1all Merged

Electrical Circuits
UNIT I: Basic circuit Analysis and Simplification Techniques

MCQ’S
1.KCL is based on the fact that

a) There is a possibility for a node to store energy.
b) There cannot be an accumulation of charge at a node.
c) Charge accumulation is possible at node
d) Charge accumulation may or may not be possible.
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the node is not a circuit element, any charge which enters node must leave
immediately.
2. Relation between currents according to KCL is
a) i1=i2=i3=i4=i5
b) i1+i4+i3=i5+i2
c) i1-i5=i2-i3-i4
d) i1+i5=i2+i3+i4
Answer: d
Explanation: According to KCL, entering currents=leaving currents.
3. The algebraic sum of voltages around any closed path in a network is equal to ____________
a) Infinity
b) 1
c) 0
d) Negative polarity
Answer: c
Explanation: According to KVL, the sum of voltages around the closed path in a network is zero.
Prepared By
Prof. S. G. Madhikar
4. Calculate potential difference between x and y
a) 4.275v
b) -4.275v
c) 4.527v
d) -4.527v
Answer: b
Explanation:
I1 = 3/3+5 = 3/8 = 0.375Ω

I2 = 4/5 = 0.8Ω
Vxy = vx – vy
Vx + 5I1 + 4 – 2I2 – vy = 0
Vx – vy = 2I2 – 4 – 5I1 = -4.275Ω
5. Find R
Prepared By
a) 17.5 Ω
b) 17.2 Ω
c) 17.4 Ω
d) 17.8 Ω
Answer: a
Explanation:
KVL: 70 – 5I – 7(I – 2) = 0
I = 7A
KVL to 2nd loop: 7(I – 2) – 2R = 0
R=17.5Ω
6. Determine currents I1 , I2 and I3.
a) -3.3A, -8.5A, 2.4A

b) 3A, -8A, 2A
c) 3.3A, 8.5A, -2.4A
d) 3.2A, 8.6A, 2.3A
Answer: c
Explanation:
I1 = I1 – I2 + 8 + I3 + 3
Prepared By
I2 – I3 = 11 -> 1
And -11 I1 – 7(I1 – I2) = 0
-18 I1 + 7 I2 = 0 -> 2
And -11 I1 – 15 I3 =0 -> 3
Solving I1 = 3.32A I2 = 8.5A I3 = -2.4A.
7. All _____________ are loops but _______________ are not meshes

a) Loops, Meshes
b) Meshes, loops
c) Branches, loops
d) Nodes, Branches
Answer: b
Explanation: A mesh cannot be divided further in loops.
8. Solve for I.
Solve for I.
a) -0.5A
b) 0.5A
c) -0.2A
d) 0.2A
Answer: a
Explanation: Veq = 10 + 5 -20 = -5u

Req = 5 + 2 + 3 = 10Ω
I = V/R = -5/10 = -0.5A.
9. The basic laws for analyzing an electric circuit are :-

a) Einstein’s theory
b) Newtons laws
c) Kirchhoff’s laws
Prepared By
d) Faradays laws
Answer: c
Explanation: Kirchhoff’s laws are used for analyzing an electric circuit.
10. A junction whell two (or) more than two network elements meet is known as a
______________
a) Node
b) Branch
c) Loop
d) Mesh
Answer: a
Explanation: Node is a junction where two or more than two network elements meet.
11. What is the other name for Dependent sources?

a) Uncontrolled sources
b) Time response elements
c) Steady state elements
d) Controlled sources
Answer: d
Explanation: Dependant sources are also known as Controlled sources as there are controlled by
other elements present in the circuit.
12. The analysis of a circuit containing dependent sources can be done using nodal and mesh
analysis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The analysis of a circuit containing dependent sources can be completed using nodal
and mesh analysis with the help of Kirchhoff’s laws and also by using various circuit theorems.
13. Dependent sources are _____________ types.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: Dependent sources are 4 types. Voltage controlled voltage/current source and current
controlled current/voltage source.
Prepared By
14. Nodal analysis is mainly based on __________
a) KCL
b) KVL
c) Wheatstone bridge principle
d) Faraday’s electric laws
Answer: a
Explanation: Nodal analysis or Node-Voltage method is done by identifying the currents at the
node and thereby forming equations.
15. The loop which does not contain any other inner loop is known as _____________
a) A node
b) A mesh
c) A branch
d) A super mesh
Answer: b
Explanation: A mesh is defined as a loop which does not contain any other loop within it.
16. A Supermesh is formed between two loops which share a common voltage source.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Meshes that share a current source with other meshes, none of which contains a
current source in the outer loop, forms a supermesh.
17. Consider the circuit shown below. The number mesh equations that can be formed are?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: We know if there are n loops in the circuit, n mesh equations can be formed. So as
there are 2 loops in the circuit. So 2 mesh equations can be formed.
Prepared By
18. Find current through R2 resistor.
a) 3
b) 3.25
c) 3.5
d) 3.75
Answer: d
Explanation: Applying mesh analysis, 5(I1) + 2(I1-I2) = 10. 10(I2) + 2(I2-I1) + 40 = 0. On solving,
I1 = 0.5A, I2 = -3.25A. So current through R2 resistor is 0.5-(-3.25) = 3.75 A.
19. In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other voltage sources are?
a) open circuited
b) short circuited
c) change its position
d) removed from the circuit
Answer: b
Explanation: In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other voltage sources are
short circuited. This theorem is valid for linear systems.
20. In the circuit shown, find the current through 3Ω resistor using Superposition theorem.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Answer: b
Explanation: Considering the voltage source 20V, 5A current source is open circuited.
Prepared By
Now current through 3Ω resistor is 20/(5+4)=2.22A.
Now considering the current source 5A, 20V voltage source is short circuited.
No current through 3Ω resistor is 5× 5/(4+5)=2.78A. Now finally the current through 3Ω resistor
is 2.22 + 2.78 = 5A.
21. Consider the circuit shown below. Find the equivalent Thevenin’s voltage between nodes A
and B.
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 9
d) 9.5
Answer: b
Explanation: The thevenin’s voltage is equal to the open circuit voltage across the terminals AB
that is across 12Ω resistor. Vth = 10×12/14 = 8.57V.
Prepared By
22. Find the current flowing between terminals A and B.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: Short circuiting terminals A and B, 20-10(I1)=0, I1=2A. 10-5(I2), I2=2A. Current
flowing through terminals A and B= 2+2 = 4A.
23. The maximum power is delivered from a source to its load when the load resistance is ______
the source resistance.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) equal to
d) less than or equal to
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum power is delivered from a source to its load when the load resistance
is equal to the source resistance. The maximum power transfer theorem can be applied to both dc
and ac circuits.
24. If source impedance is complex, then maximum power transfer occurs when the load
impedance is _______ the source impedance.
a) equal to
b) negative of
c) complex conjugate of
d) negative of complex conjugate of
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum power transfer theorem can be applied to complex impedance
circuits. If source impedance is complex, the maximum power transfer occurs when the load
impedance is complex conjugate of the source impedance.
Prepared By
25. Find the current i3 in the circuit shown below
a) 2A
b) 1A
c) 3A
d) 0.5A
Answer: c
Explanation: By applying the KCL at the node in the circuit , 5A = 2A +i3.
26. Kirchhoff’s current law is applied at

a) loops
b) nodes
c) both loop and node
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Kirchhoff’s current law can be applicable to nodes only.
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
UNIT II: Transient Analysis of Basic RL, RC and RLC Circuits
MCQ’S
1. An RL network is one which consists of ____________

a) Resistor and capacitor in parallel
b) Resistor and capacitor in series
c) Resistor and inductor in parallel
d) Resistor and inductor in series
Answer: d
Explanation: An R-L network is a network which consists of a resistor which is connected in

series to an inductor.
2. If the switch is opened at t=0, what is the current in the circuit?
a) 0A
b) 1A
c) 2A
d) 3A
Answer: c
Explanation: Initially when switch was closed, current in the inductor was 60/30=2A.
Current in inductor doesn’t change suddenly so when switch is opened, current in inductor
remains same i.e. 2A.
3. In an RL series circuit, when the switch is closed and the circuit is complete, what is the
response?
a) Response does not vary with time
b) Decays with time
c) Increases with time
d) First increases, then decrease
Answer: b
Prepared By
Explanation: In an RL series circuit, the response decays with time because according to the
equation, there is an exponential decrease in the response.
4. If the switch is closed at t=0, what is the current in the circuit?
a) 0A
b) 10A
c) 20A
d) 30A
Answer: a
Explanation: Initially, when the switch is open, the current in the circuit is 0. As soon as the
switch is closed at t=0+, the inductor acts as an open circuit, hence the current in the circuit is
zero. Since the current in the circuit is zero, there is no voltage drop across the resistor and hence
voltage across the inductor is equal to the supply voltage, i.e. 60V.
5. What is the voltage across the inductor at t=0?
a) 0V
b) 20V
c) 60V
d) 58V
Answer: c
switch is closes at t=0+, the inductor acts as an open circuit, hence the current in the circuit is
Prepared By
zero. Since the current in the circuit is zero, there is no voltage drop across the resistor and the
voltage across the inductor is equal to the supply voltage, which is equal to 60V.
6. What is the expression for current in the given circuit?
a) i=2(e-2t) A
b) i=2(1-e-2t)A
c) i=2(e2t)A
d) i=2(1+e-2t)A
Answer: b
Explanation: Applying KVL in above circuit, we get

60-30i-15di/dt =0
i=2(1-e-2t) A
7. What is the expression for voltage in the given circuit?
a) V=60e-0.5t
b) V=30e-0.5t
c) V=60e-2t
d) V=30e-2t
Answer: c
Prepared By
60-30i-15di/dt = 0
i=2(1-e-2t)A
di/dt = 4e-2t
V=Ldi/dt=15*4e--2t=60e-2t.
8. At steady state, the current in the inductor is?

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
Answer: a
Explanation: At steady state maximum current flows in the inductor because it acts as an open
circuit.
9. Initially, when the switch in a series RL circuit is closed, the inductor acts as?
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Resistor
d) Capacitor
Answer: a
Explanation: Before switch is closed, current in inductor is zero. When the switch in a series RL
circuit is closed, current in the inductor remains zero since current in inductor doesn’t change
suddenly. So, the inductor acts as an open circuit.
10. Initially, when the switch in a series RL circuit is closed, the current in the inductor is?
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
Answer: c
Explanation: Initially, when the switch in a series RL circuit is closed, the inductor acts as an open
circuit. Current in an open circuit is zero, hence the inductor current is zero.
11. The current in the R-L circuit at a time t = 0+ is?

a) V/R
b) R/V
c) V
d) R
Answer: a
Prepared By
Explanation: The capacitor never allows sudden changes in voltage, it will act as a short circuit at
t = 0+. So the current in the circuit at t = 0+ is V/R.
12. In an R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the response ____________
a) do not vary with time
b) decays with time
c) rises with time
d) first increases and then decreases
Answer: b
Explanation: In a R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the response decays with time that is the
response V/R decreases with increase in time.
13. The time constant of an R-C circuit is?

a) RC
b) R/C
c) R
d) C
Answer: a
Explanation: The time constant of an R-C circuit is RC and it is denoted by τ and the value of τ in
dc response of R-C circuit is RC sec.
14. A series R-C circuit consists of resistor of 10 and capacitor of 0.1F as shown in the figure. A
constant voltage of 20V is applied to the circuit at t = 0. What is the current in the circuit at t = 0?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: At t = 0, switch S is closed. Since the capacitor does not allow sudden changes in
voltage, the current in the circuit is i = V/R = 20/10 = 2A. At t = 0, i = 2A.
Prepared By
15. The value of the time constant in the R-L circuit is?
a) L/R
b) R/L
c) R
d) L
Answer: a
Explanation: The time constant of a function (V/R)e-(R/L)t is the time at which the exponent of e is
unity where e is the base of the natural logarithms. The term L / R is called the time constant and
is denoted by ‘τ’.
16. A series R-L circuit with R = 30Ω and L = 15H has a constant voltage V = 60V applied at t =
0 as shown in the figure. Determine the current (A) in the circuit at t = 0+.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the inductor never allows sudden changes in currents. At t = 0+ that just after
the initial state the current in the circuit is zero.
17. The circuit shown in the figure consists of resistance, capacitance and inductance in series
with a 100V source when the switch is closed at t = 0. Find the equation obtained from the circuit
in terms of current.
Prepared By
Answer: a
Explanation: At t = 0, switch S is closed when the 100V source is applied to the circuit and results
in the following differential equation.
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
UNIT III: Two Port Network Parameters and Functions
MCQ’S
1. Two ports containing no sources in their branches are called?

a) active ports
b) passive ports
c) one port
d) three port
Answer: b
Explanation: Two ports containing no sources in their branches are called passive ports; among
them are power transmission lines and transformers.
2. Two ports containing sources in their branches are called?

a) three port
b) one port
c) passive ports
d) active ports
Answer: d
Explanation: Two ports containing sources in their branches are called active ports. A voltage and
current is assigned to each of the two ports.
3. In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2, which of the following
are dependent variables?
a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Answer: a
Explanation: In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2; V1 and V2
are dependent variables and I1, I2 are independent variables i.e., dependent variables depend on
independent variables.
4. In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2, which of the
following are independent variables?
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Answer: c
Explanation: In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2; I1 and I2 are
Prepared By
independent variables and V1, V2 are dependent variables. Independent variables are the variables
that do not depend on any other variable.
5. Which of the following expression is true in case of open circuit parameters?

a) V1 = Z11 V1 + Z12 I2
b) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 V2
c) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
d) V2 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression relating the open circuit parameters Z11, Z12 and currents I1, I2 and
voltage V1 is V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2.

a) V2 = Z21I2 + Z22 I2
b) V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
c) V1 = Z21I2 + Z22 I2
d) V1 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression relating the currents I1, I2 and voltage V1 and open circuit parameters
Z21, Z22 is V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2.
7. Find the Z – parameter Z11 in the circuit shown below.
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 2.5
Answer: d
Explanation: For determining Z11, the current I2 is equal to zero. Now we obtain Zeq as 1+
(6×2)/(6+2)=2.5Ω. So, Z11 = 2.5Ω.
8. The value of Z21 in the circuit shown in the question 7 is?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Prepared By
Answer: b
Explanation: V2 is the voltage across the 4Ω impedance. The current through 4Ω impedance is
I1/4. And V2 = (I1/4) x 4 = I1. So, Z21 = 1Ω.
9. Find the value of Z12 in the circuit shown in the question 7.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: c
Explanation: The current through vertical 2Ω resistor is = I2/2. So, V1 = 2 x (I2/2). On solving and
substituting we get Z12 = 1Ω.
10. Determine the value of Z22 in the circuit shown in the question 7.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c
Explanation: Open circuiting port 1, we get V2 = I2((2+2)||4) => V2 = I2 x 2 =>V2/I2 = 2.

Therefore the value of Z22 is 2Ω.
11. In determining short circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2, which of the
following are dependent variables?
a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Answer: b
Explanation: In determining short circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2; I1 and I2 are
dependent variables and V1, V2 are independent variables i.e., dependent variables depend on
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Answer: d
Explanation: In determining short circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2; V1 and V2
Prepared By
are independent variables and I1, I2 are dependent variables. Independent variables are the
variables that do not depend on any other variable.
13. Which of the following expression is true in case of short circuit parameters?
a) I1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
b) I1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
c) V1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
d) V1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression relating the short circuit parameters Y11, Y12 and voltages V1, V2 and
current is I1, is I1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2.
a) I2 = Y21I1 + Y22 I2
b) V2 = Y21I1 + Y22 V2
c) I2 = Y21V1 + Y22 V2
d) I2 = Y21V1 + Y22 I2
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression relating the voltages V1, V2 and current is I2 and short circuit
parameters Y11, Y12 is I2 = Y21V1 + Y22V2.
15. The parameters Y11, Y12, Y21, Y22 are called?

a) Open circuit impedance parameters
b) Short circuit admittance parameters
c) Inverse transmission parameters
d) Transmission parameters
Answer: b
Explanation: The parameters Y11, Y12, Y21, Y22 are called short circuit admittance parameters also
called network functions as they are obtained by short circuiting port 1 or port 2.
16. Find the Y – parameter Y11 in the circuit shown below.
a) 2
b) 3/2
c) 1
d) 1/2
Answer: d
Prepared By
Explanation: After short circuiting b-b’, the equation will be V1 = (I1) x 2. We know Y11 = I1/V1.
From the equation we get I1/V1 = 2. On substituting we get Y11 = 2 mho.
17. Find the Y – parameter Y21 in the circuit shown in question 16.
a) -1/4
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) -1/2
Answer: a
Explanation: After short circuiting b-b’, the equation will be -I2=I1 × 2/4=I1/2 and -I2= V1/4 and
on solving and substituting we get Y21 =I2/V1=-1/4 mho.
a) 3/8
b) 5/8
c) 7/8
d) 9/8
Answer: b
Explanation: On short circuiting a-a’,we get Zeq = 8/5 Ω. V2=I2× 8/5. We know Y22 = I2/V2. We
got I2/V1 = 5/8. ON substituting we get Y22 = 5/8 mho.
a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) -1/4
d) 1/4
Answer: c
Explanation: Short circuiting a-a’, -I1= 2/5 I2 and I2= 5 V2/8. On solving -I1= 2/5×5/8 V2= V2/4.
We know
Y12 = I1/V2. We got I1/V2 = -1/4. So the value of Y12 will be -1/4 mho.
20. Which of the following equation is true in the circuit shown in question 16?
a) I1=0.5(V1) + 0.25(V2)
b) I1=0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2)
c) I1=-0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2)
d) I1=0.5(V1) - 0.25(V2)
Answer: d
Explanation: We got the admittance parameters as Y11 = 0.5, Y12 = -0.25, Y21 = -0.25, Y22 =
0.625. So the equations in terms of admittance parameters is
I1=0.5(V1)-0.25(V2) and I2=-0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2).
Prepared By
21.In the circuit shown below, find the transmission parameter A.
a) 6/5
b) 5/6
c) 3/4
d) 4/3
Answer: a
Explanation: Open circuiting b-b‘, V1 = 6 I1, V2 = 5I1. On solving V1/V2 = 6/5. On substituting we
get A = V1/V2=6/5.
22. In the circuit shown question 21, find the transmission parameter C.
a) 4/5
b) 3/5
c) 2/5
d) 1/5
Answer: d
Explanation: C = I1/V2 |I2=0. By open circuiting b-b‘ we get V2 = 5 I1 =>I1/V2 = 1/5. On
substituting we get C = I1/V2=1/5 Ω.
23. In the circuit shown question 21, find the transmission parameter B.
a) 15/5
b) 17/5
c) 19/5
d) 21/5
Answer: b
Explanation: The transmission parameter B is given by B = -V1/I2 |V2=0. Short circuiting b-b‘, -
I2= 5/17 V1 => -V1/I2 = 17/5. On substituting we get B=17/5 Ω.
24. In the circuit shown question 21, find the transmission parameter D.
a) 1/5
b) 3/5
c) 7/5
d) 9/5
Answer: c
Explanation: D is a transmission parameter and is given by D = -I1/I2 |V2=0. Short circuiting b-b‘,
I1= 7/17 V1 and-I2= 5/17 V1. So we get I1/I2 = 7/5. So D=7/5.
Prepared By
25. The hybrid parameter h11 is called?
a) short circuit input impedance
b) short circuit forward current gain
c) open circuit reverse voltage gain
d) open circuit output admittance
Answer: a
Explanation: h11=V1/I1 |V2=0. So the hybrid parameter h11 is called short circuit input impedance.

a) open circuit output admittance
b) open circuit reverse voltage gain
c) short circuit forward current gain
d) short circuit input impedance
Answer: c
Explanation: h21=I2/I1 |V2=0. So the hybrid parameter h21 is called short circuit forward current
gain.
27. In the circuit shown below, find the h-parameter h11.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: h11=V1/I1 |V2=0. So short circuiting b-b‘, V1 = I1((2||2)+1) = 2I1 => V1/I1= 2. On
substituting we get h11 = V1/I1= 2Ω.
28. In the circuit shown in question 27, find the h-parameter h21.
a) 1
b) -1
c) 1/2
d) -1/2
Answer: d
Explanation: Short circuiting b-b‘, h21 = I2/I1 when V2=0 and -I2= I1/2 => I2/I1 = -1/2. So h21 = -
1/2.
Prepared By
a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) 1
d) -1
Answer: a
Explanation: Open circuiting a-a‘ we get V1=Iy×2 and
Iy=I2/2 and V2=Ix×4 and Ix=I2/2. On solving and substituting, we get h12 =V1/V2=1/2.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1/2
d) 3/2
Answer: c
Explanation: Open circuiting a-a‘ we get V1=Iy×2 and Iy=I2/2 and V2=Ix×4 and Ix=I2/2. On solving
and substituting, we get h22 =I2/V2=1/2 Ω.
31. For the circuit given below, the value of the hybrid parameter h11 is ___________
a) 15 Ω
b) 20 Ω
c) 30 Ω
d) 25 Ω
Answer: a
Explanation: Hybrid parameter h11 is given by, h11 = V1I1, when V2=0.
Therefore short circuiting the terminal Y-Y’, we get,
V1 = I1 ((10||10) + 10)
= I1 ((10×1010+10)+10)
= 15I1
Prepared By
∴ V1I1 = 15.
Hence h11 = 15 Ω.
a) 0.6 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.3 Ω
d) 0.2 Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: Hybrid parameter h21 is given by, h21 = I2I1, when V2=0.
Therefore short circuiting the terminal Y-Y’, and applying Kirchhoff’s law, we get,
-10 I2 – (I2 – I1)10 = 0
Or, -I2 = I2 – I1
Or, -2I2 = -I1
∴ I2I1=12
Hence h21 = 0.5 Ω.
a) 6 Ω
b) 5 Ω
c) 1 Ω
d) 2 Ω
Prepared By
Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid parameter h12 is given by, h12 = V1V2, when I1 = 0.
Therefore short circuiting the terminal X-X’ we get,
V1 = IA × 10
IA = I22
V2 = IB × 10
IB = I22
From the above 4 equations, we get,
∴ V1V2=I2×10I2×10 = 1
Hence h12 = 1 Ω.
a) 0.2 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.1 Ω
d) 0.3 Ω
Answer: a
Explanation: Hybrid parameter h22 is given by, h22 = I2V2, when I1 = 0.
V1 = IA × 10
IA = I22
V2 = IB × 10
IB = I22
∴ I2V2=I2×2I2×10 = 0.2
Hence h22 = 0.2 Ω.
Prepared By
35. In the circuit given below, the value of the hybrid parameter h11 is _________
a) 10 Ω
b) 7.5 Ω
c) 5 Ω
d) 2.5 Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: Hybrid parameter h11 is given by, h11 = V1I1, when V2 = 0.
V1 = I1 ((5 || 5) + 5)
= I1 ((5×55+5)+5)
= 7.5I1
∴ V1I1 = 7.5
Hence h11 = 7.5 Ω.
a) 10 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 5 Ω
d) 2.5 Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: Hybrid parameter h21 is given by, h21 = I2I1, when V2 = 0.
-5 I2 – (I2 – I1)5 = 0
Prepared By
Or, -I2 = I2 – I1
Or, -2I2 = -I1
∴ I2I1=12
Hence h21 = 0.5 Ω.
a) 6 Ω
b) 5 Ω
c) 1 Ω
d) 2 Ω
Answer: c
V1 = IA × 5
V2 = IA × 5
From the above equations, we get,
∴ V1V2=IA×10IA×10 = 1
Hence h12 = 1 Ω.
a) 0.2 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.1 Ω
d) 0.3 Ω
Prepared By
Answer: a
V1 = IA × 5
V2 = IA × 5
IA = I2
∴ I2V2=I2I2×5 = 0.2
Hence h22 = 0.2 Ω.
39. In two-port networks the parameter h11 is called _________

a) Short circuit input impedance
b) Short circuit current gain
c) Open circuit reverse voltage gain
d) Open circuit output admittance
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that, h11 = V1I1, when V2 = 0.
Since the second output terminal is short circuited when the ratio of the two voltages is measured,
therefore the parameter h11 is called as Short circuit input impedance.

Answer: b
Explanation: We know that, h21 = I2I1, when V2 = 0.
Since the second output terminal is short circuited when the ratio of the two currents is measured,
therefore the parameter h21 is called Short circuit current gain.

Answer: c
Explanation: We know that, h21 = V1V2, when I1 = 0.
Since the current in the first loop is 0 when the ratio of the two voltages is measured, therefore the
parameter h12 is called as Open circuit reverse voltage gain.

Prepared By
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that, h22 = I2V2, when I1 = 0.
Since the current in the first loop is 0 when the ratio of the current and voltage in the second loop
is measured, therefore the parameter h22 is called as Open circuit output admittance.
43. For a T-network if the Short circuit admittance parameters are given as y11, y21, y12, y22, then
y11 in terms of Hybrid parameters can be expressed as ________
a) y11 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y11 = h21h11
c) y11 = –h12h11
d) y11 = 1h11
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that the short circuit admittance parameters can be expressed in terms of
voltages and currents as,
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
And the Hybrid parameters can be expressed in terms of voltages and currents as,
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
Now, (3) and (4) can be rewritten as,
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
∴ Comparing (1), (2) and (5), (6), we get,
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
a) y12 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y12 = h21h11
c) y12 = –h12h11
d) y12 = 1h11
Answer: c
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
Prepared By
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
a) y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y22 = h21h11
c) y22 = –h12h11
d) y22 = 1h11
Answer: a
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
41. The coefficients of the polynomials P (S) and Q (S) in the network function N (S) are
________ for passive network.
a) real and positive
b) real and negative
c) complex and positive
d) complex and negative
Answer: a
Explanation: The coefficients of the polynomials P (S) and Q (S) in the network function N (S)
are real and positive for passive network. On factorising the network function we obtain the poles
and zeros.
42. The scale factor is denoted by the letter?

a) G
Prepared By
b) H
c) I
d) J
Answer: b
Explanation: The scale factor is denoted by the letter ‘H’ and its value is equal to the ratio of ao to
bo.
43. The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: d
Explanation: The roots of the equation P (S) = 0 are zeros of the transfer function. The zeros in the
transfer function are denoted by ‘o’.
44. The poles in the transfer function are denoted by?

a) x
b) y
c) z
d) w
Answer: a
Explanation: The roots of the equation Q (S) = 0 are poles of the transfer function. The poles in
the transfer function are denoted by ‘x’.
45. The network function N (S) becomes _________ when s is equal to anyone of the zeros.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) ∞
Answer: c
Explanation: The network function N (S) becomes zero when s in the transfer function is equal to
anyone of the zeros as the network function is completely defined by its poles and zeros.
46. The N (S) becomes ________ when s is equal to any of the poles.
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
Prepared By
Answer: a
Explanation: The network function is completely defined by its poles and zeros and the network
function N (S) becomes infinite when s in the transfer function is equal to anyone of the poles.
47. If the poles or zeros are not repeated, then the function is said to be having __________ poles
or ________ zeros.
a) simple, multiple
b) multiple, simple
c) simple, simple
d) multiple, multiple
Answer: c
Explanation: If the poles or zeros are not repeated, then the function is said to be having simple
poles or simple zeros and the network function is said to be stable when the real parts of the poles
and zeros are negative.
48. If the poles or zeros are repeated, then the function is said to be having __________ poles or
________ zeros.
a) multiple, multiple
b) simple, simple
c) multiple, simple
d) simple, multiple
Answer: a
Explanation: If there are repeated poles or zeros, then function is said to be having multiple poles
or multiple zeros and the network function is stable if the poles and zeros lie within the left half of
the s-plane.
49. If the number of zeros (n) are greater than the number of poles (m), then there will be
_________ number of zeros at s = ∞.
a) n
b) m
c) n-m
d) n+m
Answer: c
Explanation: If the number of zeros (n) are greater than the number of poles (m), then there will
be (n-m) number of zeros at s = ∞ and to obtain (n-m) zeros at s = ∞ the condition is n>m.
50. If the number of poles (m)are greater than the number of zeros (n), then there will be
a) m+n
b) m-n
c) m
d) n
Prepared By
Answer: b
Explanation: If the number of poles (m)are greater than the number of zeros (n), then there will be
(m-n) number of zeros at s = ∞ and to obtain (m-n) poles at s = ∞ the condition is m>n.
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
UNIT IV: DC Machines
MCQ’S
1. Where is field winding mounted in a DC machine?

a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Absent
d) Anywhere on stator or rotor
Answer: a
Explanation: The field winding (concentrated type) is mounted on salient-poles on
the stator and the armature winding (distributed type) is wound in slots on a
cylindrical rotor. In AC machines field winding is mounted on rotor.
2. What are the materials used for brushes in dc machines?

a) Iron
b) Carbon
c) Aluminum
d) Steel
Answer: b
Explanation: On some extent carbon brush can act as a self-lubricating brush. On
moment, polishes the commutator segments. Damage to the commutators is less
when copper brushes are used on occurrence of sparkover.
3. In PMDC motors we use magnetic material with ___________

a) Low residual flux
b) Low coercivity
c) High residual flux
d) All magnetic materials
Answer: c
Explanation: In market magnetic materials with various properties are available, but
for DC motor application we need magnetic materials with high residual flux in
order to get high no load voltage. Along with residual flux, coercivity of material
should be high.
Prepared By
4. Direction of rotation of motor is determined by ____________
a) Faraday’s law
b) Lenz’s law
c) Coulomb’s law
d) Fleming’s left-hand rule
Answer: d
Explanation: Flemings laws can be summarized as whenever, a current carrying
conductor comes under a magnetic field, there will be a force acting on the
conductor and on the other hand, if a conductor is forcefully brought under a
magnetic field, there will be an induced current in that conductor.
5. The current drawn by the armature of DC motor is directly proportional to

________________
a) Torque
b) Speed
c) The voltage across the terminals
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: From the equation of torque generated in a DC machine, we know that
in both DC motor and DC generator, current drawn is directly proportional to the
torque required by the machine.
6. Which of the following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed
range control is required?
a) All motors
b) Induction motor
c) Synchronous motor
d) DC motor
Answer: d
Explanation: DC series motor gives the maximum starting torque at starting. With
the help of Ward Leonard speed control method various speeds are also available. It
provides one mode to other transmission also.
7. Torque developed by a DC motor depends upon _____________

a) magnetic field
b) active length of the conductor
Prepared By
c) current flow through the conductors
d) Current, active length, no. of conductors, magnetic field all
Answer: d
Explanation: Torque produced by a DC motor is directly proportional to an
armature current flowing through the machine. While it also depends on some
constant values like active length, no. od armature conductors and magnetic field
which are constant for a given machine.
9. PMDC produces high torque on ______________

a) At low speeds
b) Only at maximum speed
c) Torque is constant
d) Cannot say
Answer: a
Explanation: PMDC produces high torque even at very low speeds. In DC shunt
motor torque produced at very low speeds is lower than the torque produced at the
same speeds in PMDC motor.
10. Which motor has almost replaced DC shunt motor from its applications?
a) Wound-rotor induction motor
b) Differential compound motor
c) Air motor
d) Squirrel caged induction motor
Answer: d
Explanation: Owing to the relative simplicity, cheapness and ruggedness of the
squirrel cage induction motor, the shunt motor is less preferred for constant-speed
drives except at low speeds. At high or medium speed applications we use induction
motor, mostly squirrel caged.
11. DC shunt motor is still used instead of synchronous motor in _____________

a) High speed applications
b) Low speed applications
c) Medium and high-speed applications
Prepared By
d) Everywhere
Answer: b
Explanation: At low speeds, DC shunt motors are comparable with synchronous
motors. The outstanding feature of a DC shunt motor however is its superb wide
range flexible speed control above and below the base speed using solid-state
controlled rectifiers.
12. Which type motors are preferred for lathes?

a) DC shunt motors
b) Squirrel Cage induction motor
d) DC Shunt Motors or Squirrel cage induction motor
Answer: d
Explanation: Lathes machines requires uniform torque which is provided with
squirrel cage induction or DC shunt motors. Hence, they are preferred for lathes.
DC shunt motor and induction motor of squirrel cage type follow same shunt
characteristics.
13. What will happen to torque if back emf and speed of the DC motor is doubled?
a) Remain unchanged
b) Reduce to one-fourth value
c) Increase four folds
d) Be doubled
Answer: a
Explanation: Torque depends on armature current, so as long as armature current
remains constant torque will not change. Speed depends directly with back emf
thus, it will definitely become double when back emf is doubled.
14. Maximum torque in a DC machine is limited by ______________

a) Commutation
b) Heating
c) Losses other than heating
d) Stability
Prepared By
Answer: a
Explanation: While for all other motors maximum torque is restricted to certain
value as various losses in other motors lead to heating of the core materials. In DC
machines for maximum torque commutation time will obviously decrease and
beyond some point commutation process can’t be fastened.
15. Voltage equation of a dc motor is-----
a)V = Eb + IaRa
b)Eb = V + IaRa
c) V = Eb /IaRa
d)V = Eb + Ia2Ra
Answer: A
16. Which of the following motor has the constant speed?
a)Series motor
b)Shunt motor
c)Cumulatively compound motor
d)All of the above
Answer:B
17. The function of commutator in a d. c machine is------
a)to change direction of rotation
b)to change alternating voltage to direct voltage
c)to provide easy control of voltage
d)to protect the machine from overcurrents
Answer:B
18. In Fleming's right-hand rule, the thumb point towards________

Prepared By
a)direction of flux
b)direction of induced e.m.f.
c)direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
d) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger point in the direction of

generated e.m.f.
Answer:C
19. Brushes of D.C. machines are usually made of__________.
a)hard copper
b)soft copper
c)carbon
d)all of above
Answer:C
20. In D.C. machines lap winding is used for___________
a)low voltage, low current
b)low voltage, high current
c)high voltage, low current
d)high voltage, high current
Answer:B
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
UNIT V: AC Motors (Single phase & Three phase)
MCQ’S
1. A three-phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with
the stator winding short-circuited. The frequency of the current flowing
in the short-circuited stator is ____________
a) Slip frequency
b) Supply frequency
c) The frequency corresponding to rotor speed
d) Zero
Answer: a
Explanation: The relative speed between rotor magnetic field and stator
conductors is sip speed and hence the frequency of induced e.m.f is equal
to slip frequency.
2. The frame of an induction motor is made of _________

a) Aluminum
b) Silicon steel
c) Cast iron
d) Stainless steel
Prepared By
Answer: c
Explanation: The frame of an induction motor is made of cast iron. The

power factor of an induction motor depends upon the air gap between
stator and rotor.
3. An 8-pole, 3-phase, 50 Hz induction motor is operating at a speed of

720 rpm. The frequency of the rotor current of the motor in Hz is
__________
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
Answer: a
Explanation: Given a number of poles = 8. Supply frequency is 50 Hz.

Rotor speed is 720 rpm. Ns = 120×f÷P=120×50÷8 = 750 rpm. S=Ns-
Nr÷Ns = 750 – 720÷750 = .04. F2=sf=.04×50=2 Hz.
4. The rotor of a three phase induction motor can never attain

synchronous speed.
Prepared By
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Because then there will be no torque developed and flux

cutting.
5. The direction of rmf when a single phase supply is given to stator of

three phase induction motor is?
a) Zero
b) Ns
c) 2Ns
d) -Ns
Answer: a
Explanation: There will be no rmf generated as a single phase is only fed

to the three phase of induction motor.
6. The synchronous speed of rotating magnetic field is given by

120𝑥𝑓
A𝑁𝑠 = .
𝑃
120𝑥𝑃
B.𝑁𝑠 =
𝑓
Prepared By
𝑃𝑥𝑓
C.𝑁𝑠 =
120
D.none of the above

Ans:A
7. The stator of I.M produces ---- magnetic field.

A. steady
B. rotating
C. alternating
D. pulsating
Ans:B
8. An I.M. moror is preferred to a D.C. motor because of its-----

A.high starting torque
B.fine speed control
C.simple and rugged construction
D.none
Ans:C
9. Q-(1M):Stator part of I.M. has slots to hold ------- .

A.rotor winding
B.stator winding
C.shaft
D.brush
Prepared By
Ans:B
10. Stator windings are insulated from core with the help of
A.slot insulator
B.Epoxy coating
C.1or 2
D.none
Ans:B
11. 3 phase I.M. are classified as --- and---- based on rotor construction.
A.slip ring & squirrel cage
B.split phase &squirrel cage
C.capacitor start motor& slip ring
D.shaded pole& capacitor start
Ans:A
12. The effect of increasing the length of the air gap in an induction
motor will increase
A.power factor
B.speed
Prepared By
C.magnetizing current
D.air-gap flux
Ans:C
13. frequency( fr) of induced emf in rotor of I.M. is given by --

A.s2.f
B.f2.s
C.s/f
D.s.f
Ans:D
14. An induction motor employs a starting device to restrict………….. at

start
A.line voltage
B.line current
C.torque
D.power
Ans:B
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
UNIT VI: Special Purpose Motors
MCQ’S
1. In BLDC motor field winding is kept on _______________
a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Can be placed anywhere
d) Absent
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike conventional DC motor, BLDC motor has its field
winding rotating. Unlike PMDC motor field winding is present. Thus, it
is placed on rotor. In BLDC motor we have fixed commutators, with
brush gear rotating with speed of rotor field.
2. Which of the following is not an advantage of BLDC motor over
conventional DC motor.
a) Less maintenance
b) Long life
c) No risk of explosion or possibility of RF radiation
Prepared By
d) Low cost
Answer: d
Explanation: The brushless DC motor being more expensive compare to
DC motor of same kW ratings, serves many other advantages like long
life, less maintenance, rapid response, linear characteristic, no sparking
and many more.
3. In medical fields which DC motor is widely used?
a) PMDC
b) BLDC
c) Brushed DC motor
Answer: b
Explanation: BLDC motors are widely used in various applications of
Prepared By
medical industry. Sensor less BLDC motor and with sensor BLDC
motors are used because of easy operation and high reliability compare to
conventional motors.
4. Typical brushless motor doesn’t have ______________
a) Commutator
b) Permanent magnet
c) Electronic controller
d) Fixed armature
Answer: a
Explanation: A typical brushless motor has permanent magnets which
rotate around a fixed armature. An electronic controller replaces the
brush-commutator assembly of the brushed conventional DC motor,
which continually switches the phase to the windings to keep the motor
turning.
Prepared By
5. The Hall effect sensor is used as the rotor position sensor for the
BLDC motor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Hall effect sensor is used as the rotor position sensor
for the BLDC motor. It is used to measure the strength of the magnetic
field.
6. A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ______________
material with salient poles.
a) Paramagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) Non-magnetic
Answer: b
Prepared By
Explanation: A variable reluctance stepper motor is the motor that has
motion in steps with respect to increase in time and constructed of
ferromagnetic material with salient poles.
7. A stepping motor is a ____________ device.
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Analogue
d) Incremental
Answer: d
Explanation: A stepping motor is a motor in which the motion in the form
of steps and is a incremental device i which as the time increases the
steps are increased.
8. Electric Vehicles are generally powered by __________
a) Aluminum batteries
b) Lead-acid batteries
Prepared By
c) Sodium batteries
d) Magnesium batteries
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric vehicles are generally powered by Lead-acid
batteries. They consist of lead electrodes with H2SO4 as an electrolyte.
9. Combination of cells is known as the battery.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A battery is a combination of cells connected in parallel and
series. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
10. which of the following is NOT the type of Hybrid Vehicle?
a.Plug-in Hybrid
b.Parallel Hybrid
c. Natural Gas For Vehicles

Prepared By
d. Series Hybrid
Answer: c
Prepared By
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
 Tr
aini
ng
NetworkTheor
yQuest
ionsandAnswer
s–Super
mesh
Analy
sis
«
Prev
Next
»
ThissetofNet
workTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“Super
meshAnaly
sis”
.
1.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
1
(A)
.
a)1
b)1.33
c)1.66
d)2
ViewAnswer
2.Considert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
2
(A)
.
a)1.
33
b)2.
33
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
c)3.33
d)4.33
ViewAnswer
Answer :c
Explanation:
Applyi
ngSupermeshanal
ysi
s,theequati
onswi
l
lbeI
2-
I1=2
-10+2I +I
1 2+4=0.Onsol
vi
ngtheaboveequat
ions,
I2=3.
33A.
3.
Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
1
(A)
.
a)- 1
b)- 2
c)- 3
d)- 4
ViewAnswer
Answer :
c
Explanat
ion:Apply
ingSupermeshanal
ysi
s,t
heequat
ionswi
l
lbeI
1+I
1+10+I
2+I
2=0.I
1+I
2=-
5.I
2-
I1=1.Onsolv
ing,I
1=-
3A.
4.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
2
(A)
.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
a)- 2
b)- 1
c)2
d)1
ViewAnswer
Answer :
a
Explanat
ion:Apply
ingSupermeshanal
ysi
s,t
heequat
ionswi
l
lbeI
1+I
1+10+I
2+I
2=0.I
1+I
2=-
5.I
2-
I1=1.Onsolv
ing,I
2=-
2A.
5.Fi
ndt
hepower(
W)suppl
i
edbyt
hev
olt
agesour
cei
nthef
oll
owi
ngf
igur
e.
a)0
b)1
c)2
d)3
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:
I3-
I2=2.AsI
2=-
2A,
I3=0A.Tht
erm poweri
sthepr
oductofv
olt
ageandcur
rent
.So,
powersuppl
i
edbysour ce=10×0=0W.
adv
ert
isement
Dai
nsl
eifquest
ionsandanswer
sinGenshi
nImpact
6.Fi
ndt
hecur
renti
1
i
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)8
b)9
c)10
d)11
ViewAnswer
Answer:
c
Expl
anat
ion:
Thecur
renti
nthef
ir
stl
oopi
sequal
to10A.Sot
hecur
renti
1
int
heci
rcui
tisi
1
=
10A.
7.Fi
ndt
hecur
renti
2
i
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)6.
27
b)7.
27
c)8.
27
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
d)9.27
ViewAnswer
Answer :
b
Explanat
ion:
For2ndloop,10+2(i
2-
i3)+3(
i2-
i1)=0.For3r
dloop,
i3
+2(
i3-
i2)
=10.Asi
1=10A,
On
solv
ingaboveequat
ions,wegeti
2=7.27A.
8.Fi
ndt
hecur
renti
3
i
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)8.18
b)9.18
c)10.18
d)8.8
ViewAnswer
Answer :
a
Explanat
ion:
For2ndloop,10+2(i
2-
i3)+3(
i2-
i1)=0.For3r
dloop,
i3
+2(
i3-
i2)
=10.Asi
1=10A,
On
solv
ingaboveequat
ions,wegeti
3=8.18A.
9.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
1
int
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)8
b)-
8
c)9
d)-
9
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanati
on:
Applyi
ngSuperMeshanaly
sis,
(10+5)
I1
–10(
I2)–5(
I3)=50.2(
I2)+I
3
+5(
I3-
I1)+
10(I
2-I
1)=0.I
2
–I3
=2.Onsolv
ingaboveequati
ons,
wegetI1=-
8A.
10.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
2
int
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)5.3
b)-5.3
c)7.3
d)-7.3
ViewAnswer
Answer :d
Explanation:Appl
yi
ngSuperMeshanaly
sis,(
10+5)
I1-
10(I2)
-5(
I3)=50.2(
I2)+I
3
+5(
I3-
I1)+10(
I2-
I1)=0.I2
–I 3
=2.Onsol
vi
ngaboveequati
ons,wegetI2=-
7.3A.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
DCRESPONSEOFRLCCI
RCUI
T
Networ
kTheoryQuest
ionsandAnswer
s–DCResponse
ofanR-L-
CCir
cuit
Thi
ssetofNetwor
kTheoryMult
ipl
eChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson“
DC
ResponseofanR-
L-CCi
rcui
t”
.
1.ForanR- L-Cci
rcui
t,weget[D–(K1
+K2)][
D–( K1
–K2)]i
=0.IfK2 i
sposi
ti
ve,t
hent
he
curvewi l
lbe?
a)damped
b)ov erdamped
c)underdamped
d)critical
lydamped
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanat i
on:ForanR-L-Ccir
cui
t,weget[D–( K1
+K2)]
[D–(K1
–K2)]i=0.I
fK2
i
sposi
ti
ve,
thent hecur v
ewillbeoverdampedresponse.
2.Iftherootsofanequat i
onarerealandunequal,t
hentheresponsewil
lbe?
a)criti
cal
lydamped
b)underdamped
c)ov erdamped
d)damped
ViewAnswer
Answer :c
Explanati
on: I
ftherootsofanequati
onarerealandunequal,t
hentheresponsewil
lbeover
dampedr esponse.Overdampedresponseofasy stem i
sdefi
nedasthesy st
em r
etur
ns
(exponential
lydecays)toequi
l
ibr
ium wit
houtoscil
lati
ng.
3.Ift
herootsofanequat
ionar
ecompl
exconj
ugat
e,t
hent
her
esponsewi
l
lbe?
a)overdamped
b)cri
ti
cal
lydamped
c)damped
d)underdamped
ViewAnswer
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
DCRESPONSEOFRLCCI
RCUI
T
Answer:d
Expl
anati
on:I
ftherootsofanequati
onarecompl exconj
ugate,thent
her
esponsewill
be
underdampedresponse.Dampingisaninfl
uencewithi
noruponanoscil
lat
orysyst
em that
hastheeff
ectofreduci
ng,r
estr
ict
ingorprevent
ingit
soscil
l
ations.
4.Iftherootsofanequat i
onarerealandequal
,thent
her esponsewill
be?
a)ov erdamped
b)damped
c)cr i
ti
cal
lydamped
d)underdamped
ViewAnswer
Answer :c
Explanati
on:Ift
her oot
sofanequat i
onarerealandequal,t
hentheresponsewil
lbe
cri
tical
lydampedr esponse.Foracri
ti
call
ydampedsy st
em, thesyst
em ret
urnst
o
equili
bri
um asquicklyaspossibl
ewithoutosci
l
lati
ng.
5.Thecir
cuitshowni
nthefi
gureconsi
stsofr
esistance,
capaci
tanceandinduct
ancein
seri
eswit
ha100Vsour cewhentheswit
chisclosedatt=0.Findtheequati
onobtai
ned
fr
om thecir
cuiti
nter
msofcurr
ent.
a)100=20i+0.
05 di
dt+120×10−6∫
idt
b)100=20i–0.05
di
dt+120×10−6∫
idt
c)100=20i+0.
05 di
dt–120×10−6∫
idt
d)100=20i–0.05
di
dt–120×10−6∫
idt
ViewAnswer
Answer:
a
Expl
anat
ion:
Att=0,switchSi sclosedwhent
he100Vsour
cei
sappl
i
edt
otheci
rcui
tand
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
DCRESPONSEOFRLCCI
RCUI
T
r
esul
tsi
nthef
oll
owi
ngdi
ff
erent
ial
equat
ion.
100=20i
+0.
05
di
dt+120×10−6∫
idt
enedi
ned
6.Replacingthedif
ferent
iat
ionwit
hD1,D2
i
nt heequati
on100=20i+0.05
di +120×10−6∫
dt idt
.
Fi
ndt hev al
uesofD1,D2.
a)200±j979.8
b)-200±j979.8
c)100±j979.8
d)-100±j979.
8
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanati
on:Lettherootsofthechar
acter
ist
icequati
onaredenot
edbyD1,D2.Soon
di
ffer
enti
ati
ngt
heequat
ion100=20i
+0.
05
di
dt+120×10−6∫
idt
,wegetD1
=-200+j
979.
8,D2
=-
200-j
979.
8.
7.Theexpr
essi
onofcur
rentf
rom t
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)i=e-200t
[c1
cos979.
8t+c2 979.8t
]A
b)i=e200t [
c1 cos979.
8t-
c2 979.8t]
A
c)i=e-200t
[c1
cos979.
8t-c2
979.8t]
A
d)i=e
200t
[
c1 cos979.
8t+c2 979.8t
]A
ViewAnswer
Answer :a
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
DCRESPONSEOFRLCCI
RCUI
T
Expl anat i
on:Theexpressi
onofcur
rentf
rom t
heci
rcui
twi
l
lbei
=eKt[
c1cosK1t+c2si
1 nK2t
].So,
i
=e
-200t
[c1
cos979.
8t+c2
979.
8t]
A.
8.Att
imet=0,
thev
alueofcur
renti
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)0
ViewAnswer
Answer:
d
Expl
anat
ion:
Att=0t
hati
sini
ti
all
ythecur
rentf
lowi
ngt
hrought
heci
rcui
tiszer
othati
si=0.
So,i=0.
9.Thev
olt
ageacr
osst
hei
nduct
oratt=0i
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)50
b)100
c)150
d)200
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
DCRESPONSEOFRLCCI
RCUI
T
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
Expl
anat
ion:Att=0,t
hati
sini
ti
all
ythev
olt
ageacr
osst
hei
nduct
ori
s100V.=>V=100V.So
wecanwr i
teLdi
/dt=100.
10.Thecur
rentequat
ionobt
ainedf
rom t
heci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)i=e-200t
(1.04si n979. 8t
)A
b)i=e-200t
(2.04si n979. 8t
)A
c)i=e-200t
(3.04si n979. 8t
)A
d)i=e-200t
(4.04si n979. 8t
)A
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanat ion: Onsol v
ingtheval
uesofc1,
c2
areobt
ainedasc1
=0,
c2
=2.
04.So,
thecur
rent
equat ioni si=e
-
200t
(2.
04sin979.
8t)
A
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
DCRESPONSEOFRCCIRCUI
T
Networ
kTheoryQuest
ionsandAnswer
s–DCResponse
ofanR-CCi
rcui
t
«
Pr
ev
Next
»
Thi
ssetofNetwor
kTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson“
DC
ResponseofanR-
CCir
cui
t”
.
1.Thecurr
enti nt
heR-Lcircui
tatat i
met=0+ is?
a)V/R
b)R/V
c)V
d)R
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:Thecapacitorneveral
lowssuddenchangesinv
olt
age,
itwi
l
lactasashor
t
ci
rcui
tatt=0.Sot
+
hecurr
entinthecircui
tatt=0
+
i
sV/
R.
2.Theexpr essi
onofcur rentinR-Ccir
cuiti
s?
a)i=(V/R)exp ( t/
RC)
b)i=(V/R)exp ( -t
/RC)
c)i=(V/R)-exp( t/RC)
d)i=(V/R)-exp ( -
t/RC)
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanation:Thepar t
icularsoluti
onofthecur
rentequat
ioni
szer
o.Sot
heexpr
essi
onof
currentinR- Ccir
cuitisi=(V/R)exp (-
t/RC)
.
3.InanR-Ccircuit
,whentheswitchi
scl
osed,
ther
esponse_
___
___
___
__
a)donotvarywi t
ht i
me
b)decayswithtime
c)ri
seswithtime
d)fir
sti
ncreasesandt hendecr
eases
ViewAnswer
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
Answer:b
Expl
anati
on:I
naR-Cci
rcuit
,whentheswit
chi
scl
osed,
ther
esponsedecay
swi
tht
imet
hat
i
stheresponseV/
Rdecreaseswit
hincr
easei
nti
me.
4.Theti
meconstantofanR-Ccircui
tis?
a)RC
b)R/C
c)R
d)C
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:Theti
meconstantofanR- Cci
rcui
tisRCandi
tisdenot
edbyτandt
hev
alueof
τindcresponseofR-
Ccircui
tisRCsec.
5.Aft
erhowmanyt imeconstant
s,thetransi
entpartr
eachesmoret
han99percentofi
ts
fi
nalval
ue?
a)2
b)3
c)4
d)5
ViewAnswer
Answer:d
Expl
anati
on:Aft
erfi
veti
meconst ants,
thetransi
entpartoft
her
esponser
eachesmorethan
99percentofi
tsfi
nalv
alue.
adv
ert
isement
Heli
copterFl
i
esi
nSkyOv
erSki
erasheCr
ashesWhi
l
ePer
for
mingTr
ickon
Snow-Ramp
6.
Aseri
esR-
Ccircui
tconsi
stsofr
esi
storof10andcapaci
torof0.
1Fasshowninthefi
gure.
Aconst
antv
olt
ageof20Visappli
edtothecir
cui
tatt=0.Whatisthecur
renti
ntheci
rcui
t
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
att=0?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
ViewAnswer
Answer :
b
Explanat
ion:Att=0,swit
chSiscl
osed.Si
ncet
hecapaci
tordoesnotal
l
owsuddenchanges
i
nv olt
age,thecur
renti
ntheci
rcui
tisi=V/R=20/
10=2A.Att=0, i=2A.
7.Theexpr
essi
onofcur
rentobt
ainedf
rom t
heci
rcui
tint
ermsofdi
ff
erent
iat
ionf
rom t
he
ci
rcui
tshownbelow?
a)di/
dt+i
=1
b)di/
dt+i
=2
c)di/
dt+i
=3
d)di/
dt+i
=0
ViewAnswer
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
Answer:
d
Expl
anat
ion:
Byappl
yi
ngKi
rchhof
f’
slaw,
weget
Di
ff
erent
iat
ingwi
thr
espectt
ot,
weget10di
/dt
+i/
0.1=0=>di
/dt
+i=0.
8.Thecur
rentequat
ioni
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)i=2(e-2t)A
b)i=2(e)2t
A
c)i=2(-e-2t)
A
d)i=2(-e2t)A
ViewAnswer
Answer : a
Explanat ion: Att=0, swit
chSiscl
osed.Si
ncet
hecapaci
tordoesnotal
l
owsuddenchanges
i
nv olt
age, t
hecur rentint
heci
rcui
tisi=V/R=20/
10=2A.Att=0, i=2A.Thecur
rent
equationi si=2(e)
-
2t
A.
9.Theexpr
essi
onofv
olt
ageacr
ossr
esi
stori
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
a)VR =20(et)V
b)VR =20(-e)-
t
V
c)VR =20(-
et) V
d)VR =20(e-t)V
ViewAnswer
Answer :
d
Explanat
ion: Theexpr
essi
onofv
olt
ageacr
ossr
esi
stori
ntheci
rcui
tisVR
=iR=(
2(e-
)
t
)
×10=20(e)
-
t
V.
10.Det
ermi
net
hev
olt
ageacr
osst
hecapaci
tori
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)VC =60(1-
e-t)V
b)VC =60(1+et)V
c)VC =60(1-
et)V
d)VC =60(1+e-t)
V
Vi ewAnswer
Answer :
a
Explanat
ion:Theexpr
essi
onofv
olt
ageacr
osscapaci
tori
ntheci
rcui
tVC
=V(
1-e-t/RC)=20(
1-e-
)
t
V.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
DCRESPONSEOFRLCIRCUI
T
Networ
kTheoryQuest
ionsandAnswer
s–DCResponse
ofanR-LCi
rcui
t
«
Pr
ev
Next
»
Thi
ssetofNetwor
kTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson“
DC
ResponseofanR-
LCi
rcui
t”
.
1.Theexpr essionofcurrentinR-
Lcircui
tis?
a)i=(V/R)
(1+exp ( (R/L)t
))
b)i=-(
V/R)(1-exp ((R/L)t
))
c)i=-(
V/R)(1+exp ( (
R/L)t))
d)i=(V/R)
(1-exp ( (
R/L)t))
ViewAnswer
Answer :d
Explanati
on:Theexpr essionofcurr
entinR-Lci
rcui
tisi
=(V/
R)-
(V/
R)exp (
(R/
L)t
).On
solvi
ngwegeti =(
V/R)(1-exp ((R/
L)t)
).
2.Thest eadystatepar tintheexpressionofcurrentintheR-Lcircui

tis?
a)( V/R)(exp ( (
R/ L)t)
)
b)( V/R)(-exp ((R/ L)t
))
c)V/ R
d)R/ V
ViewAnswer
Answer :
c
Expl anat
ion: Thest eadystateparti
nt heexpressionofcurrenti
nt heR-Lcircui
tisst
eady
statepar t=V/ R.Whent heswitchSi sclosed,t
her esponsereachesast eadystatev
alue
afterat i
mei nterval.
3.I
ntheexpressionofcurr
enti
ntheR-
Lci
rcui
tthet
ransi
entpar
tis?
a)R/V
b)(V/
R)(
-exp ( (R/L)
t))
c)(V/
R)(
exp ( (R/L)t
))
d)V/R
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanati
on:Theexpressi
onofcurrenti
ntheR-Lcircui
thast
het
ransientpartas
(V/R)(-
exp ((R/L)
t))
.Thetransi
ti
onperi
odi sdefi
nedasthet
imetakenforthecurr
entt
o
reachitsfi
nalorst
eadystateval
uef r
om it
sinit
ial
value.
4.Thevalueoft
hetimeconstanti
ntheR-Lci
rcuitis?
a)L/R
b)R/L
c)R
d)L
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:Theti
meconstantofafunct
ion(V/R)e-(R/L)t
i
stheti
meatwhichtheexponentof
eisunit
ywhereeisthebaseofthenatur
all
ogarithms.Thet er
m L/
Riscal
ledtheti
me
const
antandisdenotedby‘
τ’.
5.Aft
s,thetransi
entpartr
eachesmoret
han99percentofi
ts
fi
nalval
ue?
a)2
b)3
c)4
d)5
ViewAnswer
Answer:d
Expl
anati
on:Aft
erfi
veti
meconst ants,
thetransi
entpartoft
her
esponser
eachesmorethan
99percentofi
tsfi
nalv
alue.
adv
ert
isement
Dai
nsl
eifquest
ionsandanswer
sinGenshi
nImpact
6.Aser
iesR-
Lci
rcui
twit
hR=30ΩandL=15Hhasaconstantvol
tageV=60Vappl
i
edatt
=0asshownint
hefigur
e.Det
ermi
net
hecur
rent(
A)i
ntheci
rcui
tatt=0+.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)0
ViewAnswer
Answer :
d
Explanat
ion:Si
ncethei
nductornev
erall
owssuddenchangesi
ncur
rent
s.Att=0+
thatj
ust
aftert
heinit
ial
stat
ethecurr
entintheci
rcui
tiszer
o.
7.Theexpr
essi
onofcur
rentobt
ainedf
rom t
heci
rcui
tint
ermsofdi
ff
erent
iat
ionf
rom t
he
ci
rcui
tshownbelow?
a)di/dt+i=4
b)di/dt+2i =0
c)di/dt
+2i =4
d)di/dt-2i=4
ViewAnswer
Answer : c
Explanat i
on: Lett
hei
bethecurr
entf
lowi
ngthr
oughtheci
rcui
t.Byappl
yi
ngKi
rchhof
f’
s
volt
agel aw, weget15di
/dt+30i
=60=>di
/dt
+2i=4.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
8.Theexpr
essi
onofcur
rentf
rom t
heci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)i=2(1-e-2t)
A
b)i=2(1+e-2t)A
c)i=2(1+e2t)A
d)i=2(1+e2t) A
ViewAnswer
Answer :a
Explanation: Att=0+ t
hecurr
enti
nthecir
cui
tiszer
o.Theref
oreatt=0+,
i=0=>0=c+2
=>c=- 2.Subst i
tut
ingthev
alueof‘
c’i
nthecur
rentequat
ion,
wehav ei=2(1-
e-2t)
A.
9.Theexpr
essi
onofv
olt
ageacr
ossr
esi
stori
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)VR
=60(1+e2t)V
b)VR
=60(1-e)
-2t
V
c)VR
=60(1-
e2t)V
d)VR
=60(1+e-2t)
V
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
Expl
anat
ion:Vol tageacrossther
esi
storVR =i
R.Onsubst i
tut
ingt
heexpr
essi
onofcur
rent
wegetvolt
ageacr ossresist
or=(
2(1-
e-2t)
)×30=60(
1-e-2t)
V.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
10.Det
ermi
net
hev
olt
ageacr
osst
hei
nduct
ori
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)VL
=60(-e-2t)V
b)VL
=60(e2t) V
c)VL
=60(e-2t)V
d)VL
=60(-e)2t
V
ViewAnswer
Answer:c
Expl
anati
on: Voltageacr
osstheinduct
orVL
=Ldi/
dt.Onsubst it
uti
ngtheexpr essi
onof
curr
entwegetv olt
ageacrosst
heinductor=15×(
d/dt
)(2(
1-e)
-2t
)
)=60(
e)
-2t
V.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Thev
ini
n’sTheor
em
ThissetofNetworkTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions& Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“Thev
eni
n’sTheor
em”.
1.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
heequi
val
entThev
eni
n’
svol
tagebet
weennodes
AandB.
a)8
b)8.5
c)9
d)9.5
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
Expl
anat
ion:Thet
heveni
n’
sv olt
agei sequaltot
heopenci
rcui
tvol
tageacr
osst
het
ermi
nal
s
ABthati
sacross12Ωresi
stor.Vth
=10×12/14=8.57V.
2.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
het
hev
eni
n’
sresi
stancebet
weent
ermi
nal
sA
andB.
a)1
b)2
c)1.7
d)2.7
ViewAnswer
Answer :c
Expl
anat i
on:Ther esi
stanceint
otheopen ci
rcui
tter
minal
sisequalt
othet
hev
eni
n’
s
resi
stance=>Rth
=(12×2)/14=1.
71Ω.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Thev
ini
n’sTheor
em
3.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentf
lowi
ngt
hrough24Ωr
esi
stor
.
a)0.33
b)0.66
c)0
d)0.99
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:
Theequi
val
entt
hev
eni
n’
smodel
oft
heci
rcui
tshowni
s
I
=8.
57/
(2.
4+1.
71)
=0.
33A.
4.Det
ermi
netheequi
val
entt
hev
eni
n’
svol
tagebet
weent
ermi
nal
sAandBi
ntheci
rcui
t
shownbel
ow.
a)0.333
b)3.33
c)33.3
d)333
ViewAnswer
Answer:c
Expl
anati
on:
Letusf
indt
hev
olt
agedr
opacr
osst
ermi
nal
sAandB.50-
25=10I
+5I=>I
=1.
67A.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Thev
ini
n’sTheor
em
Vol
tagedr
opacr
oss10Ωr
esi
stor=10×1.
67=16.
7V.So,
Vth=VAB=50-
V=50-
16.
7=33.
3V.
5.Fi
ndt
heequi
val
entt
hev
eni
n’
sresi
stancebet
weent
ermi
nal
sAandBi
ntheci
rcui
tshown
bel
ow.
a)333
b)33.3
c)3.33
d)0.333
ViewAnswer
Answer :
c
Expl
anation:Tof i
ndRth,twov ol
tagesour
cesareremovedandrepl
acedwi
thshortcir
cui
t.
Ther esi
stanceatter
mi nalsABthenisthepar
all
elcombinat
ionoft
he10Ωresi
storand5Ω
resi
stor=>Rth=(
10×5)
/15=3. 33Ω.
6.Det
ermi
netheequi
val
entt
hev
eni
n’
svol
tagebet
weent
ermi
nal
sAandBi
ntheci
rcui
t
shownbel
ow.
a)5
b)15
c)25
d)35
ViewAnswer
Answer:
c
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Thev
ini
n’sTheor
em
Explanation:Cur
rentt
hrough3Ω r
esi
stori
s0A.Thecurr
entthrough6Ω r
esist
or=( 50-
10)/(10+6)=2.
5A.Thevolt
agedr
opacross6Ωr
esi
stor=25×6=15V.Sothevol
tageacr
oss
ter
mi nalsAandB=0+15+10=25V.
7.Findtheequi
val
entt
hev
eni
n’
sresi
stancebet
weent
ermi
nal
sAandBi
nthef
oll
owi
ng
ci
rcuit
.
a)6
b)6.25
c)6.5
d)6.75
ViewAnswer
Answer :
d
Explanat
ion:Tofi
ndRth,t
wovol
tagesour
cesar
eremov
edandr
epl
acedwi
thshor
tci
rcui
t=>
Rth=(
10×6)/
(10+6)
+3=6.75Ω.
8.Det
ermi
netheequi
val
entt
hev
eni
n’
svol
tagebet
weent
ermi
nal
s‘a’and‘
b’i
ntheci
rcui
t
shownbel
ow.
a)0.
7
b)1.
7
c)2.
7
d)3.
7
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Thev
ini
n’sTheor
em
ViewAnswer
Answer:c
Expl
anati
on:Thevol
tageatter
minalaisVa=(
100×6)/
16=37.
5V,Thev oltageatter
minalbis
Vb=(
100×8)/
23=34.
7V.Sothevolt
ageacrosst
heterminal
sabisVab=Va-
Vb=37.
5-34.
7=2.7V.
9.Fi
ndt
heequi
val
entt
hev
eni
n’
sresi
stancebet
weent
ermi
nal
sAandBi
ntheci
rcui
tshown
bel
ow.
a)6
b)7
c)8
d)9
ViewAnswer
Answer :
d
Explanat
ion:Tofi
ndRth,
twov ol
tagesourcesar
eremov
edandr
epl
acedwi
thshor
tci
rcui
t=>
Rab=(
6×10)/(
6+10)
+(8×15)/
(8+15)=8.
96≅9V.
10.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentt
hrough5Ωr
esi
stori
nthef
oll
owi
ngci
rcui
t.
a)0.
1
b)0.
2
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Thev
ini
n’sTheor
em
c)0.3
d)0.4
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
Expl
anat
ion:
TheEqui
val
entThev
eni
n’
sci
rcui
tfort
heci
rcui
tshownabov
eis
I
=2.
7/(
8.96+5)
=0.
193A≅0.
2A.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Maxi
mum PowerTr
ansf
erTheor
em
Networ
kTheoryQuesti
onsandAnswer
s–Maxi
mum
PowerTransf
erTheor
em
«
Prev
Next
»
Thi
ssetofNet
workTheoryMulti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“Maxi
mum PowerTr
ansferTheor
em” .
1.Themaxi mum powerisdeli

v eredfrom asourcet
oitsloadwhentheloadresi
stanceis
______thesour cer
esi
stance.
a)great erthan
b)lesst han
c)equal t
o
d)lesst hanorequalto
ViewAnswer
Answer :c
Explanat i
on:Themaximum poweri sdeli
veredfr
om asourcet
oitsl
oadwhent heload
resi
st anceisequalt
othesour cer esi
stance.Themaxi
mum powertransfert
heorem canbe
appliedt obothdcandaccircuits.
2.Ifsourceimpedanceiscompl ex,t
henmaxi mum powertransf
eroccurswhentheload
i
mpedancei s_____
__thesourceimpedance.
a)equal to
b)negat i
veof
c)compl exconjugateof
d)negat i
veofcompl exconj
ugateof
ViewAnswer
Answer :c
Explanati
on:Themaxi mum powert r
ansfertheor
em canbeappliedtocompleximpedance
ci
rcuits.I
fsourceimpedanceiscompl ex,t
hemaxi mum powertransf
eroccurswhenthe
l
oadi mpedancei scomplexconjugateofthesourceimpedance.
3.Ift
hesourcei
mpedancei
scompl
ex,
thent
hecondi
ti
onf
ormaxi
mum powert
ransf
eri
s?
a)ZL
=ZS
b)ZL
=ZS*
c)ZL
=-ZS
d)ZL
=-ZS*
ViewAnswer
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Maxi
mum PowerTr
ansf
erTheor
em
Answer:
b
Expl
anat
ion:Themaximum poweristr
ansfer
redwhentheloadresi
stanceisequal
tot
he
sour
ceresi
stance.Thecondi
ti
onformaximum powert
ransferi
sZL
=ZS* .
4.IfZL
=ZS* ,t
hen?
a)RL =1
b)RL =0
c)RL =-RS
d)RL =RS
ViewAnswer
Answer :d
Explanati
on: I
fZL
=ZS*,t
henRL
=RS.Thismeansthatthemaximum powert
ransf
eroccur
s
whent hel oadimpedancei
sequaltothecomplexconjugat
eofsourcei
mpedanceZS.
5.ForZL
=ZS*,
therelati
onbetweenXL andXS i
s?
a)XL
=XS
b)XL
=0
c)XL
=1
d)XL
=-XS
ViewAnswer
Answer:d
Expl
anati
on:ForZL =ZS*,
t her
elat
ionbet weenXL
andXS
i
sXL =-XS.Maximum powert
ransf
er
i
snotalwaysdesirablesincethetransferoccur
sata50percenteffi
ciency
.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
 Tr
aini
ng
NetworkTheor
yQuest
ionsandAnswer
s–Super
mesh
Analy
sis
«
Prev
Next
»
ThissetofNet
workTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“Super
meshAnaly
sis”
.
1.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
1
(A)
.
a)1
b)1.33
c)1.66
d)2
ViewAnswer
2.Considert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
2
(A)
.
a)1.
33
b)2.
33
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
c)3.33
d)4.33
ViewAnswer
Answer :c
Explanation:
Applyi
ngSupermeshanal
ysi
s,theequati
onswi
l
lbeI
2-
I1=2
-10+2I +I
1 2+4=0.Onsol
vi
ngtheaboveequat
ions,
I2=3.
33A.
3.
Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
1
(A)
.
a)- 1
b)- 2
c)- 3
d)- 4
ViewAnswer
Answer :
c
Explanat
ion:Apply
ingSupermeshanal
ysi
s,t
heequat
ionswi
l
lbeI
1+I
1+10+I
2+I
2=0.I
1+I
2=-
5.I
2-
I1=1.Onsolv
ing,I
1=-
3A.
4.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
2
(A)
.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
a)- 2
b)- 1
c)2
d)1
ViewAnswer
Answer :
a
Explanat
ion:Apply
ingSupermeshanal
ysi
s,t
heequat
ionswi
l
lbeI
1+I
1+10+I
2+I
2=0.I
1+I
2=-
5.I
2-
I1=1.Onsolv
ing,I
2=-
2A.
5.Fi
ndt
hepower(
W)suppl
i
edbyt
hev
olt
agesour
cei
nthef
oll
owi
ngf
igur
e.
a)0
b)1
c)2
d)3
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:
I3-
I2=2.AsI
2=-
2A,
I3=0A.Tht
erm poweri
sthepr
oductofv
olt
ageandcur
rent
.So,
powersuppl
i
edbysour ce=10×0=0W.
adv
ert
isement
Dai
nsl
eifquest
ionsandanswer
sinGenshi
nImpact
6.Fi
ndt
hecur
renti
1
i
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)8
b)9
c)10
d)11
ViewAnswer
Answer:
c
Expl
anat
ion:
Thecur
renti
nthef
ir
stl
oopi
sequal
to10A.Sot
hecur
renti
1
int
heci
rcui
tisi
1
=
10A.
7.Fi
ndt
hecur
renti
2
i
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)6.
27
b)7.
27
c)8.
27
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
d)9.27
ViewAnswer
Answer :
b
Explanat
ion:
For2ndloop,10+2(i
2-
i3)+3(
i2-
i1)=0.For3r
dloop,
i3
+2(
i3-
i2)
=10.Asi
1=10A,
On
solv
ingaboveequat
ions,wegeti
2=7.27A.
8.Fi
ndt
hecur
renti
3
i
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)8.18
b)9.18
c)10.18
d)8.8
ViewAnswer
Answer :
a
Explanat
ion:
For2ndloop,10+2(i
2-
i3)+3(
i2-
i1)=0.For3r
dloop,
i3
+2(
i3-
i2)
=10.Asi
1=10A,
On
solv
ingaboveequat
ions,wegeti
3=8.18A.
9.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
1
int
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)8
b)-
8
c)9
d)-
9
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
SUPERMESHANALYSI
S
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanati
on:
Applyi
ngSuperMeshanaly
sis,
(10+5)
I1
–10(
I2)–5(
I3)=50.2(
I2)+I
3
+5(
I3-
I1)+
10(I
2-I
1)=0.I
2
–I3
=2.Onsolv
ingaboveequati
ons,
wegetI1=-
8A.
10.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
2
int
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
a)5.3
b)-5.3
c)7.3
d)-7.3
ViewAnswer
Answer :d
Explanation:Appl
yi
ngSuperMeshanaly
sis,(
10+5)
I1-
10(I2)
-5(
I3)=50.2(
I2)+I
3
+5(
I3-
I1)+10(
I2-
I1)=0.I2
–I 3
=2.Onsol
vi
ngaboveequati
ons,wegetI2=-
7.3A.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Super
posi
ti
onTheor
em
NetworkTheor
yQuest
ionsandAnswer
s–Super
posi
ti
on
Theor
em
ThissetofNetworkTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“Super
posit
ionTheorem”.
1.InSuperpositiontheorem,whileconsider
ingasour ce,al
lot
hervolt
agesourcesar
e?
a)openci r
cuited
b)shortcir
cuited
c)changei t
sposi ti
on
d)remov edfrom thecircuit
ViewAnswer
Answer :
b
Explanat
ion:InSuper posit
iontheorem,whil
econsideringasource,al
lot
hervolt
agesour
ces
areshortcir
cui t
ed.Thistheorem isval
idforli
nearsystems.
2.InSuperposi t
iontheorem,whileconsi deri
ngasour ce,al
lot
hercurr
entsour cesare?
a)shortcir
cuited
b)changei t
sposi ti
on
c)openci r
cuited
d)remov edfrom thecircuit
ViewAnswer
Answer :
c
Explanat
ion:InSuper posit
iontheorem, whileconsi
deringasource,al
lothercurrentsour
ces
areopenci r
cuited.Superposit
iontheor em i
snotv al
idforpowerresponses.Itisappli
cabl
e
onlyforcomput ingvoltageandcurr entresponses.
3.I
ntheci
rcui
tshown,
findt
hecur
rentt
hrough4Ωr
esi
storusi
ngSuper
posi
ti
ont
heor
em.
a)4
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Super
posi
ti
onTheor
em
b)5
c)6
d)7
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
Expl
anat
ion:
Consi
der
ingt
hev
olt
agesour
ce20V,
5Acur
rentsour
cei
sopenci
rcui
ted.
Nowcurr
entt
hrough3Ωresist
ori
s20/(
5+4)=2.
22A.
Nowconsi
der
ingthecur
rentsour
ce5A,20Vvol
tagesour
cei
sshor
tci
rcui
ted.
Nocurr
entt
hrough3Ωresi
stori
s5×5/
(4+5)
=2.
78A.Nowf
inal
l
ythecur
rentt
hrough3Ω
r
esi
stori
s2.22+2.78=5A.
4.Consi
dert
hecir
cui
tshownbelow.Findthev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
storduet
othe10V
vol
tagesour
ceusi
ngSuperposi
ti
ontheorem.
a)0
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Super
posi
ti
onTheor
em
b)1
c)2
d)3
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
Expl
anat
ion:
Shor
tci
rcui
ti
ng20Vsour
ce,
openci
rcui
ti
ng2Asour
ce,
Vol
tageatnodeAi s(
V-10)
/10+V/
20+V/
7=0=>V=3.
41V.=>Thev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
stor
i
sV/ (
7)×2=0.
97V≅1V.
5.Fi
ndt
hev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
storduet
o20Vsour
cei
nthef
oll
owi
ngf
igur
e.
a)-2.92
b)2.92
c)1.92
d)-1.92
ViewAnswer
Answer :a
Explanati
on:
Shor
tci
rcui
ti
ng10Vsour
ce,
openci
rcui
ti
ng2Asour
ce,
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Super
posi
ti
onTheor
em
Thev ol
tageatnodeAis(V-20)
/7+V/
20+V/
10=0=>V=9.
76V.Nowt
hev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ω
resi
storis(
V-20)
/7×2=-
2.92V.
adv
ert
isement
Heli
copterFl
i
esi
nSkyOv
erSki
erasheCr
ashesWhi
l
ePer
for
mingTr
ickon
Snow-Ram
6.Fi
ndt
hev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
storduet
o2Asour
cei
nthef
oll
owi
ngf
igur
e.
a)-1
b)1
c)1.46
d)-1.46
ViewAnswer
Answer :d
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Super
posi
ti
onTheor
em
Expl
anat
ion:
Shor
tci
rcui
ti
ngbot
h10V,
20Vsour
ces,
Thecur
rentthr
ough2Ωr
esi
stori
s2×5/
(5+8.
67)
=0.
73A.Thev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
stori
s-
0.
73×2=-1.46V.
7.I
nthefi
gureshownbelow.Fi
ndt
hev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
storduet
oal
lsour
ceusi
ng
Super
posi
ti
ontheorem.
a)3.41
b)-3.41
c)3.14
d)-3.14
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanati
on:Thealgebr
aicsum ofall
thevol
tagesobtai
nedbyconsi
der
ingi
ndi
vi
dual
sourcesisthevol
tageacross2Ωr esi
stor
.V=0.97-
2.92-
1.46=-3.
41V.
8.Fi
ndt
hev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
storduet
o20Vsour
cei
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Super
posi
ti
onTheor
em
a)1
b)1.5
c)2
d)2.5
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
Expl
anat
ion:
Thev ol
tageatnodeAint
hef
igur
eis(
V-20)
/20+(
V-10)
/10+V/
2=0=>V=3.
07V.
Nowshortci
rcui
ti
ng10Vsour ce,
(
V-20)
/20+V/
2+V/
10=0=>V=1.
5V.
9.Fi
ndt
hev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
storduet
o20Vsour
cei
nthef
oll
owi
ngci
rcui
t.
a)0.5
b)0
c)1
d)1.5
ViewAnswer
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
Super
posi
ti
onTheor
em
Answer:d
Expl
anati
on:
Thevol
tageatnodeAi
s(V-
20)
/20+(
V-10)
/10+V/
2=0=>V=3.
07V.Nowshor
t
ci
rcui
ti
ng20Vsour
ce,
(
V-10)
/10+V/
20+V/
2=0=>V=1.
5V.
10.Fi
ndt
hev
olt
ageacr
oss2Ωr
esi
stori
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owusi
ngSuper
posi
ti
on
theor
em.
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
ViewAnswer
Answer:
c
Expl
anat
ion:Thevol
tageacr
oss2Ωresi
stori
stheal
gebr
aicsum oft
hev
olt
agesobt
ained
byconsi
deri
ngindi
vi
dualsour
ces.V=1.
5+1.5=3V.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
MESHANALYSI
S
Net
wor
kTheor
yQuest
ionsandAnswer
s–MeshAnal
ysi
s
Thi
ssetofNet
wor kTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“MeshAnal
ysi
s”.
1.Meshanal ysi
sisappl
icabl
efornonplanarnetworksalso.
a)true
b)false
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanati
on:Meshanaly
sisisappl
icabl
eonlyforplanarnetworks.Aci
rcui
tissai
dtobe
pl
anari fi
tcanbedrawnonapl anesurf
acewi t
houtcrossovers.
2.Ameshi saloopwhichcontai
ns_ _
__numberofl
oopswit
hinit
.
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)noloop
ViewAnswer
Answer:d
Expl
anati
on:Aloopisaclosedpath.Ameshisdefi
nedasaloopwhi
chdoesnotcont
ain
anyotherl
oopswithi
nit.
3.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Thenumbermeshequat
ionst
hatcanbef
ormedar
e?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
MESHANALYSI
S
Expl
anat
ion:Weknowifther
earenloopsi
ntheci
rcui
t,nmeshequat
ionscanbef
ormed.
Soasthereare2l
oopsintheci
rcui
t.So2meshequat
ionscanbefor
med.
4.Int
hefi
gureshownbel
ow, t
hecur
rentthroughloop1beI
1
andt
hrought
hel
oop2beI
2,
thent
hecurr
entfl
owingt
hrought
heresistorR2
wil
lbe?
a)I1
b)I2
c)I1-I
2
d)I1+I2
ViewAnswer
Answer :
c
Explanation:
Throught her
esi
storR2
bot
hthecur
rent
sI1,
I2
aref
lowi
ng.Sot
hecur
rent
throughR2 wil
lbeI1-
I2.
5.Ifther
eare5br anchesand4nodesingr
aph,thent
henumberofmeshequati
onst
hat
canbef ormedare?
a)2
b)4
c)6
d)8
ViewAnswer
Answer :
a
Explanat
ion:Numberofmeshequations=B-(
N-1).Gi
vennumberofbr
anches=5and
numberofnodes=4.SoNumberofmeshequat ions=5-(
4-1)=2.
adv
ert
isement
6.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshowni
nthef
igur
e.Fi
ndv
olt
ageVx.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
MESHANALYSI
S
a)1
b)1.25
c)1.5
d)1.75
ViewAnswer
Answer:b
Expl
anati
on:
ConsidercurrentI1
(CW)i
ntheloop1andI2 (
ACW)i ntheloop2.So,
the
equati
onswi
llbeVx+I
2-
I1=0.I
1=5/2=2.
5A.I
2=4Vx/
4=Vx.Vx+Vx-
2.5=0.Vx
=1.25V.
7.Consi
dert
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
1.
a)3.3
b)4.3
c)5.3
d)6.3
ViewAnswer
Answer:
b
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
MESHANALYSI
S
Explanati
on:Accordi
ngtomeshanalysi
s,(
1+3+6)
I1
–3(I
2)–6(I
3)=10
-
3(I1)+(2+5+3)I
2
=4-6(I
1)+10(
I3)=-
4+20Onsol v
ingtheabov
eequati
ons,
I1=4.
3A.
8.Consi
dert
hef
oll
owi
ngf
igur
e.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
2
(A)
.
a)1. 7
b)2. 6
c)3. 6
d)4. 6
ViewAnswer
Answer :a
Explanati
on:Accor
dingt
omeshanal
ysi
s,(
1+3+6)
I1 –3(I
2)–6(I
3)=10.-
3(I
1)+(
2+5+3)
I2
=4.-
6(I11)+10(I
3)=-
4+20Onsolvi
ngtheabov
eequations,
I2
=1.
7A.
9.Consi
dert
hef
oll
owi
ngf
igur
e.Fi
ndt
hecur
rentI
3
(A)
.
a)4
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
MESHANALYSI
S
b)4. 7
c)5
d)5. 7
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanati
on:Accor
dingt
omeshanal
ysi
s,(
1+3+6)
I1
–3(I2)–6(I
3)=10.-
3(I
1)+(
2+5+3)
I2
=4.-
6(I1)+10(
I3)=-
4+20.Onsol
vingt
heaboveequat
ions,
I3 =4.
7A.
10.Fi
ndcur
rentt
hroughR2
resi
stor
.
a)3
b)3.25
c)3.5
d)3.75
ViewAnswer
Answer :
d
Explanat
ion: Apply
ingmeshanaly
sis,5(
I1)+2(I1-
I2)=10.10(I
2)+2(
I2-
I1)+40=0.Onsol
vi
ng,
I1
=0.5A,I2
=-3.25A.Socur
rentt
hroughR2 resi
storis0.5-(
-3.
25)=3.75A.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
KVL&KCL
Thi
ssetofNetworkTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“Ki
rchhof
f’
sCurr
entLaw”.
1.Kirchhoff’
sCurrentl
awi sbasedonthelawofconser
vat
ionof_
___
_ _
___
__
a)ener gy
b)moment um
c)mass
d)char ge
ViewAnswer
Answer :d
Expl
anat ion:Ki
rchhoff
’scurr
entlawisbasedont
helawofconser
vat
ionofchar
gei
.e,
charget hatf
lowsin=char gethatfl
owsout.
2.Thecur r
entlawrepresentsamat hemat
icalst
atementoff
actthat_
____
___
___
a)vol
tagecannotaccumul ateatnode
b)chargecannotaccumul ateatnode
c)chargeatthenodei sinf
init
e
d)noneoft hement i
oned
ViewAnswer
Answer:b
Expl
anation:Chargecannotaccumul at
eatthenode,i
tcanonlyf
lowinandoutoft
henode.
3.Kirchhof
f’
scurrentlawisappl
i
edat_
___
_____
__
a)loops
b)nodes
c)bot hl
oopandnode
d)noneoft hement i
oned
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanati
on:Ki
rchhoff’
scurr
entl
awcanbeappli
cabl
etonodesonl
y.
4.Det
ermi
net
hecur
renti
nal
lresi
stor
sint
heci
rcui
tshownbel
ow.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
KVL&KCL
a)2A,4A, 11A
b)5A, 4.
8A, 9.6A
c)9.3A,20.22A, 11A
d)10.56A, 24.65A,14.
79A
ViewAnswer
Answer :
d
Expl
anation: Allt
heresi
stor
sar
einpar
all
el,
sot
hev
olt
ageacr
osseachr
esi
stori
sthesame
V.
Thi
ssetofNetworkTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“Ki
rchhof
f’
sVol
tageLaw”.
1.Kir
chhoff
’svol
tagel
awisbasedonpr
inci
pleofconser
vati
onof_
___
___
___
_
a)energy
b)moment um
c)mass
d)charge
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:KVLisbasedonthel
awofconservat
ionofener
gy.
2.I
nacircui
twi
thmorenumberofl
oops,
whi
chl
awcanbebestsui
tedf
ort
heanal
ysi
s?
a)KCL
b)Ohm’slaw
c)KVL
d)Noneofthement
ioned
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
KVL&KCL
ViewAnswer
Answer:
c
Expl
anat
ion:
KVLcanbebestsui
tedf
orci
rcui
tswi
thmor
enumberofl
oops.
3.Mathemat i
cally
,Ki
rchhof
f’
sVolt
agel
awcanbe_ ____
____
_ _
__
a)∑_(
k=0)(n
V)=0
b)V2∑_ (
k=0) n
(V)=0
c)V∑_(k=0)(n
V)=0
d)Noneoft hement i
oned
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anation: Accordi
ngtoKVL,t
hesum ofal
lvol
tagesofbranchesi
nacl
osedl
oopi
szer
o.
CI
RCUI
TELEMENTS
Thi
ssetofNetworkTheoryMulti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson
“Ci
rcui
tEl
ementsandKirchhof
f’
sLaws”.
1.Potentialdif
ferenceinelectr
icalter
minol
ogyisknownas?
a)Voltage
b)Current
c)Resistance
d)Conduct ance
ViewAnswer
Answer :a
Expl
anat i
on: Potenti
aldif
ferenceinelect
ri
calt
erminol
ogyisknownasVolt
ageandi
s
denotedei t
herbyVorv .Iti
sexpr essedi
ntermsofenergyperuni
tchar
ge.
2.Thecir
cui
tinwhichcurr
enthasacompletepathtof
lowiscall
ed____
__cir
cui
t.
a)short
b)open
c)cl
osed
d)openloop
ViewAnswer
Answer:c
Expl
anati
on:Theci
rcui
tinwhichcurr
enthasacompletepathtofl
owiscal
ledaclosed
ci
rcui
t.Whenthecurr
entpathisbr
okensothatcurr
entcannotfl
ow,t
hecir
cuiti
scall
edan
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
KVL&KCL
openci
rcui
t.
3.Ifthev oltage- cur

rentcharacter
ist
icsisastraightl
i
nethrought heori
gin,
thentheelement
i
ssai dt obe?
a)Linearel ement
b)Non- li
nearel ement
c)Uni l
ateral element
d)Bilateralelement
ViewAnswer
Answer :a
Explanation: Ifthevoltage-cur
rentcharact
eri
sticisastr
aightl
inet hr
oughtheori
gin,
thenthe
el
ementi ssai dt obeLi nearel
ement .Thedif
ferenceinpotent
ialenergyofchar
gesiscall
ed
Potentialdifference.
4.Thev
olt
ageacr
ossR1
resi
stori
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)10
b)5
c)2.5
d)1.25
ViewAnswer
Answer :
b
Explanat
ion:Accordi
ngtov olt
agediv
iderr
ule,
10vi
sdi
vi
deequal
l
yacr
ossr
esi
stor
sR1
and
R2.Sothev ol
tageacrossR1 wi
llbe5v.
5.Theener
gyst
oredi
nthei
nduct
ori
s?
a)Li
²/4
b)Li
²/2
c)Li
²
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
KVL&KCL
d)Li²
/8
ViewAnswer
Answer:b
Expl
anati
on:
Theenergyst
oredint
hei
nduct
ort
hear
eaundert
hepoweroft
hei
nduct
orand
i
sgivenbyW =ʃpdt=ʃLi
di=Li²
/2.
6.Howmanyt ypesofdependentorcontrol
l
edsour cesaret her
e?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
ViewAnswer
Answer:d
Expl
anati
on:
Ther ear
e4dependentorcont rol
l
edsour ces.TheyareVCVS( Volt
age
Contr
oll
edVolt
ageSource),VCCS(Vol
tageCont r
oll
edCur rentSource,CCVS(Curr
ent
Contr
oll
edVolt
ageSource,CCCS(CurrentContr
oll
edCur rentSource).
7.Fi
ndt
hev
olt
ageVx
i
nthegi
venci
rcui
t.
a)10
b)20
c)30
d)40
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:From t
heci
rcui
tappl
yi
ngKi
rchhof
f’
svol
tagel
aw,
wecanwr
it
e50=15+10+
15+Vx =>Vx
=10V.
8.I
fther
esi
stances1Ω,
2Ω,
3Ω,
4Ωar
epar
all
el,
thent
heequi
val
entr
esi
stancei
s?
a)0.
46Ω
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
KVL&KCL
b)0.48Ω
c)0.5Ω
d)0.52Ω
ViewAnswer
Answer:b
Expl
anati
on:Theequi
val
entr
esistance1/Rt
=(1/R1)
+(1/
R2)
+(1/
R3)
+(1/
R4)
.AndR1,
R2,
R3,
R4
are1Ω,2Ω,3Ω,
4Ωrespect
ivel
y.=>Rt
=0. 48Ω.
9.Fi
ndt
otal
cur
rent
(mA)i
ntheci
rcui
t.
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
ViewAnswer
Answer :a
Expl
anat i
on:R2
i
sparal
lelt
oR3.Soequi
val
entresi
stanceofR2
andR3
is1K.Thet
otal
resi
stanceintheci
rcui
tis(1+1+1)
K=3K.Cur
rentintheci
rcui
tis3V/3KΩ=1mA.
10.I
ftheresi
stances3Ω, 5Ω,7Ω,
9Ωareinseri
es,
thentheirequi
valentr
esi
stance(
Ω)is?
a)9
b)20
c)24
d)32
ViewAnswer
Answer:c
Expl
anati
on:I
fther esi
stancesar
einser
ies,
thenequi
valentresi
stancei
sthesum ofall
the
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTI
ONSSET1
KVL&KCL
r
esi
stancest
hatar
einser
ies.Equi
val
entr
esi
stancei
s(3+5+7+9)
Ω=24Ω.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
Networ
kTheoryQuest
ionsandAnswer
s–DCResponse
ofanR-CCi
rcui
t
«
Pr
ev
Next
»
Thi
ssetofNetwor
kTheor
yMul
ti
pleChoi
ceQuest
ions&Answer
s(MCQs)f
ocuseson“
DC
ResponseofanR-
CCir
cui
t”
.
1.Thecurr
enti nt
heR-Lcircui
tatat i
met=0+ is?
a)V/R
b)R/V
c)V
d)R
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:Thecapacitorneveral
lowssuddenchangesinv
olt
age,
itwi
l
lactasashor
t
ci
rcui
tatt=0.Sot
+
hecurr
entinthecircui
tatt=0
+
i
sV/
R.
2.Theexpr essi
onofcur rentinR-Ccir
cuiti
s?
a)i=(V/R)exp ( t/
RC)
b)i=(V/R)exp ( -t
/RC)
c)i=(V/R)-exp( t/RC)
d)i=(V/R)-exp ( -
t/RC)
ViewAnswer
Answer :b
Explanation:Thepar t
icularsoluti
onofthecur
rentequat
ioni
szer
o.Sot
heexpr
essi
onof
currentinR- Ccir
cuitisi=(V/R)exp (-
t/RC)
.
3.InanR-Ccircuit
,whentheswitchi
scl
osed,
ther
esponse_
___
___
___
__
a)donotvarywi t
ht i
me
b)decayswithtime
c)ri
seswithtime
d)fir
sti
ncreasesandt hendecr
eases
ViewAnswer
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
Answer:b
Expl
anati
on:I
naR-Cci
rcuit
,whentheswit
chi
scl
osed,
ther
esponsedecay
swi
tht
imet
hat
i
stheresponseV/
Rdecreaseswit
hincr
easei
nti
me.
4.Theti
meconstantofanR-Ccircui
tis?
a)RC
b)R/C
c)R
d)C
ViewAnswer
Answer:a
Expl
anati
on:Theti
meconstantofanR- Cci
rcui
tisRCandi
tisdenot
edbyτandt
hev
alueof
τindcresponseofR-
Ccircui
tisRCsec.
5.Aft
s,thetransi
entpartr
eachesmoret
han99percentofi
ts
fi
nalval
ue?
a)2
b)3
c)4
d)5
ViewAnswer
Answer:d
Expl
anati
on:Aft
erfi
veti
meconst ants,
thetransi
entpartoft
her
esponser
eachesmorethan
99percentofi
tsfi
nalv
alue.
adv
ert
isement
Heli
copterFl
i
esi
nSkyOv
erSki
erasheCr
ashesWhi
l
ePer
for
mingTr
ickon
Snow-Ramp
6.
Aseri
esR-
Ccircui
tconsi
stsofr
esi
storof10andcapaci
torof0.
1Fasshowninthefi
gure.
Aconst
antv
olt
ageof20Visappli
edtothecir
cui
tatt=0.Whatisthecur
renti
ntheci
rcui
t
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
att=0?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
ViewAnswer
Answer :
b
Explanat
ion:Att=0,swit
chSiscl
osed.Si
ncet
hecapaci
tordoesnotal
l
owsuddenchanges
i
nv olt
age,thecur
renti
ntheci
rcui
tisi=V/R=20/
10=2A.Att=0, i=2A.
7.Theexpr
essi
onofcur
rentobt
ainedf
rom t
heci
rcui
tint
ermsofdi
ff
erent
iat
ionf
rom t
he
ci
rcui
tshownbelow?
a)di/
dt+i
=1
b)di/
dt+i
=2
c)di/
dt+i
=3
d)di/
dt+i
=0
ViewAnswer
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
Answer:
d
Expl
anat
ion:
Byappl
yi
ngKi
rchhof
f’
slaw,
weget
Di
ff
erent
iat
ingwi
thr
espectt
ot,
weget10di
/dt
+i/
0.1=0=>di
/dt
+i=0.
8.Thecur
rentequat
ioni
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)i=2(e-2t)A
b)i=2(e)2t
A
c)i=2(-e-2t)
A
d)i=2(-e2t)A
ViewAnswer
Answer : a
Explanat ion: Att=0, swit
chSiscl
osed.Si
ncet
hecapaci
tordoesnotal
l
owsuddenchanges
i
nv olt
age, t
hecur rentint
heci
rcui
tisi=V/R=20/
10=2A.Att=0, i=2A.Thecur
rent
equationi si=2(e)
-
2t
A.
9.Theexpr
essi
onofv
olt
ageacr
ossr
esi
stori
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
a)VR =20(et)V
b)VR =20(-e)-
t
V
c)VR =20(-
et) V
d)VR =20(e-t)V
ViewAnswer
Answer :
d
Explanat
ion: Theexpr
essi
onofv
olt
ageacr
ossr
esi
stori
ntheci
rcui
tisVR
=iR=(
2(e-
)
t
)
×10=20(e)
-
t
V.
10.Det
ermi
net
hev
olt
ageacr
osst
hecapaci
tori
ntheci
rcui
tshownbel
owi
s?
a)VC =60(1-
e-t)V
b)VC =60(1+et)V
c)VC =60(1-
et)V
d)VC =60(1+e-t)
V
Vi ewAnswer
Answer :
a
Explanat
ion:Theexpr
essi
onofv
olt
ageacr
osscapaci
tori
ntheci
rcui
tVC
=V(
1-e-t/RC)=20(
1-e-
)
t
V.
JSPM’
s
I
mper
ialCol
legeofEngi
neer
ingandResear
ch,
Waghol
i,
Pune.
(
Appr
ovedbyAI
CTE,
Del
hi&Govt
.ofMahar
asht
ra,
aff
il
iat
edt
oSavi
tr
ibai
Phul
ePuneUni
ver
sit
y)
Gat
.No.
720,
Pune-
NagarRoad,
Waghol
i
,Pune-
412207
DepartmentofEl
ect
roni
csandTel
ecommuni
cati
onEngi
neer
ing
Cl
ass&Di
vi
sion:
S.E. Subj
ectName:ECM
MCQQUESTIONSSET1
T
1 Where is field winding mounted in a DC machine?
a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Absent
Ans. a
Explanation: The field winding (concentrated type) is mounted on salient-poles on the stator and the armature winding (distributed
2 What are the materials used for brushes in dc machines?

a) Iron
b) Carbon
c) Aluminum
d) Steel
Ans. b
Explanation: On some extent carbon brush can act as a self-lubricating brush. On moment, polishes the commutator segments. D a
3 The armature of DC motor is laminated to

a) To reduce mass
b) To reduce hysteresis loss
c) To reduce eddy current loss
d) To reduce inductance
Answer: c
Explanation: The armature is built up in a cylindrical or drum shape high grade silicon steel in form of lamination. By using laminati
4 What is the relation between number of parallel paths(A) and number of poles(P) in lap winding?
a) A = P
b) A < P
c) A > P
d) No relation exists
Answer: a
Explanation: Complex winding can be divided into different parallel paths lying under different pole pairs. It is, therefore, concluded
5 Number of parallel paths in wave winding are

a) Equal to P
b) Equal to P/2
c) 2
d) Depends on other parameters
Answer: c
Explanation: In wave winding all coils are divided into 2 groups- all coils carrying clockwise current are series connected and so are
6 Commutator performs rectification so that output of the machine is unidirectional.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Since it is a DC machine the generated output must be DC. Any electrical machine works on induced emf concept whi
7 The resistance of armature winding depends on

(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above
Answer: d
8 Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by

(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
9 Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Answer: b
10 If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans a
11 Three point starter can be used for

(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor
Ans: d
12 The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to

(a) field flux only
(b) armature current only
Ans: b
13 The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by

(a) increasing the resistance in armature circuit
(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit
(c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
(d) reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
Ans: b
14 Which motor should not be started on no-load ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor.
Ans: a
15 Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon

(a) magnetic field
(b) active length of the conductor
(c) current flow through the conductors
(d) number of conductors
(e) radius of armature
(f) all above factors
Ans: f
16 In which mode machine is operating, given that conductor current is in the same direction of conductor emf?
a) Motoring
b) Generating
c) Can’t be determined using directions
d) In both modes for different cycles
Ans b
Explanation: If the conductor current is in the same direction of conductor emf then machine outputs electrical power and absorbs
17 What is the value of Np(number of turns per parallel paths) in an average coil emf equation, for 10 armature conductors with 2 par
a) 2
b) 3
c) 2.5
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: In an emf equation Nc= Cp * Np. Here, Cp= coils/ parallel path. Np is defined as number of turns per parallel paths wh
18 What will happen if the back emf of a DC motor vanishes suddenly?

a) The motor will stop
b) The motor will continue to run
c) The armature may burn
d) The motor will run noisy
Ans c
Explanation: If back emf vanishes suddenly, motor circuit will try to retain back emf by drawing more current from supply. If supplyi n
19 What will happen, with the increase in speed of a DC motor?

a) Back emf increase but line current falls.
b) Back emf falls and line current increase.
c) Both back emf as well as line current increase.
d) Both back emf as well as line current fall.
Ans a
Explanation: In case of DC motor, the speed is proportional to the back emf (Ea ∝ N). So, with the increase in speed, the back emf
20 Direction of rotation of motor is determined by

a) Faraday’s law
b) Lenz’s law
c) Coulomb’s law
Answer: d
Explanation: Flemings laws can be summarized as whenever, a current carrying conductor comes under a magnetic field, there wil
21 The current drawn by the armature of DC motor is directly proportional to
a) Torque
b) Speed
Ans a
Explanation: From the equation of torque generated in a DC machine, we know that in both DC motor and DC generator, current d
22 Why starters are required in a DC motor?

a) Back emf of these motors is zero initially
b) These motors are not self-starting
c) These motors have high starting torque
d) To restrict armature current as there is no back emf at starting
Ans d
Explanation: At the time of starting (n=0), the induced emf of a motor is zero such that current drawn by armature, from rated volta
23 For which motors DOL starter can be used?

a) Up to 5 H.P
b) Up to 10 H.P
c) Up to 15 H.P
d) Up to 20 H.P
Ans a
Explanation: DOL starters are limited to the small rating motors where distribution system (mains supply) can withstand high startin
24 A three-point starter is used for

a) Shunt motors
b) Shunt as well as compound motors
c) Shunt, compound and series motors
d) Not for DC motors
Ans b
Explanation: 3-point starters are used only for shunt and compound motors, they are not used for series motors. Three-point start e
25 What will happen if DC motor is used without starter?

a) Heavy sparking at brushes
b) It’ll start smoothly
c) Will not start at all
d) Depends on load
Ans a
Explanation: It would cause intolerably heavy sparking at the brushes which may destroy the commutator and brush-gear. Sudden
26 Motor will start quickly when used without starter.

a) True
b) False
Ans a
Explanation: The only thing in favour of direct starting must be mentioned here. Since the torque of the motor with direct start is m u
27 Four-point starter is used when

a) Motor field current is varied in narrow range
b) Motor speed is varied in small range
c) Motor field current is varied over wide range
d) Can be used anywhere
Ans c
Explanation: Three-point starter is employed where motor field current can be varied in a narrow range and so does the motor spe
28 If the speed of a DC shunt motor is increased, the back emf of the motor will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Become zero
Ans a
Explanation: From, the speed-current characteristics of DC shunt motor we know that speed of the motor is directly proportional to
29 As the load is increased the speed of DC shunt motor will

a) Reduce slightly
b) Increase slightly
c) Increase proportionately
d) Reduce rapidly
Ans a
Explanation: As the load is increased, speed of the DC motor will reduce slightly, the change is so negligible that in many cases it is
30 Speed of DC shunt motor is directly proportional to

a) Flux
b) Back emf
c) Terminal voltage
d) Armature resistance drop
Ans b
Explanation: The armature circuit equation for DC shunt motor is given by Ea = Vt -IaRa. But back emf is also equal to kφn. Thus, k
31 Speed torque characteristic of DC shunt motor is

a) Starting from origin
b) Starting from speed axis and increasing
c) Starting from speed axis and decreasing
d) Starting from speed axis and constant
Ans c
Explanation: Speed-torque characteristic falls as torque increases, because armature reaction causes decrease in flux whose squ a
32 Which DC motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists?

a) Series motor
b) Shunt motor
c) Cumulatively compounded motor
d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans a
Explanation: DC series motor is used where high starting torque is required, thus in cranes and hoists DC series motor is used wid
33 What is Self-excitation in DC shunt generator?

a) Field winding is connected in series of armature
b) Field winding is connected in parallel of armature
c) Field winding is not connected to the armature
d) Field Winding is not excited
Ans b
Explanation: Rather than arranging a separate dc source for excitation purposes, practical generators are always excited from thei
34 Why differential compound generator is not used in practice?

a) High cost
b) High maintenance
c) High drop down in voltage
d) Difficult construction
Ans c
Explanation: At a given value of load current, differential compound machine gives lowest voltage output. As the load current incre
35 In PMDC motors we use magnetic material with

b) Low coercivity
Ans c
Explanation: In market magnetic materials with various properties are available, but for DC motor application we need magnetic m
36 In PMDC magnetic material is placed instead of

a) Armature
b) Rotor
c) Stator
d) Can be placed anywhere
Ans c
Explanation: In PMDC motors we keep magnetic material or magnetic poles in the place of field winding of original DC machine. Th
37 PMDC motor offers

a) Cumulative compound type characteristic
b) Differential compound type characteristic
c) Series characteristic
d) Shunt characteristic
Ans d
Explanation: The stator is made of permanent magnet in the PMDC motor hence, there is no need for separate field excitation for
38 Which speed control method is employed in PMDC?

a) Field control method
b) Armature control method
c) Armature Field control method
Ans b
Explanation: Unlike in DC motors, field is provided by permanent magnets in PMDC. This implies that field provided in PMDC moto
39 PMDC produces high torque on

a) At low speeds
d) Cannot say
Ans a
Explanation: PMDC produces high torque even at very low speeds. In DC shunt motor torque produced at very low speeds is lowe r
40 A 4 pole generator with wave wound armature has 51 slots each having 24 conductors. The flux per pole is 10 mWb. At what spee
a)612.75 rpm
b)620 rpm
c)500rpm
d)650.15rpm
Ans a
Total no. of conductors, Z = 51x20 = 1224,Wave winding, A=2,From EMF equation,N= Eg60A /
ΦZ
41 Refer q.no.40 What will be the voltage developed, if the winding is lap connected and the
arma
a)0.125kv
b)125v
c)120v
d)0.310kv
Ans a
Lap winding, A=P=4,Eg
= PΦZN/60A =
(4x10/1000x1224x612.75)/
(60x4) = 0.125 kV
42 Which of the following is the correct formula for cumulative compound generator?
a) Nse= Nf (ΔIa/If)
b) Nse= Nf (ΔIf/Ia)
c) Nse= 2Nf (ΔIa/If)
d) Nse= Nf (ΔIa/If)/2
Ans b
Explanation: According to proportionality constant obtained by analysis of OCC, various value of armature current can be obtained
43 The variation in terminal voltage of DC shunt generator with respect to variation in separately excited DC generator is
a) Much rapid
b) Much slower
c) Remains constant
d) Can’t say
Ans a
Explanation: The terminal voltage drops off much more rapidly with load in a shunt generator than in a separately-excited generato
44 A 4-pole Dc wound machine is lap wound with 400 conductors. The pole shore is 20 cm long and average flux density over one-po
a) 0.188 Wb
b) 18.88 Wb
c) 0.0188 Wb
d) 1.888 Wb
Ans c
Explanation: Flux is defined as flux density for a given surface area. Here, Surface area can be calculated and multiplied with B to
45 A 4-pole wave wound DC motor drawing an armature current of 20 A has provided with 360 armature conductors. If the flux per po
a. 10.23 N-m
b. 34.37 N-m
c. 17.17 N-m
d. 19.08 N-m
Ans b
Explanation: DC Machine torque equation: T = ka*∅*Ia. Here, ka= ZP/(2πA), Z= total armature conductors, P= No. of poles, A= No
46 Average coil emf for 20 coil turns (E1) and 40 coil turns (E2), will have ratio E1/E2= (assuming all other parameters same for
a) 1/2
b) 2/1
c) 1/4
d) 4/1
Ans a
Explanation: Emf generated in a DC machine is directly proportional to number of coil turns, Flux per pole, number of poles and ar
47 What is the average coil emf generated in a 4-pole DC machine having flux/pole equal to 0.1 wb rotating at 1500 rpm? (No. of coil
a) 19 kV
b) 1.9 kV
c) 190 V
d) 19 V
Ans a
Explanation: Average coil emf generated= ∅ωNP/π.
E= 0.1*1500*100*4/3.14
E= 60000/3.14
E≅ 19 Kv.
48 Emf and torque produced in a DC machine are proportional to and respectively.

a) Armature speed and armature emf
b) Armature emf and armature speed
c) Armature current and armature emf
d) Armature speed and armature current
Ans d
Explanation: Average coil emf generated= ∅ωNP/π. Machine torque = ka*∅*Ia. Thus, average coil emf generated can also be rep r
49 Which DC motor is more preferred for elevators?

a) Shunt motor
b) Series motor
c) Differential compound motor
d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans d
Explanation: Cumulative wound DC motors give high starting torque like a series motor and reasonable good speed regulation at h
50 Unlike DC series motor, DC compound motor can be started on no-load.

a) True
b) False
Ans a
Explanation: Cumulative motor takes best from shunt motor and series motor as well. Due to shunt field flux component, DC cumul
2. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of lamination’s of a D.C. machine ?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to
(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Ans:d
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on
Ans: d
5. The field coils of D.C.
generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of

(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
9. According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when middle finger points
in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
Ans: b
10. Fleming’s right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates
(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor
Ans: b
11. While applying Fleming’s right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings Ans: a
13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may

be
(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above Ans: d
14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always

(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed, then which
winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design Ans: b
16. In a four-pole D.C. machine

(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles Ans: b
17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used

(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases Ans: a
18. A separately excited generator as compared to a self- excited generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage control
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features Ans: d
19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above Ans: c
20. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above Ans: a
23. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of

(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given
by (a)Blv
(b)Blv2 (c)Bl2v (d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will
be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32 Ans: b
26. The material for commutator brushes is generally

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon Ans: d
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles

Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic neutral axis, there will
be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as mag¬netisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only Ans: c
30. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is

(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above Ans: a
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above Ans: d
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above Ans: c
33. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in

(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the voltage
(d) all above

Ans:
34. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is
(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound
(d) duplex wound Ans: b
35. Welding generator will have

(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding Ans: a
36. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to

(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns Ans: a
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set Ans: c
38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is

(a) to reduce the reluctance of the mag¬netic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions Ans: d
39. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is

(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches Ans: d
40. A D.C. welding generator has
(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
(d) any of the above Ans: a
41. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?

(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt gen¬erators
Ans: d
42. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator

(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble Ans: a
43. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by
(a) electromagnets
(d) none of the above Ans: a
44. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on

(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected Ans: d
45. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators

(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short- circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing direct current of a
D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings Ans: c
48. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for

(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current Ans: b
49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature while generator B has lap
wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3 Ans: b
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
(d) None of the above Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains constant, if the speed
of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E Ans: b
52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon
(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the ad¬jacent pole shoes
(d) all of the above Ans:
53. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) non-ferrous material
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
63. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires
(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders
(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
(d) all of the above Ans: d
54. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is connected
(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
(d) none of the above Ans: c
55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to increase the generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above Ans:
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
57. D.C. series generator is used
(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose

Ans: c
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism in the poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator Ans: d
59. Interpole flux should be sufficient to

(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating e.m.f. induced in the coil
(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
60. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries is
(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any of’the above
Ans: c
D.C. GENERATORS Objective Questions Pdf ::

61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
62. Permeance is the reciprocal of

(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
63. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles
(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f.
Ans: a
64. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to

(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
Ans: b
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral axis, when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the coil is neutralised
by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped

Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed increases to 1200
r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
69. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is
(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
70. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by

(a) speed limitation
(b) armature heating
(c) insulation restrictions
(d) saturation of iron
Ans:
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact
(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
Ans: b
72. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means
(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles

Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the
armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of

(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies

(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions
Ans: a
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt

(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a
D.C. machine
(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
79. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.

(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
80. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to

(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
81. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to
(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
82. A D.C. generator can be considered as

(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump
Ans: c
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f. induced is to be utilised is
called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
84. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of
(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
85. Lap winding is composed of

(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: a
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
87. An exciter for a turbo generator is a
(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator
Ans: b
88. In case of a flat compounded generator

(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
(c) voltage remains constant irrespective of the load

(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
Ans: c
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on no-load ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism in
the poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
(d) None of the above
Ans: d
91. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) almost zero
(b) less than no load terminal voltage
(c) more than no load terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage
Ans: c
92. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage
Ans: b
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature

(d) commutation
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator

(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic – armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic – ohmic drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic – ohmic drop – armature reaction
(d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic
Ans: c
95. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) will be of 5 xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
Ans: b
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(d) high
Ans: a
99. Armature reaction in a generator results in
(a) demagnetization of leading pole tip and magnetization of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetization of trailing pole tip and magnetization of leading pole tip
(c) demagnetizing the center of all poles
(d) magnetizing the center of all poles
Ans: a
100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would produce high inductive
voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans:
101. Wave winding is composed of

Ans: c
102. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in

parallel, an equalizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
Ans: a
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for which of the following
reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads
Ans: d
107. A D.C. generator works on the principle of

(a) Lenz’s law
(b) Ohm’s law
(c) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
Ans: c
108. A series generator can self-excite
(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero
(c) irrespective of the value of load current
Ans: b
109. A shunt generator can self-excite

(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resistance in the field circuit
Ans: a
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the load current is
increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance of 50 ohm run in
parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their
bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V (b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two

D.C. generators is that they have ‘
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage characteristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equalizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of AR-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal cur¬rents to the load
Ans: d
115. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is preferred ?

(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long

D.C. transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
117. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Ans: c
118. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole

D.C. generator having duplex lap winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave winding’s, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
126. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by
(a) external current
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
127. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C. generator is
approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
128. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
129. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and
over compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field winding’s
(c) unequal speed regulation of their prime movers
(d) unequal series field resistances
Ans: a
130. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on
its first trial run, the first thing to do is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of prime mover
(d) check armature insulation resistance
Ans: a
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?

(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be

preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring

(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
Ans: d
8. According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the
direction of the field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
10. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Ans: d
11. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Ans: c
12. A D.C. series motor is that which

(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
13. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because

(a) it limits the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor
Ans: b
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
15. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it
will
(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of
electrical energy is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant
speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full- load speed can be
obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
19. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is

(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: a
20. A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors

(a) up to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only
because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the
current in the armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
24. These days D.C. motors are widely used in

(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a
particular motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably

tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
27. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking
Ans: d
28. A three point starter is considered suitable for
(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
(c) shunt, compound and series motors
(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are
established, the efficiency of the motor will be (a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
30. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of

(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
Ans: b
32. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum
temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction
of rotation of D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenz’s law
(b) Faraday’s law
(c) Coloumb’s law
(d) Fleming’s left-hand rule
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than
the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
35. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally
(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
Ans: a
36. The speed of a D.C. series motor is

(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
Ans: d
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the
torque of the motor will be equal to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly
proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded ‘motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with flywheel

for intermittent light and heavy loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: c
42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit
suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to the motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses (d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
43. D.C. series motors are used

(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor
starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc’ompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the

compensating winding is provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
46. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may

result in
(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
Ans: d
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly
explosive atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor
Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the
following will decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C.
machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better uniformity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum
when the ratio of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
51. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C.

motor is
(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f
. Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an
A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
53. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order of
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(6) 10 to 15 per cent
(c) 20 to 25 per cent
(d) 50 to 75 per cent
Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
55. Three point starter can be used for

Ans: d
56. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because

(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
Ans: b
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand
by the motor, compound motor will have to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed
range control is required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt field suddenly opens

(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the same direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and
therefore make use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
64. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to
(a) field flux only
Ans: b
65. Which of the following method of speed control of

D.C. machine will offer minimum efficiency ?
(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c
66. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of

(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
(d) colliery winders
Ans: d
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at
rated load. The speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
68. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides

(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
Ans: a
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a

D.C. motor, in order to prevent a heavy current from flowing though the
armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
(e) Ans: a
70. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by
Ans: b
71. If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. shunt motor is

(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the
torque developed by the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(6) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves
like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
Ans: b
74. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying

(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C.
motors over A.C. motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
76. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is changed

(a) torque will remain constant
(b) torque will change but power will remain constant
(c) torque and power both will change
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change
Ans: b
77. Which motor has the poorest speed control?

(a) Differentially compounded motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
78. The plugging gives the

(a) zero torque braking
(b) smallest torque braking
(c) highest torque braking
Ans: c

(a) constant voltage drive
(b) constant current drive
(c) constant torque drive
Ans: c
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for
50°C ambient temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recommended by manufacturer and select the next higher
H.P. motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action
will offer following kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking

(e) any of the above
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary
compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the
motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to
square of armature current
Ans: d
85. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold
refrigerators ?
(c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run motor)
(d) Reluctance motor
(e) Synchronous motor
Ans: c
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and
many kinds of timers ?
(c) Induction motor
Ans: d
87. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
88. Ward-Leonard control is basically a
(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method
Ans: a
89. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
90. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by

(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and generator together
Ans: a
91. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is

(a) high initial cost
(b) high maintenance cost
(c) low efficiency at Hght loads
Ans: d
92. Regenerative method of braking is based on that

(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
Ans: b
93. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on

(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals
(b) Maximum value of flux density
(c) Volume and grade of iron
(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses
except
(a) Loss of efficiency
(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is
likely to have highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with
the load current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss

Ans: c
97. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon
(a) magnetic field
Ans: f
98. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving
(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
99. In a manual shunt motor starter

(a) over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
(6) over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series with the load
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with the load
Ans: a
100. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis

loss in a D.C. generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
Ans: d
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is
dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating

the core of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be

nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
104. The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C. generator is
(a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) copper losses = 0
(d) variable losses = constant losses
Ans: d
105. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
Ans: a
106. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in

(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C.
series motors of large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne’s test
(b) Hopkinson’s test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
110. Hopkinson’s test on D.C. machines is conducted at
(a) no-load
(b) part load
(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
111. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors

(a) motor is run as a generator
(b) motor is reversed in direction
(c) motor is run at reduced speed
Ans: a
112. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
Ans: d
113. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators ?
(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
Ans: a
114. In variable speed motor

(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: b
115. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is

(a) self-induced e.m.f.
(b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
Ans: c
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting,
stopping, reversing and speed control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
Ans: a
117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit
suddenly opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop
Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most
of the time and some peak value for short duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the
load cycle and peak value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
Ans: a
121. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in

(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator

Ans: b
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load
speed. This is possible by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current
(c) increasing the armature current
(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: a
123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor
when excited and driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
Ans: a
1 Calculate the Z –parameter Z11 in the circuit shown below.
a) 1.5
b) 2.5
c) 3.5
d) 4.5
Ans b
Explanation: The Z–parameter Z11 is V1/I1, port 2 is open circuited. V1 = (1+1.5)I1 => V1/I1 = 2.5 and on substituting, we get Z11 = 2.5Ω.
2 Determine the Z-parameter Z22 in the circuit shown below.
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
Ans c
Explanation: The Z-parameter Z21 is V2/I2 |I1=0. This parameter is obtained by open circuiting port 1. So we get V2 = ((2+2)||4)I2 => V2 = 2(I2) => V2/I2 = 2. On substituting Z21 =
3 In any linear network, the elements like inductor, resistor and capacitor always
a. Exhibit changes due to change in temperature
b. Exhibit changes due to change in voltage
c. Exhibit changes due to change in time
d. Remains constant irrespective of change in temperature, voltage and time
Ans d
4 Which type of networks allow the physical separability of the network elements (resistors, inductors &
capacitors) for analysis purpose?
a. Lumped Networks
b. Distributed Networks
c. Unilateral Networks
d. Bilateral Networks
Ans a
5 The two port networks are connected in cascade, the combination is to be represented as a single
two-Port network. The parameters of the network are obtained by multiplying the individual matrix
a.z-parameter
b.h-parameter
c.y-parameter
d.ABCD parameter
Ans d
6 The Laplace transform of a function f (t) is?

a) ∫ ∞0 f(t) e-st
b) ∫0−∞ f(t) e-st
c) ∫ ∞0 f(t) est
d) ∫0−∞ f(t) est
Ans a
Explanation: The Laplace transform is a powerful analytical technique that is widely used to study the behavior of linear, lumped parameter circuits. L(f(t)) = F (s)
7 Laplace transform changes the domain function to the domain function.

a) time, time
b) time, frequency
c) frequency, time
d) frequency, frequency
Ans b
Explanation: Laplace transform changes the time domain function f (t) to the frequency domain function F(s). Similarly Laplace transformation converts frequency domain functio
8 In the bilateral Laplace transform, the lower limit is?

a) 0
b) 1
c) ∞
d) – ∞
Ans d
Explanation: If the lower limit is 0, then the transform is referred to as one-sided or unilateral Laplace transform. In the two-sided or bilateral Laplace transform, the lower limit is
9 he unit step is not defined at t =?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Ans a
Explanation: If k is 1, the function is defined as unit step function. And the unit step is not defined at t = 0.
10 Find the function f 2 (t) from the time t = 1 to 3 sec.

a) (-10t+20) [u (t-1) +u (t-3)]
b) (-10t+20) [u (t-1) – u (t-3)]
c) (-10t-20) [u (t-1) + u (t-3)]
d) (-10t-20) [u (t-1) – u (t-3)]
b
Ans
Explanation: From the graph, f2 (t) = -10t + 20 for 1 < t < 3. In terms of unit step function, f2 (t) = (-10t+20) [u (t-1) – u (t-3)]. This function turn off at t = 1, turn off at t = 3.
11 Find the function f (t) in terms of unit step function in the graph shown below.
a) 4t [u (t) – u (t + 5)]
b) 4t [u (t) + u (t + 5)]
c) 4t [u (t) – u (t – 5)]
d) 4t [u (t) + u (t – 5)]
Ans c
Explanation: The waveform shown in the figure starts at t = 0 and ends at t = 5 sec. In terms of unit step function the waveform can be expressed as f (t) = 4t [u (t) – u (t – 5)].
12 Find the Laplace transform of the function f (t) = 4t 3 + t 2 – 6t + 7.

a) 24/s4 + 2/s 3 + 6/s2 + 7/s
b) 24/s 4 – 2/s3 – 6/s 2 + 7/s
c) 24/s 4 + 2/s 3 – 6/s2 + 7/s
d) 24/s 4 – 2/s3 + 6/s 2 + 7/s
Ans c
Explanation: L (4t 3 + T2 -6t +7) = 4L (t3) + L(t2)-6L (t) + 7L(1) = 4×3!/s4 + 2!/s3 – 6 (1!)/(s2)+71/s = 24/s 4 + 2/s3 -6/s 2 + 7/s.
13 The s-domain equivalent of the inductor reduces to an inductor with impedance?
a) L
b) sL
c) s 2L
d) s3L
Ans b
Explanation: If the initial energy stored in the inductor is zero, the equivalent circuit of the inductor reduces to an inductor with impedance sL ohms.
14 The voltage and current in a capacitor are related as?

a) i=Cdt/dv
b) v=Cdv/dt
c) i=Cdv/dt
d) v=Cdt/dv
Ans c
Explanation: Consider an initially charged capacitor and the initial voltage on the capacitor is Vo. The voltage current relation in the time domain is i=Cdv/dt.
15 The s-domain equivalent of the capacitor reduces to a capacitor with impedance?

a) sC
b) C
c) 1/C
d) 1/sC
Ans d
Explanation: The s-domain equivalent of the capacitor can be derived for the charged capacitor and it reduces to an capacitor with impedance 1/sC.
16 From the circuit shown below, find the value of current in the loop.
a) (V/R)/(s+1/RC)
b) (V/C)/(s+1/R)
c) (V/C)/(s+1/RC)
d) (V/R)/(s+1/R)
Ans a
Explanation: Applying Kirchhoff’s law around the loop, we have V/s=1/sC I+RI. Solving above equation yields I=CV/(RCS+1)=(V/R)/(s+1/RC).
17 The voltage across the resistor in the circuit shown below is?
a) Vet/R
b) Ve-t/RC
c) Ve-t/R
d) Vet/RC
Ans b
Explanation: We can determine the voltage v by simply applying the ohm’s law from the circuit. And applying the Ohm’s law from the circuit v = Ri = Ve-t/RC.
18 For the network shown in the figure, find the driving point impedance.
a) (s 2-2s+1)/s
b) (s2+2s+1)/s
c) (s 2-2s-1)/s
d) (s 2+2s-1)/s
Ans b
Explanation: Applying Kirchoff’s law at port 1, Z(S)=V(S)/I(S), where V(s) is applied at port 1 and I(s) is current flowinmg through the network. Then Z(S)=V(S)/I(S) = 2+S+1/S = (
19 Obtain the transfer function G21 (S) in the circuit shown below.
a) (s+1)/s
b) s+1
c) s
d) s/(s+1)
Ans d
Explanation: Applying Kirchhoff’s law V1 (S) = 2 I1 (S) + 2 sI1 (S) V2 (S) = I1 (S) X 2s Hence G21 (S) = V2(s)/V1(s) = 2 s/(2+2 s)=s/(s+1).
20 The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Ans d
Explanation: The roots of the equation P (S) = 0 are zeros of the transfer function. The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by ‘o’.
21 The poles in the transfer function are denoted by?

a) x
b) y
c) z
d) w
Ans a
Explanation: The roots of the equation Q (S) = 0 are poles of the transfer function. The poles in the transfer function are denoted by ‘x’.
22 The coefficients in the denominator polynomial of the transfer function must be?
a) positive
b) negative
c) positive or zero
d) negative or zero
Ans a
Explanation: The coefficients in the denominator polynomial of the transfer function must be positive but should not be negative and the coefficients in the polynomials P(s) and
23 The degree of numerator polynomial in a transfer function may be as small as independent of the degree of the denominator polynomial.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 3
Ans c
Explanation: The degree of numerator polynomial in a transfer function may be as small as zero, independent of the degree of the denominator polynomial and for the voltage tr
24 Two ports containing sources in their branches are called?

a) three port
b) one port
c) passive ports
d) active ports
Ans d
Explanation: Two ports containing sources in their branches are called active ports. A voltage and current is assigned to each of the two ports.
25 In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V 2, I1, I2, which of the following are dependent variables?
a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Ans a
Explanation: In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2; V1 and V2 are dependent variables and I1, I2 are independent variables i.e., dependent vari
26 In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2, which of the following are independent variables?
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Ans c
Explanation: In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2; I1 and I2 are independent variables and V1, V2 are dependent variables. Independent varia
27 Which of the following expression is true in case of open circuit parameters?

a) V1 = Z11 V1 + Z12 I2
b) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 V2
c) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
d) V2 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
Ans c
Explanation: The expression relating the open circuit parameters Z11, Z12 and currents I1, I2 and voltage V1 is V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2.
28 Find the value of Z12 in the circuit shown below.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Ans c
Explanation: The current through vertical 2Ω resistor is = I2/2. So, V1 = 2 x (I2/2). On solving and substituting we get Z12 = 1Ω.
29 In determining short circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2, which of the following are dependent variables?
a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Ans b
Explanation: In determining short circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2; I1 and I2 are dependent variables and V1, V2 are independent variables i.e., dependent vari
30 Which of the following expression is true in case of short circuit parameters?

a) I1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
b) I1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
c) V1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
d) V1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
Ans a
Explanation: The expression relating the short circuit parameters Y11, Y12 and voltages V1, V2 and current is I1, is I1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2.
31 Find the Y – parameter Y11 in the circuit shown below.
a) 2
b) 3/2
c) 1
d) 1/2
Ans d
Explanation: After short circuiting b-b’, the equation will be V1 = (I1) x 2. We know Y11 = I1/V1. From the equation we get I1/V1 = 2. On substituting we get Y11 = 2 mho.
32 Find the Y – parameter Y22 in the circuit shown below.
a) 3/8
b) 5/8
c) 7/8
d) 9/8
Ans b
Explanation: On short circuiting a-a’, we get Zeq = 8/5 Ω. V2=I2× 8/5. We know Y22 = I2/V2. We got I2/V1 = 5/8. ON substituting we get Y22 = 5/8 mho.
33 In the circuit shown below, find the transmission parameter A.
a) 6/5
b) 5/6
c) 3/4
d) 4/3
Ans a
Explanation: Open circuiting b-b‘, V1 = 6 I1, V2 = 5I1. On solving V1/V2 = 6/5. On substituting we get A = V1/V2=6/5.
34 In the circuit shown below, find the transmission parameter C.
a) 4/5
b) 3/5
c) 2/5
d) 1/5
Ans d
Explanation: C = I1/V2|I2=0. By open circuiting b-b‘ we get V2 = 5 I1 => I1/V2 = 1/5. On substituting we get C = I1/V2=1/5 Ω.
35 The hybrid parameter h11 is called?

Ans a
36 The hybrid parameter h21 is called?

Ans c
Explanation: h21=I2/I1 |V2=0. So the hybrid parameter h21 is called short circuit forward current gain.
37 In the circuit shown below, find the h-parameter h12.
a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) 1
d) -1
Ans a
Explanation: Open circuiting a-a‘ we get V1=Iy ×2 and
Iy=I2/2 and V2=Ix×4 and Ix=I2/2. On solving and substituting, we get h12 = V1/V2=1/2.
38 For the circuit given below, the value of the hybrid parameter h11 is
a) 15 Ω
b) 20 Ω
c) 30 Ω
d) 25 Ω
Ans a
V1 = I1 ((10||10) + 10)
= I1 ((10×1010+10)+10)
= 15I1
∴ V 1I 1 = 15.
Hence h11 = 15 Ω.
39 For the circuit given below, the value of the hybrid parameter h22 is
a) 0.2 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.1 Ω
d) 0.3 Ω
Ans a
V1 = IA × 10
IA = I22
V2 = IB × 10
IB = I22
∴ I2V2=I2×2I2×10 = 0.2
Hence h22 = 0.2 Ω.
40
5 Which law plays a significant role in the loop analysis of the network?
a. KCL
b. KVL
c. Law of Superposition Theorem
d. None of the above
Ans b
6 How is the loop analysis different in application/functioning level as compared to

Kirchoff’s law?
a. Utilization of loop currents instead of branch currents for writing equations
b. Capability of branch current to carry multiple networks
c. Reduction in the number of unknowns for complex networks
d. All of the above
Ans d
8 Source is a basic network element which supplies power to the networks.

a) True
b) False
Ans a) True
Explanation: The basic network element which supplies energy to the networks is Source. Hence, it is true.
9 The dependent sources are of kinds.

a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans d
Explanation: The dependent sources are of four kinds, depending on whether the control variable is voltage or current and the controlled source is a voltag
10 In CCVS, voltage depends on the control current and the constant called
a) Transconductance
b) Transresistance
c) Current Gain
d) Voltage Gain
Ans b
Explanation: In CCVS, voltage is directly proportional to the control current. The constant of proportionality is called Transresistance(r).
V = ri.
11 The circuit in which current has a complete path to flow is called circuit.
a) short
b) open
c) closed
d) open loop
Ans c
Explanation: The circuit in which current has a complete path to flow is called a closed circuit. When the current path is broken so that current cannot flow, t
12 Kirchhoff’s current law is applied at

a) loops
b) nodes
Ans b
13 Find the current through the branch containing resistance R3.
a) 2A
b) 3.25A
c) 2A
d) 2.75A
Ans d
Explanation: By KCL, 5A = 0.25A + 2A + i3.
14 In a circuit with more number of loops, which law can be best suited for the analysis?
a) KCL
b) Ohm’s law
c) KVL
d) None of the mentioned
Ans c
Explanation: KVL can be best suited for circuits with more number of loops.
15 A mesh is a loop which contains number of loops within it.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) no loop
d
Explanation: A loop is a closed path. A mesh is defined as a loop which does not contain any other loops within it.
16 In the figure shown below, the current through loop 1 be I1 and through the loop 2 be I2, then the current flowing through the resistor R3 will be?
a) I1
b) I2
c) I1-I2
d) I1+I2
Ans c
Explanation: Through the resistor R2 both the currents I1, I2 are flowing. So the current through R3 will be I1-I2.
17 If there are 5 branches and 4 nodes in graph, then the number of mesh equations that can be formed are?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Ans a
Explanation: Number of mesh equations = B-(N-1). Given number of branches = 5 and number of nodes = 4. So Number of mesh equations = 5-(4-1) = 2.
18 In nodal analysis how many nodes are taken as reference nodes?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans a
Explanation: In nodal analysis only one node is taken as reference node. And the node voltage is the voltage of a given node with respect to one particular
19 If there are 8 nodes in network, we can get number of equations in the nodal analysis.
a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6
Ans c
Explanation: Number of equations = N-1 = 7. So as there are 8 nodes in network, we can get 7 number of equations in the nodal analysis.
20 In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other voltage sources are?
a) open circuited
b) short circuited
Ans b
Explanation: In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other voltage sources are short circuited. This theorem is valid for linear systems.
21 In the circuit shown, find the current through 3Ω resistor using Superposition theorem.
a) 4
b) 5.625A
c) 6
d) 7
Ans b)
Now considering the current source 5A, 20V voltage source is short circuited. Now current through 3Ω resistor is 20/(5+3)=2.5A. No current through 3Ω res
22 Consider the circuit shown below. Find the equivalent Thevenin’s voltage between nodes A and B.
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 9
d) 9.5
Ans b
Explanation: The thevenin’s voltage is equal to the open circuit voltage across the terminals AB that is across 12Ω resistor. Vth = 10×12/14 = 8.57V.
23 Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in the following circuit.
a) 6
b) 6.25
c) 6.5
d) 6.75
Ans d
Explanation: To find Rth, two voltage sources are removed and replaced with short circuit => Rth=(10×6)/(10+6)+3=6.75Ω.
1 A three-phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with the stator winding short-circuited. The frequency of th
a) Slip frequency
b) Supply frequency
d) Zero
Ans a
Explanation: The relative speed between rotor magnetic field and stator conductors is sip speed and hence the frequency o
2 An 8-pole, 3-phase, 50 Hz induction motor is operating at a speed of 720 rpm. The frequency of the rotor current of the mo
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
Ans a
Explanation: Given a number of poles = 8. Supply frequency is 50 Hz. Rotor speed is 720 rpm. Ns = 120×f÷P=120×50÷8 =
3 A 50 Hz, 4poles, a single phase induction motor is rotating in the clockwise direction at a speed of 1425 rpm. The slip of m o
a) 0.05, 0.95
b) 0.04, 1.96
c) 0.05, 1.95
d) 0.05, 0.02
Ans c
Explanation: Synchronous speed, Ns=120×50÷4=1500 rpm. Given a number of poles = 4. Supply frequency is 50 Hz. Rotor
4 The frame of an induction motor is made of

a) Aluminum
b) Silicon steel
c) Cast iron
d) Stainless steel
Ans c
Explanation: The frame of an induction motor is made of cast iron. The power factor of an induction motor depends upon t h
5 In an induction motor, when the number of stator slots is equal to an integral number of rotor slots
a) There may be a discontinuity in torque slip characteristics
b) A high starting torque will be available
c) The maximum torque will be high
d) The machine may fail to start
Ans d
Explanation: When the number of stator slots is an integral multiple of a number of rotor slots the machine fails to start and
6 A 3-phase induction motor runs at almost 1000 rpm at no load and 950 rpm at full load when supplied with power from a 5 0
a) 30 revolution per minute
b) 40 revolution per minute
c) 60 revolution per minute
d) 50 revolution per minute
Ans d
Explanation: Supply frequency=50 Hz. No-load speed of motor = 1000 rpm. The full load speed of motor=950 rpm. Since th
7 In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally

a. Less than 1%
b. 5%
c. 2%
d.4%
Ans a
8 The advantage of would rotor motor is that ……….

a) it is inexpensive
b) it requires less maintenance
c) external resistance can be inserted in the rotor circuit
d) none of the above
Ans c
9 The full-load slip of a 3-phase induction motor ranges from ………

a) 10% to 20%
b) 20% to 30%
c) 2% to 5%
Ans c
10 In a 3-phase induction motor, the rotor speed is ……. The synchronous speed.
a) greater than
b) smaller than
c) equal to
Ans b
11 When the rotor of a 3-phase induction motor is blocked, the slip is ……..
a) zero
b) 0.5
c) 0.1
d) 1
Ans d
12 3-phase wound rotor motors are also called ............ motors.

a) synchronous
b) slip ring
c) series
d) commutator
Ans b
13 The stator of a 3-phase induction motor produces ……… magnetic filed.
a) steady
b) rotating
c) alternating
Ans b
14 If a 4-pole induction motor has a synchronous speed of 1500 r.p.m., then, supply frequency is ……..
a) 50 Hz
b) 25 Hz
c) 60 Hz
Ans a
15 The air-gap between stator and rotor of a 3-phase induction motor ranges from ……….
a) 2 cm to 4 cm
b) 0.4 mm to 4 mm
c) 1 cm to 2 cm
d) 4 cm to 6 cm
Ans b
16 At no-load, the rotor core loss of a 3-phase induction motor is ………

a) large
b) small
c) practically zero
Ans c
17 In the slip of induction motor increases, then, current in the stator winding ……..
a) is increased
b) is decreased
c) remains unchanged
Ans a
18 The approximate efficiency of a 3-phase, 50Hz, 4-pole induction motor running at 1350 r.p.m. is ………
a) 90%
b) 40%
c) 65%
Ans a
19 For higher efficiency of 3-phase induction motor, the slip should be ……..
a) large
b) very large
c) as small as possible
d) 1
Ans c
20 In an induction motor, the ratio of rotor Cu loss and rotor input is given by
a) s
b) 1/s
c) 1 – s
d) s/1 – s
Ans a
21 The no-load speed of an induction motor depends upon

a) the supply frequency
b) the number of its poles
c) the maximum flux/phase
d) only (i) and (ii)
Ans d
22 The supply voltage to an induction motor is reduced by 1%. By what percentage, approximately, will the maximum torque d
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 10%
Ans a
24 The operation of an induction motor is based on

a) Lenz’s law
b) Ampere’s law
c) mutual induction
d) self induction
Ans c
25 The frequency of rotor current in a 6-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor running at 950 r.p.m. is
a) 2.5 Hz
b) 1.5 Hz
c) 5 Hz
d) 0.05 Hz
Ans a
26 If the speed of 3-phase induction motor increases, its efficiency

a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains the same
d) insufficient data
Ans b
27 The frequency of the induced emf in an induction motor is

a. Greater than the supply frequency
b. Lesser than the supply frequency
c. Same as the supply frequency
d. None of these
Ans c
28 Slip ring induction motor has

a. Low starting torque
b. Medium starting torque
c. High starting torque
d. None of these
Ans c
29 The frequency of rotor current in an induction motor is

a. slip times the frequency of stator current
b. slip times the frequency of supply
c. One by slip times the frequency of stator current
d. One by slip times the frequency of supply
Ans b
30 Slip of an induction motor increases with
a. increase in current and decrease in torque
b. increase in current and torque
c. decrease in current and torque
d. decrease in current and increase in torque
Ans b
31 The resultant flux in an induction motor is equal to the

a. Maximum value of flux due to any phase
b. Twice of the maximum value of flux due to any phase
c. 0.5 times the maximum value of flux due to any phase
d. 1.5 times the maximum value of flux due to any phase
Ans d
32 The advantage of skewing in induction motor is / are

a. Motor runs smoothly as the magnetic hum is reduced
b. The tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth due to direct magnetic attraction is reduced
c. More uniform torque is obtained while running
d. All of these
Ans d
33 For induction motors,

a. Should be essentially a constant speed motor
b. Its speed reduces to some extent with increase in load
c. Does not need to be synchronized
d. All of these
Ans d
34 In an induction motor, rotor slots are usually not quite parallel to the shaft but are given a slight skew
a) To reduce the magnetic hum
b) To reduce the locking tendency of the rotor
c) Both (a) and (b) above
d) To increase the speed of the motor
Ans c
35 Starters are used in induction motor because

a) Its starting torque is high
b) It is run against heavy load
c) It can not run in reverse direction
d) Its starting current is five times or more than its rated current
Ans d
36 When an induction motor runs at rated load and speed, the iron losses are
a) Negligible
b) Very heavy
c) Independent of supply frequency
d) Independent of supply voltage
Ans a
37 The emf induced in the rotor of an induction motor is proportional to

a) Voltage applied to stator
b) Relative velocity between flux and rotor conductors
c) Both (a) and (b) above
d) Slip
Ans c
38 The synchronous speed of an induction motor is defined as

a) Natural speed at which a magnetic field rotates
b) The speed of a synchronous motor
c) The speed of an induction motor at no load
d) None of these
Ans a
39 The starting torque of an indication motor is maximum when

a) Rotor resistance equals rotor reactance
b) Rotor resistance is twice the rotor reactance
c) Rotor resistance is half the rotor reactance
d) Rotor resistance is R2 times the rotor reactance
Ans a
40 Three-phase induction motor is mainly suitable for which of the following application
a) For running different machine tools where several speeds are required
b) For running paper machine requiring exact speed control
c) For running electric vehicles
d) For running rolling mills needing exact speed control
Ans a
41 With increase of load, the speed of induction motor operating in the stable region
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Increases and then becomes constant
Ans b
42 In a synchronous machine, the phase sequence can be reversed by reversing the

a) Rotor direction
b) Field polarities
c) Armature terminal
d) Rotor direction and armature terminal
a
Explanation: In synchronous generator, the phase sequence is governed by the direction of rotation of the rotor and in a sy
43 In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. Eb depends on

A.Speed of the motor
B.Load of the motor
C.Both the speed and rotor flux
D.D.C. excitation only
Ans D
44 The maximum value of torque angle a in a synchronous motor is ........... degrees electrical
A.45
B.90
C.Between 45 and 90
D.Below 60
Ans B
45 If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
A.Lagging
B.Leading
C.Unity
D.More than unity
Ans A
46 The V-curves of a synchronous motor show relationship between

A.Excitation current and back e.m.f
B.Field current and p.f.
C.D.C. field current and A.C. armature current
D.Armature current and supply voltage
Ans C
47 The effect of increasing load on a synchronous motor running with normal excitation is to
A.Increase both its Ia and p.f.
B.Decrease Ia but increase p.f.
C.Increase Ia but decrease p.f.
D.Decrease both its Ia and p.f.
Ans C
48 When load on a synchronous motor running with normal excitation is increased, armature current drawn by it increases be c
A.Back e.m.f. Eb becomes less than applied voltage V
B.Power factor is decreased
C.Net resultant voltage ER in armature is increased
D.Motor speed is reduced
Ans c
49 A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to load increases essentially by increase in its
A.Power factor
B.Torque angle
C.Back e.m.f.
D.Armature current
Ans D
50 Synchronous motor always runs at

A.The synchronous speed
B.Less than synchronous speed
C.More than synchronous speed
D.None of the above
Ans A
1 In RL Circuit R=10 ohm and L=5H . What is Time constant
a) 0.5
b) 0.3
c) 0
d) 1.1
2 Capacitor and Inductor are
a) Storage element
b) Circuit element
c) Amplifier
d) oscillator
3 The current in the R-L circuit at a time t = 0+ is?
a) V/R
b) R
c) V
d) R/V
4 The expression of current in R-C circuit is?

a) i=(V/R)exp(t/RC)
b) i=(V/R)exp(-t/RC)
c) i=(V/R)-exp(t/RC)
d) i=(V/R)-exp(-t/RC)
5 In an R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the response

a) do not vary with
time
b) decays with time
c) rises with time
d) first increases and then decreases
6 The time constant of an R-C circuit

is?
a) RC
b) C/R
c) RC
d) C
7 Determine the voltage across the capacitor in the circuit shown below
is?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) VC = 20(1-e-t)V
b) VC = 20(1+et)V
c) VC = 20(1-et)V
d) VC = 620(1+e-t)V
8 In RC series circuit R = 2Ω, C = 2μF and 10V dc is applied. Then what is

the val
a) 0A
b) 5A
c) 2A
d) 10A
9 Time constant of RL series circuit is
a) L/R
b) RL
c) r/L
d) L
10 In RL series circuit R=2Ω and L=2mH. What is the value of time

constant?
a) 2msec
b) 1msec
c) 4msec
d) 0msec
11) Which of the following is the different one in terms of time constant
measur
a) L/R
b) Q
c) 2L/R
d) RC
12) In series RLC circuit to get Q>1, which of the following is
required?
a) XL>R Q=XL/
R
b) XL<R
c) R>XL
d) XL
13) By which of the following elements transients will not

occur
a) R
b) L
c) C
d) RL
14) For steady state current inductor acts as

a) short
b) open
c) voltage
d) current
15) In RL series circuit R=2Ω and L=10mH and applied voltage is 10V DC.
Then fin
a) 5A
b) 2A
c) 3A
d) 0A
16) In steady state condition capacitor acts as a
a) Open circuit
b) short
c) voltag
e
d) current
17) Resistor stores the energy in the form of
a) Magnetic
b) electri
c
c) both magnetic and electric
18) What is meant by the rate of flow of an electric charge?
a) electric current
b) electric potential
c) resistor
d) none of these
19) In series RLC circuit Critical resistance is denoted

by
a) Rc=2√(L/C)
b) Rc=2(L/C)
c) Rc=2√(L)
d) Rc=2√(C)
20) In series RLC circuit Damping Ratio is denoted by

a) ζ=R/2(√(C/L))
b) ζ=R(√(C/L))
c) ζ=2(√(C/L))
d) ζ=R/2(√(C))
21) Damping ratio is 1 for critically damped system
a) TRUE
b) FALS
E
c)
d)
22) Damping ratio is greater than 1 for overdamped system
a) TRUE
b) FALS
E
c)
d)
23) In series RLC circuit natural frequencies are measured in
a) Nepers/sec
b) sec/Nepers
c) sec/Nepers
d) Neper
s
24) There is no current through capacitor if voltage across it is not

changing thro
a) TRUE
b) FALS
E
c)
d)
25) What is true for capacitor?
a) There is no current through capacitor if voltage across it is

changing
b) There is no current through capacitor if voltage across it is not
chang
c) There is no current through capacitor if voltage across it is
doubled
NETWORK THEOREMS
Multiple choice Questions with Answers :-
1. Kirchhoff s current law states that

(a) net current flow at the junction is positive
(b) Algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
(c) no current can leave the junction without some current entering it.
(d) total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
Ans: b
2. According to Kirchhoff’s voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops

ande.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) determined by battery e.m.fs.
(d) zero
Ans: d
3. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to only

(a) junction in a network
(b) closed loops in a network
(c) electric circuits
(d) electronic circuits
Ans: a
4. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is related to

(a) Junction currents
(b) batterye.m.fs.
(c) IR drops
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
5. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having

(a) resistive elements
(b) passive elements
(c) non-linear elements
(d) linear bilateral elements
Ans: d
6. The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is

(a) reciprocity
(b) duality
(c) non-linearity
(d) linearity
Ans: d
7. Thevenin resistance Rth is found
(a) by removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances
(6) by short-circuiting the given two terminals
(c) between any two ‘open’ terminals
(d) between same open terminals as for Etk
Ans: d
8. An ideal voltage source should have

(a) large value of e.m.f.
(b) small value of e.m.f.
(c) zero source resistance
(d) infinite source resistance
Ans: c
9. For a voltage source

(a) terminal voltage is always lower than source e.m.f.
(b) terminal voltage cannot be higher than source e.m.f.
(c) the source e.m.f. and terminal voltage are equal
Ans: b
10. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is

necessary to know
(a) value of current through the resistor
(b) direction of current through the resistor
(c) value of resistor
(d) e.m.fs. in the circuit
Ans: b
11. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load
resistance is equal to the output resistance of the network as seen from
the terminals of the load”. The above statement is associated with
(a) Millman’s theorem
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem
Ans: d
12. “Any number of current sources in parallel may be replaced by a

single current source whose current is the algebraic sum of individual
source currents and source resistance is the parallel combination of
individual
source resistances”.
The above statement is associated withquestions/ 5/28
(a) Thevenin’s theorem
(b) Millman’s theorem
(c) Maximum power transfer theorem
Ans: b
13. If load resistance, RL = 175 ohms then maximum power transfer to the load is
for Vh = 25V is Pmax = __________
a) 0.8929W b) 0.4514W c) 10 W d) 1 W
14. If Vth =10 V, Isc + 0.625 A then for maximum power transfer the load RL=
______
a) 10 ohms b) 16 ohms c) 0.625 ohms d) 8 ohms
Ans: b
15. A capacitor is generally a

(a) bilateral and active component
(b) active, passive, linear and nonlinear component
(c) linear and bilateral component
(d) non-linear and active component
Ans: c
16. “In any network containing more than one sources of e.m.f. the
current in any branch is the algebraic sum of a number of individual
fictitious currents (the number being equal to the number of sources of
e.m.f.), each of which is due to separate action of each source of e.m.f.,
taken in order, when the remaining sources of e.m.f. are replaced by
conductors, the resistances of which are equal to the internal resistances
of the respective sources”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Thevenin’s theorem
(b) Norton’s theorem
Ans: c
17. Kirchhoff s law is applicable to

(a) passive networks only
(b) a.c. circuits only
(c) d.c. circuits only
(d) botha.c. as well d.c. circuits
Ans: d
18. Kirchhoff s law is not applicable to circuits with

(a) lumped parameters
(c) distributed parameters
(d) non-linear resistances
Ans: c
19. Kirchhoff s voltage law applies to circuits with

(a) nonlinear elements only
(b) linear elements only
(c) linear, non-linear, active and passive elements
(d) linear, non-linear, active, passive, time varying as wells as time-in-variant
elements
Ans: d
21. For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal resistance of the

source should be
(a) equal to the load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) more than the load resistance
Ans: b
24. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source

should be
(a) equal to load resistance
(c) greater than the load resistance
Ans: a
25. If the energy is supplied from a source, whose resistance is 1 ohm, to a

load of 100 ohms the source will be
(a) a voltage source
(b) a current source
(c) both of above
Ans: a
26. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is known as
(a) unilateral circuit
(b) bilateral circuit
(c) irreversible circuit
(d) reversible circuit
Ans: b
27. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current
path must be in
(a) series with each other
(b) parallel with each other
(c) series with the voltage source.’
(d) parallel with the voltage source
Ans: a
28. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes. The
circuit will be known as
(a) non-linear circuit
(b) linear circuit
(c) bilateral circuit
Ans: a
29. A non-linear network does not satisfy

(a) superposition condition
(b) homogeneity condition
(c) both homogeneity as well as superposition condition
(d) homogeneity, superposition and associative condition
Ans: c
30. An ideal voltage source has

(a) zero internal resistance
(b) open circuit voltage equal to the voltage on full load
(c) terminal voltage in proportion to current
(d) terminal voltage in proportion to load
Ans: a
32. The superposition theorem is applicable to
(a) linear, non-linear and time variant responses
(b) linear and non-linear resistors only
(c) linear responses only
Ans: c
34. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields

(a) equivalent current source and impedance in series
(6) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
(c) equivalent impedance
(d) equivalent current source
Ans: a
37. Between the branch voltages of a loop the Kirchhoff s voltage law imposes
(a) non-linear constraints
(b) linear constraints
(c) no constraints
Ans: b
38. A passive network is one which contains

(a) only variable resistances
(b) only some sources of e.m.f. in it
(c) only two sources of e.m.f. in it
(d) no source of e.m.f. in it
Ans: d
39. A terminal where three on more branches meet is known as

(a) node
(b) terminus
(c) combination
(d) anode
Ans: a
40. Which of the following is the passive element ?

(a) Capacitance
(b) Ideal current source
(c) Ideal voltage source
Ans: a
41. Which of the following is a bilateral element ?

(a) Constant current source
(b) Constant voltage source
(c) Capacitance
Ans: c
42. A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as

(a) branch
(b) loop
(c) circuit
(d) junction
Ans: b
43. A linear resistor having 0 < R < °o is a

(a) current controlled resistor
(6) voltage controlled resistor
(c) both current controlled and voltage controlled resistor
Ans: c
44. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will
be
(a) R/6
(b) fi?
(c) 2R
(d) 4R
Ans: b
45. A delta circuit has each element of value R/2. The equivalent elements of star
circuit with be
(a) R/2
(b) R/3
(c) 2R
(d) 3R
Ans: a
46. In Thevenin’s theorem, to find Z

(a) all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage
sources are open circuited
(b) all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent current
sources are short circuited
(c) all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
(d) all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all independent current
sources are open circuited
Ans: d
47. While calculating Rth in Thevenin’s theorem and Norton equivalent

(a) all independent sources are made dead
(b) only current sources are made dead
(c) only voltage sources are made dead
(d) all voltage and current sources are made dead
Ans: a
48. The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to
(a) the number of mesh
(b) the number of branches
(c) sum of the number of branches and chords
(d) sum of number of branches, chords and nodes
Ans: a
49. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
(a) sources, nodes and meshes
(b) sources and nodes
(c) sources
(d) nodes
Ans: c
50. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open circuit
hasthe characteristic of an open circuit.
(b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short circuit
hasthe characteristic of a short circuit
(c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open circuit
hasthe characteristic of an open circuit.
(d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short circuit
hasthe characteristic of resistor R.
Ans: a
51) Time variant voltage source is ____________ voltage source

a) AC b) DC c) dependent d) independent
Ans :a
52) Node having largest number of elements connected to it is called as ________

a) reference b) supernode c) ideal node d) mesh
Ans: a)
53)Mesh analysis is applicable only for ___________ network

a) Plannar b) Active c) Passive
Ans:a
54) In thevenins equivalent Rth=1.33 ohms ,Vth = 7.333V, and RL = 5 ohms then
current through load is _________
a) 1.16 A b) 2A c) 5.19 A
Ans: a
55)Following theorem is not used for calculation of power

a) Thevenin’s b) superposition c) Norton’s d) MPT
Ans: a)
56) In supermesh if a branch consist of ________________ then KVL cannot be

applied
a) Current source b) Voltage Source c) resistor d) Dependent source
Ans: a)
57) The dependent sources in superposition theorem are ____________

a) kept as it is b) in operative c) deleted d) redundant
Ans:a
58) While applying Thevenin’s theorem dependent sources are___________

a) open circuited
b) Short Circuited
c) retained as it is
d) replaced by internal impedances
Ans: c
59) Thevenin’s theorem is not applicable if load is ___________

a) resistive b) inductive c) capacitive d) dependent source
Ans: d)
60) Norton’s equivalent impedance is ____________ Thevenin’s equivalent

impedance
a) less than b) same as c) greater than d) not related to
Ans: b
Sr.No. Question Marks CO

In series RL circuit if inductor has a current iL = 2A at t = 0, find 1 2
61 iL(t) valid for t = 200 microsecond for L=50mH and R = 200 ohm
a) 898.7 mA b) 50 mA c) 100 mA d) zero
62 In series RL circuit determine current iR through resistor at t = 1ns 1 2

if iR(0) = 6A, for R=1Kohm and L=500nH
a) 0.8 mA b) 812 mA c)0.08 mA d) 80 mA
63 The time constant for series RC circuit is given by 1 2

a) C b) R/C c) C/R d) RC
64 There is no voltage across an _____________if the current through 1 2

it is not changing with time.
a) Inductor b) Capacitor c) Inductor and Capacitor d)
resistor
65 There is no current through a ______________ if the voltage across 1 2

it is not changing with time.
a) Inductor b) Capacitorc)Inductor and capacitor d) Resistor
66 For source free RL circuit, iL(t) for t>0 is 1 2

a) iL((0)e-(R/l)tb) e-(R/l)t c) iL((0)e-(I/R)t d) iL((0)e-
(Rl)
67 For source free RC circuit, Vc(t) for t>0 is 1 2

a) Vc(0)e-(RC)t b)Vc(0)e-(C/R)t c) e-(R/C)t d) Vc(0)e-
(t/RC)
68 For driven RL circuit iL(t) for t>0 is 1 2
a)(V/R)[(1-e-(R/L)t)]b) [(1-e-(R/L)t)] c)V[(1-e-(R/L)t)]d)
R[(1-e-(R/L)t)]
69 For driven RC circuit Vc(t) for t>0 is 1 2

a) V[(1-e-(t/RC))]b)[(1-e-(R/L)t)] c) V[(1-e-(R/L)t)]
d) R[(1-e-(R/L)t)][(1-e-(R/L)t)]
70 For the circuit shown, find the voltage labelled v at t = 200µs 1 2

a) V= 321.1mVb)V= 32.11mV c)V= 3mV d)V= 32.11V
71 In the circuit shown below the switch S has been in position ‘1’ for a 4 2
long time. It is thrown to position 2 at t=0. Find a) i(t) for t>0,
VL(0-), VL(0+) and di(0+)/dt
a) i(t)=[3-Ae-(4/3)t], t>0 , VL(0-)=0V , VL(0+ = 7.2V
and di(0+)/dt =2.4A/s
b) i(t)=[2-Ae-(4/3)t], t>0 , VL(0-)=0V , VL(0+ = 8.2V
c) i(t)=[1-Ae-(4/3)t], t>0 , VL(0-)=0V , VL(0+ = 7.2V
d) i(t)=[3-Ae-(4/3)t], t>0 , VL(0-)=2V , VL(0+ = 7.2V
72 In series RLC Circuit natural response is given by 1 2

a) Ѡn=(1/√LC) b)Ѡn=(1/√C) c) Ѡn=(1/√L) d)
Ѡn=(1/√2LC)

Laplace transform of exponential function e(-at) 1 3
73 a) 1/(s+a) b) 1/s c) 2s and d) 1/2s
74 which is/are correct network stability condition 1 3
a) poles must be simple and on left half of s plane
b) complex poles must be conjugate
c) no multiple poles on jw axis
d) zeros can be anywhere in s plane
e) All of the above
75 Condition for network function 1 3
a) positive real coefficients(poles in LHS)
b) degree difference N(s), D(s) at most 1( no multiple
poles)
c) no missing terms between N(s), D(s), can be even/odd
d) All of the above
76 Applications of parameters are 1 3
a) circuit analysis of two port network
b) small signal BJT amplifier: Transistor characterizing
using h parameter
c) cascade combination of two port network
d) find transfer function for given network
e) All of the above
77 For the network shown in Fig, the switch is closed at t = 0. Find the 1 3
current i1(t) for t > 0.
78 For the network shown in Fig, the switch is closed at t = 0. Find the 2 3
current i1(t) for t > 0.
a) 3-e(-25t) b) 2-e c) 3 d) 3-e
79 If the Laplace transform of the voltage across a capacitor of value 1 3
(1/2)F is Vc(s)=1/((s^2)+1) the value of the current through the
capacitor at t =0+
a)1/2 A b)0A c) 2A
80 The Laplace transform of a unit-ramp function starting at t = a is 1 3
a) e^(-as)/s^2 b) e^(-as)/s^22 c) e^s2 d) 3s
81 Two two-port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is 1 3
to be represented as a single two-port network. The parameters are
obtained by multiplying the individual
a) h parameter b) Y parameter c) ABCD Parameter d)
Z parameter
82 If a two-port network is passive, then we have, with the usual notation, 1 3
the following relationship for symmetrical network
a) h12 = h21 b) h12 =-h21 c) h11h22 - h12h21 =1 d)
h11h22 - h12h21 =1
83 The h parameters of the circuit shown in 2 3
84 A two-port network is defined by the following pair of equations I1 = 1 3

2V1 +V2 and I2 = V1 + V2.Its impedance parameters (Z11, Z12, Z21,
Z22)are given by
a) 1,-1,-1,2 b) 2,2,2,2 c) 3,1,2,1 d) 1,-1,-1,-1
85 The admittance parameter Y12 in the two-port network in Fig 2 3
a) -0.05 mho b) 0.05 mho c) 0.02 mho d) -0.02 mho
The speed of DC motor can be controlled by varying 1 4
86 a) Flux per pole b) Resistance of armature circuit c) applied
voltage d) all of the above
87 Lap winding is suitable for __ current,_____ voltage dc generators 1 4

a) High , low b) low, high c) high, high d) low, low
88 The normal value of armature resistance of a DC motor is 1 4
a) 0.005 ohm b) 0.5 ohm c)10 ohm d) 100 ohm
89 Armature windings in DC motor are 1 4
a) Wave and Lap winding b) starting and Main winding c) Wave
and Main winding
90 EMF equation of generator is 1 4
a) Eg=PNZφ/60A b) Eg=PNZ2φ/60A c)Eg=PNZφ/120A
91 In permanent magnet DC motor field winding is present 1 4
a) True b) False
92 Which of the following rule is used to determine the direction of 1 4
rotation of motor
a) Lenz’s Law b) Coloumb’s Law c) Fleming’s Left hand rule d)
Fleming’s Right hand rule
93 Which of the following number of poles in DC motor will give high 1 4
speed
a) 2 poles b) 4 poles c) 8 poles
94 3 point starter does not limits the high starting current into the 1 4
armature by having the resistance high at the time of starting and
reducing it during the running conditions.
a) True b) False
95 DC series motor is used in which of the following application 1 4
a) Electric traction b) Cranes c) Elevators d) all of the above
96 In DC machine torque is inversely proportional to flux 1 4
a) True b) False
97 The shaft torque of a DC motor is less than its armature torque 1 4
a) True b) False
98 If the pole flux of a DC motor approaches zero, its speed will 1 4
a) Approach infinity b) approach zero c) No change
99 The Eb/V ratio of a DC motor is indication of its 1 4
a) Efficiency b) Speed Regulation c) Starting Torque d) Running
Torque
100 _________ system has the outstanding merit of giving wide speed 1 4
control from maximum in one direction through zero to the maximum
in the opposite direction and of giving a smooth acceleration
a) Ward Leonard b) Fleming’s rule c) Lenz’s Law

The starting winding of a single phase motor is placed in the 1 5
101 a) Rotor b) Stator c) Armature d) Field
102 Speed of 3 phase induction motor can be controlled by 2 5
a) V/F control b) Supply voltage c) Rotor Resistance control d)
all of the above
103 Induced voltage in 3 phase induction motor is given by 1 5
a) V= 4.44KTfφ b) V= 4.44K2Tfφ c) 6.66kT
104 After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is 1 5
disconnected from supply, it continues to run only on
_________ winding
a) Running b) Rotor c) field d) Compensating
105 Single phase shaded pole induction motor works on 1 5
a) Lenz’s Law b) Fleming’s rule c) Faraday’s LAw
106 A permanent split single phase capacitor motor does not 1 5
have
a) Centrifugal switch b) Starting winding c) squirrel cage
rotor d)high power factor
107 Modes of operation in 3 phase induction motor 1 5
a) Motoring b) braking c) Generating d) all of the above
108 In 3 phase IM if 2 pole pairs are present on stator , then how 1 5
many cycles are needed to complete one rotation for motor
a) 2 b) 3 c) 0 d) 4
109 3 phase IM works in motoring mode when Slip is between 1 5
a) 0 to 1 b) greater than 1 c) Less than 1 d) none of the above
110 By increasing rotor resistance in 3 phase IM, efficiency of 1 5
motor__________
a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change
111 For 4 pole 3 phase induction motor, calculate the frequency of 2 5
rotor current when motor is running at 500 rpm in same
direction as field
a) 33.33 Hz b) 66.66Hz c)-12Hz
112 2 pole induction motor is excited by 3 phase , 60 Hz source. The 2 5
full load rpm is 1140. Calculate Slip
a) 0.683 b) 0 c) 1 d) 0.15

Driver circuit used in Bipolar brushless DC motor 1 6
113 a) 3 phase VSI b) H Bridge Inverter c) 3 phase full converter
114 Which of the following phase switching sequence represents half step 2 6
operation of variable reluctance motor
a) A,B,C,D b) A, AB, B, BC c)
115 Brushless DC motor is also called as 1 6
a) Synchronous motor b) asynchronous motor c) Stepper
motor
116 A three stack VR stepper motor has a step angle of 10 degree. what is 1 6
the number of rotor teeth in each stack
a) 36 b) 12 c) 2 d) 4
117 A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 1 6
2400 rpm has a pulse rate of _______ pps
a) 4000 b) 8000 c) 6000 d) 10,000
118 BLDC motor experiences 'Slip' 1 6
a) True b) False
119 In BLDC motor higher the number the poles ,higher the torque and 1 6
higher speed
a) True b) False
120 Brushless motors are more efficient as its velocity is determined by the 1 6
frequency at which current is supplied, not the __________
a) Current b) Voltage
121 The Hall sensor create very ___________ level changes in voltage in 1 6
proportion to a local magnetic field
a) Low b) High c)Zero
122 Hall Sensors detect magnetic fields, and can be used to sense 1 6
____________
a) Rotor angle b) Stator angle c) brush angle
123 In BLDC motor the _____________ is the voltage generated in stator 1 6
windings as the rotor moves
a) Back EMF b) step angle c) zero angle
124 BLDC motor has _______ rotor inertia because it has permanent magnet 1 6
on rotor
a) High b) low c) medium
125 In Electric vehicle___________ unit manages the flow of electrical 1 6
energy delivered by the traction battery, controlling the speed of the
electric traction motor and the torque it produces
a) Power Electronic Converter b) On board charger c) battery
126 In Electric vehicle _____________takes the incoming AC electricity 1 6
supplied via the charge port and converts it to DC power for charging
the traction battery
a) Power Electronic Converter b) On board charger c) charging
port
127 DC/DC Converters are called as ___________ 1 6
a) Chopper b) Rectifier c) Converter
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S

Answer: b
immediately.
a) i1=i2=i3=i4=i5
b) i1+i4+i3=i5+i2
c) i1-i5=i2-i3-i4
d) i1+i5=i2+i3+i4
Answer: d
a) Infinity
b) 1
c) 0
Answer: c
Prepared By
a) 4.275v
b) -4.275v
c) 4.527v
d) -4.527v
Answer: b
Explanation:
I1 = 3/3+5 = 3/8 = 0.375Ω

I2 = 4/5 = 0.8Ω
Vxy = vx – vy
Vx + 5I1 + 4 – 2I2 – vy = 0
Vx – vy = 2I2 – 4 – 5I1 = -4.275Ω
5. Find R
Prepared By
a) 17.5 Ω
b) 17.2 Ω
c) 17.4 Ω
d) 17.8 Ω
Answer: a
Explanation:
KVL: 70 – 5I – 7(I – 2) = 0
I = 7A
KVL to 2nd loop: 7(I – 2) – 2R = 0
R=17.5Ω
a) -3.3A, -8.5A, 2.4A

b) 3A, -8A, 2A
c) 3.3A, 8.5A, -2.4A
d) 3.2A, 8.6A, 2.3A
Answer: c
Explanation:
I1 = I1 – I2 + 8 + I3 + 3
Prepared By
I2 – I3 = 11 -> 1
And -11 I1 – 7(I1 – I2) = 0
-18 I1 + 7 I2 = 0 -> 2
And -11 I1 – 15 I3 =0 -> 3
Solving I1 = 3.32A I2 = 8.5A I3 = -2.4A.

a) Loops, Meshes
b) Meshes, loops
c) Branches, loops
d) Nodes, Branches
Answer: b
8. Solve for I.
Solve for I.
a) -0.5A
b) 0.5A
c) -0.2A
d) 0.2A
Answer: a

Req = 5 + 2 + 3 = 10Ω
I = V/R = -5/10 = -0.5A.

b) Newtons laws
Prepared By
d) Faradays laws
Answer: c
______________
a) Node
b) Branch
c) Loop
d) Mesh
Answer: a

Answer: d
analysis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: c
Prepared By
a) KCL
b) KVL
Answer: a
a) A node
b) A mesh
c) A branch
d) A super mesh
Answer: b
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) 3
b) 3.25
c) 3.5
d) 3.75
Answer: d
a) open circuited
b) short circuited
Answer: b
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Answer: b
Prepared By
is 2.22 + 2.78 = 5A.
and B.
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 9
d) 9.5
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
a) greater than
b) less than
c) equal to
Answer: c
and ac circuits.
a) equal to
b) negative of
Answer: c
Prepared By
a) 2A
b) 1A
c) 3A
d) 0.5A
Answer: c

a) loops
b) nodes
Answer: b
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S

Answer: d

a) 0A
b) 1A
c) 2A
d) 3A
Answer: c
response?
b) Decays with time
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) 0A
b) 10A
c) 20A
d) 30A
Answer: a
a) 0V
b) 20V
c) 60V
d) 58V
Answer: c
Prepared By
a) i=2(e-2t) A
b) i=2(1-e-2t)A
c) i=2(e2t)A
d) i=2(1+e-2t)A
Answer: b

60-30i-15di/dt =0
i=2(1-e-2t) A
a) V=60e-0.5t
b) V=30e-0.5t
c) V=60e-2t
d) V=30e-2t
Answer: c
Prepared By
60-30i-15di/dt = 0
i=2(1-e-2t)A
di/dt = 4e-2t
V=Ldi/dt=15*4e--2t=60e-2t.

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
Answer: a
circuit.
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Resistor
d) Capacitor
Answer: a
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
Answer: c

a) V/R
b) R/V
c) V
d) R
Answer: a
Prepared By
b) decays with time
c) rises with time
Answer: b

a) RC
b) R/C
c) R
d) C
Answer: a
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) L/R
b) R/L
c) R
d) L
Answer: a
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
Prepared By
Answer: a
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S

a) active ports
b) passive ports
c) one port
d) three port
Answer: b

a) three port
b) one port
c) passive ports
d) active ports
Answer: d
a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Answer: a
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Answer: c
Prepared By

a) V1 = Z11 V1 + Z12 I2
b) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 V2
c) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
d) V2 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
Answer: c

a) V2 = Z21I2 + Z22 I2
b) V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
c) V1 = Z21I2 + Z22 I2
d) V1 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
Answer: b
Z21, Z22 is V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2.
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 2.5
Answer: d
(6×2)/(6+2)=2.5Ω. So, Z11 = 2.5Ω.

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Prepared By
Answer: b
I1/4. And V2 = (I1/4) x 4 = I1. So, Z21 = 1Ω.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: c
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c

a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Answer: b
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Answer: d
Prepared By
a) I1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
b) I1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
c) V1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
d) V1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
Answer: a
a) I2 = Y21I1 + Y22 I2
b) V2 = Y21I1 + Y22 V2
c) I2 = Y21V1 + Y22 V2
d) I2 = Y21V1 + Y22 I2
Answer: c

Answer: b
a) 2
b) 3/2
c) 1
d) 1/2
Answer: d
Prepared By
a) -1/4
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) -1/2
Answer: a
a) 3/8
b) 5/8
c) 7/8
d) 9/8
Answer: b
a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) -1/4
d) 1/4
Answer: c
We know
a) I1=0.5(V1) + 0.25(V2)
b) I1=0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2)
c) I1=-0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2)
d) I1=0.5(V1) - 0.25(V2)
Answer: d
I1=0.5(V1)-0.25(V2) and I2=-0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2).
Prepared By
a) 6/5
b) 5/6
c) 3/4
d) 4/3
Answer: a
get A = V1/V2=6/5.
a) 4/5
b) 3/5
c) 2/5
d) 1/5
Answer: d
a) 15/5
b) 17/5
c) 19/5
d) 21/5
Answer: b
a) 1/5
b) 3/5
c) 7/5
d) 9/5
Answer: c
Prepared By
Answer: a

Answer: c
gain.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
a) 1
b) -1
c) 1/2
d) -1/2
Answer: d
1/2.
Prepared By
a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) 1
d) -1
Answer: a
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1/2
d) 3/2
Answer: c
a) 15 Ω
b) 20 Ω
c) 30 Ω
d) 25 Ω
Answer: a
V1 = I1 ((10||10) + 10)
= I1 ((10×1010+10)+10)
= 15I1
Prepared By
∴ V1I1 = 15.
Hence h11 = 15 Ω.
a) 0.6 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.3 Ω
d) 0.2 Ω
Answer: b
-10 I2 – (I2 – I1)10 = 0
Or, -I2 = I2 – I1
Or, -2I2 = -I1
∴ I2I1=12
Hence h21 = 0.5 Ω.
a) 6 Ω
b) 5 Ω
c) 1 Ω
d) 2 Ω
Prepared By
Answer: c
V1 = IA × 10
IA = I22
V2 = IB × 10
IB = I22
∴ V1V2=I2×10I2×10 = 1
Hence h12 = 1 Ω.
a) 0.2 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.1 Ω
d) 0.3 Ω
Answer: a
V1 = IA × 10
IA = I22
V2 = IB × 10
IB = I22
∴ I2V2=I2×2I2×10 = 0.2
Hence h22 = 0.2 Ω.
Prepared By
a) 10 Ω
b) 7.5 Ω
c) 5 Ω
d) 2.5 Ω
Answer: b
V1 = I1 ((5 || 5) + 5)
= I1 ((5×55+5)+5)
= 7.5I1
∴ V1I1 = 7.5
Hence h11 = 7.5 Ω.
a) 10 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 5 Ω
d) 2.5 Ω
Answer: b
-5 I2 – (I2 – I1)5 = 0
Prepared By
Or, -I2 = I2 – I1
Or, -2I2 = -I1
∴ I2I1=12
Hence h21 = 0.5 Ω.
a) 6 Ω
b) 5 Ω
c) 1 Ω
d) 2 Ω
Answer: c
V1 = IA × 5
V2 = IA × 5
∴ V1V2=IA×10IA×10 = 1
Hence h12 = 1 Ω.
a) 0.2 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.1 Ω
d) 0.3 Ω
Prepared By
Answer: a
V1 = IA × 5
V2 = IA × 5
IA = I2
∴ I2V2=I2I2×5 = 0.2
Hence h22 = 0.2 Ω.

Answer: a

Answer: b

Answer: c

Prepared By
Answer: d
a) y11 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y11 = h21h11
c) y11 = –h12h11
d) y11 = 1h11
Answer: d
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
a) y12 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y12 = h21h11
c) y12 = –h12h11
d) y12 = 1h11
Answer: c
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
Prepared By
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
a) y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y22 = h21h11
c) y22 = –h12h11
d) y22 = 1h11
Answer: a
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
Answer: a
and zeros.

a) G
Prepared By
b) H
c) I
d) J
Answer: b
bo.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: d

a) x
b) y
c) z
d) w
Answer: a
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) ∞
Answer: c
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
Prepared By
Answer: a
or ________ zeros.
a) simple, multiple
b) multiple, simple
c) simple, simple
Answer: c
________ zeros.
b) simple, simple
c) multiple, simple
d) simple, multiple
Answer: a
the s-plane.
a) n
b) m
c) n-m
d) n+m
Answer: c
a) m+n
b) m-n
c) m
d) n
Prepared By
Answer: b
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S

a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Absent
Answer: a

a) Iron
b) Carbon
c) Aluminum
d) Steel
Answer: b

b) Low coercivity
Answer: c
should be high.
Prepared By
a) Faraday’s law
b) Lenz’s law
c) Coulomb’s law
Answer: d

________________
a) Torque
b) Speed
Answer: a
a) All motors
b) Induction motor
d) DC motor
Answer: d

a) magnetic field
Prepared By
Answer: d

a) At low speeds
d) Cannot say
Answer: a
c) Air motor
Answer: d

Prepared By
d) Everywhere
Answer: b

a) DC shunt motors
Answer: d
characteristics.
a) Remain unchanged
d) Be doubled
Answer: a

a) Commutation
b) Heating
d) Stability
Prepared By
Answer: a
a)V = Eb + IaRa
b)Eb = V + IaRa
c) V = Eb /IaRa
d)V = Eb + Ia2Ra
Answer: A
a)Series motor
b)Shunt motor
d)All of the above
Answer:B
Answer:B

Prepared By
a)direction of flux

generated e.m.f.
Answer:C
a)hard copper
b)soft copper
c)carbon
d)all of above
Answer:C
Answer:B
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S
a) Slip frequency
b) Supply frequency
d) Zero
Answer: a
to slip frequency.

a) Aluminum
b) Silicon steel
c) Cast iron
d) Stainless steel
Prepared By
Answer: c

stator and rotor.

__________
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
Answer: a

Nr÷Ns = 750 – 720÷750 = .04. F2=sf=.04×50=2 Hz.

synchronous speed.
Prepared By
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

cutting.

a) Zero
b) Ns
c) 2Ns
d) -Ns
Answer: a


120𝑥𝑓
A𝑁𝑠 = .
𝑃
120𝑥𝑃
B.𝑁𝑠 =
𝑓
Prepared By
𝑃𝑥𝑓
C.𝑁𝑠 =
120
D.none of the above

Ans:A

A. steady
B. rotating
C. alternating
D. pulsating
Ans:B

D.none
Ans:C

A.rotor winding
B.stator winding
C.shaft
D.brush
Prepared By
Ans:B
A.slot insulator
B.Epoxy coating
C.1or 2
D.none
Ans:B
Ans:A
motor will increase
A.power factor
B.speed
Prepared By
D.air-gap flux
Ans:C

A.s2.f
B.f2.s
C.s/f
D.s.f
Ans:D

start
A.line voltage
B.line current
C.torque
D.power
Ans:B
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S
a) Stator
b) Rotor
d) Absent
Answer: b
a) Less maintenance
b) Long life
Prepared By
d) Low cost
Answer: d
and many more.
a) PMDC
b) BLDC
c) Brushed DC motor
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) Commutator
b) Permanent magnet
d) Fixed armature
Answer: a
turning.
Prepared By
BLDC motor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
field.
a) Paramagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) Non-magnetic
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Analogue
d) Incremental
Answer: d
Prepared By
c) Sodium batteries
Answer: b
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
a.Plug-in Hybrid
b.Parallel Hybrid

Prepared By
d. Series Hybrid
Answer: c
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits &Machines
UNIT I:Basic circuit Analysis and Simplification Techniques
MCQ’S
1. Find the node voltage VA.
A 6V
B. 12 V
C. 4.25 V
D. 3V
Ans: C
2. What is the current through R2?

A. 3.19 A
B. 319 mA
C. 1.73 A
D. 173 mA
Ans: D
3. Find branch current IR2.
A. 5.4 mA
B. –5.4 mA
C. 130.4 mA
D. 119.6 mA
Ans: C
4. Find the node voltage V A.
A. 518 mV
B. 5.18 V
C. 9.56 V
D. 956 mV
Ans: B
5. Find I 2.
4I1 + 4I2 = 2
6I1 + 7I2 = 4
A. 1A
B. –1 A
C. 100 mA
D. –100 mA
Ans: A
6. What is the voltage drop across R1?

