu’ losses = 3 I1/2 R1 = 3 x (86.2)2 x 0.2 = 4.458 kwatt

@
∴ Total losses = 4.1 + 4.26 + 4.46 = 12.82 kW

SP
I1 = I2/2 + I0 = 83.67 + 2.53 = 86.20 Amp

I0 = VPh / √ R02 + X02
P U
= 1154.7 / √ 4502 + 772

B
= 2.529Amp
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η = {246.40 / ( 246.40 + 12.82) }x100

= 95.05%
Q.37 A 2300-V, three phase, 60 Hz, star-connected cylindrical synchronous motor has a
synchronous reactance of 11 Ω per phase. When it delivers 200 hp, the efficiency is
found to be 90% exclusive of field loss, and the power-angle is 15 electrical degrees
as measured by a stroboscope. Neglect ohmic resistance and determine:
(a) the induced excitation per phase.
(b) the line current I a
(c) the power factor (8+4+4)
Ans:
Given : 2300V , 3 phase, 60Hz, Synch. Motor
XS = 11Ω /ph , Star connected, VPh = 2300/ √3 V
P0 = 200 hp = 200 x 735.5 = 147.1 kW
η = 90%
∴ Pi = P0 /0.9 = 163.44 kW
Power angle α = 150 ( electrical)
Find: induced excitation / ph (Eg ) = ?
Line Current Ia = ?
Power Factor Cos Φ =?
(i) Pi = 3 x Eg /ph x VPh ) x Sin α

XS
∴ Eg /ph = Pi XS / 3x VPh x Sin α
= 163.44 x 103 x 11 / 3 x 1327.9 x sin 150
Eg /ph = 1743.68 volts (Due to over excitation)
Given ZS = 0 + j 11 and R=0

ER = ( VPh – Eg cos α) + j 1743.68 sin 150
= - 356.36 + j 451.296
∴ Ia = ER /ZS = (-356.36 + j 451.30) / (0+j11)
Jo
= 41.02 + j 32.42
Ia = 52.28 ∟38.320
in
@
(ii) Line current = 52.28 Amp

SP
(iii) & p.f cos Φ = cos 38.320 = 0.78

P U
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Q.38 When a 250-V, 50 hp, 1000 rpm d.c shunt motor is used to supply rated output power
to a constant torque load, it draws an armature current of 160A. The armature circuit
has a resistance of 0.04 Ω and the rotational losses are equal to 2 KW. An external
resistance of 0.5 Ω is inserted in series with the armature winding. For this condition
compute
(i) the speed
(ii) the developed power
(iii) the efficiency assuming that the field loss is 1.6 K.W (8+4+4)
Ans:
Given VL = 250 V P0 = 50 hp = 50 x 735.5 36.78 kw
N1 = 1000 rpm Ia = 160 amp. , Ra= 0.04Ω, R = 0.5 Ω ,
Rotational losses = 2 kw ; Field losses = 1.6 kW
Find : speed after series resistance R in armature circuit N2 =?

Power developed (Pm) = ?
Efficency (η) = ?
(i) Eb1 = N1(Φ PZ/60A)

And V = Eb1 + IaRa
Eb1 = 250 – 160 x0.04 = 243.60 volts
Now Eb2 when R = 0.5 connected in series with armature
∴ Eb2 = 250 -160 x (0.04 +0.5)
= 163.6 volts
Jo
Now Eb1 / Eb2 = N1 /N2 (when Φ1 = Φ 2)

in
@
N2 = N1 x Eb2 / Eb1 = 1000 x 163.6 / 243.6 = 672 rpm

SP
(ii) Now Input power developed in armature = Eb2 Ia

P U
= 163.6 x 160 = 26.18 kW

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Total losses = Armature ‘Cu’ Losses + Field loss + Rotational losses
=(Ia2 Ra/ /1000) + 1.6 kW + 2.0kW
= (1602 x 0.54/ 1000) + 1.6 +2.0
= 17.42 kW
(iii) Efficiency = (Pi – losses / Pin) x 100
= (26.18-17.42 / 26.18) x100
= 33.46%
Q.39 The following data were obtained on a 20KVA, 50Hz, 2000/200V distribution
transformer
Open Circuit Test (on L.V. side): 200V, 4A, 120W
Short Circuit Test (on H.V. side): 60V, 10A, 300W
Draw the approximate equivalent circuit of the transformer referred to H.V. Side. (8)
Ans:
Given : 20 kVA, 50Hz , 2000/ 200V
O.C Test : V0 = 200 V ; I0 = 4A ; W1 = 120 W
S.C Test : VSC= 60 V ; ISC = 10A ; WSC = 300 W
Primary equivalent secondary induced voltage

E2/ = E2 / K
V2/ = V2 /K
& I2/ = KI2
From O.C Test:
V0I0 cosΦ0 = W0
∴ cosΦ0 = W0 / V0I0 = 120 / 200 x 4 = 0.15
∴ sinΦ 0 = 0.988
Jo
Now Iw = I0 cosΦ0 = 4 x 0.15 = 0.60 Amp.

in
Iu = I0 sin Φ0 = 4 x 0.988 = 3.95 amp.

@
SP
R0 = V0 / Iw = 200 /0.6 = 333.33 Ω

P
X0 = V0 / Iu = 200 /3.95 = 50.63 Ω

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From S.C test:

Z0 = VSC / ISC = 60 / 10 = 6Ω
and K = 200 /2000 = 1/10 = 0.1
Z01 = Z02 / k2 = 60 / (1/10)2 = 600Ω
Now ISC2 R02 = W SC
∴ R02 = W SC/ ISC2 = 300/100 =3Ω
R01 = R02 / k2 = 3/(1/10)2 =300Ω
X01 = √( Z012 - R012) = √( 6002 - 3002)
X01= 519.62Ω
Q.40 The efficiency of a 3-phase 400V, star connected synchronous motor is 95% and it
takes 24A at full load and unity power factor. What will be the induced e.m.f. and
total mechanical power developed at full load and 0.9 power factor leading? The
synchronous impedance per phase is (0.2+j2)Ω. (9)
Ans:
Given : 3Φ , 400V star connected synchronous motor
Jo
Output = 95% of input

in
VPh = 400/√3
@
at p.f = 1 ; Ia = 24 amp. ; V = VPh = 230.94 volt

SP
ZS = (0.2 + j2) Ω = 2∟84.29 Ω

Find : Eb at 0.9 p.f leading
P U
Mechanical power developed ?

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cos Φ = 0.9
∴ Φ = 25.840
ER = IZS = 24 (0.2 +j2) volts
= (4.8 +j48) volts = 48.23∟84.290
θ =84.290
Now at leading p.f
Eb/ph = V + IaZS cos {180 – (θ + Φ)} + j IaZS sin {180 – (θ - Φ )}
∴ Eb/ph = 231+24x2cos {180 – (84.29 + 25.84)} + j24x2 sin
{180 – (84.29 - 25.84)}
=231 + 48 cos (69.87) + j 48 x 0.938
= 231 + 16512 + j45
Eb/ph = 247.5 + j 45
Eb/ph = 251.55∟10.3
Synchronous motor input power = √3 VLILcos Φ
= √3 VIacos Φ = √3 x 400 x 24 x 0.9
= 14,964.92 watt
2
total copper losses = 3 I Ra
= 3 x (24)2 x 0.2 = 3 x 576 x 0.2
= 345.6 watt
∴ Mechanical output developed = Input – losses
= 14964.92 -345.6
= 14619.32 watt
Q.41 A 200V shunt motor with a constant main field drives a load, the torque of which
varies at square of the speed, when running at 600 r.p.m., it takes 30A. Find the speed
at which it will run and the current it will draw, if a 20Ω resistor is connected in series
with armature. Neglect motor losses. (9)
Ans:
Given: V =200v, shunt motor
N1 = 600 rpm
I1 = 30A = Ia1
Find : N2 & I2 ; when R =20Ω added with Ra in series
Eb1 = V –Ia Ra (losses are negligible , ∴ IaRa =0)

Jo
Eb1 = V = 200v (Ia Ra = 0)

in
T1 = 9.55 Eb1 I1 / N1 = 9.55 x 200 x30 / 600

@
= 573Nm
T α N2
SP
∴ T1 / T2 = N1 2 / N2 2
P U
∴ N2 2 / T2 = N1 2 / T1 = 6002 / 573
B
Or N2 = 600 √ T2 / 573 (1)

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and N1 / N2 = Eb1 / Eb2 . Φ2 /Φ1 (Φ2 = Φ1 = constt)

∴ N1 / N2 = Eb1 / Eb2
or N2 = N1 (Eb2 / Eb1)
N2 = 600 (Eb2 / 200)
N2 = 3Eb2 (2)
And
Eb2 =200 -20I2 (3)
(Eb2 = V –Ia Ra)
Eb2 = N2 / 3 from eqn. no. (2) put in eqn. no (3)

∴ N2 = 600-60I2 (4)
T1 / T2 = N1 2 / N2 2 = I1/ I2
∴ 600 2 / N2 2 = 30 / I2
30 / I2 = 600 2 /( 600-60I2 )2 (N2 = 600-60I2)
2
30 / I2 = 600 x 600 / 60 x 60 ( 10-I2 )
10I2 = 3(100 + I22 - 20 I2)
10I2 = 300 + 3I22 - 60 I2
∴ 3I22 -70 I2 + 300 = 0
I2 = 70 ± √ 4900 – 4 x 3 x300 = 5.66 or 17.66
6
I2 = 5.66 amp
∴ N2 = 600-60I2
= 600 – 60 x 5.66 = 260.55 rpm
N2 = 260 rpm
I2 = 5.66 amp, 17.66 amp is not possible for N2
Q.42 A 3-phase induction motor has a starting torque of 100% and a maximum torque of
200% of full load torque. Find
(i) Slip at maximum torque.
(ii) Full load slip.
(iii) Neglect the stator impedance (8)
Ans: Given : (Tst / Tf ) = 1 & (Tmax / Tf ) = 2
∴ (Tst / Tmax ) = 1/2 = 0.5

Jo
in
let a = R2 / X2
@
SP
∴ (Tst / Tmax ) = 2a /(1+a2) = 0.5/1

P U
2a /(1+a2) = 1/2
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4a = 1+a2
a2 - 4a + 1 = 0
a = 4 ± √ 16 – 4 x 1 x 1
2
a = 4 ± √ 12
2
a = 3.73 or 0 .2679
a = slip at max torque = 0.2679
Now, Tf /Tmax = 1/2 = 2aSf / a2 + Sf2 (Sf = full load slip)
2 x 0. 2679 x Sf /{(0.2679)2 + Sf2 } = 1/2
0.5358 Sf / {(0.0717) + Sf2 } = 1/2
∴ 1.071 x Sf =(0.0717) + Sf2
Sf2 + 1.071Sf + 0.0717 =0
Sf = 0.9995 or 0.07145
∴ full load slip = 0.07145
Q.43 A universal motor (a.c. operated) has a 2-pole armature with 960 conductors. At a
certain load the motor speed is 5000 r.p.m. and the armature current is 4.6A. The
armature terminal voltage and input are respectively 100 V and 300 W. Compute the
following, assuming an armature resistance of 3.5Ω.
(i) Effective armature reactance
(ii) Max. value of useful flux per pole. (8)
Ans: Given: P=2 ; Z =960 ; N1 =5000 rpm ; Ia1= 4.6 amp

Va = 100v = Ia1Ra
Pi = 300 watt
Jo
Ra = 3.5 ohms
Find Xa = ?
in
Φm / pole = ?
@
Pi = VI cos Φ
SP
P
∴ cos Φ = Pi / VI = 300 / 100 x 4.6 = 300 / 460

U
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= 0.652
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Now Ebac = V cos Φ - IaRa = 100 x 0.652 – 4.6 x 3.5

= 49.1 volts
and V = ( Ebac + IaRa)2 + (IaXa)2
2
1002 = ( 49.1 + 4.6 x 3.5)2 + (4.6Xa)2

(4.6Xa)2 = 1002 - ( 49 + 16.1)2 = 10000 – (65.2)2
= 10,000 – 4251 = 5748.96
21.16 Xa2 = 5748.96
∴ Xa = √5748.96 / 21.16
= 16.48 Ω
and Ebdc = V- IaRa = 100 - 4.6 x 3.5= 83.9 V
and Ebdc = NΦmPZ / 60A
83.9 = 5000 Φm x 2 x 960/ 60 x 2
Φm = 83.9 / 8.0 x 104 = 1.048 x 10-3 wb
(i) ∴ effective armature reactance = 16.48 Ω
(ii) Max. flux per pole = 1.048 x 10-3
Q.44 Using normal Π method, find the sending end voltage and voltage regulation of a
250Km, 3 phase, 50Hz transmission line delivering 25MVA at 0.8 lagging p.f. to a
balanced load to 132KV. The line conductors are spaced equilaterally 3m apart. The
conductor resistance is 0.11Ω/Km and its effective diameter is 1.6 cm. Neglect
leakage. (8)
Ans: Given:
3Φ , 50Hz, d = 250km
P0 = 25mVA, cos Φ = 0.8 (lagging), VR = 132 KV
VR/ph = 132000/ √ 3 V
Spacing between conductors = 3m
R = 0.11 Ω/km
Dia (D) = 1.6 x 10-2 m
Find : Vs= ? and % regulation =?
Iph = Po / VR/ph
Jo
I = 25 x 106/ 132 x 1000 = 25000/132

in
@
Line loss = 3 I2 R = 3 x (25000 / 132)2 x 0.11 x 250

SP
Resistance / phase = 0.11 x 250 = 27.5 Ω

P U
VS/ph = VR/ph + IZ ; ( Z = R/Phase)

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= (132000/ √ 3 ) + (25000/132) x 27.5

= 76210.236 + 5208.333
= 81418.569
= 81.42 KV
% Regulation = (VS – VR/ VS) x 100
=((81.42 -76.21)/ 81.42 )x 100
= 6.39 %
Q.45 A 3-phase transformer bank consisting of a three one-phase transformer is used to
step-down the voltage of a 3-phase, 6600V transmission line. If the primary line
current is 10A, calculate the secondary line voltage, secondary line current and output
kVA for the following connections:
(i) Y/∆ and (ii) ∆ /Y. The turns ratio is 12. Neglect losses. (8)
Ans: (i) Y/∆
Given turn ratio = 12
V1 = 6600V, I1 = 10A,
V2 = ? , I2 = ?
o/ρ = kVA
IPP = Phase current in primary winding
ILP = Line current in primary winding
For Y : Vp = VL/√3 , Ip = IL
∆ : Vp = VL , Ip = IL/√3
VPP /VPS = N1 / N2
VLP /VLS = √3 VPP/VPS = √3 N1/N2 = 12 √3
VLS = VLP / 12√3 = 6600 / 12 √3
VLS = 315.33 Volts
IPP / IPS = N2 / N1
ILP / ILS = IPP / √3 x 1/ IPS =(1/√3 ) x ( N2 / N1)
ILS = (1/√3) x ( N1 / N2) x ILP = 12 √3 x 10 Amp.

Jo
= 120√ 3 Amp.
in
@
o/ρ kVA = VLS x ILS

SP
= 6600 x 12√3 x 10
P
12 √3
U
o/ρ = 66kVA
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(ii) ∆/Y
For Y : Vp = VL/√3 , Ip = IL
∆ : Vp = VL , Ip = IL/√3
VPP /VPS = N1 / N2
VLP /VLS = VPP/√3 VPS = 1/√3 x N1/N2 = 12 /√3
VLS =√3VLP / 12 = √3 x 6600 / 12
VLS = 550√3 Volts
IPP / IPS = N2 / N1
ILP / ILS = √3IPP / IPS =√3 N2 / N1 = √3/12
ILS = 12/√3 x 10 = 40√3 Amp.

o/ρ kVA = VLS x ILS
= √3 x 6600 x 12 x10
12 x √3
o/ρ = 66kVA
Q.46 A 3300V, delta-connected motor has a synchronous reactance per phase (delta) of
18Ω. It operates at a leading power factor of 0.707 when drawing 800kW from the
mains. Calculate its excitation emf. (8)
√3 VL Ia cos Φ = √3 x 3300 x Ia x 0.707 =80,000

Jo
in
∴ Line current =198A, Phase current Ia =198 √3 =114.3A

@
ZS = 18Ω : Ia ZS = 114.3 x 18 = 2058 V

SP
Φ = cos-1 0.707 ; Φ = 45o ; θ = 90o

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cos ( θ+Φ ) = cos 135o = -cos 45o = - 0.707

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From Fig, we find

Eb2 = 30002 + 20582 -2 x 3000 x 2058 x -0.707
Eb = 4973 V
Q.47 The magnetization characteristic of 4-pole DC series motor may be taken as
proportional to current over a part of the working range, on this basis the flux per pole
is 4.5 mWb/A. The load requires a gross torque proportional to the square of the
speed equal to 30 Nm at 1000 rev/min. The armature is wave-wound and has 492
conductors. Determine the speed at the which the motor will run and current it will
draw when connected to a 220V supply, the total resistance of the motor being 2.0 Ω.
(7)
Ans:
Ea = (φ N Z / 60 ) x (P/A)
= (4.5 x 10-3 x I a) x N x 492 (4/2)
60
= 0.0738 N I a (1)
The torque developed :
T = φ I a Z (P/A) = (1/2π) (4.5 x 10 -3 I a) x 492 (4/2)
= 0.705 I a 2 (2)
Further Ea = V - Ia (Ra + R Se ) = 220 -2 Ia (3)
Substituting equation (1) in (3)
0.0738 N Ia = 220 - 2 Ia
Ia = 220 / 2 + 0.0738N (4)
Substituting the expression for Ia in equation (2)
T = 0.705 (220/2+0.0738 N)2
Given , TL = KL N2
From the given data KL can be calculated as
KL = 30/10002 = 3 x 10 -5 Nm/rpm
Under steady operation condition TL =T
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Or 3 x 10-5 N2 = 0.705(200 / 2+ 0.0738 N)2

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N = 662.6 rpm
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Substituting for N in equation (4)

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Ia = 220 / (2 + 0.0738 x 663.2) =4.32 Amp.

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Q.48 A 150kW, 3000V, 50Hz, 6-pole star-connected induction motor has a star-connected
slip-ring rotor with a transformation ratio of 3.6 (stator/rotor). The rotor resistance is
0.1Ω/phase and its per phase leakage inductance is 3.61 mH. The stator impedance
may be neglected. Find (i) the starting current and torque on rated voltage with short-
circuited slip-rings, and (ii) the necessary external resistance to reduce the rated
voltage starting current to 30A and the corresponding starting torque.
Ans: X2 = 2Π x 50 x 3.61 x 10-3 = 1.13Ω

K = 1/3.6
⇒ R2/ = R2 / K2 = 3.62 x 0.1 = 1.3Ω
X2 = 3.62 x 1.13 = 14.7 Ω
/
(i) IST = V/ √ (R2/ )2 + (X2/)2 = (3000/√3) / √ (1.3 )2 + (14.7)2

= 117.4 A
NS = 120 x 50 /6 = 1000 rpm = 50/3 rps
TST = (3/2ΠNS ) {V2/ (R2/ )2 + (X2/)2}
= (3 / 2 Π x 50/3 ) x { (3000/√3)2 / (1.3 )2 + (14.7)2}
= 513 Nm
(ii) Let the new resistance be R for IST =30A

IST = V/ √ (R )2 + (X2/)2 = 3000√3 / √ (R )2 + (14.7)2
R2 =(3000 /√3 /30 ) - (14.7)2
= (100/√3)2 -14.72
R = 55.83Ω
Necessary external resistance = R-R2/ = 55.83 – 1.3 = 54.53Ω
Corresponding starting torque
TST1 = 3 / 2Π (50/3) x {(3000 /√3)2 x R / (R )2 + (14.7)2}
= 3 / 2Π (50/3) x {30 x 30 x 55.83 / 1}
TST = 1438.89 Nm
Q.49 An ac operated universal motor has a 2-pole armature with 960 conductors. At a
certain load the motor speed is 5000 rpm and the armature current is 4.6A; the
armature terminal voltage and input are respectively 100 V and 300 W. Calculate the
following quantities assuming an armature resistance of 3.5 Ω.
(i) Effective armature reactance
(ii) Max. value of useful flux/pole. (8)
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The operating conditions in terms of voltage and current of the armature circuit are
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shown in the Fig :

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100 x 4.6 cos φ = 330 W

Or φ = 49.3o (lagging because of the reactive nature of the circuit)
(a) From the circuit the following can be written
100 x ∠49.3o - Ea ∠0o = 4.6∠0o

3.5 x j Xa
Ea is in phase with Ia
Or 65.2 + j75.8 - Ea = 16.1 + j 4.6 Xa
Equating real & imaginary parts

Ea = 65.2 - 16.1 = 49.1 V
Xa = 75.8 / 4.6 = 16.5 Ω
(b) Ea = 1/√2 {(φ N Z / 60 ) x (P/A)}

φ = √2 x 49.1 x 60
5000 x 960
= 0.868 mwb
Q.50 Define voltage regulation of a single phase transformer. The primary and secondary
winding of a 40kVA, 6600/250V, single phase transformer have resistance of 10 ohm
and 0.02 ohm respectively. The total leakage reactance is 35 ohm as referred to the
primary winding. Find full load regulation at a pf of 0.8 lagging. (8)
Ans: Primary Voltage V1 = 6600 V

Secondary Voltage V2 = 250 V
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Transformation ratio k = V2 / V1 = 250/6600 = 0.03788

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Equivalent resistance of transformer referred to secondary,

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Ro2 = k2R1 + R2 =( 0.03788)2 x 10 + 0.02

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= 0.03435Ω
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equivalent leakage reactance of transformer referred to secondary,

XO2 = K2 X01 = ( 0.03788)2 x 35 = 0.05022Ω
Secondary rated current , I2 = Rated kVA x 1000/ V2
= 40 x 1000 /250 = 160 A
Power factor cos Φ = 0.8 and sin Φ = √1-0.82 = 0.6
Full load regulation = I2 R02 cos Φ + I2 X02 sin Φ x 100
Eb
= 160 x 0.3435 x 0.8 + 160 x 0.05022 x0.6 x 100
250
= 3.687 %
Q.51 A star connected synchronous motor at 187 kVA, 3-φ, 2300V, 47A, 50Hz, 187.5 rpm
has an effective resistance of 1.5 ohm and a synchronous reactance of 20 ohm per
phase. Determine internal power developed by the motor when it is operating at rated
current and 0.8 power factor leading. (6)
Ans: Line voltage , VL = 2300V

Line Current IL = 47 A
Power Factor cos Φ = 0.8
Power supplied to the motor, P = √3 VL IL cosΦ
= √3 x 2300 x 47 x 0.8 = 1,49,780Watts
= 149.78 kW
Total Copper loss = 3 I2R
= 3 x (47)2 x 1.5 = 9,940 watts or 9.94 kW
Internal power developed = P - 3 I2R
= 149.78 – 9.94 = 139.84 kW
Q.52 A 220V dc shunt motor takes 22A at rated voltage and run at speed of 1,000 rpm. Its
field resistance is 100 ohm and armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. Compute the value of
additional resistance required in armature circuit to reduce the speed to 800 rpm when
(i) load torque is proportional to speed and (ii) when load torque varies as the square
of the speed. (10)
Ans: In normal Condition

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Line current , IL1 = 22A

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Shunt field current , Ish = V/ Rsh = 220 /100 = 2.2A

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Armature current, I a1 = IL1 –Ish = 22 – 2.2 = 19.8A

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Back emf, Eb1 = V – Ia1 Ra = 220 – 19.8 x 0.1 = 218.02 V

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Let the additional resistance required in armature current be of R ohms to reduce the
speed to 800 rpm when the load torque is proportional to speed.
T2 = T1 N2/ N1 = T1 800/ 1000 = 0.87
Or Ia2 Φ2 = 0.8Ia1 Φ 1
Or Ia2 = 0.8 x 19.8 = 15.84 A

Eb = V – Ia2 (R + Ra ) = 220 – 15.84 (R + 0.1)
=218.416 – 15.84 R
Since Eb2 / Eb1 = N2 /N1
(218.416 – 15.84R) / 218.02 = 800 / 1000
R = 2.778 Ω
(ii) Let the additional resistance required in the armature current be of R/
ohms to reduce the speed to 800 rpm when no load torque varies as the
square of the speed.
T3 = T1 x (N2 /N1)2 = T1 x (800 /1000)2 = 0.64 T1
Or Ia3 Φ3 = 0.64Ia1 Φ1
Ia3 = 0.64 x 19.8 = 12.672 A

Eb3 = V – Ia3 (R/ + Ra ) = 220 – 12.672 (R/ + 0.1)
= 218.7328- 12.672 R/
Since Eb3 / Eb1 = N3 /N1
(218.416 – 12.672 R/) / 218.02 = 800 / 1000
R/ = 3.497 Ω
Q.53 A 120V, 60 Hz, ¼ hp universal motor runs at 2000rpm and takes 0.6 Amp when
connected to a 120V dc source. Determine speed, torque and power factor of the
motor, when it is connected to a 120V, 60 Hz supply, and is loaded to take 0.6
Amp(rms). The resistance and inductance measured at terminals of the machine are
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20 ohm and 0.25H respectively. (8)

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Ans: When connected to DC supply

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Supply Voltage, V = 120V

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Current drawn, I = 0.6 A

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Back e.m.f, Eb = V-IR

= 120 – 0.6 x 20 = 108V
Speed, N dc = 2000 rpm
When connected to AC supply
Supply Voltage , V = 120V
Current drawn, I = 0.6 A
Resistance drop = IR = 0.6 x 20 = 12V
Counter emf, E = √[V2 – (IX)2 ]- IR
= √[(120)2 – (47.12)2 ]-12
= 98.36V
Speed Nac = Ndc x E

Eb
= 2000 x 98.36
108
= 1,821.5 rpm
Power factor , cos Φ = (E + IR)/V = (98.36 + 12)/ 120
= 0.92 lagging
Torque developed, T = E x I / (2Π N/60)
= 98.36 x 0.6 x 60/(2Π x 1821.5) = 0.31 Nm
Q.54 A single phase generator supplies an inductive load of 4800 KW at a power factor of
0.6 lagging by means of an overhead line which is 25 km long. The line resistance
and inductance are respectively 0.02 Ω and 0.58 m H per km. The voltage at the
receiving end is to be kept constant at 10.5 KV. Find the sending end voltage and the
voltage regulation of the line. (8)
Ans Given :
1Φ generator, inductive load, kVAR = 4800 kW
cos Φ = 0.6; distance = 25 km
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R = 0.02Ω/km L = 0.58 mH/km VR = 10.5 kV

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Find VS =? ; % regulation = ?
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Drop in line ∆V = VS - VR
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VS - VR = RP + XQ / VR
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Where R = total line resistance

P = Active Power transfer
Q = Reactive power transfer
VS = sending end voltage
VR = receiving end voltage
P = kW = Reactive power / tanΦ

= 4800 /1.333 = 3600kw
Q = 4800 kW
VS = 0.02 x 25 x 3600 + 4800 x 2 x 3.14 x 50 x 0.58 x 10-3 x 25 + VR
10500
= 19.225 + VR
= 19.225 + 10500
= 10.52 kV
% regulation = (VS - VR / VS ) x 100
= 0.19%
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PART - III
DESCRIPTIVES
Q.1 Draw and explain the phasor diagram of a transformer on load at a lagging power
factor.
(7)
Ans: (D)
Fig. AA1
Fig. AA2
Fig AA2 shows the phase diagram of a transformer on a load at lagging power factor
and corresponds to the equivalents circuit of transformer (Fig. AA1) in which all
quantities are referred to the primary. Thus V2 is the secondary terminal voltage
referred to the primary [where over bar implies a phasor].
2
N 
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R = Req = R1 + R2′ = R1 + R2  1 
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 N2 
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Where R1 and R2 are primary and secondary resistances, N1 and N2 are primary and
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secondary number of turns and X l1 and X l 2 are leakage reactances of primary and
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secondary windings.
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Also
2
N 
X = X eq = X l1 + X l′2 = X l1 +  1  X l2
 N2 
The voltage V1 which is applied to the primary can be written as
V 1 = V 2 + I (R + jX )
Q.2 Explain with proper phasor diagrams the operation of a 3 phase synchronous
machine with normal excitation at the following conditions:
(i) The machine is floating on the supply bus. (7)
(ii) The machine is working as a synchronous motor at no load. (7)
Ans:
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Fig B1 shows the circuit diagrams and phasor diagrams of a synchronous machine at
generating mode [Fig B1(a)& (c)] and motoring mode [Fig B1(b)&(d)] . The machine
is assumed to be connected to an infinite busbar of voltage Vt and its resistance is
taken to be zero. It is seen from [Fig B1(c)] that in the generating mode, the excitation
emf Ef leads Vt by an angle δ ; on the other hand in the motoring mode Ef lags Vt.
It can be inferred from the above that, when the machine is floating, it is working
neither as a generator nor as a motor and Ia will be equal to zero. E f and Vt will be
equal and have the same phase [Fig. B2]
When the machine is working as a synchronous motor at no load, the figures B1 (b)
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and (d) will hold good, but with a very small value for the current Ia; correspondingly
the angles δ and
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will take that much power which is the sum of friction and windage losses. [Fig B3]
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and is small. jI a X s will also be small.

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φwill be small. The reason for this is, that at no
Q.3 Draw the torque speed characteristics of a 3 phase induction motor and clearly
indicate the effect of change in rotor resistance. (7)
Ans: The Thevenin equivalent of an induction motor circuit model is given in Figure
D1
The torque developed can be expressed as
 R′ 
3V T h 2  2 
T =  s  __________
__________
____
2 (A
 R 
+ ( X T H + X 2′ )
2
ωs RT H + 2
 s 
The torque speed characteristics [or, T − ωs characteristics] can be obtained from

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Equation (A); for different values of rotor resistance are shown in Fig.D2
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
Fig. D2 Torque-slip characteristics of induction motor with

increasing values of rotor resistance
Effects of change in rotor resistance are:
(1) The starting torque is affected: it increases with increase in R2, goes to a
maximum of Tmax and then decreases with further increase in R2.
(2) Tmax, remains the same but the slip at which it occurs is changed with R2.
Q.4 For a small and sensitive servo mechanism give four reasons why a.c. servo motors
are generally preferred to d.c. servo motor. (7)
Ans: A dc servomotor is often employed in a control system where an appreciable

amount of shaft power is required. These servomotors have separately excited fields.
They are either armature controlled with fixed field or field controlled with fixed
armature current. For example the dc servomotor [Fig.E1] used in instrument employs
a fixed permanent magnetic field, and the control signal as applied to the armature
terminals.
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Fig. E3
The two phase ac servomotor [Fig E2] on the other hand is ideally suited for low
power control applications. The two phases are called control phase (phase a) and
reference phase (phase m), the latter being excited at a fixed magnitude of
synchronous a.c. voltage, both voltages being taken from the same source. The control
phase voltage is shifted in phase by 90o from the reference phase voltage by means of
phase-shifting networks. The motor torque gets reversed by phase reversal of the
control phase voltage.
Fig. E2 Control scheme for 2-phase servomotor
The ac servomotor offers several advantages over its d.c. counterpart:
(i) a drift-free ac amplifier is used in the control circuitry.
(ii) it has low rotor inertia and hence faster response.

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(iii) it has rugged, maintenance-free rotor construction

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(iv) it has no brushes that contact the commutator segments. The rotor can withstand a
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higher temperature as it does not involve any insulation.