A. 850 mV
B. 8.5 V
C. 9.18 V
D. 918 mV
Ans: B
A. 3.5 V
B. 4.18 V
C. 1.5 V
D. 145 mV
Ans: B
8. In assigning the direction of branch currents,
A. the directions are critical
B. the directions are not critical
C. they must point into a node
D. they must point out of a node
Ans: B
9. Referring to Problem 10, find branch current IR3.
A. 5.4 mA
B. –5.4 mA
C. 67.8 mA
D. –67.8 mA
Ans: B
10. Find I 1.
4I1 + 4I2 = 2
6I1 + 7I2 = 4
A. 0.5 A
B. 50 mA
C. –0.5 A
D. –50 mA
Ans: C
11. Using the mesh current method, find the branch current, IR1, in the above figure.
A. 125 mA
B. 12.5 mA
C. 12.5 A
D. 135 mA
Ans: A
12. What is the current through R2?
A. 177 mA
B. 250 mA
C. 500 mA
D. 125 mA
Ans: A
13. The first row of a certain determinant has the numbers 3 and 5. The second row has the
numbers 7 and 2. The value of this determinant is
A. 31 B. –31
C. 39 D. –29
Ans: D
14. The first row of a certain determinant has the numbers 10 and 6. The second row has
the numbers 3 and 5. The value of this determinant is
A. 18 B. 50
C. 32 D. –32
Ans: C
A. 112 mV
B. 11.25 V
C. 486 mV
D. 4.86 V
Ans: C
16. The expansion method for evaluating determinants is
A. better than any other method
B. good for only one determinant
C. more flexible than the cofactor method
D. good for second- and third-order determinants
Ans: D
17. The branch current method uses
A. Kirchhoff's voltage and current laws
B. Thevenin's theorem and Ohm's law
C. Kirchhoff's current law and Ohm's law
D. the superposition theorem and Thevenin's theorem
Ans: A
18. Generally, the mesh current method results in fewer equations than the node voltage
method.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
19. Third-order determinants are evaluated by the expansion method or by the cofactor method.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
20. Second-order determinants are evaluated by subtracting the signed cross-products.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
21. The mesh method can be applied to circuits with any number of loops.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
22. The node voltage method is based on Kirchhoff's voltage law.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
23. A loop current is an actual current in a branch.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
24. The mesh current method is based on Kirchhoff's current law.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
25. The branch current method is based on Kirchhoff's voltage law and Kirchhoff's current law.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
26. When assigning branch currents, you need not be concerned with the direction you choose.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
27. Find RN for the circuit given.
A. 34
B. 68
C. 120
D. 154
Ans: D
28. Referring to circuit given, if R1 is changed to a 68 resistor, what will be the current
through it?
A. 0.16 A
B. 0.24 A
C. 0.2 A
D. 0.04 A
Ans: A
29. Find the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and R TH) between terminals A and B of the circuit
given.
A. 562 mV, 167

B. 5.62 V, 167
C. 5.62 V, 188
D. 562 mV, 188
Ans: B
30. Referring to the given circuit, determine VTH and RTH if a 68 resistor is connected in
parallel across R2 and R3.
A. 3.3 V, 148
B. 330 mV, 148
C. 3.3 V, 68
D. 330 mV, 68
Ans: A
31. A 12 mA current source has an internal resistance, R S, of 1.2 k . The equivalent voltage
source is
A. 144 V
B. 14.4 V
C. 7.2 V
D. 72 mV
Ans: B
32. An 18 V source has an internal resistance of 70 . If a load resistance of 33 is connected
to the voltage source, the load power, PL, is
A. 0W
B. 1W
C. 175 mW
D. 18 mW
Ans: B
33. A certain voltage source has the values VS = 30 V and RS = 6 . The values for an
equivalent current source are
A. 5 A, 6
B. 30 A, 6
C. 5 A, 30
D. 30 A, 5
Ans: A
34. A 120 load is connected across an ideal voltage source with VS = 12 V. The voltage
across the load
A. is 0 V
B. is 12 V
C. is 120 V
D. cannot be determined
Ans: B
35. Find the Norton circuit, that is, I IN and RN, for the circuit given below.
A. 478 mA, 12.8
B. 750 mA, 12.8
C. 478 mA, 6.8

D. 750 mA, 6.8
Ans: A
36. A 120 load is connected across a voltage source with VS = 12 V and RS = 8 . The
voltage across the load is
A. 11.25 V
B. 0V
C. 12 V
D. 1.13 V
Ans: A
37. What is the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and RTH ) for the circuit given?
A. 6.4 V, 422
B. 6.4 V, 560
C. 6.4 V, 680
D. 30 V, 422
Ans: A
38. Referring to the given circuit, the voltage and current for the load resistor, RL, is
A. 450 mV, 4.5 mA
B. 4.50 V, 45 mA
C. 4.50 V, 4.5 mA
D. 450 mV, 45 mA
Ans: C
39. Find the current in R2 of the given circuit, using the superposition theorem.
A. 16.7 mA
B. 33.3 mA
C. 50 mA
D. 16.6 mA
Ans: C
40. A 470 RL is connected across a voltage source, VS, of 120 V. The source's internal
resistance, RS, is 12 . What is the output voltage across the load?
A. 120 V
B. 0V
C. 117 V
D. 12 V
Ans: C
41. A 2 RL is connected across a voltage source, VS, of 110 V. The source's internal
resistance is 24 . What is the output voltage across the load?
A. 8.5 V
B. 85 V
C. 0V
D. 110 V Ans:A
42. Determine I N for the circuit consisting of VS, R1, R2, and R3 shown in the given circuit.
A. 676 mA
B. 245 mA
C. 431 mA
D. 75 mA
Ans: B
43. A 120 V voltage source has a source resistance, RS, of 60 . The equivalent current source
is
A. 2A
B. 4A
C. 200 mA
D. 400 mA
Ans: A
44. A 12 V source has an internal resistance of 90 . If a load resistance of 20 is connected

to the voltage source, the load power, PL, is
A. 2.38 mW
B. 2.38 W
C. 238 mW
D. 23.8 W
Ans: C
45. In a two-source circuit, one source acting alone produces 12 mA through a given branch.
The other source acting alone produces 10 mA in the opposite direction through the same
branch. The actual current through the branch is
A. 22 mA
B. 12 mA
C. 10 mA
D. 2 mA
Ans: D
46. Find the current through R1 in the given circuit.
A. 0.16 A
B. 0.24 A
C. 0.2 A
D. 0.04 A
Ans: A
47. Find the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and R TH) between terminals A and B of the circuit given
below.
A. 4.16 V, 120
B. 41.6 V, 120
C. 4.16 V, 70
D. 41.67 V, 70
Ans: D
48. A certain current source has the values I S = 4 µA and RS = 1.2 M . The values for an
equivalent voltage source are
A. 4.8 V, 1.2 M
B. 1 V, 1.2 M
C. 4.8 V, 4.8 M
D. 4.8 V, 1.2 M
Ans: D
49. Find the total current through R3 in the given circuit.
A. 7.3 mA
B. 5.5 mA
C. 12.8 mA
D. 1.8 mA
Ans: D
50. A 680 load resistor, RL, is connected across a constant current source of 1.2 A. The
internal source resistance, RS, is 12 k . The load current, RL, is
A. 0A
B. 1.2 A
C. 114 mA
D. 1.14 A
Ans: D
51. Find the current through R2 of the given circuit.
A. 30.7 mA
B. 104 mA
C. 74 mA
D. 134 mA
Ans: D
52. Some circuits require more than one voltage or current source.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
53. An ideal voltage source has zero internal resistance.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
54. A practical current source has a finite internal resistance.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
55. Norton's equivalent current (I N) is an open-circuit current between two points in a circuit.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
56. A practical voltage source has a nonzero internal resistance.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
57. You cannot convert a voltage source to an equivalent current source, or vice versa.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
58. An ideal current source has zero internal resistance.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
59. The Thevenin equivalent voltage (VTH) is the short-circuit voltage between two terminals in
a circuit.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
60. Transistors act basically as voltage sources.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
61. Conversions between delta-type and wye-type circuit arrangements are useful in certain
specialized applications.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
1. Determine VTH when R1 is 180 and XL is 90 .
A. 135 63.4° V
B. 13.5 63.4° V
C. 12.2 0° V
D. 122 0° V
Ans: B
62. For the given circuit, find V TH for the circuit external to RL.
A. 4.69 51.3° V
B. 4.69 38.7° V
C. 469 38.7° mV
D. 6 0° V
Ans: B
63. Referring to the given circuit, find ZTH if R is 15 k and RL is 38 k .
A. 89.82 –51.3° k
B. 19.2 –38.3° k
C. 9.38 –51.3° k
D. 180 –38.3° k
Ans: C
64. For the circuit shown, determine ZTH for the portion of the circuit external to RL.
A. 66.7 –33.7° k
B. 6.67 –333.7° k
C. 14.4 –56.3° k
D. 1.44 –33.7° k
Ans: B
65. Referring to the given circuit, what is Z TH if R1 is changed to 220 ?
A. 225 12.1°
B. 225 77.9°
C. 46 77.9°
D. 46 12.1°
Ans: C
66. Determine VTH for the circuit external to RL in the given figure.
A. 135 63.4° V
B. 13.5 63.4° V
C. 13.5 0° V
D. 135 0° V
Ans: B
67. Referring to the given figure, determine Z TH as seen by RL if R1 is changed to 3.3 k .

A. 1488 –70.7°
B. 3859 –31.2°
C. 5180 –50.5°
D. 1828 –50.2°
Ans: D
68. The two basic components of a Thevenin equivalent ac circuit are
A. the equivalent voltage source and the equivalent series impedance
B. the equivalent voltage source and the equivalent series resistance
C. the equivalent voltage source and the equivalent parallel impedance
D. the equivalent voltage source and the equivalent parallel resistance
Ans: A
69. Referring to the given circuit, find ZTH if VS is 18 0° V.

A. 9.82 –51.3° k
B. 9.38 –51.3° k
C. 180 –38.3° k
D. 19.2 –38.3° k
Ans: B
70. In applying the superposition theorem,
the sources are considered one at a time with all others replaced by their internal
A.
impedance
B. all sources are considered independently
C. all sources are considered simultaneously
Ans: A
71. If two currents are in the same direction at any instant of time in a given branch of a circuit,
the net current at that instant
A. is zero
B. is the sum of the two currents
C. is the difference between the two currents
D. cannot be determined
Ans: B
72. The Thevenin equivalent voltage is
A. equal to the source voltage
B. the same as the load voltage
C. the open circuit voltage
D. none of the above
Ans: C
73. Referring to the given circuit, L
A. must be in parallel with RL
B. must be placed in parallel with VS
C. must have a reactance equal to XC
D. has no effect on the result

Ans: D
74. Referring to the given circuit, find ZTH for the part of the circuit that is external to RL.
A. 129 21.4°
B. 43.7 68.6°
C. 43.7 21.4°
D. 12.9 68.6°
Ans: B
75. In order to get maximum power transfer from a capacitive source, the load must
A. have a capacitive reactance equal to circuit resistance
B. have an impedance that is the complex conjugate of the source impedance
C. be as capacitive as it is inductive

Ans: B
76. Referring to the given circuit, determine Z TH as seen by RL.
A. 1444 –48.5°
B. 4176 –73.3°
C. 956 –48.5°
D. 1444 –73.3°
Ans: A
77. Referring to the given circuit, how much power, in watts, is delivered to the speaker at the
determined frequency if VS = 4.5 VRMS?
A. 226 mW
B. 2.26 mW
C. 4.24 mW
D. 424 mW
Ans: D
78. The Norton equivalent current is
A. the current through the load
B. the open-current from the source

C. the short circuit current
Ans: C
79. Determine VTH if R1 is changed to 3.3 k .
A. 0.574 16.7° V
B. 4.63 16.7° V
C. 4.63 39.5° V
D. 0.463 39.5° V
Ans: C
80. Referring to the given circuit, what is VTH if VS = 12 0° V?

A. 4.69 38.7° V
B. 9.38 38.7° V
C. 12 0° V
D. 6 0° V
Ans: B
81. For the circuit given, determine the Thevenin voltage as seen by RL.
A. 0.574 16.7° V
B. 5.74 16.7° V
C. 0.574 –16.7° V
D. 5.74 –16.7° V
Ans: D
82. Determine the frequency at which the maximum power is transferred from the amplifier to
the speaker in the given figure.
A. 1,027 Hz
B. 10,270 Hz
C. 6,330 Hz
D. 63,330 Hz
Ans: A
83. Norton's theorem gives
A. an equivalent current source in parallel with an equivalent impedance
B. an equivalent current source in series with an equivalent impedance
C. an equivalent voltage source in parallel with an equivalent impedance
D. an equivalent voltage source in series with an equivalent impedance
Ans: A
1. One circuit is equivalent to another, in the context of Thevenin's theorem, when the circuits
produce the same voltage.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
84. Norton's theorem provides a method for the reduction of any ac circuit to an equivalent form
consisting of an equivalent voltage source in series with an equivalent impedance.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
85. A Thevenin ac equivalent circuit always consists of an equivalent ac voltage source and an
equivalent capacitance.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
86. The superposition theorem is useful for circuit analysis only in ac circuits.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
87. An equivalent circuit is one that produces the same voltage and current to a given load as
the original circuit that it replaces.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
88. In an ac circuit, power to the load peaks at the frequency at which the load impedance is the
complex conjugate of the output impedance.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
89. In order to get maximum power transfer from a capacitive source, the load must have an
impedance that is the complex conjugate of the source impedance.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
90. Thevenin's theorem provides a method for the reduction of any ac circuit to an equivalent
form consisting of an equivalent current source in parallel with an equivalent impedance.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
91. The superposition theorem is useful for the analysis of single-source circuits.
A. True B. False
Ans: B
92. Like Thevenin's theorem, Norton's theorem provides a method of reducing a more complex
circuit to a simpler, more manageable form for analysis.
A. True B. False
Ans: A
96. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given Fig. The impedance across
terminal 1 - l' is
a) 1Ω
b) 13/11
c) 11/13
d) 2Ω
Ans:b
97. In the circuit shown, the power delivered by the dependent source is
a)0W
b)1W
c)2W
d)4W
Ans: a
98. The value of VI in the circuit shown in Fig. below is
a)5mW
b)9.23mW
c)5mW
d)1.07mW
Ans: b
99. In the network shown in Fig. The value of current il will be
a)1/15A
b)-1/15A
c)-2A
d)1A
Ans: b
100. The value of X =……. for i= 1A
a)4Ω
b)5 Ω
c)6 Ω
d)1Ω
Ans :d
101. The reactive power consumed by the load ZL is
a)10 VAR
b)16 VAR
c)25 VAR
d)32 VAR
Ans: d
102. The voltage V in the circuit of below Fig. is
a)1475.12 V
b)-475.12V
c)520.85V
d)1285 V
Ans: d
103. The voltage between points A and B is
a)50 V
b)-5 V
c)5 V
d)25 V
Ans: c
104. A network is shown in Fig.The voltage across AF will be
a)-15 V
b) 5 V
c)-10 V
d)15 V
Ans: c
105. The value of V0 in the network of below fig is
a)5.21 V
b) 6.21 V
c) 7.21 V
d)10.21 V
Ans: a
106. An ideal voltage source and an ideal current source are connected in parallel.
The circuit has
a) a Nortan’s equivalent but not Thevenin’s equivalent
b) a Thevenin’s equivalent but not Nortan’s equivalent
c) both Nortan’s equivalent and Thevenin’s equivalent

d) niether Nortan’s equivalent nor Thevenin’s equivalent
Ans: b
107. Superposition theorem is not applicable for
a) voltage calculations
b) bilateral calculations
c) power calculations
d)passive elements
Ans: c
108. An independent voltage source in series with an impedance

Zs = Rl + jXl delivers a maximum average power to a load impedance ZL
When
a) ZL = Rl + jXl
b ) ZL = Rl
c) ZL = jXl
d) ZL = Rl - jXl
Ans: d
109. A certain network consists of a large number of ideal linear resistances,each

of which is designated as R and two constant ideal sources.The power consumed
by R is PI when only the first source is active ,and P2 when only the second source
is active. If both sources are active simultaneously,then the power consumed by R
is
a)(P1±P2)^2
b) (P1)^1/2 ± (P2)^1/2
c) [ (P1)^1/2 ± (P2)^1/2 ]^2
d) (P1 ± P2)^1/2
Ans : c
110. A simple equivalent circuit of 2 terminal network shown in the Fig. will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ans :b
111. The maximum power that can be transferred to the load resistor RL from the voltage
source in the Fig. is
a)0.75 W
b)10 W
c)0.25 W
d)0.5 W
Ans. C
112. The Norton's equivalent of the circuit shown in Fig. (a) is drawn in the circuit
shown in Fig. (b). The value of IN and Req in Fig. (b ) are respectively
Fig(a)
Fig(b)
a) 0.25 and 2Ω
b) 0.4 and 1Ω
c) 0.8 and 2.4Ω
d) 0.4 and 2Ω
Ans: d
113. The Thevenin's equivalent resistance Req for the given network is
a) 1Ω
b) 2Ω
c) 0Ω
d) ∞
Ans: b
114. Consider the circuit A and B. For what values respectively of I and R, the circuit A
is equivalent to circuit B ?
Fig.(a)
Fig.(b)
a) 2A,24Ω
b) 1.5A,24Ω
c) 1A,50Ω
d) 1.5A,40 Ω
Ans: b
115. A circuit (a) and its equivalent (b) are shown. What are the values of V TH and
Z?
Fig.(a)
Fig.(b)
a) 6V,6Ω
b) 6V,0.5454Ω
c) 1.8V,1.8Ω
d) 1.6364V,0.5454 Ω
Ans: d
116. For the circuit, the value of R such that the maximum power delivered to
the load is 3 mW will be?
a) 0.5kΩ
b) 1kΩ
c) 4kΩ
d) 2kΩ
Ans: b
117. In the given circuit, for maximum power transfer to the load, the load should
be
a)pure resistive
b)pure inductive
c)pure capacitive
d)complex
Ans: a
118. A source of angular frequency 1 rad/ sec has a source impedance consisting of 1 Q
resistance in series with 1 iH inductance. The load that will obtain the maximum
power transfer is
a) 1 Ω resistance
b) 1 Ω resistance in parallel with 1 F capacitor
c) 1 Ω resistance in series with 1 F capacitor
d) 1 Ω resistance in parallel with 1 H inductor
Ans: c
119. The value of the resistance, R, connected across the terminals, A and B.
(refer Fig. ) which will absorb the maximum power is
.
a) 3.5kΩ
b) 4.5kΩ
c) 8kΩ
d) 9.5kΩ
Ans: b
120. If the voltage of each source is doubled which of the following statement is
true ?
a) Current flowing in the network is doubled.
b) Power absorbed by each resistor is doubled.

c) Power delivered by each resistor is doubled.
d)Voltage across each resistor remain costant.

Ans: a
121. The source network S is connected to the load network L as shown by dashed lines.
The power transferred from S to L would be maximum when RL is
a) 0Ω
b) 0.6Ω
c) 0.8Ω
d) 2Ω
Ans: d
122. The value of R, such that the power dissipation in the 5 ohm resistor is 100 W
will be
a) 2.12Ω
b) 3.12Ω
c) 4.12Ω
d) none of this
Ans: b
123. The black box shown in the Fig. contains linear resistor and independent sources.
For R = 0Ω and 2Ω , the values of currents are 3 A and 1.5 A respectively.
The value of I when R = 1Ω will be
a) 0A
b) 2A
c) 3A
d) 1A
Ans: b
124. Power in 5Ω is 20 W. The resistance R will be
a) 5Ω
b) 25Ω
c) 16Ω
d) 4Ω
Ans: c
125. The current I flowing in the circuit shown in below Fig. is

a) 3A
b) 6A
c) 0A
d) -3A
Ans: b
126. In the circuit shown, the Thevenin's equivalent across A-B is
a) 2V,1Ω
b) 5V,1Ω
c) 2V,0.5Ω
d) not possible
Ans: d
127. The Thevenin's equivalent across AB has VAB and Req given respectively by
a) -16V,10/3Ω
b) -12V,10Ω
c) 11V,16/6Ω
d) 4V,10/3 Ω
Ans: d
128. The Thevenin’s equivalent resistance of the circuit is
a) 15Ω
b) 7.5Ω
c) -7.5Ω
d) 8.4 Ω
Ans: c
129. In the circuit given below, viewed form AB, the circuit can be reduced to
an equivalent circuit as
a)5V source in series with 10Ω

b)7V source in series with 2.4Ω
c)15V source in series with 2.4Ω
d)1V source in series with 10Ω
Ans: b
130. For the circuit shown in Fig. Thevenin's voltage and Thevenin's equivalent
resistance at terminals (a - b) is
a) 2V,2Ω
b) 7.5V,2.5Ω
c) 4V,0.2Ω
d) 3V,2.5Ω
Ans: b
131. For the circuit shown in the Fig. the Thevenin's voltage and resistance
looking into X – Yare
a) 4/3V,2Ω
b) 4V,2/3Ω
c) 4/3V,2/3Ω
d) 4V,2Ω
Ans: d
132. In the below Fig.Ihe current source is 1 L 0°, R = 1Ω, the impedance are Zc = - j
Ω and ZL = 2 j Ω. The Thevenin equivalent looking into the circuit across X-Y is
Ans: d
133. For ideal voltage source, internal resistance is ……ohm.
a) infinite
b) zero
c) constant
d) none of these
Ans: b
134. For ideal current source, internal is ……ohm
a) infinite
b) zero
c) constant
d) none of these
Ans: a
135. Validity of Ohm's law requires that the
a) voltage should remain constant

b) current should remain constant
c) resistance must remain constant
d) power must remain constant

Ans: c
136. For application of Ohm's law,….. of circuit must remain constant
a) voltage
b) current
c)resistance
d)inductance
Ans:c
138. The Ohm's law cannot be applied to
a) resistace
b) inductance
c) capacitance
d) diode
Ans: d
139.In series circuit ……. Remains same
a)current
b)voltage
c)resistance
d)none of these
Ans:a
140. In seris circuit the equivalent resistance is …… of all individual resistances
a)smallest
b)same as
c)largest
d)none of these
Ans.c
141. The voltage drop across 8Ω resistor is
a)100V
b)80V
c)220V
d)120V
Ans: d
142. The voltage across the short circuit is

a)infinite
b)one
c)zero
d)none of these
Ans: c
143. The load increases means load resistance
a)increases
b)decreases
c)remain constant
d)none of these
Ans: b
144.In parallel circuit … remains same
a)current
b)voltage
c)resistnce
d)none of these
Ans: b
145.In a parallel circuit,the equivalent resistance is …..of all the individual resistances
a)smallest
b)same as
c)largest
d)none of these
Ans. a
146. If 20 resistances, each of 1 Ω are connected in parallel then the equivalent resistance is
a) 0.01Ω
b)0.05Ω
c)20Ω
d)0.02Ω
Ans:b
147.The total current drawn by the circuit shown from the supply is
a) 10A
b) 5A
c) 1A
d) 15A
Ans: d
148. If the 3 Q resistance is removed from the circuit shown in the Fig.
Th e c u r r e n t d r a w n b y t h e c i r c u it is
a) 14.285A
b) 9.185A
c) 2A
d) 1.185A
Ans: a
149.The voltage across the parallel circuit shown in the fig is
a)1.8V
b)4.8V
c)8.4V
d)2.8V
Ans:b
150. The algebraic sum of all the currents at a junction point is always zero is the statement
of …… law
a) KVL
b)Lenz’s
c)Faraday’s
d)KCL
Ans: d
151. Kirchhoff s current law states that
(a) net current flow at the junction is positive
(b) Algebric sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
(c) no curreht can leave the junction without some current entering it.
(d) total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
Ans: b
152. According to Kirchhoff’s voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any
closed loop of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
153. Kirchhoffs current law is applicable to only

(a) junction in a network
(b) closed loops in a network
(c) electric circuits
(d) electronic circuits
Ans: a
154. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is related to

(a) junction currents
(b) battery e.m.fs.
(c) IR drops
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d

(a) resistive elements
(c) non-linear elements
(d) linear bilateral elements
Ans: d
156. The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is

(a) reciprocity
(b) duality
(c) non-linearity
(d) linearity
Ans: d
157. Thevenin resistance Rth is found

(a) by removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances
(6) by short-circuiting the given two terminals
(c) between any two 'open' terminals
(d) between same open terminals as for Etk
Ans: d
158. An ideal voltage source should have

(a) large value of e.m.f.
(b) small value of e.m.f.
(c) zero source resistance
(d) infinite source resistance
Ans: c

(a) terminal voltage is always lower than source e.m.f.
(b) terminal voltage cannot be higher than source e.m.f.
(c) the source e.m.f. and terminal voltage are equal
Ans: b
160. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is necessary to know
(a) value of current through the resistor
(b) direction of current through the resistor
(c) value of resistor
(d) e.m.fs. in the circuit
Ans: b
161. "Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance is equal to
the output resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the load". The above statement
is associated with
(a) Millman's theorem
(b) Thevenin's theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem
Ans: d
162. "Any number of current sources in parallel may be replaced by a single current source
whose current is the algebraic sum of individual source currents and source resistance is the
parallel combination of individual
source resistances".
(a) Thevenin's theorem
(b) Millman's theorem
(c) Maximum power transfer theorem
Ans: b
163. "In any linear bilateral network, if a source of e.m.f. E in any branch produces a current I in
any other
branch, then same e.m.f. acting in the second branch would produce the same current / in the first
branch".
(a) compensation theorem
(b) superposition theorem
(c) reciprocity theorem
Ans: c
164. Which of the following is non-linear circuit parameter ?

(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Wire wound resistor
(d) Transistor
Ans: a
165. A capacitor is generally a

(a) bilateral and active component
(b) active, passive, linear and nonlinear component
(c) linear and bilateral component
(d) non-linear and active component
Ans: c
166. "In any network containing more than one sources of e.m.f. the current in any branch is the
algebraic sum of a number of individual fictitious currents (the number being equal to the
number of sources of e.m.f.), each of which is due to separate action of each source of e.m.f.,
taken in order, when the remaining sources of e.m.f. are
replaced by conductors, the resistances of which are equal to the internal resistances of the
respective sources".
(a) Thevenin's theorem
(b) Norton's theorem
Ans: c
167. Kirchhoff s law is applicable to

(a) passive networks only
(b) a.c. circuits only
(c) d.c. circuits only
(d) both a.c. as well d.c. circuits
Ans: d
168. Kirchhoff s law is not applicable to circuits with

(a) lumped parameters
(c) distributed parameters
(d) non-linear resistances
Ans: c
169. Kirchhoff s voltage law applies to circuits with

(a) nonlinear elements only
(b) linear elements only
(c) linear, non-linear, active and passive elements
(d) linear, non-linear, active, passive, time varying as wells as time-in-variant elements
Ans: d
170. The resistance LM will be

(a) 6.66 Q
(b) 12 Q
(c) 18Q
(d) 20Q
Ans: a
171. For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
(a) equal to the load resistance
(c) more than the load resistance
Ans: b
172. Efficiency of power transfer when maximum transfer of power c xurs is

(a) 100%
(b) 80%
(c) 75%
(d) 50%
Ans: d
173. If resistance across LM in Fig. 2.30 is 15 ohms, the value of R is

(a) 10 Q
(6) 20 Q
(c) 30 Q
(d) 40 Q
Ans: c
174. For maximum transfer of power, inter¬nal resistance of the source should be
(a) equal to load resistance
(c) greater than the load resistance
Ans: a
175. If the energy is supplied from a source, whose resistance is 1 ohm, to a load of 100 ohms
the source will be
(a) a voltage source
(b) a current source
(c) both of above
Ans: a
176. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is known as
(a) unilateral circuit
(b) bilateral circuit
(c) irreversible circuit
(d) reversible circuit
Ans: b
177. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in
(a) series with each other
(b) parallel with each other
(c) series with the voltage source.'
(d) parallel with the voltage source
Ans: a
178. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes. The circuit will be known
as
(a) non-linear circuit
(b) linear circuit
(c) bilateral circuit
Ans: a
179. A non-linear network does not satisfy

(a) superposition condition
(b) homogeneity condition
(c) both homogeneity as well as superposition condition
(d) homogeneity, superposition and associative condition
Ans: c
180. An ideal voltage source has

(a) zero internal resistance
(b) open circuit voltage equal to the voltage on full load
(c) terminal voltage in proportion to current
(d) terminal voltage in proportion to load
Ans: a
181. A network which contains one or more than one source of e.m.f. is known as
(a) linear network
(b) non-linear network
(c) passive network
(d) active network
Ans: c

(a) linear, non-linear and time variant responses
(b) linear and non-linear resistors only
(c) linear responses only
Ans: c
183. Which of the following is not a nonlinear element ?

(a) Gas diode
(b) Heater coil
(c) Tunnel diode
(d) Electric arc
Ans:
184. Application of Norton's theorem to a circuit yields

(a) equivalent current source and impedance in series
(6) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
(c) equivalent impedance
(d) equivalent current source
Ans: a
185. Millman's theorem yields

(a) equivalent resistance
(6) equivalent impedance
(c) equivalent voltage source
(d) equivalent voltage or current source
Ans: d

(a) voltage only
(b) current "only
(c) both current and voltage
(d) current voltage and power
Ans: d
187. Between the branch voltages of a loop the Kirchhoff s voltage law imposes
(a) non-linear constraints
(b) linear constraints
(c) no constraints
Ans: b

(a) only variable resistances
(b) only some sources of e.m.f. in it
(c) only two sources of e.m.f. in it
(d) no source of e.m.f. in it
Ans: d
189. A terminal where three on more branches meet is known as

(a) node
(b) terminus
(c) combination
(d) anode
Ans: a
190. Which of the following is the passive element ?

(a) Capacitance
(b) Ideal current source
(c) Ideal voltage source
Ans: a
191. Which of the following is a bilateral element ?

(a) Constant current source
(b) Constant voltage source
(c) Capacitance
Ans: c

(a) branch
(b) loop
(c) circuit
(d) junction
Ans: b
193. A linear resistor having 0 < R < °o is a

(a) current controlled resistor
(6) voltage controlled resistor
(c) both current controlled and voltage controlled resistor
Ans: c
194. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will be
(a) R/6
(b) fi?
(c) 2R
(d) 4R
Ans: b
195. A delta circuit has each element of value R/2. The equivalent elements of star circuit with
be
(a) RIG
(b) R/3
(c) 2R
(d) 3R
Ans: a
196. In Thevenin's theorem, to find Z

(a) all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage sources are open
circuited
(b) all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent current sources are
short circuited
(c) all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
(d) all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all independent current sources are
open circuited
Ans: d
197. While calculating Rth in Thevenin's theorem and Norton equivalent

Ans: a
198. The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to

(a) the number of chords
(b) the number of branches
(c) sum of the number of branches and chords
(d) sum of number of branches, chords and nodes
Ans: a
(a) sources, nodes and meshes
(b) sources and nodes
(c) sources
(d) nodes
Ans: c
200. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open circuit has the
characteristic of an open circuit.
(b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the
characteristic of a short circuit.
(c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open circuit has the
characteristic of an open circuit.
(d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the
characteristic of resistor R.
Ans: a
1)A two port network is reciprocal, if and only if
a) Z11 = Z22
b) BC – AD = -1
c) Y12 = Y21
d) h12 = h21
ANS: B
2)Which among the following represents the precise condition of reciprocity for
transmission parameters?
a. AB - CD = 1
b. AD – BC = 1
c. AC – BD = 1
ANSWER: AD – BC = 1
3) Which is the correct condition of symmetry observed in z-parameters?
a. z11 =
b. z11 =
c. z12 =
d. z12 = z21
ANSWER: z11 = z22
5)An open circuit reverse voltage gain in h-parameters is a unitless quantity and generally equivalent
to ________
a. V1 / I1 (keeping V2 = 0)
b. I2 / I1 (keeping V2 = 0)
c. V1 / V2 (keeping I1 = 0)
d. I2 / V2 (keeping I1 = 0)
ANSWER: V1 / V2 (keeping I1 = 0)
6) How is the short circuit reverse transfer admittance (y12) calculated in terms of current and voltag
ratio?
a. V2/ I1 (keeping I2 = 0)
b. I2/ V1 (keeping V2 = 0)
c. I1/ V2 (keeping V1 = 0)
d. V1/ I2 (keeping I1 = 0)
ANSWER: I1/ V2 (keeping V1 = 0)
7)Which among the following is regarded as short circuit forward transfer admittance?
a. y11
b. y12
c. y21
d. y22
ANSWER: y21
8) Polesand zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and alternate on jω axis. The network consists of
___________
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
Answer: b
Explanation: In network having only L and C, poles and zeros of driving point function are simple and alternate on jω
axis.
So, the network consists of L and C.
9) 1. The transfer function of a system having the input as X(s) and output as Y(s) is?
a) Y(s)/X(s)
b) Y(s) * X(s)
c) Y(s) + X(s)
d) Y(s) – X(s)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transfer function is defined as the s-domain ratio of the laplace transfrom of the output to the laplace
transfrom of the input. The transfer function of a system having the input as X(s) and output as Y(s) is H (s) = Y(s)/X(s).
10) In the circuit shown below, if current is defined as the response signal of the circuit, then determine the transfer
function.
a) H(s)=C/(S2 LC+RCS+1)
b) H(s)=SC/(S2 LC-RCS+1)
c) H(s)=SC/(S2 LC+RCS+1)
d) H(s)=SC/(S2 LC+RCS-1)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the current is defined as the response signal of the circuit, then the transfer function H (s) = I/V =
1/(R+sL+1/sC) = sC/(s2Lc+RCs+1) where I corresponds to the output Y(s) and V corresponds to the input X(s).
11)The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The roots of the equation P (S) = 0 are zeros of the transfer function. The zeros in the transfer function are
denoted by ‘o’.
12) The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The roots of the equation P (S) = 0 are zeros of the transfer function. The zeros in the transfer function are
denoted by ‘o’.
13)The network function N (S) becomes _________ when s is equal to anyone of the zeros.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) ∞
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The network function N (S) becomes zero when s in the transfer function is equal to anyone of the zeros as
the network function is completely defined by its poles and zeros.
14) The N (S) becomes ________ when s is equal to any of the poles.
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The network function is completely defined by its poles and zeros and the network function N (S) becomes
infinite when s in the transfer function is equal to anyone of the poles.
15) If the poles or zeros are not repeated, then the function is said to be having __________ poles or ________ zeros.
a) simple, multiple
b) multiple, simple
c) simple, simple
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the poles or zeros are not repeated, then the function is said to be having simple poles or simple zeros
and the network function is said to be stable when the real parts of the poles and zeros are negative.
16) If the poles or zeros are repeated, then the function is said to be having __________ poles or ________ zeros.
b) simple, simple
c) multiple, simple
d) simple, multiple
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If there are repeated poles or zeros, then function is said to be having multiple poles or multiple zeros and
the network function is stable if the poles and zeros lie within the left half of the s-plane.
17)If the number of zeros (n) are greater than the number of poles (m), then there will be _________ number of zeros at
s = ∞.
a) n
b) m
c) n-m
d) n+m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the number of zeros (n) are greater than the number of poles (m), then there will be (n-m) number of
zeros at s = ∞ and to obtain (n-m) zeros at s = ∞ the condition is n>m.
18) If the number of poles (m)are greater than the number of zeros (n), then there will be _________ number of zeros at
s = ∞.
a) m+n
b) m-n
c) m
d) n
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the number of poles (m)are greater than the number of zeros (n), then there will be (m -n) number of
zeros at s = ∞ and to obtain (m-n) poles at s = ∞ the condition is m>n.
1) If innumerable branches are present in parallel configuration in a network, which
method approves to be extensively beneficial for network analysis?
a. Node method
b. Mesh method
c. Both a and b
ANS: B
2)Under which conditions does the source transformation technique remain directly
unapplicable?
a. Only in the absence of impedance in series with a voltage source

b. Only in the absence of impedance in parallel with a current source
c. Both a and b
ANS: C
3)What should be the value of I 2 in accordance to mesh current method for the below
drawn circuit diagram?
a. 1.39 A
b. 1.63 A
c. 2.33 A
d. 5 A
ANS:B
4)What should be the value of resistance for the circuit diagram shown below?
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. Unity
d. Cannot be predicted
ANS: A
5) What is the potential value of a reference or datum node used in the node analysis of a
network?
a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Greater than zero but less than infinity
d. Unpredictable
ANS:A
6)How is the loop analysis different in application/functioning level as compared to

Kirchoff's law?

d. All of the above
ANS : D
7)Which law plays a significant role in the loop analysis of the network?
a. KCL
b. KVL
ANS : B
8)In any linear network, the elements like inductor, resistor and capacitor
always_________

ANS: D
9)The superposition theorem applicable to
A. Voltage only
B. Current only
C. Both current and voltage
D. Current, voltage and power
ANS: D
10)The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
A. Sources, nodes and meshes

B. Sources and nodes
C. Sources
D. Nodes
ANS: C
11)Superposition theorem is not applicable for
A. Voltage calculations
B. Bilateral elements
C. Power calculations
D. Passive elements
ANS: C
12)Thevenin's resistance R th is found
A. By removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances

B. By short-circuiting the given two terminals
C. Between any two open terminals
D. Between same open terminals as for Eth
ANS: D
13)Application of Norton's theorem to a circuit yields
A. Equivalent current source and impedence in series
B. Equivalent current source and impedence in parallel
C. Equivalent impedence
D. Equivalent current source
ANS: A
14)Norton's equivalent resistance is the ..............as Thevenin's equivalent resistance.
A. Not same
B. Same
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
ANS:B
15)...........theorem is quite useful when the current in one branch of a network is to be

determined or when the current in an added branch is to be calculated.
A. Norton
B. Thevenin
C. Superposition
D. Maximum Power Transfer
ANS: B
16)Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having
A. Resistive elements
B. Passive elements
C. Non-linear elements
D. Linear bilateral elements
ANS: D
17)The superposition theorem is applicable to
A. Linear,non-linear and time variant responses

B. Linear,non-linear resistors only
C. Linear responses only
ANS:C
18)Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance is equal the
output resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the load". The above statement is
associated with
A. Milliman's Theorem
B. Thevenin's Theorem
C. Superposition Theorem
D. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
ANS: D
19)For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
A. Equal to the load resistance

B. Less than the load resistance
C. Greater than the load resistance
ANS: A
20)..........theorem is particularly useful for analysing communication networks.
ANS: D
1) In RC series circuit R = 2Ω, C = 2μF and 10V dc is applied. Then what is the value of
current?
0A
2A
5A
10A
ANS: OV
For DC voltage capacitor acts as an open circuit or have infinite impedance at steady state
condition. So, it will not allow any current through it.
2)Time constant of RL series circuit is
2L/R
RC
L/R
2RC
ANS: L/R
3)Time constant of RC series circuit is
L/R
2RC
2L/R
RC
Time constant of RC series circuit is RC.
4. In RL series circuit R=2Ω and L=2mH. What is the value of time constant?
1msec
2msec
4msec
100sec
5)Time constant is the time taken for response to rise -------of maximum value?
100%
90%
63.2%
68.3%
Time constant can be defined either with respect to charging or discharging action of energy
storage element. Time constant is the time taken for response to rise 63.2% of maximum value or
decrease 37.8% of its maximum value.
6) In which of the following networks it is not possible to find the transient free response?
RC
RL
RL, RC, and RLC
RLC
In RL, RC, RLC network it is not possible to obtain a transient free response. Since the circuit is
having energy storage elements, either charging and discharging actions are present when
connected to AC or DC supply.
7) In RLC series circuit R = 2Ω, L = 2mH and C = 1μF. Find the time constant of the circuit?
1 μsec
2 msec
2 μsec
4 msec
8) The switch in the circuit of Fig is moved from the position 1 to 2 at t = 0. Find vC (t).
222
At t = 0, vC (0) = 100 V P
(put this in above eq and find value of k).
9) Inductor does not allow the sudden change of
current
voltage
power
None of the above
Voltage developed across an inductor is expressed by Sudden change of current

means di will change at dt → 0 (dt tends to zero), so sudden change of current means infinite
voltage. Therefore it is not possible.
10) Capacitor does not allow the sudden change of
current
voltage
power
None of the above
The expression of current through a capacitor is

1. For sudden change of voltage infinite current is required. But practically it is not possible.
2. Practical capacitor circuit has finite value of time constant
11) Internal resistance of ideal voltage source is
zero
infinite
finite
100 ohms
Ideal voltage source delivers energy at specified voltage, which is independent of current
delivered. So voltage drop is zero and then resistance is zero. Its internal series resistance must
be minimum to delivered maximum voltage.
12) In RLC parallel circuit circuit current through inductor is more than current through
capacitor. Then what is the power factor of the circuit?
lagging
leading
unity
zero
In this circuit inductive effect is more than capacitive effect. Therefore power factor is lagging in
nature.
13) An RLC series circuit isunderdamped.

To make it overdamped,
Ans: has to be increased
14) In a network containing resistances and reactances the roots of the characteristic
equation given for the circuit
a) the force response
b) the total response
c) the natural response
d) the damped response
ans: C
15) he dual of a parallel R-C circuit is a
a) series R-C circuit
b) series R-L circuit
c) Parallel R-C circuit
d) Parallel R-L circuit
ANS: B
16) For an R-L-C circuit, we get [D – (K1 + K2)][D – (K1 – K2)] i = 0. If K2 is positive, then the
curve will be?
a) damped
b) over damped
c) under damped
d) critically damped
Answer: b
Explanation: For an R-L-C circuit, we get [D – (K1 + K2)][D – (K1 – K2)] i = 0. If K2 is positive,
then the curve will be over damped response.
17) If the roots of an equation are real and unequal, then the response will be?
a) critically damped
b) under damped
c) over damped
d) damped
Answer: c
Explanation: If the roots of an equation are real and unequal, then the response will be over
damped response. Over damped response of a system is defined as the system returns
(exponentially decays) to equilibrium without oscillating.
18) If the roots of an equation are complex conjugate, then the response will be?
a) over damped
b) critically damped
c) damped
d) under damped
Answer: d
Explanation: If the roots of an equation are complex conjugate, then the response will be under
damped response. Damping is an influence within or upon an oscillatory system that has the
effect of reducing, restricting or preventing its oscillations.
19) If the roots of an equation are real and equal, then the response will be?
a) over damped
b) damped
c) critically damped
d) under damped
Answer: c
Explanation: If the roots of an equation are real and equal, then the response will be critically
damped response. For a critically damped system, the system returns to equilibrium as quickly as
possible without oscillating.
20) The circuit shown in the figure consists of resistance, capacitance and inductance in series
Answer: a
Explanation: At t = 0, switch S is closed when the 100V source is applied to the circuit and
results in the following differential equation.
21)Replacing the differentiation with D1, D2 in the equation obtained from the question 5. Find
the values of D1, D2.
a) 200±j979.8
b) -200±j979.8
c) 100±j979.8
d) -100±j979.8
Answer: b
Explanation: Let the roots of the characteristic equation are denoted by D1, D2. So on
differentiating the equation obtained in the question 5, we get D 1 = -200+j979.8, D2 = -200-
j979.8.
22) At time t = 0, the value of current in the circuit shown
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
Explanation: At t = 0 that is initially the current flowing through the circuit is zero that is i = 0.
So, i = 0.
23) The expression of current from the circuit shown

a) i=e-200t [c1 cos979.8t+c2 979.8t]A
b) i=e200t [c1 cos979.8t-c2 979.8t]A
c) i=e-200t [c1 cos979.8t-c2 979.8t]A
d) i=e200t [c1 cos979.8t+c2 979.8t]A
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression of current from the circuit will be i = e K1t[c1cosK1t + c2sinK2t]. So,
i=e-200t [c1 cos979.8t+c2 979.8t]A.
24) The voltage across the inductor at t = 0 in the circuit shown

a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200
Answer: b
Explanation: At t = 0, that is initially the voltage across the inductor is 100V. => V = 100V. So
we can write Ldi/dt = 100.
Unit 4 (b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
1. No-load speed of which of the following (d) frequent on-off cycles
motor will be highest ? Ans: b
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor 7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for
(c) Cumulative compound motor elevators ?
(d) Differentiate compound motor (a) Shunt motor
Ans: b (b) Series motor
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series (d) Cumulative compound motor
motor can be changed by Ans: d
(b) interchanging field terminals 8. According to Fleming's left-hand rule,
(c) either of (a) and (b) above when the forefinger points in the direction of
(d) None of the above the field or flux, the middle finger will point
Ans: b in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of
3. Which of the following application conductor
requires high starting torque ? (c) resultant force on conductor
(a) Lathe machine (d) none of the above
(b) Centrifugal pump Ans: a
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower 9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets
Ans: c opened while motor is running
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for (b) the armature current will reduce
conveyors, which rriotor would be preferred (c) the motor will attain dangerously high
? speed 1
(a) Series motor (d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant
(b) Shunt motor speed
(c) Differentially compound motor Ans: c
Ans: a 10. Starters are used with D.C. motors
because
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for (a) these motors have high starting torque
machine tools ? (b) these motors are not self-starting
(a) Series motor (c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero
(b) Shunt motor initially
(c) Cumulative compound motor (d) to restrict armature current as there is no
(d) Differential compound motor back e.m.f. while starting
Ans: b Ans: d
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can 11. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
find applications requiring (a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to (d) none of the above method
reduction in load Ans: a
(d) the speed will reduce 17. When two D.C. series motors are
Ans: c connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
12. A D.C. series motor is that which (b) loss than the normal speed
(a) has its field winding consisting of thick (c) normal speed
wire and less turns (d) zero
(b) has a poor torque Ans: c
(d) has almost constant speed 18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more
Ans: a than its full-load speed can be obtained by
13. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is (b) increasing the field current
required because (c) decreasing the armature current
(a) it limits the speed of the motor (d) increasing the armature current
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe Ans: a
value
(c) it starts the motor 19. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is
(d) none of the above (a) independent of armature current
Ans: b (b) directly proportional to the armature
current
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears (c) proportional to the square of the current
and punches is (d) inversely proportional to the armature
(a) shunt motor current
(b) series motor Ans: a
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor 20. A direct on line starter is used: for
Ans: d starting motors
(a) up to 5 H.P.
15. If a D.C. motor is connected across the (b) up to 10 H.P.
A.C. supply it will (c) up to 15 H.P.
(a) run at normal speed (d) up to 20 H.P.
(b) not run Ans: a
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field 21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a
winding by .eddy currents D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
Ans: d (a) The motor will stop
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below (c) The armature may burn
the normal without wastage of electrical (d) The motor will run noisy
energy is used. Ans: c
(b) rheostatic control 22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is
(c) any of the above method dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop (d) to reduce the sparking
(b) armature drop is negligible Ans: d
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt 28. A three point starter is considered
motors suitable for
Ans: d (a) shunt motors
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the (c) shunt, compound and series motors
conditions of maximum power, the current (d) all D.C. motors
in the armature will be Ans: b
(b) rated full-load current 29. In case-the conditions for maximum
(c) less than full-load current power for a D.C. motor are established, the
(d) more than full-load current efficiency of the motor will be
Ans: d (a) 100%
(b) around 90%
24. These days D.C. motors are widely used (c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
in (d) less than 50%
(a) pumping sets Ans: d
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction 30. The ratio of starting torque to full-load
(d) machine shops torque is least in case of
Ans: c (a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it (c) compound motors
can be easily confirmed that a particular (d) none of the above
motor is D.C. motor? Ans: b
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft 32. In D.C. motor which of the following
(c) Commutator can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(d) Stator (a) Slip rings
Ans: c (b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
26. In which of the following applications (d) Armature winding
D.C. series motor is invariably tried? Ans: c
(b) Drive for a water pump 33. Which of the following law/rule can he
(c) Fan motor used to determine the direction of rotation of
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C. D.C. motor ?
Ans: a (a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
27. In D.C. machines fractional pitch (c) Coloumb's law
winding is used (d) Fleming's left-hand rule
(a) to improve cooling Ans: d
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f. 34. Which of the following load normally
needs starting torque more than the rated (a) the power drawn in kW
torque? (b) the power drawn in kVA
(a) Blowers (c) the gross power
(b) Conveyors (d) the output power available at the shaft
(c) Air compressors Ans: d
Ans: b 40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum
self loading property?
35. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is (a) Series motor
generally (b) Shunt motor
(a) low (c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
(b) around 500 Q (d) Differentially compounded motor
(c) 1000 Q Ans: d
Ans: a 41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along
with flywheel for intermittent light and
36. The speed of a D.C. series motor is heavy loads?
(a) proportional to the armature current (a) Series motor
(b) proportional to the square of the (b) Shunt motor
armature current (c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) proportional to field current (d) Differentially compounded motor
(d) inversely proportional to the armature Ans: c
current
Ans: d 42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no
load and if shunt field circuit suddenly
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature opens
current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the (a) nothing will happen to the motor
motor will be equal (b) this will make armature to take heavy
to current, possibly burning it
(a) 100% of the previous value (c) this will result in excessive speed,
(b) 50% of the previous value possibly destroying armature
(c) 25% of the previous value due to excessive centrifugal stresses (d)
(d) 10% of the previous value motor will run at very slow speed
(e) none of the above Ans: c
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of (a) where load is constant
D.C. motor is directly proportional to (b) where load changes frequently
(a) the torque required (c) where constant operating speed is needed
(b) the speed of the motor (d) in none of the above situations.
(c) the voltage across the terminals Ans: d
Ans: a 44. For the same H.P. rating and full load
speed, following motor has poor starting
39. The power mentioned on the name plate torque
of an electric motor indicates (a) shunt
(b) series path
(c) differentially compounded Ans: a
(d) cumulativelyc'ompounded
Ans: c 50. The mechanical power developed by a
shunt motor will be maximum when the
45. In case of conductively compensated ratio of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
D.C. series motors, the compensating (a) 4.0
winding is provided (b) 2.0
(a) as separately wound unit (c) 1.0
(6) in parallel with armature winding (d) 0.5
(c) in series with armature winding Ans: d
Ans: c 51. The condition for maximum power in
case of D.C. motor is
46. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. (a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
motor may result in (b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(a) damage to commutator segments (c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(b) damage to commutator insulation (d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
(c) increased power consumption Ans: b
Ans: d 52. For which of the following applications
a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C.
47. Which of the following motor is motor ?
preferred for operation in highly explosive (a) Low speed operation
atmosphere ? (b) High speed operation
(a) Series motor (c) Variable speed operation
(b) Shunt motor (d) Fixed speed operation
(c) Air motor Ans: c
Ans: c 53. In D.C. machines the residual
magnetism is of the order of
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is (a) 2 to 3 per cent
increased, which of the following will (6) 10 to 15 per cent
decrease ? (c) 20 to 25 per cent
(a) Starting torque (d) 50 to 75 per cent
(b) Operating speed Ans: a
(d) All of the above 54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred
Ans: c for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
49. Which one of the following is not the (b) Shunt motor
function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ? (c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(a) To reduce eddy current loss (d) Differentially compounded motor
(b) To support the field coils Ans: a
(c) To spread out flux for better uniformity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic 55. Three point starter can be used for
(a) series motor only (b) the motor will work as series motor and
(b) shunt motor only run at slow speed in the same direction
(c) compound motor only (c) the motor will work as series motor and
(d) both shunt and compound motor run at high speed in the same direction
Ans: d (d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
56. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor
because 61. Which of the following motor has the
(a) it increases the input power con- poorest speed regulation ?
sumption (a) Shunt motor
(b) commutator gets damaged (b) Series motor
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) Differential compound motor
(d) none of the above (d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: b Ans: b
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method 62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes
gives uniform speed variation require high starting torque and therefore
(a) in one direction make use of
(b) in both directions (a) D.C. series motor
(c) below normal speed only (b) D.C. shunt motor
(d) above normal speed only. (c) induction motor
Ans: b (d) all of above motors
Ans: a
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound
motor to reduce the peak demand by the 63. As -the load is increased the speed of
motor, compound motor will have D.C. shunt motor will
to be (a) reduce slightly
(a) level compounded (b) increase slightly
(b) under compounded (c) increase proportionately
(c) cumulatively compounded (d) remains unchanged
(d) differentially compounded Ans: a
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high 64. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt
starting torque and wide speed range control motor is proportional to
is required. (a) field flux only
(a) Single phase capacitor start (b) armature current only
(b) Induction motor (c) both (a) and (b)
(c) Synchronous motor (d) none of the above
(d) D.C. motor Ans: b
Ans: d 65. Which of the following method of speed
control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. efficiency ?
motor, if shunt field suddenly opens (a) Voltage control method
(a) the motor will first stop and then run in (b) Field control method
opposite direction as series motor (c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods (c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
Ans: c (d) reducing the resistance in the armature
circuit
66. Usually wide and sensitive speed control Ans: b
is desired in case of
(a) centrifugal pumps 71. If I2 be the armature current, then speed
(b) elevators of a D.C. shunt motor is
(c) steel rolling mills (a) independent of Ia
(d) colliery winders (b) proportional to la
Ans: d (c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 Ans: a
r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load.
The speed regulation of the motor is 72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a
(a) 2.36% D.C. motor are doubled, the torque
(6) 4.76% developed by the motor will
(c) 6.77% (a) remain unchanged
(d) 8.84% (6) reduce to one-fourth value
Ans: b (c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
68. The armature voltage control of D.C. Ans: a
motor provides
(a) constant torque drive 73. At the instant of starting when a D.C.
(b) constant voltage drive motor is put on supply, it behaves like
(c) constant current drive (a) a highly resistive circuit
(d) none of the above (6) a low resistance circuit
Ans: a (c) a capacitive circuit
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant Ans: b
of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent
a heavy current from flowing though the 74. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied
armature circuit by varying
(a) a resistance is connected in series with (a) field current
armature (b) applied voltage
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to (c) resistance in series with armature
the armature (d) any of the above
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited Ans: d
(d) a high value resistor is connected across
the field winding 75. Which one of the following is not
Ans: a necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors
over A.C. motors ?
70. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be (a) Low cost
increased by (b) Wide speed range
(a) increasing the resistance in armature (c) Stability
circuit (d) High starting torque.
(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit Ans: a
motor are interchanged, this action will offer
76. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation following kind of braking
is changed (o) regenerative
(a) torque will remain constant (b) plugging
(b) torque will change but power will (c) dynamic braking
remain constant (d) none of the above
(c) torque and power both will change (e) any of the above
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change Ans: b
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will
77. Which motor has the poorest speed choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
control? (a) D.C. shunt motor
(a) Differentially compounded motor (b) D.C. series motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor (c) Universal motor
(c) Shunt motor (d) Synchronous motor
(d) Series motor Ans: d
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is
78. The plugging gives the increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) zero torque braking (a) increase
(b) smallest torque braking (b) decrease
(c) highest torque braking (c) remain same
(d) none of the above (d) become zero
Ans: c Ans: a
79. The armature voltage control of D.C. 84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for
motor provides traction applications ?
(a) constant voltage drive (a) Torque and speed are inversely
(b) constant current drive proportional to armature current
(c) constant torque drive (b) Torque is proportional to armature
(d) none of the above current
Ans: c (c) Torque is proportional to square root of
armature current
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C (d) The speed is inversely proportional to
ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C the torque and the torque is proportional to
ambient temperature, then the motor square of armature current
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected Ans: d
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient 85. Which of the following motors is usually
temperature also used in house-hold refrigerators ?
(d) is to be derated by a factor recommended (a) D.C. shunt motor
by manufacturer and select the next higher (b) D.C. series motor
H.P. motor (c) Single phase induction motor (split phase
Ans: d start or induction run motor)
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. (e) Synchronous motor
Ans: c (b) high maintenance cost
86. Which of the following motors is most (d) all of the above
suitable for signalling devices and many Ans: d
kinds of timers ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor 92. Regenerative method of braking is
(b) D.C. series motor based on that
(c) Induction motor (a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied
(d) Reluctance motor voltage
Ans: d (b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied
voltage
87. Which motor should not be started on (c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the
no-load ? applied voltage
(a) Series motor (d) none of the above
(b) Shunt motor Ans: b
(d) Differentially compounded motor. 93. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine
Ans: a least depends on
88. Ward-Leonard control is basically a (b) Maximum value of flux density
(a) voltage control method (c) Volume and grade of iron
(b) field divertor method (d) Rate of flow of ventilating air
(c) field control method Ans: d
Ans: a 94. In a D.C. generator all of the following
could be the effects of iron losses except
89. For constant torque drive which speed (a) Loss of efficiency
control method is preferred ? (b) Excessive heating of core
(a) Field control (c) Increase in terminal voltage
(b) Armature voltage control (d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
(c) Shunt armature control Ans: c
Ans: b 95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator
are given below. Which loss is likely to have
90. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit highest proportion at rated load of the
of speed is imposed by generator ?
(a) residual magnetism of the generator (a) hysteresis loss
(b) core losses of motor (b) field copper loss
(c) mechanical losses of motor and generator (c) armature copper loss
together (d) eddy current loss
(d) all of the above Ans: c
Ans: a
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C.
91. The main disadvantage of the Ward- generator varies significantly with the load
Leonard control method is current ?
(a) high initial cost (a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss (b) Core loss
(c) Armature copper loss (c) Copper loss
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
Ans: c Ans: d
97. Torque developed by a D.C. motor 102. Which of the following losses are
depends upon significantly reduced by laminating the core
(a) magnetic field of a D.C. generator ?
(b) active length of the conductor (a) Hysteresis losses
(c) current flow through the conductors (b) Eddy current losses
(d) number of conductors (c) Copper losses
(e) radius of armature (d) Windage losses
(f) all above factors Ans: b
Ans: f
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C.
98. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) trains (a) 100 W
(b) cranes (b) 500 W
(c) hoists (c) 1000 W
(d) machine tools (d) 1500 W
Ans: d Ans: b
99. In a manual shunt motor starter 104. The condition for maximum efficiency
(a) over load relay is connected in series for a D.C. generator is
and no volt relay in parallel with the load (a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(6) over load relay is connected in parallel (b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
and no volt relay in series with the load (c) copper losses = 0
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both (d) variable losses = constant losses
connected in series with the load Ans: d
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both
connected in parallel with the load 105. D.C. generators are normally designed
Ans: a for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
100. Which of the following steps is likely (b) rated r.p.m.
to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a (c) rated voltage
D.C. generator ? (d) all of the above
(a) Providing laminations in armature core Ans: a
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame 106. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co- mainly take place in
efficient for armature core material (a) yoke
Ans: d (b) commutator
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. (d) armature rotor
generator is dissipated in the form of heat? Ans: d
(a) Mechanical loss
107. D.C. generators are installed near the Ans: d
load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses 113. Which method of braking is generally
(b) line losses used in elevators ?
(c) sparking (a) Plugging
(d) corona losses (b) Regenerative braking
Ans: b (c) Rheostatic braking
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. Ans: a
shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses 114. In variable speed motor
(b) eddy current losses (a) a stronger commutating field is needed at
(c) field copper losses low speed than at high speed
(d) windage losses (b) a weaker commutating field is needed at
Ans: a low speed than at high speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low
109. Which of the following tests will be speed than at high speed
suitable for testing two similar D.C. series (d) none of the above is correct
motors of large capacity ? Ans: b
(a) Swinburne's test
(b) Hopkinson's test 115. When the armature of a D.C. motor
(c) Field test rotates, e.m.f. induced is
(d) Brake test (a) self-induced e.m.f.
Ans: c (b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
110. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is (d) none of the above
conducted at Ans: c
(a) no-load
(b) part load 116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more
(c) full-load requires frequent starting, stopping,
(d) overload reversing and speed control
Ans: c (a) drum type controller is used
111. During rheostat braking of D.C. series (c) four point starter is used
motors (d) all above can be used
(a) motor is run as a generator Ans: a
(c) motor is run at reduced speed 117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full
Ans: a load and if shunt field circuit suddenly
opens
112. For which types of D.C. motor, (a) this will make armature to take heavy
dynamic braking is generally used ? current, possibly burning it
(a) Shunt motors (6) this will result in excessive speed,
(b) Series motors possibly destroying armature due to
(c) Compound motors excessive centrifugal stresses
(d) All of the above (c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop (e) none of the above methods
Ans: a Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has 123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C.
certain minimum value for most of the time motor. The second D.C. motor when excited
and some peak value for short and driven
duration. We will select the (a) runs as a generator
(a) series motor (b) does not run as a generator
(b) shunt motor (c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after
(c) compound motor sometime
(d) any of the above Ans: a
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is

almost nil for certain part of the load cycle
and peak value for short duration. We will
select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum

self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
Ans: a
121. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur

in
(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is

required to be more than full load speed.
This is possible by
Unit 4 MCQ (c) 4%
(d) 14%
1. Which of the following component is Ans: c
usually fabricated out of silicon steel ?
(a) Bearings 7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the
(b) Shaft rotor slots are usually given slight skew in
(c) Statorcore order to
(d) None of the above (a) reduce windage losses
Ans: c (b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
2. The frame of an induction motor is (d) reduce magnetic hum
usually made of Ans: d
(a) silicon steel
(b) cast iron 8. In case the air gap in an induction motor
(c) aluminium is increased
(d) bronze (a) the magnetising current of the rotor
Ans: b will decrease
(b) the power factor will decrease
3. The shaft of an induction motor is made (c) speed of motor will increase
of (d) the windage losses will increase
(a) stiff Ans: b
(b) flexible
(c) hollow 9. Slip rings are usually made of
(d) any of the above (a) copper
Ans: a (b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
4. The shaft of an induction motor is made (d) aluminium
of Ans: c
(a) high speed steel
(b) stainless steel 10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor
(c) carbon steel has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f.
(d) cast iron will be
Ans: c (a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
5. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is (c) 2 Hz
generally (d) 0.2 Hz
(a) less than 1% Ans: c
(b) 1.5%
(c) 2% 11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the
(d) 4% slip, then actual running speed of an
Ans: a induction motor will be
(a) Ns
6. In medium sized induction motors, the (b) s.N,
slip is generally around (c) (l-s)Ns
(a) 0.04% (d) (Ns-l)s
(b) 0.4% Ans: c
Ans: d
The efficiency of an induction motor can be
expected to be nearly 18. In case of the induction motors the
(a) 60 to 90% torque is
(b) 80 to 90% (a) inversely proportional to (Vslip)
(c) 95 to 98% (b) directly proportional to (slip)2
(d) 99% (c) inversely proportional to slip
Ans: b (d) directly proportional to slip
Ans: d
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel
cage induction motor is usually 19. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m.
(a) two speed will have
(b) three (a) 8 poles
(c) four (b) 6 poles
(d) none (c) 4 poles
Ans: d (d) 2 poles
Ans: b
14. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage
induction motor is 20. The good power factor of an induction
(a) low motor can be achieved if the average flux
(b) negligible density in the air gap is
(c) same as full-load torque (a) absent
(d) slightly more than full-load torque (b) small
Ans: a (c) large
(d) infinity
15. A double squirrel-cage induction motor Ans: b
has
(a) two rotors moving in oppsite direction 21. An induction motor is identical to
(b) two parallel windings in stator (a) D.C. compound motor
(c) two parallel windings in rotor (b) D.C. series motor
(d) two series windings in stator (c) synchronous motor
Ans: c (d) asynchronous motor
Ans: d
16. Star-delta starting of motors is not
possible in case of 22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of
(a) single phase motors induction motor must have
(b) variable speed motors (a) zero frequency
(c) low horse power motors (b) the same frequency as the slip frequency
(d) high speed motors (c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
Ans: a (d) high value for the satisfactory speed
control
17. The term 'cogging' is associated with Ans: b
(a) three phase transformers
(b) compound generators 23. Which of the following methods is easily
(c) D.C. series motors applicable to control the speed of the
(d) induction motors squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator load current
poles (b) it will pick-up very high speed and may
(b) Rotor rheostat control go out of step
(c) By operating two motors in cascade (c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit (d) starting torque is very high
Ans: a Ans: a
24. The crawling in the induction motor is 29. Stepless speed control of induction
caused by motor is possible by which of the following
(a) low voltage supply methods ?
(b) high loads (a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
(c) harmonics develped in the motor (b) Changing the number of poles
(d) improper design of the machine (c) Cascade operation
(e) none of the above (d) None of the above
Ans: c Ans: b
25. The auto-starters (using three auto 30. Rotor rheostat control method of speed
transformers) can be used to start cage control is used for
induction motor of the following type (a) squirrel-cage induction motors only
(a) star connected only (b) slip ring induction motors only
(b) delta connected only (c) both (a) and (b)
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) none of the above
(d) none of the above Ans: b
Ans: c
31. In the circle diagram for induction
26. The torque developed in the cage motor, the diameter of the circle represents
induction motor with autostarter is (a) slip
(a) k/torque with direct switching (b) rotor current
(6) K x torque with direct switching (c) running torque
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching (d) line voltage
(d) k2/torque with direct switching Ans: b
Ans: c
32. For which motor the speed can be
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of controlled from rotor side ?
doouble squirrel-cage induction motor is (a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
constructed the two cages can be (b) Slip-ring induction motor
considered (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) in series (d) None of the above
(b) in parallel Ans: b
(c) in series-parallel
(d) in parallel with stator 33. If any two phases for an induction motor
Ans: b are interchanged
(a) the motor will run in reverse direction
28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of (b) the motor will run at reduced speed
induction motor and use starter because (c) the motor will not run
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full (d) the motor will burn
Ans: a motor can be controlled by all of the
following except
34. An induction motor is (a) changing supply frequency
(a) self-starting with zero torque (b) changing number of poles
(b) self-starting with high torque (c) changing winding resistance
(c) self-starting with low torque (d) reducing supply voltage
(d) non-self starting Ans: c
Ans: c
40. The 'crawling" in an induction motor is
35. The maximum torque in an induction caused by
motor depends on (a) high loads
(a) frequency (6) low voltage supply
(b) rotor inductive reactance (c) improper design of machine
(c) square of supply voltage (d) harmonics developed in the motor
(d) all of the above Ans: d
Ans: d
41. The power factor of an induction motor
36. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction under no-load conditions will be closer to
motors (a) 0.2 lagging
(a) rotor conductor ends are short-circuited (b) 0.2 leading
through slip rings (c) 0.5 leading
(b) rotor conductors are short-circuited (d) unity
through end rings Ans: a
(c) rotor conductors are kept open
(d) rotor conductors are connected to 42. The 'cogging' of an induction motor can
insulation be avoided by
Ans: b (a) proper ventilation
(b) using DOL starter
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the (c) auto-transformer starter
number of poles in the rotor winding is (d) having number of rotor slots more or less
always than the number of stator slots (not equal)
(a) zero Ans: d
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator 43. If an induction motor with certain ratio
(d) equal to number of poles in stator of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the
Ans: d normal speed, the phenomenon will be
termed as
38. DOL starting of induction motors is (a) humming
usually restricted to (b) hunting
(a) low horsepower motors (c) crawling
(b) variable speed motors (d) cogging
(c) high horsepower motors Ans: c
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a 44. Slip of an induction motor is negative
when
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction (a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in
opposite direction (a) inadequate motor wiring
(b) rotor speed is less than the (b) poorely regulated power supply
synchronous speed of the field and are in the (c) any one of the above
same direction (d) none of the above
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous Ans: c
speed of the field and are in the same
direction 49. In an induction motor the relationship
(d) none of the above between stator slots and rotor slots is that
Ans: c (a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor
45. Size of a high speed motor as compared slots
to low speed motor for the same H.P. will be (c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor
(a) bigger slots
(b) smaller (d) none of the above
(c) same Ans: c
Ans: b 50. Slip ring motor is recommended where
(a) speed control is required
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta (6) frequent starting, stopping and
connected, is carrying full load and one of reversing is required
its fuses blows out. Then the motor (c) high starting torque is needed
(a) will continue running burning its one (d) all above features are required
phase Ans: d
(b) will continue running burning its two
phases 51. As load on an induction motor goes on
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing increasing
permanent damage to its winding (a) its power factor goes on decreasing
(d) will continue running without any harm (b) its power factor remains constant
to the winding (c) its power factor goes on increasing even
Ans: a after full load
(d) its power factor goes on increasing up to
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta full load and then it falls again
connected is carrying too heavy load and Ans: d
one of its fuses blows out. Then the
motor 52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator
(a) will continue running burning its one and rotor is short circuited rotor will move
phase (a) in the opposite direction as the direction
(b) will continue running burning its two of the rotating field
phase (b) in the same direction as the direction of
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing the field
permanent damage to its winding (c) in any direction depending upon phase
(d) will continue running without any harm squence of supply
to the winding Ans: b
Ans: c
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of
48. Low voltage at motor terminals is due to induction motor and use starter because
(a) it will run in reverse direction Ans: a
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may
go out of step 58. A 3-phase slip ring motor has
(c) motor takes five to seven times its full (a) double cage rotor
load current (6) wound rotor
(d) starting torque is very high (c) short-circuited rotor
Ans: c (d) any of the above
Ans: b
54. The speed characteristics of an induction
motor closely resemble the speedload 59. The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel
characteristics of which of the cage induction motor is
following machines (a) twice the full load torque
(a) D.C. series motor (b) 1.5 times the full load torque
(b) D.C. shunt motor (c) equal to full load torque
(c) universal motor Ans: b
Ans: b 60. Short-circuit test on an induction motor
cannot be used to determine
55. Which type of bearing is provided in (a) windage losses
small induction motors to support the rotor (b) copper losses
shaft ? (c) transformation ratio
(a) Ball bearings (d) power scale of circle diagram
(b) Cast iron bearings Ans: a
(c) Bush bearings
(d) None of the above 61. In a three-phase induction motor
Ans: a (a) iron losses in stator will be negligible
as compared to that in rotor
56. A pump induction motor is switched on (6) iron losses in motor will be
to a supply 30% lower than its rated voltage. neg¬ligible as compared to that in rotor
The pump runs. What will (c) iron losses in stator will be less than that
eventually happen ? It will in rotor
(a) stall after sometime (d) iron losses in stator will be more than
(b) stall immediately that in rotor
(c) continue to run at lower speed without Ans: d
damage
(d) get heated and subsequently get damaged 62. In case of 3-phase induction motors,
Ans: d plugging means
(a) pulling the motor directly on line
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction without a starter
motors are available for the following r.p.m. (b) locking of rotor due to harmonics
Which motor will be the (c) starting the motor on load which is more
costliest ? than the rated load
(a) 730 r.p.m. (d) interchanging two supply phases for
(b) 960 r.p.m. quick stopping
(c) 1440 r.p.m. Ans: d
(d) 2880 r.p.m.
63. Which is of the following data is (a) parabola
required to draw the circle diagram for an (b) hyperbola
induction motor ? (c) rectangular parabola
(a) Block rotor test only (d) straigth line
(b) No load test only Ans: c
(c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator 69. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an
resistance test induction motor will produce a change of
Ans: d appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque
64. In three-phase induction motors (b) 8% in the rotor torque
sometimes copper bars are placed deep in (c) 12% in the rotor torque
the rotor to (d) 16% in the rotor torque
(a) improve starting torque Ans: d
(b) reduce copper losses
(c) improve efficiency 70. The stating torque of the slip ring
(d) improve power factor induction motor can be increased by adding
Ans: a (a) external inductance to the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor
65. In a three-phase induction motor (c) external capacitance to the rotor
(a) power factor at starting is high as (d) both resistance and inductance to rotor
compared to that while running Ans: b
(b) power factor at starting is low as
compared to that while running 71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz,
(c) power factor at starting in the same as A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960
that while running r.p.m. on full load. The machine has 6 poles.
Ans: b The slip of the machine will be
(a) 0.01
66. The vafcie of transformation ratio of an (b) 0.02
induction motor can be found by (c) 0.03
(a) open-circuit test only (d) 0.04
(b) short-circuit test only Ans: d
(c) stator resistance test
(d) none of the above 72. The complete circle diagram of
Ans: b induetion motor can be drawn with the help
of data found from
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an (a) noload test
induction motor can be found from (6) blocked rotor test
(a) stator resistance test (c) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only (d) all of the above
(c) short-circuit test only Ans: d
(d) noue of the above
Ans: c 73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the
rotor slots are usually given slight skew
68. The shape of the torque/slip curve of (a) to reduce the magnetic hum and
induction motor is locking tendency of the rotor
(b) to increase the tensile strength of the (d) molasses
rotor bars Ans: b
(c) to ensure easy fabrication
(d) none of the above 79. An induction motor can run at
Ans: a synchronous speed when
(a) it is run on load
74. The torque of a rotor in an induction (b) it is run in reverse direction
motor under running condition is maximum (c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated
(a) at the unit value of slip voltage
(b) at the zero value of slip (d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit
(c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor Ans: d
reactance per phase equal to the resistance
per phase 80. Which motor is preferred for use in
(d) at the value of the slip which makes the mines where explosive gases exist ?
rotor reactance half of the rotor (a) Air motor
Ans: c (b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
75. What will happen if the relative speed (d) Synchronous motor
between the rotating flux of stator and rotor Ans: a
of the induction motor is zero ?
(a) The slip of the motor will be 5% 81. The torque developed by a 3-phase
(b) The rotor will not run induction motor least depends on
(c) The rotor will run at very high speed (a) rotor current
(d) The torque produced will be very large (b) rotor power factor
Ans: b (c) rotor e.m.f.
(d) shaft diameter
76. The circle diagram for an induction Ans: d
motor cannot be used to determine
(a) efficiency 82. In an induction motor if air-gap is
(b) power factor increased
(c) frequency (a) the power factor will be low
(d) output (b) windage losses will be more
Ans: a (c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction
77. Blocked rotor test on induction motors is motor
used to find out Ans: a
(a) leakage reactance
(b) power factor on short circuit 83. In induction motor, percentage slip
(c) short-circuit current under rated voltage depends on
(d) all of the above (a) supply frequency
Ans: d (b) supply voltage
(c) copper losses in motor
78. Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually (d) none of the above
(a) graphite Ans: c
(b) grease
(c) mineral oil 84. When /?2 is the rotor resistance, .X2 the
rotor reactance at supply frequency and s the of induction motor suggested is
slip, then the condition for maximum torque (a) slip ring type
under running conditions will be (b) squirrel cage type
(a) sR2X2 = 1 (c) any of the above
(b) sR2 = X2 (d) none of the above
(c) R2 = sX2 Ans: a
(d) R2 = s2X2
Ans: c 90. Temperature of the stator winding of a
three phase induction motor is obtained by
85. In case of a double cage induction (a) resistance rise method
motor, the inner cage has (b) thermometer method
(a) high inductance arid low resistance (c) embedded temperature method
(b) low inductance and high resistance (d) all above methods
(c) low inductance and low resistance Ans: d
(d) high inductance and high resistance
Ans: a 91. The purpose of using short-circuit gear is
(a) to short circuit the rotor at slip rings
86. The low power factor of induction motor (b) to short circuit the starting resistances
is due to in the starter
(a) rotor leakage reactance (c) to short circuit the stator phase of motor
(b) stator reactance to form star
(c) the reactive lagging magnetizing current (d) none of the above
necessary to generate the magnetic flux Ans: a
Ans: d 92. In a squirrel cage motor the induced
e.m.f. is
87. Insertion of reactance in the rotor circuit (a) dependent on the shaft loading
(a) reduces starting torque as well as (b) dependent on the number of slots
maximum torque (c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in
(b) increases starting torque as well as the rotor
maximum torque (d) none of the above
(c) increases starting torque but maxi-mum Ans: c
torque remains unchanged
(d) increases starting torque but maxi-mum 93.
torque decreases Less maintenance troubles are experience
Ans: a d in case of
(a) slip ring induction motor
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an (6) squirrel cage induction motor
induction motor to develop a given torque (c) both (a) and (b)
(a) decreases the rotor current (d) none of the above
(b) increases the rotor current Ans: b
(c) rotor current becomes zero
(d) rotor current rernains same 94. A squirrel cage induction motor is not
Ans: d selected when
(a) initial cost is the main consideration
89. For driving high inertia loods best type (b) maintenance cost is to be kept low
(c) higher starting torque is the main 100. The starting torque of a three phase
consideration induction motor can be increased by
(d) all above considerations are involved (a) increasing slip
Ans: c (b) increasing current
95. Reduced voltage starter can be used with (d) none of the above
(a) slip ring motor only but not with squirrel Ans: c
cage induction motor
(b) squirrel cage induction motor only but 101. Insertion of resistance in the stator of
not with slip ring motor an induction motor
(c) squirrel cage as well as slip ring (a) increases the load torque
induction motor (b) decreases the starting torque
(d) none of the above (c) increases the starting torque
Ans: c (d) none of the above
Ans: b
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel
cage induction motor where
(a) high starting torque is required
(b) load torque is heavy
(c) heavy pull out torque is required
Ans: a
97. In a star-delta starter of an induction

motor
(a) resistance is inserted in the stator
(b) reduced voltage is applied to the stator
(c) resistance is inserted in the rotor
(d) applied voltage perl stator phase is
57.7% of the line voltage
Ans: d
98. The torque of an induction motor is

(a) directly proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
Ans: a
99. The rotor of an induction motor runs at

(a) synchronous speed
(b) below synchronous speed
(c) above synchronous speed
Ans: b
UNIT: V
A.C.MOTORS
1) In a balanced 3-phase system, if one of the two wattmeter’s reading is negative then the
a. Reading should be taken as it is

b. Reading should be taken after reversing the pressure coil
c. Reading should be taken after reversing the current coil
d. All of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Reading should be taken after reversing the pressure coil
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
2) The two wattmeter method is applicable for
a. Only star connected system

b. Only delta connected system
c. Both star connected and delta connected system
d. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Both star connected and delta connected system
Explanation:
3) By using two wattmeter method, power can be measured in
a. 3 - phase, 2 - wire system

b. 3 - phase, 3 - wire system
c. 3 - phase, 4 - wire system
d. All of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 3 - phase, 3 - wire system
Explanation:
4) In delta connected system, the potential difference between line outers is
a. Equal to the phase voltage

b. Greater than the phase voltage
c. Less than the phase voltage
d. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Equal to the phase voltage
Explanation:
5) The expression for total power output of a delta connected system in terms of phase voltage and current is g
a. 3VpIpcos∅
b. √3VpIpcos∅
c. 1/√ 3VpIpcos∅
d. 1/3 x VpIpcos∅
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 3VpIpcos∅
Explanation:
6) In a star connected system, the current flowing through the line is
a. Greater than the phase current

b. Equal to the phase current
c. Lesser than the phase current
d. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Equal to the phase current
Explanation:
7) In a 3 - phase star connected balanced induction motor, the line voltage is equal to the
a. 3 times the phase voltage

b. √3 times the phase voltage
c. 1/√3 times the phase voltage
d. 1/3 times the phase voltage
Answer Explanation
8) When windings of 3 - phase induction motor is rotated in a magnetic field, then the emf induced in each pha
a. Same magnitude but different frequency

b. Different magnitude but same frequency
c. Same magnitude and same frequency
d. Different magnitude and different frequency
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Same magnitude and same frequency
Explanation:
9) Commutator motors have
a. Absolutely uniform torque

b. Approximately uniform torque
c. Non - uniform torque
d. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Non - uniform torque
Explanation:
10) Three - phase induction motor is more suitable than single - phase because
a. It is self starting
b. Better efficiency compared to single - phase
c. Better power factor compared to single - phase
d. All of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: All of these
MCQ ON SIGLEPHASE AC MOTOR
o Which type of device is a stepper motor?

a) Electromechanical
b) Electrochemical
c) Embedded system
d) Electromagnetic
View Answer
 Answer: a
Explanation: A stepper motor is an electromagnetic device which converts the electrical
pulses into discrete mechanical movements. The shaft of the electrical motor
o 2. The speed of the rotation of the stepper motor depends on ________
a) torque
b) number of input pulses
c) frequency of input pulses
d) solenoid
View Answer
 Answer: c
Explanation: The speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the frequency of
input pulses. In the other options, the motor has full torque at standstill. The length of
rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses applied. Solenoids are used
as electrical actuators.
 3. Stepper motors are extremely reliable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
 Answer: a
Explanation: There are no contact brushes in the motor, therefore, the Stepper motors are
extremely reliable. The life of the motor depends only upon the life of the bearings. Wide
ranges of rotational speed are possible.
 4. Length of rotation is directly related to ____
a) Torque
b) Number of input pulses
c) Frequency of input pulses
d) Solenoid
View Answer
 Answer: b
Explanation: The length of rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses
applied. In the other options, the speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the
frequency of input pulses, the motor has full torque at standstill. Solenoids are used as
electrical actuators.
 5. Which among the following is not the type of a stepper motor?
a) Variable reluctance
b) Permanent magnet
c) Hybrid
d) Variable magnet
View Answer
 Answer: d
Explanation: Variable magnet is not the type of a stepper motor. Variable reluctance
stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor and a wound stator. Permanent
magnet stepper motors have a rotor made up of the permanent magnet. Hybrid stepper
motor provides better performance with respect to step resolution, torque and speed.
 advertisement
 6. A stepper motor is a bad choice whenever control movement is required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
 Answer: b
Explanation: A stepper motor is a good choice whenever control movement is required.
They can be used in the applications where there is a need to control rotation angle,
speed, position and synchronism. Due to all these reasons, stepper motors are used in
many different applications.
 7. A soft iron multi-toothed rotor and wound stator is present in ___
a) Permanent magnet stepper motor
b) Variable reluctance stepper motor
c) Hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
View Answer
 Answer: b
Explanation: Variable reluctance stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
and a wound stator. When the stator windings are energized with DC current, the poles
become magnetized, and the teeth of the rotor are attracted towards the energized stator
poles, and hence the rotor rotates. The other motors present in the options do not consist
of such elements.
 8. Which type of stepper motors have low cost and low-resolution motor?
a) Permanent magnet stepper motor
b) Variable reluctance stepper motor
c) Hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
View Answer
 Answer: a
Explanation: The permanent magnet stepper motor has low cost and low-resolution type
motor with the step angle of 7.5% to 15%. This type of stepper motor has a rotor made up
of the permanent magnet. The other motors mentioned in the option do not have low cost
as well as low redundancy.
 9. Which among the following is a property of hybrid stepper motor?
a) Contains a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
b) Low cost and low-resolution motor
c) The better performance provided with respect to step resolution
d) Provides an increased magnetic flux
View Answer
 Answer: c
Explanation: A hybrid stepper motor provides better performance with respect to step
resolution, torque and speed, and this is more expensive than the other two stepper
motors. This motor has advantages of both variable reluctance and permanent magnet
stepper motors. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of other
types of the stepper motor.
 10. Which of the following is not the main selection criterion of a stepper motor?
a) Resolution required
b) Drive mechanism component required
c) Torque required
d) Speed
View Answer
 Answer: d
Explanation: Speed is not the main selection criteria of a stepper motor. The selection
criteria of a stepper motor include resolution required, drive mechanism component,
operating pattern required such as sequencing, acceleration etc. and torque required.
 11. What is the formula to calculate the step angle of a stepper motor?
a) (360*ph)/nph
b) (ph/nph)
c) (nph/ph)
d) (360*nph)/ph
View Answer
 Answer: a
Explanation: The step angle is given by (360*ph)/nph where ‘nph’ is the number of
equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is the number of phases and ‘ n
‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
 12. What is the step angle of a hybrid stepper motor?
a) 0.9 degree to 3.6 degree
b) 0.9 degree to 7.0 degree
c) 0.1 degree to 1.0 degree
d) 1.0 degree to 0.9 degree
View Answer
 Answer: a
Explanation: Typical step angle of a hybrid stepper motor ranges from 0.9 degrees 3.6
degree that is (100 to 400) steps per revolution. The step angle is given by (360*ph)/nph
where ‘nph’ is the number of equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘
is the number of phases and ‘ n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
MCQ ON Working Principle of Single Phase Induction Motor
Q1. Single phase induction motors are
a. Self starting
b. Not self starting
ANSWER: b. Not self starting

Q2. According to double revolving field theory, any alternating quantity can be resolved
into two rotating components. The directions and magnitude of these components are
a. Same directions, each having magnitude equal to the maximum magnitude of alternating
current
b. Opposite directions, each having magnitude equal to the maximum magnitude of alternating
current
c. Opposite directions, each having magnitude half of the maximum magnitude of alternating
current
d. Same directions, each having magnitude half of the maximum magnitude of alternating
current
ANSWER: c. Opposite directions, each having magnitude half of the maximum magnitude
of alternating current
UNIT: III
TWO PORT NETWORK PARAMETERS AND FUNCTIONS
Which among the following represents the precise condition of reciprocity
for transmission parameters?
a. AB - CD = 1
b. AD – BC = 1
c. AC – BD = 1
ANSWER: AD – BC = 1
If the two ports are connected in cascade configuration, then which

arithmetic operation should be performed between the individual
transmission parameters in order to determine overall transmission
parameters?
a. Addition
b. Subtraction
c. Multiplication
d. Division
ANSWER: Multiplication
Which is the correct condition of symmetry observed in z-parameters?
a. z11 = z22
b. z11 = z12
c. z12 = z22
d. z12 = z21
ANSWER: z11 = z22
An open circuit reverse voltage gain in h-parameters is a unitless quantity

and generallyequivalent to ________
a. V1 / I1 (keeping V2 = 0)
b. I2 / I1 (keeping V2 = 0)
c. V1 / V2 (keeping I1 = 0)
d. I2 / V2 (keeping I1 = 0)
ANSWER: V1 / V2 (keeping I1 = 0)
Which among the following is regarded as short circuit forward transfer

admittance?
a. y11
b. y12
c. y21
d. y22
ANSWER: y21
Which elements act as an independent variables in Y-parameters?
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Voltage
For the network given below, what would be the value of 'z22', if the estimated z-pa
30 and 'z12' = 'z21' = 10?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
ANSWER: 40
What does the connectivity of energy source at the port of network known as?
a. Driving Point
b. Transfer Point
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Driving Point

The resistance element __________ while going from the time domain to frequency domain.
a) does not change
b) increases
c) decreases
d) increases exponentially
Answer: a
Explanation: The s-domain equivalent circuit of a resistor is simply resistance of R ohms that carries a current I
ampere seconds and has a terminal voltage V volts-seconds. The resistance element does not change while
going from the time domain to the frequency domain.
2. The relation between current and voltage in the case of inductor is?
a) v=Ldt/di
b) v=Ldi/dt
c) v=dt/di
d) v=di/dt
Answer: b
Explanation: Consider an inductor with an initial current Io. The time domain relation between current and
voltage is v=Ldi/dt.
3. The s-domain equivalent of the inductor reduces to an inductor with impedance?

a) L
b) sL
c) s2L
d) s3L
Answer: b
Explanation: If the initial energy stored in the inductor is zero, the equivalent circuit of the inductor reduces to
an inductor with impedance sL ohms.
4. The voltage and current in a capacitor are related as?

a) i=Cdt/dv
b) v=Cdv/dt
c) i=Cdv/dt
d) v=Cdt/dv
Answer: c
Explanation: Consider an initially charged capacitor and the initial voltage on the capacitor is V o. The voltage
current relation in the time domain is i=Cdv/dt.
5. The s-domain equivalent of the capacitor reduces to a capacitor with impedance?

a) sC
b) C
c) 1/C
d) 1/sC
Answer: d
Explanation: The s-domain equivalent of the capacitor can be derived for the charged capacitor and it reduces
to an capacitor with impedance 1/sC.
6. From the circuit shown below, find the value of current in the loop.
a) (V/R)/(s+1/RC)
b) (V/C)/(s+1/R)
c) (V/C)/(s+1/RC)
d) (V/R)/(s+1/R)
Answer: a
Explanation: Applying Kirchhoff’s law around the loop, we have V/s=1/sC I+RI. Solving above equation yields
I=CV/(RCS+1)=(V/R)/(s+1/RC).
7. After taking the inverse transform of current in the circuit shown below, the value of current is?
a) i=(V/C)e-t/R
b) i=(V/C)e-t/RC
c) i=(V/R)e-t/RC
d) i=(V/R)e-t/R
Answer: c
Explanation: We had assumed the capacitor is initially charged to V o volts. By taking the inverse transform of
the current, we get i=(V/R) e-t/RC.
8. The voltage across the resistor in the circuit shown below is?
a) Vet/R
b) Ve-t/RC
c) Ve-t/R
d) Vet/RC
Answer: b
Explanation: We can determine the voltage v by simply applying the ohm’s law from the circuit. And applying
the Ohm’s law from the circuit v = Ri = Ve -t/RC.
9. The voltage across the resistor in the parallel circuit shown is?
a) V/(s-1/R)
b) V/(s-1/RC)
c) V/(s+1/RC)
d) V/(s+1/C)
Answer: c
Explanation: The given circuit is converted to parallel equivalent circuit. By taking the node equation, we get
v/R+sCv=CV. Solving the above equation, v=V/(s+1/RC).
10. Taking the inverse transform of the voltage across the resistor in the circuit shown below is?
a) Ve-t/τ
b) Vet/τ
c) Vetτ
d) Ve-tτ
Answer: a
Explanation: By taking the inverse transform, we get v=Ve -t/RC=Ve-t/τ, where τ is the time constant and τ = RC.
And v is the voltage across the resistor.
Transfer Function
The transfer function of a system having the input as X(s) and output as Y(s) is?
a) Y(s)/X(s)
b) Y(s) * X(s)
c) Y(s) + X(s)
d) Y(s) – X(s)
Answer: a
Explanation: The transfer function is defined as the s-domain ratio of the laplace transfrom of the output to the
laplace transfrom of the input. The transfer function of a system having the input as X(s) and output as Y(s) is
H(s) = Y(s)/X(s).
1. Which of the following component is to
usually fabricated out of silicon steel? (a) reduce windage losses
(a) Bearings (b) reduce eddy currents
(b) Shaft (c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(c) Statorcore (d) reduce magnetic hum
(d) None of the above Ans: d
Ans: c 8. In case the air gap in an induction
2. The frame of an induction motor is motor is increased
usually made of (a) the magnetising current of the rotor
(a) silicon steel will decrease
(b) cast iron (b) the power factor will decrease
(c) aluminium (c) speed of motor will increase
(d) bronze (d) the windage losses will increase
Ans: b Ans: b
3. The shaft of an induction motor is made 9. Slip rings are usually made of
of (a) copper
(a) stiff (b) carbon
(b) flexible (c) phospor bronze
(c) hollow (d) aluminium
(d) any of the above Ans: c
Ans: a 10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction
4. The shaft of an induction motor is made motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor
of e.m.f. will
(a) high speed steel be
(b) stainless steel (a) 200 Hz
(c) carbon steel (b) 50 Hz
(d) cast iron (c) 2 Hz (d) 0.2 Hz
Ans: c
Ans: c 11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s
5. In an induction motor, no-load the slip the slip, then actual running speed of an
is generally induction motor will be
(a) less than 1% (a) Ns
(b) 1.5% (b) s.N,
(c) 2% (c) (l-s)Ns
(d) 4% (d) (Ns-l)s
Ans: a Ans: c
6. In medium sized induction motors, the The efficiency of an induction motor can
slip is generally around be expected to be nearly
(a) 0.04% (a) 60 to 90%
(b) 0.4% (b) 80 to 90%
(c) 4% (c) 95 to 98%
(d) 14% (d) 99%
Ans: c Ans: b
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the 13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel
rotor slots are usually given slight skew in cage induction motor is usually
order (a) two
(b) three 20. The good power factor of an induction
(c) four motor can be achieved if the average flux
(d) none density in the air gap is
Ans: d (a) absent
14. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage (b) small
induction motor is (c) large
(a) low (d) infinity
(b) negligible Ans: b
(c) same as full-load torque 21. An induction motor is identical to
(d) slightly more than full-load torque (a) D.C. compound motor
Ans: a (b) D.C. series motor
15. A double squirrel-cage induction (c) synchronous motor
motor has (d) asynchronous motor
(a) two rotors moving in oppsite direction Ans: d
(b) two parallel windings in stator 22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of
(c) two parallel windings in rotor induction motor must have
(d) two series windings in stator (a) zero frequency
Ans: c (b) the same frequency as the slip fre-
16. Star-delta starting of motors is not quency
possible in case of
(a) single phase motors (c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
(b) variable speed motors (d) high value for the satisfactory speed
(c) low horse power motors control
(d) high speed motors Ans: b
Ans: a 23. Which of the following methods is
17. The term 'cogging' is associated with easily applicable to control the speed of
(a) three phase transformers the
(b) compound generators squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(c) D.C. series motors (a) By changing the number of stator
(d) induction motors poles
Ans: d (b) Rotor rheostat control
18. In case of the induction motors the (c) By operating two motors in cascade
torque is (d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
(a) inversely proportional to (Vslip) Ans: a
(b) directly proportional to (slip)2 24. The crawling in the induction motor is
(c) inversely proportional to slip caused by
(d) directly proportional to slip (a) low voltage supply
Ans: d (b) high loads
19. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. (c) harmonics develped in the motor
speed will have (d) improper design of the machine
(a) 8 poles (e) none of the above
(b) 6 poles Ans: c
(c) 4 poles 25. The auto-starters (using three auto
(d) 2 poles transformers) can be used to start cage
Ans: b induction
motor of the following type
(a) star connected only (d) none of the above
(b) delta connected only Ans: b
(c) (a) and (b) both 31. In the circle diagram for induction
(d) none of the above motor, the diameter of the circle
Ans: c represents
26. The torque developed in the cage (a) slip
induction motor with autostarter is (b) rotor current
(a) k/torque with direct switching (c) running torque
(6) K x torque with direct switching (d) line voltage
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching Ans: b
(d) k2/torque with direct switching 32. For which motor the speed can be
Ans: c controlled from rotor side ?
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram (a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
of doouble squirrel-cage induction motor (b) Slip-ring induction motor
is (c) Both (a) and (b)
constructed the two cages can be (d) None of the above
considered Ans: b
(a) in series 33. If any two phases for an induction
(b) in parallel motor are interchanged
(c) in series-parallel (a) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) in parallel with stator (b) the motor will run at reduced speed
Ans: b (c) the motor will not run
(d) the motor will burn
28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of Ans: a
induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full 34. An induction motor is
load current (a) self-starting with zero torque
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and (b) self-starting with high torque
may go out of step (c) self-starting with low torque
(c) it will run in reverse direction (d) non-self starting
(d) starting torque is very high Ans: c
Ans: a 35. The maximum torque in an induction
29. Stepless speed control of induction motor depends on
motor is possible by which of the (a) frequency
following (b) rotor inductive reactance
methods ? (c) square of supply voltage
(a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit (d) all of the above
(b) Changing the number of poles Ans: d
(c) Cascade operation 36. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction
(d) None of the above motors
Ans: b (a) rotor conductor ends are short-
30. Rotor rheostat control method of circuited through slip rings
speed control is used for (b) rotor conductors are short-circuited
(a) squirrel-cage induction motors only through end rings
(b) slip ring induction motors only (c) rotor conductors are kept open
(d) rotor conductors are connected to (a) proper ventilation
insulation (b) using DOL starter
Ans: b (c) auto-transformer starter
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the (d) having number of rotor slots more or
number of poles in the rotor winding is less than the number of stator slots (not
always equal)
(a) zero Ans: d
(b) more than the number of poles in 43. If an induction motor with certain
stator ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of
(c) less than number of poles in stator the
(d) equal to number of poles in stator normal speed, the phenomenon will be
Ans: d termed as
38. DOL starting of induction motors is (a) humming
usually restricted to (b) hunting
(a) low horsepower motors (c) crawling
(b) variable speed motors (d) cogging
(c) high horsepower motors Ans: c
(d) high speed motors 44. Slip of an induction motor is negative
Ans: a when
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction (a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in
motor can be controlled by all of the opposite direction
following (b) rotor speed is less than the syn-
except chronous speed of the field and are in the
(a) changing supply frequency same
(b) changing number of poles direction
(c) changing winding resistance (c) rotor speed is more than the syn-
(d) reducing supply voltage chronous speed of the field and are in the
Ans: c same
direction
40. The 'crawling" in an induction motor (d) none of the above
is caused by Ans: c
(a) high loads 45. Size of a high speed motor as
(6) low voltage supply compared to low speed motorfor the
(c) improper design of machine same H.P. will be
(d) harmonics developed in the motor (a) bigger
Ans: d (b) smaller
41. The power factor of an induction (c) same
motor under no-load conditions will be
closer to (d) any of the above
(a) 0.2 lagging Ans: b
(b) 0.2 leading 46. A 3-phase induction motor stator
(c) 0.5 leading delta connected, is carrying full load and
(d) unity one of its
Ans: a fuses blows out. Then the motor
42. The 'cogging' of an induction motor (a) will continue running burning its one
can be avoided by phase
(b) will continue running burning its two 51. As load on an induction motor goes on
phases increasing
(c) will stop and carry heavy current (a) its power factor goes on decreasing
causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any (b) its power factor remains constant
harm to the winding (c) its power factor goes on increasing
Ans: a even after full load
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta (d) its power factor goes on increasing
connected is carrying too heavy load and upto full load and then it falls again
one of its Ans: d
fuses blows out. Then the 52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the
motor stator and rotor is short circuited rotor
(a) will continue running burning its one will move
phase (a) in the opposite direction as the
(b) will continue running burning its two direction of the rotating field
phase (b) in the same direction as the direction
(c) will stop and carry heavy current of the field
causing permanent damage to its winding (c) in any direction depending upon
(d) will continue running without any phase squence of supply
harm to the winding Ans: b
Ans: c 53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of
48. Low voltage at motor terminals is due induction motor and use starter because
to (a) it will run in reverse direction
(a) inadequate motor wiring (b) it will pick up very high speed and
(b) poorely regulated power supply may go out of step
(c) any one of the above (c) motor takes five to seven times its
(d) none of the above fullload current
Ans: c (d) starting torque is very high
49. In an induction motor the relationship Ans: c
between stator slots and rotor slots is 54. The speed characteristics of an
that induction motor closely resemble the
(a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots speedload
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor characteristics of which of the
slots following machines
(c) stator slots are not exact multiple of (a) D.C. series motor
rotor slots (b) D.C. shunt motor
(d) none of the above (c) universal motor
Ans: c (d) none of the above
50. Slip ring motor is recommended Ans: b
where 55. Which type of bearing is provided in
(a) speed control is required small induction motors to support the
(6) frequent starting, stopping and rotor shaft
reversing is required ?(
(c) high starting torque is needed a) Ball bearings
(d) all above features are required (b) Cast iron bearings
Ans: d (c) Bush bearings
(d) None of the above (a) iron losses in stator will be negligible
Ans: a as compared to that in rotor
56. A pump induction motor is switched (6) iron losses in motor will be
on to a supply 30% lower than its rated neg¬ligible as compared to that in rotor
voltage. (c) iron losses in stator will be less than
The pump runs. What will that in rotor
eventually happen ? It will (d) iron losses in stator will be more than
(a) stall after sometime that in rotor
(b) stall immediately Ans: d
(c) continue to run at lower speed 62. In case of 3-phase induction motors,
without damage plugging means
(d) get heated and subsequently get (a) pulling the motor directly on line
damaged without a starter
Ans: d (b) locking of rotor due to harmonics
(c) starting the motor on load which is
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, more than the rated load
induction motors are available for the (d) interchanging two supply phases for
following r.p.m. quick stopping
Which motor will be the
costliest ? Ans: d
(a) 730 r.p.m. 63. Which is of the following data is
(b) 960 r.p.m. required to draw the circle diagram for an
(c) 1440 r.p.m. induction
(d) 2880 r.p.m. motor ?
Ans: a (a) Block rotor test only
58. A 3-phase slip ring motor has (b) No load test only
(a) double cage rotor (c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(6) wound rotor (d) Block rotor test, no-load test and
(c) short-circuited rotor stator resistance test
(d) any of the above Ans: d
Ans: b 64. In three-phase induction motors
59. The starting torque of a 3-phase sometimes copper bars are placed deep in
squirrel cage induction motor is the rotor
(a) twice the full load torque to
(b) 1.5 times the full load torque (a) improve starting torque
(c) equal to full load torque (b) reduce copper losses
Ans: b (c) improve efficiency
60. Short-circuit test on an induction (d) improve power factor
motor cannot be used to determine Ans: a
(a) windage losses 65. In a three-phase induction motor
(b) copper losses (a) power factor at starting is high as
(c) transformation ratio compared to that while running
(d) power scale of circle diagram (b) power factor at starting is low as
Ans: a compared to that while running
61. In a three-phase induction motor (c) power factor at starting in the same as
that while running
Ans: b (b) 0.02
66. The vafcie of transformation ratio of (c) 0.03
an induction motor can be found by (d) 0.04
(a) open-circuit test only Ans: d
(b) short-circuit test only 72. The complete circle diagram of
(c) stator resistance test induetion motor can be drawn with the
(d) none of the above help of data
Ans: b found from
67. The power scale of circle diagram of (a) noload test
an induction motor can be found from (6) blocked rotor test
(a) stator resistance test (c) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only (d) all of the above
(c) short-circuit test only Ans: d
(d) noue of the above 73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor
Ans: c the rotor slots are usually given slight
68. The shape of the torque/slip curve of skew
induction motor is (a) to reduce the magnetic hum and
(a) parabola locking tendency of the rotor
(b) hyperbola (b) to increase the tensile strength of the
(c) rectangular parabola rotor bars
(d) straigth line (c) to ensure easy fabrication
Ans: c Ans: a
69. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an 74. The torque of a rotor in an induction
induction motor will produce a change of motor under running condition is
appromimately maximum
(a) 4% in the rotor torque (a) at the unit value of slip
(b) 8% in the rotor torque (b) at the zero value of slip
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque (c) at the value of the slip which makes
Ans: d rotor reactance per phase equal to the
70. The stating torque of the slip ring resistance
induction motor can be increased by per phase
adding (d) at the value of the slip which makes
(a) external inductance to the rotor the rotor reactance half of the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor Ans: c
(c) external capacitance to the rotor 75. What will happen if the relative speed
(d) both resistance and inductance to between the rotating flux of stator and
rotor rotor of
Ans: b the induction motor is zero ?
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, (a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 (b) The rotor will not run
r.p.m. on (c) The rotor will run at very high speed
full load. The machine has 6 poles. The (d) The torque produced will be very
slip of the machine will be large
(a) 0.01 Ans: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction 82. In an induction motor if air-gap is
motor cannot be used to determine increased
(a) efficiency (a) the power factor will be low
(b) power factor (b) windage losses will be more
(c) frequency (c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) output (d) copper loss will reduce In an
Ans: a induction motor
77. Blocked rotor test on induction Ans: a
motors is used to find out 83. In induction motor, percentage slip
(a) leakage reactance depends on
(b) power factor on short circuit (a) supply frequency
(c) short-circuit current under rated (b) supply voltage
voltage (c) copper losses in motor
(d) all of the above (d) none of the above
Ans: d Ans: c
78. Lubricant used for ball bearing is 84. When /?2 is tne rotor resistance, .X2
usually the
(a) graphite rotor reactance at supply frequency
(b) grease and s the slip, then the condition for
(c) mineral oil maximum torque under running condi-
(d) molasses tions will be
Ans: b (a) sR2X2 = 1 (b) sR2 = X2
79. An induction motor can run at (c) R2 = sX2 id) R2 = s2X2
synchronous speed when Ans: c
(a) it is run on load 85. In case of a double cage induction
(b) it is run in reverse direction motor, the inner cage has
(c) it is run on voltage higher than the (a) high inductance arid low resistance
rated voltage (b) low inductance and high resistance
(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit (c) low inductance and low resistance
Ans: d (d) high inductance and high resis¬tance
80. Which motor is preferred for use in Ans: a
mines where explosive gases exist ? 86. The low power factor of induction
(a) Air motor motor is due to
(a) rotor leakage reactance
(b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor (b) stator reactance
(d) Synchronous motor (c) the reactive lagging magnetizing
Ans: a current necessary to generate the
81. The torque developed by a 3-phase magnetic flux
induction motor least depends on (d) all of the above
(a) rotor current Ans: d
(b) rotor power factor 87. Insertion of reactance in the rotor
(c) rotor e.m.f. circuit
(d) shaft diameter (a) reduces starting torque as well as
Ans: d maximum torque
(b) increases starting torque as well as (d) none of the above
maximum torque Ans: c
(c) increases starting torque but maxi- 93. Less maintenance troubles are
mum torque remains unchanged experienced in case of
(d) increases starting torque but maxi- (a) slip ring induction motor
mum torque decreases (6) squirrel cage induction motor
Ans: a (c) both (a) and (b)
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of (d) none of the above
an induction motor to develop a given Ans: b
torque 94. A squirrel cage induction motor is not
(a) decreases the rotor current selected when
(b) increases the rotor current (a) initial cost is the main consideration
(c) rotor current becomes zero (b) maintenance cost is to be kept low
(d) rotor current rernains same (c) higher starting torque is the main
Ans: d consideration
89. For driving high inertia loods best (d) all above considerations are involved
type of induction motor suggested is Ans: c
(a) slip ring type 95. Reduced voltage starter can be used
(b) squirrel cage type with
(c) any of the above (a) slip ring motor only but not with
(d) none of the above squirrel cage induction motor
Ans: a (b) squirrel cage induction motor only but
90. Temperature of the stator winding of not with slip ring motor
a three phase induction motor is obtained (c) squirrel cage as well as slip ring
by induction motor
(a) resistance rise method (d) none of the above
(b) thermometer method Ans: c
(c) embedded temperature method 96. Slip ring motor is preferred over
(d) all above methods squirrel cage induction motor where
Ans: d (a) high starting torque is required
91. The purpose of using short-circuit (b) load torque is heavy
gear is (c) heavy pull out torque is required
(a) to short circuit the rotor at slip rings (d) all of the above
(b) to short circuit the starting Ans: a
resis¬tances in the starter 97. In a star-delta starter of an induction
(c) to short circuit the stator phase of motor
motor to form star (a) resistance is inserted in the stator
(d) none of the above (b) reduced voltage is applied to the
Ans: a stator
92. In a squirrel cage motor the induced (c) resistance is inserted in the rotor
e.m.f. is (d) applied voltage per1 stator phase is
(a) dependent on the shaft loading 57.7% of the line voltage
(b) dependent on the number of slots Ans: d
98. The torque of an induction motor is
(c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced (a) directly proportional to slip
in the rotor (b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip

Ans: a
99. The rotor of an induction motor runs
at
(a) synchronous speed
(b) below synchronous speed
(c) above synchronous speed
Ans: b
100. The starting torque of a three phase
induction motor can be increased by
(a) increasing slip
(b) increasing current
Ans: c
101. Insertion of resistance in the stator
of an induction motor
(a) increases the load torque
(b) decreases the starting torque
(c) increases the starting torque
Ans: b
UNIT IV
DC MACHINES
If the back emf of a dc motor suddenly vanishes
a) The motor will run faster
b) The motor will start hunting the efficiency of the motor will increase
c) The motor will start hunting
d) The motor will burn out
Ans: (d)
If the supply voltage to a shunt motor is increased by 25%, which of the following will
decrease?
a) Starting torque
b) Full load speed
c) Full load current
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
In dc motor, which of the following part can withstand the maximum rise in temperature?
a) Armature winding
b) Field winding
c) Commutator winding
d) Slip rings
Ans: (b)
A dc shunt motor has external resistance R1 in the field circuit and resistance R2 in the armature
circuit. The starting armature current for the motor will be minimum when
a) R1 is minimum and R2 is maximum
b) R1 maximum and R2 is minimum
c) Both R1 is minimum and R2 is maximum
d) Both R1 is minimum and R2 is minimum
Ans: (a)
Two dc series motor are coupled. One motor runs as generator and the other as motor. The
friction losses of the two machines will be equal when
a) Both operate at same voltage
b) Both have same back emf
c) Both have same speed
d) Both have same excitation
Ans: (c)
Two dc series motor are mechanically coupled. One machine runs as motor and the other as
generator. The iron losses of the two machines will be identical when
a) Both have the same excitation
b) Both have the same speed

c) Both have the same back emf
d) Both operate at the same voltage
Ans: (a)
The brush voltage drops in dc in / of the order of
a) 2 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) 40 V
Ans: (a)
The armature torque of a dc motor is a function of its
a) Field flux alone
b) Armature current along
c) Speed alone
d) Both field flux and armature current
Ans: (d)
The shaft torque of a dc motor is less than its armature torque because of
a)Copper losses
b) Mechanical losses
c) Back emf
d) Rotational losses
Ans: (d)
Under constant load condition, the speed of a dc motor is effected by
a) Field flux alone
b) Armature current alone
c) Back emf
d) Both armature current and field flux
Ans: (a)
If the load on a dc shunt motor is increased, its speed decreases primarily due to
a) Increase in its flux

b) Decrease in back emf
c) Increase in armature current
d) Decrease in brush drop
Ans: (b)
If the load current and flux of a dc motor are held constant and voltage applied across are held
constant and voltage applied across its armature is increased by 10 per cent, its speed will
a) Decrease by about 10 per cent

b) Remain unchanged
c) Increase by about 10 per cent
d) Increase by 20 per cent
Ans: (c)
If the field circuit of a loaded shunt motor s suddenly opened
a) It slow down
b) It would draw extremely high armature current
c) Its speed becomes dangerously high
d) Torque developed by the motor would be reduced to zero
Ans: (c)
If the pole flux of a dc motor approaches zero, its speed will
a) Approach zero
b) Approach infinity
c) Not change
d) Approach a stable value between zero and infinity
Ans: (b)
The speed of a dc shunt motor is required be more than full load speed. This may be achieved by
a) Increasing the armature current

b) Decreasing the armature current
c) Increasing the excitation current
d) Reducing the field current
Ans: (d)
If the speed of a dc shunt motor increases, the back emf
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Fist increases and then decreases
Ans: (a)
For a dc motor operating under condition of maximum transfer of power, the efficiency of the
motor is
a) 100%
b) About 90%
c) 75%
d) Less than 50%
Ans: (d)
DC motors are considered most suitable for the applications in

a) Fans
b) Water pumps
c) Traction
d) flour mills
Ans: (c)
Which of the following dc motors will have least percentage increase in input current for a given
percentage increase in torque?
a) Series motor
b) Shunt motor
c) Separately excited
d) Cumulatively compound motor
Ans: (a)
Which dc motor will have highest percentage increase in input current for a given percentage
increase in torque?
a) Series motor
b) Shunt motor
c) Cumulatively compound motor
d) Separately excited motor
Ans: (b)
In a dc series motor, the shaft torque is less than the armature torque due to
a) Eddy current losses

b) Stray losses
c) Hysteresis losses
d) Copper losses
Ans: (b)
If the load current and flux of dc motor are kept construe while the voltage applied across the
armature is increased by 4 percent, the aped of the motor will
a) Remain unchanged
b) Decrease by 4%
c) Increase by 4%
d) Increase by 16%
Ans: (c)
Two dc series motors connected in series are driving the same mechanical load. If now the
motors are connected in parallel, the speed becomes
a) Slightly more than double

b) Slightly less than double
c) Slightly more than half
d) Slightly less than half
Ans: (a)
The direction of rotation of a dc series motor can be reversed by interchanging
a) The supply terminals only

b) The field terminals only
c) The supply and the field terminals
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
By putting a variable resistance (diverter) across the series field in a dc series motor, speed
above normal can be obtained because
a) Armature current decreases

b) Flux gets reduced
c) Line current gets decreased
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
The speed of a dc series motor decreases if the flux in the field winding
a) Remains constant
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
The speed of a series dc motor at no load is

a) Zero
b) Medium
c) High
d) Tending to infinity
Ans: (d)
Which of the following dc motors has the least reduction in speed from no load to rated load?
a) Shunt motor with commutating poles

b) Series motor with commutating poles
c) Series motor without commutating poles
d) Compound motor without commutating poles
Ans: (a)
Which of the following statements about a series motor is correct
a) It can run easily without load.

b) It has poor torque.
c) It has an almost constant speed.
d) Its field winding consists of small number of thick wires.
Ans: (d)
The output power of any electrical motor is taken from
a) The armature
b) The conductors
c) The coupling mounted on the shaft
d) The poles
Ans: (c)
Torque of a motor is
a) Force on N-m acting on the rotor

b) Product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius
c) The electrical power in kW
d) Power given to the load
Ans: (b)
In a dc machine dull yellow spark indicates

a) Winding fault
b) Excessive brush wear
c) Excessive noise
d) None of these
Ans: (d)
M
Answer: c

a) loops
b) nodes
Answer: b
27. If innumerable branches are present in parallel configuration in a network, which method
approves to be extensively beneficial for network analysis?
a. Node method
b. Mesh method
c. Both a and b
ANS: B
28. Under which conditions does the source transformation technique remain directly
unapplicable?
a. Only in the absence of impedance in series with a voltage source

b. Only in the absence of impedance in parallel with a current source
c. Both a and b
ANS: C
29. How is the loop analysis different in application/functioning level as compared to Kirchoff's
law?

d. All of the above
ANS : D
30. Which law plays a significant role in the loop analysis of the network?
a. KCL
b. KVL
ANS : B
31. In any linear network, the elements like inductor, resistor and capacitor always_________

ANS: D
32. The superposition theorem applicable to
A. Voltage only
B. Current only
C. Both current and voltage
ANS: D
33.The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
C. Sources
D. Nodes
ANS: C
C. Power calculations
D. Passive elements
ANS: C
35. Thevenin's resistance Rth is found
D. Between same open terminals as for Eth
ANS: D
36. Application of Norton's theorem to a circuit field
A. Equivalent current source and impedence in series
B. Equivalent current source and impedence in parallel
C. Equivalent impedence
D. Equivalent current source
ANS: A
37. Norton's equivalent resistance is the ..............as Thevenin's equivalent resistance.
A. Not same
B. Same
C. Both A and B
ANS:B
38. ..........theorem is quite useful when the current in one branch of a network is to be
determined or when the current in an added branch is to be calculated.
A. Norton
B. Thevenin
C. Superposition
D. Maximum Power Transfer
ANS: B
B. Passive elements
D. Linear bilateral elements
ANS: D
C. Linear responses only
ANS:C
41. Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance is equal the
output resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the load". The above statement is
associated with
ANS: D
42. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
A. Equal to the load resistance
B. Less than the load resistance
C. Greater than the load resistance
ANS: A
43. ..........theorem is particularly useful for analyzing communication networks.
ANS: D
18. In RC series circuit R = 2Ω, C = 2μF and 10V dc is applied. Then what is the value of current?
0A
2A
5A
10A
ANS: OV
19. Time constant of RL series circuit is
2L/R
RC
L/R
2RC
ANS: L/R
20. Time constant of RC series circuit is
L/R
2RC
2L/R
RC
Time constant of RC series circuit is RC.
1msec
2msec
4msec
100sec
22.Time constant is the time taken for response to rise -------of maximum value?
100%
90%
63.2%
68.3%
Time constant can be defined either with respect to charging or discharging action of energy
storage element. Time constant is the time taken for response to rise 63.2% of maximum value or
decrease 37.8% of its maximum value.
23. In which of the following networks it is not possible to find the transient free response?
RC
RL
RL, RC, and RLC
RLC
24. In RLC series circuit R = 2Ω, L = 2mH and C = 1μF. Find the time constant of the circuit?
1 μsec
2 msec
2 μsec
4 msec
25. Internal resistance of ideal voltage source is
zero
infinite
finite
100 ohms
Ideal voltage source delivers energy at specified voltage, which is independent of current
delivered. So voltage drop is zero and then resistance is zero. Its internal series resistance must be
minimum to delivered maximum voltage.
26. In RLC parallel circuit circuit current through inductor is more than current through capacitor.
Then what is the power factor of the circuit?
lagging
leading
unity
zero
In this circuit inductive effect is more than capacitive effect. Therefore, power factor is lagging in
nature.
27. In a network containing resistances and reactances the roots of the characteristic equation given for
the circuit
ans: C
28. The dual of a parallel R-C circuit is a
a) series R-C circuit
b) series R-L circuit
c) Parallel R-C circuit
d) Parallel R-L circuit
ANS: B
29. If the roots of an equation are real and unequal, then the response will be?
b) under damped
c) over damped
d) damped
Answer: c
30. If the roots of an equation are complex conjugate, then the response will be?
a) over damped
c) damped
d) under damped
Answer: d
damped response. Damping is an influence within or upon an oscillatory system that has the effect
of reducing, restricting or preventing its oscillations.
31. If the roots of an equation are real and equal, then the response will be?
a) over damped
b) damped
d) under damped
Answer: c
32. At time t = 0, the value of current in the circuit shown

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
So, i = 0.
33. The voltage across the inductor at t = 0 in the circuit shown

a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200
Answer: b
Explanation: At t = 0, that is initially the voltage across the inductor is 100V. => V = 100V. So we
can write Ldi/dt = 100.
34. In RC series circuit R = 2Ω, C = 2μF and 10V dc is applied. Then what is the value of current?
0A
2A
5A
10A
ANS: OV
35.Time constant of RL series circuit is
2L/R
RC
L/R
2RC
ANS: L/R
1msec
2msec
4msec
100sec
37. In which of the following networks it is not possible to find the transient free response?
RC
RL
RL, RC, and RLC
RLC
38. In RLC parallel circuit circuit current through inductor is more than current through capacitor.
Then what is the power factor of the circuit?
lagging
leading
unity
zero
In this circuit inductive effect is more than capacitive effect. Therefore, power factor is lagging in
nature.
39. In a network containing resistances and reactances the roots of the characteristic
equation given for the circuit
ans: C
40. If the roots of an equation are real and unequal, then the response will be?
b) under damped
c) over damped
d) damped
Answer: c
41. If the roots of an equation are complex conjugate, then the response will be?
a) over damped
c) damped
d) under damped
Answer: d
damped response. Damping is an influence within or upon an oscillatory system that has the effect
of reducing, restricting or preventing its oscillations.
42. If the roots of an equation are real and equal, then the response will be?
a) over damped
b) damped
d) under damped
Answer: c
43. At time t = 0, the value of current in the circuit shown

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
So, i = 0.
44. The voltage across the inductor at t = 0 in the circuit shown

a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200
Answer: b
Explanation: At t = 0, that is initially the voltage across the inductor is 100V. => V = 100V. So we
can write Ldi/dt = 100.

a) V/R
b) R/V
c) V
d) R
Answer: a
Explanation: The capacitor never allows sudden changes in voltage; it will act as a short circuit at
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM ALL EXAM REVIEW ADDA
NETWORK AND TRANSMISSION LINES 100

IMPORTANT MCQ
Q.1 To calculate Thevenin’s equivalent value in a circuit

(A) all independent voltage sources are opened and all independent current
sources are short circuited.
(B) both voltage and current sources are open circuited
(C) all voltage and current sources are shorted.
(D) all voltage sources are shorted while current sources are opened.
Ans: D
To calculate Thevenin’s equivalent impedance value in a circuit, all independent
voltage sources are shorted while all independent current sources are opened.
Q.2 A 26 dBm output in watts equals to

(A) 2.4W. (B) 0.26W.
(C) 0.156W. (D) 0.4W.
Ans: A
A 26dBm output in watts equals to 0.4 W because
400mW
10×log | | =10× 2.6 = 26 dB
{ [
10 1mW J
[
Q.3 The Characteristic Impedance of a low pass filter in attenuation Band is
(A) Purely imaginary. (B) Zero.
(C) Complex quantity. (D) Real value.
Ans: A
The characteristic impedance of a low pass filter in attenuation band is purely
imaginary.
Q.4 The real part of the propagation constant shows:

(A) Variation of voltage and current on basic unit.
(B) Variation of phase shift/position of voltage.
(C) Reduction in voltage, current values of signal amplitude.
(D) Reduction of only voltage amplitude.
Ans: C
The real part of the propagation constant shows reduction in voltage, current values of
signal amplitude.
1
Q.5 The purpose of an Attenuator is to:

(A) increase signal strength. (B) provide impedance matching.
(C) decrease reflections. (D) decrease value of signal strength.
Ans: D
The purpose of an Attenuator is to decrease value of signal strength.
Q.6 In Parallel Resonance of:

R – L – C circuit having a R – L as series branch and ‘C’ forming parallel branch. Tick
the correct answer only.
(A) Max Impedance and current is at the frequency that of resonance.
(B) Value of max Impedance = L / (CR).
(C) ranch currents are 180 Degree phase shifted with each other.
J 2 ]
(D) 1 1
fr = 2 n| LC − R | .
|[ L2 |
]
Ans: D
In parallel resonance of R-L-C circuit having a R-L branch and ‘C’ forming parallel
branch,
2
1 1
fr = R
2π LC − 2
L
Q.7 In a transmission line terminated by characteristic impedance, Zo
(A) There is no reflection of the incident wave.
(B) The reflection is maximum due to termination.
(C) There are a large number of maximum and minimum on the line.
(D) The incident current is zero for any applied signal.
Ans: A
In a transmission line terminated by characteristic impedance, Zo, there is no
reflection of the incident wave.
Q.8 For a coil with inductance L and resistance R in series with a capacitor C has
(A) Resonance impedance as zero.
(B) Resonance impedance R.
(C) Resonance impedance L/CR.
(D) Resonance impedance as infinity.
Ans: B
For a coil with inductance L and resistance R in series with a capacitor C has a
resonance impedance R.
Q.9 Laplace transform of a unit Impulse function is

(A)s. (B) 0.
−s
(C) e . (D) 1.
Ans: D
2
Laplace transform of a unit Impulse function is 1
Q.10 Millman’s theorem is applicable during determination of

(A) Load current in a network of generators and impedances with two output
terminals.
(B) Load conditions for maximum power transfer.
(C) Dual of a network.
(D) Load current in a network with more than one voltage source.
Ans: D
Millman's theorem is applicable during determination of Load current in a
network with more than one voltage source.
Q.11 Asymmetrical two port networks have

(A) Zsc1 = Zoc2 (B) Zsc1 = Zsc2
(C) Zoc1 ≠ Zoc2 (D) Zoc1 ≠ Zoc2 and Zsc1 ≠ Zsc2
Ans: D
Asymmetrical two port networks have ZOC1 ≠ ZOC2 and ZSC1 ≠ ZSC2
Q.12 An attenuator is a
(A) R’s network. (B) RL network.
(C) RC network. (D) LC network.
Ans: A
An attenuator is a R's network.
Q.13 A pure resistance, R L when connected at the load end of a loss-less 100 Ω line
produces a VSWR of 2. Then R L is
(A) 50 Ω only. (B) 200 Ω only.
(C) 50 Ω or 200 Ω . (D) 400 Ω .
Ans: C
A pure resistance, RL when connected at the load end of a loss-less 100 Ω line produces
a VSWR of 2. Then RL is 50 .fi or 200 fi., as follows:
R 100
VSWR = O = =2 c R = 50 fi
L
RL RL
R
VSWR = L = RL = 2 c R L = 200 fi
RO 100
Q.14 The reflection coefficient of a transmission line with a short-circuited load is
(A) 0. (B) ∞ .
(C) 1.0∠0° . (D) 1.0∠180° .
Ans: A
The reflection coefficient of a transmission line with a short-circuited load is 0.
3
Q.15 All pass filter

(A) passes whole of the audio band.
(B) passes whole of the radio band.
(C) passes all frequencies with very low attenuation.
(D) passes all frequencies without attenuation but phase is changed.
Ans: D
All pass filters, passes all frequencies without attenuation but phase change.
Q.16 A series resonant circuit is inductive at f = 1000 Hz. The circuit will be capacitive some
where at
(A) f > 1000 Hz.
(B) f < 1000 Hz.
(C) f equal to 1000 Hz and by adding a resistance in series.
(D) f = 1000+ fo ( resonance frequency)
Ans: B
A series resonant circuit is inductive at f = 1000 Hz. The circuit will be capacitive some
where at f < 1000 Hz.
Q.17 Compensation theorem is applicable to

(A) non-linear networks. (B) linear networks.
(C) linear and non-linear networks. (D) None of the above.
Ans: C
Compensation theorem is applicable to linear and non-linear networks.
Q.18 Laplace transform of a damped sine wave e−αt sin (θ t).u(t)is
1
(A) . (B) s
.
(s + α) 2
+θ 2
(s + α)2 + θ2
θ 2
(C) . (D) .
(s + α) 2
+θ 2
(s + α) + θ
2 2
Ans: C
Laplace transform of a damped sine wave e-αt sin(θt) u (t) is
θ
(s + α ) 2 + θ 2
Q.19 A network function is said to have simple pole or simple zero if
(A) the poles and zeroes are on the real axis.
(B) the poles and zeroes are repetitive.
(C) the poles and zeroes are complex conjugate to each other.
(D) the poles and zeroes are not repeated.
4
Ans: D
A network function is said to have simple pole or simple zero if the poles and zeroes
are not repeated.
Q.20 Symmetrical attenuators have attenuation ' α' given by

{I [ {I R [
(A) 20 log10 | R |
|[ IS |J (B) 20 log10 || IR R R ||.
[ S S J
{I [ {I [
(C) 10 log10 || R || . (D) 20 log10 || S ||.
I
[ S J [ IR J
Ans: D
Symmetrical attenuators have attenuation ‘α’ given by
J IS ]
α = 20 log10 | |
[I R ]
Q.21 The velocity factor of a transmission line

(A) is governed by the relative permittivity of the dielectric.
(B) is governed by the skin effect.
(C) is governed by the temperature.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: A
The velocity factor of a transmission line is governed by the relative permittivity of
the dielectric.
Q.22 If ' α' is attenuation in nepers then

(A) attenuation in dB = α / 0.8686. (B) attenuation in dB = 8.686 α .
(C) attenuation in dB = 0.1 α . (D) attenuation in dB = 0.01 α .
Ans: B
If ‘a’ .is attenuation in nepers then attenuation in dB = 8.686 α.
Q.23 For a constant K high pass π -filter, characteristic impedance Z0 for f < fc is
(A) resistive. (B) inductive.
(C) capacitive. (D) inductive or capacitive.
Ans: D
For a constant K high pass π-filter, characteristic impedance Zo for f < fc is inductive or
capacitive.
Q.24 A delta connection contains three impedances of 60 Ω each. The impedances of

equivalent star connection will be
(A) 15 Ω each. (B) 20 Ω each.
(C) 30 Ω each. (D) 40 Ω each.
5
Ans: B
A delta connection contains three impedances of 60
60Ω each. The impedances of
equivalent star connection will be 20Ω each.
Q.25 Which one of the following is a passive element?

(A) A BJT. (B) An Inductor.
(C) A FET. (D) An Op-amp.
Ans: B
Which one of the following is a passive element? An Inductor
Q.26 Millman theorem yields

(A) equivalent resistance of the circuit.
(B) equivalent voltage source.
(C) equivalent voltage OR current source.
(D) value of current in milli amperes input to a circuit from a voltage
source.
Ans: C
Millman's theorem yields equivalent voltage or current source.
Q.27 The z-parameters

parameters of the shown T
T-network at Fig.1 are given by
(A) 5, 8, 12, 0
(B) 13, 8, 8, 20
(C) 8, 20, 13, 12
(D) 5, 8, 8, 12
Ans: B
The Z parameters of the T - network at Fig 1.1 are given by 13, 8, 8, 20
Z11 = Z1 + Z3 = 5 + 8 = 13, Z12 = Z3 = 8, Z21 = Z3 = 8, Z22 = Z2 + Z3 = 12 + 8 = 20
5 12
1 2
Ζ1 Ζ2
Ζ3 8
1’ 2’
Fig 1.1
Q.28 To a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The angle between
voltage and current will
(A) decrease. (B) increase.
(C) remain nearly the same. (D) become indeterminant.
6
Ans: C
To a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The angle between
voltage and current will remain nearly the same.
Q.29 The equivalent inductance of Fig.2 at terminals 1 1’ is equal to
(A) L1 + L2 + 2M
(B) L1 + L2 − 2M
(C) L1 + L2
(D) L1 − L2 + 2M
Ans: A
The equivalent inductance of Fig 1.2 at terminals 11’ is equal to
1
L1 + L2 + 2M
M L1 L2
M
1’
Fig 1.2
Q.30 The characteristic impedances z 0 of a transmission line is given by, (where R, L, G, C
are the unit length parameters)
(A) (R + jωL)/(G + jωC) (B) (R + jωL)(G + jω ωC)
(C) (R + jωL)2 /(G + jωC) (D) [(R + jωL)/(G + jωC
j )]1/ 2
Ans: D
The characteristic impedance Zo of a transmission line given by, ( where R, L, G, C are
the unit length parameters
( R + jω L )
Zo =
(G + jωC )
Q.31 The relation between R1 and R 2 for the given symmetrical lattice attenuator shown in
Fig.3 is
(A) R1 = R 2 = R 0
(B) R1 = R 2 / R 2
0
2
(C) R1 = R / R 0
2
(D) R2 = R 2 / R 0
1
7
Ans: B
The relation between R1 and R2 for the given symmetrical lattice attenuator shown in
Fig 1.3 is
a R1 c
2 Ro
R 1 = Ro R2
R2 Ro
R2
VS
R1 b d
Fig 1.3
Q.32 If Laplace transform of x(t) = X(s), then Laplace transform of x(t-t0) is given by
(A) (− t 0 ) X ( s ) (B) X(s − t0 )
(C) e t 0sX( s ) (D) e−t 0sX(s)
Ans: D
If Laplace transform of x(t) = X(s), then laplace transform of x(t – t0) is given by
e −t0 s X (s)
Q.33 The following constitutes a bilateral element

(A) A resistor. (B) FET.
(C) Vacuum tube. (D) metal rectifier.
Ans: A
Q.34 Voltages v1 and v2 in the given circuit are
(A) 20 volts each.

(B) 10 volts each.
(C) 16 volts, 4 volts.
(D) 4 volts, 16 volts.
Ans: B
Voltages v1 and v2 in the given circuit are
Q.35 Step response of series RC circuit with applied voltage V is of the form
(A)
V
i(t) = e−tt RC
V
(B) i(t ) = 1 − e
R
(
−t RCC
)
R
(C)
V −tt RC
i(t) = − e
V
(D) i(t ) = − 1 − e
−t RC
( )
R R
Ans: Step response of series RC circuit with applied voltage V is of the form
8
5 12
1
1’ 2’
Fig 1.1
Q.36 In the given circuit switch S is opened at time t=0, then ( )

dv +
0 is
dt
(A) 106 volt / sec.
(B) 100 volt / sec.
(C) 105 volt / sec.
(D) 10 volt / sec.
Ans:
In a given circuit, switch S is opened at time t = 0, then
1
L1 L2
M
L1 + L2 + 2M
1’
Fig 1.2
Q.37 In the circuit shown, maximum power will be transferred when

(A) ZL = (4.5 + j 6.5)Ω
(B) ZL = (4.5 − j 6.5)Ω
(C) ZL = (6.5 + j 4.5)Ω
(D) ZL = (6.5 − j 4.5)Ω
Ans: B
In the circuit shown, maximum power will be transferred when ZL = (4.5 – j 6.5).fi
Q.38 Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) in terms of reflection coefficient ρ is given by
1− ρ
(A) . (B) ρ −1
.
1+ ρ ρ +1
1+ ρ ρ
(C) . (D) .
1−ρ 1+ ρ
9
Ans: C
1+ρ
VSWR =
1−ρ
Q.39 For a 2-port network, the output short circuit current was measured with a 1V source at
the input. The value of the current gives
(A) h12 (B) y12
(C) h 21 (D) y21
Ans:
R 2 a R c
R1= o
R2 R
R
R
R
V
b R Fig 1.3 d
V(s) s + 3
Q.40 H(s) = = When i(t) is the unit step function, the value of v (t) in the
I(s) (s + 2)2
steady state is given by
3
(A) . (B) 1.
2
3
(C) 0. (D) .
4
Ans:
Q.41 An RLC series circuit is said to be inductive if

(A) ωL > 1 ωC (B) ωL = 1 ωC
(C) ωL < 1 ωC (D) ωL = ωC
Ans: A
A RLC series circuit is said to be inductive if ωL > 1/ωC.
Q.42 Laplace transform of an unit impulse function is given by

(A) 1 (B) -1
(C) 1s (D) 1 s2
10
Ans: A
Laplace transform of an unit impulse function is given by 1.
Q.43 ( )
A function H(s) = 2s s 2 + 8 will have a zero at
(A) s = ± j4 (B) Anywhere on the s-plane.
(C) On the imaginary axis. (D) On the origin.
Ans: D
A function H(s) = 2s/(s2 + 8) will have a zero at the origin.
Q.44 For a two port reciprocal network, the three transmission parameters are given by A = 4,
B = 7 and C = 5. The value of D is equal to
(A) 8.5 (B) 9
(C) 9.5 (D) 8
Ans: B
For a two port reciprocal network, the three transmission parameters are given by A = 4,
B = 7 and C = 5. The value of D is equal to 9.
AD – BC = 1 c 4D = 1+ 35 = 36 c D = 36/4 = 9
Q.45 Higher the value of Q of a series circuit

(A) Sharper is its resonance. (B) Greater is its bandwidth.
(C) Broader is its resonant curve. (D) Narrower is its bandwidth.
Ans: D
Higher the value of Q of a series circuit, narrower is its pass band.
Q.46 An ideal filter should have

(A) Zero attenuation in the pass band.
(B) Zero attenuation in the attenuation band.
(C) Infinite attenuation in the pass band.
(D) Infinite attenuation in the attenuation band.
Ans: A
An ideal filter should have Zero attenuation in the pass band.
Q.47 For an m-derived high pass filter, the cut off frequency is 4KHz and the filter has an
infinite attenuation at 3.6 KHz, the value of m is
(A) 0.436 (B) 4.36
(C) 0.34 (D) 0.6
Ans: A
For an m-derived high pass filter, the cut off frequency is 4KHz and the filter has an
infinite attenuation at 3.6KHz, the value of m is 0.436
f∞
2
(3 .6 × 1000 ) 2
m = 1− = 1− = 0 .436
fc
2
( 4 × 1000 ) 2
11
Q.48 If Zoc = 120Ω and Zsc = 30Ω , the characteristic impedance is

(A) 30Ω (B) 60Ω
(C) 120Ω (D) 150Ω
Ans: B
If Zoc = 120.fi and Zsc = 30 fi, the characteristic impedance is 60fi.
Zo = Z oc Z sc = 120 × 30 = 60 Ω
Q.49 The reflection coefficient of a line is − 1 . The line is

(A) Open circuited. (B) Short circuited.
(C) Terminated in Zo . (D) Of infinite length.
Ans: A
The reflection coefficient of a line is –1. The line is open circuited.
Q.50 If a transmission line of length less than λ 4 is short circuited, it behaves as

(A) Pure capacitive reactance. (B) Series resonant circuit.
(C) Parallel resonant circuit. (D) Pure inductive reactance.
Ans: D
If a transmission line of length less than λ/4 is short circuited, it behaves as pure
inductive reactance.
Q.51 A line becomes distortion less if

(A) It is properly matched (B) It is terminated into Zo
(C) LG = CR (D) LR = GC
Ans: C
A line becomes distortion less if LG = CR
Q.52 Double stub matching eliminates standing waves on the

(A) Source side of the left stub (B) Load side of the right stub
(C) Both sides of the stub (D) In between the two stubs
Ans: A
Double stub matching eliminates standing waves on the Source side of the left stub.
Q.53 If ZOC = 100Ω and ZSC = 64Ω , the characteristic impedance is

(A) 400 Ω (B) 60 Ω
(C) 80 Ω (D) 170 Ω
Ans: (C)
If Zoc = 100 Ω and Zsc = 64. Ω .the characteristic impedance is 80fi
12
s
Q.54 The final value of f (t) for a given F(s) =
(s + 4)(s + 2)
(A) Zero (B) 1 15
(C) 18 (D) 1 6
Ans: (A)
s
The final value of f(t) for a given f (s) = is Zero.
(s + 4)(s + 2)
Q.55 If the given network is reciprocal, then according to the reciprocity theorem
(A) y21 = y12 (B) y22 = y12
(C) y11 = y12 (D) y11 = y22
Ans: A
If the given network is reciprocal, then according to the reciprocity theorem y21 = y12
Q.56 The frequency of infinite attenuation (f∞ ) of a low pass m-derived section is
(A) Equal to cut off frequency (fc ) of the filter.
(B) f∞ = ∞ .
(C) Close to but greater than the fc of the filter.
(D) Close to but less than the fc of the filter.
Ans: C
The frequency of infinite attenuation (f∞) of a low pass m-derived section is Close to
but greater then the fc of the filter.
Q.57 The dynamic impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance is

(A) C LR (B) R LC
(C) L CR (D) LC R
Ans: C
The dynamic impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance is L
CR
e−2t
Q.58 Laplace transform of the function is
(A) 1 2s (B) (s + 2)
(C) 1 (s + 2) (D) 2s.
Ans: (C)
1
Laplace transform of the function e-2t is
s+2
13
Q.59 A (3 + 4j) voltage source delivers a current of (4 + j5) A. The power delivered by the
source is
(A) 12 W (B) 15 W
(C) 20 W (D) 32 W
Ans: A
A (3 + 4j) voltage source delivers a current of (4+ j5) A. The power delivered by the
source is 12 W
Q.60 In a variable bridged T-attenuator, with RA = Ro , zero dB attenuation can be obtained

if bridge arm RB and shunt arm RC are set as
(A) RB = 0, RC = ∞ (B) RB = ∞, RC = 0
(C) RB = R, RC = ∞ (D) RB = 0, RC = R
Ans: A
In a variable bridged T-attenuator, with RA = RO, zero dB attenuation can be obtained
if bridge arm RB and shunt arm RC are set as RB = 0, RC = ∞.
Q.61 Consider a lossless line with characteristic impedance Ro and VSWR = S. Then the
impedance at the point of a voltage maxima equals
(A) SR0 (B) R0/S
2
(C) S R0 (D) R0
Ans: A
Consider a lossless line with characteristic impedance Ro and VSWR = S. Then the
impedance at the point of a voltage maxima equals SRo
Q.62 If f1 and f2 are half power frequencies and fo is the resonance frequency, the
selectivity of RLC circuit is given by
f2 − f1 f −f
(A) (B) 2 1
f0 2f0
f2 − f1 f −f
(C) (D) 2 0
f1 − f0 f1 − f0
Ans: A
If f1 and f2 are half power frequencies and f0 be resonant frequency, the selectivity of
RLC circuit is given by f2 - f1
f0
Q.63 A symmetrical T network has characteristic impedance Zo and propagation constant γ .
Then the series element Z1 and shunt element Z2 are given by
(A) Z1 = Z o sinh γ and Z2 = 2Zo tanh γ 2
(B) Z1 = Z o sinh γ and Z2 = 2Zo tanh γ 2
(C) Z1 = 2Zo tan γ 2 and Z2 = Zo sinh γ
14
(D) Z1 = Zo tanh γ 2 and Z2 = 2Zo sinh γ
Ans: C
A symmetrical T network has characteristic impedance Zo and propagation constant γ.
Then the series element Z1 and shunt element Z2 are given by
Z1 = 2 Zo tan γ/2 and Z2 = Zo / sinh γ
2s
Q.64 A function is given by F(s) = . It will have a finite zero at
(s + 8)
2
(A) Infinity (B) Anywhere on the s-plane

(C) On the imaginary axis (D) On the origin
Ans: D 2s
A function is given by. It F (s) = will have a zero on the origin.
(s + 8)
2
Q.65 For a linear passive bilateral network

(A) h 21 = h12 (B) h 21 = −h12
(C) h12 = g12 (D) h12 = −g12
Ans: B
For a linear passive bilateral network h21 = - h12
Q.66 A constant K band-pass filter has pass-band from 1000 to 4000 Hz. The resonance
frequency of shunt and series arm is a
(A) 2500 Hz. (B) 500 Hz.
(C) 2000 Hz. (D) 3000 Hz.
Ans: C
A constant k band pass filter has pass band from 1000 to 4000 Hz. The resonant
frequency of shunt and series arm is 2000Hz
Q.67 A constant voltage source with 10V and series internal resistance of 100 ohm is
equivalent to a current source of
(A) 100mA in parallel with 100 ohm.
(B) 1000mA in parallel with 100 ohm.
(C) 100V in parallel with 10-ohms.
(D) 100mA in parallel with 1000 ohm.
Ans: A
A constant voltage source with 10V and series internal resistance of 100 ohm is
equivalent to a current source of 100mA in parallel with 100 ohm.
Q.68 Input impedance of a short-circuited lossless line with length λ 4 is

(A) Zo (B) zero
2
(C) infinity (D) z0
15
Ans: C
Input impedance of a short-circuited loss less line with length □/4 is ∞
Q.69 Laplace transform of unit impulse is

(A) u(s) (B) 1
(C) s (D) 1/s
Ans: B
Laplace transform of unit impulse is 1
Q.70 In a two terminal network, the open circuit voltage at the given terminal is 100V and the
short circuit at the same terminal gives 5A current. If a load of 80 Ω resistance is
connected at the terminal, the load current is given by
(A) 1Amp (B) 1.25 Amp
(C) 6 Amp (D) 6.25 Amp
Ans: A
Ina two terminal network, the open circuit voltage at the given terminal is 100V and the
short circuit at the same terminal 5A. If a load of 80 Ω resistance is connected at the
terminal, the load current is given by 1 Amp.
Q.71 Given VTH = 20V and RTH = 5 fi, the current in the load resistance of a network,
(A) is 4A (B) is more than 4A.
(C) is 4A or less (D) is less than 4A.
Ans: D
Given VTH = 20V and RTH = 5 fi, the current in the load resistance of a network,
is less than 4A.
Q.72 The Laplace transform of a function is 1/s x Ee–as. The function is

(A) E sin mt (B) Eeat
(C) E u(t–a) (D) E cos mt
Ans: C
The Laplace transform of a function is 1/s × Ee-as. The function is E u(t - a).
Q.73 For a symmetrical network

(A) Z11 = Z22 (B) Z12 = Z21
(C) Z11 = Z22 and Z12 = Z21 (D) Z11 x Z22 – Z122 = 0
Ans: C
Q.74 A constant k low pass T-section filter has Z0 = 600fi at zero frequency. At f = fc the
characteristic impedance is
(A) 600fi (B) 0
(C) ∞ (D) More than 600fi
Ans: B
16
A constant k low pass T-section filter has Zo = 600fi at zero frequency. At f = fc, the
characteristic impedance is 0.
Q.75 In m-derived terminating half sections, m =

(A) 0.1 (B) 0.3
(C) 0.6 (D) 0.95
Ans: C
In m-derived terminating half sections, m = 0.6.
Q.76 In a symmetrical T attenuator with attenuation N and characteristic impedance R0, the
resistance of each series arm is equal to
(A) R0 (B) (N–1)R0
2N N
(C) R0 (D) R0
2
N 2 −1 N −1
Ans: C
In a symmetrical T attenuator with attenuation N and characteristic impedance Ro, the
resistance of each series arm is equal to 2N R
2 o
N −1
Q.77 For a transmission line, open circuit and short circuit impedances are 20fi and 5fi. The
characteristic impedance of the line is
(A) 100 fi (B) 50 fi
(C) 25 fi (D) 10 fi.
Ans: D
For a transmission line, open circuit and short circuit impedances are 20 fi and 5. fi The
characteristic impedance of the line is 10 fi
Q.78 If K is the reflection coefficient and S is the Voltage standing wave ratio, then
VSWR −1 VSWR −1
(A) k= (B) k =
VSWR +1 VSWR +1
VSWR +1 VSWR +1
(C) k= (D) k =
VSWR −1 VSWR −1
Ans: B
If K is the reflection coefficient and S is the Voltage standing wave ratio, then
VSWR −1
k=
VSWR + 1
Q.79 A parallel RLC network has R=4fi, L =4H, and C=0.25F, then at resonance Q=
(A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 20. (D) 40
Ans: A
17
A parallel RLC network has R = 4fi, L = 4H, and C = 0.125F, then at resonance Q = 1.
Q.80 A delta connection contains three impedances of 60 fi each. The impedances of the
equivalent star connection will be
(A) 15fi each. (B) 20fi each.
(C) 30fi each. (D) 40fi each.
Ans: B
A delta connection contains three impedances of 60 fi each. The impedances of the
equivalent star connection will be 20 fi each.
Q.81 If VTH and RTH are the Thevenin’s voltage and resistance and RL is the load
resistance, then Thevenin’s equivalent circuit consists of
(A) series combination of RTH,VTH and R L .
(B) series combination of R TH and VTH .
(C) parallel combination of RTH,VTH and R L .
(D) parallel combination of R TH and VTH .
Ans: B
If VTH and RTH are the Thevenin’s voltage and resistance and RL is the load
resistance, then Thevenin’s equivalent circuit consists of series combination of RTH
and VTH.
Q.82 If f ( t ) = r(t − α), F(s) =
(A) e−αs (B)

α
s+α
s2 −αs
1 e
(C) (D)
s+α s
Ans: A
−α s
If f(t) = r(t -α ), F (s) = e
s2
Q. 83 The integral of a step function is
(A) A ramp function. (B) An impulse function.
(C) Modified ramp function. (D) A sinusoid function.
Ans: A
The integral of a step function is a ramp function.
Q.84 For a prototype low pass filter, the phase constant β in the attenuation band is
(A) ∞ (B) 0
(C) π (D) π 2
18
Ans: C
For a prototype low pass filter, the phase constant π in the attenuation band is β
Q.85 In the m-derived HPF, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is

(A) above the cut-off frequency. (B) Below the cut-off frequency.
(C) equal to the cut-off frequency. (D) None of these.
Ans: B
In the m-derived HPF, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is below the cut
off frequency.
Q.86 In a symmetrical π attenuator with attenuation N and characteristic impedance Ro , the

resistance of each shunt arm is equal to
(A) RO (B) (N–1)R O
N −1
(C) Ro (D) N +1 R o
N +1 N −1
Ans: D {N+1[
In a symmetrical n attenuator with attenuation N and | |Ro characteristic
[ N −1 J
impedance Ro, the resistance of each shunt arm is equal to
Q.87 In terms of R,L,G and C the propagation constant of a transmission line is

(A) R + jωL (B) (R + jωL)(G + jωC)
R + jωL
(C) G + jωC (D)
G + jωC
Ans: B
In terms of R, L, G and C, the propagation constant of a transmission line is
γ = (R + jω L)(G + jωC)
Q. 88 A line has Zo = 300∠0Ω . If ZL = 150∠0Ω , Voltage standing wave ratio, S =

(A) 1 (B) 0.5
(C) 2 (D) ∞
Ans: C
A line has Zo = 300∠0 fi. If ZL = 150∠0 fi, Voltage standing wave ratio, since
ZO > ZL , S = 2
Zo 300∠0°
=
Z L 150∠0°
Q.89 In a series resonant circuit, the resonant frequency will be
(A) Geometric mean of half power frequencies.
(B) Arithmetic mean of half power frequencies.
(C) Difference of half power frequencies.
19
(D) Sum of half power frequencies
Ans: A
In a series resonant circuit, the resonant frequency is the geometric mean of half
power frequencies.
1
Q.90 A function is given by F(S) = . It would have a zero at
s+3
(A) real axis of s-plane. (B) imaginary axis of s-plane.
(C) at infinity. (D) at the origin.
Ans: C
1
A function is given by F (S ) = . It would have a zero at infinity.
s +3
Q.91 In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in-:
(A) Parallel with each other (B) Series with each other
(C) Parallel with the voltage source (D) Series with the voltage source
Ans: B
In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in
Series with each other
Q. 92 Superposition theorem is not applicable in:

(A) Voltage responses (B) Power responses
(C) Current responses (D) All the three
Ans: B
Superposition theorem is not applicable in Power responses.
Q.93 Kirchoff’s first law is used in the formation of:

(A) Loop equations (B) Nodal equations
(C) Both (D) None of the above
Ans: B
Kirchoff’s first law is used in the formation of Nodal equations.
Q.94 Bridged T network can be used as:

(A) Attenuator (B) Low pass filter
(C) High pass filter (D) Band pass filter
Ans: A
Bridged T network can be used as Attenuator.
Q.95 One neper is equal to

(A) 0.8686 dB (B) 8.686 dB
(C) 118.686 dB (D) 86.86 dB
Ans:
One neper is equal to 0.1151 x attenuation in dB.
20
Q.96 Total reflection can take place if the load is:

(A) 0 (B) ∞
(C) 0 and ∞ (D) Zo
Ans: C
Total reflection can take place if the load is 0 and ∞.
Q.97 The characteristic impedance of a distortion less line is:

(A) Real (B) Inductive
(C) Capacitive (D) Complex
Ans: A
The characteristic impedance of a distortion less line is Real.
Q.98 Terminating half sections used in composite filters are built with the following
value of m:
(A) m = 0.6 (B) m = 0.8
(C) m = 0.3 (D) m = 1
Ans: A
Terminating half sections used in composite filters are built with the following value of
m = 0.6.
Q.99 A transmission line works as an

(A) Attenuator (B) LPF
(C) HPF (D) Neither of the above
Ans: B
A transmission line works as an LPF (Low Pass Filter).
Q.100 In a loss free RLC circuit the transient current is:

(A) Sinusoidal (B) Square wave
(C) Oscillating (D) Non-oscillating
Ans: A
In a loss free RLC circuit the transient current is Sinusoidal.
21
BSNL TTA (JE) BASIC ELECTRICITY 200 EXPECTED
QUESTIONS (WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM) PART TWO
ANSWER KEY-Correct answer is indicated by symbol (V) in options.
HINTS-In some questions options E-HINTS is indicating the hints of answer.
1) The equation for 25 cycles current sine wave having rms value of 30 amps, will be
A [v]) 42.4sin50πt.
B [ ]) 30sin50πt.
C [ ]) 30sin25πt.
D [ ]) 42.4sin25πt.
E [ ]) HINTS-Imsinωt = Imsin2πft.,Im = √2 X 30 = 42.4 A ,f is here 25 Hz ,equation will be
42.4sin2π25t = 42.4sin50πt.
2) The internal resistance of a practical voltage source is considered to be connected in

A [v]) series.
B [ ]) parallel.
C [ ]) either parallel or series.
D [ ]) none of the above.
3) R1 = 36 Ω and R2 = 75 Ω, each having tolerance of ±5% are connected in series. The

value of resultant resistance is
A [ ]) 111 ± 0 Ω.
B [ ]) 111 ± 2.77 Ω.
C [v]) 111 ± 5.55 Ω.
D [ ]) 111 ± 7.23 Ω
E [ ]) HINTS-R1 = 36 ± 5% = 36 ± 1.8 Ω. R2 = 75 ± 5 % =75 ± 3.75 Ω. ∴ R1 + R2 = 111 ± 5.55
Ω.
4) The form factor of sinusoidal alternating current is

A [ ]) 0.
B [ ]) 1
C [v]) 1.11
D [ ]) 1.15
E [ ]) HINTS-form factor=rms value /average value=0.707/0.637=1.11
09/09/2016 This quiz was created with QuizFaber 3.1 build 2 1

5) Whenever current is supplied by a source its terminal voltage
A [ ]) increases.
B [v]) decreases.
C [ ]) remains constant.
D [ ]) increases exponentially.
6) A current of 4 A flows in an AC circuit when 100 V DC is applied to it whereas it takes

250 V AC to produce the same current the power factor of the circuit is
A [v]) 0.4.
B [ ]) 10.
C [ ]) 1.
D [ ]) 0.85.
E [ ]) HINTS=FOR DC,R=V/I=100/4=25 Ohm
FOR AC,Z=V/I=250/4=62.5 Ohm
power factor cosφ=R/Z=25/62.5=0.4
7) A branch of a network is said to be active when it consists of one

A [ ]) resistor.
B [v]) voltage source .
C [ ]) inductor.
D [ ]) capacitor.
8) A branch of a network is said to be passive when it contains

A [v]) voltmeter.
B [ ]) voltage source.
C [ ]) current source
D [ ]) battery.
9) terminal voltage is equal to the source emf.

A [ ]) terminal voltage can not exceed source emf.
B [v]) terminal voltage is always lower than source emf.
C [ ]) terminal voltage is higher than the source emf.
D [ ]) terminal voltage is equal to the source emf.

10) To neglect a voltage source, the terminals across the source are
A [ ]) open circuited.
B [ ]) short circuited.
C [ ]) replaced by some resistance.
D [ ]) replaced by inductor.
11) A network consists of linear resistors and ideal voltage source. If the value of resistors
are doubled, then voltage across each resistor is
A [ ]) halved.
B [ ]) doubled.
C [ ]) increased four lines.
D [v]) not changed.
12) A practical current source is represented by

A [ ]) a resistance in series with an ideal current source.
B [v]) a resistance in parallel with an ideal current source.
C [ ]) a resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage source.
D [ ]) none of above.
13) Constant voltage source is

A [ ]) active and bilateral.
B [ ]) passive and bilateral.
C [v]) active and unilateral.
D [ ]) passive and unilateral.
14) Total power consumed in the circuit below is 10 W. Find x.
A [ ]) 1 A.
B [v]) 2 A.
C [ ]) 3 A.
D [ ]) None of these.

E [ ]) HINTS-Total power consumed = x² X 2 + 2²/2 ∴ 10 W = 2x² + 2 Therefore, x = 2 A.
15) In which braking back emf exceeds supply voltage?

A [v]) Regenerative.
B [ ]) Dynamic.
C [ ]) Plugging.
16) Our household apparatus are connected in

A [v]) parallel.
B [ ]) series.
C [ ]) cascade.
D [ ]) series and parallel combination.
17) In a delta network each element has value R. The value of each element in equivalent
star network will be
A [ ]) R / 6
B [ ]) R / 4.
C [ ]) R / 2.
D [v]) R / 3.
18) Nodal analysis can be applied for

A [ ]) planar networks.
B [ ]) non planar networks.
C [v]) both planner and non planner networks.
D [ ]) neither planner nor non planner networks.
19) Mesh analysis is applicable for

A [v]) planar networks
B [ ]) non planarnetworks
C [ ]) both planner and non planner networks.
D [ ]) neither planner nor non planner networks.

20) KCL works on the principle of which of the following
A [v]) Law of conservation of charge
B [ ]) Law of conservation of energy
C [ ]) both
D [ ]) None of these
21) KVL works on the principle of

A [ ]) Law of conservation of charge
B [v]) Law of conservation of energy
C [ ]) Both
D [ ]) none of these
22) Super mesh analysis is used in case of

A [ ]) Ideal voltage source is connected between two non reference nodes
B [v]) Current source branch is common for two meshes
C [ ]) Both
D [ ]) Either 1 or 2
23) When we use super node technique

A [ ]) Current source branch is common for two meshes
B [v]) Ideal voltage source is connected between two non reference nodes
C [ ]) All of the above
24) If a resistor is connected across the voltage source and the frequency of voltage and
current wave form is 50Hz, then what is frequency of instantaneous power
A [ ]) 0 Hz
B [v]) 100Hz
C [ ]) 50Hz
D [ ]) 150Hz
25) In a series R, L circuit, voltage across resistor and inductor are 3 V and 4 V
respectively, then what is the applied voltage?

A [ ]) 7V
B [v]) 5V
C [ ]) 4V
D [ ]) 3V
E [ ]) HINTS-
26) The alternative names for active power is/are

A [ ]) Real power
B [ ]) Average power
C [ ]) True power
D [v]) All of the above
27) In series R, L circuit power factor can be defined as

A [ ]) R/Z
B [ ]) P/S
C [ ]) Vr/V
28) In RLC series circuit, if the voltage across capacitor is greater than voltage across
inductor, then power factor of the network is
A [ ]) lagging
B [v]) leading
C [ ]) unity
D [ ]) zero
29) In RLC parallel circuit circuit current through inductor is more than current through
capacitor. Then what is the power factor of the circuit?
A [v]) lagging
B [ ]) leading
C [ ]) unity
D [ ]) zero
30) When power factor angle is varying, the shape of the current locus is

A [v]) Semi circle
B [ ]) Circle
C [ ]) Triangle
D [ ]) Straight line
31) In RLC parallel circuit if current through capacitor and inductor is equal. Then What is
the power factor?
A [ ]) lagging
B [ ]) leading
C [v]) unity
D [ ]) zero
32) By which of the following elements transients will not occur?

A [v]) R
B [ ]) L
C [ ]) C
D [ ]) All of the above
33) For steady state current inductor acts as

A [v]) Short circuit
B [ ]) Open circuit
C [ ]) Voltage source
D [ ]) Current source
34) In RL series circuit R=2Ω and L=10mH and applied voltage is 10V DC. Then find the
current in the network?
A [ ]) 0A
B [ ]) 10A
C [v]) 5A
D [ ]) 1A
E [ ]) HINTS-For DC voltage inductor acts as a short circuit at steady state. I=V/R=10/2=5
35) In steady state condition capacitor acts as a

A [ ]) Short circuit
B [v]) Open circuit
C [ ]) Voltage source
D [ ]) Current source
36) Time constant of RL series circuit is

A [ ]) 2L/R
B [ ]) RC
C [v]) L/R
D [ ]) 2RC
37) Time constant of RC series circuit is

A [ ]) L/R
B [ ]) 2RC
C [ ]) 2L/R
D [v]) RC
38) In RL series circuit R=2Ω and L=2mH. What is the value of time constant?
A [v]) 1msec
B [ ]) 2msec
C [ ]) 4msec
D [ ]) 100sec
39) Time constant is the time taken for response to rise -------of maximum value?
A [ ]) 100%
B [ ]) 90%
C [v]) 63.2%
D [ ]) 68.3%
40) Image impedance can be written by using short circuit impedance(Zsc)and open circuit
impedance(Zoc) as
A [ ]) Zsc+Zoc
B [ ]) Zsc-Zoc

C [ ]) Zsc/Zoc
D [v]) (Zsc . Zoc)½
41) Given network is having N nodes and B branches, then number of twigs are
A [ ]) N
B [v]) N-1
C [ ]) B-N+1
D [ ]) B-N-1
42) Given network is having N nodes and b branches, then number of individual loops are
A [ ]) N
B [ ]) N-1
C [v]) b-N+1
D [ ]) b-N-1
43) Mesh analysis is prefered when loops are------nodes

A [v]) less than
B [ ]) greater than
C [ ]) equals to
D [ ]) any of the above
44) A motor having a power factor of 0.8 absorbs in active power of 1200 W the reactive
power drawn from the supply is _________ VA.
A [ ]) 130.
B [v]) 900.
C [ ]) 250.
D [ ]) 400.
E [ ]) HINTS- VI sinφ = reactive power , Active power = 1200 W , cosφ = 0.8 VI = 1200 / 0.8,
reactive power = 1200 / 0.8 × 0.6 = 900 VA.
45) the coils having self inductor of 10 mH and 15 mH have an effective inductor of 40 mH ,
when connected in series aiding. What will be the equivalent inductor if we connect them in
series opposing
A [ ]) 20 mH.

B [ ]) 5 mH.
C [ ]) 0 mH.
D [v]) 10 mH
E [ ]) HINTS- L = L1 + L2 + 2M, when ordinary 40 = 10 + 15 + 2M 2M = 15 mH L = L1 + L2 - 2M ,
when opposing L = 10 mH
46) Reactive power drawn by a pure resistor is

A [v]) 0
B [ ]) minimum
C [ ]) maximum
D [ ]) none of the above
47) Kirchhoffs laws are valid for

A [v]) linear circuit only.
B [ ]) passive time invariant circuits.
C [ ]) non-linear circuits only.
D [ ]) both linear and non-linear circuits.
48) In what connection we get neutral?

A [v]) Star.
B [ ]) Delta.
C [ ]) Mesh.
D [ ]) Both A and B.
49) What is the relation between line voltage and phase voltage in case of delta
connection?
A [v]) VL = VP.
B [ ]) VL =1/ VP.
C [ ]) VL = √3VP.
D [ ]) ALL OF THESE
50) If a resistor and an inductor are connected in series across a voltage source. Which
two parameters in that circuit increase if frequency of voltage source increases?

A [v]) VL and Z.
B [ ]) Z and I.
C [ ]) VL and I.
D [ ]) VL and VR.
51) If a resistor and an inductor are connected in series across a voltage source. Which
two parameters in that circuit decrease if frequency of voltage source increases?
A [ ]) VL and Z.
B [v]) VR and I.
C [ ]) Z and I.
D [ ]) VL and VR.
52) If a resistor and a capacitor are connected to form series R - C circuit across a voltage
source. If frequency of voltage source increases
A [v]) the current increases.
B [ ]) the current decreases.
C [ ]) the current remain unaltered.
D [ ]) the current decreases abruptly.
53) Which of the following characteristics is attributed to an ideal independent voltage

source?
A [v]) Independent of magnitude of current supplied.
B [ ]) Dependent of the magnitude of current supplied.
C [ ]) Dependent of the direction of flow of current.
D [ ]) None of above.
54) With some initial change at t = 0+, a capacitot will act as

A [ ]) short circuit.
B [ ]) open circuit.
C [v]) a voltage source.
D [ ]) a current source.

55) i) In star connection line current is equal to phase current.
ii) In delta connection line voltage is equal to phase voltage.
For a given phase connected to the particular line which of the statement is true ?
A [ ]) Only (1).
B [ ]) Only (2).
C [v]) Both (A) and (B).
56) A 3 -PHASE delta connected symmetrical load consumes P Watts of power from a
balanced supply. If the same load is connected in star to the same supply then what is the
power consumption?
A [v]) P / 3.
B [ ]) P.
C [ ]) 3P.
D [ ]) NONE
57) For a 3 - phase load balanced condition, each phase has the same value of
A [ ]) impedance.
B [ ]) resistance.
C [ ]) power factor.
D [v]) all of these.
58) In delta connected circuit when one resistor is open, then power will be
A [ ]) 0.
B [ ]) increased by factor of 3.
C [v]) reduced by the factor of 3.
D [ ]) remain unchanged.
59) In a highly capacitive circuit

A [ ]) actual power is more than its reactive power
B [v]) reactive power is more than actual power
C [ ]) reactive power is more than apparent power
D [ ]) apparent power is equal to the actual power

60) The peak factor of a triangular ac voltage wave is
A [ ]) 1
B [ ]) 1.11
C [ ]) 1.41
D [v]) 1.732
61) The right hand rule for determining the direction of the induced EMF was introduced by
A [ ]) Faraday
B [ ]) Lenz
C [v]) Fleming
D [ ]) Maxwell
62) Whenever the magnetic flux changes with respect to an electric conductor or a coil, an
EMF is induced in the conductor is Faraday’s
A [v]) first law
B [ ]) second law
C [ ]) third law
D [ ]) fourth law
63) Which of the following represents ohms law

A [ ]) V = RI
B [ ]) J = σE
C [ ]) I = GV
64) Conductor is constant and field is varying then emf will induce. This principle is called
A [ ]) virtually induced emf.
B [ ]) dynamically induced emf.
C [v]) static induced emf.
D [ ]) none of these
65) In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents

A [ ]) voltage.

B [ ]) current.
C [v]) magnetic field.
D [ ]) direction of force on the conductor.
66) Cork Screw rule is used to find

A [ ]) direction of current.
B [v]) direction of magnetic field.
C [ ]) direction of electric field.
D [ ]) direction of emf.
67) Biot-Savarts law states the relation between magnetic intensity and
A [ ]) filament current only.
B [ ]) surface current only.
C [v]) volume current only.
D [ ]) (A), (B), and (C) are all correct.
68) According to Coulomb’s law, the force of attraction or repulsion, between to electrical
charges is
A [ ]) directly proportional to the square of the distance between them.
B [ ]) inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
C [v]) inversely proportional to the distance between them.
D [ ]) directly proportional to the distance between them.
69) Ohm’s law in point from field theory can be expressed as

A [v]) J = σE.
B [ ]) V = IR.
C [ ]) J = E / σ.
D [ ]) R = ρ × ( l / A).
70) It was suggested by _____________ that the electric field should be imagined to be
divided into tubes of force containing a fixed number of line of force
A [ ]) Kelvin.
B [v]) Faraday.

C [ ]) Newton.
D [ ]) all of above.
71) The Biot-savarts law is a general modification of

A [ ]) Kirchhoffs law.
B [ ]) Lenzs law.
C [v]) Amperes law.
D [ ]) Faradays law.
72) The direction of induced emf can be found by

A [ ]) Laplaces law.
B [ ]) Kirchhoffs voltage law.
C [v]) Lenzs law.
D [ ]) Flemings right hand rule.
73) Conductor is varying and field is fixed then emf will induces. This principle is called
A [v]) dynamically induced emf.
B [ ]) static induced emf.
C [ ]) both A and B.
74) Flemings left hand rule may be applied to an electric generator to find out the direction
of
A [v]) induced emf.
B [ ]) rotor rotation.
C [ ]) magnetic field.
75) Which of the following is not the same as watt?

A [ ]) joule/sec
B [v]) amperes/volt
C [ ]) amperes x volts
D [ ]) ( amperes )² x ohm.

76) When P = Power, V = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance and G = Conductance, which
of the following relation is incorrect?
A [ ]) V = √ (PR)
B [ ]) P= V²G
C [v]) G= P / I²
D [ ]) I =√ (P / R)
77) The unit of electrical conductivity is

A [v]) mho / metre
B [ ]) mho / sq. m
C [ ]) ohm / metre
D [ ]) ohm / sq. m.
78) How many different combinations may be obtained with three resistors, each having
the resistance R ?
A [ ]) 3
B [v]) 4
C [ ]) 5
D [ ]) 6
79) Ohm's law is not applicable to

A [ ]) DC circuits
B [ ]) high currents
C [ ]) small resistors
D [v]) semi-conductors.
80) A metal resistor has resistance of 10 ohm at 0°C and 11 ohms at 160°C, the temperature
coefficient is
A [ ]) 0.00625 / °C
B [ ]) 0.0625 /°C
C [v]) 0.000625 /°C
D [ ]) 0.625 /°C.

81) Ohm's law is not applicable in all the following cases Except
A [ ]) Electrolytes
B [ ]) Arc lamps
C [v]) Insulators
D [ ]) Vacuum ratio values.
82) Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient ?

A [ ]) Brass
B [ ]) Mercury
C [v]) Electrolytes
D [ ]) Silver.
83) Variable resistors are

A [v]) Wire wound resistors
B [ ]) Thin film resistors
C [ ]) Thick film resistors
D [ ]) All of the above.
84) Temperature coefficient of resistance is expressed in terms of

A [v]) ohms / ohms oC
B [ ]) mhos / ohm oC
C [ ]) mhos / oC
D [ ]) ohms / oC.
85) A fuse is always installed in a circuit is

A [v]) Series
B [ ]) Parallel.
C [ ]) either series or Parallel.
D [ ]) both

86) The rating of fuse wire is expressed in terms of
A [ ]) Ohms
B [ ]) Mhos
C [v]) Amperes
D [ ]) Watts.
87) The current carrying capacity of the fuse material depends on

A [ ]) cross-sectional area
B [ ]) length
C [ ]) material
D [v]) all of the above.
88) ccording to the fuse law, the current carrying capacity varies as
A [ ]) diameter
B [v]) (diameter)³⁄²
C [ ]) 1 / diameter
D [ ]) )1 / (diameter)²
89) In the color code white color represents the number

A [v]) 9
B [ ]) 8
C [ ]) 7
D [ ]) 6
E [ ]) 5
90) Production of heat due to current is related by which law

A [ ]) Ohm's law
B [v]) Joule's law
C [ ]) Kelvin's law
D [ ]) Maxwell's law.
91) A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that

A [ ]) rheostat has large number of turns
B [ ]) rheostat offers larger number of tappings
C [ ]) rheostat has lower wattage rating
D [v]) rheostat has higher wattage ratings.
92) Which of the following has negative coefficient of resistance?

A [ ]) Wire wound resistor
B [ ]) Metals
C [ ]) Non-metals
D [v]) Thermistor.
93) Certain substances lose their electrical resistance completely at finite low
temperatures. Such substances are called
A [ ]) dielectrics
B [v]) super-conductors
C [ ]) semi conductors
D [ ]) perfect conductors.
94) In a carbon resistor in case fourth stripe is not present, it can be concluded that
A [ ]) the resistor is highly accurate
B [ ]) the resistor is defective
C [ ]) the resistor does not contain carbon
D [v]) the tolerance limit is ± 20 %.
95) In a nickel-cadmium-alkali cell the electrolyte is

A [ ]) sulphur acid
B [v]) potassium hydroxide
C [ ]) zinc chloride
D [ ]) ammonium chloride.
96) All good conductors have high

A [ ]) resistance
B [ ]) electrical conductivity
C [ ]) electrical and thermal conductivity
D [v]) conductance.
97) A light dependent resistor is basically a

A [ ]) power resistor
B [ ]) non-metallic resistor
C [ ]) carbon resistor
D [v]) variable resistor.
98) Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from

A [ ]) graphite
B [ ]) charcoal
C [v]) silicon carbide
D [ ]) nichrome.
99) Metals approach super-conductivity conditions

A [v]) near absolute zero temperature
B [ ]) near critical temperature
C [ ]) at triple point
D [ ]) under the conditions of high temperature and pressure.
100) Voltage dependent resistors are used

A [ ]) as current stabilizers
B [ ]) as heating elements
C [ ]) for inductive circuits
D [v]) to suppress surges.
101) .When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its positive plate
is

A [ ]) dark grey
B [ ]) brown
C [v]) dark brown
D [ ]) none of above
102) Cells are connected in series in order to

A [v]) increase the voltage rating
B [ ]) increase the current rating
C [ ]) increase the life of the cells
103) The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is

A [ ]) just one
B [v]) always greater than one
C [ ]) always less than one
104) The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between

A [ ]) 20 to 30%
B [ ]) 40 to 50%
C [ ]) 60 to 70%
D [v]) 90 to 95%
105) .The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its

A [ ]) temperature
B [v]) rate of charge
C [ ]) rate of discharge
D [ ]) quantity of active material
106) The storage battery generally used in electric power station is

A [ ]) nickel-cadmium battery
B [ ]) zinc-carbon battery

C [v]) lead-acid battery
107) The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

A [ ]) current rating
B [ ]) voltage rating
C [v]) ampere-hour rating
108) Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

A [ ]) maintain proper electrolyte level
B [ ]) increase its reserve capacity
C [ ]) prevent sulphation
D [ ]) keep it fresh and fully charged
109) As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its
A [ ]) compactness
B [ ]) lower e.m.f.
C [ ]) small quantity of electrolyte used
D [v]) higher internal resistance
110) The output voltage of a charger is

A [ ]) less than the battery voltage
B [v]) higher than the battery voltage
C [ ]) the same as the battery voltage
111) The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between

A [ ]) 25 to 35%
B [ ]) 40 to 60%
C [v]) 70 to 80%
D [ ]) 90 to 95%

112) In ______ system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum
or minimum value
A [v]) two rate charge control
B [ ]) trickle charge
C [ ]) floating charge
D [ ]) an equalizing charge
113) When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15
the cell is in
A [ ]) charged state
B [v]) discharged state
C [ ]) both (A) and (B)
D [ ]) active state
114) .The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance

A [v]) increases
B [ ]) decreases
C [ ]) remains same
115) The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by

A [ ]) manometer
B [ ]) a mechanical gauge
C [v]) hydrometer
D [ ]) psychrometer
116) Each cell has a vent cap

A [ ]) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
B [ ]) to add water to the cell if needed
C [ ]) to check the level of electrolyte
D [v]) to do all above functions

117) The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
A [ ]) its chemical constituents
B [ ]) on the strength of its electrolyte
C [ ]) its temperature
D [v]) all above
118) Over charging

A [ ]) produces excessive gassing
B [ ]) loosens the active material
C [ ]) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
D [v]) all above
119) Internal short circuits are caused by

A [ ]) breakdown of one or more separators
B [ ]) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
C [v]) both (A) and (B)
120) .Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens because of
A [ ]) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
B [ ]) topping up with electrolyte
C [ ]) topping up with electrolyte
D [ ]) low level of electrolyte
E [v]) ALL OF ABOVE
121) .Undercharging
A [v]) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
B [ ]) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
C [ ]) produces excessive gassing
D [ ]) increases the temperature
122) If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

A [ ]) current delivered by the battery will be high
B [ ]) current drawing will be nil
C [ ]) current drawing will be very small
D [v]) current drawing will be very high
123) In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully
charged condition
A [ ]) decreases
B [v]) increases
C [ ]) remains constant
124) .Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level of plates

A [v]) below
B [ ]) equal to
C [ ]) above
125) .Cell short circuit results in

A [ ]) low sp. gravity electrolyte
B [ ]) abnormal high temperature
C [ ]) reduced gassing on charge
D [v]) all above
126) Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by

A [ ]) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
B [ ]) increasing the plate area
C [ ]) putting plates very close together
D [v]) all above methods
127) Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high

A [ ]) excessive gassing will occur
B [ ]) temperature rise will occur

C [ ]) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
D [v]) all above will occur
128) .Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be

A [v]) 10% of capacity
B [ ]) 20% of capacity
C [ ]) 30% of capacity
D [ ]) 40% of capacity
129) Cells are connected in parallel to

A [ ]) increase the efficiency
B [v]) increase the current capacity
C [ ]) increase the voltage output
D [ ]) increase the internal resistance
130) .When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
A [v]) they have same e.m.f.
B [ ]) they have same make
C [ ]) they have same ampere-hour capa-city
D [ ]) they have identical internal resistance
131) Thevenin resistance Rth is found

A [ ]) by removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances
B [ ]) by short-circuiting the given two terminals
C [ ]) between any two 'open' terminals
D [ ]) between same open terminals as for Eequvalent
132) In Thevenin's theorem, to find Z

A [ ]) all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage sources are
open circuited
B [ ]) all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent current sources are
short circuited
C [ ]) all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited

D [v]) all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all independent current sources are
open circuited
133) A bilateral networks having independent voltage or current source is replaced by a

singe voltage source in series with single equevalent resistance is known as
A [ ]) NORTONS THEOREMS
B [ ]) SUPERPOSITION THEOREMS
C [v]) THEVENINS THEOREMS
D [ ]) ALL OF ABOVE
134) A bilateral networks having independent voltage or current source is replaced by a

singe current source in parrallel with single equevalent resistance is known as
A [ ]) Thevenins theorem
B [ ]) Maximum power theorem
C [v]) Nortons theorems
D [ ]) Non og above
135) which one is Joules law

A [ ]) H=VIt
B [ ]) H=Wt
C [ ]) H=I²Rt
D [v]) all of above

WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM ALL EXAM REVIEW ADDA WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.IN ENGINEERS GUIDER
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MOST IMPORTANT 770 MCQ
1. The ratio of voltage and electric current in a closed circuit
a. remains constant b. varies c. increases d. falls
Ans-c
2. The curve representing ohm's law is
a. sine function b. Linear c. a parabola d. a hyperbola
Ans-b
3. The resistance of a conductor having length l area of cross section a and resistivity ρ is given
as:
a. ρa/l b. ρl/a c. ρla d. l/ρ
Ans-b
4. The resistance of wire varies inversely as
a. area of cross section b. length c. resistivity d. temperature
Ans-a
5. Which of the following quantities are same in all parts of a series circuit?
a. voltage b. power c. current d. resistance
Ans-c
6. Which of the following statements is false in case of a series circuit?
a. the voltage drop across each resister is same
b. the current flowing through each resistor is the same
c. applied voltage is equal to the sum of voltage drops across individual resistors are additive
d.none
Ans-b
1|Page NANDINI EDUCATION

7. A resistance of 30 ohm is connected across 240v supply. If a resistance R ohm is connected in

parallel with 30ohm resistor across the same supply, the current drawn becomes triple of original
one The unknown resistor R is
a. 15ohm b. 10ohm c. 5ohm d.30ohm
Ans-a
8. Three resistors, each of R ohms, are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any
two terminals will be:
a. 2/3 R b. 3/2R c. R d. 3R
Ans-a
9. Which of the following is not correct?
a. P=V/R^2 b. P=VI c. I=√ (P/R) d. V=√PR
Ans-
10. A 100W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 100W bulb is replaced by a
40w bulb, the heater output will :
a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same
Ans-b
11. The voltage applied across an electric iron is halved. The power consumption of the iron will
be:
a. one-half b. one-fourth c. 1/√2times d. three-fourth
Ans-b
12. Resistance of 200w,250v lamp will be
a. 625ohm b. 1250ohm c.312.5ohm d.31.25ohm
Ans-c
13. Two heaters rated at 1000w, 250v each are connected in series across a 250v, 50Hz ac
supply. The total power drawn from the supply will be:
a. 1000w b. 500w c. 250w d.2000w

Ans-b
14. A 200w, 100v lamp is to be operated on 250v supply. The additional resistance required to be
connected in series will be:
Ans-c
15. Kirchoff's laws are valid for
a. linear ckt only b. passive time invariant ckt
c. non-linear ckt only d. both linear & non-linear ckt
Ans-d
16. KCL is applicable only to
a. electric circuits b. electronic circuits
c. junctions in a network d. closed loop in a network
Ans-c
17. KVL is concerned with
a. IR drop b. battery emf c. junction node d. both a and b
Ans-c
18. A wye arrangement of resistances has each resistance of 3ohm, the equivalent delta
arrangement will have each resistance of values.
a. 9ohm b. 6ohm c. 3ohm d. 1ohm
Ans-a
19. A battery is connected to a resistance causing a current of 0.5A in the circuit. The current
drops to 0.4 when an additional resistance of 5? is connected in series . The current will drop to
0.2A when the resistance is further increased by
a. 10 ohm b. 15ohm c. 25ohm d.5 ohm
Ans-c

20. Cells are connected in series in order to increase the
a. current capacity b. life of the cells c. voltage rating d. terminal voltage
Ans-c
21. Cells are connected in parallel in order to increase
a. life of the cells b. efficiency c. current capacity d. voltage rating
Ans-c
22. When two cells are connected in parallel , it should ensure that have
a. identical internal resistances b. equal emfs c. same ampere hour capacity
Ans-b
23.The capacity of a battery is expressed in

a. amperes b. amperes-hour c. watts d. watt-hour
Ans-b
24. A series resonant circuit implies
a. zero pf and maximum current b. unity pf and maximum current
c. unity pf and minimum current d. zero pf and minimum current
Ans-c
25. which one is classified as integrating instrument?
a. D'arsonval galvanometer b. ampere-hour meter c. ohm-meter d. ammeter
Ans-b
26. Which of the following types of instrument is an integrating instrument?
a. power factor meter b. energy meter c. watt meter d. frequency meter
Ans-b

27. Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so that
a. its range is high b. Its accuracy is high
c. it may draw current minimum possible d. its sensitivity is high
Ans-c
28. If a voltmeter is connected like a ammeter in series with a load
a. the measurement reading will be too high b. Almost no current will flow in the circuit
c. the meter will burn out d. an inadmissably high current will flow
Ans-b
29. A multirange instrument (ammeter or voltmeter) has
a. Multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter b. variable coil turns
c. multi -coil arrangement d. any of the above
Ans-a
30. The S.I. unit of power is

a. henry b. coulomb c. watt d. watt-hour
Ans-c
31. Electric pressure is also called
a. resistance b. power c. voltage d. energy
Ans-c
32 The substances whfch have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are
called
a. insulators b. inductors c. semi-conductors d. conductors
Ans-d
33. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
a. Cast iron b. Copper c. Carbon d. Tungsten
Ans-b
34. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?
a. Copper b. Gold c. Silver d. Paper
Ans-d

35. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called

a. resistance b. reluctance c. conductance d. inductance
Ans-cc
36 . Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) reluctance (d) capacitance
Ans-a
37. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
(a) length (b) area of cross-section (c) temperature (d) resistivity
Ans-b
38. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases (d) remains constant
Ans-a
39. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
(a) decreases (b) increases
Ans-a
40. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its
specific resistance is around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m (b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 10""8 Q-m (d) 1.8 x 10"8 Q-m
Ans-c
41. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms (b) 10 ohms (c) 15 ohms (d) 55 ohms
Ans-a
42. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
(a) voltmeter (b) rheostat (c) wattmeter (d) galvanometer
Ans-d
43. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage across the resistor is
(a) 33 V (b) 66 v (c) 80 V (d) 132 V
Ans-b
44. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance of the light
bulb is (a) 400 ohm (b) 600 ohm (c) 800 ohm (d) 1000 ohm
Ans-c

45. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of
one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other ?
(a) 18 ohm (b) 36 ohm (c) 48 ohm (d) 64 ohm
Ans-b
46. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when
connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 ohm. If the same four wires are connected is series
the effective resistance will be
Ans-d
47. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and
12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A (b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A (c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A (d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans-b
48. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy (b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few micro second (d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans-c
49. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Manganin (b) Porcelain (c) Carbon (d) Copper
Ans-a
50. You have to replace 1500 ohm resistor in radio. You have no 1500 ohm resistor but have
several 1000 ohm ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel (b) two in parallel and one in series (c) three in parallel (d) three in series
Ans-b
51. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
(a) same current passes in turn through both (b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents (d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Ans-a
52. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents (b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive (d) Power are additive
Ans-d
53. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Copper (b) Aluminum (c) Carbon (d) Brass
Ans-c

54. Ohm's law is not applicable to

(a) vacuum tubes (b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits (d) circuits with low current densities
Ans-a
55. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?
(a) Iron (b) Silver (c) Copper (d) Carbon
Ans-b
56. For which of the following 'ampere second' could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance (b) Charge (c) Power (d) Energy
Ans-b
57. All of the following are equivalent to watt except
(a) amperes square ohm (b) joules/sec. (c) amperes x volts (d) amperes/volt
Ans-d
58. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10W is likely to be a
(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor
Ans-c
59. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans-a
60. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(b) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Ans-b
61. Insulating materials have the function of
(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
(c) conducting very large currents
(d) storing very high currents
Ans-a

62. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Ans-d
63. The minimum charge on an ion is
(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom zero
Ans-b
64. In a series circuit with unequal resistances
(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Ans-c
65. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans-c
66. A 3 ohm resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of
(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 12 watts
Ans-d
67. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an voltmeter
Ans-
68. The resistance of a few metres of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
(a) practically zero(b) low(c) high (d) very high
Ans-a

69. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current

(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance (b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches (d) is zero in the highest resistive branch
Ans-c
70. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Ans-a
71. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns open
(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Ans-b
72. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of the
following statement is true ?
(a) The current through each bulb in same
(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
Ans-a
73. Two resistances Rl and R2 are connected in series across the voltage source where R2>R1.
The largest drop will be across
(a) R2
(b) R1
(c) either Rl or R2
(d) none of them
Ans-a
74. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with
potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans-d
10 | P a g e NANDINI EDUCATION
75. A closed switch has a resistance of

(a) zero
(b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) infinity
Ans-a
76. The hot resistance of the bulb's filament is higher than its cold resistance because the
temperature co-efficient of the filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree
Ans-c
77. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans-d
78. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
(a) to prevent leakage of current (b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factor (d) none of above factors
Ans-c
79. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it
Ans-a
80. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit ?
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans-b
81. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100
W bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Ans-b
82. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes,
using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
Ans-a
83. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Ans-d
84. Resistance of a tungsten as applied voltage increases
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
Ans-b
85. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects
Ans-c
86. Resistance of a material always decreases if
(a) temperature of material is decreased
(6) temperature of material is increased
(c) number of free electrons available become more
Ans: c
87. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?
(a) Input power (b) Losses (c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed (e) Ratio of output to input
Ans: b
88. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due
to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Ans: a
89. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
90. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
91. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the
magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
92. It becomes more difficult to remove
(a) any electron from the
(6) first electron from the orbit
(c) second electron from the orbit
(d) third electron from the orbit
Ans: d
93. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
(a) reduce
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) become zero
Ans: c
94. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
95. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of the
following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will brighter (b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright (d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Ans: b
96. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
97. In the case of direct current
(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Ans: a
98. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This
suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
Ans: b
99. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
100. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
101. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
Ans: c
102. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching
operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
Ans: a
103. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) capacitance (d) impedance
Ans: b
104. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without
change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
(a) 1/9 times (b) 3 times (c) 9 times (d) unchanged
Ans: c
105. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a portion
of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
106. A field of force can exist only between
(a) two molecules
(b) two ions
(c) two atoms
(d) two metal particles
Ans: b
107. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called
(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
108. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a
109. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
110. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm's law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
111. 3 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two
corners
?
(a) 3/2 Q (b 6 Q (c) 4 Q (d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
(a) semi-conductors (b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors (d) high currents
Ans: a
113. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four
times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40
ohms the resistance of other conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
114. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 £2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at
200 V, the length of wire required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
115. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/°C
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
(d) mhos/°C
Ans: c
116. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans: d
117. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
118. The condition for the validity under Ohm's law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end
Ans: a
119. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor
and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity
of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator
Ans: a
120. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

(a) has lower wantage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tappings
Ans: b
121. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical
cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is
(a) 50%
(b) 60% (c) 100% (d) 150%
Ans: a
122. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero
Ans: b
123. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much
greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors
Ans: c
124. All good conductors have high
(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
Ans: a
125. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(a) charcoal (b) copper
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite
Ans: c
126. Voltage dependent resistors are used
(a) for inductive circuits
(6) to supress surges
(c) as heating elements
(d) as current stabilizers
Ans: b
127. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
(a) 1840 (b) 1840 (c) 30 (d) 4
Ans: a
128. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
129. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power
supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
130. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
131. If, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule's law
heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
132. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver
Ans: c
133. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one microampere current to flow
through it.The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
Ans: a
134. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ?

(a) Compounds of silver
(6) Liquid metals
(c) Metallic alloys
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
135. Conductance : mho ::
(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Ans: a
136. 1 angstrom is equal to
(a) 10-8 mm (6) 10"6 cm (c) 10"10 m (d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
137. One newton metre is same as
(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second
Ans: b
138. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled, the
force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Ans: b
139. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the
distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C
(b) 600 N/C
(c) 800 N/C
(d) 1200 N/C
Ans: c
140. The lines of force due to charged particles are
(a) always straight(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved(d) none of the above
Ans: b
141. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is
(a) proportional to d
(b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d
Ans: b
142. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .
(a) away from the charge (b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
Ans: a
143. A field line and an equipotential surface are
(a) always parallel(b) always at 90°
(c) inclined at any angle 0(d) none of the above
Ans: b
144. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the existence of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) electric field
Ans: d
145. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the of an , the capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Ans: b
146. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is
(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.8 F
Ans: a
147. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having
(a) low permittivity
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Ans: b
148. The units of capacitance are
(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/Wb
Ans: b
149. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: a
150. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net cararitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: b
151. A dielectric material must be
(a) resistor
(b) insulator
(c) good conductor
(d) semi conductor
Ans: b
152. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
(a) D.C. only

(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.
Ans: a
153. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by
(a) distance between plates
(6) area of plates
(c) thickness of plates
Ans: c
154. Which of the following is not a vector ?
(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Electric field
(d) Electric potential
Ans: b
155. Two plates of a parallel capacitor after being charged from a constant voltage source are
separated apart by means of insulated handles, then the
(a) Voltage across the plates
(b) voltage across the plates decreases
(c) charge on the capacitor decreases
(d) charge on the capacitor increases
Ans: b
156. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit
because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Ans: a
157. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times greater
than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ?
(a) 50 (b) 100
(c) 150 (d) 200
Ans: b
158. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Air capacitors have a blackband to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
(c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity

(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF
Ans: b
159. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of
(a) 0.0002
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.02
(d) 0.2
Ans: a
160. "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
amount oflcharge enclosed".The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb's square law
(b) Gauss's law
(c) Maxwell's first law
(d) Maxwell's second law
Ans: b
161. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be
obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Ans: c
162. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains
unaffected ?
(a) Distance between plates
(b) Area of the plates
(c) Nature of dielectric
(d) Thickness of the plates
Ans: d
163. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
Ans: b
164. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
(c) E = jtD
(d) E= nD2
Ans: a
165. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) both (a) and (6)
Ans: b
166. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil
Ans: c
167. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Silver plated mica capacitor
Ans: c
168. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Ans: b
169. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
170. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
Ans: a
171. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) zero
Ans: c
172. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Ans: a
173. In a capacitive circuit
(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
Ans: b
174. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference
between plates will
(a) remain uncharged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) become zero
Ans: b
175. Capacitance increases with
(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Ans: a
176. A capacitor consists of
(a) two insulators separated by a conductor
(b) two conductors separated by an insulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors only
Ans: b
177. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of

(a) tubes
(b) rolled foil
(c) disc
(d) meshed plates
Ans: b
178. Air capacitors are generally available in the range
(a) 10 to 400 pF
(b) 1 to 20 pF
(c) 100 to 900 pF
(d) 20 to 100 pF
Ans: a
179. The unit of capacitance is

(a) henry
(b) ohm
(c) farad
(d) farad/m
Ans: c
180. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF
Ans: b
181. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections,
which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any-of the above
Ans: c
182. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of
voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Ans: a
183. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by (a) 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m)
(6) 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m)
(c) 8.854 x KT11 F/m (d) 8.854 x 10"12 F/m
Ans: b
184. The relative permittivity of free space is given by
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100 (d) 1000
Ans: a
185. Electric field intensity is a quantity
(a) scalar
(b) vector
Ans: b
186. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Ans: d
187. The capacitor preferred for high circuits is
(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
Ans: b
188. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts
Ans: c
189. While testing a capacitor with ohm-metre, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final
resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Ans: d
190. If a 6 mF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will be
(a) 800 uC
(b) 900 uC
(c) 1200 uC
(d) 1600 uC
Ans: c
191. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Both will be of equal size
Ans: a
192. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser to
make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF
Ans: b
193. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions. Which
will have more value of capacitance ?
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied voltage
Ans: a
194. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper
Ans: b
195. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
196. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually

(a) 20 to 60 volts
(b) 200 to 1600 volts
(c) 2000 to 3000 volts
(d) more than 10000 volts
Ans:b
197. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 3 to 8
(d) 1 to 2
Ans: c
198. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Ans: b
199. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity ?

(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
200. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ?
(a) Air capacitor
(c) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage breakdown
rating for a capacitor .
(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the capacitance
value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the
combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two conductors
Ans: b
202. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of
(a) ± 5% (b) ± 10% (c) ± 15% (d) ± 20%
Ans: b
203. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic disc capacitor
Ans: b
204. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a distance
of
0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
205. The units of volume charge density are
(a) Coulomb/metre
(b) Coulomb/metre
(c) Coulomb/metre
(d) Coulomb/metre
Ans: c
206. "The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any
closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface".
(a) Gauss's law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) 's law
(d) Lenz's law
Ans: a
207. Dielectric strength of mica is
(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
(c) 50 to 200 kV/mm
(d) 300 to 500 kV/mm
Ans: c
208. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by (a) 0.1 to 0.4
(b) 0.5 to 1.0(c) 2.0 to 4.0 (d) 5 to 100
Ans: d
209 capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: b
210. capacitors can be used only for D.C.
(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
211. capacitors are used in transistor circuits.
(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: a
212. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceramic
Ans: b
213. The inverse of capacitance is called
(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastance
Ans: d
214. When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is
(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) zero
Ans: a
215. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the material of
high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
Ans: b
216. field is associated with the capacitor.
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: a
217. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged to a potential difference of 10,000 V. The
energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 50 joules
(b) 150 joules
(c) 200 joules
(d) 250 joules
Ans: d
218. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the internal
diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
Ans: b
219. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential
difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
(d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
Ans: d
220. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) potential gradient
(d) charge
Ans: d
221. The relative permittivity has the following units
(a) F/m
(b) m/F
(c) Wb/m
(d) no units
Ans: c
222. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a charged
body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Ans: d
223. A unit tube of flux is known as tube
(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
Ans: b
224. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge density
Ans: a
225. The unit of electric intensity is
(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2/C
Ans:c
226. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
(a) Faraday's laws
(b) Kirchhoff s laws
(c) Coulomb's laws
Ans: c
227. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit cross
section at that point.
(a) Electric intensity
(6) Magnetic flux density
(c) Electric flux
Ans: a
228. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point.
(a) electric flux
(b) magnetic flux density
Ans: c
229. Electric displacement is a quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both of the above
Ans: b
230. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.
(6) Electric flux
(c) Magnetic flux
(d) Magnetic flux density
Ans: a
231. The unit of dielectric strength is given by
(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/V2
Ans: a
232. Dielectric strength with increasing thickness
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered
Ans: b
233. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its
(a) capacitance
(b) charge
(c) energy
Ans: a
234. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Potential gradient
Ans: b
235. A capacitance of 100 pF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 ohm. The time
constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s
Ans: d
236. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the
(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulator
Ans: b
237. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging
voltage actually rises to _ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 63.2, initial
(c) 63.2, final
(d) 37, final
Ans: c
238. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the
charging current falls to percent of its initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 73
Ans: a
239. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by

(a) plate area
(b) plate separation
(c) nature of dielectric
(e) all of the above
Ans:e
240. A capacitor consists of two
(a) ceramic plates and one mica disc
(b) insulators separated by a dielectric
(c) silver-coated insulators
(d) conductors separated by an insulator
Ans: d
241. Permittivity is expressed in
(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/metre
(c) Weber/metre
(d) Weber/sq-m
Ans: b
242. Dielectric strength of a material depends on
(a) moisture content
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
Ans: d
243. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is
applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Ans: c
244. Which medium has the least dielectric strength ?
(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Quartz
(c) Glass
(d) Air
Ans: d
245. 1 volt/metre is same as
(a) 1 metre/coulomb(6) 1 newton metre(c) 1 newton/metre(d) 1 joule/coulomb
Ans: c
246. One volt is the same as
(a) one joule/coulomb
(b) one coulomb/joule
(c) one coulomb
(d) one joule
Ans: a
247. The capacitance between two plates increases with
(a) shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
(6) shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
(c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher,applied voltage
(d) larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
Ans: d
248. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging
circuit is given by
(a) CIR
(b) 1/RC
(c) RC
(d) RIC
Ans: c
249. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien's bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay's bridge
Ans: c
250. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactory
Ans: b
251. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest
dimensions ?
(a) Aluminium foil capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor

(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: c
252. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then
(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the charging
body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
(d) it remains as such
Ans: b
253. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the
(a) charge of the charged conductor
(6) capacity of the charged conductor
(c) potential of the charged conductor
Ans: b
254. Paper condenser is
(a) always polarised
(6) usually of fixed value
(c) electrolytic condenser
(d) a variable condenser
Ans: b
255. Mica capacitors are characterised by all of thte following except
(a) stable operation
(b) accurate value
(c) low leakage reactance
(d) low losses
Ans: c
256. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4 mm apart. The
strength of electric field is
(a) 100 kV/m
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
(d) 2 kV/m
Ans: a
257. For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading should
(a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance
(6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
(c) go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there
(d) not move at all
Ans: a
258. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is
(a) infinity
(b) few kilo ohms
(c) few megaahms
(d) zero
Ans: d
(a) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 \iF
(b) Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(c) Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
(d) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
Ans: c
260. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor (b) Electrolytic capacitor (c) Mica capacitor (d) none of the above
Ans: c
261. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide
(a) low capacitance
(b) fixed capacitance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) large value of capacitance
Ans: d
262. In order to remove static electricity from machinery
(a) construct insulated cabins
(b) insulate the machinery
(c) ground the framework
(d) humidify the surroundings
Ans: c
263. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges, then
this third charge will
(a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges
(b) remain in stable equilibrium
(c) not be in equilibrium
(d) be in unstable equilibrium
Ans: b
264. A region around a stationary electric charge has
(a) an electric field
(b) a magnetic field
Ans: a
265. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
(a) insulation
(b) conductor
(c) outer sheath
(d) uniformly all over
Ans: a
266. Dielectric strength of medium
(a) increases with rise in temperature
(b) increases with moisture content
(c) is same for all insulating materials
Ans: d
267. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a force
of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulomb
Ans: b
268. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in
(a) J/mm (b) C/m2 (c) kV/mm (d) N/mm
Ans: c
269. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close
together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be
(a) 5 times smaller than before
(b) 5 times greater than before
(c) 10 times greater than before
(d) 25 times larger than before
Ans: d
270. Which is the most superior dielectric out of the following ?

(a) Air
(b) Glass
(c) Bakelite
(d) Paper
Ans: c
271. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) reduces to zero

(d) remain unchanged
Ans: a
272. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather
(a) surface is moistened
(b) conductive dressing is done
(c) oil compound dressing is done
(d) talcum powder is sprayed on the surface
Ans: b
273. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(d) Ceramic capacitor
Ans: c
274. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: a
275. A condenser suitable for D.C. only is
(a) metallic plate variable gang condenser
(b) metallic paper capacitor
(c) oil impregrated paper condenser
(d) poled aluminium electrolytic condenser
Ans: d
276. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates (b) dielectric
(c) dielectric as well as metal plates (d) none of the above
Ans: b
277. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to
(a) increase m.m.f.
(b) increase the flux
(c) prevent saturation
Ans: c
278. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is

(a) less than one
(b) more than one
(c) more than 10
(d) more than 100 or 1000
Ans: d
279. The unit of magnetic flux is
(a) henry
(b) weber
(c) ampereturn/weber
(d) ampere/metre
Ans: b
280. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to in an electric circuit.
(a) resistance
(b) resistivity
(c) conductivity
(d) conductance
Ans: c
281. Point out the wrong statement.
Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it
(a) lowers their power efficiency
(b) increases their cost of
(c) leads to their increased weight
(d) produces fringing
Ans: a
282. Relative permeability of vacuum is
(a) 1
(b) 1 H/m
(c) 1/4JI
(d) 4n x 10-' H/m
Ans: a
283. Permanent magnets are normally made of
(a) alnico alloys
(b) aluminium
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought iron
Ans: a
284. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by percent.
(a) 25(b) 50 (c)41.4 (d) 100
Ans: c
285. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which
have permeability and hystersis loss.
(a) high, high
(b) low, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: c
286. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum
(a) at 63.2% of its maximum steady value
(b) at the start of the current flow
(c) after one time constant
(d) near the final maximum value of current
Ans: b
287. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
(a) time constant remains unchanged
(b) initial rate of rise of current is doubled
(c) final steady current is doubled
(d) time constant is halved
Ans: a
288. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly
connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is Vs
(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 0.05 (d) 500
Ans: b
289. A material for good magnetic memory
(a) low hysteresis loss
(b) high permeability
(c) low retentivity
(d) high retentivity
Ans: d
290. Conductivity is analogous to
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) permeability
(d) inductance
Ans: c
291. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to

(a) rapid reversals of its magnetization (b) flux density lagging behind magnetising force
(c) molecular friction (d) it high retentivity
Ans: d
292. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have retentivity and
coercivity.
(a) low, high
(b) high, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: b
293. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is , the hysteresis loss in this material will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) large
Ans: c
294. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because
(a) it has good residual magnetism
(b) its hysteresis loop has large area
(c) its mechanical strength is high
(d) its mechanical strength is low
Ans: a
295. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has
(a) low co-ercivity
(b) low retentivity
(c) low hysteresis loss
(d) high co-ercivity
Ans: c
296. Conductance is analogous to
(a) permeance
(b) reluctance
(c) flux
(d) inductance
Ans: a
297. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
(a) reluctivity
(b) magnetomotive force
(c) permeance
(d) reluctance
Ans: d
298. The unit of retentivity is
(a) weber
(b) weber/sq. m
(c) ampere turn/metre
(d) ampere turn
Ans: b
299. Reciprocal of reluctance is
(a) reluctivity
(b) permeance
(c) permeability
(d) susceptibility
Ans: b
300. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared
with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
(a) E.m.f.
(b) Current
(c) Current density
(d) Conductivity
Ans: b
301. The unit of reluctance is
(a) metre/henry
(b) henry/metre
(c) henry
(d) 1/henry
Ans: d
302. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
(a) ferrites have high resistance
(b) ferrites are magnetic
(c) ferrites have low permeability
(d) ferrites have high hysteresis
Ans: d
303. Hysteresis loss least depends on
(a) volume of material (b) frequency
(c) steinmetz co-efficient of material(d) ambient temperature
Ans: d
304. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce
(a) copper loss
(b) eddy current loss
(c) hysteresis loss
Ans: b
305. "The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of
electricity".The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton's law
(b) Faraday's law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday's law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss's law
Ans: c
306. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as
constant
(a) time (b) Faraday's (c) Boltzman
Ans: b
307. During the charging of a lead-acid cell
(a) its voltage
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
308. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its
(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
309. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
310. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery
are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
Ans: c
310. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its positive plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
(c) dark brown

(d) none of above
Ans: c
311. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are
(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH (d) all of the above
Ans: d
312. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
313. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Ans: c
314. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
Ans: c
315. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Ans: b
316. Cells are connected in series in order to
(a) increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
Ans: a
317. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel.The output voltage is

(a) 1 V (6) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
318. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
Ans: c
319. Duringthe charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell
(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
320. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead
acid cell has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(d) avoiding excessive gassing Ans: c
321. A dead storage battery can be revived by
(a) adding
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Ans: d
322. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance
Ans: d
323. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Ans: d
324. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence
produce electricity during
charging or discharging are known as materials.
(a) passive (b) active (c) redundant (d) inert
Ans: b
325. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
326. It is noticed that durmg charging
(a) there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic
lead (Pb)
Ans: e
327. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen
(a) both anode and cathode become PbS04
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy
Ans: d
328. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
329. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between

(a) 25 to 35%
(b) 40 to 60%
(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: c
330. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in
(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours
Ans: b
331. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on
(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e
332. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _ appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
333. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
334. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly times that of the lead- acid cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
335. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
336. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: d
337. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is
(a) silver oxide
(b) lead oxide (c) lead (d) zinc powder
Ans: a
338. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500 (b) 700 (c) 1000 (d) 1250
Ans: d
339. Life of the Edison cell is at least
(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
340. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
Ans: a
341. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
342. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Ans: d
343. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of
(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
Ans: c
344. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
(a) its chemical constituents
(b) on the strength of its electrolyte
(c) its temperature (d) all above
Ans: d
345. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
346. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to
1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(d) active state
Ans: b
347. In system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or
minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
348. Over charging
(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Ans: d
349. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Ans: a
350. Internal short circuits are caused by
(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell

Ans: c
351. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) none of the above
Ans: a
352. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens
because of
(a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
(b) topping up with electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging
(d) low level of electrolyte
(e) all above
Ans: e
353. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are
called materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
354. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as
(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
Ans: b
355. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond
(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: a
356. On overcharging a battery
(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
Ans: d
357. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Ans: d
358. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Ans: d
359. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Ans: a
360. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of
(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Ans: d
361. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: b
362. Battery charging equipment is generally installed
(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
Ans: d
363. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Ans: d
364. Batteries are charged by
(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans: d
365. Cell short circuit results in

(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above
Ans: d
366. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by
(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
367. Capacity of dry cells is
(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
Ans: a
368. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of
(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) all above
Ans: d
369. Sulphated cells are indicated by
(a) the loss of capacity of the cell
(6) the decrease of the specific gravity
(c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge

(d) all above conditions
Ans: d
370. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following
ratio of acid towater to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
371. Local action in a battery is indicated by
(a) excessive gassing under load conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit
Ans: d
372. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
Ans: d
373. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
374. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Ans: d
375. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
Ans: a
376. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
377. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.
(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
Ans: a
378. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear
(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices
Ans: d
379. Excessive charging a battery tends to
(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
(d) bring about all above changes
Ans: d
380. Shelf life of a small dry cell is
(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
Ans: b
381. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of
(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
Ans: a
382. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be the level of plates

(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
Ans: c
383. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
384. of electrolytelndicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
385. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Ans: d
386. Dry cell is modification of
(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Lead-acid cell
(d) Edison cell
Ans: b
387. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in
(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
Ans: a
388. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is
(a) dilute sulphuric acid
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
389. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is Edison cell.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than
Ans: b
390. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
391. The body of Edison cell is made of
(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
392. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.95
(c) 1.1 (d) 1.21
Ans: d
393. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
394. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of volts from fully charged state to fully discharged
state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Ans: c
395. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to change the active material
of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
396. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces heat.
(a) no
(b) very little
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
397. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
398. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of volts.
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
399. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon
(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors
Ans: d
400. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?
(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
(6) High power to weight ratio
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity
Ans: d
401. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in
(a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
(b) warping of plates
(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
402. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused
(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
403. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container.
This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
(c) to discharge both of the above functions
(d) to discharge none of the above functions
Ans: c
404. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different meta's should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each
other
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
(d) All above three conditions are necessary
Ans: d
405. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
406. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
407. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery
(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Ans: b
408. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?
(a) Lead-acid battery
(b) Nickel-iron battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery
Ans: b
409. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?
(a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide
Ans: a
410. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Ans: c
411. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V
(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
412. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be
(a) 10% of capacity
(b) 20% of capacity
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
413. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capa-city
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Ans: a
414. A typical output of a solar cell is
(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
415. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Ans: d
416. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be
maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance
Ans: c
417. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is
(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
418. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of
(a) charged ions
(b) chemical energy
(c) electrostatic energy
(d) electromagnetic energy
Ans: b
419. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an ? (a)
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
Ans: b
420. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
Ans: d
421. Cells are connected in parallel to

(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance
Ans: b
422. A constant-voltage generator has
(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance
Ans: c
423. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through the
coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
424. As per Farada y's laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is induced in a conductor
whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Ans: c
425. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Ans: a
426. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase
(c) when more area for each turn is provided
(d) when permeability of the core
Ans: a
427. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,
(a) lesser its weber-turns
(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
(c) greater the flux produced by it

(d) longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
Ans: d
428. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The
inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Ans: b
429. An open coil has
(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and high inductance
Ans: b
430. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Ans: b
431. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage
Ans: c
432. The direction of incViced e.m.f. can be found by
(a) Laplace's law
(b) Lenz's law
(c) Fleming's right hand rule
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law
Ans: b
433. Air-core coils are practically free from
(a) hysteresis losses
Ans: c
434. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the
(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
(d) rate of change of flux-linkages
Ans: d
435. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils depends on

(a) permeability of the core
(b) the number of their turns
(c) cross-sectional area of their com-mon core
Ans: d
436. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertf-cally
Ans: b
437. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is due
to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Ans: b
438. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?
(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
Ans: b
439. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to
(a) voltage across the inductance
(b) magnetic field
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
440. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
Ans: b
441. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?
(a) Apparent power is zero
(b) Relative power is.zero
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
Ans: c
442. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?

(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(c) Ampere turns
(d) Webers/metre
Ans: b
443. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current
must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Ans: d
444. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core length
is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the in ductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH (d)48mH
Ans: a
445. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is
0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12 mH
Ans: c
446. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If the
two coils are connected in series aiding, the total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: b
447. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increased to 400
turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: d
448. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If the
two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Ans: c
449. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling
will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Ans: b
450. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms
Ans: d
451. A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 tesla
with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V
Ans: c
452. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) induced current
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) induced e.m.f.
Ans: c
453. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The
force on the conductor will be
nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Ans: b
454. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right
angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Ans: a
455. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
Ans: c
456. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in flux
which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02 Wb
Ans: d
457. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time interval
must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Ans: c
458. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core
Ans: a
459. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of
inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Ans: b
460. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Ans: b
461. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in a coil.

The value of inductance is
(a) 5 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H
(d) 10 H
Ans: c
462. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and capacitance
Ans: b
463. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in
(a) unchanged inductance
(b) increased inductance
(c) zero inductance

(d) reduced inductance
Ans: d
464. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is
not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
(d) the resistance of magnetic path
Ans: b
465. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:a
466. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
467. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
468. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
469 When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines of flux, the
force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
470. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts when
the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
471. Laminations of core are generally made of

(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
472. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of lamina-tions of a D.C.
machine?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
(a) reduce the bulk
Ans: d
Ans: d
475. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
(a) copper lugs
(c) insulation pads
Ans: a
477. In a commutator

Ans: c
(a) rivets
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
479. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(b) lines of force
Ans: b
480. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates
Ans: b
481. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb
points towards
Ans: d
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(d) needle bearing
Ans: a
483. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
(a) severe sparking
Ans: d
(d) two
Ans: b
485. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is
fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
488. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage con-trol
(b) is more stable
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
Ans: b
(a) commutator
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
493. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then
induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv (b)Blv2 (c)Bl2v (d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
494. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils,
the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c

Ans: c
498. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic neutral
axis, there will be
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
500. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
(d) all above
Ans: d
(d) all above
Ans: c
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the
voltage
(d) all above
Ans: d
(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound

(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
Ans: a

(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt generators
Ans: d
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
(a) electromagnets
Ans: a
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
Ans: c
515. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing direct
current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b

(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
518. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature while
generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
(b) Carbon brushes
Ans: c
520. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains , if
the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(d) E
Ans: b
(a) size of air gap
(c) clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
Ans:d
(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is
connected
Ans: c
(a) to increasethe generated voltage
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
Ans: d
Ans: c
528. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any magnetism in the
poles
(b) shunt generator
(d) self-excited generator
Ans: d
Ans: c

(b) shunt generator
(d) any of'the above
Ans: c
531. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
Ans: d
(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) flux/pole
(c) number of poles
Ans: b
535. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral axis,
when
Ans: a
536. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the coil
is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
Ans: b
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
538. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed
increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans:
Ans: b
Ans: b
543. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is
0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
545. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as to
bring them
Ans: a
Ans: a

Ans: b
548. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C. machine
Ans: a
(a) Insulation failure between two com-mutator bars
Ans: d
Ans: e
(b) number of poles
Ans: a
(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(d) power pump
Ans: c
553. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f. induced
is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: a
556. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: b
(b) shunt generator
Ans: b
Ans: c
559. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on
no-load ?
(b) Shunt generator
Ans: a
560. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
Ans: d
(a) almost zero
(b) less than noload terminal voltage
(c) more than noload terminal voltage
Ans: c
(a) negligibly low
Ans: b
563. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the following
reasons except
(d) commutation
Ans: d

(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic - armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop - armature reaction
Ans: c
565. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature
voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) willbeof5xiVHz
Ans: b
566. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit voltage
will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) zero
(b) small
(d) high
Ans: a
(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the centre of all poles
(d) magnetising the centre of all poles
Ans: a
570. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would produce
high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation
failure.
(a) Series field
(d) Shunt field
Ans: d
Ans: c

(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
573. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
Ans: c
Ans: c
575. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel
Ans: a
576. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for which of
the following reasons ?
(d) That generator takes large share of loads Ans: d
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
Ans: c
Ans: b
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resis-tance in the field circuit
Ans: a
580. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the load
current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
Ans: c
581. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
Ans: c
582. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance
of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their
e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V (b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V (d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
583. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have '
(a) same kW rating
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
Ans: c
584. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: d

(a) 100% regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
586. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
Ans: c
Ans: c
588. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator having duplex lap
winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
589. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(d) poles
Ans: c
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
591. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
Ans: c
593. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over compounded
generators is
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
Ans: a
594. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run, the
first is to
(c) increase the speed of primemover
Ans: a
595.No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
Ans: b

(a) Lathe machine
(c) Locomotive
(d) blower
Ans: c
598. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: b
(c) variable speed
Ans: b
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
Ans: d
602. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
Ans: a

Ans: c
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is initially
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) it the speed of the motor
Ans: b
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
Ans: d
609. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
(b) not run
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by eddy currents
Ans: d
610. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy is
used.
Ans: a
611. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
612. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
Ans: a
Ans: a
(a) iip to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
Ans: c
616. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
Ans: d
617. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the armature
will be
Ans: d
(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
619. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is
D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator Ans: c
620. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) shunt motors

(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
623. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the efficiency
of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
Ans: b
625. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
Ans: c
626. Which of the following /rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C.
motor
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
627. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
Ans: b
(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
Ans: a
Ans: d
630. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor
will be equal to
Ans: c
631. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
Ans: a
(c) the gross power
Ans: d
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
Ans: d
634. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: c
635. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to th£ motor
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
(d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
Ans: d
637. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
Ans: c
638. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
Ans: c
639. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in
Ans: d
640. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
Ans: c
641. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
Ans: c
642. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(c) To spread out flux for better unifor-mity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the mag-netic path
Ans: a
643. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio of back
e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
644. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is
(b) back e.m.f. =1 /2x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = 1/2 x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
645. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
Ans: c
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
Ans: a
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor


Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: b
651. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor,
compound motor will have to be
Ans: c
652. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is
required.
(b) Induction motor
(d) D.C. motor
Ans: d

(d) the motor will not work and come to stop Ans: a
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
Ans: b
655. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make use of
(c) induction motor
Ans: a
(a) reduce slightly
Ans: a
(a) field flux only
Ans: b
658. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
efficiency ?
Ans: c
(b) elevators
Ans: d

660. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
Ans: a
662. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a heavy
current from flowing though the armature circuit
Ans: a
Ans: b
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
665. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed by
the motor will
(b) reduce to one-fourth value
(d) be doubled
Ans: a

666. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
Ans: b
(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
Ans: d
668. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(c) Stability
Ans: a
Ans: b
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
Ans: c


Ans: c
673. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(d) is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next higher H.P.
motor
Ans: d
674. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer following
kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
Ans: b
675. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
(c) Universal motor
Ans: d
676. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to square of
armature current
Ans: d
678. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators ?


Ans: c
679. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling and many kinds of timers ?
(c) Induction motor
Ans: d
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
Ans: a
(a) Field control
Ans: b
Ans: a

Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: d
687. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
Ans: c
688. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have
highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
Ans: c
689. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load current ?
(b) Windage loss
Ans: c
(a) magnetic field

Ans: f
(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
(a) over load is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
Ans: a
693. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C.
generator ?
Ans: d
694. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
Ans: d
695. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a D.C.
generator ?
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
696. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b


Ans: d
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
Ans: a
(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
(a) stray losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
702. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors of
large capacity ?
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
703. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is conducted at
(a) no-load
(b) part load

(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
Ans: d
(a) Plugging
Ans: a
Ans: b
(c) back e.m.f.
Ans: c
709. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing and
speed control

Ans: a
710. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
Ans: a
711. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time and
some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: a
712. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle and peak
value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: c
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
Ans: a
(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
715. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is possible
by


Ans: a
716. One D.C. motor another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and driven
Ans: a
717. The insulating material for a
(a) low cost (b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength (d) all of the above
Ans: d
718. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury ?
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
Ans: c
719. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?
(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
Ans: d
720. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: a
721. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
722. The bedding on a cable consists of
(a) hessian (b)
(c) any of the above
Ans: c

723. The insulating material for cables should

(a) be acid proof (b) be non-inflammable
(c) be non-hygroscopic (d) have all above properties
Ans: d
724. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath is provided.
(a) earthing connection (b) bedding
(c) armouring (d) none of the above
Ans: b
725. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Ans: c
726. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
727. cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage
Ans: d
728. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect cables.
(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables
Ans: a
729. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at
(a) armour
(b) bedding
(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath

Ans: d
730. In single core cables armouring is not done to
(a) avoid excessive sheath losses (b) make it flexible
(c) either of the above (d) none of the above
Ans: a
731. Dielectric strength of rubber is around
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
732. Low tension cables are generally used upto
(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
733. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at
(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
734. High tension cables are generally used upto
(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
735. The surge resistance of cable is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms
Ans: c
736. PVC stands for
(a) polyvinyl chloride (b) post varnish conductor (c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor (e) none of the above
Ans: a

737. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
738. In capacitance grading of cables we use a dielectric.
(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
739. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
740. The material for armouring on cable is usually
(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire
Ans: c
741. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are
(a) oil
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted
(d) armoured
Ans: a
742. The relative permittivity of rubber is
(a) between 2 and 3 (b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10 (d) between 12 and 14
Ans: a
743. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV because
(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature
(b) skin effect dominates on the conductor
(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of voids

Ans: d
744. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance
(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
Ans: c
745. In cables the charging current
(a) lags the voltage by 90°
(b) leads the voltage by 90°
(c) lags the voltage by 180°
(d) leads the voltage by 180°
Ans: b
746. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced by
one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
Ans: a
747. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
748. In the cables, sheaths are used to
(a) prevent th from entering the cable `(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation (d) none of the above
Ans: a
749. The intersheaths in the cables are used to
(a) minimize the stress
(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) provide proper stress distribution
Ans: c
750. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is
(a) same at the conductor and the sheath
(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath

(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath

(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
Ans: c
751. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
Ans: c
752. The insulation of the cable decreases with
(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
(c) either (a) or (b)
Ans: a
753. A cable carrying alternating current has
(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
754. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at
(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
755. Capacitance grading of cable implies
(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to counter the effect of inductance
Ans: a
756. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth
(a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc.
(d) for all of the above reasons

Ans: c
757. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is
(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
758. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually
(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
759. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
(a) mica insulated
(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
Ans: c
760. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride (b) Vulcanised rubber (c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas(e) none of the above Ans: d
761. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
762. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
Ans: a
763. The insulating material should have
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength

Ans: d
764. The advantage of oil filled cables is
(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
Ans: d
765. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
Ans: a
766. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
(a) presence of moisture (b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage (d) all of the above
Ans: d
767. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
768. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is used.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
769. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient 'draw in system' of
laying of underground cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
770. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical trees.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a

A Variable reluctance stepper motor requires ----drive
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
ANSWER: A
Step angle in stepper motor is reduced by

A. Microstepping
B. Small step size
C. Increasing number of rotor poles
D. Decreasing number of rotor poles
ANSWER: C
A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ______________ material with salient poles.
A. Paramagnetic
B. Ferromagnetic
C. Diamagnetic
D. Non-magnetic
ANSWER: B
The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the

A. Shaft load
B. Step pulse frequency
C. Polarity of stator current
D. Magnitude of stator current.
ANSWER: B
A stepper motor may be considered as a ____________ converter.

A. Dc to dc
B. Ac to ac
C. Dc to ac
D. Digital-to-analogue
ANSWER: D
If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36º and a step angle of 9º, the number of its phases must be
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
ANSWER: A
In BLDC motor field winding is kept on _______________

A. Stator
B. Rotor
C. Can be placed anywhere
D. Absent
ANSWER: B
-------motors use hall effect bipolar sensor

A. Stepper
b. BLDC
C. Induction
D. All general purpose
----------is used to determine the position of the shaft.
A. Hall Effect sensor
B. BJT
C. MOSFET
D. Temperature Sensor
ANSWER: A
when the rotor is located at the core (center) and stator winding surrounds it,means BLDC motor is
A. Outer rotor based
B. Inner Rotor based
C. Single Phase
D. Three phase
ANSWER: B
The direction of rotation of motor can be changed

A. By interchanging the supply terminals
B. By interchanging brush terminals
C. By interchanging the output ports
D. By interchanging the hall effect sensor terminals
ANSWER: c
Direction is possible in BLDC motor by

A. Reversing the switching sequence
B. changing two phases of motor input
C. A special circuit is needed
D. Reversing the terminal voltage
ANSWER: A
The most useful feature of BLDC is , it offers constant ...

A. load
B. Speed
C. Torque
D. Supply
ANSWER: C
The hall effect sensor used in BLDC

A. Creates high level changes in voltage proportional to local magnetic field
B. Creates high level changes in speed proportional to local magnetic field
C. Creates low level changes in voltage level proportional to speed
D. Creates low level changes in voltage level proportional to local magnetic field
ANSWER: D
The motor controller used in electric vehicle is mainly a

A. Inverter
B. DC DC Converter
C. Rectifier
D. Voltage regulator
Answer: B
The charger circuit used in electric vehicle is mainly a

A. AC-DC converter
B. DC DC Converter
C. filter
Answer: A
C-rate of battery is nothing but the

A. life of battery
B. charge discharge rate of battery
C. Amp-Hour capacity
D. charge rate of battery
Answer: B
Sequentially , the primary components of EV are ------,Power controller, motor and --------
A. Charger, Transmission
B. Transmission, Charger
C. Inverter
D. Differential gear, charger
Answer: A
Which of the following is not a component of a stepper motor?

A. Windings
B. Rotor and Stator
C. Commutator, brush
D. C only
Answer: D
In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the rotor pole pitch is
A. 15º
B. 30º
C. 45º
D. 60º
ANSWER: C
With a stator having 8 teeth and a rotor having 6 teeth, what step angle will an application be able to achieve?
A. 15°
B. 51°
C. 20°
D. 105°
ANSWER: A
If the stepper motor has a 1.8° step resolution, then in order for shaft to rotate one complete revolution,
in full step operation, the stepper motor would need to receive
A. 360 pulses
B. 200 pulses
C. 180 Pulses
D. connot specify
ANSWER: B
Id
Question Which of the following motor has the constant speed?
A Series motor
B Shunt motor
C Induction Motor
D All of the above
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A DC series motor is best suitable for driving-----
A Machine tools
B Shears and punches
C Cranes and hoists
D Lathes
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question In a DC series motor increasing the load current will-------
A Increase the speed
B Decrease the speed
C Achieve better commutation
D Increase the back emf
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The DC motor, which can provide low speed variation at full load without any
controller is -------
A Series motor
B Shunt motor
C Both of the above
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because______
A it will not develop high starting torque
B at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed
C it will fail to start
D all are true
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The speed of a d. c series motor at no load is-------------
A zero
B very low
C dangerously high
D can’t be said
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The direction of rotation of a dc series motor can be reversed----------
A by interchanging the supply terminals
B by interchanging the field terminals
C by interchanging the supply or field terminals
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question If a dc motor is connected across an ac supply, the dc motor will-----------
A run at a lower speed
B run at its normal speed
C burn as the eddy currents in the field produces heat
D can’t be said
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question If the field of a dc shunt motor is suddenly opened, _____________.
A it will run at its normal speed.
B the speed of the motor will be reduced.
C the motor will come to hault.
D the speed will be enormously high, and the motor will destroy itself.
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Which one of the following motors is used in an electric locomotive?
A Squirrel Cage Induction motor
B DC series motor
C DC shunt motor
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The armature torque of the dc shunt motor is proportional to------
A armature current only
B field flux only
C armature current and field flux both
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The output power of any electrical motor is taken from the--------
A Motor frame
B Coupling mounted on the shaft
C Field
D Armature
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question If the back emf in a dc motor is reduced to zero, then the motor------
A start hunting
B come to hault
C may eventually burn
D Can't say
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The direction of the armature current in a dc motor is--------------
A independent of the direction of the armature emf
B the same as the generated emf
C opposite to that of generated emf
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The direction of rotation of a dc motor can be principally determined by---------
A Right hand thumb rule
B Fleming's right hand rule
C Fleming's left hand rule
D Ampere's law
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A thick wire is used in dc series motor field winding than that of field winding of dc
shunt motor to_______________.
A To carry large load current
B To reduce the resistance
C To create more flux
D Both (A) and (B)
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question An electric train employing a dc series motor is running at the fixed speed. When a
sudden slight drop in the mains voltage occurs, this would result in-------------------
A Rise in the speed and drop in the current
B Rise in the speed and rise in the current
C Drop in the speed and rise in the current
D Drop in speed with current unaltered
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A DC shunt motor is driving a constant torque load. On inserting an additional
resistance in the armature circuit, the speed of the motor will---------------
A be zero
B remain unchanged
C increase
D decrease
Answer D
Marks
Unit 2
Id
Question A DC series motor is best suited for driving cranes and hoists because-----------
A it is rugged in construction like induction motor
B it is cheaper in cost
C it develops high starting torque
D it runs at very high speed
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question
A
B
C
D
Answer
Marks
Unit
Id
Question In a DC motor, unidirectional torque is produced with the help of________
A The speed of a dc motor can be controlled by varying_________

B flux per pole
C resistance of armature circuit
D applied voltage
Answer all of the above
Marks D
Unit
Id
Question The counter emf in a dc motor__________.
A Regulates its armature voltage
B Aids the applied voltage
C Often exceeds the supply voltage
D Helps in energy conversion
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The Eb/V ratio of a dc motor is an indication of its------------
A Starting torque
B Running Torque
C Speed regulation
D Efficiency
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The Ta/Ia graph of a dc series motor is a___________ .
A Straight line throughout
B Parabola throughout
C Parabola from no load to overload
D Parabola upto full load and a straight line at overloads
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question When load is removed, .......motor will run at the highest speed.
A Slip ring Induction motor
B Squirrel cage Induction motor
C Shunt
D Series
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question In a d.c. series motor, the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to_______.
A 𝐼𝑎
B 𝐼𝑎2
C 𝐼𝑎3
D √𝑎
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A drawback of a dc series motor is its---------
A high starting torque
B low starting torque
C constant speed
D speed runaway
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The speed of a d.c. motor may be increased by__________.
A decreasing the applied voltage
B increasing the armature current
C decreasing the field current
D increasing the field current
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The effect of inserting a resistance in series with the field winding of a shunt motor is
to__________.
A increase the magnetic field

B increase the speed of the motor
C reduce the magnetic field
D decrease the speed of the motor
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question In a dc shunt motor; the terminal voltage is halved while the torque is kept constant.
The resulting approximate variation in speed 'N' and armature current ' Ia ' will be
____
A N is constant but Ia is halved.
B N is doubled while Ia is halved.
C N is constant and Ia is doubled.
D Both N and Ia are doubled.
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The torque in a _____________is proportional to the square of the armature current.
A DC shunt motor
B DC series motor
C Separetely excited motor
D Squirrel cage induction motor
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question As compared to shunt DC motors, the series DC motor will have the highest torque
because of its comparatively ____________ at the start.
A Lower armature resistance.
B Fewer series turns.
C Larger armature current.
D Stronger series field.
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Machine tools are a typical example of____________.
A Variable torque load
B Constant torque load
C Constant power load
D Both (B) and (C)
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question What would be observed if a d.c. shunt motor is started with an open-circuited field?
A The motor does not pick up speed but draws a small current
B The motor does not pick up speed but draws is large current
C The motor pick up fast and acquires full speed while drawing small current
D The motor picks up fast and acquires full speed while drawing large current
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Which of the following d.c. motors has approximately constant speed?
A series motor
B shunt motor
C Induction motor
D all of the above
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question If the supply voltage in a shunt motor is increased, which of the following will be
decreased?
A starting torque
B full load speed
C full load current
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question If a d.c. series motor is started at no load, it will_________.
A not start
B start at nominal speed
C run at very high r.p.m.
D run with.excessive noise
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question What is the function of commutator of the d.c. motor?
A To produce unidirectional torque
B to converts alternating emf induced into DC voltage
C to improve efficiency of machine
D to obtain high starting torque
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A d.c. shunt motor is running at light load. If the field winding gets suddenly opened,
what will happen?
A motor will stop instantly.
B motor will tend to pick up high speed.
C motor will take heavy input current.
D motor will make mechanical noise.
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A d.c. series motor__________
A may stop if the field gets opened.
B is not suitable for high starting torque.
C should always be started on load.
D always runs at constant speed.
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Which of the following components is an identity of a d.c. motor?
A armature
B slip rings
C commutator
D field winding
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A series motor has________.
A widely varying speed.
B high speed at high loads and low speed at low loads.
C approximately constant speed at all loads.
D both (A) and (B)
Answer A
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The motor used in centrifugal and reciprocating pumps is --------
A D.C series
B D.C. shunt
C Induction Motor
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question -----------is preferably used for speed control of DC shunt motor to obtain speed below
rated speed.
A Flux contolmethod
B Rheostatic control method
C Applied voltage control method
D Both (B) and (C)
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Tapped field method is used for controlling speed of -------------
A D.C. shunt motor
B D.C. series motor
C Squirrel cage induction motor
D Slip ring induction motor
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Which of the following applications requires high starting torque ?
A Air blower
B Locomotive
C Lathe machine
D Centrifugal pump
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Which type of D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
A Squirrel cage induction motor
B Slip ring induction motor
C Shunt motor
D Series motor
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Starters are used for D.C. motors because____________.
A these motors are not self-starting.
B these motors have high starting torque.
C large armature current at start requires to be reduced.
D inertia at start is to be overcome.
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question In DC shunt motor as load is reduced,_____________
A the speed will be drastically reduced.
B the speed will be abruptly increased.
C the speed practically remains constant.
D can not be said
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question In case of DC shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because ..........
A armature drop is negligible.
B back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop.
C flux is practically constant in these motors.
D flux is proportional to armature current.
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A three point starter is considered suitable for ________.
A DC shunt motor
B DC series motor
C Slip ring induction motors
D Squirrrel cage induction motor
Answer A
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Although back emf opposes the applied voltage, it______________.
A increases the motor torque
B cannot equal the applied voltage
C decreases motor speed
D helps flow of armature current
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Induced back emf in a dc motor acts as _________ regulator.
A current
B voltage
C efficiency
D torque
Answer A
Marks
Unit
Id
Question As load is applied to a dc shunt motor, its_____________.
A torque developed decreases
B counter emf increases
C armature current increases
D field current increases
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question When a dc series motor runs at high speed,___________.
A its armature current is small
B it develops less torque
C its Eb is large
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The armature current drawn by a dc motor is given by 𝐼𝑎 = 𝑉 ⁄𝑅𝑎 only when the
motor..................
A runs at full load
B runs at half load
C is stationary
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The armature power developed by a dc motor_____________.
A 𝑉𝐼𝑎
B 𝐸𝑏 𝐼𝑎
C 𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎
D All of the above
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Condition for maximum power developed by a dc motor is_____________.
A 𝐸𝑏 = 𝑉
B 𝐸𝑏 = 𝑉 ⁄2
C 𝐸𝑏 > 𝑉
D 𝐸𝑏 < 𝑉
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question As load is applied to a dc series motor, the_____________.
A Counter emf increases
B Armature current increases
C Series field current decreases
D Armature current decreases
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Which of the following motor develops the highest torque between no load and full
load?
A Squirrel cage induction motor
B Slip ring induction motor
C Series motor
D Shunt motor
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The armature torque developed by a dc shunt motor____________.
A decreases with increasing load
B directly depends on applied voltage
C varies directly with armature current
D is independent of speed
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Which of the following dc motor is well suited for operating line shafts?
A Compound motor
B Separately excited motor
C Series motor
D Shunt motor
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Because of its high starting torque, a series motor is used for___________.
A large presses
B centrifugal pumps
C machine tools
D electric trains
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question DC series motor is best suited for______________.
A lathe machines
B rapid transit systems
C drilling machines
D blowers
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question Motor starters are essential for____________.
A preventing fuse blowing
B starting the motor
C accelerating the motor
D avoiding the excessive starting current
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question For the same rating, DC_________motor has the highest starting torque.
A shunt
B compound
C Both (A) & (B)
D series
Answer D
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A dc motor is still used in industrial applications because it_____________.
A is cheap
B is simple in construction
C provides fine speed control
D requires low maintenance
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The value of back emf in a dc motor is maximum at_____________.
A no load
B full load
C half full load
D at start
Answer A
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The running speed of a dc series motor is basically determined by___________.
A armature resistance
B field excitation
C load
D none of above
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The deciding factor in the selection of a dc motor for a particular application is
its___________characteristics.
A speed--torque
B speed-- armature current
C torque-- armature current
D none of above
Answer A
Marks
Unit
Id
Question For the same rating, _________motor has the least starting torque.
A DC compound
B DC shunt
C DC series
D data insufficient
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The only disadvantage of field control method for controlling the speed of a dc shunt
method is that it_____________.
A adversely affects commutation
B gives speed lower than the normal speed
C involves power loss
D needs a large rheostat
Answer A
Marks
Unit
Id
Question By flux control method of speed control of dc shunt motor, we can obtain speeds.........
A below the normal speed only
B above the normal speed only
C above as well as below the normal speed
D based upon applications requirement
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question The rheostatic speed control method is very___________.
A efficient
B economical
C unsuitable for rapidly changing loads
D suitable for getting speeds above the normal
Answer C
Marks
Unit
Id
Question By putting controller resistance in series with the armature of a dc motor, we can
obtain speeds.....................
A above the normal speed only
B below the normal speed only
C above as well as below the normal speed
D based on applications requirement
Answer B
Marks
Unit
Id
Question A 220 V dc shunt motor develops a torque of 54 N-m at an armature current of 0 A.
The torque produced when the armature current becomes 20 A is__________.
A 27 N-m
B 54 N-m
C 08 N-m
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A 220 V dc shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.2 ohm and field resitance of 0
ohm. The motor draws 5 A at 500 rpm at no load. The speed when the motor draws 52
A at rated voltage is___________.
A 563.9 rpm
B 500 rpm
C 435.73 rpm
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A 250 V dc shunt motor runs at 000 rpm at no load and takes 8 A. The total armature
and shunt field resitances are 0.2 ohm and 250 ohm respectively. The motor will run
at________rpm while taking 50 A at rated voltage.
A 033.4 rpm
B 966.2 rpm
C 000 rpm
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A 460 V dc series motor runs at 500 rpm taking a current of 40 A. If now the load is
reduced and the motor takes 30 A, the percentage change in armature torque
is___________.
A 25.00%
B 33.33%
C 43.75%
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A 220 V shunt machine has an armature resistance of 0.5 ohm. If the full load armature
current is 20 A,the induced emfs when the machine acts as (i) motor and (ii) generator
are_______, __________respectively.
A 230 V, 20 V
B 20 V, 230 V
C 220 V, 220 V
D 220V, 230 V
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A 440 V, shunt motor has armature resistance of 0.8 ohm and field resistance of 200
ohm. The armature current while delivering an output of 7.46 KW at 85 percent
efficiency is________.
A 4.75 A
B 9.95 A
C 7.75 A
D 22.5 A
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A 250 V, dc shunt motor has armature and field resistances of 0.06 ohm and 00 ohm
respectively. The total armature power developed while taking 25 KW input
is________.
A 24.79 KW
B 26.25 KW
C 25.2 KW
D 23.8 KW
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The load current of a d.c. series motor is 50 A, when supplying of a full load torque. If
the current is reduced to 25 A, the torque will be_________.
A same as full load torque

B 50% of full load torque
C 25% of full load torque
D can not be decided
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A d.c. shunt motor runs at no load speed of 40 r.p.m. At full load, armature reaction
weakens the main flux by 5% whereas the armature circuit voltage drops by 0%. The
motor full load speed in r.p.m. is____________
A 000
B 080
C 200
D 203
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A separately excited dc motor takes an armature current of 0 A at 480 V. The aramture
circuit resistance is 0.2 ohm. The machine has 6 poles and the aramture is lap
connected with 864 conductors. The flux per pole is 0.05 Wb. The operating speed of
the motor is_________.
A 697 rpm
B 232 rpm
C 636 rpm
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A dc shunt motor develops a counter emf of 250 V at 500 rpm. The aramture torque
developed while drawing 50 A armature current is_____________.
A .32 N-m
B .99 N-m
C 79.58 N-m
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The developed torque of a 220 V, 4-pole series motor with wave wound 800
conductors; taking 45A from mains is___________.The flux per pole is 25 mWb.
A 94.53 N-m
B 43. N-m
C 286.2 N-m
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A 220 V dc shunt motor runs at 500 rpm when the armature current is 50 A for given
load. The armature resistance is 0.2 ohm. The speed when the torque is doubled
is...............
A 476 rpm
B 490 rpm
C 50 rpm
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
Unit IV Three Phase Induction Motors
MCQ Questions
Q.1 Choose correct relation between rotor copper loss (𝑊𝑐𝑢 )and gap power (𝑃𝑔 ) of three phase
IM.
a) 𝑾𝒄𝒖 = 𝒔. 𝑷𝒈
b) 𝑃𝑔
𝑊𝑐𝑢 =
𝑆
c) 𝑊𝑐𝑢 = 𝑠 2 . 𝑃𝑔
d) 𝑊𝑐𝑢 = (1 − 𝑠) ∗ 𝑃𝑔
Q.2 Choose correct relation between mechanical power developed (𝑃𝑚𝑑 ) and gap power (𝑃𝑔 )
of three phase IM.
a) 𝑃𝑚𝑑 = (𝑠) ∗ 𝑃𝑔
b) 𝑃𝑚𝑑 = 𝑠 2 ∗ 𝑃𝑔
c) 𝑷𝒎𝒅 = (𝟏 − 𝒔) ∗ 𝑷𝒈
d) 𝑃𝑔
𝑃𝑚𝑑 =
𝑆
Q.3 Induction motor efficiency is

a) Pg
η=
Pi
b) 𝐏𝐬𝐡
𝛈=
𝐏𝐢
c) Pmd
η=
Pi
d) Psh
η=
Pmd
Q.4 The condition for maximum torque in IM is

a) 𝑹𝟐 = 𝑺𝑿𝟐𝟎
b) 𝑅2𝑅2= = 𝑋20
91−
c) 𝑅2 = 𝑠 2 𝑋20
d) 𝑅2 = (1 − 𝑆) ∗ 𝑋20
Q.5 Which of the following statement is correct in case of construction of three phase IM?
a) Stator is stationary part.
b) A three phase AC supply is given to rotor
c) A three phase AC supply is given to stator
d) Both a) and c)
Q.6 The main function of stator frame is

a) To support stator core and field winding
SE E, Mech, ZES ZCOER Page 1

b) It acts as covering and provide protection to rotor

c) It gives mechanical strength to all inner parts of IM.
d) All of the above
Q.7 The winding wound on three phase IM is called as…..

a) Rotor winding
b) Frame winding
c) Field winding
d) Core winding
Q.8 The difference between synchronous speed and speed of rotor is called as…..
a) Slip
b) Slip speed
c) Rotor speed
d) Filed speed
Q.9 In case of IM, which one is true relation between synchronous speed and speed of rotor?
a) 𝑁𝑆 = 𝑁𝑟
b) 𝑁𝑆 < 𝑁𝑟
c) 𝑁𝑆 ≈ 𝑁𝑟
d) 𝑵𝑺 > 𝑵𝒓
Q.10 When motor is at rest condition, slip is

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) Equal to synchronous speed
Q.11 The correct relation between synchronous speed and speed of rotor is
a) 𝑁𝑆 = (1 − 𝑆)𝑁𝑟
b) 𝑵𝒓 = (𝟏 − 𝑺)𝑵𝑺
c) 𝑁𝑟 = 𝑆 ∗ 𝑁𝑆
d) 𝑁𝑆 = 𝑁𝑟
Q.12 A three phase, 4 pole, 440 V, 50 Hz IM runs with slip 4%. Find rotor speed 𝑁𝑟 .
a) 𝑵𝒓 = 𝟏𝟒𝟒𝟎
b) 𝑁𝑟 = 1500
c) 𝑁𝑟 = 60
d) 𝑁𝑟 = 18750
Q.13 A three phase, 4 pole, 440 V, 50 Hz IM runs with slip 4%. Find frequency of rotor
current.
a) frequency of rotor current = 4 Hz.
b) frequency of rotor current = 2Hz.
c) frequency of rotor current= 1 𝐻𝑧.
d) frequency of rotor current= 50 𝐻𝑧.

Q.14 A 6 pole IM is connected to 50 Hz supply. It is running at a speed of 970 rpm. Find

synchronous speed
a) 𝑵𝑺 = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
b) 𝑁𝑆 = 1500
c) 𝑁𝑆 = 1455
d) 𝑁𝑆 = 970
Q.15 Rotor of three phase IM is usually made up of

a) Copper
b) Carbon
c) Aluminum
d) Cast Iron
Q.16 A 4-pole three-phase induction motor has a synchronous speed of 25 rev/s. The frequency
of the supply to the stator is:
a) 50
b) 100
c) 25
d) 12.5
Q.17 In induction motor the unit of slip is

a) rpm
b) Meter per second
c) Unit less
d) radian
Q.18 A three phase, 4 pole, 50 Hz star connected IM running on full load has mechanical
power developed (𝑃𝑚𝑑 ) is 52778.552 W. Find gap power (𝑃𝑔 ). The rotor speed is 1440
rpm.
a) 𝑷𝒈 = 𝟓𝟒𝟗𝟕𝟕. 𝟖𝟔 𝑾
b) 𝑃𝑔 = 60000 𝑊
c) 𝑃𝑔 = 52278.552𝑊
d) 𝑃𝑔 = 2199.114 𝑊
Q.19 A three phase, 4 pole, 50 Hz star connected IM running on full load has mechanical
power developed (𝑃𝑚𝑑 ) is 52778.552 W. rotor copper loss (𝑊𝑐𝑢 ). The rotor speed is 1440
rpm.
a) 𝑊𝑐𝑢 = 54977.86 𝑊
b) 𝑊𝑐𝑢 = 60000 𝑊
c) 𝑊𝑐𝑢 = 52278.552𝑊
d) 𝑾𝒄𝒖 = 𝟐𝟏𝟗𝟗. 𝟏𝟏𝟒 𝑾
Q.20 With the increase in supply voltage, the starting torque of a 3 phase induction motor
a) decreases
b) Remains same
c) increases.
d) None of above
Q.21 The shaft of an induction motor is made of

a) high speed steel
b) stainless steel
c) carbon steel
d) cast iron
Q.22 In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally

a) less than 1%
b) 1.5%
c) 2%
d) 4%
Q.23 In medium sized induction motors, the slip is generally around

a) 0.04%
b) 0.4%
c) 4%
d) 14%
Q.24 In a squirrel cage motor the induced e.m.f. is

a) dependent on the shaft loading
b) dependent on the number of slots
c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in the rotor
Q.25 For driving high inertia loads best type of induction motor suggested is
a) Slip ring type
b) squirrel cage type
c) any of the above
Q.26 What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of the
induction motor is zero ?
a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
b) The rotor will not run
c) The rotor will run at very high speed
d) The torque produced will be very large
Q.27 The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is maximum
a) at the unit value of slip
b) at the zero value of slip
c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to the
resistance per phase
d) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor

Q.28 Slip rings are usually made of

a) copper
b) carbon
c) phospor bronze
d) aluminium
Q.29 A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will
be
a) 200 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 2 Hz
d) 0.2 Hz
Q.30 The efficiency of an induction motor can be expected to be nearly

a) 60 to 90%
b) 80 to 90%
c) 95 to 98%
d) 99%
Q.31 The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) Zero
Q.32 The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is

a) low
b) same as full-load torque
c) negligible
d) slightly more than full-load torque
Q.33 Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of

a) single phase motors
b) variable speed motors
c) low horse power motors
d) high speed motors
Q.34 In case of the induction motors the torque is

a) inversely proportional to (V*slip)
b) directly proportional to (slip)2
c) inversely proportional to slip
d) directly proportional to slip
Q.35 Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the squirrel-
cage induction motor ?

a) By changing the number of stator poles

b) Rotor rheostat control
c) By operating two motors in cascade
d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Q.36 Rotor resistance control method of speed control is used for

a) squirrel-cage induction motors only
b) slip ring induction motors only
c) both (a) and (b
Q.37 An induction motor is

a) self-starting with zero torque
b) self-starting with high torque
c) self-starting with low torque
d) non-self-starting
Q.38 The maximum torque in an induction motor depends on

a) frequency
b) rotor inductive reactance
c) square of supply voltage
d) all of the above
Q.39 In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors

a) rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings
b) rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings
c) rotor conductors are kept open
d) rotor conductors are connected to insulation
Q.40 DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to

a) low horsepower motors
b) variable speed motors
c) high horsepower motors
d) high speed motors
Q.41 In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and rotor slots is that
a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots
c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots
Q.42 Slip ring motor is recommended where

a) speed control is required
b) frequent starting, stopping and reversing is required
c) high starting torque is needed
d) all above features are required

Q.43 If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short circuited rotor will move
a) In the opposite direction as the direction of the rotating field
b) in the same direction as the direction of the field
c) in any direction depending upon phase sequence of supply
d) none
Q.44 The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble the speed load
characteristics of which of the following machines
a) D.C. series motor
b) D.C. shunt motor
c) universal motor
Q.45 A 3-phase slip ring motor has

a) double cage rotor
b) wound rotor
c) short-circuited rotor
d) any of the above
Q.46 The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is

a) twice the full load torque
b) 1.5 times the full load torque
c) equal to full load torque
d) Half to full load torque
Q.47 In a three-phase induction motor

a) iron losses in stator will be negligible as compared to that in rotor
b) iron losses in motor will be neg¬ligible as compared to that in rotor
c) iron losses in stator will be less than that in rotor
d) iron losses in stator will be more than that in rotor
Q.48 The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is

a) parabola
b) hyperbola
c) rectangular parabola
d) straigth line
Q.49 The frame of an induction motor is usually made of

a) silicon steel
b) Cast iron
c) aluminium
d) bronze
Q.50 Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel ?
a) Bearings

b) Shaft
c) Stator core
d) All of the above
Q.51 A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on
full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.03
d) 0.04
Q.52 What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of the
induction motor is zero ?
a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
b) The rotor will not run
c) The rotor will run at very high speed
d) The torque produced will be very large

Id
Question The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following
except __________________.
A changing supply frequency
B changing number of poles
C changing rotor winding resistance
D reducing supply voltage
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Iron losses in the rotor of a 3-phase induction motor are negligible, because ________.
A frequency of rotor emf while running is very low
B flux linking with rotor is of constant magnitude
C flux density in the rotor parts is too low
D rotor remains short circuited while running
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For higher efficiency of 3-phase induction motor, the slip should be____________.
A large
B very large
C as small as possible
D One
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For high starting torque, the mostly used 3-phase induction motor is_____________.
A Squirrel-cage type
B Slip-ring type
C Deep bar squirrel-cage type
D Double-cage induction motor
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The rotating magnetic field produced by stator currents rotates at___________.
A synchronous speed N s
B rotor speed N
C N s− N
D a speed higher than synchronous speed
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If 3-phase induction motor is running at a slip "s", then approximate efficiency of the
motor is___________.
A 1+s
B 1-s
C s-1
2
D s
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The conditions of an induction motor on load resemble to that of a transformer whose
secondary is______________.
A short-circuited
B open-circuited
C supplying a variable resistive load
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The conditions of an induction motor at standstill resemble to that of a transformer
whose secondary is______________.
A short-circuited
B open-circuited
C supplying a variable resistive load
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The maximum starting torque developed in the induction motor when the rotor
reactance is_____________.
A half of the rotor resistance
B twice of the rotor resistance
C equal to the rotor resistance
D equal to slip
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The starting torque of a 3-phase induction motor can be increased by increasing............
A the rotor reactance
B the rotor resistance
C the stator resistance
D the stator reactance
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The operation of an induction motor is based on____________.
A Lenz's law
B Ampere law
C Principle of mutual induction
D Principle of self induction
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A wound rotor induction motor can be distinguished from a squirrel cage induction
motor by ______________.
A presence of slip-rings
B frame size
C shaft diameter
D any of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The slip ring induction motor has --------- starting torque with ---------starting current.
A low, high
B low, low
C high, low
D high, high
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The rotor current in 3-phase induction motor is------------slip.
A inversely proportional to slip
B directly proportional to slip
C independent of slip
D directly proportional to square of slip
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question An induction motor is preferred to a D.C. motor because of its--------------
A higher starting torque
B fine speed control
C simple and rugged construction
D ac electrical input
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question In an induction motor if the 3 phase supply frequency of stator increased, then
synchronous speed----------------
A decreases
B increases
C remains unchanged
D becomes zero
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The stator of a three phase induction motor produces ----------- magnetic field.
A steady
B rotating
C alternating
D pulsating
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The speed of an induction motor_____________.
A decreases too much with the increase of load
B increase with the increase of load
C decreases slightly with the increase of load
D remains constant with the increase of load
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Which of the following information is available on the name plate of motor?
A HP rating of motor
B rpm
C frame model
D all of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Between no load and full load operating conditions, the torque-speed characteristics of
a 3-phase induction motor is essentially__________.
A a straight line
B a circle
C a hyperbola
D a parabola
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question On the basis of torque -slip curve, the extreme operating conditions of an induction
motor are___________.
A full load and standstill conditions
B no-load and standstill conditions
C no-load and full load conditions
D standstill and overload conditions
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The pull-out torque is also called___________.
A no-load torque
B full-load torque
C maximum torque
D starting torque
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question By changing the number of stator poles of a squirrel cage motor, the number of
synchronous speeds that can be obtained practically is_______.
A 8
B 6
C 2
D 4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The speed of a slip ring induction motor can be changed by______________.
A changing rotor circuit resistance
B changing the applied voltage
C insertion and variation of an external voltage in the rotor circuit
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question At s=0, the torque of an induction motor is____________.
A zero
B very high
C equal to full-load
D equal to maximum
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If the frequency drops by 20 %, the speed of induction motor drops by___________.
A 5 percent
B 10 percent
C 20 percent
D 80 percent
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A 50 Hz induction motor will operate well on 60 Hz line if the applied voltage is raised
to _______of the nameplate rating.
A 80 percent
B 20 percent
C 180 percent
D 120 percent
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The effect of increasing the length of air-gap in an induction motor will result into
increase in the_________.
A speed
B air-gap flux
C power factor
D magnetising current
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question In a 3-phase induction motor, the relative speed of stator flux with respect to
_________is zero.
A stator winding
B rotor
C space
D rotor flux
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question In a 3-phase induction motor, the rotor field rotates at synchronous speed with respect
to__________.
A stator flux
B stator
C rotor
D none of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Irrespective of the supply frequency, the torque developed by a squirrel-cage induction
motor is the same whenever __________is the same.
A external load
B supply voltage
C rotor resistance
D slip speed
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is___________.
A low at light loads only
B low at heavy loads only
C low at light and heavy loads both
D low at rated load only
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Which of the following rotor quantity in a squirrel cage induction motor does not
depend on its slip?
A reactance
B frequency
C induced emf
D none of above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor depends on the following three
factors:
A voltage, current and stator impedance
B speed, frequency and rotor poles
C rotor emf, rotor current and rotor power factor
D synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The fractional slip of an induction motor is the ratio of_________.
A rotor copper loss to rotor input
B stator copper loss to stator input
C rotor copper loss to rotor output
D rotor copper loss to stator copper loss
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The efficiency and power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor increases in
proportion to its _________.
A mechanical load
B speed
C voltage
D rotor torque
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A squirrel cage induction motor runs at constant speed only so long as___________.
A torque developed by it remains constant
B its supply voltage remains constant
C stator flux remains constant
D its torque exactly equals the mechanical load
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The possible reason if a 3-phase induction motor fails to start can be_________.
A voltage may be too low
B one or more fuses may be blown
C the starting load may be too heavy.
D any or all of above reasons
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of_____________.
A single phase motors
B variable speed motors
C low horse power motors
D high speed motors
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux
density in the air gap is__________.
A infinity
B large
C small
D absent
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The injected emf in the rotor of an induction motor must have___________.
A zero frequency
B the same frequency as the slip frequency
C the same phase as the rotor emf
D high value for the satisfactory speed control
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The autotransformer starter can be used to start squirrel cage induction motor of the
following type:____________
A Star connected stator
B Delta connected stator
C Star or delta connected stator
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter because...........
A starting torque is very high
B it will run in reverse direction
C motor takes five to seven times its full load current
D it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged, _____________.
A the motor will run in reverse direction
B the motor will run at reduced speed
C the motor will burn
D the motor will not run
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question In an induction motor, rotor speed is always
A
Less than the stator speed
B More than the stator speed
C Equal to the stator speed
D
None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
The advantage of skewing in induction motor is / are
A
Motor runs smoothly as the magnetic hum is reduced
B The tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth due to direct magnetic
attraction is reduced
C More uniform torque is obtained while running
D
All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
In induction motor, greater the number of poles
A
Lesser the speed
B Greater the speed
C Lesser the frequency
D
All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If the stator voltage and frequency of an induction
motor are reduced proportionately, its
A locked rotor current is reduced
B torque developed is increased
C magnetising current is decreased
D (d) both (a) and (b)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The rotating magnetic field produced by a stator is in clockwise direction. The motor
will rotate in ------ direction.
A
Anticlockwise
B Clockwise
C Clockwise/ anticlockwise
D
Can not say
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question As per Electricity Rules , three phase induction motor above ------ hp rating should not
be started direct on line
A
10
B 15
C 05
D
06
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question To reverse the direction of rotation of the magnetic field produced through a three
phase winding the ------- of the supply should be reversed.
A
Frequency
B Phase sequence
C Frequency & phase sequence
D
None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
The resultant flux in an induction motor is equal to the
A
Maximum value of flux due to any phase
B Twice of the maximum value of flux due to any phase
C 0.5 times the maximum value of flux due to any phase
D
1.5 times the maximum value of flux due to any phase
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) V(Z /(Z +Z ))

1 1 2
)
((OPTION_B) V(Z /(Z +Z ))
2 1 2
)
((OPTION_C) V(Z ) 1
)
((OPTION_D) V(Z ) 2
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT Thevenin’s theorem gives us a method for simplifying a given circuit. The
thevenin’s voltage is V = V(Z /(Z +Z )).
Th 2 1 2
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION The value of ZTh in the circuit shown in the question 2 is?
))
Z1+Z2))
Z3+Z2))
Z1+Z3))
Z2))
((OPTION_A) Z +( Z Z /(Z +Z ))
3 1 2 1 2
)
((OPTION_B) Z +( Z Z /(Z +Z ))
1 3 2 3 2
)
((OPTION_C) Z +( Z Z /(Z +Z ))
2 1 3 1 3
)
((OPTION_D) ( Z Z /(Z +Z ))
1 2 1 2
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The thevenin’s equivalent form of any complex impedance consists of an
equivalent voltage source and an equivalent impedance. The thevenin’s
ION)) impedance is Z = Z +(Z Z /(Z +Z )).Th 3 1 2 1 2
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
Determine the Thevenin’s voltage across ‘ab’ terminals in the circuit shown
((OPTION_A) 41.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 42.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 43.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_D) 44.86∠0⁰
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The voltage across the points a and b is called thevenin’s equivalent voltage.
Thevenin’s equivalent voltage V =100∠0 ×j3/(j3+j4) = 42.86∠0 V.
ab
o o
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
Determine the load current across j5Ω in the circuit shown in the question 2.
((OPTION_A) 3.66∠90⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 3.66∠-90⁰
((OPTION_C) 4.66∠90⁰
)
((OPTION_D)
4.66∠-90⁰
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The load current is the ratio of thevenin’s equivalent voltage and thevenin’s
equivalent impedance. The load current I = (42.86∠0 )/(j6.71+j5) = 3.66∠-90
L
o o
A.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 18∠146.31⁰
31⁰
1⁰ )
31⁰
((OPTION_B) 18∠-146.31⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 19∠146.31⁰
31⁰
1⁰ )
31⁰
((OPTION_D) 19∠-146.31⁰
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The voltage across (-j4) Ω resistor is = (5∠90 )/((2+j2) ) (-j4)=7.07∠-45
o o
V. The
voltage across ‘ab’ = -10∠0 +5∠90 -7.07∠-45 =18∠146.31 V.
o o o o
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Find the Thevenin’s impedance in the circuit shown in the question 9.
))
((OPTION_A) 11.3∠45⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 12.3∠45⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 11.3∠-45⁰
)
((OPTION_D) 12.3∠-45⁰
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The impedance is equal to the impedance seen into the network across the
output terminals. Z = 4+ (2+j6)(-j4)/(2+j2) = 11.3∠-45 Ω.
ab
o
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
((QUESTION)) Mesh analysis is the application of
((OPTION_A)) Kirchoff's current law
((OPTION_B)) Kirchoff's voltage law
((OPTION_C)) Nodal analysis
((OPTION_D)) None of A, B, C
((CORRECT_CHOICE)) B
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION)) MESH ANALYSIS INVOLVES APPLICATION OF KVL TO THE MESH

(OPTIONAL) FOR FINDING THE CURRENT IN THE LOOP
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
((QUESTION)) Nodal analysis is the application of
((OPTION_C)) Mesh analysis
((OPTION_D)) None of A,B,C
((CORRECT_CHOICE)) A
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION)) NODAL ANALYSIS INVOLVES APPLICATION OF KCL TO THE
(OPTIONAL) BRANCHES FOR FINDING THE VOLTAGES
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
((QUESTION)) If Norton equivalent circuit of a network has VN = 2 A and ZN = 10 Ω, the

maximum power transferred to the load will be
((OPTION_A)) 10 W
((OPTION_B)) 20 W
((OPTION_C)) 5W
((OPTION_D)) 40 W
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
((QUESTION)) If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Zth = 5+ j10 Ω, the
maximum power will be transferred by the network to the load of value
((OPTION_A)) 5 Ω
((OPTION_B)) 5+ j10 Ω
((OPTION_C)) 5 - j10 Ω
((OPTION_D)) 11.18 Ω
((CORRECT_CHOICE)) C
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION)) When maximum power is transferred from source to load resistance part
(OPTIONAL) remains same & reactance magnitude will be same but its sign is apposite,
which is nothing but inductive reactance become capacitive reactance
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
((QUESTION)) In a network, when opened at output terminals, the voltage measured is 10

V and the current measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the
Norton's equivalent circuit will be
((OPTION_A)) 2 A source in series with 5 Ω resistor
((OPTION_B)) 10 V source in series with 5 Ω resistor
((OPTION_C)) 2 A source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
((OPTION_D)) 10 V source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1

Thevenin's equivalent circuit will be
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
A super loop is formed when
((QUESTION
))
There is a voltage source common to two loops
((OPTION_A)
)
There is a voltage source between two nodes
((OPTION_B)
)
There is a current source common to two loops
((OPTION_C)
)
There is a current source on the periphery of the network
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
A network has 4 nodes including reference node (ground) , then how many
((QUESTION equations will be formed using nodal analysis
))
4
((OPTION_A)
)
5
((OPTION_B)
)
3
((OPTION_C)
)
None of A,B,C
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
A network has 4 nodes excluding reference node, out of which 2 nodes form
((QUESTION a super node. Then the number of voltage and current equations
)) respectively will be
1 and 2
((OPTION_A)
)
0 and 4
((OPTION_B)
)
2 and 2
((OPTION_C)
)
1 and 3
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into
((QUESTION a voltage source and a series impedance
))
Norton's theorem
((OPTION_A)
)
Superposition theorem
((OPTION_B)
)
Miller's theorem
((OPTION_C)
)
Thevenin's theorem
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) a current source and a shunt impedance
)
Norton's theorem
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
Miller's theorem
((OPTION_D)
)
Thevenin's theorem
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
A
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
The maximum efficiency of power transfer to load by any network is
((QUESTION
))
100.00%
((OPTION_A)
)
75.00%
((OPTION_B)
)
50.00%
((OPTION_C)
)
25.00%
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
For the network shown below, the value of R for maximum power
((QUESTION transferred to it is
))
4Ω
((OPTION_A)
)
3Ω
((OPTION_B)
)
2Ω
((OPTION_C)
)
1Ω
((OPTION_D)
)
B
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
Mesh analysis is the application of
((QUESTION
))
Kirchoff's current law

((OPTION_A)
)
Kirchoff's voltage law
((OPTION_B)
)
Nodal analysis
((OPTION_C)
)
None of A, B, C
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT MESH ANALYSIS INVOLVES APPLICATION OF KVL TO THE MESH
FOR FINDING THE CURRENT IN THE LOOP
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
Nodal analysis is the application of
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Mesh analysis
((OPTION_C)
)
None of A,B,C
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT NODAL ANALYSIS INVOLVES APPLICATION OF KCL TO THE
BRANCHES FOR FINDING THE VOLTAGES
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION If Norton equivalent circuit of a network has VN = 2 A and ZN = 10 Ω, the
))
10 W
((OPTION_A)
)
20 W
((OPTION_B)
)
5W
((OPTION_C)
)
40 W
((OPTION_D)
)
A
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Zth = 5+ j10 Ω, the
))
5 Ω
((OPTION_A)
)
5+ j10 Ω
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C) 5 - j10 Ω
)
11.18 Ω
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
In a network, when opened at output terminals, the voltage measured is 10
((QUESTION V and the current measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the
)) Norton's equivalent circuit will be
2 A source in series with 5 Ω resistor
((OPTION_A)
)
10 V source in series with 5 Ω resistor
((OPTION_B)
)
2 A source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
((OPTION_C)
)
10 V source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
A network has 3 loops, out of which 2 loops form a super loop. Then the
((QUESTION number of voltage and current equations respectively will be
))
1 and 2
((OPTION_A)
)
3 and 0
((OPTION_B)
)
2 and 0
((OPTION_C)
)
2 and 1
((OPTION_D)
)
D
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
4
((OPTION_A)
)
5
((OPTION_B)
)
3
((OPTION_C)
)
None of A,B,C
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
1 and 2
((OPTION_A)
)
0 and 4
((OPTION_B)
)
2 and 2
((OPTION_C)
)
1 and 3
((OPTION_D)
)
D
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
Norton's theorem
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Miller's theorem
((OPTION_C)
)
Thevenin's theorem
((OPTION_D)
)
D
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION a current source and a shunt impedance
))
Norton's theorem
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Miller's theorem
((OPTION_C)
)
Thevenin's theorem
((OPTION_D)
)
A
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
100.00%
((OPTION_A)
)
75.00%
((OPTION_B)
)
50.00%
((OPTION_C)
)
25.00%
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Find the voltage at node P in the figure shown
))
((OPTION_A) 8V
)
((OPTION_B)
9V
)
((OPTION_C) 10V
)
((OPTION_D) 11V
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT I = (4-V)/2, I = (V+6)/3. The nodal equation at node P will be I +3=I . On solving,
1 2 1 2
V=9V.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Find the resistor value R1(Ω) in the figure shown below.
))
((OPTION_A) 10
)
((OPTION_B) 11
)
((OPTION_C) 12
)
((OPTION_D) 13
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT 10=(V -V )/14+(V -V )/R . From the circuit, V =100V, V =15×2=30V, V =40V. On
1 2 1 3 1 1 2 3
solving, R =12Ω. 1
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Find the value of the resistor R2 (Ω) in the circuit shown in the question 5.
))
5
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B) 6
)
7
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D) 8
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT As V =100V, V =15×2=30V, V =40V. (V -V )/14+(V -V )/R =15. On solving we
1 2 3 1 2 1 3 2
get R = 6Ω. 2
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
Find the voltage (V) at node 1 in the circuit shown
((OPTION_A) 5.32
)
((OPTION_B) 6.32
)
((OPTION_C) ) 7.32
)
((OPTION_D) 8.32
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT At node 1, (1/1+1/2+1/3)V -(1/3)V = 10/1. At node 2, -(1/3)V +(1/3+1/6+1/5)V =
1 2 1 2
2/5+5/6. On solving above equations, we get V =6.32V. 1

ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Find the voltage (V) at node 2 in the circuit shown below
))
((OPTION_A) 2.7
)
((OPTION_B) 3.7
)
((OPTION_C) 4.7
)
((OPTION_D) ) 5.7
)
((CORRECT_ c
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 2

ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Find the voltage at node 1 of the circuit shown below.
))
((OPTION_A) 32.7
)
((OPTION_B) 33.7
)
((OPTION_C) 34.7
)
((OPTION_D) 35.7
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT Applying Kirchhoff’s current law at node 1, 10= V /10+(V -V )/3. At node 2, (V -
1 1 2 2
V )/3+V /5+(V -10)/1=0. On solving the above equations, we get V =33.7V.

1 2 2 1
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Find the voltage at node 2 of the circuit shown in the question 9.
))
((OPTION_A) 13
)
((OPTION_B) 14
)
((OPTION_C) 15
)
((OPTION_D) 16
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 1 2 2
V )/3+V /5+(V -10)/1=0. On solving the above equations, we get V =14V.

1 2 2 2
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION The maximum power drawn from source depends on__________
))
((OPTION_A) Value of source resistance
)
((OPTION_B) Value of load resistance
)
((OPTION_C) Both source and load resistance
)
((OPTION_D) Neither source or load resistance
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The maximum power transferred is equal to:
I RL, when load resistance is variable.
2
ION)) Es /4RL, when load impedance is variable.

2
(OPTIONAL) In both the cases, the maximum power depends on the load resistance
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Calculate the value of RL across A and B.
))
((OPTION_A) 3.45ohm
)
((OPTION_B) 2.91ohm
)
((OPTION_C) 6.34ohm
)
((OPTION_D) 1.54ohm
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT On shorting the voltage sources:
RL=3||2+4||5.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Does maximum power transfer imply maximum efficiency?
))
s
e determined
((OPTION_A) yes
)
((OPTION_B) No
)
((OPTION_C) Some times
)
((OPTION_D) Can’t say
)
((CORRECT_ b
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT Maximum power transfer does not imply maximum efficiency. If the load
resistance is smaller than source resistance, power dissipated at the load is
ION)) reduced while most of the power is dissipated at the source then the efficiency
(OPTIONAL) becomes lower.
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Maximum power transfer does not imply maximum efficiency. If the load
smaller than source resistance, power dissipated at the load is reduced while most of the power is dissipated at
)) becomes lower.
hen the efficiency
((OPTION_A) Amplifiers
)
((OPTION_B) Communication circuits
)
((OPTION_C) Both amplifiers and communication circuits
)
((OPTION_D) Neither amplifiers nor communication circuits
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT Maximum power transfer to the load is preferred over maximum efficiency in
both amplifiers and communication circuits since in both these cases the output
ION)) voltage is more than the input.
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION A voltage source connected in series with a resistor can be converted to a?
))
((OPTION_A) Current source in series with a resistor
)
((OPTION_B) Current source in parallel with a resistor
)
((OPTION_C) Voltage source in parallel with a resistor
)
((OPTION_D) Cannot be modified
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT A voltage source connected in series can be converted to a current source
connected in parallel using the relation obtained from ohm’s law, that is V=IR.
ION)) This equation shows that a voltage source connected in series has the same
(OPTIONAL) impact as a current source connected in parallel.
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION What will the value of the current be once source transformation is applied to
)) the circuit?
((OPTION_A) 10A
)
((OPTION_B) 20A
)
((OPTION_C) 30A
)
((OPTION_D) 40A
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT Using ohm’s law, we can use the relation: V=IR.
Thus I=V/R.
ION)) I=220/22=10A.
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION A source transformation is_________
))
e determined
((OPTION_A) Unilateral
)
((OPTION_B) Bilateral
)
((OPTION_C) Unique
)
((OPTION_D) Cannot be determined
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT A source transformation is bilateral because a voltage source can be converted
to a current source and vice-versa.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION If there are 3, 10V sources connected in parallel then on source
on__________
))
((OPTION_A) The effect of all the sources is considered
)
((OPTION_B) The effect of only one source is considered
)
((OPTION_C) The effect of none of the sources is considered
)
((OPTION_D) The effect of only 2 sources is considered.
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT When voltages are connected in parallel, the effect of only one source is
considered because the effect of the voltage remains the same when connected
ION)) in parallel.
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Once the circuit is transformed to a voltage source where will the resistance be
)) connected?
((OPTION_A) In series with the voltage source
)
((OPTION_B) In parallel with the voltage source
)
((OPTION_C) The resistance is removed from the circuit
)
((OPTION_D) Resistance is multiplies by 10 and connected in series with the source
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The resistance is connected in series with the voltage source because we are
transforming a current source connected in parallel to a resistor to a voltage
ION)) source connected in series with it
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))

1 1 2
)
2 1 2
)
((OPTION_C) V(Z ) 1
)
((OPTION_D) V(Z ) 2
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
Th 2 1 2
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
Z1+Z2))
Z3+Z2))
Z1+Z3))
Z2))
3 1 2 1 2
)
1 3 2 3 2
)
2 1 3 1 3
)
1 2 1 2
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION)) impedance is Z = Z +(Z Z /(Z +Z )).Th 3 1 2 1 2
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 41.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 42.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 43.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_D) 44.86∠0⁰
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ab
o o
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 3.66∠90⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 3.66∠-90⁰
((OPTION_C) 4.66∠90⁰
)
((OPTION_D)
4.66∠-90⁰
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
equivalent impedance. The load current I = (42.86∠0 )/(j6.71+j5) = 3.66∠-90
L
o o
A.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 18∠146.31⁰
31⁰
1⁰ )
31⁰
((OPTION_B) 18∠-146.31⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 19∠146.31⁰
31⁰
1⁰ )
31⁰
((OPTION_D) 19∠-146.31⁰
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The voltage across (-j4) Ω resistor is = (5∠90 )/((2+j2) ) (-j4)=7.07∠-45
o o
V. The
o o o o
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 11.3∠45⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 12.3∠45⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 11.3∠-45⁰
)
((OPTION_D) 12.3∠-45⁰
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ab
o
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
(A/B/C/D)

((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
(A/B/C/D)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1

((OPTION_A)) 10 W
((OPTION_B)) 20 W
((OPTION_C)) 5W
((OPTION_D)) 40 W
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
((OPTION_A)) 5 Ω
((OPTION_D))
(A/B/C/D)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1

(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1

(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT equations will be formed using nodal analysis
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
4
None of A,B,C
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
1 and 2
((OPTION_A)
)
0 and 4
((OPTION_B)
)
2 and 2
((OPTION_C)
)
1 and 3
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
Norton's theorem
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Miller's theorem
((OPTION_C)
)
Thevenin's theorem
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) a current source and a shunt impedance
)
Norton's theorem
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
Miller's theorem
((OPTION_D)
)
Thevenin's theorem
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
A
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
100.00%
((OPTION_A)
)
75.00%
((OPTION_B)
)
50.00%
((OPTION_C)
)
25.00%
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
For the network shown below, the value of R for maximum power
((QUESTION transferred to it is
))
4Ω
((OPTION_A)
)
3Ω
((OPTION_B)
)
2Ω
((OPTION_C)
)
1Ω
((OPTION_D)
)
B
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))

((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Nodal analysis
((OPTION_C)
)
None of A, B, C
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Mesh analysis
((OPTION_C)
)
None of A,B,C
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
10 W
((OPTION_A)
)
20 W
((OPTION_B)
)
5W
((OPTION_C)
)
40 W
((OPTION_D)
)
A
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
5 Ω
((OPTION_A)
)
5+ j10 Ω
((OPTION_B)
)
)
11.18 Ω
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
A network has 3 loops, out of which 2 loops form a super loop. Then the
((QUESTION number of voltage and current equations respectively will be
))
1 and 2
((OPTION_A)
)
3 and 0
((OPTION_B)
)
2 and 0
((OPTION_C)
)
2 and 1
((OPTION_D)
)
D
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
4
((OPTION_A)
)
5
((OPTION_B)
)
3
((OPTION_C)
)
None of A,B,C
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
1 and 2
((OPTION_A)
)
0 and 4
((OPTION_B)
)
2 and 2
((OPTION_C)
)
1 and 3
((OPTION_D)
)
D
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
Norton's theorem
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Miller's theorem
((OPTION_C)
)
Thevenin's theorem
((OPTION_D)
)
D
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION a current source and a shunt impedance
))
Norton's theorem
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Miller's theorem
((OPTION_C)
)
Thevenin's theorem
((OPTION_D)
)
A
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
100.00%
((OPTION_A)
)
75.00%
((OPTION_B)
)
50.00%
((OPTION_C)
)
25.00%
((OPTION_D)
)
C
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 8V
)
((OPTION_B)
9V
)
((OPTION_C) 10V
)
((OPTION_D) 11V
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 2
V=9V.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 10
)
((OPTION_B) 11
)
((OPTION_C) 12
)
((OPTION_D) 13
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 3 1 1 2 3
solving, R =12Ω. 1
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
5
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B) 6
)
7
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D) 8
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT As V =100V, V =15×2=30V, V =40V. (V -V )/14+(V -V )/R =15. On solving we
1 2 3 1 2 1 3 2
get R = 6Ω. 2
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 5.32
)
((OPTION_B) 6.32
)
((OPTION_C) ) 7.32
)
((OPTION_D) 8.32
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 2

ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 2.7
)
((OPTION_B) 3.7
)
((OPTION_C) 4.7
)
((OPTION_D) ) 5.7
)
((CORRECT_ c
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 2

ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 32.7
)
((OPTION_B) 33.7
)
((OPTION_C) 34.7
)
((OPTION_D) 35.7
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 1 2 2
V )/3+V /5+(V -10)/1=0. On solving the above equations, we get V =33.7V.

1 2 2 1
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 13
)
((OPTION_B) 14
)
((OPTION_C) 15
)
((OPTION_D) 16
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 1 2 2
V )/3+V /5+(V -10)/1=0. On solving the above equations, we get V =14V.

1 2 2 2
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION The maximum power drawn from source depends on__________
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
2

2
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 3.45ohm
)
((OPTION_B) 2.91ohm
)
((OPTION_C) 6.34ohm
)
((OPTION_D) 1.54ohm
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
RL=3||2+4||5.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
s
e determined
((OPTION_A) yes
)
((OPTION_B) No
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ b
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
smaller than source resistance, power dissipated at the load is reduced while most of the power is dissipated at
)) becomes lower.
hen the efficiency
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
)) the circuit?
((OPTION_A)
)
10A
((OPTION_B) 20A
)
((OPTION_C) 30A
)
((OPTION_D) 40A
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
Thus I=V/R.
ION)) I=220/22=10A.
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
e determined
)
)
((OPTION_C) Unique
)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
on__________
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
considered because the effect of the voltage remains the same when connected
ION)) in parallel.
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
)) connected?
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
Unit6
1. A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of

______________ material with salient poles.
a) Paramagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) Non-magnetic
Answer: b
2. In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the rotor pole pitch is
a) 15º
b) 30º
c) 45º
d) 60º
Answer: c
Explanation: Pole pitch is defined as the number of armature slots to the
pole pitch and here this has been converted into degrees.
3. A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at
2400 rpm has a pulse rate of- pps.
a) 4000
b) 8000
c) 6000
d) 10,000
Answer: c
Explanation: Pulse per second is mathematically given as PPS =
(Rpm/60)*(number of steps per minute).
4. If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36º and a step angle of
9º, the number of its phases must be
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Answer: a
Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns-Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360.
5. The rotor of a stepper motor has no
a) Windings
b) Commutator
c) Brushes
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The rotor is the rotatory part of the motor of a stepper motor
and has no windings, commutator and brushes.
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Analogue
d) Incremental
Answer: d
of steps and is a incremental device i which as the time increases the steps
are increased.
7. The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely
by the
a) Shaft load
b) Step pulse frequency
c) Polarity of stator current
d) Magnitude of stator current.
Answer: b
Explanation: The stator part of a motor is the stationary part of the motor
and rotational speed of a given stepper motor is given by the step pulse
frequency.
8. Which of the following phase switching sequence represents half-
step operation of a VR stepper motor ?
a) A, B, C,A……..
b) A, C, B,A…….
c) AB, BC, CA, AB……..
d) A, AB, B, BC……..
Answer: d
Explanation: In the half step operation of a Variable reluctance motor
physical step resolution is multiplied by 2 and control signals appear to be
digital rather than analog.
9. A stepper motor may be considered as a ____________ converter.
a) Dc to dc
b) Ac to ac
c) Dc to ac
d) Digital-to-analogue
Answer: d
Explanation: A stepper motor is a motor in which the motion is in steps
and it is an increemental device and may be considered as a digital to
analog converter.
10. What is the step angle of a permanent-magnet stepper motor
having 8 stator poles and 4 rotor poles?
a) 60º
b) 45º
c) 30º
d) 15º
Answer: b
Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns-Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360 where Ns is
the number of stator poles and Nr is the number of rotor poles.
This set of DC Machines Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“BLDC Motors”.

a) Stator
b) Rotor
d) Absent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike conventional DC motor, BLDC motor has its field winding rotating.
Unlike PMDC motor field winding is present. Thus, it is placed on rotor. In BLDC motor
we have fixed commutators, with brush gear rotating with speed of rotor field.
2. By electronic circuitry BLDC can be controlled for both constant and variable torque
operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
3. Which of the following is not an advantage of BLDC motor over conventional DC
motor.
a) Less maintenance
b) Long life
d) Low cost
View Answer
4. In BLDC motor driver module, we do not require ______________
a) SCRs
b) Power transistors
c) FETs
d) Transistors
View Answer
a) PMDC
b) BLDC
c) Brushed DC motor
View Answer
6. Construction of BLDC is exactly similar to the ______________
a) Conventional DC motor
b) Induction motor
c) Permanent magnet synchronous motor
d) Totally different construction
View Answer
a) Commutator
b) Permanent magnet
d) Fixed armature
View Answer
8. BLDC can be used instead ____________
a) Synchronous motor
b) Normal brushed DC motor
c) Induction motor
d) Air motor
View Answer
How does a Stepper Motor move ?
A. Electrical Pulse
B. Continuous Applied Voltage
C. Alternates from A and B
A pulse can be produce by which means ?
A. Microprocessor
B. Timing Logic
C. Toggle Switch
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not a type of stepper motor?
A. Variable Reluctance
B. Hybrid
C. Magnetic
D. Lead-Screw
A. Windings
B. Rotor and Stator
C. Commutator
D. Brush
E. Both C and D
What is the difference between full-step and half-step?
A. In full-step two phases are on and in half-step only one phase is on.
B. More resonance is evident in half-step
C. More power required for full-step
D. Half-step offers better resolution
What criteria’s are necessary to consider when selecting a stepper

motor?
A. Mechanical Motion.
B. Inertial Load
C. Speed Requirements
D. All of the above
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of stepper motors?
A. Cost-efficient
B. Maintenance-free
C. No feedback
D. More complex circuitry
With a stator having 8 teeth and a rotor having 6 teeth, what step
angle will an application be able to achieve?
A. 15°
B. 51°
C. 20°
D. 105°
If an application using a stepper motor required feedback, which

device would be needed to accomplish this?
A. Counter
B. Encoder
C. Linear Guide
D. Commutator
A) There is a voltage source common to two loops
B) There is a voltage source between two nodes
C) There is a current source common to two loops
D) There is a current source on the periphery of the network
ANSWER: C
What will the value of the current in amp.be once source transformation is applied to the circuit?
[8.png]
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
ANSWER:
A source transformation is_________
A) Unilateral
B) Bilateral
C) Unique
D) Cannot be determined
ANSWER: B
If there are 3, 10V sources connected in parallel then on source
A) The effect of all the sources is considered
B) The effect of only one source is considered
C) The effect of none of the sources is considered
D) The effect of only 2 sources is considered.
ANSWER: B
Once the circuit is transformed to a voltage source where will the resistance be connected? [9.png]
A) In series with the voltage source
B) In parallel with the voltage source
C) The resistance is removed from the circuit
D) Resistance is multiplies by 10 and connected in series with the source
ANSWER: A
A network has 4 nodes excluding reference node, out of which 2 nodes form a super node. Then the
number of voltage and current equations respectively will be
A) 1 and 2
B) 0 and 4
C) 2 and 2
D) 1 and 3
ANSWER: D
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into a voltage source and a
series impedance
A) Norton's theorem
B) Superposition theorem
C) Miller's theorem
D) Thevenin's theorem
ANSWER: D
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into a current source and a
shunt impedance
A) Norton's theorem
C) Miller's theorem
ANSWER: A
A) Kirchoff's current law
B) Kirchoff's voltage law
C) Nodal analysis
D) None of A, B, C
ANSWER: B
C) Mesh analysis
D) None of A,B,C
ANSWER: A
The maximum power drawn from source depends on__________
A) Value of source resistance
B) Value of load resistance
C) Both source and load resistance
D) Neither source or load resistance
ANSWER: B
Does maximum power transfer imply maximum efficiency?
A) yes
B) No
C) Sometimes
D) Can't say
ANSWER: B
A voltage source connected in series with a resistor can be converted to
A) Current source in series with a resistor
B) Current source in parallel with a resistor
C) Voltage source in parallel with a resistor
D) Cannot be modified
ANSWER: B
Thevenin’s theorem gives us a method for simplifying a given circuit. The thevenin’s voltage is
[thev.png]
A) V(Z1/(Z1+Z2))
B) V(Z2/(Z1+Z2))
C) V(Z1)
D) V(Z2)
ANSWER: B
In a network, when opened at output terminals, the voltage measured is 10 V and the current
measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the Thevenin's equivalent circuit will be
A) 2 A source in series with 5 Ω resistor
B) 10 V source in series with 5 Ω resistor
C) 2 A source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
D) 10 V source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
ANSWER: B
The value of Z Th in the circuit shown in the circuit is? [thee2.png]
A) Z3+( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
B) Z2+( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
C) Z2+( Z1Z3/(Z1+Z3))
D) ( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
ANSWER: A
Determine the Thevenin’s voltage across ‘ab’ terminals in the circuit shown [Thevab.png]
A) 41.86∠0⁰
B) 42.86∠0⁰
C) 43.86∠0⁰
D) 44.86∠0⁰
ANSWER: B
Determine the load current across j5Ω in the circuit shown in the fig. [4.png]
A) 3.66∠90⁰
B) 3.66∠-90⁰
C) 4.66∠90⁰
D) 4.66∠-90⁰
ANSWER: B
The voltage across ‘ab’ [5.png]
A) 18∠146.31⁰
B) 18∠-146.31⁰
C) 19∠146.31⁰
D) 19∠-146.31⁰
ANSWER: A
Find the Thevenin’s impedance in the circuit shown in the question [6.png]
A) 11.3∠45⁰
B) 12.3∠45⁰
C) 11.3∠-45⁰
D) 12.3∠-45⁰
ANSWER: C
If Norton equivalent circuit of a network has VN = 2 A and ZN = 10 Ω, the maximum power

transferred to the load will be -------------watts
A) 10
B) 20
C) 5
D) 40
ANSWER: A
If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Zth = 5+ j10 Ω, the maximum power will be
transferred by the network to the load of value
A) 5 Ω
B) 5+ j10 Ω
C) 5 - j10 Ω
D) 11.18 Ω
ANSWER: C
measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the Norton's equivalent circuit will be

ANSWER: C
Calculate the value of RL across A and B. [4m.png]
A) 3.45ohm
B) 2.91ohm
C) 6.34ohm
D) 1.54ohm
ANSWER: B
Find the voltage at node 1 of the circuit shown below. [10.png]
A) 32.7
B) 33.7
C) 34.7
D) 35.7
ANSWER: B
Find the voltage (V) at node 2 in the circuit shown above [11.png]
A) 2.7
B) 3.7
C) 4.7
D) 5.7
ANSWER: C
Find the voltage (V) at node 1 in the circuit shown [12.jpg]
A) 5.32
B) 6.32
C) 7.32
D) 8.32
ANSWER: B
Find the value of the resistor R2 (Ω) in the circuit shown [13.png]
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
ANSWER: B
Find the voltage at node P in the figure shown [14.png]

A) 8 v
B) 9 v
C) 10 v
D) 11 v
ANSWER: B
A series R-C circuit consists of resistor of 10 ohms and capacitor of 0.1F as shown in the figure.
A constant voltage of 20V is applied to the circuit at t = 0. What is the current in the circuit at t =
0? [network-theory-questions-answers-dc-response-rc-q6.png]
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
In the network, the switch is closed at t=0, with the capacitor uncharged , find value for
A) i= 0.1 Amp, di/dt= -100 A/s d2i/dt2= 10^5 A/s2
B) i= 1 Amp, di/dt= -10 A/s d2i/dt2= 10^4 A/s2
C) i= 0.2Amp, di/dt= -1A/s d2i/dt2= 10^3 A/s2
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
An RC series circuit has R = 20 Ω and C = 400 µF. What is its time constant?
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A capacitor in an RC circuit with R = 25 Ω and C = 50 µF is being charged with initial zero
voltage. What is the time taken for the capacitor voltage to reach 40 % of its steady state value?
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
In an RC circuit, having a time constant of 2.5 ms, the capacitor discharges with initial voltage of
80 V. Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 55 V
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
80 V. (a) Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 30 V
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
IF VL(T)) IS THE VOLTAGE ACROSS INDUCTOR L, THEN THE CURRENT IL(T)THROUGH L
IS GIVEN BY _____.
A) iL(t) = VL(t) ⁄L
B) iL(t) = LVL(t)
C) iL(t) = 1⁄L∫VL(t)dt
D) iL(t) = L∫VL(t)dt
ANSWER: A
THE CURRENT THROUGH INDUCTOR CANNOT CHANGE INSTANTANEOUSLY IS
REPRESENTED BY ________.
A) i(0+)=i(0-).
B) i(0+)=0
C) i(0+)=i(∞).
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
DURING SWITCHING, AT INSTANT T=0+, INDUCTOR WITH INITIAL CURRENT I0 ACTS AS
______.
A) SHORT CIRCUIT
B) OPEN CIRCUIT
C) CONST. VOLT SOURCE
D) CONST. CURRENT SOURCE
ANSWER: B
THE TIME CONSTANT OF SERIES RC CIRCUIT IS GIVEN BY _____..
A) R/C
B) C/R
C) RC
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
IN DRIVEN SERIES RC CIRCUIT WITH ZERO INITIAL CONDITIONS, IN ONE TIME
CONSTANT PERIOD, THE VOLTAGE ACROSS CAPACITOR _______ TIMES ITS FINAL
STEADY STATE VALUE.
A) Increases to 0.368
B) Increases to 0.368
C) Increases to 0.632
D) Decrease to 0.632
ANSWER: C
Time constant Ʈ for series R-L circuit is
A) LR
B) R/L
C) L/R
D) -L/R
ANSWER: C
80 V,Calculate the capacitor voltage at time 8 ms
A) 32 V
B) 326 mv
C) 3.26 V
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
In a RL circuit with time constant of 1.25 s, inductor current increases from the initial value of
zero to the final value of 1.2 A ,Calculate the inductor current at time 0.4 s
A) 32 ma
B) 0.3286 A
C) 328 microamp
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 5.6ma
B) 56ma
C) 0.5672 A
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
zero to the final value of 1.2 A ,Calculate the inductor current at time 2 s
A) 0.9577 A
B) 9.5ms
C) 95 microsec
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
n a RL circuit with time constant of 1.25 s, inductor current increases from the initial value of
zero to the final value of 1.2 A.Find the time at which the inductor current reaches 0.3 A
A) 0.3596 s
B) 35ms
C) 3.5ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8.6 S
B) 0.8664 s
C) 86ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 17ms
B) 17329 ms
C) 1.7329 s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
For source free RL series circuit, find numerical value of the ratio i (0.5Ʈ / i (Ʈ)
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
Forced response is system's response ----------------------to zero initial conditions
A) Internal response
B) External stimulus
C) Natural response
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
For source free RL series circuit, numerical value of the ratio i (2Ʈ ) / i (Ʈ) is
A) 0.367
B) 0.1
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
Natural response occurs solely from
A) Resistive circuits
B) Transients
C) Driven circuits
D) Initial conditions with no other inputs
ANSWER: D
Ratio of α (Neper Freq. or exp. damping coe.) to ω0 ( resonant freq) is called as
A) Undamping ratio
B) ξ (zeta) damping ratio
C) critical damping ratio
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
80 V,Calculate the capacitor voltage at time 1.2 ms
A) 49.50 V
B) 49.50 mV
C) 45V
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 48.18 V
B) 24.09 V
C) 24 mv
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
Initial Condition in purely Inductive network for driven circuit is
A) Short Circuit
B) Undefined
C) Open circuit
D) Zero Henry
ANSWER: C
The current in the R-C circuit at a time t = 0+ is?
A) V/R
B) R/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: A
The expression of current in R- C circuit is?
A) i=(V/R)exp⁡(t/RC )
B) i=(V/R)-exp⁡(t/RC )
C) i=(V/R)exp⁡(-t/RC )
ANSWER: C
In an R-C series circuit, when the switch is closed, the current ic response ____________ with
time
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) decreases
D) First increases then decays
ANSWER: C
In RC series circuit, After how many time constants, the transient part reaches more than 99
percent of its final value?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D
Ratio of Actual resistive to the critical resistance indicated by zeta in RLC circuit is known as
A) Damping ratio
B) Specific Resistivity
C) Transient response
D) NA
ANSWER: A
In an RC series circuit, when the switch is closed and the circuit is complete, what is the voltage
response?
A) increases with time
B) decreases with time
C) remains Constant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
Natural & forced response of any electrical network is known as
A) a complete response
B) particular solution
C) complementary solution
ANSWER: A
equation is [RL CIRCUIT.jpg]
A) is Forced Response of RC circuit
B) is Forced Response of RL circuit
C) is Forced Response of RLC circuit
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
When voltage across inductor is infinity at the time of switching , the inductor acts as
A) Open circuit
B) short circuit
C) Not applicable
D) undefined
ANSWER: A
The current in the R-L circuit at a time t = 0+ is?
A) V/R
B) I/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: C
Initial Condition in capacitive network is
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) predefined
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
When uncharged capacitor is connected to voltage source, at t=0+ the capacitor acts as
A) open circuit
B) zero voltage
C) short circuit
D) infiinity voltage
ANSWER: C
In resistor initial condition is ------, since no time delay is involved
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) Short circuit
D) Open circuit
ANSWER: A
The equation for source free RL circuit is given by
A) V* e^Rt/L
B) V*e^Lt/R
C) V*e^-Lt/R
D) V* (1-e ^-Rt/L)
ANSWER: C
Identify the response condition of RLC
A) Overdamped
B) Underdamped
C) Critically damped
D) damped
ANSWER: B
For source free RL series circuit, find numerical value of the ratio
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
Initial Condition for purely Inductive network in driven circuit is
A) Short Circuit
B) Undefined
C) Open circuit
D) Zero Henry
ANSWER: C
A) V/R
B) R/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C
In an R-C series circuit, when the switch is closed, the current ic response ____________ with time
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) decreases
ANSWER: C
In RC series circuit , After how many time constants, the transient part reaches more than 99
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D
Ratio of Actual resistive to the critical resistance indicated by zeta in RLC circuit is known as
A) Damping ratio
D) NA
ANSWER: A
response?
C) remains Constant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
Natural & forced response of any electrical circuit is known as
ANSWER: A
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) Open circuit
B) short circuit
C) Not applicable
D) undefined
ANSWER: A
A) V/R
B) I/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: C
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) predefined
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
A) open circuit
B) zero voltage
C) short circuit
ANSWER: C
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) Short circuit
D) Open circuit
ANSWER: A
A) V* e^Rt/L
B) V*e^Lt/R
C) V*e^-Lt/R
D) V* (1-e ^-Rt/L)
ANSWER: C
A) Overdamped
B) Underdamped
D) damped
ANSWER: B
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
If VL(t)) is the voltage across inductor L, then the current iL(t)through L is given
by _____.
a : iL(t) = V (t) ⁄L
L b : iL(t) = LVL(t) c : iL(t) = 1⁄L∫VL(t)dt d : iL(t) = L∫VL(t)dt
The current through inductor cannot change instantaneously is represented by

________.
a : i(0+)=i(0-). b : i(0+)=0. c : i(0+)=i(∞). d : None of these.
During switching, at instant t=0+, inductor with initial current I0 acts as ______.
a : Short circuit b : Open circuit c : Constant voltage source d :
Constant current source
The time constant of series RC circuit is given by _____..

a : τ = R⁄C b : τ = C⁄R c : τ = RC d : None of these
In driven series RC circuit with zero initial conditions, the current through
capacitor is given by_____.
a : ic(t)= V⁄R(1-e-t⁄RC ) A b : ic(t)= V⁄R A c : ic(t)= V⁄R(1+e-t⁄RC ) A
d : ic(t)= V⁄R(e-t⁄RC )
In driven series RC circuit with zero initial conditions, in one time constant
period, the voltage across capacitor _______ times its final steady state value.
a : Increases to 0.368 b : Decreases to 0.368 c : Increases to 0.632
d : Decrease to 0.632
A) LR
B) R/L
C) L/R
D) -L/R
ANSWER: C
In an RC circuit, having a time constant of 2.5 ms, the capacitor discharges with initial voltage of 80
V,Calculate the capacitor voltage at time 8 ms
A) 32 V
B) 326 mv
C) 3.26 V
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
In a RL circuit with time constant of 1.25 s, inductor current increases from the initial value of zero to
the final value of 1.2 A ,Calculate the inductor current at time 0.4 s
A) 32 ma
B) 0.3286 A
C) 328 microamp
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
the final value of 1.2 A ,Calculate the inductor current at time 0.8 s
A) 5.6ma
B) 56ma
C) 0.5672 A
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
the final value of 1.2 A ,Calculate the inductor current at time 2 s
A) 0.9577 A
B) 9.5ms
C) 95 microsec
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
In a RL circuit with time constant of 1.25 s, inductor current increases from the initial value of zero
to the final value of 1.2 A.Find the time at which the inductor current reaches 0.3 A
A) 0.3596 s
B) 35ms
C) 3.5ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
the final value of 1.2 A.Find the time at which the inductor current reaches 0.6 A
A) 8.6 S
B) 0.8664 s
C) 86ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
the final value of 1.2 A.Find the time at which the inductor current reaches 0.9 A
A) 17ms
B) 17329 ms
C) 1.7329 s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
C) Natural response
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 0.367
B) 0.1
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
B) Transients
C) Driven circuits
ANSWER: D
A) Undamping ratio
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
V,Calculate the capacitor voltage at time 1.2 ms
A) 49.50 V
B) 49.50 mV
C) 45V
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
V,Calculate the capacitor voltage at time 3 ms
A) 48.18 V
B) 24.09 V
C) 24 mv
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A series R-C circuit consists of resistor of 10 ohms and capacitor of 0.1F as shown in the figure. A
[network-theory-questions-answers-dc-response-rc-q6.png]
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A capacitor in an RC circuit with R = 25 Ω and C = 50 µF is being charged with initial zero voltage.
What is the time taken for the capacitor voltage to reach 40 % of its steady state value?
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
In an RC circuit, having a time constant of 2.5 ms, the capacitor discharges with initial voltage of 80 V.
Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 55 V
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
(a) Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 30 V
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
(a) Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 10 V
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
Initial Condition in purely Inductive network is
A) Short Circuit
B) Undefined
C) Open circuit
D) Zero Henry
ANSWER: C
A) V/R
B) R/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C
time
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) decreases
ANSWER: C
After how RC series circuit many time constants, the transient part reaches more than 99
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D
Ration of Actual resistive to the critical resistance indicated by zeta in RLC circuit is known as
A) Damping ratio
D) NA
ANSWER: A
response?
C) remains Constant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
Natural & forced response is
ANSWER: A
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) Open circuit
B) short circuit
C) Not applicable
D) undefined
ANSWER: A
A) V/R
B) I/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: C
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) predefined
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
A) open circuit
B) zero voltage
C) short circuit
ANSWER: C
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) Short circuit
D) Open circuit
ANSWER: A
A) V* e^Rt/L
B) V*e^Lt/R
C) V*e^-Lt/R
D) V* (1-e ^-Rt/L)
ANSWER: C
A) Overdamped
B) Underdamped
D) damped
ANSWER: B
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C

A) LR
B) R/L
C) L/R
D) -L/R
ANSWER: C
A) 32 V
B) 326 mv
C) 3.26 V
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 32 ma
B) 0.3286 A
C) 328 microamp
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 5.6ma
B) 56ma
C) 0.5672 A
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.9577 A
B) 9.5ms
C) 95 microsec
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 0.3596 s
B) 35ms
C) 3.5ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8.6 S
B) 0.8664 s
C) 86ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 17ms
B) 17329 ms
C) 1.7329 s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
C) Natural response
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 0.367
B) 0.1
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
B) Transients
C) Driven circuits
ANSWER: D
A) Undamping ratio
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 49.50 V
B) 49.50 mV
C) 45V
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 48.18 V
B) 24.09 V
C) 24 mv
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
4mark
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
Unit 2 Transient Analysis
MCQs
1.The time taken to change from an initial steady state to final

steady state is known as *
Natural response
Transient response
Initial condition
Complete response

2.The equation for source free RL circuit V(t) is given by *
2/2
V* e^R/L
V*e^L/R
V*e^-L/R

V* (1-e ^-R/L)

3.For source free RL series circuit, find numerical value of the
ratio *
2/2
I0* e^ t/tow
0.5
0.367
0.6065
None of the above

ratio *
.i(2tow)/i(tow)== 0.367

6. Condition for Underdamped RLC circuit is *
2/2
α> ω0
α< ω0
α=ω0
None of these

7.Match initial condition of the following components when voltage
is applied at t=0+(Match correct pair) *
2/2
a-y, b-x, c-z

a-x, b-y, c-z
a-y, b-z, c-y
a-z, b-x, c-y
8.The time taken to change from an initial steady state to final steady state is known as
A. Natural response
B. Transient period
C. Initial condition
D. Complete response
ANSWER: B
9.The equation for source free RL circuit V(t) is given by

A.V* e^ R/L
B.V*e^ L/R
C.V*e^- L/R
D.V* (1-e^ -R/L)
ANSWER: C
10.Condition for Underdamped RLC circuit is
A. α> ω0
B. α< ω0
C. α=ω0
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
11. is ---------condition for series RLC circuit.

A. Over-damped
B. Underdamped
C. Critically damped
D. Damped
12.
SNO QFLAG QTEXT OP1 OP2 OP3 OP4 OP5 OP6 ANSWER IMG_PATH COMPREHENSION HINT LEVEL TOPIC SUBTOPIC REMARK QUE_ID
The inductor opposes change in
current , it will act as a open circuit
at t = 0. So the current in the
1 1 The current in the R-L circuit at a time t = 0+ is? V/R R/V 0 R C circuit at t = 0 is 0. 2 Unit2 Unit2 ELC
he capacitor never allows sudden
changes in voltage, it will act as a
short circuit at t = 0+. So the current in
2 1 The current in the R-C circuit at a time t = 0+ is? V/R R/V V R A the circuit at t = 0+ is V/R. 2 Unit2 Unit2 ELC
The particular solution of the current
equation is zero. So the expression of
current in R- C circuit is i=(V/R)exp(-
3 1 The expression of current in R- C circuit is? i=(V/R)exp(t/RC ) i=(V/R)-exp(t/RC ) i=(V/R)exp(-t/RC ) i=(V/R)-exp(-t/RC ) C t/RC ). 1 Unit2 Unit2 ELC
In a R-C circuit, when the switch
is closed, the Vc response rises
with time that is the response V/R
In an R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the first increases and decreases, but volt. with increase
4 1 response of Vc ____________ do not vary with time rises with time decays with time then decreases B in time. 1 Unit2 Unit2 ELC
In a R-C circuit, when the switch
is closed, the Vc response rises
In an R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the with time that is the response V/R
first increases and decreases, but volt. with increase
5 i
1 current c response ____________ do not vary with time rises with time decays with time then decreases C in time. 2 Unit2 Unit2 ELC
After five time constants, the
After how many time constants, the transient part transient part of the response
6 1 reaches more than 99 percent of its final value? 2 3 4 5 D reaches more than 99 percent of
its final value.
At t = 0, switch S is closed. Since the
A series R-C circuit consists of resistor of 10 and capacitor does not allow sudden
capacitor of 0.1F as shown in the figure. A constant changes in voltage, the current in the
voltage of 20V is applied to the circuit at t = 0. What circuit is i = V/R = 20/10 = 2A. At t = 0,
7 1 is the current in the circuit at t = 0? 1 2 3 4 B i = 2A.
The expression of current obtained from the circuit
in terms of differentiation from the circuit shown in Explanation: By applying Kirchhoff’s
8 1 the question 8? di/dt+i=1 di/dt+i=2 di/dt+i=3 di/dt+i=0 D law, we get
The current equation in the circuit shown in the
9 1 question 8 is? i=2exp(-t) i=10exp(-t/RC ) i=exp(-t/RC ) i=exp(t/RC ) A
Differentiating with respect to t, we get

10 di/dt+i/0.1=0 => di/dt+i=0.
The expression of voltage across
The expression of voltage across resistor in the resistor in the circuit is VR = iR =(2(e-t
10 1 circuit shown in the question 8 is? VR =20(et)V VR =20(-e-t)V VR =20(-et)V VR =20(e-t)V D ) )×10=20(e-t )V.
If the roots of an equation are real and
unequal, then the response will be
over damped response. Over damped
response of a system is defined as the
system returns (exponentially decays)
If the roots of an equation are real and unequal, then to equilibrium without oscillating.
11 1 the response will be? critically damped under damped overdamped damped C ALPHA >w
If the roots of an equation are complex conjugate,
12 then the response will be? over damped critically damped damped under damped D alpha<w
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))

1 1 2
)
2 1 2
)
((OPTION_C) V(Z ) 1
)
((OPTION_D) V(Z ) 2
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION))
Th 2 1 2
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
3 1 2 1 2
)
1 3 2 3 2
)
2 1 3 1 3
)
1 2 1 2
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION)) impedance is Z = Z +(Z Z /(Z +Z )).
Th 3 1 2 1 2
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 41.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 42.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 43.86∠0⁰
)
((OPTION_D) 44.86∠0⁰
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
o o
ION))
ab
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 3.66∠90⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 3.66∠-90⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 4.66∠90⁰
)
((OPTION_D)
) 4.66∠-90⁰
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
equivalent impedance. The load current I = (42.86∠0 )/(j6.71+j5) = 3.66∠-90 A.
o o
ION))
L
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 18∠146.31⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 18∠-146.31⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 19∠146.31⁰
)
((OPTION_D) 19∠-146.31⁰
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT The voltage across (-j4) Ω resistor is = (5∠90 )/((2+j2) ) (-j4)=7.07∠-45 V. The
o o

o o o o
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 11.3∠45⁰
)
((OPTION_B) 12.3∠45⁰
)
((OPTION_C) 11.3∠-45⁰
)
((OPTION_D) 12.3∠-45⁰
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
o
ION))
ab
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
((CORRECT_CHOICE) B
) (A/B/C/D)

((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1

((CORRECT_CHOICE) A
) (A/B/C/D)

((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1

((OPTION_A)) 10 W
((OPTION_B)) 20 W
((OPTION_C)) 5W
((OPTION_D)) 40 W
((CORRECT_CHOICE) A
) (A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1
((OPTION_A)) 5 Ω
((OPTION_D))
((CORRECT_CHOICE) C
) (A/B/C/D)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1

((CORRECT_CHOICE) C
) (A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) (1/2/3...) 1

((CORRECT_CHOICE) B
) (A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANATION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION A super loop is formed when
))
((OPTION_A) There is a voltage source common to two loops
)
((OPTION_B) There is a voltage source between two nodes
)
((OPTION_C) There is a current source common to two loops
)
((OPTION_D) There is a current source on the periphery of the network
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D)
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT Aequations
network has 4 nodes including reference node (ground) , then how many
will be formed using nodal analysis
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
4
None of A,B,C
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Aa super
network has 4 nodes excluding reference node, out of which 2 nodes form
node. Then the number of voltage and current equations
((OPTION_A) 1 and 2
)
((OPTION_B) 0 and 4
)
((OPTION_C) 2 and 2
)
((OPTION_D) 1 and 3
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into
a voltage source and a series impedance
))
((OPTION_A) Norton's theorem
)
((OPTION_B) Superposition theorem
)
((OPTION_C) Miller's theorem
)
((OPTION_D) Thevenin's theorem
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into
a current source and a shunt impedance
)
((OPTION_B) Norton's theorem
)
((OPTION_C) Superposition theorem
)
((OPTION_D) Miller's theorem
)
((CORRECT_ Thevenin's theorem
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT A
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION The maximum efficiency of power transfer to load by any network is
))
((OPTION_A) 100.00%
)
((OPTION_B) 75.00%
)
((OPTION_C) 50.00%
)
((OPTION_D) 25.00%
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION For the network shown below, the value of R for maximum power
transferred to it is
))
((OPTION_A) 4 Ω
)
((OPTION_B) 3 Ω
)
((OPTION_C) 2 Ω
)
((OPTION_D) 1 Ω
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Mesh analysis is the application of
))
((OPTION_A) Kirchoff's current law

)
((OPTION_B) Kirchoff's voltage law
)
((OPTION_C) Nodal analysis
)
((OPTION_D) None of A, B, C
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Nodal analysis is the application of
))
((OPTION_A) Kirchoff's current law
)
((OPTION_B) Kirchoff's voltage law
)
((OPTION_C) Mesh analysis
)
((OPTION_D) None of A,B,C
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 10 W
)
((OPTION_B) 20 W
)
((OPTION_C) 5 W
)
((OPTION_D) 40 W
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 5 Ω
)
((OPTION_B) 5+ j10 Ω
)
)
((OPTION_D) 11.18 Ω
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION In a network, when opened at output terminals, the voltage measured is 10
((OPTION_A) 2 A source in series with 5 Ω resistor
)
((OPTION_B) 10 V source in series with 5 Ω resistor
)
((OPTION_C) 2 A source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
)
((OPTION_D) 10 V source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION In a network, when opened at output terminals, the voltage measured is 10
((OPTION_A) 2 A source in series with 5 Ω resistor
)
((OPTION_B) 10 V source in series with 5 Ω resistor
)
((OPTION_C) 2 A source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
)
((OPTION_D) 10 V source in parallel with 5 Ω resistor
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Anumber
network has 3 loops, out of which 2 loops form a super loop. Then the
of voltage and current equations respectively will be
))
((OPTION_A) 1 and 2
)
((OPTION_B) 3 and 0
)
((OPTION_C) 2 and 0
)
((OPTION_D) 2 and 1
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION A super loop is formed when
))
((OPTION_A) There is a voltage source common to two loops
)
((OPTION_B) There is a voltage source between two nodes
)
((OPTION_C) There is a current source common to two loops
)
((OPTION_D) There is a current source on the periphery of the network
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Aequations
network has 4 nodes including reference node (ground) , then how many
will be formed using nodal analysis
))
((OPTION_A) 4
)
((OPTION_B) 5
)
((OPTION_C) 3
)
((OPTION_D) None of A,B,C
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION Aa super
network has 4 nodes excluding reference node, out of which 2 nodes form
node. Then the number of voltage and current equations
((OPTION_A) 1 and 2
)
((OPTION_B) 0 and 4
)
((OPTION_C) 2 and 2
)
((OPTION_D) 1 and 3
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
a voltage source and a series impedance
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ D
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
a current source and a shunt impedance
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION The maximum efficiency of power transfer to load by any network is
))
((OPTION_A) 100.00%
)
((OPTION_B) 75.00%
)
((OPTION_C) 50.00%
)
((OPTION_D) 25.00%
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 8V
)
((OPTION_B)
9V
)
((OPTION_C) 10V
)
((OPTION_D) 11V
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 2
V=9V.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 10
)
((OPTION_B) 11
)
((OPTION_C) 12
)
((OPTION_D) 13
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 3 1 1 2 3
solving, R =12Ω.
ION))
1
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
5
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B) 6
)
7
((OPTION_C)
)
((OPTION_D) 8
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT As V =100V, V =15×2=30V, V =40V. (V -V )/14+(V -V )/R =15. On solving we get
1 2 3 1 2 1 3 2
R = 6Ω.
ION))
2
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A) 5.32
)
((OPTION_B) 6.32
)
((OPTION_C) ) 7.32
)
((OPTION_D) 8.32
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 2
2/5+5/6. On solving above equations, we get V =6.32V.

ION))
1
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 2.7
)
((OPTION_B) 3.7
)
((OPTION_C) 4.7
)
((OPTION_D) ) 5.7
)
((CORRECT_ c
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
1 2 1 2
2/5+5/6. On solving above equations, we get V =4.7V.

ION))
2
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 32.7
)
((OPTION_B) 33.7
)
((OPTION_C) 34.7
)
((OPTION_D) 35.7
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT Applying Kirchhoff’s current law at node 1, 10= V /10+(V -V )/3. At node 2,
1 1 2
(V -V )/3+V /5+(V -10)/1=0. On solving the above equations, we get V =33.7V.

ION))
2 1 2 2 1
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 13
)
((OPTION_B) 14
)
((OPTION_C) 15
)
((OPTION_D) 16
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((EXPLANAT Applying Kirchhoff’s current law at node 1, 10= V /10+(V -V )/3. At node 2,
1 1 2
(V -V )/3+V /5+(V -10)/1=0. On solving the above equations, we get V =14V.

ION))
2 1 2 2 2
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
2

2
((MARKS)) 2
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) 3.45ohm
)
((OPTION_B) 2.91ohm
)
((OPTION_C) 6.34ohm
)
((OPTION_D) 1.54ohm
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
RL=3||2+4||5.
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
((OPTION_A) yes
)
((OPTION_B) No
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ b
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
ower dissipated at the load is reduced while most of the power is dissipated at
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ C
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
)) the circuit?
((OPTION_A)
)
10A
((OPTION_B) 20A
)
((OPTION_C) 30A
)
((OPTION_D) 40A
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
Thus I=V/R.
ION)) I=220/22=10A.
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
)
)
((OPTION_C) Unique
)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
ION))
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
))
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ B
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
considered because the effect of the voltage remains the same when
ION)) connected in parallel.
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS)) 1
(1/2/3...)
)) connected?
)
)
)
)
((CORRECT_ A
CHOICE))
(A/B/C/D)
(OPTIONAL)
((MARKS))
(1/2/3...)
((QUESTION
))
((OPTION_A)
)
((OPTION_B)
)
A) Short Circuit
B) Undefined
C) Open circuit
D) Zero Henry
ANSWER: C
A) V/R
B) R/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C
time
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) decreases
ANSWER: C
After how RC series circuit many time constants, the transient part reaches more than 99
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D
Ration of Actual resistive to the critical resistance indicated by zeta in RLC circuit is known as
A) Damping ratio
D) NA
ANSWER: A
response?
C) remains Constant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) Open circuit
B) short circuit
C) Not applicable
D) undefined
ANSWER: A
A) V/R
B) I/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: C
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) predefined
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
A) open circuit
B) zero voltage
C) short circuit
ANSWER: C
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) Short circuit
D) Open circuit
ANSWER: A
A) V* e^Rt/L
B) V*e^Lt/R
C) V*e^-Lt/R
D) V* (1-e ^-Rt/L)
ANSWER: C
A) Overdamped
B) Underdamped
D) damped
ANSWER: B
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C

A) LR
B) R/L
C) L/R
D) -L/R
ANSWER: C
A) 32 V
B) 326 mv
C) 3.26 V
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 32 ma
B) 0.3286 A
C) 328 microamp
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 5.6ma
B) 56ma
C) 0.5672 A
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.9577 A
B) 9.5ms
C) 95 microsec
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 0.3596 s
B) 35ms
C) 3.5ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8.6 S
B) 0.8664 s
C) 86ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 17ms
B) 17329 ms
C) 1.7329 s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
C) Natural response
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 0.367
B) 0.1
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
B) Transients
C) Driven circuits
ANSWER: D
A) Undamping ratio
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 49.50 V
B) 49.50 mV
C) 45V
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 48.18 V
B) 24.09 V
C) 24 mv
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
4mark
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
Unit 2 Transient Analysis
MCQs
1.The time taken to change from an initial steady state to final

steady state is known as *
Natural response
Transient response
Initial condition
Complete response

2.The equation for source free RL circuit V(t) is given by *
2/2
V* e^R/L
V*e^L/R
V*e^-L/R

V* (1-e ^-R/L)

ratio *
2/2
I0* e^ t/tow
0.5
0.367
0.6065
None of the above

ratio *
.i(2tow)/i(tow)== 0.367

6. Condition for Underdamped RLC circuit is *
2/2
α> ω0
α< ω0
α=ω0
None of these

7.Match initial condition of the following components when voltage
is applied at t=0+(Match correct pair) *
2/2
a-y, b-x, c-z

a-x, b-y, c-z
a-y, b-z, c-y
a-z, b-x, c-y
8.The time taken to change from an initial steady state to final steady state is known as
A. Natural response
B. Transient period
C. Initial condition
D. Complete response
ANSWER: B
9.The equation for source free RL circuit V(t) is given by

A.V* e^ R/L
B.V*e^ L/R
C.V*e^- L/R
D.V* (1-e^ -R/L)
ANSWER: C
10.Condition for Underdamped RLC circuit is
A. α> ω0
B. α< ω0
C. α=ω0
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
11. is ---------condition for series RLC circuit.

A. Over-damped
B. Underdamped
C. Critically damped
D. Damped
12.
A series R-C circuit consists of resistor of 10 ohms and capacitor of 0.1F as shown
in the figure. A constant voltage of 20V is applied to the circuit at t = 0. What
is the current in the circuit at t = 0?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
In the network, the switch is closed at t=0, with the capacitor uncharged , find
value for
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A capacitor in an RC circuit with R = 25 Ω and C = 50 µF is being charged with
initial zero voltage. What is the time taken for the capacitor voltage to reach 40
% of its steady state value?
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
In an RC circuit, having a time constant of 2.5 ms, the capacitor discharges with
initial voltage of 80 V. Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 55 V
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
initial voltage of 80 V. (a) Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches
30 V
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
10 V
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A Variable reluctance stepper motor requires ----drive
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
ANSWER: A
Step angle in stepper motor is reduced by

A. Microstepping
B. Small step size
C. Increasing number of rotor poles
D. Decreasing number of rotor poles
ANSWER: C
A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ______________ material with

salient poles.
A. Paramagnetic
B. Ferromagnetic
C. Diamagnetic
D. Non-magnetic
ANSWER: B
The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the

A. Shaft load
B. Step pulse frequency
C. Polarity of stator current
D. Magnitude of stator current.
ANSWER: B
A stepper motor may be considered as a ____________ converter.

A. Dc to dc
B. Ac to ac
C. Dc to ac
D. Digital-to-analogue
ANSWER: D
If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36º and a step angle of 9º, the
number of its phases must be
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
ANSWER: A
In BLDC motor field winding is kept on _______________

A. Stator
B. Rotor
C. Can be placed anywhere
D. Absent
ANSWER: B
-------motors use hall effect bipolar sensor
A. Stepper
b. BLDC
C. Induction
D. All general purpose
----------is used to determine the position of the shaft.

A. Hall Effect sensor
B. BJT
C. MOSFET
D. Temperature Sensor
ANSWER: A
when the rotor is located at the core (center) and stator winding surrounds
it,means BLDC motor is
A. Outer rotor based
B. Inner Rotor based
C. Single Phase
D. Three phase
ANSWER: B
The direction of rotation of motor can be changed

A. By interchanging the supply terminals
B. By interchanging brush terminals
C. By interchanging the output ports
D. By interchanging the hall effect sensor terminals
ANSWER: c
Direction is possible in BLDC motor by

A. Reversing the switching sequence
B. changing two phases of motor input
C. A special circuit is needed
D. Reversing the terminal voltage
ANSWER: A
The most useful feature of BLDC is , it offers constant ...

A. load
B. Speed
C. Torque
D. Supply
ANSWER: C
The hall effect sensor used in BLDC

A. Creates high level changes in voltage proportional to local magnetic field
B. Creates high level changes in speed proportional to local magnetic field
C. Creates low level changes in voltage level proportional to speed
D. Creates low level changes in voltage level proportional to local magnetic field
ANSWER: D
The motor controller used in electric vehicle is mainly a
A. Inverter
B. DC DC Converter
C. Rectifier
Answer: B
The charger circuit used in electric vehicle is mainly a

A. AC-DC converter
B. DC DC Converter
C. filter
Answer: A
C-rate of battery is nothing but the

A. life of battery
B. charge discharge rate of battery
C. Amp-Hour capacity
D. charge rate of battery
Answer: B
Sequentially , the primary components of EV are ------,Power controller, motor and

--------
A. Charger, Transmission
B. Transmission, Charger
C. Inverter
D. Differential gear, charger
Answer: A

A. Windings
B. Rotor and Stator
C. Commutator, brush
D. C only
Answer: D
A) Short Circuit
B) Undefined
C) Open circuit
D) Zero Henry
ANSWER: C
A) V/R
B) R/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: A
A) i=(V/R)exp(t/RC )
B) i=(V/R)-exp(t/RC )
C) i=(V/R)exp(-t/RC )
ANSWER: C
In an R-C series circuit, when the switch is closed, the current ic response
____________ with time
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) decreases
ANSWER: C
After how RC series circuit many time constants, the transient part reaches more
than 99 percent of its final value?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D
Ration of Actual resistive to the critical resistance indicated by zeta in RLC
circuit is known as
A) Damping ratio
D) NA
ANSWER: A
In an RC series circuit, when the switch is closed and the circuit is complete,
what is the voltage response?
C) remains Constant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
When voltage across inductor is infinity at the time of switching , the inductor
acts as
A) Open circuit
B) short circuit
C) Not applicable
D) undefined
ANSWER: A
A) V/R
B) I/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: C
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) predefined
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
When uncharged capacitor is connected to voltage source, at t=0+ the capacitor acts
as
A) open circuit
B) zero voltage
C) short circuit
ANSWER: C
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) Short circuit
D) Open circuit
ANSWER: A
A) V* e^Rt/L
B) V*e^Lt/R
C) V*e^-Lt/R
D) V* (1-e ^-Rt/L)
ANSWER: C
A) Overdamped
B) Underdamped
D) damped
ANSWER: B
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C

A) LR
B) R/L
C) L/R
D) -L/R
ANSWER: C
initial voltage of 80 V,Calculate the capacitor voltage at time 8 ms
A) 32 V
B) 326 mv
C) 3.26 V
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
In a RL circuit with time constant of 1.25 s, inductor current increases from the
initial value of zero to the final value of 1.2 A ,Calculate the inductor current
at time 0.4 s
A) 32 ma
B) 0.3286 A
C) 328 microamp
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
at time 0.8 s
A) 5.6ma
B) 56ma
C) 0.5672 A
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
at time 2 s
A) 0.9577 A
B) 9.5ms
C) 95 microsec
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
n a RL circuit with time constant of 1.25 s, inductor current increases from the
initial value of zero to the final value of 1.2 A.Find the time at which the
inductor current reaches 0.3 A
A) 0.3596 s
B) 35ms
C) 3.5ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8.6 S
B) 0.8664 s
C) 86ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 17ms
B) 17329 ms
C) 1.7329 s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
For source free RL series circuit, find numerical value of the ratio i (0.5Ʈ / i
(Ʈ)
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
Forced response is system's response ----------------------to zero initial
conditions
C) Natural response
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 0.367
B) 0.1
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
B) Transients
C) Driven circuits
ANSWER: D
A) Undamping ratio
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
initial voltage of 80 V,Calculate the capacitor voltage at time 1.2 ms
A) 49.50 V
B) 49.50 mV
C) 45V
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 48.18 V
B) 24.09 V
C) 24 mv
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
4mark
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
value for
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
30 V
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
10 V
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
IF VL(T)) IS THE VOLTAGE ACROSS INDUCTOR L, THEN THE CURRENT IL(T)THROUGH L IS
GIVEN BY _____.
A) iL(t) = VL(t) ⁄L
B) iL(t) = LVL(t)
C) iL(t) = 1⁄L∫VL(t)dt
D) iL(t) = L∫VL(t)dt
ANSWER: A
THE CURRENT THROUGH INDUCTOR CANNOT CHANGE INSTANTANEOUSLY IS REPRESENTED BY
________.
A) i(0+)=i(0-).
B) i(0+)=0
C) i(0+)=i(∞).
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
DURING SWITCHING, AT INSTANT T=0+, INDUCTOR WITH INITIAL CURRENT I0 ACTS AS ______.
A) SHORT CIRCUIT
B) OPEN CIRCUIT
C) CONST. VOLT SOURCE
D) CONST. CURRENT SOURCE
ANSWER: B
THE TIME CONSTANT OF SERIES RC CIRCUIT IS GIVEN BY _____..
A) R/C
B) C/R
C) RC
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
IN DRIVEN SERIES RC CIRCUIT WITH ZERO INITIAL CONDITIONS, IN ONE TIME CONSTANT
PERIOD, THE VOLTAGE ACROSS CAPACITOR _______ TIMES ITS FINAL STEADY STATE VALUE.
A) Increases to 0.368
B) Increases to 0.368
C) Increases to 0.632
D) Decrease to 0.632
ANSWER: C
A) LR
B) R/L
C) L/R
D) -L/R
ANSWER: C
A) 32 V
B) 326 mv
C) 3.26 V
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
at time 0.4 s
A) 32 ma
B) 0.3286 A
C) 328 microamp
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
at time 0.8 s
A) 5.6ma
B) 56ma
C) 0.5672 A
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
at time 2 s
A) 0.9577 A
B) 9.5ms
C) 95 microsec
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 0.3596 s
B) 35ms
C) 3.5ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8.6 S
B) 0.8664 s
C) 86ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 17ms
B) 17329 ms
C) 1.7329 s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
(Ʈ)
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
conditions
C) Natural response
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 0.367
B) 0.1
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
B) Transients
C) Driven circuits
ANSWER: D
A) Undamping ratio
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 49.50 V
B) 49.50 mV
C) 45V
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 48.18 V
B) 24.09 V
C) 24 mv
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the rotor pole pitch is
A. 15º
B. 30º
C. 45º
D. 60º
ANSWER: C
With a stator having 8 teeth and a rotor having 6 teeth, what step angle will an
application be able to achieve?
A. 15°
B. 51°
C. 20°
D. 105°
ANSWER: A
If the stepper motor has a 1.8° step resolution, then in order for shaft to rotate
one complete revolution,
in full step operation, the stepper motor would need to receive
A. 360 pulses
B. 200 pulses
C. 180 Pulses
D. connot specify
ANSWER: B
For Z parameters, a network is said to be----------------, if ratio of excitation
at one port is same if the excitation and response are interchanged.
A) Reciprocal
B) Symmetry
C) NA
D) NA
ANSWER: A
--------------of transfer function can be model be characterized by Pole-Zero
A) Static behavior
B) stability
C) Dynamic Behavior
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
Transmission parameters are also called
A) ABCD parameters,
B) Z parameters
C) Y Parameters
D) H paramters
ANSWER: A
transmission parameters provide a direct relationship about
A) input and output
B) Only Input
C) Only Output
D) None of these
ANSWER:
When all the poles lie in the ------------------, the network is said to be stable.
A) left half of the s-plane
B) First quadrant
C) fourth quadrant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
The coefficients of the polynomials P (S) and Q (S) in the network function N (S)
are ________ for passive network.
A) real and positive
B) real and negative
C) complex and positive
D) complex and negative
ANSWER: A
The poles in the transfer function are denoted by?
A) Y
B) Z
C) X
D) W
ANSWER: C
As Z parameters are measured with either input port or output port open circuited ,
they are known as ----------------impedance parameters
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) Equal
D) Maximum
ANSWER: B
Y parameters of two port network may be defined by
A) two port voltages V1 and V2 to the two poet current
B) One port to two port
C) two port currents I1 and I2 in terms of two port voltages V1 and V2
D) Nomne oof these
ANSWER: C
The individual Y parameter for a given network can be defined by setting
A) each of the port voltages equal to zero
B) Both port equal to zero
C) any one port open circuited
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
The individual h parameter for a given network can be defined by
A) input port open , output port short
B) Input current zero, output voltage zero
C) Both options are 1&2 correct
D) first option is correct only
ANSWER: C
One port network has
A) two variables
B) one variable only
C) 4 variables
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
A two port network has --------------variables
A) Two
B) four
C) three
D) No
ANSWER: B
The roots of numerator polynomial are called
A) poles
B) zeros
C) F(S)
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
Roots of denominator polynomial are called
A) Zeros
B) poles
C) NA
D) NA
ANSWER: B
The impedance parameters of a two port network are Z11 = 6 ohms; Z22= 4 ohms ; Z12
= Z21 = 3 ohms. Compute the Y parameters Y11, Y12, Y21, Y22 in mho unit
respectively
A) 4/15, 1/5, 1/5, 2/5
B) 4/15,-1/5,-1/5, 2/5
C) 4/15,-1/5,-1/5,4 /5
D) NA
ANSWER: B
For the given Impedance network , values of Z11 Open circuit input impedance, Z12
Open circuit reverse transfer impedance, Z21 open circuit forward transfer
impedance , Z22 open circuit output impedance are ...........respectively [Z
nertwork.JPG]
A) (Za + Zb), Zb, Zb, (Zb + Zc)
B) (Za + Zb), Za, Zb, (Zb + Zc)
C) (Za + Zb), Zb, Zb, (Zb + Zc)(Za + Zb),Zb, (Zb + Zc)
D) NA
ANSWER: A
For the given Impedance network, values of Z11 Open circuit input impedance,Z21
open circuit forward transfer impedance Z12 Open circuit reverse transfer
impedance, , Z22 open circuit output impedance are ..........in ohms .respectively
and satisfies ---------- condition [z para.JPG]
A) 60, 40, 70,70, reciprocal
B) 60, 40, 70,70, symmetry
C) 60,60 , 70,70, symmetry
D) NA
ANSWER: A
h parameters h11= ohms ,h21= ,h12 = ,h22= mho respectively [h para1.JPG]
A) 0, 0.5, 0.5, 0.5
B) 2, 0.5, 0.5, 0.5
C) 2, 1.5, 0.5, 0.5
D) NA
ANSWER: B
= Z21 = 3 ohms. Compute the ABCD parameters A= , B= ohms , C= mho , D= ,
respectively
A) 2, 1, 1/3, 4/3
B) 1, 5, 1/3, 4/3
C) 2, 5, 1/3, 4/3
D) NA
ANSWER: C
A) Short Circuit
B) Undefined
C) Open circuit
D) Zero Henry
ANSWER: C
A) V/R
B) R/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C
____________ with time
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) decreases
ANSWER: C
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D
circuit is known as
A) Damping ratio
D) NA
ANSWER: A
C) remains Constant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
acts as
A) Open circuit
B) short circuit
C) Not applicable
D) undefined
ANSWER: A
A) V/R
B) I/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: C
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) predefined
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
as
A) open circuit
B) zero voltage
C) short circuit
ANSWER: C
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) Short circuit
D) Open circuit
ANSWER: A
A) V* e^Rt/L
B) V*e^Lt/R
C) V*e^-Lt/R
D) V* (1-e ^-Rt/L)
ANSWER: C
A) Overdamped
B) Underdamped
D) damped
ANSWER: B
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) LR
B) R/L
C) L/R
D) -L/R
ANSWER: C
A) 32 V
B) 326 mv
C) 3.26 V
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
at time 0.4 s
A) 32 ma
B) 0.3286 A
C) 328 microamp
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
at time 0.8 s
A) 5.6ma
B) 56ma
C) 0.5672 A
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
at time 2 s
A) 0.9577 A
B) 9.5ms
C) 95 microsec
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 0.3596 s
B) 35ms
C) 3.5ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8.6 S
B) 0.8664 s
C) 86ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 17ms
B) 17329 ms
C) 1.7329 s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
(Ʈ)
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
conditions
C) Natural response
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 0.367
B) 0.1
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
B) Transients
C) Driven circuits
ANSWER: D
A) Undamping ratio
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 49.50 V
B) 49.50 mV
C) 45V
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 48.18 V
B) 24.09 V
C) 24 mv
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
value for
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
30 V
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
10 V
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C
What will the value of the current in amp.be once source transformation is applied
to the circuit? [8.png]
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
ANSWER:
A) Unilateral
B) Bilateral
C) Unique
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
Once the circuit is transformed to a voltage source where will the resistance be
connected? [9.png]
ANSWER:
A network has 4 nodes excluding reference node, out of which 2 nodes form a super
node. Then the number of voltage and current equations respectively will be
A) 1 and 2
B) 0 and 4
C) 2 and 2
D) 1 and 3
ANSWER: D
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into a voltage
source and a series impedance
A) Norton's theorem
C) Miller's theorem
ANSWER: D
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into a current
source and a shunt impedance
A) Norton's theorem
C) Miller's theorem
ANSWER: A
C) Nodal analysis
D) None of A, B, C
ANSWER: B
C) Mesh analysis
D) None of A,B,C
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
A) yes
B) No
C) Sometimes
D) Can't say
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
Thevenin’s theorem gives us a method for simplifying a given circuit. The
thevenin’s voltage is [thev.png]
A) V(Z1/(Z1+Z2))
B) V(Z2/(Z1+Z2))
C) V(Z1)
D) V(Z2)
ANSWER: B
In a network, when opened at output terminals, the voltage measured is 10 V and the
current measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the Thevenin's
equivalent circuit will be
ANSWER: B
A) Z3+( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
B) Z3+( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
C) Z2+( Z1Z3/(Z1+Z3))
D) ( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
ANSWER: A
[Thevab.png]
A) 41.86∠0⁰
B) 42.86∠0⁰
C) 43.86∠0⁰
D) 44.86∠0⁰
ANSWER: B
A) 3.66∠90⁰
B) 3.66∠-90⁰
C) 4.66∠90⁰
D) 4.66∠-90⁰
ANSWER: B
A) 18∠146.31⁰
B) 18∠-146.31⁰
C) 19∠146.31⁰
D) 19∠-146.31⁰
ANSWER: A
A) 11.3∠45⁰
B) 12.3∠45⁰
C) 11.3∠-45⁰
D) 12.3∠-45⁰
ANSWER: C
If Norton equivalent circuit of a network has VN = 2 A and ZN = 10 Ω, the maximum
power transferred to the load will be -------------watts
A) 10
B) 20
C) 5
D) 40
ANSWER: A
If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Zth = 5+ j10 Ω, the maximum
power will be transferred by the network to the load of value
A) 5 Ω
B) 5+ j10 Ω
C) 5 - j10 Ω
D) 11.18 Ω
ANSWER: C
current measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the Norton's equivalent
circuit will be
ANSWER: C
A) 3.45ohm
B) 2.91ohm
C) 6.34ohm
D) 1.54ohm
ANSWER: B
A) 32.7
B) 33.7
C) 34.7
D) 35.7
ANSWER: B
A) 2.7
B) 3.7
C) 4.7
D) 5.7
ANSWER: C
A) 5.32
B) 6.32
C) 7.32
D) 8.32
ANSWER: B
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
ANSWER: B
A) 8 v
B) 9 v
C) 10 v
D) 11 v
ANSWER: B
For Z parameters, a network is said to be----------------, if ratio of excitation
at one port is same if the excitation and response are interchanged.
A) Reciprocal
B) Symmetry
C) NA
D) NA
ANSWER: A
--------------of transfer function can be model be characterized by Pole-Zero
A) Static behavior
B) stability
C) Dynamic Behavior
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
Transmission parameters are also called
A) ABCD parameters,
B) Z parameters
C) Y Parameters
D) H paramters
ANSWER: A
transmission parameters provide a direct relationship about
A) input and output
B) Only Input
C) Only Output
D) None of these
ANSWER:
When all the poles lie in the ------------------, the network is said to be stable.
A) left half of the s-plane
B) First quadrant
C) fourth quadrant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
The coefficients of the polynomials P (S) and Q (S) in the network function N (S)
are ________ for passive network.
A) real and positive
B) real and negative
C) complex and positive
D) complex and negative
ANSWER: A
The poles in the transfer function are denoted by?
A) Y
B) Z
C) X
D) W
ANSWER: C
As Z parameters are measured with either input port or output port open circuited ,
they are known as ----------------impedance parameters
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) Equal
D) Maximum
ANSWER: B
Y parameters of two port network may be defined by
A) two port voltages V1 and V2 to the two poet current
B) One port to two port
C) two port currents I1 and I2 in terms of two port voltages V1 and V2
D) Nomne oof these
ANSWER: C
The individual Y parameter for a given network can be defined by setting
A) each of the port voltages equal to zero
B) Both port equal to zero
C) any one port open circuited
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
The individual h parameter for a given network can be defined by
A) input port open , output port short
B) Input current zero, output voltage zero
C) Both options are 1&2 correct
D) first option is correct only
ANSWER: C
One port network has
A) two variables
B) one variable only
C) 4 variables
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
A two port network has --------------variables
A) Two
B) four
C) three
D) No
ANSWER: B
The roots of numerator polynomial are called
A) poles
B) zeros
C) F(S)
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
Roots of denominator polynomial are called
A) Zeros
B) poles
C) NA
D) NA
ANSWER: B
= Z21 = 3 ohms. Compute the Y parameters Y11, Y12, Y21, Y22 in mho unit
respectively
A) 4/15, 1/5, 1/5, 2/5
B) 4/15,-1/5,-1/5, 2/5
C) 4/15,-1/5,-1/5,4 /5
D) NA
ANSWER: B
For the given Impedance network , values of Z11 Open circuit input impedance, Z12
Open circuit reverse transfer impedance, Z21 open circuit forward transfer
impedance , Z22 open circuit output impedance are ...........respectively [Z
nertwork.JPG]
A) (Za + Zb), Zb, Zb, (Zb + Zc)
B) (Za + Zb), Za, Zb, (Zb + Zc)
C) (Za + Zb), Zb, Zb, (Zb + Zc)(Za + Zb),Zb, (Zb + Zc)
D) NA
ANSWER: A
For the given Impedance network, values of Z11 Open circuit input impedance,Z21
open circuit forward transfer impedance Z12 Open circuit reverse transfer
impedance, , Z22 open circuit output impedance are ..........in ohms .respectively
and satisfies ---------- condition [z para.JPG]
A) 60, 40, 70,70, reciprocal
B) 60, 40, 70,70, symmetry
C) 60,60 , 70,70, symmetry
D) NA
ANSWER: A
h parameters h11= ohms ,h21= ,h12 = ,h22= mho respectively [h para1.JPG]
A) 0, 0.5, 0.5, 0.5
B) 2, 0.5, 0.5, 0.5
C) 2, 1.5, 0.5, 0.5
D) NA
ANSWER: B
= Z21 = 3 ohms. Compute the ABCD parameters A= , B= ohms , C= mho , D= ,
respectively
A) 2, 1, 1/3, 4/3
B) 1, 5, 1/3, 4/3
C) 2, 5, 1/3, 4/3
D) NA
ANSWER: C
A) Short Circuit
B) Undefined
C) Open circuit
D) Zero Henry
ANSWER: C
A) V/R
B) R/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C
____________ with time
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) decreases
ANSWER: C
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D
circuit is known as
A) Damping ratio
D) NA
ANSWER: A
C) remains Constant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
acts as
A) Open circuit
B) short circuit
C) Not applicable
D) undefined
ANSWER: A
A) V/R
B) I/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: C
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) predefined
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
as
A) open circuit
B) zero voltage
C) short circuit
ANSWER: C
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) Short circuit
D) Open circuit
ANSWER: A
A) V* e^Rt/L
B) V*e^Lt/R
C) V*e^-Lt/R
D) V* (1-e ^-Rt/L)
ANSWER: C
A) Overdamped
B) Underdamped
D) damped
ANSWER: B
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) LR
B) R/L
C) L/R
D) -L/R
ANSWER: C
A) 32 V
B) 326 mv
C) 3.26 V
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
at time 0.4 s
A) 32 ma
B) 0.3286 A
C) 328 microamp
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
at time 0.8 s
A) 5.6ma
B) 56ma
C) 0.5672 A
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
at time 2 s
A) 0.9577 A
B) 9.5ms
C) 95 microsec
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 0.3596 s
B) 35ms
C) 3.5ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8.6 S
B) 0.8664 s
C) 86ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 17ms
B) 17329 ms
C) 1.7329 s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
(Ʈ)
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
conditions
C) Natural response
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 0.367
B) 0.1
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
B) Transients
C) Driven circuits
ANSWER: D
A) Undamping ratio
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 49.50 V
B) 49.50 mV
C) 45V
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 48.18 V
B) 24.09 V
C) 24 mv
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
value for
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
30 V
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
10 V
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C
What will the value of the current in amp.be once source transformation is applied
to the circuit? [8.png]
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
ANSWER:
A) Unilateral
B) Bilateral
C) Unique
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
Once the circuit is transformed to a voltage source where will the resistance be
connected? [9.png]
ANSWER:
A network has 4 nodes excluding reference node, out of which 2 nodes form a super
node. Then the number of voltage and current equations respectively will be
A) 1 and 2
B) 0 and 4
C) 2 and 2
D) 1 and 3
ANSWER: D
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into a voltage
source and a series impedance
A) Norton's theorem
C) Miller's theorem
ANSWER: D
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into a current
source and a shunt impedance
A) Norton's theorem
C) Miller's theorem
ANSWER: A
C) Nodal analysis
D) None of A, B, C
ANSWER: B
C) Mesh analysis
D) None of A,B,C
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
A) yes
B) No
C) Sometimes
D) Can't say
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
Thevenin’s theorem gives us a method for simplifying a given circuit. The
thevenin’s voltage is [thev.png]
A) V(Z1/(Z1+Z2))
B) V(Z2/(Z1+Z2))
C) V(Z1)
D) V(Z2)
ANSWER: B
current measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the Thevenin's
equivalent circuit will be
ANSWER: B
A) Z3+( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
B) Z3+( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
C) Z2+( Z1Z3/(Z1+Z3))
D) ( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
ANSWER: A
[Thevab.png]
A) 41.86∠0⁰
B) 42.86∠0⁰
C) 43.86∠0⁰
D) 44.86∠0⁰
ANSWER: B
A) 3.66∠90⁰
B) 3.66∠-90⁰
C) 4.66∠90⁰
D) 4.66∠-90⁰
ANSWER: B
A) 18∠146.31⁰
B) 18∠-146.31⁰
C) 19∠146.31⁰
D) 19∠-146.31⁰
ANSWER: A
A) 11.3∠45⁰
B) 12.3∠45⁰
C) 11.3∠-45⁰
D) 12.3∠-45⁰
ANSWER: C
If Norton equivalent circuit of a network has VN = 2 A and ZN = 10 Ω, the maximum
power transferred to the load will be -------------watts
A) 10
B) 20
C) 5
D) 40
ANSWER: A
If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Zth = 5+ j10 Ω, the maximum
power will be transferred by the network to the load of value
A) 5 Ω
B) 5+ j10 Ω
C) 5 - j10 Ω
D) 11.18 Ω
ANSWER: C
current measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the Norton's equivalent
circuit will be
ANSWER: C
A) 3.45ohm
B) 2.91ohm
C) 6.34ohm
D) 1.54ohm
ANSWER: B
A) 32.7
B) 33.7
C) 34.7
D) 35.7
ANSWER: B
A) 2.7
B) 3.7
C) 4.7
D) 5.7
ANSWER: C
A) 5.32
B) 6.32
C) 7.32
D) 8.32
ANSWER: B
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
ANSWER: B
A) 8 v
B) 9 v
C) 10 v
D) 11 v
ANSWER: B
A series R-C circuit consists of resistor of 10 ohms and capacitor of 0.1F as shown in the figure. A
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: B
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
A) 8sec
B) 8ms
C) 80ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A capacitor in an RC circuit with R = 25 Ω and C = 50 µF is being charged with initial zero voltage.
What is the time taken for the capacitor voltage to reach 40 % of its steady state value?
A) 6385 ms
B) 6.3 sec
C) 0.6385 m s
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
V. Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 55 V
A) 0.9376ms
B) 2.4 ms
C) 9376ms
D) Not applicable
ANSWER: A
V. (a) Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 30 V
A) 240microsec
B) 24ms
C) 2.45ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
V. (a) Find the time at which the capacitor voltage reaches 10 V
A) 51microsec
B) 5.19ms
C) 519ms
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C
What will the value of the current in amp.be once source transformation is applied to the circuit?
[8.png]
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
ANSWER:
A) Unilateral
B) Bilateral
C) Unique
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
Once the circuit is transformed to a voltage source where will the resistance be connected?
[9.png]
ANSWER: A
A network has 4 nodes excluding reference node, out of which 2 nodes form a super node. Then the
number of voltage and current equations respectively will be
A) 1 and 2
B) 0 and 4
C) 2 and 2
D) 1 and 3
ANSWER: D
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into a voltage source and a
series impedance
A) Norton's theorem
C) Miller's theorem
ANSWER: D
Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex network into a current source and a
shunt impedance
A) Norton's theorem
C) Miller's theorem
ANSWER: A
C) Nodal analysis
D) None of A, B, C
ANSWER: B
C) Mesh analysis
D) None of A,B,C
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
A) yes
B) No
C) Sometimes
D) Can't say
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
Initial Condition in purely Inductive network for driven circuit is
A) Short Circuit
B) Undefined
C) Open circuit
D) Zero Henry
ANSWER: C
A) V/R
B) R/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C
____________ with time
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) decreases
ANSWER: C
In RC series circuit, After how many time constants, the transient part reaches
more than 99 percent of its final value?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D
Ratio of Actual resistive to the critical resistance indicated by zeta in RLC
circuit is known as
A) Damping ratio
D) NA
ANSWER: A
C) remains Constant
D) None of these
ANSWER: A
Natural & forced response of any electrical network is known as
ANSWER: A
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
acts as
A) Open circuit
B) short circuit
C) Not applicable
D) undefined
ANSWER: A
A) V/R
B) I/V
C) Zero
D) Infinity
ANSWER: C
A) Short circuit
B) open circuit
C) predefined
D) none of these
ANSWER: A
as
A) open circuit
B) zero voltage
C) short circuit
ANSWER: C
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) Short circuit
D) Open circuit
ANSWER: A
A) V* e^Rt/L
B) V*e^Lt/R
C) V*e^-Lt/R
D) V* (1-e ^-Rt/L)
ANSWER: C
A) Overdamped
B) Underdamped
D) damped
ANSWER: B
A) 0.5
B) 0.367
C) 0.6065
D) None of these
ANSWER: C
Thevenin’s theorem gives us a method for simplifying a given circuit. The thevenin’s voltage is
[thev.png]
A) V(Z1/(Z1+Z2))
B) V(Z2/(Z1+Z2))
C) V(Z1)
D) V(Z2)
ANSWER: B
measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the Thevenin's equivalent circuit will be
ANSWER: B
A) Z3+( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
B) Z2+( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
C) Z2+( Z1Z3/(Z1+Z3))
D) ( Z1Z2/(Z1+Z2))
ANSWER: A
Determine the Thevenin’s voltage across ‘ab’ terminals in the circuit shown [Thevab.png]
A) 41.86∠0⁰
B) 42.86∠0⁰
C) 43.86∠0⁰
D) 44.86∠0⁰
ANSWER: B
A) 3.66∠90⁰
B) 3.66∠-90⁰
C) 4.66∠90⁰
D) 4.66∠-90⁰
ANSWER: B
A) 18∠146.31⁰
B) 18∠-146.31⁰
C) 19∠146.31⁰
D) 19∠-146.31⁰
ANSWER: A
A) 11.3∠45⁰
B) 12.3∠45⁰
C) 11.3∠-45⁰
D) 12.3∠-45⁰
ANSWER: C
If Norton equivalent circuit of a network has VN = 2 A and ZN = 10 Ω, the maximum power

transferred to the load will be -------------watts
A) 10
B) 20
C) 5
D) 40
ANSWER: A
If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Zth = 5+ j10 Ω, the maximum power will be
transferred by the network to the load of value
A) 5 Ω
B) 5+ j10 Ω
C) 5 - j10 Ω
D) 11.18 Ω
ANSWER: C
measured with shorted output terminals is 2 A. Then the Norton's equivalent circuit will be

ANSWER: C
A) 3.45ohm
B) 2.91ohm
C) 6.34ohm
D) 1.54ohm
ANSWER: B
A) 32.7
B) 33.7
C) 34.7
D) 35.7
ANSWER: B
A) 2.7
B) 3.7
C) 4.7
D) 5.7
ANSWER: C
A) 5.32
B) 6.32
C) 7.32
D) 8.32
ANSWER: B
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
ANSWER: B

A) 8 v
B) 9 v
C) 10 v
D) 11 v
ANSWER: B
Pune Vidyarthi Griha’s
College of Engineering & Technology & GKPIM, Pune
Department of Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering.
MCQs on Unit I- Basic Circuit Analysis & Simplification Techniques
Course: Electrical Circuits (EC) Class: SE
1) KVL deals with the conservation of?

a) Mass
b) Momentum
c) Charge
d) Energy
Answer: d
2) Calculate the value of V1 and V2.
a) 4V, 6V
b) 5V, 6V
c) 6V, 7V
d) 7V, 8V
Answer: a
3) Calculate the voltage across the 10 ohm resistor.
a) 12V
b) 4V
c) 10V
d) 0V
Answer: b
4) The sum of the voltages over any closed loop is equal to __________
a) 0V
b) Infinity
c) 1V
d) 2V
Answer: a
5) What is the basic law that has to be followed in order to analyze the
circuit?
a) Newton’s laws
b) Faraday’s laws
c) Ampere’s laws
d) Kirchhoff’s law
Answer: d
6) Every____________ is a ____________ but every __________ is not a
__________
a) Mesh, loop, loop, mesh

b) Loop, mesh, mesh, loop
c) Loop, mesh, loop, mesh
d) Mesh, loop, mesh, loop
Answer: a
7) KVL is applied in ____________
a) Mesh analysis
b) Nodal analysis
c) Both mesh and nodal
d) Neither mesh nor nodal
Answer: a
8) Calculate the current A.
a) 5A
b) 10A
c) 15A
d) 20A
Answer: c
9) Calculate the current across the 20 ohm resistor.
a) 20A
b) 1A
c) 0.67A
d) 0.33A
Answer: d
10) Calculate the value of I3, if I1= 2A and I2=3A.
a) -5A
b) 5A
c) 1A
d) -1A
Answer: a
11) What is the value of current if a 50C charge flows in a conductor over a
period of 5 seconds?
a) 5A
b) 10A
c) 15A
d) 20A
Answer: b
12) KCL deals with the conservation of?
a) Momentum
b) Mass
c) Potential Energy
d) Charge
Answer: d
13) KCL is applied at _________
a) Loop
b) Node
c) Both loop and node
d) Neither loop nor node
Answer: b
14) KCL can be applied for __________
a) Planar networks
b) Non-planar networks
c) Both planar and non-planar
d) Neither planar nor non-planar
Answer: c
15) What is the value of the current I?

a) 8A
b) 7A
c) 6A
d) 5A
Answer: a
16) Kirchhoff's current law is applicable to only

a) Junction in a network
b) Closed loops in a network
c) Electric circuits
d) Electronic circuits
Answer: a
17) Kirchhoff's current law states that
a) Net current flow at the junction is positive

b) Algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
c) No current can leave the junction without some current entering it
d) Total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
Answer: b
18) Kirchhoff's voltage law is related to
a) Junction cards
b) Battery e.m.fs
c) IR drops
d) Both B and C
Answer: d
19) According to Kirchhoff's voltage law, the algebraic some of all IR drops
and e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is always
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Determined by battery e.m.fs.
d) Zero
Answer: d
20) Nodal analysis is based on
a) KCL
b) KVL
c) Both
d) Law of conservation of energy
Answer: a
21) Kirchhoff's laws are valid for
a) Linear circuits only

b) Passive time invariant circuits
c) Nonlinear circuits only
d) Both the linear and nonlinear circuits only
Answer: d
22) In nodal analysis, if there are N nodes in the circuit then how many
equations will be written to solve the network ?
a) N-1
b) N+1
c) N
c) N-2
Answer: a
23) Dependent sources are _____________ types.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: c
24) In case of a dependent voltage/current source, the value of this

voltage/current source depends on _________
a) Voltage/current sources of an external circuit

b) Voltage/current source present somewhere in the circuit
c) Only on voltage sources
d) Only on current sources
Answer: b
25) The value of the voltage controlled current source ia=βva given β=0.3 and
va=9.5mV.
a) 2.5 mA
b) 2.85 mA
c) 1.75 mA
d) 1.2 mA
Answer: b
26) The value of the current controlled voltage source ,given β=0.8 and ia=9.5mA,
is ___________
a) 8mV
b) 7.6mV
c) 0.0011mV
d) 0.0051mV
Answer: b
27) In a VCIS which is the controlled source and which one is the dependent
source?
a) V-contorller, I-dependent
b) V-dependent, I-controller
c) Both V and I are controllers
d) Both V and I are dependent
Answer: a
28) In an ICVS which is the controlled source and which one is the dependent
source?
a) V-controller, I-dependent
b) V-dependent, I-controller
c) Both V and I are controllers
d) Both V and I are dependent
Answer: b
29) The What is the other name for Dependent sources?
Answer: d
30) The analysis of a circuit containing dependent sources can be done using
nodal and mesh analysis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
31) The symbol shown here is --------
a) Voltage controlled current source

b) Current controlled current source
c) Current controlled voltage source
d) Voltage controlled voltage source
Answer: a
32) An ideal current source should have
a) zero internal resistance

b) infinite internal resistance
c) Large value of e.m.f.
d) None of the above
Answer: b
33) Mesh analysis is applicable for non-planar networks also.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
34) A mesh is a loop which contains ____ number of loops within it.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) no loop
Answer: d
35) Consider the circuit shown below. The number mesh equations that can be
formed are?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
36) In the figure shown below, the current through loop 1 be I1 and through the
loop 2 be I2, then the current flowing through the resistor R2 will be?
a) I1
b) I2
c) I1-I2
d) I1+I2
Answer: c
37) Find current through R2 resistor.

a) 3
b) 3.25
c) 3.5
d) 3.75
Answer: d
38) If there are 8 nodes in network, we can get ____ number of equations in
the nodal analysis.
a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6
Answer: c
39) Nodal analysis can be applied for non-planar networks also.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
40) In nodal analysis how many nodes are taken as reference nodes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
41) Find the voltage at node 1 of the circuit shown below.

a) 32.7
b) 33.7
c) 34.7
d) 35.7
Answer: b
a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
Answer: b
43) In nodal analysis, the preferred reference node is a node that is connected
to
1. Ground
2. Many parts of the network
3. The highest voltage source
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 2 3
Answer: b
44) Nodal method of circuit analysis is based on
1. KVL & Ohm’s law
2. KVL, KCL & Ohm’s law
3. KCL & KVL
4. KCL & Ohm’s law
Which of the following option is correct?
a) 1 & 2 correct
b) 3 & 4 correct
c) 4 is wrong but 1 is correct
d) 4 is correct but 2 is wrong
Answer: d
45) If
the network has a/an -------- between two nodes, the concept of super
node is used instead of nodal analysis.
a) Voltage source
b) Dependent current source
c) Independent current source
d) Resistor
Answer: a
46) Number of equations required to be analysed in a given network by nodal

analysis is equal to.
a) The number of independent loops

b) One less than the number of loops
c) The number of nodes
d) One less than the number of nodes
Answer: d
47) What is the value of the current flowing in the in 3Ω resistor?
a) 10A
b) 1A
c) 7A
d) 4A
Answer: d
48) Find the node voltage V.
a) 1V
b) 2V
c) 3V
d) 4V
Answer: d
49) Find the value of the node voltage V.
a) -60V
b) 60V
c) 40V
d) -40V
Answer: a
50) Nodal analysis is generally used to determine_______
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Power
Answer: a
51) Source Transformation is _____________
a) Unilateral
b) Unique
c) Bilateral
d) Complicated
Answer: c
52) By using source transformation voltage source in series resistor is replaced
by---------
a) Voltage source in series with a resistor

b) Current source in parallel with a resistor
c) Voltage source in parallel with a resistor
d) Current source in series with a resistor
Answer: b
53) If there are two resistors in parallel and in series with a voltage source
then ___________
a) Parallel resistor has no effect

b) Series resistor has no effect
c) Both has their respective effects
d) Both has no effect on the voltage source
Answer: a
54) Using source transformation, calculate the voltage.
a) 4.33V
b) 39V
c) 0.230V
d) 36V
Answer: b
55) Which element(s) has no effect in the given circuit?
a) 7Ω
b) 10Ω
c) Both 7Ω and 10Ω
d) Voltage source.
Answer: b
56) The value of current source is __________ after replacing the given
network with a single current source and a resistor.
a) 70V
b) 60V
c) 90V
d) 80V
Answer: d
57) Source transformation can be used for dependent sources.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
58) Source transformation technique is mainly based on __________ law.
a) Newton’s
b) Kirchhoff’s
c) Ohm’s
d) Einstein’s
Answer: c
59) In source transformation,
a) Voltage sources remain same

b) Current sources remain same
c) Both voltage and current sources undergo change
d) Resistances/Impedances remain same
Answer: d
60) If there are five 20V voltage sources in parallel, then in source
transformation __________
a) All are considered

b) Only one is considered
c) All are ignored
d) Only 2 are considered
Answer: b
61) In source transformation---------
a) Voltage source remains the same

b) Current source remains the same
c) Both voltage & Current source remains the same
d) Resistances remain the same
Answer: d
62) In Source transformation, a voltage source in ________ with a resistor is
replaced by a current source in _________ with the same resistor
a) series, parallel
b) series, series
c) parallel, parallel
Answer: a
63) Ohm’s law: V=iR. By using this, the voltage/ current sources are?
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Same
Answer: b
64) The following circuit diagram can be represented as
a) 2V in parallel with 5Ω
b) 10V in parallel with 10Ω
c) 10V in series with 5Ω
d) 2V in series with 10Ω
Answer: c
65) In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one voltage
source, all the other voltage sources are ____________
a) Shorted
b) Opened
c) Removed
d) Undisturbed
Answer: a
66) In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one current

source, all the other voltage sources are ____________
a) Shorted
b) Opened
c) Removed
d) Undisturbed
Answer: a
67) In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one voltage

source, all the other current sources are ____________
a) Shorted
b) Opened
c) Removed
d) Undisturbed
Answer: b
68) In superposition theorem, when we consider the effect of one current

source, all the other current sources are ____________
a) Shorted
b) Opened
c) Removed
d) Undisturbed
Answer: b
69) Find the value of Vx using Superposition theorem due to the 16V source.
a) 4.2V
b) 3.2V
c) 2.3V
d) 6.3V
Answer: b
70) Find the value of Vx using Superposition theorem due to the 10V source.
a) 1V
b) 2V
c) 3V
d) 4V
Answer: b
71) Superposition theorem is valid for _________
a) Linear systems
b) Non-linear systems
c) Both linear and non-linear systems
d) Neither linear nor non-linear systems
Answer: a
72) Superposition theorem does not work for ________
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Works for all: current, voltage and power
Answer: c
73) Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to 20V source using
Superposition theorem in the circuit shown below.
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 2.5
Answer: b
74) Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor in the circuit shown below using
Superposition theorem.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
75) Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having
a) Resistive elements
b) Passive elements
c) Non-linear elements
d) Linear bilateral elements
Answer: d
76) The superposition theorem is applicable to
a) Linear,non-linear and time variant responses

b) Linear,non-linear resistors only
c) Linear responses only
Answer: c
77) The superposition theorem applicable to
a) Voltage only
b) Current only
c) Both current and voltage
d) Current, voltage and power
Answer: d
78) The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there

are
a) Sources, nodes and meshes

b) Sources and nodes
c) Sources
d) Nodes
Answer: c
79) The Thevenin voltage is the__________
a) Open circuit voltage

b) Short circuit voltage
c) Open circuit and short circuit voltage
d) Neither open circuit nor short circuit voltage
Answer: a
80) Thevenin resistance is found by ________
a) Shorting all voltage sources

b) Opening all current sources
c) Shorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
d) Opening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
Answer: c
81) Thevenin’s theorem is true for __________
a) Linear networks
b) Non-Linear networks
c) Both linear networks and nonlinear networks
d) Neither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Answer: a
82) In Thevenin’s theorem Vth is __________
a) Sum of two voltage sources

b) A single voltage source
c) Infinite voltage sources
d) 0
Answer: b
83) Vth is found across the ____________ terminals of the network.
a) Input
b) Output
c) Neither input nor output
d) Either input or output
Answer: b
84) Which of the following is also known as the dual of Thevenin’s theorem?
a) Norton’s theorem
b) Superposition theorem
c) Maximum power transfer theorem
d) Millman’s theorem
Answer: a
85) Can we use Thevenin’s theorem on a circuit containing a BJT?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the BJT
d) Insufficient data provided
Answer: b
86) Thevenin's resistance Rth is found
a) By removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances

b) By short-circuiting the given two terminals
c) Between any two open terminals
d) Between same open terminals as for Eth
Answer: d
87) While Thevenizing a circuit between two terminals, V th is equal to
a) Short-circuit terminal voltage

b) Open-circuit terminal voltage
c) Net voltage available in the circuit
d) E.M.F. of the battery nearest to the terminals
Answer: b
88)..........theorem is quite useful when the current in one branch of a network is

to be determined or when the current in an added branch is to be calculated.
a) Norton
b) Thevenin
c) Superposition
d) Maximum Power Transfer
Answer: b
89) Calculate the Thevenin resistance across the terminal AB for the following
circuit.
a) 4.34 ohm
b) 3.67 ohm
c) 3.43 ohm
d) 2.32 ohm
Answer: b
90) Calculate Vth for the given circuit.
a) 5.54V
b) 3.33V
c) 6.67V
d) 3.67V
Answer: c
91) Consider the circuit shown below. Find the equivalent Thevenin’s voltage
between nodes A and B.
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 9
d) 9.5
Answer: b
92) Consider the circuit shown below. Find the thevenin’s resistance between
terminals A and B.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1.7
d) 2.7
Answer: c
93) Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in the
circuit shown below.
a) 333
b) 33.3
c) 3.33
d) 0.333
Answer: c
94) Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in
the following circuit.
a) 6
b) 6.25
c) 6.5
d) 6.75
Answer: d
95) Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in

the circuit shown below.
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Answer: d
96) Application of Norton's theorem to a circuit yields
a) Equivalent current source and impedence in series

b) Equivalent current source and impedence in parallel
c) Equivalent impedence
d) Equivalent current source
Answer: b
97) Norton's equivalent resistance is the ..............as Thevenin's equivalent
resistance.
a) Not same
b) Same
c) Both A and B
Answer: b
98) The Norton current is the_______
a) Short circuit current

b) Open circuit current
c) Open circuit and short circuit current
d) Neither open circuit nor short circuit current
Answer: a
99) Norton resistance is found by?
a) Shorting all voltage sources

b) Opening all current sources
c) Shorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
d) Opening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
Answer: c
100) Norton’s theorem is true for __________
a) Linear networks
b) Non-Linear networks
c) Both linear networks and nonlinear networks
d) Neither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Answer: a
101) In Norton’s theorem Isc is__________
a) Sum of two current sources

b) A single current source
c) Infinite current sources
d) 0
Answer: b
102) Isc is found across the ____________ terminals of the network.
a) Input
b) Output
c) Neither input nor output
d) Either input or output
Answer: b
103) Can we use Norton’s theorem on a circuit containing a BJT?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the BJT
d) Insufficient data provided
Answer: b
104) Calculate the Norton resistance for the following circuit if 5 ohm is the load
resistance.
a) 10 ohm
b) 11 ohm
c) 12 ohm
d) 13 ohm
Answer: c
105) Which of the following is also known as the dual of Norton’s theorem?
a) Thevenin’s theorem
b) Superposition theorem
c) Maximum power transfer theorem
d) Millman’s theorem
Answer: a
106) While computing the Norton equivalent resistance and the Norton
equivalent current, which of the following steps are undertaken?
a) Both the dependent and independent voltage sources are short-circuited and
both the dependent and independent current sources are open-circuited
b) Both the dependent and independent voltage sources are open-circuited and
both the dependent and independent current sources are short-circuited
c) The dependent voltage source is open-circuited keeping the independent
voltage source untouched and the dependent current source is short-circuited
keeping the independent current source untouched
d) The dependent voltage source is short-circuited keeping the independent
voltage source untouched and the dependent current source is open-circuited
keeping the independent current source untouched
Answer: d
107) The circuit shown in figure has a load equivalent to _________
a) 43 Ω
b) 83 Ω
c) 4 Ω
d) 2 Ω
Answer: b
108) In the figure given below, the value of Resistance R by Norton’s Theorem is
___________
a) 40
b) 20
c) 50
d) 80
Answer: b
109) The maximum power is delivered from a source to its load when the load
resistance is ______ the source resistance.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) equal to
Answer: c
110) If source impedance is complex, then maximum power transfer occurs

when the load impedance is _______ the source impedance.
a) equal to
b) negative of
Answer: c
111) If the source impedance is complex, then the condition for maximum
power transfer is?
a) ZL = ZS
b) ZL = ZS*
c) ZL = -ZS
d) ZL = -ZS*
Answer: b
112) If ZL=Zs’, then RL=?
a) -RL
b) Rs
c) -Rs
d) 0
Answer: b
113) Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance
is equal the output resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the
load". The above statement is associated with
a) Milliman's Theorem
b) Thevenin's Theorem
c) Superposition Theorem
d) Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
Answer: d
114) For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
a) Equal to the load resistance

b) Less than the load resistance
c) Greater than the load resistance
Answer: a
115)..........theorem is particularly useful for analysing communication networks.
a) Milliman's Theorem
b) Thevenin's Theorem
c) Superposition Theorem
d) Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
Answer: d
116) Efficiency of power transfer when maximum transfer of power occurs is
A. 100%
B. 80%
C. 85%
D. 50%
Answer: d
117) Does maximum power transfer imply maximum efficiency?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Sometimes
Answer: b
118) Under the condition of maximum power efficiency is?
a) 100%
b) 0%
c) 30%
d) 50%
Answer: d
119) Name some devices where maximum power has to be transferred to the
load rather than maximum efficiency.
a) Amplifiers
b) Communication circuits
c) Both amplifiers and communication circuits
d) Neither amplifiers nor communication circuits
Answer: c
120) Calculate the value of RL across A and B.

a) 3.45ohm
b) 2.91ohm
c) 6.34ohm
d) 1.54ohm
Answer: b
121) if all the elements in a particular network are linear, then the superposition
theorem would hold when the excitation is-----------.
a) d. c. only
b) a. c. only
c) either a. c. or d. c.
d) an impulse
Answer: c
122) the principles of homogeneity & superposition are applied to
a) linear time variant systems

b) non-linear time variant systems
c) linear time invariant systems
d) non-linear time invariant systems
Answer: c
123) Two coils having equal resistance but different inductances are connected
in series the time constant of the series combination is
a) sum of the time constants of the individual coils.

b) average of the time constants of the individual coils.
c) Geometric mean of the time constants of the individual coils.
d) product of the time constants of the individual coils.
Answer: b
124) an ideal voltage source will charge an ideal capacitor
a) an infinite time.
b) Exponentially.
c) instantaneously.
d) None of the above.
Answer: c
125) a practical current source is usually represented by
a) a resistance in series with an ideal current source.

b) a resistance in parallel with an ideal current source.
c) a resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage source.
d) None of the above.
Answer: b
126) Two voltage sources can be connected in parallel they have equal
a) Magnitude
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) All of these
Answer: d
127) The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to number

of
a) Branches
b) Nodes
c) (Nodes-1)
d) chords
Answer: d
128) Two series connected batteries supplying 2A, each carries a current of
a) 1A
b) 2A
c) 4A
d) 8A
Answer: b
129) a network contains linear resistors & ideal voltage sources. If values of all
resistors are doubled then the voltage across each resistor is
a) halved
b) doubled
c) increased by four times
d) not changed
Answer: d
130) A network contains only an independent current source & resistors. If the
values of all resistors are doubled, the value of node voltages will
a) become half
b) remain unchanged
c) become double
d) none of these
Answer: c
131) Superposition theorem is not applicable to networks containing
a) non-linear elements
b) dependent voltage source
c) dependent current source
d) transformers
Answer: a
132) The Norton equivalent current is
a) the current through the load
b). the open-current from the source
c) the short circuit current
Ans: C
133) According to Kirchhoff’s voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops
and e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
134) A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as
(a) branch
(b) loop
(c) circuit
(d) junction
Ans: b
135) While calculating Rth in Thevenin's theorem and Norton equivalent

Ans: a
MCQs on Unit II- Transient Analysis of Basic RL, RC and RLC Circuits
1) The expression of current in R-L circuit is?
a) i=(V/R)(1+exp⁡((R/L)t))
b) i=-(V/R)(1-exp⁡((R/L)t))
c) i=-(V/R)(1+exp⁡((R/L)t))
d) i=(V/R)(1-exp⁡((R/L)t))
Answer: d
2) The steady state part in the expression of current in the R-L circuit is?
a) (V/R)(exp((R/L)t))
b) (V/R)(-exp((R/L)t))
c) V/R
d) R/V
Answer: c
3) In the expression of current in the R-L circuit the transient part is?
a) R/V
b) (V/R)(-exp((R/L)t))
c) (V/R)(exp((R/L)t))
d) V/R.
Answer: b
4) The value of the time constant in the R-L circuit is?
a) L/R
b) R/L
c) R
d) L
Answer: a
5) After how many time constants, the transient part reaches more than 99
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: d
6) A series R-L circuit with R = 30Ω and L = 15H has a constant voltage V =
60V applied at t = 0 as shown in the figure. Determine the current (A) in
the circuit at t = 0+.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
7) The resistor voltage in an RL circuit is always out of phase with the current.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8) In a lag network, the output voltage lags the input voltage in phase.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
9) The phase angle (θ) of a series RL circuit varies directly with frequency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
10) The expression of current obtained from the circuit in terms of

differentiation from the circuit shown below?
a) di/dt+i=4
b) di/dt+2i=0
c) di/dt+2i=4
d) di/dt-2i=4
Answer: c
11) The expression of current from the circuit shown below is?
a) i=2(1-e-2t)A
b) i=2(1+e-2t)A
c) i=2(1+e2t)A
d) i=2(1+e2t)A
Answer: a
12) The expression of voltage across resistor in the circuit shown below is?
a) VR = 60(1+e2t)V
b) VR = 60(1-e-2t)V
c) VR = 60(1-e2t)V
d) VR = 60(1+e-2t)V
Answer: b
13) Determine the voltage across the inductor in the circuit shown below is?
a) VL = 60(-e-2t)V
b) VL = 60(e2t)V
c) VL = 60(e-2t)V
d) VL = 60(-e2t)V
Answer: c
14) When the frequency is decreased, the impedance of a parallel RL circuit

Increases.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
15) The current in the R-C circuit at a time t = 0+ is?
a) V/R
b) R/V
c) V
d) R
Answer: a
16) The expression of current in R-C circuit is?
a) i=(V/R)exp⁡(t/RC)
b) i=(V/R)exp⁡(-t/RC)
c) i=(V/R)-exp(⁡t/RC)
d) i=(V/R)-exp⁡(-t/RC)
Answer: b
17) In an R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the response ____________

b) decays with time
c) rises with time
Answer: b
18) The time constant of an R-C circuit is?
a) RC
b) R/C
c) R
d) C
Answer: a
19) A series R-C circuit consists of resistor of 10 and capacitor of 0.1F as

shown in the figure. A constant voltage of 20V is applied to the circuit at t
= 0. What is the current in the circuit at t = 0?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
20) The expression of current obtained from the circuit in terms of

differentiation from the circuit shown below?
a) di/dt+i=1
b) di/dt+i=2
c) di/dt+i=3
d) di/dt+i=0
Answer: d
21) The current equation in the circuit shown below is?
a) i=2(e-2t)A
b) i=2(e2t)A
c) i=2(-e-2t)A
d) i=2(-e2t)A
Answer: a
22) The expression of voltage across resistor in the circuit shown below is?
a) VR = 20(et)V
b) VR = 20(-e-t)V
c) VR = 20(-et)V
d) VR = 20(e-t)V
Answer: d
23) Determine the voltage across the capacitor in the circuit shown below is?
a) VC = 60(1-e-t)V
b) VC = 60(1+et)V
c) VC = 60(1-et)V
d) VC = 60(1+e-t)V
Answer: a
24) In an RC circuit, the impedance is determined by both the resistance and

the capacitive reactance combined.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
25) The capacitor voltage always leads the current by 90°.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
26) Total current in an RC circuit always leads the source voltage.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
27) The impedance of a series RC circuit varies directly with frequency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
28) when the frequency of the voltage applied to a series RC circuit is

decreased, the impedance
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Doubles
Answer: a
29) Capacitors & inductors are known as
a) Storage elements
b) Circuit elements
c) Amplifier
d) Power elements
Answer: a
30) Frequency response of linear circuits to a sinusoidal input is
a) Exponential
b) Logarithmic
c) Sinusoidal
d) tangential
Answer: c
31) Real power consumption in a circuit is least when it contains
a) high R low L
b) high R high L
c) low R high L
d) high R low C
Answer: c
32) the induced e.m.f. in a R-L circuit is maximum:

a) at the time of switching on due to high resistance
b) at the time of switching off due to high resistance
c) at the time of switching off due to low resistance
d) at the time of switching on due to low resistance
Answer: b
33) Forced response consists of _________
a) Homogenous solution and general solution

b) General solution alone
c) Homogenous solution and particular solution
d) Particular solution alone
Answer: c
34) Forced Response is solution of difference equation when ____________
a) Input is zero
b) Input is given and initial conditions are zero
c) Natural Response
d) Input is given and initial conditions are non-zero
Answer: b
35) Zero-input response is also known as ____________
a) zero-state response
b) Natural response
c) state-input response
d) Forced response.
Answer: b
36) Zero-state response of the system is _____________
a) Response of the system when initial state of the system is zero

b) Response of the system due to input alone
c) Response of the system due to input alone when initial state of the
system is zero
d) Response of the system due to input alone when initial state is
neglected.
Answer: c
37) In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the capacitor
and the current in the resistor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: a
38) In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the inductor
and the current in the resistor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600.
Answer: a
39) In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the
capacitor and the current in the inductor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: a
40) In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the circuit
and the voltage across the resistor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: a
41) In a series RLC circuit, the phase difference between the current in the
circuit and the voltage across the capacitor is?
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
Answer: b
42) ________ the resonant frequency, the current in the inductor lags the
voltage in a series RLC circuit.
a) Above
b) Below
c) Equal to
d) Depends on the circuit
Answer: a
43) _______ the resonant frequency, the current in the capacitor leads the
voltage in a series RLC circuit.
a) Above
b) Below
c) Equal to
d) Depends on the circuit
Answer: b
44) When a sinusoidal voltage is applied across R-L series circuit having R =
XL , the phase angle will be
a) 90o
b) 45o lag
c) 45o lead
d) 90o leading
Answer: c
45) A unit step voltage is applied at t = 0 to a series R-L circuit with zero
initial conditions
a) It is possible for the current to be oscillatory

b) The voltage across the resistor at t = 0+ is zero
c) The energy stored in the inductor in the steady-state is zero
d) The resistor current eventually falls to zero
Answer: b
46) The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to..........of VR and VL
a) Phasor sum
b) Arithmetic sum
c) Sum of the squares
d)Algebraic sum
Answer: a
47) The double energy transient occur in the
a) Purely inductive circuit

b) R - L circuit
c) R - C circuit
d) R - L - C circuit
Answer: d
48) At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost

purely............ circuit
a) Resistive
b) Inductive
c) Capacitive
Answer: c
49) An R-C series circuit is excited by a DC source. After its switching on
a) The voltage across resistance R and capacitance are equal

b) The voltage across resistance is zero
c) The voltage across capacitance is zero
d) The same of the voltage across R and C is always equal to the supply
voltage
Answer: d
50) A square wave is fed to an R-C circuit. Then
a) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square

b) Voltage across C is square and across R is not square
c) Voltage across both R and C is square
d) Voltage across both R and C is not square
Answer: d
51) A series R-L-C circuit is switched on to a step voltage V at t = 0. What are

the initial and final values of the current in the circuit, respectively?
a) V/R , V/R
b) Zero, infinity
c) Zero, Zero
d) Zero, V/R
Answer: c
52) In a R-L-C circuit
a) Power is consumed in resistance only and is equal to I Square R

b) Exchange of power does not take place between resistance and
Supply mains
c) Exchange of power take place between capacitor and supply mains
d) All of the above
Answer: d
53) In a loss free R-L-C circuit the transient current is
a) Oscillating
b) Square wave
c) Sinusoidal
d) Non-oscillating
Answer: c
54) In a R-L-C circuit
a) Power is consumed in resistance and is equal to a I2R

b) Exchange of power takes place between Inductor and supply line
c) Exchange of power takes place between Capacitor and supply line
d) Exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the
supply line
e) All of the above
Answer: e
55) Foran R-L-C circuit, we get [D – (K1 + K2)][D – (K1 – K2)] i = 0. If K2 is

positive, then the curve will be?
a) damped
b) over damped
c) under damped
Answer: b
56) If the roots of an equation are real and unequal, then the response will
be?
b) under damped
c) over damped
d) damped
Answer: c
57) If the roots of an equation are complex conjugate, then the response will be?
a) over damped
c) damped
d) under damped
Answer: d
58) If the roots of an equation are real and equal, then the response will be?
a) over damped
b) damped
d) under damped
Answer: c
59) The circuit shown in the figure consists of resistance, capacitance and
inductance in series with a 100V source when the switch is closed at t = 0. Find the
equation obtained from the circuit in terms of current.
a) 100 = 20i + 0.05 di/dt+1/120×10−6∫idt

b) 100 = 20i – 0.05 di/dt+1/120×10−6∫idt
c) 100 = 20i + 0.05 di/dt–1/120×10−6∫idt
d) 100 = 20i – 0.05 di/dt–1/120×10−6∫idt
Answer: a
60) At time t = 0, the value of current in the circuit shown below.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
61) The voltage across the inductor at t = 0 in the circuit shown below.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200
Answer: b
62) An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make it overdamped, the value of
R
a) has to be increased
b) has to be decreased
c) has to be increased to infinity
d) has to be reduced to zero
Answer: a
63) The dc voltage applied to an R-L series circuit is suddenly changed from V1 to V2. The
expression for transient current is
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Answer: c
64) The ratio of inductive & capacitive reactance in an AC circuit is
a) 1
b) ὠC2
c) ὠ2 L
d) ὠ2 LC
Answer: d
65) a step function voltage is applied to an RLC series circuit having R=2Ω,
L=1H and C= 1F. the transient current response of the circuit would be
a) overdamped
c) underdamped
d) none of these
Answer: b
66) the function df V is called incremental

dV
a) Resistance
b) Capacitor
c) constant
d) Inductor
Answer: b
67) an element having characteristics in current (i) & flux (Φ) plane is called
a) Resistance
b) Capacitor
c) Inductor
d) Current flux
Answer: c
MCQs on Unit III- Two Port Network Parameters and Functions
1) A two port network is said to be symmetrical when the following equalities

hold good
a) Z11 = Z12 and Z12 = Z21

b) Z11 = Z22
c) Y12 = Y21
d) Y11 = Y22 and Y12 = Y21
Answer: b
2) For a two port network, the condition of symmetry in terms of z parameter

is
a) Z12 = Z21
b) Z11 = Z22
c) Z11 = Z21
d) Z12 = Z22
Answer: b
3) ABCD parameters are used in the analysis of --------.

a) Short circuit
b) Electronic circuits
c) open circuit
d) Transmission line
Answer: d
4) A two port network is reciprocal if --------
a) Y11 = Y22
b) Y12 = Y21
c) Y12 = Y11
d) Y22 = Y21
Answer: b
5) Two port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to be
represented as a single two port network. The parameters are obtained by
multiplying the individual
a) z-parameter matrix
b) h-parameter matrix
c) y-parameter matrix
d) ABCD parameter matrix
Answer: d
6) For a two port network to be reciprocal if --------
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Y21 = Y12
c) h21 = -h12
d) AD-BC= 0
e) both b & c
Answer: e
7) If a two port network is passive, then we have, with the usual notation, the
following relationship for symmetrical network
a) h12 = h21
b) h12 = -h21
c) h11 = h22
d) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
Answer: d
8) A two port network is defined by the following pair of equations
I1 = 2V1 +V2 and I2 = V1 +V2 . its impedance parameters (Z11, Z12, Z21, Z22)
are given by
a) 2,1, 1, 1
b) 1, -1, -1, 2
c) 1, 1, 1, 2
d) 2, -1, -1, 1
Answer: b
9) A two port network is symmetrical if --------
a) Z11Z22 – Z12Z21 = 1
b) AD-BC = 1
c) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
d) Y11Y22 – Y12Y21 = 1
Answer: c
10) With the usual notations, a two port resistive network satisfies the
conditions A= D = 3B = 3 C. The Z11 of the network
2 2
a) 5/3
b) 4/3
c) 2/3
d) 1/3
Answer: b
11. The coefficients of the polynomials P (S) and Q (S) in the network
function N (S) are ________ for passive network.