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Q.5 What are different types of resistance welding? (3)
Ans: In resistance welding a heavy current is passed through the joint to be welded
and the heat caused by the resistance of the joint is sufficient to cause fusion of the
metal. Three types of resistance welding exist and they are as follows:
(i) Butt Welding:This method is used for welding of rods, wires or small pipes;
the two ends are pressed together mechanically to form a butt joint as shown
in Fig G1
(ii) Spot Welding: For jointing two or even three sheets of metal by means of an
overlapping joint, as shown in Fig G2, The sheets are held between two
electrodes and current is passed between these electrodes, causing fusion at a
single spot.
(iii) Seam Welding :Where a continuous joint is required between two

overlapping sheets of metal, as in constructing a tank, the two electrodes used
in spot welding are replaced by two wheels between which the work travels.
However it is not advisable to make a continuous weld, as there is then a
tendency for the heat gradually to build up as the welding progresses and
cause burning and warping.
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Q.6 What are different welding controls used in resistance welding? (4)
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Ans: The three different controls commonly in use are as follows:

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(i) Mechanical Control for Constant – time equipment: A cam- operated

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(ii) Valve-operated Control for Constant-time: Devices: To overcome the

difficulties encountered in the case of mechanically operated gears at high
speeds, various valve-operated devices have been developed, for example, the
mercury-vapour valve.
(iii) Current and energy- actuated control: With this control, current is allowed
to flow until a predetermined amount of energy has been supplied to the weld.
Q.7 Explain the principle of high frequency induction heating. What factors control the
depth of penetration of heat? Give the industrial application of this mode of heating.
(7)
Ans: Induction heating processes make use of currents induced by electromagnetic
action in the material to be heated. Sufficient currents that cause effective heating can
be produced only in materials of low resistivity, however it is necessary to use a
magnetic field of very high frequency.
For coreless induction furnaces, the depth of penetration(t) is given by the formula
1 ρ .109
t=
2π µf
-6
where ohm/cm for steel]
f =frequency(Hz)
and olten steel)
For normal supply frequency, with the power factor in the range 0.8-0.85 and in sizes
upto about 1 tonne, the vertical core-type furnace is widely used in foundries for
melting and refining brass and other non –ferrous metals. On the other hand the
coreless induction furnace is used for the production of very high grade alloy steels; in
small sizes it is widely used for work on alloys and precious metals.
Q.8 What is the fundamental difference between thermal and nuclear power plants? (3)
Ans: In a thermal power plant heat is released in combustion of coal; this heat is used
in a boiler to raise steam.
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Here the coal is conveyed to a mill and crushed into a fine powder, this being termed
as pulverization. The pulverized coal is blown into the boiler where it mixes with the
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supply of air for combustion. Heat is transferred to steam pipes located in the top
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region of the boiler, these being initially fed with hot water from the boiler feed
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pump; the hot water then gets converted to steam at high temperature and pressure.
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This steam is fed to the steam turbines which are the prime movers for electric
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generators.
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ρpermeability
µ
= specific resistance
(this factor
of the has
molten www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
a value
charge
of 1.0
[200X10
for m
In a nuclear power plant binding energy of a nucleus is released by fission, which

means breaking the nucleus into smaller fragments. Here one gram of the nucleus of
uranium is isotope 235U releases energy at the rate of 1 MW/per day whereas 2.6 tons
of coal produces the same amount of power in a conventional thermal power plant.
The process of fission is carried out in a nuclear reactor. Thus the nuclear reactor is a
very efficient source of energy because a small amount of fissile material produces a
large amount of energy.
Q.9 List the advantages of nuclear power plants over conventional thermal power
plants. (4)
Ans:
(i) A nuclear power plant is completely free of air pollution.
(ii) It requires very little fuel in terms of volume and weight and therefore poses
no transportation problems. The nuclear power plant may be sited,
independently of nuclear fuel supplies, close to load centres. However safety
considerations require that these plants be normally located away from
populated areas.
(iii) When one pound of pure uranium is completely fissioned it will create as
much heat as the burning of 1500 tons of coal.
(iv) Whereas the stock of coal is limited and the supply of coal will go down in the
coming decades, it is the nuclear energy that is promising. Nuclear power
plants will therefore be important sources of electrical power in future.
Q.10 Discuss briefly the solid state circuits used for the stator voltage control of
induction motor derives. (7)
Ans : Fig H1 shows the block diagram for a scheme of stator voltage control. Here
the ratio V/f is kept constants, with the frequency being varied by means of an
inverter. This in turn will help in maintaining the field flux constant. The rectifier and
inverter are rigged by means of the thyristors or GTOs or MOSFETs. Because of its
high cost, this type of control is justified only for drives wherein rugged,
maintenance-free characteristics of the induction motor are essential.
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Q.11 Differentiate between feeder, distributor and service main. (3)

Ans: Fig K1 shows a typical distribution system consisting of various kinds of
substations and feeders, finally ending up with consumer’s service lines. The
sequence, as shown in the figure, is as follows:
Firstly sub-transmission lines at 66KV emanate from a transmission substation. A
distribution transformer at the 66 KV substation steps down this voltage from 66KV
to 11KV, that is, the primary feeder voltage. At the distribution substation transformer
this (11KV) is further stepped down to 415 V which is the voltage of the consumer’s
services lines.
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Q.12 What are the advantages of high voltage transmission? Give its limitations also.
(4)
Ans: High voltage transmission is subdivided into HVAC and HVDC transmission
systems.
(i) HVAC transmission: Advantages of HVAC transmission are as follows:
As the voltage is increased, the current carried by the conductors decreases. The i2R
losses correspondingly get reduced. However the cost of transmission towers,
transformers, switches and circuit breakers rapidly increases with increase in voltage,
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(ii) HVDC transmission:

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Advantages They (HVDC lines) are economical for bulk power transmission. The
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voltage regulation problem is much less in DC since only IR drop is involved. There
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is easy reversibality and controllability of power flow through a DC link. Also there is
considerable insulation economy.
Limitations: The systems are costly since installation of complicated converters and
DC switchgear is expensive. The converters require considerable reactive power.
Lack of HVDC circuit breakers hampers network operation. Moreover there is
nothing like DC transformer; voltage transformation has to be provided on the a.c.
sides of the system.
Q.13 Discuss the working principle of a direction over-current relay. (7)
Ans : Overcurrent relay: This relay operates when current through it (sample of
power system current) satisfies the condition
2
Q = K1 I − K 4 > 0
K4
or I > = Ip
K1
where I p is said to be the pickup value of the relay. Such a relay is an over current
relay and would operate in the shortest possible time (depending upon the type of
hardware employed), and is called instantaneous overcurrent relay.
Thus if:
I > I p the relay trips the circuit broker
and
if I < I p the relay blocks or does not trip the circuit breaker.
The directional feature can be incorporated for the above o/c relay by means of an
induction cup type of structure (Fig L1) one of the coils being current excited and the
other, voltage excited.
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The phasor diagram of a directional relay is shown in Fig. L2. I v , the voltage coil
current lags the voltage applied by an angle depending upon the coil impedance. Since
the fluxes are proportional to the coil currents, and have the same angle separation as
coil currents, the relay torque can be expressed as
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T = K 3 V I sin(θ − φ ) (A)
where Iv
and θ = angle by which the current applied to the relay leads its voltage
The proportionality
( av ) 1 2 (B)
where 1 2 ge coils and
F(AV), net (average) force or an induction type of disc.
Taking the leading angle as positive and defining

of
τ −φ = 90o
Substitution of this relation in Equn (A) gives
T = K 3 V I cos(θ − τ )
which indeed is the directional characteristic
Q.14 Explain the working of nickel cadmium cells with its merits and demerits over lead
acid cell. (7)
Ans: Nickel- Cadmium cells: In a Nickel-Cadmium cell the positive plates are made
of nickel hydroxide enclosed in finely perforated steel tubes or pockets, the electrical
resistance being reduced by the addition of flakes of pure nickel or graphite. These
tubes or pockets are assembled in nickelled-steel plates. The active material in this
cell is Cadmium mixed with a little iron, the latter being used to prevent caking of the
active material and hence an impairment to porosity.
The electrolyte is a solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH) having a relative density

of about 1.15 to 1.20 depending upon the type of cell and the condition of service.
The electrolyte does not undergo any chemical change; hence the quantity of
electrolyte can be reduced to the minimum value necessitated by adequate clearance
between the plates. The plates are separated by insulating rods and assembled in
sheet-steel containers, the latter being mounted in non-metallic crates so as to insulate
the cells from one another.
Chemical reaction
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plate plate plate plate

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φ
ca∝
F ,τ(φ
=aan θnd φbe the
when
phase
relay treated
parameter)
angle
relay
ofas
develops
voltage
fluxes
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current
the currentB and
torque, then volta
The curve A in Fig M1 represents the terminal voltage of a nickel-cadmium

cell during discharge at the 10-hour rate, while curve B shows the variation for
a 3-hour rate.
The curve C represents the variation of the terminal voltage when the cell is charged
at a rate 1.5 times the 10-hour discharge rate.
The advantages of the nickel-cadmium cell are:
a) Its mechanical construction enables it to withstand considerable
vibration.
b) It is free from ‘sulphating’ or any similar trouble and can therefore be
left in any state of charge without damage.
The disadvantages are:
a) Its cost is higher than that of the led-acid cell
b) Its average discharge p.d. is about 1.2V as compared to 2V for the led-
acid cell, so that for a given voltage, the number of alkaline cells is
about 67 percent larger than that of lead-acid cells.
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Q.15 Discuss methods of laying underground cables. (7)

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Ans: Methods of laying underground cables

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Underground cables are generally required in urban areas where there is a high
density of population. The highest load density and the most restrictive limitations on
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feeder layout occur simultaneously in the central cores of major cities. Load densities
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are usually in the range of 60 to 100 MW per square mile.

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Some problems associated with underground cable systems are as follows:

urban area are densely populated with/pedestrian walk ways, as well as water, sewer,
storm drain, phone and other utility systems in addition to electrical. So there is
limited room. The electrical utility must stake its claim to the routes and space
allocated to it with its own duct banks.
Secondly, duct banks are needed to protect underground cable from the constant dig-
ins of other utilities, stress form settling, and heat and moisture in this environment.
Thirdly, digging into the street in an urban area for new additions or repairs is very
expensive. Traffic control and other requirements add to cost and also digging around
all the other utilities. Thus electric utilities have no choice but to use duct banks and
cable vaults to create their own “cable tunnel system“ under the streets in dense urban
areas.
Finally branching of underground cable providing for “T” or “X” connections of

paths, while possible, is not as simple or as inexpensive as in overhead lines.
Summarizing, the underground urban area systems have the following characteristics
• Layout is restricted to street grid
• Loads are large and invariably three phase
• Fixed cost is very high
• The cost of capacity shortfall is extremely high
Q.16 Write short notes on any TWO of the following :-
(i) Switched reluctance motors.

(ii) Parallel operation of transformers.
(iii) Selsyns. (7 x 2 = 14)
Ans:
(i) Switched reluctance motors: A synchronous motor with salient poles but no field
winding is known as the reluctance motor. It is used for low power, constant speed
applications where special arrangements for d.c. excitation would be cumbersome.
The principle of this motor is that the stator produces a rotating field in space and the
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rotor is noncylindrical such that the reluctance of the magnetic path offered by the
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rotor to the rotating field is a function of the space angle. Here the rotor has the
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tendency to align itself in the minimum reluctance position with respect to the
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synchronously rotating flux of the forward field. The motor is made self starting by
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the induction principle by providing short-circuited copper bars in the projecting parts
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of the rotor.
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In the single phase reluctance motor the rotating field can be produced by one of the
phase-splitting methods. The salient pole structure is given to the rotor by removing
some of the teeth of an induction motor rotor as shown in Fig M2. The remaining
teeth carry short-circuited copper bars to provide the starting induction torque. After
starting, the rotor reaches near synchronous speed by induction action and is pulled
into synchronism during the positive half-cycle of the sinusoidally varying
synchronous torque.
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This would only be possible if the rotor has low inertia and the load conditions are
light. The torque speed characteristic of a typical reluctance motor with induction start
is given in Fig M3. Here the starting torque is highly dependent upon the rotor
position because of the projecting nature of the rotor. This phenomenon is known as
“cogging”. For satisfactory synchronous motor performance the frame size to be used
must be much larger than that for normal single- phase induction motor. This accounts
for the high value of starting torque shown in Fig M3.
(ii) Parallel operation of transformers: when the load exceeds the capacity of an
existing transformer, it may be economical to install another one in parallel rather
than replacing it with a single larger unit. Also for reliability two smaller units in
parallel are preferred. The cost of maintaining a spare is also less with two units in
parallel.
For satisfactory parallel operation of transformers the following conditions have to be
fulfilled:
(i) They must be connected with proper polarities; this is to ensure that the net
voltage around the local loop is zero. A wrong polarity connection results in a dead
short circuit.
(ii) 3 phase transformers must have zero relative phase displacement on the secondary
sides and must be connected with proper phase sequence. Only the transformers of the
same group can be paralleled. For example Y/Y and Y/ ∆ transformers cannot be
paralleled as their secondary voltages will have a phase difference of 300
(iii)The transformers must have the same voltage ratio to avoid no-load circulating
current, when the transformers are in parallel on both primary and secondary sides.
(iv) There should exist only a limited disparity in the per unit impedances (on their
own bases) of the transformers. The currents carried by the two transformers are
proportional to their ratings if their p.u. impedances on their own ratings are equal.
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Fig N1 shows two transformers paralleled on both sides with proper polarities but on
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no load. The primary voltages V1 and V2 are equal. If the voltage ratios of the two
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transformers are not identical, the secondary voltages E1 and E2 though in phase will
not be equal in magnitude. The difference (E1-E2) will appear across the switch S.
When the secondaries are paralleled by closing the switch, a circulating current
appears even though the secondries are not supplying any load. The circulating
current will depend upon the total leakage impedance of the two transformers and also
the difference in their voltage ratios. Only a small difference in the voltage ratios will
be tolerated.
Division of load between transformers in parallel. Equal voltage ratios When the
transformers have equal ratios E1=E2 in Fig N1, the equivalent current of the two
transformers would then be as shown in Fig N2 on the assumption that the exciting
current can be neglected in comparison to the load current.
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It follows from the sinusoidal steady-state circuit analysis that

Z2 _____________________
I1 = IL (1)
Z1 + Z 2
and I 2 = Z1 __________ __________ _

IL (2)
Z1 + Z 2
also I 1 + I 2 = I L
Taking V L as the reference phasor and defining complex power as V * I , the

multiplication of V L on both sides of equations (1) and (2) give
Z2
S1 = SL
Z1 + Z 2
Z1
S2 = SL
Z1 + Z 2
where S1 = VL * I1
S2 =VL *I 2
SL = VL * IL
The above equations S1 , S2 and S L are phasor relationships giving loadings in the
magnitude and phase angle.
(iii) Selsyns: Selsyns or synchros are control system components which are used for
transmission of small torques or motions electrically. They can be categorize into
three kinds:
(a) for transmission of small torques electrically, as sinchro-transmitter-receiver
pair (Fig P2)
(b) for indicating the difference in positions, as generator – transformer
combination (Fig P3)
(c) as differential selsyns(Fig P4)
In the synchro-transmitter-receiver pair (Fig P2) which is a single phase
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selsyn, the stator has three windings like the polyphase induction motor. The
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rotor is similar to the rotor of a small alternator and of one winding. Fig P1
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shows the cross –section of a single phase selsyn.

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Although it shows three stator windings, it is still a single –phase device. Any
a.c. current in the rotor will produce at “stand–still” three stator voltages
which are in time phase. Two of these devices in the circuit of Fig P2 provides
a system for transmission of motion.
It is assumed that the generator and motor are similar units and that for the initial
conditions the voltages produced on the stator of the generator by the generator rotor
are equal in magnitude and 1800 out of phase with those produced by the motor rotor
in the motor stator. Under these conditions the stator currents will be zero and no
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torque will be present in either machine.

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If the rotor of the generator is turned through an angle θ while the position of the
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rotor of the motor is left unchanged, a circulating current Ia will result in the stators.
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The current acting on the air gap flux will tend to restore the generator to its original
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position. The current will produce a torque in the motor which wil tend to cause the
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rotor of the motor to assume an angle corresponding to that occupied by the rotor of
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the generator. If the rotor of the motor is free to turn, it will follow the angular
position of the generator rotor. The rotor of the motor therefore is an indicator of the
position of the generator rotor or any device connected mechanically to it.
Selsyns as position indicators: If the circuit to the rotor of the motor is opened (Fig
P3) a voltage will be produced in the rotor winding, the magnitude of which is a
function of the angular position of the rotor of the motor w.r.t. that of the generator
rotor. When the motor rotor is at a position of 90 electrical degrees from the position
occupied and the rotor is electrically connected and free, the magnitude of the rotor
voltage will be zero. Then any movement of the generator rotor will produce a voltage
in the motor rotor which is a function of the angular position of the generator rotor (or
other equipment coupled to it). This circuit has found use in many servomechanism
systems. For this application the motor unit serves just as a control transformer.
A third useful application of the selsyn system is that of the differential selsyn shown
in Fig P4; this is constructed like a wound rotor induction motor having a 1:1 ratio of
turns. When the rotors of the motor and generator of Fig P3 are in a given position,
the differential selsyn will adjust the position of the rotor to its stator such that
minimum current flows in its windings. With the rotor of the motor locked in a
particular position, a change in the position of the generator rotor will cause a
corresponding change in the position of the rotor of the differential selsyn. In this way
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the circuit of Fig P4 performs the same function as that shown in Fig P3.
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Q.17 Give the layout of a hydro – electric power plant and briefly explain the working of
any two of its main components. (14)
Ans: A typical hydroelectric development consists of a dam, which raises the water
surface of the stream to create head, pondage, storage or the facility or diversion into
conduits, an intake containing racks and gates to control the flow into the conduits, a
conduits system to convey the water to the turbines which transform the energy of the
water into mechanical energy, generators to transform the mechanical energy of the
hydraulic turbines into electrical energy, a power house to contain the turbines,
generators and accessories and a draft tube to convey the water from the turbine to the
tailrace which leads back to the stream.
The principle of operation of a hydroelectric station can be grasped from a reference

to Fig C3
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Fig. C3 Principle of operation of a hydroelectric plant

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From the reservoir, the water flows through the intake 1 and penstock 2 to the
hydraulic turbines 3. On flowing through the turbines where it gives up its energy ,
the water flows through the draft tube to the tail race. The turbine rotates the rotor of
the generator 4. As a result, electric current is induced in the generator stator 5. The
current is conveyed via the buses 6 to the step-up transformer 7, and then to the
switchgear 8. From the switchgear, the current is directed through the power lines 9 to
the loads.
Two of its main components are described below:
Hydraulic Turbines
A hydraulic turbine is a prime mover which transforms the energy of falling water
into mechanical energy of rotation and whose primary function is to drive a water
wheel hydroelectric generator. The turbine runner and rotor of the water wheel
generator are usually mounted on the same shaft, which is why the entire assembly is
frequently referred to as the turbo- generator.
An impulse turbine is one in which the driving energy is supplied by the water in
kinetic form; and a reaction turbine is one in which the driving energy is provided by
the water partly in kinetic and partly in pressure from.
Switchgear
The functions of the switchgear may be briefly summarized as follows
(i) To localize the effects of faults by operation of protective equipment and to
automatically disconnect faulty plant from the system.
(ii) To break efficiently, short-circuits without giving rise to dangerous conditions.
(iii) To facilitate re-distribution of loads, inspection and maintenance of the
system.
The design and construction of the switchgear layout should be such that a
reliable service is obtained under all operating conditions and in, as direct a
route as possible from the alternators to the outgoing feeders. The choice of
suitable switchgear is governed by the maximum short circuit-MVA it is
called upon to deal with and also to some degree upon its relation to the
system of which it forms a part. The figure of short circuit MVA is needed for
installing suitable circuit breakers.
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Q.18 Write notes on:

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(i) SF6 Circuit Breaker.

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(ii) Mhos Relay. (14)

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Ans: Notes on SF6 circuit breaker

SF6 is a heavy chemically inert noninflammable gas. Its other properties are:
• At atmospheric pressure its dielectric strength is two to three times that of air.
As a consequence reduced electrical clearance would be sufficient.
• Its heat transferability at atmospheric pressure is about 2.5 times that of air;
therefore smaller conductor sizes are needed.
• It is chemically stable at temperatures at which oil begins to oxidize and
decompose.
• It is electronegative and its molecules rapidly absorb free electrons in the arc
path forming heavy slow moving negative ions, which are ineffective as
current carriers. Hence it has superior arc quenching ability.
• Its heat capacity below 6000 K is much larger than that of air and helps in
continuous cooling of the arc zone.
• Its arc time constants is a few s
insulating and arc-quenching properties, SF6 breakers have a very wide range
of application-6.6 KV to 765 KV and 20-60 KA rupturing capacity.
The properties of SF6 are such that the gas blast speeds need not be as high as in
ABCB.
The main advantages of SF6 circuit breakers are as follows:
• Low gas velocity and pressures employed prevent current chopping;
capacitive currents are interrupted without restriking.
• There is no exhaust of high pressure gas to atmosphere, and their operation is
silent.
• There is short time arc, low contact erosion and no contact replacement.
• No carbon deposition takes palace and hence there is no insulation tracking.
• The smaller size of conductors and clearances lead to small overall breaker
size; and these have ample overload margin.
• They are non inflammable
Mhos relay: An impedance relay has a characteristic given by
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2
K1 I 2 + K 2 V > 0
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1 2
 K1 
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V
= <  = rs
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. With the K
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of superior
If K2 is made negative, such a relay senses impedance magnitude, and operates if the
magnitude of impedance seen from its location(in any direction) is less than a
specified value. Since V prevents relay operations, K 2 being negative, and I tries
to operate it, voltage is the restraining quantity and current is its operating quantity.
A modified impedance relay called mho relay results if a directional relay is
restrained by voltage. Thus
2
Q = K2 V I cos(θ −τ ) − (−K1) V − K4
Neglecting K4, the inequality for relay operation becomes

2
K3 V I cos(θ −τ ) − (−K1) V > 0
or
V K3 ___________
(1)
= Z < cos(θ − τ )
I − K1
The right hand side of Eqn (1) is a circle with centre located in the line determined by
the parameter τ and passing through the origin as shown in Fig D3. The characteristic
in this case is inherently directional. This characteristic can be alternatively expressed
as
:
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Fig. D3 Rx-diagram of a mho relay

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Q.19 Write short notes on any TWO :-
(i) Servo motor.
(ii) A.C. Tacho generator.
(iii) Explain the principle of induction heating.
(iv) What is welding process and explain principle of electric welding. (14)
Ans:
(i) Servomotor: Servomotors are of two kinds, d.c. and a.c. These are described
below:
D.C. Servomotor A DC servomotor is often employed in a control system where an

appreciable amount of shaft power is required. These servomotors have separately
excited fields. They are either armature controlled with fixed field or field controlled
with fixed armature current. For example, the DC servomotor [Fig E3]used in
instruments employs a fixed permanent magnet field, and the control signal is applied
to armature terminals.
The two-phase ac servomotor [Fig E4] on the other hand is ideally suited for
low power control applications. The two phases are called control phase
(phase a) and reference phase (phase m), the latter being excited at a fixed
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magnitude of synchronous a.c. voltage, both voltages being taken from the
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The control phase voltage is shifted in phase by 90o from the reference phase voltage
by means of phase shifting networks. The motor torque gets reversed by phase
reversal of control phase voltage. This motor has low rotor inertia and hence faster
response; also it has no brushes that contact the commutator segments.
(ii) A.C. Tachogenerator: An a.c. tachogenerator is nothing but a 2-phase induction

motor with one phase ‘m’ excited from the carrier frequency, while the phase ‘a’
winding is left open-circuited as shown in Fig E5. To archive a low inertia, a rotor
drag cup is commonly employed. It can be shown that the voltage across phase ‘a’ is
proportional to the rotor speed whereas it has a phase shift of nearly 90o .
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A.C. tachogenerators are quite commonly used in 400Hz control systems.

High precision construction is required to maintain concentricity and to
prevent any direct coupling between the two phase windings. Pick-up from
stray fields is eliminated by soft –iron shields.
(iii) Induction heating:
Induction heating processes make use of currents induced by electromagnetic action
in the material to be heated. Induction heating is based on the principle of
transformers, there is primary winding through which ac current is passed. The coil is
magnetically coupled with the metal to be heated. An electric current is induced in
this metal when the ac current is passed through the primary coil.
Applications:
• Surface hardening
• Deep hardening
• Tempering
• Soldering
• Melting
• Smelting etc.
(iv) Electrical welding
Welding is the process of joining metals of similar composition by heating to suitable
temperature with or without application of pressure and addition of filter material.
The result of welding is a continuity of the homogeneous material and is of the same
composition and characteristics as the parts, which are joined together.
Welding process may be classified as :
(i) Pressure welding: The process in which the metal parts to be joined are heated
to a plastic stage and then joined by applying external forces are known as plastic or
pressure welding.
(ii) Fusion welding: The process in which the metal parts to be joined are heated
to molten state and then allowed to solidify joining a localized homogeneous union of
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the two is known as fusion welding.

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Welding process may be further classified as:

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a. Electric resistance welding: Electric resistance welding is most

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commonly used kind of pressure welding. It can be applied to almost any metals with
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Principle of Electric Resistance Welding:

This process makes use of the heat generated by a heavy electric current passing
through the materials being joined. The electric resistance between the surface in
contact being mainly responsible for the rise in temperature. The heat generated bring
these surfaces to the plastic state, at this point mechanical pressure is applied to
squeeze the material together thus forming the joint.
Arc Welding: An electric arc is produced by bringing two conductors connected to a
suitable source of electric current, firstly in contact and then separately by a small
distance. The current continues to flow across the small gap and gives intense heat.
The heat developed is utilized to melt the part of the work piece and the filter metal
and thus form the joint. So the welded joint is the union of metal parts made by
localized heat without any pressure.
Principle of Arc Welding:
Current from a source (ac or dc) is obtained. One terminal is connected to the
electrode and to other to the work piece and the circuit is completed through air gap.
The gap is provided between the tip of the electrode and the surface of the work piece
by keeping the electrode at a distance of about 3mm to 6 mm from the surface of the
work piece. Due to the interruption by the air gap or gas, heat is produced and the
temperature attained varies from 3700o to 4000oC
Q.20 (a) Discuss the criterion for choice of voltage for transmission and distribution. (8)
(b) Explain principle of carrier current protection and communication. (8)
Ans: (a) Criterion For Choice Of Voltage For Transmission And Distribution.
We know that the power W =VI , so for the same power if voltage is increased then
current will decrease. If suppose power required is 500 W and voltage is 250 V then
current I will be equal to 500/250 =2A.
Now if voltage is increased from 250V to 500V and the power required is same then
I = 500/500 =1 A
Now, if the voltage is still increased to say 1000V for the same power then
I = 500/1000 =0.5 A
From the above examples, we see that if the voltage is doubled, the current will be
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halved and when it is quadrupled then current is reduced to 1/4th of its initial value.
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Thus we conclude that if voltage is increased to n times then the current will be
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reduced to 1/nth times for the same power.With the reduction of the current to 1/nth
times, the conductor area will also be reduced to 1/nth times of its original area for
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the same current density, Hence less material is required when the voltage is increased
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We also know that when the current passes through any conductor, there is loss of
power in that particular conductor according to the relation, I2 R. As the loss is
proportional to the square of the current. So if the current is reduced to ½ value , then
the loss will be reduced to 1/4th its original value. Hence the efficiency of the
transmission line and all others equipments associated with the line will increase and
more power will be available for use.
When current is passing through a conductor there will be a voltage drop according to
the relation V=IR. So, when the current is reduced the drop of the voltage is less in
the line, of course with the same cross sectional area of the conductor.
With the reduction of cross sectional area, considered the main advantage of
transmitting electrical energy at very high voltage viz 132kV , 220kV or even 400kV.
But in case of distribution system such high voltage is dangerous, so distribution
voltage is generally 400/230V.
(b) Principle of carrier current protection and communication:

This type of protection is used for protection of transmission lines. Carrier current
frequency ranges from 35kHz to 500kHz are transmitted and received through the
transmission lines for the purpose of protection.Each end of the line is provided with
identical carrier current equipment consisting of transmitter, receiver, line – tuning
unit, master oscillator, power amplifier etc. The carrier equipments is connected to the
transmission line through “Coupling capacitor” which is of such a capacitance that it
offers low reactance to carrier frequency but high reactance to power frequency.
Thus coupling capacitor allows carrier frequency signals to enter the carrier
equipment. A line trap unit is inserted between bus bar and connection of coupling
capacitor to the line. It offers low impedance to 50Hz and high impedance to carrier
frequencies. This unit prevents the high frequency signals from entering the
neighboring line, and carrier currents flow only in the protected line.
Frequencies between 50 to 500 kHz employed in different frequency bands through
transmitter carrier frequencies are generated in oscillator. The oscillators can be tuned
to a particular frequency selected for the application. The output of the oscillator is
fed into the amplifier to overcome the losses in the transmission path between the
transmitter and the receiver at remote end of the line.
The high frequency signals arriving from remote end are received by receiver
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Receiving unit comprises an attenuator, which reduces the signals to a safe value.
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Different frequencies are used in adjacent line sections. The choice of frequency
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bands for various sections should be coordinated. The modulator, modulates 50Hz
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signals and the modulated signal is fed to the amplifier and is then transmitted via
coupling unit.
Q.21 What are the various types of electric drives? Compare their advantages and
disadvantages. State and explain the various factors which affect the selection of an
electric motor as industrial drive. (14)
Ans: Various type of electric Drives: A variety of thyristor or power semiconductor

control circuitry has been devised for motor control (also called electric drives),
depending upon the type of supply (ac/dc) and the type and size of the motor.
For dc motor control, controlled dc power from a constant voltage ac supply is

obtained by means of controlled rectifiers employing thysistors and diodes. The
control of d.c. voltage is achieved by firing the thyristors at an adjustable angle with
respect to the applied voltage. This angle is known as the “iring angle’ and the scheme
of control is called the phase control. Control of d.c. motors fed from dc supply is also
achieved by means of d.c. choppers which are d.c.-d.c. converters. This type of
controller periodically opens and closes the switch; thus the average voltage is
controlled by varying the ‘on’ and ‘off’ durations. It gives an efficient and stepless
control of dc motors. However the choppers controller requires forced commutation
of thyristors which involves special thyristorized circuitry.
Closed-loop control of d.c. drives usually involves one or more feddback loops. The
relevant signals are sampled through transducers at discrete instants for computational
purposes; also switching of power semiconductor devices is accomplished by
gate/base control. Fig M14 shows a block–cum schematic diagram of a typical
separately excited d.c. drive which has an outer speed loop and an inner current
control loop. The motor speed is sensed by a tachometer, the output of which is fed
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used for this purpose, and the digital output of the shaft encoder can be directly fed to
the microcomputer. The armature current of the motor can be sensed by measuring the
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voltage across a standard resistor.

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Set Speed Current D/A Control Amature

controller controller controller power
converter
Field
A/D Field
power
converter converter
Current
sensing
Technogenerator Single-
phase
ac supply
Fig. M14 Block diagram of a separately excited dc drive
Till recent times variable speed drive application were dominated by d.c.
motors. Squirrel cage induction motor which costs approximately one – third
of a d.c.-motor of the same rating, is quite rugged, maintenance free, can be
built for higher speeds, torques and power ratings. Wound rotor induction
motors, through costlier than squirrel cage ones, also need less maintenance
and are available in higher power ratings. Thus a.c. drives have succeeded in
replacing dc drives in a number of variable speed applications. For control of
a.c. motors that include both types of induction motors as well as synchronous
motors fed from d.c. supply, thyristor, transistor or MOSFET based inverters
are employed. These semiconductor switching circuits transfer energy from dc
supply to an a.c. load of variable frequency and/or variable voltage. The
switching operation results in considerable harmonics in the input a.c.
waveforms which are filtered out by the a.c. motor. The normal power supply
being of the a.c. type, the complete scheme involves a converter and then an
inverter.
A cycloconverter is a direct a.c. to a.c. converter for obtaining variable
voltage low frequency a.c. supply from a fixed frequency one. Thus it
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eliminates the necessity of on intermediate d.c. stage. Inspite of their direct a.c
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to a.c. conversion the cycloconverters have the disadvantages that

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(i) They produce a subfrequency ouptput,

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(ii) their output contains a high harmonic content, and

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Speed
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Microcomputer www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
(iii) the input power factor is low. Cycloconverters are used for low-speed
drives and controlling linear motors in high-speed transportation systems.
Q.22 Write notes on any TWO :-
(i) Induction Furnace.