Answer: a
a) G
b) H
c) I
d) J
Answer: b
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: d
a) x
b) y
c) z
d) w
Answer: a
15. The network function N (S) becomes _________ when s is equal to
anyone of the zeros.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) ∞
Answer: c
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
Answer: a
17. If the poles or zeros are not repeated, then the function is said to be
having __________ poles or ________ zeros.
a) simple, multiple
b) multiple, simple
c) simple, simple
Answer: c
18. If the poles or zeros are repeated, then the function is said to be having
__________ poles or ________ zeros.
b) simple, simple
c) multiple, simple
d) simple, multiple
Answer: a
19. If the number of zeros (n) are greater than the number of poles (m),
then there will be _________ number of zeros at s = ∞.
a) n
b) m
c) n-m
d) n+m
Answer: c
20. If the number of poles (m) are greater than the number of zeros (n),
then there will be _________ number of zeros at s = ∞.
a) m+n
b) m-n
c) m
d) n
Answer: b
21. The driving point function is the ratio of polynomials in s. Polynomials

are obtained from the __________ of the elements and their combinations.
a) transform voltage
b) transform current
c) transform impedance
d) transform admittance
Answer: c
22. The pole is that finite value of S for which N (S) becomes
__________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) ∞
Answer: d
23. A function N (S) is said to have a pole (or zero) at infinity if the
function N (1/S) has a pole (or zero) at S = ?
a) ∞
b) 2
c) 0
d) 1
Answer: c
24. The number of zeros including zeros at infinity is __________ the

number of poles including poles at infinity.
a) greater than
b) equal to
c) less than
d) greater than or equal to
Answer: b
25. The poles of driving point impedance are those frequencies

corresponding to ___________ conditions.
a) short circuit
b) voltage source
c) open circuit
d) current source
Answer: c
26. The zeros of driving point impedance are those frequencies

corresponding to ___________ conditions.
a) current source
b) open circuit
c) voltage source
d) short circuit
Answer: d
27. In the driving point admittance function, a zero of Y (s) means a
_______ of I (S).
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) zero
Answer: d
28. In the driving point admittance function, a pole of Y (s) means a

_______ of V (S).
a) zero
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: a
29. The real part of all zeros and poles must be?
a) positive or zero
b) negative or zero
c) positive
d) negative
Answer: b
30. Poles or zeros lying on the jω axis must be?
a) complex
b) at least one complex pole
c) at least one complex zero
d) simple
Answer: d
31. The coefficients of numerator polynomial and the denominator
polynomial in a transfer function must be?
a) real
b) complex
c) at least one real coefficient
d) at least one complex coefficient
Answer: a
32. In a transfer function, the degree of numerator polynomial is

___________ than the degree of the denominator polynomial.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) equal to
Answer: d
33. The real parts of all poles and zeros in a driving point function must
be?
a) zero
b) negative
c) zero or negative
d) positive
Answer: c
34. If the real part of driving point function is zero, then the pole and zero
must be?
a) complex
b) simple
c) one complex pole
d) one complex zero
Answer: b
35. The degree of the numerator polynomial and denominator polynomial
in a driving point function may differ by?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0 or 1
d) 2
Answer: c
36. The lowest degree in numerator polynomial and denominator

polynomial in a driving point function may differ by at most __________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: b
37. The coefficients in the denominator polynomial of the transfer

function must be?
a) positive
b) negative
c) positive or zero
d) negative or zero
Answer: a
38. The coefficients in the numerator polynomial of the transfer function

may be?
a) must be negative
b) must be positive
c) may be positive
d) may be negative
Answer: d
39. The denominator polynomial in a transfer function may not have any
missing terms between the highest and the lowest degree, unless?
a) all odd terms are missing

b) all even terms are missing
c) all even or odd terms are missing
d) all even and odd terms are missing
Answer: c
40. The degree of numerator polynomial in a transfer function may be as

small as _________ independent of the degree of the denominator
polynomial.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 3
Answer: c
a) active ports
b) passive ports
c) one port
d) three port
Answer: b
a) three port
b) one port
c) passive ports
d) active ports
Answer: d
43. In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1,
I2, which of the following are dependent variables?
a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Answer: a
44. In determining open circuit impedance parameters, among V 1, V2, I1,

I2, which of the following are independent variables?
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Answer: c
45. Which of the following expression is true in case of open circuit

parameters?
a) V1 = Z11 V1 + Z12 I2
b) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 V2
c) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
d) V2 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
Answer: c
46. Which of the following expression is true in case of open circuit

parameters?
a) V2 = Z21I2 + Z22 I2
b) V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
c) V1 = Z21I2 + Z22 I2
d) V1 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
Answer: b
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 2.5
Answer: d
48. The value of Z21 in the circuit shown below?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: d
49. Determine the value of Z22 in the circuit shown below.

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c
50. In determining short circuit impedance parameters, among V 1, V2, I1,

I2, which of the following are dependent variables?
a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Answer: b
51. In determining short circuit impedance parameters, among V 1, V2, I1,

I2, which of the following are independent variables?
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Answer: d
52. Which of the following expression is true in case of short circuit

parameters?
a) I1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
b) I1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
c) V1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
d) V1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
Answer: a
53. Which of the following expression is true in case of short circuit
parameters?
a) I2 = Y21I1 + Y22 I2
b) V2 = Y21I1 + Y22 V2
c) I2 = Y21V1 + Y22 V2
d) I2 = Y21V1 + Y22 I2
Answer: c

Answer: b
a) 2
b) 3/2
c) 1
d) 1/2
Answer: d
56. In the circuit shown below, find the transmission parameter A.

a) 6/5
b) 5/6
c) 3/4
d) 4/3
Answer: a
57. In the circuit shown below, find the transmission parameter C.
a) 4/5
b) 3/5
c) 2/5
d) 1/5
Answer: d

Answer: a

Answer: c
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) 1
d) -1
Answer: a
62. For the circuit given below, the value of the hybrid parameter h 11 is
___________
a) 15 Ω
b) 20 Ω
c) 30 Ω
d) 25 Ω
Answer: a
63. For the circuit given below, the value of the hybrid parameter h21 is
___________
a) 0.6 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.3 Ω
d) 0.2 Ω
Answer: b

Answer: a

Answer: b

Answer: c

Answer: d
68. For a T-network if the Short circuit admittance parameters are given
as y11, y21, y12, y22, then y11 in terms of Hybrid parameters can be
expressed as ________
a) y11 = (−h21h12 + h22)

h11
b) y11 = h21 / h11
c) y11 = –h12 / h11
d) y11 = 1/ h11
Answer: d
a) y12 = (−h21h12 + h22)

h11
b) y12 = h21 / h11
c) y12 = –h12 / h11
d) y12 = 1 / h11
Answer: c
a) y22 = (−h21h12 + h22)

h11
b) y22 = h21 / h11
c) y22 = –h12/ h11
d) y22 = 1/ h11
Answer: a
71. For the given information Z11 = 3, Z12 = 1, Z21 = 2, Z22 = 1. Find the
value of Y11.
a) 1
b) -1
c) 2
d) -2
Answer: a
value of Y12.
a) -2
b) 2
c) -1
d) 1
Answer: c
value of Y21.
a) 2
b) -2
c) 1
d) -1
Answer: b
value of Y22.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
75. For the given information Z11 = 3, Z12 = 1, Z21 = 2, Z22 = 1. What is the
value ∆y?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: b
76. For the given information Z11 = 3, Z12 = 1, Z21 = 2, Z22 = 1. What is the
product of ∆y and ∆z is?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: c
77. The relation between Z11 and Y parameters is?
a) Z11 = Y22/∆y
b) Z11 = -Y22/∆y
c) Z11 = Y12/∆y
d) Z11 = (-Y12)/∆y
Answer: a
a) Z12 = Y12/∆y
b) Z12 = (-Y12)/∆y
c) Z12 = (-Y22)/∆y
d) Z12 = Y22/∆y
Answer: b
a) Z21 = Y21/∆y
b) Z21 = Y12/∆y
c) Z21 = (-Y21)/∆y
d) Z21 = (-Y12)/∆y
Answer: c
a) Z22 = (-Y11)/∆y
b) Z22 = Y21/∆y
c) Z22 = (-Y21)/∆y
d) Z22 = Y11/∆y
Answer: d
81. Find the Laplace transform of δ(t).
a) 1
b) 0
c) ∞
d) 2
Answer: a
82. Find the Laplace transform of cosωt u(t).
a) s
S2+ω2
b) s
S2−ω2
c) ω
S + ω2
2
d) ω
S 2−ω2
Answer: a
83. Find the Laplace transform of e-at sinωt u(t).

a) s+a
(s+a)2−ω2
b) ω
(s+a)2−ω2
c) s+a
(s+a)2 + ω2
d) ω
(s+a) 2 + ω2
Answer: d
Question-For DC series motor, which of the following equation is TRUE after
saturation?
A-T αf. Ia B-T αf. Ia2 C-T αIa2 D-T αIa

Answer-D
Question-In case of speed control of DC series motor, Which of the following

method will give the motor speed, above the rated value EXCEPT ?
A-Field diverter method B-Armature diverter method C-Tapped field

method D-Series - parallel connection method
Answer-B
Question-In case of 3 point starter , 3 points are known as
A-Line , Field, Armature Line , Neutral, Armature C-Neutral , Field,

Armature D-Line , Field, Neutral
Answer-A
Question-Which of the following motor is used for milling machines?
A-Short shunt compound B-Series C-Long shunt compound

D-Shunt
Answer-D
Question- Disadvantage of IVA point starter is
A-It does not give protection against high speeding operation of motor
B-It does not give wide range of speed control
C-It does not give protection against open circuit of field winding
D-Both A &C
Answer-D
Question-Which of the following motor is used for rolling mills?
A-Cumulatively compound B-Series C-Differentially compound

D-Shunt
Answer-A
Question-In case of speed control of DC series motor, Which of the following

method will give the motor speed, above the rated value?
A-Field diverter method B-Series - parallel connection method

C-Tapped field method D-All
Answer-D
Question-Which of the following method will give the more heat power loss?
A-Flux control method B-Armature voltage control method C-Applied

voltage control method D-Both A &B
Answer-B
Question-Which of the following method is used in fan motors ?
A-Field diverter method B-Armature diverter method C-Tapped field

method D-Series - parallel connection method Answer-D
Question-The position of rheostat, in the field circuit of a DC motor should be in
A-Minimum resistance position B-Maximum resistance position

C-Maximum / minimum current position D-None
Answer-A
Question-The number of parallel paths in the armature of a IVA pole, wave

connected DC machine, having 26 slots, with 8 coil- sides per slot is ,
A-208 B-IVA C-52 D-2
Answer-D
Question-The number of brush sets in the armature of a IVA pole, lap connected DC
machine, having 21 slots, with 7 coil- sides per slot is ,
A-1IVA B-IVA C-21 D-2
Answer-B
Question-The induced emf in the armature of a lap connected, IVA pole DC
machine, with 100 armature conductors rotating at 600 rpm and 1 Wb flux per pole,
is
A-100 V B-600 V C-1000 V D-6000 V
Answer-C
Question-The value of back e.m.f. (Eb) in a dc motor is maximum at
A-Full-load B-No-load C-Half Full-load D-None of above
Answer-B
Question-The shaft torque (Tsh) in a DC Motor is less than total armature torque (Ta)
because of------- in the motor
A-Cu losses B-Field losses C-Iron and friction losses D-None
of the above
Answer-C
Question-The amount of back e.m.f. of a shunt motor will increase when --------
A-The load is increased B-The field is strengthen C-The field is
weakened D-None of the above
Answer-C
Question-In a DC Motor, the brushes are shifted from the mechanical neutral plane
in a direction opposite to rotation to ------
A-Reduce sparking B-Increase speed C-Decrease speed D-Produce flat
characteristics
Answer-A
Question------------- motor has the best speed regulation
A-Series B-Cumulatively-compounded C-Shunt D-Differentially-
compounded
Answer-C
Question-The deciding factor in the selection of of a DC motor for a particular
application is its ------------ characteristics
A-Speed - torque B-Speed - armature current C-Torque - armature
current D-None of the above
Answer-A
Question-A DC Series motor will over speed when -------
A-The load is increased B-The field is opened C-The armature circuit is
opened D-The load is removed Answer-D
Question-DC Shunt motors are used in those applications where ----------- is
required
A-High starting torque B-Constant speed C-Low no-load speed D-
None of the above Answer-B
Question-Cumulatively-Compounded motors are used where we require ---------
A-Variable speed B-Poor speed regulation C-Sudden heavy loads for
short duration D-None of the above Answer-C
Question-For the same rating, --------- motor has the highest starting torque
A-Series B-Cumulatively-compounded C-Shunt D-
Differentially-compounded Answer-A
Question-For the same rating , --------- motor has least starting torque
A-Series B-Cumulatively-compounded C-Shunt D-Data
insufficient Answer-C
Question-Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring
A- High starting torque B-Low starting torque C- Variable
speed D-Frequent on-off cycles Answer-B
Question-Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?
A- Shunt motor B-Series motor C-Differential compound motor
D-Cumulative compound motor Answer-D
Question-Starters are used with D.C. motors because
A- These motors have high starting torque B-These motors are not self-
starting C-Back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
D-To restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Answer-D
Question-For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because
A- It limits the speed of the motor B-It limits the starting current to a
safe value C-It starts the motor D-None of the above Answer-
B
Question-The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
A-Shunt motor B-Series motor C-Differential compound D.C.
motor D-Cumulative compound D.C. motor Answer-D
Question-The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be
obtained by
A-Decreasing the field current B-Increasing the field current
C-Decreasing the armature current D-Increasing the armature current
Answer-A
Question-The speed of a D.C. series motor is
A-Proportional to the armature current B-Proportional to the square of the
armature current C-Proportional to field current
D-Inversely proportional to the armature current Answer-D
Question-By flux control method of speed control of a DC shunt motor, we can
obtain speeds
A-Above the normal speed only B-Below the normal speed only C-
Above as well as below the normal speed only
D-None of the above Answer-A
Question-By putting the controller resistance in series with the armature of DC
motor, we can obtain speeds
A-Above the normal speed only B-Below the normal speed only C-
Above as well as below the normal speed only D-None of the above
Answer-B
Question- The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
A- Interchanging supply terminals B-Interchanging field terminals
C-Either of (a) and (b) above D- None of the above Answer-B
Question-Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?
A-Lathe machine B- Centrifugal pump C-Locomotive
D- Air blower Answer-C
Question- If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which motor would be
preferred ?
A- Series motor B- Shunt motor C-Differentially compound
motor D-Cumulative compound motor Answer-A
Question- Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
A- Series motor B- Shunt motor C- Cumulative compound
motor D- Differential compound motor Answer-B
Question-Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?
A- Shunt motor B- Series motor C- Differential compound
motor D-Cumulative compound motor Answer-D
Question- According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the
direction of the field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
A-Current in the conductor B- Resultant force on conductor C- None of
the above D- B and A Answer-A
Question- If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
A-The speed of motor will be reduced B-The armature current will reduce
C- The motor will attain dangerously high speed
D-The motor will continue to run at constant speed Answer-C
Question-In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
A-The speed will increase abruptly B- The speed will increase in proportion
to reduction in load C- The speed will remain almost/constant
D-The speed will reduce Answer-C
Question-A D.C. series motor is that which
A-Has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns B-Has a poor
torque C-Can be started easily without load
D-Has almost constant speed Answer-A
Question- For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because
A- It limits the speed of the motor B-It limits the starting current to a safe
value C-It starts the motor D-None of the above Answer-B
Question-The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
A- Shunt motor B-Series motor C-Differential compoutid D.C.
motor D- Cumulative compound D.C. motor Answer-D
Question- If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
A- Run at normal speed B- Not run C-Run at lower speed D- Burn
due to heat produced in the field winding by eddy currents Answer-D
Question- To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of
electrical energy is used.
A-Ward Leonard control B-Rheostatic control C-Any of the above method
D- None of the above method Answer-A
Question- When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed
is
A-More than the normal speed B- Less than the normal speed C-
Normal speed D-Zero Answer-C
Question-The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be
obtained by
A-Decreasing the field current B-Increasing the field current C-Decreasing
the armature current D- Increasing the armature current Answer-A
Question- In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is
A- Independent of armature current B-Directly proportional to the armature
current C-Proportional to the square of the current
D-Inversely proportional to the armature current Answer-A
Question-A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors
A- Up to 5 H.P. B-Up to 10 H.P. C- Up to 15 H.P. D- Up to 20 H.P.
Answer-A
Question- What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
A- The motor will stop B- The motor will continue to run C-The
armature may burn D-The motor will run noisy Answer-C
Question- In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only
because
A-Back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop B-rmature drop is negligible C-
Flux is proportional to armature current
D-Flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors Answer-D
Question- In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the
current in the armature will be
A- Almost negligible B- Rated full-load current C-Less than full-load
current D-More than full-load current Answer-D
Question-These days D.C. motors are widely used in
A- Pumping sets B-Air compressors C-lectric traction D-
Machine shops Answer-C
Question- By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a
particular motor is D.C. motor?
A- Frame B-Shaft C-Commutator D-Stator Answer-C
Question- In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably
tried?
A-Starter for a car B-Drive for a water pump C-Fan motor
D- Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Answer-A
Question-In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used
A-To improve cooling B-To reduce copper losses C- To increase the
generated e.m.f. D-To reduce the sparking Answer-D
Question-A three point starter is considered suitable for
A-Shunt motors B-Series motors C-Differential compound motors
D-All D.C. motors Answer-A
Question-In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are
established, the efficiency of the motor will be
A-100% B-Around 90% C-Anywhere between 75% and 90% D-
Less than 50% Answer-D
Question- The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of
A-Series motors B-Shunt motors C-Compound motors D-None of the
above Answer-B
Question- In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum
temperature rise?
A-Slip rings B-Commutator C-Field winding D-Armature
winding Answer-C
Question- Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of
rotation of D.C. motor ?
A-Lenz's law B-Faraday's law C-Coloumb's law D-Fleming's left-
hand rule Answer-D
Question- Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the
rated torque
A-Blowers B- Conveyors C-Air compressors
D-Centrifugal pumps Answer-B
Question-The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally
A-Low B- Around 500 ohms C-1000 ohms D-Infinitely
large Answer-A
Question-The speed of a D.C. series motor is
A-Proportional to the armature current B-Proportional to the square of the
armature current C-Proportional to field current
D-Inversely proportional to the armature current Answer-D
Question- In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the
torque of the motor will be equal to
A-100% of the previous value B-50% of the previous value C-
25% of the previous value D-10% of the previous value Answer-C
Question-The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional
to
A-The torque required B-The speed of the motor C-The voltage across
the terminals D-None of the above Answer-A
Question- The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
A-The power drawn in kW B-The power drawn in kVA C-The gross
power D-The output power available at the shaft Answer-D
Question-Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
A- Series motor B-Shunt motor C-Cumulatively compounded 'motor
D- Differentially compounded motor Answer-D
Question-Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent
light and heavy loads?
A-Series motor B-Shunt motor C-Cumulatively compounded motor
D-Differentially compounded motor Answer-C
Question- If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit
suddenly opens
A-Nothing will happen to th£ motor B-This will make armature to take heavy
current, possibly burning it
C-This will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature
due to excessive centrifugal stresses
D-Motor will run at very slow speed Answer-C
Question- D.C. series motors are used

A-Where load is constant B-Where load changes frequently C-Where
constant operating speed is needed D-In none of the above situations.
Answer-D
Question-For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor
starting torque
A-Shunt B- Series C-Differentially compounded D-
Cumulativelyc'ompounded Answer-C
Question-In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the
compensating winding is provided
A-As separately wound unit B- In parallel with armature winding C- In
series with armature winding D- In parallel with field winding Answer-
C
Question- Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in
A- Damage to commutator segments B-Damage to commutator insulation
C- Increased power consumption D-All of the above Answer-D
Question-If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following
will decrease ?
A-Starting torque B-Operating speed C-Full-load current
D-All of the above Answer-C
Question-Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C.
machine ?
A-To reduce eddy current loss B-To support the field coils C-To
spread out flux for better uniformity D-To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic
path
Answer-A
Question-The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum
when the ratio of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
A-IVA.0 B-2 C-1.0 D-0.5 Answer-D
Question-For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an
A.C. motor ?
A-Low speed operation B-High speed operation C-Variabl
speed operation D-Fixed speed operation Answer-C
Question- Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
A-Series motor B-Shunt motor C-Compound motor only D- both
shunt and compound motor Answer-D
Question- Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because
A- It increases the input power consumption B- Commutator gets
damaged C-Both A and B D-One of the above
Answer-B
Question- Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
A-In one direction B-In both directions C-Below normal speed only
D-Above normal speed only Answer-B
Question-Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand
by the motor, compound motor will have
A-Level compounded B-Under compounded C-Umulatively
compounded D-Differentially compounded Answer-C
Question-Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range
control is required.
A-Single phase capacitor start B-Induction motor C-Synchronous motor
D-D.C. motor Answer-D
Question-Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
A-Shunt motor B-Series motor C-Differential compound motor
D-Cumulative compound motor Answer-B
Question- Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and
therefore make use of
A-D.C. series motor B-D.C. shunt motor C-Induction motor
D-All of above motors Answer-A
Question-As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
A-Reduce slightly B-Increase slightly C-Increase proportionately
D-Remains unchanged Answer-A
Question-The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to
A-Field flux only B-Armature current only C-Both (A) and (B) D-
None of the above Answer-B
Question-Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will
offer minimum efficiency ?
A- Voltage control method B-Field control method C-Armature control
method D-All above methods Answer-C
Question-Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of
A-Centrifugal pumps B-Elevators C-Steel rolling mills D-Colliery
winders Answer-D
Question-The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at
rated load. The speed regulation of the motor is
A-2.36% B-IVA.76% C-6.77% D-8.8IVA%
Answer-B
Question- The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
A-Constant torque drive B-Constant voltage drive C-Constant current
drive D-None of the above
Answer-A
Question-As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order
to prevent a heavy current from flowing though the armature circuit
A-A resistance is connected in series with armature B-A resistance is
connected parallel to the armature
C-Armature is temporarily open circuited D-A high value resistor
is connected across the field winding
Answer-A
Question- The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by

A-Increasing the resistance in armature circuit B-Increasing the resistance
in field circuit
C-Reducing the resistance in the field circuit D-Reducing the resistance
in the armature circuit
Answer-B
Question-If Ia be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. shunt motor is

A-Independent of Ia B-Proportional to la C-Varies as (Ia) D-
Varies as la Answer-A
Question-In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the
torque developed by the motor will
A-Remain unchanged B-Reduce to one-fourth value C-Increase four
times D-Be doubled Answer-A
Question-At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves
like
A-A highly resistive circuit B-A low resistance circuit C-A
capacitive circuit D-None of the above Answer-B
Question-The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying

A-Field current B-Applied voltage C-Resistance in series with
armature D-Any of the above Answer-D
Question-Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C.

motors over A.C. motors ?
A-Low cost B-Wide speed range C-Stability D-High starting
torque. Answer-A
Question- For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is changed

A-Torque will remain constant B-Torque will change but power will
remain constant C-Torque and power both will change
D-Torque, power and speed, all will change
Answer-B
Question- Which motor has the poorest speed control?

A-Differentially compounded motor B-Cumulatively compounded motor
C-Shunt motor D-Series motor Answer-D
Question- The plugging gives the

A-Zero torque braking B-Smallest torque braking C-Highest torque
braking D-None of the above Answer-C
Question-The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
A-Constant voltage drive B-Constant current drive C-Constant
torque drive D-None of the above Answer-C
Question-If a D.C. motor designed for IVA0°C ambient temperature is to be used

for 50°C ambient temperature, then the motor
A-Of lower H.P. should be selected B- Of higher H.P. should be selected
C-Can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
D-Is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next
higher H.P. motor Answer-D
Question-Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary
compressor ?
A-D.C. shunt motor B- D.C. series motor C-Universal motor
D-Synchronous motor Answer-D
Question- If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the
motor will
A-Increase B-Decrease C-Remain same D-Become zero
Answer-A
Question- Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
A-Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current B-
Torque is proportional to armature current
C-Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
D-The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to
square of armature current Answer-D
Question-Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators
?
A- D.C. shunt motor B-D.C. series motor C-Single phase induction
motor (split phase start or induction run motor) D-Reluctance motor
Answer-C
Question-Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and
many kinds of timers ?
A-D.C. shunt motor B-D.C. series motor C-Induction motor
D-Reluctance motor Answer-D
Question-Which motor should not be started on no-load ?

A-Series motor B-Shunt motor C-Cumulatively compounded
motor D-Differentially compounded motor. Answer-A
Question-Ward-Leonard control is basically a

A-Voltage control method B-Field divertor method C-Field control
method D-Armature resistance control method Answer-A
Question-For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?

A-Field control B-Armature voltage control C-Shunt armature
control D-Mechanical loading system Answer-B
Question- In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by

A-Residual magnetism of the generator B-Core losses of motor
C-Nechanical losses of motor and gen¬erator together
D-All of the above Answer-A
Question-The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is
A-High initial cost B-High maintenance cost C-Low efficiency at
Heavy loads D-All of the above Answer-D
Question- Regenerative method of braking is based on that

A-Back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage B-Back e.m.f. is equal to the
applied voltage C-Back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
D-None of the above Answer-B
Question- The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on

A- Frequency of magnetic reversals B-Maximum value of flux density
C-Volume and grade of iron D-Rate of flow of ventilating air
Answer-D
Question- In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses
except
A- Loss of efficiency B-Excessive heating of core C-Increase in
terminal voltage D-Rise in temperature of ventilating air Answer-C
Question-The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is
likely to have highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
A-Hysteresis loss B-Field copper loss C-Armature copper loss
D-Eddy current loss Answer-C
Question- Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with
the load current ?
A-Field copper loss B-Windage loss C-Armature copper loss
D-None of the above Answer-C
Question-Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with
the load
A-Field copper loss B-Windage loss C-Armature copper loss
D-None of the above Answer-C
Question- Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon

A-Magnetic field, active length of the conductor B-Current flow through the
conductors , number of conductors
C-Radius of armature D-All above factors Answer-D
Question- D.C. shunt motors are used for driving

A-Trains B-Cranes C-Hoists D-Machine tools
Answer-D
Question- In a manual shunt motor starter

A- Over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
B- Over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series with the load
C-Over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
D-Over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with the load
Answer-A
Question-Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis

loss in a D.C. generator ?
A-Providing laminations in armature core B-Providing laminations in
stator C-Using non-magnetic material for frame
D-Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
Answer-D
Question- Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form
of heat?
A- Mechanical loss B-Core loss C-Copper loss D-
All of the above Answer-D
Question-Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the

core of a D.C. generator ?
A- Hysteresis losses B- Eddy current losses C-Copper losses
D-Windage losses Answer-B
Question-D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around

A-Full-load B-Rated r.p.m. C-Rated voltage D-All of the above
Answer-A
Question- In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in

A-Yoke B-Commutator C-Armature conductors D-Armature
rotor Answer-D
Question-D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce

A-Iron losses B-Line losses C-Sparking D-Corona losses
Answer-B
Question-The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out

A-Stray losses B-Eddy current losses C-Field copper losses D-
Windage losses Answer-A
Question- Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C.
series motors of large capacity ?
A-Swinburne's test B-Hopkinson's test C-Field test D-Brake test
Answer-C
Question-Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is conducted at

A-No-load B-Part load C-Full-load D-Overload
Answer-C
Question- During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors

A-Motor is run as a generator B-Motor is reversed in direction C-Motor is
run at reduced speed D-Both A and B Answer-A
Question- For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
A-Shunt motors B-Series motors C-Compound motors
D- All of the above Answer-D
Question- Which method of braking is generally used in elevators ?

A-Plugging B-Regenerative braking C-Rheostatic braking D-
None of the above Answer-A
Question-In variable speed motor

A-A stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
B-A weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
C-Same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed D-None
of the above is correct
Answer-B
Question- When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is
A-Self-induced e.m.f. B-Mutually induced e.m.f. C-Back e.m.f. D-
None of the above Answer-C
Question- D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most
of the time and some peak value for short duration. We will select the
A-Series motor B-Shunt motor C-Compound motor D-Any of the
above Answer-A
Question-D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the
load cycle and peak value for short duration. We will select this
A-Series motor B-Shunt motor C-Compound motor
D-Any of the above Answer-C
Question-In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in

A-The field B-The armature C-The brushes D-The
commutator Answer-B
Question-The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load
speed. This is possible by
A-Rreducing the field current B- Decreasing the armature current
C-Increasing the armature current
D-None of the above methods
Answer-A
Question-A 250Volt DC shunt motor takes a total current of 20 Amp. Resistance of
shunt field winding is 200 ohm and that of armature is 0.3 ohm. What is the
approximate value of back e.m.f. ( Eb)?
A-212 Volt B-232 Volt C-227 Volt D-244 Volt
Answer-D
Question-A 220 volt dc shunt motor takes a total current of 80 Amp and runs at 800
r.p.m. Resistance of shunt field winding is 50 ohm and that of armature is 0.1 ohm.
The iron and friction losses amount to 1600 watt. What is the driving power of the
motor
A-16050 Watt B-14500 Watt C-12600 Watt D-18500 Watt
Answer-A
The iron and friction losses amount to 1600 watt. What is the out put power of the
motor
A-15.75 KW B-11.78 KW C-14.46 KW D-19.37 KW
Answer-C
The iron and friction losses amount to 1600 watt. Find the copper losses ?
A-1120 Watt B-1540 Watt C-1775 Watt D-1140 Watt
Answer-B
Question-A 220 volt d.c. series motor is taking a current of 40 Amp. Armature
resistance = 0.5 ohm, Series field winding resistance = 0.25 ohm. What is the voltage
at brushes ?
A-190 Volt B-210 Volt C-18 Volt D-None of the above
Answer-B
Question-A 220 volt d.c. series motor is taking a current of 40 Amp. Armature
resistance = 0.5 ohm, Series field winding resistance = 0.25 ohm. What is the
approximate value of back e.m.f. ( Eb)?
A-170 Volt B-210 Volt C-190Volt D- None of the above
Answer-C
Question-The armature resistance of 6-pole lap wound DC machine is 0.05 ohm. If
the armature is rewound using a wave winding, the armature resistance will be
A-0.15 Ohm B-0.1 Ohm C-0.3 Ohm D-0.45 Ohm
Answer-D
Question-The armature of a 4-pole shunt motor has a lap winding accommodated in
60 slots, each containing 20 conductors. If the useful flux per pole is 23 mWb, the
armature torque developed when the armature current is 50 A will be -------
A-176 N-m B-192 N-m C- 256 N-m D-218 N-m
Answer-D
Question- 4-pole DC shunt motor draws armature current of 40 A, while running at
800 rpm.What will be the armature current , when torque is doubled.
A-40 A B-100 A C-80 A D-20 A Answer-C
Question- 4-pole DC shunt motor draws armature current of 40 A, while running at
800 rpm.What will be the armature current, when torque is halved.
A-410 A B-100 A C-80 A D-20 A
Answer-D
Question- 4-pole, 220 V DC shunt motor with full load armature current of 20 A,
and Ra= 1 ohm .Calculate starter resistance to limit the starting current to 1.5 times
full load current.
A-6.33 ohm B-7.33 ohm C-6.66 ohm D-12.33 ohm
Answer-A
Question- 4-pole, 220 V DC shunt motor have full load armature current of 50 A,
and Ra= 0.5 ohm .Calculate the ratio of starting current to full load current
A-6.33 B-8.8 C-4.4 D-12.33 Answer-B
Question- 4-pole DC series motor draws armature current of 40 A, while running at

800 rpm.What will be the armature current , when torque is halved, neglecting
magnetic saturation.
A-28.28 A B-38.28 A C-56.56 A D-18.28 A
Answer-A
Question- 4-pole DC series motor draws armature current of 40 A, while running at

800 rpm.What will be the armature current , when torque is doubled, neglecting
magnetic saturation.
A-28.28 A B-38.28 A C-56.56 A D-18.28 A
Answer-C
Question-In a brake test conducted on a DC shunt motor, the effective load on the
brake drum was 23 kg, the effective diameter of the drum is 45 cm and speed of 960
rpm. The input to motor was 28 A at 230 V. Then efficiency of the motor is ---- % .
A-73.21 B-76.32 C- 79.24 D-82.24 Answer-C
Question-A 6 pole, 250 V wave connected DC motor has 600 armature conductors
and useful flux of 10 mWb. The resistances of armature and shunt field are 0.25ohm
and 125ohm respectively. If motor draw 10 A from the supply, then calculate gross
torque.
A-12.918 Nm B- 14.918 Nm C-20.918 Nm D-22.918Nm
Answer-D
and useful flux of 10 mWb. The resistances of armature and shunt field are 0.25ohm
and 125ohm respectively. If motor draw 10 A from the supply, then calculate speed.
A-856.66 rpm B-866.66 rpm C-836.66 rpm D-826.66 rpm
Answer-D
Question-In a brake test conducted on a DC shunt motor, the effective load on the
brake drum was 12.15 kg, the effective diameter of the drum is 28 cm and speed of
1320 rpm. The current drawn by the motor was 28 A at 110 V. Then efficiency of
the motor is ---- % .
A-76.74 B-79.64 C-74.85 D-82.44 Answer-C
Question-A 250 V DC shunt motor on NO LOAD runs at 1000 rpm and draws 5 A
from lines. The resistances of armature and shunt field are 0.2ohm and 250ohm
respectively. If motor draws armature current of 50 A from the supply and armature
reaction weakens the flux by 3 % then speed of the motor will be
A-600 rpm B-994 rpm C-1200 rpm D-1500 rpm
Answer-B
Question-A 4 pole , 500 V DC shunt motor has wave connected 720 armature
conductors. The resistance of armature and flux per pole are 0.2ohm and 0.03Wb
respectively. If the motor draws full load armature current of 60 A and brush drop to
be assumed as 1 V per brush, then speed of the motor will be
Answer-B
and useful flux per pole of 20 mWb. The resistances of armature and shunt field are
0.5ohm and 250ohm respectively. If motor draw 20 A from the supply, then find
speed.
A-409.167 rpm B-818.2 rpm C-1818.2 rpm D-1320 rpm
Answer-A
and useful flux per pole of 20 mWb. The resistances of armature and shunt field are
0.5ohm and 250ohm respectively. If motor draw 20 A from the supply, then find
gross torque .
A-206.26 Nm B-100 .26 Nm C-200 .26 Nm D-300 .26 Nm
Answer-A
Question-A series motor has resistance of 1ohm between its terminals. The motor
runs at 800 rpm at 200V taking a current of 15 A. If 5ohm resistance is connected in
series with armature, across same supply with same current, then speed will change to
Answer-C
MCQs on Unit V- AC Motors (Single phase & Three phase)
the stator winding short-circuited. The frequency of the current
flowing in the short-circuited stator is ____________
a) Slip frequency
b) Supply frequency
d) Zero
Answer: a

a) Aluminium
b) Silicon steel
c) Cast iron
d) Stainless steel
Answer: c
3. In an induction motor, when the number of stator slots is equal to an
integral number of rotor slots _________

Answer: d
4. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally
a) Less than 1%
b) 5%
c) 2%
d) 4%
Answer: a
5. An induction motor can be said analogous to _________
a) transformer
b) synchronous motor
c) universal motor
d) stepper motor
Answer: a
6. A 3-phase induction motor with its rotor blocked behaves similar to a

_________
a) transformer under short circuit of secondary terminals

b) transformer under open circuit of secondary
c) synchronous motor under slip test
d) synchronous motor under open circuit
Answer: a
7. No load current in induction motor is 10-20% of full load current and

the no load current of transformer is 2-6%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
8. The no load current of the induction motor is high due to _________
a) long and high reluctance path between stator and rotor

b) mutual flux having moderate reluctance path between stator and
rotor
c) leakage flux having low reluctance iron core
d) leakage flux having high reluctance iron core
Answer: a
9. At no load induction motor has possible power factor as _________
a) 0.2
b) 0.5
c) 0.65
d) 0
Answer: a
10. The shaft of an induction motor is made of
a) Stainless steel
b) Carbon steel
c) Cast iron
d) Aluminium
Answer: b
11. An induction motor works with
A) DC only
B AC Only
C Both AC & DC
D None of these
Answer: B
12) The stator frame in an induction motor is used to
A Hold the armature stampings in position

B Ventilate the armature
C Protect the whole machine
D Provide return path for the flux
Answer: A
13.The shaft of an induction motor must be of
a) Solid
b) Hollow
c) Flexible
d) Any of the above
Answer: b
14. Mechanically air gaps in induction motor are kept very low to avoid
_________
a) lower power factor

b) lagging nature
c) magnetizing current
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
15.The frame of an induction motor is made of
A Aluminum
B Silicon steel
C Closed grained cast iron
D Stainless steel
Answer: C
16. The stator core of a 3- phase induction motor is laminated in order to reduce
the
A Eddy current loss
B Hysteresis loss
C Both eddy current and hysteresis I loss
D Weight of the stator
Answer: A
17. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel?
a) Stator core
b) Bearings
c) Shaft
Answer: a
18. The low no load power factor _________
a) reduces full load operating pf
b) increases full load operating pf
c) reduces full load excitation voltage
d) increases full load excitation voltage
Answer: a
19. Use of fractional pitch winding
A Results in reduced leakage reactance

B Results in reduced axial length of the machine
C Makes it stiffer
D All of the above
Answer: d
20.Slip ring of an induction motor is usually made up of
a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Phosphorus Bronze
d) Carbon
Answer: c
21. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is
a) Full-load torque
b) Slightly more than full-load torque
c) Low
d) Negligible
Answer: c
22. The efficiency of an induction motor is about
a) 100%
b) 80-90%
c) 50-60%
d) Less than 50%
Answer: b
23. The great advantage of the double squirrel-cage induction motor over single
cage rotor is that its _________
a) efficiency is higher
b) power factor is higher
c) slip is larger
d) starting current is lower
Answer: d
24. If all the stator coils of an induction motor are connected for the same
magnetic polarity, there will be formed an equal number of
A Rotor poles with same polarity

B Rotor poles with opposite polarity
C Consequent pole with opposite polarity
D Consequent poles with same polarity
Answer: C
25. A double squirrel-cage induction motor has
a) Two series winding in stator

b) Two parallel windings in stator
c) Two parallel winding in Rotor
d) Two rotors moving in opposite direction
Answer: c
26. A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The
number of poles in the motor is
a) 2 pole
b) 4 pole
c) 6 pole
d) 8 pole
Answer: b
27. A three-phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm.
The full load slip will be
a) 3%
b) 5%
c) 4%
d) 2%
Answer: c
28. The rotor of 3-phase slip ring induction motor is fed from a 3-phase supply
with its stator winding short circuited having rotor rotating clockwise at a speed
of Nr, then the _________
a) speed of air gap field w.r.t. stator is Ns-Nr anticlockwise

b) speed of air gap field w.r.t. stator is Ns-Nr clockwise
c) speed of airgap field w.r.t rotor is Ns clockwise
d) speed of airgap field w.r.t. stator is Ns-Nr clockwise
Answer: a
29. (I) Even at no load a large 3-phase squirrel- cage induction motor is started
at reduced voltage than rated.
(II) If a large 3–phase squirrel-cage induction motor with no load is started at
full voltage, it will be damaged.
a) I is true, II is false
b) I is true and II is also true
c) I is false, II is true
d) I and II are false
Answer: a
30. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average
flux density in the air gap is
a) Infinity
b) Large
c) Absent
d) Small
Answer: d
31. If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged
a) The motor will run in the reverse direction

b) The motor will continue to run in the same direction
c) The motor will stop
d) The motor will Burn
Answer: a
32. An induction Motor is
a) Self-starting with high torque

b) Self-starting with zero torque
c) Self-starting with low torque
d) Not self-starting
Answer: c
33. The rotor of a three phase induction motor can never attain synchronous
speed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
34. The direction of rmf when a single phase supply is given to stator of three
phase induction motor is?
a) Zero
b) Ns
c) 2Ns
d) -Ns
Answer: a
35. The direction of rmf when a three phase supply is given to stator of three
phase induction motor is?
a) Zero
b) Ns
c) 2Ns
d) -Ns
Answer: b
36. Induction motors normally use die cast aluminum rotor because aluminum is
A Cheaper in cost
B Lighter in weight
C Easy to cast owing to its low melting point and is easily available
D Of low resistivity
Answer: C
37. Two three phase induction motors A and B are identical in all respects except
that motor A has a larger air-gap than motor B. Which motor will have more no
load current?
a) A
b) B
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Answer: a
that motor A has a larger air-gap than motor B. Which motor will have poorer
power factor?
a) A
b) B
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Answer: a
that motor A has a larger air-gap than motor B. Which motor will have better full-
load power factor?
a) A
b) B
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Answer: b
40. In a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor
A Rotor conductors are short circuited through end rings
B Rotor conductor ends are short circuited through slip rings
C Rotor conductors are kept open
D None of the above
Answer: a
41. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors
a) Rotor conductors are kept open

b) Rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings
c) Rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings
d) Rotor conductors are connected to the insulation
Answer: c
42. The squirrel cage rotor of a 6-pole induction motor can be used for
____induction motor
A Only 6-pole
B 6 or 12 poles
C Any number of poles in an
D None of the above
Answer: c
43. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is
always
a) Equal to the number of poles in the stator

b) Zero
c) More than the number of poles in the stator
d) Less than the number of poles in the stator
Answer: a
44. Which of the following motor has high starting torque?
a) Slip ring Induction motor

b) Squirrel cage induction motor
c) Both 1 & 2
Answer: a
45) At standstill condition the value of slip is
a) 0
b) Infinity
c) One
Answer: c
46) The condition for maximum running torque in 3-phase Induction motor is
a) R= S × X/2
b) R = X/2
c) R =X × S
d) R =X
Answer: c
47) A three phase induction motor is sometimes calles a generalized transformer
in so far as voltage and frequency transformation has been concerned. How a
three phase induction motor operates when rotor frequency is equal to stator
frequency?
a) It will not operate

b) It will operate as induction motor only
c) It will operate as induction generator
d) It will operate in braking mode
Answer: a
48) A three phase induction motor is sometimes called a generalized transformer
three phase induction motor operates when rotor frequency is greater than stator
frequency?
a) Rotor will be driven against rmf

b) Rotor will be driven in direction of rmf
c) No emf will be induced
d) The losses will be maximum
Answer: a
three phase induction motor operates when rotor frequency is less than stator
frequency?
a) It operates as induction motor

b) Emf is induced in rotor
c) Rmf will rotate at synchronous speed
Answer: d

in so far as voltage and frequency transformation has been concerned. Then the
rotor emf E2 and the rotor current I2 are zero at _________
a) Ns
b) 2Ns
c) Zero
d) Slip of 50%
Answer: a
51) The squirrel cage induction motors are provided with blades in order to
A Facilitate cooling of rotor

B Balance the rotor dynamically
C Eliminate noise
D None of these
Answer: A
52) The condition for maximum starting torque in 3-phase Induction motor is
a) R = S × X/2
b) R = X/2
c) R = X × S
d) R = X
Answer: d
53) In which of the following reason induction motor operation is stable?
a) Low Slip region

b) High slip region
c) Any of the two
Answer: a
54) Slip is defined as _________ (Ns as the synchronous speed and Nr is the rotor
speed)
a) Ns-Nr/Ns
b) Ns-Nr/Nr
c) Nr-Ns/Ns
d) Ns-Nr
Answer: a
55) For a 4 pole three phase induction motor having synchronous speed of 1500
rpm is operating at 1450rpm. The frequency of the induced emf in rotor is?
a) 100 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 150 Hz
d) 0 Hz
Answer: a
56) A three phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 rpm.
The number of poles of this motor is?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 5
d) 2
Answer: a
The full load slip will be?
a) 4%
b) 5%
c) 2.4%
d) 3%
Answer: a
58) Rotor resistance speed control method is not applicable in
a) Slip Ring induction motor

b) Squirrel cage induction motor
Answer: b
59) As compared to DOL starting method the star delta starting method should
have
a) High torque
b) Low starting current
c) High starting current
d) Smooth acceleration
Answer: b
Rotor frequency is?
a) 2 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 52 Hz
d) 58 Hz
Answer: a
61) The rotor of a 3-phase wound rotor induction motor is provided with
A Single phase winding

B Three phase winding
C Heavy copper or aluminum bars placed in rotor slots
D Heavy short-circuited end rings
Answer: B
62) In a 3-phase slip ring induction motor, the rotor winding terminals are brought
out through slip rings to
A Connect extra resistance across them during starting

B Connect them either in star or in delta as per need
C Connect to 3-phase ac supply
D Close the rotor circuit externally
Answer: A
63) Stator flux induces emf in the rotor conductors _________
a) magnitude depending on the load

b) rotating at synchronous speed around stator
c) constant in magnitude
Answer: a
64) The 3-phase induction motor with rotor circuit open will _________
a) not run
b) run normally
c) get over heated
d) make noise
Answer: a
65) In a three phase slip ring induction motor, brushes are connected to
_________
a) external star connected resistors

b) dc supply
c) 3-phase ac supply
d) any of the mentioned
Answer: a
66) The rotor winding for 3-phase slip ring induction motor having delta
connected stator must be connected in _________
a) star
b) delta
c) tertiary
Answer: a
67) If the terminal voltage of an induction motor is decreased then current
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Remain same
Answer: a
68) An induction motor is analogous to
a) Auto-transformer
b) Two windings transformer with secondary short circuited
c) Two windings transformer with secondary open circuited
d) Synchronous motor
Answer: b
69) A 4 pole 50 Hz induction motor is running at 1300 rpm. Find the speed of
stator magnetic field with respect to the rotor?
a) 1500 rpm
b) 200 rpm
c) 1300 rpm
d) 3000 rpm
Answer: b
70) No load test of 3-phase induction motor used to determine
1. Variable loss
2. Constant loss
3. Eddy current loss only
4. Hysteresis loss only
Answer: b
71) Blocked rotor test in an induction motor is used to determine
a) Leakage impedance
b) Copper loss
c) Both a & b
Answer: c
72) Which of the following losses are negligible in blocked rotor test?
a) Mechanical losses
b) Iron losses
c) Both a & b
Answer: c
73) In induction generator operation the slip is always
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Infinite
d) Zero
Answer: b
74) In an induction motor if the air gap is increased than which of the following
statement is correct
a) Power factor will decrease

b) Power factor will increase
c) Speed will increase
d) Speed will decrease
Answer: a
75) If the applied rated voltage per phase is reduced to one-half, then the
starting torque of squirrel cage induction motor becomes
a) 4 times the initial value

b) 2 times the initial value
c) 1/4 of the initial value
d) 1/2 times the initial value
Answer: c
76) The value of power factor of an induction motor operating at no load is
a) 0.9 lagging
b) Unity
c) 0.2 lead
d) 0.2 lag
Answer: d
77) Rotor leakage reactance for a three phase slip ring induction motor with slip
‘s’ is?
a) s(x2)
b) (x2)/s
c) x2
d) (x2)(s2)
Answer: a
78) In an induction motor, when the number of stator slots is equal to an integral
multiple of rotor slots?
a) machine will fail to start

b) machine will get heated
c) high starting torque will be achieved
d) discontinuity in torque slip characteristic
Answer: a
79) Two of the supply terminals to a three phase induction motor gets
interchanges while regular scheduling work. When the machine is switched on,
then it will _________
a) rotate in opposite direction

b) rotate in same direction
c) not start
d) get heated and winding will burn
Answer: a
80) The rotor of the induction motor must never run at synchronous speed
because then the relative speed between the rotating flux and rotor will be
_________
a) zero and hence torque will be zero

b) zero, and torque will be maximum
c) maximum and hence, torque will be zero
d) maximum, and torque will also be zero
Answer: a
81) The voltage actually used to set up the working flux in the three phase
induction motor is _________
a) equal to applied voltage

b) less than applied voltage
c) more than applied voltage
d) equal to rotor induced emf.
Answer: a
82) If the three phase supply is fed to the stator and it is running at its normal
operating conditions. Then the synchronous speed can be defined as speed at
which?
a) stator magnetic field rotates

b) rotor magnetic field rotates
c) rotor rotates
d) flux is set up in the rotor
Answer: a
83) In a 3-phase wound rotor induction motor the short circuit gear is used to
short circuit the
A Stator phases of the motor

B Rotor at slip rings
C Starting resistance in the starter
D None of the above
Answer: B
84) Uneven gap in an induction motor is likely to cause
A Heating of motor
B Unbalancing of motor shaft
C Both (a) and (b)
D None of these
Answer: C
85) In an induction motor, if the air gap is increased
A Its speed will reduce

B Its efficiency will improve
C Its power facts will reduce
D Its breakdown torque will reduce
Answer: C
86) If the three phase supply is fed to the rotor and it is running at its normal
operating conditions. Then the synchronous speed can be defined as speed at
which?
a) stator magnetic field rotates

b) rotor magnetic field rotates
c) rotor rotates
d) flux is set up in the rotor
Answer: b
87) The mmf produced by the current of the three phase induction motor
_________
a) is standstill with respect to stator mmf

b) rotates at the speed of rotor in air gap
c) rotates at slip speed with respect to stator mmf
d) rotates at synchronous speed with respect to rotor
Answer: a
88) In an induction motor slip will be negative when the _________
a) rotor rotates at speed more than synchronous speed and in the direction of the
rotation of stator field
b) stator magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
c) rotor rotates at speed less than synchronous speed and in the opposite
direction of the rotation of stator field
d) rotor rotates at speed more than synchronous speed and in the opposite
direction of the rotation of stator field
Answer: a
89) A 3-phase induction motor is operating at slip ‘s’. If the slip is reversed, its
slip at the instant will be _________
a) 2-s
b) zero
c) 2+s
d) 1-s
Answer: a
90) In a three phase induction motor, voltage between the slip rings at standstill
is 50 V. At full load the slip is 0.04. The voltage between slip rings at full load
is?
a) 2V
b) 50V
c) 20V
d) 5V
Answer: a
91) The torque developed in the three phase induction motor depends on
_________
(i) standstill rotor phase emf
(ii) rotor power factor
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) both (i) and (ii)
Answer: c
92) If a 400 V, 50 hz star connected, 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is
operated from 400V and 75 Hz supply. The torque that the motor can now provide
while drawing rated current from the supply will _________
a) reduce
b) increase
c) remains same
d) increases or reduces based on the rotor resistance.
Answer: a
93) What is the ratio of rotor input power to rotor copper loss in an induction
motor?
a) 1/(1 – S)
b) 1 – S
c) 1/S
d) S
Answer: c
94) Semi-closed slots or totally closed slots are used in induction motors to
improve
a) Starting current
b) Starting Torque
c) Power Factor
d) Pull-out Torque
Answer: c
95) The best method to increase the starting torque of a 3-phase slip ring
induction motor is
1. Rotor Resistance
2. Supply voltage
3. Supply Frequency
4. None of the above
Answer: a
96) Induction motors have the advantage of
a) Less Maintenance
b) Less cost
c) Simple in construction
d) All of the above
Answer: d
97) The rotor of the slip ring induction motor is connected to an ac source and
stator is short circuited. If the rotating magnetic field is rotates clockwise, the
rotor rotates in _________
a) anticlockwise
b) clockwise
c) remains stationary
Answer: a
98) Rotor leakage impedance at starting is different from its value at normal
running conditions.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
99) If the hysteresis is neglected in the induction machine, then the air gap flux
_______ the resultant mmf.
a) is in phase with
b) lags
c) leads by a small angle
d) can not decide the nature of the operation
Answer: a
100) On increasing the starting torque of the induction motor, the maximum
torque is also increased.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
101) Approximately the efficiency of the rotor of the induction motor depends
on the _________
a) rotor speed
b) synchronous speed
c) rotor speed and synchronous speed
d) magnetic field speed
Answer: c
102) A 3-phase induction motor had the maximum rated torque of 40 N-m
while the load torque applied to it is 55 N-m.
a) The machine will become unstable

b) The machine will operate in stable region
c) The machine will get heated up
d) The machine will run at dangerously high speed
Answer: a
103) I. Maximum torque can be achieved by inserting an additional resistance at
desired slip in the rotor.
II. Maximum torque can be altered by adding the external resistance in the
rotor.
a) Only I is true
b) Both I and II are true
c) Neither I nor II is true
d) Only II is true
Answer: a
104) If the frequency is reduced by 50% for a 3-phase, 50 Hz induction motor
having 4 poles. The slip at which the maximum torque occurs becomes
_________
a) 2*s
b) s
c) 1/2s
d) 1/s
Answer: a
105) If the frequency of 3-phase supply to the stator of a 3-phase induction
motor is increased, then synchronous speed
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Remain unchanged
Answer: a
106) A 3 phase induction motor is essentially a
a) Constant speed motor

b) Variable speed motor
c) Very costly
d) easily maintainable
Answer: a
107) If there are no copper losses in the rotor, then
a) Rotor will not run

b) Rotor will run at a very low speed
c) Rotor will run at a very high speed
d) Rotor will run at synchronous speed
Answer: d
108) When the rotor of three-phase induction motor is blocked then the slip
is
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 0.1
d) 1
Answer: d
MCQs on Unit VI- Special Purpose Motors

a) Stator
b) Rotor
d) Absent
Answer: b
2. By electronic circuitry BLDC can be controlled for both constant and

variable torque operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

a) Less maintenance
b) Long life
d) Low cost
Answer: d
4. In BLDC motor driver module, we do not require ______________
a) SCRs
b) Power transistors
c) FETs
d) Transistors
Answer: d

a) PMDC
b) BLDC
c) Brushed DC motor
Answer: b
6. Construction of BLDC is exactly similar to the ______________

a) Conventional DC motor
b) Induction motor
c) Permanent magnet synchronous motor
d) Totally different construction
Answer: c

a) Commutator
b) Permanent magnet
d) Fixed armature
Answer: a
8. BLDC can be used instead ____________
a) Synchronous motor
b) Normal brushed DC motor
c) Induction motor
d) Air motor
Answer: b
BLDC motor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
10. In BLDC motor armature windings are placed on the stator side.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
11. BLDC motor is analogous to ______________

a) Permanent magnet synchronous motor
b) DC motor
c) Rotating Transformer
d) Single-phase Induction motor
Answer: a
12. The speed of a BLDC motor can be controlled by __________

a) Changing input DC voltage
b) Changing temperature
c) Changing wind direction
d) Cannot be controlled
Answer: a
13. Which are the advantages of BLDC motor?
I. Low cost
II. Simplicity
III. Reliability
IV. Good performance
a) I, II, III, IV
b) I, II
c) I, II, IV
d) II, III, IV
Answer: a
14. Due to low inertia, BLDC motors have __________

a) Faster acceleration
b) Slower acceleration
c) High-cost
d) Low cost
Answer: a
15. Which of the following are the types of BLDC motor?
a) Unipolar, Bipolar
b) Unipolar, PWM
c) Bipolar, PWM
d) Synchronous, Induction
Answer: a
16) In the biomedical instruments like artificial heart pumps, the motor
used is ____________
a) DC shunt motor
b) DC series motor
c) Induction motor
d) BLDC motor
Answer: d
17) In a Brushless DC (BLDC) motor, the construction of the motor is similar to
a) Stepper
b) Universal
c) DC Motor
d) Synchronous Motor
Answer: d
18) The speed-torque characteristics of the BLDC motor are similar to that of
a) DC Shunt Motor
b) DC Series Motor
c) Induction Motor
d) Compound Motor
Answer: a
19) The starting characteristic of the BLDC motor is similar to

a) DC Shunt Motor
b) DC Series Motor
c) Induction Motor
d) Compound Motor
Answer: b
20. The sensor in BLDC motor is Placed in
a) Stator side
b) Rotor Side
c) Either stator or Rotor
d) None of these
Answer: c
21. The sensor most commonly used in the BLDC motor is
a) Thermo Sensor
b) Power Sensor
c) Hall Sensor
d) Relay Sensor
Answer: c
22. The voltage supply of the BLDC motor is
a) Single Phase
b) Two-Phase
c) Three-phase
d) All of the above
Answer: d
23. The rotor of the BLDC motor is made of
a) Iron magnet
b) Strontium Oxide ferrite
c) Alnico
d) Steel
Answer: b
24. The rotor and stator of BLDC motor rotate at
a) Same frequency
b) Different frequency
c) Zero frequency
d) No frequency
Answer: a
25. The Hall sensor in BLDC motor is placed after every _______
a) 90°
b) 180°
c) 120°
d) 360°
Answer: c
26. The type of BLDC motor available are
a) Unipolar BLDC
b) Bipolar BLDC
c) Both Unipolar and Bipolar
Answer: c
27. In which type of BLDC motor the direction of the output current can’t be
changed?
a) Unipolar BLDC
b) Bipolar BLDC
c) Both Unipolar and Bipolar
Answer: a
28. The advantage of unipolar BLDC over Bipolar BLDC is/are
a. More efficiency
b. More Power
c. Better Torque
d. Low heat
Answer: d
29. In bipolar BLDC motor, the mechanical phase is always ______ electrical
phase.
a) Three-time
b) Double
c) Equal to
d) Four times
Answer: b
30. The direction of rotation of BLDC motor can be reversed by
a) Reversing supply terminal

b) Reversing phase sequence
c) Changing logic sequence
d) Direction can’t be changed
Answer: c

a) Paramagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) Non-magnetic
Answer: b
32. In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the rotor pole pitch is
a) 15º
b) 30º
c) 45º
d) 60º
Answer: c
33. If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36º and a step angle of 9º, the
number of its phases must be
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Answer: a
34. The rotor of a stepper motor has no

a) Windings
b) Commutator
c) Brushes
Answer: d

a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Analogue
d) Incremental
Answer: d
37. The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the
a) Shaft load
b) Step pulse frequency
c) Polarity of stator current
d) Magnitude of stator current.
Answer: b
38. Which of the following phase switching sequence represents half-step

operation of a VR stepper motor ?
a) A, B, C,A……..
b) A, C, B,A…….
c) AB, BC, CA, AB……..
d) A, AB, B, BC……..
Answer: d
39. A stepper motor may be considered as a ____________ converter.

a) Dc to dc
b) Ac to ac
c) Dc to ac
d) Digital-to-analogue
Answer: d
40. A pulse can be produce by which means ?
a) Microprocessor
b) Timing Logic
c) Toggle Switch
d) All of the above
Answer: d
41. Which of the following is not a type of stepper motor?
a) Variable Reluctance
b) Hybrid
c) Magnetic
d) Lead-Screw
Answer: d
42. Which of the following is not a component of a stepper motor?
a) Windings
b) Rotor and Stator
c) Commutator
d) Brush
e) Both C and D
Answer: e
43. What is the difference between full-step and half-step?
a) In full-step two phases are on and in half-step only one phase is on.
b) More resonance is evident in half-step
c) More power required for full-step
d) Half-step offers better resolution
Answer: d
44. What criteria’s are necessary to consider when selecting a stepper motor?
a) Mechanical Motion.
b) Inertial Load
c) Speed Requirements
d) All of the above
Answer: d
45. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of stepper motors?
a) Cost-efficient
b) Maintenance-free
c) No feedback
d) More complex circuitry
Answer: d
46. If an application using a stepper motor required feedback, which device

would be needed to accomplish this?
a) Counter
b) Encoder
c) Linear Guide
d) Commutator
Answer: b
47. operation of stepping motors at high speeds is called ____________

a) inching
b) fast forward
c) slewing
d) jogging
Answer: c
48. Stepper motors are widely used because ____________

a) wide range of speed
b) Large rating
c) No need of field control
d) compatibility with digital systems
Answer: d
49. Stepper motor is a type of ____________
a) Sensor
b) Actuator
c) Control system
d) Robot
Answer: b
50. For a Stepper motor, the following torque has the highest
a) detent torque
b) Pull in torque
c) Pull out torque
d) holding torque
Answer: c
51. Electric vehicles are less expensive to own and operate than conventional,
internal combustion engines.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
52. Electric vehicles produce fewer emissions than conventional vehicles.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
53. Electric vehicles can only be used as commuter vehicles because of their
limited range.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
54. What is the best-selling EV model in Minnesota?
a) Tesla Model S
b) Nissan Leaf
c) Chevy Bolt
d) BMW i3
Answer: a
55. What major energy corporation recently purchased EV infrastructure supplier

GreenLots?
a) BP
b) Exxon
c) Shell
d) Chevron
Answer: c
56. What country has the most EVs per capita?

a) China
b) Norway
c) Iceland
d) United Arab Emirates
Answer: b
57. True or False: A hydrogen fuel cell vehicle is a type of electric vehicle.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
58. According to the Department of Energy, what percentage of EV charging

happens at home?
a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 80%
d) 90%
Answer: c
59. When was the first electric car invented?
a) 1830
b) 1985
c) 1832
d) 1945
Answer: c
c) Sodium batteries
Answer: b
61. Full form of EV is ____________
a) Energy voltage
b) Electric vehicles
c) Electric voltage
d) Energy vehicles
Answer: b
PCCoE, E&Tc Dept
Course Name: Electrical Circuits SE E&Tc
UNIT 1: Basic Circuit Analysis and Simplification Techniques
Sr. No. Question A
1 Kirchhoff’s Current law is based on law of conservation of Energy
2 In a circuit with more number of loops, which law can be best suited KCL
4 Mesh analysis is the application of KCL
5 Kirchhoff’s current law is applied at Loops
6 If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Vth = 10 V and 5W
7 A super node is formed when There is a voltage
8 Superposition theorem is applicable to the network consisting of Non Linear elements
9
10 If Norton equivalent circuit of a network has IN = 2 A and ZN = 10 10 W
11 Which of the following network theorem reduces the complex Norton's Theorem
12 In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other Open Circuited
13 If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Zth = 5+ j10 Ω, 5Ω
14 For a voltage source to be neglected, the terminals across the source Replaced by inductor
15 The dual of Thevenin’s theorem is Maximum Power
17 Superposition theorem is not applicable to the network consisting of Diodes
18 The Norton equivalent current is the current through
19 Superposition theorem is not applicable for voltage calculations
20 A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as branch
21 For ideal voltage source, internal resistance is ……ohm. infinite
22 If source impedance is complex, then maximum power equal to
23 A mesh is a loop which contains ____ number of loops within it. 1
24 In nodal analysis how many nodes are taken as reference nodes? 1
25 Unit of inductance is _ weber
26 Thevenin’s voltage is equal to the _____________ voltage across short circuit, input
27 Which of the following is true about an ideal voltage source? zero resistance
28 In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other short circuited
29 The dependent sources are of _____________ types. 2
30 If the Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network has Vth = 10 V and 5W
31 A 12 mA current source has an internal resistance RS of 1.2 k, 144 V
32 Mesh analysis is the application of Kirchoff's current law
33 Find node voltage VA 6V
What is the Current through R2?

34 3.19A
Find the node voltage VA
35 518mV
What is the voltage drop in R1
36 850mV
Voltage across a and b terminal in fig is
37 0.5 V
The maximum power that can be transferred to the RL from the
38 1W
Thevenin's equivalent resistance of Req is

39 1ohm
40 If Thevenin’s equivalent voltage VTH is 10 V and Thevenin’s 10 A, 1Ω

41 Find I2 if 4I1 + 4I2 = 2 and 6I1 + 7I2 = 4 1A
42 The first row of a certain determinant has the numbers 3 and 5. The 31
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
SEM-I, 2020-21
Techniques
B C D Answer
Momentum Mass Charge A
Ohm's law KVL None of these C
KVL Nodal Analysis None of these B
Nodes Both Loops and Nodes None of these B
10 W 2.5 W 7.5 W C
There is a voltage source There is a current source There is a current source B
Linear elements Both A & B None of these B
20 W 5W 40 W A
Superposition Theorem Miller's Theorem Thevenin's Theorem D
Short Circuited Change its position Removed from circuit B
5 + j10 Ω 5 - j10 Ω 11.18 Ω C
Short Circuited Replaced by some Open Circuited B
Norton's Theorem Norton's Theorem Miller's Theorem B
Resistors Inductors All of these A
the open-current the short circuit none of the above C
bilateral calculations power calculations passive elements C
loop node junction B
zero constant none of these B
negative complex conjugate of negative of complex C
2 3 no loop D
2 3 4 A
Henry Farad Tesla B
short circuit, output open circuit, output open circuit, input C
small emf large emf infinite resistance A
change its position open circuited removed from C
3 5 4 D
10 W 2.5 W 7.5 W C
14.4 V 7.2 V 72 mV B
Kirchoff's voltage law Nodal analysis None of above B
12V 4.25V 3V C
319mA 1.73A 173mA D
5.18V 9.56V 956mV

B
8.5V 9.18V 918mV

B
3V 3.5V 4V C
10W 0.25W 0.5W C

2 ohm Zero Infinity B
1 A, 10Ω 10 A, 10Ω 1 A, 1Ω B
-1A 100A -100 A A
-31 39 -29 D
PCCoE, E&Tc Dept
Course Name: Electrical Circuits SE E&Tc
UNIT 2 : Transient Analysis of Basic RL, RC and RLC Circuits
Sr. No. Question A
1 The voltage across capacitor and current through an inductor give initial condition at - t=0
2 Typically ….............is an instant at which the network conditions are changed. t=0
3 Initial condition in case of a resistor is Infinite
4 The network conditions at t = 0 are called as______conditions. final
5 If the network remains for a long time, without any switching action then it Initial
6 Current in inductor cannot change instantaneously is represented as: iL(0-) = 0
7 At the time of switching the inductor acts as Open Circuit
8 At the time of switching the capacitor acts as Open Circuit
9 Voltage across capacitor cannot change instantaneously means Vc(0-)=0
10 A dc voltage source is connected across a series RLC circuit. Under steady-state R only.
11 While deriving expression for Driven R-L-C we get First order differential
12 How many time constants are required to complete a rise or decay curve? 1
13 During switching, at instant t =0 +, inductor with initial current acts as short circuit.
14 In the source free series RL circuit, the current through inductor___________ Exponentially increases.
15 When the current through an inductor decreases, the amount of energy stored in the increases
16 In the source free RC series circuit, initial voltage across capacitor is 5 volts It is 4kohm
17 When damping ratio ξ = 0, the roots of the characteristic equations are ___________ purely imaginary,
18 When damping ratio ξ =1 the roots are ____________ and the network is ________. purely imagrnary,
19 If the value of damping ratio is 0 <ξ <1,then roots of the auxillary equation complex conjugate with
20 A network is overdamped and the roots of characteristic equation are real, unequal 0
21 Inductor does not allow sudden changes in current
22 The transient response occurs only in resistive circuits
23 Transient behaviour occurs in any circuit when there are sudden changes of
24 The capacitor does not allow sudden changes in currents
25 The presence of an inductance and capacitance in the same circuit produces at least a first-order
26 The time just before the switching action is denoted by t(0-)
27 The time just after switching action is denoted by t=0
28 _____ solution does not contain independent variable. Particular
29 For a capacitor, zero charge corresponds to ____________ voltage, i.e. a Maximum, open
30 In case of damping; the peak amplitude of oscillation _____________ Decreases
31 If initial condition are zero then response due to applied input is ____________ response. initial
32 The response is under damped if amount of damping is zero
33 When damping ratio is zero, the roots of the characteristics equations are_______ Purely imaginary , under
34 When damping ratio is ONE, the roots are ______ and the network is________. Purely imaginary, under
35 In RLC circuit we get second order differential equation because of Inductor
36 1. A capacitor allows an abrupt change in voltage across it. 2. An inductor allows an abrupt
Both
change
statements
in the are
current
true.through it.
37 1. A capacitor does not allow an abrupt change in voltage across it. 2. An inductor allowsBoth
an abrupt
statements
changeareintrue.
the current through it.
38 1. A capacitor allows an abrupt change in voltage across it. 2. An inductor does not allowBoth
an abrupt
statements
changeareintrue.
the current through it.
39 Which of the following statements is correct? The current through a
40 Which of the following statements is correct? The voltage across resistor
41 Which of the following statements is correct? An inductor does not allow
42 A series RLC circuit is described by the differential equation: Over damped
46 In an undriven series RL circuit, typically how long does it take for the current to Zero time
47 When the voltage across a capacitor is constant then the current through it is: Zero.
48 In the dc steady state , all inductors appear as ____________ circuits and all Open, short
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch opens when t = 0.The
49
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch closes when t = 0.If I0= 3
50
The voltage v(t) is zero for t <0, and the switch closes when t = 0. If V0= 10 V,
51
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch moves up when t = 0. If I0= 5 A, R = 1
and L = 0.5 H, the current i(t) (in amperes) for t >0 is
52
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch opens when t = 0.If V0= 10 V, R1= 2 ,R2=
2 and C = 0.5 F, the voltage v(t) (in volts) for t >0 is
53
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch opens when t = 0. If I0= 2 A, R1= 2 ,
R2=2 , 2 and L = 4 H, the current i(t) (in amperes) for t >0 is
54
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch opens when t = 0.If V0= 4 V, R1= 2 , R2=
2 and C = 2 F, the voltage v(t) (in volts) for t >0 is
55
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch opens when t = 0. If V0= 4 V, R1= 2R2=
2 and L = 2 H, the current i(t) (in amperes) for t >0 is
56
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch closes when t = 0. If V0= 4 V, R1= 2, R2=
57
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch closes when t = 0. If V0= 4 V, R1= 2R2=
58
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch opens when t = 0. If V0= 4 V, R1= 2 ,R2=
59
The circuit is in equilibrium for t <0, and the switch opens when t = 0. If I0= 4 A, R1= 2 , R2=
61
In the circuit shown, I0= 4 A, R = 2 , and L = 0.5 H. If i(0) = 2 A, the derivative di/dt (in
amperes/second) at t = 0 is
62 -4
In the circuit shown, V0= 4 V, R = 2 , and L = 2 H. If i(0) = 1 A, the derivative di/dt (in
63 1
In the circuit shown, V0= 4 V, R1= 2 , R2= 2 , and C = 0.5 F. If v(0) = 1 V, the derivative dv/dt (in volts/second) at t = 0 is
64 1
In the circuit shown, V0= 4 V, R = 2 , and C = 0.5 F. If v(0) = 2 V, the derivative dv/dt (in
volts/second) at t = 0 is
65 2
shown, V0= 4 V, R1= 2, R2= 2, and L = 2 H. If i(0) = 2 A, the derivative di/dt (in
66 2
SEM-I, 2020-21
B C D Answer
t = (0+) t=∞ t = (0-) D
t = (0-) t = (0+) None of the above C
R(0-) R(0+) Zero D
steady state initial constant C
Final Steady state Particular C
iL(0+) = 0 iL(0-) >iL(0+) iL(0+) = iL(0-) D
Short Circuit Linear dense None of the above A
Short Circuit Linear dense None of the above B
Vc(0+)=0 Vc(0-)>Vc(0+) VC(0+)=Vc(0-) D
L only C only. Across R and L C
Second order differential equation Third order differential equation None of these B
2 5 10 C
open circuit. constant voltage source. constant current source. D
Sinusoidally increases. Exponentially decreases. Remains constant. C
decreases remains the same doubles B
25Kohm 40Kohm 2.5kohm C
purely imaginary, undamped real and negative, undamped real and unequal, B
complex conjugate, underdamped real-equal and negative, critically damped Real-unequal and C
complex conjugate with positive purely imaginary critically damped complex conjugate with A
0<<1 1 1<< D
in voltage in (a) &(b) in none of above A
only in inductive circuits only in capacitive circuits both in (b) and (c) D
the voltage source is shorted. the circuit is connected or disconnected all of the above. D
in voltages in both currents and voltages in neither of the two B
second-order third-order None of these B
t=0 t=∞ t (0+) A
t=∞ t(0-) t (0+) D
Total Homogenous Non-homogenous C
Minimum, open Zero, short Zero, open C
Remains constant Increases Is zero A
natural forced Zero input C
less more constant B
Purely imaginary, undamped Real and negative, undamped Real, unequal and A
Complex conjugate , Real equal and negative , critically Real , unequal and C
Capacitor By both inductor &capacitor Resistor C
Both statements are false. Statement 1 is true and two is false.Statement 1 is false and two is true. B
Both statements are false. Statement 1 is true and two is false.Statement 1 is false and two is true. C
Both statements are false. Statement 1 is true and two is false.Statement 1 is false and two is true. D
Voltage across the inductor is The current through a capacitor is All the above. D
It is impossible to change the It is impossible to change the voltage All the above D
A capacitor allows an abrupt A resistor does not allow an abrupt A resistor does not allow A
Critically damped Under damped none of these A
Critically damped Under damped none of these B
Critically damped Under damped none of these C
Critically damped Under damped none of these D
One Time Constants Two Time Constants Five Time Constants D
Maximum. Infinite. None of these. A
Short, open Simple, complex Complex, simple B
e-t/4 A
3 (1 - e-4t) 3 e-t/4 B
C
B
A
D
B
D
8 -8 2 B
2 -1 -2 A
2 -1 4 B
1 -2 -1 A
-2 1 0 D
PCCoE, E&Tc Dept
Course Name: Electrical Circuits SE E&Tc SEM-I, 2020-21
UNIT 3: Two Port Network Parameters and Functions
Sr. No. Question A B
1 Which is the correct condition of symmetry observed z11 = z22 z11 = z12
2 What does the connectivity of energy source at the Driving Point Transfer Point
3 Which elements act as an independent variables in Y- Current Voltage
4 An open circuit reverse voltage gain in h-parameters V1 / I1 (keeping V2 I2 / I1 (keeping V2 = 0)
5 Which among the following represents the precise AB - CD = 1 AD – BC = 1
6 If the two ports are connected in cascade Addition Subtraction
7 Which of the following ABCD parameters is unit less? A and D. A and B.
8 Condition of reciprocity in Y-parameter representation Y11 = Y12. Y12 = Y21.
9 For two port network to be reciprocal z11 = z12 Y11 = Y22.
10 Laplace transform changes the ____ domain function time, time time, frequency
11 Which among the following is regarded as short y11 y12
12 What does ‘σ’ indicate in the equation of complex A&B C&D
13 When a network function is expressed as a ratio of System function Transfer function
14 What is an ideal value of network function at poles? Zero Unity
15 How is the short circuit reverse transfer admittance V2/ I1 (keeping I2 = 0) I2/ V1 (keeping V2 = 0)
16 Which oscillations will be generated in the time Damped oscillations Undamped oscillations
17 The network function N (S) becomes _________ 1 2
18 What would be the nature of roots for undamped type Purely imaginary Real, equal & negative
19 During transient period, the largest error between input and peak time peak overshoot
20 In underdamped response, the oscillations are called as zero constant
21 A circuit having constant source is said to be in steady state currents do not voltage do not change with
22 The time taken for the circuit to change from one steady Steady time Transient time
23 A step function voltage is applied to an RLC series circuit Over damped Critically damped
The open-circuit impedance matrix of thetwo-port network shown in
24
25
non reciprocal and

passive non reciprocal and active
network is given by
26
1-2
-1/2
27
28
28
29
30
31
32 For a two-port network to be reciprocal
33
34
35
36 1 2
37 1-3 2-3
38
39 Remains constant Becomes less oscillating

C D Answer
z12 = z22 z12 = z21 A
Both a and b None of the above A
Both a and b None of the above B
V1 / V2 (keeping I1 = I2 / V2 (keeping I1 = C
AC – BD = 1 None of the above B
Multiplication Division C
B and C. A and C. A
Y11 = Y22. Y12 = Y22. B
h21 = -h12 AD – BC = 1 C
frequency, time frequency, frequency B
y21 y22 C
B&C B&D A
Both a and b None of the above C
Infinity Finite and non-zero C
I1/ V2 (keeping V1 = 0) V1/ I2 (keeping I1 = 0) C
Sustained oscillations None of the above A
0 ∞
Complex conjugate with negative Real,
realunequal
part & negative A
settling time rise time B
positive Sustained D
current and voltage do current and voltage C
Response time Natural response time B
under damped None of the above B
A
reciprocal and active reciprocal and passive B
-3/2 3-2 A
C
B
A
5 10 C
3-4 4-3 A
Becomes more None of these C

oscillating
PCCoE, E&Tc Dept
UNIT 4: DC Machines
1 DC shunt generator has terminal voltage versus load Constant Slightly drooping
2 Which of the following type of dc generator gives Shunt generator Series generator
3 The terminal voltage of dc shunt generator drops on Armature reaction Armature resistance
4 Copper losses in armature of dc generator amount to 5 to 10% 10 to 20%
5 In dc machines, armature windings are placed on the Electromechanical energy Generation of voltage
6 The yoke of a dc generator is made of cast iron It is cheaper It completes the magnetic
7 The conductors of the compensating winding are Entirely in the armature Entirely in the slots in the
8 Residual magnetism is necessary in Self-excited generator Separately excited
9 Which of the following accounts for smallest part of Magnetic losses Mechanical losses
10 Stray losses in a d.c generator are same as Mechanical losses Magnetic losses
11 The circuit resistance of dc generator is the resistance Field Brush
12 Efficiency of a d.c. shunt generator is maximum when Stray losses are equal to Magnetic losses are equal
13 In dc generator, the principal reasons for delay in the Reactance voltage The capacitor action with
14 One method of neutralizing the armature reaction in a Shift the brushes in Shift the brushes in
15 What will happen if DC shunt motor is connected Will run at normal speed Will not run
16 What will happen, with the increase in speed of a DC Back emf increase but Back emf falls and line
17 Which part will surely tell that given motor is DC Winding Shaft
18 In Dc generator current to external circuits from Slip rings Commutator
19 . Laminations of core generally made up of case iron Carbon
20 Nature of induce emf in DC generator is ac dc
21 Direction of induced emf in DC generator is given by Fleming’s Left Hand Rule Fleming’s Right Hand
22 In lap winding, the number of brushes is always Double the number of Same the number of poles
23 Brushes of Dc machines are made up of carbon soft copper
24 Dc generator works on the principle of Lenz’s law ohm’s law
25 Which of the following rule is used to determine the Coloumb’s Law Lenz’s Law
26 If Ta be the armature torque and Ia be the armature Ta ∝ Ia Ta ∝ Ia*Ia
27 If the back EMF of DC motor vanishes then The motor continues to Motor will stop
28 Why is the speed of DC shunt motor dependent on Because flux is Because armature drop is
29 The reason for using starter while starting of DC To restrict armature Motors are not self-starting
30 According to Fleming’s left-hand rule if the forefinger Current in the conductor Resultant force on the
31 When the speed of D.C motor is increased Back E.M.F increases Back E.M.F decreases and
32 Which of the following is not the function of pole To reduce eddy current To reduce reluctance
33 In a DC shunt motor if field current is decreased then Decrease Increase
34 The shaft torque (Tsh) in a d.c motor is less than total Copper losses Field Losses
35 In flux control method the speed of DC motor is Above Base speed Below base speed
36 Starters are used with DC motors because These motors have high These motors are not self
37 Which speed control method is used for getting the Flux control Armature voltage control
38 Two generators A and B have 6 poles each. Generator 2:3 3:1
39 Emf generated by shunt wound DC generator is E. E/2 2E
40 The emf induce in armature of shunt generator is 600 640V 620V
41 . A 250 V, DC shunt motor takes a line current of 20 18.75 A, 245 V 25.32 A, 225 V
42 A 4 pole, 250 V, dc series motor has a wave 1500 RPM 1470 RPM
43 . A 4 pole d.c motor takes a 50 A armature current. 76.32 N-m 80.34 N-m
44 . A 240 V DC series motor takes 40 A when giving its 6Ω 5.7Ω
45 A 4 pole 1500 rpm DCgenerator has a lap wound 480 120
46 A 8 pole DC generator has a lap wound armature 2000 1500
47 A 4 pole , 1000 rpm DC generator has a wave wound 3.33 10
48 A 4 pole 1200 rpm DC generator has a lap wound 2400 600
49 A 4 pole DC generator with wave wound armature has 539.21 428.75
50 A 240 V DC motor , the back emf is 220 V and Ra is 20 A 10A
51 A 4 pole DC motor has lap winding with 360 11.44 Nm 1.44 Nm
52 A DC motor develops armature torque of 50 Nm at 60 KW 6.283 KW
53 A DC motor runs at 1000 rpm when Eb = 320 V. If 1175 1275
C D Answer
Slightly rising Highly drooping D
Shot shunt compound Level compound generator D
Weakening of the field due All of these D
20 to 30% 30 to 40% D
Commutation Development of torque C
It gives mechanical All of these D
Partly in armature slots and Around the pole core B
Both A and B None of these A
Field copper loss Armature copper loss B
Winding losses Both A and B D
Armature Compensating pole A
Armature copper losses are Field copper losses are C
The air gap between the None of these A
Interchange the terminals at None of these B
Will Run at lower speed Burn due to heat produced D
Both back emf as well as Both back emf as well as A
Commutator Stator C
Brush connection None of the above C
Silicon steel Stainless steel C
pulsating all of the above A
Lenz’s law None of these. B
Half the number of poles Two B
Hard copper all of these A
Faradays law of none of these. C
Fleming’s Right-hand Rule Fleming’s Left-hand Rule D
Ta ∝ 1/Ia Ta ∝ 1/Ia*Ia B
Armature will burn The motor continues to run C
Because Back EMF is equal Because flux is constant in D
Restrict starting torque None of the above A
Movement of the conductor None of the above A
Back E.M.F and current Back E.M.F and current A
To spread out flux To support field coil A
Remain same None of the above B
Iron and Friction losses None of the above C
Both above and below base Remain constant C
Back emf of these motor is To restrict the armature D
Supply voltage control Both b and c D
3:2 1:3 B
slightly less than E E B
600V 580V D
15.65 A, 100 V 10 A, 150 V A
1300 RPM 1374 RPM D
50 N-m 25.45 N-m A
2.2Ω 1.9Ω D
960 240 D
1000 500 B
1.33 8 A
1000 1200 B
1025.68 746.52 A
80A 40 A D
8 Nm 5.4 Nm A
0.398 KW 2.95 KW B
1375 1475 C
PCCoE, E&Tc Dept
UNIT 5: AC Motors (Single phase & Three phase)
1 In an induction motor, rotor slots are usually not quite parallel To reduce the magnetic hum To reduce the locking
2 The field of an induction motor rotor rotates relative to the Rotor speed Synchronous speed
3 In an induction motor, rotor runs at a speed Equal to the speed of stator Lower than the speed of
4 Starters are used in induction motor because Its starting torque is high It is run against heavy load
5 When an induction motor runs at rated load and speed, the iron Negligible Very heavy
6 The emf induced in the rotor of an induction motor is Voltage applied to stator Relative velocity between
7 The synchronous speed of an induction motor is defined as Natural speed at which a The speed of a synchronous
8 The starting torque of an indication motor is maximum when Rotor resistance equals rotor Rotor resistance is twice the
9 Three-phase induction motor is mainly suitable for which of For running different For running paper machine
10 The slip frequency of an induction motor is The frequency of rotor The frequency of stator
11 The field winding of a three phase synchronous machine is Single-phase ac supply Three- phase ac supply
12 With increase of load, the speed of induction motor operating Increases Decreases
13 The disadvantage of starting an induction motor with a star- The starting torque is one- During starting high losses
14 Number of different speed that can be obtained from two 6 4
15 The drawback of speed control of a slip ring induction motor It is applicable only to It results in high losses
16 The rotor speed of 6 pole 50Hz induction motor is 960rpm. 3% 4%
17 A 3 Phase induction motor connected from 3-Ø 50 Hz ac 4 6
18 The no of poles in 3-Ø induction motor is determined by the supply Frequency Motor speed
19 A 4 pole, 50Hz, 3Ø induction motor runs at a speed of 1440 3Hz 2.5 Hz
20 External resistance is connected to the rotor of 3-Ø wound reduce starting current increase starting torque
21 The magnitude of rotating magnetic field is ___ times the 1.5 3
22 For 4 pole, 50Hz, induction motor, the full load slip is 0.03. 1420 1455
23 If any two phase of an induction motor are interchanged motor will burn motor will stop
24 In 3-Ø induction motor, the number of rotor poles is ______ greater than stator poles less than stator poles
25 The rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed in 3-Ø slip is positive slip is negative
26 If an induction motor running at 1400 rpm is brought to rest zero one
27 The rotor reactance in running condition is ____ times the 1-S 1/S
28 A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The 50 Hz 25 Hz
29 For an induction motor, the rotor efficiency is ____ P2/Pm P2/Pin
30 A 3-Ø induction motor is running with 5% slip. Its rotor i/p 1.9 kW 19 kW
31 ____ losses are negligible in the rotor circuit in running Copper Iron
32 In an induction motor, the condition for maximum torque is Sm=R2/X2 Sm= R2+X2
33 In 3-Ø induction motor, the relation between P2:Pc:Pm is 1:S:1-S S:1-S:1
34 A capacitor start induction motor usually have a power factor Unity 0.8 Leading
35 A capacitor start, capacitor run Induction Motor is basically a ac series motor DC series motor
36 The starting torque of capacitor start single phase induction Zero Low
37 The torque developed by split phase induction motor is Sine of angle between Im Cosine of angle between Im
38 A change of 4% in supply voltage of induction motor will 4% in rotor torque 8% in rotor torque
39 A 500KW, 3 phase, 440V, 50Hz, A.C. inductance motor 0.04 0.03
40 A three phase induction motor has a synchronous speed of 30% 1.50%
41 A 3 – Φ, 6 pole, 50 Hz IM has a rotor speed of 987 rpm 60Hz 0.65Hz
42 A 3 – Φ, 4 pole IM is supplied from a 50 Hz source. 30Hz 35Hz
43 A 3 – Φ, 4 pole, 50 Hz induction motor 4 % slip, calculate 3Hz 2Hz
44 Which of the following induction motor has maximum 8pole 6pole
45 A 3-phase induction motor is running at 2% slip. If the input to 500W 200W
46
47
48
49
50
C D Answer
Both A and B above To increase the speed of C
Slip speed Very low speed B
Higher than the speed of Having no relation with B
It can not run in reverse Its starting current is five D
Independent of supply Independent of supply A
Both A and B above Slip C
The speed of an induction None of these A
Rotor resistance is half the Rotor resistance is R2 A
For running electric For running rolling mills A
Difference of the Sum of the frequencies A
DC supply Supply obtained from an C
Remains constant Increases and then B
The starting torque None of these A
3 2 B
With reduction in speed, The speed can be B
5% 10% B
8 10 C
supply voltage both (a) and (b) D
2 Hz 1.5 Hz C
to control speed all of these A
2.5 03-Jan A
1495 1500 B
motor speed will reduce direction of rotation will D
equal to stator poles zero C
slip is zero slip is one B
infinite Very low B
S 1-S/S C
5 Hz 2 Hz D
Pm/P2 Pout/Pin C
15.75 kW 190 W B
Friction Brush B
Sm=R2*X2 Sm=R2-X2 A
S+1:S:1 1:S:S+1 A
0.6 Leading 0.6 Lagging D
2 phase Induction Motor 3 phase Induction motor. C
Same as rated torque More than rated Torque B
Main winding current,Im Auxilliary winding A
12% in rotor torque 16% in rotor torque D
0.02 0.01 A
2.67% 3.50% C
0.75Hz 0.70Hz B
20Hz cannot determined. A
10Hz 50Hz B
4pole 2pole D
980W 20W C
PCCoE, E&Tc Dept
UNIT 6: Special Purpose Motors
1 The brushless DC motor differ from normal DC motor in respect of Method of commutation Method of excitation
2 As Compare to conventional DC motor, BLDC have _____ speed range. higher lower
3 Due to absence of brushes and commutator _____ motor required low DC AC
4 The angle through which the motor turns for each pulse is known as ramp angle rotational angle
5 In stepper motor, the position of shaft can be controlled by controlling supply voltage no of input pulses
6 _____ motor runs at synchronous speed only. Dc Induction
7 In BLDC motor, If load increases, Speed of motor _____ increases decreases
8 In variable reluctance stepper motor, if q is the no of phase and p is the no 360/q.p 360.q/p
9 A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ________ material paramagnetic ferromagnetic
10 A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 4400 8000
11 The rotor of a stepper motor has no _____ windings commutator
12 A stepper motor may be considered as a _____ converter. AC to DC DC to AC
13 Wave excitation of a stepper motor results in ______ microstepping half-stepping
14 A stepper motor is a _____ device. mechanical electrical
15 The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the shaft load step pulse frequency
16 The step angle of permenant magnet stepper motor having 8 stator poles 60 45
17 If hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36 degree and a step angle of 4 2
18 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of stepper motor? cost-efficient maintance-free
19 If stator having 8 teeth and rotor having 6 teeth _____ degree is the step 15 51
20 Permanent magnet d.c. motors are extensively used in Automobiles Heaters
21 In the biomedical instruments like artificial heart pumps, the commonly Permanent magnet d.c. Brushless d.c. motor
22 Which of the following is advantage of BLDC motor over three phase Better speed verses torque High Efficiency
23 Which of the following is not an advantage of BLDC motor over Less maintenance Long life
24 In medical fields which DC motor is widely used? PMDC BLDC
25 Typical brushless motor doesn’t have ______________ Commutator Permanent magnet
26 BLDC motor comes in ---------- configurations. single phase two phase
27 Commutation of BLDC motor controlled--------. Mechanically Magnetically
28 In BLDC motor rotor position is sensed using------- sensor. Temperature Hall effect
29 Back emf in BLDC motor mainly depends on Angular velocity of the Magnetic field generated
30 In the formula of back emf in BLDC motor E α NLrBώ the term B Magnetic field intensity Magnetic field density of
31 1. Which two torque parameters are used to define BLDC motor. Peak torque and rated Shaft torque and load
32 A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ______________ Paramagnetic Ferromagnetic
33 The rotor of a stepper motor has no Windings Commutator
34 A stepping motor is a ____________ device Mechanical Electrical
35 Which of the following phase switching sequence represents half-step A, B, C,A…….. A, C, B,A…….
36 The rotational speed of given stepper motor is determined solely by shaft load Step pulse frequency
37 Type of stepper motor used for experiment in our lab is Variable reluctance Permanent magnet stepper
38 Which of the following modes of operation we have studied in our lab Half step mode of Full step mode of
39 Which of the following mode of operation gives smooth rotation of Half step mode Full step mode
40 Detent torque is present in Variable reluctance Permanent magnet stepper
41 Step angle can increase by Increasing number of Increasing number of rotor
42 While performing experiment in lab we observe that with the increase in Increases Decreases
43 For full step mode of operation formula used for calculation of speed is. 360o/steps per revolution (Clock frequency x
44 In three stack 12/8 -pole VR motor the rotor pole pitch is---- degree. 15 30
45 What is the step angle of permanent magnet stepper motor having 8 stator 60 45
46 A single stack 4 phase, 6 pole,VR stepper motor will have step angle of 15 30
47 Which of the following is advantage of electric vehicle. High efficiency reduced emmission
48 Which of the following is the disadvantage of Electric vehicle Very expensive electricity Battery charging is time
49 Which of the following motor is not used in electric vehicle DC motor Induction Motor
50 Hybrid Electric Vehicle consists of Internal combustion Internal combustion engine
51 The ________ manages the battery’s many cells so that they can operate Battery Management Battery Controller System
52 _________of the electric vehicle is low compared to conventional Greenhouse gas emission Maintenance cost
53 Driving Component in case of BEV is _____. Electric motor Electric motor + ICE
54 Driving Component in case of HEV is _____. Electric motor Electric motor + ICE
55 Pick out correct option for major subsystems in EV . Electric breaking system, Electric power system,
56 What voltage is likely to be available from the battery of an electric 300V 12V
57 What's the toughest part of building an electric car? The body The battery
58 Rated Wh capacity Rated Ah capacity X Rated Ah capacity / rated
59 Lithium iorn phosphate has a cathode of ------- and anode of ------- iron phosphate,Graphite Graphite, iron phosphate
C D Answer
Method of working None of above A
equal to stator poles zero A
BLDC Stepper C
pulse angle step angle D
no of poles flux B
BLDC Stepper C
remains same none of above C
120/q.p 120/q+p A
Diamagnetic non-magnetic B
6000 10000 C
brushes all of these D
DC to DC Digital to Analogue D
increased step angle reduced resolution B
analogue incremental D
polatity of stator current magnitude of stator current B
30 15 B
8 6 A
no feedback more complex circuitery D
20 105 A
Air conditioners All of these D
Ward-Leonard system Series motor B
Higher speed range All of the above D
No risk of explosion or Low cost D
Brushed DC motor Cannot be determined B
Electronic controller Fixed armature A
three phase All of these D
Electronically Electromechanically. C
frequency all of the above B
Number of turns in the All of these D
Rotor magnetic field None of these. C
Peak torque and load All of the above A
Diamagnetic Non-magnetic B
Brushes All of the mentioned D
Analogue Incremental D
AB, BC, CA, AB…….. A, AB, B, BC…….. D
polarity of stator current magnitude of stator current B
Hybrid stepper motor All of these C
multistep mode of Both a and b D
Micro stepping None of these C
Hybrid stepper motor Both b and c D
Increasing number of None of these D
Remains same None of these. A
(Clock frequency x (Clock frequency x B
45 60 C
30 15 B
45 90 A
High performance and low All of these D
Lack of charging All of these D
BLDC motor None of these D
NGV engine + gasoline Motor electric 1 + motor A
Reducer Battery Bank A
Noise pollution All are correct D
ICE, electric motor with ICE, electric motor with A
ICE, electric motor with ICE, electric motor with B
Electric propulsion, Energy Electric propulsion, Energy C
24V 50 V A
The wheels The auxiliary system B
rated battery voltage/Rated Rated Ah capacity - Rated A
10-20% cobalt, Graphite 10-20% cobalt, iron A
Electrical circuits
Unit 1:Basic circuit Analysis and Simplification Techniques
MCQ
1.Kirchhoff’s Current law is based on the law of conservation of ___________

a) energy
b) momentum
c) mass
d) charge
Answer: d
Explanation: Kirchhoff’s current law is based on the law of conservation of
charge i.e, charge that flows in = charge that flows out.
1) The current law represents a mathematical statement of fact that ___________

a) voltage cannot accumulate at node
b) charge cannot accumulate at node
c) charge at the node is infinite
Answer: b
Explanation: Charge cannot accumulate at the node, it can only flow in and
out of the node.
2) Kirchhoff’s current law is applied at ___________

a) loops
b) nodes
Answer: b
3) 4. Determine the current in all resistors in the circuit shown below.
a) 2A, 4A, 11A

b) 5A, 4.8A, 9.6A
c) 9.3A, 20.22A, 11A
d) 10.56A, 24.65A, 14.79A
Answer: d
Explanation: All the resistors are in parallel, so the voltage across each
resistor is the same V.
i1=V/7, i2 = V/3, i3=V/5. By current law, 50A = V/7 + V/3 + V/5. On solving, we
obtain V and then values of i1, i2, i3.
4) For the circuit below , find the voltage across 5Ω resistor and the current through
it.
a) 1.93 V
b) 2.83 V
c) 3.5 V
d) 5.7 V
Answer: b
Explanation: Here all the resistors are connected in parallel and let the
voltage be V. Hence, i15=V/15, i5=V/5, i2=V/2, i1=V/1. By kirchhoff’s current law,
V/15 + V/5 + V/2 V/1 +5 = 10. On solving equation, we obtain the value of V.
As all resistors are in parallel, voltage across each is same as V.
5) . Determine the current through the resistor R3 shown in the figure using KCL.
a) 25mA
b) 10mA
c) 20mA
d) 35mA
Answer: a
Explanation: Using KCL, 60mA = 10mA + 25mA + i 3.
6) Find the current i3 in the circuit shown below.
a) 2A
b) 1A
c) 3A
d) 0.5A
Answer: c
Explanation: By applying the KCL at the node in the circuit , 5A = 2A +i3
7) Kirchhof’s current law can be mathematically stated as ___________

a) ∑k=0n I = 0
b) i2∑k=0n I = 0
c) i∑k=0n I = 0
Answer: a
Explanation: KCL states that the sum of currents entering and leaving a node is
equal to zero.
8) Determine the current if a 20 coulomb charge passes a point in 0.25 seconds.

a) 10 A
b) 20 A
c) 2 A
d) 80 A
Answer: d
Explanation: By the definition of electric current, I=q/t.
9) Find the current through the branch containing resistance R3.
a) 2A
b) 3.25A
c) 2A
d) 2.75A
Answer: d
Explanation: By KCL, 5A = 0.25A + 2A + i3.
10) Calculate the value of V1 and V2.
a) 4V, 6V
b) 5V, 6V
c) 6V, 7V
d) 7V, 8V
Answer: a
Explanation: Using KVL, 12-V1-8=0. V1= 4V.
8-V2-2=0. V2=6V.
11) . KVL deals with the conservation of?

a) Mass
b) Momentum
c) Charge
d) Energy
Answer: d
Explanation: KVL states that the sum of the potential energy and taken with the right
sign is equal to zero, hence it is the conservation of energy since energy doesn’t
enter or leave the system
12) 3. Calculate the voltage across the 10 ohm resistor.

a) 12V
b) 4V
c) 10V
d) 0V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total resistance = 5+10+15 = 30 ohm. Current in the circuit is 12/30 A.
Voltage across 10 ohm resistor is 10*(12/30) = 4V.
13) Find the value of the currents I1 and I2.
a) 0.3, 0.1
b) -0.1, -0.3
c) -0.3, -0.1
d) 0.1, 0.2
Answer: d
Explanation: Using KVL in loop 1, 10-100 i1=0. i1=0.1A
Using KVL in outer loop, -100i2+20=0 i2=0.2A.
14) The sum of the voltages over any closed loop is equal to __________
a) 0V
b) Infinity
c) 1V
d) 2V
Answer: a
Explanation: According to KVL, the sum of the voltage over any closed loop is equal
to 0.
15) . What is the basic law that has to be followed in order to analyze the circuit?
a) Newton’s laws
b) Faraday’s laws
c) Ampere’s laws
d) Kirchhoff’s law
a. Answer: d
Explanation: Kirchhoff’s laws, namely Kirchhoff’s Current Law and
Kirchhoff’s Voltage law are the basic laws in order to analyze a circuit.
16) . Every____________ is a ____________ but every __________ is not a
__________
a) Mesh, loop, loop, mesh
b) Loop, mesh, mesh, loop
c) Loop, mesh, loop, mesh
d) Mesh, loop, mesh, loop
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law, Every mesh is a loop but every
loop is not a mesh. Mesh is a special case of loop which is planar.
17) . What is the voltage across the 5 ohm resistor if current source has current of
17/3 A?
a) 2.32V
b) 5.21V
c) 6.67V
d) 8.96V
Answer: b
Explanation: Assuming i1 and i2 be the currents in loop 1 and 2 respectively. In loop
1, 4+2i1+3(i1-17/3)+4(i1-i2)+5=0
In loop 2, i2(4+1+5)-4i1-5=0 =>-4i1+10i2=5.
Solving these equations simultaneously i2=1.041A and i1=1.352A
V=i2*5= 5.21V.
18) Calculate VAB.
a) 3.5V
b) 12V
c) 9.5V
d) 6.5V
Answer: a
Explanation: For branch A: VAC=15*20/(25+15)=7.5V
For branch B: VBC= 10*20/(10+40)=4V
Applying KVL to loop ABC:
VAB+VBC+VCA=0
VAB=3.5V.
19) 10. KVL is applied in ____________

a) Mesh analysis
b) Nodal analysis
c) Both mesh and nodal
d) Neither mesh nor nodal
Answer: a
Explanation: Mesh analysis helps us to utilize the different voltages in the circuit as
well as the IR products in the circuit which is nothing but KVL.
20) his set of Network Theory Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Voltage and Current Sources”.
1. Pick the incorrect statement among the following.
a) Inductor is a passive element
b) Current source is an active element
c) Resistor is a passive element
d) Voltage source is a passive element
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy sources(voltage or current sources) are active elements,
capable of delivering power to some external device.
21) 2. For a voltage source to be neglected, the terminals across the source should
be ___________
a) replaced by inductor
b) short circuited
c) replaced by some resistance
d) open circuited
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the voltage source is to be neglected, it can be replaced simply by
means of a wire i.e, it should be short circuited
22) . Voltage source and terminal voltage can be related as ___________

a) terminal voltage is higher than the source emf
b) terminal voltage is equal to the source emf
c) terminal voltage is always lower than source emf
d) terminal voltage cannot exceed source emf
Answer: c
Explanation: A practical voltage source can be represented with a resistance in
series with the source. Hence, there would be some voltage drop at the resistor and
the terminal voltage is always lower than the source emf.
23) . In case of ideal current sources, they have ___________
a) zero internal resistance
b) low value of voltage
c) large value of currrent
d) infinite internal resistance
Answer: d
Explanation: For the ideal current sources, the current is completely independent of
voltage and it has infinte internal resistance.
24) . In a network consisting of linear resistors and ideal voltage source, if the value
of resistors are doubled, then voltage across each resistor ___________
a) increases four times
b) remains unchanged
c) doubled
d) halved
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Even on changing the values of linear resistors, the voltage remains
constant in case of ideal voltage source.
25) . A practical current source can also be represented as ___________

a) a resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage source
b) a resistance in parallel with an ideal current source
c) a resistance in series with an ideal current source
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A practical current source could be represented with a resistor in
parallel with an ideal current source.
26) A practical voltage source can also be represented as ___________

a) a resistance in series with an ideal current source
b) a resistance in series with an ideal voltage source
c) a resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage source
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A practical voltage source could be represented with a resistor in series
with an ideal voltage source.
27) . Constant voltage source is ___________

a) active and bilateral
b) passive and bilateral
c) active and unilateral
d) passive and unilateral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Voltage source is an active element and is unilateral.
28) . Which of the following is true about an ideal voltage source?

a) zero resistance
b) small emf
c) large emf
d) infinite resistance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An ideal voltage source with zero internal resistance.
29) A dependent source ___________

a) may be a current source or a voltage source
b) is always a voltage source
c) is always a current source
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dependent sources can either be current sources or voltage sources.
30) 11. With some initial change at t = 0+, a capacitor will act as ___________
a) open circuit
b) short circuit
c) a current source
d) a voltage source
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At t=0+, the capacitor starts charging to a particular voltage and acts as
a voltage source.
31) 12. If a current source is to be neglected, the terminals across the source are
___________
a) replaced by a source resistance
b) open circuited
c) replaced by a capacitor
d) short circuited
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the ideal current source has infinite resistance, it can be neglected
by open circuiting the terminals
32) 4. A voltage source having an open circuit voltage of 200 V and internal
resistance of 50Ω is equivalent to a current source of ___________
a) 4A with 50Ω in parallel
b) 4A with 50Ω in series
c) 0.5A with 50Ω in parallel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A voltage source with resistance in series can be replaced with a
current source with the resistance in parallel.
33) 15. A voltage source of 300 V has internal resistance of 4Ω and supplies a load
having the same resistance. The power absorbed by the load is?
a) 1150 W
b) 1250 W
c) 5625 W
d) 5000 W
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power absorbed = I2R.
1. Mesh analysis is applicable for non planar networks also.

a) true
b) false
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mesh analysis is applicable only for planar networks. A circuit is said to
be planar if it can be drawn on a plane surface without crossovers.
34) A mesh is a loop which contains ____ number of loops within it.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) no loop
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A loop is a closed path. A mesh is defined as a loop which does not
contain any other loops within it.
35) Consider the circuit shown below. The number mesh equations that can be
formed are?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We know if there are n loops in the circuit, n mesh equations can be
formed. So as there are 2 loops in the circuit. So 2 mesh equations can be formed.
36) In the figure shown below, the current through loop 1 be I 1 and through the loop 2
be I2, then the current flowing through the resistor R 2 will be?
a) I1
b) I2
c) I1-I2
d) I1+I2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Through the resistor R2 both the currents I1, I2 are flowing. So the current
through R2 will be I1-I2.
37) If there are 5 branches and 4 nodes in graph, then the number of mesh equations
that can be formed are?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Number of mesh equations = B-(N-1). Given number of branches = 5
and number of nodes = 4. So Number of mesh equations = 5-(4-1) = 2.
38) Consider the circuit shown in the figure. Find voltage V x.
a) 1
b) 1.25
c) 1.5
d) 1.75
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Consider current I1 (CW) in the loop 1 and I2 (ACW) in the loop 2. So,
the equations will be Vx+I2-I1=0. I1=5/2=2.5A. I2=4Vx/4= Vx. Vx+Vx-2.5=0. Vx = 1.25V.
39) . Consider the circuit shown below. Find the current I 1 (A).
a) 3.32
b) 3.78
c) 5.33
d) 6.38
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to mesh analysis,
(1+3+6)I1 – 3(I2) – 6(I3) = 10
-3(I1) + (2+5+3)I2 = 4
-6(I1) + 10(I3) = – 4 + 20
On solving the above equations, we get I 1 = 3.78A.
40) 8. Consider the following figure. Find the current I 2 (A).
a) 1.5
b) 2.6
c) 3.6
d) 4.6
View Answer
Answer: a
(1+3+6)I1 – 3(I2) – 6(I3) = 10
-3(I1) + (2+5+3)I2 = 4
-6(I1) + 10(I3) = – 4 + 20
On solving the above equations, we get I2 = 1.53A.
41) Consider the following figure. Find the current I 3 (A).
a) 4.34
b) 3.86
c) 5.45
d) 5.72
View Answer
Answer: b
(1+3+6)I1 – 3(I2) – 6(I3) = 10
-3(I1) + (2+5+3)I2 = 4
-6(I1) + 10(I3) = – 4 + 20
On solving the above equations, we get I 3 = 3.86A.
42) Find current through R2 resistor.
a) 3
b) 3.25
c) 3.5
d) 3.75
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Applying mesh analysis, 5(I 1) + 2(I1-I2) = 10. 10(I2) + 2(I2-I1) + 40 = 0. On
solving, I1 = 0.5A, I2 = -3.25A. So current through R2 resistor is 0.5-(-3.25) = 3.75 A.
44)If there are 8 nodes in network, we can get ____ number of

equations in the nodal analysis.
a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Number of equations = N-1 = 7. So as there are 8 nodes in network, we
can get 7 number of equations in the nodal analysis.
43) Nodal analysis can be applied for non planar networks also.
a) true
b) false
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nodal analysis is applicable for both planar and non planar networks.
Each node in a circuit can be assigned a number or a letter.
44) In nodal analysis how many nodes are taken as reference nodes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In nodal analysis only one node is taken as reference node. And the
node voltage is the voltage of a given node with respect to one particular node called
the reference node.
45) Find the voltage at node P in the following figure.
a) 8V
b) 9V
c) 10V
d) 11V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: I1 = (4-V)/2, I2 = (V+6)/3. The nodal equation at node P will be I 1+3=I2.
On solving, V=9V.
46) . Find the resistor value R1(Ω) in the figure shown below.
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 10=(V1-V2)/14+(V1-V3)/R1. From the circuit, V1=100V, V2=15×2=30V,
V3=40V. On solving, R1=12Ω.
47) Find the voltage (V) at node 1 in the circuit shown.
a) 5.32
b) 6.32
c) 7.32
d) 8.32
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: At node 1, (1/1+1/2+1/3)V 1-(1/3)V2 = 10/1. At node 2, -
(1/3)V1+(1/3+1/6+1/5)V2 = 2/5+5/6. On solving above equations, we get V 1=6.32V.
48) Find the voltage (V) at node 2 in the circuit shown below.
a) 2.7
b) 3.7
c) 4.7
d) 5.7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At node 1, (1/1+1/2+1/3)V 1-(1/3)V2 = 10/1. At node 2, -
(1/3)V1+(1/3+1/6+1/5)V2 = 2/5+5/6. On solving above equations, we get V 2=4.7V.
a) 32.7
b) 33.7
c) 34.7
d) 35.7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Applying Kirchhoff’s current law at node 1, 10 = V 1/10+(V1-V2)/3. At node
2, (V2-V1)/3+V2/5+(V2-10)/1=0. On solving the above equations, we get V 1=33.7V.
1. In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other

voltage sources are?
a) open circuited
b) short circuited
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other voltage
sources are short circuited. This theorem is valid for linear systems.
50) In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other current sources
are?
a) short circuited
b) change its position
c) open circuited
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other current
sources are open circuited. Superposition theorem is not valid for power responses.
It is applicable only for computing voltage and current responses.
51) In the circuit shown, find the current through 4Ω resistor using Superposition
theorem.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Considering the voltage source 20V, 5A current source is open
circuited.
52) Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor in the circuit shown below using
Superposition theorem.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The voltage across 2Ω resistor is the algebraic sum of the voltages
obtained by considering individual sources. V = 1.5+1.5 = 3V.
53) Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to 2A source in the following figure.
a) -1
b) 1
c) 1.46
d) -1.46
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Short circuiting both 10V, 20V sources,
The current through 2Ω resistor is 2× 5/(5+8.67)=0.73A. The voltage across 2Ω

resistor is -0.73×2 = -1.46V
54) . In the figure shown below. Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to all source
using Superposition theorem.
a) 3.41
b) -3.41
c) 3.14
d) -3.14
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The algebraic sum of all the voltages obtained by considering individual
sources is the voltage across 2Ω resistor. V = 0.97-2.92-1.46 = -3.41V.
55) Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to 20V source in the circuit shown below.
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 2.5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The voltage at node A in the figure is (V-20)/20+(V-10)/10+V/2=0 =>
V=3.07V. Now short circuiting 10V source,
(V-20)/20+V/2+V/10=0 => V=1.5V.
56) Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to 20V source in the following circuit.
a) 0.5
b) 0
c) 1
d) 1.5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The voltage at node A is (V-20)/20+(V-10)/10+V/2=0 => V=3.07V. Now
short circuiting 20V source,
(V-10)/10+V/20+V/2=0 => V=1.5V.
1. Consider the circuit shown below. Find the equivalent Thevenin’s

voltage between nodes A and B.
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 9
d) 9.5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The thevenin’s voltage is equal to the open circuit voltage across the
terminals AB that is across 12Ω resistor. V th = 10×12/14 = 8.57V.
57) Consider the circuit shown below. Find the thevenin’s resistance between
terminals A and B.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1.7
d) 2.7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The resistance into the open circuit terminals is equal to the thevenin’s
resistance => Rth = (12×2)/14 = 1.71Ω.
58) Consider the circuit shown below. Find the current flowing through 24Ω resistor.
a) 0.33
b) 0.66
c) 0
d) 0.99
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The equivalent thevenin’s model of the circuit shown is
I=8.57/(2.4+1.71)=0.33A.
59) Determine the equivalent thevenin’s voltage between terminals A and B in the
a) 0.333
b) 3.33
c) 33.3
d) 333
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Let us find the voltage drop across terminals A and B. 50-25=10I+5I =>
I=1.67A. Voltage drop across 10Ω resistor = 10×1.67=16.7V. So, V th=VAB=50-V=50-
16.7=33.3V.
60) Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in the circuit
shown below.
a) 333
b) 33.3
c) 3.33
d) 0.333
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To find Rth, two voltage sources are removed and replaced with short
circuit. The resistance at terminals AB then is the parallel combination of the 10Ω
resistor and 5Ω resistor => Rth=(10×5)/15=3.33Ω.
61) Determine the equivalent thevenin’s voltage between terminals A and B in the
a) 5
b) 15
c) 25
d) 35
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Current through 3Ω resistor is 0A. The current through 6Ω resistor =
(50-10)/(10+6)=2.5A. The voltage drop across 6Ω resistor = 25×6=15V. So the
voltage across terminals A and B = 0+15+10 = 25V.
62) Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in the
following circuit.
a) 6
b) 6.25
c) 6.5
d) 6.75
View Answer
Answer: d
circuit => Rth=(10×6)/(10+6)+3=6.75Ω.
63) . Determine the equivalent thevenin’s voltage between terminals ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the
a) 0.7
b) 1.7
c) 2.7
d) 3.7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The voltage at terminal a is V a=(100×6)/16=37.5V, The voltage at
terminal b is Vb=(100×8)/23=34.7V. So the voltage across the terminals ab is V ab=Va-
Vb=37.5-34.7=2.7V.
64) 9. Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in the
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: d
circuit => Rab=(6×10)/(6+10)+(8×15)/(8+15)=8.96≅9V.
65) Find the current through 5Ω resistor in the following circuit.
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
d) 0.4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Equivalent Thevenin’s circuit for the circuit shown above is
I=2.7/(8.96+5)=0.193A≅0.2A.
1. Find the current flowing between terminals A and B of the circuit

shown below.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The magnitude of the current in Norton’s equivalent circuit is equal to
the current passing through the short circuited terminals that are I=20/5=4A.
66) 2. Find the equivalent resistance between terminals A and B of the circuit shown
below.
a) 0.33
b) 3.33
c) 33.3
d) 333
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Norton’s resistance is equal to the parallel combination of both the 5Ω
and 10Ω resistors that is R = (5×10)/15 = 3.33Ω
67) 3. Find the current through 6Ω resistor in the circuit shown below.
a) 1
b) 1.43
c) 2
d) 2.43
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The current passing through the 6Ω resistor and the voltage across it
due to Norton’s equivalent circuit is I = 4×3.33/(6+3.33) = 1.43A.
68) 4. Find the voltage drop across 6Ω resistor in the circuit shown below.
a) 6.58
b) 7.58
c) 8.58
d) 9.58
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The voltage across the 6Ω resistor is V = 1.43×6 = 8.58V. So the
current and voltage have the same values both in the original circuit and Norton’s
equivalent circuit.
69) Find the current flowing between terminals A and B in the following circuit.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Short circuiting terminals A and B, 20-10(I1)=0, I1=2A. 10-5(I2), I2=2A.
Current flowing through terminals A and B = 2+2 = 4A.
70) Find the equivalent resistance between terminals A and B in the following circuit.
a) 3
b) 3.03
c) 3.33
d) 3.63
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The resistance at terminals AB is the parallel combination of the 10Ω
resistor and the 5Ω resistor => R = ((10×5))/(10+5) = 3.33Ω.
71) Find the current flowing between terminals A and B obtained in the equivalent
Nortan’s circuit.
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To solve for Norton’s current we have to find the current passing
through the terminals A and B. Short circuiting the terminals a and b,
I=100/((6×10)/(6+10)+(15×8)/(15+8))=11.16 ≅ 11A.
72) . Find the equivalent resistance between terminals A and B obtained in the
equivalent Nortan’s circuit.
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance at terminals AB is the parallel combination of the 10Ω
resistor and the 6Ω resistor and parallel combination of the 15Ω resistor and the 8Ω
resistor => R=(10×6)/(10+6)+(15×8)/(15+8)=8.96≅9Ω.
73) Find the current through 5Ω resistor in the circuit shown below.
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To solve for Norton’s current we have to find the current passing
through the terminals A and B. Short circuiting the terminals a and b
I=11.16×8.96/(5+8.96) = 7.16A.
74) Find the voltage drop across 5Ω resistor in the circuit shown below.
a) 33
b) 34
c) 35
d) 36
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The voltage drop across 5Ω resistor in the circuit is the product of
current and resistance => V = 5×7.16 = 35.8 ≅ 36V
1) An RL network is one which consists of ____________
a. Answer: d
Explanation: An R-L network is a network which consists of a resistor
which is connected in series to an inductor.
2) If the switch is opened at t=0, what is the current in the circuit?
a) 0A
b) 1A
c) 2A
d) 3A
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Initially when switch was closed,current in the inductor was
60/30=2A.
Current in inductor doesn’t change suddenly so when switch is opened,
current in inductor remains same i.e. 2A.
3) 3. In an RL series circuit, when the switch is closed and the circuit is complete,
what is the response?
b) Decays with time
a. Answer: b
Explanation: In an RL series circuit, the response decays with time
because according to the equation, there is an exponential decrease in
the response.
4) 4. If the switch is closed at t=0, what is the current in the circuit?

a) 0A
b) 10A
c) 20A
d) 30A
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Initially, when the switch is open, the current in the circuit is
0. As soon as the switch is closed at t=0 +, the inductor acts as an open
circuit, hence the current in the circuit is zero. Since the current in the
circuit is zero, there is no voltage drop across the resistor and hence
5) 5. What is the voltage across the inductor at t=0?
a) 0V
b) 20V
c) 60V
d) 58V
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Initially, when the switch is open, the current in the circuit is
0. As soon as the switch is closes at t=0+, the inductor acts as an open
circuit, hence the current in the circuit is zero. Since the current in the
circuit is zero, there is no voltage drop across the resistor and the voltage
across the inductor is equal to the supply voltage, which is equal to 60V.
6) 6. What is the expression for current in the given circuit?
a) i=2(e-2t)A
b) i=2(1-e-2t)A
c) i=2(e2t)A
d) i=2(1+e-2t)A
a. Answer: b
60-30i-15di/dt =0
i=2(1-e-2t)A
7) 7. What is the expression for voltage in the given circuit?
a) V=60e-0.5t
b) V=30e-0.5t
c) V=60e-2t
d) V=30e-2t
a. Answer: c
60-30i-15di/dt = 0
i=2(1-e-2t)A
di/dt = 4e-2t
V=Ldi/dt=15*4e--2t=60e-2t.
8) 8. At steady state, the current in the inductor is?
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
a. Answer: a
Explanation: At steady state maximum current flows in the inductor
because it acts as an open circuit.
9) 9. Initially, when the switch in a series RL circuit is closed, the inductor acts as?
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Resistor
d) Capacitor
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Before switch is closed, current in inductor is zero. When the
switch in a series RL circuit is closed, current in the inductor remains zero
since current in inductor doesn’t change suddenly. So, the inductor acts as
an open circuit.
10) 10. Initially, when the switch in a series RL circuit is closed, the current in the
inductor is?
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Initially, when the switch in a series RL circuit is closed, the
inductor acts as an open circuit. Current in an open circuit is zero, hence
the inductor current is zero.
11) . A CR network is one which consists of _________
a) A capacitor and resistor connected in parallel
b) A capacitor and resistor connected in series
c) A network consisting of a capacitor only
d) A network consisting of a resistor only
a. Answer: b
Explanation: A CR network is one which consists of a capacitor connected
in series with a resistor. The capacitor discharges or charges through the
resistor.
12) 2. At DC, capacitor acts as _________
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Resistor
d) Inductor
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitive Reactance X C = 1/(2πfC)
For DC, f=0 so, XC becomes infinite. Hence for dc, the capacitor acts as an
open circuit.
13) 3. In an RC series circuit, when the switch is closed and the circuit is complete,
what is the response?
b) Decays with time
a. Answer: b
Explanation: In an RC series circuit, the response decays with time
because according to the equation, there is an exponential decrease in
the response.
14) advertisement
15) 4. If the switch is closed at t=0, what is the current in the circuit?
a) 0A
b) 10A
c) 20A
d) Infinity
a. Answer: b
Explanation: As soon as the switch is closed at t=0, the capacitor acts as
a short circuit. The current in the circuit is:
I=V/R = 100/10 = 10A.
16) 5. Calculate the voltage across the capacitor at t=0.
a) 0V
b) 10V
c) 20V
d) Infinity
a. Answer: a
Explanation: When the switch is closed at t=0, the capacitor has no
voltage across it since it has not been charged. The capacitor acts as a
short circuit and the voltage across it is zero.
17) 6. Calculate di(0)/dt if the switch is closed at t=0.
a) -9.9A/s
b) -10A/s
c) 0A/s
d) -0.1A/s
a. Answer: d
Explanation: Applying KVL to the given circuit, we get:
i=i0e-t/RC = (100/10)e-t/100
i=10 e-t/100
di/dt = -(10/100) e-t/100
di(0)/dt=-0.1A/s.
18) 7. Calculate d2i(0)/dt2 from the given circuit.
a) 10-6A/s2
b) 10-3A/s2
c) 106A/s2
d) 103A/s2
a. Answer: b
100+10i(0)+1/10*integral(i(0)dt)=0
Differentiating once, we get:
10di(0)/dt+1/10*i.
Differentiating once again, we get:
10d2i(0)/dt2+10di(0)/dt=0.
Substituting the values of di/dt from the previous explanation, we get
d2i(0)/dt2=10-3A/s2.
19) 8. The current equation for the given circuit is?
a) i=10e(-0.01)t A
b) i=10e(0.01)t A
c) i=10e(-0.001)t A
d) i=100e(-0.01)t A
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The KVL equation is:
100+10i(0)+1/10*integral(i(0)dt)=0
On applying Laplace transform to this equation, we get:
100/s=I(s)/10s+10I(s)
Solving the equation, we get:
i=10e(-0.01)t A.
20) 9. The expression for the current in an RC circuit is?
a) i=(V/R)et/RC
b) i=(V/R)e-t/RC
c) i=(V/R)(1-e-t/RC)
d) i=(V/R) (1-et/RC)
a. Answer: b
i=i0e-t/RC = (100/10)e-t/100
i=10 e-t/100.
21) 10. What is the voltage in the resistor as soon as the switch is closed at t=0.
a) 0V
b) Infinity
c) 220V
d) Insufficient information provided
a. Answer: c
Explanation: As soon as the switch is closed at t=0, there is no charge in
the capacitor, hence the voltage across the capacitor is zero and all the
220V voltage is the voltage across the resistor.
1. For an R-L-C circuit, we get [D – (K1 + K2)][D – (K1 – K2)] i = 0. If
K2 is positive, then the curve will be?
a) damped
b) over damped
c) under damped
b. Answer: b
Explanation: For an R-L-C circuit, we get [D – (K1 + K2)][D – (K1 – K2)] i = 0.
If K2 is positive, then the curve will be over damped response.
22) 2. If the roots of an equation are real and unequal, then the response will be?
b) under damped
c) over damped
d) damped
a. Answer: c
Explanation: If the roots of an equation are real and unequal, then the
response will be over damped response. Over damped response of a
system is defined as the system returns (exponentially decays) to
equilibrium without oscillating.
23) 3. If the roots of an equation are complex conjugate, then the response will be?
a) over damped
c) damped
d) under damped
a. Answer: d
Explanation: If the roots of an equation are complex conjugate, then the
response will be under damped response. Damping is an influence within
or upon an oscillatory system that has the effect of reducing, restricting or
preventing its oscillations.
24) 4. If the roots of an equation are real and equal, then the response will be?
a) over damped
b) damped
d) under damped
a. Answer: c
Explanation: If the roots of an equation are real and equal, then the
response will be critically damped response. For a critically damped
system, the system returns to equilibrium as quickly as possible without
oscillating.
25) 5. The circuit shown in the figure consists of resistance, capacitance and
inductance in series with a 100V source when the switch is closed at t = 0. Find
the equation obtained from the circuit in terms of current.
a) 100 = 20i + 0.05 didt+120×10−6∫idt

b) 100 = 20i – 0.05 didt+120×10−6∫idt
c) 100 = 20i + 0.05 didt–120×10−6∫idt
d) 100 = 20i – 0.05 didt–120×10−6∫idt
a. Answer: a
Explanation: At t = 0, switch S is closed when the 100V source is applied
to the circuit and results in the following differential equation.
100 = 20i + 0.05 didt+120×10−6∫idt
26) 6. Replacing the differentiation with D1, D2 in the equation 100 = 20i +
0.05 didt+120×10−6∫idt. Find the values of D1, D2.
a) 200±j979.8
b) -200±j979.8
c) 100±j979.8
d) -100±j979.8
a. Answer: b
Explanation: Let the roots of the characteristic equation are denoted by D1,
D2. So on differentiating the equation 100 = 20i + 0.05 didt+120×10−6∫idt,
we get D1 = -200+j979.8, D2 = -200-j979.8.
27) 7. The expression of current from the circuit shown below.
a) i=e-200t [c1 cos979.8t+c2 979.8t]A

b) i=e200t [c1 cos979.8t-c2 979.8t]A
c) i=e-200t [c1 cos979.8t-c2 979.8t]A
d) i=e200t [c1 cos979.8t+c2 979.8t]A
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The expression of current from the circuit will be i =
eK t[c1cosK1t + c2sinK2t]. So, i=e-200t [c1 cos979.8t+c2 979.8t]A.
1
28) 8. At time t = 0, the value of current in the circuit shown below.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
a. Answer: d
Explanation: At t = 0 that is initially the current flowing through the circuit is
zero that is i = 0. So, i = 0.
29) 9. The voltage across the inductor at t = 0 in the circuit shown below.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200
a. Answer: b
Explanation: At t = 0, that is initially the voltage across the inductor is
100V. => V = 100V. So we can write Ldi/dt = 100.
30) 10. The current equation obtained from the circuit shown below is?
a) i=e-200t (1.04 sin979.8t)A

b) i=e-200t (2.04 sin979.8t)A
c) i=e-200t (3.04 sin979.8t)A
d) i=e-200t (4.04 sin979.8t)A
a. Answer: b
Explanation: On solving the values of c 1, c2 are obtained as c1 = 0, c2 =
2.04. So, the current equation is i=e -200t (2.04 sin979.8t)A.
1. In the sinusoidal response of R-L circuit, the complementary
function of the solution of i is?
a) ic = ce-t(R/L)
b) ic = cet(RL)
c) ic = ce-t(RL)
d) ic = cet(R/L)
b. Answer: a
Explanation: From the R-L circuit, we get the characteristic equation as
(D+R/L)i=V/L cos⁡(ωt+θ). The complementary function of the solution i is
ic = ce-t(R/L).
31) 2. The particular current obtained from the solution of i in the sinusoidal response
of R-L circuit is?
a) ip = V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt+θ+tan-1(ωL/R))
b) ip = V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt+θ-tan-1(ωL/R))
c) ip = V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt-θ+tan-1(ωL/R))
d) ip = V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt-θ+tan-1(ωL/R))
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The characteristic equation consists of two parts, viz.
complementary function and particular integral. The particular integral is
ip = V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt+θ-tan-1(ωL/R)).
32) 3. The value of ‘c’ in complementary function of ‘i’ is?
a) c = -V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ+tan-1(ωL/R))
b) c = -V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ-tan-1(ωL/R))
c) c = V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ+tan-1(ωL/R))
d) c = V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ-tan-1(ωL/R))
a. Answer: b
Explanation: Since the inductor does not allow sudden changes in
currents, at t = 0, i = 0. So, c = -V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ-tan-1(ωL/R)).
33) 4. The complete solution of the current in the sinusoidal response of R-L circuit
is?
a) i = e-t(R/L)[V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ-tan-1)⁡(ωL/R))]+V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt+θ-tan-
1
)⁡(ωL/R))
b) i = e-t(R/L)[-V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ-tan-1)(ωL/R))]-V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt+θ-tan-
1
)⁡(ωL/R))
c) i = e-t(R/L)[V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ-tan-1)⁡(ωL/R))]-V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt+θ-tan-
1
)⁡(ωL/R))
d) i = e-t(R/L)[-V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ-tan-1)⁡(ωL/R))]+V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt+θ-tan-
1
)⁡(ωL/R))
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The complete solution for the current becomes i = e-t(R/L)[-
V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(θ-tan-1)⁡(ωL/R))]+V/√(R2+(ωL)2)cos⁡(ωt+θ-tan-
1
)⁡(ωL/R)).
34) 5. In the circuit shown below, the switch is closed at t = 0, applied voltage is v (t)
= 100cos (103t+π/2), resistance R = 20Ω and inductance L = 0.1H. The
complementary function of the solution of ‘i’ is?
a) ic = ce-100t
b) ic = ce100t
c) ic = ce-200t
d) ic = ce200t
a. Answer: c
Explanation: By applying Kirchhoff’s voltage law to the circuit, we have
20i+0.1di/dt=100cos⁡(103 t+π/2) => (D+200)i=1000cos⁡(1000t+π/2). The
complementary function is ic = ce-200t.
= 100cos (103t+π/2), resistance R = 20Ω and inductance L = 0.1H. The particular
integral of the solution of ‘ip’ is?
a) ip = 0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o)
b) ip = 0.98cos⁡(1000t-π/2-78.6o)
c) ip = 0.98cos⁡(1000t-π/2+78.6o)
d) ip = 0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2+78.6o)
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Assuming particular integral as i p = A cos (ωt + θ) + B sin(ωt
+ θ). We get ip = V/√(R2+(ωL)2) cos⁡(ωt+θ-tan-1(ωL/R)) where ω = 1000
rad/sec, V = 100V, θ = π/2, L = 0.1H, R = 20Ω. On substituting, we get i p =
0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o).
= 100cos (103t+π/2), resistance R = 20Ω and inductance L = 0.1H. The complete
solution of ‘i’ is?
a) i = ce-200t + 0.98cos⁡(1000t-π/2-78.6o)
b) i = ce-200t + 0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o)
c) i = ce-200t + 0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2+78.6o)
d) i = ce-200t + 0.98cos⁡(1000t-π/2+78.6o)
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The complete solution for the current is the sum of the
complementary function and the particular integral. The complete solution
for the current becomes i = ce -200t + 0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o).
37) 8. The current flowing through the circuit at t = 0 in the circuit shown below is?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
a. Answer: d
Explanation: At t = 0 that is initially the current flowing through the circuit is
zero that is i = 0. So, i = 0.
= 100cos (103t+π/2), resistance R = 20Ω and inductance L = 0.1H. The value of
c in the complementary function of ‘i’ is?
a) c = -0.98cos⁡(π/2-78.6o)
b) c = -0.98cos⁡(π/2+78.6o)
c) c = 0.98cos⁡(π/2+78.6o)
d) c = 0.98cos⁡(π/2-78.6o)
a. Answer: a
Explanation: At t = 0, the current flowing through the circuit is zero.
Placing i = 0 in the current equation we get c = -0.98cos⁡(π/2-78.6o).
= 100cos (103t+π/2), resistance R = 20Ω and inductance L = 0.1H. The complete
solution of ‘i’ is?
a) i = [-0.98 cos⁡(π/2-78.6o)] exp⁡(-200t)+0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o)
b) i = [-0.98 cos⁡(π/2-78.6o)] exp⁡(-200t)-0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o)
c) i = [0.98 cos⁡(π/2-78.6o)] exp⁡(-200t)-0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o)
d) i = [0.98 cos⁡(π/2-78.6o)] exp⁡(-200t)+0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o)
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The complete solution for the current is the sum of the
complementary function and the particular integral.
So, i = [-0.98 cos⁡(π/2-78.6o)] exp⁡(-200t)+0.98cos⁡(1000t+π/2-78.6o).
a) V/R
b) R/V
c) V
d) R
b. Answer: a
Explanation: The capacitor never allows sudden changes in voltage, it will
act as a short circuit at t = 0 +. So the current in the circuit at t = 0+ is V/R.
40) 2. The expression of current in R-C circuit is?
a) i=(V/R)exp⁡(t/RC)
b) i=(V/R)exp⁡(-t/RC)
c) i=(V/R)-exp(⁡t/RC)
d) i=(V/R)-exp⁡(-t/RC)
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The particular solution of the current equation is zero. So the
expression of current in R-C circuit is i=(V/R)exp⁡(-t/RC).
41) 3. In an R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the response ____________
b) decays with time
c) rises with time
a. Answer: b
Explanation: In a R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the response
decays with time that is the response V/R decreases with increase in time.
42) 4. The time constant of an R-C circuit is?
a) RC
b) R/C
c) R
d) C
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The time constant of an R-C circuit is RC and it is denoted by
τ and the value of τ in dc response of R-C circuit is RC sec.
43) 5. After how many time constants, the transient part reaches more than 99
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
a. Answer: d
Explanation: After five time constants, the transient part of the response
reaches more than 99 percent of its final value.
44) 6.A series R-C circuit consists of resistor of 10 and capacitor of 0.1F as shown in
the figure. A constant voltage of 20V is applied to the circuit at t = 0. What is the
current in the circuit at t = 0?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a. Answer: b
Explanation: At t = 0, switch S is closed. Since the capacitor does not
allow sudden changes in voltage, the current in the circuit is i = V/R =
20/10 = 2A. At t = 0, i = 2A.
45) 7. The expression of current obtained from the circuit in terms of differentiation
from the circuit shown below?
a) di/dt+i=1
b) di/dt+i=2
c) di/dt+i=3
d) di/dt+i=0
a. Answer: d
Explanation: By applying Kirchhoff’s law, we get
Differentiating with respect to t, we get 10 di/dt+i/0.1=0 => di/dt+i=0.

46) 8. The current equation in the circuit shown below is?
a) i=2(e-2t)A
b) i=2(e2t)A
c) i=2(-e-2t)A
d) i=2(-e2t)A
a. Answer: a
Explanation: At t = 0, switch S is closed. Since the capacitor does not
allow sudden changes in voltage, the current in the circuit is i = V/R =
20/10 = 2A. At t = 0, i = 2A. The current equation is i=2(e -2t)A.
47) 9. The expression of voltage across resistor in the circuit shown below is?
a) VR = 20(et)V
b) VR = 20(-e-t)V
c) VR = 20(-et)V
d) VR = 20(e-t)V
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The expression of voltage across resistor in the circuit is V R =
iR =(2(e-t))×10=20(e-t)V.
48) 10. Determine the voltage across the capacitor in the circuit shown below is?
a) VC = 60(1-e-t)V
b) VC = 60(1+et)V
c) VC = 60(1-et)V
d) VC = 60(1+e-t)V
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The expression of voltage across capacitor in the circuit V C =
V(1-e-t/RC) = 20(1-e-t)V.
UNIT 3: TWO PORT NETWORK PARAMETERS AND FUNCTIONS
1) [T] = ?
a) [0.352−1−3.33]
b) [0.35−2−1−3.33]
c) [20.353.331]
d) [0.35213.33]
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation:
2) [h] = ?
a) [4−23212]
b) [−241232]
c) [42−3212]
d) [2412−32]
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: V2 = 2I2 + 4I1 and
I1 = 0.5I2 + 0.5(V1 – 2V2) => V1 = 4I1 + 1.5V2.
3) [y] = ?
a) [Ya+Yab−Yab−YabYb+Yab]
b) [Ya–YabYabYabYb–Yab]
c) [Yab–YaYabYabYab−Ya]
d) [Ya–Yab−Yab−YabYb–Yab]
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: I1 = V1(Ya + Yab) – V2(Yab) and I2 = -V1(Yab) + V2(Yb +
Yab).
4) 4.The [y] parameter of a two port network is given by
a) [6243]S
b) [6023]S
c) [5242]S
d) [4241]S
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The new parameter will be the sum of the previous network
and the resistor parameter.
5) The [y] parameter for a 2-port network and the network itself are given below.
The value of Vo/vs is _______

a) 3/32
b) 1/16
c) 2/33
d) 1/17
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation:
6) [y] = ?
a) [1910−910−9103110]
b) [1910−710−7103110]
c) [19109109103110]
d) [19107107103110]
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation:
7) A 2-port resistive network satisfy the condition A = D = 3/2B = 4/3C. The z11 of
the network is
a) 4/3
b) 3/4
c) 2/3
d) 3/2
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: z11 = A/C = 4/3.
8) A 2-port network is driven by a source Vs =100 V in series with 5 ohm, and
terminated in a 25 ohm resistor. The impedance parameters are
The Thevenin equivalent circuit presented to the 25 ohm resistor is

a) 80 V, 2.8 ohm
b) 160 V, 6.8 ohm
c) 100 V, 2.4 ohm
d) 120 V, 6.4 ohm
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: 100 = 25I1 + 2I2, V2 = 40I1 + 10I2
Also V2 = 160I1 + 6.8I2
using above equations we get, Vth = 160 V and Rth = 6.8 ohm.
9) Find V1 and V2.
a) -68.6 V, 114.3 V
b) 68.6 V, -114.3 V
c) 114.3 V, -68.6 V
d) -114.3 V, 68.6 V
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: 800 = 10V1 – V2 and 3V2 = 5V1 = 0.
1. The resistance of a 230 V, 100 W lamp is ____________
a) 529 Ω
b) 2300 Ω
c) 5290 Ω
d) 23 Ω
View Answer
b. Answer: a
Explanation: P = V2R
Or, R = V2P
Or, R = 230X230100
= 529 Ω.
10) 2. A network has two branches in parallel. One branch contains impedance
Za and the other branch has impedance Z b. If it is fed from an AC voltage V of
frequency f, the current through Za depends, on which of the following?
a) V, Za, Zb
b) V, Za
c) Za, Zb
d) V, Za, f
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: We know that, in parallel branches, the current through any
branch depends only on V (voltage), Z (impedance) and f (frequency)
only.
So, the current through Za depends on V, Za, and f.
11) 3. Two coils having self-inductances of 1 mH and 2 mH are mutually coupled.
The maximum possible mutual inductance is ___________
a) 1.414 mH
b) 2 mH
c) 1 mH
d) 5.5 mH
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: We know that, maximum mutual inductance = L1L2
Given that, L1 = 1 mH and L2 = 2 mH
So, maximum mutual inductance = (1 X 2)0.5 = 2–√
= 1.414 mH.
12) 4. A constant k band pass filter has a pass band from 100 to 400 Hz. The
resonant frequency of series and shunt arms is ____________
a) 300 Hz
b) 250 Hz
c) 200 Hz
d) 150 Hz
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: We know that,
Resonant frequency of arms in constant k band pass filter = [(f c1)(fc2)]0.5
Given that, fc1 = 100 Hz and fc2 = 400 Hz
So, Resonant frequency = 100X400−−−−−−−√
= 200 Hz.
13) 5. An RLC series circuit has Q = 100 and ω 0 = 20 rad/sec. The bandwidth is
____________
a) 0.2 rad/sec
b) 2 rad/sec
c) 20 rad/sec
d) 2000 rad/sec
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Bandwidth = ω0Q
Given that, ω0 = 20 rad/sec and Q = 100
So, Bandwidth = 20100
= 0.2 rad/sec.
14) 6. In an unloaded transformer, the flux limiting the primary is 10 mWb and
secondary is 30 mWb. The coefficient of coupling is ____________
a) 1
b) 0.1
c) 0.33
d) 0.67
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Φ11 = (1 – k) Φ1
Or, φ11 = φ1 – φ2
Or, φ11 = 30 – 10 = 20 mWb
Now, 20 mWb = (1 – k) 30m
Or, 0.67 = 1 – k
Or, k = 0.33.
15) 7. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and
alternate on jω axis. The network consists of ___________
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: In network having only L and C, poles and zeros of driving
point function are simple and alternate on jω axis.
So, the network consists of L and C.
16) In a two terminals network the open circuit voltage measured at the given
terminals is 110 V and short circuit currents at the same terminals 10 A. If a load
of 50 Ω resistance is connected at the terminals, load current is ___________
a) 1.8 A
b) 1.25 A
c) 6 A
d) 6.25 A
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: RTH = 11010 = 11 Ω
So, I = 11050+11 = 1.8 A.
17) A coil has resistance R and inductance L. At ω = ∞ the phase angle between
voltage and current is _____________
a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 45°
d) 90°
View Answer
a. Answer: d
When ω = ∞, XL = ωL = ∞.
Therefore, θ = tan-1 ωLR = 90°.
18) An RLC series circuit has R = 7.07 Ω, L = .707 H and C = 7.07 μF. At Half power
frequencies the circuit impedance is ___________
a) 7.07 Ω
b) 10 Ω
c) 14.14 Ω
d) 20 Ω
View Answer
a. Answer: b
At half power frequency the circuit impedance is 2 times resistance
Given that, resistance = 7.07 Ω
So, circuit impedance = 2 X 7.07
= 14.14 Ω.
19) Two similar coils have self-inductance of 20 mH each. Coefficient of coupling is
0.4. The mutual inductance M is ______________
a) 2.5 mH
b) 8 mH
c) 7 mH
d) 1 mH
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: We know that, the mutual inductance M is given by,
M = kL1L2−−−−√
Given that, k = 0.4, L1 = 20 mH and L2 = 20 mH
So, M = 0.420X20−−−−−−√
= 8 mH.
20) For any given signal, average power in its 8 harmonic components as 50 mW
each and fundamental component also has 50 mV power. Then, average power
in the periodic signal is _______________
a) 750
b) 400
c) 100
d) 50
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: We know that according to Parseval’s relation, average
power is equal to the sum of the average powers in all of its harmonic
components.
∴ Pavg = 50×8 = 400.
21) The Current Transformer supplies current to the current coil of a power factor
meter, energy meter and, an ammeter. These are connected as?
a) All coils in parallel
b) All coils in series
c) Series-parallel connection with two in each arm
d) Series-parallel connection with one in each arm
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: Since the CT supplies the current to the current coil,
therefore the coils are connected in series so that the current remains the
same. If they were connected in parallel then the voltages would have
been same but the currents would not be same and thus efficiency would
decrease.
22) A CRO probe has an impedance of 500 kΩ in parallel with a capacitance of 10
pF. The probe is used to measure the voltage between P and Q as shown in the
figure. The measured voltage will be?
a) 3.53 V
b) 3.47 V
c) 5.54 V
d) 7.00 V
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: XC = 1jCω=−j2×3.14×100×103×10×10−12
Applying KCL at node,
Va−10100+Va100+Va500+Va−j159
∴ Va = 4.37∠-15.95°.
23) M(t) = 2, 0≤t<4;
t2, t≥4;
The Laplace transform of W (t) is ___________
a) 2s–e−4s(2s3–8s2–14s)
b) 2s+e−4s(2s3–8s2–14s)
c) 2s–e−4s(2s3+8s2+14s)
d) 2s+e−4s(2s3+8s2+14s)
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: M (t) = 2 + u (t) (t2 – 2)
L {2 + u (t) (t2 – 2)} = 2s + L {u (t) (t2 – 2)}
= 2s+e−4s L {(t+4)2 -2}
= 2s+e−4s L {t2 + 8t + 14}
= 2s+e−4s(2s3+8s2+14s).
1. The coefficients of the polynomials P (S) and Q (S) in the network
function N (S) are ________ for passive network.
View Answer
b. Answer: a
Explanation: The coefficients of the polynomials P (S) and Q (S) in the
network function N (S) are real and positive for passive network. On
factorising the network function we obtain the poles and zeros.
24) 2. The scale factor is denoted by the letter?
a) G
b) H
c) I
d) J
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The scale factor is denoted by the letter ‘H’ and its value is
equal to the ratio of ao to bo.
25) 3. The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The roots of the equation P (S) = 0 are zeros of the transfer
function. The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by ‘o’.
26) 4. The poles in the transfer function are denoted by?
a) x
b) y
c) z
d) w
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The roots of the equation Q (S) = 0 are poles of the transfer
function. The poles in the transfer function are denoted by ‘x’.
27) 5. The network function N (S) becomes _________ when s is equal to anyone of
the zeros.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) ∞
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: The network function N (S) becomes zero when s in the
transfer function is equal to anyone of the zeros as the network function is
completely defined by its poles and zeros.
28) 6. The N (S) becomes ________ when s is equal to any of the poles.
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The network function is completely defined by its poles and
zeros and the network function N (S) becomes infinite when s in the
transfer function is equal to anyone of the poles.
29) 7. If the poles or zeros are not repeated, then the function is said to be having
__________ poles or ________ zeros.
a) simple, multiple
b) multiple, simple
c) simple, simple
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: If the poles or zeros are not repeated, then the function is
said to be having simple poles or simple zeros and the network function is
said to be stable when the real parts of the poles and zeros are negative.
30) 8. If the poles or zeros are repeated, then the function is said to be having
__________ poles or ________ zeros.
b) simple, simple
c) multiple, simple
d) simple, multiple
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: If there are repeated poles or zeros, then function is said to
be having multiple poles or multiple zeros and the network function is
stable if the poles and zeros lie within the left half of the s-plane.
31) 9. If the number of zeros (n) are greater than the number of poles (m), then there
will be _________ number of zeros at s = ∞.
a) n
b) m
c) n-m
d) n+m
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: If the number of zeros (n) are greater than the number of
poles (m), then there will be (n-m) number of zeros at s = ∞ and to obtain
(n-m) zeros at s = ∞ the condition is n>m.
32) 10. If the number of poles (m) are greater than the number of zeros (n), then
there will be _________ number of zeros at s = ∞.
a) m+n
b) m-n
c) m
d) n
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: If the number of poles (m) are greater than the number of
zeros (n), then there will be (m-n) number of zeros at s = ∞ and to obtain
(m-n) poles at s = ∞ the condition is m>n.
UNIT 4: DC MACHINES
1) Where is field winding mounted in a DC machine?

a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Absent
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The field winding (concentrated type) is mounted on salient-
poles on the stator and the armature winding (distributed type) is wound in
slots on a cylindrical rotor. In AC machines field winding is mounted on
rotor.
2) What are the materials used for brushes in dc machines?
a) Iron
b) Carbon
c) Aluminum
d) Steel
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: On some extent carbon brush can act as a self-lubricating
brush. On moment, polishes the commutator segments. Damage to the
commutators is less when copper brushes are used on occurrence of
sparkover.
3) Function of yoke is to provide the return path for magnetic flux.
a) True
b) false
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The function of yoke is that it protects the entire machine
from dust and dirt. It also provides mechanical support for the magnetic
poles. It acts as the return path for the magnetic flux.
4) advertisement
5) The angle (electrical) made by brushes with axes of adjoining filed poles is
______________
a) 450
b) 1800
c) 900
d) 300
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Brushes in a DC machine are normally placed electrically in
the interpolar regions and therefore make an angle of 900 electrical with
the axes of adjoining filed poles.
6) In a DC machine, rectification process is carried out in order to get unidirectional
output (DC). This rectification process is carried out by ______________
a) Half wave rectifier
b) Full wave rectifier
c) Mechanical rectification
d) Centre tapped rectifier
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: In a DC machine electronic rectification is not used. Instead
they use mechanical rectification with the help of commutator-brush
assembly.
7) 6.Which of the following part is used in construction of DC machine but not in AC
machine?
a) Armature Winding
b) Field winding
c) Commutator
d) Shaft
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Commutator is used in mechanical rectification process, to
convert induced AC to output DC. In AC machine, we don’t need
rectification process.
8) In a DC machine fractional pitch winding is used to _______________
a) To improve cooling
b) To reduce sparking
c) To reduce copper losses
d) To increase generated EMF
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: Due to poor performance of brush, poor undercutting of
commutator, incorrect spring pressure sparking at brush faces happen. To
overcome this sparking fractional pitch winding is used.
9) In normal dc machines operating at full-load conditions, the most powerful
electromagnet is _________
a) Field winding
b) Interpole Winding
c) Interpole and compensating winding together
d) Armature winding
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Electromagnet is more powerful when its MMF is high. At full-
load condition, field winding contains maximum ampere turns, hence it is
most powerful electromagnet in a DC machine.
10) If a DC motor is connected to AC supply what will happen then?
a) Not run
b) Burn
c) Run at normal speed
d) Run at extremely low speed
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: If a DC motor is connected to AC supply, an alternating
current pass through the brushes and commutator to the armature
winding, while it passes through the commutator it is converted into DC so
that the group of conductors under successive field poles carry current in
same direction. So, the flux per pole will remain constant and not vary.
There will be production of heat due to flow of eddy current in field winding
and the motor will be burned.
11) The armature of DC motor is laminated to ____________
a) To reduce mass
b) To reduce hysteresis loss
c) To reduce eddy current loss
d) To reduce inductance
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: The armature is built up in a cylindrical or drum shape high
grade silicon steel in form of lamination. By using laminations, the circular
path of eddy currents is terminated. Hence heating and ultimately damage
to the armature can be reduced by lamination.
12) What will happen if DC shunt motor is connected across AC supply?

a) Will run at normal speed
b) Will not run
c) Will Run at lower speed
d) Burn due to heat produced in the field winding
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: In case of parallel field connection, it won’t rotate at all and
will start humming and will create vibrations, as a torque produced by
positive and negative cycle will cancel out each other. DC motor will be
heated up and it may burn.
13) What will happen if the back emf of a DC motor vanishes suddenly?
a) The motor will stop
b) The motor will continue to run
c) The armature may burn
d) The motor will run noisy
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: If back emf vanishes suddenly, motor circuit will try to retain
back emf by drawing more current from supply. If supplying unit didn’t trip
down by this time, excess current in armature may heat up the armature.
14) What will happen, with the increase in speed of a DC motor?
a) Back emf increase but line current falls.
b) Back emf falls and line current increase.
c) Both back emf as well as line current increase.
d) Both back emf as well as line current fall.
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: In case of DC motor, the speed is proportional to the back
emf (Ea ∝ N). So, with the increase in speed, the back emf also increases.
Therefore, armature current is also decreased, in case of series motor,
armature current is equal to the line or load current.
15) Which part will surely tell that given motor is DC motor and not an AC type?
a) Winding
b) Shaft
c) Commutator
d) Stator
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: All other parts except brushes and commutator are same in
AC machine when outer looks are only taken in consideration.
Commutator is used only in DC machine for providing mechanical
rectification and not in AC machine.
16) In DC motor, which of the following part can sustain the maximum temperature
rise?
a) Field winding
b) Commutator
c) Slip rings
d) Armature winding
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum temperature rise can be sustained by field winding,
as it is not involved in rotary parts. Field winding is present away from
rotary parts of the machine, so temperature rise in the machine will not
produce any effect in machine rotations.
17) Direction of rotation of motor is determined by ____________
a) Faraday’s law
b) Lenz’s law
c) Coulomb’s law
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: Flemings laws can be summarized as whenever, a current
carrying conductor comes under a magnetic field, there will be a force
acting on the conductor and on the other hand, if a conductor is forcefully
brought under a magnetic field, there will be an induced current in that
conductor.
18) The current drawn by the armature of DC motor is directly proportional to
________________
a) Torque
b) Speed
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: From the equation of torque generated in a DC machine, we
know that in both DC motor and DC generator, current drawn is directly
proportional to the torque required by the machine.
19) Which power is mentioned on a name plate of a motor?
a) Gross power
b) Power drawn in kVA
c) Power drawn in kW
d) Output power available at the shaft
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: Name plate of the motor shows rated values i.e. rated speed,
rated current, rated voltage. It also shows output power available at shaft
when all other quantities are set to rated values.
20) An electric motor is having constant output power. So, motor will have a torque
speed characteristic _______________________
a) Circle about the origin.
b) Straight line parallel to the speed axis.
c) Straight line through the origin.
d) Rectangular hyperbola
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: In case of DC motor for the constant output power, Ea×Ia =
T×ω. As T×ω = Constant, so the torque speed characteristic is in the form
of rectangular hyperbola, which represented as xy= constant.
21) Which of the following quantity will decrease if supply voltage is increased?
a) Starting torque
b) Operating speed
c) Full-load current
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: When supply voltage is increased full load current will
decrease in order to keep output power constant, which will decrease
torque at that moment, while starting torque will remain as it is,
irrespective of any change in supply voltage.
22) In which of the following case we will get maximum power?
a) Ea = 2 x supply voltage
b) Ea = supply voltage
c) Supply voltage = 2 x Ea
d) supply voltage = 4 x Ea
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: For a motor, from power equation it is known that,
23) Sometimes motor has to be de-rated.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Derating refers to the operation of equipment at reduced
capacity/power or speed. Derating in motors can be caused due to the
following reasons- Frequency, Voltage, Ambient temperature, Altitude.
24) The armature shaft of a DC motor must be able to withstand ______________
a) Bending moment due to weight of the armature.
b) Any unbalanced magnetic pull on the armature core.
c) Twisting stains due to transmission of torque.
d) Bending moment, unbalanced magnetic pull and twisting stains
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The armature shaft must be able to withstand any
unbalanced magnetic pull on the armature core, bending moment due to
weight of the armature and commutator, twisting stains due to
transmission of torque, for a good and long run application of motor.
25) In DC machines the residual magnetism is present. The order of residual
magnetism is ___________
a) 2 to 3 per cent
b) 10 to 15 per cent
c) 20 to 25 per cent
d) 50 to 75 per cent
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: In a DC machine residual magnetism is present and it plays
very important role in starting of any DC machine. It’s present because of
the previous application on the same motor, it also provides some no-load
voltage.
26) Sparking is discouraged in a DC motor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: Sparking at brushes and commutator segments lead to
damage of commutators, which is the main distinguishable component in
a DC machine. So, it is advisable to fasten the commutation speed and
avoid sparking
27) Which of the following is not the operating characteristics of Dc generator?
a) No-load characteristics
b) Load characteristics
c) External characteristics
d) Internal characteristics
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The relationship between various parameters has to be
presented graphically because of the magnetic saturation effect. Four
characteristics of importance are the following: 1) No load characteristics
2) Load characteristics 3) External characteristics 4) Armature
characteristics.
28) Characteristics drawn at Ia = 0 is also called as ____________
a) Magnetization characteristics
b) Non-magnetization characteristics
c) Anti-magnetization characteristics
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: With Ia = 0 (no load) at constant n, it is the presentation of Vt
(=Ea) vs If. This is the most important characteristic as it reveals the
nature of the magnetization of the machine. It is easy to determine as the
generator is on no load and so only low rated prime mover will serve the
purpose. It is commonly called the open–circuit/magnetization
characteristic.
29) Open circuit characteristics (OCC) is generally drawn across __________
a) Ea vs If, Ia=constant (not equal to rated)
b) Ea vs If, Ia=0
c) Ea vs If, Ia=constant
d) Ea vs If, Ia=constant (rated)
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: Open circuit characteristics is also called as no-load
characteristics or magnetization characteristics. No load clearly states that
armature current will equal to 0. Thus, OCC is drawn at Ea vs If, Ia=0.
30) Characteristics of a DC generator drawn across Vt vs If at rated armature current
and constant speed, is called as ____________
a) Load characteristics
b) No-load characteristics
c) External characteristics
d) Armature characteristics
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Since we have I a value which is equal to rated i.e. non-zero, it
is indeed not a no-load characteristic. Axes given are V t and If, hence it is
not an armature characteristic. Thus, it’s called as load characteristic or
magnetization characteristic on load.
31) In an OCC at If =0, graph starts from origin.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: As the machine would have been previously subjected to
magnetization, a small residual voltage would be present with field
unexcited. As will be seen practically, this is necessary for generator to
self-excite. So, graph will start from just above the origin on Voc axis.
32) While conducting OCC, in order to avoid hysteresis loop, in which direction If
should be increased?
a) -ve direction
b) +ve direction
c) In any direction
d) In both direction there exists hysteresis loop
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: In conducting the OCC test, If must be raised gradually only
in the forward direction otherwise the curve would exhibit local hysteresis
loops. In OCC at If =0 there exists small residual voltage shown by non-
zero Voc.
33) Air gap line is drawn at iron _________
a) Saturated
b) Unsaturated
c) Moderately saturated
d) Variable saturation
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The extension of the liner portion of the magnetization curve,
is known as the air-gap line as it represents mainly the magnetic
behaviour of the machine’s air-gap, the iron being unsaturated in this
region consumes negligible ampere-turns; in any case the effect of iron is
also linear here.
34) If suppose OCC is conducted at speed n1, where n1< nrated, OCC will lie
____________
a) Above OCC at nrated
b) On OCC at nrated
c) Below OCC at nrated
d) Can’t comment by only speed information
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: For a less speed than the rated one, residual voltage
appearing at terminal call Voc will also be less than Voc at rated value, it
will vary in parallel manner but will never intersect OCC at rated speed.
35) Ea can be determined using __________
a) No-load characteristics
b) Load characteristics
c) Cannot be determined
d) Above OCC
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Under load conditions Ea cannot be determined from the
OCC for If in the saturation region because of the demagnetizing effect of
armature reaction. We must therefore determine experimentally the
equivalent demagnetizing ampere-turns ATd due to armature reaction
under actual load conditions.
36) If load characteristics are drawn on OCC itself, we get curve ________
a) Above OCC
b) On OCC
c) Below OCC
d) Intersecting OCC
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Since on load operation of a DC machine, we’ll get terminal
voltage less than the terminal voltage obtained in OCC, graph will start
from below OCC. On load, the effect of armature reaction will draw load
characteristics parallel to the OCC below it, causing no intersection.
37) Load characteristics drawn at Ra =0 and Ra not equal to 0, will lie _____
a) Above
b) On
c) Below
d) Intersecting
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Load characteristics with at Ra =0 will lie below the load
characteristics drawn at Ra not equal to 0. To the load characteristic we
add IaRa drop to get Ea induced emf with load. Thus, it will lie above.
UNIT 5: AC MOTORS
1) A three-phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with the stator
winding short-circuited. The frequency of the current flowing in the short-circuited
stator is ____________
a) Slip frequency
b) Supply frequency
d) Zero
View Answer
a. Answer: a
to slip frequency.
2) An 8-pole, 3-phase, 50 Hz induction motor is operating at a speed of 720 rpm.
The frequency of the rotor current of the motor in Hz is __________
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Nr÷Ns = 750 – 720÷750 = .04. F2=sf=.04×50=2 Hz.
3) Calculate the phase angle of the sinusoidal waveform z(t)=78sin(456πt+2π÷78).
a) π÷39
b) 2π÷5
c) π÷74
d) 2π÷4
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Sinusoidal waveform is generally expressed in the form of
V=Vmsin(ωt+α) where Vm represents peak value, ω represents angular
frequency, α represents a phase difference.
4) Calculate the moment of inertia of the disc having a mass of 54 kg and diameter
of 91 cm.
a) 5.512 kgm2
b) 5.589 kgm2
c) 5.487 kgm2
d) 5.018 kgm2
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of the disc can be calculated using the
formula I=mr2×.5. The mass of the disc and diameter is given.
I=(54)×.5×(.455)2=5.589 kgm2. It depends upon the orientation of the
rotational axis.
5) Calculate the moment of inertia of the thin spherical shell having a mass of 73 kg
and diameter of 36 cm.
a) 1.56 kgm2
b) 1.47 kgm2
c) 1.38 kgm2
d) 1.48 kgm2
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The moment of inertia of the thin spherical shell can be
calculated using the formula I=mr2×.66. The mass of the thin spherical
shell and diameter is given. I=(73)×.66×(.18)2=1.56 kgm2. It depends upon
the orientation of the rotational axis.
6) A 50 Hz, 4poles, a single phase induction motor is rotating in the clockwise
direction at a speed of 1425 rpm. The slip of motor in the direction of rotation &
opposite direction of the motor will be respectively.
a) 0.05, 0.95
b) 0.04, 1.96
c) 0.05, 1.95
d) 0.05, 0.02
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Synchronous speed, Ns=120×50÷4=1500 rpm. Given a
number of poles = 4. Supply frequency is 50 Hz. Rotor speed is 1425 rpm.
S=Ns-Nr÷Ns=1500-1425÷1500=.05. Sb=2-s=1.95.
7) The frame of an induction motor is made of _________
a) Aluminum
b) Silicon steel
c) Cast iron
d) Stainless steel
View Answer
a. Answer: c
stator and rotor.
8) The slope of the V-I curve is 5°. Calculate the value of resistance. Assume the
relationship between voltage and current is a straight line.
a) .3254 Ω
b) .3608 Ω
c) .3543 Ω
d) .3443 Ω
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The slope of the V-I curve is resistance. The slope given is 5°
so R=tan(5°)=.3443 ω. The slope of the I-V curve is reciprocal of
resistance.
9) In an induction motor, when the number of stator slots is equal to an integral
number of rotor slots _________
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: When the number of stator slots is an integral multiple of a
number of rotor slots the machine fails to start and this phenomenon is
called cogging.
10) A 3-phase induction motor runs at almost 1000 rpm at no load and 950 rpm at full
load when supplied with power from a 50 Hz, 3-phase supply. What is the
corresponding speed of the rotor field with respect to the rotor?
a) 30 revolution per minute
b) 40 revolution per minute
c) 60 revolution per minute
d) 50 revolution per minute
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: Supply frequency=50 Hz. No-load speed of motor = 1000
rpm. The full load speed of motor=950 rpm. Since the no-load speed of
the motor is almost 1000 rpm, hence synchronous speed near to 1000
rpm. Speed of rotor field=1000 rpm. Speed of rotor field with respect to
rotor = 1000-950 = 50 rpm.
11) Calculate the active power in a 487 H inductor.
a) 2482 W
b) 1545 W
c) 4565 W
d) 0 W
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The inductor is a linear element. It only absorbs reactive
power and stores it in the form of oscillating energy. The voltage and
current are 90° in phase in case of the inductor so the angle between V & I
is 90°. P = VIcos90 = 0 W.
12) Calculate the active power in a 788 ω resistor with 178 A current flowing through
it.
a) 24.96 MW
b) 24.44 MW
c) 24.12 MW
d) 26.18 MW
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The resistor is a linear element. It only absorbs real power
and dissipates it in the form of heat. The voltage and current are in the
same phase in case of the resistor so the angle between V & I is 90°.
P=I2R=178×178×788=24.96 MW.
1. How many steps are involved in the construction of single phase
induction motor?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
b. Answer: c
Explanation: There are 5 steps in the construction of the single phase
induction motor. They are stator, stator windings, rotor, starting switches,
electrolytic capacitor.
13) 2. What is the lamination used for the stator?
a) cast iron
b) die cast aluminium alloy frame
c) cast iron or die cast aluminium alloy frame
d) cast iron and die cast aluminium alloy frame
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: The stator is made up of a block of laminations. The block of
laminations are made up of cast iron or die cast aluminium alloy frame.
14) 3. What type of coils are used for winding the single phase induction motor
generally?
a) rectangular coils
b) square coils
c) cruciform coils
d) circular coils
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The slots house the starting and running windings. The single
phase induction motors are generally wound with concentric coils.
15) 4. How many kinds of single phase windings are present?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: There are basically 3 kinds of single phase windings. They
are concentric, progressive and skein.
16) 5. How are the poles and pitches in the concentric windings?
a) single pole, different pitches
b) different pole, different pitches
c) different pole, single pitch
d) single pole, single pitch
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The concentric windings have a single pole for a common
centre. They have different pitches for each individual coil.
17) 6. What is the form of the progressive windings?
a) double layer diamond coil windings
b) single layer diamond coil windings
c) multi layer diamond coil windings
d) three layer diamond coil windings
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The progressive windings is one kind of the stator windings.
They are in the form of the single layer diamond coil windings.
18) 7. When is the skein winding made use of?
a) when small amount of relatively small size wire is used
b) when large amount of relatively small size wire is used
c) when large amount of relatively large size wire is used
d) when small amount of relatively large size wire is used
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Skein winding is one of the 3 kinds of single phase windings
used. It is used when small amount of relatively small size wire is used.
19) 8. What kind of motor employs the skein winding made use of?
a) maximum horse power single phase induction motor
b) fractional horse power single phase induction motor
c) minimum horse power single phase induction motor
d) zero horse power single phase induction motor
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The skein winding is one of the 3 kinds of single phase
induction motor. The skein winding is used when fractional horse power
single phase induction motor is used.
20) 9. Which winding is mostly used winding in the single phase induction motor?
a) circular winding
b) concentric winding
c) progressive winding
d) skein winding
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: The concentric winding is the most widely used winding. It is
also the most flexible winding of the windings used in the single phase
induction motor.
21) 10. What is/are the advantages of the skein winding?
a) low cost to wind
b) low cost to insert
c) permits some freedom of choice of distribution
d) low cost to wind, low cost to insert, permits some freedom of choice of
distribution
View Answer
a. Answer: d
Explanation: The skein winding is the low cost to wind and to insert. It also
permits some freedom of choice of distribution.
22) 11. What material is used in the tunnel of the rotor of the single phase induction
motor?
a) aluminium
b) copper
c) steel
d) wood
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The rotor consists of a block of slotted laminations. The slots
form a series of tunnels that are filled with aluminium in its molten state.
23) What type of operations are used in the starting switches?
a) mechanical operation
b) electrical operation
c) centrifugal operation and mechanical operation
d) centrifugal operation
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: The starting switch is used to cut the auxillary winding when
the motor attains 75% of the full load speed. The switches operate in both
the centrifugal as well as mechanical operation.
24) The ac electrolytic capacitor is formed by winding two sheets of etched aluminium
foil.
a) true
b) false
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Modern capacitor start motors employ ac electrolytic
capacitors. The ac electrolytic capacitor is formed by winding two sheets
of etched aluminium foil, separated by two layers of insulating paper, into
a cylindrical shape.
25) The electrolytic capacitor and insulator unit is impregnated using ethylene glycol
or a derivative.
a) true
b) false
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The electrolytic capacitor and insulator unit is impregnated
using the ethylene glycol. It is also impregnated using the derivative of
ethylene glycol.
26) What is the range of the power factor of electrolytic capacitors?
a) 2-4
b) 4-6
c) 6-8
d) 7-9
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum power factor of the electrolytic capacitor is 6.
The maximum power factor of the electrolytic capacitor is 8.
1. Why starters are required in a DC motor?
a) Back emf of these motors is zero initially
b) These motors are not self-starting
c) These motors have high starting torque
d) To restrict armature current as there is no back emf at starting
View Answer
b. Answer: d
Explanation: At the time of starting (n=0), the induced emf of a motor is
zero such that current drawn by armature, from rated voltage supply would
be Ia= V/Ra. Since armature resistance is very low, armature current drawn
is very high and will damage the machine.
27) 2. For which motors DOL starter can be used?
a) Up to 5 H.P
b) Up to 10 H.P
c) Up to 15 H.P
d) Up to 20 H.P
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: DOL starters are limited to the small rating motors where
distribution system (mains supply) can withstand high starting currents
without excessive voltage dips. For a large rating motor, ranging from 5
HP to 25 HP, oil immersed DOL starters are used which provides
insulation against sparking on contact points, increases the life of starter.
28) 3. A three-point starter is used for _________
a) Shunt motors
b) Shunt as well as compound motors
c) Shunt, compound and series motors
d) Not for DC motors
View Answer
a. Answer: b
Explanation: 3-point starters are used only for shunt and compound
motors, they are not used for series motors. Three-point starter is
employed where motor field current can be varied in a narrow range and
so does the motor speed.
29) advertisement
30) 4. The starting resistance of a DC shunt motor is generally ______
a) low
b) Around 0.5 kΩ
c) Around 5 kΩ
d) Infinitely large
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: Starting resistance of a DC shunt motor and DC compound
motor is low. Well, that’s the reason why we use starters in a DC motors,
in order to limit the armature current flowing through the armature and to
protect machine circuitry.
31) 5. In a manual shunt motor starter relay positions are
________________________
a) Over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
b) Over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series with the load
c) Over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
d) Over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with the load
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: In simple manual shunt motor starter like 3-point starter over
load relay coil is kept in series with DC mains while no volt coil is kept in
parallel with DC mains. Both the coils are equally important in a motor
starter circuit.
32) 6. What will happen if DC motor is used without starter?
a) Heavy sparking at brushes
b) It’ll start smoothly
c) Will not start at all
d) Depends on load
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: It would cause intolerably heavy sparking at the brushes
which may destroy the commutator and brush-gear. Sudden development
of large torque will cause mechanical shock to the shaft, reducing its life.
Such heavy current cannot be generally permitted to be drawn from the
source of supply.
33) 7. Motor will start quickly when used without starter.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: The only thing in favour of direct starting must be mentioned
here. Since the torque of the motor with direct start is much higher, the
motor starts much more quickly. As a consequence, the Joule input per
start is much less than that with resistance start.
34) 8. In shunt and compound motor starting the shunt field should be made on with
full starting resistance in ____________
a) Series with field
b) Parallel with field
c) Series with armature
d) Parallel with armature
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: In shunt and compound motors starting the shunt field should
be switched on with full starting resistance in armature circuit. A short time
delay in this position allows the field current to build up to the steady value
of the inductive field transients.
35) 9. A starter is required for a 220-V shunt motor. The maximum allowable current
is 55 A and the minimum current is about 35 A. The armature resistance of the
motor is 0.4 Ω. What will be the number of sections of starter resistance
required?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: I1=55 A, I2 =35 A
So, γ= Ratio of upper limit to the lower limit = 55/35 = 1.57, R 1= 200/55= 4
Ω
Now, γn-1 = 4/0.4 = 10. By substituting γ value, we get n = 6.
36) 10. γ is given as 1.585. Resistance at maximum allowable current is given equal
to 4 Ω, what is the 5th step resistance?
a) 0.235
b) 0.370
c) 1.476
d) 2
View Answer
a. Answer: a
Explanation: γ is given as 1.585. So γ -1 is equal to 0.631. R1 is provided
and it is equal to 4 Ω.
r1= (1-0.631) * 4 = 1.476 Ω
r2= 1.476*0.631= 0.931 Ω, similarly calculating till r5= 0.235 Ω.
37) 11. Four-point starter is used when ______________
a) Motor field current is varied in narrow range
b) Motor speed is varied in small range
c) Motor field current is varied over wide range
d) Can be used anywhere
View Answer
a. Answer: c
Explanation: Three-point starter is employed where motor field current can
be varied in a narrow range and so does the motor speed while four-point
starter is used when motor field current can vary over a wide range and so
does the motor speed.
Our telegram channel - https://t.me/sppumcq
Electrical Circuits click here to join

MCQ’S

Answer: b
immediately.
a) i1=i2=i3=i4=i5
b) i1+i4+i3=i5+i2
c) i1-i5=i2-i3-i4
d) i1+i5=i2+i3+i4
Answer: d
a) Infinity
b) 1
c) 0
Answer: c
Prepared By
a) 4.275v
b) -4.275v
c) 4.527v
d) -4.527v
Answer: b
Explanation:
I1 = 3/3+5 = 3/8 = 0.375Ω

I2 = 4/5 = 0.8Ω
Vxy = vx – vy
Vx + 5I1 + 4 – 2I2 – vy = 0
Vx – vy = 2I2 – 4 – 5I1 = -4.275Ω
5. Find R
Prepared By
a) 17.5 Ω
b) 17.2 Ω
c) 17.4 Ω
d) 17.8 Ω
Answer: a
Explanation:
KVL: 70 – 5I – 7(I – 2) = 0
I = 7A
KVL to 2nd loop: 7(I – 2) – 2R = 0
R=17.5Ω
a) -3.3A, -8.5A, 2.4A

b) 3A, -8A, 2A
c) 3.3A, 8.5A, -2.4A
d) 3.2A, 8.6A, 2.3A
Answer: c
Explanation:
I1 = I1 – I2 + 8 + I3 + 3
Prepared By
I2 – I3 = 11 -> 1
And -11 I1 – 7(I1 – I2) = 0
-18 I1 + 7 I2 = 0 -> 2
And -11 I1 – 15 I3 =0 -> 3
Solving I1 = 3.32A I2 = 8.5A I3 = -2.4A.

a) Loops, Meshes
b) Meshes, loops
c) Branches, loops
d) Nodes, Branches
Answer: b
8. Solve for I.
Solve for I.
a) -0.5A
b) 0.5A
c) -0.2A
d) 0.2A
Answer: a

Req = 5 + 2 + 3 = 10Ω
I = V/R = -5/10 = -0.5A.

b) Newtons laws
Prepared By
d) Faradays laws
Answer: c
______________
a) Node
b) Branch
c) Loop
d) Mesh
Answer: a

Answer: d
analysis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: c
Prepared By
a) KCL
b) KVL
Answer: a
a) A node
b) A mesh
c) A branch
d) A super mesh
Answer: b
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) 3
b) 3.25
c) 3.5
d) 3.75
Answer: d
a) open circuited
b) short circuited
Answer: b
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Answer: b
Prepared By
is 2.22 + 2.78 = 5A.
and B.
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 9
d) 9.5
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
a) greater than
b) less than
c) equal to
Answer: c
and ac circuits.
a) equal to
b) negative of
Answer: c
Prepared By
a) 2A
b) 1A
c) 3A
d) 0.5A
Answer: c

a) loops
b) nodes
Answer: b
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S

Answer: d

a) 0A
b) 1A
c) 2A
d) 3A
Answer: c
response?
b) Decays with time
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) 0A
b) 10A
c) 20A
d) 30A
Answer: a
a) 0V
b) 20V
c) 60V
d) 58V
Answer: c
Prepared By
a) i=2(e-2t) A
b) i=2(1-e-2t)A
c) i=2(e2t)A
d) i=2(1+e-2t)A
Answer: b

60-30i-15di/dt =0
i=2(1-e-2t) A
a) V=60e-0.5t
b) V=30e-0.5t
c) V=60e-2t
d) V=30e-2t
Answer: c
Prepared By
60-30i-15di/dt = 0
i=2(1-e-2t)A
di/dt = 4e-2t
V=Ldi/dt=15*4e--2t=60e-2t.