(ii) Buchholz’s Relay.
(iii) Inductive interference. (14)
Ans:
(i) Induction Furnace: Induction heating processes make use of currents induced
by electro-magnetic action in the material to be heated. It is, however only in
materials of low resistivity such as metals that sufficient currents to cause effective
heating can be produced. For this purpose it is often necessary to use a magnetic field
of very high frequency. For melting or refining metals, various kinds of induction
furnaces are available, while for other purposes such as case hardening and soldering,
the necessary currents are induced in the article at the appropriate stage of its
manufacture; the latter process requires a high frequency and is called as the high-
frequency eddy current heating.
The core type furnace is essentially a transformer in which the charge to be heated
forms the secondary circuit and is magnetically coupled to the primary by an iron-
core as shown in Fig N1. It can be seen from this figure that the magnetic coupling
between the primary and the secondary is poor. The electromagnetic forces cause
turbulence of the molten metal which, although useful upto a point, is liable to
become to severe. A crucible of inconvenient shape from metallurgical point of view
is used. In order to start the furnace, a complete ring of metal must be present in the
crucible, otherwise the secondary circuit will not be complete.
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Chore
Cone
Fig. N2 Ajax-Wyatt Vertical Core-type Furnace
An improvement over the conventional core type furnace is the vertical core type
furnace which overcomes some of the above mentioned difficulties. It is known as the
Ajax-Wyatt furnace [Fig N2] and uses a vertical instead of horizontal channel for the
charge. The tendency of the circuit to repture due to the pinch effect is counteracted
by the weight of the charge in the main body of the crucible. The circulation of
molten metal is kept up round the Vee portion by convection currents and by the
electromagnetic forces between the currents in the two halves of the Vee. Such a
furnace is very widely used in foundries for melting and refining brass and other not-
ferrous metals.
(ii) Buchholz’s relay : The Buchhloz’s relay is a gas operated relay in which the
development of a fault within the transformer, particularly in the incipient stage is
guarded. Also major breakdowns and sudden disruption of supply are avoided, thus
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making it a very reliable piece of electrical equipment. It is fitted to transformers

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having conservator vessels and is installed in the pipeline between the transformer and
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its conservator tank. The relay comprises an oil tight container fitted with two internal
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floats which contain mercury switches connected to external alarm and tripping
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circuits. Normally the device is full of oil and the floats, due to their buoyancy rotate
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a) An incipient fault within the transformer generates small bubbles of gas which
pass upward, towards the conservator, become trapped in the top of the chamber,
thereby, causing the oil level to fall. The upper float gets deflected as the oil level
within the relay falls and when sufficient oil has been displaced, the mercury
switch contacts close, thus completing the electrical alarm circuit.
SHUT-OFF VALVE FITTED

WHEN REQUIRED
GAS SAMPLING PETCOCX

TEST COCK
GAS AND OR
ACTUATED RELAY
Fig. N3 Arrangement for mounting the gas and

oil actuated relay (Buchholz’s relay)
b) For a serious fault within the transformer, the gas generation is more violent and
the oil displaced by the gas bubbles flows through the connecting pipe to the
conservator. This abnormal flow of oil causes the lower floats to be deflected thus
actuating the contacts of the second mercury switch and completing the tripping
circuit of the transformer circuit breaker, thus disconnecting the transformer from
the supply. The arrangement for mounting the gas and oil actuated relay is shown
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in Fig N3.
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(iii) Inductive interference: Inductive interference is said to occur when voltages

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are induced in adjacent communication lines by the unsymmetrically spaced

power lines. Fig N4 shows
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the conductors of a three phase line with unsymmetrical spacing. For the purpose of
this discussion it is assumed that there is no neutral wire so that the conductor currents
sum upto zero. That is
I a + I b + I c = 0 unsymmetrical spacing causes flux linkages and therefore the

inductance of the three phases will be unequal. This results in unbalanced receiving
end voltages even when sending end voltages and line currents are balanced. Also
inductive interference occurs with the adjacent communication lines. This problem
can be tackled by exchanging the positions of the conductors at regular intervals
along the line such that each conductor occupies the original position of every other
conductor over an equal distance. This change of conductor positions is called
‘transposition’. A complete transposition cycle is shown in Fig N5
This arrangement causes each conductor to have the same average inductance over the
transposition cycle. It can be shown that over the length of one transposition cycle, the
total flux linkages and hence the net voltage induced in a nearby telephone line is zero
and also that the power line transposition is ineffective in reducing the induced
telephone line voltage
i) when the power line currents are unbalanced (that is the sum I a + I b + I c ≠ 0 ) or
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ii) when they contain third harmonics. These harmonic line currents are undesirable
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a) the induced emf becomes proportional to the frequency and

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b) higher frequencies come within the audible range. Thus there a need to avoid the
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presence of such harmonic currents on a power line from considerations of the

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performance of nearby telephone lines. Another feature is that with unbalanced

power line transposition apart from being ineffective, introduces mechanical and
insulation problems. It is therefore easier to eliminate induced voltages by
transposing the telephone lines instead. Some induced voltage will always be
present on a telephone line running parallel to a power line because in actual
practice transposition is never completely symmetrical. Therefore when the lines
run parallel over a considerable length, it is a good practice to transpose both
power and telephone lines. The two transposition cycles are staggered and the
telephone line is transposed over shorter lengths compared to the power line.
Q.23 Derive the emf equation of a transformer. (2)

Ans:
(a) EMF equation of a transformer :-
N1 = no. of turns in primary
N2 = no. of turns in secondary
Φm = maximum flux in core

= Bm A
f = frequency of a.c. input in Hz
From figure, flux increases from its zero value to maximum value Φm in one quarter of the
cycle i.e. 1/4f second
Average rate of change of flux = Φ m /(1/4f)
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= 4 f Φ m Wb/s
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Rate of change of flux per turn means induced emf in volts

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Average emf/turn =4 f Φm
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If flux Φ varies sinusoidally, then rms value of induced emf is obtained by multiplying the
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average value with form factor.

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rms value of emf /turn =1.11 x 4 f Φ m = 4.44 f φm

rms value of emf induced in whole of primary winding = induced emf/turn x no of turns
= 4.44 f N1 φm
similarly, rms values of emf induced in secondary winding = 4.44 f N2 φm
Q.24 Draw the characteristic curves and state two applications for
(i) a dc shunt motor
(ii) a dc series motor. (4)
Ans:
3(a) Characteristic curves & applications
D.C. shunt motor :-
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Applications :- Due to the constancy of their speed shunt motors are suitable for driving
shafting, machine tools, lathes, wood working machines and for all purposes where an
approximately constant speed is required.
DC Series Motor:-
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Applications:- Traction work, trolley cars, hoists & cranes, conveyors — etc.
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Q.25 With a neat diagram explain the working of a universal motor. Also draw its
torque-speed characteristics when it is fed from both ac & dc sources. (7)
Ans:
4. (a) Universal motor :-
A universal motor develops unidirectional torque regardless of whether they operate on DC

or AC supply. The production of unidirectional torque when the motor runs on AC supply
can be understood from the above figures. The motor works on the same principle as a DC
motor i.e. force between the main pole flux and the current carrying armature conductors.
This is true regardless of whether the current is alternating or direct. The rotor is same in
construction to that of a DC motor but the stator is laminated necessarily because the flux is
alternating when the motor is operated from AC supply.
Torque speed characteristics :-
Q.26 Explain the construction, working and applications of a stepper motor. (7)
Ans:
Stepper motor :-
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Construction: Stepper motor consists of a slotted stator equipped with two or more
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individual coils and a rotor structure that carries no winding .The classification of the stepper
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motor is determined by how the rotor is designed. If the rotor is made up of a permanent
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magnet, it is called a PM stepper motor. If no magnet exists on the rotor (only a rotor core) it
is called a reluctance type stepper motor. The presence of the permanent magnet in the rotor
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furnishes the motor with the equivalent of a constant DC excitation.

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Operation:-
The elementary operation of a four phase stepping motor with a 2-pole rotor is explained
below.
With the above construction of a stepper motor the rotor assumes the angles θ = 0°, 45°,
90°, 135°, 180°…etc. as the windings are excited in the sequence of Na, Na+ Nb, Nb, Nb+ Nc,
Nc…etc.
The same motor can also be used for 90° steps by exciting the coils singly i.e. Na, Nb,
Nc , Nd only. For the use of 90° steps only the permanent magnet rotor can be used.
Applications :-
(1) Typewriters, printers
(2) Positioning of disk drives
(3) Plotters
(4) Recording heads in computer disk drives
(5) Worktable and tool positioning in CNC machines.
Major advantage of using stepper motors is that no feedback is required from the rotor
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to ascertain the angular position of rotor.

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Q.27 Compare the induction motor with a transformer. (2)

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Ans:
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5(a) Comparison of Induction Motor with a transformer :

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The transfer of energy from stator to the rotor of an induction motor takes place entirely
inductively with the help of flux mutually linking the two. Hence an induction motor is
essentially a transformer with stator forming the primary and rotor forming the rotating
secondary.
Transformer Induction Motor
(1) Secondary is stationary (1) Secondary winding is rotating
(2) Secondary is not short circuited (2) Secondary is always short circuited
(3) No-load current is about 1% of full load (3) No-load current is approximately 30 to 50%
current (due to low reluctance path of full current (due to high reluctance
of steel core) of air gap)
(4) emf induced in secondary depends on (4) Depends on K and slip also
K (turns ratio)
(5) Frequency of primary and secondary currents (5) Frequency of stator current (f)and rotor
are same current (sf) are not the same.
Q.28 Write short notes on THREE :-
(i) Variable frequency operation of transformers.
(ii) Armature reaction in dc machines.
(iii) A C servomotors.
OR
Switched reluctance motors. (5+5+4)
Ans:
Variable Frequency Operation of Transformer
For power transformers frequency response is of no serious interest because these units are
operated at a single fixed frequency. Frequency response is to be studied in communication
circuits where the frequency of source voltage is likely to vary.
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Equivalent circuit :
Frequency Response :
Fig (a)
Low frequency: Fig(a)

At low frequency xϕ is a small, which causes a severe drop off of voltage by shunting the
fixed load impedance.x1 and x2 are so small that these frequencies may be omitted from the
diagram.
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Fig (a)
Fig (b)
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Fig (c)
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Intermediate frequency : Fig(b)

At intermediate frequency, x1 and x2 are quite small while xϕ is sufficiently large that it
may be omitted. For a resistive load the equivalent circuit consists of solely resistive elements
so that the transfer function remains constant over the band of intermediate frequencies.
High frequency : Fig(c)
At very high frequency, x1 and x2/ are no longer negligible and should be included. However
xϕ may be omitted. As the frequency increases the drop across x1 and x2 increases thereby
causing a dip in the output voltage. Therefore the gain drops off as frequency increases.
(ii) Armature reaction in DC Machines :
Armature reaction is the effect of magnetic field setup by armature current on the
distribution of flux under main poles of a generator. The armature reaction has two effects
1. Demagnetization- reduces the generated voltage and torque
2. Cross magnetization – distorts the field and causes sparking at brushes. Fig(a) Fig(b)
Ia=0 Fig (a) IF=0 Fig(b)
Both Ia and IF are present After brush shift : If = 0

Fig(c) Fig(d)
When only IF is present the, mmf is perpendicular to MNA (Figure (a). When only
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armature current is present, mmf is along the MNA. When the machine is actually working,
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the resultant mmf vector is at an angle form MNA. This causes the brushes to be shifted to a
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new MNA perpendicular to resultant mmf. Now at this new MNA, mmf of Ia is along new
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MNA. This mmf is resolved into two component Fd and Fc which are demagnetizing and
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cross magnetizing mmf respectively.

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(iii) AC Servomotors :
An AC Servomotor is basically a two-phase induction motor except for certain special

design features. A two phase induction motor consists of two stator windings oriented at 90o.
Voltages of equal magnitude and 90o phase difference are applied to two stator phases, thus
making their respective fields 90o apart in both time and space resulting in a constant
magnitude RMF. The direction of rotation depends upon phase relationship of voltages V1
and V2. The rotor is a short-circuited one producing torque in direction of field rotation. The
torque speed characteristic is shown in the Fig.
Generally a large X/R ratio is used in induction motor to have high torque at the
operating region i.e. around 5% slip. But in a servomotor, for a small X/R the characteristic is
nearly a linear in contrast to high nonlinear characteristic of large X/R. When large X/R is
used for servo application because of the positive slope for part of characteristic (a) the
system using such a motor becomes unstable.
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(iii) Reluctance Motor :-

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It has either the conventional split phase stator and a centrifugal switch for cutting out
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the auxiliary winding after startup. The squirrel cage type rotor is of unsymmetrical magnetic
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construction. The rotor offers variable magnetic reluctance to the stator flux, the reluctance
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varying with the position of the rotor. The basic operating principle is that when a magnetic
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piece of material is located in a magnetic field a force acts on the material, tending to bring it
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into the densest portion of the field. The force tends to align the specimen of material
in such a way that the reluctance of the magnetic path that lies trough the material will be
minimum.
When the stator winding is energized the revolving magnetic field exerts reluctance
torque on the unsymmetrical rotor tending to align the salient pole axis of the rotor with axis
of the RMF (due to minimum reluctance). If the reluctance torque is sufficient to start the
motor and its load, the rotor will pull into step with the rotating field and to run at the speed
of the revolving field.
The switched reluctance machine is a special variation of the simple reluctance machine
that relies on continuous switching of currents in the stator to guarantee motion of the rotor. It
is also a true reluctance machine in that it has salient poles both in rotor and in the stator.
Q.29 What do you understand by electric heating? State its advantages over other
methods of heating. (7)
Ans:
Electric heating
Electric heat is provided by use of a high temperature wire, which is resistant to electric
flow with more heat being produced by more electric current being fed into the heating
element, creating more resistance and more heat. This method of producing heat is called
electric heating.
Advantage of electric heating:
1. Cleanliness
2. Absence of flue gases, soot. …etc/
3. Accurate control of temperature.
4. Low maintenance cost
5. Quicker operation
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6. Higher efficiency
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7. Uniform and economic heating capability

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Q.30 Describe the resistance welding method and name the other welding methods. (7)
Ans:
Types of Welding :
Resistance Welding :
Resistance welding is a process used to join metallic parts with electric current. In all forms
of resistance welding, the parts are locally heated until a molten pool forms. These parts are
then allowed to cool and the pool freezes to form a weld nugget. To create heat electric
current is passed through work pieces. The heat generated depends on the resistance and
thermal conductivity of the metal and the time for which the electric current is applied. The
heat is expressed by the equation.
E= I2Rt
E is the heat energy
I is the current
R is the electrical resistance
t is the time for which the current is applied.
Q.31 List out the advantages of nuclear power plants over conventional thermal power
plants. (4)
Ans:
Advantage of Nuclear Power Plants
1. Nuclear Power station reduces the demand for oil coal and gases.
2. Weight of nuclear fuel required for a given station capacity is negligible compared to
that required for a conventional thermal power station. As a result the problems of
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transport and resulting costs are avoided.

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3. The area and volume need for a nuclear power station is less in comparison to a
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conventional power plant of equal capacity.

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4. In addition to producing large amount of power, a nuclear power plant produces

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valuable fissile material, which is extracted when the fuel is renewed.

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Q.32 Draw a flow diagram of a thermal power station and explain its main components.
(10)
Ans:
Flow diagram of thermal power station :
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Q.33 Draw the per phase equivalent circuit of a 3 phase induction motor and derive the
expression for torque. (2)
Ans:
(a) Per phase Equivalent circuit of Induction Motor
Approximate equivalent circuit
Torque Equation:
Rotor input = torque x ws
Torque/phase = rotor input / ws = rotor cu loss/ (ws s)
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Q.34 What do you mean by transmission line efficiency and regulation? Can it be
negative also? (4)
Ans:
Transmission Efficiency:-
The ratio of receiving end power to the sending end power of a transmission line is
known as the transmission efficiency of the line.
% Transmission Efficiency =(Receiving end power /Sending end power) x 100;
= (VR IR cosφR/ VS IS cosφS) x100;
where VR ,IR and cosφR are the receiving end voltage, current and power factor while VS, IS
cosφS are the corresponding values at sending end.
Voltage Regulation :-
The difference in the voltage at the receiving end of a transmission line between the
conditions of no load and full load is called voltage regulation and is expressed as a
percentage of the receiving end voltage.
Mathematically,
% voltage regulation =(VS –VR)/VR x 100;
%Voltage regulation is also given by= (I R cos φR ± I X sin φR)/ER x100;
+ for lagging pf
– for leading pf;
When the pf is leading, and the term IX sin φR is more than the I R cosφR, then the voltage
regulation becomes –ve.
Q.35 With the help of neat sketches explain different types of distribution systems. (10)
Ans:
Different types of distribution systems :-
(i) Radial system :
In this system separate feeders radiate from a single sub station and feed the distributors at
one end only. Figure shows a single line diagram of a radial system for a DC distribution
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where a feeder OC supplies a distributor AB at a point A. Obviously the distributor is fed at

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one end only i.e. point A in this case.

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The radial system is employed only when power generated at low voltage and sub-station is
located at the center of the load.
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(ii) Ring main system :-

In this system the primaries of distribution transformers form a loop. The loop circuit
starts from the sub-station bus bars, makes a loop through the area to be served and returns to
the sub-station.
The sub-station supplies to the closed feeder LMOPQRS. The distributors are tapped from
different points M, O, and Q of the feeder through distribution transformer. This system has
the advantage of continuity of supply and less voltage fluctuations.
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(iii) Inter-connected system :-

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When the feeder ring is energized by two or more than two generating stations or substations
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it is called inter connected system.

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In the above diagram of the inter-connected system the closed feeder ring ABCD is
supplied by two sub stations S1 and S2 at D and C. Inter connected system has the advantages
of increased service reliability and increasing efficiency of the system by reducing reserve
power capacity.
Q.36 Write notes on any TWO: -
(i) Industrial drives and their control.

(ii) Laying of underground cables.
(iii) Carrier-current protection and communication. (7+7)
Ans:
(i) Industrial drive and their control :-
Any motor with a speed control arrangement can be termed as a drive. The application
of these drives for industrial purposes are almost universal since they posses inherent
advantages over other forms of conventional drives viz, it’s cleaner, more easily controllable
and more flexible. Both AC and DC are used for electric drives.
There are two types of drives viz, group drive and individual drive. Each machine
having its own driving motor is called individual drive. When a no. of machines are driven
through belts from a common shaft ,it is called group drive. Selection of the type drive
depends on the application to be served.
Control :- Mostly DC shunt /series motor and induction motor are used as drive motors in
industry.
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(1) Control of DC motors

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(i) Field control

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(ii) Armature control

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(iii) Ward-Leonard system of speed control

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(2) Control of Induction motors

(i) Frequency method
(ii) Pole changing method
(iii) Applying variable voltage to stator
(iv) Varying rotor copper loss
(v) Slip speed recovery control
(ii) Laying of UG cables
(a) Direct laying : This method of laying UG cables is simple and cheap. In this
method a trench is dug. The trench is covered with a layer of fine sand and the cable is
laid over the sand bed. The sand bed prevents the entry of moisture from the ground and
thus protects the cable from decay. After the cable is laid, it is then covered with bricks
and other material to protect the cable from mechanical injury.
(b) Draw in system : In this method, conduit or duct of glazed stone or cast iron or
concrete are laid in the ground with manholes at suitable positions. The cables are then
pulled into position from manholes. Figure shows section through four way underground
duct line. Three of the ducts carry information cables and fourth duct carries relay
protection connection, pilot wires. Care must be taken that where the duct line changes
the direction, depths, dips and offsets are made with a very long radius or it will be
difficult to pull a very large cable between manholes.
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(c) Solid system : In this method of laying the cable is laid in open pipes or troughs
dug out in earth along the cable route. The troughing is of iron, stone ware, asphalt or
treated wood. After the cable is laid in position, the troughing is filled with a bituminous
or asphaltic compound and covered. Cables laid in this manner are usually plain lead
covered because troughing affords good mechanical protection.
(iii) Carrier Current Protection and Communication
On long lines carrier pilot relaying is cheap and more reliable than the pilot wire
relaying even though it is expensive and complicated than with pilot wire relaying.In this
type of protection the phase angle between two ends of the line decides whether the fault is
internal or external. When a voltage of positive polarity is impressed on the control circuit , it
generates a high frequency o/p between on phase conductor and ground. Each carrier current
receiver receives carrier current from its local transmitter as well as from the transmitter at
the other end of the line. These signal are then compared for any fault condition and action is
taken correspondingly. Traps are used to confine the carrier currents to the protected section
so as to avoid interference from other carrier current channels.
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Q.37 Can a transformer be used to transform direct voltage and direct current? Justify
your answer. (5)
Ans: The transformer can not be used for dc supply system (dc voltage & current).
According to working principle of the transformer, it works on Faraday laws of
Electromagnetic Induction. Therefore, induced emf e = (-dΦ /dt). The changing rate of
magnetic flux is responsible for e.m.f generation, which opposes the change of magnetic
flux, that is indicated by negative sign. But in case of dc supply system (d.c Voltage &
Current), there is no change of magnetic flux, dΦ = 0, so that induced emf at secondary
side of transformer is zero. Therefore, we can not use transformer for dc supply system.
Q.38 How does a salient-pole rotor differ from a cylindrical rotor in synchronous
machines. Where are the salient-pole type of synchronous machines used?
(3+3)
Ans:
Salient Pole Rotor Cylindrical Rotor

1. It has large number of projecting (salient) 1. The rotor consists of a smooth solid
poles having their cores bolted or dovetailed forged steel cylinder having a number
on to a heavy magnetic wheel of cast iron or of slots milled out at intervals along
steel of good magnetic qualities. the outer periphery (parallel to shaft)
for accommodating field coils.
2. Such machines are characterized by their 2. These machines are characterized
large diameter and short axial length. by their small diameter and large axial
length.
3. It is used for low and medium speed 3. It is used for High speed
synchronous machines. (Engine drive synchronous machines. (Turbine
generators) driven generators)
Q.39 Explain the effect of ‘armature reaction’ on the performance of D.C. motor. (8)
Ans: Effect of armature reaction
Armature reaction means effect on magnetic field distribution, this works in two ways:
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- demagnetize or weaken the main flux

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- Cross magnetise or distort the main flux.

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Fig - (i)
Fig - (ii)
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Fig - (iii)
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The first effect leads to reduce the speed of dc motor and second to produce sparking
at brushes. For armature reaction illustration, two poles have been considered and
initially assumed that there is no current in the armature conductors. The assumptions
are as under:
- That the flux is distributed symmetrically with respect to polar axis, which is
line joining the centres of NS poles.
- The magnetic neutral axis or plane (M.N.A) coincides with the geometrical
neutral axis(G.N.A)
The figure (i) shows flux distribution by poles (N&S) without armature current and
figure (ii) shows field or flux set up by armature conductors. And figure (iii) shows
the resultant flux or (mmf) component ‘OF’ which is found by vectorally combining
OFm and OFA.
Q.40 Explain the principle of operation of an induction generator. (4)

Ans: Induction Generator Principle:
Induction Generator is a machine similar to a induction motor and driven above

synchronous speed. Therefore, this is acting as an ac asynchronous generator. If the
machine is run below synchronism, the machine takes in electrical energy and act as
induction motor, at synchronism the power component of current becomes zero and
changes sign, so that, above synchronism, the machine gives out electrical energy as a
generator (when driven by mechanical power)
Q.41 Write notes on any TWO of the following:-

(i) Application of transformers.
(ii) Pulse transformers.
(iii) Single-phase induction motor. (2 x 7 = 14)
Ans: Application of Transformers:
- To step up the generated voltage for transmission line.
- To step down the transmission voltage to distribution voltage at load centre.
- To transfer power from one circuit to another circuit, used in control and
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- To couple the different stages of signal in amplifier circuit (electronic devices)

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- Used in communication cable for impedance matching from source to load.

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- Used in communication system and digital network as a signal pulse

transformer.
(ii) Pulse transformers:

The magnetic flux in typical pulse transformer does not change between
positive and negative values. The typical pulse Transformer operates in
unipolar mode. A fixed dc current can be used to create biasing, a dc magnetic
field in the transformer core thereby, forcing the field to cross over the zero
line.
The pulse transformers usually operate at high frequency necessitating use of

low cores. The circuit treats parasitic elements, leakage inductance and
winding capacitance as lumped circuit elements. But they are actually
distributed elements. The pulse transformer design usually seeks to minimize
voltage drop , rise time and pulse distortion. Voltage drop declines output
pulse voltage over the duration of one pulse. It is caused by the magnetizing
current increasing during the time duration of the pulse.
The pulse transformer can be divided into two major types:
- Power Pulse Transformer : These are used in precise control of heating

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- Signal Pulse Transformer: These are used for delivery of signal at output.
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The transformers deliver pulse like signal or series of pulses. The turns ratio of
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pulse Transformer can be used to adjust signal amplitude and provide

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impedance matching between source and load.

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Signal pulses Transformer are frequently used in communication systems and

digital network.
(iii) Single Phase Induction Motor
This motor is similar to a 3-phase induction motor except its stator is provided
with a single phase winding and a centrifugal switch is used in some types of
motors, in order to cut out a winding used only for starting purpose. This
motor has distributed stator winding and squirrel cage rotor. When stator is fed
from single phase supply, its stator winding produces a flux which is only
alternating. This alternating or pulsating flux acting on a stationary squirrel
cage rotor cannot produce rotation (only a revolving field can). Therefore,
single phase motors are not self-started.
If the rotor of single phase induction motor is initially started by hand or

otherwise, in either direction, then immediately a torque arises and motor
accelerates to its final speed.
An alternating uniaxial quantity can be represented by two oppsitely rotating

vectors of half magnitude. An alternating sinusoidal flux can be represented
by two revolving fluxes, each equal to half the value of the alternating flux
and each flux is rotating at synchronous speed in opposite direction.
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Total torque T = Tf + Tb
Tf = forward torque
Tb = backward torque
To make single phase induction motor self starting, it is temporarily converted
into a two phase motor during starting period. For this purpose, the stator of a
single phase motor is provided with an extra winding known as starting
winding. Two windings are spaced at 900 electrically apart and connected in
parallel across single phase supply.
These motors are widely useful in home, offices, factories/workshop & in
business establishment etc.
Q.42 Bring-out the advantageous features of the following:

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(i) Gas turbines.

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(ii) Energy Conservation. (7 x 2 = 14)

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Ans: (i) Advantageous features of Gas Turbines:

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• Very high power-to-weight ratio.

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• Smaller in size.
• Moves in one direction only, with less vibrations.
• less moving parts.
• Low operating pressures.
• High operation speeds.
• Low lubricating oil cost and consumption.

(ii) Energy conservation advantageous features.
- It saves, the need of fuel imports for many power plants.
- It minimises CO2 and environmental pollution.
- It helps in global warming problem solution.
- Less air pollution.
- Fewer power plants and liquid natural gas ports are needed.
- Less need to secure oil and natural gas overseas.
Q.43(a) Why are different levels of voltages used for generation, transmission and
distribution of electric power? (7)
(b) What are the essential differences between H.V. and L.V. switchgears? (7)
Ans: (a) Different Levels Of Voltages For Generation, Transmission And Distribution:
- The generation voltage is upto 30 KV AC rms (line to line).
- The long distance high power transmission is by EHVAC lines 220 kV,
400 kV & 760 kV Ac. In special cases, HVDC line is preffered. The rated
voltages of HVDC lines are ±250 kV, ± 400 kV, ± 500 kV & ± 600 kV.
- The backbone transmission system is done by EHV AC transmission lines

(400 kV AC & 200 kV AC).
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- Distribution is at lower AC voltage between 132 kV AC and 3.3 kV AC.

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- Utilization is at the low voltages upto 1kV and medium voltage upto 11 kV.
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- The industrial substations receive power at distribution voltage such as 3.3 kV

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and step down it to 440 V AC. Larger industries receive power at 132 kV and
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internal distribution at 3.3 kV to 440 volt AC.

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H.V. switch gears:

- Circuit breaker: Switching during normal and abnormal conditions ,
interrupt the fault currents.
- Isolators: It is disconnecting switch to disconnect the system from line parts
under no load condition.
- Earth switch: This is used to discharge the voltage on the lines to earth after
disconnecting them.
- Surge arrester: This is used to divert the high voltage surge to earth and
maintaining continuity during normal voltage.
- Current Transformer : To step down the current for measurement,
protection and control purposes.
- Potential Transformer : To step down the voltage for the purpose of
protection, measurement and control.
L.V. Switchgears:
- MCBs (Miniature Circuit Breakers): Switching OFF during abnormal
conditions to interrupt the fault current.
- Fuses: A short length wire having low melting point, connected in series with
circuit. In the event of fault, the circuit current rises abruptly and fuse wire
melts to interrupt the circuit.
- Switches: these are used to ON /OFF the power of a circuit. These are used
in power/ control circuits. The switches are specified as per voltage rating,
current rating, number of poles, duty cycle and fault interruption capacity.
Q.44 Classify the different types of secondary cells and describe the operating
characteristics of any one of them. (14)
Ans: Classification of secondary Cells.

Secondary cell is one in which chemical reaction is reversible. Therefore,
secondary cell can be recharged after use. These cells are also known as
storage cells and accumulators. These cells are classified as follows:
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- lead acid cells.

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- alkaline cells.
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Lead acid cells are used in electric substation for emergency lighting, to
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Ni – cadmium (Alkaline) cells of higher capacity and lower weight are

preferred. These cells have longer life, lower running cost and less
maintenance. The disadvantage of this cell is it’s higher initial cost. These
cells are useful for aircraft, emergency power application, industrial power
supply,portable tools etc.
Operating Characteristics of Lead Acid Cells
i. Anode Lead peroxide (PbO2)
ii. Cathode Spongy lead (Pb)
iii. Electrolyte Solution of Sulphuric acid
iv. Voltage per cell 2 Volts
v. Specific gravity of electrolyte 1.230
vi. Life short life
vii. Cost cheap
viii. Overcharging life is severely affected
ix. Efficiency (Ah) 90-95%
x. Internal resistance low
Q.45 Why are solid-state controllers preferred over conventional controllers? Give
examples of their applications and explain their features. (14)
Ans: Solid State controllers Vs Conventional Controllers:
Primarly motor control circuit of conventional type consists of switches, fuses, relays,
contactors and associating cabling. This type of conventional contactor control system
become bulky if implemented for complicated logic. The trouble shooting also
becomes difficult and time consuming.
On the other side, solid state controller made up by electronic components / devices
are used to implement such schemes in place of conventional contactor control which
are efficient, reliable and need less time for trouble shooting.
A PLC (Programmable Logic Controller) is known as solid state controller. The main
difference between relay logic controller and computer based solid state controller
(PLC) are:
- All input, output variables are in binary form
- In relay logic programming whenever any event sequence is to be changed,
rewiring of panel is necessary which was cumbersome. In computer based
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- Solid state devices can be easily controlled by computer.

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Therefore, Programmable Logic Controller (PLCs) are compact electronics devices

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that allow any process logic to be implemented by programming of PLC. It avoids lot
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of external control wiring. The PLC can be programmed according to user’s need and
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The PLC Architecture:

The PLC consists of :
- CPU (Central processing Unit)
- Memory
- Power supply
- Input Circuit
- Output Circuit
PLC operation: A PLC work is based on continuous scanning program. It has three
steps
- Check input status.
- Execute program.
- Update output status.
Q.46 Write notes on any TWO of the following: -

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(i) Hysteresis motor.

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(ii) HVDC transmission.

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Ans: (i) Hysteresis Motor:

This is a single phase special purpose motor. Its hysteresis torque remains constant
from locked rotor to synchronous speed. A hysteresis motor is able to synchronise at
any load. The stator of hysteresis motor has two windings which remain connected to
supply continuously in starting as well as during running of motor.
The rotor is made by a smooth chrome steel cylinder having high retentivity
so that the hysteresis loss is high. It has no winding. The rotor poles are
magnetically locked up with revolving stator poles of opposite polarity.
However rotor poles lag behind the stator poles by an angle α. The mechanical
power developed in a hysteresis motor :
Pm = Ph (1-s)/s where Pm = Mechanical power developed
Ph = Hysteresis loss in rotor
Th = Hysteresis torque
and Th = 9.55 Pm / NS
These motors are useful for driving tape- decks, turn table and other precision
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audio equipments. The commercial motors have two poles, they run at 3,000
rpm at 50 Hz , single phase supply.
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(ii) HVDC Transmission

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- For long distance high power transmission .