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
Answer: a
circuit.
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Resistor
d) Capacitor
Answer: a
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
Answer: c

a) V/R
b) R/V
c) V
d) R
Answer: a
Prepared By
b) decays with time
c) rises with time
Answer: b

a) RC
b) R/C
c) R
d) C
Answer: a
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) L/R
b) R/L
c) R
d) L
Answer: a
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
Prepared By
Answer: a
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S

a) active ports
b) passive ports
c) one port
d) three port
Answer: b

a) three port
b) one port
c) passive ports
d) active ports
Answer: d
a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Answer: a
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Answer: c
Prepared By

a) V1 = Z11 V1 + Z12 I2
b) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 V2
c) V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
d) V2 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2
Answer: c

a) V2 = Z21I2 + Z22 I2
b) V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
c) V1 = Z21I2 + Z22 I2
d) V1 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
Answer: b
Z21, Z22 is V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2.
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 2.5
Answer: d
(6×2)/(6+2)=2.5Ω. So, Z11 = 2.5Ω.

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Prepared By
Answer: b
I1/4. And V2 = (I1/4) x 4 = I1. So, Z21 = 1Ω.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: c
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c

a) V1 and V2
b) I1 and I2
c) V1 and I2
d) I1 and V2
Answer: b
a) I1 and V2
b) V1 and I2
c) I1 and I2
d) V1 and V2
Answer: d
Prepared By
a) I1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
b) I1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
c) V1 = Y11 I1 + Y12 V2
d) V1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2
Answer: a
a) I2 = Y21I1 + Y22 I2
b) V2 = Y21I1 + Y22 V2
c) I2 = Y21V1 + Y22 V2
d) I2 = Y21V1 + Y22 I2
Answer: c

Answer: b
a) 2
b) 3/2
c) 1
d) 1/2
Answer: d
Prepared By
a) -1/4
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) -1/2
Answer: a
a) 3/8
b) 5/8
c) 7/8
d) 9/8
Answer: b
a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) -1/4
d) 1/4
Answer: c
We know
a) I1=0.5(V1) + 0.25(V2)
b) I1=0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2)
c) I1=-0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2)
d) I1=0.5(V1) - 0.25(V2)
Answer: d
I1=0.5(V1)-0.25(V2) and I2=-0.25(V1) + 0.625(V2).
Prepared By
a) 6/5
b) 5/6
c) 3/4
d) 4/3
Answer: a
get A = V1/V2=6/5.
a) 4/5
b) 3/5
c) 2/5
d) 1/5
Answer: d
a) 15/5
b) 17/5
c) 19/5
d) 21/5
Answer: b
a) 1/5
b) 3/5
c) 7/5
d) 9/5
Answer: c
Prepared By
Answer: a

Answer: c
gain.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
a) 1
b) -1
c) 1/2
d) -1/2
Answer: d
1/2.
Prepared By
a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) 1
d) -1
Answer: a
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1/2
d) 3/2
Answer: c
a) 15 Ω
b) 20 Ω
c) 30 Ω
d) 25 Ω
Answer: a
V1 = I1 ((10||10) + 10)
= I1 ((10×1010+10)+10)
= 15I1
Prepared By
∴ V1I1 = 15.
Hence h11 = 15 Ω.
a) 0.6 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.3 Ω
d) 0.2 Ω
Answer: b
-10 I2 – (I2 – I1)10 = 0
Or, -I2 = I2 – I1
Or, -2I2 = -I1
∴ I2I1=12
Hence h21 = 0.5 Ω.
a) 6 Ω
b) 5 Ω
c) 1 Ω
d) 2 Ω
Prepared By
Answer: c
V1 = IA × 10
IA = I22
V2 = IB × 10
IB = I22
∴ V1V2=I2×10I2×10 = 1
Hence h12 = 1 Ω.
a) 0.2 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.1 Ω
d) 0.3 Ω
Answer: a
V1 = IA × 10
IA = I22
V2 = IB × 10
IB = I22
∴ I2V2=I2×2I2×10 = 0.2
Hence h22 = 0.2 Ω.
Prepared By
a) 10 Ω
b) 7.5 Ω
c) 5 Ω
d) 2.5 Ω
Answer: b
V1 = I1 ((5 || 5) + 5)
= I1 ((5×55+5)+5)
= 7.5I1
∴ V1I1 = 7.5
Hence h11 = 7.5 Ω.
a) 10 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 5 Ω
d) 2.5 Ω
Answer: b
-5 I2 – (I2 – I1)5 = 0
Prepared By
Or, -I2 = I2 – I1
Or, -2I2 = -I1
∴ I2I1=12
Hence h21 = 0.5 Ω.
a) 6 Ω
b) 5 Ω
c) 1 Ω
d) 2 Ω
Answer: c
V1 = IA × 5
V2 = IA × 5
∴ V1V2=IA×10IA×10 = 1
Hence h12 = 1 Ω.
a) 0.2 Ω
b) 0.5 Ω
c) 0.1 Ω
d) 0.3 Ω
Prepared By
Answer: a
V1 = IA × 5
V2 = IA × 5
IA = I2
∴ I2V2=I2I2×5 = 0.2
Hence h22 = 0.2 Ω.

Answer: a

Answer: b

Answer: c

Prepared By
Answer: d
a) y11 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y11 = h21h11
c) y11 = –h12h11
d) y11 = 1h11
Answer: d
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
a) y12 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y12 = h21h11
c) y12 = –h12h11
d) y12 = 1h11
Answer: c
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
Prepared By
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
a) y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22)
b) y22 = h21h11
c) y22 = –h12h11
d) y22 = 1h11
Answer: a
I1 = y11 V1 + y12 V2 ……… (1)
I2 = y21 V1 + y22 V2 ………. (2)
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 ………. (3)
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2 ……….. (4)
I1 = V1h11–h12V2h11 ………. (5)
And I2 = h21V1h11+(−h21h12h11+h22)V2 ………. (6)
y11 = 1h11
y12 = –h12h11
y21 = h21h11
y22 = (−h21h12h11+h22).
Answer: a
and zeros.

a) G
Prepared By
b) H
c) I
d) J
Answer: b
bo.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: d

a) x
b) y
c) z
d) w
Answer: a
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) ∞
Answer: c
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
Prepared By
Answer: a
or ________ zeros.
a) simple, multiple
b) multiple, simple
c) simple, simple
Answer: c
________ zeros.
b) simple, simple
c) multiple, simple
d) simple, multiple
Answer: a
the s-plane.
a) n
b) m
c) n-m
d) n+m
Answer: c
a) m+n
b) m-n
c) m
d) n
Prepared By
Answer: b
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S

a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Absent
Answer: a

a) Iron
b) Carbon
c) Aluminum
d) Steel
Answer: b

b) Low coercivity
Answer: c
should be high.
Prepared By
a) Faraday’s law
b) Lenz’s law
c) Coulomb’s law
Answer: d

________________
a) Torque
b) Speed
Answer: a
a) All motors
b) Induction motor
d) DC motor
Answer: d

a) magnetic field
Prepared By
Answer: d

a) At low speeds
d) Cannot say
Answer: a
c) Air motor
Answer: d

Prepared By
d) Everywhere
Answer: b

a) DC shunt motors
Answer: d
characteristics.
a) Remain unchanged
d) Be doubled
Answer: a

a) Commutation
b) Heating
d) Stability
Prepared By
Answer: a
a)V = Eb + IaRa
b)Eb = V + IaRa
c) V = Eb /IaRa
d)V = Eb + Ia2Ra
Answer: A
a)Series motor
b)Shunt motor
d)All of the above
Answer:B
Answer:B

Prepared By
a)direction of flux

generated e.m.f.
Answer:C
a)hard copper
b)soft copper
c)carbon
d)all of above
Answer:C
Answer:B
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S
a) Slip frequency
b) Supply frequency
d) Zero
Answer: a
to slip frequency.

a) Aluminum
b) Silicon steel
c) Cast iron
d) Stainless steel
Prepared By
Answer: c

stator and rotor.

__________
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
Answer: a

Nr÷Ns = 750 – 720÷750 = .04. F2=sf=.04×50=2 Hz.

synchronous speed.
Prepared By
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

cutting.

a) Zero
b) Ns
c) 2Ns
d) -Ns
Answer: a


120𝑥𝑓
A𝑁𝑠 = .
𝑃
120𝑥𝑃
B.𝑁𝑠 =
𝑓
Prepared By
𝑃𝑥𝑓
C.𝑁𝑠 =
120
D.none of the above

Ans:A

A. steady
B. rotating
C. alternating
D. pulsating
Ans:B

D.none
Ans:C

A.rotor winding
B.stator winding
C.shaft
D.brush
Prepared By
Ans:B
A.slot insulator
B.Epoxy coating
C.1or 2
D.none
Ans:B
Ans:A
motor will increase
A.power factor
B.speed
Prepared By
D.air-gap flux
Ans:C

A.s2.f
B.f2.s
C.s/f
D.s.f
Ans:D

start
A.line voltage
B.line current
C.torque
D.power
Ans:B
Prepared By
Electrical Circuits
MCQ’S
a) Stator
b) Rotor
d) Absent
Answer: b
a) Less maintenance
b) Long life
Prepared By
d) Low cost
Answer: d
and many more.
a) PMDC
b) BLDC
c) Brushed DC motor
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) Commutator
b) Permanent magnet
d) Fixed armature
Answer: a
turning.
Prepared By
BLDC motor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
field.
a) Paramagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) Non-magnetic
Answer: b
Prepared By
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Analogue
d) Incremental
Answer: d
Prepared By
c) Sodium batteries
Answer: b
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
a.Plug-in Hybrid
b.Parallel Hybrid

Prepared By
d. Series Hybrid
Answer: c
Prepared By
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MOST IMPORTANT 770 MCQ
1. The ratio of voltage and electric current in a closed circuit
a. remains constant b. varies c. increases d. falls
Ans-c
2. The curve representing ohm's law is
a. sine function b. Linear c. a parabola d. a hyperbola
Ans-b
3. The resistance of a conductor having length l area of cross section a and resistivity ρ is given
as:
a. ρa/l b. ρl/a c. ρla d. l/ρ
Ans-b
4. The resistance of wire varies inversely as
a. area of cross section b. length c. resistivity d. temperature
Ans-a
5. Which of the following quantities are same in all parts of a series circuit?
a. voltage b. power c. current d. resistance
Ans-c
6. Which of the following statements is false in case of a series circuit?
a. the voltage drop across each resister is same
b. the current flowing through each resistor is the same
c. applied voltage is equal to the sum of voltage drops across individual resistors are additive
d.none
Ans-b

7. A resistance of 30 ohm is connected across 240v supply. If a resistance R ohm is connected in

parallel with 30ohm resistor across the same supply, the current drawn becomes triple of original
one The unknown resistor R is
Ans-a
8. Three resistors, each of R ohms, are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any
two terminals will be:
a. 2/3 R b. 3/2R c. R d. 3R
Ans-a
9. Which of the following is not correct?
a. P=V/R^2 b. P=VI c. I=√ (P/R) d. V=√PR
Ans-
10. A 100W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 100W bulb is replaced by a
40w bulb, the heater output will :
a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same
Ans-b
11. The voltage applied across an electric iron is halved. The power consumption of the iron will
be:
a. one-half b. one-fourth c. 1/√2times d. three-fourth
Ans-b
12. Resistance of 200w,250v lamp will be
a. 625ohm b. 1250ohm c.312.5ohm d.31.25ohm
Ans-c
13. Two heaters rated at 1000w, 250v each are connected in series across a 250v, 50Hz ac
supply. The total power drawn from the supply will be:
a. 1000w b. 500w c. 250w d.2000w

Ans-b
14. A 200w, 100v lamp is to be operated on 250v supply. The additional resistance required to be
connected in series will be:
Ans-c
15. Kirchoff's laws are valid for
a. linear ckt only b. passive time invariant ckt
c. non-linear ckt only d. both linear & non-linear ckt
Ans-d
16. KCL is applicable only to
a. electric circuits b. electronic circuits
c. junctions in a network d. closed loop in a network
Ans-c
17. KVL is concerned with
a. IR drop b. battery emf c. junction node d. both a and b
Ans-c
18. A wye arrangement of resistances has each resistance of 3ohm, the equivalent delta
arrangement will have each resistance of values.
a. 9ohm b. 6ohm c. 3ohm d. 1ohm
Ans-a
19. A battery is connected to a resistance causing a current of 0.5A in the circuit. The current
drops to 0.4 when an additional resistance of 5? is connected in series . The current will drop to
0.2A when the resistance is further increased by
a. 10 ohm b. 15ohm c. 25ohm d.5 ohm
Ans-c

20. Cells are connected in series in order to increase the
a. current capacity b. life of the cells c. voltage rating d. terminal voltage
Ans-c
21. Cells are connected in parallel in order to increase
a. life of the cells b. efficiency c. current capacity d. voltage rating
Ans-c
22. When two cells are connected in parallel , it should ensure that have
a. identical internal resistances b. equal emfs c. same ampere hour capacity
Ans-b
23.The capacity of a battery is expressed in

a. amperes b. amperes-hour c. watts d. watt-hour
Ans-b
24. A series resonant circuit implies
a. zero pf and maximum current b. unity pf and maximum current
c. unity pf and minimum current d. zero pf and minimum current
Ans-c
25. which one is classified as integrating instrument?
a. D'arsonval galvanometer b. ampere-hour meter c. ohm-meter d. ammeter
Ans-b
26. Which of the following types of instrument is an integrating instrument?
a. power factor meter b. energy meter c. watt meter d. frequency meter
Ans-b

27. Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so that
a. its range is high b. Its accuracy is high
c. it may draw current minimum possible d. its sensitivity is high
Ans-c
28. If a voltmeter is connected like a ammeter in series with a load
a. the measurement reading will be too high b. Almost no current will flow in the circuit
c. the meter will burn out d. an inadmissably high current will flow
Ans-b
29. A multirange instrument (ammeter or voltmeter) has
a. Multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter b. variable coil turns
c. multi -coil arrangement d. any of the above
Ans-a
30. The S.I. unit of power is

a. henry b. coulomb c. watt d. watt-hour
Ans-c
31. Electric pressure is also called
a. resistance b. power c. voltage d. energy
Ans-c
32 The substances whfch have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are
called
a. insulators b. inductors c. semi-conductors d. conductors
Ans-d
33. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
a. Cast iron b. Copper c. Carbon d. Tungsten
Ans-b
34. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?
a. Copper b. Gold c. Silver d. Paper
Ans-d

35. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called

a. resistance b. reluctance c. conductance d. inductance
Ans-cc
36 . Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) reluctance (d) capacitance
Ans-a
37. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
(a) length (b) area of cross-section (c) temperature (d) resistivity
Ans-b
38. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) Increases (b) decreases
Ans-a
39. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
(a) decreases (b) increases
Ans-a
40. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its
specific resistance is around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m (b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 10""8 Q-m (d) 1.8 x 10"8 Q-m
Ans-c
41. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms (b) 10 ohms (c) 15 ohms (d) 55 ohms
Ans-a
42. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
(a) voltmeter (b) rheostat (c) wattmeter (d) galvanometer
Ans-d
43. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage across the resistor is
(a) 33 V (b) 66 v (c) 80 V (d) 132 V
Ans-b
44. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance of the light
bulb is (a) 400 ohm (b) 600 ohm (c) 800 ohm (d) 1000 ohm
Ans-c

45. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of
one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other ?
Ans-b
46. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when
connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 ohm. If the same four wires are connected is series
the effective resistance will be
Ans-d
47. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and
12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A (b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A (c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A (d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans-b
48. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy (b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few micro second (d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans-c
49. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Manganin (b) Porcelain (c) Carbon (d) Copper
Ans-a
50. You have to replace 1500 ohm resistor in radio. You have no 1500 ohm resistor but have
several 1000 ohm ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel (b) two in parallel and one in series (c) three in parallel (d) three in series
Ans-b
51. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
(a) same current passes in turn through both (b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents (d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Ans-a
52. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents (b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive (d) Power are additive
Ans-d
53. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Copper (b) Aluminum (c) Carbon (d) Brass
Ans-c


(a) vacuum tubes (b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits (d) circuits with low current densities
Ans-a
55. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?
(a) Iron (b) Silver (c) Copper (d) Carbon
Ans-b
56. For which of the following 'ampere second' could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance (b) Charge (c) Power (d) Energy
Ans-b
57. All of the following are equivalent to watt except
(a) amperes square ohm (b) joules/sec. (c) amperes x volts (d) amperes/volt
Ans-d
58. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10W is likely to be a
(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor
Ans-c
59. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans-a
60. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(b) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Ans-b
61. Insulating materials have the function of
(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
(c) conducting very large currents
(d) storing very high currents
Ans-a

62. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Ans-d
63. The minimum charge on an ion is
(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom zero
Ans-b
64. In a series circuit with unequal resistances
(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Ans-c
65. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans-c
66. A 3 ohm resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of
(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 12 watts
Ans-d
67. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an voltmeter
Ans-
68. The resistance of a few metres of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
(a) practically zero(b) low(c) high (d) very high
Ans-a

69. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current

(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance (b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches (d) is zero in the highest resistive branch
Ans-c
70. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Ans-a
71. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns open
(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Ans-b
72. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of the
following statement is true ?
(a) The current through each bulb in same
(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
Ans-a
73. Two resistances Rl and R2 are connected in series across the voltage source where R2>R1.
The largest drop will be across
(a) R2
(b) R1
(c) either Rl or R2
(d) none of them
Ans-a
74. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with
potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans-d
75. A closed switch has a resistance of

(a) zero
(b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) infinity
Ans-a
76. The hot resistance of the bulb's filament is higher than its cold resistance because the
temperature co-efficient of the filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree
Ans-c
77. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans-d
78. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
(a) to prevent leakage of current (b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factor (d) none of above factors
Ans-c
79. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it
Ans-a
80. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit ?
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans-b
81. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100
W bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Ans-b
82. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes,
using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
Ans-a
83. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Ans-d
84. Resistance of a tungsten as applied voltage increases
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
Ans-b
85. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects
Ans-c
86. Resistance of a material always decreases if
(a) temperature of material is decreased
(6) temperature of material is increased
(c) number of free electrons available become more
Ans: c
87. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?
(a) Input power (b) Losses (c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed (e) Ratio of output to input
Ans: b
88. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due
to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Ans: a
89. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
90. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
91. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the
magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
92. It becomes more difficult to remove
(a) any electron from the
(6) first electron from the orbit
(c) second electron from the orbit
(d) third electron from the orbit
Ans: d
93. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
(a) reduce
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) become zero
Ans: c
94. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
95. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of the
following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will brighter (b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright (d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Ans: b
96. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
97. In the case of direct current
(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Ans: a
98. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This
suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
Ans: b
99. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
100. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
101. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
Ans: c
102. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching
operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
Ans: a
103. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) capacitance (d) impedance
Ans: b
104. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without
change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
(a) 1/9 times (b) 3 times (c) 9 times (d) unchanged
Ans: c
105. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a portion
of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
106. A field of force can exist only between
(a) two molecules
(b) two ions
(c) two atoms
(d) two metal particles
Ans: b
107. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called
(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
108. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a
109. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
110. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm's law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
111. 3 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two
corners
?
(a) 3/2 Q (b 6 Q (c) 4 Q (d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
(a) semi-conductors (b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors (d) high currents
Ans: a
113. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four
times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40
ohms the resistance of other conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
114. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 £2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at
200 V, the length of wire required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
115. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/°C
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
(d) mhos/°C
Ans: c
116. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans: d
117. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
118. The condition for the validity under Ohm's law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end
Ans: a
119. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor
and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity
of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator
Ans: a
120. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

(a) has lower wantage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tappings
Ans: b
121. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical
cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is
(a) 50%
(b) 60% (c) 100% (d) 150%
Ans: a
122. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero
Ans: b
123. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much
greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors
Ans: c
124. All good conductors have high
(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
Ans: a
125. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(a) charcoal (b) copper
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite
Ans: c
126. Voltage dependent resistors are used
(a) for inductive circuits
(6) to supress surges
(c) as heating elements
(d) as current stabilizers
Ans: b
127. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
(a) 1840 (b) 1840 (c) 30 (d) 4
Ans: a
128. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
129. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power
supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
130. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
131. If, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule's law
heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
132. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver
Ans: c
133. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one microampere current to flow
through it.The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
Ans: a
134. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ?

(a) Compounds of silver
(6) Liquid metals
(c) Metallic alloys
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
135. Conductance : mho ::
(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Ans: a
136. 1 angstrom is equal to
(a) 10-8 mm (6) 10"6 cm (c) 10"10 m (d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
137. One newton metre is same as
(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second
Ans: b
138. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled, the
force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Ans: b
139. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the
distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C
(b) 600 N/C
(c) 800 N/C
(d) 1200 N/C
Ans: c
140. The lines of force due to charged particles are
(a) always straight(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved(d) none of the above
Ans: b
141. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is
(a) proportional to d
(b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d
Ans: b
142. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .
(a) away from the charge (b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
Ans: a
143. A field line and an equipotential surface are
(a) always parallel(b) always at 90°
(c) inclined at any angle 0(d) none of the above
Ans: b
144. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the existence of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) electric field
Ans: d
145. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the of an , the capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Ans: b
146. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is
(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.8 F
Ans: a
147. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Ans: b
148. The units of capacitance are
(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/Wb
Ans: b
149. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: a
150. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net cararitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: b
151. A dielectric material must be
(a) resistor
(b) insulator
(c) good conductor
(d) semi conductor
Ans: b
152. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
(a) D.C. only

(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.
Ans: a
153. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by
(a) distance between plates
(6) area of plates
(c) thickness of plates
Ans: c
154. Which of the following is not a vector ?
(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Electric field
(d) Electric potential
Ans: b
155. Two plates of a parallel capacitor after being charged from a constant voltage source are
separated apart by means of insulated handles, then the
(a) Voltage across the plates
(b) voltage across the plates decreases
(c) charge on the capacitor decreases
(d) charge on the capacitor increases
Ans: b
156. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit
because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Ans: a
157. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times greater
than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ?
(a) 50 (b) 100
(c) 150 (d) 200
Ans: b
(a) Air capacitors have a blackband to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
(c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity

(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF
Ans: b
159. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of
(a) 0.0002
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.02
(d) 0.2
Ans: a
160. "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
amount oflcharge enclosed".The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb's square law
(b) Gauss's law
(c) Maxwell's first law
(d) Maxwell's second law
Ans: b
161. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be
obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Ans: c
162. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains
unaffected ?
(a) Distance between plates
(b) Area of the plates
(c) Nature of dielectric
(d) Thickness of the plates
Ans: d
163. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
Ans: b
164. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
(c) E = jtD
(d) E= nD2
Ans: a
165. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
Ans: b
166. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil
Ans: c
167. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(c) Silver plated mica capacitor
Ans: c
(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Ans: b
169. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
170. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
Ans: a
171. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) zero
Ans: c
172. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Ans: a
173. In a capacitive circuit
(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
Ans: b
174. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference
between plates will
(a) remain uncharged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) become zero
Ans: b
175. Capacitance increases with
(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Ans: a
176. A capacitor consists of
(a) two insulators separated by a conductor
(b) two conductors separated by an insulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors only
Ans: b
177. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of

(a) tubes
(b) rolled foil
(c) disc
(d) meshed plates
Ans: b
178. Air capacitors are generally available in the range
(a) 10 to 400 pF
(b) 1 to 20 pF
(c) 100 to 900 pF
(d) 20 to 100 pF
Ans: a

(a) henry
(b) ohm
(c) farad
(d) farad/m
Ans: c
180. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF
Ans: b
181. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections,
which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(d) Any-of the above
Ans: c
182. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of
voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Ans: a
183. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by (a) 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m)
(6) 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m)
(c) 8.854 x KT11 F/m (d) 8.854 x 10"12 F/m
Ans: b
184. The relative permittivity of free space is given by
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100 (d) 1000
Ans: a
185. Electric field intensity is a quantity
(a) scalar
(b) vector
Ans: b
186. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Ans: d
187. The capacitor preferred for high circuits is
(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
Ans: b
188. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts
Ans: c
189. While testing a capacitor with ohm-metre, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final
resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Ans: d
190. If a 6 mF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will be
(a) 800 uC
(b) 900 uC
(c) 1200 uC
(d) 1600 uC
Ans: c
191. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Both will be of equal size
Ans: a
192. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser to
make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF
Ans: b
193. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions. Which
will have more value of capacitance ?
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied voltage
Ans: a
194. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper
Ans: b
195. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
196. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually

(a) 20 to 60 volts
(b) 200 to 1600 volts
(c) 2000 to 3000 volts
(d) more than 10000 volts
Ans:b
197. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 3 to 8
(d) 1 to 2
Ans: c
198. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Ans: b
199. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity ?

(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
200. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ?
(a) Air capacitor
(c) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage breakdown
rating for a capacitor .
(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the capacitance
value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the
combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two conductors
Ans: b
202. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of
(a) ± 5% (b) ± 10% (c) ± 15% (d) ± 20%
Ans: b
203. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic disc capacitor
Ans: b
204. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a distance
of
0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
205. The units of volume charge density are
(a) Coulomb/metre
(b) Coulomb/metre
(c) Coulomb/metre
(d) Coulomb/metre
Ans: c
206. "The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any
closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface".
(a) Gauss's law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) 's law
(d) Lenz's law
Ans: a
207. Dielectric strength of mica is
(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
(c) 50 to 200 kV/mm
(d) 300 to 500 kV/mm
Ans: c
208. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by (a) 0.1 to 0.4
(b) 0.5 to 1.0(c) 2.0 to 4.0 (d) 5 to 100
Ans: d
209 capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: b
210. capacitors can be used only for D.C.
(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
211. capacitors are used in transistor circuits.
(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: a
212. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceramic
Ans: b
213. The inverse of capacitance is called
(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastance
Ans: d
214. When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is
(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) zero
Ans: a
215. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the material of
high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
Ans: b
216. field is associated with the capacitor.
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: a
217. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged to a potential difference of 10,000 V. The
energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 50 joules
(b) 150 joules
(c) 200 joules
(d) 250 joules
Ans: d
218. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the internal
diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
Ans: b
219. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential
difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
(d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
Ans: d
220. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as
(a) current
(b) voltage
(d) charge
Ans: d
221. The relative permittivity has the following units
(a) F/m
(b) m/F
(c) Wb/m
(d) no units
Ans: c
222. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a charged
body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Ans: d
223. A unit tube of flux is known as tube
(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
Ans: b
224. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge density
Ans: a
225. The unit of electric intensity is
(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2/C
Ans:c
226. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
(a) Faraday's laws
(b) Kirchhoff s laws
(c) Coulomb's laws
Ans: c
227. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit cross
section at that point.
(6) Magnetic flux density
(c) Electric flux
Ans: a
228. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point.
(a) electric flux
(b) magnetic flux density
Ans: c
229. Electric displacement is a quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both of the above
Ans: b
230. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.
(6) Electric flux
(c) Magnetic flux
(d) Magnetic flux density
Ans: a
231. The unit of dielectric strength is given by
(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/V2
Ans: a
232. Dielectric strength with increasing thickness
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered
Ans: b
233. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its
(a) capacitance
(b) charge
(c) energy
Ans: a
234. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Potential gradient
Ans: b
235. A capacitance of 100 pF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 ohm. The time
constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s
Ans: d
236. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the
(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulator
Ans: b
237. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging
voltage actually rises to _ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 63.2, initial
(c) 63.2, final
(d) 37, final
Ans: c
238. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the
charging current falls to percent of its initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 73
Ans: a
239. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by

(a) plate area
(b) plate separation
(c) nature of dielectric
Ans:e
240. A capacitor consists of two
(a) ceramic plates and one mica disc
(b) insulators separated by a dielectric
(c) silver-coated insulators
(d) conductors separated by an insulator
Ans: d
241. Permittivity is expressed in
(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/metre
(c) Weber/metre
(d) Weber/sq-m
Ans: b
242. Dielectric strength of a material depends on
(a) moisture content
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
Ans: d
243. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is
applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Ans: c
244. Which medium has the least dielectric strength ?
(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Quartz
(c) Glass
(d) Air
Ans: d
245. 1 volt/metre is same as
(a) 1 metre/coulomb(6) 1 newton metre(c) 1 newton/metre(d) 1 joule/coulomb
Ans: c
246. One volt is the same as
(a) one joule/coulomb
(b) one coulomb/joule
(c) one coulomb
(d) one joule
Ans: a
247. The capacitance between two plates increases with
(a) shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
(6) shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
(c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher,applied voltage
(d) larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
Ans: d
248. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging
circuit is given by
(a) CIR
(b) 1/RC
(c) RC
(d) RIC
Ans: c
249. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien's bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay's bridge
Ans: c
250. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactory
Ans: b
251. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest
dimensions ?
(a) Aluminium foil capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor

(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: c
252. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then
(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the charging
body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
(d) it remains as such
Ans: b
253. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the
(a) charge of the charged conductor
(6) capacity of the charged conductor
(c) potential of the charged conductor
Ans: b
254. Paper condenser is
(a) always polarised
(6) usually of fixed value
(c) electrolytic condenser
(d) a variable condenser
Ans: b
255. Mica capacitors are characterised by all of thte following except
(a) stable operation
(b) accurate value
(c) low leakage reactance
(d) low losses
Ans: c
256. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4 mm apart. The
strength of electric field is
(a) 100 kV/m
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
(d) 2 kV/m
Ans: a
257. For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading should
(a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance
(6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
(c) go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there
(d) not move at all
Ans: a
258. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is
(a) infinity
(b) few kilo ohms
(c) few megaahms
(d) zero
Ans: d
(a) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 \iF
(b) Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(c) Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
(d) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
Ans: c
260. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor (b) Electrolytic capacitor (c) Mica capacitor (d) none of the above
Ans: c
261. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide
(a) low capacitance
(b) fixed capacitance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) large value of capacitance
Ans: d
262. In order to remove static electricity from machinery
(a) construct insulated cabins
(b) insulate the machinery
(c) ground the framework
(d) humidify the surroundings
Ans: c
263. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges, then
this third charge will
(a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges
(b) remain in stable equilibrium
(c) not be in equilibrium
(d) be in unstable equilibrium
Ans: b
264. A region around a stationary electric charge has
(a) an electric field
(b) a magnetic field
Ans: a
265. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
(a) insulation
(b) conductor
(c) outer sheath
(d) uniformly all over
Ans: a
266. Dielectric strength of medium
(a) increases with rise in temperature
(b) increases with moisture content
(c) is same for all insulating materials
Ans: d
267. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a force
of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulomb
Ans: b
268. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in
(a) J/mm (b) C/m2 (c) kV/mm (d) N/mm
Ans: c
269. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close
together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be
(a) 5 times smaller than before
(b) 5 times greater than before
(c) 10 times greater than before
(d) 25 times larger than before
Ans: d
270. Which is the most superior dielectric out of the following ?

(a) Air
(b) Glass
(c) Bakelite
(d) Paper
Ans: c
271. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) reduces to zero

(d) remain unchanged
Ans: a
272. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather
(a) surface is moistened
(b) conductive dressing is done
(c) oil compound dressing is done
(d) talcum powder is sprayed on the surface
Ans: b
273. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(d) Ceramic capacitor
Ans: c
274. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: a
275. A condenser suitable for D.C. only is
(a) metallic plate variable gang condenser
(b) metallic paper capacitor
(c) oil impregrated paper condenser
(d) poled aluminium electrolytic condenser
Ans: d
276. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates (b) dielectric
(c) dielectric as well as metal plates (d) none of the above
Ans: b
277. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to
(a) increase m.m.f.
(b) increase the flux
(c) prevent saturation
Ans: c
278. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is

(a) less than one
(b) more than one
(c) more than 10
(d) more than 100 or 1000
Ans: d
279. The unit of magnetic flux is
(a) henry
(b) weber
(c) ampereturn/weber
(d) ampere/metre
Ans: b
280. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to in an electric circuit.
(a) resistance
(b) resistivity
(c) conductivity
(d) conductance
Ans: c
281. Point out the wrong statement.
Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it
(a) lowers their power efficiency
(b) increases their cost of
(c) leads to their increased weight
(d) produces fringing
Ans: a
(a) 1
(b) 1 H/m
(c) 1/4JI
(d) 4n x 10-' H/m
Ans: a
283. Permanent magnets are normally made of
(a) alnico alloys
(b) aluminium
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought iron
Ans: a
284. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by percent.
(a) 25(b) 50 (c)41.4 (d) 100
Ans: c
285. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which
have permeability and hystersis loss.
(a) high, high
(b) low, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: c
286. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum
(a) at 63.2% of its maximum steady value
(b) at the start of the current flow
(c) after one time constant
(d) near the final maximum value of current
Ans: b
287. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
(a) time constant remains unchanged
(b) initial rate of rise of current is doubled
(c) final steady current is doubled
(d) time constant is halved
Ans: a
288. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly
connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is Vs
(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 0.05 (d) 500
Ans: b
289. A material for good magnetic memory
(a) low hysteresis loss
(b) high permeability
(c) low retentivity
(d) high retentivity
Ans: d
290. Conductivity is analogous to
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) permeability
(d) inductance
Ans: c
291. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to

(a) rapid reversals of its magnetization (b) flux density lagging behind magnetising force
(c) molecular friction (d) it high retentivity
Ans: d
292. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have retentivity and
coercivity.
(a) low, high
(b) high, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: b
293. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is , the hysteresis loss in this material will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) large
Ans: c
294. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because
(a) it has good residual magnetism
(b) its hysteresis loop has large area
(c) its mechanical strength is high
(d) its mechanical strength is low
Ans: a
295. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has
(a) low co-ercivity
(b) low retentivity
(c) low hysteresis loss
(d) high co-ercivity
Ans: c
296. Conductance is analogous to
(a) permeance
(b) reluctance
(c) flux
(d) inductance
Ans: a
297. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
(a) reluctivity
(b) magnetomotive force
(c) permeance
(d) reluctance
Ans: d
298. The unit of retentivity is
(a) weber
(b) weber/sq. m
(c) ampere turn/metre
(d) ampere turn
Ans: b
299. Reciprocal of reluctance is
(a) reluctivity
(b) permeance
(c) permeability
(d) susceptibility
Ans: b
300. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared
with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
(a) E.m.f.
(b) Current
(c) Current density
(d) Conductivity
Ans: b
301. The unit of reluctance is
(a) metre/henry
(b) henry/metre
(c) henry
(d) 1/henry
Ans: d
302. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
(a) ferrites have high resistance
(b) ferrites are magnetic
(c) ferrites have low permeability
(d) ferrites have high hysteresis
Ans: d
303. Hysteresis loss least depends on
(a) volume of material (b) frequency
(c) steinmetz co-efficient of material(d) ambient temperature
Ans: d
304. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce
(a) copper loss
(b) eddy current loss
(c) hysteresis loss
Ans: b
305. "The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of
electricity".The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton's law
(b) Faraday's law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday's law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss's law
Ans: c
306. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as
constant
(a) time (b) Faraday's (c) Boltzman
Ans: b
307. During the charging of a lead-acid cell
(a) its voltage
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
308. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its
(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
309. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
310. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery
are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
Ans: c
310. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its positive plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
(c) dark brown

(d) none of above
Ans: c
311. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are
(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH (d) all of the above
Ans: d
312. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
313. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Ans: c
314. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
Ans: c
315. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Ans: b
316. Cells are connected in series in order to
(a) increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
Ans: a
317. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel.The output voltage is

(a) 1 V (6) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
318. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
Ans: c
319. Duringthe charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell
(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
320. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead
acid cell has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(d) avoiding excessive gassing Ans: c
321. A dead storage battery can be revived by
(a) adding
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Ans: d
322. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance
Ans: d
323. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Ans: d
324. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence
produce electricity during
charging or discharging are known as materials.
(a) passive (b) active (c) redundant (d) inert
Ans: b
325. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
326. It is noticed that durmg charging
(a) there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic
lead (Pb)
Ans: e
327. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen
(a) both anode and cathode become PbS04
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy
Ans: d
328. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
329. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between

(a) 25 to 35%
(b) 40 to 60%
(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: c
330. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in
(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours
Ans: b
331. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on
(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e
332. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _ appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
333. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
334. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly times that of the lead- acid cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
335. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
336. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: d
337. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is
(a) silver oxide
(b) lead oxide (c) lead (d) zinc powder
Ans: a
338. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500 (b) 700 (c) 1000 (d) 1250
Ans: d
339. Life of the Edison cell is at least
(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
340. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
Ans: a
341. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
342. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Ans: d
343. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of
(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
Ans: c
344. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
(a) its chemical constituents
(b) on the strength of its electrolyte
(c) its temperature (d) all above
Ans: d
345. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
346. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to
1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(d) active state
Ans: b
347. In system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or
minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
348. Over charging
(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Ans: d
349. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Ans: a
350. Internal short circuits are caused by
(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell

Ans: c
351. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) none of the above
Ans: a
352. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens
because of
(a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
(b) topping up with electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging
(d) low level of electrolyte
(e) all above
Ans: e
353. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are
called materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
354. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as
(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
Ans: b
355. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond
(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: a
356. On overcharging a battery
(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
Ans: d
357. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Ans: d
358. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Ans: d
359. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: a
360. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of
(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Ans: d
361. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: b
362. Battery charging equipment is generally installed
(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
Ans: d
363. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Ans: d
364. Batteries are charged by
(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans: d
365. Cell short circuit results in

(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above
Ans: d
366. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by
(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
367. Capacity of dry cells is
(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
Ans: a
368. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of
(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) all above
Ans: d
369. Sulphated cells are indicated by
(a) the loss of capacity of the cell
(6) the decrease of the specific gravity
(c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge

(d) all above conditions
Ans: d
370. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following
ratio of acid towater to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
371. Local action in a battery is indicated by
(a) excessive gassing under load conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit
Ans: d
372. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
Ans: d
373. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
374. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Ans: d
375. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
Ans: a
376. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
377. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.
(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
Ans: a
378. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear
(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices
Ans: d
379. Excessive charging a battery tends to
(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
(d) bring about all above changes
Ans: d
380. Shelf life of a small dry cell is
(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
Ans: b
381. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of
(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
Ans: a
382. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be the level of plates

(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
Ans: c
383. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
384. of electrolytelndicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
385. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Ans: d
386. Dry cell is modification of
(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Lead-acid cell
(d) Edison cell
Ans: b
387. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in
(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
Ans: a
388. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is
(a) dilute sulphuric acid
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
389. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is Edison cell.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than
Ans: b
390. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
391. The body of Edison cell is made of
(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
392. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.95
(c) 1.1 (d) 1.21
Ans: d
393. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
394. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of volts from fully charged state to fully discharged
state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Ans: c
395. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to change the active material
of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
396. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces heat.
(a) no
(b) very little
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
397. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
398. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of volts.
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
399. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon
(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors
Ans: d
400. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?
(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
(6) High power to weight ratio
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity
Ans: d
401. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in
(a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
(b) warping of plates
(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
402. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused
(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
403. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container.
This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
(c) to discharge both of the above functions
(d) to discharge none of the above functions
Ans: c
404. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different meta's should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each
other
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
(d) All above three conditions are necessary
Ans: d
405. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
406. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
407. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery
(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Ans: b
408. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?
(a) Lead-acid battery
(b) Nickel-iron battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery
Ans: b
409. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?
(a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide
Ans: a
410. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Ans: c
411. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V
(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
Ans: c
412. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be
(a) 10% of capacity
(b) 20% of capacity
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
413. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capa-city
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Ans: a
414. A typical output of a solar cell is
(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
415. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Ans: d
416. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be
maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance
Ans: c
417. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is
(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
418. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of
(a) charged ions
(b) chemical energy
(c) electrostatic energy
(d) electromagnetic energy
Ans: b
419. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an ? (a)
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
Ans: b
420. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
Ans: d
421. Cells are connected in parallel to

(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance
Ans: b
422. A constant-voltage generator has
(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance
Ans: c
423. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through the
coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
424. As per Farada y's laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is induced in a conductor
whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Ans: c
425. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Ans: a
426. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase
(c) when more area for each turn is provided
(d) when permeability of the core
Ans: a
427. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,
(a) lesser its weber-turns
(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
(c) greater the flux produced by it

(d) longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
Ans: d
428. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The
inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Ans: b
429. An open coil has
(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and high inductance
Ans: b
430. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Ans: b
431. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage
Ans: c
432. The direction of incViced e.m.f. can be found by
(a) Laplace's law
(b) Lenz's law
(c) Fleming's right hand rule
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law
Ans: b
433. Air-core coils are practically free from
(a) hysteresis losses
Ans: c
434. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the
(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
(d) rate of change of flux-linkages
Ans: d
435. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils depends on

(a) permeability of the core
(b) the number of their turns
(c) cross-sectional area of their com-mon core
Ans: d
436. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertf-cally
Ans: b
437. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is due
to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Ans: b
438. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?
(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
Ans: b
439. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to
(a) voltage across the inductance
(b) magnetic field
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
440. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
Ans: b
441. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?
(a) Apparent power is zero
(b) Relative power is.zero
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
Ans: c
442. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?

(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(c) Ampere turns
(d) Webers/metre
Ans: b
443. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current
must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Ans: d
444. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core length
is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the in ductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH (d)48mH
Ans: a
445. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is
0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12 mH
Ans: c
446. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If the
two coils are connected in series aiding, the total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: b
447. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increased to 400
turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: d
448. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If the
two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Ans: c
449. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling
will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Ans: b
450. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms
Ans: d
451. A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 tesla
with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V
Ans: c
452. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) induced current
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) induced e.m.f.
Ans: c
453. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The
force on the conductor will be
nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Ans: b
454. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right
angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Ans: a
455. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
Ans: c
456. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in flux
which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02 Wb
Ans: d
457. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time interval
must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Ans: c
458. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core
Ans: a
459. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of
inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Ans: b
460. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Ans: b
461. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in a coil.

The value of inductance is
(a) 5 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H
(d) 10 H
Ans: c
462. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and capacitance
Ans: b
463. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in
(a) unchanged inductance
(b) increased inductance
(c) zero inductance

(d) reduced inductance
Ans: d
464. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is
not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
(d) the resistance of magnetic path
Ans: b
465. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:a
466. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
467. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
468. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
469 When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines of flux, the
force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
470. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts when
the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
471. Laminations of core are generally made of

(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
472. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of lamina-tions of a D.C.
machine?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
(a) reduce the bulk
Ans: d
Ans: d
475. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
(a) copper lugs
(c) insulation pads
Ans: a
477. In a commutator

Ans: c
(a) rivets
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
479. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(b) lines of force
Ans: b
480. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates
Ans: b
481. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb
points towards
Ans: d
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(d) needle bearing
Ans: a
483. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
(a) severe sparking
Ans: d
(d) two
Ans: b
485. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is
fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
488. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage con-trol
(b) is more stable
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
Ans: b
(a) commutator
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
493. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then
induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv (b)Blv2 (c)Bl2v (d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
494. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils,
the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c

Ans: c
498. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic neutral
axis, there will be
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
500. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
(d) all above
Ans: d
(d) all above
Ans: c
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the
voltage
(d) all above
Ans: d
(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound

(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
Ans: a

(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt generators
Ans: d
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
(a) electromagnets
Ans: a
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
Ans: c
515. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing direct
current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b

(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
518. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature while
generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
(b) Carbon brushes
Ans: c
520. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains , if
the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(d) E
Ans: b
(a) size of air gap
(c) clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
Ans:d
(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is
connected
Ans: c
(a) to increasethe generated voltage
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
Ans: d
Ans: c
528. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any magnetism in the
poles
(b) shunt generator
(d) self-excited generator
Ans: d
Ans: c

(b) shunt generator
(d) any of'the above
Ans: c
531. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
Ans: d
(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) flux/pole
(c) number of poles
Ans: b
535. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral axis,
when
Ans: a
536. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the coil
is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
Ans: b
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
538. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed
increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans:
Ans: b
Ans: b
543. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is
0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
545. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as to
bring them
Ans: a
Ans: a

Ans: b
548. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C. machine
Ans: a
(a) Insulation failure between two com-mutator bars
Ans: d
Ans: e
(b) number of poles
Ans: a
(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(d) power pump
Ans: c
553. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f. induced
is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: a
556. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: b
(b) shunt generator
Ans: b
Ans: c
559. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on
no-load ?
(b) Shunt generator
Ans: a
560. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
Ans: d
(a) almost zero
(b) less than noload terminal voltage
(c) more than noload terminal voltage
Ans: c
(a) negligibly low
Ans: b
563. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the following
reasons except
(d) commutation
Ans: d

(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic - armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic - ohmic drop - armature reaction
Ans: c
565. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature
voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) willbeof5xiVHz
Ans: b
566. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit voltage
will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) zero
(b) small
(d) high
Ans: a
(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the centre of all poles
(d) magnetising the centre of all poles
Ans: a
570. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would produce
high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation
failure.
(a) Series field
(d) Shunt field
Ans: d
Ans: c

(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
573. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
Ans: c
Ans: c
575. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel
Ans: a
576. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for which of
the following reasons ?
(d) That generator takes large share of loads Ans: d
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
Ans: c
Ans: b
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resis-tance in the field circuit
Ans: a
580. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the load
current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
Ans: c
581. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
Ans: c
582. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance
of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their
e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V (b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V (d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
583. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have '
(a) same kW rating
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
Ans: c
584. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: d

(a) 100% regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
586. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
Ans: c
Ans: c
588. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator having duplex lap
winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
589. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(d) poles
Ans: c
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
591. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
Ans: c
593. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over compounded
generators is
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
Ans: a
594. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run, the
first is to
(c) increase the speed of primemover
Ans: a
595.No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
Ans: b

(a) Lathe machine
(c) Locomotive
(d) blower
Ans: c
598. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: b
(c) variable speed
Ans: b
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
Ans: d
602. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
Ans: a

Ans: c
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is initially
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) it the speed of the motor
Ans: b
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
Ans: d
609. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
(b) not run
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by eddy currents
Ans: d
610. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy is
used.
Ans: a
611. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
612. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
Ans: a
Ans: a
(a) iip to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
Ans: c
616. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
Ans: d
617. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the armature
will be
Ans: d
(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
619. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is
D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator Ans: c
620. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) shunt motors

(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
623. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the efficiency
of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
Ans: b
625. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
Ans: c
626. Which of the following /rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C.
motor
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
627. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
Ans: b
(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
Ans: a
Ans: d
630. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor
will be equal to
Ans: c
631. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
Ans: a
(c) the gross power
Ans: d
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
Ans: d
634. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: c
635. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to th£ motor
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
(d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
Ans: d
637. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
Ans: c
638. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
Ans: c
639. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in
Ans: d
640. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
Ans: c
641. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
Ans: c
642. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(c) To spread out flux for better unifor-mity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the mag-netic path
Ans: a
643. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio of back
e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
644. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is
(b) back e.m.f. =1 /2x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = 1/2 x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
645. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
Ans: c
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
Ans: a
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor


Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: b
651. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor,
compound motor will have to be
Ans: c
652. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is
required.
(b) Induction motor
(d) D.C. motor
Ans: d

(d) the motor will not work and come to stop Ans: a
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
Ans: b
655. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make use of
(c) induction motor
Ans: a
(a) reduce slightly
Ans: a
(a) field flux only
Ans: b
658. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
efficiency ?
Ans: c
(b) elevators
Ans: d

660. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
Ans: a
662. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a heavy
current from flowing though the armature circuit
Ans: a
Ans: b
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
665. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed by
the motor will
(b) reduce to one-fourth value
(d) be doubled
Ans: a

666. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
Ans: b
(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
Ans: d
668. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(c) Stability
Ans: a
Ans: b
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
Ans: c


Ans: c
673. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(d) is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next higher H.P.
motor
Ans: d
674. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer following
kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
Ans: b
675. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
(c) Universal motor
Ans: d
676. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to square of
armature current
Ans: d
678. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators ?


Ans: c
679. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling and many kinds of timers ?
(c) Induction motor
Ans: d
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
Ans: a
(a) Field control
Ans: b
Ans: a

Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: d
687. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
Ans: c
688. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have
highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
Ans: c
689. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load current ?
(b) Windage loss
Ans: c
(a) magnetic field

Ans: f
(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
(a) over load is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
Ans: a
693. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C.
generator ?
Ans: d
694. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
Ans: d
695. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a D.C.
generator ?
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
696. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b


Ans: d
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
Ans: a
(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
(a) stray losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
702. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors of
large capacity ?
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
703. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is conducted at
(a) no-load
(b) part load

(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
Ans: d
(a) Plugging
Ans: a
Ans: b
(c) back e.m.f.
Ans: c
709. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing and
speed control

Ans: a
710. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
Ans: a
711. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time and
some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: a
712. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle and peak
value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: c
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
Ans: a
(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
715. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is possible
by


Ans: a
716. One D.C. motor another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and driven
Ans: a
717. The insulating material for a
(a) low cost (b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength (d) all of the above
Ans: d
718. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury ?
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
Ans: c
719. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?
(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
Ans: d
720. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: a
721. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
722. The bedding on a cable consists of
(a) hessian (b)
Ans: c

723. The insulating material for cables should

(a) be acid proof (b) be non-inflammable
(c) be non-hygroscopic (d) have all above properties
Ans: d
724. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath is provided.
(a) earthing connection (b) bedding
(c) armouring (d) none of the above
Ans: b
725. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Ans: c
726. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
727. cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage
Ans: d
728. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect cables.
(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables
Ans: a
729. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at
(a) armour
(b) bedding
(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath

Ans: d
730. In single core cables armouring is not done to
(a) avoid excessive sheath losses (b) make it flexible
(c) either of the above (d) none of the above
Ans: a
731. Dielectric strength of rubber is around
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
732. Low tension cables are generally used upto
(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
733. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at
(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
734. High tension cables are generally used upto
(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
735. The surge resistance of cable is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms
Ans: c
736. PVC stands for
(a) polyvinyl chloride (b) post varnish conductor (c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor (e) none of the above
Ans: a

737. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
738. In capacitance grading of cables we use a dielectric.
(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
739. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
740. The material for armouring on cable is usually
(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire
Ans: c
741. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are
(a) oil
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted
(d) armoured
Ans: a
742. The relative permittivity of rubber is
(a) between 2 and 3 (b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10 (d) between 12 and 14
Ans: a
743. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV because
(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature
(b) skin effect dominates on the conductor
(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of voids

Ans: d
744. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance
(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
Ans: c
745. In cables the charging current
(a) lags the voltage by 90°
(b) leads the voltage by 90°
(c) lags the voltage by 180°
(d) leads the voltage by 180°
Ans: b
746. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced by
one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
Ans: a
747. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
748. In the cables, sheaths are used to
(a) prevent th from entering the cable `(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation (d) none of the above
Ans: a
749. The intersheaths in the cables are used to
(a) minimize the stress
(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) provide proper stress distribution
Ans: c
750. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is
(a) same at the conductor and the sheath
(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath

(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath

(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
Ans: c
751. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
Ans: c
752. The insulation of the cable decreases with
(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
(c) either (a) or (b)
Ans: a
753. A cable carrying alternating current has
(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
754. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at
(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
755. Capacitance grading of cable implies
(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to counter the effect of inductance
Ans: a
756. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth
(a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc.
(d) for all of the above reasons

Ans: c
757. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is
(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
758. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually
(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
759. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
(a) mica insulated
(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
Ans: c
760. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride (b) Vulcanised rubber (c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas(e) none of the above Ans: d
761. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
762. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
Ans: a
763. The insulating material should have
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength

Ans: d
764. The advantage of oil filled cables is
(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
Ans: d
765. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
Ans: a
766. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
(a) presence of moisture (b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage (d) all of the above
Ans: d
767. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
768. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is used.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
769. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient 'draw in system' of
laying of underground cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
770. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical trees.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a

Unit II: Electromagnetism
SESSION : 07 MCQ
1. What are the effects of moving a closed wire loop through a magnetic field?
a. A voltage is induced in the wire.
b. A current is induced in the wire.
c. The polarity across the wire depends on the direction of motion.
d. All of the above
2. The current going away from the observer is represented by a
a) Dot
b) Cross
c) Line
d) Circle
3. The current flowing towards the observer is represented by
a) Dot
b) Cross
c) Line
d) Circle
4. A solenoid of 100cm is wound on a brass tube. If the current through the coil is 0.5A, the
number of turns necessary over the solenoid to produce a field strength of 500AT/m at the centre
of coil are
a) 500
b) 1700
c) 100
d) 1000
5. Basic source of magnetism is ______________.

a) Charged particles alone
b) Movement of charged particles
c) Magnetic dipoles
d) Magnetic domains
SESSION : 08 MCQ
1. Permeability is the inverse equivalent of which electrical term?
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Resistance
d. Conductance
2.What is the flux density of a magnetic field whose flux is 3000 microWb and cross-sectional
area is 0.25 m2?
a. 12,000 microT
b. 83,330 T
c. 0 T
d More information is needed in order to find flux density.
3.How much flux is there in a magnetic field when its flux density is 5000 T and its cross-
sectional area is 300 mm2?
a. 16.67 mWb
b 5.0 microWb
c. 3.0 mWb
d. 1.5 microWb
SESSION : 09 MCQ
1. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to__________in an electric circuit
a) reluctivity
b) resistivity
c) conductivity
d)conductance
2. Mmf in magnetic circuit is analogous to_________in electric circuit.
a)resistance
b)charge
c)emf
d)reactance
3. Reluctance in magnetic circuit is analogous to_________in electric circuit.
a)resistance
b)charge
c)emf
d)reactance
4.Flux density in magnetic circuit is analogous to_________in electric circuit.
a)charge density
b)charge
c)current density
d)electron density
5.Permeance in magnetic circuit is analogous to_________in electric circuit.
a)permittivity
b)conductance
c)resistance
d)reactance
SESSION : 10 MCQ
1. There will be force of attraction between two current-carrying conductors if the currents are
in __________ direction.
a. Same
b. Opposite
c. None of these
d. Cannot say
2. The direction of induced current is obtained by
a) Fleming's left-hand rule

b) Maxwell's right-hand thumb rule
c) Ampere's rule
d) Fleming's right-hand rule
SESSION : 11 MCQ
1) The force experienced by a current carrying conductor lying parallel to magnetic field is
a) BIl
b) BIlsinθ
c) HiL
d)zero
2) Fleming's right hand rule shows the direction of induced current when a conductor moves in a
magnetic field. The First finger represents the
a) direction of the Field.
b) direction of induced current
c) direction of induced emf
d)none of these
SESSION : 12 MCQ
1. In the phenomenon of mutual induction
a) Magnetic coupling takes place between two coils carrying a current.
b) The unit of the coefficient of coupling k is Henry.
c) The coefficient of coupling k can have any value from 0 to ∞.
d) Mutual inductance M is proportional to the sum of self-inductances of coils
2) If the current in an inductor doubles, the energy stored in the inductor will
(a) Remain the same,
(b) Double,
(c) Quadruple,
(d) Halve.
Unit I: Elementary Concepts
SESSION I MCQ
1 Materials with lots of free electrons are called…..
A. Conductors B. insulators
C. Semiconductors D.
Filters
2. The unit of electrical charge is the…..
A. Coulomb B.
joule
C. Volt D. watt
3. Current flows in a circuit when…..

A.
a switch is opened
B.
a switch is closed
C. the switch is either open or closed
D. there is no voltage
4. Which of the following is not a type of energy source?

A. Generator
B. Rheostat
C. solar cell
D. Battery
5. Flow of electron is called as……..
A. voltage
B. current
C. capacitance
D. inductance
6. Opposition to the flow of current called as …….
A. resistance B. current C. voltage D. capacitance
7. A material that does not allow current under normal conditions is a(n)…..
A. Insulator B. conductor
C. Semiconductor D. valence
8. A multimeter measures….
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. current, voltage, and resistance
9. An ammeter is an electrical instrument used to measure…..
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
SESSION 2 MCQ
1. For which of the following substances, resistance decreases with temperature?
1. Copper
2. Platinum
3. Mercury
4. Carbon
Answer: 4
2. Determine the length of a copper wire that has resistance of 0.172  and a cross-sectional area
of 1 x 10-4 m2. The resistivity of copper is 1.72 x 10-8  m.
(a) 0.1 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 100 m
(d) 1000 m
Ans-D
SESSION 3 MCQ
1. Unit of RTC ……
a. Ampere
b. /˚c
c. ohm
d. ˚c
Ans: b
SESSION 4 MCQ
1. Unit of insulation resistance.

A. Ohm/ meter
B.Amperes
C. Ohm
D. none of these.
Ans: C
2 .Ri = ………
a. . Ri = V/I
  R2 
b. Ri = = ln  
2 l  R1 
c. Ri = ρ/ 2пl * R1 *R2
d. Ri = ρ/ 2пl * R1 /R2
Ans: b
SESSION 5 MCQ
1. The unit of power is _______

A. watt per second
B. Joule
C. Kilojoules
D. joule per second
Answer: D
2.3730 watts = ______h.p.

A. 5
B. 2
C. 746
D. 6
Answer: A
3. Power is a measure of the _______
A. rate of change of momentum

B. force which produces motion
C. change of energy
D. rate of change of energy
Answer: D
4. 1.5 kW = ______ watts
A. 1500
B. 150
C. 15000
D. 15
Answer: A
5. Name the physical quantity which is equal to the product of force and velocity.
A. Work
B. Energy
C. Power
D. acceleration
Answer: C
SESSION 6 MCQ
1. Work done = Force x _______

A. Distance
B. Acceleration
C. Velocity
D. Speed
Answer: A
2. The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a
measure of ___________.
A. Current
B. Potential difference
C. Resistance
D. Power
Answer: B
3.1 joule = 1 _______

A. N m2
B.
C. N m
D. N2 m2
Answer: B
Unit III: Single Phase Transformers and
Electrostatics
SESSION 13 MCQ
1 The value of flux used in a EMF equation of a transformer is ----------------

a) R.m.s
b) Average
c) Maximum
d) Instantaneous
2 For 400V/100V transformer, the secondary turns are 16 then the primary turns are --------
a) 4
b) 64
c) 16
d) 8
3 When the turns ratio of transformer is 20 and primary ac voltage is 12V, the secondary
voltage is ---------------
a) 12 V
b) 120 V
c) 240 V
d) 2400 V
4 For a transformer the turns ratio is 10 : 1 then its primary resistance of 10 Ω will be ----------
When referred to secondary.
a) 1 Ω
b) 0.1 Ω
c) 0.01 Ω
d) 10 Ω
5 The Emf Equation of transformer in secondary side is ----------
a) 4.44fϕmN1
b) 4.44fϕmN2
c) 4.44fϕmN1N2
d) 4.44fϕmN2
SESSION 14 MCQ
1A transformer has 200 W iron losses at full load. The iron loss at half full load is --------
a) 100 W
b) 200 W
c) 300 W
d) 400 W
2Full load copper loss in transformer is 1600 W. At half load the loss will be --------------
a) 400
b) 1600
c) 3200
d) 6400
3Hysteresis loss in a transformer depends upon -----------

a) Voltage alone
b) Both voltage and frequency
c) Frequency alone.
d) Square of voltage alone.
SESSION 15 MCQ
1) For better performance of transformer, the regulation must be -------------

a) High
b) Infinite
c) Very low
d) None of these
2) At what power factor, the voltage regulation of a transformer can be zero.

a) Leading power factor
b) Lagging power factor
c) Unity power factor
d) Zero power factor
3) For an Ideal transformer efficiency and regulation should be-

a) Low, high
b) High, low
c) Both high
d) Both low
SESSION 16 MCQ
1) Autotransformer works on the principle of

a) Self-induction
b) Mutual induction
c) Self and mutual induction
d) None of these.
2) An advantage of autotransformer is
a) Copper saving
b) Efficiency is 100%
c) Highly stable voltage
d) None of these
3) An autotransformer-----------------
a) Increases the iron loss
b) Converts single phase to three Phase.
c) Uses common winding between single phase and three phase
d) None
4) In ---------------------of the following autotransformer is used.

a) Traction
b) Dimmerstat
c) Lathe machine
d) Tube light
SESSION 17MCQ
1).A capacitor is charged to 100mC and the energy stored is 10J then the capacitor value is-
-------------
a) 50µF
b) 5µF
c) 0.5µF
d) 500µF
2) Two capacitor 3µF and 6µF are in parallel and combination is connected across 100V
supply then the charge on 6µF is -----------------µC
a) 300
b) 600
c) 1200
d) 100
3) A capacitor is charged to 100mC and the energy stored is 10J then the capacitor value is--
e) 50µF
f) 5µF
g) 0.5µF
h) 500µF
4) A capacitor is made up of two dielectric having constant 2 and 5 with thickness 1mm and
2 mm respectively. If area of cross section is 50 cm2then capacitance is -------------------
a) 110.075pF
b) 49.188pF
c) 8.854µF
d) 2.03nF
5) The ability of an insulating medium to resists its breakdown is called its----------------

a) Dielectric constant
b) Dielectric strength
c) Relative permittivity
d) Insulation resistance
SESSION 18 MCQ
1 When fully charged capacitor to V is discharged through R, the expression for the capacitor
voltage is -----------
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 When a capacitor ‘C’ is charge through resistance R then the initial rate of rise of
capacitor voltage is ------------
a) VRC
b) V/RC
c) VR/C
d) VC/R
3 Two capacitor 2 µF and 8 µF are in series and the combination is connected across 50V ,
then the energy stored in 8 µF capacitor is ----------µJ
a) 200
b) 100
c) 400
d) 2000
4.A capacitor of 1µF, is charged to 100 V. It is disconnected and then connected across another
1µF capacitor. Then the new voltage across them is --------------------
a) 100V
b) 50V
c) 150V
d) 0V
5.A capacitor of 1µF is charged through resistor of 1MΩ from a 100 V source then voltage
across capacitor after 2 sec is--------------------
a) 36.8 V
b) 63.212V
c) 86.466V
d) 100V
UNIT NO: 5 POLYPHASE CIRCUIT (PART B)
1 Three phase star connected balanced system the magnitude of line current is equal to
a. One-third the phase current
b. the corresponding phase current
c. Three times the corresponding phase current
d. Zero
ans: b
2 Three phase star connected balanced system the magnitude of line voltage is equal to
a. One-third the line voltage
b. Equal to the corresponding line voltage
c. Three times the corresponding line voltage
d. 1.73 times phase voltage
ans: d
3 Three phase Delta connected balanced system the magnitude of line current is equal to
a. One-third the phase current
b. Equal to the corresponding phase current
c. Three times the corresponding phase current
d. 1.73 times phase current
ans: d
4 Three phase delta connected balanced system the magnitude of line voltage is equal to
a. One-third the line voltage
b. Equal to the corresponding phase voltage
c. Three times the corresponding line voltage
d. 1.73 times phase voltage
ans: b
5 In a balanced three-phase load, each phase has

a. An equal amount of power
b. One-third of total power
c. Two-thirds of total power
d. A power consumption equal to √3VL IL
ans: a
6 In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by
a. 450
b. 900
c. 1200
d. 1800
ans: c
7 Advantage of three phase system over single phase system
a. Power factor of three-phase motor is greater than single-phase motor for same rating.
b. Three-phase motors are self-starting
c. The rating of three-phase motor and three-phase transformer are about 150% greater than
single-phase motor or transformer with a similar frame size.
d. All of the above
ans: d
8 Three phase system the load is said to be balanced only when

a. loads in each phase are equal in magnitude
b. loads in each phase are equal in nature
c. loads in each phase are equal in magnitude and nature
d. All of the above
ans: c
9 Three phase system is said to be symmetrical

a. when voltages of same frequency in different phases are equal in magnitude
b. when voltages of same frequency are displaced from each other by equal phase angle
c. when voltages of same frequency in different phases are equal in magnitude and displaced
from each other by equal phase angle
d. All of the above
ans: c
10 Three phase star connected balanced system the total power drawn from the circuit is
a. Vph Iph cos
b. VL IL cos
c. 3VL IL cos
d. 3Vph Iph cos
ans: d
a. Vph Iph cos
b. VL IL cos
c. 3 VL IL cos
d. 3 Vph Iph cos
ans: c
12 Three phase delta connected balanced system the total power drawn from the circuit is
a. Vph Iph cos
b. VL IL cos
c. 3VL IL cos
d. 3Vph Iph cos
ans: d
a. Vph Iph cos
b. VL IL cos
c. 3 VL IL cos
d. 3 Vph Iph cos
ans: c
14 A balanced delta-connected load of (4 + j 3) Ohm /phase is connected to a 3 phase 400 V

supply. Calculate Phase current
a. 80 Amp
b. 138.56 Amp
c. 50 Amp
d. 150 Amp
ans: a
supply. Calculate Line current
a. 80 Amp
b. 138.56 Amp
c. 50 Amp
d. 150 Amp
ans: b
supply. Calculate power factor
a. 0.6 lagging
b. 0.6 leading
c. 0.8 lagging
d. 0.8 leading
ans: c
16 A balanced star-connected load of 5  36.860 Ohm per phase is connected to a 3-phase,

400 V supply. Calculate phase current
a. 46.182 Amp
b. 79.98 Amp
c. 30 Amp
d. 100 Amp
ans: a

400 V supply. Calculate Line current
a. 46.182 Amp
b. 9.98 Amp
c. 30 Amp
d. 100 Amp
ans: a

400 V supply. Calculate power factor
a. 0.6 lagging
b. 0.6 leading
c. 0.8 lagging
d. 0.8 leading
ans: a
19 A balanced star-connected load is supplied from a symmetrical 3-phase 400 V, 50 Hz

system. The current in each phase is 30 ampere and lags 300 behind the phase voltage.
Find phase voltage
a. 400 Volt
b. 230.9 Volt
c. 220 Volt
d. 200 Volt
ans: b
20 A balanced star-connected load is supplied from a symmetrical 3-phase 400 V, 50 Hz

system. The current in each phase is 30 ampere and lags 300 behind the phase voltage.
Find impedance of the circuit
a. 13.33 300
b. 7.698  450
c. 7.698  600
d. 7.698  300
ans: d
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING D. nucleus
Ans. A
UNIT IA Que. The resistance of human body is around
THEORY QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH) A. 5 ohms
B. 25 ohms
Que. Two wires A and B of same material and C. 250 ohms
length L and 2L have radius r and 2r D. 1000 ohms
respectively. The ratio of their specific Ans. D
resistance will be
A. 1:1 Que. One commercial unit of energy equals
B. 1:2 A. 500 watt seconds
C. 1:4 B. one watt hour
D. 1:8 C. one Kilowatt hour
Ans. A D. ten kilowatt hour
Ans. C
Que. Two wires A and B of same material and
length L and 2L have radius r and 2r Que. One coulomb charge equals the charge
respectively. The ratio of their resistances will on
be A. 6.24x1012 electrons
A. 1:1 B. 6.24x1014 electrons
B. 2:1 C. 6.24x1016 electrons
C. 4: 1 D. 6.24x1018 electrons
D. 1:8 Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. Electric pressure is also called
Que. The hot resistance of filament of a bulb is A. resistance
higher than the cold resistance because the B. power
temperature coefficient of filament is C. voltage
A. negative D. energy
B. infite Ans. C
C. zero
D. positive Que. With rise in temperature resistance of
Ans. D pure metals
A. increases
Que. Insulation resistance of the insulating B. decreases
material should be C. first increases then decreases
A. high D. remains constant
B. low Ans. A
C. zero
D. none of these Que. With rise in temperature resistance of
Ans. A semiconductors
A. increases
Que. The flow of current in solids is due to B. decreases
A. electrons C. first increases then decreases
B. ions D. remains constant
C. atoms
1
Ans. B A. chemical
B. mechanical
Que. Which of the following material has C. electrical
nearly zero temperature coefficient of D. thermal
resistance Ans. C
A. manganin
B. porcelain Que. I = ___/t amp
C. carbon A. R
D. copper B. L
Ans. A C. Q
D. t
Que. Which of the following material has a Ans. C
negative temperature coefficient of resistance
A. copper Que. The ability of a charged particle to do
B. aluminium work is called
C. carbon A. potential difference
D. brass B. electric potential
Ans. C C. magnitude
D. magnetism
Que. Ohm’s law is not applicable to Ans. B
A. vaccume tubes
B. carbon resistor Que. The unit of electric potential is ___
C. high voltage circuits A. amp
D. circuits at low current densities B. coulomb
Ans. A C. volt
D. tesla
Que. Which one of the following does not Ans. C
have negative temperature coefficient
A. aluminium Que. 1 calorie = ___
B. paper A. 4.186 joules
C. rubber B. 0.24 joules
D. mica C. 4186 joules
Ans. A D. 4186 KJ
Ans. A
Que. An electrical effort required to drift the
free electrons in one particular direction, in a Que. Unit of resistivity is ____
conductor is called __ A. Ω
A. MMF B. Ω-m
B. EMF C. Ω/m
C. current D. all above
D. all above Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. Unit of conductance is ___
Que. An _______ effort required to drift the A. Ohm
free electrons in one particular direction, in a B. Siemens
conductor is called EMF C. Newton
2
D. Henry C. zero
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
Que. The material having highest value of
____ is best conductor Que. Resistance temperature coefficient is
A. resistivity denoted by ____
B. conductivity A. α
C. permittivity B. β
D. all above C. θ
Ans. B D. Φ
Ans. A
Que. The material having poorest value of
____ is best insulator. Que. The RTC at tOC is ratio of _____
A. resistivity A. change in conductance per degree Celsius
B. conductivity to the resistance at t 0C
C. permittivity B. change in resistance per degree Celsius to
D. all above the resistance at t0C
Ans. B C. change in initial resistance per degree
Celsius to the resistance at t0C
Que. Factors which affect the resistance _____ D. all above
A. length of the material Ans. B
B. cross sectional area
C. temprature Que. Unit of RTC is ____
D. all above A. OC
Ans. D B. /OC
C. Ω/OC
Que. Effect of temperature on resistance D. Ω
depends on ____ of material Ans. B
A. size
B. shape Que. Insulation resistance is defined as
C. nature opposition to the flow of ____
D. length A. current
Ans. C B. voltage
C. leakage current
Que. Resistance of carbon _____ as the D. all above
temperature increases Ans. C
A. increases
B. remains same Que. Insulation resistance Ri = V/Il, in this V
C. decreses is ____
D. none of above A. voltage between conductor and earth
Ans. C B. voltage between insulation and earth
C. voltage between conductor and insulator
Que. Semiconductors have _____ temperature D. all above
coefficient Ans. A
A. positive
B. negative
3
Que. Insulation resistance Ri = V/Il, in this Il is D. none of the above
____ Ans. B
A. current
B. voltage Que. Which effect of electrical current is
C. leakage current utilised in thermal systems
D. line current A. Magnetic
Ans. C B. chemical
C. heating
Que. Insulation resistance is ______ D. all above
proportional to its length Ans. C
A. directly
B. inversely Que. As per the Joule,s law the amount of heat
C. never produced is proportional to
D. none of above A. I.R
Ans. B B. V.I
C. V.I.t
Que. Insulation resistance is inversely D. I2R
proportional to its ______ Ans. C
A. length
B. area Que. Geyser is a example of which system
C. diameter A. Mechanical
D. cross sectional area B. Electrical
Ans. A C. Thermal
D. None of above
Que. which of the following substance, the Ans. B
resistance decreases with the increase of
temperature? Que. Boiling temp. of water is
A. carbon A. 50
B. constantan B. 75
C. copper C. 100
D. silver D. 35
Ans. A Ans. C
Que. The conventional electric current is due Que. The amount of heat energy required to
to the flow of change the temp. of a given substance without
A. positive charges only change in the form of the substance is called as
B. negative charges only A. Sensible heat energy
C. neutral particles only B. Latent heat energy
D. both positive and negative charges. C. Both of above
Ans. B D. None of above
Ans. A
Que. Insulators have _______ temperature
coefficient of resistance Que. Which statement is correct
A. positive A. 1cal=4.12 J
B. negative B. 1cal=4.186 J
C. zero C. 1cal=4.44 J
4
D. 1cal=3.986 J B. Latent heat of vapourisation
Ans. B C. both of above
D. None of above
Que. The amount of heat energy required to Ans. B
change the form of the substance with change
in the temp. is called as Que. The unit of specific heat capacity is
A. Kinetic energy A. J/Kg
B. Potential energy B. J/KgK
C. Latent heat of energy C. Joule
D. All of above D. J-Kg
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. The amount of heat energy obtained by Que. WATER-PUMP SET is the example of
burning the unit mass of the fuel is called as which system
A. Molecular value A. Electro-mechanical system
B. Calorific value B. Electro-chemical system
C. Atomic value C. Only electrical system
D. None of above D. All above
Ans. B Ans. A
Que. The unit of “THERMAL ENERGY” is Que. The unit of force is

A. Kilowatt-hour A. Newton
B. Watt-sec B. Joule
C. Joule C. Newton-metre
D. all of above D. Joule-Sec.
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. which effect of electric current is utilized Que. One metre cube holds a water of
in electric lamps? A. 1000Kg
A. Magnetic effect B. 1000gm
B. Chemical effect C. 1000miligram
C. Heating effect D. none of above
D. All of above Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. Which relationship is correct
Que. The heat energy required to convert a A. P=T.ω
body from solid state to liquid state is called as B. P=T/ ω
A. Latent heat of fusion C. P=T.v
B. Latent heat of vapourisation D. P= ω / T
C. Calorific value Ans. A
D. All of above
Ans. A ue. Power is defined as
A. capacity to do the work
Que. The heat energy required to convert B. workdone/time
liquid state to gaseous state is called as C. workdone. time
A. Latent heat of liquification. D. all above
5
Ans. B Que. Kinetic energy is given by
A. E=1/2 mV2
Que. Energy is defined as B. E=1/2 mV
A. workdone/time C. E=1/2m.t
B. capacity to do the work D. none of above
C. energy=power.resistance Ans. A
D. all above
Ans. B Que. Which of the following statements is
true?
Que. Effective water head of a Hydro-electric A. Electric current is measured in volts
power plant means it’s B. 200 kΩresistance is equivalent to 2MΩ
A. loss C. An ammeter has a low resistance and must
B. height be connected in parallel with a circuit
C. friction D. An electrical insulator has a high resistance
D. none of above Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. What must be known in order to
Que. Efficiency is the ratio of calculate the energy used by an electrical
A. power and time appliance?
B. output and input A. voltage and current
C. input and output B. current and time of operation
D. above all C. power and time of operation
Ans. B D. current and resistance
Ans. C
Que. Wind-mill-Generator set is the example
of Que. Voltage drop is the
A. electro-chemical system A. maximum potential
B. electro-thermal system B. difference in potential between two points
C. mechanical-electrical system C. voltage produced by a source
D. all above D. voltage at the end of a circuit
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. Which relationship is correct? Que. The opposition to the flow of leakage
A. volume=mass. Density current is called as
B. volume=mass/density A. resistance
C. volume=mass +density B. leakage coefficient
D. none of above C. insulation resistance
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. C
Que. Potential energy is given as
A. E=m.g.h Que. The insulation resistance is generally in
B. E=m.g A. Ohms
C. E=m.g.t B. Mega ohms
D. above all C. Mili Ohms
Ans. A D. Micro Ohm
Ans. B
6
Que. The insulation resistance of a cable is Que. When the Humidity in the surrounding
A. directly proportional to length of cable increases, the leakage current in the cable will
B. inversly proportional to length of cable A. remain same
C. remains same with change in length B. increase
D. none of above C. decrease
Ans. B D. all of above
Ans. B
Que. Which is the expression for insulation
resistance of a single core cable Que. Factors affecting the insulation resistance
A. R =ρ l/a of a cable are
ρ
B. Ri = 𝑙𝑛(R2/R1) A. length
2πl
ρ B. thickness
C. Ri= (R2/R1)
2πl C. resistivity of insulating material
D. R= V/I D. all above
Ans. B Ans. D
Que. As the thickness of insulation layer of a Que. What is current?

cable increases it’s insulation resistance will A. Flow of electrons.
A. increase B. Flow of protons.
B. decrease C. Flow of Neutrons.
C. remain same D. None of above.
D. none of above Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. What is Resistance?
Que. As the Temprature of surrounding A. to assist the flow of current.
increases the insulation resistance will ((B to oppose the flow of current.
A. increase C. to oppose the flow of voltage.
B. remain same D. to assist the flow of voltage.
C. decrease Ans. B
D. none of above
Ans. C Que. Unit of resistance is.
A. Volts.
Que. Which is a good conductor of electricity B. Amperes.
A. normal tap water C. Ohm.
B. pure water D. Faraday.
C. glass Ans. C
D. plastic
Ans. B Que. Resistance of material will decrease with
increase of?
Que. As moisture content in the air A. Length of material.
increases,then the insulation resistance will B. Both Length and Cross-section area of
A. decrease material.
B. remain same C. Cross-section area of material.
C. increase D. All of the above.
D. none of above Ans. C
Ans. A
7
A. Resistance will remain same.
Que. According to Ohm’s law current is B. No effect on resistance.
directly proportional to? C. Resistance will increase.
A. Resistance of material. D. Resistance will decrease.
B. Voltage across it. Ans. D
C. Both Voltage and Resistance.
D. Temp. Que. What will be the effect on the resistance
Ans. B of insulating material if the temperature
increases?
Que. According to Ohm’s law current is A. No effect on resistance.
inversely proportional to? B. Resistance will increase.
A. Voltage across it. C. Resistance will remain same.
B. Both Voltage and Resistance. D. Resistance will decrease.
C. Resistance of material. Ans. D
D. Temp.
Ans. C Que. What will be the effect on the resistance
of insulating material if the temperature
Que. What are the factors on which resistance decreases?
of material depends?
A. Length and Cross-section area of material. A. Resistance will remain same.
B. Temperature of material. B. No effect on resistance.
C. Specific resistivity of material. C. Resistance will increase.
D. All of above. D. Resistance will decrease.
Ans. D Ans. C
Que. Resistance of material will increase with Que. What will be the resistance of semi-
increase of? conductor at low temperature?
A. Cross-section area of material. A. Resistance will be high.
B. Length of material. B. Resistance will be low.
C. Both Length and Cross-section area of C. No effect on resistance.
material. D. None of above.
D. None of above. Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. What will be the resistance of semi-
Que. What will be the effect on the resistance conductor at high temperature?
of conducting material if the temperature A. Resistance will be high
increases? B. No effect on resistance..
A. No effect on resistance. C. Resistance will be low.
B. Resistance will increase. D. None of above.
C. Resistance will decrease. Ans. A
D. Resistance will remain same.
Ans. B Que. At low temperature semi-conductor will
behave as?
Que. What will be the effect on the resistance A. Insulator.
of conducting material if the temperature B. Conductor.
decreases? C. Semi-conductor.
8
D. None of above. Que. Temperature co-efficient of resistance α0
Ans. B is given by.
𝑅𝑡−𝑅0
A. α0=
𝑅𝑜.𝑡
Que. At high temperature semi-conductor will 𝑅𝑜−𝑅𝑡
behave as? B. α0=
𝑅𝑡.𝑡
𝑅1−𝑅2
A. Insulator. C. α0=
𝑅1 𝑡
B. Conductor. 𝑅2
C. Semi-conductor. D. α0=
𝑅𝑜.𝑡
Ans. B
Que. Which effect of electrical current is
Que. The length of a conductor or a wire is utilised in thermal systems?
doubled and its cross section is also doubled A. Magnetic
then the resistance will. B. chemical
A. Increases four times. C. heating
B. Remains unchange D. all above
C. Decreases four times. Ans. C
D. Change at random.
Ans. B Que. If the efficiency of a machine is to be
high, what should be low?
Que. The variation of resistance with A. input power
temperature is governed by a property called B. losses
A. Resistance access coefficient (RAC). C. KWh consumed
B. Resistance nature coefficient (RNC). D. ratio of output to input
C. Resistance temperature coefficient (RTC). Ans. B
D. None of above.
Ans. C Que. One Nnewton meter is same as
_________
A. one watt
Que. Temperature co-efficient of resistance at B. one Joule
00C is defined as the change in resistance per C. five Joules
ohm original resistance per 0C change in D. one Joule second
temperature. Ans. B
A. True.
B. Fasle. Que. f I, R, t are the current, resistance and
Ans. A time respectively, then according to Joule’s
Law; heat produced will be proportional
Que. Unit of Temperature co-efficient of to________
resistance is. A. I2Rt
A. /Ώ/0C B. I2Rt2
B. /0C C. I2R2t
C. 0C D. I2R2t2
D. Ώ/0C Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Which resistor will be physically larger
in size?
A. 100Ω, 10W
9
B. 10Ω, 50W Ans. C
C. 1MΩ, 0.5W
D. 1KΩ, 1W Que. Two underground cables A and B, each
Ans. B has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω
resp. each has insulation resistance of 600 MΩ
Que. When current flows through heater coil, and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in
it glows but supply wiring does not glow parallel, its insulation resistance is ___
because_______ A. 1200 MΩ
A. current through supply line flows at slower B. 2400 Ω
speed C. 1000 MΩ
B. supply wiring is covered with insulation D. 1600 Ω
layer Ans. C
C. resistance of heater coil is more than supply
wires Que. A 100W electric light bulb is connected
D. supply wires are made of superior material to a 250V supply.The current in the circuit is
Ans. C A. 0.3A
B. 0.4A
Que. Which of the following relation is C. 4A
incorrect? D. 0.6A
A. 𝑃 = 𝑉𝐼 Ans. B
B. 𝑃 = 𝐼 2R
C. P=V2/R Que. A 100W electric light bulb is connected
D. P=V2R to a 250V supply. Its hot resistance is
Ans. D A. 625Ω
B. 526Ω
C. 62.5Ω
UNIT IB D. 625mΩ
Ans. A
Que. The resistance of copper wire 200 m long
is 21 ohms. If its thickness is 0.44 mm, its Que. 60 μs is equivalent to:
specific resistance is around A. 0.06s
A. 2x10-8Ω-m B. 0.00006 s
B. 4x10-8Ω-m C. 1000 minutes
C. 6x10-8Ω-m D. 0.6 s
D. 8x10-8Ω-m Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. The current which flows when 0.1
Que. Two underground cables A and B, each coulomb is transferred in 10 ms is
has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω A. 1A
resp. each has insulation resistance of 600 MΩ B. 10A
and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in C. 10mA
series, its conductor resistance is ___ D. 100mA
A. 1.2 MΩ Ans. B
B. 0.2 Ω
C. 1.4 Ω Que. The p.d. applied to a 1 kΩ resistance in
D. 1.4 M Ω order that a current of 100 μA may flow is
10
A. 1V Que. How long must a current of 0.1A flow so
B. 100V as to transfer a charge of 30 C?
C. 0.1V A. 5 min
D. 10V B. 5s
Ans. C C. 50min
D. 50s
Que. The power dissipated by a resistor of Ans. A
4Ωwhen a current of 5A passes through it is
A. 6.25W Que. A force of 4N moves an object 200 cm in
B. 20W the direction of the force. Work done is
C. 80W A. 6J
D. 100W B. 8J
Ans. D C. 4J
D. 10J
Que. A 240V, 60W lamp has a working Ans. B
resistance of
A. 1400 ohm Que. 0.32mA=. . . . . . μA
B. 60 ohm A. 0.0032
C. 960 ohm B. 0.032
D. 325 ohm C. 0.00032
Ans. C D. 320
Ans. D
Que. The energy used by a 1.5kW heater in 5
minutes is: Que. If two cables with their insulation
A. 5 J resistances Ri1 and Ri2 are joined in
B. 450 J series,then their equivalent resistance will be
C. 7500 J A. Ri1 + Ri2
D. 450000 J B. Ri1 - Ri2
Ans. D C. Ri1 / Ri2
D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2
Que. If a current of 5A flows for 2 minutes, Ans. D
the quantity of charge transferred will
A. 600C Que. If two cables with their insulation
B. 100C resistances Ri1 and Ri2 with conductor
C. 0.6C resistances R1and R2respectively are joined in
D. 60C parallel ,then their equivalent insulation
Ans. A resistance will be
A. Ri1 + Ri2
Que. In what time would a current of 1A B. Ri1 - Ri2
transfer a charge of 30 C? C. Ri1 / Ri2
A. 45s D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2
B. 30s Ans. A
C. 65s
D. 4s Que. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200W rated at
Ans. B 250 V will have resistance ratio as________
A. 4:25
11
B. 25:4 Que. The resistance of copper wire 25 m
C. 2:5 long is found to be 50 Ω. If its diameter is
D. 5:2 1mm, then resistivity of copper is ___
Ans. C A. 1.57µΩ-m
B. 57Ω-m
Que. With three resistances connected in C. 15.7Ω-m
parallel, if each dissipates 20 W, the total D. 157 Ω-m
power supplied by the voltage source equals Ans. A
_______
A. 10W Que. At 300K the temperature coefficient of
B. 20W resistance of a wire is 0.00125 /OC and its
C. 40W resistance is 1 ohm. The resistance of wire will
D. 60W be 2 ohm at
Ans. D A. 1154 K
B. 1100 K
Que. Which of the following lamps will have C. 1400 K
least resistance at room temperature? D. 1127 K
A. 25W, 220V Ans. B
B. 100W, 220V
C. 200W, 220V Que. Two underground cables A and B,
D. 60W, 220V each has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and
Ans. C 0.8 Ω resp. each has insulation resistance of
600 MΩ and 400 MΩ resp. if cables are
connected in series, its insulation resistance is
UNIT IC ___
A. 120 MΩ
Que. If the length of a wire of resistance R B. 240 Ω
is uniformly stretched to n times its original C. 240 MΩ
value, its new resistance is D. 160 Ω
A. nr Ans. C
B. R/n
C. n2R Que. Two underground cables A and B,
D. r/n2 each has a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and
Que. length of wire having resistance of 1 ohm connected in parallel, its conductor resistance
is cut into four equal parts and these four parts is ___
are bundled together side-by-side to form a A. 0.3428Ω
wire. The new resistance will be B. 0.240 Ω
A. 1/4 ohm C. 0.240 MΩ
B. 1/16 ohm D. 0.160 Ω
C. 4 ohm Ans. A
D. 16 ohm
Ans. B Que. Match the pair
Resistance a- /0C
Insulation resistance b-siemens
12
RTC c-ohm
Conductance d-MΩ Que. An aluminum conductor has resistance
A. 1a,2-b,3-c,4-d of 10Ώ AT 200C and the RTC of 0.0039 per 0C
B. 1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b at 200C. Find the RTC at 00C
C. 1-d,2-c,3-a,4-b A. 0.000124/0C
D. all above B. 0.00423/0C
Ans. C C. 0.00324/0C
Que. If length of cable is doubled, then its D. 0.0000423/0C
insulation resistance will Ans. B
A. reduce by 25%
B. reduce by 50% Que. Find the resistance of filament of 60
C. increase by 50% watt in a 230 V supply lamp at its working
D. reduce by 55% temperature.
Ans. B A. 990 Ώ.
B. 881.667 Ώ.
Que. At 00C a specimen of copper have a C. 981.667 Ώ.
resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co- D. 1000 Ώ.
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per 00C Ans. B
Find the value of its temperature co-efficient at
700C
A. 0.003248/0C Que. A single core cable has 1.5cm
B. 0.003428/0C diameter conductor and thickness of insulation
C. 0.003284/0C is 2.2 cm. The resistivity of insulating material
D. 0.003434/0C is 9.2×1012 Ώ-m. Determine the insulation
Ans. C resistance per km length of cable.
A. 2×1012 Ώ.
Que. At 00C a specimen of copper have a B. 2.9×1013 Ώ.
resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co- C. 2×109 Ώ.
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per 00C D. 9.2×1012 Ώ.
Find the value of resistance at 700C Ans. C
A. 4.5mΏ.
B. 3.5mΏ. Que. A single core cable has a 5cm diameter
C. 5.19mΏ. conductor and thickness of insulation is 2.2
D. 5.5mΏ. cm. The resistivity of insulating material is
Ans. C 9.2×1012 Ώ-m. Determine the insulation
resistance per km length of cable.
Que. A certain copper winding has a A. 0.55×10-6
resistance of 100Ώ at room temperature. RTC B. 55×10-6
of copper at 00C is 0.00428/0C, calculate the C. 0.55×10-12
winding resistance if temperature is increased D. 0.55×106
to 500C, assume room temperature as 250C Ans. A
A. 111 Ώ.
B. 115 Ώ. Que. The armature winding of a DC
C. 109 Ώ. machine when connected to DC supply of 240
D. 113 Ώ. V was drawing a 6 A at 250C and 25 A when
Ans. C heated Evaluate temperature of armature
13
winding if α of its material at 250C is Ans. C
0.0039/0C
A. 1000C Que. The time required for 1KW electric
B. 1100C kettle to raise the temperature of 10 liters of
C. 96.790C water through 10°C is__________(Specific
D. 98.790C heat of water is 4200 J/KgK)
Ans. C A. 210 sec
B. 420 sec
Que. A 25W, 220V bulb and a 100W, 220V C. 42 sec
bulb are joined in parallel and connected to D. 840 sec
220V supply. Which bulb will glow more Ans. B
brightly?
A. 25W bulb Que. A 3 Ω resistor having 2 A current will
B. 100W bulb dissipate the power of _________
C. both will glow with same brightness A. 2W
D. neither bulb will glow B. 6W
Ans. B C. 4W
D. 12 W
Que. A 25W, 220V bulb and a 100W, 220V Ans. D
are joined in series and connected to 220V
supply. Which bulb will glow brighter? Que. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil
A. 25W bulb has the resistance of 2Ω per meter. For a
B. 100W bulb heater of 1KW at 200V, the length of wire
C. both will glow with same brightness required will be________
D. neither bulb will glow A. 80m
Ans. A B. 60m
C. 40m
Que. You are given three bulbs of 25W, D. 20m
40W and 60W. Which of them has the lowest Ans. D
resistance?
A. 25W bulb Que. How many KW will be required to light
B. 40W bulb a factory which has 250 lamps each taking
C. 60W bulb 1.3A at 230V?.
D. incomplete information A. 74750W
Ans. C B. 7.47KW
C. 325W
Que. You have the following electric D. 299W
appliances: Ans. A
i.1KW, 250V electric heater
ii.1KW, 250V electric kettle Que.
iii.1KW, 250V electric bulb A factory is supplied with power at 210V. The
Which of these has the highest resistance? load consists of 250,60W lamp and 4 motor
A. heater each taking 40amp. Find total current demand
B. kettle by factory.
C. all have equal resistances A. 40A
D. electric bulb B. 210A
14
C. 250A C. 15 min
D. 231.4A D. 20 min
Ans. D Ans. A
Que. A carbon electrode has resistance of Que. A tap supplies water at 220C. A man
0.125 at 200C. What will be resistance of takes 1 lit of water per minute at 370C from
electrode at 850C. RTC of carbon is - 0.005 at geyser. The power rating of geyser is ……
200C. A. 1000 W
A. 0.126Ω B. 500 W
B. 0.121Ω C. 1050 W
C. 0.125Ω D. 1500 W
D. 0.127Ω Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. Amount of energy expended in raising
temperature of 45 liter of water by 750C is
Que. The coil has resistance of 4Ω at ……..
220C.RTC of coil at 220C is 0.0039 /0C. After A. 3.937KWh
operating the coil at 210V for 2days, current B. 4.36 KW
through coil is 42A. The temperature of coil at C. 43.6 KWh
this time is……… D. 436 KW
A. 960C Ans. A
B. 86.10C
C. 500C
D. 600C UNIT ID
Ans. B
Que. A current of 3A flows for 50 hrs

Que. An immersion water heater takes 1hr to through a 6Ωresistor. The energy consumed by
heat 50Kg of water from 200C to boiling point. the
The efficiency of heater is 90%, the power resistor is
rating of heater is……(specific heat of water is A. 0.9 kWh
4200j/Kg.k) B. 2.7 kWh
A. 4.65KWh C. 9 kWh
B. 5.16KWh D. 27 kWh
C. 5.185KW Ans. B
D. 50KW
Ans. C Que. The amount of work done in lifting a
mass of 500 kg to a height of 6m in 30 s, the
power developed
Que. The time taken to raise temperature of A. 2943J
880gm of water from 160C to boiling point if B. 0.2943J
heater takes 2A at 220V is ………. (Efficiency C. 29.43J
of heater is 90% specific heat of water is D. 29.43KJ
4200j/Kg.k,) Ans. D
A. 13.08 min
B. 13 hr
15
Que. The power required in lifting a mass of B. 4 kWh
500 kg to a height of 6m in 30 s. C. 2 kWh
A. 198J D. 0.02 kWh
B. 981W Ans. B
C. 198W
D. 981J Que. Amount of heart energy required to
Ans. B raise the temperture of 10kg of water through
100oC is
Que. A portable machine requires a force of (Swof water as 4200J/kgK)
200N to move it. If the machine is moved A. 4.2kJ
through 20m in 25s, power required is B. 4.2MJ
A. 160kW C. 42kJ
B. 1600W D. 420J
C. 16kW Ans. B
D. 160W
Ans. D Que. The power required to drive certain
machine at 350 rpm is 60 KW. The driving
Que. Energy provided by a source e.m.f. of torque produced is ……….
5V supplying a current of 3A for 10 minutes is A. 1600 N-m
A. 9kJ B. 1637 N-m
B. 65J C. 163 N-m
C. 25kJ D. 16370 N-m
D. 90kJ Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. An electric motor when operated for 30
Que. 450 J of energy are converted into heat minute consumes 0.75 KWh. The energy loss
in 1 minute. The power dissipated is during the process is 300 KJ. The efficiency of
A. 7.5kW motor is ……..
B. 7.5W A. 88.08 %
C. 750W B. 88 %
D. 600W C. 88.88%
Ans. B D. 78 %
Ans. C
Que. The power rating of a D.C. electric
motor consuming 36 MJ when connected to a Que. An electric motor when operated for 30
250V supply for 1 hour is minute consumes 0.75 KWh. The energy loss
A. 100W during the process is 300 KJ. The useful work
B. 10W done by motor is ………
C. 500W A. 2400 KJ
D. 10KW B. 240 KJ
Ans. D C. 24 J
D. 24000 KJ
Que. A current of 2A flows for 10 hr. Ans. A
through a100 Ω resistor. The energy consumed
by the resistor is Que. The total power supplied to an engine
A. 0.5 kWh which drives generator is 40.25 KW.
16
Generator delivers 15A to a 100Ω load. The Ans. C
efficiency of process is ……
A. 60% Que. A hydro power station has a reservoir
B. 65% capacity of 5x106 m3 .The effective water head
C. 40% is 100m. The penstock, turbine, generator
D. 55.9% efficiencies are 95%,90%,85%respectively.
Ans. D The total energy generated from power station
is….
Que. A hydroelectric generating plant is A. 35.61x1015 watt-sec
supplied from reservoir of capacity 2 X107 m3 B. 35.61x1010 watt-sec
with water head of 200m. Efficiency of system C. 35.61x109 watt-sec
is 0.72. The amount of useful energy is ……. D. 35.61x1011 watt-sec
A. 8.8 X 109 Wh Ans. D
B. 7.99 X 109 Wh
C. 8.855 X 109 Wh ((Q))2_ An electrically driven pump lifts 80m3
D. 7.85 X 109 Wh of water per min through a height of 12m.IF
Ans. D overall efficiency of motor-pump set is 70%.
The input power to motor is ……
Que. The H.P rating of an engine which drives A. 224.228Kw
a generator supplying a load of 7000 lamp B. 156960W
each taking 0.5A at 250V is ……..(efficiency C. 150000W
of generator is 95%) D. 200Kw
A. 1234.6H.P Ans. A
B. 1172.9H.P
C. 2000H.P Que. A1500V dc motor takes an input of
D. 500H.P 35Kw and drives a load at 1500 rpm. The
Ans. A torque required by the load is 2oo N-m.The
efficiency of motor is
Que. A steam power station has an overall A. 85%
efficiency of 20%.The calorific value of coal B. 89.77%
used is 7166.67 kcal/kg. The amount of coal C. 90%
burnt per KWh of electrical energy is …… D. 70%
A. 2 Kg Ans. B
B. 0.6 kg
C. 6 Kg Que. How many joules of energy will be
D. 1 Kg required to melt 50 kg of tin .The m.p of tin is
Ans. B 2350C and room temperature is 150C. Latent
heat of fusion for tin is 55.902 KJ/Kg and
Que. A motor is used to crank an engine specific heat is 0.231KJ/Kg.K
against the torque of 60 N-m at 75 rpm for A. 5500 KJ
8second. The energy requirement of each start B. 5000 KJ
is…… C. 5336.1 KJ
A. 41.87 Wh D. 6000 KJ
B. 4.187W Ans. C
C. 4.187 Wh
D. 4500 w
17
Que. How much volume of water is used by B. 75%
100MW power station suppling load for 12 C. 60%
hours a day? The effective water head is D. 80%
220m.The overall efficiency of the power Ans. A
station is 86.4%.
A. 2.316x105 m3 Que. A1500V dc motor takes an input of-------
B. 2.316x106 m3 -- and drives a load at 1500 rpm. The torque
C. 2.316x107m3 required by the load is 2oo N-m.The efficiency
D. 2.316x108 m3 of motor is 89.77%
Ans. B A. 40KW
B. 35Kw
Que. The power required to drive certain C. 90KW
machine at 350 rpm is------. The driving torque D. 45KW
produced is 1637 N-m …. Ans. B
A. 40KW
B. 50 KW Que. The calorific value of coal used for
C. 60 KW thermal power generation is
D. 60 W 7166.67kcal/kg.The amount of coal burnt per
Ans. C KWh of electrical energy is 0.6 kg. The steam
power station has an overall efficiency of
Que. The total power supplied to an engine A. 25%
which drives generator is-----. If Generator B. 20%.
delivers 15A to a 100Ω load. The efficiency of C. 18%
process is 55.9%. D. 22%
A. 40.25 W Ans. B
B. 4025 KW
C. 402.5KW Que. when an electric motor having efficiency
D. 40.25 KW of 88.88% is operated for 30 minute consumes
Ans. D 0.75 KWh. The energy loss during the process
is -------
Que. The 1234.6 H.P rating engine drives a A. 200KJ
generator supplying a load of 7000 lamp each B. 7500J
taking 0.5A at 250V .efficiency of generator is C. 300 KJ
A. 95% D. 75KW
B. 80% Ans. C
C. 30%
D. 50%
Ans. A UNIT IIA
Que. An electrically driven pump lifts 80m3 of Que. The complete path followed by the
water per min through a height of 12m.IF magnetic flux is called
overall efficiency of motor-pump set is 70%. A. electric circuit
The input power to motor is 224.228Kw .the B. magnetic circuit
overall efficiency of motor-pump set is C. electromagnetism
A. 70%. D. electric field
18
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. Current carrying conductor is always

surrounded by
A. magnetic field Que. unit of flux is
B. electric field A. weber
C. Electricity B. wb/m2
D. current C. Tesla
Ans. A D. AT
Ans. A
Que. The direction of magnetic field produced
by current carrying conductor is given by Que. Unit of flux density is
A. Lenz’s law A. wb/m2
B. right hand thumb rule B. wb
C. Fleming’s left hand rule C. AT/wb
D. Kirchoff’s law D. A
Ans. B Ans. A
Que. Imaginary lines of force originating from Que. Unit of magnetic field
magnet is called A. wb/m2
A. current B. wb
B. resistance C. AT/wb
C. flux D. none of above
D. magnetic field Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. Unit of reluctance is
Que. Region surrounded by magnet is called A. AT/wb
A. magnetic field strength B. AT
B. magnetic field C. Tesla
C. electric field D. Wb/A
D. resistance Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Opposition to the magnetic lines of force
Que. lines of force is also called is called
A. flux A. Flux
B. current B. resistance
C. resistance C. susceptance
D. flux density D. reluctance
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. Lines of force passing per unit area is Que. Unit of magnetic field strength is
called A. AT/m
A. magnetic field B. AT/wb
B. magnetic flux C. Tesla
C. magnetic flux density D. ohms
D. magnetic field strength Ans. A
19
Que. The term saturation related to magnetic
Que. The force experienced between two circuit means
current carrying conductors in the same A. magnetic field strength increases with
direction current
A. have force of repulsion between them B. flux density increases with current
B. have force of attraction between them C. flux density remains constant if magnetic
C. remains unaffected field strength is increased
D. none of above D. magnetic field strength remains constant if
Ans. B flux density is increased
Ans. C
Que. Magneto motive force is directly
proportional to Que. The lines of force produced by coil
A. no. of turns of coil completing their path through air, instead of
B. current through the coil intended path is called
C. both a and b A. useful flux
D. none of above B. saturated flux
Ans. C C. air flux
D. leakage flux
Que. The term permeability for a material Ans. D
means
A. the no. of turns on an air core Que. The bulging of lines of force in air gap in
B. the mmf required to produce one unit of a magnetic circuit is called
magnetic flux A. leaking flux
C. the ability of a material to carry electricity B. merging
through it C. fringing
D. the ability of material to carry magnetic D. scattering
lines of force Ans. C
Ans. D
Que. Relative permeability of vacuum is
Que. An air gap is usually inserted in a A. 4π × 10-7 H/m
magnetic circuit B. 1 H/m
A. to prevent saturation C. 1
B. increase flux D. ¼ H/m
C. decrease flux Ans. C
D. increase mmf
Ans. A Que. Permeability of vacuum is
A. 4π × 10-7 H/m
Que. Permeability of a material is the ratio of B. 1 H/m
A. magnetic field to flux density C. 1
B. magnetic flux density to magnetic field D. ¼ H/m
strength Ans. A
C. magnetic field strength to flux density
D. none of above Que. MMF in magnetic circuit is analogous to
Ans. B A. electric current in electric circuit
B. current density in electric circuit
C. electromotive force(EMF)in electric circuit
20
D. resistance in electric circuit Que. Leakage factor is defined as the ratio of
Ans. C A. flux in air gap by total flux
B. Total flux by useful flux
Que. Reluctance is analogous to C. air gap flux by useful flux
A. emf in electric circuit D. total flux by flux produced by solenoid
B. resistivity in electric circuit Ans. B
C. conductivity in electric circuit
D. resistance in electric circuit Que. Effect of fringing in magnetic circuit is
Ans. D A. it increases flux density
B. its effective area of air gap decreases
Que. The magnetic reluctance of a material C. it decreases flux density
A. increases with increasing cross sectional D. none of above
area of material Ans. C
B. does not vary with increasing the cross
sectional area Que. The force experienced by unit north pole
C. decreases with increasing cross sectional when placed at point in a magnetic field is
area of material called
D. decreases with increasing the length of A. magnetic field strength at that point
material B. exerted force at that point
Ans. C C. flux
D. magnetic field
Que. The correct relation in the following is Ans. A
𝑁𝑥𝑎
A. ф =
𝑙µ0µ𝑟
𝑙
Que. The mechanical force acting on current
B. 𝑁𝐼 = 𝐵 × carrying on conductor when placed in
𝜇0 𝜇𝑟 𝑎
C. 𝑁 = 𝐻𝑥𝑙 magnetic field is given by relation
∅𝑥𝑙 𝑑∅
D. 𝑁𝐼 = A. 𝐹 = 𝑁
𝜇0 𝜇𝑟 𝑎 𝑑𝑡
Ans. D B. 𝐹 = 𝐵𝑙𝑉𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
C. 𝐹 = 𝐵𝐼𝑙𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝑑𝑖
Que. The permeance in a magnetic circuit D. 𝐹 = 𝐿
𝑑𝑡
corresponds to Ans. C
A. resistance in an electric circuit
B. emf in an electric circuit Que. Which of the following has the highest
C. conductivity in electric circuit magnetic permeability
D. conductance in an electric circuit A. paramagnetic substances
Ans. D B. diamagnetic substances
C. ferromagnetic substances
Que. The ampere turns are D. vacuum
A. the product of the number of turns and Ans. C
current of the coil
B. the number of turns of a coil through which Que. The perfect insulator for magnetic lines
current is flowing of force is
C. the currents of all turns of the coil A. copper
D. the turns of transformer winding B. rubber
Ans. A C. glass
21
D. none of these A. very high
Ans. D B. in opposite direction
C. low
Que. When current carrying conductor is D. in the same direction
brought into magnetic field, the force that Ans. D
moves the conductor depends upon
A. direction of current Que. Two current carrying conductor lying
B. length of conductor parallel and close to each other are exerting
C. value of current force of repulsion on each other. The currents
D. both b and c are
Ans. D A. very high
B. in opposite direction
Que. The magnitude of force experienced by C. low
current carrying conductor placed in magnetic D. in the same direction
field depends on Ans. B
A. value of flux
B. magnitude of current flowing through Que. Magnetic field strength due to N long
conductor straight conductors carrying current in the
C. direction of current same direction is given by
D. all of above 𝑁𝐼
A. 𝐻 =
4𝜋𝑑
Ans. D 𝐼
B. 𝐻 =
2𝜋𝑑
𝑁𝐼
Que. Two current carrying conductor lying C. 𝐻 =
2𝜋𝑑
parallel and close to each other. They are 𝑁𝐼
carrying current in the opposite direction. The D. 𝐻 =
𝑙
force between them is Ans. C
A. repulsive
B. Attractive Que. Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find
C. Zero A. Magnitude of induced emf in conductor
D. none of these B. Direction of magnetic field in conductor
Ans. A C. Direction of force on current carrying
conductor
Que. Two current carrying conductor lying D. Magnitude of flux density
parallel and close to each other. They are Ans. C
carrying current in the same direction. The
force between them is Que. Which statement is correct related to
A. repulsive magnetic field produced due to current
B. Attractive carrying conductor
C. Zero A. direction of rotation of screw to advance in
D. none of these the direction of current gives the direction of
Ans. B magnetic field
B. If right hand curled fingers shows the
Que. Two current carrying conductors lying direction of current, thumb gives the direction
parallel and close to each other are exerting of magnetic field
force of attraction on each other. The currents C. if direction of rotation of screw shows
are current ,tip gives the direction of magnetic
field
22
D. all of these B. magnetic flux density in other medium to
Ans. A magnetic field strength
C. magnetic field strength to magnetic flux
Que. Force experienced by current carrying density in vacuum
conductors when placed in magnetic field will D. magnetic field strength in medium to flux
be zero when density in other medium
A. current in the conductor is maximum Ans. A
B. Angle between conductor and field is zero
C. Both a &b Que. Right hand thumb rule is used to find out
D. None of these A. direction of induced emf
Ans. B B. direction of magnetic field due to current
carrying conductor
Que. Relative permeability is defined as the C. magnitude of force experienced
ratio of D. direction of force
A. magnetic field strength in a medium to flux Ans. B
density in the same medium
B. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to Que. In Flemings left hand rule, thumb always
magnetic field strength in vacuum represents
C. Magnetic flux density in other medium to A. current
flux density in vacuum B. voltage
D. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to flux C. magnetic field
density in other medium D. direction of force on conductor
Ans. C Ans. D
Que. The ability with which the magnetic Que. Permeance is to reluctance as
material allows the flux to pass through a conductance is to
given medium is called A. inductance
A. susceptibility B. resistance
B. permeability C. capacitance
C. conductivity D. ampere turns
D. reluctivity Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. 1 Tesla is given as
Que. Unit of permeability is A. 1wb/m2
𝐴 B. 1wb/cm2
A.
𝑚
𝐻 C. 1mwb/cm2
B. D. 1wb/mm2
𝑚
𝑙 Ans. A
C.
𝑚
𝐻
D. Que. Which part of the magnetic path requires
𝑙
Ans. B largest mmf
A. coil
Que. Permeability of free space or vacuum is B. core
defined as the ratio of C. airgap
A. magnetic flux density in vacuum to D. inductance
magnetic field strength Ans. C
23
B. silicon steel
Que. Soft steel and iron alloy allows easy flow C. aluminum
of a magnetic flux because D. brass
A. of its high elasticity Ans. B
B. of its high permeability
C. of its high conductivity Que. Flux in the air gap which passes through
D. of its high reluctance the desired path is______
Ans. B A. leakage flux
B. total flux
Que. Magnitude of the magnetic field strength C. useful flux
produced by a coil depends on D. all of above
A. Permeability of the core material Ans. C
B. the no. of turns of coil
C. the magnitude of current flow through the Que. The reluctance of a magnetic circuit
coil varies with
D. all of the above A. length × area
Ans. D B. length / area
C. area/length
Que. The relative permeability of air D. (length)2 + area
is__________ Ans. B
A. 1
B. less than 1 Que. A strength of an electromagnet is
C. greater than 1 determined by
D. 1000 A. reluctance
Ans. A B. permeability of the core
C. mmf
Que. Relative permeability of all non D. all of above
magnetic materials is_____ Ans. D
A. 300
B. 0.7 Que. The strength of the magnetic field
C. 1 around a conductor is directly proportional to
D. 0 A. voltage across the conductor
Ans. C B. current in the conductor
C. type of material of conductor
D. none of above
Que. Which of the following is non magnetic Ans. B
material?
A. iron Que. Reluctance of magnetic material is
B. Mild steel A. less than non magnetic material
C. brass B. more than non magnetic material
D. Silicon steel C. equal to that of non magnetic material
Ans. C D. none of above
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following is magnetic
material? Que. The denser the flux
A. copper A. stronger is the magnetic field
24
B. weaker is the magnetic flux C. fore fingure
C. no effect on the strength of field D. middle fingure
D. none of above Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given
Que. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by
by A. Flemings right hand rule
A. Flemings right hand rule B. Flemings left hand rule
B. Flemings left hand rule C. faradays law of electromagnetic induction
C. faradays law of electromagnetic induction D. crock screw rule.
D. crock screw rule. Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. Magnitude of induced e.m.f. will be
Que. One weber is dependent on
A. 108 lines of force A. flux density
B. 106 lines of force B. rate of change of current
C. 109 lines of force C. rate of cutting flux
D. none of these D. bothb and c
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. Magnetomotive force is given by Que. According to Lenz’s law direction of

A. 𝐻 × 𝑙 induced e.m.f. is
B. ∅ × 𝑆 A. Same as cause produced
C. 𝑁 × 𝐼 B. Perpendicular to cause producing it
D. all of the above C. opposite to cause producing it
Ans. D D. Non above
Ans. C
Que. In a series magnetic circuit
A. Flux always remains same Que. According to Faraday’s Laws of
B. MMF remains same electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f.is induced
C. Reluctance remains same in a conductor whenever it
D. permeability remains same A. Lies in magnetic field
Ans. A B. Cuts magnetic flux
C. moves parallel to the direction of the
Que. In a parallel magnetic circuit magnetic field
A. Flux always remains same D. lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux.
B. MMF remains same Ans. B
C. Reluctance remains same
D. permeability remains same Que. When a magnet moves past an object, it
Ans. B will produce eddy currents in the object if the
object is
Que. The direction of magnetic field by using A. a solid
right hand thumb rule for solenoid is given B. an insulator
by____ C. a conductor
A. curled fingures D. made from the magnetic material
B. thumb Ans. D
25
Ans. B
Que. Electricity can be generated by rotating a
wire loop between the poles of a magnet. In Que. Emf induced in a coil due to current
which of the following positions would induce change in neighboring coil is called_________
the greatest current in the loop? induction.
A. The plane of the loop is parallel to the A. Mutual
magnetic field B. Self
B. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the C. Dynamic
magnetic field D. Static
C. The plane of the loop makes an angle of 45° Ans. A
with the magnetic field
D. The induced current is the same in all Que. Co-efficient of self induction is also
positions called as__________
Ans. B A. self- induction
B. Inductance
Que. In which of the following situations a C. Self- inductance
voltage is induced in a conductor? D. Induction
A. The conductor moves through the air. Ans. C
B. The conductor is connected to a battery.
C. The conductor is connected to a motor. Que. The property of a coil due to which it
D. The conductor is moved in a magnetic field opposes the change of current flowing through
Ans. D itself is called_____ of the coil.
A. Static inductance
Que. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic B. Dynamic inductance
induction describes how an electric field can C. Self inductance
be reduced at a point in space by D. Mutual inductance
A. an electric charge Ans. C
B. a constant magnetic field
C. a changing magnetic field Que. ____________is used to sense the flow
D. a steady current. of current in a electric circuit.
Ans. C A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
Que. In case of dynamically induced emf, C. Wattmeter
direction of induced emf is given by D. Galvanometer
A. Fleming’s right hand rule Ans. A
B. Lenz’s law
C. Faraday’s first law Que. The phenomenon of the self induction is
D. Faraday’s second law felt only when the current in the coil is
Ans. A A. Changing
B. Increasing
Que. Emf induced in a coil due to its own C. Decreasing
current is called __________Induction. D. All the above
A. Mutual Ans. D
B. Self
C. Dynamic
D. Static
26
Que. The negative sign in the induced emf of C. Number of lines of force
self induction indicates that energy is being D. None of these
absorbed from the electric circuit and stored Ans. B
as _______ energy in the coil.
A. mechanical Que. Leakage factor can be called as
B. Electronic A. Fringing
C. electric B. Coefficient of inductance
D. Magnetic C. Magnetic coefficient
Ans. D D. Hopkinson’s coefficient
Ans. D
Que. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of
the circuit is______ Que. Movement of electrons are called as
A. Volt A. MMF
B. Ampere B. Current
C. Henry C. Voltage
D. Linkages D. Flux
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. Unit of induced emf is_________ Que. Flux density is equal to ________ of
A. Volt flux and area of cross – section.
B. Ampere A. Sum
C. Henry B. Difference
D. Linkages C. Product
Ans. A D. ratio
Ans. D
Que. The property of one coil due to which it
opposes the change in the other coil is Que. NI expression is called
called…………. between two coils. A. MMF
A. Dynamic inductance B. EMF
B. Static inductance C. Flux linkage
C. Self inductance D. Magnetic intensity
D. Mutual inductance Ans. A
Ans. D
𝑁𝐼
Que. Expression 𝑙 is called
Que. The unit of mutual inductance
A. MMF
is_________
B. EMF
A. Volt
C. Flux linkage
B. Ampere/ Volt
D. Magnetic field strength
C. Henry
Ans. D
D. Linkages
Ans. C
Que. Expression for mutual inductance is
A. –L dI/dt
Que. In the expression e = M dI/dt , M
B. MdI / dt
represents
C. N2 Ф2/ I1
A. Mutual induction
D. NФ/I
B. Mutual inductance
Ans. C
27
D. Induced emf
Que. As per Faraday’s law of electromagnetic Ans. A
induction, e=
A. –NdФ/dt Que.
𝑙
In the expression for reluctance𝑆 = 𝜇𝑎
B. MdI / dt
C. N2 Ф2 / I1 of a conduced, letter ‘a’ represents_________
D. NФ/I of the core.
Ans. A A. Total area
B. Surface area
Que. The constant K in case of mutual C. Cross- sectional area
induction is equal to D. None of these.
A. Ф1/Ф2 Ans. C
B. Ф2/Ф1
C. Ф1/I1 Que. When a current carrying conductor is
D. Ф2/I1 brought in to magnetic field, the force that
Ans. D moves the conductor depends on
A. direction of current.
Que. Product of the permeability μ0μr is equal B. length of conductor
to C. value of current
A. Magnetic flux D. all of the above
B. Magnetic field Ans. D
C. Magnetic intensity
D. Magnetic flux density / magnetic field Que. When a coil consisting of single turn
strength rotates at uniform speed in magnetic field, the
Ans. D induced emf is____
A. steady
Que. Expression for self induced emf is B. alternating
A. –L dI/dt C. changing
B. MdI1 / dt D. reversing
C. N2 Ф2/ I1 Ans. B
D. NФ/I Que. If l is the length of magnetic path, then
Ans. A magnetizing force is
A. N l
Que. __________is normally termed as flux B. NI x ℓ
linkages. C. ℓ / NI
A. Ф D. NI / ℓ
B. dФ/dt Ans. D
C. NФ
D. Ф/I Que. The amount of energy stored in
Ans. C magnetic field is____
1
A. 𝐸 = 𝐶𝐼 2
2
Que. The term NФ/I is generally called 1
B. 𝐸 = 𝐿𝐼 2
as______ 2
1
A. Self inductance C. 𝐸 = 𝐿𝑉 2
2
1
B. Mutual inductance D. 𝐸 = 2 𝐶𝑉 2
C. Flux linkage
Ans. B
28
Ans. A
Que. The unit of energy stored in magnetic
field is____ Que. If two side by side placed coils are
A. Watt cumulatively coupled, then the fluxes in that
B. Joule/sec two coils are always ….
C. Joule A. in Same direction
D. Joule-sec B. in Opposite direction
Ans. C C. in outward direction
D. in inward direction
Que. The amount of energy stored per unit Ans. A
volume in magnetic field is____
1
A. 𝐸 = 𝐵𝐿 Que. If two side by side placed coils are
2
1 differentially coupled, then the fluxes in that
B. 𝐸 = 𝐵𝐻 two coils are always ….
2
1
C. 𝐸 = µ𝐻 A. in same direction
2
1 B. in opposite direction
D. 𝐸 = 𝜇𝐵 C. in outward direction
2
Ans. B D. in inward direction
Ans. B
Que. The relation between self inductances L1
and L2 of two side by side placed coils and the Que. If two coils having self inductances of L1
mutual inductance M between them, with Henry and L2 Henry are cumulatively coupled.
coefficient of coupling as K is …. The mutual inductance between them is M
A. 𝑀 = 𝐾𝑥𝐿1 𝐿2 Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
𝐾
B. 𝑀 = inductance is……
√𝐿1 𝐿2
𝑀 A. L1+L2+2M
C. 𝐾 = B. L1+L2-2M
√𝐿1 𝐿2
D. 𝐾 = √𝑀𝑥√𝐿1 𝐿2 C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. If two side by side placed coils are
Que. If two coils having self inductances of L1
perfectly coupled, then the coefficient of
Henry and L2 Henry are differentially coupled.
coupling is….
The mutual inductance between them is M
A. less than 1
Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
B. More than 1
inductance is……
C. equal to 1
A. L1+L2+2M
D. equal to zero
B. L1+L2-2M
Ans. C
C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. B
loosely coupled, then the coefficient of
coupling is….
A. less than 1
B. More than 1 UNIT IIB
C. equal to 1
D. equal to zero
29
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 turns
turns over a steel of relative permeability 900. over steel ring of relative permeability 900,
If a current of 5 A is passed through the coil. having mean circumference of 40mm and
The MMF is________ cross sectional area of 50mm2. A current of
A. 4500 AT 25A is passed through coil. Then the mmf of
B. 270000 AT ring is_____
C. 1500 AT A. 5000AT
D. 7500 AT B. 7200AT
Ans. C C. 750AT
D. 7500 AT
Que. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb to Ans. D
0.3 Wb, then change in flux is______ Wb
A. 1.1 Que. If two coils having self inductances of
B. 0.5 10mH and 20mH are cumulatively coupled.
C. -0.5 The mutual inductance between them is 5mH
D. -1.1 Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
Ans. C inductance is……
A. 40 mH
Que. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if B. 20 mH
the current is 100 mA, then MMF is ________ C. 35 mH
A. 2000 AT D. 25 mH
B. 200 AT Ans. A
C. 20 AT
D. 0.5 AT Que. If two coils having self inductances of
Ans. C 10mH and 20mH are differentially coupled.
The mutual inductance between them is 5
Que. A straight conductor having an active Henry. Then the effective or equivalent
length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform magnetic inductance is……
field of 0.6 T. Find the emf produced in the A. 40 mH
conductor when it is moved perpendicular to B. 20 mH
the magnetic field at a rate of 7 m/s C. 35 mH
A. 0V D. 25 mH
B. 1.26V Ans. B
C. 0.18V
D. 0.88V Que. What will be the current flowing through
Ans. B the ring shaped air core when number of turns
is 800 and ampere turns are 3200
Que. The coil with self inductance 35mH A. 0.25A
carries a current of 4 amp. The amount of B. 2.5A
energy stored in it is ____ C. 4.0A
A. 1.12 J D. 0.4A
B. 0.14 J Ans. C
C. 0.56 J
D. 0.28 J Que. If 0.75 V is induced emf and resistance
Ans. C offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced
current is
30
A. 3.75 A B. 0.7×106 AT/Wb
B. 3. 75 mA C. 6×107 AT/Wb
C. 3. 75 micro Ampere D. 6×105 AT/Wb
D. 37.5 mA Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300
turns over steel ring of relative permeability
UNIT IIC 900, having mean circumference of 40mm and
cross sectional area of 50mm2. A current of
Que. A straight conductor having an 25A is passed through coil. The value of flux
active length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform is _________
magnetic field of 0.6 T. Find the emf produced A. 10.6Wb
in the conductor when it is moved at 300 to the B. 70mWb
magnetic field at a rate of 7 m/s C. 10.6mWb
A. 0V D. 106mwb
B. 1.26V Ans. C
C. 0.63V
D. 0.88V Que. A magnetic circuit has a mmf of
Ans. C 400AT and a reluctance of 2 × 105 AT/wb.
The magnetic flux in the magnetic circuit is
Que. A conductor of 10cm length carrying A. 3 × 10-5Wb
a current of 5A placed in uniform magnetic B. 2 × 10-3Wb
field of flux density 1.25T at 300 to the lines of C. 1.5 × 10-2Wb
flux. Force acting on conductor will be D. 2.5 × 10-4Wb
A. 0.3125N Ans. B
B. 3.125N
C. 1.325N Que. A 2cm long coil has 10 turns and
D. 5.321N carries a current of 750mA. The magnetizing
Ans. A force of the coil is
A. 225 AT/m
Que. A solenoid has a flux of 12mwb and a B. 675 AT/m
flux density of 0.9T.The diameter of solenoid C. 450 AT/m
must be D. 375 AT/m
A. 130.3mm Ans. D
B. 13.33cm
C. 10cm Que. A magnetic core having mean length
D. 4.12cm of 20cm, C/S area of 1 cm2, µ r of 2400 . The
Ans. A reluctance of the magnetic core is
A. 663.48 x 104 AT/wb
Que. A coil is wound uniformly with 300 B. 663.48 x 103 AT/wb
turns over steel ring of relative permeability C. 66.348 x 102 AT/wb
900, having mean circumference of 40mm and D. 66.348 x105 AT/wb
cross sectional area of 50mm2. A current of Ans. B
25A is passed through coil. Then the
reluctance of ring is______ Que. If the reluctance of magnetic material
A. 7×107 AT/Wb is 65x 105 AT/wb. The no. of amp turns
31
required to produce a flux of 20 A. 0.04 N
mwb__________ B. 4 N
A. 13x103 AT C. 0.4 N
B. 13x104AT D. none of these
C. 13x102AT Ans. A
D. none of these
Ans. B Que. A straight wire 0.5 m long carries a
current of 100A & lies at right angle to a
Que. An iron ring of 100 cm mean diameter uniform field of 1.5T. Find the mechanical
and 10 cm2 cross section has 1000 turns of force on the conductor.
copper wire on it. The permeability of the A. 37.5 N
material is 1500. The reluctance of the ring B. 0
is___________ C. 53N
D. 75N
A. 1.67 x 106 AT/Wb Ans. D
B. 16.7 x 106 AT/Wb
C. 1.67 x 105 AT/Wb Que. A straight wire 0.5 m long carries a
current of 100A & lies at parallel to the
D. 1.67 x 104 AT/Wb
uniform field of 1.5T. Find the mechanical
Ans. A
force on the conductor.
A. 373N
Que. A coil is wound uniformly over a steel
B. 0
of relative permeability 900, having a mean
C. 53N
circumference of 40 mm and cross-sectional
D. 75N
area of 50 mm2. The reluctance of the steel is
Ans. b
___
A. 707.714 x 103 AT/Wb
B. 70.77 x 103 AT/Wb
turns over a steel ring of relative permeability
C. 707.714 x 104 AT/Wb
900 having mean circumference of 40cm &
D. 7.07 x 104 AT/Wb
cross sectional area of 5 cm2. If coil has
Ans. A
resistance of 100 Ω, & is connected to 250V
DC supply, calculate coil current.
Que. A straight conductor having an
A. 2.5A
active length of 30cm, is kept in a uniform
B. 3.53 mA
magnetic field of 0.6 T. Find the emf produced
C. 2.8A
in the conductor when it is moved parallel to
D. none of these
the magnetic field at a rate of 7 m/s
Ans. D
A. 0V
B. 1.26V
Que. A magnetic circuit has a m.m.f. of
C. 0.18V
400 AT & a reluctance of 2 x 105 AT/wb The
D. 0.88V
magnetic flux in the magnetic circuit is
Ans. A
A. 3 x 10-5wb
B. 2 x 10-3wb
Que. In certain electric motor, wire that
C. 1.5 x 10-2wb
carry a current of 5A are perpendicular to a
D. 2.5 x 10-4wb
magnetic field of 0.8 T. What is the force on
Ans. B
each cm of these wires
32
Que. The self inductances of two side by
Que. In a magnetic circuit the value of B side placed coils are 18 mH and 12 mH
and H are 1.5Tesla and 20 AT/m respectively. respectively. If the coefficient of coupling is
The amount of energy stored per unit volume 0.78, then the mutual inductance between them
in it is ____ is ….
A. 60 J A. 0.53H
B. 30 J B. 0.169H
C. 15 J C. 0.011H
D. 13.33 J D. 0.0188H
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. The magnetic circuit with mean length Que. A magnetic circuit requires 800
of 100 cm and 20cm2 cross sectional area ampere turns to produce a certain amount of
gives magnetic field strength of 150 A/m flux. If exciting coil of 100 turns has 5 ohms
along its length, The flux of 6 mWb is resistance, then the voltage to be applied to the
developed in it. Then the amount of energy exciting coil must be
stored in it is ____ A. 40V
A. 0.9 J B. 20 V
B. 0.45 J C. 10V
C. 450J D. 5V
D. 18 J Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. The magnetic circuit with mean length UNIT IIIA

of 100 cm and 20cm2 cross sectional area
gives magnetic field strength of 150 A/m
along its length, The flux of 6 mWb is Que. A transformer is used to___________
developed in it. Then the amount of energy A. change ac voltage to dc voltage
stored per unit volume in it is ____ B. change dc voltage to ac voltage
A. 1800J C. step up or step down dc voltages
B. 900 J D. step up or step down ac voltages
C. 225 J Ans. D
D. 450 J
Ans. C Que. The two windings of a transformer are
__________
Que. The self inductances of two side by A. conductively linked
side placed coils are 18 mH and 12 mH B. inductively linked
respectively. If the mutual inductance between C. not linked at all
them is 6mH, then the coefficient of coupling D. electrically linked
is…. Ans. B
A. 0.245
B. 0.41 Que. The magnetically operated device that
C. 088 can change values of voltage, current, and
D. 0.4 impedance without changing frequency is
Ans. D called____________
A. Motor
33
B. Generator D. Self induction
C. Transformer Ans. B
D. Transistor
Ans. C Que. Transformer is used to change values
of__________
Que. The transformer winding across which A. Frequency
the supply voltage applied is called the _____ B. Voltage
winding. C. Power
A. Primary D. Power factor
B. Secondary Ans. B
C. Tertiary
D. Tapped Que. The path of the magnetic flux in
Ans. A transformer should have __________
A. Low resistance
Que. The transformer winding which is B. Low reluctance
connected to the load is called the_______ C. High reluctance
winding. D. High conductivity
A. Primary Ans. B
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Tapped Que. Electrical power is transformed from one
Ans. B coil to other coil in transformer_________
A. Physically
Que. If supply frequency of a transformer B. Electrically
increases, the secondary output voltage of the C. Magnetically
transformer____. D. Electromagnetically
A. Decreases Ans. D
B. increases
C. remains same Que. A transformer operates___________
D. decreases slightly A. Always at unity power factor
Ans. B B. At power factor depending on load
C. Has its own power factor
Que. The horizontal and vertical portions of D. At power factor below particular value
transformer magnetic core are called Ans. B
as_________
A. Limb, yoke Que. The laminations of transformer core are
B. Yoke, limb made up from__________
C. Yoke A. Low carbon steel
D. Limb B. Silicon sheet steel
Ans. B C. Nickel alloy steel stamping
D. Chrome sheet steel
Que. The principle of working of transformer Ans. B
is based on ________
A. Static induction Que. The material used for construction of
B. Mutual induction transformer core should have___________
C. Dynamic induction A. Low permeability & high hysteresis loss
34
B. Low permeability & low hysteresis loss
C. High permeability & high hysteresis loss Que. The main function of transformer iron
D. high permeability & low hysteresis loss core is to__________
Ans. D A. Provide strength to the winding
B. To decrease hysteresis loss
Que. Most transformer cores are not made C. Decrease the reluctance of magnetic path
from a solid piece of metal. Instead, they are D. Reduce eddy current loss
assembled from many thin sheets of metal. Ans. C
This type of construction is called__________
A. Laminated Que. The transformer turns ratio
B. Toroid determines_____________
C. H core A. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages
D. tape wound B. the ratio of primary and secondary currents
Ans. A C. The resistance on other side
D. all of the above
Que. The concentric cylindrical winding is Ans. A
used for__________
A. Core type transformer Que. Turns ratio of single phase transformer is
B. Shell type transformer given as__________
C. Berry type transformer A. N2/N1
D. None of these B. N1/N2
Ans. A C. (N1xN2)/N1
D. (N1xN2)/N2
Que. The sandwich type winding is used Ans. B
for___________
A. Core type transformer Que. A transformer in which the secondary
B. Berry type transformer voltage is more than the primary voltage is
C. Shell type transformer called a _____ transformer
D. None of these A. step-down
Ans. C B. step-up
C. Isolation
Que. Silicon steel is used for transformer D. Auto
core__________ Ans. B
A. To reduce hysteresis loss
B. To reduce eddy current loss Que. A transformer in which the primary
C. To reduce both losses voltage is more than the secondary voltage is
D. None of these called a _____ transformer
Ans. A A. step-down
B. step-up
Que. What is common in two windings of C. Isolation
transformer_________ D. Auto
A. Electric current Ans. A
B. Magnetic circuit
C. Winding wire guage Que. Any transformer flux that does not follow
D. None of these the core and escapes into the surrounding air is
Ans. B called____
35
A. magnetizing flux B. Decreasing the thickness of laminations
B. coupling flux C. Decreasing the air gap in magnetic circuit
C. leakage flux D. Using wire of higher guage for winding
D. reactance flux Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. A good transformer oil should be
Que. A transformer that does not isolate the absolutely free from__________
output from the input is called _____ A. Sulpher
transformer B. Alkalies
A. Distribution C. Moisture
B. step-up D. All of the above
C. Auto Ans. C
D. Control
Ans. C Que. Single phase core type transformer
has__________
Que. Ideal transformer assumptions do not A. One magnetic circuit
include____________ B. Two magnetic circuits
A. Zero reactance of the winding C. No magnetic circuit
B. Zero resistance of the winding D. None of these
C. No leakage flux Ans. A
D. No saturation of the core
Ans. A Que. Single phase shell type transformer
has__________
Que. The efficiency of the transformer is A. One magnetic circuit
normally is normally in the range B. Two magnetic circuits
of____________ C. No magnetic circuit
A. 50 to 70% D. None of these
B. 60 to 75 % Ans. B
C. 80 to 90 %
D. 90 to 98% Que. Natural cooling is better in_________
Ans. D A. Core type transformer
B. Shell Type transformer
Que. The resistance of low voltage side of C. Both A & B
transformer________ D. Berry type transformer
A. Is equal to resistance of its high voltage Ans. A
side
B. Is more than its resistance on high voltage Que. EMF equation for single phase
side transformer is________
C. Is less than its resistance on high voltage A. E= 4.44 Φm A f N
side B. E= 4.44 Bm A N
D. 0 C. E= 4.44 Bm f N
Ans. C D. E= 4.44 Φm f N
Ans. D
Que. Eddy current losses in transformer core is
reduced by_________ Que. Transformation ratio(K) of transformer
A. Increasing the thickness of laminations is_________
36
A. N2/N1 Que. Transformer power rating is usually
B. E1/E2 expressed in____________
C. I2/I1 A. kW
D. V1/V2 B. kVA
Ans. A C. kV
D. kWh
Que. For Isolation transformer the Ans. B
transformation ratio(K) is_________
A. 0 Que. In a transformer if secondary turns are
B. Greater than 1 doubled, at the same time primary voltage is
C. Less than 1 reduced by half, the secondary voltage
D. 1 will_________
Ans. D A. Be halved
B. Not change
Que. In step up transformer the transformation C. Be four times
ratio (K) is_____________ D. Be reduced to quarter
A. Greater than 1 Ans. C
B. 1
C. Less than 1 Que. The no load current in terms of full load
D. 0 current in a transformer is usually________
Ans. A A. 1 to 3%
B. 3 to 9 %
Que. In step down transformer the C. 9 to 12%
transformation ratio (K) is__________ D. 12 to 20%
A. Greater than 1 Ans. A
B. 1
C. Less than 1 Que. Transformer oil is used in transformer to
D. 0 provide_______
Ans. C A. Cooling and insulation
B. Cooling and lubrication
Que. The primary and secondary voltages in C. Insulation and lubrication
transformer are___________ D. Insulation, cooling and lubrication
A. Always in Phase Ans. A
B. 1800 out of phase
C. 900 out of phase Que. What is the typical use of
D. 300 or 600 out of phase autotransformer____________
Ans. B A. Toy transformer
B. Control transformer
Que. The induced emf in transformer C. Variable transformer
secondary depends on__________ D. Isolating transformer
A. Maximum flux in core Ans. C
B. Frequency
C. No of turns on secondary Que. In any transformer the voltage per turn in
D. all of the above primary and secondary remains____________
Ans. D A. Always different
B. Always the same
37
C. Always in ratio of K
D. Sometimes same Que. The disadvantage of auto transformer
Ans. B is______________
A. No separation between primary &
Que. If we increase the flux density in case of secondary
transformer_______________ B. Size is more than normal transformer for
A. The size of transformer will reduce same rating
B. The distortion in transformer will reduce C. More costlier than normal transformer
C. Hysteresis and eddy current losses will D. All
reduce Ans. D
D. None of these will be true
Ans. A Que. In a transformer the voltage regulation
will be near to zero when it operates
Que. The direct loading test is performed on at____________
transformer to find its____________ A. unity p.f.
A. Regulation B. leading p.f.
B. Efficiency C. lagging p.f.
C. Both D. full loaD.
D. None of these Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. A transformer steps up voltage by a
Que. The regulation of transformer is factor of 100. The ratio of current in the
calculated as_________ primary to that in secondary_______________
A. 1
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 B. 100
A.
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
C. 0.01
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
D. 0.1
B. Ans. B
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 Que. An ideal transformer does not

C.
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 change______________
A. Voltage
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒−𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
D. B. Power
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
C. current
Ans. A
D. None of these
Que. The efficiency of single phase Ans. B
transformer is calculated as_____________
𝑉2 𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅ Que. The flux in transformer
A. core____________
𝑉2 𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
V1I1 Cos∅ A. increases with load
B.
V2 I2 Cos∅+iron loss+copper loss B. decreases with load
V1 I1 Cos∅
C. C. remains constant irrespective of load
V1 I1 Cos ∅+iron loss+copper loss
D. none of these
𝑉2 𝐼2𝐶𝑜𝑠∅ Ans. C
D.
𝑉1 𝐼1 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠+𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
Ans. A
38
Que. Efficiency of transformer is maximum D. primary may burn out
when___________ Ans. D
A. transformer is unloaded
B. copper losses is equal to iron losses Que. For an ideal transformer the windings
C. eddy current losses are equal to hysteresis should have____________
losses A. maximum resistance on primary side and
D. it is maximally loaded least resistance on secondary side
Ans. B B. least resistance on primary side and
maximum resistance on secondary side
Que. If the supply frequency in transformer is C. equal resistance on primary and secondary
doubled, then_________ side
A. hysteresis loss also doubles D. no ohmic resistance on either side
B. eddy current loss also doubles Ans. D
C. iron losses doubles
D. copper losses doubles Que. A transformer does not raise or lower the
Ans. A voltage of DC supply because________
A. there is no need to change the DC voltage
Que. Hysteresis loss in transformer depends B. DC circuit has more losses
on__________ C. Faradays laws of electromagnetic induction
A. both voltage and frequency become invalid since the rate of change of flux
B. voltage alone is zero
C. frequency alone D. none of these
D. none of these Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. Primary winding of a transformer
Que. Eddy current loss depends _____________
on_____________ A. is always low voltage winding
A. both current and frequency B. is always high voltage winding
B. current alone C. could either be a low or high voltage
C. frequency alone winding
D. none of these D. none of these
Ans. A Ans. C
Que. The flux involved in EMF equation of a Que. Which winding of a transformer has
transformer has______________ more number of turns_______________
A. RMS Value A. Low voltage winding
B. Average Value B. High voltage winding
C. Total Value C. Primary winding
D. maximum Value D. secondary winding
Ans. D Ans. B
Que. If primary of the transformer is Que. In a given transformer for a given applied
connected to dc supply, then______ voltage, which losses remain constant
A. Primary draws small current irrespective of change in load___________
B. primary leakage reactance is increased A. Friction and wingdage loss
C. core losses are increased B. copper loss
39
C. hysteresis and eddy current loss B. 10 ohm
D. none of these C. 1000 ohm
Ans. C D. infinity
Ans. D
Que. Main advantage to use autotransformer
over two winding transformer____________ Que. A good voltage regulation of transformer
A. Hysteresis losses are reduced means___________
B. savings in winding material A. output voltage fluctuations from no load to
C. copper losses are negligible full load is least
D. Eddy current losses are totally eliminated B. output voltage fluctuations with power
Ans. B factor is least
C. difference between primary and secondary
Que. An ideal transformer is one which has voltage is least
_____________ D. difference between primary and secondary
A. no losses and magnetic leakage voltage is maximum
B. interleaved primary and secondary winding Ans. A
C. a common core for its primary and
secondary Que. Negative voltage regulation is indicative
D. core of stainless steel and winding of pure that the load is_____________
copper material A. Capacitive only
Ans. A B. inductive only
C. inductive or resistive
Que. In a practical transformer core losses D. none of these
remains constant from no load to full load Ans. A
because__________
A. value of transformation ratio remains Que. The size of the transformer core depend
constant on___________
B. permeability of transformer core remains A. frequency
constant B. area of the core
C. core flux remains practically constant C. flux density of the core material
D. primary and secondary voltage remains D. (a) and (b) both
constant Ans. D
Ans. C
Que. A shell type transformer has
Que. The transformer laminations are insulated _______________
from each other by_____________ A. high eddy current losses
A. mica strip B. reduced magnetic leakage
B. thin coat of varnish C. negligible hysteresis loss
C. paper D. none of these
D. any one of these Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. Deduction in core losses and increase in
Que. In transformer resistance between permeability are obtained with transformer
primary and secondary should employing______
be_____________ A. core built up of laminations of cold rolled
A. zero grain oriented steel
40
B. core built up of laminations of hot rolled A. 220V is no load voltage
steel B. The no load voltage is more than 220V
C. either a or b C. The secondary voltage increases with
D. none of these increase in load
Ans. C D. At a load which draws the rated current &
the voltage becomes less than 220V.
Ans. A
Que. Losses which occur in rotating electric
machine and do not occur in transformers Que. In which of the following transformer,
are____________ part of the primary winding serves as the
A. friction and windage losses secondary winding__
B. magnetic losses A. Potential transformer
C. hysteresis and eddy current losses B. Auto transformer
D. copper losses C. Step up transformer
Ans. A D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following loss in a
transformer is zero even at full Que. The rating of the transformer is given in
load__________ kVA instead of kW because__________
A. core loss A. kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load
B. friction loss pf
C. eddy current loss B. load power factor is often not known
D. Hysteresis loss C. it has become customary
Ans. B D. total transformer loss depends on VA
Ans. B
Que. The noise produced by transformer is
termed as _______________ Que. Increase in secondary current of
A. zoom transformer brings about increase in primary
B. hum current . This is possible because___________
C. ringing A. primary and secondary windings are
D. buzz capacitively coupleD.
Ans. B B. primary and secondary windings are
inductively coupled
Que. Part of the transformer which is most C. primary and secondary windings are
subject to damage from overheating conductively coupled
is______________ D. none of these
A. iron core Ans. B
B. copper winding
C. insulation of the winding Que. Transformer for constant voltage
D. transformer tank application is considered good if its voltage
Ans. C regulation is_________
A. low
Que. As per the name plate of transformer, the B. high
secondary normal voltage is 220V. Which of C. zero
the following statement about it is D. none of these
correct?_______ Ans. C
41
B. unity
Que. Transformer action needs that the C. 0.8 lag
magnetic flux linking with the winding must D. 0.5 lag or lead
be_____________ Ans. B
A. constant
B. pulsating Que. The regulations of two transformers are
C. alternating (i) 3% and (ii) 97%. The one with better
D. none of these regulation is______
Ans. C A. second
B. first
Que. Low voltage windings are placed next to C. both are same
the core to reduce_____________ D. depends on loading
A. Hysteresis loss Ans. B
B. eddy current loss
C. insulation requirement Que. At relatively light loads, the transformer
D. copper loss efficiency is low because__________
Ans. C A. secondary output is low
B. transformer losses are high
Que. The relation between the primary and C. fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
secondary ampere turns of a D. copper loss is small.
transformer___________ Ans. C
A. exactly equal
B. approximately equal Que. A dielectric material must be________
C. primary mmf larger than secondary mmf A. resistor
D. primary mmf smaller than secondary mmf B. Insulator
Ans. A C. Conductor
D. Semiconductor
Que. Positive voltage regulation occurs in case Ans. B
of transformer for______________
A. capacitive load Que. The energy stored in a capacitor is given
B. resistive load only by__________________________
C. inductive load only A. C2V
D. either inductive or resistive load B. CV2/2
Ans. D C. C2V/2
D. CV
Que. Cooling of transformer is required so as Ans. B
to_____________
A. increase efficiency Que. Electrolytic capacitors can be used
B. reduce losses for__________________________
C. reduce humming A. ac only
D. dissipate the heat generated in the winding B. dc only
Ans. D C. both ac and dc
D. 50 Hz ac
Que. The transformer efficiency will be Ans. B
maximum at a power factor of ____________
A. 0.8 pf lead
42
Que. If a number of capacitors are connected B. Coulomb/Volt
in series then the total capacitance of C. Ohms
combination is_____ D. Henry/Wb
A. greater than the capacitance of largest Ans. B
capacitor
B. greater than the capacitance of any Que. There is repulsive force between two
capacitor charged objects when
C. smaller than the capacitance of smallest A. Charges of unlike sign
capacitor B. they have the same number of protons
D. average of capacitances of all capacitors C. charges are of same sign
Ans. C D. they have the same number of protons
Ans. C
Que. As per Coulomb’s
law___________________ Que. The capacitance of a capacitor is not
A. F= Q1Q2 / εoεrd2 affected by
B. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋d2 A. distance between plates
C. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋 εoεrd2 B. area of plates
D. F= Q1Q2 /4𝜋 εoεrd C. thickness of plates
Ans. C D. all of the above
Ans. C
Que. Electric field intensity at any point in an
electric field is equal to_______ Que. When there is an equal amount of
A. potential gradient positive and negative charges on an object the
B. (potential gradient)2 object is
C. (potential gradient)1/2 A. Positively charged
D. (potential gradient)1/3 B. negatively charged
Ans. A C. neutral
D. supercharged
Que. The lines of forces due to isolated Ans. C
charged particles are___________
A. always straight Que. Which of the following statements is
B. always curved correct?
C. sometimes curved A. Air capacitors have a black band to indicate
D. none of the above the outside foil
Ans. A B. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in
the correct polarity
Que. The direction of electric field due to C. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in
positive charge is___ the correct polarity
A. away from the charge D. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance
B. towards the charge value of 1 to 10 µF
C. both (a) and (b) Ans. B
Ans. A Que. For which of the following parameters
variation, the capacitance of the capacitor
Que. The unit of capacitance is remains unaffected?
A. Volts/Coulomb A. Distance between plates
43
B. Area of the plates B. increase in plate area and distance between
C. Nature of dielectric the plates
D. Thickness of the plates C. decrease in plate area and value of applied
Ans. D voltage
D. reduction in plate area and distance
Que. Which of the following expressions is between the plates
correct for electric field strength? Ans. A
A. E = D/𝝐
B. E = D2/𝝐 Que. A capacitor consists of
C. E = 𝝅D A. two insulators separated by a conductor
D. E = 𝝅D2 B. two conductors separated by a dielectric
Ans. A C. two insulators only
D. two conductors only
Que. Which of the following statements is Ans. B
true?
A. The current in the discharging capacitor Que. A paper capacitor is usually available in
grows linearly the form of
B. The current in the discharging capacitor A. tubes
grows exponentially B. rolled foil
C. The current in the discharging capacitor C. disc
decays exponentially D. meshed plates
D. The current in the discharging capacitor Ans. B
decreases constantly
Ans. C Que. Air capacitors are generally available in
the range
Que. In a capacitor the electric charge is A. 10 to 400 pF
deposited on B. 1 to 20 pF
A. metal plates C. 100 to 900 pF
B. dielectric D. 20 to 100 pF
C. both (a) and (b) Ans. A
Ans. A Que. The unit of capacitance is
A. Henry
B. Ohm
Que. Which of the following materials has the C. Farad
highest value of dielectric constant D. Farad/m
A. Glass Ans. C
B. Vaccum
C. Ceramics Que. Voltage across capacitor at any time ‘t’
D. Oil during charging from a dc source of voltage V
Ans. C is given by
A. ν = Ve-t/λ
Que. Capacitance of air capacitor increases B. ν = V(1-e-t/λ)
with C. ν = V2e-t/λ
A. increase in plate area and decrease in D. ν = V2(1-e-t/λ)
distance between the plates Ans. B
44
B. paper
Que. The ratio of electric flux density to C. mica
electric field intensity is called ………. of the D. electrolytic
medium Ans. D
A. permeability
B. permittivity Que. Which of the following capacitors are
C. reluctance usually used for radio frequency tuining?
D. capacitance A. air
Ans. B B. paper
C. mica
Que. Energy stored in the electric field of a D. electrolyte
capacitor C when charged from a dc source of Ans. B
voltage V is equal to …….. Joule
A. ½ CV2 Que. The time constant of an R-C circuit is
B. ½ C2V defined as the time during which capacitor
C. CV2 charging voltage actually rises to ----------------
D. C2V percent of its ---------- value
Ans. A A. 37, initial
B. 63.2, initial
Que. The absolute permittivity of free space is C. 63.2, final
given by D. 37, final
A. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m Ans. C
B. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m
C. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m Que. The time constant of an R-C circuit is
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m defined as the time during which capacitor
Ans. D charging current actually falls to ----------------
percent of its initial maximum value
Que. The relative permittivity of free space is A. 37
given by ‘ B. 63
A. 1 C. 42
B. 10 D. 73
C. 100 Ans. A
D. 1000
Ans. A Que. Permitivity is expressed in_______
A. Farad/sq-m
Que. The capacitor preferred for high B. weber/metre
frequency circuits is C. Farad/meter
A. air capacitor D. Weber/ sq- m
B. mica capacitor Ans. C
C. electrolytic capacitor
D. paper capacitor Que. Dielectric strength of a material depends
Ans. B on_________________
A. moisture content
Que. Which of the following capacitors is B. temperature
marked for polarity____________________ C. thickness
A. air D. all of the above
45
Ans. D D. none of the above.
Ans. B
Que. 1 Volt /metre is same as
A. 1 metre/coulomb Que. What is the unit of charge?
B. 1 Newton metre A. Volt-Amp
C. 1 Newton /Coulomb B. Henery
D. 1 Joule /Coulomb C. Farad
Ans. C D. Coulomb
Ans. D
Que. The relative permittivity of air
is__________ Que. What will be the capacitance of four
A. 0 capacitors of equal capacitance ‘C’ when
B. 1.0006 connected in parallel?
C. 8.854 × 10−12 A. 4C
D. none of the above B. C/4
Ans. B C. 3C/4
D. C
Que. The capacitance of a capacitor is ……… Ans. A
relative permittivity.
A. directly proportional to Que. A region around a stationary electric
B. inversely proportional to charge has______
C. independent of A. magnetic field
D. directly proportional to square of B. electric field
Ans. A C. magnetic field and electric field
D. neither magnetic field nor electric field
Que. The most convenient way of achieving Ans. B
large capacitance is by using
A. multiplate construction
B. decreased distance between plates
C. air as dielectric Que. One Farad is the same as
D. dielectric of low permittivity A. One Coulomb/Volt
Ans. A B. One Joule/ Coulomb
C. One Joule/ Volt
Que. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced D. One Coulomb / Joule
by a conducting material the Ans. A
A. capacitor will get heated up owing to eddy
currents Que. If Q be the charge and C be the
B. plates will get short-circuited capacitance then the energy stored in the
C. capacitor can store infinite charge capacitor is ___________
D. capacitance will become very high A. 1/2QC
Ans. B B. 1/QC
C. Q2/2C
Que. Joule / Coulomb is the unit of D. Q/2C
A. electric field intensity Ans. C
B. potential
C. charge
46
Que. One Coulomb charge equals the charge
on Que. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single
A. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons phase transformer, the secondary full load
B. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms current is________
C. 6.24 x 10 12 electrons A. 90.90 Amp
D. none of these B. 9090.9 Amp
Ans. A C. 909.0 Amp
D. 9.09 Amp
Que. The capacitance of parallel plate Ans. C
capacitor is given as
A. C = Є0 A / d Que. A transformer has maximum efficiency
B. C = Є0 d / A at ¾ of full load. The ratio of its iron loss and
C. C = Є0 Єr A / d full load copper loss is_________
D. C= Єr A / d A. 16/9
Ans. C B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 9/16
Ans. D
UNIT IIIB
Que. The full load copper and iron loss of a
Que. Full load copper loss in a transformer is transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W
400 Watt. At half load, copper losses will respectively. The copper loss and iron loss at
be___________ half load will be respectively______
A. 400 Watt A. 3200 W and 2500 W
B. 100 Watt B. 3200 W and 5200 W
C. 200 Watt C. 1600 W and 1250 W
D. 50 Watt D. 1600 W and 5000 W
Ans. B Ans. D
Que. A transformer is working with its Que. In a step down transformer, there is a
maximum efficiency. If the iron losses are 500 change of 15A in the load current. This results
W, the copper loss will__________ in change of supply current of_____________
A. 300 W A. less than 15 A
B. 350 W B. more than 15 A
C. 250 W C. 15A
D. 500 W D. none of these
Ans. D Ans. A
Que. A transformer has 2600 V on primary

Que. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single side and 260 V on secondary side. The
phase transformer, the primary full load transformation ratio is_
current is____________ A. 10
A. 909.09 Amp B. 5
B. 90.90 Amp C. 0.1
C. 9.09 Amp D. 9
D. 9090.9 Amp Ans. C
Ans. C
47
A. 2.6%
B. 2.67%
Que. If the copper loss of a transformer at 70% C. 0%
of full load is 200 W. The full load copper loss D. none of these
is ________ Ans. A
A. 200 W
B. 285.71 W Que. If two 10 µF capacitors are connected in
C. 408.16W parallel, then the effective capacitance will
D. none of these be_________
Ans. C A. 2.5 µF
B. 40 µF
Que. A transformer having 1000 primary turns C. 0.4 µF
is connected 250 V ac supply. For a secondary D. 20 µF
voltage of 400 volt, the no of secondary turns Ans. D
should be________
A. 1600 Que. The total capacitance of five capacitor
B. 250 each of 10 µF in series is________________
C. 400 A. 10 µF
D. 1250 B. 2 µF
Ans. A C. 25 µF
D. none of these
Que. If Copper loss of a transformer at 7/8th of Ans. B
the full load is 4900W. Then its full load
copper loss is____ Que. Two capacitors of capacitances C1=0.1
A. 5600 µF and C2=0.2 µF are connected in series
B. 6400 across 300V source. The voltage across C1
C. 375 will be________________
D. 429 A. 100 V
Ans. B B. 200 V
C. 150 V
Que. A 10 kVA, 3300/240 V, single phase, 50 D. 300 V
Hz transformer has a core area of 300 sq. cm. Ans. B
The flux density is 1.3 T. The primary full
load current is ___________ Que. A capacitor stores 0.4C charge at 2 V. Its
A. 3.03 amp capacitance
B. 33.03 amp is___________________________
C. 30.3 amp A. 0.4 F
D. 0.303 amp B. 0.2 F
Ans. A C. 3.2 F
D. 0.8 F
Que. The no load voltage at the secondary Ans. B
terminals of single phase transformer is
observed as 230 volt. When the transformer is Que. A 20 mF capacitor is in series with a 150
loaded, the voltage on secondary side has Ohm resistor. The combination is placed
reduced to 224 volt. Then the % regulation of across a 40 V dc source. Time constant of the
transformer for that loading is_______ circuit is_____________________
48
A. 8 S B. 900 µC
B. 3 S C. 1200 µC
C. 6 S D. 1600 µC
D. 2.4 S Ans. C
Ans. B
Que. The relative permittivity of a material is
Que. Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF and 10. Its absolute permittivity will be
12 µF are connected in parallel across an ac A. 8.854 × 10−11 𝐹/𝑀
source. The maximum current pass through B. 9 × 108 𝐹/𝑀
________________ C. 5 × 10−5 𝐹/𝑀
A. 3 µF D. 9 × 105 𝐹/𝑀
B. 6 µF Ans. A
C. 12 µF
D. all the capacitors Que. An air capacitor has the same dimensions
Ans. C that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance of
mica capacitor is 6 times that of air capacitor,
Que. Three capacitors each of the capacity C then relative permittivity of mica is
are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be A. 36
obtained by using them B. 12
A. all in series C. 3
B. all in parallel D. 6
C. two in parallel and third in series with this Ans. D
combination
D. two in series and third in parallel across this Que. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2
combination. are connected in parallel. A charge Q given to
Ans. C them is shared. The ratio of charges Q1/Q2
is________.
Que. A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000 A. C2/ C1
µC of charge. The value of capacitance will be B. C1/ C2
A. 10 F C. C1 C2
B. 10 µF D. 1/ C1 C2
C. 100 µF Ans. B
D. 1000 µF
Ans. B Que. Two capacitors have capacitances 25 µF
when in parallel and 6 µF when in series.
Que. When 4 Volt e.m.f. is applied across a 1 Their individual capacitances are
Farad capacitor, it will store energy of A. 12 µF and 13 µF
A. 2 Joule B. 15 µF and 10 µF
B. 4 Joule C. 14 µF and 11 µF
C. 6 Joule D. none of the above
D. 8 Joule Ans. B
Ans. D
Que. The total capacitance of two condensers
Que. If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V the is .03µF when joined in series and 0.16µ F
charge in Coulomb will be_______________ when connected in parallel. The product of
A. 800 µC two capacitances will be__________
49
A. 5.33 Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF has a
B. 2 potential difference of 100V across its
C. 3 terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ
D. 0.48 resistor. The time constant of the circuit
Ans. D is______.
A. 0.1sec
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 MΩ B. 1sec
resistor is connected across a100 V dc supply. C. 0.01sec
The time constant of the circuit is__________. D. 0.001sec
A. 10 sec Ans. C
B. 0.1 sec
C. 10mSec Que. A capacitor consists of two similar plates
D. 100 Sec each 10cm x 10cm mounted parallel and
Ans. A opposite to each other. The value of
capacitance when distance between them is
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 MΩ 1cm and dielectric used is air is______.
resistor is connected across a100 V dc supply. A. 8.854 pF
The initial value of charging current B. 8.854 µF
is____________. C. 8.854 mF
A. 1mA D. 8.854 F
B. 0.1 mA Ans. A
C. 0.01mA
D. 1.00A
Ans. B Que. The capacitance of capacitor formed by
two parallel plates each 200 cm2 in area
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 MΩ separated by dielectric of 4mm thick is 0.0004
resistor is connected across a100 V dc supply. µF. If voltage of 20000 V is applied then the
The capacitor voltage after a time equal to the total charge on the plate is________
time constant is________ A. 8 µC
A. 36V B. 8 mC
B. 36.6V C. 8 nC
C. 63.2V D. 8 pC
D. 63 V Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area
Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF has a of 2m2 spaced by three slabs of dielectric
potential difference of 100V across its materials. The relative permitivities are 2, 3
terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ and 6 respectively and thicknesses are 0.4mm,
resistor. The initial discharging current 0.6mm and 0.12 mm respectively. The
is_______. combined capacitance is____________.
A. 1A A. 0.000295 x 10-6 F
B. 10A B. 0.00295 x 10-6 F
C. 0.01A C. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
D. 0.1A D. 0. 295 x 10-6 F
Ans. D Ans. B
50
Que. What is the unit of charge? C. 10 µF
A. Volt-Amp D. 25 µF
B. Henery Ans. B
C. Farad
D. Coulomb Que. One Coulomb charge equals the charge
Ans. D on
A. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons
Que. What will be the capacitance of four B. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms
capacitors of equal capacitance ‘C’ when C. 6.24 x 10 12 electrons
connected in parallel? D. none of these
A. 4C Ans. A
B. C/4
C. 3C/4 Que. The capacitance of parallel plate
D. C capacitor is given as
Ans. A A. C = Є0 A / d
B. C = Є0 d / A
Que. A region around a stationary electric C. C = Є0 Єr A / d
charge has______ D. C= Єr A / d
A. magnetic field Ans. C
B. electric field
C. magnetic field and electric field Que. Two capacitors of 2 µF and 4 µF are
D. neither magnetic field nor electric field connected in parallel across 100 V dc supply.
Ans. B Energy stored in each capacitor will
be_________.
Que. One Farad is the same as A. 0. 1 J and 0. 2 J
A. One Coulomb/Volt B. 0.01 J and 0.02 J
B. One Joule/ Coulomb C. 1J and 2 J
C. One Joule/ Volt D. 0.001 J and 0.002 J
D. One Coulomb / Joule Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. The plate area of a parallel-plate
capacitor is 0.01 sq. m. The distance between
Que. If Q be the charge and C be the the plates is 2.5 cm. If the insulating medium
capacitance then the energy stored in the is air, its capacitance is________
capacitor is ___________ A. 3.54 x 10-12 F
A. 1/2QC B. 35.4 x 10-12 F
B. 1/QC C. 3.54 x 10-10 F
C. Q2/2C D. 3.54 x 10-11 F
D. Q/2C Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. What capacitance must be placed in capacitor is 0.01 sq. m. The distance between
series with a 15 µF capacitor to give a total the plates is 2.5 cm. If the space between the
capacitance of 5 µF? plates is filled with an insulating material of
A. 4 µF relative permitivity 5, the capacitance value
B. 7.5 µF is___________
51
A. 177.1 x 10-12 F Que. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase
B. 1.771 x 10-12 F transformer has to be worked at a maximum
C. 17.71 x 10-10 F flux density of 1.1 Web/m2 in the core. The
D. 17.71 x 10-12 F effective cross sectional area of the core is 145
Ans. D
cm2. The no of primary turns___
Que. A parallel-plate capacitor has two plates A. 930 turns
each of area 2.5 m2 separated by three B. 950 turns
dielectric materials of thickness 1, 2 and 3 mm C. 932 turns
and relative permitivities of 2, 4 and 8 D. 923 turns
respectively. The effective capacitance value Ans. C
is__________
C. 1.60 x 10-12 F flux density of 1.1 web/m2 in the core. The
Ans. A cm2. The no of secondary turns___
A. 71 turns
B. 75 turns
UNIT IIIC C. 932 turns
D. 923 turns
Ans. A
Que. A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase
transformer is built on a core having an Que. A 80 kVA, 6000 V/ 400 V, 50 Hz single
phase transformer has 80 turns on the
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and
secondary winding. The value of maximum
60 turns on the secondary winding. The value
flux in the core________
of maximum flux density___
A. 25.22 mwb
A. 1.25 Tesla
B. 22.52 mwb
B. 1.52 Tesla
C. 52.22 mwb
C. 1.3 Tesla
D. none of these
Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. A 6600 V/220 V, 50 Hz, step down
single phase transformer has 1500 turns on its
transformer is built on a core having an
primary side. If its maximum flux density is
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 1.2 Tesla, then the effective cross sectional
60 turns on the secondary winding. The area of core is _____
A. 16.516 x 10–3 m2
number of turns on the high voltage
winding________
A. 600 turns B. 61.516 x 10–3 m2
B. 900 turns C. 26.516 x 10–3 m2
C. 300 turns D. 62.516 x 10–3 m2
D. 450 turns Ans. A
Ans. B
52
Que. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at B. 259.2V
full load its copper loss is 1100 W and its iron C. 2.592V
loss is 950 W. The efficiency at full load for D. 25V
unity power factor is___________ Ans. A
A. 99%
B. 96% Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF
C. 97.77% has a potential difference of 100V across its
D. none of these terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ
Ans. C resistor. The discharging current at 2 msec
is_____
Que. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at A. -0.0818A
full load its copper losses is 1100 W and its B. -0.01A
iron losses is 950 W. The efficiency at 60% of C. -0.00818A
full load for 0.8 lagging power factor D. -1A
is___________ Ans. A
A. 96.97%
B. 96% Que. A fully charged capacitor of 10 µF has
C. 98% a potential difference of 100V across its
Ans. A resistor. The initial rate of fall in voltage
across capacitor is____________
Que. A 500 kVA transformer has iron loss A. 10 4 V/s
of 2 kW and full load copper losses of 5 kW. B. -10 4 V/s
The efficiency at 75% of full load and unity C. -1 4 V/s
power factor__________ D. 10A
A. 98.13% Ans. B
B. 98.73%
C. 99%
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 UNIT IVA