- For interconnection (Tie- lines) between two AC systems having their own
load frequency control
- For back to back asynchronous tie sub-stations.
- For underground or submarine –cable power transmission over long
distance at high voltage.
In HVDC link, AC power is converted by power electronic device at one end. The
energy is transmitted in HVDC form to the other end. At the other end the DC power
is inverted and fed into receiving A.C system. HVDC transmission system has a
HVDC converter substation at each end and HVDC transmission line in between.
(iii) Button Cells for low power applications.

These cells are compact in size and have long life. Examples of button cells are
Mercury oxide and silver oxide cells. Mercury oxide cells have Mercury cathode and
zinc as a anode. The watch battery are usually single cell with nominal voltage
between 1.5V and 3.0V
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The specific feature of button cells:

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- Common anode material : Zinc, Lithium

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- Common cathode material : Magnese oxide, silver oxide, carbon

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- Electrolyte : Alkali or organic, alkali required for zinc cathode and organic
for lithum cathode.
- Nominal voltage : for Zinc cathode = 1.5V to 1.65V ; for lithium cathode =
1.5 V to 3.0V
- End point Voltage : for Zinc cathode = 1.0V to 1.4V ; for lithium cathode =
1.2 V to 2.0V
Applications : used in quartz watches, calculator, PDA, Hearing aids, etc.
Q.47 Where are synchronous motors used? (4)

Ans: Synchronous motor applications
(i) Power factor correction
(ii) Constant speed, constant load drives
(iii) Voltage regulation
Over excited synchronous motors having leading power factor are widely used for
improving power factor of those systems which employ a large number of induction
motors and other devices having lagging power factor such as welders and fluorescent
lights etc.
In constant speed applications, synchronous motors are well suited due to their high
efficiency and high speed, such as centrifugal pumps, belt driven reciprocating
compressors, blowers, line shafts, rubber and paper mill etc.
Voltage in long transmission lines varies greatly at the end when large inductive load
are present and when inductive load disconnected suddenly, the voltage tends to rise
considerably above its normal value because of line capacitance. Therefore, by
installing a synchronous motor with field regulator, the voltage rise can be controlled.
Q.48 How is the speed of a DC shunt motor controlled? (5)
Ans: Speed control of D.C Motors (Shunt type)
D.C shunt motor speed can be controlled by the following methods:

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ii. Armature control method.

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iii. Voltage control method.

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N α 1/Φ ; By decreasing flux, speed can be increased and vice – versa. The
flux of DC motor can be changed by changing the field current with the help
of shunt field rheostat.
N α (V-Ia Ra), The speed / armature current characteristics show that greater
the resistance in armature circuit , greater fall in speed.
Shunt field of motor is connected permanently to a fixed exciting voltage, but
armature is supplied with different voltages by connecting it across one of the
several different voltage by means of suitable switchgear.
Q.49 Why are starters used for starting 3-phase induction motors? (4)
Ans: Starters for three phase induction motors:

For starting of 3 -Φ induction motor, we need Y-∆ (star – delta) starter. These starters are
useful for safe running of induction motor by applying 1/√3 times of voltage in Y- mode for
safety of induction motor. When motor gets 80% of speed we apply full voltage Vph=VL in ∆
mode; during this time sufficient back e.mf is developed to limit the input current.
Q.50 Write notes on any TWO of the following:-
(i) Parallel operation of transformers.
(ii) Speed control of induction motors.
(iii) Applications of induction machines. (2 x 7 = 14)
Ans:
(i) Parallel operation of transformers :
Certain conditions must be satisfied in order to avoid any local circulating currents and to
ensure that the transformers share the common load in proportion to their kVA ratings, The
conditions are :
- The Primary winding of the transformers should be suitable for the supply system
voltage & frequency.
- The transformer should be properly connected with regard to polarity.
- The voltage rating of both primaries & secondaries should be identical (same turn ratio)
- Percentage impedances should be equal in magnitude and have the same X/R ratio in
order to avoid circulating currents and operation at different Power factors.
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- With transformers having different kVA ratings, the equivalents impedances should be
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In case of 3 phase transformers’ parallel operation, the following conditions are also added
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with the above conditions.

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- The voltage ratio must refer to terminal voltage of primary and secondary.
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- The phase displacement between primary & secondary voltages must be the same for all
transformers, which are to be connected for parallel operation.
- The Phase sequence must be the same.
- All 3-Φ transformers must have same construction either core or shell.
(ii) Speed control of induction motors

The speed control of induction motor is obtained by various methods :
i. Frequency variation.
ii. Pole changing.
iii. Changing motor circuit resistance.
A slip ring (wound) motor is an adjustable speed motor. The rotor winding terminals are
connected to slip rings. A 3-Φ star connected rheostat is provided separately with motor. By
changing the resistance in rotor circuit, the torque speed characteristics of machine can be
changed. The Speed & Torque can be changed as:
T α r2 / s and Slip ‘s’ α r2
By increasing rotor resistance, The torque increases and slip ‘s’ increases, Therefore, speed
decrease as:
T α 1/N
The speed reduces in slip ring induction motor through rheostat control; and this can be
obtained only if the motor is loaded under no load condition. The no-load speed changes are
very little with the variation in the load resistance.
(iii) Applications of Induction Motors : The squirrel cage induction motor with single or
double pole changing windings are available as follows:
CLASS APPLICATIONS
(1) Variable torque, power output α N2. Fans, centrifugal pumps.
(2) Constant –torque power output α N. Conveyors, stokers, reciprocating
Compressors, printing presses.
(3) Inverse torque power output rating constant. Machine Tools, lathes, boring mills,
drill, planers,.
The Multi-speed motors are of slip ring type used for hoist, conveyor and elevator.
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Q.51 Highlight the role of following in the generation of power

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(i) Cogeneration.
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(ii) Diesel generator. (7 x 2 = 14)

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Ans: Co-generation
The interconnection of hydro and thermal power generation plant or reuse of waste product of
first generator as a fuel of second generator or other machine :
The large power system comprising several power stations load centres interconnected to
form a single grid operation of such a grid is controlled from a load centre or load dispatch
centre. The national load control centre is linked with various regional despatching stations.
The regional load centres send commands from power stations to control room periodically
by telemetric data transmission system.
The automatic load frequency control in the control system of generator turbine governor
basically aim to maintain a constant frequency/speed as a primary control. But setting of the
governor for turbine is changed according to instruction of regional control centres.
Therefore, The input of turbine from governor gets automatically adjusted by primary load
frequency control and frequency is maintained. The governor setting is determined by
economy load dispatch instructions from regional load control centres. The total load
cogeneration control is achieved by:
- Load control centre.
- Telemetry or telecontrol equipment.
- Power station control room.
(ii) Diesel Generator: These are used in medium power plants upto 25MW for industrial
and marine applications. The transportable diesel generator sets are for remote location, and
small power plants for small lawns /farms etc.
Generators are usually gear driven to speeds of 1000 to 1500 rpm for 50 Hz. Diesel engines
have a speed range of 1500 rpm to 2250 rpm (higher speed for gas turbine driven set)
The critical speed and torsional or natural frequencies are checked for diesel generator set to
avoid resonance. Brushless excitation is commonly used. The diesel generators are mounted
on same bed plate of prime mover.
Q.52(a) Explain the functions and basic requirements of a protective relay. (7)
(b) Compare the merits and demerits of overhead lines with an underground distribution
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Ans: (a) Functions & basic requirements of a protective relay :

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Functions:
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The protective relaying senses the abnormal conditions as a part of the power system and
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gives an alarm or isolate that part from the healthy system. The relays are compact, self-
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contained devices, which respond to abnormal conditions. Whenever abnormal conditions

occur, the relay close its contacts. Thereby trip circuit of the circuit breaker is closed and
circuit breaker will open. So that, the faulty part will be disconnected from the supply.
Basic requirements
- Selectivity, discrimination: The protective relaying should select the faulty part of the
system and should isolate, as far as possible only faulty part from the remaining healthy
system.
- Speed, Time: It is the time between fault instant and closing of relay. A rapid contact
fault cleaning i.e. 0.07 second with 60 kA rms value of current, has no damage to the
system but if it is 7 sec, the bus bar will destroy complete. Therefore, relay time must be
minimum as much as possible (i.e. in millisecond.)
Fault clearing time : Relay time + Breaker time
- Sensitivity, power consumption: It refer to the smallest value of actuating quantity at

which protection starts operating in relation with the minimum value of fault current in
the protection zone
Minimum short circuit current
Sensitivity factor ‘KS’ = IS /IO =
Minimum operating current in protection.
Stability : A quality of protective system by the virtue of which , the protective system
remains operating and stable under certain specified conditions such as system disturbances,
through faults, transient etc.
Reliability : The protective relaying should not fail to operate in the event of faults in
protected zone. The reliability of protective systems depends on diverse aspects such as
protective gear manufactures, Electricity Boards & Associates.
Adequateness :The adequateness of protection is judged by considering following aspects:
- Rating of protecting machines.
- Location of protecting machines.
- Probability of abnormal condition due to internal and external causes.

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- Cost of machine, importance.

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- Continuity of supply as affected by failure of machine.

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(b)
Overhead power Under ground Power cable

transmission lines
(A) Merit 1. Easy maintenance & 1. Less disturbances for other system
Repair 2. system looks neat and beautiful
2. Low cost of installation 3. Mostly used in distribution system .
transmission system due to

effective voltage upto
4. Less skilled staff is

required.
(B) De- 1. Chances of frequent 1. High initial cost

Merits failure due disturbance from 2.
other system. Problem of charging current in
2 less safe
3 Lightning protection is 4. Highly skilled staff is required.
required.
4. Chances of tapping or theft
more
Q.53 (a) Explain the working of a welding machine. (7)
(b) What is inductive interference? How is it caused and what steps are necessary to
reduce its effect? (7)
Ans: (a) Working of a welding machine:
A welding process is required to join two metal parts by heating them to melting point.
Electrical welding is used for joining of fabricating structures, machinery parts, pipes, bus
bars, bridges, ships railway bogies etc.
Electrical welding has two distinct types:
- Resistance welding : In resistance welding the current is passed through the joint to be
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welded and the heat is caused by I2 R losses in the joint, melting of metal and subsequent
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welding under pressure between faces to be welded.

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- Arc welding : The heat is produced by the arc struck between the welding electrode and the
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metal to be welded. Pressure is not applied between faces to be welded.

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400Less
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costwww.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
11kW)
(b) Inductive interference:
Inductive interference depends upon gradient of voltage at surface of conductor or

corona. The inductive reactance is affected from conductor attenuation at 1000 KHz
and varies from 0.3 to 0.9 dB/mtr.
Q.54 Identify the motor being used in the ceiling fan and explain the method of its control.
(14)
Ans: Motor used in ceiling fan:
Single phase induction motor is used for ceiling fan; this motor is more or less similar
to polyphase induction motor, except that
(i) its stator is provided with a single phase winding
(ii) Centrifugal switch is used in some types of motors in order to cut out a winding
used only for starting purposes; it has distributed stator winding and squirrel
cage rotor.
When single phase supply is fed, its stator winding produces a flux (or field) which is only
alternating i.e: one which alternates along one space axis only. It is not a synchronously
revolving (or rotating flux, as in the case of a two or three phase stator winding fed from 2 or
3 phase supply). Now, an alternating or pulsating flux acting on stationary squirrel cage rotor
can not produce rotation (only revolving flux can). Therefore, single phase is not self-starting.
To make single phase induction motor self starting the following method is adopted.
- Split phase motor.
- Capacitor start induction run motor.
Split phase motor:
Split Phase method: In this method, phase is split by introducing a resistance and a switch
in starting winding and both windings are connected in parallel with supply.
Capacitor – Start induction run motor:
The necessary phase difference between IS and Im is produced by connecting a capacitor in

series with starting winding. The capacitor is designed for short duty service. When motor
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reaches about 75% of full speed, the centrifugal switch ‘S’ is open and cuts out both the
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starting winding and capacitor from supply, thus leaving only running winding across the
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Q.55 Write short notes on any TWO : -
(iv) A.C. tachometer.

(ii) Energy conservation.
(iii) Carrier current protection 2 x 7 = 14
i. AC Techometer:
A tachometer generator has rotating magnet, which may be permanent magnet or

electromagnet. The coil is wound on the stator and therefore the problem associated
with commutator is absent. The rotation of magnet causes an emf to be induced in
stator. The amplitude and frequency of this e.m.f are both proportional to the speed of
rotation, then either amplitude or frequency of voltage may be used as a measure of
rotational speed. When amplitude of induced voltage is used as a measure of speed,
the above circuit is used. So that, output voltage of AC tachometer generator is
rectified and is measured with a PMMC instrument.
(ii) Energy conservation: The energy conservation in a electrical system means efficient
use of energy and to minimize the losses of electrical / mech energy in a system to
maintain minimum requirement of fuel for power generation and to maintain
ecological balance. This can be achieved by following ways.-
- Improving power factor.
- Minimization of reactive loads.
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- Optimize / replace electrical control circuit by solid state control circuit.

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- Use single unit of electric drive system in split of multiple units.

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- Effective periodic maintenance.

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Ans: www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
(iii) The carrier current protection: The carrier current protection scheme is used for
protection of transmission lines. The information about short circuit/earth fault of the
power transmission line is conveyed through carrier communication link. The carrier
current of frequency range 30 to 200 KHZ or 80 to 500 KHZ and received through the
transmission lines for the purpose of protection. In this system, each end of the line is
provided with identical carrier current equipment consisting of a transmitter, receiver,
line tuning unit, master oscillator, power amplifier etc.
Q.56 How are the power angle characteristics of synchronous machine obtained. (8)
Ans: Power angle characteristics of a synchronous machine :
The power transferred by a synchronous machine
P = (VE/ X ) sinδ
Where;
P = Power
δ = Power angle between vector V & E
V= Terminal voltage
E= Induced e.m.f.
An active power generated by a synchronous generator or consumed by

synchronous motor is given by following equation:
P = ± Vi Ef. sinδ / XS
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The power output of a synchronous machine can be changed only by changing its
power output. Change in excitation does not change in power output. The change in
excitation will give only change in e.m.f and negative power supplied by the machine.
Q.57 How is a DC motor started? (8)
Ans:
D.C Motor Starting
Ia = (V-Eb)/Ra
Where Ia = Armature current in amperes
V = Terminal voltage in volts
Eb = Back emf in volts.
Ra = Armature resistance in ohms.

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When motor is at rest, no back emf will develop in armature. Now, if full supply
voltage is applied to stationary armature, it will draw very large current because
armature resistance is relatively very small.
∴ Ia = (V/Ra) ; Eb = 0
This excessive current is large and this will damage commutator, brushes etc. To
avoid this situation, a resistance is introduced in series with the armature for short
duration with the help of starter, which limit the starting current to safe value.
The starting resistance is gradually cut off and motor gets full speed with back e.m.f
under safe limit
Now Ia = (V-Eb )/Ra
However, very small motor can be started from rest by connecting directly to supply
These motors have relatively large armature resistance than larger motors. These
small motors also have low value of inertia.
Q.58 Describe Rotating Magnetic Field. (8)

Ans:
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Rotating magnetic field:

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When stationary coils are supplied with 3 phase supply, a uniform rotating magnetic
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field of constant value is produced. The flux due to current flowing in each phase
winding is assumed sinusoidal and is represented in figure (b) The direction of fluxes
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are shown in Fig. (c). Let maximum value of flux due to any one of the 3 phases be
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Φm. The resultant flux Φr at any instant is given by the vector sum of the 3 individual
fluxes, Φ 1, Φ2, Φ3 due to 3 phases
Fig. (a)
Fig. (b) Fig. (c)

Calculation of φr :
(i) When θ = 0o corresponding to point ‘O’ in Fig (b)
Here, φ1 = 0 ; φ2 = – √3/2 φm ; φ3 = √3/2 φm
∴ φr = 2 x √3/2 φm x cos 60/2 = √3 φm x cos 30
φr = √3 φm x √3/2 = 3/2 φm = 1.5 φm
Similarly at θ =60o
φ1 = √3/2 φm
φ2 = - √3/2 φm
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φ3 = 0
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∴ φr = 3/2 φm
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And θ = 120o
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φ1 = √3/2 φm , φ2 = 0, φ3 = - √3/2 φm
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Mathematical proof :
φ1 = φm ( cos 0o + j sin 0o ) sin ωt
φ2 = φm ( cos 240o + j sin 240o ) sin (ωt-120o )
φ3 = φm ( cos 120o + j sin 120o) sin (ωt- 240o)

Adding above equations , we get
φr =3/2 φm ( sin ωt + j cosωt) = 3/2 φm (90-ωt )

Therefore, resultant flux is of constant magnitude and does not change with
time t.
Q.59 Derive the hystersis torque expression of the hystersis motor. (8)
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Ans: Hystersis torque expression of the hystersis motor:

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Usually, the shaded pole principle is employed for hystersis motor. The rotor of this
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motor is smooth, having high retentively, so that, hystersis loss is high. It has no
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winding, the rotor poles magnetically locked up with the revolving stator poles of
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opposite polarity. However, rotor poles always lag behind stator poles by a small
angle ‘α’ and the rotor revolves synchronously.
The mechanical power developed by rotor is given by
Pm = Ph (1-S)/ S
Pm = Mech power developed
Ph = Hysteresis loss in rotor and hysteresis torque
Th = (9.55 Pm )/NS
2πNS TSh /60 = (Eb Ia - losses) = out power
Pm = (Eb Ia - losses)
∴ Tsh = Pm /(2πNS /60)
= (60/2π ). (Pm/NS)
= (9.55 Pm / Ns)
This hysteresis torque is solely dependent on the area of rotor’s hysteresis loop.
Q.60 Write short note about following:-
(i) Power System structure with diagram. (8)
(ii) Wave energy. (4)
(iii) Ocean thermal energy. (4)
Ans: Power System structure with diagram:
Electrical power system can be divided into following regions :
• Generating stations
• Transmission systems
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• Receiving station
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• Distribution system
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• Load points
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Generating stations:
In all these regions, there are switchgears. Bus bars are connecting bars to
which a number of local feeders are connected. Bus bars operate at constant
voltage. Besides the bus bars, there are other equipment in the electrical
schemes such as circuit breakers, CTs, PTs, etc. These equipments can be
installed according to various schemes depending upon requirements.
Equipment in electrical scheme of Transmission system;
The power transformers are installed between two bus bars of different voltage
levels. A power transformer is the costliest, heaviest, and most important
equipment in substation.
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Typical station is distribution system.

In 11 kV distribution system, the cost of elaborate protection may not be
justified for protection transformer upto about 500 kVA. The substations are
generally unattended. The H.V fuses is the only protection provided on H.V.
side.
Receiving system & load points for a medium size industrial work:
The switch gear is installed in the substation of local points, such as industrial
works, railway substation, cinema house, large building, foundries etc. The
substation has following items:
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- Incoming line section

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- Transformer section
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- Secondary switching section

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(ii) Wave energy:
The periodic rise and fall of water level of the sea can be used to convert wave energy
into electrical energy by moving turbine blades from fall and rise of water waves. In
about 24 hrs, there are two high & two low waves/ tides. The rise and fall of wave
follow sinusoidal curve.
The world first wave/dual power plant was commissioned at ‘Range’ in France. This
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plant is of 240 mW capacity. There are three main components of a wave energy
in
power plant as follows:

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- The dyke to form basic or basin

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- Sluice ways from the basin to sea and vice-versa

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- Power house
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The turbines, electric generators and other auxiliary equipments are the main
equipments of power house.
Advantage
- Tidal/wave power has a unique capacity to meet peak power demand effectively
when it works in combination with hydropower plant or thermal power
Disadvantage:
- Power transmission cost is high because the tidal/wave power plant are located away
from load centre.
(iii) Ocean Thermal energy :

The conversion of solar energy stored as heat in the ocean into electrical energy by
making use of the temperature difference between warm surface water and the colder
deep water. The operation of OTEC (ocean Thermal energy conversion) plants is
based on a well-established physical (Thermo- dynamics) principle. If a heat some is
available at a higher temperature and a heat sink at a lower temperature, it is possible
in principle to utilize the temperature difference in a machine or prime moves
(Turbine) that can convert the part of the heat taken up from sources into mechanical
energy and hence into electrical energy.
The solar energy absorption by the water takes place according to Lambert’s law of
absorption, which state that each layer of equal thickness absorbs the some fraction of
light that passes through it
-dI(x) / dx = kI
or I(x) = I0e-kx
Where Io and I(x) are the intensities of radiation at the surface (x=O) and at the
distance ‘x’ below the surface, k= extinction coefficient
Requirements:
- Coastal zone land must be available.
- Sea floor must be descended sufficiently rapidly from the shore based plant location.
Q.61 What are the factors which are involved in circuit breaker rating. (8)
Ans: Factors involved in circuit breaker rating

The following rated quantities for HV ac circuit breeders
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Opening time: interval of time between energizing the shunt trip coil and instant of
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separation of arcing contact in all poles

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Breaking time: it is time between energizing of opening release and the instant of
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final arc extinction.

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Closing time: The time interval between energizing of closing circuit and contact
touch with all poles.
Open close time: it is time between separation of arcing contacts all the poles and
contact touch in first pole deriving open close operation.
Reclosing time: Time between energizing of shunt trip release and contact toad in all
poles.
Close-open time: Time between contact touch in first pole and separation of arcing
contact in all poles during close open operation.
The rated characteristics of circuit breaker include rated normal current, rated voltage,
rated insulation level, rated transient recovery voltage, rated short circuit breaking
current, rated short circuit making current, rated operation sequence etc.
Q.62 Give a list of the factors involved for selecting a factory drive. (8)
Ans: Factors involved in selection of factory drives:
- Supply system : DC or AC
- Rating : kW, MW
- Drive : constant speed, Variable speed
- Special Condition : High starting torque, Hazardous location,
Traction duty etc.
- User’s requirement : Duty cycle, noise level, load characteristics etc
off load, load condition
- Enclosures & cooling requirement.
- Environment condition
- Applicable standards
- Cost considerations
Q.63 What are the various losses occurring in a transformer? (4)

Ans: Various losses in a transformer
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(i). Core or iron losses: Core flux in transformer remains constant for all load. Its
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variation is 1 to 3%. This losses are due to eddy current and hysteresis in the core of
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transformer.
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Wh = ηB1.6max fv watt (hysteresis losses)

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2 2 2
We = PB max f t watt (eddy current losses)
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(ii) Copper losses : These losses are due to ohmic resistance of transformer windings.
Therefore, WC I12R1 + I22 R2 = I12 R01 or I22 R02
Q.64 Describe how the synchronous reactance of a synchronous machine is determined. (6)
Ans: Synchronous reactance determination of a synchronous machine
Eo = No load e.m.f.
E= On load induced e.m.f.
V= Terminal voltage
Z= √(Ra2 + X L2) i.e: impedance
I= Armature current/phase
Φ= Load p.f. angle
Xs = Synchronous reactance
The drop in voltage due to armature reaction may be accounted by assuming

the presence of a fictitious reactance Xa in the armature winding. The value of
Xa is such that I.Xa represent the voltage drop due to armature reaction. The
leakage reactance XL (or XP) and the armature reactance Xa may be combined
to give synchronous reactance (Xs).
Hence, Xs = XL + Xa
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Q.65 Explain how speed control is achieved for DC shunt motors. (4)
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Ans: Speed control for DC shunt motor

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(i) Flux control method: N α 1 /Φ, By decreasing flux, the speed can be increased and
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vice-versa. The flux of d.c. motor can be changed by changing Ish with the help of
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shunt field rheostat.

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(ii) Armature control method:

This method is used when speeds below the no load are required. As supply voltage is
constant, the voltage across the armature is varied by inserting a variable resistance in
series with the armature circuit.
For load of constant torque, the speed is approximately proportional to the potential
drop across the armature. The speed/armature current characteristic shows that greater
the resistance in armature circuit, greater fall in speed.
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N1 α (V - Iao Ra)
N1 α Eb1
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Or
N2 α ( V - I a2 Rt)
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and
Rt = (R + Ra) Additional resistance added with armature in series
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N 2 E b2
∴ =
N 1 E b1
V − I a. R t
=
− ao R a
(iii) Voltage control Method

Multiple voltage control : Here shunt field of motor is connected permanently to a
fixed exciting voltage, but armature is supplied with different voltages by connecting
it across one of the several different voltages by means of suitable switchgear.
Ward Leonard System: This system is used for wide range of speed control (i.e:
10:1) and it will provide a very sensitive speed control as required in colliery winders,
electric excavators, elevators.
By applying variable voltage across its armature, any desired speed can be
obtained. This variable voltage is supplied by a motor-generator set which consists of
either d.c. or an a.c motor M2 directly coupled to the generator.
Q.66 Explain how the circuit model of an induction motor is obtained from no-load and
block-rotor tests. (4)
Ans: (a) Induction Motor model :
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(i) No Load Test

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X01= total leakage reactance of induction motor

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Go = conductance
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Bo = exciting susceptance
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IV www.EngineeringBooksPdf.com
The method is for finding Go and Bo in running motor synchronously so that slip S = 0. In
practice it is impossible for an induction motor to run at synchronous speed, due to friction
and windage losses. Therefore, induction motor runs at synchronous speed by another
machine, which supplies the friction and windage losses. In this case, the above circuit
behaves like an open circuit.
Therefore, s= 0
RL = ∞
Hence current drawn by motor is I0 only.
Let V= applied voltage/phase
Io = Motor no load current /phase
W= Wattmeter reading i.e. input power in watt
Y0= exciting admittance of Motor
W= 3Go.V2 or Go = W/3V2 ; ( Go is no load conductance )
Io = V.Yo or Yo= Io/V
Bo = √(Yo 2 – Go2) = √((Io/V)2 - Go2)
Wo = √3 . VL. Io .cos Φo
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cos Φo = Wo / √3 .VL. Io ; VL = Line voltage ,

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Wo = No load stator input

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(ii) Blocked rotor test

In this test we find:
• Total leakage reactance X01 of motor referred to primary (i.e. stator)
• Total resistance of the motor R01 as referred to primary.
These values are used to described model Induction Motor. In this case rotor
is locked or allowed very slow rotation and rotor windings are short circuited
at step rings.
ISN = IS x (V / VS) ; ISN = Short circuit current
IS = Short circuit current with VS
Total ‘Cu’ Losses = WS - WCL ;
3IS2 R01 = Ws - WCL
WCL= core losses
WS = √3ISL cos ΦS = total power input on short current
VSL = Line voltage on short current
ISL = Line current on short current
R01 = (WS – WCL) / 3IS2
Z01 = VS / IS
X01 = √Z012 – R012
X1 = X/2 =(X01 / 2)
And R/2 = R01 – R1
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Q.67 Draw the torque-speed characteristics of a single phase induction motor and explain
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how it can be obtained. (6)

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Ans: Torque-speed characteristics of a single phase induction motor

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Torque developed by a single phase induction motor depends on its speed. But relationship
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can not be represented by simple equation. It is easier to show the relationship between
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torque T and speed N in the form of curve. In this curve, it has been observed that at N=0, T1
= 1.5T and Tmax = 2.5T. This is called breakdown Torque.
At full load, the motor runs at a speed of N. when mechanical load increases, the motor speed
decreases till motor torque again becomes equal to the load torque. As long as the torques are
in balance, the motor will run at constant speed but lower speed. If the load torque exceeds to
2.5T, then motor will suddenly stop.
Q.68 List out the important advantages of HVDC transmission. (8)

Ans:
Important advantages of HVDC transmission :
- Economical in long distance high power transmission.
- HVDC transmission line has only two conductors.
- Reactive power losses do not occurr in HVDC.
Q.69 (a) Describe the primary and back-up protection features that are provided for
transmission lines. (8)
(b) Describe a typical coreless type of induction furnace and its special features. (8)
Ans: a Primary and back-up protection:
The primary protection is essential protection provided for protecting a machine. As a
precautionary measure, an additional protection is generally provided and is called a
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“Back up protection”. The primary protection is the first to act and back-up protection
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is the next in the line of defence. Therefore, if primary protection fails, the back-up
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protection comes into action and removes the faulty part from one healthy system.
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When main protection is inoperative for purpose of maintenance, testing etc. The
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back-up protection acts like main protection. The back up protection can be classified
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as:
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- Relay back-up : Same circuit breaker is used by both main and back-up
protection, but protective systems are different. Separate trip coils may be
provided for the same-breaker.
- Breaker Back-up: Different breakers are provided for main and back up
protection, both the breakers are being in the same station.
- Remote back-up: Main & back up protection provided at different stations and
are completely independent.
- Centrally coordinated back-up: Here system is having central control and it can
be provided with centrally controlled back-up. The central coordinating station
receives information about the abnormal conditions through high frequency
carrier signals. The stored programme in digital computer determines the correct
switching operation as regard severity of faults, system stability etc. Main
protection at various stations and back-up protection for all stations is at central
control centre.
b Coreless induction furnace and its special features.

The coreless furnace consists of a crucible formed from a refractory material, which
contains the charge to be melted. This crucible is surrounded by a helical induction
coil (also called inductor) through which the alternating current flows. The heavy
currents are introduced in the charge by transformer action. The heat results from I2R
effect within the charge. The advantages of induction furnaces, in general, include
faster and efficient melting, relatively low melting cost. Higher temperature can be
attained, can be used for temperature holding etc. The induction furnaces are used for
melting, temperature holding, and super heating purposes.
Special features are:-
- Line frequency coreless induction furnace.
- Medium frequency coreless induction furnace.
Q.70 Write notes on ANY TWO of the following:

(i) Differential relays.
(ii) Inductive interference in a transmission line.
(iii) Nickel-cadmium cells. (8+8)
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Ans: (i) Differential relays

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The differential relay responds to vector difference between two or more similar
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quantities.
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- The differential relay has at least two actuating quantities say I1, I2
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- The two or more actuating quantities should be similar i.e. current 1 & current 2.
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- The relay responds to the vector difference between two i.e. I1~ I2 which includes
magnitude and/or phase angle difference.
Differential protection is generally a unit protection. The protected zone is exactly
determined by location of CTs. The vector difference is achieved by suitable
connection of CT or PT secondaries.
(ii) Inductive Interference in Transmission lines:
Inductive interference depends upon gradient of voltage at surface of conductor or
corona. The inductive reactance affected from conductor attenuation at 1000 kHz
varies from 0.3 to 0.9 dB/mtr.
(iii) Nickel cadmium cell
Nickel cadmium cells employ a solution of potassium hydroxide in distilled water as
electrolyte with a specific gravity of 1.200 at 16oC.
- Anode: NiOH and specially treated graphite
- Cathode: CdO, Fe2 O3
Cadmium oxide or iron oxide.
- AV. Voltage 1.2 V/Cell
1.3 V/Cell when fully charged.
The condition of battery can be determined with a voltmeter during charge or
discharge, while charging Ni-Cd battery, the temperature of electrolyte should not be
allowed to exceed 46oC. The battery does not bubble the gas until after the first
41/2 hrs when charging at the 7 Amp rate. No finishing rate is needed. The voltage of
charger should not be above 1.85 volt per cell.
Application : Type:
(1) Air craft, Emergency power application, Vent type
Industrial power supply communication
Equipment
(2) Portable tools, Photography Sealed type
Q.72 Give the lay-out of a typical thermal-power plant and briefly explain the working of
the super heater and the condenser. (8+4+4)
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Ans: The Layout of a Typical Thermal Power Plant

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Main components of thermal power plants are:

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- A furnace to burn the fuel

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- Steam generator or boiler containing water. Heat generated in the furnace is

utilized to covert water into steam.
- Main power unit e.g. (Engine or turbine) to use the heat energy of steam and
perform work.
- Piping system to convey steam and water.
Layout
Explanation of super heater and condenser:
(i) Super heater: The steam produced inside boiler is nearly saturated. This steam as
such should not be used in the turbine because the dryness fraction of the steam-
leaving boiler will be low. This results in the presence of moisture, which causes
corrosion of turbine blades etc. Therefore, to rise the temperature of steam, super
heater is used. It consists of several tube circuits in parallel with one or more return
bends connected between headers. Super heater tube range is from 1 to 2 inch in
diameter.
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(ii) Steam condenser: Steam condenser is required to receive the exhaust steam from the
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turbine or engine to condense it and maintain a pressure of the exhaust lower than
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atmospheric. Some extra work is obtained due to exhaust at pressure lower than the
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atmospheric. This improves the efficiency of the plant. Air inside the condenser
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should be pumped out continuously in order to maintain vacuum. The condensation

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of steam occurs in the range of 250C to 380C.