MΩ resistor is connected across a100 V dc
supply. The initial rate of rise of voltage across Que. A standard sinusoidal voltage wave
the capacitor is_________ changes its polarity at________
A. 0.1V/s A. maximum value
B. 10V/s B. minimum value
C. 0.01V/s C. zero value
D. 1V/s D. none of the above
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. A 10 µF capacitor in series with an 1 Que. Two sine waves are said to be in phase
MΩ resistor is connected across a100 V dc with each other if they achieve their______
supply. The voltage across the capacitor 3sec A. zero value at the same time
after switch on is__________ B. maximum value at the time
A. 25.92V C. minimum value at the same time
53
D. all of the above B. direction only
Ans. D C. both magnitude and direction
D. neither magnitude nor direction
Que. The distance occupied by one complete Ans. C
cycle of the wave is called its________
A. time period Que. An alternating current of 50 Hz
B. wavelength frequency and 100 A maximum value is given
C. velocity by______
D. frequency A. 𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛628𝑡
Ans. A B. 𝑖 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
C. 𝑖 = 100√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
Que. The rms value of a sine wave of peak D. 𝑖 = 100√2𝑠𝑖𝑛157𝑡
value Imis given by_______ Ans. B
A. Im/√2
B. Im Que. An alternating current is given by the
C. Im/2 𝜋
expression 𝑖 = 200 sin(314𝑡 + 3 ) amperes.
D. Im/π
Ans. A The maximum value and frequency of the
current are_________
Que. The average value of a sine wave of A. 200 A, 50 Hz
maximum value I m over one cycle is_______ B. 100√2, 50 Hz
A. Im/π C. 200 A, 100 Hz
B. 2Im/π D. 200 A, 25 Hz
C. zero Ans. A
D. Im/2
Ans. C Que. When two quantities are in quadrature,
the phase angle between them will
Que. The time period of a sinusoidal be________
waveform with 200 Hz frequency A. 45°
is________second. B. 90°
A. 0.05 C. 135°
B. 0.005 D. 60°
C. 0.0005 Ans. B
D. 0.5
Ans. B Que. The ac system is preferred to dc system
because_______
Que. The form factor of a sine wave is_____ A. ac voltages can be easily changed in
A. 1.01 magnitude
B. 1.11 B. dc motors do not have fine speed control
C. 1.21 C. high voltage ac transmission is less efficient
D. none of the above D. dc voltage can not be used for domestic
Ans. B appliances
Ans. A
Que. A current is said to be alternating when it
changes in_______ Que. In ac system, we generate sine waveform
A. magnitude only because_______
A. it can be easily drawn
54
B. it produces least disturbance in electrical
circuits Que. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =
C. it is nature’s standard 30 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 .The time taken by the voltage to
D. other waves can not be produced easily reach 30 V for the first time is_____
Ans. B A. 0.02 second
B. 0.1 second
Que. __________will work only on dc supply. C. 0.03 second
A. electric lamp D. 0.005 second
B. refrigerator Ans. D
C. electroplating
D. heater Que. A sinusoidal current has a magnitude of 3
Ans. C A at 120°. Its maximum value will be_____
A. √3 A
Que. _________will produce ac voltage. √3
B. 2 A
A. friction
B. photoelectric effect C. 2√3 A
C. thermal energy D. 6 A
D. crystal Ans. C
Ans. D
Que. We have assigned a frequency of 50Hz to
Que. A coil is rotating in the uniform field of power system because it_______
an 8-pole generator. In one revolution of the A. can be easily obtained
coil, the number of cycles generated by the B. gives best result when used for operating
voltage is________ both lights and machinery
A. one C. leads to easy calculations
B. two D. none of the above
C. four Ans. B
D. eight
Ans. C Que. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =
100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 volts. Its average value will
Que. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 = be________
20 sin 157𝑡. The frequency of the alternating A. 70.7 V
voltage is_____ B. 50 V
A. 50 Hz C. 63.7 V
B. 25 Hz D. 100 V
C. 100 Hz Ans. C
D. 75 Hz
Ans. B Que. An alternating current whose average
value is 1 A will produce_________1 A dc
Que. A sine wave has a maximum value of 20 under similar conditions.
V. Its value at 135° is______ A. less heat than
A. 10 V B. more heat than
B. 14.14 V C. the same heat as
C. 15 V D. none of the above
D. 5 V Ans. B
Ans. B
55
Que. A sinusoidal alternating current has a
maximum value of I m. Its average value will Que. The direction of current in an ac circuit
be_______ is___________
𝐼𝑚 A. always in one direction
A. 𝜋
𝐼𝑚 B. varying from time to time
B. C. unpredictable
2𝜋
𝐼𝑚
C. 2 D. from positive to negative
𝜋
D. none of the above Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. Consider the sinusoidal waves:
Que. The area of a sinusoidal wave over a 𝐴sin(𝜔𝑡 + 30°) and 𝐵sin(𝜔𝑡 − 60°). The
half-cycle is________ phase angle relationship between the two
A. 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2 waves________
B. 2 × 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 A. B-wave lags A-wave by 90°
B. B-wave lags A-wave by 60°
C. 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 𝜋
C. B-wave lags A-wave by 30°
D. 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2𝜋
D. B-wave and A-wave are in phase
Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =
Que. A sinusoidal voltage is expressed as 𝑣 =
200 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value will be_____ 𝜋
A. 100 V 20 sin(314.16𝑡 + ) V. Its frequency and
3
B. 282.8 V phase angle respectively are____________
C. 141.4 V A. 314.16 Hz, 60°
D. 121.4 V B. 60Hz, 60°
Ans. C C. 50 Hz, 60°
D. 50 Hz, -60°
Que. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as Ans. C
𝜋
𝑣 = 141.4 sin(314.18𝑡 − ). Its rms value of
2
Que. A sinusoidal voltageV1 leads another
voltage, frequency and phase angle are
sinusoidal voltage V2 by 180°.
respectively_______
Then__________
A. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°
A. voltageV2 leads voltage V1by 180°
B. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
B. both voltage have their zero values at the
C. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90°
same time
D. 100 V,50 Hz, -90°
C. both voltages have their peak values at the
Ans. D
same time
D. all of the above
Que. When two sinusoidal waves are 90° out
Ans. D
of phase, then__________
A. both have their peak values at the same
Que. The rms value of an ac sinusoidal current
instant
is 10 A. Its peak value is_________
B. both have their minimum values at the same
A. 7.07 A
instant
B. 14.14 A
C. one has its peak value; while the other has
C. 10 A
zero value
D. 28.28 A
D. none of these
Ans. B
Ans. C
56
C. -1
1
Que. If A=10∠45° and B=5∠15°, then the D.
2
value of A/B will be_________
Ans. A
A. 50∠60°
B. 2∠60° Que. An alternating current is given by 𝑖 =
C. 2∠-30°
𝐼𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃. The average value of squared wave
D. 2∠30° of this current over a complete cycle
Ans. D is________
A. I2m/2
Que. When a phasor is multiplied by –j, it gets B. Im/π
rotated through_______in the C. 2Im/π
counterclockwise direction. D. 2Im
A. 90° Ans. A
B. 180°
C. 270° Que. The form factor of a sinusoidal wave
D. none of the above is______
Ans. C A. 1.414
B. 1.11
Que. The rms value of sinusoidally varying C. 2
current is_________that of its average value. D. 1.5
A. more than Ans. B
B. less than
C. same as Que. The filament of a vacuum tube requires
D. none of the above 0.4A dc to heat it. The rms value of ac
Ans. A required is______
Que. Alternating voltages and currents are A. 0.4 × √2 A
expressed in rms values because______ B. 0.4 ÷ 2 A
A. they can be easily determined C. 0.8 ÷ √2 A
B. calculations become very simple D. 0.4 A
C. they give comparison with dc Ans. D
Ans. C Que. A100 V peak ac is as effective
as_____dc
Que. The average value of sin2θ over a A. 100 V
complete cycle is_________ B. 50 V
A. +1 C. 70.7 V
B. -1 D. none of the above
1 Ans. C
C.
2
D. zero Que. The form factor of a ________wave is 1.
Ans. C A. sinusoidal
B. square
Que. The average value of sinθ over a C. triangular
complete cycle is_________ D. sawtooth
A. zero Ans. B
B. +1
57
Que. Out of the following _________wave is Que. A heater is rated as 230V, 10KW, AC.
the peakiest. The value of 230V refers to___________
A. sinusoidal A. average voltage
B. square B. rms voltage
C. rectangualr C. peak voltage
D. triangular D. none of the above
Ans. D Ans. B
Que. The peak factor of a sine waveform Que. The peak value of a sine wave is 200V.
is_______ Its average value is_______
A. 1.11 A. 127.4V
B. 1.414 B. 141.4V
C. 2 C. 282.8V
D. 1.5 D. 200V
Ans. B Ans. A
Que. When a 15V square wave is connected Que. The rms value of a sine wave is 100A.
across a 50V ac voltmeter, it will read______ Its peak value is _______
A. 15V A. 70.7A
B. 15 × √2 V B. 141.4A
C. 15/√2 V C. 150A
D. none of the above D. 282.8A
Ans. A Ans. B
Que. The period of a wave is____________ Que. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V.
A. the same as frequency This figure represents________
B. time required to complete one cycle A. mean value
C. expressed in amperes B. rms value
D. none of the above C. peak value
Ans. B D. average value
Ans. B
Que. The form factor is the ratio of _________
A. peak value to rms value Que. The rms value and mean value is the
B. rms value to average value same in the case of_______
C. average value to rms value A. traingular wave
D. none of the above B. sine wave
Ans. B C. square wave
D. half wave rectified sine wave
Que. The period of a sine wave is 1/50 Ans. C
seconds. Its frequency is_______
A. 20 Hz Que. For the same peak value which of the
B. 30 Hz following wave will have the highest rms
C. 40 Hz value?
D. 50 HZ A. square wave
Ans. D B. half wave rectified sine wave
C. triangular wave
58
D. sine wave A. 0.05 S
Ans. A B. 0.005 S
C. 0.0005 S
Que. For the same peak value which of the D. 0.5 S
following wave will have the least mean Ans. B
value?
A. half wave rectified sine wave
B. triangular wave
C. sine wave
D. square wave
Ans. A
Que. An ac voltage of 50 Hz has a maximum
Que. For a sine wave with peak value Imax, the value of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second
rms value is_______ after the instant the current is zero will
A. 0.5Imax be_________
B. 0.707Imax A. 5V
C. 0.9Imax B. 12.5V
D. 1.414Imax C. 25V
Ans. B D. 43.8V
Ans. C
Que. Form factor is the ratio of_________
A. average value/rms value Que. For 200V rms value triangular wave, the
B. average value/peak value peak voltage will be______
C. rms value/average value A. 200V
D. rms value/peak value B. 222V
Ans. C C. 282V
D. 346V
Que. For a sine wave with peak value Emax, the Ans. D
average value is______
A. 0.636Emax Que. The rms value of a half-wave rectified
B. 0.707Emax current is 100 A. Its value for full-wave
C. 0.434Emax rectification would be_________amperes.
D. 1.414Emax A. 141.4
Ans. A B. 200
C. 200/π
Que. The current in a circuit is given by: 𝑖 = D. 40/π
100 sin 314𝑡 amperes. The maximum value Ans. A
and frequency of current are_________
A. 50√2 A, 100 Hz Que. The rms value of a sinusoidal ac current
B. 100√2 A, 100 Hz is equal to its value at an angle of
C. 100 A, 50 Hz ______degrees.
D. 70.7 A, 50 Hz A. 90
Ans. C B. 60
C. 45
Que. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time D. 30
period will be_________ Ans. C
59
C. 60 Hz
Que. The rms value of alternating current is D. 50 Hz
given by steady dc current which when Ans. D
flowing through a given circuit for a given
time produces________ Que. The rms value of half wave rectified sine
A. the more heat than produced by ac when wave is 200V. The rms value of full wave
flowing through the same circuit rectified ac will be__________
B. the same heat as produced by ac when A. 282.8V
flowing through the same circuit B. 141.4V
C. the less heat than produced by ac flowing C. 111V
through the same circuit D. 100V
D. none of the above Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. The negative maximum of a cosine wave
Que. The square waveform of current has occurs at________
following relation between rms value and A. 30°
average value: B. 45°
A. rms value is equal to average value C. 90°
B. rms value of current is greater than average D. 180°
value Ans. D
C. rms value of current is less than average
value Que. The rms value of pure cosine function
D. none of the above is_________
Ans. A A. 0.5 of peak value
B. 0.707 of peak value
Que. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 C. same as peak value
Hz with 30A rms current, which of the D. zero
following equation represents the wave? Ans. B
A. 42.42 sin 314𝑡
B. 60 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
C. 30 sin 50𝑡 Que. An alternating voltage is given in volts
D. 84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡 by expression 𝑣 = 326 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value
Ans. A and frequency are____
A. 230V,50 Hz
Que. Which of the following waves has the B. 230V,100 Hz
highest value of peak factor? C. 326V,50 Hz
A. square wave D. 326V,100 Hz
B. sine wave Ans. A
C. half wave rectified sine wave
D. triangular wave Que. According to which of the alternating
Ans. C current values in the cross sectional area of a
conductor with regard to the heating effect is
Que. The frequency of domestic power supply selected?
in India is_____ A. peak value
A. 200 Hz B. half peak value
B. 100 Hz C. average value
60
D. rms value C. unsymmetrical part of the waveform
Ans. D D. first two cycles
Ans. A
Que. The frequency of an alternating current
is________ Que. A constant current of 2.8A exists in a
A. the speed with which the alternator runs resistor. The rms value of current is______
B. the number of cycles generated in one A. 2.8 A
minute B. about 2 A
C. the number of waves passing through a C. 1.4 A
point in one second D. undefined
D. the number of electrons passing through a Ans. A
point in one second
Ans. C Que. An alternating current is represented as
𝜋
𝑖 = 70.7 sin(520𝑡 + ). The frequency and
6
Que. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave rms value of the current are_________
having rms value of 60 A is______ A. 82.76 Hz, 50 A
A. 60 sin 25𝑡 B. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
B. 60 sin 50𝑡 C. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
C. 84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 D. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
D. 42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. The time period or periodic time T of an
Que. The direction of current in an ac alternating quantity is the time taken in
circuit________ seconds to complete_____________
A. is from positive to negative A. one cycle
B. is always in one direction B. alternation
C. varies from instant to instant C. none of the above
D. can not be determined D. Half cycle
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. The angular frequency of an alternating Que. The time period of an alternating quantity
quantity is a mathematical quantity obtained is 0.02 second.Its frequency will be________
by multiplying the frequency “f” of the A. 25 Hz
alternating quantity by a factor_________ B. 50 Hz
𝜋
A. C. 100 Hz
2
B. π D. 0.02 Hz
C. 2π Ans. B
D. 4π
Ans. C Que. The size (cross-sectional area) of a
conductor, with regard to the heating effect, is
determined on the basis of ……….. value of
Que. The average value of an unsymmetrical current to be carried by it
alternating quantity is calculated over A. average value
the_________ B. peak value
A. whole cycle C. rms value
B. half cycle D. peak to peak value
61
Ans. C B. time
C. time period
Que. The form factor for dc supply voltage is D. all above
always Ans. C
A. zero
B. unity
C. infinity
D. any value between 0 and 1
Ans. B
Que.
Que. The ________ varying alternating
quantity can be represented as phasor.
A. circular
B. sinusoidally
C. rectangular
D. triagular
Ans. B In the above figure, the phase quantity at A is
_______
Que. The phasors are assumed to be rotated in A. T
_________ direction. B. T/2
A. clockwise C. T/3
B. anticlockwise D. T/4
C. circular Ans. D
D. all above
Ans. B Que.
Que. In practice, alternating quantities are

represented by their _______ values
A. rms
B. average
C. rectangular
D. polar
In the above figure, the phase quantity at B is
Ans. A
_______
A. T
Que. Alternating quantities of ____
B. T/2
frequencies can be represented on same phasor
C. 3T/4
diagram.
D. T/4
A. Same
Ans. C
B. Different
C. multiple
Que. When phase of an alternating quantity is
D. all above
positive it means that quantity has some
Ans. A
_______ instantaneous value at t=0
A. zero
Que. The phase of alternating quantity at any
B. positive
particular instant is the fraction of ______
C. negative
A. phase
62
Ans. B
Que. When phase difference between the two
Que. When phase of an alternating quantity is alternating quantities is _______, the two
negative it means that quantity has some quantities are said to be in phase.
_______ instantaneous value at t=0 A. one
A. zero B. unity
B. positive C. zero
C. negative D. π/2
D. none of the above Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ),
the ‘v’ is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ
Que. The difference between the _____ of two A. in phase
alternating quantities is called the phase B. lagging
difference. C. leading
A. time D. all above
B. phase angle Ans. C
C. Lengths
D. both a and b
Ans. B Que. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ),
the ‘i’ is said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ
Que. The difference between the phase of two A. in phase
alternating quantities is called the________. B. lagging
A. phase difference C. leading
B. sinedifference D. all above
C. length difference Ans. C
Ans. A Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ),
the ‘v’ is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ
Que. When phase difference between the two A. in phase
alternating quantities is zero, the two B. lag
quantities are said to be in _____ C. lead
A. tandom D. all above
B. length Ans. B
C. phase
D. time Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin ωt, the ‘i’
Ans. C is said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ
A. in phase
Que. When ____________ between the two B. lag
alternating quantities is zero, the two C. lead
quantities are said to be in phase. D. all above
A. time difference Ans. A
B. length difference
C. phase difference Que. With respect to reference, plus sign of
D. none of the above angle indicates _______
Ans. C A. leading
63
B. lagging B. frequency
C. inphase C. sign
D. none of the above D. shape
Ans. A Ans. B
Que. With respect to reference, minus sign of Que. The lagging and leading word is relative
angle indicates _______ to the ______
A. leading A. base
B. lagging B. range
C. inphase C. reference
D. none of the above D. angle
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. With respect to reference, _____ sign of Que. In purely _____ circuit, the current
angle indicates lead flowing and voltage applied are in phase with
A. division each other.
B. plus A. resistive
C. minus B. inductive
D. dot C. capacitive
Ans. B D. none of the above
Ans. A
Que. With respect to reference, _____ sign of
angle indicates lag. Que. In purely resistive circuit, the current and
A. division voltage applied are in ______ with each other.
B. plus A. opposition
C. minus B. phase
D. dot C. direction
Ans. C D. line
Ans. B
Que. The diagram in which different
sinusoidal alternating quantities of the same Que. In purely _______ circuit, current lags
frequency, are represented by individual voltage by 90 degrees.
phasors indicating exact phase relationship is A. resistive
called ________ B. inductive
A. graph C. capacitive
B. still diagram D. none of the above
C. phasor diagram Ans. B
D. picture
Ans. C Que. In purely Inductive circuit, current _____
voltage by 90 degrees.
Que. The diagram in which different A. leads
sinusoidal alternating quantities of the same B. lags
_____, are represented by individual phasors C. in phase
indicating exact phase relationship is called D. all above
phasor diagram. Ans. B
A. time
64
Que. In purely Inductive circuit, current lags Que. Inductive reactance is measured in
voltage by _______ degrees. ______
A. 30 A. Farad
B. 60 B. Henry
C. 90 C. Ohm
D. 120 D. Joule
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. The inductance offers _____ reactance to Que. Inductive reactance depends on ______
DC of applied voltage
A. high A. phase
B. low B. sign
C. zero C. frequency
D. none of the above D. speed
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. The _________ offers zero reactance to Que. Inductive reactance is _________
DC frequency.
A. resistance A. inversely proportional to
B. inductance B. directly proportional to
C. permeance C. indepedent of
D. none of the above C. none of above
Ans. B Ans. B
Que. The inductance offers zero _________ to Que. Inductive reactance is directly
DC proportional to ________.
A. resistance A. time
B. capacitance B. phase
C. reactance C. frequency
D. permeance D. phase difference
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. Pure ______ never consumes power Que. In purely capacitive circuit, current
A. resistor ______ voltage by 90 degrees.
B. inductor A. lags
C. starter B. leads
D. circuit C. in phase
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
Que. Inductive reactance is given by_____
A. XL=ωL Que. In purely capacitive circuit, current leads
B. XL=2πL voltageby _______ degrees.
C. XL=ΦL A. 30
D. XL=ωC B. 60
Ans. A C. 90
65
D. 120 C. XC=1/ΦC
Ans. C D. XC=2𝝅fL
Ans. A
Que. The capacitor offers _____ reactance to
DC. Que. ______is given by XC=1/ωL
A. high A. resistance
B. low B. inductance
C. zero C. inductive reactance
D. none of the above D. capacitive reactance
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. The _________ offers infinite reactance Que. Capacitive reactance is measured in
to DC ______
A. resistance A. farads
B. permeance B. henrys
C. capacitance C. ohms
D. none of the above D. joules
Ans. C Ans. C
Que. The capacitance offers infinite Que. Capacitive reactance is _________ to

_________ to DC frequency.
A. resistance A. inversely proportional
B. capacitance B. directly proportional
C. reactance C. both
D. permeance C. none of above
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. The power curve of pure capacitor is Que. Capacitive reactance is inversly
________ curve of frequency double than that proportional to ________.
of applied voltage A. time
A. sine B. phase
B. square C. frequency
C. tringular D. phase difference
D. sawtooth Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. A certain inductor has reactance of 4kΩ
Que. Pure ______ never consumes power at 5kHz. Its reactance at 15 kHz is _____ kΩ.
A. resistor A. 8
B. capacitor B. 10
C. starter C. 12
D. circuit D. 20
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. Inductive reactance is given by_____ Que. The square of aj operator _____
A. XC=1/ωC A. can never be negative
B. XC=1/2𝝅C B. can never be positive
66
C. could be either positive or negative Que. Consider the sinusoidal waves: A sin
D. is equal to j (ωt+30) and B cos(ωt-60). The phase angle
Ans. B relationship between two waves is:
A. B wave lags A wave by 90 degrees
Que. A complex number_____ B. B wave lags A wave by 60 degrees
A. is the same as imaginary number C. B wave lags A wave by 30 degrees
B. has real and imaginary part D. B wave and A wave are in phase
C. is negative number Ans. D
D. is merely a technical term
Ans. B Que. Thereactance of L Henryinductance
connected to an AC source of frequency f is
Que. The sum of (3+j6) and (-3-j6) is ____ ______ ohm.
A. 0+j0 A. fL
B. 6+j12 B. πfL
C. -6-j12 C. 2 πfL
D. 0-j12 D. all above
Ans. A Ans. C
Que. A sinusoidal voltageis represented as: v = Que. When pure inductance is connected to an
141.4 sin(314.18t-π/2). Its rms value of AC sources, the voltage____ to the current by
voltage, frequency and phase angle are ____
respectively____ A. lags, 90 degrees
A. 141.42V, 314.16 Hz, 90 degrees B. leads, 90 degrees
B. 100V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees C. lags, 45 degrees
C. 87.92V, 56 Hz, 90 degrees D. leads, 45 degrees
D. 200V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. When a phasor is multiplied by j and –j,
Que. When two sinusoidal waves are 90 it is rotated through ______ degrees in the
degrees out of phase, then ____ anticlockwise direction respectively.
A. both have their peak values at the same A. 90,270
time B. 90,90
B. both have their minimum values at the same C. 90,180
time D. 270,90
C. one has its peak value, other has zero value Ans. A
D. none of these
Ans. C Que. The p. f. of purely resistive circuit is
____
Que. The direction of current in an AC circuit A. zero
is _____ B. unity
A. always in one direction C. lagging
B. varyingtime to time periodically D. leading
C. unpredictable Ans. B
D. from positive to negative
Ans. B Que. If e1 = 100 sin(2πf) and e2 = 100 sin(2πf-
Φ), then _____
67
A. e1 lags e2 by Φ Ans. A
B. e1 leads e2 by Φ
C. e2 lags e1 by Φ Que. A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a
D. none of the above resistor. The rms value of current is ____
Ans. C A. 2.8 A
B. 2 A
Que. The average power in a purely inductive C. 1.4 A
or capacitive circuit over a cycle____ D. undefined
A. depends on XLor XC Ans. A
B. is negative
C. is zero Que. The power factor of an ordinary bulb is
D. is positive _____
Ans. C A. zero
B. unity
Que. Inductive reactance of an AC circuit C. more than unity
increases with ____ D. less than unity
A. increase in frequency Ans. B
B. increase in resistance
C. decrease in resistance Que. When aphasor is multiplied by –j, it is
D. decrease in frequency rotated through ____ in counter-clockwise
Ans. A direction
A. 90
Que. When the two quantities are in B. 180
quadrature, the phase angle between them will C. 270
be ____ degrees. D. none of the above
A. 45 Ans. C
B. 90
C. 135 Que. If the phasor is multiplied by j, then ____
D. 60 A. only its magnitude changes
Ans. B B. only its direction changes
C. both magnitude and direction change
Que. The phase difference between two D. none of the above
waveforms can be compared when they _____ Ans. B
A. have the same frequency
B. have the same peak value Que. In the complex number 4+j7, 7 is called
C. have the same effective value the ______ component
D. are sinusoidal A. real
Ans. A B. imaginary
C. in-phase
Que. If two sinusoids of the same frequency D. none of the above
but of different amplitude and phase difference Ans. D
are added, the resultant is a ______
A. sinusoid of same frequency Que. The reciprocal of a complex number is
B. sinusoid of double the original frequency a_____
C. sinusoid of half the original frequency A. complex number
D. non-sinusoid B. real component only
68
C. quadrature component only A. a complex number
D. none of above B. in-phase component only
Ans. A C. quadrature component only
Que. If two complex numbers are equal, Ans. C
then_____
A. only their magnitudes will be equal Que. The reciprocal of j is ____
B. only their angles will be equal A. j
C. their in phase and quadrature components B. -j
will be separately equal C. jxj
D. none of above D. none of the above
Ans. C Ans. B
Que. A phasor 2 180 can be expressed Que. Two waves of same frequency have
as____ opposite phase when the phase angle between
A. j2 them is ___ degrees
B. -j2 A. 360
C. -2 B. 180
D. 2 C. 90
Ans. C D. 0
Ans. B
Que. A current of (3+j4) A is flowing through
a circuit. The magnitude of current is _____ Que. The power consumed in a circuit element
A. 7 A will be least when the phase difference
B. 5 A between the current and voltageis ____
C. 1 A degrees.
D. 1.33 A A. approx.180
Ans. B B. approx. 90
C. approx. 60
Que. The voltage applied in a circuit is given D. approx. 0
by 100 60 volts. It can be written as ____ Ans. B
A. 100 -60
B. 100 240 Que. Two sinusoidal currents are given by i1 =
C. 100 -300 100sin(ωt+π/3) and i2 = 150sin(ωt-π/4). The
D. none of the above phase difference between them is _____
Ans. C degrees
A. 15
Que. The conjugate of -4+j3 is _____ B. 50
A. 4-j3 C. 60
B. -4-j3 D. 105
C. 4+j3 Ans. D
Ans. B Que. Capacitive reactance is more when____
A. capacitance is less and frequency of supply
Que. The difference of two conjugate number is less
results in _____
69
B. capacitance is less and frequency of supply D. current is in phase with the voltage
is more Ans. B
C. capacitance is more and frequency of
supply is less Que. A phasor is _____
D. capacitance is more and frequency of A. a line which represents the magnitude and
supply is more phase of an alternatingquantity
Ans. A B. a line which represents the magnitude and
direction of an alternatingquantity
Que. Pure inductive circuit ______ C. acoloured tag or band for distinction
A. consumes some power on average between different phases of a 3 phase supply
B. does not take power at all from lines D. an instrument used for measuring phases of
C. takes power from the line during some part an unbalanced 3 phase load
of cycle and returns back during other part of Ans. B
cycle
D. none of the above Que. Ohm is the unit of all the following
Ans. C except
A. inductive reactance
Que. Power factor of the following circuit will B. capacitive reactance
be zero C. resistance
A. resistive D. capacitance
B. pureinductive Ans. D
C. pure capacitive
D. both (B) and (C) Que. For a purely resistive circuit the
Ans. D following statement is correct
A. work done is zero
Que. Power factor of the following circuit will B. power consumed is zero
be unity C. heat produced is zero
A. resistive D. power factor is unity
C. pure capacitive
D. both (B) and (C) Que. For purely inductive circuit if v = Vm sin
Ans. A (ωt) then equation of current is _____
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
Que. In pure resistive circuit _____ B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
A. current lags the voltageby 90 degrees C. i = Im sin (ωt-π)
B. current leads the voltageby 90 degrees D. i = Im sin (ωt+π)
C. current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90 Ans. A
degrees
D. current is in phase with the voltage Que. For purely capacitive circuit if v = Vm
Ans. D sin (ωt) then equation of current is _____
Que. In pure inductive circuit _____ B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
C. current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90 Ans. B
degrees
70
Que. For purely resistive circuit if v = Vm sin Que. Which of the following statements
(ωt) then equation of current is _____ pertains to resistor only
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2) A. can dissipate considerable amount of power
B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2) B. can act as energy storage device
C. i = Im sin (ωt) C. connecting them in parallel increases the
D. i = Im sin (ωt+π) total value
Ans. C D. opposes sudden change in voltage
Ans. A
sinusoidal voltage V2 by 180 degrees. Then Que. The length of a phasor in a phasor
____ diagram normally represents the …………
A. voltageV2 leads voltageV1 by 180 degrees value of the alternating quantity
B. both voltagehave their zero values at the A. rms or effective
same time B. average
C. both voltagehave their peak values at the C. peak
same time D. none of these
D. all of above Ans. A
Ans. D
Que. The two quantities are said to be in phase
Que. If A = 10 45 and B = 5 15, then the with each other when
value of A/B will be___ A. the phase difference between two quantities
A. 50 60 is zero degree or radian
B. 2 60 B. each of them pass through zero values at the
C. 2 -30 same instant and rise in the same direction
D. 2 30 C. each of them pass through zero values at the
Ans. D same instant but rises in the opposite
directions
Que. The active power of AC circuit is given D. either (a) or (b)
by ___ Ans. D
A. VI sin Φ
B. I2XL Que. The phase difference between the two
C. I2R waveforms can be compared only when they
D. I2Z A. have the same frequency
Ans. C B. have the same peak value
C. have the same effective value
Que. Inductance of coil____ D. are sinusoidal
A. is unaffected by the supply frequency Ans. A
B. decreses with the increase in supply
frequency Que. The phasor diagram for alternating
C. increases with the increase in supply quantities can be drawn if they have ………
frequency waves
D. becomes zero with the increase in supply A. rectangular
frequency B. sinusoidal
Ans. A C. triangular
D. any of these
Ans. B
71
Que. The phasor diagram of voltage and
Que. Which of the following statements current considering phasors are rotates
associated with purely resistive circuits is clockwise direction is of
correct?
A. PF is unity
I
B. Power consumed is zero
C. Heat produced is zero
V
D. PF is zero
Ans. A
A. Pure resistance
Que. Average power in a pure resistive circuit B. pure inductance
is equal to C. pure capacitance
A. zero D. pure capacitance and pure inductance
B. product of average values of current and Ans. B
voltage
C. product of peak values of current and Que. The power factor of an ac circuit lies
voltage between
D. product of rms or effective values of A. 0 and 1
current and voltage B. -1 and 1
Ans. D C. 0 and -1
D. none of these
Que. The power factor of an ac circuit is equal Ans. A
to
A. tangent of the phase angle
B. sine of phase angle UNIT IVB
C. unity for a resistive circuit
D. unity for a reactive circuit Que. The period of a certain sine wave is 10
Ans. C milliseconds. Its frequency is________
A. 10 MHz
Que. The phasor diagram of voltage and B. 10 KHz
current considering phasors are rotates C. 10 Hz
anticlockwise direction is of D. 100 Hz
Ans. D
I
Que. The rms value of a sine wave of
V maximum value 10A equals a dc current of
______ampere.
A. 7.07
A. pure resistance B. 6.37
B. pure inductance C. 5
C. pure capacitance D. 5.77
D. pure capacitance and pure inductance Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. The rms value of a sinusoidal voltage
with peak-to-peak value of 240 V
is________V.
72
A. 84.84 C. 100V
B. 77.82 D. 173.2V
C. 94.68 Ans. C
D. 89.15
Ans. A Que. How much rms current does a 300W,
200V bulb take from the 200V, 50Hz power
line?
Que. The peak value of a sine wave is 400 V. A. 0.5 A
Its average value is_________V. B. 1.5 A
A. 254.6 C. 2 A
B. 282.6 D. 3 A
C. 400 Ans. B
D. 565.5
Ans. A Que. Polar form of v = 100 sin(100πt+π/6)
Volt is ________
Que. The average value of the current 𝑖 = A. 61.2371+j35.3553
𝜋
200 sin 𝑡 from 𝑡 = 0 to 𝑡 = is ______ B. 70.7106 30
2
A. 400 π C. 61.2371 35.3553
400 D. 70.710+ j30
B. Ans. B
𝜋
1
C.
400
𝜋 Que. Rectangular form of V= 100
D.
400 sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is ________
Ans. B A. 61.2371+j35.3553
B. 70.7106 30
Que. An alternating current is given by 𝑖 = C. 61.2371 35.3553
10 sin 314𝑡. The time taken to generate two D. 70.710+ j30
cycles of current is____ Ans. A
A. 0.02 second
B. 0.01 second Que. RMS value of current I = 25 + j40 Amp
C. 0.04 second is _______
D. 0.05 second A. 57.99
Ans. C B. 47.1699
C. 60
Que. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its D. 30
angular frequency is_______radian/second Ans. B
A. 100π
B. 50π Que. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -
C. 25π 100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then
D. 5π I1/I2 =________
Ans. A A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
B. 2150 A
Que. A sine wave of voltage varies from zero C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
to maximum of 200V. How much is the D. None of the above
voltage at theinstant of 30° of the cycle? Ans. B
A. 50V
B. 82.8V
73
Que. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal Que. The curve for the instantaneous power
current of 1 A at frequency of 50 Hz. The with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
average power dissipated by the inductor is current is shown in figure is of
____
A. 0 P P
+
+
B. 3.14 W v
C. 0.5 W 0
i

D. 1 W    t
2 2
Ans. A
- -
P P
Que. The curve for the instantaneous power

with respect to the waveforms of voltage & A. pure resistance
current is shown in figure is of B. pure inductance
p p C. pure capacitance
v D. pure capacitance and pure inductance
i
Ans. C

0
 t
UNIT IVC
Que. An electric iron designed for 110 V
A. pure resistance AC supply was rated at 500 W. It was put
B. pure inductance across a 220 V
C. resistance and capacitance supply. Assuming that at 110 V, it supplied
D. pure capacitance 500 W output (i.e. no losses) at the new
Ans. A voltage it will
supply_________
Que. The curve for the instantaneous power A. 2500 W
with respect to the waveforms of voltage & B. 2000 W
current is shown in figure is of C. 500 W
P P
D. 250 W
+ +
Ans. B
v
i 
0

 2 
t
Que. The mean value of the current 𝑖 =
𝜋
2
20 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 from θ=0 to θ= is_______
2
-
P
-
P A. 40π
T
40
B.
𝜋
A. pure resistance 1
C.
B. pure inductance 40
𝜋
C. pure capacitance D.
40
D. purecapaciatance and pure inductance Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10
sin 314 t, the average and rms values of the
current are____
74
A. 16.36 A, 17.07 A D. 10
B. 10 A, 17.07 A Ans. A
C. 10 A, 12.25 A
D. 16.36 A, 12.2 A Que. If 10 ohm resistor is connected across
Ans. C an AC voltagev = 100 sin(314t+300), the
power dissipated through resistor is _____
Que. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 A. 500 W
-100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then B. 1000 W
I1+I2 =________ C. 250 W
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A D. 100 W
B. 5.55964.924 A Ans. A
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
D. None of the above Que. For a frequency of 50 Hz, the
Ans. A reactance offered by capacitor is 10 ohms, If
the frequency is increased to 100 Hz, the
Que. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 reactance becomes____
-100 A flow in single phase AC circuit. Then A. 40 ohms
I1-I2 =________ B. 20 ohms
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A C. 5 ohms
B. 5.5596 4.924 A D. 2.5 ohms
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A Ans. C
Ans. C Que. Which value of inductance will give
the same reactance as a capacitor of 2 µF when
Que. In purely inductive circuit, if the both are at 50 Hz?
frequency is doubled and applied voltage is A. 5 H
halved, the resulting current becomes____ B. 10 H
A. one-fourth C. 15 H
B. one-fifth D. 20 H
C. one-half Ans. A
D. one-third
Ans. A Que. If a 10 ohm resistance is connected to
an AC supply v = 100 sin (314t+370) V, the
Que. The product of (-4-j7) and (6-j2) power dissipated by the resistance is
is______ A. 10 kW
A. -24+j14 B. 1 kW
B. 24-j14 C. 500 W
C. -38-j34 D. 250 W
D. -24-j14 Ans. C
Ans. C
Que. A coil has XL = 1000 ohm. If both its
Que. Inductive reactance of a coil of inductance and frequency are doubled, its
inductance 0.2 H at 50 Hz is ____ ohms. reactance will become ___ ohm
A. 62.8 A. 2000
B. 628 B. 500
C. 0.2 C. 250
75
D. 4000 A. 5 A
Ans. D B. 3.18 A
C. 1.57 A
Que. A pure inductance connected across D. 1.10 A
250 V, 50 Hz supply consumes 100 W. This Ans. B
consumption is due to_____
A. the big size of the inductor Que. An alternating current is given by 𝑖 =
B. the reactance of the inductor 10 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Measuring time from 𝑡 = 0, the
C. the current flowing in the inductor time taken by the current to reach +10 V for
D. the statement given is false the second time is_________
Ans. D A. 0.05 second
B. 0.1 second
Que. A pure capacitor connected across an C. 0.025 second
AC voltage consumed 50 W. This D. 0.02 second
A. is due to the capacitive reactance in ohms Ans. C
B. is due to the current flowing in capacitor
C. is due to the size of capacitor Que. An ac current is given by 𝑖 =
D. statement is incorrect 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛100𝜋𝑡. It will achieve a value of 100A
Ans. D after_____second.
1
A.
Que. An alternating current of 50 Hz 900
1
frequency has a maximum value of 100 A. Its B.
800
value 1/600 second after the instant current is 1
C.
700
zero will be________ 1
A. 25 A D.
600
B. 12.5 A Ans. D
C. 50 A
D. 75 A Que. The voltage in a circuit follows the
Ans. C law: 𝑣 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡. If the frequency is 25
Hz, how long willit take for the voltage to rise
Que. A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to 50V?
to a maximum of 250 V. The voltage at the 1
A. S
50
instant of 60° of the cycle will be________ 1
A. 150 V B. S
100
1
B. 216.5 V C. S
300
C. 125 V 1
D. 108.25 V D. S
600
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. The alternating voltage 𝑒 =

200 sin 314𝑡 is applied to a device which
offers an ohmic resistance of 20 Ω to the flow
of current in one direction while entirely
preventing the flow in the opposite direction.
The average value of the current will
be_________
76
UNIT I
A steam power plant using Rankine cycle generated steam at 10 bar and 380OC. Condensation occurs
Question at 0.06 bar. Find out turbine work. GIVEN DATA h1=151.5 KJ/kg, h3=3222 KJ/kg, hfg4=2416 2
KJ/kg, h4=2279.9 KJ/kg, x4=0.881
Option A 942 KJ/kg
Option B 1050 KJ/kg
Option C 980 KJ/kg
Option D 1090 KJ/kg
Answer A
A steam power plant using Rankine cycle generated steam at 10 bar and 380OC. Condensation occurs
Question at 0.06 bar. Find out Heat supplied. GIVEN DATA h1=151.5 KJ/kg, h3=3222 KJ/kg, hfg4=2416 2
KJ/kg, h4=2279.9 KJ/kg, x4=0.881
Option A 136 KJ/kg
Option B 942 KJ/kg
Option C 3070 KJ/kg
Option D 1050 KJ/kg
Answer C
In a reheat cycle the steam is supplied at 50 bar & 400 OC to the high pressure turbine and after
expansion upto 12 bar pressure, steam is reheated at constant pressure upto 380 OC in a reheater
further expanding in low pressure turbine upto pressure 0.1 bar. Find net work done if pump work is 5
Question 3
kJ/kg & h1 = 191.8 kJ/kg, h2= 196.8 kJ/kg, h3= 3198 kJ/kg, h4= 2850 kJ/kg, h5= 3225 Kj/kg, h6=
2325kJ/kg & 1 kg of steam flow.
Option A 348 Kj/kg

Option B 1243 kJ/kg
Option C 900 kJ/kg
Option D 3376 kJ/kg
Answer B
In a reheat cycle the steam is supplied at 50 bar & 400 OC to the high pressure turbine and after 3
expansion upto 12 bar pressure, steam is reheated at constant pressure upto 380 OC in a reheater
Question further expanding in low pressure turbine upto pressure 0.1 bar. Find steam rate if pump work is 5
kJ/kg & h1 = 191.8 kJ/kg, h2= 196.8 kJ/kg, h3= 3198 kJ/kg, h4= 2850 kJ/kg, h5= 3225 Kj/kg, h6=
2325kJ/kg & 1 kg of steam flow.
Option A 2.896 kg/kWh
Option B 4.567 kg/kWh
Option C 5.269 kg/kWh
Option D 6.111 kg/kWh
Answer A
Question The Bhopal gas tragedy was caused due to — 1

Option A Radioactive poisoning
Option B Nitrous oxide leakage
Option C Methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas leakage
Option D Acid rain
Answer C
Question The Kyoto Protocol was adopted at the — 1

Option A United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 1992
Option B Convention on Biological Diversity
Option C Convention on the Trans-boundary Effects of Industrial Accidents
Option D Third Conference of the UNFCC in 1997
Answer D
Question The process of converting coal into coke is called ___ 1
Option A Coking
Option B Carbonization
Option C Decarbonization
Option D Isomerization
Answer B
Question Only bituminous type of coal can be coked. 1

Option A a) True
Option B b) False
Answer A
Question When coal burns in air then 1

Option A Carbon dioxide is formed
Option B Sulphur dioxide is formed
Option C Carbon monoxide is formed
Option D Hydrogen gas is formed
Answer A
1
Question The Chevron Corporation had to pay a huge fine for oil pollution in the —
Option A Equadorian rainforest
Option B Savannah grasslands
Option C Brazilian rainforest
Option D Amazon basin
Answer A
Question What are cascades? 1

Option A They are the one step separation processes
Option B They are the last part of separation processes
Option C They are an aggregation of stages
Option D They are the starting part of every separation process
Answer C
Question Countercurrent cascades are not prevalent in which process? 1

Option A Crystallization
Option B Distillation
Option C Stripping
Option D Liquid-liquid extraction
Answer A
Question Caking coal with ______ content are used for gas manufacturer. 1
Option A high volatile matter
Option B low volatile matter
Option C high ash content
Option D high moisture content
Answer A
Question In which state does the pulverised coal burns? 1

Option A a) Gaseous
Option B b) Liquid
Option C c) Solid
Option D d) Colloidal
Answer A
Question PCRA stands for 2

Option A a. Public Conservations Research Association
Option B b. Petroleum Conservation Research Association
Option C c. Public Council of Research Association
Option D d. Partial Counting of remaining Amendment
Answer B
Question On what factors does the burning of pulverised coal depends? 1

Option A a) The calorific value of fuel
Option B b) Bulk density
Option C c) Percentage of volatile matter
Option D d) On the texture of coal
Answer C
Question How is the sizing of coal processed? 1

Option A a) By the use of measuring instruments
Option B b) By the use of computer software
Option C c) By crushing and screening
Option D d) By the mass of the coal
Answer C
Question Which of the following is a disadvantage of storing coal for a long period of time? 1
Option A a) Increase in the friability of coal
Option B b) Decrease in its ignition temperature
Option C c) Increase in its calorific value
Option D d) Increase in the proportion of fine
Answer D
Question 54.The reheating of steam is used when the vaporization pressure is ____. 1
Option A a) low
Option B b) high
Option C c) both when low or high
Option D d) always
Answer B
Question Deaerator is a type of open heater. 1

Option A a) true
Option B b) false
Answer A
Question Froth flotation process is used for ____________________ 1

Option A a) Screening of coal
Option B b) Beneficiation of coal
Option C c) Dewatering of coal
Option D d) Mining of coal
Answer B
Question What is the main purpose for a blending of coal? 1

Option A To produce more amount of coal
Option B To produce good quality of coal
Option C To decrease the cost of coal
Option D To produce different types of coal at same time
Answer B
1
Question How do the chances of spontaneous combustion of coal can decrease?
Option A Decrease in the maturity of coal
Option B By washing the coal time to time
Option C Increase in the maturity of coal
Option D By the reducing the quantity of coal
Answer C
Question Which processes do the Rankine cycle contain? 2

Option A two isothermal and two isochoric processes
Option B two isentropic and two isobaric processes
Option C two isentropic and two isothermal processes
Option D two isothermal and two isobaric processes
Answer B
Question Which ideal process is carried out at the turbine in vapour power cycle? 1
Option A reversible adiabatic compression
Option B reversible adiabatic expansion
Option C reversible constant pressure heat addition
Option D reversible constant pressure heat rejection
Answer B
Which is the affecting factor for the fact that turbine work output is more than pump work input in 2
Question vapour power cycle for the same pressure ration?
Option A specific heat added to the working fluid
Option B specific volume of working fluid
Option C both a. and b.
Option D none of the above
Answer B
Question Which of the following statement is true? 2

Option A open heater is also known as contact-type heater
Option B in an open type heater the extracted or bled steam is allowed to mix with the feedwater
Option C in a closed heater, the fluids are not allowed to mix together
Option D all of the mentioned
Answer D
Question .Which of the following is true for a closed heater? 1

Option A a) it requires a single pump regardless of the number of heaters
Option B b) it is costly
Option C c) both of the mentioned
Option D d) none of the mentioned
Answer C
Question The thermal irreversibility should be ____ to improve the performance. 1

Option A a) reduced
Option B b) increased
Option C c) kept constant
Option D d) none of the mentioned
Answer A
UNIT II
Question A vaccum of 710 mm of Hg was obtained with barometer reading of 755 mm of Hg. Correct the 2
vaccum to standard barometer of 760 mm.
Option A 720 mm of Hg
Option B 715 mm of Hg
Option C 755 mm of Hg
Option D 745 mm of Hg
Answer B
A vaccum of 710 mm of Hg was obtained with barometer reading of 755 mm of Hg. The temperature
Question ofcondenser was 25oC. Determine the pressure of air in the condenser in bar. partial pressure of 3
o
steam at 25 C is 0.03166 bar.
Option A 0.03255 bar
Option B 0.02585 bar
Option C 0.03532 bar
Option D 0.02832 bar
Answer D
The actual vacuum in a condenser is

Question 1
Option A Barometric pressure+ Actual pressure
Option B Gauge pressure—atmospheric pressure
Option C Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
Option D None
Answer B
Question The condenser in a steam power plant is placed between the 1

Option A Boiler and turbine
Option B Pump and the boiler
Option C Turbine and the pump
Option D None
Answer C
Question How many number of spray nozzle does each module on spray pond cooling system contains? 1
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 4
Answer D
Question Select the disadvantage of cooling pond out of the given? 2

Option A The area required of cooling in a cooling pond is small
Option B Spray losses due to evaporation and windage run high
Option C There is no control over the temperature of cooled water
Option D The cooling efficiency is low compared with cooling water
Answer C
Question How is air produced in mechanical draught cooling tower? 1
Option A Air Tuyeres
Option B Propeller fans
Option C Air blowers
Option D Louvre
Answer B
Question In which type of cooling system are nozzles arranged on different elevation? 1
Option A Single deck system
Option B Double deck system
Option C Natural Flow system
Option D Direct flow system
Answer B
Question Pressure in the condenser of a steam plant is 1

Option A More than atmospheric
Option B Equal to atmospheric
Option C Less than atmospheric
Option D None
Answer C
1
Question Surface condensers and jet condensers of the same cooling capacity are compared
Option A Overall size is bigger of the surface condenser
Option B Sizes are equal
Option C Size of the surface condenser is smaller than the jet condenser
Option D None
Answer A
Question Pressure in the condenser of a steam plant is 1

Option A More than atmospheric
Option B Equal to atmospheric
Option C Less than atmospheric
Option D None
Answer C
Question Condensate can be used as feed water in a 1

Option A Jet condenser
Option B Surface condenser
Option C Both in Jet and Surface condenser
Option D None
Answer B
Question Surface condenser is one in which 1

Option A Steam passes through the tubes and the water is outside
Option B Air passes through the tubes and the water is outside
Option C Water passes through the tubes and the steam is outside
Option D None
Answer C
Question The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called 1
Option A Boiler efficiency
Option B Condenser efficiency
Option C Vacuum efficiency’
Option D None
Answer C
Question The condenser used in thermal power plant is 1

Option A Air cooled
Option B Water Cooled
Option C Evaporative Cooled
Option D None
Answer C
Question What is use of the air pumps in the condenser? 1

Option A Remove water
Option B Air leaking in the condenser and to maintain the vacuum.
Option C Maintain atmospheric pressure and the condenser.
Option D Both (a) & (b).
Answer B
Question Evaporative type of condenser has

Option A Water in pipes surrounded by steam outside. 2
Option B Steam and cooling water mixed to give the condensate.
Option C Steam in pipes surrounded by water.
Option D None of the above.
Answer c
Question What are used in the direct flow system to transverse the pond before uniting at intake? 1
Option A Separators
Option B Filters
Option C Baffle walls
Option D Porous pipes
Answer C
Question In which system is Cooling of hot water is done on tray as step by? 1
Option A Mechanical draught cooling system
Option B Hyperbolic cooling tower
Option C Atmospheric cooling tower
Option D Wet cooling tower
Answer C
Question .How does the flow of air occur in natural draught cooling towers? 2
Option A Natural pressure head density between cold outside air and humid inside air
Option B Variation in pressure of both cold outside air and humid inside air
Option C Due to the given air vents and vacuum ports
Option D Because of difference in the volume of both the of airs
Answer A
Question Centrifugal pump is a_________ 1

Option A Turbomachinery
Option B Flow regulating device
Option C Drafting device
Option D Intercooling device
Answer A
1
Question The main function of nozzle is to __________
Option A Varying temperatures
Option B Pressure variations
Option C Load variations
Option D Heat variations
Answer B
Question Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery. 1
Option A TRUE
Option B FALSE
Answer
Question What is the most effective advantage of gravitational separators? 1

Option A They consume no power
Option B They just need small amount of space for operation
Option C They are cost effective
Option D Time taken for operation is very less
Answer C
Question Which principle does cyclone separator use? 1

Option A Gravitational force
Option B \ Vortex velocity
Option C Inertia
Option D Temperatures of air
Answer C
1
Question What is called when several cyclone separators are operated parallely?
Option A Octa-cyclone
Option B Multi-cyclone
Option C Center-cyclone
Option D Para-cyclone
Answer B
Question What is the work of the baghouse filter? 2

Option A To remove the hot air from furnace
Option B To separate the solid particles from dust produced
Option C To remove dust particles from flue gas
Option D To wash away the contamination of dust on the walls of furnace
Answer C
Question A ‘stroker’ is a power operated fuel ___ mechanism 1

Option A Burning
Option B Feeding
Option C Handling
Option D Storage
Answer B
Question The following is not a pulverized fuel burner. 1

Option A Tangential burner
Option B Turbulent burner
Option C Cyclone burner
Option D Radial burner
Answer B
UNIT III
Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant? 1
Question
Option A Availability of water
Option B Large catchment area
Option C Rocky land
Option D Sedimentation
Answer D
The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends 2
Question upon
Option A Head of water
Option B Quantity of water
Option C Specific weight of water
Option D Efficiency of Alternator
Answer B
Question Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine. 1

Option A True
Option B False
Answer B
Question Hydroelectric power plant is 2

Option A Non-renewable source of energy
Option B Conventional source of energy
Option C Non-conventional source of energy
Option D Continuous source of energy
Answer B
Question Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre. 1

Option A True
Option B False
Answer B
Question Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in 1

Option A Flat areas
Option B Deserts
Option C Hilly areas
Option D Deltas
Answer C
2
Question Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?
Option A Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
Option B Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
Option C It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
Option D
Answer D
Question Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant? 2

Option A no fuel requirement
Option B low running cost
Option C continuous power source
Option D no standby losses
Answer C
Question Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant? 1
Option A Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
Option B
Option C Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
Option D Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
Answer A
Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer 2
Question phenomenon?
Option A Valves and Gates
Option B Draft tubes
Option C Spillway
Option D Surge Tank
Answer D
Question Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called 1
Option A buttress dam
Option B arch dam
Option C earth dam
Option D solid gravity dam
Answer C
Spillway discharges the overflow water to the downstream side when the reservoir is full. 1
Question
Option A True
Option B False
Answer A
Question Trash racks are built for 2

Option A discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
Option B preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other materials
Option C creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of water
Option D controlling the opening of valves
Answer B
Question Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is 2

Option A a pipe connected to runner outlet
Option B nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
Option C a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
Option D a pipe connecting surge tank to dam
Answer C
Question The pressure at the inlet or exit of the draft tube should not be 2
Option A less than one third of atmospheric pressure
Option B greater than one third of atmospheric pressure
Option C less than one atmospheric pressure
Option D greater than one atmospheric pressure
Answer A
Question Draft tube increases the operating head on the turbine. 1

Option A True
Option B False
Answer A
Question Which statement about surge tank is wrong? 2

Option A Ideal location of surge tank is at the turbine inlet
Option B A decrease in load demands cause a rise in water level in surge tank
Option C Surge tanks are totally closed to avoid entry of unwanted objects to penstock
Option D Surge tanks are installed to reduce harm effects of water hammer phenomenon
Answer C
Question Trash racks are located 1

Option A near tailrace
Option B at the entrance of turbine
Option C inside penstock
Option D intake
Answer D
Question What is the function of booms? 1

Option A It supports the dam
Option B It supports the penstock
Option C It divert the Icebergs from flowing into the penstock
Option D To hold the turbine structure
Answer A
Question Pelton turbines are used for 2

Option A medium head applications
Option B low head applications
Option C in steam power plants
Option D for high head applications
Answer D
Question Operating head of Francis turbine is 3

Option A less than 30
Option B less than 70 m
Option C 30 to 200 m
Option D more than 200 m
Answer C
Question Governing mechanism used in case of Pelton wheel turbine is 1

Option A guide vane
Option B nozzle needle
Option C control valve
Option D dam gates
Answer B
1
Question Which turbine has highest speed?
Option A Pelton wheel turbine
Option B Francis turbine
Option C Impulse turbine
Option D Kaplan turbine
Answer D
Why has nuclear energy become an inevitable option for the development of the country? 2
Question
Option A Because less pollution caused by nuclear plant
Option B High efficiency of nuclear energy
Option C Due to acute shortage of other sources of energy
Option D High cost of energy production of other sources
Answer C
How much amount of nuclear energy burnt is equivalent to the energy produced by 3000 tonnes 3
Question of coal?
Option A 1kg
Option B 5kg
Option C 15kg
Option D 20kg
Answer A
Question What is the most attractive part of nuclear energy? 1

Option A Supports countries development
Option B Causes no pollution
Option C Has high efficiency of energy production
Option D Is available in abundance
Answer B
Question Nucleus consists of two sub-particles known as? 2

Option A Nucleotides
Option B Nucleons
Option C Neutrons
Option D Nucleosides
Answer B
Question On which law is the nuclear energy explained? 2

Option A Einstein’s law
Option B Newton’s law
Option C Rutherford law
Option D Mendeleev law
Answer A
Question Number of protons in the nucleus is called 1

Option A Atomic number
Option B Mass number
Option C Electric charge
Option D Periodic number
Answer A
Question The total number of nucleons in the nucleus is called 1

Option A Atomic number
Option B Mass number
Option C Electric charge
Option D Periodic number
Answer B
Question In which of the following process are Neutrons emitted? 1

Option A Inverse beta Decay
Option B Nuclear fission
Option C Spontaneous Fission
Option D Nuclear fusion
Answer B
Question Why neutrons with lower energy should be capable of causing fission? 2
Option A For faster reaction process
Option B For sustained reaction process
Option C For Safety purpose
Option D In order to not waste the nuclear fuel
Answer B
Question What happens when a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of an atom of U235? 3

Option A Mass number of atom increases
Option B One electron is let out
Option C U236 isotope is formed
Option D Nucleus becomes unstable
Answer C
Question Who invented nuclear fission? 2
Option A Rutherford
Option B Hans Bethe
Option C Otto Hahn
Option D Marie Curie
Answer C
Question Most of the energy released in fission process is in process of 1

Option A Kinetic Energy
Option B Thermal Energy
Option C Light Energy
Option D Heat Energy
Answer A
Question Combining of two light nuclei of low mass to produce a heavy nucleus is called 2
Option A Nuclear fusion
Option C Spontaneous fission
Option D Double beta decay
Answer A
Question What type of Reaction takes place in sun? 2

Option A Nuclear fusion
Option C Spontaneous fission
Option D Double beta decay
Answer A
Question Fusion reactions are called 2

Option A Thermonuclear
Option B Thermoduric
Option C Thermo Uric
Option D Compound reactions
Answer A
Question Which of the following element is readily available in the ordinary water? 2
Option A Cesium
Option B Thorium
Option C Deuterium
Option D Astatine
Answer C
Question Which nuclear fuel is usually used in thermal nuclear reactor to create fission? 1
Option A U234
Option B U235
Option C U236
Option D U237
Answer B
Which parts function is to reduce the energy of fast neutrons to thermal neutrons in nuclear power 2
Question plant?
Option A Moderator
Option B Coolant circulator
Option C Control rods
Option D Shielding
Answer A
Question What makes the best moderators in nuclear power plant?
Option A Material with low atomic number 1
Option B Materials with low atomic mass
Option C Materials with high atomic number
Option D Materials with high mass number
Answer A
Question What is used in nuclear reactor as a cooling method/device? 1

Option A Coolant
Option B Water jackets
Option C Air cooler
Option D Air vents
Answer A
Question Control rods are made of __________ 2

Option A Cesium
Option B Cadmium
Option C Tin
Option D Gallium
Answer B
1
Question Shield is made of _________
Option A Iron Metal enclosure
Option B Concrete and water
Option C Ceramics walls
Option D Copper metal
Answer B
Question PWR stands for ________ 1

Option A Power
Option B Partially weathered rock
Option C Pressurized water Reactor
Option D Packaging waste regulations
Answer C
Question LWR stands for _________ 1

Option A Lower water reactor
Option B Line water reactor
Option C Liquefied water reactor
Option D Light water reactor
Answer D
Question CANDU stands for ____________ 1

Option A Canadian Natural Darmstadtium Uranium
Option B Canadian Natural Deuterium Uranium
Option C Canadian Natural Dubnium Uranium
Option D Canadian Natural Dysprosium Uranium
Answer B
UNIT IV
Question 1 The components of a diesel power plant are 1
Option A air intake system
Option B exhaust system
Option C cooling system
Option D fuel supply system
Option E all of the above
Answer E
Question 2 Diesel power plants are mainly used for 1
Option A peak load
Option B base load
Option C Emergency
Answer C
Question 3 Unit of specific fuel consumption is 1
Option A kg/h
Option B kJ/kg
Option C kg/kWh
Option D kg/kJ
Answer C
In an open cycle gas turbine power plant the gases after exapansion are
Question 4 1
exhausted at
Option A below atmospheric pressure
Option B above atmospheric pressure
Option C at atmospheric pressure
Option D None of the above
Answer B
Question 5 A gas turbine power plant works on 1
Option A Rankine cycle
Option B Carnot cycle
Option C Brayton cycle
Answer C
Question 6 Efficiency of a GTPP is given by 1
Option A 1‐[ (Rp)^‐(ϒ‐1)/ϒ]
Option B 1 + [ (Rp)^‐(ϒ‐1)/ϒ]
Option C 1‐[ (Rp)^‐(ϒ)/(ϒ‐1)]
Option D 1‐[ (Rp)^‐ϒ]
Answer A
Question 7 Work ratio is given by, Wt= turbine work, Wc= Compressor work 1
Option A (Wt‐Wc)/Wc
Option B (Wt‐Wc)/Wt
Option C Wt/Wc
Option D Wc/Wt
Answer B
Question 8 Relative efficiency of a diesel power plant is given by 1
Option A Actual thermal effy./ Air standard effy.
Option B Mechanical effy./ Air standard effy.
Option C Air standard effy./ Actual thermal effy.
Option D Air standard effy./ Mechanical effy.
Answer A
Question 9 Isentropic efficiency of turbine is given by 1
Option A Actual work/ Isentropic work
Option B Isentropic work/ Actual work
Option C None of the above
Answer A
Question 10 Isentropic efficiency of compressor is given by 1
Option A Actual work/ Isentropic work
Option B Isentropic work/ Actual work
Option C None of the above
Answer B
Question 11 Choice of a gas turbine depends most on which of these factors? 1
Option A Compression ratio
Option B Cut‐off ratio
Option C Pressure ratio
Option D none of the mentioned
Answer C
Question 12 Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant? 1
Option A Compressor
Option B Turbine
Option C Combustion chamber
Option D Condenser
Answer D
Question 13 What is intercooling in gas turbine power plant? 1
Option A Removal of heat from combustion gas between stages of turbine
Option B Removal of heat from compressor between stages of compressor
Option C Removal of heat from intake air
Option D Removal of heat from exhaust air
Answer B
Question 14 The installation time for a gas turbine power plant is __________ 1
Option A Comparatively less than thermal power plant
Option B Comparatively more than thermal power plant
Option C Equal to thermal power plant
Option D Very much longer than thermal power plant
Answer A
Question 15 Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant? 1
Option A Single Acting
Option B Double Acting
Option C Open
Answer C
Question 16 Gas turbine plants are not used 1
Option A As peak load plants.
Option B As base load plants.
Option C As standby power plants.
Option D In combination with the steam power plants.
Answer A
Question 17 The compressor has to be started 1
Option A Before starting the gas turbine.
Option B After starting the gas turbine.
Option C Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine.
Option D At any time during the operation.
Answer A
Question 18 Combined cycle power plants are suitable for? 1
Option A Base loads.
Option B Peak loads.
Option C Intermediate loads.
Option D Both base and peak loads.
Answer D
Question 19 The heating value of gaseous fuels is about 1
Option A 500 kJ/litre
Option B 30 kJ/litre
Option C 100 kJ/litre
Option D 10 kJ/litre
Answer B
In a 4 stroke, 4 cylinder diesel engine, BP=32.5 kW, Mech. Effy.=80%, then
Question 20 2
IP (kW)is
Option A 40.63
Option B 39.63
Option C 41.83
Option D 42.00
Answer A
Question 21 If BSFC=0.25 kg/kWh, ISFC=0.21 kg/kWh, then Mech. Efficiency is 2
Option A 80%
Option B 82%
Option C 84%
Option D 85%
Answer C
A GTPP has presssure ratio of 5, inlet temp. of compressor is 27 deg C.
Question 22 2
The temperature after compression is [take ϒ=1.4]
Option A 200 deg C
Option B 202 deg C
Option C 205 deg C
Option D 202.15 deg C
Answer D
A GTPP has presssure ratio of 6, inlet temp. to the turbine is 627 deg C.
Question 23 2
The temperature afterexpansion is [take ϒ=1.4]
Option A 539.4 deg C
Option B 540.4 deg C
Option C 540 deg C
Option D 541.4 deg C
Answer A
In a GTPP ( with usual notations) T1=300 K, T2= 500 K, T3= 1000 K, T4=600
2
Question 24 K, take ϒ=1.4. The compressor work is
Option A 280 kJ/kg
Option B 288 kJ/kg
Option C 270 kJ/kg
Option D 284 kJ/kg
Answer A
2
Question 25 K, take ϒ=1.4. The turbine work is
Option A 280 kJ/kg
Option B 388 kJ/kg
Option C 470 kJ/kg
Option D 480 kJ/kg
Answer D
2
Question 26 K, take ϒ=1.4. The heat supplied is
Option A 500 kJ/kg
Option B 480 kJ/kg
Option C 700 kJ/kg
Option D 680 kJ/kg
Answer C
Question 27 The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines. 2
Option A They are not self‐starting
Option B Higher rotor speeds
Option C Low efficiencies at part loads
Option D All of the above
Answer D
The intermediate temperature T2 for optimum work of GTPP [T1 is inlet
Question 28 2
temp. and T3 is maximum temp.]
Option A √(T1*T3)
Option B √ (T3/T1)
Option C T1*T3
Option D T3/T1
Answer A
The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following
Question 29 2
fuels?
Option A Coal and Peat.
Option B Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil.
Option C Gas oil.
Option D Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel.
Answer D
A GTPP operates between temperature limits of T1= 295 K(Inlet temp. ),
Question 30 T3=1085 K ( max. Temp.) & ϒ=1.4, pressure ratio =9.768. The compressor 3
and turbine work (in kW) are
Option A 270, 525.6
Option B 271, 530.5
Option C 272.1, 521.8
Option D 235, 470
Answer C
Question 31 For an inlet temp.at compressor of 305 K, isentropic effy. of compressor of 3
80 %, pressure ratio of 5 and ϒ= 1.4, the temp. at exit of compressor is
Option A 500.6 K
Option B 550.6 K
Option C 600.6 K
Option D 527.6 K
Answer D
Question 32 For an inlet temp.at turbine inlet of 1073 K, isentropic effy. of turbine of 3
85 %, pressure ratio of 5.9 and ϒ= 1.38, the temp. at exit of turbine is
Option A 720.6 K
Option B 720.4 K
Option C 702.6 K
Option D 704.6 K
Answer B
Unit V
1 Question Wind wind energy is

Option a Arises from temperature difference of the earth's surface
Option b In which conversion of kinetic energy of wind into mechanical and further into to electricity takes place
Option c Wind energy systems are noisy in operation
Option d All the above
Answer d
2 Question wind turbines are used to convert

Option a Wind energy into radiation
Option b Kinetic energy of wind into mechanical energy and further in electrical
Option c Potential energy to kinetic energy and further electrical
Option d None of these
Answer b
3 Question Liquid dominated system Geothermal power plant is also known as

Option a Dry steam steam geothermal plant
Option b Magma resource thermal plant
Option c Wet steam system geothermal plant
Option d Both a & b
Answer c
4 Question The difference between high tide and low tide is known as
Option a EBB range
Option b Oscan range
Option c Tidal range
Option d All of these
Answer c
5 Question Which of the following is NOT true related to wind energy

Option a It is renewable source of energy
Option b It is consistent and steady source
Option c Non polluting source of energy
Answer b
6 Question What is the purpose of cooling tower in Solar thermal plant

Option a It cools the steam coming from steam turbine
Option b It cool the water coming from condenser for recirculation
Option c It condense the water going to boiler
Answer b
7 Question India's first Geothermal power plant situated at

Option a Jharkhand, Surajkund
Option b Chhattisgarh, Raipur
Option c Maharashtra, Eklarhare
Option d Jammu & Kashmir, Puga
Answer b
8 Question Which of the following NOT the type of horizontal axis wind mill
Option a Wind mill with two aerodynamic blades
Option b Multi blade
Option c Dutch type
Option d Creep type
Answer d
9 Question In the horizontal axis aerodynamic blade wind mill rotor blades are continuously flexed due to
Option a Gravitational loads
Option b inertia loads
Option c Unsteady aerodynamic
Answer d
In horizontal axis aerodynamic blade wind mill components are mounted on bed plate which is
10 Question attached on ________at the top of the tower.
Option a Syntel
Option b Nacelle
Option c Pintel
Option d Shank
Answer c
11 Question Which of the following is False related to flat plate solar collector
Option a Both direct and diffuse radiation can be absorbed
Option b Suitable for heating to temperature below 1000
Option c It consists of insulated box, absorber plate and tubes
Answer b
12 Question In which of the following higher power coefficient is obtained

Option a Rotor with two blades
Option b Rotor with three blades
Option c Rotor with four blades
Option d Rotor with single blades
Answer c
13 Question In horizontal axis propeller with single blade wind mill

Option a Bending may occurs due to sudden shift in wind direction
Option b Counter weight is attached for balancing
Option c Single long blade is mounted on hub
Answer d
14 Question In wet steam geothermal power plant, the water temperature must be
Option a Above the critical temperature
Option b Above normal boiling point temperature
Option c Below boiling temperature
Answer b
15 Question Darrieus rotor type wind mill has

Option a Extremely long blades above 60 m
Option b Two half cylinder facing opposite direction
Option c Curved blades forming cage like structure
Answer c
16 Question Horizontal axis multi blase type wind mill having which one of the following characteristic
Option a Blades made from metal
Option b Have good power coefficient
Option c Rotors have high strength to weight ratio
Answer d
17 Question Nacelle is
Option a Part of wind mill on which all components are mounted at the top of the tower
Option b Part which balance the rotor
Option c It is a cover housing that houses all generating components
Answer c
18 Question Vertical axis wind mill has its blades rotating

Option a An axis parallel to the ground
Option b An axis perpendicular to the ground
Option c An Axis inclined to the ground surface
Answer b
19 Question Which of the following is/are types of Vertical axis wind mill
Option a Dutch type
Option b Sail type
Option c Pintle type
Option d Savonius type
Answer d
20 Question Darrieus type rotor wind mill falls under which type of category of wind mill
Option a Horizontal axis wind mill
Option b Vertical axis wind mill
Option c Permanently Inclined axis wind mill
Answer b
21 Question Which of the following is NOT true related to Photovoltic system technology
Option a Convert solar radiations directly into electricity by using suitable material
Option b It is having mechanical moving part so high maintenance required
Option c It is used for small scale to large scale projects
Option d In which semiconductor material is used
Answer b
22 Question Savonius rotor type wind mill can operates at

Option a At highest velocity of wind
Option b Relatively at low velocity of wind
Option c At any velocity of wind
Option d Only at medium range of wind velocity
Answer b
23 Question Which material is used in absorber plate of solar power plant

Option a Copper
Option b Aluminum
Option c Steel
Answer d
24 Question Which of the following is true related to 'S'- type rotor wind mill
Option a It is having only one longer blade
Option b It is having two half cylinders facing opposite direction
Option c It is having curved blades attached to hub
Answer b
25 Question Which of the following is/are advantage/s of Savonius rotor wind mill
Option a It can operate at low wind velocity ranges 8 km/hr
Option b It has lowest system cost
Option c It requires expensive power transmission system
Option d Only a & b
Answer d
26 Question Identify- 1. It eliminates expensive power transmission system from rotor to the axis
2. It requires low cut in speed
3. It can be operates at low wind velocity range
Option a Sail wind mill
Option b Single blade horizontal axis type
Option c 'S' type rotor wind mill
Option d Darrieus type
Answer c
27 Question ________ is also called as high velocity wind mill

Option b 'S' rotor type wind mill
Option c Darrieus rotor type wind mill
Answer c
28 Question Darrieus rotor wind mill has

Option a Small blade area
Option b Rapidly rotating propeller
Option c Minimum bending stresses in its blades
Answer d
29 Question Identify the exact wind mill

1. It can obstruct large area of wind
2. It has a small blade area
Option a Darrieus rotor wind mill
Option b Savonius rotor wind mill
Option c horizontal axis single blade wind mill
Answer a
30 Question Wind mills are

Option a A machine for wind energy conversion
Option b Are present in horizontal axis mill
Option c Both a & b
Answer c
31 Question Which of the following statement is true related to Darrieus rotor wind mill
Option a Darrieus rotor have multiple blades on it's periphery
Option b Darrieus rotor have three symmetrical aerofoil blades
Option c Both a & b is true
Option d Both a & b is false
Answer b
32 Question In Darrieus type machines

Option a Force in blade is purely tension
Option b Force in blade is purely compressive
Option c Force in blade is alternately tensile and compressive
Option d Purely bending stress produced
Answer a
33 Question 'Rotor Helicoidal' & Rotor 'H' are the rotor type used in
Option a Sail type wind mill
Option b Darrieus type wind mill
Option c Savonius type wind mill
Option d Single blade wind mill
Answer b
34 Question Molton rock chamber system in geothermal plant contains maximum temprature
Option a Up to 100 degree celcius
Option b Below 200
Option c More than 650
Option d Below 600
Answer c
35 Question Wind speed can be measured by

Option a Tachometer
Option b Anemometer
Option c Hexameter
Answer b
36 Question Which is true related to wind velocity

Option a Wind velocity causes due to movement of air from high pressure to low pressure
Option b Wind velocity is due to temperature difference on earth surface
Option c Only b is true
Option d Both a & b
Answer d
37 Question Solar power plant uses which of the following parameters

Option a Photovoltaic cell
Option b Solar radiations
Option c Both are true
Answer c
38 Question Which of the following is NOT the component of solar thermal power plant
Option a Steam turbine
Option b Condenser
Option c Heat exchanger
Option d Anemometer
Answer d
39 Question Identify odd term in the given sequence

Option a Solar collector collect the Solar radiations
Option b Boiler is used to generate steam from heat of solar collector
Option c Steam turbine use the steam produced by boiler to rotate turbine blades
Option d Steam coming from turbine used in cooling tower for recirculation
Answer d
40 Question Which one is true related with Darrieus rotor wind mill
Option a Vertical axis type wind mill
Option b Rapidly rotating propeller type wind mill
Option c Option b is false
Option d Both a & b
Answer d
41 Question Which of the following is type of solar collector

Option a Cylindrical parabolic collector
Option b Flat plate type collector
Option c Parabolloide collector
Answer d
42 Question In Solar thermal plant Insulation box is having insulation coating of

Option a Glass or Mineral wool
Option b Mineral wool & Mica
Option c Asbestos & Glass
Option d Both b & c
Answer a
43 Question The purpose of Transparent cover on flat plate collector is

Option a It decrease the heat loss
Option b It does not affect incoming solar radiation
Option c It trap the solar energy
Answer d
44 Question Flat plate collector solar power plant is

Option a High temperature solar power plant
Option b Medium temperature solar power plant
Option c Low temperature solar power plant
Answer c
45 Question In photovoltaic technology converts solar radiations directly into electricity using ________ materials
Option a Metals
Option b Conductors
Option c Semiconductor
Answer c
46 Question During the first and last quarters of the Moon's phases ________ tides occurs.
Option a Neap tide
Option b Ebb tide
Option c High tide
Option d Low tide
Answer a
47 Question In India, where is the first tidal power station is situated

Option a Kerala, Kuchipudi
Option b Tamilnadu, Trivandrum
Option c Maharashtra, Trombey
Option d Gujarat, Gulf of Kutch
Answer d
48 Question Ebb tide is also known as

Option a Spring tide
Option b Neap tide
Option c Flood tide
Option d Low tide
Answer d
49 Question Which of the following wind mill type was invented by S.J. Savonius
Option b Darrieus type
Option c 'S' type rotor wind mill
Option d Single blade horizontal axis type
Answer c
50 Question In closed cycle MHD system working fluid is

Option a Metal ore
Option b Inert gas
Option c Electron gun
Option d Hydrogen gas
Answer b
UNIT VI
1. The insulating material used for the commutator segment is generally

(A) Graphite
(B) Carbon
(C) Mica
(D) Insulating varnish
C
(A) Where low voltage and high currents are involved
(B) Where high voltage and small currents are involved
(C) In both of the above cases
(D) In none of the above cases
A
3. For Generating large current on D.C generators which winding is generally preferred
(A) Progressive wave winding
(B) Lap Winding
(C) Retrogressive Lap winding
(D) Current depends on design
B
(A) Separately excited generator
(B) Shunt generator
(C) Series generator
(D) Compound generator
B
5. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have
(A) Same kW rating
(B) The same operation r.p.m.
(C) The same drooping voltage characteristics
(D) Same percentage regulation
C
6. Two alternator operating in parallel must have same
(a) voltage.
(b) frequency.
(c) phase sequence.
(d) all of the above.
D
7. The generator which gives dc supply to the rotor of an alternator is called
a) Convertor
b) Exciter
c) Inverter
d) Rectifier
B
8. A circuit breaker is
(A) power factor correcting device
(B) a device to neutralize the effect of transients
(C) a waveform correcting device
(D) a current interrupting device.
D
9. Desired tripping of a circuit breaker is
(A) Manually
(B) Automatically
(C) That it should give warning
(D) None of these
B
10.Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than
(A) 220 V
(B) 400V
(C) 1000 V (D) 10,000 V.
C
11.As the speed of an alternator increases, the frequency
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) May increases or decreases depending on the power factor
A
12.Alternator works on the principle of
(A) Self and mutual induction
(B) Self mutual induction
(C) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
(D) Mutual induction
C
13. SF6 gas is
(A) sulphur fluoride
(B) sulphur difluoride
(C) sulphur hexafluorine
(D) sulphur hexafluoride.
D
14. The rating of transformer may be expressed in
.
(A) kW
(B) kVAR
(C) kVA
(D) Horse power.
C
15. A common method of cooling a power transformer is
(a) natural air cooling
(b) air blast cooling
(c) oil cooling
C
16.Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
(A) nearly full load
(B) 70% full load
(C) 50% full load
(D) no load
A
17. An Isolation Transformer Has Primary to Secondary turns ratio of .
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1
(D) Can be any ratio
C
18. The open circuit test in a transformer is used to measure
(A) Copper loss
(B) Winding loss
(C) Total loss
(D) Core loss
D
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum running cost?
(A) Nuclear.
(B) Hydro.
(C) Thermal.
(D) Diesel.
B
20. The main source of production of biogas is
(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
D
21. Economiser is used for heating
(A) Feed water
(B) Steam
(C) Air
(D) All of these
A
22. Hydroelectric power stations are generally located in
(A) plane area.
(B) hilly area.
(C) cold area.
(D) warm area.
B
23. Which of the following power plant usually offer highest maintenance cost?
(A) Nuclear power plants.
(B) Hydro-electric power plants.
(C) Thermal power plants.
(D) Diesel engine power plants
C
24. If the diversity factor of a power station is high then its generation cost is
(A) high.
(B) low.
(C) remain same.
(D) depend on the plan type
B
25. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
(A) using focusing collector or heliostates
(B) using flat plate collectors
(C) using a solar pond
(D) any of the above system
D
26.General output power from Wind energy ranges from——-
(A) 20kW to 12MW
(B) 30kW to 5MW
(C) 20kW to 2MW
(D) 10kW to 10MW
B
27.The widely-used fuel in thermal power plants is
(A) Coal
(B) Natural Gas
A
28. What is a load curve?
(A) A plot of load vs current.
(B) A plot of load vs time.
(C) A plot of load vs duration of time.
(D) Total number of units generated vs time.
B
29. What does a load duration curve represent?
(A) The variation of load during different hours of the day.
(B) Average load.
(C) The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day.
(D) None of the above.
C
30. What is the load factor of a power plant?
a. Greater than unity.
b. Less than unity.
c. Always more than unity.
d. Normally more than unity.
B
31. What is the shape of the load duration curve?
(A) Rectangular shape.
(B) Triangular shape.
(C) Parabolic shape.
(D) Free hand sketch
A
32. What does the area under the load curve represent?
(A) System voltage.
(B) Current.
(C) Energy consumed.
(D) Maximum demand.
C
33. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction:
(A) Is always present
(B) Is always absent
(C) May be sometimes present
(D) None of the above
A
34. What does the highest point on the daily load curve represents?
(A) Peak load.
(B) Maximum demand.
(C) Both (a) & (d).
(D) None of these.
B
(A) Lap winding
(B) Wave moving
(C) Duplex winding
(D) Any of the above
A
36. Which of the following power plant has least efficiency?
(A) Nuclear power plant.
(B) Hydro power plant.
(C) Steam power plant.
(D) Diesel power plant.
C
37. The modern steam turbines are
(A) impulse turbines
(B) reaction turbines
(C) impulse-reaction turbines
(D) none of the above
C
38. Arc interruption is done by
A) High resistance interruption
B) Low resistance interruption
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
C
39. Arcing time is the time between
A) Separation of circuit breaker and extinction of arc
B) Separation of circuit breaker and rise of recovery voltage
C) Normal current interruption and arc extinction
D) None of these
A
40. Load curve of a generation is always
(A) Positive slope.
(B) Zero slope.
(C) Negative slope.
(D) Combination of (A), (B) and (C).
D
41. The draught which a chimney produces is called
(A) induced draught
(B) natural draught
(C) forced draught
(D) balanced draught
B
42. The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is
(A) to each any stray voltages
(B) to close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain predetermined value
(C) to limit arcing current during the operation of circuit breaker
(D) to provide additional safety in the operation of circuit breaker.
B
43. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is
(A) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the prime mover
(B) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
(C) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
(D) all of the above
D
44. Which of the following circuit breakers has the lowest operating voltage?
(A) SF6 circuit breaker
(B) Air break
(C) Air blast
(D) Minimum oil circuit breaker
B
45. Why are the isolators used?
(A) Break abnormal current
(B) Making under fault conditions
(C) Breaking the circuit under no load condition
C
46. What is the power factor tariff?
(A) It considers only maximum demand.
(B) It considers only semi fixed charges and the power factor.
(C) It considers only power factor.
(D) It considers the load factor.
C
47. The tarrif in which power factor is taken as reference
(A) Sliding scale tariff
(B) kVA maximum demand tariff
(C) kW and kVAR tariff
(D) All of these
D
48. Which tariff is also known as the average power factor tariff?
(A) Sliding scale tariff.
(B) kW tariff.
(C) kVAR tariff.
(D) kVA maximum demand tariff.
D
49. For which among the following the current ratings are not required?
(A) Circuit breakers
(B) Relays
(C) Isolators
(D) Load break switch
C
50. Active power and apparent power are respectively represented by?
(A) kW and kVAR
(B) kVAR and kVA
(C) kVA and kVAR
(D) kW and kVA
D
51. A consumer who consumes more energy should be charged
(A) Less
(B) More
A
52.Which among the following happens in a low power factor?
a. Large kVA rating of the equipment.
b. Greater conductor size.
c. Reduced handling capacity of the system.
d. All of the above.
D
53. What is the making to breaking current ratio for an extra high voltage circuit breaker?
(A) More than 1
(B) Equal to 1
(C) Less than 1
(D) A negative value
A
54. For which among the following consumers is penalty imposed for low power factor?
(A) Residential and commercial consumers.
(B) Industrial consumers.
(C) Agricultural consumers.
(D) All of the above.
B
55. What does the area under the load curve represent?
(A) System voltage.
(B) Current.
(C) Energy consumed.
(D) Maximum demand.
C
56. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel?
(A) Shunt generators
(B) Series generators
(C) Compound generators
A
57. Power factor can be improved by connecting which among these?
(A) Static capacitors.
(B) Resistors.
(C) Synchronous condensers.
(D) Both (a) and (c).
D
58. The most suitable location for the power factor improvement device is
(A) Near the electrical appliance which is responsible for the poor power factor.
(B) At the sending end.
(C) At the receiving end in case of transmission lines.
(D) Both (a) and (c).
D
59. What is the breaking capacity of the air blast circuit breaker?
(A) 5000 MVA
(B) 6000 MVA
(C) 7000 MVA
(D) 10000 MVA
C
60. Which of the following material act as coolant in a nuclear power plant?
(A) liquid sodium.
(B) graphite.
(C) beryllium.
(D) all of the above.
A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Unit 3- Single Phase A. C circuits
1. In purely resistive circuit voltage and current are _________with each other.
a. Lagging
b. Leading
c. In Phase
d. None of above
2. Power in purely resistive circuit is given by ________.

a. VI
b. VICos Ø
c. Zero
d. None of these
3. If power factor = 1 ,it means that _________

a. Input = Output
b. Circuit is resistive
c. Circuit is inductive
d. None of above
4. In purely inductive circuit current equation is given as________.

a. i = Im Sin ωt
b. i = Im Sin ωt + 90°
c. i = Im Sin ωt - 90°
d. None of above
5. In case of Inductive circuit ,frequency is ___________ proportional to the

inductance and inductive reactance.
a. Directly
b. Inversely
c. No Effect
d. None of above
6. In inductive circuit ,when Inductance or inductive reactance increase current

decreases but circuit power factor ___________.
a. Increases
b. Also Decreases
c. Remain Same
7. The average power in purely inductive circuit is _______.
a. Zero
b. VI Cos Ø
c. VI sin Ø
d. None of these
8. Current in purely inductive circuit _______voltage by 90°.
a. Leads
b. Lags
1
c. Align
d. None of above
9. Current equation in purely inductive circuit is given by _________.
a. i = Im Sin ωt
b. i = Im Sin ωt + 90°
c. i = Im Sin ωt - 90°
d. None of above
10. Capacitive reactance is given by the formula ________.
a. Xc= 1/ 2πfc
b. Xc = 2πfc
c. Xc= 0
d. None of above.
11. In pure capacitive circuit, the power is _________.
a. Infinite
b. Maximum
c. Minimum
d. Zero
12. In single phase a.c circuits VI represents __________Power?
a. Active
b. Reactive
c. Apparent
d. Real
13. Reactive power is given as _________?
a. VI
b. VI Cos Ø
c. VI sin Ø
d. None of these
14. ____________Equation gives power factor of circuit.
a. R/Z
b. R x Z
c. XZ
d. None of above
15. In a capacitive circuit when Capacitance increases then power factor ________?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same
d. None of above
16. If current and Voltage are 90 Degree out of phase ,then power will be ______?
a. Maximum
b. Normal
c. Minimum
d. Zero
17. Using formula P= VI Cos Ø we can find __________?

a. Voltage of circuit
b. Current of circuit
c. Power factor of circuit
2
d. None of above
18. Power Factor (Cos Ø) = ____________?

a. kW/kVA
b. R/Z
c. The Cosine of angle between Current and voltage
d. All of the above
19. In series R-L-C circuit at resonance _________?

a. XL = X C
b. XL ˂ X C
c. XL ˃ X C
d. None of above
20. At resonance condition value of cos Ø is _________?

a. 1
b. Less than 1
c. More than 1
d. None of above
21. At resonant frequency, the voltage across capacitor is _______ the voltage across
inductor.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) greater than or equal to
d) equal to
22. In series RLC circuit, the voltage across capacitor and inductor are ______ with each
other.
a) in phase
b) 180⁰ out of phase
c) 90⁰ out of phase
d) 45⁰ out of phase
23. The expression of resonant frequency in a series resonant circuit is?

a) 1/(2π√C)
b) 1/( 2π√L)
c) 2π√LC
d) 1/(2π√LC)
24. The relationship between Impedance and Admittance is _______.

a. Z = 1/Y
b. Z = 1+ Y
c. Z= 1-Y
d. Z= 2Y
25. Components of Admittance are ___________.

a. Resistance and conductance
b. Conductance and susceptance
c. Conductance and permanence
3
d. None of above
24. For the circuit given below, the approximate value of reactance, impedance, current and
power factor is———-respectively.
1. 35 Ohms, 90 Ohms, 1 Amperes, 1

2. 4 Ohms, 104.8 Ohms, 1.9 Amperes, 0.95
3. 40 Ohms, 100 Ohms, 5 Amperes, 0.5
4. 50 Ohms, 200 Ohms, 2 Amperes, 0.7
25. For the circuit given in previous question, the power consumed is—-
1. 200 Watts
2. 361 Watts
3. 300 Watts
4. 500 Watts
26. Power Factor for the circuit given below is——–
1. 1
2. 0.8
3. 0.9
4. 0.5
27. In a pure resistive circuit
A. Current lags behind the voltage by 90o

B. Current leads the voltage by 90o
C. Current can lead or lag the voltage by 90o
D. Current is in phase with the voltage
4
28. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit
A. Depends upon the magnitude of R

B. Depends upon the magnitude of L
C. Depends upon the magnitude of C
D. Depends upon the magnitude of R, L and C
29. A series R-L-C circuit draws a current at a leading power factor at
A. More than resonant frequency

B. Less than resonant frequency*
C. Resonant frequency
30. In a series R-L-C circuit at resonance
A. wLC = 1
B. wL2C2 = 1
C. w2LC = 1*
D. w2L2C = 1
31. In a R-L-C circuit
A. Power is consumed in resistance only and is equal to I SquareR

B. Exchange of power does not take place between resistance and supply mains
C. Exchange of power take place between capacitor and supply mains
D. All of the above*
32. Under the condition of resonance in R-L-C series circuit, the power factor of the
circuit is
A. 0.5 lagging
B. 0.5 leading
C. Unity
D. Zero
33. A series R-L-C circuit will have unity power factor if operated at a frequency of
A. 1/LC
B.1/w2 LC
C. 1/w2 LC
D. 1/ 2 Π √ LC*
34. The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to..........of VR and VL
A. Phasor sum*
B. Arithmetic sum
C. Sum of the squares
D.Algebraic sum
35. The power factor of an AC circuit is equal to
A. Cosine of the phase angle*

5
B. Sine of the phase angle
C. Unity for a resistive circuit
D. Unity for a reactive circuit
36. The power factor of an AC circuit lies between
A. 0 and 1
B. -1 and 1
C. 0 and -1
D. None of these
37. A circuit component that oppose the change in the circuit voltage is
A. Resistance
B. Capacitance*
C. Inductance
D. All of the above
38. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in
A. C only
B. L only
C. R only
D. All of the above
39. In an AC circuit a low value of KVAR compared with KW indicates
A. Low efficiency
B. High power factor
C. Unity power factor
D. Maximum load current
40. The unit of frequency is
A. Cycle
B. Cycle-second
C. Hertz/second
D. Hertz
41. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic resistance the electrical power
converted into heat is
A. Apparent power
B. True power*
C. Reactive power
42. In an AC circuit ( sine wave ) with R and L in series
A. Voltage across R and L 180o out of face

B. The voltage across R lags the voltage across L by 90o*
C. The voltage across R leads the voltage across L by 90o
D. Voltage across R and L are in phase
6
43. In AC circuit the power curve is a sine wave having
A. Double the frequency of voltage*

B. Same frequency as that of voltage
C. Half the frequency of the voltage
D. Three times the frequency of the voltage
44. A current is set to be alternating when it changes in
A. Magnitude only
B. Direction only
C. Both magnitude and direction*
45. A boiler at home is switched on to the a.c. mains supply in power at 230 V, 50 Hz.
The frequency of instantaneous power consumed is
A. 0 Hz
B. 50 Hz
C. 100 Hz*
D. 150 Hz
46. The power factor of an ordinary electric bulb is
A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Slightly more than unity
D. Slightly less than unity*
47. The power factor of practical inductor is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Lagging*
D. Leading
48. Unit of reactive power is
A. VA
B. Watt
C. VAR*
D. Ohm
49. Real part of admittance is.......... and the imaginary part is........
A. Impedance, resistance
B. Resistance, impedance
C. Susceptance, inductance
D. Conductance, Susceptance*
7
50. Capacitive Susceptance is a measure of
A. A purely capacitive circuit's ability to pass current*

B. A purely capacitive circuit's ability to resist the flow of current
C. The extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
D. Reactive power in a circuit
51. Unit of inductive reactance is
A. Henry
B. Millihenry
C. Wb
D. Ohm*
52. A pure capacitance connected across 50 Hz, 230 V supply consumes 0.04 W. This
consumption is attributed to
A. Ohmic loss due to ohmic resistance of plates

B. Loss of energy in dielectric
C. Capacitive reactance in ohms
D. Both A and B*
53. A circuit with a resistor, inductor and capacitor in series is resonant of fo Hz. If the all
the component of values are now doubled the new resonant frequency is
A. 2fo
B. Still fo
C. fo/4
D. fo/2*
54. Pure inductive circuit
A. Consumes some power on average

B. Does not take power at all from a line
C. Takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it
during other part of the cycle*
55. In a pure inductive circuit
A. The current is in phase with the voltage

B. The current legs behind the voltage by 90o *
C. The current leads the voltage by 90o
D. The current can lead or a leg by 90o
56. In a purely inductive circuit
A. Actual power is zero*

B. Reactive power is zero
C. Apparent power is zero
8
57. In a purely inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
A. Be reduced by half
B. Be doubled*
C. Be four times as high
D. Be reduced to ¼
58. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
A. Be reduced by half*
B. Be doubled
C. Be four times at high
D. Be reduced to one fourth
59. Capacitive reactance is more when
A. Capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less*

B. Capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
C. Capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
D. Capacitance is more and the frequency of supply is more
60. Find the value of the instantaneous voltage if the resistance is 2 ohm and the
instantaneous current in the circuit is 5A.
a) 5V
b) 2V
c) 10V*
d) 2.5V
61. The power for a purely resistive circuit is zero when?

a) Current is zero
b) Voltage is zero
c) Both current and voltage are zero
d) Either current or voltage is zero*
62. The correct expression for the instantaneous current in a resistive circuit is?
a) i=Vm(sinwt)/R*
b) i=Vm(coswt)/R
c) i=V(sinwt)/R
d) i=V(coswt)/R
63. The correct expression for the instantaneous current if instantaneous voltage is
Vm(sint) in an inductive circuit is?
a) i = Vm(sint)/X L
b) i = Vm(cost)/XL
c) i = -Vm(sint)/X L
d) i = -Vm(cost)/XL *
64. A resistance of 7 ohm is connected in series with an inductance of 31.8mH. The

circuit is connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the current in the
circuit.
a) 2.2A
b) 4.2A
9
c) 6.2A
d) 8.2A*

circuit is connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the phase difference.
a) -55.1*
b) 55.1
c) 66.1
d) -66.1

circuit is connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the voltage across
the resistor.
a) 31.8V
b) 57.4V*
c) 67.3V
d) 78.2V

circuit is connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the voltage across
the inductor.
a) 52V
b) 82V*
c) 65V
d) 76V
68. Which, among the following, is the correct expression for φ.

a) φ=tan-1 (XL/R)*
b) φ=tan-1 (R/XL)
c) φ=tan-1 (XL*R)
d) φ=cos-1 (XL/R)
69. For an RL circuit, the phase angle is always ________

a) Positive
b) Negative*
c) 0
d) 90
70. What is sinϕ from impedance triangle?

a) XL/R
b) XL/Z*
c) R/Z
d) Z/R
71. What is impedance at resonance?

a) maximum
b) minimum*
c) zero
d) cannot be determined
72. What is tanϕ for RC circuit?

a) XC/R*
b) XL/R
10
c) R/Z
d) Z/R
73. What is the resonance condition?

a) When XL>XC
b) When XL<XC
c) When XL=XC *
d) When XC=infinity
74. The combination of resistance and reactance known as ___________

a) Susceptance
b) Impedance*
c) Conductance
d) Admittance
75. If in an alternating current circuit, resistance is 5 ohm, capacitive reactance is 12 ohm,

what is the impedance?
a) 5 ohm
b) 10 ohm
c) 12 ohm
d) 13 ohm*
76. If in an alternating current circuit, impedance is 26 ohm, capacitive reactance is 24

ohm, what is the resistance?
a) 25 ohm
b) 10 ohm*
c) 12 ohm
d) 23 ohm
77. If in an alternating current circuit, capacitance of 30 µF is connected to a supply of

200V,50Hz. Find the current in the circuit.
a) 1.38 A*
b) 1.89 A
c) 1.74 A
d) 0.89 A
78. If in an alternating current circuit, capacitance C is connected to a supply of

200V,50Hz. Current in the circuit is 1.89 A. Find the capacitance C.
a) 30 µF*
b) 20 µF
c) 10 µF
d) 15 µF
11
A. Only variable resistance

B. Only some sources of e.m.f. in it
C. Only two sources of e.m.f. in it
D. No source of e.m.f. in it *
2. A network which contains one or more than one source of e.m.f. is known as
A. Linear network
B. Non-linear network
C. Passive network
D. Active network*
3. In non-linear network does not satisfy
A. Superposition condition
B. Homogeneity condition
C. Both homogeneity and superposition condition*
D. Homogeneity, superposition and associative condition
A. Branch
B. Loop*
C. Circuit
D. Junction
5. A network consists of linear resistors and ideal voltage source. If the value of the resistors are
doubled then voltage across each resistor is
A. Halved
B. Doubled
C. Increased four lines
D. Not changed*
6. A circuit having neither any energy source nor e.m.f. source is called the .........circuit
A. Unilateral
B. Bilateral
C. Passive
D. Active
7. Which of the following is an active element in a circuit?
A. Current source*
B. Resistance
C. Inductance
D. Capacitance
8. Which of the following is not a bilateral element ?
A. Constant current source*

B. Resister
C. Inductor
D. capacitor
9. The elements which are not capable of delivering energy by its own are known as
A. Unilateral elements
B. Nonlinear elements
C. Passive elements*
D. Active elements
10. To neglect a voltage source, the terminals across the source are
A. Open-circuited
B. Short-circuited*
C. Replaced by some resistance
D. Replaced by inductor
11. For determining the polarity of a voltage drop across a resistor, it is necessary to know the
A. Value of resistor
B. Value of current
C. Direction of current flowing through the resistor*
D. Value of e.m.f. in the circuit
12. Which of the following is not a non-linear element?
A. Gas diode
B. Heater coil*
C. Tunnel diode
D. Electric arc
13. The circuit has resistors ,capacitors and semiconductor diodes. The circuit will be known as
A. Non-linear circuit*
B. Linear circuit
C. Bilateral circuit
14. A dependent source
A. May be a current source or a voltage source*

B. Is always a voltage source
C. Is always a current source
D. Neither a current source nor a voltage source
15. Ideal voltage source have
A. Zero internal resistance*

B. Infinite internal resistance
C. Low value of current
D. Large value of e.m.f.
16. Ideal current source have
A. Zero internal resistance

B. Infinite internal resistance*
C. Low value of voltage
D. Large value of current
A. Terminal voltage is equal to the source e.m.f.

B. Terminal voltage cannot exceed source e.m.f.
C. Terminal voltage is always lower than source e.m.f.
D. Terminal voltage is higher than source e.m.f.
18. Constant voltage source is
A. Active and bilateral

B. Passive and bilateral
C. Active and unilateral*
D. Passive and unilateral
19. Star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will be
A. R/6
B. 3/2 R*
C. 2R
D. 4R
20. A delta circuit has each element of value R/2.The equivalent elements of the star circuit will
be
A. R/6*
B. R/3
C. 2R
D. 3R
21. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistance in the same current path must be in
A. Series with each other*

B. Parallel with each other
C. Series with the voltage source
D. Parallel with the voltages source
22. If the energy is supplied from a source who is resistance is 1 ohm, to a load of 100 ohms, the
source will be
A. A voltage source*
B. A current source
C. Both of above
23. A practical current source is represented by
A. A resistance in series with an ideal current source

B. A resistance in parallel with an ideal current source*
C. A resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage source
24. The terminals across the source are................... if a current source is to be neglected
A. Open-circuited*
B. Short-circuited
C. Replaced by a capacitor
D. Replaced by a source resistance
25. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Resistance is a passive element

B. Inductor is a passive element
C. Current source is a passive element*
D. Voltage source is an active element
26. Kirchhoff's current law is applicable to only
A. Junction in a network*
B. Closed loops in a network
C. Electric circuits
D. Electronic circuits
27. Kirchhoff's current law states that
A. Net current flow at the junction is positive

B. Algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero*
C. No current can leave the junction without some current entering it
D.. Total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
28. Kirchhoff's voltage law is related to
A. Junction cards
B. Battery e.m.fs
C. IR drops
D. Both B and C*
29. According to Kirchhoff's voltage law, the algebraic some of all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any
closed loop of a network is always
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Determined by battery e.m.fs.
D. Zero*
30. Kirchhoff's laws are valid for
A. Linear circuits only

B. Passive time invariant circuits
C. Nonlinear circuits only
D. Both the linear and nonlinear circuits only*
31. Kirchhoff's laws are not applicable to circuits with
A. Distributed parameters*
B. Lumped parameters
C. Passive elements
D. Non-linear resistances
32. The circuit having some properties in either direction is known as ..............circuit
A. Bilateral*
B. Unilateral
C. Irreversible
D. Reversible
33. Which of the following theorems is applicable for both linear and nonlinear circuits?
A. Superposition
B. Thevenin's
C. KVL *
D. None of these
34. Three equal resistances are connected in star. If this star is converted into equivalent delta,
the resistance of both the networks will be.......
A. Equal*
B. Zero
C. Vive-versa
35. Two ideal voltage sources of unequal output voltages cannot be placed in.................
A. Series
B. Parallel*
C. Both series and parallel
36. Thevenin's resistance Rth is found

D. Between same open terminals as for Eth*
37. While Thevenizing a circuit between two terminals, V th is equal to
A. Short-circuit terminal voltage

B. Open-circuit terminal voltage*
C. Net voltage available in the circuit
D. E.M.F. of the battery nearest to the terminals
B. Passive elements
D. Linear bilateral elements*

C. Linear responses only*
40. The superposition theorem applicable to
A. Voltage only
B. Current only
C. Both current and voltage*

C. Sources*
D. Nodes
C. Power calculations*
D. Passive elements
43. In any linear network, the elements like inductor, resistor and capacitor
always_________
d. Remains constant irrespective of change in temperature, voltage and time *
44. Which type of networks allow the physical separability of the network elements
(resistors, inductors & capacitors) for analysis purpose?
a. Lumped Networks*
b. Distributed Networks
c. Unilateral Networks
d. Bilateral Networks
45. Which law plays a significant role in the loop analysis of the network?
a. KCL
b. KVL*
46. How is the loop analysis different in application/functioning level as compared to
Kirchoff’s law?
d. All of the above*
47. Which is the correct sequential order of steps to be undertaken while applying
Thevenin’s theorem?
A. Calculation of Thevenin’s equivalent voltage
B. Removal of branch resistance through which required current is to be estimated
C. Estimation of equivalent resistance between two terminals of the branch
D. Estimation of branch current by schematic representation of Thevenin’s equivalent circuit
a. A, C, B, D
b. B, A, C, D*
c. D, A, C, B
d. B, C, D, A
48. If a resistor Rx is connected between nodes X and Y, Ry between X and Y, Rz between Y and
Z to form a delta connection, then after transformation to star, the resistor at node X is?
a) RxRy/( Rx+Ry+Rz)*
b) RxRz/(Rx+Ry+Rz)
c) RzRy/(Rx+Ry+Rz)
d) (Rx+Ry)/(Rx+Ry+Rz)
49. If the resistors of star connected system are R1, R2, R3 then the resistance between 1 and 2 in
delta connected system will be?
a) (R1R2+ R2R3+ R3R1)/R3*
b) (R1R2+ R2R3+ R3R1)/R1
c) (R1R2+ R2R3+ R3R1)/R2
d) (R1R2+ R2R3+ R3R1)/(R1+R2)
50. Find the equivalent resistance at node A in the delta connected circuit shown in the figure
below.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4*
51. Find the equivalent resistance at node C in the delta connected circuit shown in the figure in
the question 50.
a) 3.66
b) 4.66*
c) 5.66
d) 6.66
. 52. Find the equivalent resistance between node 1 and node 3 in the star connected circuit
shown below.
a) 30
b) 31
c) 32*
d) 33
53. Find the equivalent resistance between node 1 and node 2 in the star connected circuit shown
in the question 52..
a) 2
b) 29*
c) 30
d) 31
a) open circuited
b) short circuited*
55. In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other current sources are?
a) short circuited
b) change its position
c) open circuited*
a) 4
b) 5*
c) 6
d) 7
57. Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to 20V source in the circuit shown below .
a) 1
b) 1.5*
c) 2
d) 2.5
58. Find the voltage across 2Ω resistor due to 20V source in the circuit shown.
a) 0.5
b) 0
c) 1
d) 1.5*
and B.
a) 8
b) 8.5*
c) 9
d) 9.5
60. In the circuit shown above in question 1 find the thevenin’s resistance between terminals A
and B.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1.7*
d) 2.7
61. In the figure shown above in question 1 find the current flowing through 24Ω resistor.
a) 0.33*
b) 0.66
c) 0
d) 0.99
62. Determine the equivalent thevenin’s voltage between terminals A and B in the circuit shown
below.
a) 0.333
b) 3.33
c) 33.3*
d) 333
63. Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in the circuit shown.
a) 333
b) 33.3
c) 3.33*
d) 0.333
64. Determine the equivalent thevenin’s voltage between terminals A and B in the circuit shown
below.
a) 5
b) 15
c) 25*
d) 35
65. Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in the circuit shown
a) 6
b) 6.25
c) 6.5
d) 6.75*
66. Determine the equivalent thevenin’s voltage between terminals ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the circuit
shown below.
a) 0.7
b) 1.7
c) 2.7*
d) 3.7
67. Find the equivalent thevenin’s resistance between terminals A and B in the circuit shown
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9*
68. Find the current through 5Ω resistor in the circuit shown .
A) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
d) 0.4
Sr.
Question A B C D ANS
No.
The time period or periodic time T of an
none of the
1 alternating quantity is the time taken in one cycle alternation Half cycle
above
seconds to complete
The time period of an alternating quantity is

2 25 Hz 50 Hz 100 Hz 0.02 Hz
0.02 second. Its frequency will be
The angular frequency of an alternating
quantity is a mathematical quantity
3 π/2 π 2π 4π
obtained by multiplying the frequency f of
thealternating
An alternatingcurrent
quantityis by a factor
given by the
expression 〖i=200 sin (314t+ π/3) amperes.
4 200 A; 50 Hz 100√2; 50 Hz 200 A; 100 Hz 200 A; 25 Hz
The maximum value and frequency of the
current are
The frequency of emf generated by a both (A) and
5 speed number of poles machine rating
generator depends upon its (B)
In a multipolar (P-pole) machine running at

6 a speed of N rpm, the frequency of f = PN/60 f = PN/120 f = PN f = N/P
generated emf is given as
An ac generator running at 1000 rpm
7 produces emf of 50 Hz. The number of poles 2 4 6 8
on the generator is
An insulation is subjected to …………….. value double of the

8 average peak rms
of applied alternating voltage to it. peak
unsymmetrical
The average value of an unsymmetrical
9 whole cycle half cycle Quarter cycle part of the
alternating quantity is calculated over the
waveform
The mean value of the current I = 20 sin t

10 40π 40/π Jan-40 π/40
from t = 0, to t = π/2 is
A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a

11 2.8 A about 2 A 1.4 A undefined
resistor. The rms value of current is
The rms value of a sinusoidal ac voltage is

12 π/6 radians π/4 radians π/3 radians π/2 radians
equal to its value at an angle of
The size (cross-sectional area) of a
conductor, with regard to the heating peak to peak
13 average value peak value rms value
effect, is determined on the basis of ……….. value
value of current to be carried by it
The length of a phasor in a phasor diagram
rms or
14 normally represents the ………… value of the average peak none of these
effective
alternating quantity
average value rms value to peak value to peak value to
15 The form factor is the ratio of
to rms value average value average value rms value

16 The peak factor is the ratio of
to rms value average value rms value average value
. The ratio of effective value to average

17 form peak average Q-factor
value is called the ………… factor
any value
The form factor for dc supply voltage is
18 zero unity infinity between 0 and
always
1
the phase each of them each of them
The two quantities are said to be in phase difference pass through pass through
19 A AND B
with each other when between two zero values at zero values at
quantities is the same instant the same
When the two quantities are in quadrature 450 or π/4 900 or π/2 1350 or 3π/4 600 or π/3
20
the phase angle between them will be radians radians radians radians
have the
The phase difference between the two have the same have the same
21 same are sinusoidal
waveforms can be compared only when they peak value effective value
frequency
e2 is leading e1 is lagging e2 e2 is leading e1 e2 is lagging e1
If θ1=π/3 and θ2= π/6 e1 = A sin(wt+ θ1)
22 e1 by an by an angle (θ1 by an angle (θ2 by an angle (θ2
and e2 = B sin(w t+ θ2) then
angle (θ1 –θ2) –θ2) –θ1) –θ1)
Two sinsusoidal emfs are given as e1 = A
sin(w t+ π/4) and e2 = B sin(w t- π/6). The
23 75⁰ 105⁰ 60⁰ 15⁰
phase difference between the two
quantities in degrees is rms value and average value magnitude and
phase of an and phase of an direction of an none of the
24 A phasor is a line which represents the
alternating alternating alternating above
quantity quantity quantity
The phasor diagram for alternating
25 quantities can be drawn if they have ……… rectangular sinusoidal triangular any of these
waves
26 Two alternating quantities are added arithmetically graphically vectorially geometrically
sinusoid of
If two sinusoids of the same frequency but sinusoid of sinusoid of half
double the
27 of different amplitudes and phase the same the original non-sinusoid
original
difference are added, the resultant is a frequency frequency
frequency
All the rules and laws which apply to dc
resistance capacitance
28 networks also apply to ac networks inductance only all of these
only only
consisting of
same
double the half the
In ac circuits the power curve is a sine wave frequency as none of the
29 frequency of the frequency of
have that of above
voltage the voltage
voltage
Ohmic resistance is termed as …………
30 apparent inductive effective capacitive
resistance
Which of the following statements

Power Heat produced
31 associated with purely resistive circuits is PF is unity PF is zero
consumed is zero is zero
correct?
Electrical power converted into heat due to
32 flow of an alternating current through an heating TRUE reactive apparent
ohmic resistance is called the ………….. Power
they oppose they can
they can act as
Which of the following statements pertains sudden dissipate none of the
33 energy storage
to resistors only? changes in desirable above
devices
voltages product of amount
product of
of peak product of rms
Average power in a pure resistive circuit is average values values of or effective
34 zero
equal to of current and current and values of
voltage voltage current and
If an alternating triangular voltage is applied
35 to a resistor, the shape of the current triangular sawtooth sinusoidal square
waveform will be ………….. Waveform
In a purely resistive circuit, the average

36 equal to double one-half of one-fourth
power Pav is …………….. the peak power Pmax
A boiler at home is switched on to the ac
mains supplying power at 230 V, 50 Hz. The
37 0 Hz 50 Hz 100 Hz 150 Hz
frequency of instantaneous power
consumed
The is field energy in an inductor
magnetic
changes from maximum value to minimum
38 20 Hz 50 Hz 200 Hz 500 Hz
value in 5m sec when connected to an ac
source. The frequency of the source is
The inductive reactance of a circuit
remains
39 ……………. with the increase in supply increases decreases unpredictable
unchanged
frequency
zero power zero heat zero current
40 associated with pure inductive circuit is not zero pf
consumed produced drawn
true?
lag behind
lead the voltage remain in phase lag or lead the
41 In a pure inductive circuit, the current will the voltage
by 900 with the voltage applied voltage
by 900
In a purely inductive circuit…………….power

42 apparent reactive TRUE inductive
is zero
If the supply frequency of a purely inductive

43 half doubled same one-fourth
circuit is doubled, the circuit current will be
both applied applied voltage applied voltage
both applied
Purely inductive circuit takes power from voltage and decreases but increases but
44 voltage and
the ac mains when current current current
current decrease
increase increases decreases
Which of the following quantities is not
45 resistance capacitance inductance both(b) and (c)
expressed in ohms?
ohmic loss
A pure capacitance connected across 50 Hz, capacitive
due to ohmic loss of energy in
46 230 V supply consumes 0.04W. This reactance in both (a) and (b)
resistance of dielectric
consumption is attributed to ohms
plates
With the decrease in supply frequency the remains the
47 decrease increase unpredictable
capacitive reactance of the circuit will same
A circuit component that opposes the

48 resistance capacitance inductance all of the above
change in circuit voltage is
An instantaneous change in voltage is not a current

49 a resistor an inductor a capacitor
possible in source
If the supply frequency of a pure capacitive

50 tripled one-third nine times one-ninth
circuit is tripled, the current will be
Capacitive reactance increases with the

51 capacitance frequency voltage none of these
increase in
Which of the following statements power

heat produced is work done is power factor is
52 associated with a pure capacitive circuit is consumed is
zero zero zero
not true? zero
lag behind remains in
lead behind the none of the
53 In a pure capacitive circuit, the current will the voltage phase with
voltage by 900 above
by 900 voltage
What capacitance will give the same

54 1 µF 10 µF 1F 10 F
reactance as an inductor of 1H at 50 Hz?
A two-terminal black box contains a series
combination of a resistor and unknown two-
55 an inductor a capacitor a resistor an unknown
terminal linear device. As soon as the
battery is connected to the black box the
56 The pf of a practical inductor is unity zero lagging leading
A circuit of zero lagging power factor an inductive a capacitive

57 . R-L circuit R-C circuit
behaves as circuit circuit
Power loss in an electrical circuit can take inductance inductance and capacitance
58 resistance only
place in only resistance only
59 In an R-L series circuit the power factor is leading lagging zero unity
The power factor of an ordinary electric slightly more slightly less
60 zero unity
bulb is than unity than unity
cosine of the sine of phase unity for a unity for a

61 The power factor of an ac circuit is equal to
phase angle angle resistive circuit reactive circuit
While drawing phasor diagram for a series

62 voltage current resistance power
circuit, the reference phasor is
voltage drops voltage drops . voltage drops
voltage drops
across L leads across L lags across R and L
63 In a series R-L circuit across R and
the voltage drop the voltage are in phase
L are in phase
across R by 900 drop across R opposition
The voltage applied across an R-L series
64 circuit is equal to the ……………sum of arithmetic algebraic phasor none of these
voltage drops across R and L (VR and VL)
A resistance is connected in series with an
remains the
65 inductive coil. The phase difference increases decreases none of these
same
between the current I and applied voltage V
When the voltage v = Vm sin wt applied to
i = Im sin (wt •+
66 the pure resistance what will be the i = Im sinwt i =Imsin (w t-p/2) d. i = Im coswt
π/2)
equation of current
i = Im sin (wt •+
67 the pure inductance what will be the i = Im sinwt i =Imsin (w t-p/2) d. i = Im coswt
π/2)
equation of current
i = Im sin (wt •+
68 the pure capacitance what will be the i = Im sinwt i =Imsin (w t-p/2) d. i = Im coswt
π/2)
equation of current
When the applied voltage varies as v = Vm
voltage and voltage and
sin wt, the current in the body is i = Im voltage lagging voltage leading
69 current are in current are out
sinwt. to current to current
phase. of phase
the
Whenequations of voltage
the applied voltage&varies
currentas indicate
v = Vm
sin wt, the current in the body is i = Imsin voltage lagging voltage leading
(wt • •/2)the equations of voltage & to current to current
phase. of phase
current indicate that
When the applied voltage varies as v =Vmsin
voltage and voltage and current lagging current leading
w t, the current in the body is i = Imsin(w t
71 current are in current are out perpendicular perpendicular
+p/2)the equations of voltage & current
phase of phase to voltage to voltage
indicate that
Average power over one cycle consumed

72 Vrms X Irms Vrms X Irms cosǾ Zero VrmsXIrms sinǾ
(utilized) in the pure inductance is
The term ‘wL’ is called as the inductive
73 2πf L 4πf L 1/2πfL 1/2pfc
reactance and given by
74 The term ‘wc’ is called as the capacitive reactance and given
2πf L by 4πf L 1/2πfL 1/2pfc
Opposition to the alternating current due to inductive capacitive
75
inductive property is called as reactance reactance inductance capacitance
76
capacitive property is called as reactance reactance inductance capacitance
is directly is directly is inversaly
proportional is inversaly proportional to proportional to
77
Opposition to the alternating current due to to the proportional to the double of the double of
inductive property frequency the frequency frequency frequency
Opposition to the alternating current due to proportional is inversaly proportional to proportional to
78
capacitive property to the proportional to the double of the double of
frequency the frequency frequency frequency
The angle of phase difference between
79 90 60 0 180
voltage and current in pure resistance is

80 60 90 0 180
voltage and current in pure inductance is

81 90 60 0 180
voltage and current in pure capacitance is
82 farad henry ohm amp
reactance and measured in
The term ‘wc’ is called as the capacitive
For a pure capacitive circuit the frequency
reduced to
84 of power supply is doubled. The current in reduced to half unchanged doubled
one fourth
the circuit will be
capacitive inductive
85 Ohm is not the unit of inductance resistance
reactance reactance
increase of increase of increase of none of the
86 Capacitive reactance will increases with
capacitance frequency voltage above
87 Inductive reactance will increases with
Inductance frequency voltage above
A pure capacitance is connected of 220V,50

loss of energy I2R due to ohmic
Hz supply.The power consumption is none of the
88 in the resistance of both a and b
0.02 W .This consumption is attributed to above
dielectric plates
increase of increase of increase of

89 Capacitive reactance will decreases with a and b both
capacitance frequency voltage
power
Which of the following statement of the power factor is current flowing heat produced
90 consumed is
pure inductive circuit is incorrect? zero in the ckt is zero is zero
zero
91 Inductive reactance will decreases with a and b both
There is a phase difference of π/2 between Circuit is
Circuit is purely Circuit is purely
92 the voltage and current such that the purely Non of above
Inductive capacitive
current wave leads the voltage wave by π/2. resistive

current wavelags the voltage wave by π/2. resistive
A voltage of v= 141 sin (wt + π/3) is applied
94 to pure resistor of 20 ohm what is the rms 5 amp 3 amp 2 amp 1 amp
value of current
95 to pure inductor of 0.1henry what is the rms 5.2 amp 3.2 amp 2.2 amp 1.2 amp
value of current
97 to pure capacitance of 100 micro-farad 5.1 amp 3.1 amp 2.1 amp 1.1 amp
what is the rms value of current
A 50 Hz A.C. voltage of 150 V r.m.s value is

21.21 sin 21.21 sin 21.21 sin
98 applied to resistor of 10 ohm what is the 21.21 cos(100πt)
(100πt) (100πt-90) (100πt+90)
expression of instantaneous current

21.21 sin 21.21 sin 21.21 sin
99 applied to inductance of 0.2 henry what is 21.21 cos(100πt)
(100πt) (100πt-90) (100πt+90)
the expression of instantaneous current
An alternating voltage e = 200 sin 314 t is

applied to a device which offers an ohmic
resitance of 20Ω to the flow of current in
100 5.0 AMP 3.18 A 1.57 A 1.10 A
one direction while entirely preventing the
flow in the opposite direction. The average
value of current will be
A 50 Hz ac voltage is measured with a

moving iron voltmeter and a rectifier type
ac voltmeter connected in parallel. If the
101 meter readings are V1 and V2 respectively V1/V2 1.11V1 /V2 2V1 /V2 πV1/2V2
and the meters are free from calibration
errors, then the form factor of the ac
voltage may be estimated as
An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10 sin 314
16.36 A,
102 t, the average and rms values of the current 10 A, 17.07 A 10 A, 12.25 A 16.36 A, 12.2 A
17.07 A
are
An alternating current is represented as
103 〖i=70.7 sin〗〖(520 t+ π/6〗 ). The frequency 82.76 Hz, 50 A 41.38 Hz, 25 A 41.38 Hz, 50 A 82.76 Hz, 25 A
and rms value of the current are
The rms value of a half wave rectified
104 current is 50 A. Its rms value for full wave 100 A 70.7 A 50/π A
rectification would be
Power dissipated in 10 Ω resistance when a
105 voltage of 100 + 100 sin 314 t is applied 2,914 watts 1,500 watts 2,488 watts 2,976 watts
across it will be
An electric iron is rated as 230V, 500W ac. peak to peak
106 rms value average value peak value
The value of 230V refers to value
107 The emf generated is given by the formula Blv BIr BVr IVr
The value of the supply voltage available for

108 Vavg Vmax Vrms Vdc
connection to various appliance is ----------
form factor of a sinusoidal wave form is ------
109 0.707 1.414 1.11 0.637
---
110 peak factor of sinusoidal waveform is 0.707 1.414 1.11 0.637
the relation between rms and maximum Vrms = 2 Vmax = 2
111 Vrms = Vmax Vrms=3 Vmax
value is ---------- Vmax Vrms
the relation between average and Iavg = 2/π x
112 2 Iavg = π Im Imax = 2 Iavg Irms =1.44 Iavg
maximum value is ---------- Imax
the relation between rms and average value Irms = 1.11
113 Irms = 2 Iavg Irms = 1.44 Iavg Irms = 2/π Iavg
is ---------- Iavg
average value
mean value maximum value rms value to
114 form is the ratio of ---------- to maximum
to rms value to rms value average value
value
average value
115 peak factor is ratio of ---------- to maximum
value
if the form factor of waveform is 1.11 then
116 sinusoidal triangular square trapezoidal
the wave is
if the peak factor of waveform is 1.414 then
the wave is
a sinusoidal quantity can be represented by
118 i=Im sin2 (ωt) i=Irms sin (ωt) i=Im sin (ωt) i=Iavg sin (ωt)
the expression
119 in any circuit, power is consumed only by inductance resistance capacitance all of above
the ac voltmeter or ammeter indicates the --
120 average rms peak Non of above
-------- value
the ---------- value of a waveform is also maximum
121 average rms peak
called as its effective value. value
122 1 cycle = 180⁰ 90⁰ 2π radian π radian
123 time period 'T' corresponding to ------------- quarter cycle half cycle one-half of one cycle
the phasor represented in its polar form as
124 Z= 14.142 - 45⁰ its equivalent rectangular 10 - j10 5-j5 25+j5 2+j6
form is
A coil is connected across a 200 v, 50Hz
125 supply and takes a current of 8 amp. Loss in 10 Ω 15 Ω 25Ω 50 Ω
the coil is 960 W the impedance of the coil is
the a.c.voltage
a.c.Motors a.c.transmission
126 The main advantage of a.c. is can be raised or none of above
are expensive is very costly
lower
any other
waveform can
be resolved it produces
it is the only it is only
the main advantage of purely sinusoidal into series of distorted
127 alternating standard
waveform is sinusoidal waveforms
waveform waveform
waveforms of when applied
different
frequencies
the waveform in which magnitude changes
128 pulsating d.c. alternating pure d.c none of these
but its direction remain same is called
a.c.can be
the voltage a.c. transmission
easily
129 disadvantage of a.c. is can be raised is economical Non of above
converted to
or lowered and efficient
d.c.
Thevenin's
130 the generation of a.c.is according to farady's law Ohm's law kirchhoff's law
theorem
the --------- represents maximum value of
131 BIl Bl V BIV l IV
alternating e.m.f.
132 standard alternating e.m.f. is represented as EmtanѲ EmcosѲ EmsinѲ Em2sinѲ
standard alternating e.m.f. achieves its
133 45⁰ 90⁰ 180⁰ 270⁰
positive maximum value at Ѳ=-------
134 45⁰ 90⁰ 180⁰ 270⁰
negative maximum value at Ѳ=-------
the time taken by alternating quantity to
135 frequency speed waveform time period
complete one cycle is called.
136 the unit of frequency is rad/sec seconds hertz volts
137 the relation between f and ω is f =1/ω ω= 2π/f ω=2πf ω=1/f
the time period of sinusoidal waveform with
138 0.05 s 0.005 s 0.0005 s 0.5 s
200 Hz frequency is -------.
the value of alternating quantity at
139 instataneous peak peak to peak average
perticular instant is called -------- value
the waveform which shows repetition of
non periodic sawtooth periodic triangular
140 variations after a regular time interval is
waveform waveform waveform waveform
called
141 one cycle corresponds to π radians 90⁰ π/4 radians 2π radians
in our nation,the standard frequency of
142 60 cycles/sec 50 cycles/sec 100 cycles/sec 10 Hz.
alternating voltage is
the heighest value attained by an
143 alternating quantity during positive or maximum peak amplitude all of above
negative half cycle is called
the value
the value the value
attained at
144 the amplitude of an alternating quantity is attained at attained at Ѳ= none of these
Ѳ= π/2
Ѳ=180⁰ π/4 radians
radians
145 which of given relation is true Ѳ=t/ω ω=t/Ѳ Ѳ=ωt ω/Ѳ=t
2 x peak to 2 x Average
146 the amplitude of an alternating quantity is peak to peak /2 R.M.S.value/2
peak value value
one forth cycle of 50 Hz.waveform
147 10 msec 20 msec 1 msec 5 msec
corresponds to
for a 50 Hz. Alternating waveform, the
148 314.16 50 0.126 non of these
angular frequency is ---------- rad/sec
the time corresponding to Ѳ=π/4 radians
149 5 msec 10 msec. 2.5 msec 20 msec
for 50 Hz.alternating waveform is.------.
A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to

150 maximum of 250 V. the voltage at the 150 V 216.5 V 125 V 108.25 V
instant of 60⁰ of the cycle will be -------.
An a.c. voltage is given by V= 40sin314t.the
151 75 Hz 50 Hz. 25 Hz. 100 Hz.
frequency is
The equation of an alternating current is
152 given by, i=14.1421 sin 100πt then the time 0.02 sec 0.06 sec 0.08 sec 0.01 sec
taken by it to complete three cycles is -------
An instantaneous value of an alternating
153 current having r.m.s.value of 7.071 Amp.at 4.33 A 6.123 A 8.66 A 3.061 A
120⁰ is
154 voltage having 50 Hz.frequency and max. 100 V 100 2 V 100/2 V 0V
value of 100V at 0.01 sec is.----------
A sinusoidal voltage has a magnitude of 200

155 100 V 400 V 200 V 300 V
V at 150⁰ then its maximum value is.
An alternating current is given by the

expression 〖i=20 sin 100 t amperes. The
156 0.035 sec 0.015 sec 0.02 sec 0.07 sec
time taken by the current to achieve - 20 A
second time,measuring from t=0 is
An alternating voltage v = 100 sin (314 t-
157 25 Hz 50 Hz 60 Hz 100 Hz.
30⁰) volts.the frequency is --------.
An alternating emf is given by e=200sin
158 50 Hz 75 Hz 25 Hz. 100 Hz.
314t.The frequency is.----------.
159 314t.The instantaneous value of emf at 150 V 175 V 200 V 225 V
t=1/200 sec is.----------.
160 expression 〖i=Im sin 2ωt amperes. Then ω/π Hz. 2ω/π Hz. ω/2π Hz. None of these
frequency of the alternating current is,
An alternating voltage v = 282.84 sin 100π t
161 200 V 200 2 V 141.421 V 400 V
volts.then its rms value is..
photoelectric
162 The concept of effective value is based on. heating effect friction non of these
effect
The value of domestic a.c. supply is 230 V.
163 peak value average value r.m.s.value mean value
this value represents.---------.
The voltmeter in a.c.circuit always measures
164 peak value average value mean value r.m.s.value
------------ value.
The r.m.s.value of an alternating current is
165 10 Amp 30 Amp 5 Amp 20 Amp
10/2 A.then its peak to peak value is.
A sinusoidal voltage is represented as

141.42 V,314
166 141.42 sin 314 ωt then its r.m.s.value of the 100 V, 50 Hz. 100 V, 60 Hz. 200 V, 100 Hz.
Hz.
voltage and frequency are respectively
The peak value of an alternating current is

167 Im/2 2 Im Im/2 2Im
Im then its r.m.s. value is.----------.

168 0.5Im 0.637Im Im/2 2 Im
Im then its average value is.----------.
For symmetrical alternating waveform,the

169 1 2 0 1/2
average value over a complete cycle is.----
The peak value of an alternating wave is 400

170 254.8 V 282.6 V 400 V 565.5 V
V. then its average value is.----------.
The average value of sinusoidally varing

171 more less same as non of above
voltage is ------- than its r.m.s. value
For a sinusoidal alternating waveform, form

172 factor is 1.11 and its peak value is 20 V then 18.018 12.74 22.2 25.481
its average value is---------V.
An alternating current has crest factor of
173 1.414 and its average value is 10 A. then its 4.505 3.185 11.102 7.072
r.m.s. value is ---------- A.
For a certain waveform, form factor is 1.25
174 and its peak factor is 1.57 then its maximum 1.25 1.9625 0.5095 1.57
value is -------- times its average value.
A wire carries 5 A d.c.and alternating

175 current of 15 sin ωt A. then the effective 5 15Ö2 20 11.72
value of the resultant current is.------ A.
An a.c. voltage is given by V(t) =
176 50sinωt+100 sin 3ωt V.then its r.m.s.value is 79.056 10.2988 106.066 75
--------- V.
177 Alternating quantities are represented by vectors scalars phasors graphs
178 Phasors always rotates in -------- direction clockwise anticlockwise vertical horizontal
which axis projection of phasor represents
179 an instantaneous value of alternating Y-axis X- axis Z- axis Non of above
quantity.
A phasor representing i(t)=Imsinωt rotates
180 Ns r.p.m. ω rad/sec f r.p.m. Non of these
at a speed -----------.
The phasor of an alternating quantity varies
181 0⁰ to 90⁰ 0⁰ to 180⁰ 0⁰ to 360⁰ 180⁰ to 360⁰
from -----------.
An alternating quantity having positive
182 positive negative zero infinite
phase has------------- value at t=0
An alternating quantity having zero phase
has------------- value at t=0
An alternating quantity having negative
An alternating voltage is given by V(t)=
185 30⁰ 90⁰ 0⁰ 60⁰
150sin (ωt + π/3) V then its phase is
An alternating current is 14.142 sin(100πt-
30⁰) A and an alternating voltage is 282.842
186 75⁰ 30⁰ π/4 radians 15⁰
sin(100πt+π/4) V then the phase difference
between V and I is ---------.
i1 leads i2 by i1 and i2 are in i2 leads i1 by

187 If i1 = A sinωt and i2 = B sin(ωt+30⁰) then Non of above
30⁰ phase 30⁰
An alternating current is i(t) = 5 sin(ωt-30⁰)

188 while an alternating voltage V(t) = 50 π/12 rad. π/6 rad. π/3 rad. π/4 rad.
sin(ωt+15⁰) then their phase difference is.
An alternating current is i(t) = 2 sin(ωt+π/6)

Voltage lags Voltage lags current leads current lags
189 A while an alternating voltage V(t) = 120
current by 40⁰ current by 10⁰ voltage by 10⁰ voltage by 40⁰
sin(ωt-π/18) V then
which representation gives r.m.s. value of
190 phasor polar rectangular non of these
an alternating quantity.
191 The phase of V(t)=100(314t+π/4) is ------- 45⁰ 90⁰ 135⁰ 0⁰
192 The phase of e(t)=-Em cosωt is ( )⁰ 90 -90 -270 0
193 The polar form of -3+j4 is 5-53.13⁰ 553.13⁰ 5-126.86⁰ 5126.86⁰
194 The rectangular form of 5Ð30 is⁰ 4.33+j2.5 - 4.33 +j2.5 - 4.33 -j2.5 4.33-j2.5
The addition of 1+j2 and -4 +j2 in polar form
195 5-53.13⁰ 553.13⁰ 5-126.86⁰ 5126.86⁰
is
The addition of 1+j1 and 1030 in
196 9.667 +j6 7.667 +j6 9.667 +j4 7.667 +j4
rectangular form is
The substraction of 1+j1 and 1030 in
197 9.667 +j6 7.667 +j6 9.667 +j4 7.667 +j4
rectangular form is
The addition of 260⁰ and 530⁰ in polar 6.805-
198 6.80538.45⁰ 3.42-167.02⁰ 6.805113.25⁰
form is 141.55⁰
For addition and substraction,the phasor
199 rectangular cylinderical polar spherical
must be expressed in ------------- system.
For multiplication and division, the phasor

Eventhough an a.c.waveform can take any
201 shape,the -------- is the most preferred squarewave sinewave triangular wave sawtooth wave
waveform of all
In the equation V(t) = Vmsin 2πft the term
202 peak r.m.s. instantaneous average
V(t) denotes the --------- voltage
In the equation V(t) = Vmsin 2πft the term t voltage v is time t depends
203 time t is variable none of these
in bracket indicates that variable on voltage
light
Rms value is also called as --------- of a.c. heat producing useful useless
204 producing
current component component component
component
The value is also called as virtual value of
the waveform
answer marks unitno status
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 2 4 2
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 2 4 2
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
D 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 4
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 1 4 1
C 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
Sr.
Question A B C D
No.
Semicondu
1 A dielectric material must be________ resistor Insulator Conductor
ctor
When a capacitor is connected across a
2 battery for charging time period, it Defective Punctured Charged Discharged
becomes____________
The dielectric that would make a capacitor
Barium
3 to possess highest capacitance air mica electrolyte
titanate
is_______________
The energy stored in capacitance is given
4 C2V CV2/2 C2V/2 CV
by__________
Capacitor having lowest capacitance
5 air paper micad. plastic
is________________
Electrolytic capacitors can be used both
6 a.c.only d.c.only 50 Hz a.c.
for___________ a.c.and d.c.
If four 10 µF capacitors are connected in
7 parallel, then the effective capacitance will 2.5 µF 40 µF 0.4 µF .20 µF
be_________
If a glass slab is inserted between the
plates of an air capacitor without moving
8 decreased increased unaltered zero
the plates, then capacitance
is_________________
If a number of capacitors are connected in greater
series then the total capacitance of greater than the smaller average of
combination is_____ than the capacitance than the the
9 capacitance of any capacitance capacitanc
of largest capacitor of smallest e of all
capacitor capacitor capacitor
The total capacitance of five capacitor

none of
10 each of 10 µF in series 10 µF 2 µF 25 µF
these
is________________
Two capacitors of capacitance C1=0.1 and
C2=0.2 are connected in series to a 300V
11 100 V 200 V 150 V 300 V
source. The voltage across C1 will
be________________
A capacitor stores 0.4C at 2 V. Its
12 0.4 F 0.2F 3.2 F 0.8 F
capacitance is_________________
A20microF capacitor is in series with a
150 resistor. The combination is placed
13 across a 40V dc source. Time constant of 8s 3s 6s 2.4s
the circuit is______
If a dielectric field is placed in electric remains the becomes
14 decreases increases
field the field strength________ same zero
If dielectric slab is inserted in a parallel decreases increases remains become
15 plate capacitor, the potential difference same zero
will___________
Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF , and 3 µF 6 µF 12 µF all the
12 µF are connected in parallel across an capacitors
16 a.c. source. The maximum current pass
through ______
As per Coulomb’s F= Q1Q2 / F= Q1Q2 / F= Q1Q2 / F= Q1Q2
17 law___________________ 2
εoεrd 4d2 4 εoεrd2 /4 εoεrd
Electric field intensity at any point in an potential (potential (potential
18 electric field is equal to_______ gradient gradient)2 gradient)1/2 (potential
gradient)1/3
The lines of forces due to charged particles always always sometimes none of
19
are___________ straight curved curved the above
The direction of electric field due to away from towards both (a) none of
20
positive charge is___ the charge the charge and (b) the above
If the sheet of bakelite is inserted between
remains becomes
21 the plates of an air capacitor the decreases increases
unchanged zero
capacitance will__
The units of capacitance are volts/coulo coulombs/v ohms henry/Wb
22 mb olt
For making a capacitor, it is better to low high permittivity permittivit
select a dielectric having permittivity permittivity same as y slightly
23 that of air more than
that of air
An electrolytic capacitor can be used for D.C. only A.C. only both D.C. none of
24 as well as these
A.C.
The capacitance of a capacitor is not distance area of thickness all of the
25 affected by between plates of plates above
plates
26 Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor voltage voltage charge on charge on
after being charged from a constant across the across the the the
voltage source are separated apart by plates plates capacitor capacitor
means of insulated handles then the increases decreases decreases increases
If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive varying of high charging discharge
circuit, the alternating current can flow in voltage peak value current can current
the circuit because produces flow can flow
the
27 charging
and
discharging
currents
Which of the following statements is Air Electrolytic Ceramic Mica
correct? capacitors capacitor capacitors capacitors
have a must be must be are
blackband connected connected available
28 to indicate in the in the in
the outside correct correct capacitanc
foil polarity polarity e value of
1 to 10 µF
29 Three capacitors each of the capacity C are all in series all in two in two in
given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be parallel parallel and series and
obtained by using them third in third in
series with parallel
this across this
combination combinatio
n.
30 For which of the following parameter Distance Area of the Nature of Thickness
variation, the capacitance of the capacitor between plates dielectric of the
remains unaffected? plates plates
Which of the following expression is
31 E = D/ E = D2/ E= D E = D2
correct for electric field strength?
Which of the following statement is true? The The The current The
current in current in in the current in
the the discharging the
discharging discharging capacitor dischargin
32 capacitor capacitor decays g
grows grows exponentiall capacitor
linearly exponential y decreases
ly constantly
In a capacitor the electric charge is stored both (a) none of

33 metal plates dielectric
in and (b) the above
34 Which of the following materials has the Glass Vaccum Ceramics Oil
highest value of dielectric constant
35 The sparking between two electrical capacitor capacitor resistance none of
contacts can be reduced by inserting a in parallel in series in line the above
with with each
contacts contact
36 The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is zero proportiona proportional both (b)
l to applied to value of and (c)
voltage capacitance above
37 Capacitance increases with increase in increase in decrease in reduction

plate area plate area plate area in plate
and and and value area and
decrease in distance of applied distance
distance between voltage between
between the plates the plates
the plates
38 A capacitor consists of two two two two

insulators conductors insulators conductors
separated separated only only
by a by a
conductor insulator
39 A paper capacitor is usually available in tubes rolled foil disc meshed

the form of plates
40 Air capacitors are generally available in 10 to 400 1 to 20 pF 100 to 900 20 to 100
the range pF pF pF
41 The unit of capacitance is henry ohm farad farad/m
42 A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000 µC 10 F 10 µF 100 µF 1000 µF
of charge. The value of capacitance will be
Voltage across capacitor at any time T

ν = V(1-e- ν = V2(1-
43 during charging from a D.C. source of ν = Ve-t2/λ t/λ ν = V 2 -t/λ
e
voltage V is given by ) e-t/λ)
The ratio of electric flux density to electric
permeabilit capacitanc
44 field intensity is called ………. Of the permittivity reluctance
y e
medium
Energy stored in the electricl field of a
capacitor C when charged from a D.C,
45 ½ CV2 ½ C2V CV2 C2V
source of voltage V is equal to ……..
joules
- - -
The absolute permittivity of free space is 8.854 x 10 8.854 x 10 8.854 x 10 8.854 x
46 -12
given by 9
F/m 10
F/m 11
F/m 10 F/m
The relative permittivity of free space is
47 1 10 100 1000
given by ‘
When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1
48 2 joules 4 joules 6 joules 8 joules
farad capacitor, it will store energy of
The capacitor preferred for high frequency air mica electrolytic none of
49
circuits is capacitor capacitor capacitor the above
The capacity of capacitor bank used in
50 power factor correction is expressed in kW kVA kVAR volts
terms of
If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V the
51 charge in coulombs will 800 µC 900 µC 1200 µC 1600 µC
be_______________
The breakdown voltage for paper capacitor
200 to 2000 to more than
52 is usually_________ 20 to 60 V
1600 V 10000 V 10000 V
Which of the following capacitors is

53 marked for air paper mica electrolyte
polarity____________________
Which of the following capacitor are
54 usually used for radio frequency air paper mica electrolyte
tuining__________
Which of the following capacitor are used
55 air paper mica electrolyte
d.c.__________
in transistor__________
57 for audio frequency and radio frequency air plastic film mica ceramic
coupling and tuning__________
--------- is that property of a capacitor
potential none of
58 which delays any change of voltage across inductance capacitance
gradient the above
it.
The time constant of an R-C circuit is
defined as the time during which capacitor
59 37, initial 63.2, initial 63.2, final 37, final
charging voltage actually rises to ------------
----percent of its ---------- value

60 37 63 42 73
charging current actually falls to -------------
---percent of its initial maximum value
61 Permitivity is expressed in_______ Farad/sq-m weber/metr Farad/meter weber/
e square
metre
Dielectric strength of a material depends moisture all of the
62 temperature thickness
on_________________ content above
1
1 newton 1 newton 1 joule
63 1Volt /metre is same as metre/coulo
metre /coulomb /coulomb
mb
1 coulomb 1 coulomb
1 joule 1 coulomb
64 1 Volt is the same as_________________ /coulomb joule /
/coulomb / joule
joule coulomb
The relative permittivity of air none of
65 0 1
is__________ the above
The relative permittivity of a material is
66
10.Its absoulete permittivity will be
67 The capacitance of a capacitor is ……… directly inversely independent directly
relative permittivity proportiona proportiona of proportion
l to l to al to
square of
An air capacitor has the same dimensions
that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance
68 of mica capacitor is 6 times that of air 36 12 3 6
capacitor, then relative permittivity of
mica is
69 The most convenient way of achieving multiplate decreased air as dielectric
large capacitance is by using constructio distance dielectric of low
n between permittivit
plates y
70 Another name for relative permittivity is dielectric breakdown specific potential
strength voltage inductive gradient
capacity
71 A capacitor opposes change in change in both none of
current voltage change in the above.
current and
voltage
72 The capacitance of a parallel plate area of medium separatin metal of

capacitor does not depend upon plates between between plates
plates plates
73 The capacitance of a parallel plate the type of separatin thickness potential
capacitor depends upon metals used between of plates difference
plates between
plates
The force between the plates of a parallel
plate capacitor of capacitance C and
74
distance of separation of plates d with a
potential difference V between the plates is
A parallel-plate air capacitor is immersed
increased increased decreased 2 none of
75 is oil of dielectric constant 2. The electric
2 times 4 times times the above
field between the plates is
Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2
are connected in parallel. A charge Q
76 C2/ C1 C1/ C2 C1 C2/1 1/ C1 C2
given to them is shared. The ratio of
charges Q1/Q2 is
Two capacitors have capacitance 25 µF
12 µF and 15 µF and 10 µF and none of
77 when in parallel and 6 µF when in series.
13 µF 10 µF 8 µF the above
Their individual capacitance are
Which of the following does not change
electric
when a glass slab is introduced between electric electric
78 capacitance field
the plates of a charged parallel plate charge energy
intensity
capacitor?
A capacitor of 1 µF is charged to a
potential of 50V. It is now connected to an
79 50 V 20 V 15 V 10 V
uncharged capacitor of capacitance 4 µF.
The common potential is
conductors
insulators conductors
separated insulators
separated separated
by an separated
80 A capacitor consists of two by air by air
insulator by a
medium medium
called the conductor
only only
dielectric
In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored none of

81 metal plates dielectric both (a) (b)
in the above
If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced capacitor plates will capacitor capacitanc
by a conducting material the will get get short- can store e will
heated up circuited infinite become
82
owing to charge very high
eddy
currents
The charge on an isolated conductor at the inside the partly at none of
resides conductor conductor the surface the above
surface and partly
83
inside the
conductor
Two capacitors each having capacitance C

and breakdown voltage V are joined in
84 series. The capacitance and breakdown 2C and 2V 2C and
voltage of the combination will be
The total capacitance of two condensers is

.03µF when joined in series and 0.16µ
85 5.33 2 3 4
when connected in parallel. The ratio of
two capacitance will be__________
If V, W,q stand for voltage ,energy and

86 charge then V can be expressed
as________
Electric
none of
87 Joule / Coulomb is the unit of field Potential charge
the above.
potential
ans
wer
B
A
B
A
B
C
A
A
C
B
B
C
A
B
A
A
B
A
B
Sr.
Question A B C D
No.
change ac change dc step up or step up or

1 A transformer is used to___________ voltage to voltage to down dc down ac
dc voltage ac voltage voltages voltages
The two windings of a transformer is conductively inductively not linked electricall

2
__________ linked linked at all y linked
The magnetically operated device that
can change values of voltage, current,
and impedance without changing Transfor
3 Motor Generator trasistor
frequency is the______ mer
The transformer winding across which
the supply voltage applied is called the
4 _____ winding. Primary secondary terrtiary tapped
The transformer winding which is
connected to the load is called
5 the_______ winding Primary secondary terrtiary tapped
If supply frequency of a transformer

remains decreases
6 increases, the secondary output voltage decreases increases
constant slightly
of the transformer___
The horizontal and vertical portions of

7 transformer magnetic core are called limb, yoke yoke,limb yoke limb
as_________respectively.
The principle of working of transformer Static mutual dynamic self

8
is based on ________ induction induction induction induction
Transformer is used to change values all of

9 Frequency voltage impedance
of__________ above
High
conductiv
The path of the magnetic flux in Low Low High
10 ity
transformer has_________ resistance reluctance reluctance
Electrical power is transformed from one
.
coil to other coil in
Magnetical Electrom
11 transformer_________ Physically Electrically
ly agneticall
y
At power
At power
Always at factor
factor none of
12 A transformer operates___________ unity power below
depending above
factor particular
on load
value
Nickel Chrome
The laminations of transformer core are Low carbon Silicon
13 alloy steel sheet
made up from__________ steel sheet steel
stamping steel
High
The material used for construction of Low Low high
permeabilit
transformer core should permeability permeability permeabil
y & high
14 have___________ & high & low ity & low
hysteresis
hysteresis hysteresis hysteresis
loss
loss loss loss
Most transformer cores are not made

from a solid piece of metal. Instead, they
tape
15 are assembled from many thin sheets of Laminated Toroid H core
wound
metal. This type of construction is
called__________
The concentric cylindrical winding is None of
Berry type
used for__________ Core type Shell type these
16 transforme
transformer transformer
r
The sandwich type winding is used None of
Berry type Shell type
for____________ Core type these
17 transformer transforme
transformer
r
Silicon steel is used for laminations of
transformer core__________ To reduce To reduce
To reduce . None of
18 hysteresis eddy current
both losses these
loss loss
What is common in two windings of None of
transformer_________ Electric Magnetic Winding these
19
current circuit wire guage
Decrease Reduce
The main function of transformer iron the eddy
Provide To decrease
core is to__________ reluctance current
20 strength to hysteresis
of loss
the winding loss
magnetic
path
same as less than more than
The primary current of 200/400V none of
21 secondary secondary secondary
transformer is above
current current current
about
about the about the
The transformation ratio of transformer regulation all of
22 efficiency of secondary
gives information of above
transformer voltage
transformer
Turns ratio of single phase transformer is
given as__________ (N1xN2)/ (N1xN2)/
23 N2/N1 N1/N2
N1 N2
In a transformer, the turns of primary

24 wire compared to the turns of secondary isolation step-up step-down Turns
wire is called the _____ ratio
A transformer in which the secondary

25 voltage is more than the primary voltage step-down step-up Isolation Auto
is called a _____ transformer
A transformer in which the primary

26 voltage is more than the secondary step-down step-up Isolation Auto
voltage is called a _____ transform
Any transformer flux that does not follow
the core and escapes into the surrounding
magnetizing coupling leakage reactance
27 air is called____
flux flux flux flux
transformer that does not isolate the
output from the input is called _____ Distribution
28 transformer . step-up Auto Control
Zero
Ideal transformer assumptions do not No
reactance of Zero . No
include____________ saturation
29 the winding resistance of leakage
of the
the winding flux
core
The wattmeter readings of primary and

secondary sides of a single phase
30 80% 90% 100% 50%
transformer are 500W and 450W.The
efficiency of transformer is
The efficiency of the transformer is

90 to
31 normally is normally in the range 50 to 70% . 60 to 75 % 80 to 90 %
98%
of____________
Is less than
. Is more
The resistance of low voltage side of Is equal to its
than its
transformer________ resistance of resistance
32 resistance 0
its high on high
on high
voltage side voltage
voltage side
side
Using
Decreasing wire of
Increasing Decreasing
the air gap higher
Eddy current losses in transformer core is the the
33 in guage for
reduced by_________ thickness of thickness of
magnetic winding
laminations lamination
circuit
A good transformer oil should be All of the

absolutely free from__________ above
34 Sulpher Alkalies Moisture
Single phase core type transformer

One Two No
has__________ None of
35 magnetic magnetic magnetic
these
circuit circuits circuit
One Two No
Single phase shell type transformer None of
has__________ these
Berry
. Core type Shell Type Both A & type
37 Natural cooling is better in_________
transformer transformer B transform
er
EMF equation for single phase
transformer is________ E= 1.11 Φm E= 1.11 Bm E= 1.11 E= 4.44
38
f N AfN Bm A f N Φm f N
Transformation ratio(K) of transformer

39 N2/N1 E1/E2 I2/I1 V1/V2
is_________
three
single automatic
two winding winding
40 Auto transformer is winding transform
transformer transforme
tansformer er
r
In step up transformer the transformation
ratio (K) is_____________ Greater than Less than
41 1 0
1 1
In step down transformer the Greater than Less than
42 1 0
transformation ratio (K) is__________ 1 1
alternating
flux
resistance of reactance of all of
43 Core losses in tranformer is due to linking
windings windings above
with the
core
No of
The induced emf in transformer Maximum Frequency ,
Frequency turns on
secondary depends on__________ flux in core flux & no of
44 and supply secondary
and turns on
only
frequency secondary
Transformer rating usually expressed
in____________
45 kW KVA KA Kwh
In a transformer if secondary turns are Be

doubled, at the same time primary reduced
be four
46 voltage is reduced by half, the secondary Be halved Not change to quarter
times
voltage will_________
The no load current in terms of full load
12 to
current is usually________
47 1 to 3% 3 to 9 % 9 to 12% 20%
Insulation
, cooling
Insulation
Transformer oil is used in transformer to Cooling and Cooling and and
48 and
provide_______ insulation lubrication lubricatio
lubrication
n
What is the typical use of

Variable Isolating
autotransformer____________ Toy Control
49 transforme transform
r er
In any transformer the voltage per turn in
Always in
primary and secondary Sometime
Always Always the ratio of K
50 remains____________ s same
different same
Full load copper loss in a transformer is
400 Watt. At half load copper losses will
51 be___________ 400 Watt 200 Watt 100 Watt 50 Watt
A transformer is working with its
maximum efficiency. If the iron losses
52 300 W 350 W 250 W 500 W
are 500 W, the copper loss
will__________
Hysteresis None of
If we increase the flux density in case The
The size of and eddy these will
transformer_______________ distortion in
53 transformer current be true
transformer
will reduce losses will
will reduce
reduce
The direct loading test is performed on

transformer to find its____________ Both A None of
54 Regulation Efficiency
and B these
no load
no load full load
The voltage regulation of transformer is current -
voltage-full voltage-no
calculated as_________ full load all of
55 load load
voltage/ no above
voltage/ no voltage/ no
load
load voltage load voltage
voltage
For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single
9090.9
phase transformer, the primary full load
909.09 Amp
56 current is____________ 90.90 Amp 9.09 Amp
Amp
9090.9
phase transformer, the secondary full
909.09 Amp
57 load current is________ 90.90 Amp 9.09 Amp
Amp
No
More
separation Size is more
The disadvantage of auto transformer costlier
between than normal
is______________ than
58 primary & transformer All
normal
secondary for same
transforme
rating
r
A transformer steps up voltage by a
factor of 100. The ratio of current in the
59 primary to that in secondary_____ 1 100 0.01 0.1
remains
Power on primary and secondary side of are always is always none of
60 approximate
transformer different 100KVA these
ly constant
remains
The flux in transformer increases decreases constant none of
61
core____________ with load with load irrespectiv these
Efficiency of transformer is maximum copper e of load
eddy
it is
when___________ transformer losses is current
62 maximall
is unloaded equal to iron losses are
y loaded
losses equal to
Hysteresis loss in transformer depends none of
both voltage
on__________ voltage frequency these
63 and
alone alone
frequency
The flux involved in EMF equation of a
transformer has______________
average maximum instantane
64 RMS Value
value value ous value
maximum least
resistance resistance
equal no ohmic
on primary on primary
side and side ans
For an ideal transformer the windings on primary on either
65 least maximum
should have____________ and side
secondary
on on
side
secondary secondary
side side
The full load copper and iron loss of a
transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W
respectively. The copper loss and iron 1600 W 1600 W
3200 W and 3200 W and
66 loss at half load will be and 1250 and 5000
2500 W 5200 W
respectively______ W W
Faradays
law of
Electroma
there is no gnetic
DC circuit
A transformer does not raise or lower the need to Induction none of
67 has more
voltage of DC supply because________ change the are not these
losses
DC voltage valid since
the rate of
change of
flux is zero
could
Primary winding of a transformer either be a none of
is always is always
_____________ low or these
68 low voltage high voltage
high
winding winding
voltage
winding
Which winding of a transformer has secondary
High
more number of turns_______________ Low voltage Primary winding
69 voltage
winding winding
winding
In a given transformer for a given applied hysteresis

Friction and
voltage, which losses remain constant and eddy none of
70 wingdage copper loss
irrespective of change in current these
loss
load____________ loss
A 10KVA transformer is half loadedwith

resistive load. Its full load copper and
71 iron loss is 50W and 30W respectively. 50% 90% 96% 98.91%
I\he efficiency of transformer when half
loaded is
all of
72 Transformer can steps up and steps down voltage resistance power
these
increase reduce
reduce reduce
current in current in
73 transformer core is laminated to hystersis eddycurre
loss nt loss
winding winding
increase reduce
reduce reduce
Transformer core is made of silicon steel current in current in
74 hystersis eddycurre
to transformer transformer
loss nt loss
winding winding
frequency
number of , number
The induced emf in transformer Frequency frquency
turns of of turns
75 secondary depends on__________ of the and flux in
seondary and flux
supply only the core
only in the
core
the number the number
the
of turns of of turns of the
The eddy current loss in transformer is laminatio
76 primary secondary lamination
reduced if ns are
winding is winding is s are thick
thin
reduced reduced
The eddy current loss in transformer primary secondary both B &

77 core
occurs in -------- of transformer winding winding C
both ac
d.c voltage ac voltage 100V ac
78 A Transformer can step up or step down and dc
only only only
voltage
Two transformers operating under same

same in does not
technical conditions,transformer A has
more in A more in b both depend on
79 core volume 1.5 times as that of
than in B than in A transforme volume of
transformer B , both laminated and made
rs. core
of silicon steel .Hysteresis loss will be
Two transformers, transformer A

both have
woking on 230V , 50Hz and Transformer
Traansform Transformer same eddy none of
80 B working on 230V, 60Hz. Which
er A B current above
transformer will have more eddy current
loss
loss?
current
higher than lower than same as
doesnot
81 Current in high voltage winding is low voltage low voltage low curent
depend on
winding winding winding
voltage
Two transformers A and B having

efficiencies 95% and 90% transformer Transformer Both A none of
82
respectively.Which transformer is of A B and B above
better quality
Two transformers P and Q having
regulation 3% and 5% transformer transformer none of
83 Both
respectively.Which transformer is of P Q above
better quality
dynamicall
Type of emf induced in primary winding mutual self induced all of
84 y induced
is called induced emf emf above
emf
both
statically
Type of emf induced in transformer statically dynamically none of
85 and
windings is induced emf induced above
dynamicall
y
primary secondary none of
86 Which part in transformer is rotating? core
winding winding above
equal to
equal to iron
87 Frictional losses in transformer are 20% only copper zero
loss
loss
The full load primary current for 1 KVA
88 5A 3A 4.35A 3.45
, 230/ 150V transformer will be
Transformer of 1 KVA , 230/ 150V
carries a primary current of 2A having
89 30W 40W 10W 60W
copper loss of 20W and 10W iron loss.
Its full load iron loss will be
90 copper loss of 20W and iron loss of 10W 15W 20W 25W
15W. Its iron loss when primary carries
4A will be
Efficiency of ideal transformer is more than less than
91 100% 50%
90% 90%
92 Regulation of ideal transformer is 5% 2% 3% 0%
As the load on transformer changes,------- secondary all of
93 efficiency regulation
-------------- changes. current these
square of square of
Copper loss at any load in transformer is full load no load
94 full load load
directly proportional to current only. current
current current
The applied voltage of transformer is
changed from 400 V to 200V. Core loss remains
none of
95 will approximate increases decreases
these
ly constant
A transformer when carrying a full load

current of 20A has copper loss of 400W.
96 400W 260W 30.76W 169W
The value of copper loss when carrying a
current of 13A will be
A 3300/110V ,50Hz 60KVA transformer
has primary and secondary resistances
1245.67
97 are 3.3ohm and 0.011 ohm respectively. 4363.53W 436.53W 1000W
W
The value of copper loss at full load will
be
A transformer with primary voltage of

40V has 80 and 8000 turns of primary
98 400V 2000V 4000V 40V
and secondary winding respectively. Its
secondary voltage is
Voltage per turn of primary winding of a

99 transformer is 20V . The value of voltage 6000V 3000V 2500V 4000V
in 300 turns of primary winding will be
A transformer with 200/400V has full
100 load primary current of 10A. Its KVA 200VA 2KVA 4KVA 400VA
rating is
A single phase transformer of 4KVA is none of

101 400VA 2000VA 20KVA
half loaded . Its half load KVA output is above
The readings of direct loading method on

a single phase transformer is
no load test :
primary side :220V, 0.7A.40W
102 secondary side : 102V, 0A, 0W on 0% 3.92% 10% 7.80%
load test : primary
side : 220V.4.45A,960W secondary
side : 98V, 808, 862.4W Its regulation
will be
A transformer with 400/200V delivers

103 0.10% 20% 10% 0.01%
5A at 180V. Its regulation is
four times
In a certain loaded tranformer, the one fourth equal the
the none of
104 secondary voltage is 1/4 of primary yhe primary primary
primary these
voltage.The secondary current is current current
current
using
using
In a transformer the magnetic coupling increasing using soft transform
magnetic
105 between primary and secondary winding number of material for er oil of
core of low
can be increased by turns winding better
reluctance
quality
when transformer is loaded, the

106 secondary voltage increases. That means leading lagging unity zero
power factor is
When 400Hz transformer is operated at reduced to reduce to reduce to reduce to
107
50Hz, its KVA rating is 1/16 1/4 1/2 1/8
What should be the KVA rating of
108 transformer to handle load current of 8A 4 8 24 32
with a secondary voltage of 3KV?
As load current increases, the regulation remains none of
109 increases decreases
of transformer same these
No load secondary voltage of a
transformer is 400V. When transformer
110 is loaded its seconndary voltage is 5% 0.05% -5% -10%
observed to drop down to 380V. Its
regulation is
A transformer with 2% voltage
111 regulation has no load voltage of 200V. 190V 196V 100V 200V
Its on load voltage is
If frequency of voltage applied to
primary of step up transformer is 100Hz,
112 50Hz 60Hz 100Hz 200Hz
the frequency of secondary induced emf
is
voltage load
The current at any instant in the windings applied to connected to eddy all of
113
of transformer is due to primary primary of currents above
winding transformer
A load requires 400V, 18A for its

114 operation. KVA rating of transformer 2KVA 4KVA 1KVA 8KVA
required must be around
A transformer has KVA loading of 20 at
0.8 p.f lagging on full load with 100W
115 and 200W as core and copper losses 98.15% 100% 95.18% 90%
respectively. The eficiency of transformer
at full load will be
doesnot
Transformer Transformer both the
Transformer A has core volume les than depend on
116 A is more B is more transforme
transformer B. The copper losses in volume of
than B than A r same
material
In equation of transformer, maximum average instantane

117 rms value
E= 4.44 Φm f N, E has value value ous value
both
only only primary
flux in the
When the load on transformer is primary secondary and
118 core
changed, its current current secondary
changes
changes changes current
changes
A transformer of 30KVA ,200/400 is

carrying secondary current of 75A. The
119 full load copper loss is 300W and iron 50W 300W 600W 60W
loss is 50W. The value of copper loss
when carrying a current of 75A is
#VALUE!
answ
er
C
B
C
C
D
C
A
C
C
D
A
C
C
C
D
D
B
A
D
D
D
A
C
C
D
A
B
Q 1. The main advantage of AC is
a) A C Motors are expensive
b) A C voltages can be raised or lowered
c) A C transmission is very costly
d) None of these
Q 2. The main advantages of purely sinusoidal waveform is
a) It’s the only alternative waveform
b) It is the only standard waveform
c) Any other waveform can be resolved into series of sinusoidal waveform of different
frequencies
d) it produces distorted waveforms when applied
Q 3.The waveform in which magnitude changes but its direction remains same is called
a) pulsating DC
b) alternating
c) pure DC
d) none of these
Q 4 ___________is the advantage of ac
a) The voltages can be raised or lowered
b) AC transmission is economical and efficient
c) AC can be converted into DC
d) All of the above
Q 5. The generation of AC is according to
a) Faraday’s law
b) Thevenin’s theorem
c) Ohms law
d) Kirchoff’s law
Q 6.-------------represents maximum of alternating emf
a) BIL
b) BLV
c) BIV
d) LIV
Q 7. Standard alternating emf is reprensented as
a) Em tanѲ
b) Em CosѲ
c) Em sinѲ
d) Em2sinѲ
8. Standard alternating emf achieves its positive maximum value at Ѳ =
a) 45̊°
b) 90̊̊°
c) 180°
d) 270°
Q 9. Standard alternating emf achieves its negative maximum value at Ѳ =
a)45
b) 90
c) 180
d) 270
Q 10. The time taken by an alternating quantity to complete one cycle is called
a) frequency
b) speed
c) waveform
d) time period
Q 11. the unit of Frequency
a) rad/sec
b) seconds
c) Hertz
d) Volts
Q 12. The relation between f and ω
a) f=1/ w
b) w=2π/f
c) w=2πf
d) w=1/f
Q 13. the time period of a sinusoidal waveform with 200Hz frequency is
a) 0.05 sec
b) 0.005 sec
c) 0.0005 sec
d) 0.5 sec
Q 14. the value of alternating quantity at a particular instant is called value
a) instantaneous
b) peak
c) peak to peak
d) average
Q 15. the waveform which shows repetition of variations after a regular time interval is called
a) non periodic
b) sawtooth
c) periodic
d) triangular
Q 16. one cycle responds to
a) π rad
b) 90°
c) π/4rad
d) 2π rad
Q 17. IN INDIA, the standard frequency of alternating voltage is
a) 60Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 100Hz
d) 10Hz
Q 18. the highest value attained by an alternating quantity during positive or negative half
cycle is called
a) maximum
b) amplitude
c) peak
d) all of these
Q 19.______relation is true
a) Ѳ=t/w
b) w=t/Ѳ
c) Ѳ=wt
d) w/Ѳ=t
Q 20. one fourth cycle of 50Hz waveform corresponds to
a) 10 msec
b) 20 msec
c) 1msec
d) 5msec
Q 21. for 50 Hz alternating waveform, the angular frequency is rad/sec
a) 314.16
b) 50
c) 0.126
d) none of these
Q 22. the time corresponds to Ѳ=π/4 rad for a 50 Hz alternating waveform is msec
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2.5
d) 20
Q 23. a sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to maximum of 250 V. the voltage at the instant of
60° of the cycle will be V
a) 150
b) 216.5
c) 125
d) 108.25
Q 24. an ac voltage is given by v=40sin 314t the frequency is Hz
a) 75
b) 50
c) 25
d) 100
Q 25. an ac current is given by i=14.1421 sin100π t then the time taken by it to complete three
cycles is sec
a) 0.02
b) 0.06
c) 0.08
d) 0.01
Q 26. an instantaneous value of an alternating current, having 7.071 A rms value at 120° is
a) 4.33
b) 6.123
c) 8.66
d) 3.061
Q 27. an instantaneous value of an alternating voltage having 50 Hz frequency and maximum
value of 100V at 0.01 sec is
a) 100
b) 100√2
c) 100/√2
d) 0
Q 28. a sinusoidal voltage has a magnitude of 200 V at 150 ° then its maximum value is V
a) 100
b) 400
c) 200
d) 300
Q 29. an AC voltage is given by 100Sin 314t. the frequency is
a) 50
b) 75
c) 25
d) 100
Q 30.the concept of effective value is based on
a) photoelectric effect
b) heating effect
c) friction
d) none of these
Q 31. voltage of domestic ac supply is 230V this represents value
a) peak
b) average
c) r.m.s
d) mean
Q 32. the voltmeter in ac circuit always measure Value
a) average
b) maximum
c) r.m.s.
d) none of these
Q 33. the rms value of an alternating is 10/√2 A then its peak to peak value is
a)10
b) 30
c) 5
d) 20
Q 34. the peak value of an alternating current is I m then its r.m.s. value is
a) Im/√2
b) √2 Im
c) Im/2
d) 2Im
Q 35. the peak value of an alternating current is I m then its avg value is
a) 0.5 Im
b) 0.637 Im
c) Im/√2
d) √2 Im
Q 36. for symmetrical alternating waveform, the average value over a complete cycle is
a) 1
b) √2
c) 0
d) 1/√2
Q 37. the peak value of an alternating wave is 400V, its average value is
a) 254.8
b) 282.6
c) 400
d) 565.5
Q 38. the average value of sinusoidal varying voltage is than its r.m.s. value
a) more
b) less
c) same as
Q 39. Peak value of sine wave is 200V its average value is
a) 127.4
b) 282.6
c) 400
d) 565
Q 40. The form factor of purely sinusoidal waveform is
a) 1.11
b) 1.21
c) 1.414
d) √2
Q 41. which of the following wave has least value of peak factor?
a) sine
b) square
c) Triangular
d) Full wave rectified sine wave
Q 42. the peak factor of sinousdally varying voltage is
a) 1.414
b) 1.11
c) 0866
d) 0.707
Q 43. Alternating quantities are represented by
a) vectors
b) scalars
c) phasors
d) horizontal
Q 44. phasors always rotate in direction
a) clockwise
b) anticlockwise
c) vertical
d) horizontal
Q 45________projection of a phasor represents an instantaneous value of an alternating quantity
a) Y axis
b) X axis
c) Z axis
d) none of these
Q 46. phasor representing i(t)=Im Sinwt rotates at a speed of
a) Ns
b) w
c) F
d) none of these
Q 47. the phase of an alternating quantity varies from
a. 0-90
b. 0-180
c. 0-360
d. 180-360
48. alternating quantity having positive phase has value at t=0
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
49. an alternating quantity having zero phase value at t=0
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
50. an alternating quantity having negative phase value at t=0
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
51. an alternating voltage is given by v(t)=150sin(wt+π/3) V then its phase is
a. 30°
b. 90°
c. 0°
d. 60°
52. when two alternating quantities are in phase then their phase difference is
a 30°
b. 90°
c. 0°
d. 60°
53.the negative maximum of cosine wave occurs at __ °
a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270
54. representation gives rms value an alternating quantity
A. phasor
b. polar
c. rectangular
d. none of these
55. the phase of v(t)=100cos(314t+π/4) is
a. 45
b. 90
c. 135
d. 0
56.the phase of e(t)= -Em coswt is
a. 90
b. -90
c. -270
d. 0
57. the polar form of -3+j4 is
a. 5<-53.13
b. 5<53.13
c. 5<-126.86
d. 5<126.86
58. the rectangular form of 5<30
a. 4.33+j2.5
b. - 4.33+j2.5
c. -4.33-j2.5
d. 4.33-j2.5
59. for addition and substraction the phasors must be expressed in
a. rectangular
b. cylindrical
c. polar
d. spherical
60. for multiplication and division ac quantity is expressed in
a. cylindrical
b. spherical
c. rectangular
d. polar
61. the power factor of pure resistive circuit is
a. zero
b. unity
c. lagging
d. leading
62. in purely resistive circuit, the average power is the peak power
a. double
b. one half of
c. one forth of
d. equal to
63. the voltage 200< +45 V is applied to R=5Ω then current is
a. 1000<45
b. 40<45
c. 40<0
d. 1000<0
64. the inductive reactance of an inductor L is
a. w/L
b. 2πL/f
c. wL
d. 2fl
65.the inductive reactance of a coil of L=2mH at 100Hz is
a. 0.7957
b. 314.16
c. 1.2566
d. 2
66. inductive reactance of a coil of L =0.5H at 50Hz is
a. 15.7
b. 157
c. 50
d. 25
67 The average power consumption in a pure inductor is
A maximum
b. minimum
c. zero
d infinite
68.for DC supply inductive reactance is
A infinite
b 1
c zero
e none of these
69. the power curve for a pure inductor is
a. sine of double frequency
b. cosine of double frequency
c. sine of same frequency as supply frequency
d none of these
70. in a pure capacitive circuit the current
a. lags behind the voltage by 90
b. leads the voltage by 90
c. remains in phase with voltage
d none of these
71. in pure capacitor the voltage current by 90
a. leads
b. in phase
c. lags
d. none of the above
72. the capacitive reactance of a capacitor C is given by
a. 1/fc
b. 1/2πwc
c. 2πw/C
d. 1/2πfc
73. the average power consumption in a pure capacitor
a. zero
b. infinite
c. negative
d none of the above
74. the relation between frequency and capacitive reactance is
a. square
b. direct
c. inverse
d. linear
75. the 50 Hz voltage of 100<30 is applied to a pure capacitor of 636.6197 micro farad then
current is
a. 20<120
b. 20<30
c. 20<-60
d. 20<0
76. for dc supply capacitive reactance is
a. zero
b. infinite
c. one
d. negative
77. for pure resistance impedance in rectangular form
a. R-jXl
b. R+j Xl
c. R+j0
d. R-jXc
78. the frequency of instantaneous power in purely capacitive circuit is the frequency
of the applied voltage
a. twice
b. same as
c. thrice
d. half
79. for pure R circuit i(t)=14.14 sin(wt) and v(t)=282.842sin(wt) then average power
consumption is W
a. 1000
b. 4000
c. 2000
d. 0
80. voltage of 50Hz and rms value of 100V is applied to an inductor of 2H then current is A
a. 0.159
b. 6.283
c. 2
d. 0
81. ac voltage of v(t)= 282.842 sin(314t) is applied to capacitor of 50μ F then current is
a. 6.28
b. 3.14
c. 0.1519
d. 0
82. what will be phase of current flowing through a pure capacitor if phase of applied voltage is
70̊°?
a. 70
b. 20
c. 160
d. -20
83.what will be the phase of current flowing through a pure inductor if the phase of applied
voltage is- 30̊°?
a. 60
b. -60
c. 120
d.-120
84. if the phase of current flowing through 5Ω pure resistance is 30 ° then phase of voltage
across it is
a. 0
b. 30
c. 120
d. -60
85. the phase of current flowing through pure inductor 2μH is -30° then the phase of the voltage
across
a. 60
b. -120
c. -30
d. -60
86. a tungsten filament lamp is an example of
a. pure inductor
b. pure capacitor
c. pure resistor
d. none of these
87. Z=0-j50Ω represents purely circuit
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. none of these
88. Z=0+j25Ω represents purely circuit
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
89. the instantaneous power in an AC circuit is
a. VI
b. VI cosΦ
c. v(t) i(t) cosΦ
d. v(t)i(t)
90. . the average power in an AC circuit is
a. VI
b. VI cosΦ
c. v(t) i(t) cosΦ
d. v(t)i(t)
91. heat produced by an electrical equipment like geyser is proportional to current
a. rms
b. average
c. square of rms
d. square of avg
92. two or more ac quantities are represented on the same phasor diagram if they have same
a. phase
b. amplitude
c. instantaneous value
d. frequency
93. in the equation i(t)=Im sinwt, i(t) represents value
a. peak
b. instantaneous
c. rms
d. average
94. an alternating voltage is given by 212.132sin(πt +30) then its rms value and phase are
a. 212.132,30
b. 150,0
c. 150,30
d. 212.132,0
95. a certain inductor draws a current of 2A from 100V supply at 50 Hz when frequency is
increased to 100Hz then current drawn will be
a. 2
b. 1
c. 0.5
d. 4
96. a certain conductor draws a current of 2A from 100 V supply at 50Hz when frequency is
increased to 100Hz the current drawn will be?
a. 2A
b. 1A
c. 0.5A
d. 4A
97. at 50 Hz, capacitive reactance of capacitor is 25Ω at what frequency it will become 50Ω
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 0
98. if pure R and L are connected in series then current will the applied voltage
a. lead
b. in phase with
c. lag
d. none of these
99. a current in rectangular form is 20-j40 A is flowing through a pure inductor then the phase of
the applied voltage is
a. -153.43°
b. 63.43°
c. -26.57°
d. 26.57°
100. a current in rectangular form is 20-j40 A is flowing through a pure capacitor then the phase
of the applied voltage is
a. -153.43°
b. 63.43°
c. -26.57°
d. 26.57
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Basic Electrical Engineering (103004)
Sample Multi-Choice Questions
UNIT 3 – Electrostatics
1) The branch dealing with electricity at rest is called ____________.

a) Electromagnetic b) Electromechanics
b) E lectrostatics d) None of above
2) The space around a charge or charged body is called__________.
a) Electric field
b) Magnetic field
c) Electromagnetic field
d) Magnetostatic field
3) The electric lines of force always enter or leave a conductor surface at_______.
a) 1800 b) 00
b) 450 c) 900
4) _______ is true for electric lines force.
a) They intersect each other at regular interval
b) They forms a closed path
c) They can pass only through insulating medium
d) They can enter charged bodies and [pass through them
5) The unit of electric flux________
a) Newton
b) Coulomb
c) Weber
d) Tesla
6) The electric flux passing at right angles through unit area of surface is called_______
a) Electric field strength
b) Magnetic flux density
c) Electric flux density
d) Electric flux
7) The electric flux density is also called ________
a) Displacement density
b) Conduction density
c) Magnetic flux density
d) Volume charge density
8) The unit of electric field intensity is ________
a) c/m
b) c/m2
c) N/C
d) N/m2C
9) The electric field intensity is also measure in _______
a) V/m2
b) V/m
c) C/m
d) Wb/V
10) The electric field intensity at a point _______
a) F/Q
b) Q/F
c) B/Q
d) 1/(2VQ)
11) _________ represents electric field intensity.
a) V/Q
b) V/d
c) 1/(2V2)
d) VQ
12) The permittivity is __________
a) The ease with which magnetic flux passes through dielectric medium.
b) The ease with which current passes through given material.
c) The ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to establish in it.
d) None of above
13) The absolute permittivity is measured in__________.
a) H/m
b) A/m
c) F/m
d) N/m
14) The value of Є0 is ________F/m
a) 8.854x10-10
b) 8.854x1012
c) 6.657x10-12
d) 8.854xz10-12
15) The relative permittivity is also called as _______ of the material.
b) Di electric strength
c) Breakdown voltage
d) Coulmb’s constant
16) __________ relation is true
a) D=Є/E
b) D=ЄE
c) E=Є/D
d) E=ЄD
17) The unit of ____________ are same.
a) Electric field strength, potential difference
b) Electric field strength , potential gradient
c) Electric field strength , electric flux density
d) Electric flux density , potential gradient
18) _________ represent Coulmb’s law of electrostatics
a) F α Q1Q2 d2
b) F α ( Q1Q2 ) /d2
c) F α d2/(Q1 Q2 )
d) F α 1/(Q1Q2 d2)
19) Two conducting surfaces separated by a dielectric medium is called____
a) Capacitor
b) Dipole
c) Capacitance
d) Inductance
20) Capacitance is_________
a) Property of capacitor to repel charges from its plates
b) Property to store electric charges in the form of static charges
c) Property to store magnetic energy
d) Property to breakdown the dielectric
21) The unit of capacitance is_________
a) Farad
b) Henry
c) Hertz
d) Farad/m
22) Capacitance of a capacitor is the ratio of ________
a) P.d. between the plates and the charge
b) Charge and the p.d. between the plates
c) Charge and spacing between the plates
d) P.d. and thickness of dielectric
23) A capacitance of 1 picofarad means _____ farad.
a) 10-6
b) 10-9
c) 10-12
d) 10-15
24) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is_________
a) Єd/A
b) Є/dA
c) ЄA/d
d) A/Єd
25) The capacitance is charged to 10 V and its capacitance μF then charge on it is_________
a) 10μC
b) 10nC
c) 10C
d) 1μC
26) A capacitor uses the plates of area 25 cm2 and distance between the plates is 5 cm. then
its capacitance with air as a dielectric is_________
a) 04427 μF
b) 04427 pF
c) 0.4427nF
d) 0.4427 F
27) The charge transferred on the plates of a capacitor is 2 nC while the distance between the
plates is 1 mm. if area of cross-section is 10 cm2 and air used as a dielectric then the
voltage across the plates is ___ v
a) 22.580
b) 2.5588
c) 225.88
d) 255.88
28) A capacitor of 10 μF has a charge of 1 mC. If distance between the plate is 1 cm then the
electric field intensity between the plates is_________
a) 10 kv/m
b) 10 v/m
c) 0.1V/m
d) 8.854 kv/m
29) For a 5 μF capacitor, distance between the plates is 0.5 cm and the electric field intensity
is 20 KV/m then the charge on the capacitor is_________
a) 5 μC
b) 0.5 μC
c) 5 nC
d) 0.5 mC
30) A capacitor uses a dielectric of Єr =2 it is charged to 500 V and the distance between the
plates is 10 cm then electric flux density between the plates is _________ nC/m2
a) 0.8854
b) 88.54
c) 8.854
d) 0.00885
31) The p.d. between the plates of a 5 μF capacitor with a charge of 2 mC on it is ______V
a) 200
b) 100
c) 400
d) 4000
32) A 2 μF capacitor connected in a circuit has one plate at +6 V and the other plate at – 6V.
the charge on the negative plate of the capacitor is___________
a) + 12 μC
b) - 12 μC
c) - 24 μC
d) -24 μC
33) A parallel plate capacitor with air as dielectric remains connected across a battery e.m.f.
6V the charge on the capacitor in this condition is Q. if the separation between the plates
is decreased by 10% in this condition and sufficient time is allowed to attain steady state,
the charge on the capacitor will be_________
a) Increased by 11%, approximately
b) Increased by 9%, approximately
c) Decreased by 9%, approximately
d) Decreased by 11%, approximately
34) The ability of an insulating medium to resist its breakdown s called its_________
35) The dielectric strength is measured in ____
a) KV/N
b) V/C
c) KV/cm
d) F/m
36) _ ________is not the factor affecting dielectric strength.
a) Temperature
b) Moisture
c) Size and shape of the plates
37) ________ is the factor affecting dielectric strength
a) Presence of air pockets in material
b) Molecular arrangement of material
c) Moisture content
d) All of these
38) For the capacitor in series, ________ remains same for all of them.
a) Voltage
b) Capacitance
c) Charge
d) One of these
39) The two capacitor 3 μF and 6 μF are in series then the equivalent capacitance is
________
a) 9μF
b) 4.5μF
c) 2μF
d) 1μF
40) Three capacitors each of capacitances C and breakdown voltage V are connected in series
then the capacitances and breakdown voltage of the combination is_______
a) 3C,V/3
b) C/3,3V
c) 3C,3V
d) C./3,V/3
41) The capacitor 15μF, 10μF and 3μF are connected in series and series combination is
connected across 10 V when the capacitors are fully charged then the charge on 3 μF
capacitor is_____
a) 10μC
b) 15μC
c) 3μC
d) 20μC
42) Four 2 μF capacitors are connected in series then the equivalent capacitance is
_______μF.
a) 0.5
b) 8
c) 2
d) 4
43) The capacitors of capacitance 4μF and 6μF connected in series. A p. d. of 500 volt is
applied to the outer plates of two capacitor system. Then the charge on each plate of each
plate of each capacitor is numerically_________ μC
a) 500
b) 5000
c) 1200
d) 400
44) Two capacitor 3μF and 6μF connected in series across 100 V d.c. supply. Then the
voltage across 3μF capacitor will be ________ V
a) 100
b) 66.667
c) 33.333
d) 0
45) Ten capacitor of 3μF each ar connected in series then the equivalent capacitance is
________μF
a) 0.3
b) 3
c) 30
d) 3.333
46) The energy stored in a capacitor is given by___________
a) 1/(2CV)
b) 1/(2CV2)
c) v/(2C)
d) c2/2v
47) if the p.d. between the plates is increased by 10% then energy stored in the capacitor
increased by __________%
a) 11
b) 10
c) 2.1
d) 21
48) The capacitor of 10 The capacitor of 10 μF is discharged through a resistance of 100 KΩ
then the time constant is __________
a) 1 s b) 1 μs
b) 1ms c) 0.1 sec
49) Initially the capacitor act as _________
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Breakdown
d) None of above
50) Four, 2 μF capacitor are conneted in parallel the effective capacitance is _________μF
a) 0.5 b) 8 c) 2 d) 4
Answer:
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 D
2 A 12 C 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 A 43 C
4 C 14 D 24 C 34 B 44 B
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 c
6 C 16 B 26 B 36 D 46 B
7 A 17 B 27 C 37 D 47 D
8 C 18 C 28 A 38 C 48 A
9 B 19 A 29 D 39 C 49 B
10 A 20 B 30 B 40 b 50 B
UNIT 2 - Electromagnetism
Q.1 The unit of inductance is,
(A) Ohm.
(B) Farad.
(C) Mho.
(D) Henry. Ans: D
Q.2 If a current flowing through a conductor is moving away from the observer and into the plane of the
paper then it is indicated by,
(A) Dot
(B) Cross
(C) Star
(D) Dash Ans: B
Q.3. In case of dynamically induced EMF, direction of induced EMF is given by
(A) Fleming’s rule
(B) Lenz’s law
(C) Faraday’s first law
(D) Faraday’s second law Ans: A
Q.4. EMF induced in a coil due to change in current through it is called ________induction.
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: B
Q.5. EMF induced in a coil due to current change in neighboring coil is called ______ induction.
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: A
Q.6. Co-efficient of self induction is also called as,
(A) self- induction
(B) Inductance
(C) Self- inductance
(D) Induction Ans :C
Q.7. The property of a coil due to which it opposes the change of current flowing through itself is called
___________ of the coil.
(A) Static inductance
(B) Dynamic inductance
(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans : C
Q.8. __________ is used to sense the flow of current in a electric circuit.
(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Wattmeter
(D) Galvanometer Ans : D
Q.9. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt only when the current in the coil is
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing
(D) All the above Ans :D
Q.10. The negative sign in the induced EMF of self induction indicates that energy is being absorbed
from the electric circuit and stored as _______ energy in the coil.
(A) mechanical
(B) Electronic
(C) electric
(D) Magnetic Ans :D
Q.11. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of the circuit is
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere
(C) Henry
(D) Linkages Ans : C
Q.12. Unit of induced EMF is
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere
(C) Henry
(D) Linkages Ans :A
Q.13. The property of one coil due to which it opposes the change in the other coil is called………….
between two coils.
(A) Dynamic inductance
(B) Static inductance
(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans : D
Q.14. The unit of mutual inductance is,

(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/ Volt
(C) Henry
Q.15. In the expression e = M dI1 / dt, M represents,
(A) Mutual induction
(B) Mutual inductance
(C) Number of lines of force
(D) None of these Ans : B
Q.16. If 0.75 V is induced EMF and resistance offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced current is,
(A) 3.75 A
(B) 3. 75 mA
(C) 3. 75 micro Ampere
(D) 37.5 mA Ans : B
Q.17. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb to 0.3 Wb, then change in flux is______ Wb.
(A) 1.1
(B) 0.5
(C) -0.5
(D) -1.1 Ans : C
Q.18. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if the current is 1 amps, then MMF is ________
(A) 2000 AT
(B) 200 AT
(C) 20 AT
(D) 0.5 AT Ans : B
Q.19. Leakage factor can be called as,
(A) Fringing
(B) Coefficient of inductance
(C) Magnetic coefficient
(D) Hopkinson’s coefficient Ans : D
Q.20. Movement of electrons are called as
(A) MMF
(B) Current
(C) Voltage
(D) Flux Ans : B
Q.21. Flux density is equal to ________ of flux and area of cross – section.
( A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(D) Fraction Ans : D
Q.22. NI expression is called
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Magnetic intensity Ans : A
Q.23. Expression NI/L is called
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Magnetic intensity Ans :D
Q.24. Expression for mutual inductance is
(A) – L dI /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : B
Q.25. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction is e =
(A) –Nd φ /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
Q.26. The constant K in case of mutual induction is equal to
(A) φ1/ φ2
(B) φ2/ φ1
(C) φ1/I1
(D) φ2/I2 Ans : B
Q.27. Product of the permeability μ0μr is equal to
(A) Magnetic flux
(B) Magnetic field
(C) Magnetic intensity
(D) Magnetic field / magnetic intensity Ans : D
Q.28. Expression for self induced emf is
(A) –L dI/dt
(B) MdI1 / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
Q.29. ___ is normally termed as flux linkages.
(A) φ
(B) d φ /dt
(C) N φ
(D) φ /I Ans : C
Q.30. The term N φ /I is generally called as,
(A) Self inductance
(C) Flux linkage
(D) Induced EMF Ans : A
Q.31. In the expression for reluctance S = l /μa of a conduced, letter A represents______ of
the conductor
(A) Total area
(B) Surface area
(C) Cross- sectional area
(D) None of these. Ans : C
Q.32. The points of magnet at which maximum iron pieces accumulate are called ----------- of the magnet.
(A) axes
(B)induction
(C) poles
(D)fluxes Ans:C
Q.33. The second law of magnetism is stated by scientist -------------------.
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:B
Q.34 concept of magnetic lines of force is introduced by ----------
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:A
Q35. 1 Weber= --------------- lines of force
(A) 108
(B) 106
(C) 103
(D) 10-8 Ans:A
Q36. The unit of magnetic flux is ----------------
(A) Tesla
(B) AT/m
(C) Weber
(D) Henry Ans:A
Q37. The capacity of magnetic pole to accept or radiate certain number of magnetic lines is called----------
-----
(A) Magnetic strength

(B) Pole strength
(C) Flux density
(D) Pole intensity Ans:B
Q38. The direction of magnetic field due to a straight current carrying conductor is given by --------------
(A) Fleming’s left hand rule

(B) Right hand thumb rule
(C) Fleming’s right hand rule
(D) Non of above Ans:B
Q39. The direction of flux around a conductor carrying current away from the observer into the plane of
the paper is ----------------
(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Vertical
(C) Clockwise
(D) Horizontal Ans:A
Q40. The reluctance in magnetic circuit is analogous to ------------ in an electric circuit.
(A) Voltage
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) E.M.F. Ans:C
Q41. The relative permeability has ---------------- unit.
(A) H/m
(B) Wb/m
(C) Nm
(D) No unit Ans:D
Q42. The ratio of B and H is constant for --------------.