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Advantages:
- It improves power output and efficiency.

- It recovers most of the feed water, which save amount of fuel to be burnt in boiler.
- It decreases the size of boiler installation.
Q.73 With a neat diagram describe the construction of a lead acid cell and explain the
process of charging and discharging of the cell. (8+4+4)
Ans: Construction of lead acid cell and process of charging and discharging of cell:
A lead acid type batteries are known as secondary battery or cell, which can be
charged for reuse. This cell has following components:
- Anode or positive plate: It consist lead peroxide deposited on grid frame of

antimony lead alloy.
- Cathode or positive plate: It consists of porous-spongy lead pasted on grid frame.
- Electrolyte : Sulphuric acid is an electrolyte. It is prepared by diluting pure

H2SO4 & specific gravity of fully charged cell is 1.23 at 270C.
- Separator : These are thin porous sheet suspended between positive and negative
electrode to prevent short circuit.
- Vent plugs: Its purpose is to allow/escape of gases but prevent escape of

electrolyte.
- Battery terminals : These are made of nickel plated copper alloy.
- Container : It contains all plates, electrolyte, separators, vent plug, cell connectors
and battery terminals. It is made of hard rubber.
- Cell connectors : These are used to connect a number of cells of same type (either
negative or positive) in series so as to provide required voltage.
Charging process:
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Connect dc supply to electrodes with corresponding polarity. The direction of current

now opposite to that in discharging process. The current flow from external dc source to
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positive electrode to negative electrode through the electrolyte and back to the source.
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This process results in rise in cell voltage 2 or 2.1 volts and specific gravity 1.230
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The reaction taking on electrodes are :
At anode : PbSO4 + SO4 + H2 O → PbO2 +2 H2SO4
At Cathode: PbSO4 + H2 → Pb + H2SO4
Discharging process:
When cell is fully charged anode is PbO2 and cathode is Pb. An external load is
connected to electrodes of cell, therefore, an electric current flows in load. The process is
known as discharging. A fully discharge cell has a voltage 1.8 volts and specific gravity
1.180.
The reaction-taking places at electrodes are
At anode : PbO2 + H2 + H2SO4 → PbSO4 + H2O
At Cathode: Pb + SO4→ PbSO4
Q.74 (a) What are the criteria for the classification of transmission lines as short, medium
and long lines? (8)
(b) Draw the schematic diagram of a directional overcurrent relay and explain its
working. (4)
(c) What are the advantages of high voltage transmission and its limitations. (4)
Ans: (a) Classification of transmission lines (Power)
The network of transmission lines is formed by three phase AC system. This is required
for Bulk power transfer from large group of generating stations to main transmission
network.
Short power transmission line:
Short distance power transmission lines has voltage ≤ 11000 volts. These lines are
required to carry power from main sub-station to local distribution area. Further power
supply is distributed through pole mounted substation or plinth mounted sub-station.
Medium power transmission line:

Medium distance power transmission line has voltage range 33-132 kV. For the economic
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voltages for medium lines an approximate rule is 1 kV/mile or 0.6 kV/km. kV= 5.5 √km x
in
0.6 + kW/100. These lines supply power directly to big organization or industry, which
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Long power transmission line
A long distance power transmission line has voltage range 220 kV to 750 kV. These lines
are used for transfer of power from sending end to receiving end or for system inter-
connection for exchange of power between independently controlled networks. For longer
transmission lines, higher power transmission voltages are necessary (p α v2). Higher
voltage gives lesser current, lesser I2R losses, higher power transferability.
(b) : Schematic diagram of directional over current relay with its working:
Diagram:
The directional over current protection comprises over current relay and power
directional relay in a single relay casing. The power directional relay does not measure
the power but it is arranged to respond the direction of power flow. The directional
operation of relay is used where the selectivity can be achieved by directional relaying.
The directional relay recognizes the direction in which fault occur relative to the location
of relay. It is set such that it will actuate for fault occurring in one direction only. It does
not act for faults occurring in the other directions. In above diagram consider a feeder AB
phasing through subsection 1. The circuit breaker in feeder 1B is provided with a
directional relay R, which will trip the CB, if fault power flow in direction 1B alone.
Therefore, for faults in feeder 1A, the CB does not trip unnecessarily. However, for
faults in feeder 1B, CBB trips.
(c) Advantages and Limitations of high voltage transmission line:
The choice of transmission systems and rated voltages for a transmission line is made
from HV AC (upto 220 kV) EHV AC (400 kV – 750 kV) UHVAC (above 760 kV AC)
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depending upon technical and economic consideration.

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Advantages :
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- High power transferability of AC lines P α V2.

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- Line losses decrease with increase of transmission voltage and improvement of

power factor for same power transfer.
- Bulk power transfer from large group of generating stations upto main
transmission network.
Limitations:
- Higher voltage gives lesser current, lesser I2R losses
- Short circuit levels:
In case of very long lines of above 500 km, intermediate switching sub-stations
are necessary to install the shunt reactors for compensation.
- Right of way:
In some cases of big cities, industrial localities, it is impossible to acquire right of

way for EHV AC lines.
- Line insulation:
The creep age distance (leakage distance) determined on the basis of required
impulse with stand level.
- Corona:
The critical value of voltage stress depends upon pressure, temperature, humidity,
pollution level in air.
Q.75 Write short notes on ANY TWO of the following:

(i) Capacitor-start motor.
(ii) Switched reluctance motor.
(iii) Stepper motor. (8+8)
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Ans: (i) Capacitor start Motor

Diagram:
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capacitor in series with the starting winding as shown in above figure. The capacitor is
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generally electrolyte type and mounted on the outside of the motor. This capacitor is
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designed for extremely short duty service and is guaranteed for not more than 20 periods of
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operation per hour, each period not to exceed 3 seconds. When motor reaches about 75% of
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full speed, a centrifugal switch S opens and cuts off both starting winding and capacitor from
the supply. Thus leaving only the running winding.
The torque developed by split phase motor is proportional to size of the angle between IS &
Im.
(ii) Switched Reluctance Motor :
This type of motor has either conventional split phase stator and a centrifugal switch for
cutting off auxiliary winding or a stator similar to that of permanent split capacitor run motor.
The stator produces resolving field. The working of this motor is that when a piece of
magnetic material is located in a magnetic field, a force acts on the material, tending to bring
it into the most dense portion of a field. The force tends to align the specimen of material in
such a way that the reluctance of the magnetic paths that lies through the material will be
minimum.
When stator winding is energized, the revolving magnetic field exerts reluctance
torque on the unsymmetrical rotor tending to align the salient pole axis of the rotor with the
axis of resolving magnetic field. If the reluctance torque is sufficient to start the motor and
its load, the rotor will pull into step with the revolving field and continue to run at speed of
revolving field. However, rotor poles lag behind stator poles by certain angle known as
torque angle.
The constant speed characteristic of a reluctance motor makes it very suitable for
signaling devices, recording instruments, timers, phonograph etc.
(iii) Stepper Motors
This motor rotate through a fixed angular step in response to each input current pulse
received by its controller. These motors can be controlled directly by computers,
microprocessors and programmable controllers. These motors used for precise positioning of
an object or precise control of speed without using closed loop feed back. The unique feature
of this motor is that its output shaft rotates in series of discrete angular interval or steps, one
step being taken each time a command pulse in received. When a definite number of pulses
are supplied, the shaft turns through a definite known angle. So that the motor is well suited
for open loop position control because no feed back is taken from output shaft.
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Truth Table
A B C θ
+ 0 0 0
0 + 0 30
0
+ 0 0 90
1 PHASE –ONMode ABCD
These motors develop torques ranging from 1 MN upto 40 N-m in a motor of 15 cm diameter
suitable for machine tool applications. Their power output ranges from about
1 W to Max of 2500 W. The moving part in stepper motor is its rotor which has no winding,
commutator or brushes. Therefore, the motor is quite robust and reliable.
Q.76 What are the conditions for satisfying parallel operation of single phase transformer?
Deduce an expression for the load shared by the two transformers in parallel when
the transformers have equal voltage ratio. (8)
Ans: Condition for parallel operation of single phase Transformer :

- Voltage ratio (K) should be same.
- Per unit percentage impedance should be same.
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- Polarity should be same.

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- The phase sequence should be same.

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60
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V = Secondary voltage
I1 = Input current
I2 = output current
v = voltage drop
v = I1 Z1 = I2Z2 = IZ12
Z12 = Z1 || Z2
I = equivalent current at output
Z12 = Z1 Z2 / (Z1 + Z2) ;
I1 = v / Z1 = I Z12 / Z1 = I{ Z1 Z2 / (Z1 + Z2) } / Z1
∴ I2 = I Z1 / (Z1 + Z2)
∴ I1 = I Z2 / (Z1 + Z2)
and I1 V =V I Z2 / (Z1 + Z2) = VI{Z2 / (Z1 + Z2) }

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I2 V = VI{Z1 / (Z1 + Z2) }

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KVA1 (S1) = kVA . VI{Z2 / (Z1 + Z2) }

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KVA2 (S2) = kVA . VI{Z1 / (Z1 + Z2) }

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Q.77 Explain two important functions served by the damper winding in a synchronous
motor. State the various applications of synchronous motor. (7)
Ans: Important functions of damper winding in a synchronous motor:
- The oscillatory motion of the rotor about the operating point is considerably reduced
in amplitude and rotor quickly returns to the steady position.
- Providing starting torque like an induction motor.
- At starting, the rotor achieves a speed close to synchronous speed and the rotor and
stator fields lock into each other as soon as field excitation is switched on.
Various applications of synchronous motor :
- It is capable of being operated under a wide range of power factors, both lagging and
leading. Hence, it can be used for power factor correction purpose.
- In textile industry high speed drives are necessary with wide range of control.
Variable frequency drives with synchronous motors are used for speed control.
- In chemical industry, rubber industry and petrochemical industry, many processes

require compressor drives in which direct coupled synchronous motors supplied by
frequency converters are used.
- An artificial fibre plant needs variable frequency synchronous motor and are supplied
by static frequency converters.
- Synchronous motor is also useful for voltage regulation.
Q.78 Explain the process of building up of voltage in d.c. shunt generator and give the
conditions to be satisfied for voltage built-up. (7)
Ans: The DC shunt generator runs at constant speed and some emf will be generated due to
residual magnetism in the main poles. This small e.m.f circulates a field current,
which produces an additional flux to reinforce the original residual flux. This process
will continue and generator builds up the normal generated voltage.
∴ E0 = iRf + L di/dt
Rf = total field resistance

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L = Inductance of field circuit

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Condition to be satisfied are:

- Proper connection of field circuit winding.
- E0 depends on field circuit resistance.
Q.79 (a) Why does the induction motor not rotate at synchronous speed? (3)
(b) Describe with the aid of diagram of connection, phasor diagram and torque-slip
characteristics, the working of capacitor-start single phase induction motor. (5)
Ans (a) Induction motor does not rotate at synchronous speed

The rotor of a induction motor never succeeds in catching up with stator field. If it
really did, there will be no relative speed between stator and rotor field. Hence, no
rotor e.m.f, no rotor current. Therefore, no rotor torque to maintain rotation. That is
why rotor runs at speed lower than that of stator and stator field runs at Ns speed.
Ns = 120 f /p and rotor speed N = Ns (1-s)
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capacitor in series with starting winding. The Capacitor is generally electrolytic type
and its usually mounted on the outside of motor. The capacitor is designed for short
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duty service and when motor reaches 75% of full load speed. The centrifugal switch
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‘S’ opens and cuts out starting winding and capacitor from supply only main winding
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remains in circuit. The torque developed depends on angle between Im & Is, that is
approximate 800.
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Q.80 Explain the principle of operation of two phase servo motor. Draw its torque-slip
characteristics. (8)
Ans: The Principle of operation of two-phase servo motor:
For low power (few hundred watts) control applications, the two phases
(balanced) servo motor is ideally switched. As it can be driven by means of a
relatively rugged (drift free) as an amplifier. The motor torque can be easily controlled
by varying the magnitude of a.c voltage applied to the control phase (Va) of the
motor, while second phase called reference phase (phase Vin) is excited at a fixed
voltage. Synchronous a.c voltage must be drawn from the same source. The control
phase is shifted in phase by 900 from the reference phase voltage by means of a phase
shifting networks included in voltage application stages of amplifier. The motor
torque gets reversed by phase reversal of control phase voltage.
For linear stable operation, the speed torque- characteristics of a servomotor must be
linear with negative slope (torque reducing with increasing speed). It is suitable for
the position control system.
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Q.81 Write short note on following: (8)
(a) Condenser in Thermal power plant
(b) Control of nuclear reactor
Ans: (a) Condenser in Thermal Power Plant
The steam after expansion through the turbine goes to condenser to improve efficiency of the
power plant by decreasing the exhaust pressure of the steam below atmosphere. Another
advantage of condenser is that condensed steam can be recovered and this provides a source
of good and pure feed water to the boiler. Thereby, reducing considerably the water softening
plant capacity. The air and non condensable gases are removed from the steam, when it
passes through the condenser.
(b) Control of Nuclear reactor:
Once fission process is started in a few nuclei of fission materials, it should be able to
continue throughout the remaining material without external interference. For each act of
fission, nearly 2.5 neutrons capable of causing further fission are proceeded. A self-sustaining
chain reaction is not possible. The leakage of neutron through it is inevitable. Both fission
and non fission reduces the number of neutrons actually available to maintain the chain
reaction.
The reproduction factor (k) is defined as:
k=
k = 1 ; means chain reaction will continue.
k > 1 ; means chain reaction will be building up.
k < 1 ; means chain reaction will be dying down(due critical)
The desirable requirement of power reactor is that the system should be critical i.e
k =1. When we want to control reactor, we have to change the value of k. At the
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time of starting the reactor value of k has to be raised above 1. This will increase the power
level.
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be kept at this value as long as the out-put rate is to be kept constant. When the load on the
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reactor is to be lowered, the k has to be reduced to slightly less than 1 till the required
power level has been reached. At this point k has to be brought back to 1. Similarly, while
shifting down the reactor, the k has to be reduced to less than 1, the chain reaction will die
down.
Q.82 Describe the construction, principle of operation and advantages of SF6 circuit
breaker. (8)
Ans: (a) SF6 Circuit breaker
Working of SF6 Circuit breaker
In general, the circuit breakers consist of two main parts, the poles and the mechanism. The
poles consist of contact and arc-extinguishing devices. The mechanism is the part to open or
close the contacts in the poles at the same time instantaneously (with max. 5 millisec.
Tolerance). The closing and opening procedures are performed through springs which are
charged by a servomotor and a driving lever. In the system, the closing springs are first
charged. If "close" button is pressed, the opening springs get charged while the contacts get
closed. Thus, circuit breaker will be ready for opening. The mechanical operating cycle of the
circuit breaker is (OPEN-3 Min CLOSE/OPEN-3 Min- CLOSE/OPEN) or (OPEN-0.3 sec-
CLOSE/OPEN-3 Min CLOSE/OPEN). The second cycle is valid when the circuit breaker is
used with re-closing relay. In that case, after the closing operation, the closing springs are
charged by the driving lever or by driving motor (if equipped). Thus, the circuit breaker will
be ready for opening and re-closing.
When manual or motor-drive is used, the circuit breaker will be ready to close. The closure
can be actuated by pressing the closing button located on the circuit breaker. It is
recommended to close it using remote control system for secure operations. The opening can
be performed either by opening button or remote controlled opening coil. In case of a fault,
the relay signal actuates the opening coil and circuit breaker opens. (This is mechanically a
primary protection system). In addition, there is an anti-pumping relay for preventing the re-
closing and opening of the circuit breaker more than one cycle (O - C - O) and for preventing
possible troubles created by remote closing button.
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Applications:
Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) has an excellent gaseous dielectric for high

voltage power applications. It has been used extensively in high voltage
circuit breakers and other switchgears employed by the power industry.
Applications for SF6 include gas insulated transmission lines and gas
insulated power distributions. The combined electrical, physical, chemical
and thermal properties offer many advantages when used in power
switchgears. Some of the outstanding properties of SF6 making it desirable
to use in power applications are:
-Very high dielectric strength
-Very unique arc-quenching ability

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-Very excellent thermal stability

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-Very good thermal conductivity

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Q.83 Write short note on any two of the following:-
(i) Application of dielectric heating
(ii) Speed control of D.C. motor using chopper
(iii) Differential Relay (8+8)
Ans: (i) Application of Dielectric heating:
- Since cost of dielectric heating is very high, so it is employed where other methods
are not applicable.
- For baking of sand cores, which are used in the moulding process.
- For preheating of plastic compounds before sending them to moulding section.
- For drying of tobacco after glycerine has been mixed with in making cigarettes.
- The baking of biscuits and cakes etc. in the bakeries with the help of automatic
machine.
- For dehydration of food which is then sealed in air-tight containers.
- For removal of moisture from oil emulsion.
- In diathermy for relieving pain in different parts of the human body.
- For quick drying of glue used for book binding purposes.
(ii) Speed control of DC motor using chopper:
Vdc = VL = V x (TON / (TON + TOFF) )

= V x (TON / T)
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The average output voltage of a thyristor controlled rectification can be changed with
the help of a thyristor chopper circuit, which can be made to interrupt dc supply at
different rate to give different average value of dc supply. The dc voltage so obtained
can be thus chopped with the help of thyristor chopper circuit.
Since the thyristor can be switched ON- OFF very rapidly, they are used to interrupt a
dc supply at regular frequency in order to produce an average (mean) dc supply
voltage. This is achieved from low level dc voltage to high level dc voltage. The
thyristor T1 is used for dc chopping and resistance ‘R’. The capacitance ‘C’ &
Thyristor ‘T2’ are used for commutation purposes. When T1 is fixed into conduction
by its control circuit, the current is set up through the load and common capacitance
‘C’ gets charged Via ‘R’ with polarity during ‘ON’ period. When T1 is ‘OFF’, second
thyristor ‘T2’ is triggered into conduction allowing ‘C’ to discharge through it (since
it acts as short circuit while conducting) which is reversed biased, T1 thus turns it
OFF. The discharge from ‘C’ leaves T2 with reverse polarity, so it is turned OFF,
where as T1 is triggered into conduction again.
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(iii) Differential relay :
A differential relay is defined as the relay that operates when the phaser
difference of two or more similar electrical quantities exceed by a predetermined
amount. Suppose that current ‘I’ flows through the primary circuit to external fault. If
the two CTs have the same ratio and are connected as shown, no current will flow
through the relay and it will remain un-operational.
If now an internal fault occurs and if current flows to the fault from both sides, the
current flow through the relay will be I1 & I2. It may be noted that the fault current
need not necessary flow to the fault from both sides to cause current flow in the relay.
There may be flow of one side only or even same current flowing out of one side,
while a large current entering the other side will cause a different current.
This type of differential relay is likely to operate inaccurately with heavy load
through faults (external load). suppose identical CTs may not have identical
secondary current due to constructional feature and errors or under severe fault
condition CTs may saturate and cause unequal secondary currents and its difference
of secondary currents may approach the pick-up value of relay. This disadvantage is
overcome in percentage differential relay.
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Q.84 Explain the construction and working principle of a transformer. (4+4)
Ans: Transformer Construction:
The simple element of a transformer consists of two coils having mutual inductance and a
laminated steel core. The two coils are insulated from each other with steel core. Other
necessary parts are : some suitable container for assembled core windings from its container:
Suitable bushings (either of porcelain, oilfilled or capacitor type) for insulating and bringing
out the terminals from the tank. Core is constructed of transformer sheet steel laminations,
assembled to provide a continuous magnetic path with a minimum of air gap included. Steel
used is of high silicon content, sometimes heat treated to produce a high permeability and low
hysterisis loss at the usual operating flux-densities. Lamination is of varnish or an oxide
layer, which reduces eddy current loss. Thickness of lamination varies with frequency
inversely.
Transformers are of 2 general types distinguished by the manner in which primary and
secondary coils are placed around the laminated core :
1. Core Type – winding surrounded a considerable portion of the core.
2. Shell Type – core surrounds a considerable portion of windings.
Working principle :
A transformer is a static piece of apparatus by means of which electric power in one circuit is
transformed into electric power of the same frequency in other circuit. It can raise or lower
the voltage in a circuit but with a corresponding decrease or increase in current. The physical
basis of transformer is mutual induction between two circuits linked by a common magnetic
flux. It consists of two inductive coils which are electrically and magnetically linked through
a path of low reluctance. The 2 coils possess high mutual inductance. If one coil is connected
to a source of alternating voltage , an alternating flux is set-up in laminated core, most of
which is linked with other coil in which it produces mutually induced emf (according to
Faraday’s law of EMI e = MdI/dt). If the second coil circuit is closed, a current flows in it
and so electric energy is transferred (entirely magnetically) from the first coil to the second
coil. The first coil in which electric energy is fed from A.C. supply mains is called primary
winding and other from which energy is drawn out, is called secondary winding.
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Q.85 What are the two types of constructions that are employed in synchronous machines?
Explain the two machines and give with reasons which of them are simple to model
and analyze. (2+4+2)
Ans: Two types of construction employed in synchronous machine are salient pole and
smooth cylindrical rotor type.
(i) Salient pole type or Projecting Pole Type:
It is used in low and medium speed (engine driven) alternators. It has a large
number of projecting (Salient) poles, having their cores bolted or dove tailed
onto a heavy magnetic steel of cast iron or steel of good magnetic quality.
Such generators are characterized by their large diameters and short axial
lengths. The poles and pole shoes (which cover 2/3 of pole–pitch) are
laminated to minimize heating due to eddy currents.
(ii) Smooth Cylinder Type:
Used for steam turbine driven alternators i.e. turbo alternators which run at
very high speeds. Rotor here is deigned mostly for 2-pole (or 4 pole) turbo
generators running at 3600rpm (or1800 rpm).
The central polar area is surrounded by the field windings placed in slots and
the field coils are so arranged around these polar areas that flux density is
maximum on the central polar line and gradually falls away on either side. It
should be noted that poles are non-salient i.e., they do not project out from the
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surface of rotor. To avoid excessive peripheral velocity, such rotors have very
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small diameters and very long axial (or rotor) length. The cylindrical
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construction of rotor gives letter balance and quieter-operation and less

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windage losses.
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Cylindrical types are much easier to analyze than salient pole types because
they have uniform air gap, whereas in salient pole type air gap is much greater
between the pole than along the poles. Fortunately cylindrical rotor theory is
reasonably accurate in predicting the steady state performance of salient pole
type. Hence salient pole theory is required only when very high degree of
accuracy is needed or when problems concerning transients or power system
stability are not handled.
Q.86 Explain the characteristics of DC motors. Also give their applications. (6+3)
Ans: The characteristic curves of a motor are those curves which show relationships
between the following quantities:
1. Torque and armature current i.e Ta / Ia characteristic. It is known as
electrical characteristic.
2. Speed and armature current i.e N / Ia characteristic.
3. Speed and Torque i.e N / Ta characteristic. It is known as mechanical
characteristic.
Characteristics of series motor :
i. Ta / Ia characteristic:
Ta α Φ Ia
Φ α Ia (up to the point of magnetic saturation.)
Hence, before saturation
Ta α Φ Ia and therefore Ta α Ia2
As Ia increases, Ta increases as the square of the current. Hence , Ta / Ia
curve is a parabola before saturation. After saturation characteristic,
becomes straight line because Ta α Ia (for Φ is independent of Ia)
Ta
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ii. N / Ia characteristic:
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N α Eb / Φ
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With increased Ia, Φ also increases. Hence, speed varies inversely as

armature current. When load is heavy, Ia is large hence speed is low;
this decreases Eb and allows more armature current to flow. But when
load current and hence Ia falls to small value, speed becomes
dangerously high. So series motor should never be started without
some mechanical load on it.
iii. N / Ta characteristic :
When speed is high, torque is low and vice – versa.
Characteristics of shunt motor :
i. Ta / Ia characteristic:
Assuming Φ to be constant (at heavy loads , Φ decreases somewhat

due to increased armature reaction), we find that
Ta α Ia
Hence, the electrical characteristic, practically is a straight line through

the origin, that torque is shown dotted. Since a heavy starting load will
need a heavy starting current, shunt motor should never be started on
heavy load.
ii. N / Ia characteristic:
Assuming Φ to be constant, then N α Eb. As Eb is constant, speed is

constant.
But, both Eb and Φ decrease with increasing load. However Eb

decreases slightly more than Φ so there is some decrease in speed. The
drop varies from 5 to 15% of full load speed, being dependent on
saturation, armature reaction and brush position. Hence the actual
speed curve is slightly drooping as shown by dotted line. But for all
practical purposes, shunt motor is taken as a constant speed motor.
iii. N / Ta characteristic can be deduced from (i) and (ii) above and is
shown in Fig :
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Current Ia
Characteristics of Compound motor

a) Cumulative –compound motors:
The characteristics of compound motors lie in between those of shunt
and series motors. Here series field is in the same direction with shunt
field; due to shunt winding, speed will not become excessively high
but due to series windings, it will be able to take heavy loads.
b) Differential –compound motors:
Since the series field opposes the shunt field, the flux is decreased as
load is applied to the motor. This results in motor speed remaining
almost constant or even increasing with increase in load.(N α Eb/Φ )
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Applications of DC motors:
Type of motor Applications

Series Motor For traction work, i.e electric locomotives, Rapid
transit system, trolley cars etc
Cranes and hoists
Conveyors
Shunt motor For Driving constant speed line shafting lathes

Centrifugal pumps
Machine tools
Blowers & Fans
Reciprocating pumps
Cumulative For intermittent high torque loads

Compound For shears and punches
Elevators
Conveyors
Heavy planers
Rolling mills: Ice machine: Printing Presses: Air
Compressors
Q.87 Explain the different methods of starting an induction motor. (8)

Ans:
Methods for starting of squirrel cage induction motors are by
(a) Primary resistors (or rheostat) or reactors.
(b) Auto-transformers (or autostarter).
(c) Star-delta switches.
In above methods, terminal voltage of squirrel-cage motor is reduced during starting.
a) By using primary resistors, applied voltage can be reduced by a fraction ‘x’

and torque by n2 because resistor decreases applied voltage which reduces
initial current and current varies directly as voltage. Torque varies as square of
applied voltage.
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Ratio of Tst / T8C is x2 of that obtained in direct switching or across line

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starting.
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(b) Auto-transformers
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This method can be used for both star and delta connected motors with starting
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connections. A reduced voltage is applied across motor terminals. When motor

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autotransformers are cut out and full supply voltage applied across motor. The
switch taking these adjustments from start to run may be air break (for small
motors) or oil immersed (for large motors) to reduce sparking.
(c) Star-delta starter

This method used where motors are built to run normally with a delta-
connected wdg. It consists of a 2 way switch which connects motor in star for
starting and then in delta for normal running. When star-connected, applied
voltage over each motor phase is reduced by a factor 1/√3 and hence torque
developed becomes 1/3 of that which would have been developed if motor
were directly connected in ∆. The line current reduced to 1/3. Hence during
starting period of Y connected it takes 1/3rd as much starting current and
develops 1/3rd as much torque as would have been developed, were it directly
connected in delta.
Starting of slip-ring Motors
The controlling resistance is in the form of rheostat, connected in star, the

resistance being gradually cut-out of rotor circuit, as motor gathers speed. By
increasing rotor resistance not only rotor current is reduced at starting but at
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current. Hence such motors can be started with load. This additional resistance
is for starting purpose only. It is generally cut out as motor comes up to speed.
Q.88 What are the two advantages of stepper motors? Give a few applications of them &
explain permanent magnet stepper motors. (2+2+4)
Ans: Advantages of stepper motors:
i) They can be directly controlled by computers, micro-processors and

programmable controllers.
ii) Precision control of speed without using closed loop feedback.
Applications:
i) Operation control:
Such motors used for operational control in computer peripherals, textile

industries, IC fabrications and robotics etc.
ii) Incremental motion:
Applications requiring incremental motion are typewriters, line printers, tape-

drivers, floppy disk drivers, numerically controlled machine tools, process-control
systems and X-Y plotters.
Others:
It includes commercial, military and medical applications where these motors

perform functions as mixing, cutting, striking, metering, blending and purging.
They also take part in manufacture of packed food stuffs, commercial end-
products and even the production of science fiction movies.
Permanent Magnet Stepper motor:
It has wound stator poles and permanently magnetized rotor poles. It has a
cylindrical rotor. Its direction of rotation depends on the polarity of stator current.
The stator has projecting poles. Rotor has 2 poles whereas stator has 4 poles and
the two stator poles are energized by one winding, the motor has two windings or
phases.
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Working :
When a particular stator phase is energized, the rotor magnetic poles move into
alignment with excited stator poles. The stator wdgs. A and B can be excited with
either polarity current (A+ refers to the +ve current i+A in phase A and A- to
negative current (i-A). Fig, shows condition when phase A is excited with the
current i+A. Here θ = 0o. If excitation is now switched to phase B, the rotor rotates
by a full step of 90o clockwise direction. When phase A is excited with –ve
current i-A, the rotor turns through another 90o in clockwise direction. Similarly
excitation of phase B with i+B further turns rotor through another 90o in same
direction. After this excitation of phase A with i+A makes rotor run through one
complete revolution of 360o.
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It will be noted that in a permanent magnet stepper motor, the direction of rotation
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depends on the polarity of phase current as below:-

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i+A; i+B ; i-A , i-B, i+A

Clockwise
A+; B+; A-; B-; A+
i+A; i-B ; i-A , i+B, i+A

CCW
A+; B-; A-; B+; A+
Q.89 (a) Explain the three main blocks of a solid state relay. (8)
(b) What is meant by grading of cables? Explain the two methods of grading. (8)
Ans: Solid-state relays
A solid-state relay conducts load current through one or more power transistors or
thyristors.
There are three main types of SSRs, classified by the type of input.
Reed-relay coupled SSRs send the input signal through the coil of a reed relay.
Closure of the reed switch triggers the thyristor into conduction.
Transformer-coupled SSRs send an ac control signal through the primary of a small
transformer. (In the case of dc control signals, the input first goes through a DC/AC
converter before hitting the transformer primary). Voltage from the transformer
secondary triggers the thyristor.
Finally, photo coupled SSRs isolate the input from the output through a
photosensitive diode or transistor. A control current actuates a light source which in
turn, lets a photosensitive semiconductor conduct trigger-current to actuate the power
device.
(b) The method of equalizing the stress in the dielectric of the cable is called the
grading of cables.
Methods of grading.
(i) Capacitance grading
(ii) Intersheath grading
Capacitance grading is provided within gas insulated lightning arresters containing
stacked zinc oxide varistors by means of a grading ring electrically connected to the
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line terminal or, for arresters of the higher voltage ratings, by means of a plurality of
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telescoping external electrostatic shields. The shields are arranged so that the degree
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of overlap between sequential shields decreases from the line end to the ground end of
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the varistor stacks. The capacitance grading is provided by the degree of overlap
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between the sequential shields and the ratio of the radii of the overlapping shields.
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Intersheath Grading
In this method of grading, the same insulating material is used throughout the cable,
but is divided into two or more layers by means of cylindrical screens or intersheaths .
These intersheaths are connected to tappings from the supply transformer, and the
potentials are maintained at such values that each layer of insulation takes its proper
share of the total voltage. The intersheaths are relatively flimsy, and are meant to
carry only the charging current. Since there is a definite potential difference between
the inner and outer radii of each sheath, we can treat each section separately as a
single core cable.
Q.90 (a) Explain the features of a nuclear power plant with a suitable diagram. (6)
(b) Explain the term “cogeneration” and give two possible ways of cogeneration. (2+2)
(c) Write a short note on solar energy. (6)
Ans: Nuclear power station :
In the nuclear power station, energy is produced by nuclear fission of Uranium (U235),
Thorium (Th232), Plutonium (Pu239). The fission process takes place in a nuclear
reactor and material in certain circumstances can be made to become unstable and
transform themselves into ordinary chemical elements, iron nickel, silicon and
calcium and in this process set free a considerable amount of heat energy. Heat thus
generated will be taken away by fluid such as molten bismuth or liquid sodium. This
hot molten metal will convert feed water into high-pressure steam in a heat exchanger.
The steam thus generated is utilized to drive steam turbine coupled to an alternator
and exciter, thereby generating electrical energy.
Low temperature and low pressure steam from turbine is condensed in a condenser
with the help of circulated cooling water. From the condenser, water is again fed to
heat exchanger with the help of a feed water pump for converting it into steam.
In this power station transportation of fuel is not a problem, because one kg of atomic
fuel can generate as much electrical energy as can be generated from about
2500 tonnes of high grade coal.
The most suitable areas in our country for atomic power stations are western UP,
Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
Few examples of atomic or nuclear power stations are as follows:
1. Tarapur Atomic Power Stations, Tarapur near Mumbai.
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2. Ranapratap Atomic Power Stations, Kota (Rajasthan).

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3. Madras Atomic Power Stations, Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu).

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(b) Co-generation
Cogeneration is a highly efficient means of generating heat and electric power at the
same time from the same energy source. Displacing fossil fuel combustion with heat
that would normally be wasted in the process of power generation, it reaches
efficiencies that can triple, or even quadruple conventional power generation.
Cogeneration equipment can be fired by fuels other than natural gas. There are
installations in operation that use wood, agricultural waste, peat moss, and a wide
variety of other fuels, depending on local availability.
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The environmental implications of cogeneration stem not just from its inherent
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efficiency, but also from its decentralized character. Because it is impractical to

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transport heat over any distance, cogeneration equipment must be located physically
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close to its heat user. Cogeneration plants tend to be built smaller, and owned and
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operated by smaller and more localized companies than simple cycle power plants. As
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held to higher environmental standards. In northern Europe, and increasingly in North

America, cogeneration is at the heart of district heating and cooling systems. District
heating combined with cogeneration has the potential to reduce human greenhouse
gas emissions by more than any other technology except public transit.
(c) Solar energy is the utilization of the radiant energy from the Sun. Solar power is often
used interchangeably with solar energy but refers more specifically to the conversion
of sunlight into electricity, either by photovoltaic and concentrating solar thermal
devices, or by one of several experimental technologies such as thermoelectric
converters, solar chimneys and solar ponds.
Solar energy and shading are important considerations in building design. Thermal
mass is used to conserve the heat that sunshine delivers to all buildings. Daylighting
techniques optimize the use of light in buildings. Solar water heaters heat swimming
pools and provide domestic hot water. In agriculture, greenhouses expand growing
seasons and pumps powered by solar cells (also known as photovoltaics) provide
water for grazing animals. Evaporation ponds are used to harvest salt and clean waste
streams of contaminants.
Solar distillation and disinfection techniques produce potable water for millions of
people worldwide. Simple applications include clotheslines and solar cookers which
concentrate sunlight for cooking, drying and pasteurization. More sophisticated
concentrating technologies magnify the rays of the Sun for high-temperature material
testing, metal smelting and industrial chemical production. A range of prototype solar
vehicles provide ground, air and sea transportation.
Q.91(a) What are the advantages of electrically produced heat? Explain the various types of
electric heating with their applications. (2+6)
(b) Explain the salient features of electrical propulsion. (8)
Ans: (a) Electrically produced heat possesses the following advantages over other forms of
Heat:
i. Cleanliness: The complete absence of dust and ash keeps cleaning cost to a
minimum.
ii. High efficiency of utilization : Practically 75% to 100% 0f heat produced can be
utilized.
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iii. Absence of fuel gases : No fuel gases produce.

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iv. Ease of control : Simple and accurate control of temperature can be provided.
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v. Low attention and maintenance costs: Electric heating equipments require no

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attention, while maintenance costs are negligible.

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Various types of Electric heating and their applications:

i. Resistance heating: Two methods are employed in resistance heating.
a. Direct resistance heating: In this method , the material or charge to be heated
is taken as a resistance and current is passed through it. Resistance and current
is passed through it. The charge may be in the form of powder, pieces or
liquid. The two electrodes are immersed in the charge and connected to the
supply.
b. Indirect resistance heating: In this method the current is passed through a high
resistance element which is either placed above or below the oven depending
upon the nature of the job to be performed. The heat proportional to I2R losses
produced in the heating element is delivered to the charge either by radiation
or by convection.
Applications: Resistance heating is used in heat treatment of metals like
annealing and hardening etc., stoving of enameled wires, drying and baking of
pottery and commercial and domestic cooking.
ii. Induction heating:
Induction heating processes make use of currents induced by electromagnetic action
in the material to be heated. Induction heating is based at the principle of
transformers, there is primary winding through which an ac current is passed. The coil
is magnetically coupled with the metal to be heated. An electric current is induced in
this metal when the ac current is passed through the primary coil.
Applications:
• Surface hardening
• Deep hardening
• Tempering
• Soldering
• Melting
• Smelting etc.
iii. Dielectric Heating : for the heating of non metallic material i.e. insulators such as
wood, plastics, the dielectric loss occurs in such materials when subjected to an
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alternating electrostatic field. The material to be heated is placed between two

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and the voltage needed may be as high as 20kV.

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Applications:
• Seaming and welding in manufacture of synthetics.
• In wood processing industry.
• For baking foundry cores.
• For food processing.
iv. Arc Heating :
If an air gap is subjected to a very high voltage , the air in between gets ionized due to
electrostatic forces. The ionized air is the conducting material, therefore, the current
starts flowing through the air gap in the form of continuous spark or arc. This arc is
produced in the arc furnaces by having air gap and electrode. With graphite or carbon
electrode the temperature obtained from the arc is between 3000oC and 3500oC.
There are two types of arc furnaces.
• Direct arc furnace.
• Indirect arc furnace.
Applications:
• In production of steel direct arc furnace is used.
• Submerged arc furnace is used for ferrous alloy manufacturer.
• Indirect arc furnace are used for melting of non ferrous metals, it is also used in
foundries where small quantities of metal is required intermittently.
(b) Salient features of electrical propulsion.
Electric propulsion is a form of space craft propulsion used in outer space. This type
of reaction utilizes electric energy to obtain thrust from propellant carried with the
vehicle.
Types of electric propulsion :
The various technologies of electric propulsion are usually grouped in three types
based on the type of forces used to accelerate the ions of the plasma.
Electrostatic: If the acceleration is caused mainly by the coulomb forces the device is
considered electrostatic.
i. Electrothermal: In this type, electromagnetic fields are used to generate a plasma
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to increase the heat of the bulk propellant. The thermal energy imparted to the
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propellant gas is then converted into kinetic energy by a nozzle of either physical
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material construction or by magnetic means.

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ii. Electromagnetic: In this ions are accelerated either by the effect of an

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electromagnetic fields where the electric field is not in the direction of the
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Advantages of Electric Propulsion used in the battery electric vehicle that uses
chemical energy stored in rechargeable battery packs.
As Electric vehicle, it employs electric motors and motor controllers instead of
internal combustion engine
The concept of baterry electric vehicle is to charge batteries on board of vehicles
for propulsion using the electric grid.
The main advantages of battery electric vehicles are :
1. No pollutants are emitted directly by the vehicle potentially reducing urban pollution.
2. Gasoline is indirectly replaced by whatever is being used to generate domestic
electricity, reducing dependence on foreign commodities. The electrical energy
stored within the battery can be generated by any source, including renewable,
nuclear, natural gas, coal and petroleum.
Q.92 Write short notes on

(i) three-phase connection of a transformer
(ii) Variable frequency operation of transformer (8)
Ans:
(i) There are various methods available for transforming voltage to higher or lower
3Φ voltage i.e. for handling considerable amount of power. The most common
connections are (i) Y-Y (ii) ∆ - ∆ (iii) Y-∆ (iv) ∆-Y (v) open-delta or V-V
(vi) scott- connection or T-T connection.
Y-Y connection : Most economical for small high voltage transformers because
no. of turns/phase and amount of insulation required is minimum (1/√3=Vp/VL)
This connection works only if the load is balanced. With unbalanced load to
neutral, the neutral point shifts making the 3 phase-voltage unequal. It was a phase
shift of 30o between phase and line voltage in both ∆-∆ connection. It is
economical for large, low voltage transformers where insulation problem is not so
urgent, because it increases the no. of turns/phase. The 3-Φ voltage remains
practically constant regardless of load imbalance. Even if one Transformer
becomes disable, system continues to operate in V-V although with reduced
available capacity of 58% of normal value. There is no internal phase-shift
between VP & VL. Voltage are sinusoidal because of presence of 3rd harmonic in
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magnetizing current.
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Y-∆ Connection:
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Used at substation end of transmission line where voltage is stepped down. There
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is 30o shift between primary and secondary line voltages which means Y-∆ can be
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paralleled with Y-Y or ∆-∆ bank. 3rd harmonic flows in ∆ to provide a sinusoidal
flux VLS/VLP = k /√3
∆-Y connection:
Used at beginning of high TTS to step up the voltage. Because of 30o shift it is
impossible to paralleled such bank with ∆-∆ or Y-Y even if voltages ratio
correctly adjusted. Best suited for 3Φ, 4 wire service. VLS/VLP = √3 k.
Open delta or V-V connection: Method of transforming 3Φ power by means of
only transformer at a reduced rate of 58% of normal value. Ratio of operating
capacity to available capacity of an V-V is 0.866 (utility factor). Overload on each
of transformer is 73.2%. The addition of 3rd transformer increases total capacity
by √3 or 173.2%.
Scott or T-T connection :
(ii) Variable Frequency operation of transformer:

Change in frequency affects the operation of a transformer in the following ways:
i. Iron Loss – Increases with a decrease in frequency. A 60 Hz transformer will
have nearly 11% higher losses, when worked on 50 Hz instead of 60 Hz.
However, when a 25 Hz transformer is worked on 60Hz, iron losses are
reduced by 25%.
ii. Cu Loss – In distribution transformer, it is independent of frequency.
iii. Efficiency- Since Cu loss is unaffected by change in frequency, a given
transformer efficiency is less at a low frequency than at a higher one.
iv. Regulation – Regulation at unit power factor is not affected because IR drop is
independent of frequency. Since reactive drop is affected, regulation at low
power factor decreases with decrease in frequency and vice versa. For
example, the regulation of a 25 Hz transformer when operated at 50 Hz and
low power factor is much poorer.
v. Heating – Since total loss is greater at a lower frequency, the temperature is
increased with decrease in frequency.
Q.93 Explain the constructional features of synchronous generator. What are the two types
of generators? Derive emf equation of a synchronous machine. (10)
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Ans: Constructional feature of synchronous generator ;

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field. Armature winding mounted on a stationary element called stator and field
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winding on a rotating element called rotor.

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on its inner periphery for housing the armature conductor. The rotor is like a flywheel
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having alternate N and S poles fixed to its outer rim. The magnetic poles are excited
from direct current supplied by a d.c source which is belted or mounted on the shaft of
the alternator itself. Because the field magnets are rotating, this current is supplied
through two slip rings. As the exciting voltage is relatively small, the slip ring and
brushes gear are of light construction.
Types of synchronous generator :
There are two types of rotor used in synchronous generator. Accordingly, A
synchronous generator may be classified as:
(i) Salient pole type
(ii) smooth cylindrical type.
Salient pole type has a large number of projecting poles having their cores bolted or
dovetailed on to a heavy magnetic wheel of cast iron or steel of good magnetic
quality. Such generators are characterized by their large diameter and short axial
length.
Smooth cylindrical type runs at very high speed. The rotor consists of a smooth solid
forged steel cylinder having a number of slots milled out at intervals along the outer
periphery for accommodating field coils. Such rotors are designed mostly for 2 pole
turbo generator running at 3600 rpm. These are characterized by small diameter and
long axial rotor length. The cylindrical construction of the rotor gives better balance
and quieter operation and less windage losses.
E.M.F equation of synchronous machine :
Let Z = no. of conductor or coil sides in series / phase.
= 2T – where T is the no of coils or turns/phase.
P = No. of poles.
F = frequency of induced e.m.f in Hz.
Φ = flux /pole in webers
Kd = distribution factor = sin m β/2 / msin β/2
KC & KP = Pitch or coil span factor = cos α /2
Kf = form factor = 1.11 – if e.m.f is assumed sinusoidal
N = rotative speed of the rotor in r.p.m
In one revolution of the rotor (i.e in 60/N seconds) each stator conductor is cut by a flux of
Φ p webers
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dΦ = Φ p and dt = 60/N seconds

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∴ average e.m.f induced per conductor

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= dΦ/ dt = Φ p / (60/N) = Φ Np / (60) volts

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Now, we know that f = pN/120

Or N = 120f /p
Substituting this value of N above, we get average e.m.f per conductor
=Φ p / (60) x 120f/p = 2 f Φ volts
if there are Z conductors in series / phase then
Average e.m.f /phase = 2fΦ Z volts
= 4fΦT volts
R.M.S value of e.m.f / phase = 1.11 x f Φ T
= 4.44 fΦ T volts
This would have been the actual value of the voltage induced. All the coils in a phase are :
(i) full pitched and
(ii) concentrated or bunched in one slot.
But the actually available voltage is reduced in the ratio of the these two factors.
∴ actually available voltage / phase.
= 4.44 k C kd fΦ T volts
=4.44 kf k C kd fΦ T volts
Q.94 (a) Give comparison between squirrel cage and slip ring induction machine? Discuss
the working principle of three phase induction motor. (8)
(b) State different methods of speed control of three phase induction motor. Explain
any one of the method in detail. Also draw torque-speed characteristics. (8)
Ans: Comparison between Squirrel-cage and Slip ring Induction Machine:
Almost 90% of induction machines are Squirrel-cage type, because this type of rotor
has the simplest and most rugged construction imaginable and is almost
indestructible. Rotor is of cylindrical type laminated core.
Rotor bars are permanently short-circuited on themselves, hence it is not possible to

add any external resistance in series with rotor circuit for starting purposes.
Rotor slots are skewed for (a) quiet running by reducing magnetic hum. (b) helps in
reducing locking tendency of the rotor i.e. tendency of rotor teeth to remain under
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Slip ring induction machine :

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This type is provided with distributed winding consisting of coils as used in

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Speed torque/current characteristics can be changed by introduction of additional

external resistance in rotor circuit during starting period for increasing starting torque.
When running under normal conditions, the slip-rings are automatically short-
circuited by means of a metal collar. Then brushes are automatically lifted to reduce
fictional losses.
But under normal running conditions wound rotor is short circuited on itself just like
squirrel case rotor.
Working principle of 3 Ø induction motor :
In A.C. motors, rotor does not receive electric power by conduction but by induction
in exactly the same way as the secondary of 2-wdg transformer receives its power
from the primary. So such motors are known as induction motors.
The principle of a 3Ø 2 pole stator having 3 identical wdg placed 120o apart. The flux
(assumed sinusoidal) due to 3 Ø wdg is shown. Let Ø m be maximum value of flux
due to any one of the 3Ø . The resultant flux Ør at any instant, is given by vector sum
of individual fluxes Ø 1 Ø 2 Ø 3 due to 3 Ø. Let us consider values of Ør at four
instants 1/6th time period apart corresponding to points marked 0,1, 2 and 3.
(i) When θ = 0o i.e. corresponding to points 0

Hence Ø1 = 0, Ø 2 = √ 3 Ø m, Ø 3 = √ 3 Ø m,
2 2
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Ør = 2 x √3 Øm, cos 60 = √3 x √3 Øm = 3 Øm,
2 2 2 2
(ii) When θ = 60o i.e. corresponding to point 1
Here Ø1 = -√3 Øm
2
Ø2 = √3 Øm,
2
Ø3 = 0
(iii) when θ = 120o corresponding to point 2

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Here Ø1 = -√3 Øm; Ø2 = 0, Ø3 =-√3 Øm

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Ør = 3
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(iv) when θ = 180o corresponding to point 3
Ø1 = 0, Ø2 = √3 Øm; Ø3 = -√3 Øm
2 2
Hence
1. Resultant flux is 3 Øm i.e. 1.5 times the maximum value of flux
2
due to any phase.
2. Resultant flux rotates around stator at synchronous speed given by
Ns = 120 f/p
(b) Different methods of speed control of three phase induction motor
The speed of an induction motor is given by
N = (f/p) x (1-S)
Where, N is speed
F is frequency
P is the no of poles.
S is the slip.
Thus speed of three phase induction motor is controlled by the following methods:
a. Rheostatic control
b. pole control
c. cascade control
d. combination of cascade and pole changing arrangement.
e. Frequency control
Pole changing method: Winding on the stator may be so arranged that with different
connection, different numbers of poles are available which give different speeds. The
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choice of the number of poles on the pole changing winding is in the ratio 2:1,
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Torque – speed characteristics of 3-Φ Induction
Q.95 Describe the construction of hystersis motor and show that it builds a running torque
both at synchronous and asynchronous speed of the rotor. (8)
Ans: Construction of Hysterisis motor:

The operation of hysterisis motor depends on the presence of a continuously revolving
magnetic flux.
The rotor of this motor is a smooth chrome steel cylinder having high retentivity so
that the hysterisis loss is high. It has no winding. Because of high retentivity of the
rotor material, it is very difficult to change the magnetic polarities. Once they are
induced in the rotor by the revolving flux, the rotor revolves synchronously because
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The fact that the rotor has no teeth or winding of any sort results in making the motor
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extremely quiet in the operation and free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations.
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This makes the motor particularly useful for sound equipment applications.
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This motor builds a running torque both at synchronous and asynchronous speed of
the rotor It accelerates rapidly, changing from rest to full speed almost
instantaneously.
Q.96 (a) What do you understand by the term cogeneration? Give its significance. (8)
(b) Write short notes on following energy sources

(i) Wind
(ii) Wave
(iii) Bio fuels (3+3+2)
Ans: (a) Cogeneration is a high efficiency energy system that produces both electricity
(or mechanical energy) and valuable heat from single fuel source. Cogeneration is
some times known as combined heat and not only generates power but also provides
heat for industrial purposes. For example a hospital cogeneration plant would
produce some of power and all hot water needed for its laundry and hot water system
from the waste heat it generates.
Significance :
It reduces energy costs and green house gas emissions typically by upto two-third. In
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addition to reduction in cost, cogeneration also increases resource utilization. It offers

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major economic and environmental facilities because it turns otherwise wasted heat
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Cogeneration is a proven and reliable technology currently operating at over 100 sites
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There is significant potential for cogeneration plants fired by other fuels, including
biomass (e.g., plant waste from sugar or cotton harvesting), or biogas (e.g., methane
produced by sewage works or piggeries).
(b)
(i) Wind
Wind energy used in wind mills to pump water from wells and low level to high level.
Windmills do not generate electricity but are used to grind grains with large grinding
stones. Today wind is used to make electricity, blowing wind spins the blades on a
wind turbine, which is called wind turbine. The blade of turbine is attached to a hub
i.e. mounted on a turning shaft. The shaft goes through a gear transmission box where
the turning speed is increased. The transmission is attached to a high-speed shaft,
which turn generator that makes electricity. If wind gets too high, turbine has a brake
that will keep blades from turning to fast and being damaged. For efficient working,
wind speeds must be above 12 to 14 miles/hr., to turn the turbines fast enough to
generate electricity. Turbines usually produce 50 to 500 kW of electricity each.
(ii) Wave
Waves are caused by action of winds on sea. Waves can be many meters high and
contain a great deal of energy, which can be harnessed to drive turbines that generate
electricity.
Wave energy can be harnessed in coastal areas, close to shore. There has been one
such device working on the island of Islay in Scotland since early 1990s producing
75 kW of electricity. Wave energy collectors are of 2 main types :
(a) First type directs waves into man-made channels, where the water passes
through a turbine that generates electricity.
(b) Second type uses up and down movement of wave to push air.
Advantages : Non-polluting and don’t affect wild life.
Disadvantages : Turbines can be unsightly and no constant supply of energy. Wave
heights vary.
(iii) Bio fuel:
Bio fuel are transportation fuel like ethanol and bio-diesel that are made from biomass
materials. These are usually blended with petroleum fuels-gasoline and diesel fuel,
but they can also be used on their own. Ethanol and bio-diesel are expensive than
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fossil fuels that they replace but are cleaner fuels, producing fewer air pollutants.
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Ethanol is an alcohol fuel made from sugars found in grains, such as corn, sorghum
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and wheat as well as potato skins, rice etc. Most of ethanol in US is distilled from
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corn.
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Bio-diesel is a fuel made with vegetable oils, fats or greases such as recycled
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restaurant grease. Bio-diesel fuels can be used in diesel engine without changing
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them. It is fastest growing alternative fuel in US. A safe, renewable, fewer

pollutants,degradable.
Q.97 Why does a practical transformer draw some current when its secondary winding is
open? (4)
Ans : Transformer practically draws some current when its secondary winding is open due
to primary circuit and this current will produce core losses.
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UNIT IV
Part A- polyphase AC Circuit
1. Power in a Three Phase Circuit = _____

A. P = 3 VPh IPh CosФ
B. P = √3 VL IL CosФ
C. Both A & B
D. None of The Above
Ans: C
2. In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages is _______ ?
A. Infinite (∞)
B. Zero (0)
C. One (1)
Ans: B
3. For a star connected three phase AC circuit ———
A. Phase voltage is equal to line voltage and phase current is three times the line
current
B. Phase voltage is square root three times line voltage and phase current is equal
to line current
C. Phase voltage is equal to line voltage and line current is equal to phase current
Ans: B
4. In a three phase, delta connection ——-
A. line current is equal to phase current
B. Line voltage is equal to phase voltage
C. None of the above
D. Line voltage and line current is zero
Ans: B
5. For a star connection network, consuming power of 1.8kW and power factor 0.5, the
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inductance and resistance of each coil at a supply voltage of 230 Volts, 60 Hz is

______?
in
A. 0.1H, 8 Ohms
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B. 0.5H, 10 Ohms
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C. 0.3H, 7.4 Ohms

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D. 1H, 7 Ohms
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Ans: C
C
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Explanation: Since it is a star connection, phase current = line current = 9 Amperes

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Phase Voltage, Vph = VL/√3 = 132.8 Volts
Phase Impedance, Zph = Vph/Iph = 14.7 Ohms
Now, Power Factor = Resistance/Impedance
Hence, Resistance of Coil = Impedance X Power Factor = 7.4 Ohms
Substituting values, we get Reactance of coil = 12.7 Ohms
Thus, inductance of coil , L = 0.03H
6. In a three phase AC circuit, power is measured using a Wattmeter.

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
7. For a polyphase system, the number of Wattmeter required to measure power is equal
to ——
A. Number of wires
B. One less than number of wires
C. Number of phases
Ans: B
8. For the below star connected network of equal resistances, if the Wattmeter reading
is 5kW and ammeter reading is 25 Amperes, the power factor, resistance and
inductance are __________ respectively.
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A. 1.5 Ohms, 0.1H

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B. 0.866, 8 Ohms, 0.02H

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C. 5.10 Ohms, 0.01H

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D. 4. Ohms, 0.02H
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Ans: B
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Explanation: Given
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Line Voltage, VL = 400 Volts
Frequency, f = 60 Hz
Line Current, IL = 25 Amperes

Power per phase, Pph = 5kW
Phase Voltage, Vph = VL/3^1/2 = 230.9 Volts
Phase current, Iph = 25 Amperes
Hence, power factor, cosφ = Pph/VphIph = 0.866
Impedance, Zph = Vph/Iph = 9.236 Ohms
Resistance, R = Zphcosφ = 8 Ohms
Putting the values in the below equation, Reactance, X =
Therefore, Inductance, L = 0.02H

9. For a three phase, three wire system, the two Wattmeter read 4000 Watts and 2000
Watts respectively. The power factor when both meters give direct reading is
_______ ?
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 0.866
D. 0.6
Ans: C
Explanation: Reading of Wattmeter 1, W1 = 4000 Watts
Reading of Wattmeter 2, W2 = 2000 Watts
Phase angle;
Power Factor, = 0.866

10. A polyphase system is generated by——-
A. Having two or more generator windings separated by equal electrical angle.
B. Having generator windings at equal distances
C. None of the above
D. A and C
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Ans: A
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11. In a balanced three-phase load, each phase has

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A. An equal amount of power

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B. One-third of total power

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C. Two-thirds of total power

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D. A power consumption equal to (√3VL) IL

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Ans: A
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12. Polyphase is characterized by two or more sinusoidal voltages, each having a
different phase angle.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
13. If in a Y-connected ac generator, each phase voltage has a magnitude of 90 VRMS,
what is the magnitude of each line voltage?
A. 0 V
B. 90 V
C. 156 V
D. 180 V
Ans: C
14. In a certain three-wire Y-connected generator, the phase voltages are 2 kV. The
magnitudes of the line voltages are
A. 2,000 V
B. 6,000 V
C. 666 V
D. 3,464 V
Ans: D
15. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by

A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 120°
D. 180°
Ans: C
16. Power is measured in a three-phase load by using an ammeter.

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
17. In a ∆-connected generator, all of the phase voltages are

A. Zero
B. Equal in magnitude
C. One-third of total
D. One-sixth of total
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Ans: B
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18. In a ∆-connected source driving a ∆-connected load, the

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A. Load voltage and line voltage are one-third the source voltage for a given
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phase
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B. Load voltage and line voltage are two-thirds the source voltage for a given
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C. Load voltage and line voltage cancel for a given phase

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D. Load voltage, line voltage, and source phase voltage are all equal for a given
phase
Ans: D
19. In a certain Y-Y system, the source phase currents each have a magnitude of 9 A.
The magnitude of each load current for a balanced load condition is
A. 3 A
B. 6 A
C. 9 A
D. 27 A
Ans: C
20. In a Y-connected circuit, between each line voltage and the nearest phase voltage,
there is a phase angle of
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 120°
Ans: B
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UNIT NO: 5 SINGLE PHASE AC CIRCUIT (PART A)
1. The power factor at resonance in R-L-C series circuit is

a. Zero
b. 0.08 lagging
c. 0.8 leading
d. Unity
Answer: d
2. In a R-L-C circuit
a. Power is consumed in resistance and is equal to IR
b. Exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
c. Exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
d. All above are correct
Answer: d
3. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates

a. Low efficiency
b. High power factor
c. Unity power factor
d. Maximum load current
Answer: b
4. The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always

a. Less than unity
b. Unity
c. Greater than unity
d. Zero
Answer: b
5. Which triangles are used in series ac circuit?

a. Voltage triangle
b. Impedance triangle
c. power triangle
d. all of the above
Answer: d
6. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle between circuit voltage and current is
a. True power
b. Reactive power
c. Volt-amperes
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d. Instantaneous power
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Answer: a
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7. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is

B
a. Minimum
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b. Maximum
C
c. Zero
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Answer: a
8. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in

a. C only
b. L only
c. R only
d. All above
Answer: c
9. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit?

a. The current through each element is same
b. The voltage across element is in proportion to it's resistance value
c. The equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the resistors
d. The current through any one element is less than the source current
Answer: d
10. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular frequency is _______ radian/second.
a. 100 π
b. 50 jt
c. 25 JT
d. 5 π
Answer: a
11. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive power in the
circuit is
a. 4 kVAR
b. 6 kVAR
c. 8 kVAR
d. 16 kVAR
Answer: b
12. The net power in a series R-C circuit is

a. Zero
b. Positive
c. Negative
d. None of these
Answer: b
13. The two alternating quantities could be added by constructing

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a. Squares
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b. Parallelograms
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c. Rhombus
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d. Trapeziums
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B
Answer: b
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14. The power factor of a series RL ac circuit is given by

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a. XL/R
b. R/XL
c. R/Z
d. Z/R
Answer: c
15. The low power factor of an ac circuit means that

a. it causes less voltage drop in the line
b. it draws more active power
c.it draws less line current
d. it draws more reactive power
Answer: d
16. The impedance of circuit is given by 15.5∠-30 Ω. It means that the circuit is
a. capacitive
b. inductive
c. purely resistive
Answer: c
17. In RLC series circuit, the inductive reactance is 10 Ω and capacitive reactance is 15 Ω. The total reactance of the
circuit is
a. 25 Ω
b. 18.03 Ω
c. 5 Ω
d. 1.5 Ω
Answer: c
18. In series RL circuit, R = 5 Ω, XL = 10 Ω and XC = 15 Ω. If this circuit is connected to a voltage source v = 100
sin (314t + 30) V, the rms value of the current will be
a. 14.14 A
b. 10 A
c. 5 A
d. 3.33 A
Answer : b
19. An alternating voltage of 80+j60 V is applied to a circuit and the current flowing is 4-j2 A. Find impedance of
circuit.
a. 22.37 Ω
b. 23.27 Ω
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c. 21.88 Ω
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d. 27.22 Ω
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Answer: a
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20. An alternating voltage of 80+j60 V is applied to a circuit and the current flowing is 4-j2 A. Find power factor of
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circuit.
C
a. 0.5 lag
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b. 0.447 lead
c. 0.447 lag
Answer: c
21. The voltage applied to a circuit is e =100 sin (ωt+30) and the current flowing in the circuit is i = 15 sin (ωt+60).
Determine impedance of the circuit.
a. 6.67 Ω
b. 5.57 Ω
c. 7.67 Ω
d. 1.67 Ω
Answer: a
22. The voltage applied to a circuit is e =100 sin (ωt+30) and the current flowing in the circuit is i = 15 sin (ωt+60).
Determine resistance of the circuit.
a. 6.67 Ω
b. 5.77 Ω
c. 7.67 Ω
d. 1.67 Ω
Answer: b
23. A resistor of 20 Ω, inductor of 0.005 H and capacitor of 50μF are connected in series. A supply voltage 230 V,
50 Hz is connected across the series combination. Calculate inductive reactance.
a. 16.67 Ω
b. 15.71 Ω
c. 17.67 Ω
d. 14.67 Ω
Answer: b
24. A resistor of 20 Ω, inductor of 0.005 H and capacitor of 50μF are connected in series. A supply voltage 230 V,
50 Hz is connected across the series combination. Calculate capacitive reactance.
a. 53.67 Ω
b. 55.71 Ω
c. 63.67 Ω
d. 57.67 Ω
Answer : c
25. Two impedances Z1 = 40∠30 and Z2 = 30∠60 are connected in series across a single phase 230 V, 50 Hz
supply. Calculate the current drawn
a. 4.3 A
b. 2.3 A
c. 3.4 A
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d. 5.0 A
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Answer: c
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26. A coil having a impedance of 50.39∠7.16 is connected in parallel with capacitor having impedance of
B
127.32∠-90. If supply voltage is 200 V, single phase, 50 Hz. Calculate current in the coil.
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a. 4.47∠7.16 A
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b. 5.57∠8.16 A
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c. 4.97∠90 A
d. 3.97∠-7.16 A
Answer: d
26. A coil having a impedance of 50.39∠7.16 is connected in parallel with capacitor having impedance of
127.32∠-90. If supply voltage is 200 V, single phase, 50 Hz. Calculate current in the capactor.
a. 4.47∠90 A
b. 5.57∠8.17 A
c. 4.97∠90 A
d. 1.57∠90 A
Answer: d
27. An impedance of (7+j5) Ω is connected in parallel with another impedance of (10-j8) Ω across a 230 V, 50
Hz supply. Calculate admittance of the circuit.
a. 0.16∠-7.04 mho
b. 0.16∠7.04 mho
c. -0.16∠7.04 mho
Answer: b
28. Resonance occurs in series RLC circuit if following condition is satisfied.

a. XL>XC
b. XL<XC
c. XL=XC
d. XL≠XC
Answer: c
29. Current of circuit at resonance is

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Unity
d. zero
Answer: a
30. A series RLC circuit has following parameter values: R = 10 Ω, L = 0.01 H and C = 100 μF. Calculate
resonant frequency.
a. 159.15 Hz
b. 169.15 Hz
a. 179.15 Hz
a. 150.15 Hz
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Unit-3 Single phase AC ckt
1.In a series R-L circuit, VL—VR by—degrees.
(a) lags, 45 (b) lags, 90

(c) leads, 90 (d) leads, 45
2. The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is
equal to—of VR and VL.

(a) arithmetic sum (b) algebraic sum
(c) phasor sum (d) sum of the squares.