(A) Cast iron
(B) Cast steel
(C) Free space
(D) Rolled steel Ans:C
Q43. A magnetic circuit has a reluctance of 1x105 AT/Wb and m.m.f. is produced by coil having 100
turns, carrying current of 5 A then the flux produced is ----------- Wb.
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:B
Q44. A magnetic circuit has relative permeability 1000 and length of 50 cm with cross-sectional area of 4
cm2. The amperes required through a coil of 1000 turns to produce the flux of 2mWb are ----------- A.
(A) 3.98
(B) 5.28
(C) 4.989
(D) 1.989 Ans:D
Q45. In a magnetic circuit the flux is given by----------------------.
(A) (mmf)/(reluctance)
(B) (mmf)x(reluctance)
(C) (reluctance)/(mmf)
(D) None of these Ans:A
Q46.In a series magnetic circuit -------- in the circuit is same through all the parts.
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(D) None of these Ans:C
Q47. Accordingly to Kirchhoff’s law, the resultant ----------around a closed magnetic circuit is equal to
algebraic sum of the product of the magnetic field strengths of each part of the circuit.
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(D) None of these Ans:B
Q48. At a junction point in a magnetic circuit, algebraic sum of all the ------ is zero.
(A) Reluctances
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(D) Product of flux and reluctances Ans:B
Q49. ----------- does not exist for a magnetic circuit.
(A) Mmf
(B) Reluctance
(C) Flux
(D) Perfect magnetic insulator Ans:D
Q50. Which is following statement is true?
(A) Energy neither required to create the flux nor required to maintain it.
(B) Energy is required to create the flux but not required to maintain it.
(C) Energy is required to create the flux and also to maintain it
Q51. The flux which completes the path through surrounding air instead of the desired path is called ------
--------.
(A) Useful flux

(B) Mutual flux
(C) Leakage flux
(D) Coercive flux Ans:C
Q52. Ideal value of leakage coefficient is--------------.
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) Infinite
(D) 0.5 Ans:B
Q53. . When a current carrying conductor is brought into magnetic field, the force that moves the
conductor, depends on…………
(A) Length of conductor

(B) direction of current
(C) value of the current
(D) none of these Ans:
Q54. Two current carrying conductors lying parallel to each other are exerting a force of attraction on
each other. The currents are……….
(A) very high

(B) in opposite direction
(C) low
(D) in the same direction Ans:D
Q55. Permeance is analogous to……….
(A) Resistance
(B) reluctance
(C) conductance
(D) none of these Ans:C
Q56. When a coil consisting of single turn rotates at a uniform speed in a magnetic field, the emf
induced is…..
(A) steady
(B) alternating
(C) changing
(D) reversing Ans:B
Q57. Force required to produce flux in magnetic circuit is.……..
(A) mmf
(B) reluctance
(C) permeability
(D) Magnetic field strength Ans:A
Q58. The emf induced in a conductor of length 1 m moving at right angles to a uniform magnetic field
of flux Density 1.5 Wb/m² with velocity of 50 m/s…
(A) 0
(B) 1.5 V
(C) 75 V
(D) 100 V Ans:C
Q59. The coefficient of self-inductance of a coil is given by
(A) Ф/NI
(B) NI/Ф
(C) NФ/I
(D) ФI/N Ans:C
Q60. The induced emf in a coil of 8 mH carrying 2 A current reversed in 0.04 S
(A) 0.8 V
(B) 0.008 V
(C) 0.16 V
(D) 0.064 V Ans:A
Q61. Two coils have self inductances of 0.09 H and 0.01 H and a mutual inductance of 0.015 H. The
coefficient of coupling between the coils is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.75 Ans:A
Q62. When current carrying conductor and lines of flux are parallel then the force experienced by
conductor is-------------.
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Small
(D) Unity Ans:A
Q63. Direction of force experienced by current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by----------
----.
(A) Fleming’s right hand rule

(B) Fleming’s left hand rule
(C) End rule
(D) Corkscrew rule Ans:B
Q64. The phenomenon by which emf is obtained from the magnetic flux is called ---------.
(A) Electromagnetic interference

(B) Electromagnetic induction
(C) Magnetic induction
Q65. The dynamically induced emf can be found in ------------
(A) Generator
(B) Transformer
(C) Bulb
Q66. Self inductance L is ----------- number of turns.
(A) Directly proportional to square of

(B) Inversely proportional to square of
(C) Directly proportional to
Q67. A current of 2 A is reversed in 0.1 sec through an inductor of 1H then emf induced is ------ Volt.
(A) 200
(B) -200
(C) -400
(D) 400 Ans:D
Q68. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt only when the current in the coil is-------.
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing
(D) All of above Ans:D
Q69. The property of coil due to which opposes the change in current flowing through itself is called-----
------- of the coil.

(C) Self inductance
(D) Mutual inductance Ans:C
Q70. The coil are said to be -------------- when k=1.
(A) Loosely coupled

(B) Tightly coupled
(C) Series aiding
(D) Series opposing Ans:B
Q71. Two coil have self inductances 100μH and 250μH and coefficient of coupling is 0.253 then their
mutual inductance is---------------.
(A) 400μH
(B) 158.11μH
(C) 40μH
(D) 40mH Ans:C
Q72. The unit coefficient of coupling is --------------.
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/Wb
(C) Unit less
(D) H/m Ans:C
Q73. A current through an inductor of 0.4 H is 5 A then the energy stored in it is ----------J
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1 Ans:A
Q74. The energy stored per volume in a magnetic field of flux density 1.373 Wb/m2 is 500 joules then its
relative permeability is ----------------.
(A) 2500
(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
Q75. The ease with which magnetic material forces the magnetic flux through a given medium is-----------
---------.
(A) Permeance
(B) Permeability
(C) Reluctance
(D) Permittivity Ans:B
Q76. In the expression e=MdI1/dt, M represents-----------------

Q77. In the expression for reluctance S=l/μa , letter ‘a’ represent ----------------.
(A) Total area

(B) Surface area
(C) Cross-sectional area
Q78. A 0.1 A of current reverses in 0.2 seconds then the rate of changes of current is -----------A/sec.
(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) 2
(D) 0.5 Ans:B
Q79. If the permeability of a magnetic material is 4π x 10-4 then its relative permeability is------------
(A) 4π x 10-7
(B) 10000
(C) 100
(D) 1000 Ans:D
Q80. The flux density in a magnetic field of cross-sectional area of 0.5 cm2 having a flux of 10μWb is ----
-----T.
(A) 0.2
(B) 5
(C) 50
(D) 1.2 Ans:B
Q81. The maximum working flux density os a lifting electromagnet is 1.9 T and the effective area of a
pole face is circular in cross-section. If the total magnet flux produced is 2444mWb then the radius of
pole face is nearly -------------cm.
(A) 32
(B) 128
(C) 64
(D) 0.64 Ans: C
Q82. The self inductance L is -------------------
(A) Directly proportional to square of number of turns

(B) Inversely proportional to length
(C) Directly proportional to area of cross-section
Q83. The ------------ is reciprocal of the reluctance.
(A) Permeability
(B) Permeance
(C) Susceptance
(D) Resistance Ans:D
Q84. Which of the following nit the property of the magnetic lines of forces?
(A) Never intersect each other

(B) Act like a stretched rubber band
(C) Co not pass through air
(D) Travel from N to S external to magnet Ans:C
Q85. The direction of flux around a conductor carrying current towards the observer out on the plane of
the paper is-------------.
(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Vertical
(C) Clockwise
Q86. A magnetic circuit has a reluctance of 1x105AT/Wb and m.m.f. is produced by coil having 100
turns, carrying current of 5 A then flux produced is -----------Wb.
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x 10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:C
Q87. The unit of μ is -----------.
(A) H/m
(B) Wb/m
(C) Nm
(D) Ni unit Ans:A
Q88. For the series aiding coils, the equivalent inductance is---------------
(A) L1+L2+2M
(B) (L1+L2)/2M
(C) L1+L2-2M
(D) None of above Ans:A
Q89. The coil are said to be ------------- when K=1
(A) Loosely couple

(B) tightly coupled
(C) series aiding
(D) series opposing Ans:B
Q90. The energy required to establish the magnetic field is stored into is as ----------energy
(A) kinetic
(B) electrostatic
(C) potential
(D) residual Ans:C
Q91. Energy stored in the magnetic field is given by---------------.
(A) LI2
(B) LI2/2
(C) 2LI2
(D) I2/2L Ans:B
Q92. A current through as inductor of 0.4 H is 5A then the energy stored init is--------J.
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1 Ans:A
Q93. The energy stored per unit volume in a magnetic field of flux density 1.373 Wb/m2 is 500 J then its
permeability is----------------.
(A) 2500
(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
Q94. The unit of mutual inductance is --------------.
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/Volt
(C) Henry
(D) Linkage Ans:C
Q95. The maximum value of coefficient is -------------.
(A) 100%
(B) More then 100%
(C) 90%
Q96. The unit of co efficient of coupling is ----------------.
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/m
(C) Unitless
(D) H/m Ans:C
Q97. The unit of flux density is-----------.
(A) Weber
(B) AT
(C) Tesla
(D) All of above Ans:C
Q98. The flux density is given by --------------.
(A) Φxa
(B) φ/a
(C) 1/(φ+a)
(D) Φ+a Ans:B
Q99. The direction of flux internal to magnet is from------------
(A) N- pole to S pole

(B) S-pole to N-pole
(C) Circular
(D) None of above Ans:B
Q100. Concept of lines of force is introduced by -----------------------.
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:A
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
UNIT 2
Sr. No. Questions a b c d Answer Justification
1 In fleming's left hand rule thumb indicates motion current field None of these. a Thumb is for motion
magnetic
2 NI expression is called as m.m.f e.m.f. flux linkages a
intensity mmf=NI
3 Energy stored in a magnetic field is given by LI2 LI2/2 2LI2 I2/2L b by formula
4 ____ does not represent energy stored per unit volume BH/2 CH2/2 B2/2μ BI2/2 d μ=B/H
what is responsible for the the generation of flux in a
5 emf reluctance mmf air gap c
magnetic circuit Magnetomotive force
Accordings to fleming left hand rule the middle finger
6 current field force motion a
represents the direction of by statement
Accordings to fleming left hand rule the point finger
7 current field force motion b
Accordings to fleming left hand rule the thumb
8 current field force motion c
The ability of a material to carry the flux lines is called
9 permitivity permeability reluctance resistance b
as by defination
10 What is the unit of the absolute permeability henry henry/meter henry-meter meter/henry b by defination
11 The magnetic lines of force always travels from north to south south to north east to west west to east a property of lines of flux
12 The magnetic flux is measured in weber henry tesla henry/meter a unit of flux
13 What is the unit of the relative permeability henry weber tesla none d ratio of Bo/B
flux= (here mmf=magnetomotive force &
14 mmf*s s/mmf mmf/s none c
s=reluctance) by formula
The tendency of the magnetic flux to spread out at the
15 leakage flux useful flux fringing none c
edges of the air gap is called as due to force of repulsion
useful total
total flux/useful leakage
16 Leakage flux= flux/leakage flux/leakage a
flux flux/total flux
flux flux called as hopkinsons coefficent
17 The permeabilty of the non magnetic materials is high very high medium low d eg air
Magnetic
18 Expression NI/L is called MMF EMF Flux linkage d
intensity by defination
If 0.75 V is induced emf and resistance offered by the
19 3.75 A 0.375 A 3.75 mA 3.75 μA c
coil is 200 ohm then induced current is by formula
The negative sign in the induced emf of self induction
indicates that energy is being absorbed from the electromagneti
20 mechanical magnetic electric b
electric circuit and stored as _______ energy in the c
coil. energy stored in coil
The phenomenon of the self induction is felt only when
21 Increasing Changing Decreasing All the above d
the current in the coil is change of flux
22 Co-efficient of self induction is also called as Self induction Inductance Self inductance Induction c by defination
Emf induced in a coil due to current change in it is
23 mutual self dynamic static b
called _______________ induction. by defination
24 Unit of co-efficient of self induction of the circuit is Volt Ampere Henry Linkages c by formula
25 ………………… is normally termed as flux linkages. φ d φ/dt Nφ φ/I c number of turns and flux
A 2 cm long coil has 10 turns and carries 750 mA
26 225 Wb/m2 675 AT/m 450 Wb/m2 375 AT/m d
current. The magnetizing force of the coil is NI/L
An iron ring of cross sectional area 6 sq cm is wound
with a wire of 100 turns and has a saw cut of 2 mm.The
27 magnetizing current required to produce a flux of 0.1 m 3.51 A 4.02 A 7.02 A 0.1 A a
Wb for the length of the magnetic path 30 cm and
relative permeability of iron as 470 will be mmf=NI
The points of the magnet at which maximum iron
28 Axes. poles. Fluxes. c
pieces accumulate are called __of the magenet: Induction. by defination
A freely suspended magnet adjusts itself in the North- Northwest- None of
29 east-West. b
___direction; South. South west these. property of lines of flux
30 _____is the sure test of magnetism; Repulsion. Attraction. Induction. Retention. a only magnets undergo this test
N-pole to S- S-pole to N- None of the
31 The direction of flux internal to the magnet is from……; Circular. b
pole. pole. above. flux travels in closed loops
Concept of magnetic lines of force is introduced by
32 Faraday. Coulomb. Orested. Newton. a
_____; his invention
N-pole to S- S-pole to N- None of the
33 The direction of flux external to the magnet is from……; Circular. a
pole. pole. above. property of lines of flux
34 1 weber=___lines of force. 10^8 10^9 10^7 10^6 a by defination
35 The unit of magnetic flux is_____; Telsa. AT/m. Weber. Henry. c by defination
the capacity of magnetic pole to accept or radiate
36 Magnetic. Pole strength. Flux density. Pole intensity. b
certain number of magnetic lines is called; by defination
37 The unit of magnetic pole strength is_____; Telsa. AT/m. Weber. henry. c by defination
38 The unit of flux density is____: Weber. AT. Telsa. None of these. c flux per unit area
39 The unit of magnetic field strength H is……….; Weber. AT. Telsa. AT/m. d H=NI/L
The magnetic effect of an electric current is discovered
40 Ampere. Ohms. Oersted. Faraday. c
by…… his invention
____of the following is not the unit of magnetic field
41 Wb/Am. A/m. N/Wb. AT/m. a
strength: H=NI/L
42 The unit of m.m.f. is ______; Wb. AT. AT/m. Wb/m. b mmf=NI
the m.m.f. in magnetic circuit is analogous to _____in
43 Resistance. Current. c
electric circuit. Electromotive. Conductance. comparision
44 The S.I unit of reluctance is____ AT/Wb. AT. AT/m. Wb/At. a by defination
The reluctance in a magnetic circuit is analogous to
45 Voltage. Current. Resistance . e.m.f. c
___in an electric circuit; comparision
The reluctance is __________to the relative Inversely Directly Not None of the
46 a
permeability of the magnetic circuit: proportional. proportional. dependent. above. by formula
47 the _________is reciprocal of the reluctance; Permeability. Permeance. Susceptance. Resistance. b by defination
48 The unit of permeance is __________; AT/Wb. AT. AT/m. Wb/AT. d reciprocal of reluctance
49 The unit of permeability is……….: H/m. Hm. weber. Telsa. a by defination
50 The ratio of B and H is constant for…………; Cast steel. Cast iron. Free space. Rolled steel. c of free air is constant
UNIT 1
Sr. No. Questions a b c d Answer Justification
1 The best conductor out of following four metals gold silver copper aluminium b Silver is best conductor
A substance which has a large number of free electrons at semi-
2 conductor insulator none a
room temparature is called a conductor free electrons in conductor are more
Which is the widely used semi-conductor in the manfacture of
3 carbon germanium silicon magnesium c
electronic devices abundance in nature
Out of the following four materials which one is not a
4 zinc magnesium sodium neon d
conductor it is inert gas
5 Ampear= & Volt= (here Q=charge,t=time & J=joules) Q/t & J/Q J/Q & Q/t t/Q & Q/J Q/J & t/Q a by defination
Calculate the potential difference of an energy source that
6 provides 50J of energy for evry milli coulomb of charge that 50 kV 50 MV 1500 kV 1500 MV a
flows V=J/Q
Out of the following four materials which one has almost zero
7 copper wood manganin silicon c
temparature co-efficient of resistance no change in resistance for change in temp
Out of the following four materials which one has positive resistance increases with increase in
8 copper wood manganin silicon a
temparature co-efficient of resistance temperature
Out of the following four materials which one has negetive
9 eureka zinc silicon gold c
temparature co-efficient of resistance Resistance decreases with increase in temp
For any metal, at what temparature the R.T.C. value of metal
10 1 degree C 0 degree C 2 degree C none b
is maximum as temperature increases the RTC decreases
Which electrical device converts mechanical energy into
11 generator DC motor transformer AC motor a
electrical energy used to generate electrical energy
power energy
12 What kind of meters M.S.E.B. installed at our homes P.F. meeters none b
meeters meeters to measure energy consumed
13 What is relation between power and torque P=T*ω T=P*ω P= T/ω T=P/ω a by defn
low high medium zero
14 Insulating materials generally have b
resistance resistance resistance resistance free electrons are not present
joules/Kg-
15 what is the unit of heat capacity joules/Kg joules/kelvin none c
kelvin by defn
What is the resistivity of the wire which having resistance of
16 31.416 Ω-m 32.416 Ω-m 30.456 Ω-m 32.456 Ω-m a
50 ohms and length of 5m and diameter of 2m resistivity=R*A/l
17 1 kWh= 860 kcal 860 kJ 870 kcal 870 kJ a conversion factor
The amount of heat energy produced in joules or kilo joules calorific specific
18 heat capacity specific heat c
by burning the unit mass of the fuel is called as value enthalpy defination
The amount of heat gained or lost due to change in specific
19 latent heat specific heat sensible heat c
temparature is defined as the enthalpy defination
20 The ampere-second will be the unit of energy conductance power charge d q=I*t
the direction the value of
the value of the polarity of current current
21 Polarity of voltage drop across a resistance is determined by c
resistor of the source through the through the
resistor resistor by defn
negligigly
small
Constantan wire is used for making standard resistance low specific high specific high melting
22 temperature b
because it has resistance resistance point
co-efficient
of resistance Special alloy
The resistance of a wire of uniform diameter d and length l is
23 R. The resistance of another wire of same material but R R/2 2R R/4 a
diameter 2d and length 4l will be R=rho*l/A
The work done by an electric energy source with a potential
24 difference of 3 kV that delivers a current of 1 A for 1 minute 200 kJ 180 kJ 3 kJ 1 kJ b
will be WD=VIt
A coil has a resistance of 10 Ω at 200C.If RTC at 200C is 0.0039
25 11.56 Ω 9Ω 10 Ω 12.5 Ω a
/0C then its resistance at 600C will be By formula
A resistor of 50 Ω has a p. d. of 100 volts d. c. across it for 1
26 500 kJ 5 kJ 720 kJ 100 kJ c
hour. The energy dissipated in the resistor will be Energy=V*V*t/R
none of the
27 Insulators have ……….. temperature co-efficient of resistance zero positive negative c
above temp increses resistance decreases
A wire has a resistnce of 10 Ω. It is stretched by one-tenth of
28 10 Ω 12.1 Ω 11 Ω 9Ω b
its original length. Then its resistance will be R is proportional to l
An electrical kettle marked 1 kW, 230 V takes 7.5 minutes to
29 bring 1 kg of water at 150C to boiling point. The efficiency of 65% 72% 87% 79% d
the kettle is Efficiency=Energy out/Enenrgy in
How long it will take to raise the temperature of 880 gram of
30 water from 160C to boiling point, if the heater takes 2 11 minutes 13 minutes 5 minutes 18.5 minutes b
amperes at 220 V and its efficiency is 90 % Efficieny= (M S (T2-T1))/(VIt)
A pump driven by a d. c. motor lifts 1.5 m3 of water per
minute to a height of 40 m. If the pump and motor
31 12.8 kW 9.8 kW 10 kW 10.9 kW a overall efficieny= efficiency of pump*efficieny
efficiencies are 90 % and 85 % respectively, the power input
to the motor will be of motor
A crane is designed to lift a mass of 600 kg to a height of 10
32 meter in half minute. The efficiency of crane is 80 %. The 2 kW 3 kW 2.5 kW 1 kW c
selection of output rating of the motor will be with respect to input power
The average overall efficiency of a car is 50 %. If the car
33 consumes 4 kg of petrol per hour of calorific value 46.89 13 kW 10 kW 2.6 kW 26 kW d
MJ/kg, the output power available is by defn
A resistance of 5 ohm is further drawn so that its length
35 5 ohm 10 ohm 15 ohm 20 ohm b
becomes double its resistance will become R is proportional to l
Which of the following material is the best conductor of
36 wood rubber mica sheet copper d
electricity all others are insulators
When current of 2 Amp flows through a resistance of 1.5
37 5V 3V 6V 0.3V b
ohms, the voltage drop across the resistance is ohms law
none of
38 Commercial unit of electrical energy is KWH Joule Watt-sec a
these 1 unit =1 KWh
According to Joule's law the heat produced by flow of current
39 I2t It2 It I2Rt d
through a conductor of resistance R, for time t is by defn
40 The resistance of a conductor decreases when l increases I decreases d decreases non of these b basic formula
Which of the following material is having the highest
41 porcelein iron silver copper c
conductivity Silver is best conductor
A 4 ohm resistor carrying a current of 1 amp will dissipate the
42 1 watt 2 watt 3 watt 4 watt d
power of I2R
If the length of the conductor increases the insulation none of
43 increase decrease remain same b
resistance will these inversely proportional
44 Of the following substances, the worst conductor is: Air. Copper. Iron. Salt water a it is insulator
45 The unit of charge is: Newton. Ampere. Coulomb. Volts c by defn
One of
46 if an electron is removed from an atom ,It becomes : Cation. Anion b
Neutral. these. positively charged ion
Eletrical
47 converts any other form of enegry into an eletrical enegry: Voltage. Current. Resistance. b
force. by defn
Eletrical
48 The rate of flow of charge is : Voltage. e.m.f. Current. c
potential by defn
49 The unit of current is: Newton. Ohms. Coulombs/se Volts. c

c. by formula
Eletrical
50 The ability of a charged particle to do work is called: Voltage. e.m.f. Current. d
potential by defn
51 The unit of eletric potential is: Ohm. Coulomb. Ampere. Volt. d by defn
tempeature Potential
52 To maintain the flow of current must exist: Resistemce. Capacitance d
diffeence difference requirement
Opposition to Opposition to Opposition to Assistance to
53 The resistance is: the flow of potential generate the flow of a
current. differnce. heat. charge. by defn
none of
54 1 calorie=……………..joules: 4.186. 0.24. 2.486. a
these conversion factor
The resistance of a material having unit length and unit cross- Specific Current
55 Conductivity. Voltage. a
sectional area is resistance density. by defn
Semiconduct None of
56 A material with highest value of conductivity is the best: Conductor. Insilator. a
or. these. more free electrons
57 The Ohm's law cannot be applied to Resistance. Inductance. Capacitance. Diode. d semiconductor aterial
58 Ohm's law is applicable when is constant: Voltage. Temperature. Current. Power. b by statement
if the voltage applied to a circuit is 50 V and current through it
59 5 0.2. 10 50 a
is observed as 10 A, then the circuit resistance in ohms is ohms law
UNIT 2
1 The emf generated is given by the formula __________ Blv BIr Bvr Ivr a it is the magnitude of dynamically induced emf
The value of the supply voltage available for connection to various
2 appliances is __________ Vavg Vmax Vrms Vdc c AC voltages are always in rms
3 Form factor of a sinusoidal waveform is __________ 1.21 1.38 1.11 3.14 c F.F = RMS value/Avg. Value
4 Peak factor of a sinusoidal waveform is __________ 1.11 1.414 3.14 1.21 b P.F.= Max. value/RMS Value
5 The relation between rms and maximum value is __________ Vrms= √2Vmax Vmax=√2Vrms Vrms= Vmax Vrms = 3 Vmax b Vrms = Vmax/√2
6 The relation between average and maximum value is __________ 2 Iavg=pIm Imax= 2Iavg Iavg= 2/pi Im Imax= Iavg/2 c Derived expression of Iavg.
7 The relation between rms and avarage value is __________ Irms= 1.11 Iavg Irms= 2Iavg Irms= 1.44 Iavg Irms= 2/pIavg a F.F = RMS value/Avg. Value F.F.=1.11
average value
mean value to maximum value to maximum rms value to
8 Form factor is the ratio of __________ rms value to rms value value average value d For AC F.F = RMS value/Avg. Value
maximum value
mean value to maximum value to average maximum value
9 Peak factor is the ratio of __________ rms value to rms value value to form factor b For AC P.F.= Max. value/RMS Value
10 If the form factor of a waveform is 1.11 then the wave is __________ sinusoidal triangular square trapezoidal a For AC F.F=1.11
If the peak factor of a waveform is 1.414 then the wave is
11 __________ triangular square trapezoidal sinusoidal d For AC P.F=1.414
A sinusoidal quantity can be represented by the expression Standard form of alternating quantity comes from v=Blvsin(wt)
12 __________ i = Imsin2(wt) i = Irmssin (wt) i = Imsin (wt) i = Iavgsin (wt) c or v=Vmsin(wt)
Inductor and capacitor are energy storing elements,in resistor
13 In any circuit, power is consumed only by __________ inductance resistance capacitance all of them b power is dissipated in the form of heat
14 In a purely resistive circuit, the current __________ the voltage. lags leads in phase with none of these c phase difference between voltage and current is zero.
The power curve is a sine curve having __________ the frequency of
15 the current and voltage curve. same double thrice none of these b P =( VmIm/2)*sin(2wt)
During +ve half cycle energy is stored in the inductor and
16 Power consumed by pure inductance is __________ maximum zero minimum none of these b during -ve half cycle energy is returned back to supply
During +ve half cycle energy get stored in capacitor during its
charging, while during -ve half cycle energy stored is returned
17 Power consumed by a pure capacitance is __________ maximum minimum zero none of these c back to supply during discharging
In the wave diagram if the current waveform starts after the voltage
waveform then the expression of the current waveform is i = I²m sin²(ωt +
18 __________ i = Imsin (wt) i = Imsin (wt –f) i = Imsin (wt +f) Φ) b current lags voltage by angle Fi
In the wave diagram if the current waveform starts before the
voltage waveform then the expression of the current waveform is i = I²m sin²(ωt +
19 __________ i = Imsin (wt) i = Imsin (wt –f) i = Imsin (wt +f) Φ) c current leads voltage by angle Fi
inductive reactance is directly prorportional to supply
20 Inductive reactance is given by the expression __________ XL= 2pfL XL= 2pf/L XL= L/2pf XL= 1/2pfL a frequency
21 Capacitive reactance is given by the expression __________ XC= 2pfC XC= 2pf/C XC= 1/2pfC XC= C/2pf c capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency
22 For a pure resistance, impedance in rectangular form is __________ R + jXL R – jXL R + j0 R + jXC c in pure resistance, reactance is zero
23 For a pure capacitance, impedance in rectangular form is __________ 0 + jXC 0 – jXC R – jXC R + jXC b pure capacitance, R=0, current leads voltage
24 For a pure inductance, impedance in rectangular form is __________ XL– j0 0 + jXL XL+ j0 0 – jXL b pure inductance, R=0, current lags voltage
25 For a pure capacitance, impedance in polar form is __________ XCÐ0° XCÐ–90° XCÐ+90° none of these b I lags V by 90°
26 For a pure inductance, impedance in polar form is __________ XLÐ0° XLÐ–90° XLÐ+90° none of these c I leads V by 90°
Heat produced by an electrical equipment like an iron is proportional square of r.m.s. square of
27 to __________ r.m.s. current average current current average current c by defnation of RMS value
An alternating voltage is given by v = 7.07 sin (50pt + 45°) then its rms
28 value and phase are __________ 7.07, 90° 7.07, 45° 5 A, 45° 5 A, 0° c 7.07/root2, angle 45°
The expression for voltage and current of a circuit are given by v =
173.2 sin (50πt) and i = 10 sin (50πt + 60°) The series circuit contains resistance and resistance and
29 __________ capacitance inductance resistance only inductance only a current is leading in capacitive circuit
The expression of the voltage and the current of a circuit consisting
of _____________ is given by e = 145 sin (60πt) and i = 15 sin (60πt – resistance and resistance and only
30 30°) capacitance inductance only inductance capacitance b current lags voltage by angle less than 90
The impedance Z = 10 + j5 Whas __________ and __________ in resistance and resistance and
31 series. capacitance inductance resistance only inductance only b imaginery part is positive for inductance.
If the phase of the current flowing through a pure inductor of 4 mF is
32 – 40°, then the phase of the voltage across it is __________ – 50° 50 40 120° b -40+90
If the voltage of 50 Hz and rms value of 200 V are applied across 31
33 mF capacitor, then the current drawn is __________ 2.5 A 1.9468 A 3.33 A 5A b I=V/Xc
The capacitive reactance XC__________ with __________ in increases, decreases, increases, remains
34 frequency. increase decrease decrease constant c inversely proportional
35 The impedance of a purely capacitive circuit is __________ Z = R + jXC Z = R – jXC Z = jXC Z = –jXC d z=v/i
36 The instantaneous power in ac circuit is given by P = __________ V Í VI cos f v í v í cosf d
37 The __________ can never store energy. resistor inductor capacitor energy source a it produces heat
A 200 Wresistance is carrying a sinusoidal current given by 5 sinwt.
38 Then the rms voltage given across the resistor is __________ 750 V 707.106 V 200.52 V 1000 V b
For a purely capacitive circuit, the __________ leads __________ by
39 90°. current, voltage voltage, current power, current power, voltage a I leads V in pure C
An alternating current is given by i = 14.14 sin 377t. Its time period is
40 __________ 20 msec 16.67 msec 5.3 msec 2.65 msec b T=1/f
An alternating voltage is given by v = 14.14 sin 377t. Its average value
41 is __________ 14.14 V 377 V 9V 10 V c using peak factor
UNIT 1
Sr No. Question Option A Option B Option C Option D Answer Justification
If the frequency of the primary voltage of the transformer is 60 Hz, then the secondary voltage
1 will have a frequency of __________ 0 50 Hz 60Hz 120Hz c frequency remains constant
static dynamic
Fleming's left hand Fleming's right electromagnetic electromagnetic Supply is alternating , so flux
2 The transformer operates on the principle of __________ rule hand rule induction induction c changes w.r.t. time
both AC and DC change in flux is required,D.C
3 It is possible to operate the transformer only on __________ AC voltage DC voltage voltages none of these a can not give alternating flux
The primary and secondary windings are placed on the central limb of the core of __________ constructional feature, as it is
4 type of transformer. core shell berry none of these b used for high voltages
constructional feature, as it is
5 __________ type of transformer provides double magnetic circuit. core shell berry none of these b used for high voltages
6 The windings encircle the core in __________ type of transformer. core shell berry none of these a used for low voltages
7 Cylindrical windings are used for __________ type of transformer. core shell berry none of these a used for low voltages
The flux set up in the core of the transformer is __________ due to sinusoidal ac supply Supply is alternating , so flux is
8 connected to primary winding. dc sine wave cosine wave discontinuous b also alternating
Final expression obtained by
the principle of
9 The expression for the secondary induced emf is __________ 4.44 f N2Bm 4.44 fmfN2 4.44 V2N2fm none of these b elctromagnetic induction
transformation ratio is the
transformation ratio of sec. and pri. voltages
10 The ratio E2|E1or N2|N1of a transformer is called as __________ voltage ratio turns ratio ratio none of these c and no. of turns
Emf induced is directly
11 For a step-up transformer, the relation between N1and N2is __________ N1= N2 N1> N2 N2> N1 none of these c proportinal to no. of turns
step-up step-down v2<v1,as k is transformation
12 For a transformer if K < 1 then it is called __________ transformer transformer isolation auto-transformer b ratio
by comparing V1I1=V2I2,
13 The ratio of primary current to secondary current is equal to __________ K 1/K K<1 K=1 a considering ideal transformer
14 The ratio of a transformer is in terms of __________ power. TRUE apparent reactive none of these b apperant power=VI
transformer rating is given as
15 For a 3300 / 200 V, 100 kVA transformer, the primary voltage is __________ 200 V 100 V 33 V 3300 V d V1/V2
16 For a 220/110 V, 50 kVA transformer, the value of K is __________ 0.5 1 2 2.5 a k=V2/V1
A 600 / 300 V transformer has primary rated current of 10 A. Then the kVA rating of the
17 transformer would be 3 kVA 2 kVA 6 kVA 4 kVA c KVA=(V1I1)/1000
A 3000/200 V, 100 kVA transformer has N2= 80 turns, its rated secondary current I2= __________
18 Amp. 30 500 45 none of these b I2=(KVA*1000)/V2
19 A 6000/300 V, 150 kVA transformer has N2= 150 turns then N1= __________ turns. 1000 2500 3000 250 c by comparing V2/V1=N2/N1
Due to magnetising material
of core, there are two losses
hystersis and eddy current
20 The __________ loss is further classified into hysteresis loss and eddy current loss. copper variable iron total c loss
Copper loss depends on
21 The __________ loss is called as variable loss. copper iron hysteresis eddy current a current.
Iron losses are due to core in
the transformer and are
depends on the core material
22 The __________ loss is independent of load current. iron copper total none of these a used
Iron losses are takes place in
23 The __________ loss takes place in the transformer core. copper iron total none of these b magnetising material
copper losses are directly
proportional to square of the
24 The copper loss at full load is 400 W. The copper loss at half load is __________ 100 W 200 W 50 W 250 W a current
In the direct loading test of a transformer, the __________ are used to measure powers on voltmeters and wattmeter is used to measure
25 primary and secondary sides. ammeters wattmeters energy meters none of these b power
One winding is used as
primary and secondary in
26 An auto-transformer has __________ windings. 1 2 3 none of these a autotransformer
Secondary no. of turns can be
varied,with which sec. voltage
27 The output voltage of an auto-transformer is __________ DC adjustable fixed none of these b can be varied
One winding is used as a
primary as ell as secondary
28 There is no _________ between the windings of an auto-transformer. connection isolation leakage none of these b winding
Copper losses at full load are 400 W and iron losses at full load are 200 W. Then the iron losses at Iron losses are constant at any
29 half load are __________ 100 W 150 W 200 W 250 W c load
A 6000/200 V, 30 kVA 50 Hz transformer has primary resistance of 2W and secondary resistance Copper loss =
30 of 0.04 W then full-load copper losses are 2000 W 140 W 150 W 100 W c (I1square*R1+I2square*R2)
One winding is used as
primary and secondary in
31 The __________ transformer provides substantial copper saving. auto two winding isolation none of these a autotransformer
A single-phase, 50 Hz transformer has 600 primary turns and 300 secondary turns. The maximum
value of flux is 8 mWb. The primary induced emf is __________ and kVA rating of the transformer
32 is __________ if rated secondary current is 5 A. 10.656 V, 2.66 kVA 1065.6 V, 2.66 kVA 1023 V, 2 kVA 1065.6 V, 3.66 kVA b e1=4.44ffiN1,KVA=V2I2/1000
The region around a charged body where another charged body experiences a force is electromagnetic
34 __________ electric field electrostatic field field none of these b by defination
35 Electric field strength is measured in __________ coulomb/newton newton/coulomb volt/m2 none of these b E=F/Q
37 The value of relative permittivity for __________ is assumed to be unity. paper air rubber iron b ratio of air to air
38 The electric field intensity is given by __________ per __________ charge, unit force force, unit charge unit force, charge none of these b E=F/Q
39 The relation between charge and applied voltage across a capacitor is __________ Q = C/V Q = V2/C Q = CV Q = V/C c Q is proportional to V
cross-sectional distance between
40 The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is directly proportional to __________ length area the plates none of these b by formula
41 Value of Îois __________ 8.854 ´ 10–6F/m 8.854 ´ 10–12m/F 8.854 ´ 10–9m/F 8.854 ´ 10–12F/m d constant
A parallel-plate capacitor has an area of 10 cm2and distance between the plates is 2 mm. Given capacitance of parallel plate
42 Îr= 3 then the capacitance is __________ 132.8 nF 13.28 mF 13.28 pF 13.28 F c capacitor
43 The equivalent capacitance of 8 mF and 2 mF connected in series is equal to __________ 1.4 mF 6.1 mF 1.6 mF 10 mF c C=c1c2/c1+c2
44 The equivalent capacitance of 20 mF, 50 mF and 25 mF connected in parallel is __________ 75 mF 70 mF 50 mF 95 mF d C=C1+C2+C3
3 capacitors 5 mF, 10 mF and 15 mF are connected in series across 100 V supply. The voltage
45 across 10 mF capacitor is __________ 2.727 V 27.27 V 272.7 V 20.27 V b the voltage gets distributed
Four capacitors are connected in parallel across a 250 V supply. The charges taken by them are
750, 1000, 1500 and 2000 mC. What is the equivalent capacitance of the combination__________
46 ? 8 mF 18 mF 21 mF 16 mF c using C=Q/V,
Two capacitors when connected in parallel across a 250 V supply have charges of 2000 and 2500 find Cequvivalent and use 0.5
47 mC. The total energy stored is __________ 0.25 J 0.3125 J 0.5625 J 0.0625 J c CVsquare
3 capacitors of 6 mF, 10 mF and 15 mF are connected in series across a 200 V supply. The total
48 energy stored is __________ 0.03 J 0.018 J 0.012 J 0.06 J d use energy formula
A capacitor is charged with 10,000 mC. If the energy stored is 1 joule, then the voltage is
49 __________ and capacitance is __________ 200 V, 50 mF 50 V, 200 mF 150 V, 75 mF 75 mF, 150 V a E=V/d
A 80 mF capacitor in series with 1000 W resistor is connected suddenly across a 110 V supply,
50 then the initial value of current is __________ and time constant of the circuit is __________ 0.08 A, 0.11 sec. 0.11 A, 0.08 sec. 0.04 A, 0.08 sec. 0.11 A, 0.04 sec. b time constant
increases with decreases with
increase in increase in decreases with
51 The electric field intensity __________ distance distance voltage none of these b E=V/d
distance of
separation
between the permittivity of the
52 The capacitance of a parallel-pate capacitor is affected by __________ area of plates plates medium all of these d C=A/d*permitivity
permittivity same permittivity
54 The dielectric material used for capacitor should have __________ low permittivity as that of air greater than air high permittivity d more lines will be setup
A multiplate capacitor has 4 plates in all and distance between the plates is 2 mm. If the area of
the plates is effectively 5 cm2and dielectric constant of material between the plates is 10, then
55 the capacitance is __________ 132 pF 66 pF 6.6 mF 66 nF b
d) None of these
frequencies
a) pulsating DC
b) alternating
c) pure DC
d) none of these
d) All of the above
a) Faraday’s law
c) Ohms law
d) Kirchoff’s law
a) BIL
b) BLV
c) BIV
d) LIV
a) Em tanѲ
b) Em CosѲ
c) Em sinѲ
d) Em2sinѲ
a) 45̊°
b) 90̊̊°
c) 180°
d) 270°
a)45
b) 90
c) 180
d) 270
a) frequency
b) speed
c) waveform
d) time period
a) rad/sec
b) seconds
c) Hertz
d) Volts
a) f=1/ w
b) w=2π/f
c) w=2πf
d) w=1/f
a) 0.05 sec
b) 0.005 sec
c) 0.0005 sec
d) 0.5 sec
a) instantaneous
b) peak
c) peak to peak
d) average
a) non periodic
b) sawtooth
c) periodic
d) triangular
a) π rad
b) 90°
c) π/4rad
d) 2π rad
a) 60Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 100Hz
d) 10Hz
cycle is called
a) maximum
b) amplitude
c) peak
d) all of these
a) Ѳ=t/w
b) w=t/Ѳ
c) Ѳ=wt
d) w/Ѳ=t
a) 10 msec
b) 20 msec
c) 1msec
d) 5msec
a) 314.16
b) 50
c) 0.126
d) none of these
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2.5
d) 20
a) 150
b) 216.5
c) 125
d) 108.25
a) 75
b) 50
c) 25
d) 100
cycles is sec
a) 0.02
b) 0.06
c) 0.08
d) 0.01
a) 4.33
b) 6.123
c) 8.66
d) 3.061
a) 100
b) 100√2
c) 100/√2
d) 0
a) 100
b) 400
c) 200
d) 300
a) 50
b) 75
c) 25
d) 100
b) heating effect
c) friction
d) none of these
a) peak
b) average
c) r.m.s
d) mean
a) average
b) maximum
c) r.m.s.
d) none of these
a)10
b) 30
c) 5
d) 20
a) Im/√2
b) √2 Im
c) Im/2
d) 2Im
a) 0.5 Im
b) 0.637 Im
c) Im/√2
d) √2 Im
a) 1
b) √2
c) 0
d) 1/√2
a) 254.8
b) 282.6
c) 400
d) 565.5
a) more
b) less
c) same as
a) 127.4
b) 282.6
c) 400
d) 565
a) 1.11
b) 1.21
c) 1.414
d) √2
a) sine
b) square
c) Triangular
a) 1.414
b) 1.11
c) 0866
d) 0.707
a) vectors
b) scalars
c) phasors
d) horizontal
a) clockwise
b) anticlockwise
c) vertical
d) horizontal
a) Y axis
b) X axis
c) Z axis
d) none of these
a) Ns
b) w
c) F
d) none of these
a. 0-90
b. 0-180
c. 0-360
d. 180-360
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
a. 30°
b. 90°
c. 0°
d. 60°
a 30°
b. 90°
c. 0°
d. 60°
a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270
A. phasor
b. polar
c. rectangular
d. none of these
a. 45
b. 90
c. 135
d. 0
a. 90
b. -90
c. -270
d. 0
a. 5<-53.13
b. 5<53.13
c. 5<-126.86
d. 5<126.86
a. 4.33+j2.5
b. - 4.33+j2.5
c. -4.33-j2.5
d. 4.33-j2.5
a. rectangular
b. cylindrical
c. polar
d. spherical
a. cylindrical
b. spherical
c. rectangular
d. polar
a. zero
b. unity
c. lagging
d. leading
a. double
b. one half of
c. one forth of
d. equal to
a. 1000<45
b. 40<45
c. 40<0
d. 1000<0
a. w/L
b. 2πL/f
c. wL
d. 2fl
a. 0.7957
b. 314.16
c. 1.2566
d. 2
a. 15.7
b. 157
c. 50
d. 25
A maximum
b. minimum
c. zero
d infinite
A infinite
b 1
c zero
e none of these
d none of these
d none of these
a. leads
b. in phase
c. lags
a. 1/fc
b. 1/2πwc
c. 2πw/C
d. 1/2πfc
a. zero
b. infinite
c. negative
d none of the above
a. square
b. direct
c. inverse
d. linear
current is
a. 20<120
b. 20<30
c. 20<-60
d. 20<0
a. zero
b. infinite
c. one
d. negative
a. R-jXl
b. R+j Xl
c. R+j0
d. R-jXc
a. twice
b. same as
c. thrice
d. half
consumption is W
a. 1000
b. 4000
c. 2000
d. 0
a. 0.159
b. 6.283
c. 2
d. 0
a. 6.28
b. 3.14
c. 0.1519
d. 0
70̊°?
a. 70
b. 20
c. 160
d. -20
voltage is- 30̊°?
a. 60
b. -60
c. 120
d.-120
across it is
a. 0
b. 30
c. 120
d. -60
across
a. 60
b. -120
c. -30
d. -60
a. pure inductor
b. pure capacitor
c. pure resistor
d. none of these
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. none of these
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
a. VI
b. VI cosΦ
c. v(t) i(t) cosΦ
d. v(t)i(t)
a. VI
b. VI cosΦ
c. v(t) i(t) cosΦ
d. v(t)i(t)
a. rms
b. average
c. square of rms
d. square of avg
a. phase
b. amplitude
d. frequency
a. peak
b. instantaneous
c. rms
d. average
a. 212.132,30
b. 150,0
c. 150,30
d. 212.132,0
a. 2
b. 1
c. 0.5
d. 4
a. 2A
b. 1A
c. 0.5A
d. 4A
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 0
a. lead
b. in phase with
c. lag
d. none of these
a. -153.43°
b. 63.43°
c. -26.57°
d. 26.57°
a. -153.43°
b. 63.43°
c. -26.57°
d. 26.57
(A) Ohm.
(B) Farad.
(C) Mho.
(D) Henry. Ans: D
(A) Dot
(B) Cross
(C) Star
(D) Dash Ans: B
(B) Lenz’s law
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: B
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: A
(A) self- induction
(B) Inductance
___________ of the coil.
(C) Self inductance
(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Wattmeter
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing
(A) mechanical
(B) Electronic
(C) electric
(D) Magnetic Ans :D
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere
(C) Henry
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere
(C) Henry
(D) Linkages Ans :A
between two coils.
(C) Self inductance

(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/ Volt
(C) Henry
(A) 3.75 A
(B) 3. 75 mA
(D) 37.5 mA Ans : B
(A) 1.1
(B) 0.5
(C) -0.5
(D) -1.1 Ans : C
(A) 2000 AT
(B) 200 AT
(C) 20 AT
(D) 0.5 AT Ans : B
(A) Fringing
(A) MMF
(B) Current
(C) Voltage
(D) Flux Ans : B
( A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(A) – L dI /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : B
(A) –Nd φ /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
(A) φ1/ φ2
(B) φ2/ φ1
(C) φ1/I1
(D) φ2/I2 Ans : B
(A) Magnetic flux
(B) Magnetic field
(A) –L dI/dt
(B) MdI1 / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
(A) φ
(B) d φ /dt
(C) N φ
(D) φ /I Ans : C
(A) Self inductance
(C) Flux linkage
the conductor
(A) Total area
(B) Surface area
(A) axes
(B)induction
(C) poles
(D)fluxes Ans:C
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:B
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:A
(A) 108
(B) 106
(C) 103
(D) 10-8 Ans:A
(A) Tesla
(B) AT/m
(C) Weber
(D) Henry Ans:A
-----

(B) Pole strength
(C) Flux density

the paper is ----------------
(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Vertical
(C) Clockwise
(A) Voltage
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) E.M.F. Ans:C
(A) H/m
(B) Wb/m
(C) Nm
(D) No unit Ans:D

(A) Cast iron
(B) Cast steel
(C) Free space
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:B
(A) 3.98
(B) 5.28
(C) 4.989
(D) 1.989 Ans:D
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(A) Reluctances
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(A) Mmf
(B) Reluctance
(C) Flux
--------.
(A) Useful flux

(B) Mutual flux
(C) Leakage flux
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) Infinite
(D) 0.5 Ans:B

(A) very high

(C) low
(A) Resistance
(B) reluctance
(C) conductance
induced is…..
(A) steady
(B) alternating
(C) changing
(D) reversing Ans:B
(A) mmf
(B) reluctance
(C) permeability
(A) 0
(B) 1.5 V
(C) 75 V
(D) 100 V Ans:C
(A) Ф/NI
(B) NI/Ф
(C) NФ/I
(D) ФI/N Ans:C
(A) 0.8 V
(B) 0.008 V
(C) 0.16 V
(D) 0.064 V Ans:A
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.75 Ans:A
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Small
(D) Unity Ans:A
----.

(C) End rule

(A) Generator
(B) Transformer
(C) Bulb

(A) 200
(B) -200
(C) -400
(D) 400 Ans:D
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing

(C) Self inductance
(A) Loosely coupled

(B) Tightly coupled
(C) Series aiding
(A) 400μH
(B) 158.11μH
(C) 40μH
(D) 40mH Ans:C
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/Wb
(C) Unit less
(D) H/m Ans:C
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1 Ans:A
(A) 2500
(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
---------.
(A) Permeance
(B) Permeability
(C) Reluctance

(A) Total area

(B) Surface area
(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) 2
(D) 0.5 Ans:B
(A) 4π x 10-7
(B) 10000
(C) 100
(D) 1000 Ans:D
-----T.
(A) 0.2
(B) 5
(C) 50
(D) 1.2 Ans:B
(A) 32
(B) 128
(C) 64
(D) 0.64 Ans: C

(A) Permeability
(B) Permeance
(C) Susceptance

the paper is-------------.
(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Vertical
(C) Clockwise
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x 10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:C
Q87. The unit of μ is -----------.
(A) H/m
(B) Wb/m
(C) Nm
(D) Ni unit Ans:A
(A) L1+L2+2M
(B) (L1+L2)/2M
(C) L1+L2-2M
(A) Loosely couple

(B) tightly coupled
(C) series aiding
(A) kinetic
(B) electrostatic
(C) potential
(D) residual Ans:C
(A) LI2
(B) LI2/2
(C) 2LI2
(D) I2/2L Ans:B
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1 Ans:A
(A) 2500
(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/Volt
(C) Henry
(D) Linkage Ans:C
(A) 100%
(B) More then 100%
(C) 90%
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/m
(C) Unitless
(D) H/m Ans:C
(A) Weber
(B) AT
(C) Tesla
(A) Φxa
(B) φ/a
(C) 1/(φ+a)
(D) Φ+a Ans:B

(C) Circular
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:A

a) Electric field
b) Magnetic field
a) 1800 b) 00
b) 450 c) 900
a) Newton
b) Coulomb
c) Weber
d) Tesla
d) Electric flux
a) c/m
b) c/m2
c) N/C
d) N/m2C
a) V/m2
b) V/m
c) C/m
d) Wb/V
a) F/Q
b) Q/F
c) B/Q
d) 1/(2VQ)
a) V/Q
b) V/d
c) 1/(2V2)
d) VQ
d) None of above
a) H/m
b) A/m
c) F/m
d) N/m
a) 8.854x10-10
b) 8.854x1012
c) 6.657x10-12
d) 8.854xz10-12
a) D=Є/E
b) D=ЄE
c) E=Є/D
d) E=ЄD
a) F α Q1Q2 d2
b) F α ( Q1Q2 ) /d2
c) F α d2/(Q1 Q2 )
d) F α 1/(Q1Q2 d2)
a) Capacitor
b) Dipole
c) Capacitance
d) Inductance
a) Farad
b) Henry
c) Hertz
d) Farad/m
a) 10-6
b) 10-9
c) 10-12
d) 10-15
a) Єd/A
b) Є/dA
c) ЄA/d
d) A/Єd
a) 10μC
b) 10nC
c) 10C
d) 1μC
a) 04427 μF
b) 04427 pF
c) 0.4427nF
d) 0.4427 F
a) 22.580
b) 2.5588
c) 225.88
d) 255.88
a) 10 kv/m
b) 10 v/m
c) 0.1V/m
d) 8.854 kv/m
a) 5 μC
b) 0.5 μC
c) 5 nC
d) 0.5 mC
a) 0.8854
b) 88.54
c) 8.854
d) 0.00885
a) 200
b) 100
c) 400
d) 4000
a) + 12 μC
b) - 12 μC
c) - 24 μC
d) -24 μC
a) KV/N
b) V/C
c) KV/cm
d) F/m
a) Temperature
b) Moisture
c) Moisture content
d) All of these
a) Voltage
b) Capacitance
c) Charge
d) One of these
________
a) 9μF
b) 4.5μF
c) 2μF
d) 1μF
a) 3C,V/3
b) C/3,3V
c) 3C,3V
d) C./3,V/3
capacitor is_____
a) 10μC
b) 15μC
c) 3μC
d) 20μC
_______μF.
a) 0.5
b) 8
c) 2
d) 4
a) 500
b) 5000
c) 1200
d) 400
a) 100
b) 66.667
c) 33.333
d) 0
________μF
a) 0.3
b) 3
c) 30
d) 3.333
a) 1/(2CV)
b) 1/(2CV2)
c) v/(2C)
d) c2/2v
a) 11
b) 10
c) 2.1
d) 21
a) 1 s b) 1 μs
b) 1ms c) 0.1 sec
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Breakdown
d) None of above
a) 0.5 b) 8 c) 2 d) 4
Answer:
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 D
2 A 12 C 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 A 43 C
4 C 14 D 24 C 34 B 44 B
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 c
6 C 16 B 26 B 36 D 46 B
7 A 17 B 27 C 37 D 47 D
8 C 18 C 28 A 38 C 48 A
9 B 19 A 29 D 39 C 49 B
10 A 20 B 30 B 40 b 50 B
Transformer
1. If the frequency of the primary voltage of the transformer is 60 Hz, then the secondary
voltage will have a frequency of __________
(a) 0 (b) 50 Hz (c) 60 Hz (d) 120 Hz
2. The transformer operates on the principle of __________
(a) Fleming's left hand rule (b) Fleming's right hand rule
(c) static electromagnetic induction (d) dynamic electromagnetic induction
3. It is possible to operate the transformer only on __________
(a) AC voltage (b) DC voltage
(c) both AC and DC voltages (d) none of these
4. The primary and secondary windings are placed on the central limb of the core of
__________ type of transformer.
(a) core (b) shell
(c) berry (d) none of these
5. __________ type of transformer provides double magnetic circuit.
(a) core (b) shell (c) berry
6. The windings encircle the core in __________ type of transformer.
7. Cylindrical windings are used for __________ type of transformer.
8. The flux set up in the core of the transformer is __________ due to sinusoidal ac supply
connected to primary winding.
(a) dc (b) sine wave
(c) cosine wave (d) discontinuous
9. The expression for the secondary induced emf is __________
(a) 4.44 f N2Bm (b) 4.44 m fN2 (c) 4.44 V2N2 m
10. The ratio E2|E1 or N2|N1 of a transformer is called as __________
(a) voltage ratio (b) turns ratio (c) transformation ratio
11. For a step-up transformer, the relation between N1 and N2 is __________
(a) N1 = N2 (b) N1 > N2 (c) N2 > N1
12. For a transformer if K < 1 then it is called __________
(a) step-up transformer (b) step-down transformer
(c) isolation (d) auto-transformer
13. The ratio of primary current to secondary current is equal to __________
(a) K (b) 1/K (c) K < 1 (d) K = 1
14. The ratio of a transformer is in terms of __________ power.
(a) true (b) apparent (c) reactive
15. For a 3300 / 200 V, 100 kVA transformer, the primary voltage is __________
(a) 200 V (b) 100 V (c) 33 V (d) 3300 V
16. For a 220/110 V, 50 kVA transformer, the value of K is __________
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 2.5
(S.1)
Basic Electrical Engineering S.2 Objective Type Questions
17. A 600 / 300 V transformer has primary rated current of 10 A. Then the kVA rating of the
transformer would be
(a) 3 kVA (b) 2 kVA (c) 6 kVA (d) 4 kVA
18. A 3000/200 V, 100 kVA transformer has N2 = 80 turns, its rated secondary current I2
= __________ Amp.
(a) 30 (b) 500
(c) 45 (d) none of these
19. A 6000/300 V, 150 kVA transformer has N2 = 150 turns then N1 = __________ turns.
(a) 1000 (b) 2500 (c) 3000 (d) 250
20. The __________ loss is further classified into hysteresis loss and eddy current loss.
(a) copper (b) variable (c) iron (d) total
21. The __________ loss is called as variable loss.
(a) copper (b) iron
(c) hysteresis (d) eddy current
22. The __________ loss is independent of load current.
(a) iron (b) copper (c) total
23. The __________ loss takes place in the transformer core.
(a) copper (b) iron (c) total
24. The copper loss at full load is 400 W. The copper loss at half load is __________
(a) 100 W (b) 200 W (c) 50 W (d) 250 W
25. In the direct loading test of a transformer, the __________ are used to measure powers on
primary and secondary sides.
(a) voltmeters and ammeters (b) wattmeters (c) energy meters
26. An auto-transformer has __________ windings.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
27. The output voltage of an auto-transformer is __________
(a) DC (b) adjustable (c) fixed
28. There is no _________ between the windings of an auto-transformer.
(a) connection (b) isolation (c) leakage
29. Copper losses at full load are 400 W and iron losses at full load are 200 W. Then the iron
losses at half load are __________
(a) 100 W (b) 150 W (c) 200 W (d) 250 W
30. A 6000/200 V, 30 kVA 50 Hz transformer has primary resistance of 2 and secondary
resistance of 0.04  then full-load copper losses are
(a) 2000 W (b) 140 W (c) 150 W (d) 100 W
31. The __________ transformer provides substantial copper saving.
(a) auto (b) two winding (c) isolation
32. A single-phase, 50 Hz transformer has 600 primary turns and 300 secondary turns. The
maximum value of flux is 8 mWb. The primary induced emf is __________ and kVA rating
of the transformer is __________ if rated secondary current is 5 A.
(a) 10.656 V, 2.66 kVA (b) 1065.6 V, 2.66 kVA
(c) 1023 V, 2 kVA (d) 1065.6 V, 3.66 kVA
Electrostatics
33. The relation between , o, r is __________
(a) r = o (b) o = .r
(c)  = o r (d)  = r/o
34. The region around a charged body where another charged body experiences a force is
__________
(a) electric field (b) electrostatic field (c) electromagnetic field
35. Electric field strength is measured in __________
(a) coulomb/newton (b) newton/coulomb (c) volt/m2
36. Unit of  is __________
(a) Farad/m (b) Farad/m2 (c) Farad-m
37. The value of relative permittivity for __________ is assumed to be unity.
(a) paper (b) air (c) rubber (d) iron
38. The electric field intensity is given by __________ per __________
(a) charge, unit force (b) force, unit charge (c) unit force, charge
39. The relation between charge and applied voltage across a capacitor is __________
(a) Q = C/V (b) Q = V2/C
(c) Q = CV (d) Q = V/C
40. The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is directly proportional to __________
(a) length (b) cross-sectional area (c) distance between the plates
41. Value of o is __________
(a) 8.854  10–6 F/m (b) 8.854  10–12 m/F
(c) 8.854  10 m/F
–9 (d) 8.854  10–12 F/m
42. A parallel-plate capacitor has an area of 10 cm2 and distance between the plates is 2
mm. Given r = 3 then the capacitance is __________
(a) 132.8 nF (b) 13.28 F (c) 13.28 pF (d) 13.28 F
43. The equivalent capacitance of 8 F and 2 F connected in series is equal to __________
(a) 1.4 F (b) 6.1 F (c) 1.6 F (d) 10 F
44. The equivalent capacitance of 20 F, 50 F and 25 F connected in parallel is __________
(a) 75 F (b) 70 F (c) 50 F (d) 95 F
45. 3 capacitors 5 F, 10 F and 15 F are connected in series across 100 V supply. The
voltage across 10 F capacitor is __________
(a) 2.727 V (b) 27.27 V (c) 272.7 V (d) 20.27 V
46. Four capacitors are connected in parallel across a 250 V supply. The charges taken by
them are 750, 1000, 1500 and 2000 C. What is the equivalent capacitance of the
combination__________ ?
(a) 8 F (b) 18 F (c) 21 F (d) 16 F
47. Two capacitors when connected in parallel across a 250 V supply have charges of
2000 and 2500 C. The total energy stored is __________
(a) 0.25 J (b) 0.3125 J
(c) 0.5625 J (d) 0.0625 J

48. 3 capacitors of 6 F, 10 F and 15 F are connected in series across a 200 V supply. The
total energy stored is __________
(a) 0.03 J (b) 0.018 J (c) 0.012 J (d) 0.06 J
49. A capacitor is charged with 10,000 C. If the energy stored is 1 joule, then the voltage is
__________ and capacitance is __________
(a) 200 V, 50 F (b) 50 V, 200 F
(c) 150 V, 75 F (d) 75 F, 150 V
50. A 80 F capacitor in series with 1000  resistor is connected suddenly across a 110 V
supply, then the initial value of current is __________ and time constant of the circuit is
__________
(a) 0.08 A, 0.11 sec. (b) 0.11 A, 0.08 sec.
(c) 0.04 A, 0.08 sec. (d) 0.11 A, 0.04 sec.
51. The electric field intensity __________
(a) increases with increase in distance
(b) decreases with increase in distance
(c) decreases with voltage (d) none of these
52. The capacitance of a parallel-pate capacitor is affected by __________
(a) area of plates
(b) distance of separation between the plates
(c) permittivity of the medium
(d) all of these
53. The electric flux density 'D' is given by __________
(a) oE (b) orE2 (c) orE (d) oE2
54. The capacitance of a capacitor having composite dielectric having 3 slabs is given by __
oA oA
(a) C = (b) C =
 t   d1 d2 d3 
d +  – t  + + 
  r   r1 r2 r3
A A
(c) o r (d) o r
d2 d
55. The dielectric material used for capacitor should have __________
(a) low permittivity (b) permittivity same as that of air
(c) permittivity greater than air (d) high permittivity
56. A multiplate capacitor has 4 plates in all and distance between the plates is 2 mm. If the
area of the plates is effectively 5 cm2 and dielectric constant of material between the
plates is 10, then the capacitance is __________
(a) 132 pF (b) 66 pF (c) 6.6 F (d) 66 nF
ANSWERS
1. (c) 4. (b) 7. (a) 10. (c) 13. (a)
2. (c) 5. (b) 8. (b) 11. (c) 14. (b)
3. (a) 6. (a) 9. (b) 12. (b) 15. (d)
16. (a) 25. (b) 34. (b) 43. (c) 52. (d)
17. (c) 26. (a) 35. (b) 44. (d) 53. (c)
18. (b) 27. (b) 36. (a) 45. (b) 54. (b)
19. (c) 28. (b) 37. (b) 46. (c) 55. (d)
20. (c) 29. (c) 38. (b) 47. (c) 56. (b)
21. (a) 30. (c) 39. (c) 48. (d)
22. (a) 31. (a) 40. (b) 49. (a)
23. (b) 32. (b) 41. (d) 50. (b)
24. (a) 33. (c) 42. (c) 51. (b)
AC FUNDAMENTALS
1. The emf generated is given by the formula __________
(a) Blv (b) BIr (c) Bvr (d) Ivr
2. The value of the supply voltage available for connection to various appliances is
__________
(a) Vavg (b) Vmax (c) Vvms (d) Vdc
3. Form factor of a sinusoidal waveform is __________
(a) 1.21 (b) 1.38 (c) 1.11 (d) 3.14
4. Peak factor of a sinusoidal waveform is __________
(a) 1.11 (b) 1.414 (c) 3.14 (d) 1.21
5. The relation between rms and maximum value is __________
(a) Vrms = 2 Vmax (b) Vmax = 2 Vrms (c) Vrms = Vmax (d) Vrms = 3 Vmax
6. The relation between average and maximum value is __________
(a) 2 Iavg = Im (b) Imax = 2Iavg
(c) Iavg = 2/  Im (d) Imax = Iavg/2
7. The relation between rms and avarage value is __________
(a) Irms = 1.11 Iavg (b) Irms = 2Iavg
(c) Irms = 1.44 Iavg (d) Irms = 2/ Iavg
8. Form factor is the ratio of __________
(a) mean value to rms value (b) maximum value to rms value
(c) average value to maximum value (d) rms value to average value
9. Peak factor is the ratio of __________
(a) mean value to rms value (b) maximum value to rms value
(c) maximum value to average value (d) maximum value to form factor
10. If the form factor of a waveform is 1.11 then the wave is __________
(a) sinusoidal (b) triangular (c) square (d) trapezoidal
11. If the peak factor of a waveform is 1.414 then the wave is __________
(a) triangular (b) square (c) trapezoidal (d) sinusoidal
12. A sinusoidal quantity can be represented by the expression __________
(a) i = Im sin2 (t) (b) i = Irms sin (t) (c) i = Im sin (t) (d) i = Iavg sin (t)
Basic Electrical Engineering S.6 Multiple Choice Questions (MQCs)
13. In any circuit, power is consumed only by __________

(a) inductance (b) resistance (c) capacitance (d) all of them
14. In a purely resistive circuit, the current __________ the voltage.
(a) lags (b) leads (c) in phase with (d) none of these
15. The power curve is a sine curve having __________ the frequency of the current and voltage
curve.
(a) same (b) double (c) thrice (d) none of these
16. Power consumed by pure inductance is __________
(a) maximum (b) zero (c) minimum (d) none of these
17. Power consumed by a pure capacitance is __________
(a) maximum (b) minimum (c) zero (d) none of these
18. In the wave diagram if the current waveform starts after the voltage waveform then the
expression of the current waveform is __________
(a) i = Im sin (t) (b) i = Im sin (t – )
2
(c) i = Im sin (t + ) (d) i = Im sin2 (t – )
19. In the wave diagram if the current waveform starts before the voltage waveform then
the expression of the current waveform is __________
(a) i = Im sin (t) (b) i = Im sin (t – )
2
(c) i = Im sin (t + ) (d) i = Im sin2 (t + )
20. Inductive reactance is given by the expression __________
(a) XL = 2fL (b) XL = 2f/L (c) XL = L/2f (d) XL = 1/2fL
21. Capacitive reactance is given by the expression __________
(a) XC = 2fC (b) XC = 2f/C (c) XC = 1/2fC (d) XC = C/2f
22. For a pure resistance, impedance in rectangular form is __________
(a) R + jXL (b) R – jXL (c) R + j0 (d) R + jXC
23. For a pure capacitance, impedance in rectangular form is __________
(a) 0 + jXC (b) 0 – jXC (c) R – jXC (d) R + jXC
24. For a pure inductance, impedance in rectangular form is __________
(a) XL – j0 (b) 0 + jXL (c) XL + j0 (d) 0 – jXL
25. For a pure capacitance, impedance in polar form is __________
(a) XC  0 (b) XC  –90 (c) XC  +90 (d) none of these
26. For a pure inductance, impedance in polar form is __________
(a) XL  0 (b) XL  –90 (c) XL  +90 (d) none of these
27. Heat produced by an electrical equipment like an iron is proportional to __________
(a) r.m.s. current (b) average current
(c) square of r.m.s. current (d) square of average current
28. An alternating voltage is given by v = 7.07 sin (50t + 45) then its rms value and phase
are __________
(a) 7.07, 90 (b) 7.07, 45 (c) 5 A, 45 (d) 5 A, 0
29. The expression for voltage and current of a circuit are given by
v = 173.2 sin (50t) and i = 10 sin (50t + 60) The series circuit contains __________
(a) resistance and capacitance (b) resistance and inductance

(c) resistance only (d) inductance only
30. The expression of the voltage and the current of a circuit are given by __________
e = 145 sin (60t) and i = 15 sin (60t – 30)
(c) only inductance (d) only capacitance
31. The impedance Z = 10 + j5  has __________ and __________ in series.
(c) resistance only (d) inductance only
32. If the phase of the current flowing through a pure inductor of 4 F is – 40, then the
phase of the voltage across it is __________
(a) – 50 (b) + 50 (c) +40 (d) 120
33. If the voltage of 50 Hz and rms value of 200 V are applied across 31 F capacitor, then
the current drawn is __________
(a) 2.5 A (b) 1.9468 A (c) 3.33 A (d) 5 A
34. The capacitive reactance XC __________ with __________ in frequency.
(a) increases, increase (b) decreases, decrease
(c) increases, decrease (d) remains constant
35. The impedance of a purely capacitive circuit is __________
(a) Z = R + jXC (b) Z = R – jXC (c) Z = jXC (d) Z = –jXC
36. The instantaneous power in ac circuit is given by P = __________
(a) V  I (b) VI cos  (c) v  i (d) v  i cos 
37. The __________ can never store energy.
(a) resistor (b) inductor (c) capacitor (d) energy source
38. A 200  resistance is carrying a sinusoidal current given by 5 sin t. Then the rms voltage
given across the resistor is __________
(a) 750 V (b) 707.106 V (c) 200.52 V (d) 1000 V
39. For a purely capacitive circuit, the __________ leads __________ by 90.
(a) current, voltage (b) voltage, current (c) power, current (d) power, voltage
40. An alternating current is given by i = 14.14 sin 377t. Its time period is __________
(a) 20 msec (b) 16.67 msec (c) 5.3 msec (d) 2.65 msec
41. An alternating voltage is given by v = 14.14 sin 377t. Its average value is __________
(a) 14.14 V (b) 377 V (c) 9 V (d) 10 V
42. A phasor rotates in the direction __________
(a) clockwise (b) anticlockwise (c) none of these
43. We can represent two or more ac quantities on the same phasor diagram only if they
have identical __________
(a) amplitude (b) frequencies (c) phase angles (d) none of these
44. A sinusoidal current has peak factor 1.4 and form factor 1.1. Its average value is 10 A.
Then its rms value is __________ and peak value is __________
(a) 5 A, 10 A (b) 15.69 A, 11 A (c) 11 A, 15.69 A (d) 10 A, 5A
45. A phasor is represented in its rectangular form as v = 4 + j3.
Its equivalent polar form is __________

(a) 10  86.36 (b) 5  36.86 (c) 7  40 (d) 14  35
46. A phasor is represented in its polar form as Z = 14.142  – 45.
Its equivalent rectangular form is __________
(a) 10 – j10 (b) 5 – j5 (c) 25 + j5 (d) 2 + j6
47. Time period 'T' is the time corresponding to __________
(a) two cycles (b) one cycle (c) half cycle
48. 1 cycle = __________
(a) 180 (b) 90 (c) 2 radians (d)  radians
49. The __________ value of a waveform is also called as its effective value.
(a) average (b) peak (c) RMS (d) maximum value
50. The ac voltmeter or ammeter indicates the __________ value.
(a) average (b) RMS (c) peak (d) none of these
ANSWERS
1. (a) 13. (b) 25. (b) 37. (a) 49. (c)
2. (c) 14. (c) 26. (c) 38. (b) 50. (b)
3. (c) 15. (b) 27. (c) 39. (a)
4. (b) 16. (b) 28. (c) 40. (b)
5. (b) 17. (c) 29. (a) 41. (c)
6. (c) 18. (b) 30. (b) 42. (b)
7. (a) 19. (c) 31. (b) 43. (b)
8. (d) 20. (a) 32. (b) 44. (c)
9. (b) 21. (a) 33. (b) 45. (b)
10. (a) 22. (c) 34. (c) 46. (a)
11. (d) 23. (b) 35. (d) 47. (b)
12. (c) 24. (b) 36. (d) 48. (c)
❖❖❖
Magnetism and Electromagnetism
1. When the speed at which a conductor is moved through a magnetic field is increased, the induced
voltage
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. remains constant
D.reaches zero
Answer: Option A
2. The induced voltage across a coil with 250 turns that is located in a magnetic field that is changing at a
rate of 8 Wb/s is
A. 1,000 V
B. 2,000 V
C. 31.25 V
D.3,125 V
Answer: Option B
3. For a given wirewound core, an increase in current through the coil

A. reverses the flux lines
B. decreases the flux density
C. increases the flux density
D.causes no change in flux density
Answer: Option C
4. If the cross-sectional area of a magnetic field increases, but the flux remains the same, the flux
density
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. remains the same
D.Doubles
Answer: Option B
5. When the current through the coil of an electromagnet reverses, the

A. direction of the magnetic field reverses
B. direction of the magnetic field remains unchanged
C. magnetic field expands
D.magnetic field collapses
Answer: Option A
6. What is the reluctance of a material that has a length of 0.07 m, a cross-sectional area of 0.014 m2,
and a permeability of 4,500 Wb/At × m?
A. 1111 At/Wb
B. 111 At/Wb
C. 11 At/Wb
D.1 At/Wb
Prof. V.R. Bhoi Page 1

Answer: Option A
7. A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field. If the number of turns in the coil is decreased,
the voltage induced across the coil will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. remain constant
D.be excessive
Answer: Option B
8. What is the flux density when the flux is 5.5 Wb and the cross-sectional area is 6 × 10–3 m2?
A. 91.7 T
B. 917 T
C. 91 T
D.9.7 T
Answer: Option B
10. The unit for reluctance is
A.Tesla B. At/Wb
C.At/m D.Wb
Answer: Option B
11. If the steel disk in a crankshaft position sensor has stopped with the tab in the magnet's air gap, the
induced voltage
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. is zero
D.will remain constant
Answer: Option C
12. There is 900 mA of current through a wire with 40 turns. What is the reluctance of the circuit if the
flux is 400 Wb?
A. 14,400 At/Wb
B. 1,440 At/Wb
C. 9,000 At/Wb
D.90,000 At/Wb
Answer: Option D
13. A basic one-loop dc generator is rotated at 90 rev/s. How many times each second does the dc
output voltage peak (reach maximum)?
A.90 B. 180
C.270 D.360
Answer: Option B
14. What is the flux density in a magnetic field in which the flux in 0.1 m2 is 600 Wb?
A. 6,000 T
B. 600 T
C. 600 T
D.6 T

Answer: Option A
15. The unit for permeability is
A. Wb/At × m
B. At/m
C. At/Wb
D.Wb
Answer: Option A
16. What is the magnetomotive force in a 75-turn coil of wire when there are 4 A of current through it?
A. 18.75 At
B. 30 At
C. 300 At
D.187 At
Answer: Option C
17. The direction of a magnetic field within a magnet is

A. from south to north
B. from north to south
C. back to front
D.front to back
Answer: Option A
18. When the north poles of two bar magnets are brought close together, there will be
A. no force
B. a downward force
C. a force of attraction
D.a force of repulsion
Answer: Option D
19. The ability of a material to remain magnetized after removal of the magnetizing force is known as
A.Permeability B. reluctance
C.Hysteresis D.retentivity
Answer: Option D
20. The voltage induced across a certain coil is 200 mV. A 120 resistor is connected to the coil
terminals. The induced current is
A. 1.7 mA
B. 16 mA
C. 12 mA
D.120 mA
Answer: Option A
21. The induced voltage across a stationary conductor in a stationary magnetic field is
A. Zero
B. reversed in polarity
C. Increased
D.Decreased
Answer: Option A

22. An electromagnetic field exists only when there is
A. an increasing current
B. decreasing current
C. Voltage
D.Current
Answer: Option D
23. When a solenoid is activated, the force that moves the plunger is
A. an electromagnetic field
B. a permanent magnetic field
C. varying voltage
D.a steady current
Answer: Option A
24. What is the magnetomotive force (mmf) of a wire with 8 turns carrying three amperes of current?
A. 2,400 At
B. 240 At
C. 24 At
D.2.4 At
Answer: Option C
25. If a loop in a basic dc generator suddenly begins rotating at a faster speed, the induced voltage
A. remains unchanged
B. reverses polarity
C. Increases
D.Decreases
Answer: Option C
Voltage, Current and Resistance

1. Materials with lots of free electrons are called
A.Conductors B. insulators
C.Semiconductors D.filters
Answer: Option A
2. The unit of electrical charge is the

A.Coulomb B. joule
C.Volt D.watt
Answer: Option A
3. Current flows in a circuit when

A. a switch is opened
B. a switch is closed
C. the switch is either open or closed

D.there is no voltage
Answer: Option B
4. The minimum resistance value for a blue, gray, red, silver resistor is
A. 612
B. 6,120
C. 6,800
D.6,460
Answer: Option B
5. The maximum resistance value for a brown, red, yellow, gold resistor is
A. 126,000
B. 126,600
C. 114,000
D.132,000
Answer: Option A
6. Which of the following is not a type of energy source?
A. generator
B. rheostat
C. solar cell
D.battery
Answer: Option B
7. When placed close together, two positively charged materials will

A. attract
B. become neutral
C. become negative
D.repel
Answer: Option D
8. The conductance of an 8 ohm resistance is

A. 12.5 mS
B. 8 mS
C. 12 S
D.125 mS
Answer: Option D
9. Electrons in the outer orbit are called

A.nuclei B. valences
C.waves D.shells
Answer: Option B
10. A thermistor is a type of

A. switch
B. resistor
C. battery
D.power supply

Answer: Option B
11. A two-terminal variable resistor is known as a
A.potentiometer B. thermistor
C.rheostat D.wiper
Answer: Option C
12. Eight-tenths coulomb passes a point in 4 s. The current in amperes is

A. 1.6 A
B. 16 A
C. 2 A
D.0.2 A
Answer: Option D
13. When the current is 2.5 A, how many coulombs pass a point in 0.2 s?
A. 12.5 C
B. 1.25 C
C. 0.5 C
D.5 C
Answer: Option C
14. The colored bands for a 4,700 ohm resistor with a ten percent tolerance are
A. yellow, violet, red, gold
B. yellow, violet, orange, gold
C. yellow, violet, red, silver
D.orange, violet, red, silver
Answer: Option C
15. A material that does not allow current under normal conditions is a(n)
A.insulator B. conductor
C.semiconductor D.valence
Answer: Option A
16. The unit of electrical charge is the
A.volt B. ampere
C.joule D.coulomb
Answer: Option D
17. A multimeter measures

A. current
B. voltage
C. resistance
D.current, voltage, and resistance
Answer: Option D
18. If there is 6 A of current through the filament of a lamp, how many coulombs of charge move
through the filament in 1.75 s?
A. 10.5 C
B. 105 C

C. 3.4 C
D.34 C
Answer: Option A
19. A wiper is the sliding contact in a

A. switch
B. photoconductive cell
C. thermistor
D.potentiometer
Answer: Option D
20. A neutral atom with an atomic number of five has how many electrons?
A. 1
B. 5
C. none
D.depends on the type of atom
Answer: Option B
21. A circuit breaker is a
A. fuse
B. switch
C. resettable protective device
D.resistor
Answer: Option C
22. An ammeter is an electrical instrument used to measure

A. current
B. voltage
C. resistance
D.none of the above
Answer: Option A
23. A red, red, orange, gold resistor has a nominal value of

A. 22,000
B. 2,200
C. 22
D.2.2
Answer: Option A
24. An ohmmeter is an instrument for measuring

A.current B. voltage
C.resistance D.wattage
Answer: Option C
25. The current in a given circuit is not to exceed 24 A. Which value of fuse is best?
A. a fuse is not necessary
B. 10 A
C. 24 A

D.20 A
Answer: Option C
Energy and Power
1. A 33 half-watt resistor and a 330 half-watt resistor are connected across a 12 V source. Which
one(s) will overheat?
A. 33
B. 330
C. both resistors
D.neither resistor
Answer: Option D
2. When the pointer of an analog ohmmeter reads close to zero, the resistor being measured is
A.overheated B. shorted
C.open D.reversed
Answer: Option B
3. In 0.025 W, there are

A. 25 kW
B. 0.00025 mW
C. 2,500 µW
D.25 mW
Answer: Option D
4. A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is allowed to run continuously for 24 days, how many kilowatt-
hours of energy does it consume?
A. 20.16 kWh
B. 201.6 kWh
C. 2.01 kWh
D.8.4 kWh
Answer: Option B
5. A power supply produces a 0.6 W output with an input of 0.7 W. Its percentage of efficiency is
A.8.57% B. 42.85%
C.4.28% D.85.7%
Answer: Option D
6. A given power supply is capable of providing 6 A for 3.5 h. Its ampere-hour rating is
A. 0.58 Ah
B. 2.1 Ah
C. 21 Ah
D.58 Ah
Answer: Option C
7. A 15 V source is connected across a 12 resistor. How much energy is used in three minutes?
A. 938 Wh
B. 0.938 Wh

C. 56.25 Wh
D.5.6 Wh
Answer: Option B
8. At the end of a 14 day period, your utility bill shows that you have used 18 kWh. What is your
average daily power?
A. 1.286 kWh
B. 12.85 kWh
C. 535 kWh
D.252 kWh
Answer: Option A
9. A 120 resistor must carry a maximum current of 25 mA. Its rating should be at least
A. 4.8 W
B. 150 mW
C. 15 mW
D.480 mW
Answer: Option B
10. If you used 400 W of power for 30 h, you have used

A. 1.3 kWh
B. 13.3 kWh
C. 1.2 kWh
D.12 kWh
Answer: Option D
11. A 6 V battery is connected to a 300 load. Under these conditions, it is rated at 40 Ah. How long
can it supply current to the load?
A. 1 h
B. 200 h
C. 2,000 h
D.10 h
Answer: Option C
12. In 40 kW, there are

A. 0.4 mW
B. 40,000 W
C. 400 W
D.5,000 W
Answer: Option B
13. If you used 600 W of power for 60 h, you have used

A. 36 kWh
B. 3.6 kWh
C. 10 kWh
D.1 kWh
Answer: Option A
14. If it takes 400 ms to use 12,000 J of energy, the power is

A. 30 kW
B. 30 W
C. 3 W
D.300 kW
Answer: Option A
15. How many watt-hours represent 65 W used for 18 h?

A. 11.7 Wh
B. 1,170 Wh
C. 11,700 Wh
D.117,000 Wh
Answer: Option B
16. For 12 V and 40 mA, the power is
A. 480 mW
B. 0.480 W
C. 480,000 µW
D.all of the above
Answer: Option D
17. A 220 resistor dissipates 3 W. The voltage is

A. 73.3 V
B. 2.5 V
C. 25.7 V
D.257 V
Answer: Option C
18. A 3.3 k resistor dissipates 0.25 W. The current is

A. 8.7 mA
B. 87 mA
C. 8.7 µA
D.8.7 A
Answer: Option A
19. A half-watt is equal to how many milliwatts?

A. 5,000 mW
B. 5 mW
C. 500 mW
D.50 mW
Answer: Option C
20. Three hundred joules of energy are consumed in 15 s. The power is

A. 2,000 W
B. 2 W
C. 20 W
D.200 W
Answer: Option C
21. The power rating of a carbon-composition resistor that is to handle up to 1.2 W should be

A. 2 W
B. 1 W
C. 5 W
D.0.5 W
Answer: Option A
22. How much continuous current can be drawn from a 60 Ah battery for 14 h?
A. 42.8 A
B. 428 A
C. 4.28 A
D.4.2 A
Answer: Option C
23. A 75 load uses 2 W of power. The output voltage of the power supply is approximately
A. 120 V
B. 1.2 V
C. 12 V
D.6 V
Answer: Option C
24. When the current through a 12 k resistor is 8 mA, the power is
A. 7.68 mW
B. 768 mW
C. 7.68 W
D.76.8 W
Answer: Option B
25. A 68 resistor is connected across the terminals of a 3 V battery. The power dissipation of the
resistor is
A. 132 mW
B. 13.2 mW
C. 22.6 mW
D.226 mW
Answer: Option A

Capacitors
1. A 10 F, 20 F, 22 F, and 100 F capacitor are in parallel. The total capacitance is

A. 2.43 F
B. 4.86 F
C. 100 F
D.152 F
Answer: Option D
2. A capacitor and a resistor are connected in series to a sine wave generator. The frequency is set so
that the capacitive reactance is equal to the resistance and, thus, an equal amount of voltage
appears across each component. If the frequency is increased
A. VR > VC
B. VC > VR
C. VR = VC
D.VR and VC = 0
Answer: Option A
3. A capacitor of 0.02 F is larger than
A. 0.000020 F
B. 200,000 pF
C. 2,000 pF
D.all of the above
Answer: Option C
4. In Question 6, the capacitor will reach full charge in a time equal to approximately
A. 6 RC
B. 5 RC
C. RC
D.none of the above
Answer: Option B
5. What is the capacitance when Q = 60 C and V = 12 V?
A. 720 F
B. 5 F
C. 50 F
D.12 F
Answer: Option B
6. A 0.47 F capacitor is across a 2 kHz sine wave signal source. The capacitive reactance is
A. 170
B. 17
C. 0.000169
D.1.7
Answer: Option A
7. Four 0.15 F capacitors are in parallel. The total capacitance is

A. 0.15 F
B. 0.30 F
C. 0.6 F
D.0.8 F
Answer: Option C
8. Which of the following capacitors is polarized?

A.mica B. ceramic
C.plastic-film D.electrolytic
Answer: Option D
9. A capacitor of 2,000 pF is greater than

A. 0.02 F
B. 0.002 F
C. 0.0002 F
D.0.0000002 F
Answer: Option C
10. A 220 resistor is in series with a 2.2 F capacitor. The time constant is
A. 48 s
B. 480 s
C. 2.42 s
D.24 s
Answer: Option B

11. A 4.7 M resistor is in series with a 0.015 F capacitor. The combination is across a 12 V source.
How long does it take the capacitor to fully charge?
A. 35 ms
B. 352 ms
C. 3.5 s
D.70.5 ms
Answer: Option B
12. A sine wave voltage is applied across a capacitor. When the frequency of the voltage is decreased,
the current
A. increases
B. remains constant
C. decreases
D.ceases
Answer: Option C
13. Of the following capacitors, which one has the highest dielectric constant?
A.air B. mica
C.glass D.paper
Answer: Option C
14. A 0.01 F capacitor equals how many picofarads?

A. 100 pF
B. 1,000 pF
C. 10,000 pF
D.100,000 pF
Answer: Option C
15. A 12 kHz voltage is applied to a 0.33 F capacitor, and 200 mA of rms current is measured. What is
the value of the voltage?
A. 8 V
B. 80 V
C. 80 mV
D.800 mV
Answer: Option A
16. A 0.00022 F capacitor equals how many microfarads?
A. 22 F
B. 220 F
C. 2,200 F
D.22,200 F
Answer: Option B
17. Two series capacitors (one 2 F, the other of unknown value) are charged from a 24 V source. The 2
F capacitor is charged to 16 V and the other to 8 V. The value of the unknown capacitor is
A. 1 F
B. 2 F
C. 4 F

D.8 F
Answer: Option C
18. A 330 pF capacitor and a 220 pF capacitor are each connected across a 6 V dc source. The voltage
across the 330 pF capacitor is
A. 3 V
B. 6 V
C. 4 V
D.0 V
Answer: Option B
19. A 2 F, a 4 F, and a 10 F capacitor are connected in series. The total capacitance is less than
A. 2 F
B. 4 F
C. 10 F
D.1.5 F
Answer: Option D
20. When the plate area of a capacitor increases,
A. the capacitance increases
B. the capacitance decreases
C. the capacitance is unaffected
D.the voltage it can withstand increases.
Answer: Option A
21. Two 0.68 F capacitors are connected in series across a 10 kHz sine wave signal source. The total
capacitive reactance is
A. 46.8
B. 4.68
C. 23.41
D.11.70
Answer: Option A
22. An uncharged capacitor and a 1 k resistor are connected in series with a switch and a 6 V battery.
At the instant the switch is closed, the voltage across the capacitor is
A. 6 V
B. 3 V
C. 2 V
D.0 V
Answer: Option D
23. When the voltage across a capacitor is tripled, the stored charge
A. triples
B. is cut to one-third
C. stays the same
D.doubles
Answer: Option A
Ohm's Law
1. An electric heater draws 3.5 A from a 110 V source. The resistance of the heating element is
approximately
A. 385
B. 38.5
C. 3.1
D.31
Answer: Option D
2. If 750 µA is flowing through 11 k of resistance, what is the voltage drop across the resistor?
A. 8.25 V
B. 82.5 V
C. 14.6 V
D.146 V
Answer: Option A
3. The formula to find I when the values of V and R are known is

A. I = VR
B. I = R/V
C. V = IR
D.I = V/R
Answer: Option D
4. A resistor is connected across a 50 V source. What is the current in the resistor if the color code is
red, orange, orange, silver?
A. 2 mA
B. 2.2 mA
C. 214 mA
D.21.4 mA
Answer: Option B
5. Approximately how many milliamperes of current flow through a circuit with a 40 V source and 6.8 k
of resistance?
A. 27.2 mA
B. 59 mA
C. 5.9 mA
D.590 mA
Answer: Option C
6. How much resistance is required to limit the current from a 12 V battery to 3.6 mA?
A. 3.3 k
B. 33 k
C. 2.2 k
D.22 k
Answer: Option A
7. What is the voltage source for a circuit carrying 2 A of current through a 36 resistor?
A. 1.8 V
B. 18 V
C. 7.2 V
D.72 V
Answer: Option D
8. What is the approximate resistance setting of a rheostat in which 650 mA of current flows with a 150
V source?
A. 9.7
B. 97
C. 23
D.230
Answer: Option D
9. How much voltage is needed to produce 2.5 A of current through a 200 resistor?
A. 50 V
B. 500 V
C. 80 V
D.8 V
Answer: Option B
10. When there is 12 mA of current through a 1.2 k resistor, the voltage across the resistor is
A. 14.4 V
B. 1.4 V
C. 100 V
D.10 V
Answer: Option A
11. A resistance of 3.3 M is connected across a 500 V source. The resulting current is approximately
A. 15.1 µA
B. 151 µA
C. 66 mA
D.660 mA
Answer: Option B
12. You are measuring the current in a circuit that is operated on an 18 V battery. The ammeter reads 40
mA. Later you notice the current has dropped to 20 mA. How much has the voltage changed?
A. 9 V
B. 900 mV
C. 0 V
D.18 V
Answer: Option A
13. The current through a flashlight bulb is 40 mA and the total battery voltage is 4.5 V. The resistance of
the bulb is approximately
A. 112
B. 11.2
C. 1.2
D.18
Answer: Option A

14. If you wish to increase the amount of current in a resistor from 120 mA to 160 mA by changing the
24 V source, what should the new voltage setting be?
A. 8 V
B. 320 V
C. 3.2 V
D.32 V
Answer: Option D
15. If 24 V are applied across a resistor and there are 10.9 mA of current, the resistance is
A. 220 k
B. 22 k
C. 2.2 k
D.220
Answer: Option C
16. How much resistance is needed to draw 17.6 mA from a 12 volt source?
A. 212
B. 6.8 k
C. 68
D.680
Answer: Option D
17. How much current is produced by a voltage of 18 kV across a 15 k resistance?

A. 1.2 A
B. 12 A
C. 120 mA
D.12 mA
Answer: Option A
18. A current of 200 µA through a 6.8 k resistor produces a voltage drop of
A. 34.4 V
B. 340 V
C. 13.6 V
D.1.36 V
Answer: Option D
19. Four amperes of current are measured through a 24 resistor connected across a voltage source.
How much voltage does the source produce?
A. 960 V
B. 9.6 V
C. 96 V
D.8 V
Answer: Option C
20. Twelve volts are applied across a resistor. A current of 3 mA is measured. What is the value of the
resistor?
A. 4
B. 400
C. 4 k

D.4.4
Answer: Option C
21. When 12 V are applied across a 68 resistor, the current is
A. 816 mA
B. 17.6 mA
C. 176 mA
D.8.16 mA
Answer: Option C
22. Approximately how much current flows through a 3.3 M resistor across a 30 V source?
A. 9 A
B. 90 A
C. 900 A
D.9000 A
Answer: Option A
23. A 120 V lamp-dimming circuit is controlled by a rheostat and protected from excessive current by a 3
A fuse. To what minimum resistance value can the rheostat be set without blowing the fuse?
Assume a lamp resistance of 20 ohms.
A. 40
B. 4
C. 2
D.20
Answer: Option D
24. What is the approximate filament resistance of a light bulb if it operates from a 110 V source and 0.6
A of current is flowing?
A. 183
B. 18.3
C. 66
D.6.6
Answer: Option A
25. What is the approximate resistance of a rheostat if the voltage source is 18 V and the current is 220
mA?
A. 8.2 k
B. 820
C. 8.2
D.82
Answer: Option D

19. A 320 H coil is in series with a 3.3 k resistor. How long does it take for current to build up to its
full value?
A. 5.28 s
B. 5.28 ms
C. 5.28 s
D.528 s
Answer: Option A
20. Five inductors are connected in series. The lowest value is 8 μH. If the value of each inductor is twice
that of the preceding one, and if the inductors are connected in order of ascending values, the total
inductance is
A. 8 H
B. 32 μH
C. 64 μH
D.248 μH
Answer: Option D
21. The inductance of an iron-core coil decreases if
A. the number of turns is decreased
B. the iron core is removed
C. the length of the coil decreases
D.none of the above
Answer: Option A
22. The following coils are in parallel: 75 H, 40 H, 25 H, and 15 H. The total inductance is
approximately
A. 6.9 H

B. 14 H
C. 2.2 H
D.155 H
Answer: Option A

Basic Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions
UNIT I
MAGNETIC CIRCUIT & ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. The complete path followed by the magnetic 6. Lines of force is also called
flux is called a. flux
a. electric circuit b. current
b. magnetic circuit c. resistance
c. electromagnetism d. flux density
d. electric field ans:a
ans: b
7. Lines of force passing per unit area is called
2. Current carrying conductor is always a. magnetic field
surrounded by b. magnetic flux
a. magnetic field c. magnetic flux density
b. electric field d. magnetic field strength
c. Electricity ans:c
d. current
ans: a 8. unit of flux is
a. weber
3. The direction of magnetic field produced by b. wb/m2
current carrying conductor is given by c. Tesla
a. Lenz’s law d. AT
b. right hand thumb rule ans:a
c. Fleming’s left hand rule
d. Kirchoff’s law 9. Unit of flux density is
ans: b a. wb/m2
b. wb
4. Imaginary lines of force originating from c. AT/wb
magnet is called d. A
a. current ans:a
b. resistance
c. flux 10. Unit of magnetic field
d. magnetic field a. wb/m2
ans: c b. wb
c. AT/wb
5. Region surrounded by magnet is called d. none of above
a. magnetic field strength ans:b
b. magnetic field
c. electric field 11. Unit of reluctance is
d. resistance a. AT/wb
ans: b b. AT
Sinhgad Institute of Technology Lonavala Page 15

c. Tesla d. the ability of material to conduct magnetic

d. Wb/A lines of force
ans:a ans: d
12. Opposition to the magnetic lines of force is 17. An air gap is usually inserted in a magnetic
called circuit
a. Flux a. to prevent saturation
b. resistance b. increase flux
c. susceptance c. decrease flux
d. reluctance d. increase mmf
ans:d ans: a
13. Unit of magnetic field strength is 18. A magnetic circuit requires 800 ampere
a. AT/m turns to produce a certain amount of flux. If
b. AT/wb exciting coil of 100 turns has 5 ohms resistance,
c.Tesla then the voltage to be applied to the exciting
d. ohms coil must be
ans: a a. 40V
b. 20 V
14. The force on two current carrying c.10V
conductors in the same direction d. 5V
a. have force of repulsion between them ans: a
b. have force of attraction between them
c. remains unaffected 19. Permeability of a material is the ratio of
d. none of above a. magnetic field to flux density
ans: b b. flux density to magnetic field strength
c. magnetic field strength to flux density
15. Magneto motive force is directly d. none of above
proportional to ans: b
a. no. of turns of coil
b. current through the coil 20. The term saturation related to magnetic
c. both a and b circuit means
d. none of above a. magnetic field strength increases with
ans: c current
b. flux density increases with current
16. The term permeability for a material means c. flux density remains constant if magnetic
a. the no. of turns on an air core field strength is increased
b. the mmf required to produce one unit of d. magnetic field strength remains constant if
magnetic flux flux density is increased.
c. the ability of a material to conduct electricity ans:c
through it

21. The lines of force produced by coil b. does not vary with increasing the cross
completing their path through air, instead of sectional area
intended path is called c. decreases with increasing cross sectional area
a. useful flux of material
b. saturated flux d. decreases with increasing the length of
c. air flux material
d. leakage flux ans: c
ans: d
27. The correct relation stated as following is
22. The bulging of lines of force in air gap in a a. ф =
/ µ µ
magnetic circuit is called
b. NI = B× l/a µ0µr
a. leaking flux
c. N=H×l
b. merging
d. NI = ф × l/µ0µr a
c. fringing
ans: d
d. scattering
ans: c
28. The permeance in a magnetic circuit
corresponds to
a. resistance in an electric circuit
a. 4π × 10-7 H/m
b. emf in an electric circuit
b. 1 H/m
c. conductivity in electric circuit
c.1
d. conductance in an electric circuit
d. ¼ H/m
ans: d
ans: c
29. The ampere turns are

24.MMF in magnetic circuit is analogous to
a. the product of the number of turns and
a. electric current in electric circuit
current of the coil
b. current density in conductor
b. the number of turns of a coil through which
c. electromotive force
current is flowing
d. resistance in electric circuit
c. the currents of all turns of the coil
ans:c
d. the turns of transformer winding
ans:a
25. Reluctance is analogous to
a. emf in electric circuit
30. What will be the current flowing through
b. resistivity
the ring shaped air core when number of turns
c. conductivity
d. resistance in electric circuit
a. 0.25
ans: d
b.2.5
c.4.0
26. The magnetic reluctance of a material
d. 0.4
a. increases with increasing cross sectional area
ans:c
of material

31. Leakage factor is defined as the ratio of a. copper

a. flux in air gap by total flux b. rubber
b. Total flux by useful flux c. glass
c. airgp flux by useful flux d. none of these
d. total flux by flux produced by solenoid ans: d
ans: b
37. The force between two parallel current
32. Effect of fringing in magnetic circuit is carrying conductors is given by relation
a. it increases flux density a. I1I2 ×2× 10-7× l/d
b. its effective area of air gap decreases b. I1 dl /I2 ×4π× 10-7
c. it decreases flux density c. I1I2 /2π× 10-7
d. none of above d. I12×4× 10-7ld
ans:c ans: a
33.The force experienced by unit north pole 39. The magnitude of force experienced by
when placed at point in a magnetic field is current carrying conductor placed in magnetic
called field depends on
a. magnetic field strength at that point a. value of flux
b. exerted force at that point b. magnitude of current flowing through
c.flux conductor
d. magnetic field c. direction of current
ans:a d. all of above
ans: d
34. The mechanical force acting on current
carrying on conductor when placed in magnetic 40.Two current carrying conductor lying parallel
field is given by relation and close to each other. They are carrying
a. F= N dф/dt current in the opposite direction. The force
b. F= Blv sinӨ between them is
c. F= BIL sinӨ a. repulsive
d. F=L di/dt b. Attractive
ans: c c. Zero
d. none of these
35. Which of the following has the highest ans: a
magnetic permeability?
a. paramagnetic substances 41. Two current carrying conductor lying
b. diamagnetic substances parallel and close to each other. They are
c. ferromagnetic substances carrying current in the same direction. The
d. vacuum force between them is
ans: c a. repulsive
b. Attractive
36. The perfect insulator for magnetic lines of c. Zero
force is d. none of these

ans: b of flux density 1.25T at 300 to the lines of flux.

Force acting on conductor will be
42. Two current carrying conductor lying a.0.3125N
parallel and close to each other are exerting b. 3.125N
force of attraction on each other. The currents c.1.325N
are d. 5.321N
a. very high ans: a
b. in opposite direction
c. low 47.Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find
d. in the same direction a. Magnitude of induced emf in conductor
ans: d b. Direction of magnetic field in conductor
c. Direction of force on current carrying
43. Two current carrying conductor lying conductor
parallel and close to each other are exerting d. Magnitude of flux density
force of repulsion on each other. The currents ans: c
are
a. very high2 48. Which statement is correct related to
b. in opposite direction magnetic field produced due to current carrying
c. low conductor
d. in the same direction a. direction of rotation of screw to advance in
ans: b the direction of current gives the direction of
magnetic field
44. Two conductors are carrying 1000A and b. If right hand curled fingers shows the
5000A currents respectively are 5cm apart. The direction of current, thumb gives the direction
force per meter length between two conductors of magnetic field
is c. if direction of rotation of screw shows current
a. 100 N/m ,tip gives the direction of magnetic field
b. 40 N/m d. all of these
c.30 N/m ans: a
d. 20 N/m
ans: d 49. Force experienced by current carrying
45. Magnetic field strength due to N long conductor when placed in magnetic field will be
straight current carrying conductors in the same zero when
direction is given by a. current in the conductor is maximum
a. H= NI/ 4πd b. Angle between conductor and field is zero
b. H= I/ 2πd c. Both a &b
c. H= NI/ 2πd d. None of these
d. H=NI/l ans: b
ans: c
50. Relative permeability is defined as the ratio
46. A conductor of 10cm length carrying a of
current of 5A placed in uniform magnetic field

a. magnetic field strength in a medium to flux c. magnitude of force experienced

density in the same medium d. direction of force
b. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to magnetic ans: a
field strength in vacuum
c. Magnetic flux density in other medium to flux 55. In left hand rule, thumb always represents
density in vacuum a. current
d. Magnetic flux density in vacuum to flux b. voltage
density in other medium c. magnetic field
ans: c d. direction of force on conductor
ans: d
51. The ability with which the magnetic material
allows the flux to pass through a given medium 56. The force between two long current
is called carrying conductor is inversely proportional to
a. susceptibility a. current in one conductor
b. permeability b. product of current in two conductors
c. conductivity c. distance between the two conductors.
d. reluctivity d. radius of conductors
ans: b ans: c
52. Unit of permeability is 57. While comparing magnetic and electric

a. A/m circuit, the point of dissimilarity exists while
b. H/m considering
c. I/m a.mmf and emf
d. m/H b. Reluctance and resistance
ans: b c. flux and current
d. permeance and conductance
53. Permeability of free space or vacuum is ans: c
defined as the ratio of
a. magnetic flux density in vacuum to magnetic 59. Permeance is to reluctance as conductance
field strength is to
b. Magnetic flux density in other medium to a. inductance
magnetic field strength b. resistance
c. Magnetic field strength to magnetic flux c. capacitance
density in vacuum d. ampere turns
d. Magnetic field strength in medium to flux ans: b
density in other medium
ans: a 60. A straight cylindrical solenoid has a flux of
12mwb and a flux density of 0.9T. The diameter
54. Right hand thumb rule is used to find out of solenoid must be
a. direction of induced emf a.130cm
b. direction of magnetic field due to current b. 13cm
carrying conductor c.10cm

d.5cm 65. the mmf of ring is_____

ans : b a.5000AT
b. 7200AT
61. 1 tesla is given as c.750AT
a. 1wb/m2 d. 7500AT
b. 1wb/cm2 ans:d
c.1mwb/cm2
d. 1wb/mm2 66. The reluctance of ring is______
ans: a a.7×107 AT/Wb
b. 0.7×106 AT/Wb
62. Which part of the magnetic path requires c.6×107 AT/Wb
largest mmf d. 6×105 AT/Wb
a.coil ans: b
b.core
c.airgap 67.The value of flux is _________
d. inductance a.10.7 Wb
ans: c b.70 mWb
c.10.7mWb
63. Soft steel and iron alloy allow easy passage d. 107 mwb
of a magnetic flux because ans: c
a. of its high elasticity
b. of its high permeability 68. The relative permeability of air
c. of its high conductivity is__________
d. of its high reluctance a. 1
ans: b b. less than 1
c. greater than 1
64. Magnitude of the magnetic field produced d. 1000
by a coil is proportional to ans: a
a. Permeability of the core material
b. the no. of turns of coil 69. Relative permeability of all non magnetic
c. the magnitude of current flow through the materials is_____
coil a. 300
d. the product of all above b. 0.7
ans:d c.1
d. 0
Following data should be used for solving 65 to ans: c
67
A coil is wound uniformly with 300 turns over 70. Which of the following is non magnetic
steel ring of relative permeability 900, having material?
mean circumference of 40mm and cross a. iron
sectional area of 50mm2. A current of 25A is b. Mild steel
passed through coil c. brass

d. Silicon steel
ans: c 76. A strength of an electromagnet is
determined by
71. Which of the following is magnetic material? a. reluctance
a. copper b. permeability of the core
b. silicon steel c.mmf
c. aluminium d. all of above
d. brass ans: d
ans: b
77. The strength of the magnetic field around a
72. Flux in the air gap is called conductor is directly proportional to
a. leakage flux a. voltage across the conductor
b. total flux b. current in the conductor
c. useful flux c. type of material of conductor
d. all of above d. none of above
ans: c ans: b
73. A magnetic circuit has a mmf of 400AT and a 78. Reluctance of magnetic material is
reluctance of 2 × 105 AT/wb. The magnetic flux a. less than non magnetic material
in the magnetic circuit is b. more than non magnetic material
a. 3 × 10-5Wb c. equal to that of non magnetic material
b.2 × 10-3Wb d. none of above
c.1.5 × 10-2Wb ans: a
d. 2.5 × 10-4Wb
ans: b 79. The denser the flux
a. stronger is the magnetic field
74. A 2cm long coil has 10 turns and carries a b. weaker is the magnetic flux
current of 750mA. The magnetizing force of the c. no effect on the strength of field
coil is d. none of above
a. 225 AT/m ans: a
b. 675 AT/m
c.450 AT/m 80. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by
d. 375 AT/m a. Flemings right hand rule
ans: d b. Flemings left hand rule
c. faradays law of electromagnetic induction
75. The reluctance of a magnetic circuit varies d. crock screw rule.
with ans:a
a. length × area
b. length / area 81. Magnitude of induced e.m.f. in a generator
c. area/length depend on
d. (length)2 + area a. flux density
ans: b b. magnitude of current

c. rate of cutting flux d. The induced current is the same in all

d. Rate of current discharge. positions
ans:c ans:b
82. According to Lenz’s law direction of induced 86. In which of the following situations a
e.m.f. is. voltage is induced in a conductor?
a. Same as cause produced a. The conductor moves through the air.
b. Perpendicular to cause produced b. The conductor is connected to a battery.
c. opposite to cause produced c. The conductor is connected to a motor.
d. Non above d. The conductor is moved in a magnetic field.
ans:c ans:d
83. According to Faraday’s Laws of 89. In case of dynamically induced emf,

electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f.is induced direction of induced emf is given by
in a conductor whenever it a. Fleming’s right hand rule
a. Lies in magnetic field b. Lenz’s law
b. Cuts magnetic flux c. Faraday’s first law
c. moves parallel to the direction of the d. Faraday’s second law
magnetic field ans:a
d. lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux.
ans:b 90. Emf induced in a coil due to its own current
is called __________Induction.
84. When a magnet moves past an object, it will a. Mutual
produce eddy currents in the object if the b.Self
object is c. Dynamic
a. a solid d. Static
b. an insulator ans:b
c. a conductor
d. made from the magnetic material 91. Emf induced in a coil due to current change
ans:d in neighboring coil is called_________
induction.
85. Electricity can be generated by rotating a a. Mutual
wire loop between the poles of a magnet. In b. Self
which of the following positions would induce c. Dynamic
the greatest current in the loop? d. Static
a. The plane of the loop is parallel to the ans:a
magnetic field.
b. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the 92. Co-efficient of self induction is also called
magnetic field. as__________
c. The plane of the loop makes an angle of 45° a. self- induction
with the magnetic field. b. Inductance
c. Self- inductance

d. Induction c. Henry
ans:a d. Linkages
ans:c
93. The property of a coil due to which it
opposes the change of current flowing through 98. Unit of induced emf is_________
itself is called_____ of the coil. a. Volt
a. Static inductance b. Ampere
b. Dynamic inductance c. Henry
c.Self inductance d. Linkages
d. Mutual inductance ans:a
ans:c
99. The property of one coil due to which it
94. ____________is used to sense the flow of opposes the change in the other coil is
current in a electric circuit. called…………. between two coils.
a. Ammeter a. Dynamic inductance
b. Voltmeter b. Static inductance
c. Wattmeter c. Self inductance
d. Galvanometer d. Mutual inductance
ans:a ans:d
95. The phenomenon of the self induction is felt 100. The unit of mutual inductance
only when the current in the coil is is_________
a. Changing a. Volt
b. Increasing b. Ampere/ Volt
c. Decreasing c. Henry
d. All the above d. Linkages
ans:a ans:c
96. The negative sign in the induced emf of self 101. In the expression 𝑒 = , M represents
induction indicates that energy is being
a. Mutual induction
absorbed from the electric circuit and stored as
b. Mutual inductance
_______ energy in the coil.
c. Number of lines of force
a. mechanical
d. None of these
b. Electronic
ans:b
c. electric
d. Magnetic
102. If 0.75 V is induced emf and resistance
ans:d
offered by the coil is 200 ohm then induced
current is
97. Unit of co-efficient of self induction of the
a. 3.75 A
circuit is______
b. 3. 75 mA
a. Volt
c. 3.75μA
b. Ampere

d. 37.5 mA a. MMF
ans:b b. EMF
c. Flux linkage
103. If magnetic flux changes from 0.8 Wb to d. Magnetic intensity
0.3 Wb, then change in flux is______ Wb. ans:a
a. 1.1
b. 0.5 109. Expression NI/L is called
c. -0.5 a. MMF
d. -1.1 b. EMF
ans:c c. Flux linkage
d. Magnetic field strength
104. If Number of turns of coil is 200 and if the ans:d
current is 100mA, then MMF is ________
a. 2000 AT 110. Expression for mutual inductance is
b. 200 AT a. –L dI/dt
c. 20 AT b. MdI / dt
d. 0.5 AT c. N2 Ф2/ I1
ans:c d. NФ/I
ans:c
105. Leakage factor is also called as
a. Fringing 111. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
b. Coefficient of inductance is e=
c. Magnetic coefficient a. –NdФ/dt
d. Hopkinson’s coefficient b. MdI / dt
ans:d c. N2 Ф2 / I1
d. NФ/I
106. Movement of electrons are called as ans:a
a. MMF
b. Current 112. The constant K in case of mutual induction
c. Voltage is equal to
d. Flux a.Ф1/Ф2
ans:b b.Ф2/Ф1
c.Ф1/I1
107. Flux density is equal to ________ of flux d.Ф2/I1
and area of cross – section. ans:d
a. Sum
b. Difference 113. Product of the permeability μoμr is equal to
c. Product a. Magnetic flux
d. Fraction b. Magnetic field
ans:d c. Magnetic intensity
d. Magnetic flux density / magnetic field
108. NI expression is called strength

ans:d 119. Two current carrying conductors lying

parallel to each other are exerting a force of
114. Expression for self induced emf is attraction on each other. The currents are
a. –L dI/dt a. Very high
b. MdI1 / dt b. in opposite direction
c. N2 Ф2/ I1 c. low
d. NФ/I d. in the same direction
ans:d ans:d
115. __________is normally termed as flux 120. Two conductors are lying parallel and close
linkages. to each other. They are carrying currents in
a. Ф opposite directions. The force between them is.
b. dФ/dt a. Repulsive
c. NФ b. attractive
d.Ф/I c. zero
ans:c d. none of these
ans:a
116. The term NФ/I is generally called as______
a. Self inductance 121. When a coil consisting of single turn
b. Mutual inductance rotates at uniform speed in magnetic field, the
c. Flux linkage induced emf is____
d. Induced emf a. steady
ans:a b. alternating
c. changing
117. In the expression for reluctance S = l/μA of d. reversing
a conduced, letter A represents_________ of ans:b
the conductor.
a. Total area 122. The emf induced in a conductor of length 1
b. Surface area meter moving at a right angles to a uniform
c. Cross- sectional area magnetic field of flux density 1.5 wb/m2 with
d. None of these. velocity of 50 m/s is.
ans:c a. 0
b.1.5 v
118. When a current carrying conductor is c. 75 v
brought in to magnetic field, the force that d. 100 v
moves the conductor depends on ans:c
a. direction of current.
b. length of conductor 123. Which of following statements is incorrect.
c. value of current a. Whenever flux linking with the coil or circuit
d.all of the above changes, an emf is induced.
ans:d b. The direction of dynamically induced emf can
be determined by Fleming’s right-hand rule.

c. the coefficient of self-inductance is ans: d

proportional to the square of number of turns
on it.
d. Coefficient of coupling for tightly coupled coil
is zero.

Electrostatics
Q. 1 Another name for relative permittivity is
A Dielectric constant B Dielectric strength
C Potential gradient D None of the above
Q. 2 The relative permittivity of most materials lies between

A 20 and 100 B 10 and 20
C 100 and 200 D 1 and 10
Q. 3 A soap bubble is given a negative charge. Its radius

A Decreases B Increases
C Remains same D Information is incomplete to say anything
Q. 4 An electric field can deflect

A x-rays B neutrons
C α-particles D ϒ-rays
Q. 5 Electric lines of force enter or leave a charged surface at an angle

A Of 90° B Of 30°
C Of 60° D Depending on surface condition
Q. 6 The relation between absolute permittivity of vacuum (ε˳),absolute permittivity of vacuum(µ˳) and
velocity of light (c) in vacuum is
A µ˳ε˳=c^2 B µ˳/ε˳=c
C ε˳/µ˳=c D 1/µ˳ε˳=c^2
Q. 7 Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are

A Circular, anticlockwise B Circular, clockwise
C Radial, inward D Radial, outward
Q. 8 Electric potential is
A Scalar quantity B A vector quantity
C dimensionless D Nothing can be said
Q. 9 The electric field intensity on the surface of a charged conductor is

A Zero B Directed normally to the surface
C Directed tangentially to the surface D Directed along 45° to the surface
Prof. V. R. Bhoi Page 1

Q. The force between two charges separated by a distance d in a air is 10 N. when the charges are
10 placed same distance apart in a medium of dielectric constant εᵣ, the force between them is 2N.
what is the value of εᵣ,
A 0.5 B 20
C 5 D None of these
Q. Out of the materials given below, which has the highest dielectric strength
11
A Glass B air
C Mica D Oiled paper
Q. If a charge is moved against the coulomb force of an electric field, then

12
A The strength of electric field is decreased B The energy of the system is decreased
C Work done Is by electric field D Energy is used by some outside source
Q. A uniform wire of length 5m is carrying a steady current. The electric field inside it is 0.2 N/C. the
13 potential difference across the ends of the wire is
A 1V B 0.5 V
C 10 V D 0.1 V
Q. The relative permittivity of an insulator cannot be

14
A 20 B 33
C 6 D Infinity
Q. The dielectric used in high voltage transformer is

15
A Mica B paraffin
C Porcelain D Oiled paper
Q. An electric dipole is placed in a non-uniform electric field. It experiences

16
A A force but no torque B A force and a torque
C A torque but no force D Neither force nor torque
Q. A spherical drop of radius 10⁻⁶ m has absorbed 40 electrons. The energy required to give an
17 additional electron to it is
A 5.76*10^24 J B 9.21*10^-21 J
C 3.4*10^-18 J D 2.4*10^-20 J

Q. The relative permittivity of a dielectric can be
18
A 0 B 1/3
C -2 D 4
Q. Which of the following has the highest permeability?

19
A paramagnetic B diamagnetic
C Ferromagnetic D vacuum
Q. The distance between two magnetic pole s is doubled and their pole strength are also doubled.
20 The force between them
A Increased four times B Decreased four times
C Remains unchanged D None of the above
Q. When a charged particle moves through a magnetic field, it suffers a change in

21
A Direction B speed
C Energy D No change
Q. A current is passed through a straight wire. The magnetic field established around it has magnetic
22 lines of force
A Circular and endless B straight
C Oval in shape and endless D None of the above
Q. An electron travelling horizontally towards east. A magnetic field in vertically downwards direction
23 exerts a force on electron along
A North B south
C East D West
Q. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron. Then the electron

24
A Remains stationary B Starts spinning
C Moves in the direction of field D Moves in an opposite direction
Q. If an electron enters a uniform magnetic field obliquely, the path of the electron will become
25
A An ellipse B A circle
C A spiral D None of above
Q. Two long straight parallel conductors, 10 cm apart, carry currents 5A each in opposite directions.
26 Then the magnetic flux density at a point them is

A 0 B 10⁻⁵ T
C 4*10⁻⁵T D None of above
Q. When an electric current is passed through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is there. The
27 electric current is
A a.c. B d.c.
C Pulsating D None of above
AC Fundamentals
Q. The most important advantage of using electric energy in the form of ac is
28
A The construction cost per kW of ac B Conductor of smaller x-section is required in
generator is lower than that of dc generator case of an ac in comparison to dc for
carrying the same current
C Less insulation is required in case of ac D Transformation of voltage is possible in case
of ac only
Q. An alternating current of frequency 50 Hz and maximum value 200 A is given as

29
A I=200 sin 628 t B I= 200 sin 314 t
C I= 100 √2 sin 314 D I= 100 √2 sin 157 t
Q. The frequency of an alternating quantity is the number of

30
A Direction reversals in per second B Cycles completed per second
C Cycles completed per minute D All of these
Q. The time period of periodic time T of an alternating quantity is the time taken in seconds to
31 complete
A One cycle B One alternation
C Any of these D None of these
Q. The period of an alternating quantity is 0.02 second, its frequency will be

32
A 25 Hz B 50 Hz
C 100 Hz D 0.02 Hz
Q. The angular frequency of an alternating quantity is a mathematical quantity obtained by

33 multiplying the frequency of the alternating quantity by a factor of the alternating quantity by a
factor
A п/2 B п
C 2п D 4п

Q. The frequency of emf generated by a generator depends upon its
34
A Speed B Number of poles
C Both A and B D None of the above
Q. Rms value of a half wave rectified current is 50 A. its rms value for full wave rectification would be
35
A 100 A B 70.7 A
C 50/п A D 100/п A
Q. An electric iron is rated as 230 V, 500 W, ac. The value of 230 V refers to
36
A Rms value B Average value
C Peak value D Peak-to-peak value
Q. Size of a conductor, with regard to the heating effect, is determined on the basis of ……….value of
37 current to be carried by it
A Average B peak
C Rms D Peak-to-peak
Q. Form factor is the ratio of

38
A Average value to rms value B Rms value to average value
C Peak value to average value D Peak value to rms value
Q. Peak factor is the ratio of

39
Q. Form factor for dc supply voltage is always

40
A Zero B unity
C Infinity D Any value between 0 and 1
Q. The two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when
41
A The phase difference between two B Each of them passes through zero value at
quantities is zero degree or radian the same instant and rises in the same
direction
C Both A and B D None of these

Q. If e1= A sin (ω t + Ѳ1) and e2= B sin *(ω t + Ѳ2) then
42
A e2 leading e1 by an angle (Ѳ1 – Ѳ2) B e1 is lagging e2 by an angle (Ѳ1 – Ѳ2)
C e2 is leading e1 by an angle (Ѳ2 – Ѳ1) D e2 is lagging e1 by an angle (Ѳ2 –Ѳ1)
Q. A phasor is a line which represents the

43
A Rms value and phase of an alternating B Average value and phase of an alternating
quantity quantity
C Magnitude and direction of an alternating D None of these
quantity
Q. The phasor diagram for alternating quantities can be drawn if they have
44
A Rectangular waves B Sinusoidal waves
C Triangular waves D All of these
Q. Two alternating quantities are added

45
A arithmetically B graphically
C Vectorially D geometrically
Q. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes and phase differences are
46 added, the resultant is a sinusoid of
A The same frequency B Double the original frequency
C Half of the original frequency D None of these
Q. All the rules and laws which apply to dc networks also apply to ac networks consisting
47
A Resistance only B Inductance only
C Capacitance only D All of these
Q. In ac circuits the power curve is a sine wave having

48
A Same frequency as that of voltage B Double the frequency of the voltage
C Half the frequency of the voltage D None of the above
Q. In purely resistive circuits

49

A Pf is unity B Power consumed is zero
C Heat produced is zero D Pf (power factor)is zero
Q. Pure inductive circuit has zero?

50
A Power factor B Power consumed
C Heat produced D Current drawn
Q. If the supply frequency of a purely inductive circuit is doubled, the circuit current will be
51
A Halved B doubled
C Same D One-forth
1 A 11 A 21 A 31 A 41 C
2 D 12 D 22 C 32 B 42 C
3 B 13 A 23 B 33 C 43 B
4 C 14 D 24 A 34 C 44 B
5 A 15 C 25 C 35 B 45 C
6 D 16 B 26 C 36 A 46 A
7 C 17 B 27 B 37 C 47 A
8 A 18 D 28 D 38 B 48 B
9 B 19 C 29 B 39 C 49 A
10 C 20 C 30 B 40 B 50 B
51 A

Unit II
Part (a) ELECTROSTATICS
1. A dielectric material must be________ c. smaller than the capacitance of smallest

a. resistor capacitor
b. Insulator d. average of the capacitance of all capacitor
c. Conductor ans:c
d. Semiconductor
ans:b 6.The total capacitance of five capacitor each of
10 µF in series is________________
2. The energy stored in capacitance is given a.10 µF
by__________________________ b.2 µF
a. C2V c.25 µF
b. CV2/2 d. none of these
c. C2V/2 ans:b
d. CV
ans:b 7. Two capacitors of capacitance C1=0.1 µF and
C2=0.2 µF are connected in series across 300V
3. Electrolytic capacitors can be used source. The voltages across C1 will be________
for__________________________ a. 100 V
a. a.c. only b. 200 V
b. d.c. only c. 150 V
c. both a.c. and d.c. d. 300 V
d. 50 Hz a.c. ans:b
ans:b
8. A capacitor stores 0.4C charge at 2 V. Its
4. If two 10 µF capacitors are connected in capacitance is___________________________
parallel, then the effective capacitance will a. 0.4 F
be_________ b. 0.2 F
a.2.5 µF c. 3.2 F
b.40 µF d. 0.8 F
c.0.4 µF ans:b
d.20 µF
ans:d 9. A20mF capacitor is in series with a 150 ohm
5. If a number of capacitors are connected in resistor. The combination is placed across a 40V
series then the total capacitance of combination dc source. Time constant of the circuit
is_____ is_____________________
a. greater than the capacitance of largest a. 8 s
capacitor b. 3 s
b. greater than the capacitance of any capacitor c. 6 s
d. 2.4s

ans: b
10. Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF, and 12 a. Volts/Coulomb
µF are connected in parallel across an a.c. b. Coulomb/Volt
source. The maximum current pass through c. Ohms
________________ d. Henry/Wb
a.3 µF ans: b
b.6 µF
c.12 µF 16. There is repulsive force between two
d. all the capacitors charged objects when
ans:c a. Charges of unlike sign
b. they have the same number of protons
11.As per Coulomb’s law___________________ c. charges are of same sign
a. F= Q1Q2 / εoεrd2 d. they have the same number of protons
b. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋d2 ans: c
c. F= Q1Q2 / 4𝜋 εoεrd2
d. F= Q1Q2 /4𝜋 εoεrd 17. The capacitance of a capacitor is not
ans: c affected by
a. distance between plates
12. Electric field intensity at any point in an b. area of plates
electric field is equal to_______ c. thickness of plates
a. potential gradient d. all of the above
b. (potential gradient)2 ans: c
c. (potential gradient)1/2
d. (potential gradient)1/3 18. When there is an equal amount of positive
ans: a and negative charges on an object the object is
a. Positively charged
13. The lines of forces due to isolated charged b. negatively charged
particle are___________ c. neutral
a. always straight d. supercharged
b. always curved ans:c
c. sometimes curved
d. none of the above 19. Which of the following statements is
ans: a correct?
a. Air capacitors have a black band to indicate
14. The direction of electric field due to positive the outside foil
charge is___ b. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in
a. away from the charge the correct polarity
b. towards the charge c. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the
c. both (a) and (b) correct polarity
d. none of the above d. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance
ans: a value of 1 to 10 µF

ans: b 24. In a capacitor the electric charge is

deposited on
20. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are a. metal plates
given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be b. dielectric
obtained by using them c. both (a) and (b)
a. all in series d. none of the above
b. all in parallel ans:a
c. two in parallel and third in series with this
combination 25. Which of the following materials has the
d. two in series and third in parallel across this highest value of dielectric constant?
combination. a. Glass
ans:c b. Vaccum
c. Ceramics
21. For which of the following parameter d. Oil
variation, the capacitance of the capacitor ans: c
remains unaffected?
a. Distance between plates 26. Capacitance of air capacitor increases with
b. Area of the plates a. increase in plate area and decrease in
c. Nature of dielectric distance between the plates
d. Thickness of the plates b. increase in plate area and distance between
ans: d the plates
c. decrease in plate area and value of applied
22. Which of the following expression is correct voltage
for electric field strength? d. reduction in plate area and distance between
a. E = D/𝝐 the plates
b. E = D2/𝝐 ans: a
c. E = 𝝅D
d. E = 𝝅D2 27. A capacitor consists of
ans: a a. two insulators separated by a conductor
b. two conductor separated by a dielectric
23. Which of the following statement is true? c. two insulators only
a. The current in the discharging capacitor d. two conductors only
grows linearly ans:b
b. The current in the discharging capacitor
grows exponentially 28. A paper capacitor is usually available in the
c. The current in the discharging capacitor form of
decays exponentially a. tubes
d. The current in the discharging capacitor b. rolled foil
decreases constantly c. disc
ans:c d. meshed plates
ans:b

29. Air capacitors are generally available in the 34. Energy stored in the electrical field of a
range capacitor C when charged from a D.C, source of
a. 10 to 400 pF voltage V is equal to …….. Joule
b. 1 to 20 pF a. ½ CV2
c. 100 to 900 pF b. ½ C2V
d. 20 to 100 pF c. CV2
ans:a d. C2V
ans:a
a. Henry 35. The absolute permittivity of free space is
b. Ohm given by
c. Farad a. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m
d. Farad/m b. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m
ans:c c. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m
d. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
31. A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000 µC of ans:d
charge. The value of capacitance will be
a. 10 F 36. The relative permittivity of free space is
b. 10 µF given by
c. 100 µF a. 1
d. 1000 µF b. 10
ans:b c. 100
d. 1000
32. Voltage across capacitor at any time‘t’ ans:a
during charging from a D.C. source of voltage V
is given by 37. When 4 Volt e.m.f. is applied across a 1
a. ν = Ve-t/λ Farad capacitor, it will store energy of
b. ν = V(1-e-t/λ) a. 2 Joule
c. ν = V2e-t/λ b. 4 Joule
d. ν = V2(1-e-t/λ) c. 6 Joule
ans:b d. 8 Joule
ans:d
33. The ratio of electric flux density to electric
field intensity is called ………. of the medium 38. The capacitor preferred for high frequency
a. permeability circuits is
b. permittivity a. air capacitor
c. reluctance b. mica capacitor
d. capacitance c. electrolytic capacitor
ans:b d. paper capacitor
ans:b

39. If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V the ans: a

charge in Coulomb will be_______________
a. 800 µC 44. Permittivity is expressed in_______
b. 900 µC a. Farad/sq-m
c. 1200 µC b. weber/metre
d. 1600 µC c. Farad/meter
ans:c d. weber/ square metre
ans:c
40. Which of the following capacitors is marked
for polarity____________________? 45. Dielectric strength of a material depends
a. air on_________________
b. paper a. moisture content
c. mica b. temperature
d. electrolyte c. thickness
ans: d d. all of the above
ans: d
41. Which of the following capacitor are usually
used for radio frequency tuning__________ 46. 1 Volt /metre is same as
a. air a. 1 metre/coulomb
b. paper b. 1 Newton metre
c. mica c. 1 Newton /Coulomb
d. electrolyte d. 1 Joule /Coulomb
ans: b ans: c
42. The time constant of an R-C circuit is 47. The relative permittivity of air is__________
defined as the time during which capacitor a.0
charging voltage actually rises to ---------------- b.1.0006
percent of its ---------- value c. 8.854 × 10
a.37, initial d. none of the above
b.63.2, initial ans:b
c.63.2, final
d.37, final 48. The relative permittivity of a material is 10.
ans: c Its absolute permittivity will be
a. 8.854 × 10 𝐹/𝑀
43. The time constant of an R-C circuit is b. 9 × 10 𝐹/𝑀
defined as the time during which capacitor c. 5 × 10 𝐹/𝑀
charging current actually falls to ---------------- d. 9 × 10 𝐹/𝑀
percent of its initial maximum value ans: a
a.37
b.63 49. The capacitance of a capacitor is ………
c.42 relative permittivity
d.73

a. directly proportional to 54. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by

b. inversely proportional to a conducting material the
c. independent of a. capacitor will get heated up owing to eddy
d. directly proportional to square of currents
ans: a b. plates will get short-circuited
c. capacitor can store infinite charge
50. An air capacitor has the same dimensions d. capacitance will become very high
that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance of ans:b
then relative permittivity of mica is 55. The total capacitance of two condensers is
a. 36 .03µF when joined in series and 0.16µF when
b. 12 connected in parallel. The products of two
c. 3 capacitance will be__________
d. 6 a.5.33
ans: d b.2
c.3
51. The most convenient way of achieving large d.0.48
capacitance is by using ans:d
a. multiplate construction
b. decreased distance between plates 56. Joule / Coulomb is the unit of
c. air as dielectric a. Electric field potential
d. dielectric of low permittivity b. Potential
ans: a c. charge
d. none of the above.
52. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2 are ans:b
connected in parallel. A charge Q given to them
is shared. The ratio of charges Q1/Q2 is 57 .A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm
a. C2/ C1 resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.
b. C1/ C2 Determine the time constant of the circuit
c. C1 C2 a. 10 sec.
d. 1/ C1 C2 b. 0.1 sec
ans: b c. 10mSec
d. 100 Sec
53. Two capacitors have capacitance 25 µF ans:a
when in parallel and 6 µF when in series. Their
individual capacitances are 58. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm
a. 12 µF and 13 µF resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply.
b. 15 µF and 10 µF Determine the initial value of charging current.
c. 10 µF and 8 µF a. 1mA
d. none of the above b. 0.1 mA
ans:b c. 0.01mA
d. 1.00A

ans:b
63. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a
59. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm potential difference of 100V across its
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm
Determine the initial rate of rise of voltage resistor. Find discharging current at 2m Sec.
across the capacitor. a. - 0.0818A
a. 0.1V/s b. - 0.01A
b. 10V/s c. - 0.00818A
c. 0.01V/s d. - 1A
d. 1V/s ans:a
ans:b
64. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a
60. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm potential difference of 100V across its
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm
Determine the capacitor voltage after a time resistor. Find initial rate of fall in voltage across
equal to the time constant. capacitor.
a.36V a. 10 4 V/s
b.36.6V b. -10 4 V/s
c.63.2V c. -1 4 V/s
d.63 V d. 10A
ans:c ans:b
61. A 10µF capacitor in series with an 1 M Ohm 65. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a
resistor is connected across a100 V d. c. supply. potential difference of 100V across its
Determine the voltage across the capacitor terminals. It is discharged through 1 K Ohm
3sec. after switch on. resistor. Find time constant of the circuit.
a.25.92V a. 0.1sec
b.259.2V b. 1sec
c.2.592V c. 0.01sec
d.25V d. 0.001sec
ans:a ans:c
62. A fully charged capacitor of 10µF has a 66. A capacitor consists of two similar plates
potential difference of 100V across its each 10cm x 10cm mounted parallel and
terminals. It is discharged through 1 KΩ resistor. opposite to each other. What is the value of
Find Initial discharging current. capacitance when distance between them is
a.1A 1cm and dielectric used is air.
b.10A a. 8.854 pF
c.0.01A b. 8.854 µF
d.0.1A c. 8.854 mF
ans:d d. 8.854 F
ans: a

a. magnetic field
67. The capacitance of capacitor formed by two b. electric field
parallel plates each 200 cm2 in area separated c. magnetic field and electric field
by dielectric of 4mm thick is 0.0004µF. If d. neither magnetic field nor electric field
voltage of 20000 V is applied then the total ans: b
charge on the plate is
a. 8µC 72. One Farad is the same as
b. 8mC a. One Coulomb/Volt
c. 8nC b. One Joule/Coulomb
d. 8pC c. One Joule/Volt
ans: a d. One Coulomb /Joule
ans: a
68. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area of
2m2 spaced by three slabs of dielectric 73 . If Q be the charge and C be the capacitance
materials. The relative permittivity’s are 2,3 and then the energy stored in the capacitor is
6 respectively and thickness are 0.4mm, 0.6mm a. 1/2QC
and 0.12 mm respectively. Find the combined b. 1/QC
capacitance. c. Q2/2C
a. 0.000295 x 10-6 F d. Q/2C
b. 0.00295 x 10-6 F ans: c
c. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
d. 0. 295 x 10-6 F 74.What capacitance must be placed in series
ans: b with a 15µF capacitor to give a total capacitance
of 5µF
69. What is the unit of charge? a. 4µF
a. Volt-Amp b. 7.5µF
b. Henery c. 10µF
c. Farad d. 25µF
d. Coulomb ans: b
ans: d 75. One Coulomb charge equals the charge on
a. 6.42 x 10 18 electrons
70. What will be the capacitance of four b. 6.24 x 10 18 atoms
capacitors of equal capacitance ‘C’ when c 6.24 x 10 12electrons
connected in parallel d. none of these
a. 4C ans: a
b. C/4
c. 3C/4 76. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is
d. C given as
ans: a a. C = Є0 A / d
b. C = Є0 d / A
71. A region around a stationary electric charge
has

or A b. 1.771 x 10-12 F

c. C = d c . 17.71 x 10-10 F
d. C = Єr A / d d. 17.71 x 10-12 F
ans: c ans: d
77. Two capacitors of 2 µF and 4 µF are 81.A parallel-plate capacitor has two plates
connected in parallel across 100 V D.C. supply. each of area 2.5 m2 separated by three
Determine (i) Energy stored on each capacitor dielectric materials of thickness 1, 2 and 3 mm
a. 0. 1 J and 0. 2 J and relative permittivity’s of 2, 4 and 8
b. 0.01 J and 0.02 J respectively. Calculate (i) the capacitance of the
c 1 J and 2 J capacitor
d. 0.001 J and 0.002 J a. 1.60 x 10-8 F
ans: b b. 1.60 x 10-10 F
c. 1.60 x 10-12 F
78. The capacitance composit capacitor is given d. 1.60 x 10-9 F
as ans: a
oA
a. C = d d2 d3
1
+ +
r r r
1 2 3
b. C = Є0 d / A
or A
c. C = d
d. C = Єr A / d
ans: a
79. The plate area of a parallel-plate capacitor is

0.01 sq. m. The distance between the plates is
2.5 cm. The insulating medium is air. Find its
capacitance.
a 3.54 x 10-12 F
b. 35.4 x 10-12 F
c 3.54 x 10-10 F
d. 3.54 x 10-11 F
ans: a
80. The plate area of a parallel-plate capacitor is

0.01 sq. m. The distance between the plates is
2.5 cm. What would be its capacitance, if the
space between the plates is filled with an
insulating material of relative permittivity 5?
a 177.1 x 10-12 F

Topic: Fundamental of electrical engineering
Q. Draft velocity of electrons is

001
A Larger than speed of light. B Almost equal to speed of light.
C Equal to speed of light. D Very small in comparison to speed
of light
Q. Resistance of a wire always increases if

002
A Temperature is reduced. B Temperature is increased.
C Number of free electrons available D Number of free electrons available
become less become more.
Q. The resistance of wire varies inversely as

003
A Area of cross-section B Length
C Resistivity D temperature
Q. For a fixed supply voltage, the current flowing through a conductor will
004 increase when its
A Area of cross-section is reduced. B Length is reduced
C Length is increased. D Length is increased and cross-
sectional area is reduced.
Q. Two wires A and B of the same material and length l and 2l have radius r and 2r
005 respectively. The ratio of their specific resistance will be
A 1:1 B 1:2
C 1:4 D 1:8
Q. Pure metals generally have

006
A High conductivity and low B High conductivity and large
temperature coefficient. temperature coefficient
C Low conductivity and zero D Low conductivity and high
temperature coefficient. temperature coefficient.
Prof. V R Bhoi Page 1

Q. A wire of length l and circular cross section of radius of R ohms. Another wire of
007 same material and of cross sectional radius 2r will have the same resistance R if
the length is
A 2l B l/2
C 4l D L^2
Q. Specific resistance of a conductor depends upon

008
A Dimensions of the conductor B Composition of conductor material
C Resistance of the conductor D All the above
Q. Resistivity of specific resistance is measured in

009
A Ohm-meter B Ohm/meter
C Ohm/meter^3 D Ohm/meter^2
Q. With the increase in temperature, the resistance of pure metals

010
A Increases B Decreases
C First increases and then decreases D Remains constant
Q. With the rise in temperature the insulating property of an insulator

011
A Weakens B Gains
C Remains unchanged D None of these
Q. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two resistors is 12Ω. one of the
012 resistance wires breaks and the effective resistance becomes 18Ω. The
resistance of the broken wire is
A 48Ω B 18Ω
C 36Ω D 24Ω
Q. For a series as well as a parallel circuit

013
A Resistance’s are additive B Powers are additive
C Currents are additive D Voltage drops are additive

Q. Filament lamp makes use of
014
A Chemical effect B Heating effect
C Magnetic effect D None of these
Q. 1 kWh is equal to
015
A 860 Kcal B 36*10^5 ergs
Q. A copper wire is stretched so that its length is increased by 0.1%. the change in
016 its resistance is
A 0.3% B 0.4%
C 0.2% D None of these.
Q. If an electric current is passed through a nerve, the man

017
A Begins to laugh B Begins to weep
C Is excited D Becomes insensitive to pain
Q. At 0K, Germanium behaves as

018
A A conductor B An insulator
C A superconductor D A ferromagnetic substance
Q. The number of free electrons passing through the filament of an electric lamp
019 in one hour when the current through the filament is 0.32A will be
A 3*10^22 B 2*10^26
C 7.2*10^19 D 7.2*10^21
Q. The current in a circuit having constant resistance is tripled. The power

020 increases
A 1/9 times B 3 times
C 9 times D 1/3 times

Q. In case of liquids, ohm’s law is
021
A Fully obeyed B Partially obeyed
C There is no relation between D None of the above
current and p.d.
Q. Electrical appliances are connected in parallel because it

022
A Is a simple circuit B Draws less current
C Results in reduced power loss D Makes the operation of appliances
independent of each other
Q. A cell of e.m.f. E is connected across a resistance r. The potential difference

023 between the terminals of the cell it is found to be V. The internal resistance of
the cell is
A 2(E-V)V/r B 2(E-V)r/E
C (E-V)r D (E-V/V)r
Q. An external resistance R is connected to a cell of internal resistance r. The

024 maximum current flows in the external resistance when
A R<r B R>r
C R=r D Any other value of R
Q. The hot resistance of electric bulb’s filament is higher than its cold resistance
025 because the temperature co-efficient of filament is
A zero B Positive
C negative D None of these
Q. An electron moves in a circle of radius 10cm with a constant speed of 4*10^6

026 m/s. the electric current at a point on the circle is
A 1*10^-12 A B 4*10^-7 A
C 2*10^-6 A D None of these

Q. As the temperature of a metallic resistor is increased, the product of its
027 resistivity and conductivity
A increases B Decreases
C Remains same D May increase or decrease
Q. In the analysis of a transistor circuit, we usually use------theorem.

028
A Norton’s B Thevenin’s
C Reciprocity D Superposition
Q. Appliances based on heating effect of current work on

029
A d.c. only B a.c. only
C Both d.c. and a.c. D None of these
Q. Of the two bulbs in a house, one is glows brighter than the other. Which of the
030 two has larger resistance
A The dim bulb B The brighter bulb
C Both have same resistance D Brightness does not depend on
resistance
Q. A string of five series resistors is connected across a 6 V battery. Zero voltage is

031 measured across all resistors except R3. The voltage across R3 is
A 0V B 0.6V
C 6V D 1.2V
Q. A certain series circuit consists of a 1/8 W resistor, a 1/4 W resistor, and a 1/2
032 W resistor. The total resistance is 1200 . If each resistor is operating in the
circuit at its maximum power dissipation, total current flow is
A 27mA B 2.7mA
C 190mA D 90mA
Q. A voltmeter has a resistance of 5*10^4Ω. What should be the additional

033 resistance connected in series with it so as to increase the range 3 times

A 2*10^5Ω B 10^5Ω
C 15*10^4Ω D 20*10^4Ω
Q. A galvanometer has a resistance of G Ω. It is shunted by s resistance of S Ω.

034 How much resistance should be added in series so that the main current
remains unchanged
A S/S+G B GS/G+S
C G^2/G+S D G/G+S
Q. Which of the following series combinations dissipates the most power when
035 connected across a 120 V source?
A One 120 resistor B Two 120 resistors
C Three 120 resistors D Four 120 resistors
Q. Two identical heating coils are connected in parallel across the mains. If one of
036 the coil breaks, the other coil
A Develops lower temperature B Develops same temperature as
before
C Develops higher temperature D Will also not be heated
Q. Two bulbs of equal wattage, one having carbon filament and the having
037 tungsten filament, are connected in series to the mains then,
A Both bulbs glow equally B Carbon filament glows more
C Tungsten filament glows more D Carbon filament glows more
Q. The filament of a vacuum tube requires 0.4A d.c. to heat it. The r.m.s. value of
038 a.c. required is
A 0.4*√2 A B 0.4/2 A
C 0.4 A D 0.8/√2 A
Q. An RC circuit is connected to a 300V d.c. source. The voltage across the

039 capacitor after 1 time constant is
A 200 V B 126.5V
C 170.2 V D 189.6 V

Q. If you need a capacitor with C= 0.25 µF and you have only ones in the store
040 room with capacitance of 1 µF, how will you obtain the desired capacitance?
A Connect four available capacitors B Connect four available capacitors in
in series parallel
C Connect two available capacitors in D None of these
parallel
Q. A trimmer is a variable capacitor in which capacitance is changed by changing

041
A Distance between plates B Plate area
C Both A and B D Dielectric
Q. The dielectric used in high voltage transformers is

042
A Mica B Porcelain
C Oiled paper D Paraffin
Q. Two plates are 1 cm apart and the potential difference between them is 10 V.
043 the electric field between the plates is
A 500N/C B 1000N/C
C 10N/C D 250N/C
Q. The electric flux density is a

044
A Phasor B Scalar quantity
C Vector quantity D None of these
Q. Three charges each of +2 C are placed at the three corners of an equilateral

045 triangle. If the force between any two charges is F, then net force on any
charge is
A √2 F B √3 F
C 2F D 3F
Q. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are

046

A Circular clockwise B Radial outwards
C Radial inwards D Circular anticlockwise
Q. Three charges of +3 C, -4 C and +6 Care placed inside a sphere. The total

047 electric flux passing through the surface at sphere is
A 5C B 13 C
C -4 C D 9C
Q. An dipole is placed in non-uniform electric field. It experiences

048
C A torque but no force D Neither force nor a torque
Q. Two resistances of equal value, when connected in parallel, give an equivalent

049 resistance of R. if these resistances are connected in series, the equivalent
resistance will be,
A R B 4R
C 2R D R/2
Q. When an electric current flows through a conductor, its temperature rises due
050 to
a Mutual collisions between metal B Mutual collisions between
atoms conducting electrons
c Collisions between conduction D Release of conduction electrons
electrons and atoms from parent atoms
Q. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two resistors is 12 Ω. One of the

051 resistance wires breaks and effective resistance becomes 18 Ω. The resistance
of the broken wire is
A 48Ω B 18Ω
C 36Ω D 24Ω
Q. With temperature rise the insulating property of an insulator

052
A Weakens B gains
C Remains unchanged D None of these

Q. An ideal voltage source, should have
053
A Zero source resistance B Infinite source resistance
C Terminal voltage in proportion to D Terminal voltage in proportion to
current load
Q. Which of the following statement is incorrect an active element?

054
A Resistance B inductor
C Current source D All of these
Q. The terminals across the source are……if a current source is to be neglected

055
A Open-circuited B Short circuited
C Replaced by a capacitor D Replaced by a source resistance
Q. An active element in a circuit is

056
A Current source B resistance
C Inductance D capacitance
Q. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable only to

057
A Electric circuits B Electronic circuits
C Junctions in a network D Closed loops in a network
Q. Kirchhoff’s laws are valid for

058
A Linear circuits only B Passive time invariant circuits
C Non-linear circuits only D Both linear and non-linear
Q. The elements which are not capable of delivering energy by its own are known
059 as
A Unilateral elements B Non-linear elements

C Passive elements D Active elements
Q. A network having one or more than one source of emf is known as

060
A Passive networks B Active networks
C Linear networks D Non-linear network
Q. Kirchhoff’s laws are not applicable to circuits with

061
A Distributed parameters B Lumped parameters
C Passive elements D Non-linear resistance
Q. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is concerned with

062
A IR drops B Battery emfs
Q. A passive network has

063
A No current source B No emf source
C Only emf source D Neither current source nor emf
source
Q. The algebraic sign of an IR drop primarily depends upon the

064
A Direction of flow of current B Battery connections
C Magnitude of current flowing D Value of resistance
through it
Q. A terminal where more than two branches meet is known as

065
A Node B terminus
C Anode D None of these

Q. Superposition theorem can be applied only to
066
A Linear networks B Non-linear networks
C Linear bi-lateral networks D Bilateral networks
Q. If there are b branches and n nodes, the number of equations will be,
067
A n-1 B b
C b-n D b-n+1
Q. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are

068
A Nodes B Sources
C Nodes and sources D meshes
Q. Thevenin’s resistance Rth is determined

069
A By short circuiting the given two B By removing the voltage sources
terminals along with their internal resistances
C Between same open terminals as D None of these
for Vth
Q. The rating of fuse wire is always expressed in

070
A Volts B Amperes
C Ampere-volts D Ampere hours
Q. The insulation on current carrying conductor is provided to prevent

071
A Current leakage B Shock
C Both A and B above D None of the above
Q. Lamps in street lightning are all connected in

072
A Series B Parallel
C Series-parallel D End-to-end

Q. Supplier’s fuse, is provided in domestic wiring system
073
A After the energy meter B Before the energy meter
C Before distribution board D After main switch
Q. Safety of electrical appliances and wiring is ensured by
074
A Insulation B Earthing
C Providing a fuse wire in the electric D All the above
circuit
Q. Resistance of earth should be

075
A Infinite B High
C The minimum possible D Low
Q. Which of the following site will be preferred for earthing?

076
A Clayey soil B Dry and rocky
C Damp and wet sand pit D Wet meshy ground
Q. Which of the site is least preferred for earthing?

077
A Clayey soil B Dry and rocky
C Damp and wet sand pit D Wet meshy ground
Q. Electric battery is a device that

078
A Generates emf by chemical action B Converts heat energy into electrical
energy
C Converts mechanical energy into D Converts fuel energy to electrical
electrical energy energy
Q. EMF of a zinc-carbon cell is about

079
A 1.2V B 1.5V
C 1.75V D 2.2V

Q. Cell commonly used as standard cell is
080
A Dry cell B Solar cell
C Mercury-cadmium cell D Zinc-carbon cell
Q. The emf of a primary cell depends upon the

081
A Physical dimensions of the cell B Nature of the electrolyte
C Both A and B D None of above
Q. Pickling is
082
A Protection of surface from rusting B A layer coating for preventing
surface deterioration
C Removal of scale, grease etc. from D None of these
the surface
Q. In a lead acid battery, the level of the electrolyte should be

083
A Equal to that of the plates B Below the level plates
C Above the level of plates D None of these
Q. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of

084
A Chemical energy B Charged ions
C Electrostatic charge D None of above
Q. Petroleum jelly is applied to the terminals of the lead acid in order to prevent
085
A Corrosion B Local heating
C Short-circuiting D All of these
Q. In a lead-acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs due to

086

A Idleness of battery for a longer B Low level of electrolyte
time
C Persistent undercharging D All of the above
Q. Battery charging equipment should be installed

087
A In well ventilated, clean and dry B As near as practical to the battery
place under charge
C Both A and B D None of them
Q. Capacity of lead acid battery does not depend upon

088
A Charge rate B Discharge rate
C temperature D Density of electrolyte
Q. Electrolyte used in nickel-cadmium cell is

089
A NaCl B NaOH
C H2SO4 D KOH
Q. The phenomenon of an charged body getting charged merely by nearness of a

090 charged body is called
A Induction B Attraction
C Chemical effect D Magnetic effect
Q. On placing a dielectric in an electric field the strength

091
A Decreases B Increases
C Remains same D Reduces to zero
Q. The electro-magnet is made of

092
A Soft iron core B Steel core
C Soft iron core wrapped in a coil of D All the above
fine wire with current flowing
through it

Q. The cores in electrical machines are generally made of laminations with a view
093 to reduce
A Eddy current losses,,, B The hysteresis loss
C The copper loss D All of them
Q. EMF of thermocouple depends upon

094
A Nature of material of metals B Difference of temperatures of two
junctions
C Both A and B D None of above
Q. The absorption or evolution of heat energy, if a current is allowed to flow in a

095 conductor having its different parts at different temperatures is known as
A Seeback effect B Thomson effect
C Peltier effect D Joule’s effect
Q. A fuse is provided in an electric circuit for

096
A Safeguarding the installation B Reducing the current flowing in the
against heavy current circuit
C Reducing the power consumption D All the above
Q. Dielectric strength of a material depends on

097
A temperature B thickness
C Moisture content D All the above
Q. Dielectric strength of a material

098
A Increases with increase in B Decrease with the increase in
temperature thickness
C Increase with moisture content D Is not affected by moisture content

Q. A capacitor consist of two
099
A Conductors separated by an B Insulators separated by a
insulator called the dielectric conductor
C Insulators separated by an air D Conductors separated by air
medium only medium only
Q. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by conducting material the

100
A Capacitor will heated up owing to B Plates will get short-circuited
eddy currents
C Capacitor can store infinite charge D Capacitance will become very high
Q. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is not affected by

101
a Area of plates B Thickness of plates
c Separation between plates D Nature of dielectric
Q. Hysteresis loss proportional to

102
a f B f^15
c f^2 D f^3
Q. The magnetic field strength of an air-cores coil can be increased by

103
a Increasing the number of turns of B Increasing the current strength
coil
c Increasing the cross-sectional area D All of the above
of core
Q. Magnetic flux density emerging out of a closed surface is

104
A infinite B Zero
C Dependant upon the magnetic D None of the above
movement inside the closed
surface

Q. Permanent magnetism is one which
105
A Is left in the iron piece after the B Is produced by the superconductor
removal of the magnetic field coils
C Is produced by electric current D Is produced by induction
Q. The bar magnet has

106
A Monopole moment B Dipole moment
Q. Lines of force
107
A Never intersect B Often intersect
C Intersect only in special D Are unpredictable
circumstances
Q. When a piece of iron places in a magnetic field

108
A There will be no effect on the B The magnetic lines of force will
magnetic field bend away from the piece
C The magnetic lines of force will D None of above
bend away from their usual paths
so as to pass through the piece
Q. The magnetic lines of force is from

109
A North pole to south pole B South pole to north pole
C One end magnet to another D None of above
Q. Force experiences by a unit north pole at any point is known as

110
A mmf B Magnetic flux strength
C Magnetic flux density D Magnetic potential

Q. The number of lines of force per unit area is measure of
111
A Magnetic flux density B Magnetic field intensity
C Mmf D Susceptibility
Q. The unit of susceptibility is

112
A tesla B H/m
C J/m D Dimensionless
Q. For vacuum susceptibility is

113
A infinite B Unity
C Zero D None of these
Q. The direction of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor can be

114 determined by
A Cork screw rule B Right hand rule
C Either A or B D None of above
Q. The polarity of the pole determined by

115
A End rule B Cork screw rule
C Thumb rule D Left hand rule
Q. Polarity of solenoid can be determined by

116
A Use of compass needle B Helix rule
C Cork screw rule D Either A or B
Q. The Biot-savart’s law is general modification of

117
A Coulomb law B Ampere’s law
C Faraday’s law D Ohm’s law

Q. The magnitude of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a
118 magnetic field is independent of
A Flux density B Length of conductor
C Cross-sectional area of conductor D Current flowing through conductor
Q. The direction of mechanical force experienced on a current carrying conductor

119 placed in a magnetic field is determined by
A Fleming’s left hand rule B Fleming’s right hand rule
C Helix rule D Cork screw rule
Q. In Fleming’s left hand rule thumb always represents direction of

120
A Current flow B Induced emf
C Magnetic field D Mechanical force
Q. If a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the mechanical

121 force experienced on the conductor is determined by
A Simple product B Dot product
C Cross product D Any of these
Q. The force experienced by a current carrying conductor lying parallel to a

122 magnetic field is
A Zero B BIl
C B I l sin ᶿ D B I l cos ᶿ
Q. The magnetic field intensity (in A/m) at the center of a circular coil of diameter
123 1m and carrying a current of 2A is
A 8 B 4
C 3 D 2
Q. The field at any point on the axis of a current carrying coil will be
124
A Perpendicular to axis B Parallel to the axis
C At an angle of 45° with the axis D Zero

Q. The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil
125
A Is the same as on its outer surface B Is zero
C Is greater than that on its outside D Is lower than that on the outside
surface surface
Q. If the two conductors carry current in opposite direction there will be

126
A A force of attraction between the B A force of repulsion between the
two conductor two conductors
C No force between them D None of the above
Q. If a straight conductor of circular cross-section carries a current then,

127
A No force acts on the conductor at B An axial force acts on the
any point conductor tending to increase its
length
C A radial force acts towards the axis D A radial force acts away from the
tending to reduce its cross-section axis tending to increase its cross-
section
Q. Mmf of magnetic circuit is analogous to

128
A current B Emf
C resistance D power
Q. Unit of reluctance of magnetic circuit is

129
A AT/m B Webers/m
C AT/weber D H/m
Q. Unit of mmf
130
A AT B Weber/meter
C Henry D AT/m

Q. Property of a material which opposes the production of magnetic flux in it is
131 known as
A mmf B Reluctance
C Permeance D Permittivity
Q. Conductance Is analogous to
132
A reluctance B Mmf
C Permeance D Inductance
Q. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuit to

133
A Prevent saturation B Increase in mmf
C Increase in flux D Increase in inductance
Q. Permeability is reciprocal of
134
A Reluctivity B Susceptibility
C permittivity D Conductivity
Q. The magnetic reluctance of a magnetic circuit decrease with the

135
A Decrease in cross-sectional area. B Increase in cross-sectional area
C Increase in length of magnetic path D Decrease in relative permeability of
the magnetic ,material of the circuit
Q. When a single turn coil rotates in a uniform magnetic field, at uniform speed
136 the induced emf will be
A alternating B steady
C pulsating D None of these
Q. Principle of dynamically induced emf is used in a

137
A choke B transformer
C generator D Thermo-couple

Q. The direction of dynamically induced emf in a conductor can be determined by
138
A Fleming’s left hand rule B Fleming’s right hand rule
C Helix rule D Cork screw rule
Q. Principle of statically induced emf is used in

139
A transformer B motor
C generator D Battery
Q. Another name for relative permittivity is

140
A Dielectric constant B Dielectric strength
C Potential gradient D None of the above
Q. The relative permittivity of most materials lies between

141
A 20 and 100 B 10 and 20
C 100 and 200 D 1 and 10
Q. A soap bubble is given a negative charge. Its radius

142
A decreases B Increases
C Remains same D Information is incomplete to say
anything
Q. An electric field can deflect

143
A x-rays B neutrons
C α-particles D ϒ-rays
Q. Electric lines of force enter or leave a charged surface at an angle

144
A Of 90° B Of 30°
C Of 60° D Depending on surface condition

Q. The relation between absolute permittivity of vacuum (ε˳),absolute permittivity
145 of vacuum(µ˳) and velocity of light (c) in vacuum is
A µ˳ε˳=c^2 B µ˳/ε˳=c
C ε˳/µ˳=c D 1/µ˳ε˳=c^2
Q. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are

146
A Circular, anticlockwise B Circular, clockwise
C Radial, inward D Radial, outward
Q. Electric potential is
147
A Scalar quantity B A vector quantity
C dimensionless D Nothing can be said
Q. The electric field intensity on the surface of a charged conductor is

148
A zero B Directed normally to the surface
C Directed tangentially to the surface D Directed along 45° to the surface
Q. The force between two charges separated by a distance d in a air is 10 N. when

149 the charges are placed same distance apart in a medium of dielectric constant
εᵣ, the force between them is 2N. what is the value of εᵣ,
A 0.5 B 20
C 5 D None of these
Q. Out of the materials given below, which has the highest dielectric strength
150
a glass B air
c mica D Oiled paper
Q. If a charge is moved against the coulomb force of an electric field, then

151

A The strength of electric field is B The energy of the system is
decreased decreased
C Work done Is by electric field D Energy is used by some outside
source
Q. A uniform wire of length 5m is carrying a steady current. The electric field

152 inside it is 0.2 N/C. the potential difference across the ends of the wire is
A 1V B 0.5 V
C 10 V D 0.1 V
Q. The relative permittivity of an insulator cannot be

153
A 20 B 33
C 6 D Infinity
Q. The dielectric used in high voltage transformer is

154
A mica B paraffin
C porcelain D Oiled paper
Q. An electric dipole is placed in a non-uniform electric field. It experiences

155
C A torque but no force D Neither force nor torque
Q. A spherical drop of radius 10⁻⁶ m has absorbed 40 electrons. The energy

156 required to give an additional electron to it is
A 5.76*10^24 J B 9.21*10^-21 J
C 3.4*10^-18 J D 2.4*10^-20 J
Q. The relative permittivity of a dielectric can be

157
A 0 B 1/3
C -2 D 4

Q. Which of the following has the highest permeability?
158
A paramagnetic B diamagnetic
C Ferromagnetic D vacuum
Q. The distance between two magnetic pole s is doubled and their pole strength
159 are also doubled. The force between them
A Increased four times B Decreased four times
C Remains unchanged D None of the above
Q. When a charged particle moves through a magnetic field, it suffers a change in

160
A direction B speed
C energy D No change
Q. A current is passed through a straight wire. The magnetic field established

161 around it has magnetic lines of force
A Circular and endless B straight
C Oval in shape and endless D None of the above
Q. An electron travelling horizontally towards east. A magnetic field in vertically

162 downwards direction exerts a force on electron along
A north B south
C east D West
Q. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron. Then the electron

163
A Remains stationary B Starts spinning
C Moves in the direction of field D Moves in an opposite direction
Q. If an electron enters a uniform magnetic field obliquely, the path of the

164 electron will become
A An ellipse B A circle
C A spiral D None of above

Q. Two long straight parallel conductors, 10 cm apart, carry currents 5A each in
165 opposite directions. Then the magnetic flux density at a point them is
A 0 B 10⁻⁵ T
C 4*10⁻⁵T D None of above
Q. When an electric current is passed through a bucket full of water, lot of

166 bubbling is there. The electric current is
A a.c. B d.c.
C pulsating D None of above
Q. The most important advantage of using electric energy in the form of ac is

167
A The construction cost per kW of ac B Conductor of smaller x-section is
generator is lower than that of dc required in case of an ac in
generator comparison to dc for carrying the
same current
C Less insulation is required in case D Transformation of voltage is
of ac possible in case of ac only
Q. An alternating current of frequency 50 Hz and maximum value 200 A is given as

168
A I=200 sin 628 t B I= 200 sin 314 t
C I= 100 √2 sin 314 D I= 100 √2 sin 157 t
Q. The frequency of an alternating quantity is the number of

169
A Direction reversals in per second B Cycles completed per second
C Cycles completed per minute D All of these
Q. The time period of periodic time T of an alternating quantity is the time taken
170 in seconds to complete
A One cycle B One alternation
C Any of these D None of these
Q. The period of an alternating quantity is 0.02 second, its frequency will be

171

A 25 Hz B 50 Hz
C 100 Hz D 0.02 Hz
Q. The angular frequency of an alternating quantity is a mathematical quantity

172 obtained by multiplying the frequency of the alternating quantity by a factor of
the alternating quantity by a factor
A п/2 B п
C 2п D 4п
Q. The frequency of emf generated by a generator depends upon its

173
A speed B Number of poles
Q. Rms value of a half wave rectified current is 50 A. its rms value for full wave
174 rectification would be
A 100 A B 70.7 A
C 50/п A D 100/п A
Q. An electric iron is rated as 230 V, 500 W, ac. The value of 230 V refers to
175
A Rms value B Average value
C Peak value D Peak-to-peak value
Q. Size of a conductor, with regard to the heating effect, is determined on the

176 basis of ……….value of current to be carried by it
A average B peak
C rms D Peak-to-peak
Q. Form factor is the ratio of

177

Q. Peak factor is the ratio of
178
Q. Form factor for dc supply voltage is always

179
A zero B unity
C infinity D Any value between 0 and 1
Q. The two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when
180
A The phase difference between two B Each of them passes through zero
quantities is zero degree or radian value at the same instant and rises
in the same direction
Q. If e1= A sin (ω t + Ѳ1) and e2= B sin *(ω t + Ѳ2) then

181
A e2 leading e1 by an angle (Ѳ1 – Ѳ2) B e1 is lagging e2 by an angle (Ѳ1 –
Ѳ2)
C e2 is leading e1 by an angle (Ѳ2 – D e2 is lagging e1 by an angle (Ѳ2 –
Ѳ1) Ѳ1)
Q. A phasor is a line which represents the

182
A Rms value and phase of an B Average value and phase of an
alternating quantity alternating quantity
C Magnitude and direction of an D None of these
Q. The phasor diagram for alternating quantities can be drawn if they have
183
A Rectangular waves B Sinusoidal waves
C Triangular waves D All of these

Q. Two alternating quantities are added
184
A arithmetically B graphically
C vectorially D geometrically
Q. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes and phase
185 differences are added, the resultant is a sinusoid of
A The same frequency B Double the original frequency
C Half of the original frequency D None of these
Q. All the rules and laws which apply to dc networks also apply to ac networks
186 consisting
A Resistance only B Inductance only
C Capacitance only D All of these
Q. In ac circuits the power curve is a sine wave having

187
A Same frequency as that of voltage B Double the frequency of the
voltage
C Half the frequency of the voltage D None of the above
Q. In purely resistive circuits

188
A Pf is unity B Power consumed is zero
C Heat produced is zero D Pf (power factor)is zero
Q. Pure inductive circuit has zero?