3. The power in an a.c. circuit is given by
(a) VI cos φ (b) VI sin φ
(c) I2Z (d) I2XL
4. The p.f. of an R-C circuit is

(a) often zero
(b) between zero and 1
(c) always unity
(d) between zero and − 1.0
5. In a series RLC circuit at resonance, the
magnitude of the voltage developed across

the capacitor
(a) is always zero

(b) can never be greater than the input
voltage.
(c) can be greater than the input voltage,

however, it is 900 out of phase with the
input voltage
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(d) can be greater than the input

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voltage,and in in phase with the input

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voltage.
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1. c 2. c 3. a 4. B 5.c
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1. What is the power factor of a circuit if the inductive susceptance and conductance have
the same value?
A. 0.325
B. 0.525
C. 0.673
D. 0.707
Ans D
2. If a circuit has an admittance of Y = 0.2 + j0.6, the circuit is
A. purely inductive
B. inductive
C. capacitive
D. reactive
Answer: Option C
The circuit admittance Y = 0.2 – j0.6, the circuit is
A. resistive
B. inductive
C. capacitive
D. reactive
Answer: Option B
If you need an LC circuit to be resonant at 2500 Hz and use a 150 mH coil, what should the
capacitance value be?
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A. 0.027 μF
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B. 0.015 μF
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C. 0.15 μF
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D. 27 μF
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Answer: Option A
What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of 3 microhenry and C of 40 picofarad are in
series?
A. 1.33 MHz
B. 14.5 MHz
C. 14.5 kHz
D. 1.33 kHz
Answer: Option B
A series circuit at resonance would mean, the circuit is
A. resistive
B. inductive
C. capacitive
D. reactive
Answer: Option A
Characteristics of the current in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance.
A. It is dc
B. It is a minimum
C. It is zero
D. It is at maximum
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Answer: Option D
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The product of current and voltage in an AC circuit refers to the

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A. Real power
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B. Useful power
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C. Apparent power
D. DC power
Answer: Option C
The relationship of the voltage across an inductor to its current is described as
A. Leading the current by 90 deg
B. Lagging the current by 90 deg
C. Leading the current by 180 deg
D. In phase with the current
Answer: Option A
A 220-V, 60Hz is driving a series RL circuit. Determine the current if R = 100 ohms and 20 mH
inductance
A. 2.2 A (lagging)
B. 2.0 A (lagging)
C. 2.2 A (leading)
D. 2.0 A (leading)
Answer: Option A
What is the relationship between frequency and the value of X C ?
A. Frequency has no effect
B. XC varies inversely with frequency
C. XC varies indirectly with frequency
D. XC varies directly with frequency

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Answer: Option B
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The reactance of a 25 mH coil at 5000 Hz which of the following?

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A. 785 ohms
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B. 785000 ohms
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C. 13 ohms
D. 0.0012 ohms
Answer: Option A
A resistive and a capacitive load of equal magnitude is connected in series, determine the phase
difference between the voltage and the current.
A. current leads the voltage by 45°
B. current lags the voltage by 45°
C. current leads the voltage by 90°
D. current lags the voltage by 90°
Answer: Option A
What will happen when the power factor of a circuit is increased?
A. reactive power increases
B. active power increases
C. both active and reactive powers increases
D. both active and reactive powers decreases
Answer: Option B
A series RL network is supplied with a 200-volt, 60-cycle source. If the voltage across the
resistor R is 100 V, what is the voltage across the inductor L?
A. 0 V
B. 100 V
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C. 173.2 V
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D. 200 V
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Answer: Option C
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A 6-Ω resistor is connected in series with a capacitive reactance of 8 Ω. If the supply voltage is
C
200 V, what is the power consumed by the circuit?

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A. 2400 W
B. 4000 W
C. 5000 W
D. 6666.67 W
Answer: Option A
A 6-Ω resistor is connected in series with a capacitive reactance of 8 Ω. If the supply voltage is
200 V, what is the circuit current magnitude?
A. 14.28 A
B. 20 A
C. 25 A
D. 33.33 A
Answer: Option B
The apparent power of a series RC network is given to be 4000 W. If R = 6 Ω, and XC = 8 Ω,
calculate the true power of the network.
A. 1200 W
B. 2400 W
C. 3200 W
D. 4000 W
Answer: Option B
A series RC circuit has an apparent power of 4000 W. If R = 6 Ω, and XC = 8 Ω, determine the
reactive power.
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A. 1200 W
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B. 2400 W
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C. 3200 W
C
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D. 4000 W
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Answer: Option C
A network has a true power and a reactive power of 2400 W and 3200 W respectively. What is
its apparent power?
A. 800 W
B. 1600 W
C. 4000 W
D. 5600 W
Answer: Option C
What is the total impedance of a series circuit consisting of R = 6 Ω, XC = 8 Ω, and XL = 16 Ω?
A. 10 Ω
B. 14 Ω
C. 24.73 Ω
D. 30 Ω
Answer: Option A
A parallel RL circuit with R = 60 Ω, and XL = 40 Ω has a total impedance of
A. 24.3 Ω
B. 28.3 Ω
C. 33.3 Ω
D. 38.3 Ω
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Answer: Option C
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Unit-4A Single phase transformer
1. A transformer transforms _____________

a. Frequency
b. Voltage
c. Current
d. Voltage & Current
2. Which of the following is not a basic element of a transformer?

a. Core
b. Primary winding
c. Secondary winding
d. Mutual flux
3. In an ideal transformer
a. Windings have no resistance
b. Core has no losses
c. Core has infinite permeability
d. All of the above
4. Transformers cores are laminated in order to ____________
a. Simplify its construction
b. Minimize eddy current loss
c. Reduce cost
d. Reduce hysteresis loss
5. A transformer having 1000 primary turns is connected to a 250V a. c supply. For a
secondary voltage of 400V, the number of secondary turns should be _____________
a. 1600
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b. 250
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c. 400
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d. 1250
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6. The primary and secondary induced e m f E1 and E2 in a two winding transformer are
always___________
a. Equal in magnitude
b. Anti phase with each other
c. In-phase with each other
d. Determined by load on transformer secondary
7. In a core type transformer__________
c. The limb encircles the yoke
8. ______________coils are generally used in core type construction

a. Single layer
b. Sandwich
c. Cylindrical
d. PVC
9. R.M.S value of the induced e m f per turn in transformer is __________
a. 4.44fm
b. 4fm
c. 2fm
d. fm
10. The main purpose of using core in a transformer is to
a. Decrease iron losses
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b. Prevent eddy current loss

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c. Eliminate magnetic hysteresis

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d. Decrease reluctance of the common magnetic circuit

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11. A step up transformer increases

a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Power
d. Frequency
12. The primary and secondary winding of an ordinary 2-winding transformer always have
a. Different number of turns
b. Same size of copper wire
c. A common magnetic circuit
d. Separate magnetic circuits
13. In a two winding transformer the emf per turn in secondary winding is always
____________the induced emf per turn in primary
a. Equal to K times
b. Equal to 1/K times
c. Equal to
d. Greater than
14. In relation to a transformer the ratio 20:1 indicates that
a. There are 20 turns on primary one turn on secondary
b. Secondary voltage is 1/20th of primary voltage
c. Primary current is 20 times greater than the secondary current
d. For every 20 turns on primary there is one turn on secondary
15. A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is
a. Zero
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b. Unity
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c. Leading
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d. Lagging
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16. Transformers are rated in KVA instead of KW because

a. Load power factor is often not known
b. KVA is fixed whereas KW depends on load pf
c. Total transformer loss depends on volt ampere
d. It has become customary
17. At relatively light loads transformer efficiency is low because
a. Secondary output is low
b. Transformer losses are high
c. Fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
d. Cu loss is small
18. If cu loss of a transformer at 7/8th full load is 4900W, then its full load cu loss would be
____________watt
a. 5600
b. 6400
c. 375
d. 429
19. The ordinary efficiency of a given transformer is maximum when
a. It runs at half full load
b. It runs at full load
c. Its copper loss equals iron loss
d. It runs slightly overload
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20. For a 10 KVA 2000/200 V transformer, the half load secondary current is
in
_________________
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a. 50A
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b. 5A
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c. 25A
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d. 10A
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Answers
Q A Q A
1 D 11 A
2 D 12 C
3 D 13 C
4 B 14 A
5 A 15 C
6 C 16 C
7 B 17 C
8 C 18 B
9 A 19 C
10 D 20 C
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Unit-4B Three phase AC ckt
A three-phase generating system has an efficiency of around:
A. 96%
1. B. 90%
C. 66%
D. 50%
The windings of a three-phase alternator are separated by:
A. 90°E
2. B. 120º E
C. 180°E
D. 360°E
Figure shows the stator winding arrangement of a 4 pole, three phase
3.
alternator:
The alternator has a 24-slot stator and is wound with 24 coils in sets of:
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A. 4 coils per pole per phase

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B. 3 coils per pole per phase

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C. 2 coils per pole per phase

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D. 1 coil per pole per phase
One of advantages of a three-phase system over a single phase system is that

the power is more constant so that the torque of a rotating machine is more
constant. The more constant torque results in:
A. much more vibration from the machine

4.
B. no vibration from the machine
C. excessive load current from the machine
D. much less vibration from the machine
Figure shows the waveform for a three-phase AC
supply:
5. The displacement between the voltage is:
A. 120°E
B. 60°E
C. 90°E
D. 30°E
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In a three-phase system, where the three voltage sources are, connected to feed
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a three-phase load, the phase sequence is important for rotating machinery,

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because the:
U
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A. direction of current flow will increase

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B. direction of rotation will be affected
C. machinery could draw excessive load current
D. power factor will be leading instead of lagging
One method of forming a three-phase system is to connect the three similar

ends of the windings together at one point. This type of connection is called a:
A. parallel connection
7.
B. delta connection
C. star connection
D. mesh connection
Look at the following

diagram:
8
.
The three-phase winding shown in figure have been connected in the:
A. delta configuration
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B. double series configuration

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C. parallel configuration
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D. star configuration
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diagram:
9
.
The three-phase winding shown in figure has:
A. A B C rotation
B. BAC rotation
C. CAB rotation
D. ACB rotation
In a three-phase star-connected system the line current equals:
A. Ö3 x the phase current
10. B. the phase current
C. 1.732 x the phase current
D. the line voltage

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In a three-phase star-connected system the line voltage equals:

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11. A. the phase voltage

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B. the phase voltage / 1.732

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C. Ö3 x the phase voltage
D. the line current
Figure shows one method of determining the line voltage of a three-phase star
12. connected system:

In the diagram, the line voltage phasor VA-B is equal to:
A. VA + VB
B. Ö2 VA
C. 1.414 x VA
D. Ö3 VA
In a star connected three-phase system, the line voltages:
A. lead the phase voltages by 30°E
13. B. lag the phase voltages by 30°E

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C. lead the phase voltages by 60°E

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D. lag the phase voltages by 60°E

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B
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Figure shows the phasor diagram method of determining the line voltage of a
14. three-phase star connected system:

In the diagram, the line voltage phasor VA-B:
A. lags the phase voltage VA by 60°E
B. leads the phase voltage VA by 30°E
C. leads the phase voltage VA by 60°E
D. lags the phase voltage VA by 30°E
Figure shows the phasor diagram of a three-phase star connected system in

which phase “C” phase has mistakenly been connected with the connections
15.
reversed:
The waveforms of the three phase voltages then have a displacement of 120º E
between A and B, and:
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A. 90º E between A and C and also between C and B

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B. 180º E between A and C and also between C and B

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C. 60º E between A and C and also between C and B

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D. 120º E between A and C and also between C and B
One method of forming a three-phase system is to connect the dissimilar

similar ends of the windings together. This type of connection is called a:
A. parallel connection
16.
B. wye connection
C. star connection
D. delta connection

diagram:
17
.
The three-phase winding shown in figure have been connected in the:
A. delta configuration
B. double series configuration
C. parallel configuration
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D. star configuration
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P
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In a three-phase delta-connected system the line current equals:

B
18.
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A. the phase current
B. Ö3 x the phase current
C. 1.732 x the phase voltage
D. the line voltage
In a three-phase delta-connected system the line voltage equals:
A. Ö3 x the phase voltage
19. B. the phase voltage / 1.732
C. the phase voltage
D. the line current
Figure shows one a Delta connected 400 V three-phase system in which one
phase has been mistakenly connected with reversed
connections:
20. In the diagram, the voltage between the open connections will be:
A. 230 V
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B. 400 V
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C. 415 V
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D. 800 V
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Figure shows a connection diagram for a three-phase delta connected

load:
21
.
The current in line 2, equals the:
A. phasor difference of phase currents I A and IB
B. phasor sum of phase currents IA and IB
C. arithmetic sum of phase currents IA and IB
D. arithmetic difference of phase currents I A and IB
Figure shows a phasor diagram for determining the line current in a three-
phase delta connected
load:
22
.
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In the diagram, the line current phasor I L2:

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B
A. leads the phase current IA by 60°E

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B. leads the phase current IA by 30°E
C. lags the phase voltage VA by 60°E
D. lags the phase voltage VA by 30°E
Electrical power can be transmitted using low voltage and high currents. Higher
currents result in:
A. lower transmission losses

23.
B. very efficient transmission
C. higher voltage outputs
D. higher transmission losses
In economic terms, the higher the voltage used for power transmission
systems, the:
A. lower the cost of installing and maintaining the transmission lines

24.
B. higher the cost of installing and maintaining the transmission lines
C. higher the cost of the current along the transmission lines
D. lower the cost of installing underground transmission lines
25 Look at the following

. diagram:
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Transmission system voltages are far higher than the voltages required by the
average consumer, therefore the voltage is:
A. stepped up to a suitable value using transformers
B. stepped down to a suitable value using transformers
C. kept the same right through to the customer’s circuits
D. converted to DC for the customer’s machines
26.
The distribution system shown in figure is a:
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A. switched wiring electrical reticulation system

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B. sub-transmission electrical receiving system

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C. single wire earth return distribution system

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D. sixteen-kilovolt wiring earthed resister system

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Figure shows a 4-wire distribution system with the star point of the phase
windings connected to earth:

One advantage of this system is that:
27.
A. only one voltage is available to the consumer
B. the neutral conductor is not used by the consumer
C. the active conductors are connected to the earth
D. two voltages are available to the consumer
For a balanced load, the current in a neutral conductor of a three-phase, four-

wire system is equal to:
A. zero
28.
B. the current in any phase
C. the arithmetic sum of the phase currents
D. the phasor difference of any two line currents
For any type of load, the current in a neutral conductor of any three-phase,
four-wire system is equal to:
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A. the phaser difference of the line currents

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B. minus the phasor sum of the line currents

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B
C. minus the arithmetic sum of the line currents

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D. the arithmetic difference of the line currents
The currents in the lines of a three-phase four-wire system are:

A phase—8 amperes at unity power factor
B phase—10 amperes at 0.866 leading power factor
C phase—10 amperes at 0.866 lagging power factor.
In this case the current flowing in the neutral conductor will be approximately:
30. A. 28 A
B. 10 A
C. 8A
D. 12 A
Figure shows the readings obtained when checking the voltages of a faulty
230/400 V three-phase four-wire
31.
system:
The most likely cause of the fault will be a:
A. faulty three-phase alternator

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B. faulty three-phase pole-top transformer

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C. high resistance load on one phase

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D. broken neutral conductor

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The power consumed by a three-phase load can be determined using the

formula:
A. P = √3 V I cos ø
32.
B. P = 3 V I cos ø
C. P = √3 V I
D. P = √3 V I sin ø
A three-phase 400 V motor draws 10 A at 0.8 lagging power factor. The power
is consumed by this motor will be approximately:
A. 6.93 kW
33.
B. 5.54 kW
C. 4.00 kW
D. 3.20 kW
Figure shows the one wattmeter method of measuring three-phase power on a

three-phase four-wire
34
.
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system:
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One advantage of this method is that:

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A. only one reading is needed
B. it is suitable for fluctuating loads
C. only one wattmeter is required
D. a neutral connection is not required
Figure shows the two-wattmeter method of measuring power in a three-phase

three-wire
35.
system:
One advantage of using this method is that:
A. a neutral conductor is available for the meters
B. the meters only need to measure the phase voltages
C. three-terminal wattmeters can be used
D. the power factor can be obtained for balanced loads
The power consumed by a three-phase motor has been measured using the
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two-wattmeter method. At full load, the two wattmeters gave readings of 6 kW

in
and 3 kW. At this load, the power factor of the motor will be:
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36.
A. 0.866 lagging
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B. 0.866 leading
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C. 0.189 lagging
D. 0.189 leading
Figure shows the three-wattmeter method of measuring three-phase power in a

system:
37.
To find the total power, the following calculation must be made using the
readings: PTOTAL =
A. W1 + W2 / W3
B. W1 + W2 + W3
C. W 1 – W 2. / W 1 + W 3
D. W1 / W2 + W3
Figure shows the three-wattmeter method of measuring three-phase power in a

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38.
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system.
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This method is suitable for:

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A. balanced loads only
B. unbalanced loads
C. balanced and unbalanced loads
D. measuring the power factor with balanced loads
One advantage of using three-phase digital wattmeters is as well as the power,

they can show the value of such things as:
A. the current in each phase

39.
B. the VAR value for each phase
C. frequency and total harmonic distortion
D. all of the given answers
In power stations operating under normal conditions, the values of voltage and
current are generally too high and unwieldy to be used directly with portable
instruments. To avoid these high-energy circuits when measuring voltage,
current and power, in these cases:
A. potential transformers and current transformers must be used

40.
B. only high voltage ammeter and voltmeters must be used
C. digital voltmeters can be used with a high voltage extension arm
D. 275 kV ammeters and voltmeters must be used for 11 kV circuits

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Unit-5 DC Circuit MCQS
Kirchhoff s current law states that

(a) net current flow at the junction is positive
(b) Hebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
(c) no current can leave the junction without some current entering it.
(d) total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
Ans: b
2. According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR
drops and e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) determined by battery e.m.fs.
(d) zero
Ans: d
3. Kirchhoffs current law is applicable to only
(a) junction in a network
(b) closed loops in a network
(c) electric circuits
(d) electronic circuits
Ans: a
4. Kirchhoffs voltage law is related to
(a) junction currents
(b) battery e.m.fs.
(c) IR drops
Ans: d
5. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having
(a) resistive elements
(b) passive elements
(c) non-linear elements
(d) linear bilateral elements
Ans: d
6. The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is
(a) reciprocity
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(b) duality
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(c) non-linearity
(d) linearity
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Ans: d
7. Thevenin resistance Rth is found
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(a) by removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances

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(6) by short-circuiting the given two terminals

C
(c) between any two ‘open’ terminals

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(d) between same open terminals as for Etk

Ans: d
8. An ideal voltage source should have
(a) large value of e.m.f.
(b) small value of e.m.f.
(c) zero source resistance
(d) infinite source resistance
Ans: c
9. For a voltage source
(a) terminal voltage is always lower than source e.m.f.
(b) terminal voltage cannot be higher than source e.m.f.
(c) the source e.m.f. and terminal voltage are equal
Ans: b
10. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor,
it is necessary to know
(a) value of current through the resistor
(b) direction of current through the resistor
(c) value of resistor
(d) e.m.fs. in the circuit
Ans: b
11. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the
load resistance is equal to the output resistance of the network as
seen from the terminals of the load”. The above statement is
associated with
(a) Millman’s theorem
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem
Ans: d
12. “Any number of current sources in parallel may be replaced by
a single current source whose current is the algebraic sum of
individual source currents and source resistance is the parallel
combination of individual
source resistances”.
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(a) Thevenin’s theorem

(b) Millman’s theorem
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(c) Maximum power transfer theorem

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Ans: b
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13. “In any linear bilateral network, if a source of e.m.f. E in any

C
branch produces a current I in any other branch, then same e.m.f.

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acting in the second branch would produce the same current / in

the first branch”.
(a) compensation theorem
(b) superposition theorem
(c) reciprocity theorem
Ans: c
14. Which of the following is non-linear circuit parameter ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Wire wound resistor
(d) Transistor
Ans: a
15. A capacitor is generally a
(a) bilateral and active component
(b) active, passive, linear and nonlinear component
(c) linear and bilateral component
(d) non-linear and active component
Ans: c
16. “In any network containing more than one sources of e.m.f. the
current in any branch is the algebraic sum of a number of
individual fictitious currents (the number being equal to the
number of sources of e.m.f.), each of which is due to separate
action of each source of e.m.f., taken in order, when the remaining
sources of e.m.f. are replaced by conductors, the resistances of
which are equal to the internal resistances of the respective
sources”.
(a) Thevenin’s theorem
(b) Norton’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
Ans: c
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17. Kirchhoff s law is applicable to

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(a) passive networks only

(b) a.c. circuits only
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(c) d.c. circuits only

(d) both a.c. as well d.c. circuits
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Ans: d
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18. Kirchhoff s law is not applicable to circuits with

C
(a) lumped parameters

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(b) passive elements

(c) distributed parameters
(d) non-linear resistances
Ans: c
19. Kirchhoff s voltage law applies to circuits with
(a) nonlinear elements only
(b) linear elements only
(c) linear, non-linear, active and passive elements
(d) linear, non-linear, active, passive, time varying as wells as time-in-variant
elements
Ans: d
20. The resistance LM will be
(a) 6.66 Q
(b) 12 Q
(c) 18Q
(d) 20Q
Ans: a
21. For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal resistance of
the source should be
(a) equal to the load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) more than the load resistance
Ans: b
22. Efficiency of power transfer when maximum transfer of power
c xerosis
(a) 100%
(b) 80%
(c) 75%
(d) 50%
Ans: d
23. If resistance across LM in Fig. 2.30 is 15 ohms, the value of R is
(a) 10 Q
(6) 20 Q
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(c) 30 Q
in
(d) 40 Q
Ans: c
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24. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the

source should be
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(a) equal to load resistance

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(b) less than the load resistance

C
(c) greater than the load resistance

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Ans: a
25. If the energy is supplied from a source, whose resistance is 1
ohm, to a load of 100 ohms the source will be
(a) a voltage source
(b) a current source
(c) both of above
Ans: a
26. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is
known as
(a) unilateral circuit
(b) bilateral circuit
(c) irreversible circuit
(d) reversible circuit
Ans: b
27. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same
current path must be in
(a) series with each other
(b) parallel with each other
(c) series with the voltage source.’
(d) parallel with the voltage source
Ans: a
28. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor
diodes. The circuit will be known as
(a) non-linear circuit
(b) linear circuit
(c) bilateral circuit
Ans: a
29. A non-linear network does not satisfy
(a) superposition condition
(b) homogeneity condition
(c) both homogeneity as well as superposition condition
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(d) homogeneity, superposition and associative condition

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Ans: c
30. An ideal voltage source has
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(a) zero internal resistance

(b) open circuit voltage equal to the voltage on full load
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(c) terminal voltage in proportion to current

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(d) terminal voltage in proportion to load

C
Ans: a
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31. A network which contains one or more than one source of e.m.f. is known
as
(a) linear network
(b) non-linear network
(c) passive network
(d) active network
Ans: c
32. The superposition theorem is applicable to
(a) linear, non-linear and time variant responses
(b) linear and non-linear resistors only
(c) linear responses only
Ans: c
33. Which of the following is not a nonlinear element ?
(a) Gas diode
(b) Heater coil
(c) Tunnel diode
(d) Electric arc
Ans:
34. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields
(a) equivalent current source and impedance in series
(6) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
(c) equivalent impedance
(d) equivalent current source
Ans: a
35. Millman’s theorem yields
(a) equivalent resistance
(6) equivalent impedance
(c) equivalent voltage source
(d) equivalent voltage or current source
Ans: d
36. The superposition theorem is applicable to
(a) voltage only
(b) current “only
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(c) both current and voltage

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(d) current voltage and power

Ans: d
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37. Between the branch voltages of a loop the Kirchhoff s voltage law imposes
(a) non-linear constraints
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(b) linear constraints

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(c) no constraints
C

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Ans: b
38. A passive network is one which contains
(a) only variable resistances
(b) only some sources of e.m.f. in it
(c) only two sources of e.m.f. in it
(d) no source of e.m.f. in it
Ans: d
39. A terminal where three on more branches meet is known as
(a) node
(b) terminus
(c) combination
(d) anode
Ans: a
40. Which of the following is the passive element ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Ideal current source
(c) Ideal voltage source
Ans: a
41. Which of the following is a bilateral element ?
(a) Constant current source
(b) Constant voltage source
(c) Capacitance
Ans: c
42. A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as
(a) branch
(b) loop
(c) circuit
(d) junction
Ans: b
43. A linear resistor having 0 < R < °o is a
(a) current controlled resistor
(6) voltage controlled resistor
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(c) both current controlled and voltage controlled resistor

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Ans: c
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44. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements
will be
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(a) R/6
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(b) 3R/2
C
(c) 2R
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(d) 4R
Ans: b
45. A delta circuit has each element of value R/2. The equivalent elements of
star circuit with be
(a) R/6
(b) R/3
(c) 2R
(d) 3R
Ans: a
56. In Thevenin’s theorem, to find Z
(a) all independent current sources are short circuited and independent
voltage sources are open circuited
(b) all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent
current sources are short circuited
(c) all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
(d) all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all independent
current sources are open circuited
Ans: d
57. While calculating Rth in Thevenin’s theorem and Norton equivalent
(a) all independent sources are made dead
(b) only current sources are made dead
(c) only voltage sources are made dead
(d) all voltage and current sources are made dead
Ans: a
58. The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to
(a) the number of chords
(b) the number of branches
(c) sum of the number of branches and chords
(d) sum of number of branches, chords and nodes
Ans: a
59. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there
are
(a) sources, nodes and meshes
(b) sources and nodes
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(c) sources
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(d) nodes
Ans: c
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60. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open
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circuit has the characteristic of an open circuit.

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(b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short
C
circuit has the characteristic of a short circuit.

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(c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open
circuit has the characteristic of an open circuit.
(d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short
circuit has the characteristic of resistor R.
Ans: a
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Unit-6 Elementary concepts
1. Charge on one electron is ___________coulomb

a. 1.62x10-19
b. 1.62x1019
c. 6.24x1018
d. 6.24x10-19
2. The direction of conventional current is _______________

a. Opposite to the direction of electrons
b. Same as the direction of electrons
c. From negative to positive of battery in external circuit
3. The rate of flow of charge is __________

a. Voltage
b. e.m.f
c. current
d. electric potential
4. The unit of current is

a. Newton
b. Ohms
c. Coulombs’/sec
d. Volts
5. The unit of electric potential is

a. Ohm
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b. Coulomb
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c. Ampere
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d. Volt
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6. A material with highest value of resistivity is the best

a. Conductor
b. Semiconductor
c. Insulator
d. None of these
7. The resistance of wire is 10.If its length is doubled its resistance will be
________________
a. 20
b. 40
c. 10
d. 1
8. Ohms law is applicable when _____________is constant

a. Voltage
b. Temperature
c. Current
d. Power
9. The resistance of the metals increases as the temperature_________

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None of these
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10. _______________are used to manufacture resistance boxes

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a. Alloys
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b. Semiconductors
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c. Insulators
C
d. Metals
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11. The unit of R.T.C is

a. C
b. C
c. C
d. C
12. Semiconductors have __________temperature coefficient of resistivity

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. None of these
13. A coil has a resistance of 20 at 20C and its R.T.C at 0C is 0.003C then its resistance
at 50C
a. 23
b. 21.8
c. 21.698
d. 218
14. Insulation resistance is the opposition to the ___________

a. Flow of conventional current
b. Leakage current
c. Leakage flux
d. None of these
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15. The path of leakage current through the conductor is _____________

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a. Only on the surface of conductor

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b. Radially inward
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c. Radially outward
C
d. None of these
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16. If two cables are joined in series ___________

a. Their conductor resistance are in series while their insulation resistances are in parallel
b. Their conductor resistance are in parallel while their insulation resistances are in series
c. Their conductor resistance as well as their insulation resistances are in parallel
d. Their conductor resistance as well as their insulation resistances are in series
17. The insulation resistance is of the order of ______________

a. Ohms
b. Milliohms
c. Mega ohms
d. Few hundreds of ohms
18. One joule per second means one

a. Ampere
b. Watt
c. Volt
d. Newton-meter
19. A 100 w lamp operates for 4 hours per day then its energy consumption per day
is_______________
a. 4 units
b. 4Wh
c. 0.4 units
d. O.4Wh
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20. The unit of specific heat capacity is ________________

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a. J-Kg/-K
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b. J-/Kg-K
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c. J-Kg-K
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d. None of these
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21. 1KWh=_____________________Kcal
a. 0.24x106
b. 0.116
c. 860
d. 0.86
22. 7.2MJ =
a. 1KWh
b. 2KWh
c. 1000Wh
d. 1Wh
23. The practical unit of electrical energy is _____________

a. KW-hr
b. Watt-hr
c. Watt-second
d. Joule-second
24. A 40 kg fuel is burned to produce 1720kcal energy then its calorific value
is_____________
a. 180J/Kg
b. 180KJ/Kg
c. 43KJ/Kg
d. 43J/Kg
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25. A 60W light bulb is in a socket supplied with 120v.What is the current in the bulb?
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a. 0.50A
P
b. 2.0A
U
B
TE
c. 60A
C
d. 200A
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26. Which is a unit of power?

a. KWh
b. W/s
c. A.
d. J/s
27. Ohms law is not applicable to

a. D.C circuits
b. High currents
c. Semi-conductors
d. Small resistors
28. Complete the expression :R2= R1(1+_____________)

a. 0t
b. tt
c. t/0
d. t/t
29. The resistance of the coil increases from50 to 59.6from 20C. If its R.T.Cat20C
is 0.0032/C,then its final temperature is ____________C
a. 80
b. 60
c. 40
d. 20
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30. As temperature increases insulation resistance ______________

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a. Increases
P
b. Decreases
U
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c. Remain same
C
d. None of the same

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31. The force exerted on a body rotating at a particular distance of 5cm from the axis is 100
N then the torque acted on that body is _______
a. 0.5N-m
b. 5N-cm
c. 5N-m
d. 500N-m
32. _________________energy depends upon the position of body

a. Molecular energy
b. Potential energy
c. Atomic energy
d. Kinetic energy
33. The quantity of heat gained or lost due to change in temperature is called
_______________
a. Sensible heat
b. Specific heat
c. Latent heat
d. Enthalpy
34. The quantity of heat produced by burning unit mass of the substance is called
______________of the fuel
a. Calorific value
b. Specific heat
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c. Latent heat
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d. Enthalpy
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35. The meters used to measure the domestic power consumption by the electrical company
are__________
a. Voltmeters
b. Wattmeter’s
c. Energy meters
d. Ammeters
36. The water pump used to lift the water converts ___________energy into
___________energy
a. Mechanical, electrical
b. hydraulic, electrical
c. electrical ,Mechanical
d. Electrical, thermal
37. A wire carries a current of 5 A for 10 seconds to generate the heat of 500 joules then the
resistance of the wire is ______________
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. 5
d. 2
38. A cable has conductor diameter of 5cm and thickness of the insulation is 2cm.if the
resistivity of insulation is 6x1010-m then the insulation resistance of 250m cable is
approximately ______________M
a. 22.45
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b. 12.85
in
c. 32.75
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d. 100.25
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39. In case of liquids ,ohms law is
a. Fully obeyed
b. Partially obeyed
c. There is no relation between current & potential difference
40. Insulators have __________temperature co-efficient of resistance

a. Zero
b. Positive
c. Negative
41. Eureka has______________ temperature coefficient of resistance
a. Almost zero
b. Negative
c. Positive
42. A wire has a resistance of 10Ω.It is stretched by one tenth of its original length. then its
resistance will be
a. 10Ω
b. 12.1Ω
c. 9Ω
d. 11Ω
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43. Tap supplies water at 22°C.A man takes 1 liter of water per minute at 37°C from the
geyser. the power of geyser is
in
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a. 1050W
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P
b. 1575W
U
B
c. 525W
TE
C
d. 2100W
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44. If the current in electric bulb drops by 2% then power decreases by ________%
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 16
45. The quantity of heat required to change the state of the substance without change in
temperature is called ____________
a. Sensible heat
b. Specific heat
c. Latent heat
d. Enthalpy
46. Which of the following is not same as watt?

a. joule/sec
b. Amperes/volt
c. Ampere-volts
d. Amperes2 x ohm
47. The resistance of a 100 W, 200 V lamp is
a. 100ohm
b. 200ohm
c. 400ohm
d. 1600ohm
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48. A wire carries a current of 5A for 10 sec to generate the heat of 500 joules then the
resistance of the wire is ________Ω
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a. 1
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P
b. 0.5
U
B
c. 5
TE
C
d. 2
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49 .___________________is the energy possessed by the body due to its motion
a. Molecular energy
b. Potential energy
c. Atomic energy
d. Kinetic energy
50 . An electric current of 5 A is same as
a. 5J/C
b. 5V/C
c. 5 C / sec
d. 5 w / sec
Answers
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
1 a 11 c 21 c 31 c 41 a
2 a 12 c 22 d 32 b 42 b
3 c 13 c 23 a 33 a 43 a
4 c 14 b 24 b 34 a 44 c
5 d 15 c 25 a 35 c 45 c
6 c 16 a 26 d 36 c 46 b
7 b 17 c 27 c 37 d 47 c
8 b 18 b 28 a 38 a 48 d
9 a 19 c 29 a 39 a 49 d
10 a 20 b 30 b 40 c 50 c
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UNIT I
Electromagnetism
Topic covered:
 Review: resistance, emf, current, potential difference and ohm’s law
 Magnetic effect of an electric current, cross and dot convention
 Right hand thumb rule, nature of magnetic field of long straight conductor, solenoid and
toroid
 Concept of mmf, flux, flux density, reluctance, permeability and field strength, their units
and relationships
 Simple series and parallel magnetic circuit
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 Comparison of electric and magnetic circuit, force on carrying conductor placed in
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magnetic field
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 Fleming’s left hand rule, faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, Fleming's right
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hand rule
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 Statically and dynamically induced emf, self and mutual inductance, coefficient of
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couplings, Energy stored in magnetic field.
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 Resistance: The property of an electric circuit opposing the flow of current and at the same time
causes electrical energy to be converted to heat is called resistance.
ρ𝑙
R= Where,
𝑎
l= Length in metres
a= cross-sectional area in square metres
ρ= resistivity in ohms-metres
R= resistance in ohms
 EMF(electromotive force): An electrical effort required to drift the free electrons in one particular
direction, in a conductor is called “EMF” . It is denoted as E and measured in volts.
 Current: the rate of flow of charge in an electric circuit is called as current. It is denoted as I and
measured in Amperes or coulombs/sec
 Electric Potential: Ability of a charged particle to do work is called its electric potential.
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 Potential Difference: The difference between the electric potentials at any two given points in a
in
circuit is known as Potential difference(p.d). It is denoted as V and measured in volts.
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 Ohm’s law: It states that, “ The current flowing through the electric circuit is directly proportional
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to the potential difference across the circuit and inversely proportional to the resistance of the
B
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circuit, provided the temperature remains constant.
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mathematically,
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eg
𝑉
I∝
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𝑅
m
 Electromagnetism: It is the branch of engineering dealing with the magnetic effect of an electric
current.
 Laws of magnetism:
1. Like magnetic poles repel and unlike poles attract each other.
2. the force exerted by one pole in another pole is directly proportional to the product of pole
strength and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Mathematically,
𝑚1𝑚2
F∝
𝑑2
 Magnetic Field: It is a vector field that describes the magnetic influence on an electric charge
of other moving charges or magnetized materials.
 Magnetic Effect of an Electric Current: The magnetic effect of electric current is known as
electromagnetic effect. It is observed that when a compass is brought near a current carrying
conductor the needle of compass gets deflected because of flow of electricity. This shows
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that electric current produces a magnetic effect.
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 Cross and Dot Convention: cross and dot convention applies on electric current. It is generally
used to denote the direction of an electric current passed through a conductor.
 cross(×) means current is going into the plane i.e away from you.
 Dot(▪) means current is going out from the plane i.e coming towards you.
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B
 Right Hand Thumb Rule: According to the right hand thumb rule if we hold the current carrying
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conductor in the right hand such that the thumb points in the direction of flow of current then the
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H
fingers encircle the wire in the direction of the magnetic field lines.
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 Nature of magnetic field of long straight conductor: The nature of the magnetic field lines
around a straight current carrying conductor is concentric circles with centre at the axis of
the conductor. The strength of the magnetic field created depends on the current through
the conductor.
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B
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 Nature of magnetic field of Solenoid: When a long conductor is wound with number of turns
close together to form a coil whose axial length is several times greater than the diameter of
its turns, it is known as Solenoid.
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 Magnetic field strength inside a long solenoid:
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𝑁𝐼
H= where,
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𝑙
B
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H= magnetic field strength in newton's /weber or Amp/ meter
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H
N= Number of turns of solenoid
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I= Current in Amperes
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l= length of solenoid in meters
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 Nature of magnetic field of Toroid: A Toroid is a long solenoid which is bend into circular form.
 The magnetic field in the open space inside (point P) and exterior to the toroid (point Q) is zero.
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The field B inside the toroid is constant in magnitude for the ideal toroid of closely wound turns.
in
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The direction of the magnetic field inside is clockwise as per the right-hand thumb rule for circular
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loops. Three circular Amperian loops 1, 2 and 3 are shown by dashed lines. By symmetry, the
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magnetic field should be tangential to each of them and constant in magnitude for a given loop.
B
TE
C
 The magnetic field due to infinite solenoid is, B= µNI (Tesla)
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µ𝑵𝑰
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 The magnetic field due to toroid is, B= (Tesla)
eg
𝟐𝝅𝑹
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Concept of mmf, flux, flux density, reluctance, permeability and
field strength, their units and relationships:
 Magneto-motive Force(MMF): The magneto-motive force which produces or tend to produce the
flux in the magnetic circuit is given by the product of turns on the magnetizing coil (N) and the
current flowing in the coil(I) i.e MMF=NI amperes
 Magnetic Flux(Φ): The total number of lines of force in any particular magnetic field is called the
magnetic flux. Its unit is weber. 1 weber means 108 lines.
 Magnetic Flux Density(B): The magnetic flux per unit area in a plane at right angles to the flux is
known as magnetic flux density.
𝜱
B= Tesla or wb/𝒎𝟐
𝒂
 Magnetic Field strength: The force experienced by unit north pole placed at any point in a
magnetic field is known as Magnetic Field strength at that point.
𝑵𝑰
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H= Amperes/ meter
𝒍
in
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 Permeability: It is defined as the ease with which a magnetic flux permits a medium. It is divided
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into three types.
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B
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1. Permeability of free space or vacuum(µ0 )
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H
2. Absolute Permeability(µ)
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Relative Permeability(µ𝑟 )
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3.
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1. Permeabilty of free space or vacuum(µ𝟎 ): For a magnetic field in vacuum (or free space) the ratio
of flux density to magnetic field strength producing that flux density is called the permeability of free
space or magnetic space.
𝐵0
 µ0 = =4π × 10−7 H/m
𝐻
2. Absolute Permeability(µ) : The ratio of magnetic flux density in a particular medium to the
magnetic field strength at the same location producing that flux density is called the absolute
permeability of that medium.
𝐵
 µ= H/m
𝐻
3. Relative Permeability(µ𝑟 ): The ratio of the flux density produced in a material to the flux density
produced in a vacuum (or free space) by the same magnetic field strength under identical conditions is
called the relative permeability of that material. For Air, µ𝒓 =1
𝐵
 µ𝑟 =
𝐵0
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𝐵0
in
 We have, µ0 = i.e 𝐵0 =µ0 H
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𝐻
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𝐵
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µ= i.e B=µH
B
𝐻
TE
𝐵 µ𝐻 µ
C
µ𝑟 = = =
H
𝐵0 µ0 𝐻 µ0
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µ=µ𝟎 µ𝒓
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 Reluctance: Reluctance is the property of a material which opposes the magnetic flux in it.
Reluctance = mmf/ Flux AT/wb
 It is denoted by S and is given as
S= l/µ𝟎 µ𝒓a
The Unit of Reluctance is Ampere Turn /weber.

 Permeance: It is the reciprocal of Reluctance and is measure of the ease with which flux
can pass through the material.
 Mathematically , Permeance =1/ Reluctance or Permeance =µ𝟎 µ𝒓a/l
 Its unit is Wb / AT
Simple series and parallel magnetic circuit:

 The closed path followed by magnetic flux is called a magnetic circuit. A magnetic circuit
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consist of materials having high permeability such as iron, soft steel etc.
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 Series Magnetic circuit are those magnetic circuits in which magnetic flux (ϕ) is same in
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all the sections and the equivalent reluctance of such magnetic circuit equals summation of
B
reluctance of individual sections.
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 Consider a composite series magnetic circuit consisting of three different magnetic
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materials of different relative permeabilities along with an air gap as shown in figure.
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 A parallel magnetic circuit has more than one path for the magnetic flux and can be
compared to a parallel electric circuit which has more than one path for electric current.
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 Comparison between Electric and Magnetic circuit:
 Similarities:
Electric Circuit Magnetic Circuit
1. Path traced by the current is called electric circuit 1. Path traced by the magnetic flux is defined as
magnetic circuit
2. EMF is the driving force in electric circuit, the 2. MMF is the driving force in the magnetic circuit,
unit is volts the unit is ampere turns
3. Current-is the flow of electrons through a con- 3.Flux- is the lines of force through a medium
ductor. from N to S pole.
4.Limited by resistance (R) -opposition offered by 4. Limited by reluctance (S)- opposition offered by
the conductor to the flow of current. the magnetic path to the flow of flux.
Unit – ohm. Unit- AT/wb
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5. Resistance is directly proportional to the length 5. Reluctance is directly proportional to the length
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of the conductor. of the magnetic path.
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6. Current Density (δ) is the rate of the electric 6. Flux Density (B) is the amount of magnetic flux
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currents flowing per unit cross-sectional area of per unit area of surface taken perpendicular to
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a material. direction of magnetic flux.
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7. The KVL and KCL are applicable to electrical 7. The Kirchhoff’s flux and m.m.f laws are appli
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circuit. cable to the magnetic circuit.
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 Dissimilarities:
Electric Circuit Magnetic Circuit
1. Magnetic flux does not flow but it is set up in the

1. The electric current flows in an electric circuit.
magnetic circuit.
2. There is no magnetic insulator as flux can pass

2. There are many materials which used as insula
through all the materials, even through the air as
tors from which current cannot pass.
well.
3. The value of μr is not constant for a given

3. The value of resistivity (ρ) varies very slightly
material. Hence the reluctance of the magnetic
with the temperature. Hence resistance of an
circuit is not constant rather it depends on the flux
electric circuit is practically constant.
density (B) as μr varies with the B.
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4. Energy needed as long as current flows through 4. Once magnetic flux is setup in a magnetic circuit,
in
electric circuit. no energy is needed.
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5. The electric field is produced by a unit pole
5. The magnetic field is caused by a dipole of the
B
charge, i.e., either by a positive or through a
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magnet (i.e., the north and south pole).
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negative charge.
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6. The electric field lines do not form a loop. 6. The magnetic field lines form a closed loop.
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 Force on a Current Carrying Conductor Placed in a Magnetic Field :
 If a current carrying conductor is placed perpendicular to the direction of
magnetic field between the poles, it experiences a force which is
perpendicular to both the direction of current and the magnetic field.
 When an electric current is passed through the wire, the wire if lifted
upwards showing that an upward force is acted on a current carrying
conductor. On reversing the direction of current, the wire moves downwards
indicating the force downwards.
 The direction of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a
uniform magnetic field can be found by Fleming’s Left-hand Rule.
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 Fleming’s Left-hand Rule : Stretch out the first finger, second finger and Thumb of
your left hand so that they are at right angles to one another. If the first finger
points in the direction of magnetic field i.e. from north to south and the second
finger i.e. the middle finger points towards the direction of current, then the
thumb will point in the direction of motion of the conductor.
 If the conductor lies at an angle θ with the magnetic flux, then the force
experienced on the current carrying conductor is given by ,
F = BI l sin θ
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 Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction :
 First Law: The first law states that whenever the magnetic flux linking a conductor or the coil changes,
an emf gets induced in it. Such an emf lasts so long as this change is taking place.
 Second Law: The magnitude of emf induced in a conductor or coil is directly proportional to the rate of
change of flux linkages where
flux linkage = Flux x Number of turns of the coil.
Induced emf e = rate of change of flux linkage
Φ1 = initial value of flux linked with the coil.
Φ2 = final value of flux linked with the coil.
Change in flux linkages = N Φ2 – N Φ1
Rate of change of flux linkage = change in flux linkages / Time
In differential form
𝑑Φ
e= N
𝑑𝑡
Direction of Induced emf and Current :
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The direction of induced emf and current in a closed circuit can be determined by
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(i) Lenz’s Law
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B
(ii) Fleming’s Right Hand Rule
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 Fleming’s Right Hand Rule: This rule is to find out the direction of induced current in a
conductor which is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field.The Thumb, the first
(fore finger) and the second (middle finger) on the right hand are held so thatnthey are
mutually perpendicular to each other.
First Finger → Magnetic field
Thumb → Direction of motion of the conductor.
Middle Finger → direction of induced current.
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 Statically and dynamically induced emf : An electromotive force or emf is said to be
induced when the flux linking with a conductor or coil changes. This change in flux
linkage can be obtained in two different ways.
(i) Statically Induced EMF
(ii) Dynamically Induced EMF
Dynamically Induced emf : By moving a conductor in a stationary magnetic field in such

a way that the flux linking with the conductor changes.The emf induced in such a way is
called dynamically induced emf.
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 Consider a conductor of length l meters placed in a uniform magnetic field of B wb/m2 with a
velocity of v m/s.
 Suppose the conductor moves through a small distance dx in dt seconds.
Area swept by the conductor = l dx m2
Flux cut d f = B l dx weber
Emf induced,
𝑑Φ
 e= N
𝑑𝑡
e= B l v volts
Maximum flux is cut when the conductor moves perpendicular to the magnetic field as shown in
figure, hence emf induced is maximum.
If the conductor moves at an angle θ with respect to the magnetic field, then its velocity component is
given as v sinθ.
Hence the emf induced,

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e= B l v sin θ volts
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The direction of induced emf can be found by Fleming’s right-hand rule.
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 Statically Induced emf : When the conductor is stationary and the field is moving or
changing, the emf induced in the conductor is called statically induced emf.
 Statically induced emf is further classified as
(i) Self Induced emf
(ii) Mutually Induced emf
 Self Induced emf: The emf induced in a coil due to the change of its own flux linked
with it is called self-induced emf.
 Consider a coil with N number of turns. The variable resistance R is used to change the
current flowing through the coil which in turns changes the flux linked with the coil.
The change in the flux is achieved by increasing or decreasing the current through the
coil.
 If the flux linked with the coil is Φ Webers, then the flux linkage with the coil = N Φ .
Due to the change in the flux linking with the coil, an emf is induced in the coil
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according to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic Induction. This emf is called the self-
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induced emf.
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 The direction of this emf according to Lenz’s law is such to oppose the very cause
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producing it i.e. the current and hence the field in the coil. The self-induced emf will
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persist so long as the current in the coil is changing.
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Self Induced EMF:

 Self and mutual inductance : The property of a coil that opposes any change in the
amount of current flowing through it is known as Self-inductance or inductance.
 If the current in the coil is increasing, the self-induced emf produced in the coil will
oppose the rise of current, that means the direction of the induced emf is opposite to the
applied voltage.
 On the other hand, if the current in the coil is decreased, then the self-induced emf will
be in the same direction as that of the applied voltage i.e. self-induced emf will try to
maintain the coil current constant.
𝑑Φ
 Induced emf e= N
𝑑𝑡
e =L di/ dt
The magnitude of self-induced emf is directly proportional to the rate of change of current
in the coil. L is constant of proportionality and called as Self Inductance or the Coefficient
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of Self Inductance or Inductance of the coil.
in
L =N Φ/ I Henry
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Also
𝑁2
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L=
B
𝑆
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Mutually induced emf:

 Mutually Induced emf : The emf induced in a coil due to the change of flux produced by another
neighbouring coil linking to it, is called Mutually Induced emf.
 Consider two coils A and B placed close to each other. When the switch (S) is closed in the circuit,
current I1 flows through the coil A, and it produces the flux Φ 1.
 A part of the magnetic flux produced by coil A links with coil B i.e. Φ 12. is the flux linked with the
coil B due to the change of current in the coil A.
 If the current flowing through the coil A is changed by changing the value of variable resistor R,it
changes the flux linking with the other coil B and hence emf is induced in both the coils.
 The emf induced in coil A is called self-induced emf and the emf induced in coil B is called
Mutually Induced emf. The mutually induced emf in coil B persists so long as the current in coil A
is changing.
 According to Lenz’s law, the direction of induced emf is such to oppose the very cause responsible
for it, i.e. it opposes the change of current in the first coil.
 Since the rate of change of flux linking with the coil B depends upon the rate of change of
current in the coil A.
𝑑𝐼1
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e=M
𝑑𝑡
in
Where M is a constant called mutual inductance between the two coils. Its unit is Henry.
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𝑁2 Φ12
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M=
B
I1
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C
Where Φ12 is the flux linked with coil B due to change of current in the coil A.
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eg
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 Coefficient of Coupling :
 The fraction of magnetic flux produced by the current in one coil that links with the
other coil is called the coefficient of coupling between the two coils.
 It is denoted by (k). i.e. It gives the information of the flux which is linked between the
two coils. When k =1, the flux produced by one coil, completely links with the other
coil and is called magnetically tightly coupled.
When k = 0, the flux produced by one coil, does not link at all with the other coil and
thus the coils are said to be magnetically isolated.
 The coefficient of coupling varies between 0 and 1.
Consider two magnetic coils 1 and 2 having N1 and N2 turns respectively. When
current I1 flows through coil 1, flux links with coil 1. If the coefficient of coupling
between the two coils is K, then the flux linked with coil 2 is K Φ1.
𝑁1 Φ1 𝑁2 KΦ1 𝑁1 KΦ2
 By Self and Mutual inductance, L= and 𝑀12 = & 𝑀21=
Jo
𝐼1 𝐼1 𝐼2
in
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B
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C
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m
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B
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@
in
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𝐿1 𝐿2
𝑀
K=

 Energy Stored in a Magnetic Field :
Consider an inductor connected to a d.c source. The inductor is equivalent to
inductance L in series with a small resistance R.
 Consider an inductor connected to a d.c source. When the switch is ON, the current flowing
in the circuit rises gradually from zero to its final value and the magnetic field is established.
During this rise of current, an emf is induced across the inductor due to the change in flux
linkages. The self-induced emf across L is given as, e =L di/ dt
 After the magnetic field is established, and the current has reached its maximum or
steady value, any further energy given to it, is dissipated as heat .i.e. once the steady
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state has achieved ,no additional energy is required to maintain the magnetic field. The
in
induced voltage across L opposes the applied voltage. Electrical energy must be
@
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supplied to overcome this opposition. This supplied energy is stored in the magnetic
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field.
B
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C
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B
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UNIT III
• A.C. Through Pure Resistance Alone :
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B
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• The circuit is shown in Fig. Let the applied voltage be given by the
el
equation. eg
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A.C. Through Pure Resistance Alone :
• v = Vmsin θ = Vmsin ωt... (i)
• Let R = ohmic resistance ; i= instantaneous current
• Hence for equilibrium
v = iR;
• Putting the value of ‘v’ from above,
we get Vmsin ωt= iR
𝑉𝑚
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𝑖= sin 𝜔𝑡(ii)
in
𝑅
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• Current ‘i’ is maximum when sin ωtis unity ∴ Im= Vm/R Hence,
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B
equation (ii) becomes,
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C
H
• i= Imsin ωt... (iii)
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eg
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• Comparing (i) and (ii), we find that the alternating voltage and current
are in phase with each other as shown in above Fig.
• Power. Instantaneous power,

• p = vi
• = VmImsin 2ωt
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
•= 1 − cos 2𝜔𝑡 = − cos 2𝜔𝑡
2 2 2
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𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
• Power consists of a constant part and a fluctuating part
in
@
2
SP
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
cos 2𝜔𝑡 of frequency double that of voltage and current waves.
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2
B
TE
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
C
• For a complete cycle. the average value of cos 2𝜔𝑡 Is zero.
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2
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eg
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• or P = V × I watt
• where V = r.m.s. value of applied voltage.
I = r.m.s. value of the current.
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B
TE
C
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A.C. Through Pure Inductance Alone
• Whenever an alternating voltage is applied to a purely inductive coil,
a back e.m.f. is produced due to the self-inductance of the coil.
• The back e.m.f., at every step, opposes the rise or fall of current
through the coil.
• As there is no ohmic voltage drop, the applied voltage has to
overcome this self-induced e.m.f. only.
𝑑𝐼 𝑉𝑚
•𝑣=𝐿 = 𝑉𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 , ∴ 𝑖 = ‫ ׬‬sin 𝜔𝑡
𝑑𝑡 𝐿
𝑉𝑚 𝜋 𝑉𝑚 𝜋
•=
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sin 𝜔𝑡 − = sin 𝜔𝑡 −
in
𝜔𝐿 2 𝑋𝐿 2
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𝑉𝑚 𝜋
• Maximum value of Im= when sin 𝜔𝑡 −
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is unity.
B
𝜔𝐿 2
TE
C
𝜋
• Hence the equation for current becomes 𝑖 = 𝐼𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 −
H
-T
2
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• Clearly, the current lags behind the applied voltage by a quarter cycle.
in
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• We have Im = Vm/ω L = Vm/XL.
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B
• Here ‘ωL’ plays the part of ‘resistance’.
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C
H
• It is called the (inductive) reactance XL of the coil and is given in ohms
-T
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eg
if L is in henry and ω is in radian/second.
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• Now, XL = ω L = 2π f L ohm.
• It is seen that XL depends directly on frequency of the voltage.
• Higher the value of f, greater the reactance offered and vice-versa.
• Power:
• Instantaneous Power
𝜋 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 2𝜋
• =𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 − ∴𝑃= − ‫׬‬0 sin 2𝜔𝑡 𝑑𝑡 = 0
2 2
• It is also clear from Fig. that the average demand of power from the
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supply for a complete cycle is zero.
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• Here again it is seen that power wave is a sine wave of frequency
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PU
double that of the voltage and current waves.
B
TE
C
H
• The maximum value of the instantaneous power is VmIm/2.
-T
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eg
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A.C. Through Pure Capacitance Alone
• When an alternating voltage is applied to the plates of a capacitor, the
capacitor is charged first in one direction and then in the opposite
direction.
• When reference to Fig. shown below, let
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• v = p.d. developed between plates at any instant
• q = Charge on plates at that instant.
• Then q = Cv...where C is the capacitance
= C Vmsin ωt...putting the value of v.
• Now, current iis given by the rate of flow of charge.
𝑑𝑞 𝑑 𝑉𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝜋
•𝑖= = 𝐶 𝑉𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 = 1 cos 𝜔𝑡 = sin 𝜔𝑡 + =
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 ൗ𝜔𝐶 𝑋𝐶 2
𝜋
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𝐼𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 +
in
2
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• The denominator XC = 1/ωCis known as capacitive reactance and is in
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B
ohms if C is in farad and ω in radian/ second.
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C
H
• It is seen that if the applied voltage is given by v = Vmsin ωt, then the
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eg
current is given by i= Imsin (ωt+ π/2).
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• Power:
• Instantaneous Power = p=vi
= VmImsin (ωt+ π/2)
1 2𝜋
•𝑝= 𝑉 𝐼 ‫ ׬‬sin 2𝜔𝑡 𝑑𝑡 = 0
2 𝑚 𝑚 0
• We find that in a purely capacitive circuit, the average demand of
power from supply is zero (as in a purely inductive circuit).
• Again, it is seen that power wave is a sine wave of frequency double
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that of the voltage and current waves.
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• The maximum value of the instantaneous power is VmIm/2.
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B
TE
C
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A.C. Through Resistance and Inductance
• A pure resistance R and a pure inductive coil of inductance L are
shown connected in series in Fig.
• The series combination is connected across a.c. supply given by 𝑣 =
𝑉𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡.
• The circuit draws a current I from the supply.
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B
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• There are two voltage drops as under:
• Drop across resistance R VR = IR
• Drop across Inductance L VL =IXL
• I = RMS value of current drawn
• VR, VL = RMS values of voltage drops.
• The Kirchhoff’s voltage law can be applied to a.c. circuit, but only
point to be considered here is the addition of voltages should be
phasor addition and no longer algebraic as in the case of d.c.
Jo
in
• ∴ 𝑉ത = 𝑉𝑅 + 𝑉𝐿
@
• 𝑉ത = 𝐼𝑅 + 𝐼𝑋𝐿 SP
PU
B
TE
• For series ac circuit, current is taken as reference phasor as it is
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common to both elements.
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eg
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• Steps to draw phasor diagram:
1. Take current as reference phasor.
2. In case of resistance, v& I are in phase, so VR will be along current
phasor.
3. In case of inductor, I lags V by 900. As current is reference, VL must be
shown leading with respect to current by 900.
4. The supply voltage being vector sum of these two vectors, VL and VR
is obtained by Law of parallelogram.
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B
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• From the voltage triangle, we can write
•𝑉= 𝑉𝑅2 + 𝑉𝐿2 = 𝐼 𝑅2 + 𝑋𝐿2 = 𝐼𝑍
• Where, 𝑍 = 𝑅2 + 𝑋𝐿2 ,
• The impedance Z is measured in ohms.
• From the phasor diagram it is clear that current I is lagging the
resultant voltage V by an angle. Therefore the expression for the
instantaneous current I will be as under:
• 𝒊 = 𝑰𝒎 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝝎𝒕 − ∅
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B
TE
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• Power consumed in the circuit will be
• 𝑃 = 𝑣 × 𝑖 = 𝑉𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 × 𝐼𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 − ∅
• = 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 sin 𝜔𝑡 − ∅
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
•= cos ∅ − cos 2𝜔𝑡 − ∅
2
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 cos 2𝜔𝑡−∅
•= cos ∅ −
2 2
• The second term is a cosine term whose average value over a
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complete cycle is zero.
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𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
SP
• ∴ 𝑃𝑎𝑣 = cos ∅ = cos ∅ = 𝑉𝐼 cos ∅ 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠
PU
2 2 2
B
TE
• 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑉 & 𝐼 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟. 𝑚. 𝑠. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡.
C
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A.C. Through Resistance and Capacitance:
• Consider a circuit consisting of pure resistance R ohms connected in
series with a pure inductance of L Henries as shown in Fig.
• The series combination is connected across a.c. supply given by 𝑣 =
𝑉𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡.
• The circuit draws a current I from the supply.
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B
TE
C
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• There are two voltage drops as under:
• Drop across resistance R VR = IR
• Drop across Inductance L VL =I XC
• I = RMS value of current drawn
• VR, VC = RMS values of voltage drops.
• The Kirchhoff’s voltage law can be applied to a.c. circuit, but only
point to be considered here is the addition of voltages should be
phasor addition and no longer algebraic as in the case of d.c.
Jo
in
• ∴ 𝑉ത = 𝑉𝑅 + 𝑉𝐶
@
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PU
• 𝑉ത = 𝐼𝑅 + 𝐼𝑋𝐶
B
TE
C
• For series ac circuit, current is taken as reference phasor as it is
H
-T
el
common to both elements.
eg
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m
• Steps to draw phasor diagram:
• Take current as reference phasor.
• In case of resistance, v& I are in phase, so VR will be along current
phasor.
• In case of capacitor, I lead V by 900. As current is reference, VL must
be shown lagging with respect to current by 900.
• The supply voltage being vector sum of these two vectors, VC and VR
is obtained by Law of parallelogram.
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in
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PU
B
TE
C
H
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el
eg
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m
• From the voltage triangle, we can write
•𝑉= 𝑉𝑅2 + 𝑉𝐶2 = 𝐼 𝑅2 + 𝑋𝐶2 = 𝐼𝑍
• Where, 𝑍 = 𝑅2 + 𝑋𝐶2 , The impedance Z is measured in ohms.

• From the phasor diagram it is clear that current I is lagging the
resultant voltage V by an angle . Therefore the expression for the
instantaneous current I will be as under:
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• 𝒊 = 𝑰𝒎 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝝎𝒕 + ∅
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B
TE
C
H
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• 𝑃 = 𝑣 × 𝑖 = 𝑉𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 × 𝐼𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 + ∅
• = 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡 sin 𝜔𝑡 + ∅
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
•= cos ∅ − cos 2𝜔𝑡 + ∅
2
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 cos 2𝜔𝑡+∅
•= cos ∅ −
2 2
• The second term is a cosine term whose average value over a
complete cycle is zero.
Jo
in
𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝐼𝑚
• ∴ 𝑃𝑎𝑣 = cos ∅ = cos ∅ = 𝑉𝐼 cos ∅ 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠
@
SP
2 2 2
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• 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑉 & 𝐼 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟. 𝑚. 𝑠. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡.
B
TE
C
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A.C. Through Resistance,inductance
Capacitance
• Draw and explain phasor diagrams of a R-L-C series circuit when
• XL> XC
• XC > XL
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B
TE
C
Fig: AC through series R-L-C series circuit
H
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eg
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m
• Consider R-L-C series circuit as shown in above figure.The ac supply is
given by
• The voltage drops across R, L & C are as under:
• VR=IR Volts
• VL= I XL Volts
• VC= I XC Volts
According to Kirchoff’s Law, we can write,
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B
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C
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m
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H
C
TE
B
PU
SP
@
in
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• The phasor diagram depends on the conditions of magnitudes of VL
and VC . Let us consider the different cases:
• Case I . XL > XC
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B
Fig: Phasor diagram and voltage triangle
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C
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m
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B
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Jo XC > XL
Case II
Fig: Phasor diagram and voltage triangle
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B
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C
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Sketch Impedance triangle and Admittance triangle and define admittance and Impedance
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Fig: Admittance triangle
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B
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• Impedance: Impedance is defined as the resistance offered by the
circuit to the flow of alternating current through it.Its denoted by Z
and measured in ohms.
• Admittance :Admittance is defined as reciprocal of impedance. Its is

denoted as Y and is measured in Siemens or mho.
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B
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1000171_T1 BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGG.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 2. At higher frequencies , the value of capacitive reactance

C : remains the same

D : increases and also depends on supply voltage

A : They are elastic in nature

B : They generate from south pole and terminate at north pole

C : They never cross each other

D : They always form closed path

Q.no 5. KCL is associated with____________

C : both nodal analysis & mesh analysis

D : can not say

Q.no 6. Flux density in magnetic circuit is measured in

Q.no 7. The value of Resistance Temperature Coefficient of material depends upon

A : length of the material

B : cross sectional area of the material

C : volume of the material

D : nature of the material and temperature

Q.no 8. The charging and discharging voltage of a capacitor follow

D : Becomes 4 times the original

Q.no 11. The form factor of a pure sinusoidal wave is

Q.no 13. The phase sequence R-B-Y denotes that emf of

A : phase R lags that of phase B by 120 degrees

B : phase R lags that of phase Y by 120 degrees

C : phase R leads that of phase B by 120 degrees

D : phase B leads that of phase R by 120 degrees

Q.no 14. The material used for making core of transformer is

Q.no 15. As moisture increases, insulation resistance of paper

Q.no 16. The specific resistance of a material depends upon

C : The area of cross section of the conductor only

D : The nature of the material of the conductor only

A : increases with increase in load

B : decreases with increase in load

C : remains the same for all type of loads

D : depends on the power factor

Q.no 20. An ideal current source is that whose internal resistance is

Q.no 22. The power factor in a c circuit is given by

Q.no 24. At resonance R-L-C series a c circuit behaves as

D : partly resistive and partly inductive

A : cross sectional area of the conductor is increased

B : length of the conductor is increased

C : length of the conductor is reduced

D : cross sectional area is increased and length is decreased

Q.no 26. Insulation resistance is the opposition to the flow of

Q.no 28. Inductance (L) of the electro-magnetic circuit is given by

C : Flux linkage per ampere

Q.no 29. Thevenin resistance is found by ________

A : Shorting all voltage sources

B : Opening all current sources

C : Opening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources

D : Shorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources

A : Flemings Right hand rule

B : Flemings Left hand rule

C : Right hand gripping rule

D : cork screw rule

D : between 1 and 2 percent