189
A Power factor B Power consumed
C Heat produced D Current drawn
Q. If the supply frequency of a purely inductive circuit is doubled, the circuit

190 current will be
A halved B doubled
C same D One-forth

Answers: (001 to 100)
001 D 026 A 051 C 076 D

002 C 027 C 052 A 077 B
003 A 028 A 053 A 078 A
004 B 029 B 054 D 079 B
005 A 030 A 055 A 080 C
006 B 031 C 056 A 081 D
007 C 032 A 057 C 082 C
008 B 033 B 058 D 083 C
009 A 034 C 059 C 084 A
010 A 035 A 060 B 085 A
011 A 036 B 061 A 086 D
012 C 037 D 062 C 087 C
013 B 038 C 063 D 088 A
014 B 039 D 064 A 089 D
015 C 040 A 065 A 090 A
016 C 041 A 066 C 091 A
017 B 042 B 067 D 092 C
018 B 043 B 068 B 093 A
019 D 044 C 069 C 094 C
020 C 045 B 070 B 095 B
021 A 046 C 071 C 096 A
022 D 047 A 072 B 097 D
023 D 048 B 073 A 098 B
024 C 049 B 074 D 099 A
025 B 050 C 075 C 100 B
Answers: (101 to 200)
101 B 126 B 151 D 176 C

102 A 127 C 152 A 177 B
103 D 128 B 153 D 178 C

104 B 129 C 154 C 179 B
105 A 130 A 155 B 180 C
106 B 131 B 156 B 181 C
107 A 132 C 157 D 182 B
108 C 133 S 158 C 183 B
109 A 134 S 159 C 184 C
110 B 135 B 160 A 185 A
111 A 136 A 161 C 186 A
112 B 137 C 162 B 187 B
113 C 138 B 163 A 188 A
114 C 139 A 164 C 189 B
115 A 140 A 165 C 190 A
116 D 141 D 166 B 191
117 B 142 B 167 D 192
118 C 143 C 168 B 193
119 A 144 A 169 B 194
120 D 145 D 170 A 195
121 C 146 C 171 B 196
122 A 147 A 172 C 197
123 D 148 B 173 C 198
124 B 149 C 174 B 199
125 A 150 A 175 A 200

UNIT-VI
FUNDAMENTALS OF ELECTRICITY
1. Which effect of electrical current is utilized in 6. Which statement is correct?

thermal systems? a.1cal=4.12 J
a. Magnetic b.1cal=4.186 J
b. chemical c.1cal=4.44 J
c. heating d.1cal=3.986 J
d. all above ans:b
ans: c
7. The amount of heat energy required to
2. As per the Joule’s law the amount of heat change the state of the substance without
produced is proportional to change in the temperature is called as
a. I.R a. Kinetic energy
b. V.I b. Potential energy
c. V.I.t c. Latent heat energy
d. None of above d. All of above
ans: c ans:c
3. Geyser is a example of which system 8. The amount of heat energy obtained by

a. Mechanical burning the unit mass of the fuel is called as
b. Electrical a. Molecular value
c. Thermal b. Calorific value
d. None of above c. Atomic value
ans: b d. None of above
ans:b
4. Boiling temp. of water is
a.50 9. The unit of “THERMAL ENERGY” is
b.75 a. Kilowatt-hour
c.100 b. Watt-sec
d.35 c. Joule
ans: c d. all of above
ans:c
5. The amount of heat energy required to
change the temp. of a given substance without 10. Which effect of electric current is utilized in
change in the form of the substance is called as electric lamps?
a. Sensible heat energy a. Magnetic effect
b. Latent heat energy b. Chemical effect
c. Both of above c. Heating effect
d. None of above d. All of above
ans:a ans:c

11. The heat energy required to convert a body d. none of above

from solid state to liquid state is called as ans:a
a. Latent heat of fusion
b. Latent heat of vaporization 17. Which relationship is correct
c. Calorific value a. P=T.ω
d. All of above b. P=T/ ω
ans: a c. P=T.v d.None of above
ans:a
12. The heat energy required to convert liquid
state to gaseous state is called as 18. Power is defined as
a. Latent heat of liquification. a. capacity to do the work
b. Latent heat of vaporization b. work done/time
c. both of above c. work done. time
d. None of above d. all above
ans: b ans:b
13. The unit of specific heat capacity is 19. Energy is defined as

a. J/Kg a. work done/time
b. J/KgK b. capacity to do the work
c. joules c. energy=power x resistance
d. none of above d. all above
ans: b ans:b
14. MOTOR-PUMP SET is the example of which 20. Effective water head of a Hydro-electric
system power plant means it’s
a. Electro-mechanical system a. loss
b. Electro-chemical system b. height
c. Only electrical system c. friction
d. All above d. none of above
ans: a ans:b
15. The unit of force is 21. Efficiency is the ratio of

a. Newton a. power and time
b. Joule b. output and input
c. Newton-metre c. input and output
d. none of above d. above all
ans: a ans:b
16. One metre cube holds a water of 22. Wind-mill-Generator set is the example of
a.1000Kg a. electro-chemical system
b.1000gm b. electro-thermal system
c.1000miligram c. mechanical-electrical system

d. all above a.0.06s

ans: c b. 0.00006s
c. 1000 minutes
23. Which relationship is correct? d. 0.6 s
a. volume=mass. Density ans: b
b. volume=mass/density
c. volume=mass + density 29. The current which flows when 0.1 coulomb
d. none of above is transferred in 10 ms is
ans: a a. 1A
b. 10A
24. Potential energy is given as c. 10mA
a. E= m.g.h d. 100mA
b. E=m.g ans: b
c. E=m.g.t
d. above all 30. The p.d. applied to a 1 kΩ resistance in
ans: a order that a current of 100 μA may flow is
a. 1V
25. Kinetic energy is given by b. 100V
a. 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑉 c. 0.1V
d. 10V
b. 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑉
ans:c
c. 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑡
d. none of above 31. The power dissipated by a resistor of
ans: a 4Ωwhen a current of 5A passes through it is
a. 6.25W
26. A 100W electric light bulb is connected to a b. 20W
250V supply. The current in the circuit is c. 80W
a.0.3A d. 100W
b. 0.4A ans:d
c. 1.4A
d. 0.6A 32. Which of the following statements is true?
ans: b a. Electric current is measured in volts
b. 200 kΩ resistance is equivalent to 2MΩ
27. A 100W electric light bulb is connected to a c. An ammeter has a low resistance and must be
250V supply. Its hot resistance is connected in parallel with a circuit
a.625Ω d. An electrical insulator has a high resistance
b.526Ω ans:d
c. 62.5Ω
d. 625mΩ 33. A current of 3A flows for 50 hrs through
ans:a a6Ωresistor. The energy consumed by the
resistor is:
28. 60 μs is equivalent to: a.0.9 kWh

b.2.7 kWh ans: a

c.9 kWh 39. In what time would a current of 1A transfer
d.27 kWh a charge of 30 Coulomb?
ans:b a. 45s
b. 30s
34. What must be known in order to calculate c. 65s
the energy used by an electrical appliance? d.4s
a. voltage and current ans: b
b. current and time of operation
c. power and time of operation 40. How long must a current of 0.1A flow so as
d. current and resistance to transfer a charge of 30 Coulomb?
ans: c a. 5 min
b. 5s
35. Voltage drop is the c. 50min
a. maximum potential d. 50s
b. difference in potential between two points ans: a
c. voltage produced by a source
d. voltage at the end of a circuit 41. A force of 4N moves an object 200 cm in the
ans: b direction of the force. Work done is
a. 6 J
36. A 240V, 60Wlamp has a working resistance b. 8 J
of c. 4 J
a. 1400 ohm d. 10 J
b. 60 ohm ans:b
c. 960 ohm
d. 325 ohm 42. The amount of work done in lifting a mass of
ans:c 500 kg to a height of 6min 30 sec ….
a. 2943J
37. The energy used by a 1.5kW heater in 5 b. 0.2943J
minutes is: c. 29.43J
a. 5 J d. 29.43KJ
b. 450 J ans:d
c. 7500 J
d. 450000 J 43. The power required in lifting a mass of 500
ans:d kg to a height of 6m in 30 sec….
a.198J
38. If a current of 5A flows for 2 minutes, the b. 981W
quantity of charge transferred will c.198W d. 981J
a. 600C ans: b
b. 100C
c. 0.6C 44. 0.32mA=. . . . . . μA
d. 60C a.0.0032

b.0.032 a. 0.5 kWh

c.0.00032 b. 4 kWh
d.320 c. 2 kWh
ans: d d. 0.02 kWh
ans: b
45. A portable machine requires a force of 200N
to move it. If the machine is moved through 50. Amount of heart energy required to raise
20m in 25s, power required is the temperature of 10kg of water through
a. 160kW 100oC is (Sw of water as 4200J/kgK)
b. 1600W a. 4.2kJ
c. 16kW b.4.2MJ
d.160W c. 42kJ
ans: d d. 420J
ans:b
46. Energy provided by a source e.m.f. of 5V
supplying a current of 3A for 10 minutes is 51. The opposition to the flow of leakage
a.9kJ current is called as
b. 65J a. resistance
c. 25kJ b. leakage coefficient
d. 90kJ c. insulation resistance
ans: a d. all above
ans:c
47. 450 J of energy are converted into heat in 1
minute. The power dissipated is 52. The insulation resistance is generally
a.7.5kW measured in..
b.7.5W a. ohms
c.750W b. Mega ohms
d. 600W c. milli ohms
ans: b d. none of above
ans:b
48. The power rating of a d.c. electric motor
consuming 36 MJ when connected to a 250V 53. The insulation resistance of a cable is
supply for 1 hour is a. directly proportional to length of cable
a. 100W b. inversely proportional to length of cable
b.10W c. remains same with change in length
c.500W d. none of above
d. 10KW ans:b
ans: d
54. Which is the expression for insulation
49. A current of 2A flows for 10 h through resistance of a single core cable
a100Ωresistor. The energy consumed by the a. R=ρ l/a
resistor is

ρ
b. Ri= 𝑙𝑛(R2/R1) d. all of above
π
c. Ri=
ρ
(R2/R1) ans: b
π
d. none of above
60. Factors affecting the insulation resistance of
ans:b
a cable are
a. length
55. As the thickness of insulation layer of a
b. thickness
cable increases, it’s insulation resistance will
c. resistivity of insulating material
a. increase
d. all above
b. decrease
ans:d
c. remain same
d. none of above
61. If length of cable is doubled, then its
ans: a
insulation resistance will
a. reduce by 25%
56. As the Temperature of surrounding
b. reduce by 50%
increases the insulation resistance will
c. increase by 50%
a. increase
d. reduce by 55%
b. remain same
ans:b
c. decrease
d. none of above
62 .If two cables with their insulation
ans: c
resistances Ri1 and Ri2 are joined in series, then
their equivalent resistance will be
57. Which is a good conductor of electricity?
a. Ri1 + Ri2
a. normal tap water
b. Ri1 - Ri2
b. pure water
c. Ri1 / Ri2
c. glass
d. (Ri1.Ri2) / (Ri1 + Ri2)
d. plastic
ans:d
ans: b
64. If the thickness of insulation layer of cable is

58. As moisture content in the air increases,
doubled, then its insulation resistance will
then the insulation resistance will
a. reduce by 25%
a. decrease
b. increase by 50%
b. remain same
c. increase by 58.5%
c. increase
d. reduce by 55%
d. none of above
ans:c
ans: a
65. If two cables with their insulation

59. When the Humidity in the surrounding
resistances Ri1 and Ri2 with conductor
increases, the leakage current in the cable will
resistances R1and R2 respectively are joined in
a. remain same
parallel, then their conductor equivalent
b. increase
resistance will be
c. decrease
a. R1 + R2

b. Ri1 - Ri2 71. According to Ohm’s law current in

c. Ri1 / Ri2 conducting material is inversely proportional
d. (R1 R2) / (R1 + R2) to….
ans: d a. Voltage across it.
b. Both Voltage and Resistance.
66. What is current? c. Resistance of material.
a. Flow of electrons. d. None of above.
b. Flow of protons ans:c
c. Flow of Neutrons.
d. None of above. 72. What are the factors on which resistance of
ans: a material depends?
a. Length and Cross-section area of material.
67. What is Resistance? b. Temperature of material.
a. to assist the flow of current. c. Specific resistivity of material.
b. opposition the flow of current. d. All of above.
c. opposition the flow of voltage. ans:d
d. to assist the flow of voltage.
ans:a 73. Resistance of material will increase with
increase of?
68. Unit of resistance is… a. Cross-section area of material.
a. Volts. b. Length of material.
b. Amperes. c. Both Length and Cross-section area of
c. Ohm. material.
d. Faraday. d. None of above.
ans:c ans:b
69. Resistance of material will decrease with 74. What will be the effect on the resistance of
increase of….. conducting material if the temperature
a. Length of material. increases?
b. Both Length and Cross-section area of a. No effect on resistance.
material. b. Resistance will increase.
c. Cross-section area of material. c. Resistance will decrease.
d. None of above. d. Resistance will remain same.
ans:c ans:b
70. According to Ohm’s law current in the 75. What will be the effect on the resistance of
conducting material is directly proportional to… conducting material if the temperature
a. Resistance of material. decreases?
b. Voltage across. a. Resistance will remain same.
c. Both Voltage and Resistance. b. No effect on resistance.
d. None of above. c. Resistance will increase.
ans:b d. Resistance will decrease.

ans:d 81. At high temperature semi-conductor will

behave as?
76. What will be the effect on the resistance of a. Insulator.
insulating material if the temperature b. Conductor.
increases? c. Semi-conductor.
a. No effect on resistance. d. None of above.
b. Resistance will increase. ans:b
c. Resistance will remain same.
d. Resistance will decrease. 82. The length of a conductor or a wire is
ans:d doubled and its cross section is also doubled
then the resistance will.
77. What will be the effect on the resistance of a. Increases four times.
insulating material if the temperature b. Remains unchanged.
decreases? c. Decreases four times.
a. Resistance will remain same. d. Change at random.
b. No effect on resistance. ans:b
c. Resistance will increase.
d. Resistance will decrease. 83. The variation of resistance with
ans:c temperature is governed by a property called.
a. Resistance access coefficient (RAC).
78. What will be the resistance of semi- b. Resistance nature coefficient (RNC).
conductor at low temperature? c. Resistance temperature coefficient (RTC).
a. Resistance will be high. d. None of above.
b. Resistance will be low. ans:c
c. No effect on resistance
d. None of above. 84. Temperature co-efficient of resistance at
ans:a 00C is defined as the change in resistance per
ohm original resistance per 0C change in
79. What will be the resistance of semi- temperature.
conductor at high temperature? a. True.
a. Resistance will be high b. False.
b. No effect on resistance. ans:a
c. Resistance will be low.
d. None of above. 85. Unit of Temperature co-efficient of
ans:c resistance is.
80. At low temperature semi-conductor will a. /Ώ/0C.
behave as? b. /0C.
a. Insulator. c. 0C.
b. Conductor. d. Ώ/0C.
c. Semi-conductor. ans:b
d. None of above.
ans:a

86. Temperature co-efficient of resistance α0 is a. 990 Ω.

given by. b. 881.667 Ω.
a. 𝛼 = c. 981.667 Ω.
.
d. 1000 Ω.
b. 𝛼 =
. ans:b
c. 𝛼 =
.
92. A single core cable has 1.5cm diameter
d. 𝛼 =
. conductor and thickness of insulation is 2.2 cm.
ans:a The resistivity of insulating material is 9.2×1012
Ώ-m. Determine the insulation resistance per
87. At 00C a specimen of copper have a km length of cable.
resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co- a. 2×1012 Ώ.
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per 00C. b. 2.9×1013 Ώ.
Find the value of its temperature co-efficient at c. 2×109 Ώ.
700C. d. 9.2×1012 Ώ.
a. 0.003248/0C. ans:c
b. 0.003428/0C.
c. 0.003284/0C. 93. A single core cable has 1.5cm diameter
d. 0.003434/0C. conductor and thickness of insulation is 2.2 cm.
ans: The resistivity of insulating material is 9.2×1012
Ώ-m. Determine the insulation resistance per
88. At 00C a specimen of copper have a km length of cable. If the working voltage of
resistance of 4mΏ and its temperature co- conductor is 1100V, what is the leakage current
efficient of resistance equal to 1/234.5 per 00C. per km of cable?
Find the value of resistance at 700C. a. 0.55×10-6A.
a. 4.5mΩ. b. 1.55×10-6A.
b. 3.5mΩ. c. 0.55×10-12A.
c. 5.19mΩ. d. 0.55×106A.
d. 5.5mΩ. ans:a
ans:c
94. The armature winding of a D.C. machine
90. An aluminum conductor has resistance of when connected to D.C. supply of 240 V was
10Ω AT 200C and the RTC of 0.0039 per 0C at drawing 1.6 A at 250C and 1.25 A when heated.
200C .Find the RTC at 00C. Evaluate temperature of armature winding if α
a. 0.000124/0C. of its material at 250C is 0.0039/0C.
b. 0.00423/0C. a. 1000C.
c.0.00324/0C. b. 1100C.
d. 0.0000423/0C. c. 96.790C.
ans:b d. 98.790C.
ans:c
91. Find the resistance of filament of 60 watt in
a 230 V supply lamp at its working temperature.

95. If the length of a wire of resistance R is a. negative

uniformly stretched to n times its original value, b. infite
its new resistance is c. zero
a.nR d. positive
b. R/n ans: d
c. n2R
d.r/n2 101. Insulation resistance of the insulating
ans:c material should be
a. high
96. Two wires A and B of same material and b. low
length L and 2L have radius r and 2r c. zero
respectively. The ratio of their specific d. none of these
resistance will be ans:a
a.1:1
b.1:2 102. The flow of current in solids is due to
c.1:4 a. electrons
d.1:8 b. electrons and ions
ans:a c. atoms
d. nucleus
97. Two wires A and B of same material and ans: a
length L and 2L have radius r and 2r
respectively. The ratio of their resistances will 103. The resistance of human body is around
be a. 5 ohms
a.1:1 b. 25 ohms
b.2:1 c. 250 ohms
c.4: 1 d. 1000 ohms
d.1:8 ans:d
ans:b
104. One commercial unit of energy equals
99. A length of wire having resistance of 1 ohm a. 500 watt seconds
is cut into four equal parts and these four parts b. one watt hour
are bundled together side-by-side to form a c. one kilowatt hour
wire. The new resistance will be d. ten kilowatt hour
a.1/4 ohm ans:c
b.1/16 ohm
c.4 ohm 105. One coulomb charge equals the charge on
d.16 ohm a. 6.24x1012 electrons
ans:b b. 6.24x1014 electrons
c. 6.24x1016 electrons
100. The hot resistance of filament of a bulb is d. 6.24x1018 electrons
higher than the cold resistance because the ans:d
temperature coefficient of filament is

106. Electric pressure is also called a. copper

a. resistance b. aluminum
b. power c. carbon
c. voltage d. brass
d. energy ans:c
ans:c
112. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
107. With rise in temperature resistance of pure a. vaccum tubes
metals b. carbon resistor
a. increases c. high voltage circuits
b. decreases d. circuits at low current densities
c. first increases then decreases ans:a
d. remains constant
ans:a 113. Which one of the following does not have
negative temperature coefficient
108. With rise in temperature resistance of a. aluminum
semiconductors b. paper
a. increases c. rubber
b. decreases d. mica
c. first increases then decreases ans:a
d. remains constant
ans:b 114. An electrical effort required to drift the
free electrons in one particular direction, in a
109. The resistance of copper wire 200 m long is conductor is called
21 ohms. If its thickness is 0.44 mm, its specific a.MMF
resistance is around b.EMF
a. 1.2x10-8Ω-m c. current
b. 1.4x10-8Ω-m d. all above
c. 1.6x10-8Ω-m ans:b
d. 1.8x10-8Ω-m
ans:c 115. An _______ effort required to drift the free
electrons in one particular direction, in a
110. Which of the following material has nearly conductor is called EMF
zero temperature coefficient of resistance a. chemical
a. manganin b. mechanical
b. porcelain c. electrical
c. carbon d. thermal
d. copper ans:c
ans:a
116. I = ___ /t amp
111. Which of the following material has a a. R
negative temperature coefficient of resistance b. L

c. Q a. resistivity
d. t b. conductivity
ans:c c. permittivity
d. all above
117. The ability of a charged particle to do work ans:b
is called
a. potential difference 123. The material having poorest value of ____
b. electric potential is best insulator.
c. magnitude a. resistivity
d. magnetism b. conductivity
ans:b c. permittivity
d. all above
118. The unit of electric potential is ___ ans:b
a.amp
b. coulomb 124. The resistance of copper wire 25 m long is
c. volt found to be 50 Ω. If its diameter is 1mm, then
d. tesla resistivity of copper is ___
ans:c a.1.57 µΩ-m
b.1.57 Ω-m
119. 1 calorie = ___ c.15.7 Ω-m
a.4.186 joules d. none of the above
b.0.24 joules ans:a
c.41.86 joules
d. none of the above 125. Factors which affect the resistance _____
ans:a a. length of the material
b. cross sectional area
120. Unit of resistivity is ____ c. temperature
a. Ω d. all above
b. Ω-m ans:d
c. Ω/m
d. all above 126. Effect of temperature on resistance
ans:b depends on ____ of material
a. size
121. Unit of conductance is ___ b. shape
a. ohms c. nature
b. siemens d. length
c. newtons ans:c
d. none of above
ans:b 127. Resistance of carbon _____ as the
temperature increases
122. The material having highest value of ____ a. increases
is best conductor b. remains same

c. decreases d. all above

d. none of above ans:c
ans:c
133. Insulation resistance Ri = V/Il, in this V is
128. Semiconductors have _____ temperature ____
coefficient a. voltage between conductor and earth
a. positive b. voltage between insulation and earth
b.negative c. voltage between conductor and insulator
c.zero d. all above
d.all above ans:a
ans:b
134. Insulation resistance Ri = V/Il, in this Il is
129. Resistance temperature coefficient is ____
denoted by ____ a. current
a. α b. voltage
b. β c. leakage current
c. θ d. line current
d. Φ ans:c
ans:a
135. Insulation resistance is ______
O
130. The RTC at t C is ratio of _____ proportional to its length
a. change in conductance per degree Celsius to a. directly
the resistance at t0 C b. inversely
b. change in resistance per degree Celsius to the c. not
resistance at t0 C d. none of above
c. change in initial resistance per degree Celsius ans:b
to the resistance at t0 C
d. all above 136. Insulation resistance is inversely
ans:b proportional to its ______
a. length
131. Unit of RTC is ____ b. area
a. OC c. diameter
b. /OC d. cross sectional area
c. Ω/ OC ans: a
d. all above
ans:b 137. Which of the following substance, the
132. Insulation resistance is defined as temperature?
opposition to the flow of ____ a. carbon
a. current b. constantan
b. voltage c. copper
c. leakage current d. silver

ans:a 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in series,

138. At 300K the temperature coefficient of its insulation resistance is ___
resistance of a wire is 0.00125 /OC and its a.120 MΩ
resistance is one ohm. The resistance of wire b.240 Ω
will be 2 ohm at c.240 MΩ
a. 1154 K d. 160 Ω
b. 1100 K ans:c
c. 1400 K
d. 1127 K 143.Two underground cables A and B, each has
ans: b a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω resp.
each has insulation resistance of 600 MΩ and
139. The conventional electric current is due to 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in parallel,
the flow of its insulation resistance is ___
a. positive charges only a.1200 MΩ
b. negative charges only b.2400 Ω
c. neutral particles only c.1000 MΩ
d. both positive and negative charges. d. 1600 Ω
ans:b ans:c
140. Insulators have _______ temperature 144. Two underground cables A and B, each has
coefficient of resistance a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω resp.
a. positive each has insulation resistance of 600 MΩ and
b. negative 400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in parallel,
c. zero its conductor resistance is ___
d. none of the above a.0.3428Ω
ans:b b.0.240 Ω
c.0.240 MΩ
141. Two underground cables A and B, each has d. 0.160 Ω
a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω resp. ans:a
400 MΩ resp. if cables are connected in series, 145. Match the pair
its conductor resistance is ___ 1. Resistance a. /0C
a.1.2 MΩ 2. Insulation resistance b.siemens
b.1.2 Ω 3. RTC c.ohm
c.1.4 Ω 4. Conductance d.MΩ
d. 1.6 Ω a. 1a,2-b,3-c,4-d
ans:c b.1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b
c.1-d,2-c,3-b,4-a
142.Two underground cables A and B, each has d.all above
a conductor resistance of 0.6 Ω and 0.8 Ω resp. ans:b

Obj
ect
ivequest
ionbankonResi
stance,
OhmsLaw,
Ener
gyConv
ersi
on
1.Rat
iooft
hev
olt
ageandel
ect
ri
ccur
renti
nacl
osedci
rcui
t (
1
mark)
a)r
emai
nsconst
ant
b)v
ari
es
c)i
ncr
eases
d)decr
eases
Ans.a
2.I
nwhi
chf
igur
ether
elat
ionshi
pbet
weenv
olt
ageVandcur
rentIi
sinaccor
dancewi
th
Ohm'
slaw? (
1mar
k)
a)Fi
gur
eA
b)Fi
gur
eB
c)Fi
gur
eC
d)Fi
gur
eD
Ans.
b
3.Condi
ti
onf
ort
hev
ali
dit
yunderOhm’
slawi
sthatt
he (
1mar
k)
a)t
emper
atur
eshoul
dremai
nconst
ant
b)cur
rentshoul
dbepr
opor
ti
onalt
ovol
tage
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page1
c)r
esi
stancemustbewi
rewoundt
ype
d)al
loft
heabov
e
Ans.d
4.Ohm’
slawi
sappl
icabl
eto (
1mar
k)
a)semi
-conduct
ors
b)v
acuum t
ubes
c)el
ect
rol
ytes
d)noneoft
hese
Ans.b
5. I
fyouwishtoincr
easetheamountofcurr
entinaresist
orfrom 120mAt
o160mAby
changi
ngthe24Vsource,
whatshoul
dthenewvolt
agesett
ingbe?
(
1mark)
a)8V
b)320V
c)3.
2V
d)32V
Ans.d
6.Al
lgoodconduct
orshav
ehi
gh (
1
mark)
a)Resi
stance
b)el
ect
ri
calconduct
ivi
ty
c)el
ect
ri
calandt
her
malconduct
ivi
ty
d)Conduct
ance.
Ans.d
7.Mat
eri
alswi
thl
otsoff
reeel
ect
ronsar
ecal
led (
1
mar
k)
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page2
a) Conduct
ors
b) I
nsul
ator
s
c) Semi
conduct
ors
d) Fi
lt
ers
Ans.a
8.Whenaresi
stanceel
ementofaheaterget
sfused,wer
emov
eapor
ti
onofi
tandr
econnect
i
ttot
hesamesupply,thepowerdr
awnbytheheaterwi
ll
(
1mark)
a)i
ncr
ease
b)decr
ease
c)r
emai
nsame
d)uncer
tai
n
Ans.a
9.A100W bulbi
sconnect
edinseri
eswi
thar
oom heat
er.i
fnow100W bul
bisr
epl
acedbya
40W bul
btheheat
erout
putwi
ll
(1mark)
a)i
ncr
ease
b)decr
ease
c)r
emai
nssame
d)uncer
tai
n
Ans.b
10.
Whenthevol
tageappl
iedacr
ossanel
ect
ri
cir
oni
shal
ved,t
hepowerconsumpt
ionoft
he
ir
onwi
llr
educeto
(1mar
k)
a)Hal
f
b)Thr
ee-f
our
th
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page3
c)One-f
our
th
d)Noneoft
hese
Ans.c
11.
Ratioofresi
stancesofa100W,220Vl
ampt
othatofa100W,110Vl
ampwi
llbe,att
he
respecti
vevol
tages
(1mar k)
a)4
b)2
c)0.
5
d)1.
4
Ans.a
12.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngbul
bswi
llhav
ethel
eastr
esi
stance? (
1
mar
k)
a) 220V,
60W
b) 220V,
100W
c) 115V,
60W
d) 115V,
100W
Ans.d
13.
Twoelect
ri
cbulbsof100W,200Vareputi
nser
iesandt
hecombi
nat
ioni
ssuppl
ied100V.
Thepowerconsumpti
onofeachbul
bwil
lbe (1
mark)
a)100/2W
b)100/4W
c)100/8W
d)100/16W
Ans.d
14.
Fourr esi
stancesR1,R2,R3andR4areconnectedinseriesagai
nst220Vsupply
.The
resi
stancesaresuchthatR1>R2>R3>R4.Theleastpowerconsumpt
ionwi
llbei
n
(
1mar
k)
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page4
a)r
esi
storR1
b)r
esi
storR2
c)r
esi
storR3
d)r
esi
storR4
Ans.d
15.
Api eceofsi
lverwirehasaresistanceof1Ω.Amangani
nwir
ehasspeci
fi
cresi
stance30
ti
mest hatofsil
ver.Theresi
stanceofamangani
nwireofonefour
thl
engt
handonet hi
rd
diameterwil
lbe
(2marks)
a)6/5Ω
b)1Ω
c)67.
5Ω
d)86.
75Ω
Ans.c
16.
Whencur
rentf
lowst
hroughheat
ercoi
litgl
owsbutsuppl
ywi
ri
ngdoesnotgl
owbecause
(
1mar
k)
a)suppl
ywi
ri
ngi
scov
eredwi
thi
nsul
ati
onl
ayer
b)cur
rentt
hroughsuppl
yli
nef
lowsatsl
owerspeed
c)suppl
ywi
resar
cmadeofsuper
iormat
eri
al
d)r
esi
stanceofheat
ercoi
lismor
ethant
hatsuppl
ywi
res
Ans.d
17.
Twoal uminum conductor
shav eequall
ength.Thecross-secti
onalareaofoneconduct
ori
s
fourtimesthatoft heother.Iftheconductorhavi
ngsmal lercross-sect
ionalar
eahasa
resi
stanceof100Ω, theresi
stanceofotherconduct
orwillbe
(
1mar k)
a)400Ω
b)100Ω
c)50Ω
d)25Ω
Ans.d
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page5
18.
Resi
stanceofawireal
waysincreasesi
f (
1mar
k)
a)t emper
atur
eisreduced
b)t
emper
atur
eisi
ncr
eased
c)numberoff
reeel
ect
ronsav
ail
abl
ebecomel
ess
d)number
soff
reeel
ect
ronsav
ail
abl
ebecomemor
e.
Ans.c
20.
Ther
esist
anceofacoppertubewiththeexter
naldiameterof10cm,i
nter
naldi
amet
erof
-8
9cm,
lengt
hof2m andr
esist
ivi
tyofcopperas1.72*
10 Ω-m is
(2marks)
a)23.
09µΩ
b)23.
09mΩ
c)21µΩ
d)10mΩ
Ans.a
21.
Acopperwireisstret
chedsot
hati
tsl
engt
hisi
ncr
easedby0.
1%.Whati
stheper
cent
age
changeini
tsresi
stance
(2marks)
a)2%
b)1%
c)0.
2%
d)0.
1%
Ans.c
22.
Theresi
stanceofa40W,
230Vbul
bint
henor
maloper
ati
ngcondi
ti
oni
s (
1
mark)
a)5.
75Ω
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page6
b)120Ω
c) 1322.
5Ω
d) 33.
06Ω
Ans.c
23.
Therati
oofpowerlostin2resistorswhenconnectedi
npar
all
elandser
iesassumedsame
lengt
handmateri
alforeachresistorbutt
hefi
rstonehasadi
ametertwi
cethatoft
heother
is
(
2mar ks)
a)4
b)1/
4
c)1/
2
d)2
Ans.b
24.
Foraf
ixedsuppl
yvol
tage,
thecur
rentf
lowi
ngt
hroughaconduct
orwi
lli
ncr
easewheni
ts
(
1mar
k)
a)ar
eaofcr
oss-sect
ioni
sreduced
b)l
engt
hisr
educed
c)l
engt
hisi
ncr
eased
d)l
engt
hisi
ncr
easedandcr
oss-sect
ionalar
eai
sreduced
Ans.b
25.
Two wiresA and B oft hesamemat er
ialand length land 2lhav
eradi
usrand 2r
respect
ivel
y.Therat
iooft
heirspeci
fi
cresi
stanceswillbe
(1mar k)
a)1:
1
b)1:
2
c)1:
4
d)1:
8
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page7
Ans.a
26.
Awi reoflengthLandofcircul
arcr
osssecti
onofradiusrhasar
esi
stanceofRohms.
Anotherwire ofsame materi
aland ofcr
oss-sect
ionalr
adi
us2rwil
lhav ethe same
resi
stanceRifthel
engt
his
(
1mar
k)
a)2L
b)L/
2
c)4L
d)L2
Ans.c
27.
Speci
fi
cresi
stanceofaconduct
ordependsupon (
1
mark)
a)di
mensi
onsoft
heconduct
or
b)composi
ti
onofconduct
ormat
eri
al
c)r
esi
stanceoft
heconduct
or
d)al
loft
heabov
e
Ans.b
28.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmat
eri
alspossessest
hel
eastspeci
fi
cresi
stance (
1
mar
k)
a)Al
umi
num
b)Copper
c)Si
lver
d)I
ron
Ans.c
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page8
29.Calcul
atetheresistanceofa200m lengthofwi
rehav
ingaunif
orm cr
osssect
ionalar
eaof
01mm2andhav
0. ingresist
ivi
tyof50µΩ-cm.I
fthewi
reisdr
awnoutfourti
mesi t
sori
ginal
l
engthcalcul
atether esi
stance.
(
2mar ks)
a)60KΩ
b)120KΩ
c)160KΩ
d)180KΩ
Ans.c
30.
Thehotresist
anceofelect
ri
cbulb’sf
il
amenti
shi
ghert
hani
tscol
dresi
stancebecauset
he
temperat
ureco-ef
fi
cientoffi
lamenti
s
(1mark)
a)Zer
o
b)Posi
ti
ve
c)Negat
ive
d)Noneoft
hese
Ans.b
31.
Wit
hther
isei
ntemper
atur
ethei
nsul
ati
ngpr
oper
tyofani
nsul
ator (
1
mark)
a)Weakens
b)Gai
ns
c)Remai
nsunchanged
d)Noneoft
hese
Ans.a
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page9
32.
Alengthofwirehavingar
esistanceof1Ωiscutint
ofourequalpart
sandthesef
ourpar
ts
arebundledt
ogethersi
debysidetoform awi
re.Thenewresi
stancewil
lbe
(2marks)
a)1/
4A
b)1/
16A
c)4A
d)16A
Ans.b
33.
Thehotr esi
stanceofat
ungst
enl
ampi
sabout10t
imest
hecol
dresi
stance.Accor
dingl
y,
col
dresistanceofa100W,200Vl
ampwi
llbe (2
marks)
a)4000Ω
b)400Ω
c)40Ω
d)4Ω
Ans.c
34.
Ther esi
stanceofaparallelci
rcui
tconsist
ingof2resi
stor
sis12Ω.Oneofther
esi
stance
wiresbreaksandtheeffecti
veresi
stancebecomes18Ω.Theresi
stanceoft
hebr
okenwire
is (2marks)
a)48Ω
b)18Ω
c)36Ω
d)24Ω
Ans.c
RTC
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page10
35.
Theval
uesoft
emper
atur
ecoef
fi
cientofr
esi
stanceofagi
venconduct
or (
1
mark)
a)Ar
ethesameatdi
ff
erentt
emper
atur
es
b)Ar
ehi
gherathi
ghert
emper
atur
es
c)Ar
edi
ff
erentatdi
ff
erentt
emper
atur
es
d)Noneoft
heabov
e
Ans.c
36.
Lowerthet
emper
atur
e t
hev
alueofRTC (
1
mark)
a)Hi
gher
b)Lower
c)const
ant
d)noneoft
hese
Ans.a
37.
Thetemper
atur
ecoef
fi
cientofr
esi
stancei
sdef
inedas (
1
mark)
a)I
ncr
easei
nresi
stanceperohm perº
C
b)I
ncr
easei
nresi
stanceperº
C
c)Decr
easei
nresi
stanceperohm perº
C
d)Ther
ati
oofdecr
easei
nresi
stanceperº
Ctot
her
esi
stanceat0º
C
Ans.a
38.
Thecurr
entthroughanel
ectr
icalconduct
ori
s1Awhenthetemper
atur
eoftheconduct
oris
0º Cand0.7Awhent hetemperatureis100ºC.t
hecur
rentwhenthetemper
atureofthe
conduct
ori
s1200º Cmustbe
(
2mar ks)
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page11
a)0.
08A
b)0.
16A
c)0.
32A
d)0.
64A
Ans.b
39.
A metalresi
storhasr
esi
stanceof10Ω at0°
C and11Ω at160°
C,t
het
emper
atur
e
coef
fi
cienti
s
(2marks)
a)0.
00625/°
C
b)0.
0625/
°C
c)0.
000625/
°C
d)0.
625/
°C
Ans.c
40.
The fi
eld coi
lofa shuntmot orhasa r esistance of45Ω at20ºC.Find t
he av
erage
temperatur
eofthewindingattheendoft her unwhent her
esi
stancei
sincr
easedt
o48.5Ω.
Temper at
urecoef
fi
cientoftheresi
stanceis0. 004perº Cat0º
C.
(2marks)
a)41º
C
b)21º
C
c)31º
C
d)11º
C
Ans.a
41.
Thetemperat
urecoeff
ici
entofr
esi
stanceofawi
rei
s0.
00125/º
C.At300K,i
tsr
esi
stance
is1Ω.Theresi
stanceofthewi
rewi
llbe2Ωat.
(2marks)
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page12
a)1154K
b)1100K
c)1127K
d)1400K
Ans.b
42.
IfR1i
st heresi
st lofcopperattoCandRTi
anceofacoi sther
esi
stanceatToCandal
sothe
resi
stancetemper at
urecoef
fi
cientofcopperperdegreecent
i adeat0oCi
gr s1/234.
45,
thenRt/RT
(
2mar ks)
a)(1+t)/(1+T)
b)(
1+234.
45t
)/(
1+234.
45T)
c)(
234.
45+t
)/(
234.
45+T)
2
d)(
234.
45+t)/( 45+T2)
234.
Ans.c
43.
Theshuntwi ndingofamot orhasaresi
stanceof85Ωat22oC.Whent hemotorr
unsatf
ull
load,i
tsresi
stanceincreasesto100Ω.Ther esi
stancetemper
atur
ecoeff
ici
entofwi
ndi
ng
per0oCis0.004.Theriseintemperat
ureofthewindingwil
lbenear
ly.
(2Marks)
a)20oC
b)50oC
c)70oC
d)100oC
Ans.c
44.
Twocoi l
sconnectedi
nseri
eshav er esist
anceof600Ω and300Ω andt emperat
ure
coef
fi
cientsof0.
1%and0.
4%r espect
ively
.Theresi
stanceoft
hecombi
nat
ionat50oCwil
l
be (2 Marks)
a)1050Ω
b)1001Ω
c)1600Ω
d)990Ω
Ans.d
45.
Rat
ingofaf
il
amentbul
bat1520º
Cis40W,240V.Ther
esi
stanceoft
hebul
bat20º
Cis
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page13
hal
fofitshotr
esi
stance.Fi
ndt
het
emper
atur
ecoef
fi
cientofr
esi
stanceat20º
C.
(2marks)
a)6. 10-4/º
67* C
b)66.
7*10-4/º
C
c)44.
7*10-4/º
C
d)4.
7*10-4/º
C
Ans.a
I
R
46.
Asi ngl
ecorecabl
ehasi
tsconduct
ordi
ameteras1.5cm andtheouterdiamet
eras3.9cm.
Ther esist
ivi
ti
esoft
heconductorandtheinsul
atorare1.73*10-8Ω-m and8*1012Ω-m
respect
ivel
y.
Fi
nditsconduct
orr
esi
stancef
oracabl
elengt
hof100m. (
2
marks)
10-3Ω
a)7*
b)9. 10-3Ω
83*
c)98.
3*10-3Ω
10-3Ω
d)70*
Ans.b
47.
Asi ngl
ecorecabl
ehasi
tsconduct
ordi
ameteras1.5cm andtheouterdiamet
eras3.9cm.
Ther esist
ivi
ti
esoft
heconductorandtheinsul
atorare1.73*10-8Ω-m and8*1012Ω-m
respect
ivel
y.
Fi
ndi
tsi
nsul
atorr
esi
stancef
oracabl
elengt
hof100m. (
2mar
ks)
a)12. 109Ω
17*
b)1. 109Ω
27*
c)21. 109Ω
17*
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page14
9
d)2.
17*
10 Ω
Ans.a
48.Theexpr
essi
onf
ori
nsul
ati
onr
esi
stancei
sRi=V/
IL.Wher
eVdenot
est
he (
1
mar
k)
a)Vol
tagebet
weeni
nsul
atorandconduct
or.
b)Vol
tagebet
weenconduct
orandear
th.
c)Vol
tageacr
osst
heconduct
or.
d)Vol
tagei
nbet
weent
heconduct
ors
Ans.b
0
49.
Twor esist
ances120Ωand180Ωhav ethei
rtemperat
urecoeff
ici
ent
sas0.
0035/Cand
0
0.008/ C.Thetemper
atur
ecoef
fi
cientoft
heirser
iescombi
nati
onis.
(2marks)
0
a)0.
0089/C
0
b)0.
0062/C
0
c)0.
009/C
0
d)0.
0026/C
Ans.b
1.
WORKPOWER&ENERGY
51.Acertai
napplianceuses350W.I fi
tisal
lowedt
oruncont
inuousl
yfor24day
s,howmany
kil
owatt
-hoursofenergydoesi
tconsume? `
(2marks)
a)20.
16kWh
b)201.
6kWh
c)2.
01kWh
d)8.
4kWh
Ans.b
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page15
52.I
fitt
akes400mst
ouse12,
000Jofener
gy,
thepoweri
s (
1mar
k)
a)30kW
b)30W
c)3W
d)300kW
Ans.a
53.Apowersuppl
ypr
oducesa0.
6W out
putwi
thani
nputof0.
7W.I
tsper
cent
ageofef
fi
ciency
i
s,
(
1mar k)
a)8.
57%
b)42.
85%
b)4.
28%
d)85.
7%
Ans.D
54.A68 r esi
stori
sconnect
edacr
osst
het
ermi
nal
sofa3Vbat
ter
y.Thepowerdi
ssi
pat
ionof
theresist
ori
s,
(1mar k)
a)132mW
b)13.2mW
c)22.6mW
d)226mW
Ans.a
55.Akil
owat
thouri
stheuni
tof (
1mar
k)
a)Ener
gy
b)Power
c)El
ect
ri
cchar
ge
d)Cur
rent
Ans.a
56.Heatproducedinaconduct
ordepends (
1
mark)
a)Inversel
yonti
me
b)Directl
yonti
me
c)Bothofabove
d)Noneoft heabove
Ans.b
57.1kWhisequalt
o (
1mar
k)
3
a)36x10J
b)103J
105J
c)36x
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page16
5
d)10J
Ans.c
58.Theheatproducedint
heconduct
orofr
esi
stance4.
2ohm wi
th10Acur
rentf
lowi
ngi
nit(
1
mark)
a)42cal/
sec.
b)100cal
/ sec.
c)4.
2cal/sec
d)420cal/sec.
Ans.b
59.Howmuchener
gyi
sKWhconsumedi
noper
ati
ng t
en50W bul
bfor10hourperdayi
nthe
monthofJune.
(2marks)
a)1500
b)15000
c)15
d)150
Ans.d
60.Thepowerofheat s500W at8000C,

eri Whatwi
llbei
tspowerat2000C?Temper
atur
eco-
s4x10-4/
0
eff
ici
entofresist
ancei C
(2marks)
a)484W
b)672W
c)526w
d)620W
Ans.d
61.Anelectri
ckett
leof2000W cont
ainsof1kgofwaterat200C.cal
cul
atethet
ime r
equi
redt
o
heatwatertoit
sboil
ingpoi
nt.Thewaterequi
val
entofket
tl
eis0.5kgandJ=4.2j
oul
es/Cal
.
(2marks)
a)4.2min.
b)4.2sec.
c)2.1min.
d)2.1sec.
Ans.a
62.At
omicpowerst at
ionofTar
apurhasagener
ati
ngcapaci
tyof200MW.
Theener
gygener
ated
i
nadaybyt hi
sstati
onis
(2marks)
a)1.6x103J
b)2300J
107J
c)16x
d)1728x1010J
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page17
Ans.d
63.Acoilwireofresi
stance500ohm i
sembeddedinablockofi
ce.Whati
sthei
cemel
tedi
n1
sec.i
fpotenti
aldi
ff
erenceof210Visappl
iedacr
osst
hecoil
?
(2marks)
a)2.625g
b)3.25kg
c)4.12kg
d)Noneoftheabov e
Ans.a
64.Abeltdr
ivenpulley0.4m i
ndi
ameterrot
atesatspeedof4rps.Thet
ensi
oni
nthet
idesi
dei
s
420Nandintheslackssides80N,cal
cul
atethetor
queinthepull
ey
(2mar ks)
a)68.
0Nm
b)65.
0Nm
c)62.
0Nm
d)Noneoftheabov e
Ans.a
65.Abeltdriv
enpul
ley0.
4m indi
amet
err
otat
esatspeedof4r
ps.
Thetensi
oni
nthet
idesi
deis
420N and i n t he slacks si
des 80N , cal cul
ate the power dev el
oped
(2mar
ks)
a)0.71Kw
b)1.71Kw
c)2.
71Kw
d)3.71Kw
Ans.b
66.Anelectr
onofmass‘m’kgandhavi
ngachargeof‘
e’coul
ombst
rav
elsf
rom t
her
estt
hrough
apotent
ialdi
ffer
enceof‘
V’v
olt
s.I
tski
neti
cener
gywil
lbe:
(2marks)
a)eV Joules
b)meVJoul
es
c)me/
VJoul
es
d)V/
meJoul
es
Ans.A
67.Asteam t
urbi
nedev
elop5MW ,determinethequanti
tyofoi
lofcal
ori
fi
cval
ue42MJ/
Kgused
perminut
estoheatt
heboil
eri
ftheoveral
leffi
ciencyoft
hesyst
em i
s20%.
(2mar
ks)
a)15.
5kg
b)30.
5kg
c)35.
7kg
d) 5kg
Ans.c
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page18
68. Anel ect
ri
cgeyserisusedt oheat5li
tersofwaterfom 130Ct
r o830C.I
fheatl ossi
na
radi
ati
oni s40KJandwat erequival
entofgeyseris100gm ,deter
minetheeffi
ciencyofthe
geyser.Takespeci
fi
cheatofwateris4200J/Kg-K
(
2marks)
a)90.
5%
b)55.
5%
c)95.
5%
d)82.
5%
Ans.c
69.Inhy dr
o-elect
ri
cel ectr
icgenerat
ingstati
onthediffer
encei
nlevel(
head)bet
weenthewater
surf
aceandt heturbinedr i
vingthegener at
oris425m i f1250l
it
ersofwaterarer
equir
edt o
generate1Kwhofel ectricenergy
,f indtheov er
allef
fi
ciency(
1li
terofwat
erhasmassof1kg):
(2marks)
a)39%
b)49%
c)59%
d)69%
Ans.d
70.ACraneisdesignedt
oli
ftmassof600kgtoaheight10m inhal
fminut
es.Theeff
ici
encyof
thecr
aneis80% selectt
heoutputrati
ngofmot
orrequi
red.Whatcurr
entwil
lbedrawnbyt he
motor when connect
ed to 200V DC suppl
y?
(2marks)
a)15.
6A
b)20.
5A
c)12.
4A
d)18.
5A
Ans.a
71.A100Vlamphasahotr
esi
stanceof250ohm f
indt
hepowerr
ati
ngoft
hel
amp (
1
mark)
a)10W
b)20W
c)30w
d)40W
Ans.d
72.A100Vlamphasahotr
esi
stanceof250ohm f
indt
heener
gyconsumedi
n24hourbyt
he
l
amp(1mark)
a)940Wh
b)950Wh
c)960wh
d)970Wh
Ans.c
73.
A6Vbat
ter
yisconnect
edt
oa300 l
oad.Undert
hesecondi
ti
ons,i
tisr
atedat40Ah.How
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page19
l
ongcani
tsuppl
ycur
rentt
othel
oad
(
1mark)
a)1h
b)200h
c)2,
000h
d)10h
Ans.c
75. Ifyouused600W ofpowerf
or60h,
youhav
eused (
1
mar k)
a)36kWh
b)3.6kWh
c)10kWh
d)1kWh
Ans.a
76. Ifi
ttakes400mst
ouse12,
000Jofener
gy,
thepoweri
s (
1
mar k)
a)30kW
b)30W
c)3W
d)300kW
Ans.a
77. Howmanywat
t-hour
srepr
esent65W usedf
or18h? (
1
mar k)
a)11.7Wh
b)1,170Wh
c)11,700Wh
d)117,000Wh
Ans.b
78.
For12Vand40mA,
thepoweri
s (
1mar
k)
a)480mW
b)0.
480W
c)480,
000µW
d)al
loftheabov
e
Ans.d
79.A heat
ingelementsuppl
y300KJi
n50mi
nut
esf
indt
hepot
ent
ialdi
ff
erenceacr
osst
he
el
ementwhenthecurrenti
s2A:
(
1mar k)
a)50V
b)40V
c)30V
d)20V
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page20
Ans.a
80.Theaverageoveral
leffi
ciencyofacert
aincari
s50%.Ifthecarconsumes4kgofpet
rolper
hourofcal
ori
ficv
alue46.89MJ/ Kg,det
ermi
nethepoweroutputoft
heengine:
(1mark)
a)26Kw
b)46Kw
c)16Kw
d)36Kw
Ans.a
81.Ifthevol
tageacr
ossaheateri
s220Vandcurrentf
lowi
ngt
hroughi
tis2A,cal
cul
atet
het
ime
requi
redtift
heheatener
gydissi
pat
edini
tis344138J.
(2mar k)
a)782.13sec
b)3.56sec
c)391sec
d)481sec
Ans.a
82.Powerrequi
redt
odr
iveaf
loormi
llat2800r
pm i
s15KW.Ther
equi
redt
orquei
s (
1
mark)
a)5.
36N-m
b)0.
051N-m
c)51.
156N-m
d)511.
56N-m
Ans.c
83.Cal cul
atethe outputenergy ofa crane dr
ivi
ng mot
orwhen r
aisi
ng a l
oad of1
t
onnethroughaheightof16m i
n10seconds. (1mark)
a)16000N-m
b)156960N-m
c)156.96N-m
d)100N-m
Ans.b
84.Forthemechani
calsystem ofbel
owf
igur
e,cal
cul
atet
hei
nputel
ect
ri
calener
gy (
1
mar k)
ηm=85% ηG=60%
Ei=?
Mot
or Gear Cr
an
E0=156960N-m
a)307764.
7J
b)261600J
c)184658.
8J
d)156960J
Ans.a
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page21
85.Ar esist
anceof0.
025Ωcar
ri
esacur
rentof60Af
or2hour
s.Cal
cul
atet
heamountofheat
di
ssipatedinit
.
(2mark)
a)10800J
b)10800W
c)648000J
d)648000W
Ans.c
86.Ani mmersi
onheaterisusedforheati
ng9l i
tr
esofwat er.It
sr esi
stancei
s50Ω andhas
eff
ici
encyof83.6%.How much t ime i
sr equir
ed to heatwaterfrom 20º Cto 70º
C,when
connect
edto250Vsupply?Speci
fi
cheatcapacit
yofwateris4180J/kg-ºC.
(2mark)
a)0.
5hr
s
b)0.
2hr
s
c)0.
1hr
s
d)0.
4hr
s
Ans.a
87.Ki
net
icener
gyi
spr
opor
ti
onalt
othesquar
eof, (
2
mark)
a)Mass
b)Distance
c)Force
d)Velocity
Ans.d
88.Ift
heweightofbodyi sconst
antandwit
hincr
easei
nhei
ghtt
hroughwhi
chi
tisl
if
ted
ver
ti
cal
lyt
henthepot
ent
ialener
gyposset
sbyi
t:
(
2mar k)
a)Decrease
b)Incr
ease
c)Remainconst
ant
d)Havingnoeff
ect
Ans.b
89.Thecor
rectr
elat
ionbet
weenheatpr
oducedandcal
ori
fi
cval
uei
s: (
1
mark)
a)H=m/C.V.
b)H=m*C.V.
2*
c)H=m C.V.
d)H=m2/C.V.
Ans.b
90.El
ect
ri
calener
gyi
sdef
ineas (
1mar
k)
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page22
a)E=P2*
t
b)E=P/t
c)E=P*t
d)E=P2/*t
Ans.C
91.Theel
ect
ri
calmet
ersi
nst
all
edout
sideourhomei
sact
ual
ly (
1
mark)
a)Powerfact
ormet
er
b)Volt
meter
c)Wattmeter
d)Energymeter
Ans.d
92.Awat
erheaterwor
kingon230Vdcsuppl yisusedtoheat50l
it
ersofwaterever
yday,from
0 0
25Cto70Ci n45minutes.Ef
fi
ciencyoft
heheat
eris70%.Fi
ndoutt
heinputpowertotheheater
.
(2mark)
a)4.
98kW
b)3.
98kW
c)4.
36kW
d)3.
36kW
Ans.a
93.Awaterheaterwor
kingon230Vdcsuppl yisusedtoheat50l
it
ersofwaterever
yday,from
250Ct
o700Ci n45minutes.Ef
fi
ciencyoft
heheat
eris70%.Fi
ndoutt
heinputpowertotheheater
.
(
2mar k)
a)12.
21A
b)21.
20A
c)30.
88A
d)21.
68A
Ans.d
94.Abucketcontain15-l
iter
sofwaterat200C.A2kW i mmer sionheat
eri
susedtorai
sethe
0
temperat
ureofwaterof95C.Theoveral
lef
fici
encyoftheprocessis90%,andt
hespeci
fi
cheat
capaci
tyofwateri
s4187J/kgFindt
hetimerequir
edfortheprocess.
(
2mark)
a)33.
31mi
n
b)43.
61mi
n
c)23.
30mi
n
d)53.
42mi
n
Ans.b
95.Abucketcont
ain15-li
tersofwaterat200C.
A2kW i mmersionheat
erisusedt
or aisethe
0
temper
atureofwaterof95C.Theoveral
lef
fi
ciencyoft
heprocessis90%,andt
hespecif
icheat
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page23
capaci
tyofwat
eri
s4187J/
kgFi
ndHeatener
gy.
(
2mark)
a)4710375J
b)3276542J
c)2536784J
d)2648954J
Ans.a
96.Abucketcontain15-l
iter
sofwaterat200C.A2kW immersi
onheateri
susedtorai
sethe
0
temperat
ureofwaterof95C.Theoveral
leff
ici
encyoft
hepr
ocessis90%,andt
hespeci
fi
cheat
capaci
tyofwateri
s4187J/kgFindi
nputener
gy.
(
2mark)
a)4710375J
b)3276542J
c)2536784J
d)5233750J
Ans.d
97.Aresi
stanceof0.025ohm car
ri
esacur
rentof60Afort
wohours.Det
erminethevel
oci
tywi
th
whichamassof2t onnesmustmoveinor
derthati
tski
net
icener
gyshallbeequali
namountto
theener
gydissipat
edinther
esist
ance.
(
2mar k)
a)25.46m/sec
b)35.36m/
sec
c)45.
46m/sec
d)25.26m/
sec
Ans.a
98.
Ar esi
stanceof0.025 ohm car
ri
esacur
rentof60 A f
ort
wo hour
s.Det
ermi
neener
gy
di
ssi
patedinther
esist
ance.
(
2mark)
a)234002J
b)679000J
c)568300J
d)648000J
Ans.d
99.
Anelect
ricpumpl i
ft
s1.2m3ofwat
erpermi
nut
etoahei
ghtof15-m.
Ifi
tsov
eral
lef
fi
ciency
i
s60%,f
indtheinputpower
.
(2mar
k)
a)3839W
b)2928W
c)4905W
d)5940W
Ans.c
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page24
100.Anelect
ri
cpumpl if
t 2m3ofwat
s1. erpermi
nut
etoahei
ghtof15-m.
Ifi
tsover
allef
fi
ciency
i
s60%, f
indtheinputpower
.Ift
hepumpisusedf
or4hour
saday,f
indt
hedai
lycostofener
gyat
2.25Rs.Perunit
.
(2mark)
a)34.23Rs.
b)44.14Rs.
c)54.44Rs
d)45.44Rs.
Ans.b
Pr
of.VRBhoi Page25
MCQ on Unit No. III (B): Electrostatics
Q.-1) The _______ can never store energy.
(a) Resistance (b) Inductance (c) Capacitance (d) Energy source.

Q.-2) Lightning strikes earth from charged cloud 100m above its surface. If breakdown strength
of air is 3 x 106 V/m, the voltage between cloud and earth surface is
_________ Million Volts.
(a) 3 (b) 30 (c) 300 (d) 3000
Q.-3) During charging and discharging of capacitors, no current passes through
(a) connecting wire (b) battery (c) dielectric (d) circuit switch
Q.-4) 1 Pico Farad is equal to _____ Farad.
(a) 10-3 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-9 (d) 10-12
Q.-5) A capacitor is made of two parallel plates with an area of 11 sq. cm and are
separated by mica sheet 2 mm thick. If for mica relative permittivity is 6 then the
capacitance of the capacitor is
(a) 29.3 pF (b) 29.2182 pF (c) 29.2182 nF (d) 29.028 mF
Q.-6) Which factor of the following is not affecting the dielectric strength of a capacitor?
(a) temperature (b) thickness of material
(c) size and shape (d) type of circuit in which it is used
Q.-7) Unit of Electric flux density is
(a) V/m (b) F/m (c) N/C (d) C/m2
Q-8) In Capacitors, energy is stored in its
(a) Plates (b) Dielectric (c) Electric Field (d) Connecting Wire
Q.-9) Relative Permittivity of a medium has a unit of
(a) V/m (b) C/m2 (c) F/m (d) None of these
Q.-10) Permittivity of free space is constant and its value is ______
(a) 8 F/m (b) 554 F/m (c) 8.854*10-12 F/m (d) 10-12 F/m
Q.-11) The time constant of R-C series circuit is given by______& its unit is_____
(a) R/C & ohm (b) RC & seconds (c) 1/RC & farad (d) RC & farad/ohm
Q.-12) The capacitance of capacitor is NOT influenced by
(a) Plate thickness (b) Plate separation (c) Plate area (d) Nature of dielectric
Q.-13) There is a capacitor with dielectric strength of 16 KV/mm. If a potential of 18 KV/mm
is applied across the plates of same capacitor. What will happen with capacitor
(a) Double charged (b) Full charged (c) Ruined (d) Not charge
Q.-14) If two conducting surfaces are separated by an insulating material forms _____
(a) Inductor (b) resistor (c) R-L (d) capacitor
Q.-15) The space around a charge or charged body is called _______

(a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field (c) Electromagnetic field (d) Magnetostatic field
Q.-16) The electric lines of force always enter or leave a conducting surface at
(a) 180° (b) 0° (c) 90° (d) 360°
Q.-17) Equivalent value of capacitance of two capacitors connected in parallel & series is
20 μF and 3.75 μF respectively. Then the value of two capacitors will be
(a) 4μF & 16μF (b) 5μF & 15μF (c) 10μF & 10μF (d) 11μF & 9μF
Q.-18) As charged capacitor discharges through resistor R, _________
(a) the voltage increases, current decreases
(b) the voltage increases, current increases
(c) the voltage decreases, current decreases
(d) the voltage decreases, current increases
Q.-19) The total no. of lines of force in any particular electric field is
(a) Electric flux (b) Magnetic flux
(c) Electric flux density (d) Electric flux intensity
Q.-20) ______ is used as a dielectric in a capacitor.
(a) Copper (b) Aluminium (c) Paper (d) Carbon
Q.-21) The force between the two charges can be obtained by
(a) Joule’s law (b) Faraday’s law (c) Coulomb’s law (d) Lenz’s law
Q.-22) Three capacitors connected in series have equivalent capacitance of 2 μF. If one of the
capacitor is removed, then the effective capacitance becomes 3 μF. Therefore the
value of removed capacitor is _______ μF.
(a) 6 (b) 1.5 (c) 2/3 (d) Can’t be determined
Q.-23) The ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to establish in it is
(a) Permeability (b) Permittivity (c) Permeance (d) Persistance
Q.-24) Two capacitors 2 μF and 8 μF are in series and combination is connected across 50 V
Then the energy stored in 8 μF capacitor is _______ μJ
(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 400 (d) 2000
Q.-25) The dielectric strength is measured in __________
(a) KV/N (b) V/C (c) KV/mm (d) F/m
Q.-26) Which of the following does not change when a glass slab is introduced between the plates
of a charged parallel plate capacitor.
(a) Electric charge (b) Electric energy (c) Capacitance (d) Electric field intensity
Q.-27) A charge Q1 exerts some force on a second charge Q2. A third charge Q3 is brought near.
The force of Q1 exerted on Q2
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Increases if Q3 is of same sign as Q1 & decreases if Q3 is of opposite sign
Q.-28) Which of the following appliance will be studied under electrostatics
(a) Incandescent lamp (b) Electric iron (c) Lightning rod (d) Electric motor
Q.-29) An air capacitor has the same dimensions as that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance of
mica capacitor is 6 times that of air capacitor then relative permittivity of mica is
(a) 36 (b) 12 (c) 3 (d) 6
Q.-30) Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart. A brass sheet is placed between
them. The force between them will
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remain unchanged (d) none of these
Q.-31) The relative permittivity of vacuum is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 8.854*10-12 (d) none of these
Q.-32) The relative permittivity of a material is 10. Its absolute permittivity will be
(a) 9*10+8 (b) 88.54*10-12 (c) 5*10-5 (d) 9*10+5
Q.-33) Another name for relative permittivity is
(a) Dielectric constant (b) Dielectric strength (c) Potential gradient (d) None of these
Q.-34) The relative permittivity of most materials lies between
(a) 20 and 100 (b) 10 and 20 (c) 100 and 200 (d) 1 and 10
Q.-35) When the relative permittivity of the medium is increased, the force between two
charges placed at a given distance apart
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same (d) None of these
Q.-36) Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart. A glass slab is placed between
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remain unchanged (d) Zero
Q.-37) If the relative permittivity of the medium increases, the electric field intensity at a point
due to a given charge
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remain unchanged (d) None of these
Q.-38) Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm & 15 cm are connected by a thin wire. No current
will flow if they have
(a) The same charge (c) The same energy

(b) The same field on their surface (d) The same potential
Q.-39) The capacitance of a capacitor is ______________ relative permittivity.
(a) Directly proportional to (b) Inversely proportional to
(c) Independent of (d) Directly proportional to square of
Q.-40) The most convenient way of achieving large capacitance is by using
(a) Multiple construction (b) Decreased distance between plates
(c) Air as dielectric (d) Dielectric of low permittivity
Q.-41) A capacitor opposes
(a) Change in current (b) Change in voltage
(c) Can’t say ( d) Both change in current & voltage
Q.-42) If a multiplate capacitor has 7 plates each of area 6 sq. cm, then,
(a) 6 capacitors will be in parallel (b) 7 capacitors will be in parallel
(c) 7 capacitors will be in series (d) 6 capacitors will be in series
Q.-43) Two capacitors of capacitances 3 μF and 6 μF are connected in series, then the total
capacitance of their series combination is
(a) 9 μF (b) 2 μF (c) 18 μF (d) 24 μF
Q.-44) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend upon
(a) Area of plates (b) Medium between plates
(c) Separation between plates (d) Metal of plates

Q.-45) In order to increase the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor, one should introduce
between the plates a sheet of
(a) Mica (b) Tin (c) Copper (d) Stainless steel
Q.-46) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends upon
(a) Thickness of plates (b) Potential difference between plates
(c) Separation between plates (d) The type of metals used
Q.-47) The empty space between the plates of a capacitor is filled with a liquid of dielectric
constant K. The capacitance of capacitor
(a) Increases by a factor K (c) Decreases by a factor K

(b) Increases by a factor square of K (d) Decreases by a factor square of K
Q.-48) A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected
alternately. If the capacitance between any two plates is C, then the resulting
capacitance is
(a) C (b) nC (c) (n-1) C (d) (n+1) C
Q.-49) Two capacitors have capacitances 25 μF when in parallel and 6 μF when in series.
The value of individual capacitances are
(a) 12 μF & 13 μF (b) 15 μF & 10 μF (c) 10 μF & 8 μF (d) None of these
Q.-50) A capacitor of 20 μF charged to 500 V is connected in parallel with another capacitor
of 10 μF capacitance and charged to 200 V. The common potential is
(a) 200 V (b) 250 V (c) 400 V (d) 300 V
Q.-51) A capacitor of 1 μF is charged to a potential of 50 V. It is now connected to an
uncharged capacitor of capacitance 4 μF. The common potential is
(a) 200 V (b) 250 V (c) 400 V (d) 300 V

Q.-52) There are two charges of 1μC and 5μC. The ratio of the forces acting on them will be
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:5 (c) 5:1 (d) 1:25
Q.-53) Two capacitors of capacitances C₁ and C₂ are connected in parallel. A charge Q is
given to them is shared. The ratio of charges Q₁/Q₂ is
(a) C₂/C₁ (b) C₁/C₂ (c) C₁C₂ (d) 1/C₁C₂
Q.-54) The branch dealing with electricity at rest is called
(a) Electrostatics (b) Magnetostatics (c) Electromagnetics (d) Electromechanics
Q.-55) Which of the following statement is true for electric lines of force.
(a) They intersect each other at regular interval.

(b) They form a close loop.
(c) They can pass only through insulating medium.
(d) They can enter charged bodies and pass through them.
Q.-56) The electric flux passing at angles through unit area of surface is called as
(a) Electric charge (b) Electric field strength
(c) Electric flux (d) Electric flux density
Q.-57) The force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at any point in the electric field is
(a) Electric potential (b) Electric field intensity
(c) Displacement intensity (d) Electric flux density
Q.-58) The electric field intensity at a point is given by
(a) 1/2 VQ (b) Q/F (c) F/Q (d) FQ
Q.-59) ______ represents electric field intensity.
(a) V/d (b) Q/V (c) F/Q (d) VQ
Q.-60) Higher the value of E means
(a) Weaker is the value of electric field.

(b) Stronger is the value of electric field.
(c) Electric field is zero.
(d) None of these.
Q.-61) Which of the following relation is true.
(a) E = ε/D (b) E = εD (c) D = εE (d) D = ε/E
Q.-62) The absolute permittivity of a medium is measured in
(a) V/m (b) A/m (c) F/m (d) H/m
Q.-63) The electric field intensity is numerically equal to
(a) Potential gradient (b) Potential difference
(c) Electric force (d) Electric potential
Q.-64) If Q₁ = Q₂ = 1 C and distance between them is 1 m then the force between them is
(a) 9 Х 10⁸ N (b) 9 Х 10⁹ N (c) 9 Х 10⁻⁹ N (d) 4π Х 10⁻⁷ N
Q.-65) The constant of proportionality in Coulomb’s law which depends upon surrounding
Is given by
(a) 4πε (b) 4πε₀ (c) 1 / 4πε (d) 1 / 4πε₀
Q.-66) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by
(a) εA/d (b) εd/A (c) ε/dA (d) A/εd
Q.-67) The charge transferred on the plates of a capacitor is 2 nC while the distance between
the plates ia 1 mm. If area of cross section is 10 cm² and air is used as a dielectric then
the voltage across the plates is
(a) 880 V (b) 225 V (c) 22.588 V (d) 225.88 V
Q.-68) A capacitor of 10 μF has a charge of 1 mC. If the distance between the plates is 1 cm
Then the electric field intensity between the plates is
(a) 10 KV/m (b) 10 V/m (c) 0.1 V/m (d) 80854 KV/m
Q.-69) A capacitor of 2 μF connected in a circuit has one plate at +6 V and the other plate at
-6 V. The charge on the negative plate of the capacitor is
(a) 24 μC (b) -24 μC (c) 12 μC (d) -12 μC

Q.-70) The ability of an insulating medium to resist its breakdown is called its
(a) Dielectric constant (b) Relative permittivity
(c) Dielectric strength (d) Insulation resistance
Q.-71) For the capacitors in series, _________ remain same for all of them.
(a) capacitance (b) time constant (c) voltage (d) charge

Q.-72) For the capacitors in parallel, _________ remain same for all of them.

Q.-73) Three capacitors each of capacitance C and breakdown voltage V are connected
in series then the capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination is
(a) C/3, 3V (b) 3C, V/3 (c) 3C, 3V (d) C/3, V/3
Q.-74) The capacitors of capacitances 15 μF, 10 μF and 3 μF are connected in series and
series combination is connected across 10 V. When the capacitors are fully charged
then the charge on 3 μF capacitor is
(a) 10 μC (b) 20 μC (c) 3 μC (d) 15 μC
in parallel then the capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination is
(a) C/3, 3V (b) 3C, V/3 (c) 3C, V (d) C/3, V/3
Q.-76) Two capacitors of capacitances 6 μF and 3 μF are connected in series across 100 V d.c.
supply then the voltage across 3 μF capacitor is
(a) 0 V (b) 100 V (c) 33.334 V (d) 66.667 V
Q.-77) Which of the following expression will not represent the energy stored in a capacitor
(a) 1/2 CV² (b) 1/2 QV (c) 1/2 QC (d) 1/2 Q²/C
Q.-78) Ten identical capacitors each of capacitance 2 F are connected in series and this series
combination is connected across a regulated power supply of output 10 V. The energy

stored in any one of the 2 F capacitor is
(a) 1 J (b) 2 J (c) 5 J (d) 10 J
Q.-79) What fraction of the energy drawn from the charging battery is stored in a capacitor.
(a) 100 % (b) 50 % (c) 75 % (d) 66.67 %
Q.-80) When a capacitor ‘C’ is charged through resistance R then the initial rate of rise
of capacitor voltage is
(a) VRC (b) VR/C (c) V/RC (d) VC/R
Q.-81) A charging time constant of RC circuit is time required by the capacitor voltage to
rise from
(a) 0 to 90 % of its final value.

(b) 0 to 63.2 % of its final value.
(c) 0 to 36.8 % of its final value.
(d) None of these.
Q.-82) A charging time constant of RC circuit is time required by charging current to fall to
(a) 90 % of its initial maximum value.

(b) 63.2 % of its initial maximum value.
(c) 36.8 % of its initial maximum value.
(d) None of these.
Q.-83) The time constant of RC discharging circuit is time required for
(a) Capacitor voltage to fall to 36.8 % of its initial value.

(b) Capacitor voltage to fall to 63.2 % of its initial maximum value.
(c) Capacitor current to increase to 36.8 % of its initial maximum value.
(d) Capacitor current to decrease to 36.8 % of its initial maximum value.
(a) Capacitor voltage to rise to 36.8 % of its initial value.

(b) Capacitor voltage to fall to 63.2 % of its initial value.
(c) Capacitor current to fall to 36.8 % of its initial value.
(d) Capacitor current to fall to 63.2 % of its initial value.
Q.-85) Three capacitors of equal value are connected in parallel across 100 V supply. The
charge on each capacitor is 5 μC hence the value of capacitance is
(a) 50 μF (b) 50 nF (c) 50 pF (d) 100 nF
series combination is connected across 200 V. Then the voltage across 4 μF capacitor is
(a) 57.01 V (b) 200 V (c) 114.2 V (d) 28.5714 V
Q.-87) A capacitor of 1 μF is charged to a potential of 100 V. It is disconnected and then
connected across another 1 μF capacitor. Then the new voltage across them is
(a) 150 V (b) 50 V (c) 100 V (d) 0 V
Q.-88) A capacitor of 1 μF is charged through a resistor of 1MΩ from a 100 V source then
voltage across capacitor after 2 sec. is
(a) 63.212 V (b) 36.8 V (c) 86.466 V (d) 100 V
Q.-89) Initial rate of rise of current through a capacitor of 10 μF when charged across 50 V
is 5 V/sec then the value of resistance through which it is charged is
(a) 2 MΩ (b) 1 MΩ (c) 5 MΩ (d) 10 MΩ
charging current after 2 sec. is
(a) 0 μA (b) 40 μA (c) 13.406 μA (d) 26.812 μA
Q.-91) Initial charging current through a capacitor is 40 μA when charged through 1.5 MΩ
Resistor then supply voltage is
(a) 60 V (b) 80 V (c) 40 V (d) 20 V
Q.-92) Permittivity is also called as
(a) Dielectric constant (b) Dielectric strength

(c) Potential gradient (d) None of these
Q.-93) The ______ is also called as electric space constant.
(a) absolute permittivity (b) relative permittivity
(c) permittivity of air (d) none of these
Q.-94) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is directly proportional to
(a) distance between plates (b) cross sectional area
(c) length (d) all of these
Q.-95) The total charge on the parallel combination of capacitors is equal to the _____
of the charge on individual capacitors.
(a) multiplication (b) vector sum (c) sum (d) subtraction
Q.-96) A multiplate capacitor is equivalent to several two plate capacitor connected in _____.
(a) star (b) series - parallel (c) parallel (d) series
Q.-97) Multiple parallel plates are _____to form a multiplate capacitor.
(a) interleaved (b) sandwitched (c) interconnected (d) none of these
Q.-98) A capacitor charges ________ through a resistor R, when their series combination is
connected across a source voltage V.
(a) linearly (b) exponentially (c) nonlinearly (d) none of these
Q.-99) ______ is not involved in the RC discharging circuit.
(a) R (b) C (c) Voltage source (d) Switch

Q.-100) The current at t = 0 in RC discharging circuit is
(a) zero (b) infinity (c) unity (d) V/R
Q.-101) The discharging current flows ___________ of the charging current.
(a) for half the time (b) in the opposite direction
(c) in the same direction (d) all of these

Q.-102) The energy stored by a capacitor is equal to
(a) force exerted (b) charge acquired

(c) voltage applied (d) work done
Q.-103) Coulomb’s second law is called as
(a) Inverse square law (b) Charge law
(c) Induction law (d) Force law
Q.-104) When ________ current flows for _____ the electric charge carried through the
conductor is equal to 1 Coulomb.
(a) 1 A , 1 hr (b) 10 A , 1 sec
(c) 1 A , 1 sec (d) None of these
Q.-105) The electric or electrostatic lines of force are imaginary lines which represent the
________ distribution in electric field surrounding the charged body.
(a) force (b) stress (c) power (d) field strength
Q.-106) The electric lines of force act like stretched elastic bands and always try to _______
in length.
(a) contract (b) expand (c) maximize (d) minimize
Q.-107) The electric lines of force adjust themselves so as to have a minimum _______.
(a) flux density (b) reactance (c) permittivity (d) reluctance
Q.-108) The electric flux density is defined as the ________ per ________ measured at right
angles to the direction of flux.
(a) force, unit area (b) force, unit flux
(c) flux, unit force (d) flux, unit area
Q.-109) The electric ________ is defined as the mechanical force experienced by a unit positive
Charge when it is placed at any point in the electric field.
(a) field strength (b) flux density
(c) potential (d) charge

Q.-110) The equivalent capacitance is always smaller than the smallest capacitance connected
in the _______ combination.
(a) star (b) series as well as parallel (c) parallel (d) series
Unit II + III
Part (b) : AC Fundamentals & AC Circuits
1. A standard sinusoidal voltage wave changes ans:a

its polarity at________
a. maximum value 6.The average value of a sine wave of maximum
b. minimum value value Im over one cycle is_______
c. zero value a. Im/π
d. none of the above b. 2Im/π
ans:c c. zero
d. Im/2
2. The period of a certain sine wave is 10 ans:c
milliseconds. Its frequency is________
a.10 MHz 7. The rms value of a sine wave of maximum
b.10 KHz value 10A equals a dc current of
c.10 Hz ______ampere.
d.100 Hz a.7.07
ans:d b.6.37
c.5
3. Two sine waves are said to be in phase with d.5.77
each other if they achieve their______ ans:a
a. zero value at the same time
b. maximum value at the time 8.The rms value of a sinusoidal voltage with
c. minimum value at the same time peak-to-peak value of 240 V is________V.
d. all of the above a.84.84
ans:d b.77.82
c.94.68
4. The distance occupied by one complete cycle d.89.15
of the wave is called its________ ans:a
a. time period
b. wavelength 9. The time period of a sinusoidal waveform
c. velocity with 200 Hz frequency is________second.
d. frequency a.0.05
ans:a b.0.005
c.0.0005
5. The rms value of a sine wave of peak value Im d.0.5
is given by_______ ans:b
a. Im/√2
b. Im 10. The peak value of a sine wave is 400 V. Its
c. Im/2 average value is_________
d. Im/π a.254.6 V

b.282.6 V a. 150 V
c.400 V b. 216.5 V
d.565.5 V c. 125 V
ans:a d.108.25 V
ans:b
11. The form factor of a sine wave is_____
a.1.01 16. An alternating current is given by the
b.1.11 expression 𝑖 = 200 sin (314𝑡 + ) amperes.
c.1.21 The maximum value and frequency of the
d. none of the above current are_________
ans:b a. 200 A, 50 Hz
b. 100√2, 50 Hz
12. A current is said to be alternating when it c. 200 A, 100 Hz
changes in_______ d. 200 A, 25 Hz
a. magnitude only ans:a
b. direction only
c. both magnitude and direction 17.The average value of the current 𝑖 =
d. neither magnitude nor direction
200 sin 𝑡 from 𝑡 = 0 to 𝑡 = is ______
ans:c
a. 400 π
13. An alternating current of 50 Hz frequency b.

and 100 A maximum value is given by______ c.
a.𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛628𝑡 d.
b.𝑖 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
ans:b
c.𝑖 = 100√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
d.𝑖 = 100√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛157𝑡 18. When two quantities are in quadrature, the
ans:b phase angles between them will be________
a.45°
14. An alternating current of 50 Hz frequency b.90°
has a maximum value of 100 A. Its value 1/600 c.135°
second after the instant current is zero will d.60°
be________ ans:b
a. 25 A
b. 12.5 A 19.The alternating voltage 𝑒 = 200 sin 314𝑡 is
c. 50 A applied to a device which offers an ohmic
d. 75 A resistance of 20 Ω to the flow of current in one
ans:c direction while entirely preventing the flow in
the opposite direction. The average value of the
15.A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to a current will be_________
maximum of 250 V. The voltage at the instant of a.5 A
60° of the cycle will be________ b.3.18 A

c.1.57 A a. 0.02 second

d.1.10 A b. 0.01 second
ans:b c. 0.04 second
d. 0.05 second
20. The ac system is preferred to dc system ans:c
because_______
a. ac voltages can be easily changed in 25. A sine wave has a maximum value of 20 V.
magnitude Its value at 135° is______
b. dc motors do not have fine speed control a. 10 V
c. high voltage ac transmission is less efficient b. 14.14 V
d. dc voltage can not be used for domestic c. 15 V
appliances d. 5 V
ans:a ans:b
21.In ac system, we generate sine waveform 26. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =

because_______ 30 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 .The time taken by the voltage to
a. it can be easily drawn reach 30 V for the first time is_____
b. it produces least disturbance in electrical a. 0.02 second
circuits b. 0.1 second
c. it is nature’s standard c. 0.03 second
d. other waves can not be produced easily d. 0.005 second
ans:b ans:d
22.__________will work only on dc supply. 27. A sinusoidal current has a magnitude of 3 A

a. electric lamp at 120°. Its maximum value will be_____
b. refrigerator a.√3 A
c. electroplating b.
√
A
d. heater
c.2√3 A
ans:c
d. 6 A
ans:c
23.An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 =
20 sin 157𝑡. The frequency of the alternating
29. An alternating current is given by 𝑖 =
voltage is_____
10 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Measuring time from 𝑡 = 0, the
a.50 Hz
time taken by the current to reach +10 V for the
b.25 Hz
second time is_________
c.100 Hz
a. 0.05 second
d.75 Hz
b. 0.1 second
ans:b
c. 0.025 second
d. 0.02 second
ans:c
10 sin 314𝑡. The time taken to generate two
cycles of current is____

30. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 = ans:c

100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 volts. Its average value will
be________ 35. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as 𝑣 =
a. 70.7 V 141.4 sin (314.18𝑡 − ) . Its rms value of
b. 50 V voltage, frequency and phase angle are
c. 63.7 V respectively_______
d. 100 V a. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°
ans:c b. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
c. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90°
31. An alternating current whose average value d. 100 V,50 Hz, -90°
is 1 A will produce_________1 A dc under ans:d
similar conditions.
a. less heat than 36. When two sinusoidal waves are 90° out of
b. more heat than phase, then__________
c. the same heat as a. both have their peak values at the same
d. none of the above instant
ans:b b.both have their minimum values at the same
instant
32. A sinusoidal alternating current has a c. one has its peak value; while the other has
maximum value of Im. Its average value will zero value
be_______ d. none of these
a. ans:c
b.
37. The direction of current in an ac circuit
c. 2
is___________
d.none of the above a. always in one direction
ans:c b. varying from time to time
c. unpredictable
33.The area of a sinusoidal wave over a half- d. from positive to negative
cycle is________ ans:b
a.𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2
b.2 × 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 38. Consider the sinusoidal waves: 𝐴 sin (𝜔𝑡 +
c.𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 𝜋 30°) and 𝐵 sin (𝜔𝑡 − 60°) . The phase angle
d. .𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 ÷ 2𝜋 relationship between the two waves________
ans:b a. B-wave lags A-wave by 90°
b. B-wave lags A-wave by 60°
34. An alternating voltage is given by 𝑣 = c. B-wave lags A-wave by 30°
200 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value will be_____ d. B-wave and A-wave are in phase
a. 100 V ans:a
b. 282.8 V
c. 141.4 V
d. 121.4 V

39. A sinusoidal voltage is expressed as 𝑣 = d. none of the above

20 sin (314.16𝑡 + ) V. Its frequency and ans:c
phase angle respectively are____________
a. 314.16 Hz, 60° 44. The rms value of sinusoidally varying current
b. 60Hz, 60° is_________that of its average value.
c. 50 Hz, 60° a. more than
d. 50 Hz, -60° b. less than
ans:c c. same as
40. A sinusoidal voltage v1 leads another ans:a
sinusoidal voltage v2 by 180°. Then__________
a. voltage v2 leads voltage v1 by 180° 45. Alternating voltages and currents are
b. both voltage have their zero values at the expressed in rms values because______
same time a. they can be easily determined
c. both voltages have their peak values at the b. calculations become very simple
same time c. they give comparison with dc
d. all of the above d. none of the above
ans:d ans:c
41.The rms value of an ac sinusoidal current is 46.The average value of sin2θ over a complete
10 A. Its peak value is_________ cycle is_________
a. 7.07 A a. +1
b. 14.14 A b. -1
c. 10 A c.
d. 28.28 A d. zero
ans:b ans:c
42. If A=10∠45° and B=5∠15°, then the value of 47.The average value of sinθ over a complete
A/B will be_________ cycle is_________
a. 50∠60° a. zero
b. 2∠60° b. +1
c. 2∠-30° c. -1
d. 2∠30° d.
ans:d
ans:a
43. When a phasor is multiplied by –j, it gets

rotated through in the counterclockwise
𝐼𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃. The average value of squared wave of
direction.
this current over a complete cycle is________
a.90°
a. I2m/2
b.180°
b. Im/π
c.270°
c. 2Im/π

d. 2Im
ans:a 54. The peak factor of a sine waveform
is_______
49. The form factor of a sinusoidal wave a.1.11
is______ b.1.414
a.1.414 c.2
b.1.11 d.1.5
c.2 ans:b
d.1.5
ans:b 55.When a 15V square wave is connected
across a 50V ac voltmeter, it will read______
50. The filament of a vacuum tube requires 0.4A a.15V
dc to heat it. The rms value of ac required b.15 × √2 V
is______ c.15/√2 V
a.0.4 × √2 A d.none of the above
b.0.4 ÷ 2 A ans:a
c.0.8 ÷ √2 A
d. 0.4 A 56.A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its
ans:d angular frequency is_______radian/second.
a.100π
51. A100 V peak ac is as effective as_____dc. b.50π
a. 100 V c.25π
b. 50 V d.5π
c. 70.7 V ans:a
ans:c 57. The period of a wave is____________
a. the same as frequency
52. The form factor of a ________wave is 1. b. time required to complete one cycle
a. sinusoidal c. expressed in amperes
b. square d. none of the above
c. triangular ans:b
d. sawtooth
ans:b 58. The form factor is the ratio of _________
a. peak value to rms value
53. Out of the following _________wave is the b. rms value to average value
peakiest. c. average value to rms value
a. sinusoidal d. none of the above
b. square ans:b
c. rectangualr
d. triangular 59. The period of a sine wave is 1/50 seconds.
ans:d Its frequency is_______

a. 20 Hz 64. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This

b. 30 Hz figure represents________
c. 40 Hz a. mean value
d. 50 HZ b. rms value
ans:d c. peak value
d. average value
60. An ac current is given by 𝑖 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛100𝜋𝑡. ans:b
It will achieve a value of 100A
after_____second. 65. The rms value and mean value is the same
a. in the case of_______
a. traingular wave
b.
b. sine wave
c. c. square wave
d. d. half wave rectified sine wave
ans:c
ans:d
66. For the same peak value which of the

61. A heater is rated as 230V, 10KW, AC. The
following wave will have the highest rms value?
value of 230V refers to___________
a.square wave
a. average voltage
b.half wave rectified sine wave
b. rms voltage
c.triangular wave
c. peak voltage
d.sine wave
ans:a
ans:b
67. For the same peak value which of the

62. The peak value of a sine wave is 200V. Its
following wave will have the least mean value?
average value is_______
a. half wave rectified sine wave
a.127.4V
b. triangular wave
b.141.4V
c. sine wave
c.282.8V
d. square wave
d.200V
ans:a
ans:a
68. For a sine wave with peak value Imax, the rms
63. The rms value of a sine wave is 100A. Its
value is_______
peak value is _______
a. 0.5Imax
a.70.7A
b. 0.707Imax
b.141.4A
c. 0.9Imax
c.150A
d. 1.414Imax
d.282.8A
ans:b
ans:b
69. Form factor is the ratio of_________

a. average value/rms value

b. average value/peak value b.222V

c. rms value/average value c.282V
d. rms value/peak value d.346V
ans:c ans:d
69. For a sine wave with peak value Emax, the 74. A sine wave of voltage varies from zero to
average value is______ maximum of 200V. How much is the voltage at
a. 0.636 Emax the instant of 30° of the cycle?
b. 0.707Emax a.50V
c. 0.434 Emax b.82.8V
d. 1.414Emax c.100V
ans:a d.173.2V
ans:c
70. The current in a circuit is given by: 𝑖 =
100 sin 314𝑡 amperes. The maximum value and 75. How much rms current does a 300W, 200V
frequency of current are_________ bulb take from the 200V, 50 Hz power line?
a.50√2 A, 100 Hz a.0.5 A
b.100√2 A, 100 Hz b.1.5 A
c. 100 A, 50 Hz c.2 A
d. 70.7 A, 50 Hz d. 3 A
ans:c ans:b
71. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period 76. The rms value of a half-wave rectified
will be_________ current is 100 A. Its value for full-wave
a. 0.05 S rectification would be_________amperes.
b. 0.005 S a.141.4
c. 0.0005 S b.200
d. 0.5 S c. 200/π
ans:b d. 40/π
ans:a
72. An ac voltage of 50 Hz has a maximum value
of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second after the 77. The rms value of a sinusoidal ac current is
instant the current is zero will be_________ equal to its value at an angle of ______degrees.
a.5V a.90
b.12.5V b.60
c.25V c.45
d.43.8V d.30
ans:c ans:c
73. For 200V rms value triangular wave, the 78. The rms value of alternating current is given
peak voltage will be______ by steady (dc) current which when flowing
a.200V

through a given circuit for a given time b. 100 Hz

produces________ c. 60 Hz
a. the more heat than produced by ac when d. 50 Hz
flowing through the same circuit ans:d
b. the same heat as produced by ac when
flowing through the same circuit 83. The rms value of half wave rectified sine
c. the less heat than produced by ac flowing wave is 200V. The rms value of full wave
through the same circuit rectified ac will be__________
d. none of the above a.282.8V
ans:b b.141.4V
c.111V
79. The square waveform of current has d. 100V
following relation between rms value and ans:a
average value:
a. rms value is equal to average value 84. The voltage in a circuit follows the law: 𝑣 =
b. rms value of current is greater than average 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡. If the frequency is 25 Hz, how long
value will
c. rms value of current is less than average it take for the voltage to rise to 50V?
value a. S
b. S
ans:a
c. S
80. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz d. S
with 30A rms current, which of the following
ans:c
equation represents the wave?
a.42.42 sin 314𝑡
85. The negative maximum of a cosine wave
b.60 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
occurs at________
c.30 sin 50𝑡
a.30°
d.84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛25𝑡
b.45°
ans:a
c.90°
d.180°
81. Which of the following waves has the
ans:d
highest value of peak factor?
a. square wave
86. The rms value of pure cosine function
b. sine wave
is_________
c. half wave rectified sine wave
a. 0.5 of peak value
d. triangular wave
b. 0.707 of peak value
ans:c
c. same as peak value
d. zero
82.The frequency of domestic power supply in
ans:b
India is_____
a. 200 Hz

87. An alternating voltage is given in volts by supplied 500 W output (i.e. no losses) at the
expression 𝑣 = 326 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value and new voltage it will supply_________
frequency are____ a. 2500 W
a.230V,50 Hz b. 2000 W
b. 230V,100 Hz c. 500 W
c. 326V,50 Hz d. 250 W
d. 326V,100 Hz ans:b
ans:a
92. The direction of current in an ac
88. According to which of the alternating circuit________
current values in the cross sectional area of a a. is from positive to negative
conductor with regard to the heating effect is b. is always in one direction
selected? c. varies from instant to instant
a. peak value d. can not be determined
b. half peak value ans:c
c. average value
d. rms value 93. The angular frequency of an alternating
ans:d quantity is a mathematical quantity obtained by
multiplying the frequency “f” of the alternating
89. The frequency of an alternating current quantity by a factor_________
is________ a.
a. the speed with which the alternator runs b.π
b. the number of cycles generated in one c.2π
minute d.4π
c. the number of waves passing through a point ans:c
in one second
d. the number of electrons passing through a 94. The average value of an unsymmetrical
point in one second alternating quantity is calculated over
ans:c the_________
a. whole cycle
90. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave b. half cycle
having rms value of 60 A is______ c. unsymmetrical part of the waveform
a.60 sin 25𝑡 d. first two cycles
b.60 sin 50𝑡 ans:a
c.84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
d42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. 95. The mean value of the current 𝑖 = 20 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
ans:c
from θ=0 to θ= is_______
a.40π
91. An electric iron designed for 110 V AC
supply was rated at 500 W. It was put across a b.
220 V supply. Assuming that at 110 V, it c.

d. b. 10 A, 17.07 A
ans:b c. 10 A, 12.25 A
d. 16.36 A, 12.2 A
96. A constant current of 2.8A exists in a ans:c
resistor. The rms value of current is______
a. 2.8 A 101. The size (cross-sectional area) of a
b. about 2 A conductor, with regard to the heating effect, is
c. 1.4 A determined on the basis of ……….. value of
d. undefined current to be carried by it
ans:a a. average value
b. peak value
97. An alternating current is represented as 𝑖 = c. rms value
d. peak to peak value
70.7 sin (520𝑡 + ). The frequency and rms
ans:c
value of the current are_________
a. 82.76 Hz, 50 A
102. The form factor for dc supply voltage is
b. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
always
c. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
a. zero
d. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
b. unity
ans:a
c. infinity
d. any value between 0 and 1
98. The time period or periodic time T of an
ans:b
alternating quantity is the time taken in seconds
to complete_____________
103. The ________ varying alternating quantity
a. one cycle
can be represented as phasor.
b. alternation
a) circular
c. none of the above
b) sinusoidally
d. Half cycle
c) rectangular
ans: a
d) triagular
ans:b
99. The time period of an alternating quantity is
0.02 second. Its frequency will be________
104. The phasors are assumed to be rotated in
a. 25 Hz
_________ direction.
b. 50 Hz
a) clockwise
c. 100 Hz
b) anticlockwise
d. 0.02 Hz
c) circular
ans: b
d) all above
ans:b
100. An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10 sin 314
t, the average and rms values of the current
105. In practice, alternating quantities are
are____
a. 16.36 A, 17.07 A
a. rms

b. average
c. rectangular
d. polar
ans:a
106. Alternating quantities of ____ frequencies

can be represented on same phasor diagram. In the above figure, the phase quantity at B is
a. Same _______
b. Different a. T
c. multiple b.T/2
d. all above c.3T/4
ans: a d. T/4
ans:c
107. The phase of alternating quantity at any
particular instant is the fraction of ______ 110. When phase of an alternating quantity is
a. phase positive it means that quantity has some
b. time _______ instantaneous value at t=0
c. time period a. zero
d. all above b. positive
ans:c c. negative
108. ans:b
111. When phase of an alternating quantity is

negative it means that quantity has some
a. zero
b. positive
In the above figure, the phase quantity at A is c. negative
_______ d. none of the above
a. T ans:c
b. T/2
c. T/3 112. The difference between the _____ of two
d. T/4 alternating quantities is called the phase
ans:d difference.
a. time
109. b. phase angle
c. Lengths
d. both a and b
ans:b

113. The difference between the phase of two

alternating quantities is called the________. 118. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ), the
a. phase difference ‘v’ is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ
b. sine difference a. in phase
c. length difference b. lagging
d. none of the above c. leading
ans:a d. all above
ans:c
114. When phase difference between the two
alternating quantities is zero, the two quantities 119. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ), the
are said to be in _____ ‘i’ is said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ
a. tandom a. in phase
b. length b. lagging
c. phase c. leading
d. time d. all above
ans:c ans:c
115. When ____________ between the two 120. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt+Φ), the
alternating quantities is zero, the two quantities ‘v’ is said to _______ ‘i’ by angle Φ
are said to be in phase. a. in phase
a. time difference b. lag
b. length difference c. lead
c. phase difference d. all above
d. none of the above ans:b
ans:c
121. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin ωt, the ‘i’ is
116. When phase difference between the two said to _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ
alternating quantities is _______, the two a. in phase
quantities are said to be in phase. b. lag
a. one c. lead
b. unity d. all above
c. zero ans:a
d. π/2
ans:c 122. With respect to reference, plus sign of
angle indicates _______
117. If v = Vm Sin ωt and i = Im Sin (ωt-Φ), the ‘i’ a. leading
is said to be _______ ‘v’ by angle Φ b. lagging
a. in phase c. in phase
b. lagging d. none of the above
c. leading ans:a
d. all above
ans:b

123. With respect to reference, minus sign of d. shape

angle indicates _______ ans:b
a. leading
b. lagging 128. The lagging and leading word is relative to
c. in phase the ______
d. none of the above a. base
ans:b b. range
c. reference
124. With respect to reference, _____ sign of d. angle
angle indicates lead. ans:c
a. division
b. plus 129. Polar form of v = 100 sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is
c. minus ________
d.dot a.61.2371+j35.3553
ans:b b.70.7106∟30
c. 61.2371∟35.3553
125. With respect to reference, _____ sign of d. 70.710+ j30
angle indicates lag. ans:b
a. division
b. plus 130. Rectangular form of V= 100 sin(100πt+π/6)
c. minus Volt is ________
d.dot a.61.2371+j35.3553
ans:c b.70.7106∟30
c. 61.2371∟35.3553
126. The diagram in which different sinusoidal d. 70.710+ j30
alternating quantities of the same frequency, ans:a
are represented by individual phasors indicating
exact phase relationship is called ________ 131. RMS value of current I = 25 + j40 Amp is
a. graph _______
b. still diagram a.57.99
c. phasor diagram b.47.1699
d. picture c.60
ans:c d.30
ans:b
127. The diagram in which different sinusoidal
alternating quantities of the same _____, are 132. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A
represented by individual phasors indicating flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1+I2 =
exact phase relationship is called phasor ________
diagram. a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
a. time b. 5.55964.924 A
b. frequency c. 7.296+ j12.58 A
c. sign d. None of the above

ans:a c. capacitive
133. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A ans:b
flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1-I2
=________ 138. In purely Inductive circuit, current _____
a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A voltage by 90 degrees.
b. 5.5596∟4.924 A a. leads
c. 7.296+ j12.58 A b. lags
d. None of the above c. in phase
ans:c d. all above
ans:b
134. Two currents I1 = 1050 and I2 = 5 -100 A
flow in single phase AC circuit. Then I1/I2 139. In purely Inductive circuit, current lags
=________ voltage by _______ degrees.
a. 5.5596+ j4.924 A a. 30
b. 2150 A b.60
c. 7.296+ j12.58 A c.90
d. None of the above d.120
ans:b ans:c
135.In purely _____ circuit, the current flowing 140.The inductance offers _____ reactance to
and voltage applied are in phase with each DC.
other. a. high
a. resistive b. low
b. inductive c. zero
c.capacitive d. none of the above
d. none of the above ans:c
ans:a
141. The _________ offers zero reactance to
136. In purely resistive circuit, the current and DC.
voltage applied are in ______ with each other. a. resistance
a. opposition b. inductance
b. phase c. permeance
c. direction d. none of the above
d. line ans: b
ans:b
142. The inductance offers zero _________ to
137. In purely _______ circuit, current lags DC
voltage by 90 degrees. a. resistance
a. resistive b. capacitance
b. inductive c. reactance
d. permeance

ans:c c. indepedent of
c. none of above
143. Pure ______ never consumes power ans:b
a. resistor
b. inductor 149. Inductive reactance is directly proportional
c. starter to ________.
d. circuit a. time
ans:b b. phase
c. frequency
144. Inductive reactance is given by_____ d. phase difference
a.XL=ωL ans:c
b.XL=2πL
c.XL=ΦL 150. In purely capacitive circuit, current ______
d.XL= ωC voltage by 90 degrees.
ans:a a. lags
b. leads
145.______is given by XL=ωL c. in phase
a. resistance d. all above
b. inductance ans:b
c. inductive reactance
d. capacitive reactance 151. In purely capacitive circuit, current leads
ans:c voltage by _______ degrees.
a. 30
146. Inductive reactance is measured in ______ b.60
a. Farad c.90
b. Henry d.120
c. Ohm ans:c
d. Joule
ans:c 152. The capacitor offers _____ reactance to
DC.
147. Inductive reactance depends on ______ of a. high
applied voltage b. low
a. phase c. zero
b. sign d. none of the above
c. frequency ans:a
d. speed
ans:c 153. The _________ offers infinite reactance to
DC.
148. Inductive reactance is _________ a. resistance
frequency. b. permeance
a. inversely proportional to c. capacitance
b. directly proportional to d. none of the above

ans:c b. directly proportional

c. both
154. The capacitance offers infinite _________ c. none of above
to DC ans:a
a. resistance
b. capacitance 160. Capacitive reactance is inversly
c. reactance proportional to ________.
d. permeance a. time
ans:c b. phase
c. frequency
155. Pure ______ never consumes power d. phase difference
a. resistor ans:c
b. capacitor
c. starter 161. A certain inductor has reactance of 4kΩ at
d. circuit 5kHz. Its reactance at 15 kHz is _____ kΩ.
ans:b a.8
b.10
156. Capacitive reactance is given by_____ c.12
a. XC=1/ωC d.20
b. XC=1/2𝝅C ans:c
c. XC=1/ΦC
d. XC=2𝝅fL 162. In purely inductive circuit, if the frequency
ans:a is doubled and applied voltage is halved, the
resulting current becomes____
157.______is given by XC=1/ωL a. one-fourth
a. Inductive resistance b. one-fifth
b. inductive capacitance c. one-half
c. inductive reactance d. one-third
d. capacitive reactance ans:a
ans:d
163. The square of a j operator _____
158. Capacitive reactance is measured in a. can never be negative
______ b. can never be positive
a. farads c. could be either positive or negative
b. henrys d. is equal to j
c. ohms ans:b
d. joules
ans:c 164. A complex number_____
a. is the same as imaginary number
159. Capacitive reactance is _________ to b. has real and imaginary part
frequency. c. is negative number
a. inversely proportional d. is merely a technical term

ans:b 170. Consider the sinusoidal waves: A sin

(ωt+30) and B cos(ωt-60). The phase angle
165. The sum of (3+j6) and (-3-j6) is ____ relationship between two waves is:
a.0+j0 a. B wave lags A wave by 90 degrees
b.6+j12 b. B wave lags A wave by 60 degrees
c. -6-j12 c. B wave lags A wave by 30 degrees
d. 0-j12 d. B wave and A wave are in phase
ans:a ans:d
166. The product of (-4-j7) and (6-j2) is______ 171. Inductive reactance of a coil of inductance
a. -24+j14 0.2 H at 50 Hz is ____ ohms.
b. 24-j14 a.62.8
c. -38-j34 b.628
d. -24-j14 c.0.2
ans:c d.10
ans:a
167. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as: v =
141.4 sin(314.18t-π/2). Its rms value of voltage, 172. The reactance of L Henry inductance
frequency and phase angle are respectively____ connected to an AC source of frequency f is
a.141.42V, 314.16 Hz, 90 degrees ______ ohm.
b. 100V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees a. f L
c. 87.92V, 56 Hz, 90 degrees b. πfL
d. 200V, 50 Hz, -90 degrees c. 2 πfL
ans:b d. all above
ans:c
168. When two sinusoidal waves are 90 degrees
out of phase, then ____ 173. When pure inductance is connected to an
a. both have their peak values at the same time AC sources, the voltage____ to the current by
b. both have their minimum values at the same ____
time a. lags, 90 degrees
c. one has its peak value, other has zero value b. leads, 90 degrees
d. none of these c. lags, 45 degrees
ans:c d. leads, 45 degrees
ans:b
169. The direction of current in an AC circuit is
_____ 174. If 10 ohm resistor is connected across an
a. always in one direction AC voltage v = 100 sin(314t+300), the power
b. varying time to time periodically dissipated through resistor is _____
c. unpredictable a.500 W
d. from positive to negative b.1000 W
ans:b c.250 W
d.100 W

ans:b ans:c
175.When a phasor is multiplied by j and –j, it is 180. Inductive reactance of an AC circuit

rotated through ______ degrees in the increases with ____
anticlockwise direction respectively. a. increase in frequency
a.90, 270 b. increase in resistance
b.90, 90 c. decrease in resistance
c.90, 180 d. decrease in frequency
d.270, 90 ans:a
ans:a
181.The phase difference between two
176.The p. f. of purely resistive circuit is ____ waveforms can be compared when they _____
a. zero a. have the same frequency
b. unity b. have the same peak value
c. lagging c. have the same effective value
d. leading d. are sinusoidal
ans:b ans:a
177. For a frequency of 50 Hz, the reactance 182. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but
offered by capacitor is 10 ohms, If the of different amplitude and phase difference are
frequency is increased to 100 Hz, the reactance added, the resultant is a ______
becomes____ a. sinusoid of same frequency
a.40 ohms b. sinusoid of double the original frequency
b.20 ohms c. sinusoid of half the original frequency
c.5 ohms d. non-sinusoid
d.2.5 ohms ans:a
ans:c
183. A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a
178. If e1 = 100 sin2πf and e2 = 100 sin(2πf-Φ), resistor. The rms value of current is ____
then _____ a. 2.8 A
a. e1 lags e2 by Φ b. 2 A
b. e1 leads e2 by Φ c. 1.4 A
c. e2 lags e1 by Φ d. undefined
d. none of the above ans:a
ans:c
184. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal
179. The average power in a purely inductive or current of 1 A at frequency of 50 Hz. The
capacitive circuit over a cycle____ average power dissipated by the inductor is
a. depends on XL or XC ____
b. is negative a.0
c. is zero b. 3.14 W
d. is positive c. 0.5 W

d. 1 W
ans:a 190. A phasor 2∟180 can be expressed as____
a.j2
185. The power factor of an ordinary bulb is b.-j2
_____ c.-2
a. zero d.2
b. unity ans:c
c. more than unity
d. less than unity 191. A current of (3+j4) A is flowing through a
ans:b circuit. The magnitude of current is _____
a. 7 A
186. If the phasor is multiplied by j, then ____ b. 5 A
a. only its magnitude changes c. 1 A
b. only its direction changes d. 1.33 A
c. both magnitude and direction change ans:b
ans:b 192. The voltage applied in a circuit is given by
100∟60 volts. It can be written as ____
187. In the complex number 4+j7, 7 is called the a. 100∟-60
______ component b.100∟240
a. real c. 100∟-300
b. imaginary d. none of the above
c. in-phase ans:c
d. none of the above`
ans:d 193. The conjugate of -4+j3 is _____
a. 4-j3
188. The reciprocal of a complex number is b. -4-j3
a_____ c.4+j3
a. complex number d. none of the above
b. real component only ans:b
c. quadrature component only
d. none of above 194. The difference of two conjugate number
ans:a results in _____
a. a complex number
189. If two complex numbers are equal, b. in-phase component only
then_____ c. quadrature component only
a. only their magnitudes will be equal d. none of the above
b. only their angles will be equal ans:c
c. their in phase and quadrature components
will be separately equal 195. The reciprocal of j is ____
d.none of above a.j
ans:c b.-j

c.jxj ans:a
d.none of the above
ans:b 200. Pure inductive circuit ______
a. consumes some power on average
196. Two waves of same frequency have b. does not take power at all from lines
opposite phase when the phase angle between c. takes power from the line during some part
them is ___ degrees of cycle and returns back during other part of
a.360 cycle
b.180 d. none of the above
c.90 ans: c
d.0
ans: b 211. Power factor of the following circuit will be
zero
197.The power consumed in a circuit element a. resistive
will be least when the phase difference b. pure inductive
between the current and voltage is ____ c. pure capacitive
degrees. d. both (b) and (c)
a. approx.180 ans:d
b. approx. 90
c. approx. 60 212. Power factor of the following circuit will be
d. approx. 0 unity
ans:b a. resistive
b. pure inductive
198. Two sinusoidal currents are given by i1 = c. pure capacitive
100sin (ωt+π/3) and i2 = 150sin(ωt-π/4). The d. both (b) and (c)
phase difference between them is _____ ans:a
degrees
a.15 213. In pure resistive circuit _____
b.50 a. current lags the voltage by 90 degrees
c.60 b. current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
d.105 c. current can lead or lag the voltage by 90
ans:d degrees
d. current is in phase with the voltage
199. Capacitive reactance is more when____ ans:d
a. capacitance is less and frequency of supply is
less 214. In pure inductive circuit _____
b. capacitance is less and frequency of supply is a. current lags the voltage by 90 degrees
more b. current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
c. capacitance is more and frequency of supply c. current can lead or lag the voltage by 90
is less degrees
d.capacitance is more and frequency of supply d. current is in phase with the voltage
is more ans:a

ans:a
215. A phasor is _____
a. a line which represents the magnitude and 220. For purely capacitive circuit if v = Vm sin
phase of an alternating quantity (ωt) then equation of current is _____
b. a line which represents the magnitude and a. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
direction of an alternating quantity b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
c. a colored tag or band for distinction between c. i = Im sin (ωt-π)
different phases of a 3 phase supply d. i = Im sin (ωt+π)
d. an instrument used for measuring phases of ans:b
an unbalanced 3 phase load
ans:b 221. For purely resistive circuit if v = Vm sin (ωt)
then equation of current is _____
216. Ohm is the unit of all the following except a.i = Im sin (ωt-π/2)
a. inductive reactance b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2)
b. capacitive reactance c. i = Im sin (ωt)
c. resistance d. i = Im sin (ωt+π)
d. capacitance ans:c
ans:d 222. A sinusoidal voltage v1 leads another
sinusoidal voltagev2 by 180 degrees. Then ____
217. For a purely resistive circuit the following a. voltage v2 leads voltage v1 by 180 degrees
statement is correct b. both voltage have their zero values at the
a. work done is zero same time
b. power consumed is zero c. both voltage have their peak values at the
c. heat produced is zero same time
d. power factor is unity d. all of above
ans:d ans:d
218. Which value of inductance will give the 223. If A = 10∟45 and B = 5∟15, then the
same reactance as a capacitor of 2 µF when value of A/B will be___
both are at 50 Hz? a.50∟60
a. 5 H b.2∟60
b. 10 H c. 2∟-30
c. 15 H d.2∟30
d. 20 H ans:d
and:a
224. A coil has XL = 1000 ohm. If both its
219. For purely inductive circuit if v = Vm sin inductance and frequency are doubled, its
(ωt) then equation of current is _____ reactance will become ___ ohm
a. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2) a.2000
b. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2) b.500
c. i = Im sin (ωt-π) c.250
d. i = Im sin (ωt+π) d.4000

ans:d c. is due to the size of capacitor

d. statement is incorrect
225. The active power of AC circuit is given by ans:d
___
a. VI sin Φ 230. The length of a phasor in a phasor diagram
b. I2XL normally represents the ………… value of the
c.I2R alternating quantity
d.I2Z a. rms or effective
ans:c b. average
c. peak
226. Inductance of coil____ d. none of these
a. is unaffected by the supply frequency ans:a
b. decreses with the increase in supply
frequency 231. The two quantities are said to be in phase
c. increases with the increase in supply with each other when
frequency a. the phase difference between two quantities
d. becomes zero with the increase in supply is zero degree or radian
frequency b. each of them pass through zero values at the
ans:a same instant and rise in the same direction
c. each of them pass through zero values at the
227. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, same instant but rises in the opposite directions
50 Hz supply consumes 100 W. This d. either (a) or (b)
consumption is due to_____ ans:d
a. the big size of the inductor
b. the reactance of the inductor 232. The phase difference between the two
c. the current flowing in the inductor waveforms can be compared only when they
d. the statement given is false a. have the same frequency
ans:d b. have the same peak value
c. have the same effective value
228. Which of the following statements pertains d. are sinusoidal
to resistor only ans:a
a.can dissipate considerable amount of power
b.can act as energy storage device 233. The phasor diagram for alternating
c. connecting them in parallel increases the quantities can be drawn if they have ………
total value waves
d. opposes sudden change in voltage a. rectangular
ans:a b. sinusoidal
c. triangular
229. A pure capacitor connected across an AC d. any of these
voltage consumed 50 W. This ans:b
a. is due to the capacitive reactance in ohms
b. is due to the current flowing in capacitor

234. Which of the following statements

associated with purely resistive circuits is 238. The curve for the instantaneous power
correct? with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
a. PF is unity current is shown in figure is of
b. Power consumed is zero
c. Heat produced is zero
P P
+ +
v
d. PF is zero i 
ans:a 0

 2 
 t
2
235. Average power in a pure resistive circuit is -

P
-
P
T
equal to
a. zero a. pure resistance
b. product of average values of current and b. pure inductance
voltage c. pure capacitance
c. product of peak values of current and voltage d. pure capacitance and pure inductance
d. product of rms or effective values of current Answer: b
and voltage
ans:d 239. The curve for the instantaneous power
with respect to the waveforms of voltage &
236. The power factor of an ac circuit is equal to current is shown in figure is of
a. tangent of the phase angle
b. sine of phase angle P
+
P
+
c. unity for a resistive circuit v
d. unity for a reactive circuit 0

i

    t
ans:c 2 2
- -
P P
237. The curve for the instantaneous power
with respect to the waveforms of voltage & a.pure resistance
current is shown in figure is of b. pure inductance
c. pure capacitance
p p d. pure capacitance and pure inductance
v Answer: c
i

0
 t 240. The phasor diagram of voltage and current
considering phasors are rotates anticlockwise
direction is of
a.pure resistance I
b.pure inductance
c. resistance and capacitance V
d.pure capacitance a. pure resistance
Ans: a b. pure inductance

c. pure capacitance 242. The power factor of an ac circuit lies

d. pure capacitance and pure inductance between
Answer: c a. 0 and 1
b. -1 and 1
241. The phasor diagram (Q. No. 243) of voltage c. 0 and -1
and current considering phasors are rotates d. none of these
clockwise direction is of ans:a
a. Pure resistance
b. pure inductance
c. pure capacitance
d. pure capacitance and pure inductance
Answer: b

MCQ on Unit No. III (B): Electrostatics
Q.-1) The _______ can never store energy.
(a) Resistance (b) Inductance (c) Capacitance (d) Energy source.

Q.-2) Lightning strikes earth from charged cloud 100m above its surface. If breakdown strength
of air is 3 x 106 V/m, the voltage between cloud and earth surface is
_________ Million Volts.
(a) 3 (b) 30 (c) 300 (d) 3000
Q.-3) During charging and discharging of capacitors, no current passes through
(a) connecting wire (b) battery (c) dielectric (d) circuit switch
Q.-4) 1 Pico Farad is equal to _____ Farad.
(a) 10-3 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-9 (d) 10-12
Q.-5) A capacitor is made of two parallel plates with an area of 11 sq. cm and are
separated by mica sheet 2 mm thick. If for mica relative permittivity is 6 then the
capacitance of the capacitor is
(a) 29.3 pF (b) 29.2182 pF (c) 29.2182 nF (d) 29.028 mF
Q.-6) Which factor of the following is not affecting the dielectric strength of a capacitor?
(a) temperature (b) thickness of material
(c) size and shape (d) type of circuit in which it is used
Q.-7) Unit of Electric flux density is
(a) V/m (b) F/m (c) N/C (d) C/m2
Q-8) In Capacitors, energy is stored in its
(a) Plates (b) Dielectric (c) Electric Field (d) Connecting Wire
Q.-9) Relative Permittivity of a medium has a unit of
(a) V/m (b) C/m2 (c) F/m (d) None of these
Q.-10) Permittivity of free space is constant and its value is ______
(a) 8 F/m (b) 554 F/m (c) 8.854*10-12 F/m (d) 10-12 F/m
Q.-11) The time constant of R-C series circuit is given by______& its unit is_____
(a) R/C & ohm (b) RC & seconds (c) 1/RC & farad (d) RC & farad/ohm
Q.-12) The capacitance of capacitor is NOT influenced by
(a) Plate thickness (b) Plate separation (c) Plate area (d) Nature of dielectric
Q.-13) There is a capacitor with dielectric strength of 16 KV/mm. If a potential of 18 KV/mm
is applied across the plates of same capacitor. What will happen with capacitor
(a) Double charged (b) Full charged (c) Ruined (d) Not charge
Q.-14) If two conducting surfaces are separated by an insulating material forms _____
(a) Inductor (b) resistor (c) R-L (d) capacitor
Q.-15) The space around a charge or charged body is called _______

(a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field (c) Electromagnetic field (d) Magnetostatic field
Q.-16) The electric lines of force always enter or leave a conducting surface at
(a) 180° (b) 0° (c) 90° (d) 360°
Q.-17) Equivalent value of capacitance of two capacitors connected in parallel & series is
20 μF and 3.75 μF respectively. Then the value of two capacitors will be
(a) 4μF & 16μF (b) 5μF & 15μF (c) 10μF & 10μF (d) 11μF & 9μF
Q.-18) As charged capacitor discharges through resistor R, _________
(a) the voltage increases, current decreases
(b) the voltage increases, current increases
(c) the voltage decreases, current decreases
(d) the voltage decreases, current increases
Q.-19) The total no. of lines of force in any particular electric field is
(a) Electric flux (b) Magnetic flux
(c) Electric flux density (d) Electric flux intensity
Q.-20) ______ is used as a dielectric in a capacitor.
(a) Copper (b) Aluminium (c) Paper (d) Carbon
Q.-21) The force between the two charges can be obtained by
(a) Joule’s law (b) Faraday’s law (c) Coulomb’s law (d) Lenz’s law
Q.-22) Three capacitors connected in series have equivalent capacitance of 2 μF. If one of the
capacitor is removed, then the effective capacitance becomes 3 μF. Therefore the
value of removed capacitor is _______ μF.
(a) 6 (b) 1.5 (c) 2/3 (d) Can’t be determined
Q.-23) The ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to establish in it is
(a) Permeability (b) Permittivity (c) Permeance (d) Persistance
Q.-24) Two capacitors 2 μF and 8 μF are in series and combination is connected across 50 V
Then the energy stored in 8 μF capacitor is _______ μJ
(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 400 (d) 2000
Q.-25) The dielectric strength is measured in __________
(a) KV/N (b) V/C (c) KV/mm (d) F/m
Q.-26) Which of the following does not change when a glass slab is introduced between the plates
of a charged parallel plate capacitor.
(a) Electric charge (b) Electric energy (c) Capacitance (d) Electric field intensity
Q.-27) A charge Q1 exerts some force on a second charge Q2. A third charge Q3 is brought near.
The force of Q1 exerted on Q2
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Increases if Q3 is of same sign as Q1 & decreases if Q3 is of opposite sign
Q.-28) Which of the following appliance will be studied under electrostatics
(a) Incandescent lamp (b) Electric iron (c) Lightning rod (d) Electric motor
Q.-29) An air capacitor has the same dimensions as that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance of
mica capacitor is 6 times that of air capacitor then relative permittivity of mica is
(a) 36 (b) 12 (c) 3 (d) 6
Q.-30) Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart. A brass sheet is placed between
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remain unchanged (d) none of these
Q.-31) The relative permittivity of vacuum is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 8.854*10-12 (d) none of these
Q.-32) The relative permittivity of a material is 10. Its absolute permittivity will be
(a) 9*10+8 (b) 88.54*10-12 (c) 5*10-5 (d) 9*10+5
Q.-33) Another name for relative permittivity is
(a) Dielectric constant (b) Dielectric strength (c) Potential gradient (d) None of these
Q.-34) The relative permittivity of most materials lies between
(a) 20 and 100 (b) 10 and 20 (c) 100 and 200 (d) 1 and 10
Q.-35) When the relative permittivity of the medium is increased, the force between two
charges placed at a given distance apart
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same (d) None of these
Q.-36) Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart. A glass slab is placed between
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remain unchanged (d) Zero
Q.-37) If the relative permittivity of the medium increases, the electric field intensity at a point
due to a given charge
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remain unchanged (d) None of these
Q.-38) Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm & 15 cm are connected by a thin wire. No current
will flow if they have
(a) The same charge (c) The same energy

(b) The same field on their surface (d) The same potential
Q.-39) The capacitance of a capacitor is ______________ relative permittivity.
(a) Directly proportional to (b) Inversely proportional to
(c) Independent of (d) Directly proportional to square of
Q.-40) The most convenient way of achieving large capacitance is by using
(a) Multiple construction (b) Decreased distance between plates
(c) Air as dielectric (d) Dielectric of low permittivity
Q.-41) A capacitor opposes
(a) Change in current (b) Change in voltage
(c) Can’t say ( d) Both change in current & voltage
Q.-42) If a multiplate capacitor has 7 plates each of area 6 sq. cm, then,
(a) 6 capacitors will be in parallel (b) 7 capacitors will be in parallel
(c) 7 capacitors will be in series (d) 6 capacitors will be in series
Q.-43) Two capacitors of capacitances 3 μF and 6 μF are connected in series, then the total
capacitance of their series combination is
(a) 9 μF (b) 2 μF (c) 18 μF (d) 24 μF
Q.-44) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend upon
(a) Area of plates (b) Medium between plates
(c) Separation between plates (d) Metal of plates

Q.-45) In order to increase the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor, one should introduce
between the plates a sheet of
(a) Mica (b) Tin (c) Copper (d) Stainless steel
Q.-46) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends upon
(a) Thickness of plates (b) Potential difference between plates
(c) Separation between plates (d) The type of metals used
Q.-47) The empty space between the plates of a capacitor is filled with a liquid of dielectric
constant K. The capacitance of capacitor
(a) Increases by a factor K (c) Decreases by a factor K

(b) Increases by a factor square of K (d) Decreases by a factor square of K
Q.-48) A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected
alternately. If the capacitance between any two plates is C, then the resulting
capacitance is
(a) C (b) nC (c) (n-1) C (d) (n+1) C
Q.-49) Two capacitors have capacitances 25 μF when in parallel and 6 μF when in series.
The value of individual capacitances are
(a) 12 μF & 13 μF (b) 15 μF & 10 μF (c) 10 μF & 8 μF (d) None of these
Q.-50) A capacitor of 20 μF charged to 500 V is connected in parallel with another capacitor
of 10 μF capacitance and charged to 200 V. The common potential is
(a) 200 V (b) 250 V (c) 400 V (d) 300 V
Q.-51) A capacitor of 1 μF is charged to a potential of 50 V. It is now connected to an
uncharged capacitor of capacitance 4 μF. The common potential is
(a) 200 V (b) 250 V (c) 400 V (d) 300 V

Q.-52) There are two charges of 1μC and 5μC. The ratio of the forces acting on them will be
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:5 (c) 5:1 (d) 1:25
Q.-53) Two capacitors of capacitances C₁ and C₂ are connected in parallel. A charge Q is
given to them is shared. The ratio of charges Q₁/Q₂ is
(a) C₂/C₁ (b) C₁/C₂ (c) C₁C₂ (d) 1/C₁C₂
Q.-54) The branch dealing with electricity at rest is called
(a) Electrostatics (b) Magnetostatics (c) Electromagnetics (d) Electromechanics
Q.-55) Which of the following statement is true for electric lines of force.
(a) They intersect each other at regular interval.

(b) They form a close loop.
(c) They can pass only through insulating medium.
(d) They can enter charged bodies and pass through them.
Q.-56) The electric flux passing at angles through unit area of surface is called as
(a) Electric charge (b) Electric field strength
(c) Electric flux (d) Electric flux density
Q.-57) The force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at any point in the electric field is
(a) Electric potential (b) Electric field intensity
(c) Displacement intensity (d) Electric flux density
Q.-58) The electric field intensity at a point is given by
(a) 1/2 VQ (b) Q/F (c) F/Q (d) FQ
Q.-59) ______ represents electric field intensity.
(a) V/d (b) Q/V (c) F/Q (d) VQ
Q.-60) Higher the value of E means
(a) Weaker is the value of electric field.

(b) Stronger is the value of electric field.
(c) Electric field is zero.
(d) None of these.
Q.-61) Which of the following relation is true.
(a) E = ε/D (b) E = εD (c) D = εE (d) D = ε/E
Q.-62) The absolute permittivity of a medium is measured in
(a) V/m (b) A/m (c) F/m (d) H/m
Q.-63) The electric field intensity is numerically equal to
(a) Potential gradient (b) Potential difference
(c) Electric force (d) Electric potential
Q.-64) If Q₁ = Q₂ = 1 C and distance between them is 1 m then the force between them is
(a) 9 Х 10⁸ N (b) 9 Х 10⁹ N (c) 9 Х 10⁻⁹ N (d) 4π Х 10⁻⁷ N
Q.-65) The constant of proportionality in Coulomb’s law which depends upon surrounding
Is given by
(a) 4πε (b) 4πε₀ (c) 1 / 4πε (d) 1 / 4πε₀
Q.-66) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by
(a) εA/d (b) εd/A (c) ε/dA (d) A/εd
Q.-67) The charge transferred on the plates of a capacitor is 2 nC while the distance between
the plates ia 1 mm. If area of cross section is 10 cm² and air is used as a dielectric then
the voltage across the plates is
(a) 880 V (b) 225 V (c) 22.588 V (d) 225.88 V
Q.-68) A capacitor of 10 μF has a charge of 1 mC. If the distance between the plates is 1 cm
Then the electric field intensity between the plates is
(a) 10 KV/m (b) 10 V/m (c) 0.1 V/m (d) 80854 KV/m
Q.-69) A capacitor of 2 μF connected in a circuit has one plate at +6 V and the other plate at
-6 V. The charge on the negative plate of the capacitor is
(a) 24 μC (b) -24 μC (c) 12 μC (d) -12 μC

Q.-70) The ability of an insulating medium to resist its breakdown is called its
(a) Dielectric constant (b) Relative permittivity
(c) Dielectric strength (d) Insulation resistance
Q.-71) For the capacitors in series, _________ remain same for all of them.

Q.-72) For the capacitors in parallel, _________ remain same for all of them.

in series then the capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination is
(a) C/3, 3V (b) 3C, V/3 (c) 3C, 3V (d) C/3, V/3
series combination is connected across 10 V. When the capacitors are fully charged
then the charge on 3 μF capacitor is
(a) 10 μC (b) 20 μC (c) 3 μC (d) 15 μC
in parallel then the capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination is
(a) C/3, 3V (b) 3C, V/3 (c) 3C, V (d) C/3, V/3
Q.-76) Two capacitors of capacitances 6 μF and 3 μF are connected in series across 100 V d.c.
supply then the voltage across 3 μF capacitor is
(a) 0 V (b) 100 V (c) 33.334 V (d) 66.667 V
Q.-77) Which of the following expression will not represent the energy stored in a capacitor
(a) 1/2 CV² (b) 1/2 QV (c) 1/2 QC (d) 1/2 Q²/C
Q.-78) Ten identical capacitors each of capacitance 2 F are connected in series and this series

stored in any one of the 2 F capacitor is
(a) 1 J (b) 2 J (c) 5 J (d) 10 J
Q.-79) What fraction of the energy drawn from the charging battery is stored in a capacitor.
(a) 100 % (b) 50 % (c) 75 % (d) 66.67 %
Q.-80) When a capacitor ‘C’ is charged through resistance R then the initial rate of rise
of capacitor voltage is
(a) VRC (b) VR/C (c) V/RC (d) VC/R
Q.-81) A charging time constant of RC circuit is time required by the capacitor voltage to
rise from
(a) 0 to 90 % of its final value.

(b) 0 to 63.2 % of its final value.
(c) 0 to 36.8 % of its final value.
(d) None of these.
Q.-82) A charging time constant of RC circuit is time required by charging current to fall to
(a) 90 % of its initial maximum value.

(b) 63.2 % of its initial maximum value.
(c) 36.8 % of its initial maximum value.
(d) None of these.
(a) Capacitor voltage to fall to 36.8 % of its initial value.

(b) Capacitor voltage to fall to 63.2 % of its initial maximum value.
(c) Capacitor current to increase to 36.8 % of its initial maximum value.
(d) Capacitor current to decrease to 36.8 % of its initial maximum value.
(a) Capacitor voltage to rise to 36.8 % of its initial value.

(b) Capacitor voltage to fall to 63.2 % of its initial value.
(c) Capacitor current to fall to 36.8 % of its initial value.
(d) Capacitor current to fall to 63.2 % of its initial value.
Q.-85) Three capacitors of equal value are connected in parallel across 100 V supply. The
charge on each capacitor is 5 μC hence the value of capacitance is
(a) 50 μF (b) 50 nF (c) 50 pF (d) 100 nF
series combination is connected across 200 V. Then the voltage across 4 μF capacitor is
(a) 57.01 V (b) 200 V (c) 114.2 V (d) 28.5714 V
Q.-87) A capacitor of 1 μF is charged to a potential of 100 V. It is disconnected and then
connected across another 1 μF capacitor. Then the new voltage across them is
(a) 150 V (b) 50 V (c) 100 V (d) 0 V
voltage across capacitor after 2 sec. is
(a) 63.212 V (b) 36.8 V (c) 86.466 V (d) 100 V
Q.-89) Initial rate of rise of current through a capacitor of 10 μF when charged across 50 V
is 5 V/sec then the value of resistance through which it is charged is
(a) 2 MΩ (b) 1 MΩ (c) 5 MΩ (d) 10 MΩ
charging current after 2 sec. is
(a) 0 μA (b) 40 μA (c) 13.406 μA (d) 26.812 μA
Q.-91) Initial charging current through a capacitor is 40 μA when charged through 1.5 MΩ
Resistor then supply voltage is
(a) 60 V (b) 80 V (c) 40 V (d) 20 V
Q.-92) Permittivity is also called as
(a) Dielectric constant (b) Dielectric strength

(c) Potential gradient (d) None of these
Q.-93) The ______ is also called as electric space constant.
(a) absolute permittivity (b) relative permittivity
(c) permittivity of air (d) none of these
Q.-94) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is directly proportional to
(a) distance between plates (b) cross sectional area
(c) length (d) all of these
Q.-95) The total charge on the parallel combination of capacitors is equal to the _____
of the charge on individual capacitors.
(a) multiplication (b) vector sum (c) sum (d) subtraction
Q.-96) A multiplate capacitor is equivalent to several two plate capacitor connected in _____.
(a) star (b) series - parallel (c) parallel (d) series
Q.-97) Multiple parallel plates are _____to form a multiplate capacitor.
(a) interleaved (b) sandwitched (c) interconnected (d) none of these
Q.-98) A capacitor charges ________ through a resistor R, when their series combination is
connected across a source voltage V.
(a) linearly (b) exponentially (c) nonlinearly (d) none of these
Q.-99) ______ is not involved in the RC discharging circuit.
(a) R (b) C (c) Voltage source (d) Switch

Q.-100) The current at t = 0 in RC discharging circuit is
(a) zero (b) infinity (c) unity (d) V/R
Q.-101) The discharging current flows ___________ of the charging current.
(a) for half the time (b) in the opposite direction
(c) in the same direction (d) all of these

Q.-102) The energy stored by a capacitor is equal to
(a) force exerted (b) charge acquired

(c) voltage applied (d) work done
Q.-103) Coulomb’s second law is called as
(a) Inverse square law (b) Charge law
(c) Induction law (d) Force law
Q.-104) When ________ current flows for _____ the electric charge carried through the
conductor is equal to 1 Coulomb.
(a) 1 A , 1 hr (b) 10 A , 1 sec
(c) 1 A , 1 sec (d) None of these
Q.-105) The electric or electrostatic lines of force are imaginary lines which represent the
________ distribution in electric field surrounding the charged body.
(a) force (b) stress (c) power (d) field strength
Q.-106) The electric lines of force act like stretched elastic bands and always try to _______
in length.
(a) contract (b) expand (c) maximize (d) minimize
Q.-107) The electric lines of force adjust themselves so as to have a minimum _______.
(a) flux density (b) reactance (c) permittivity (d) reluctance
Q.-108) The electric flux density is defined as the ________ per ________ measured at right
angles to the direction of flux.
(a) force, unit area (b) force, unit flux
(c) flux, unit force (d) flux, unit area
Q.-109) The electric ________ is defined as the mechanical force experienced by a unit positive
Charge when it is placed at any point in the electric field.
(a) field strength (b) flux density
(c) potential (d) charge

Q.-110) The equivalent capacitance is always smaller than the smallest capacitance connected
in the _______ combination.
(a) star (b) series as well as parallel (c) parallel (d) series
Unit IV
Part (a) :SINGLE PHASE TRANSFORMER
1. A transformer is used to___________ d. Tapped
a. change ac voltage to dc voltage ans:b
b. change dc voltage to ac voltage
c. step up or step down dc voltages 6. If supply frequency of a transformer
d. step up or step down ac voltages increases, the secondary output voltage of the
ans: d transformer____
a. Decreases
2. The two windings of a transformer b. increases
are__________ c. remains same
a. conductively linked d. decreases slightly
b. inductively linked ans:b
c. not linked at all
d. electrically linked 7. The horizontal and vertical portions of
ans: b transformer magnetic core are called
as_________
3.The magnetically operated device that can a. Limb, yoke
change values of voltage, current, and b. Yoke, limb
impedance without changing frequency is c. Winding, Yoke
the____________ d. Winding, Limb
a. Motor ans:b
b. Generator
c. Transformer 8. The principle of working of transformer is
d. Transistor based on ________
ans:c a. Static induction
b. Mutual induction
4. The transformer winding across which the c. Dynamic induction
supply voltage applied is called the _____ d. Self induction
winding. ans:b
a. Primary
b. Secondary 9. Transformer is used to change values
c. Tertiary of__________
d. Tapped a. Frequency
ans:a b. Voltage
c. Power
5. The transformer winding which is connected d. Power factor
to the load is called the_______ winding. ans:b
a. Primary
b. Secondary 10. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer
c. Tertiary should have __________

a. Low resistance b. Toroid

b. Low reluctance c. H core
c. High reluctance d. tape wound
d. High conductivity ans:a
ans:b
16. The concentric cylindrical winding is used
11. Electrical power is transformed from one for__________
coil to other coil in transformer_________ a. Core type transformer
a. Physically b. Shell type transformer
b. Electrically c. Berry type transformer
c. Magnetically d. None of these
d. Electromagnetically ans:a
ans:d
17.The sandwich type winding is used
12. A transformer operates___________ for___________
a. Always at unity power factor a. Core type transformer
b. At power factor depending on load b. Berry type transformer
c. Has its own power factor c. Shell type transformer
d. At power factor below particular value d. None of these
ans: b ans:c
13. The laminations of transformer core are 18. Silicon steel is used for transformer
made up from__________ core__________
a. Low carbon steel a. To reduce hysteresis loss
b. Silicon sheet steel b. To reduce eddy current loss
c. Nickel alloy steel stamping c. To reduce both losses
d. Chrome sheet steel d. None of these
ans:b ans:a
14.The material used for construction of 19. What is common in two windings of
transformer core should have___________ transformer?
a. Low permeability & high hysteresis loss a. Electric current
b. Low permeability & low hysteresis loss b. Magnetic circuit
c. High permeability & high hysteresis loss c. Winding wire guage
d. high permeability & low hysteresis loss d. None of these
ans:d ans:b
15. Most transformer cores are not made from 20. The main function of transformer iron core
a solid piece of metal. Instead, they are is to__________
assembled from many thin sheets of metal. This a. Provide strength to the winding
type of construction is called__________ b. To decrease hysteresis loss
a. Laminated c. Decrease the reluctance of magnetic path

d. Reduce eddy current loss d. Auto

ans:c ans:a
21. The emf induced in the primary of a 26. Any transformer flux that does not follow
transformer___________ the core and escapes into the surrounding air is
a. is in phase with the flux called____
b. lags behind the flux by 90 degree a. magnetizing flux
c. leads the flux by 90 degree b. coupling flux
d. is in phase opposition to that of flux c. leakage flux
ans:b d. reactance flux
ans:c
22.The transformer turns ratio
determines_____________ 27. A transformer that does not isolate the
a. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages output from the input is called _____
b. the ratio of primary and secondary currents transformer
c. The resistance on other side a. Distribution
d. all of the above b. step-up
ans:a c. Auto
d. Control
23. Turns ratio of single phase transformer is ans:c
given as__________
a. N2/N1 28. Ideal transformer assumptions do not
b. N1/N2 include____________
c. (N1xN2)/N1 a. Zero reactance of the winding
d. (N1xN2)/N2 b. Zero resistance of the winding
ans:b c. No leakage flux
d. No saturation of the core
24. A transformer in which the secondary ans:a
voltage is more than the primary voltage is
called a _____ transformer 29.The efficiency of the transformer is normally
a. step-down is normally in the range of____________
b. step-up a. 50 to 70%
c. Isolation b. 60 to 75 %
d. Auto c. 80 to 90 %
ans:b d. 90 to 98%
ans:d
25. A transformer in which the primary voltage
is more than the secondary voltage is called a 30. The resistance of low voltage side of
_____ transformer. transformer________
a. step-down a. Is equal to resistance of its high voltage side
b. step-up b. Is more than its resistance on high voltage
c. Isolation side

c. Is less than its resistance on high voltage side

d.0 36. EMF equation for single phase transformer
ans:c is________
a. E= 4.44 Φm A f N
31. Eddy current losses in transformer core are b. E= 4.44 Bm A N
reduced by_________ c. E= 4.44 BmfN
a. Increasing the thickness of laminations d. E= 4.44 ΦmfN
b. Decreasing the thickness of laminations ans:d
c. Decreasing the air gap in magnetic circuit
d. Using wire of higher guage for winding 37. Transformation ratio(K) of transformer
ans:b is_________
a. N2/N1
32. A good transformer oil should be absolutely b. E1/E2
free from__________ c. I2/I1
a. Sulpher d. V1/V2
b. Alkalies ans:a
c. Moisture
d. All of the above 38. For Isolation transformer the
ans:c transformation ratio(K) is_________
a.0
33. Single phase core type transformer b. Greater than 1
has__________ c. Less than 1
a. One magnetic path d.1
b. Two magnetic paths ans:d
c. No magnetic path
d. None of these 39. In step up transformer the transformation
ans: a ratio (K) is_____________
a. Greater than 1
34. Single phase shell type transformer b.1
has__________ c. Less than 1
a. One magnetic path d.0
b. Two magnetic paths ans: a
c. No magnetic path
d. None of these 40. In step down transformer the
ans:b transformation ratio (K) is__________
a. Greater than 1
35. Natural cooling is better in_________ b.1
a. Core type transformer c. Less than 1
b. Shell Type transformer d.0
c. Both A& B ans:c
d. Berry type transformer
ans:a

41. The primary and secondary voltages in 46. Transformer oil is used in transformer to
transformer are___________ provide_______
a. Always in Phase a. Cooling and insulation
b. 1800 out of phase b. Cooling and lubrication
c. 900 out of phase c. Insulation and lubrication
d. 300 or 600 out of phase d. Insulation, cooling and lubrication
ans:b ans:a
42. The induced emf in transformer secondary 47. What is the typical use of
depends on__________ autotransformer____________?
a. Maximum flux in core a. Toy transformer
b. Frequency b. Control transformer
c. No of turns on secondary c. Variable transformer
d. all of the above d. Isolating transformer
ans:d ans:c
43. Transformer rating usually expressed 48. In any transformer the voltage per turn in
in____________ primary and secondary remains____________
a.kW a. Always different
b.kVA b. Always the same
c. kV c. Always in ratio of K
d. kWh d. Sometimes same
ans:b ans:b
44. In a transformer if secondary turns are 49. Full load copper loss in a transformer is 400
doubled, at the same time primary voltage is Watt. At half load, copper losses will
reduced by half, the secondary voltage be___________
will_________ a. 400 Watt
a. Be halved b. 100 Watt
b. Not change c. 200 Watt
c. Be four times d. 50 Watt
d. Be reduced to quarter ans:b
ans:b 50. A transformer is working with its maximum
45. The no load current in terms of full load efficiency. If the iron losses are 500 W, the
current is usually________ copper loss will__________
a. 1 to 3% a. 300 W
b. 3 to 9 % b. 350 W
c. 9 to 12% c. 250 W
d. 12 to 20% d. 500 W
ans:a ans:d

51. If we increase the flux density in case

transformer_______________ 55. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single phase
a. The size of transformer will reduce transformer, the primary full load current
b. The distortion in transformer will reduce is____________
c. Hysteresis and eddy current losses will reduce a. 909.09 Amp
d. None of these will be true b. 90.90 Amp
ans:a c. 9.09 Amp
d. 9090.9 Amp
52. The direct loading test is performed on ans:c
transformer to find its____________
a. Regulation 56. For 100 kVA, 11000V/110V single phase
b. Efficiency transformer, the secondary full load current
c. Both is________
d. None of these a. 90.90 Amp
ans:c b. 9090.9 Amp
c. 909.0 Amp
53. The regulation of transformer is calculated d. 9.09 Amp
as_________ ans:c
a. 57. The disadvantage of auto transformer

is______________
a. No separation between primary & secondary
b. b. Size is more than normal transformer for
same rating
c. c. More costlier than normal transformer
d. All
ans:d
d.
ans:a 58. In a transformer the voltage regulation will
be near to zero when it operates
54. The efficiency of single phase transformer is at____________
calculated as_____________ a. unity p.f.
∅
a. b. leading p.f.
∅
c. lagging p.f.
∅ d. full load.
b.
∅ ans:b
∅
c. 59. A transformer steps up voltage by a factor
∅
of 100. The ratio of current in the primary to
∅ that in secondary_______________
d.
∅
a.1
ans:a
b.100

c.0.01 ans:a
d.0.1
ans:b 65. Eddy current loss depends
on_____________
60. An ideal transformer does not a. both current and frequency
change______________ b. current alone
a. Voltage c. frequency alone
b. Power d. none of these
c. current ans:a
d. None of these
ans:b 66.The flux involved in EMF equation of a
61. The flux in transformer core____________ a. RMS Value
a. increases with load b. Average Value
b. decreases with load c. Total Value
c. remains constant irrespective of load d. maximum Value
d. none of these ans:d
ans:c
67. A transformer has maximum efficiency at ¾
62. Efficiency of transformer is maximum of full load. The ratio of its iron loss and full load
when___________ copper loss is_________
a. transformer is unloaded a. 16/9
b. copper losses is equal to iron losses b. 4/3
c. eddy current losses are equal to hysteresis c. 3/4
losses d. 9/16
d. it is maximally loaded ans:d
ans:b
68. If primary of the transformer is connected
63. If the supply frequency in transformer is to dc supply, then______
doubled, then_________ a. Primary draws small current
a. hysteresis loss also doubles b. primary leakage reactance is increased
b. eddy current loss also doubles c. core losses are increased
c. iron losses doubles d. primary may burn out
d. copper losses doubles ans:d
ans:a
69. For an ideal transformer the windings
64. Hysteresis loss in transformer depends should have____________
on__________ a. maximum resistance on primary side and
a. both voltage and frequency least resistance on secondary side
b. voltage alone b. least resistance on primary side ans
c. frequency alone maximum resistance on secondary side
d. none of these

c. equal resistance on primary and secondary 74. In a given transformer for a given applied
side voltage, which losses remain constant
d. no ohmic resistance on either side irrespective of change in load___________
ans:d a. Friction and windage loss
b. copper loss
70. The full load copper and iron loss of a c. hysteresis and eddy current loss
transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W d. none of these
respectively. The copper loss and iron loss at ans:c
half load will be respectively______
a. 3200 W and 2500 W 75. Main advantage to use autotransformer
b. 3200 W and 5200 W over two winding transformer____________
c. 1600 W and 1250 W a. Hysteresis losses are reduced
d. 1600 W and 5000 W b. savings in winding material
ans:d c. copper losses are negligible
d. Eddy current losses are totally eliminated
71. A transformer does not raise or lower the ans:b
voltage of DC supply because________
a. there is no need to change the DC voltage 76. An ideal transformer is one which has
b. DC circuit has more losses _____________
c. Faradays law of Electromagnetic Induction a. no losses and magnetic leakage
are not valid since the rate of change of flux is b. interleaved primary and secondary winding
zero c. a common core for its primary and secondary
d. none of these d. core of stainless steel and winding of pure
ans:c copper material
ans:a
72. Primary winding of a transformer
_____________ 77. In a practical transformer core losses
a. is always low voltage winding remains constant from no load to full load
b. is always high voltage winding because__________
c. could either be a low or high voltage winding a. value of transformation ratio remains
d. none of these constant
ans:c b. permeability of transformer core remains
constant
73. Which winding of a transformer has more c. core flux remains practically constant
number of turns_______________ d. primary and secondary voltage remains
a. Low voltage winding constant
b. High voltage winding ans.c
c. Primary winding
d. secondary winding 78.The transformer laminations are insulated
ans:b from each other by_____________
a. mica strip
b. thin coat of varnish

c. paper a. high eddy current losses

d. any one of these b. reduced magnetic leakage
ans:b c. negligible hysteresis loss
d.none of these
79. In transformer resistance between primary ans:b
and secondary should be_____________
a. zero 84. Deduction in core losses and increase in
b. 10 ohm permeability are obtained with transformer
c. 1000 ohm employing______
d. infinity a. core built up of laminations of cold rolled
ans:d grain oriented steel
b. core built up of laminations of hot rolled steel
80. A good voltage regulation of transformer c. either a or b
means___________ d. none of these
a. output voltage fluctuations from no load to ans: c
full load is least
b. output voltage fluctuations with power factor 85. Losses which occur in rotating electric
is least machine and do not occur in transformers
c. difference between primary and secondary are____________
voltage is least a. friction and windage losses
d. difference between primary and secondary b. magnetic losses
voltage is maximum c. hysteresis and eddy current losses
ans:a d. copper losses
ans:a
81. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that
the load is_____________ 86. Which of the following loss in a transformer
a. Capacitive only is zero even at full load__________
b. inductive only a. core loss
c. inductive or resistive b. friction loss
d. none of these c. eddy current loss
ans:a d. Hysteresis loss
ans:b
82. The size of the transformer core depend
on___________ 87. The noise produced by transformer is
a. frequency termed as _______________
b. area of the core a. zoom
c. flux density of the core material b.hum
d. (a) and (b) both c. ringing
ans:d d. buzz
ans:b
83. A shell type transformer has
_______________

88. Part of the transformer which is most c. it has become customary

subject to damage from overheating d. total transformer loss depends on VA
is______________ ans:b
a. iron core
b. copper winding 93. Increase in secondary current of
c. insulation of the winding transformer brings about increase in primary
d. transformer tank current . This is possible because___________
ans:c a. primary and secondary windings are
capacitively coupled.
89.In a step down transformer, there is a b. primary and secondary windings are
change of 15A in the load current. This results in inductively coupled
change of supply current of_____________ c. primary and secondary windings are
a. less than 15 A conductively coupled
b. more than 15 A d. none of these
c.15A ans:b
d. none of these
ans:a 94. Transformer for constant voltage
application is considered good if its voltage
90. As per the name plate of transformer, the regulation is_________
secondary normal voltage is 220V. Which of the a. low
following statement about it is correct?_______ b. high
a. 220V is no load voltage c. zero
b. The no load voltage is more than 220V d. none of these
c. The secondary voltage increases with ans:c
increase in load
d. At a load which draws the rated current & 95. Transformer action needs that the magnetic
the voltage becomes less than 220V. flux linking with the winding must
ans:b be_____________
a. constant
91.In which of the following transformer, part b. pulsating
of the primary winding serves as the secondary c. alternating
winding__ d. none of these
a. Potential transformer ans:c
b. Auto transformer
c. Step up transformer 96. Low voltage windings are placed next to the
d. None of these core to reduce_____________
ans:b a. Hysteresis loss
b. eddy current loss
92. The rating of the transformer is given in kVA c. insulation requirement
instead of kW because__________ d. copper loss
a. kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load pf ans:c
b. load power factor is often not known

97. The relation between the primary and

secondary ampere turns of transformer ---------- 102. A transformer has 2600 V on primary side
and 260 V on secondary side. The
a. exactly equal transformation ratio is_
b. approximately equal a.10
c. primary mmf larger than secondary mmf b.5
d. primary mmf smaller than secondary mmf c.0.1
ans:a d.9
ans:c
98. Positive voltage regulation occurs in case of
transformer for______________ 103. If the copper loss of a transformer at 70%
a. capacitive load of full load is 200 W. The full load copper loss is
b. resistive load only ________
c. inductive load only a. 200 W
d. either inductive or resistive load b. 285.71 W
ans:d c.408.16W
d. none of these
99. Cooling of the transformer is required so as ans:c
to_____________
a. increase the efficiency 104. A transformer having 1000 primary turns is
b. to reduce the losses connected 250 V ac supply. For a secondary
c. to reduce humming voltage of 400 volt, the no of secondary turns
d. to dissipate the heat generated in the should be________
winding a.1600
ans:d b.250
c.400
100. The transformer efficiency will be d.1250
maximum at a power factor of ____________ ans:a
a. 0.8pf lead
b. unity 105. If Copper loss of a transformer at 7/8th of
c. 0.8 lag the full load is 4900W. Then its full load copper
d. 0.5 lag or lead loss is____
ans:b a.5600
b.6400
101. The regulations of two transformers are (i) c.375
3% and (ii) 97%. The one with better regulation d.429
is______ ans:b
a. second
b. first 106. At relatively light loads, the transformer
c. both are same efficiency is low because__________
d. depends on loading a. secondary output is low
ans:b b. transformer losses are high

c. fixed loss is high in proportion to the output effective cross sectional area of the core is 145
d. copper loss is small. cm2. The no of secondary turns___
ans:c a.71 turns
b.75 turns
107.A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase c.932 turns
transformer is built on a core having an d.923 turns
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 60 ans:a
turns on the secondary winding. The value of
maximum flux density___ 111. A 80 kVA, 6000 V/ 400 V, 50 Hz single
a.1.25 Tesla phase transformer has 80 turns on the
b.1.52 Tesla secondary winding. The value of maximum flux
c.1.3 Tesla in the core________
d.none of the above a.25.22mwb
ans:a b.22.52mwb
c.52.22mwb
108. A 3000 V/200 V, 50 Hz, single phase d. none of these
transformer is built on a core having an ans:b
effective cross sectional area of 120 cm2 and 60
turns on the secondary winding. The number of 112. A 6600 V/220 V, 50 Hz, step down single
turns on the high voltage winding________ phase transformer has 1500 turns on its
a. 600 turns primary side. If its maximum flux density is 1.2
b. 900 turns Tesla, then the effective cross sectional area of
c. 300 turns core is _____
d. 450 turns a.16.516  10–3 m2
ans:b b.61.516  10–3 m2
c.26.516  10–3 m2
109. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase d.62.516  10–3 m2
transformer has to be worked at a maximum ans:a
flux density of 1.1 wb/m2 in the core. The
effective cross sectional area of the core is 145 113. A 10 kVA, 3300/240 V, single phase, 50 Hz
transformer has a core area of 300 sq. cm. The
flux density is 1.3 tesla. The primary full load
a. 930 turns
current is ___________
b. 950 turns
a. 3.03 amp
c. 932 turns
b. 33.03 amp
d. 923 turns
c. 30.3 amp
ans:c
d. 0.303 amp
ans:a
110. A 3300 V/250 V, 50 Hz, single phase
transformer has to be worked at a maximum
114.A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at full
flux density of 1.1 web/m2 in the core. The load its copper losses is 1100 W and its iron

losses is 950 W. The efficiency at full load for efficiency at 75% of full load and unity power
unity power factor is___________ factor__________
a. 99% a.98.13%
b.96% b.98.73%
c.97.77% c.99%
d. none of these d. none of these
ans:c ans:b
115. A transformer is rated at 90 kVA, at full 117: The no load voltage at the secondary
load its copper losses is 1100 W and its iron terminals of single phase transformer is
losses is 950 W. The efficiency at 60% of full observed as 230 volt. When the transformer is
load for 0.8 lagging power factor is___________ loaded, the voltage on secondary side has
a.96.97% reduced to 224 volt. Then the % regulation of
b.96% transformer for that loading is_______
c.98% a.2.6%
d. none of these b.2.67%
ans:a c.0%
d. none of these
116. A 500 kVA transformer has iron loss of 2 ans:a
kW and full load copper losses of 5 kW. The

Sr No Marks Question Statement Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4
1 1 What is the unit of Resistance Watt volt Ohm Siemence

2 1 Is resistivity affected by temperature Yes no May be May not be
A wire of resistence R has it length and cross section both
1
3 doubled . Its resistance will becomer 4R 2R R R/4
4 1 The unit of conductivity is Ω-m Ω-m-1 Ω/m m/Ω
5 1 The unit of resistivity is Ω-m Ω-m-1 Ω/m m/Ω
The resistance of material having unit length and unit cross
1
6 sectional area is Secific resistanceconductivity current density voltage
The resistance of wire is 10 ohm . If its length is doubled its
1
7 reistance will be 20 1 10 40
8 1 A material with highest value of conductivity is the best conductor semiconductor insulator none of these
The resistance of material is almost constant with respect to
1
9 temperature alloys metals semiconductors insulators
Semiconductor have ------- temperature coefficient of
1
10 resistivity positive zero negative none of these
11 1 Unit of RTC is Ω/0c /0C 0C 0C /Ω
1 Insulation reistance is the opposition to the flow of

12 Normal currnet leakage current None of these Leakage flux
13 1 An insulation resistance is inversely proportional to its None of these Cross section Resistivity length
All of the following have negative temperature coefficient
1
14 except paper gold rubber mica
remains
1 When moisture content increases then insulation resitance
15 decreases increases constant none of these
16 1 The practical unit of electrical energy is KW-hr watt- hr watt second Joule second
17 1 1 KWH = --------------- joules 4180 3600 3.6 x 106 1000
200 W lamp operates for 5 hours per day then its energy
1
18 consumption per day is 8 units 4 Wh 1 unit 10 units
1 Unit of specific heat capacity is ----- joules/kg - oK
19 4187 4.187 1 10
20 1 1 KWH = --------------- Kcal 860 0.86 680 0.116
21 1 The resistance of 200W , 250V lamp is 625Ω 1250Ω 312.5 Ω 31.25 Ω
A coil has resistance of 20 Ω at200C and its RTC at 20oC is
2 0 0
22 0.003/ C then its resistance at 50 C is ---- Ω 23 21.8 218 23.6
23 1 A material with poor value of conductivity is the best conductor semiconductor insulator none of these
1 Which of the following bulbs will have the least resistance
24 220V, 60W 220V, 100W 115,60W 115v,100w
When n resistances each of value of R are connected in
1 parallel , then resultant resitance is X when these n
25 resitances are connected in series, total resistance is nx rnx x/n n2.x
1 Which of the following is not same as the watt (amperes)2 x

26 joule/sec ampers/volt amperes x volts ohm
27 1 one killowatt hour of electrical energy is the same as 36 x105 36 x 105 ergs 36 x 105 joules . 36 x105 B.T.U
28 1 Conductance is expressed in terms of ohm/m m/ohm mho/m mho
Which of the followingt could be the value of the resitivity of 1.7 x 10-8 ohm - 1.7 x 10-6 ohm - 1.7 x 10-5 ohm - 1.7 x 10-4 ohm -
1
29 copper cm cm cm cm
30 1 Filaments of electric bulbs are made up of Nichrome Tungsten Copper Carbon
Two coils connected in series have resistances of 600 ohm
and 300 ohm and temperature coefficients of 0.1 and 0.4
2
respectively. The resistance of the combination at 500C will
31 be 1050 ohm 1600 ohm 990ohm 1001 ohm
1 Following have negative temperature coefficient except one
32 Gold paper Glass Rubber
33 1 Specific resistance of a substance is measured in ohms mhos ohm-cm cm/ ohms
34 1 As temperature increases the insulation resistance increases remains as it decreases none of these
A cable has conductor diameter of 1.2 cm and the

thickness of the insulation is 1.5 cm . If the resistivity
2
of insulaiton is 2.758 x 10-12 Ohm m and
the length is 1 Km then its insulation resistance is
35 550 M Ohm 500 Mohm 550 Ohm None of these
Two cables having insulation resistances of 440 Mega Ohm
and 578.947 Mega Ohm are connected in series
2
then the effective value of the insulation resistance
36 is ------- Mega ohm 1018.947 250 540 578.947
Two cables having insulation resistances of 200 M ohm
1 each are connected in parallel then the effective value
of the insulation resistance is --- M Ohm
37 200 250 100 400
The two underground cables A and B have
conductor resistances of 1 Ohm each then the conductor
1
resistance of the combination when they are connected
38 in series is --- ohm 0.5 2 1 3
Two bulbs 200W, 250V and 100 W are joined in series
2
39 to 250 Volts supply. Power consumed in circuit is 300 Watt 66.66 Watt 33 Watt 100 Watt
40 1 Unit of Power is KWH Joule/sec Watt/sec watt.sec
60 W bulb is in a sockt supplied with
1
41 120V . What is the current in the bulb 200A 60A 0.50A 2.0 A
42 1 A material with poor value of resistivity is the best insulator semiconductor conductor none of these
Two resistances 120 ohm and 180 ohm have their RTC =
2 0.0035/0C and 0.008/0c calculate the RTC of their series
43 combination 0.0062/0c 0.017/0c 0.0034/0c 0.0017/0c
The water pump used to lift the water converts --- energy Mechanical to electrical to Electrical to Hydraulic to
1
44 into ------ energy electrical Mechanical thermal electrical
RTC at any
1 α0 represents
45 temperature Resistivity at 00C RTC at 00C RTC at 00K
The expression for insulation resistance is Ri = V/I L where V Voltage between Voltage between
1
denotes the insulator and conductor and Voltage across
46 conductor earth the conductor None of these
If α0 = 0.005/0c and ΔT = 250C calculate α25 = 4.44 x 10 α25 = 4.44 x 10
2 0
47 RTC at 25 C -3/0C 5.71 x 10-3/0C 5.2625 x 10-3/0c-2/0C
insulation reistance is defined as the resistance offered by an Leakage current
1
48 insulator to the flow of normal current parasitic current
A conductor with initial temperature 00C has α0 = 0.004/0C,
2 R0 = 10 Ohm , calculate its resistance at 75 0C . α 75 =
49 0.003/0C 15 ohm 11 ohm 13 ohm 12.25 ohm
A heating element of an induction heater draws 10 A
from 230V supply. How many KWH of energy will be consumed in
50 1 one hour and thiry minutes 3.6 2.99 2.4 6
Answer
3
1
3
2
1
1
1
3
2
2
4
1
1
3
3
3
1
3
2
3
2
3
4
2
2
1
3
3
2
4
2
2
3
3
2
2
MARATHWADA MITRA MANDAL'S
COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Subject Unit
Sr No Code No 2 Marks Question Statement Option 1 Option 2 Option 3
1 BEE 1 1 Magnetic flux density is defined by A/ø Tesla ø/A Tesla ø= A wb /m2
1 BEE 2 1 Absolute permeability ( µ ) is given by equation µ = B/H µ=BxH µ = H/B
3 BEE 3 1 Reluctance S is defined by S = NI/ ø AT/Wb A/wb S = ø /NI
1 λ =useful Flux/ total λ =usful Flux/

4 BEE 4 Leakage coefficinet Or Hopkinson's coefficient is defined as Flux None of these total Flux
1
5 BEE 5 Expression for coefficient of self inductance L is given by L = N ø /I H L= NI/ ø H L= I/ N ø H
inversley
1 The self inductance L is ------- number of turns Dirctly proportional to proportional to Directly
6 BEE 6 square of square of proportional to
The emf induced in a coil without physical movement of the Dynamically induced Statically induced Mututal induced
1
7 BEE 7 call is called emf emf emf
1
8 BEE 8 The magnitude of dynamically induced emf is given by BIL sinθ Biv sinθ BIL sinθ / V
Fleming's left hand
1
9 BEE 9 Direction of dynamically induced emg is given by rule Fleming's right hanEnd rule
When e.m.f. is induced due to physical movement of the Dynamically
1 Forcefully induced
10 BEE 10 coil then it is called Statically induced emf induced emf
An emf of 7.2 volts is induced in a coil of 6 mH . Then the
1
11 BEE 11 rate of change of current is 12A/s 120A/s 1200A/s
1 A coil has 500 turns is linked with a flux of 50 mwb with

12 BEE 12 current carrying of 125 Amp . Then (L) is given by 0.2 H 2H 20 H
permeance = 1/ Permeance = Permeance = NI/
1
13 BEE 13 Permeance of a magnetic circuit is defined as Reluctance Reluctance ø
14 BEE 14 1 MMF of magnetic circuit is defined as MMF = N/I MMF = NI MMF = N2/I
1
15 BEE 15 Co-effieicnt of coupling is defined as K= M/ √ L 1L 2 K= √ L 1L 2 / M K= M x √ L 1L 2
1 Equivalent inductances of series opposition connections

16 BEE 16 are given by Leq = L 1- L 2 + 2M Leq = L 1+ L 2 + 2M Leq = L 1+ L 2 - 2M
1 The expression for energy stored in magnetic field is given
17 BEE 17 by E= 1/2 LI2 joules E= 1/2 L/I 2 joules None of above
1 Energy stored per unit volume is given by E/unit vol. = 1/2 B2 µ E/unit vol. = 2 B2/ µE/unit vol. = 2 B2
18 BEE 18 joules / m3 joules / m3 µ2 joules / m3
2 A conductor of length of 10 cm carrying 5 A current is placed in

a uniform magnetic filed of flux density 1.25 T. Find the force on
19 BEE 19 it if the conductor is placed at 300 to the flux 0N 0.625 N 0.3125N
A coil of 500 turns is connected across 24 V source and
2 wound around an iron ring. If its resistance is 20 Ohm the
20 BEE 20 mmf is equal to 300AT/m 600At/m 1200AT/m
A cast steel ring has reluctance of 3.168x 105 AT/Wb , if a

2
coil carrying 2A current produces a flux of 6 milli wb in the
21 BEE 21 ring then the number of turns N = 1000 1425 1245
A coil of 480 turns is wound around a ring of cast steel. If
2 the reluctance is 6.389 x 105 and flux = 6 milli Wb then
22 BEE 22 current through coil I = 8mA 8A 4A
A metallic ring has a mean diameter of 20 cm . It is wound
2 with a 1000 turns of wire if the current through the wire is
23 BEE 23 1A then H = 5000AT/M 1591.54 Wb/M 5000AT/Wb
A current through an inductor of 0.4 H is 5A then the energy
1
24 BEE 24 stored in it is --- Joule 5 2.5 1
If s1, S2, S3, S4 --- etc are the reluctance of these parallel
1 paths then the equivalent reluctnace S for the parallel S= 1/S1+ 1/S2+ 1/ 1/S= 1/S1+ 1/S2+
25 BEE 25 combination is given by s= S1 + S2+ S3+ S4 S3+ 1/s4 1/S3+ 1/s4
A coil of 480 turns is wound around a ring of cast steel. If
the reluctance is 6.389 x 105 and flux = 6 milli Wb then
26 26 2 current through coil is 4A 8A 4 mA
2 If the number of turns of a coil wound on a paper core is 200

27 27 and the reluctance is 25.33 x 106 then L = 15.79 mH 0.1579mH none of these
2 An air cored solenoid has an inductance of 0.042 H. If a
28 28 current of 5 A flows through it then the energy E = 0.525 J 1.05W 1.05J
2 If a coil of 150 turns is linked withb a flux of 0.01 Wb, when

29 29 carrying a current of 10A . Then self inductance of coil is 0.15H 6.67x10-4 H 1.5 H
A coil of 100 turns is linked by a flux of 20 mWb. If this flux
2 is reversed in a time of 2 msec, calculate the average e.m.f.
30 30 induced in the coil 20V 200V 2000V
2 A mild steel having a cross sectional area of 10 cm2 and a mean

circumference of 50 cm has a coil of 250 turns wound uniformly
31 31 around it . Calculate the reluctance of the ring 1.047x 106AT/wb 104.7x 106AT/wb 10.47x 106AT/wb
A coil of 400 turns has a flux of 0.5 mWb linking with it
1 when carrying a current of 2A. Determine the inductance of
32 32 the coil 0.01H 1H 0.1 H
1 If the inductances of coils P and Q are 15 mH each and the

33 33 coefficient of coupling K= 0.7 then M = 10.5 H 0.0105H 1.05H
1 M/L 1L 2 M= √L 1L 2
34 34 Select the correct expression for K = M/ √L1L2
Two coils have self inductance of 3H and 2 H respectively
1 and the mutual inductance is 2H , then coefficient of
35 35 coupling is 0.816 8.16 0.0816
Two coils of negligible resistance and of self inductance of
0.2 H and 0.1 H are connected in series. If the mutual
1
inductance is 0.1 H, calculate the effective inductance of
36 36 the com 0.5 or 0.1 H 0.3H 0.4H
Higher values of permeability ( µr) means Difficult to pas the flu
thorugh the material Easy to pass the
Not possible to flux through the
37 37 pass flux at all material
38 38 1 The value of µ0 is ------------------ H/m 4π x 10-7 2 π x 10-7 8.854x 10-7
For a magnetic material the value of absolute permeability i
1
39 39 e. µ is ----- Constant Varying one
40 40 1 The unit of relative permeability ( µr) is H/m Wb/m AT/m
2 A magnetic circuit has µr = 1000 and length of 50 cm with cross
sectional area of 4 cm2. The amperes required through a coil of
41 41 1000 turns to produce the flux of 2mwb are --- A 1.989 5.28 4.989
In parallel magnetic circuit ----- across the parallel
1
42 42 branches is same flux MMF reluctance
A 50 cm long conductor is moving in a uniform magnetic

2 field in a direction perpendicular to the field at a constant
velocity of 10m/s . If B= 0.5 Tesla and I = 10A then force on
43 43 the conductor F = 25N 0.25N 2.5
Two identical coils have self inductance of 0.3 H each and
44 44 1 coupling coefficient of 0.8 . The M = 0.072mH 0.024mH 0.024H
If N = 450 , I =0.5A flux = 0.444 µWb , then the value of L = ----
45 45 1H 4 0.04 0.4
A coil of 100 turns is linked by a flux of 20 mWb . If this is
reversed in a time of 2 msec, calculate the average emg
46 46 1 induced in the coil 200V 2000V 0.2V
47 47 1 The expression for self inductance is NI/ø Nø / I N2/ø
48 48 1 The unit of self inductances are ------- or Henry Amp tunrs/wb Amp.wb/ turn Turns wb/Amp
49 49 1 The unit of coefficient of coupling is Amperes At/Wb Unitless
If the entire flux produced by one coil links with the other
50 50 1 then its coefficient of coupling is 0 1 very high
Option 4 Answer
none of these 2
none of these 1
S= NI x ø 1
λ = total Flux / 4
useful Flux
1
L = NøI H
1
None of the above
2
Self induced emf
2
None of these
2
Corkscrew rule
magnetically
3
induced emf
3
12000A/s
1
None of these
1
None of these
MMF = I/N 2
1
K= 2M/ √ L 1L 2
3
None of above
2
E= L I 2 joules
1
E/unit vol. = 1/2 B2 µ
joules / m2
0.342 N
3
1200AT/wb
2850
2
4 mA
4
1591.54 AT/M
1
2
S = S1x s2xx s3xs4/ 2

S1+ S2+ s3+ s4
8 mA 2
3
1.579 mH
1
0.525 Joule/ sec
1
150 x 10-3 H
3
2V
1.047 AT/wb
3
10 H
2
0.15754H
3
None of these
1
None of these
0.6 H
None of these
1/ 4π x 10-7 1
2
infinity
No unit 4
1
3.98
2
current
4N
3
0.072H
40 2
20 V 2
N2 I/ø 2
Amp Turns 3
H/m 3
0.5 2
v
MCQ on Unit No. III (A) : 1 Ph Transformer
Q.1) For 230V/50 Hz supply to a transformer, whose cross sectional area is 60 cm2. Calculate its
maximum flux. Assume 2:1 transformer and say 1000 turns at primary and 500 turns at
secondary
(a) 1.036 mWb (b) 1.136 mWb (c) 1.01 Wb (d) 1.001 Wb
Q.2) Two transformer A and B, with identical ratings, are to be designed with flux densities of
1.2 Wb/m2 and 1.4 Wb/m2 respectively. The weight of transformer A per KVA is
(a) less than that of transformer B (c) more than that of transformer B
(b) equal to that of transformer B (d) none of these
Q.3) A 220/110 V , 1 Ph Transformer has half load secondary current of 7.5 Amp , it’s
KVA rating is
(a) 1.65 KVA (b) 165 KVA (c) 16.5 KVA (d) 1650 KVA
Q.4) Eddy current loss in transformer depends on
(a) both voltage and frequency (b) voltage alone
(c) frequency alone (d) square of the frequency alone
Q.5) In an ordinary transformer which of the following does NOT change?
(a) Voltage (b) Current (c) Frequency (d) All of the above
Q.6) When the secondary load current of a 400/200 V transformer changes by 10 A, the
primary current changes by
(a) 10 A (b) 20 A (c) 5 A (d) 2.5 A
Q.7) Transformer core is laminated in order to
(a) reduce eddy current loss (b) reduce hysteresis loss
(c) reduce weight of steel (d) improve cooling

Q.8) In a single phase transformer which of the following relation is true
(a) E1N1 = E2N2 and I1N1 = I2N2

(b) E1N2 = E2N1 and I1N1 = I2N2
(c) E1N2 = E2N1 and I1N2 = I2N1
(d) E1N1 = E2N2 and I1N2 = I2N1
Q.9) The efficiency of a transformer at full load 0.8 p.f. lag is 90%. Its efficiency at full load 0.8
lead p.f. will be
(a) 90 % (b) less than 90 % (c) more than 90 % (d) none of the above
Q.10) A transformer transforms
(a) Voltage (b) Current (c) Power (d) Frequency
Q.11) Transformers A and B with 4 % & 8 % regulation respectively, which one is better
(a) Transformer A (b) Transformer B c) Both (d) Can’t say
Q.12) In case of direct loading test of a transformer, the readings are as follows
On No Load : W1 = 20 watts, W2 = 0 watts, V1 = 220 volts, V2 = 110 volts
On Load : W1 = 240 watts, W2 = 180 watts, V1 = 220 volts, V2 = 103 volts
What will be efficiency & regulation of the transformer at the given load.
(a) 75 % & 6.36 % (b) 63.6 % & 7.5 % (c) 75 % & 63.6 % (d) 7.5 % & 6.36 %
Q.13) A 3300 / 110 Volts, 50 Hz, 50 KVA transformer has full load copper loss of
1600 watts and iron loss of 1800 watts then the efficiency of transformer at
half load and 0.85 lag p.f. is
(a) 90.26 % (b) 90.16 % (c) 90.62 % (d) 90.42 %
Q.14) If the losses in a transformer are zero, we call such a transformer as ……
(a) Single phase transformer (b) Autotransformer

(c) Ideal transformer (d) Step-up transformer
Q.15) A single phase transformer has max. flux in the core 0.02 wb. If the no. of
primary turns is 470 & the supply frequency is 50 Hz, calculate the emf induced
in the Primary winding
(a) 440 V (b) 1800 V (c) 1500 V (d) None of these
Q.16) A transformer has primary & secondary winding resistances are 80 Ω & 180 Ω
respectively. If primary & secondary full load currents are 24 Amp & 16 Amp
respectively. The value of copper loss at full load & half the full load is
(a) 92.06 KW & 23.14 KW (c) 92.16 KW & 23.04 KW
(b) 90 KW & 23 KW (d) 92.86 KW & 24.14 KW
Q.17) RMS value of the induced emf per turn in transformer is
(a) 4φmf (b) 2φmf (c) φmf (d) 4.44φmf
Q.18) Which of the following losses in the transformer varies with load
(a) Copper loss (b) Eddy current loss c) Hysteresis loss d) Core loss
Q.19) A step up transformer increases
(a) Power (b) Voltage (c) Current (d) Frequency
Q.20) On no load, efficiency of the transformer is
(a) 100 % (b) 0 % (c) 50 % (d) 90 %
Q.21) If 25 W of power is applied to the primary of an ideal transformer with a turns ratio
of 10, the power delivered to the secondary load is
(a) 0 W (b) 25 W (c) 250 W (d) 2.5 W
Q.22) The core losses of transformer are dissipated in the form of
(a) Heat (b) Hum noise (c) Light (d) Electric energy
Q.23) Alternating voltages can be raised or lowered with the help of ________.
(a) generator (b) transformer (c) induction motor (d) universal motor
Q.24) A transformer works on the principle of ________.
(a) Faraday’s law (b) self induction (c) superposition (d) mutual induction
Q.25) The primary & secondary windings of a transformer are _______ coupled to
each other.
(a) magnetically (b) electrically (c) mechanically (d) physically
Q.26) The _____ on both sides of a transformer remains same.
(a) Power (b) Voltage (c) Current (d) Impedance
Q.27) The flux in the transformer core is ________.
(a) rotating (b) partly rotating (c) purely alternating (d) purely alternating
Q.28) The core provides _____ path to the flux produced.
(a) low reluctance (b) low voltage (c) low current (d) low resistance
Q.29) In a core type transformer ________.
(a) the core encircles the winding
(b) the limb encircles the yoke
(c) the winding encircles the core
(d) the core encircles the yoke
Q.30) _____ construction has a double magnetic circuit.
(a) Shell type (b) Core type (c) Berry type (d) None of the these
Q.31) In which type of transformer, natural cooling is effective.
Q.32) For a 50 Hz transformer, the primary turns are 100 and maximum flux in the core
is 0.08 Wb then the primary induced emf is
(a) 1856 V (b) 1276 V (c) 176 V (d) 1776 V
Q.33) For a 50 Hz transformer, the primary turns are 50. What will be the maximum
value of flux in the core if the primary induced emf is 199.8 Volts.
(a) 18 mWb (b) 18 Wb (c) 79.6 mWb (d) 0.998 Wb
Q.34) An ideal transformer is the one having
(a) no losses (b) zero resistance windings (c) zero leakage flux (d) all of these
Q.35) For 2000/200 Volts, 50 Hz, 10 KVA transformer, the half load secondary current is
(a) 50 A (b) 5 A (c) 25 A (d) 10 A

Q.36) Transformation ratio in a transformer is equal to
(a) N₂/N₁ (b) E₁/E₂ (c) I₂/I₁ (d) N₁/N₂
Q.37) If an ammeter in the secondary of a 100/10 V transformer reads 10 A, the current
in the primary would be
(a) 100 A (b) 2 A (c) 1 A (d) 10 A
Q.38) An isolation transformer has turns ratio of
(a) 1:1 (b) 10:1 (c) 1:10 (d) none of these
Q.39) A transformer steps up the voltage by a factor 100. The ratio of current in the
primary to that in the secondary is
(a) 1 (b) 100 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.01
Q.40) A transformer having turns ratio of 1:1 is called as __________ transformer.
(a) Step up (b) isolation (c) step down (d) None of the these
Q.41) For 400/100 V transformer, if the secondary turns are 16, then the primary turns
would be
(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 64 (d) 8
Q.42) A transformer has full load secondary current of 10 Amp & secondary no load induced
e.m.f. of 200 V then its KVA rating is
(a) 2 KVA (b) 20 KVA (c) 200 KVA (d) 2000 KVA
Q.43) The regulation of a transformer is given by
(a) (E₂ - V₂)/V₂ (b) (V₂ - E₂)/E₂ (c) (V₂ - E₂)/V₂ (d) (E₂ - V₂)/E₂
Q.44) The no load voltage of a transformer is 400 V while it drops to 395 V on full load
then its regulation will be
(a) -1.25 % (b) 1.25 % (c) 12.5 % (d) 0 %
Q.45) The no load voltage of a transformer is 120 V while it has a full load regulation
of 2 % then its full load voltage is
(a) 145 V (b) 125 V (c) 117.6 V (d) 126 V
Q.46) Which of the following losses is not common between rotating machines and
transformer.
(a) Copper loss (b) Friction loss (c) Hysteresis loss (d) Core loss
Q.47) A transformer has 200 W of iron loss at full load. The iron loss at half load is
(a) 200 W (b) 100 W (c) 400 W (d) 300 W
Q.48) When the supply frequency of a transformer is doubled then the hysteresis loss
(a) remain same (b) reduced by 50% (c) doubled (d) becomes 4 times
Q.49) When the supply frequency of a transformer is doubled then the eddy current loss
(a) remain same (b) reduced by 50% (c) doubled (d) becomes 4 times
Q.50) A transformer has 200 W of copper loss at half load. Then the copper loss at full
load will be
(a) 800 W (b) 100 W (c) 400 W (d) 200 W
Q.51) Ideally, for any transformer, the magnitude of regulation should be as ________ as
Possible where as efficiency should be as ________ as possible.
(a) high, high (b) low, low (c) low, high (d) high, low
Q.52) A transformer has full load copper loss at unity power factor is 480 watts. What
will be the value of copper loss at full load & 0.8 power factor lagging
(a) 240 W (b) 480 W (c) 960 W (d) 120 W
Q.53) In case of direct loading test of a transformer, the wattmeter on load side reads
420 watts while the wattmeter on the supply side reads 480 watts, then the
efficiency of the transformer is
(a) 75 % (b) 78.6 % (c) 87 % (d) 87.5 %
Q.54) The wattmeter on load side reads_________ for the no load reading in case of direct
loading test of a transformer.
(a) 0 W (b) 100 W (c) 1 W (d) 10 W
Q.55) As the load current increases, the regulation of a transformer
(a) remains same (b) decreases (c) increases (d) becomes 4 times
Q.56) The advantage of an autotransformer is
(a) gives highly stable voltage
(b) efficiency is 100 %
(c) copper saving
(d) none of these
Q.57) In which type of transformer, core is in the form of a rectangular frame made from
laminations.
Q.58) In which type of transformer, the primary & secondary windings are placed on the
central limb of the core.
Q.59) With a sinusoidal ac supply connected to the primary of a transformer, the type of
flux set up in the core is
(a) rectangular (b) discontinuous (c) cosine wave (d) sine wave
Q.60) The relation V₂ = E₂ for a transformer is true at
(a) half load (b) full load (c) no load (d) none of these
Q.61) The voltage ratio of a transformer is defined as the ratio of
(a) V₂ & V₁ (b) V₁ & V₂ (c) E₁ & E₂ (d) I₁ & I₂
Q.62) The ratio N₁/N₂ of a transformer is called as ______ ratio.
(a) Voltage (b) reverse turns (c) turns (d) transformation
Q.63) A __________ transformer provides substantial copper saving.

(a) auto (b) two winding (c) isolation (d) None of the these
Q.64) A single phase transformer connected to a lamp load gave the following wattmeter
readings : W₁ = 2510 W, W₂ = 2420 W & I₂ = 25 A. Calculate the efficiency of the
transformer.
(a) 92.63 % (b) 96.98 % (c) 96 % (d) 96.41 %
Q.65) The friction and windage losses in a transformer are
(a) part of copper loss (b) part of iron loss (c) zero (d) none of these
Q.66) A 500 KVA transformer has full load copper loss of 5000 watts and iron loss of 2000 watts
If the transformer is connected to a resistive load, calculate the efficiency of the
transformer at full load?
(a) 98.62 % (b) 98.16 % (c) 90.62 % (d) 98.42 %
Q.67) For a practical transformer on no load, there is small ______ loss takes place even at
no load.
(a) primary copper (b) secondary copper (c) iron (d) none of these
Q.68) When a practical transformer is on no load, the________ loss is zero.
(a) primary copper (b) secondary copper (c) iron (d) none of these
Q.69) Ideal value of voltage regulation of a transformer is
(a) 100 % (b) 50 % (c) 75 % (d) 0 %

Q.70) A 1 Ph transformer delivers 10 Amp, 220 V to a resistive load while primary draws
a 6 A current at 0.9 lagging pf from a 450 V, 50 Hz supply. If the turns ratio is 2,
calculate the value of input power.
(a) 2700 W (b) 2200 W (c) 2430 W (d) 2600 W
Q.71) A 1 Ph transformer delivers 220 V at 10 Amp to a resistive load when a primary is
connected to a 450 V supply. If the turns ratio is 2, calculate the no load voltage.
(a) 225 V (b) 220 V (c) 110 V (d) 900 V

Q.72) An autotransformer has _______ windings.
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
Q.73) I₁ is _______ V₁.
(a) inversely proportional to
(b) directly proportional to
(c) independent of
(d) none of these
Q.74) I₂ is _______ V₂.
(a) inversely proportional to
(b) directly proportional to
(c) independent of
(d) none of these
Q.75) The transformer rating is in terms of
(a) Watts (b) KVA (c) KW (d) VAR
Q.76) The rating of transformer is in terms of _______ power.
(a) active (b) reactive (c) apparent (d) none of these
Q.77) The complete rating of transformer includes the ratio of a primary to secondary
voltages, _______ and _______.
(a) flux, frequency (b) no. of turns, KVA
(c) KVA, frequency (d) frequency, no. of turns
Q.78) A 3300 / 200 Volts transformer has rated primary and secondary currents of
30.303 A and 500 A respectively. Then the rating of the transformer would be
(a) 1650 KVA (b) 60.6 KVA (c) 165 KVA (d) 100 KVA
Q.79) For a 6600/220 V, 50 Hz transformer, if N₁ = 1500 & Bm = 1.2 T then the
effective cross sectional area of the core is
(a) 16.5 m² (b) 0.0165 m² (c) 0.024 m² (d) 1.65 cm²
Q.80) Which loss is further classified into hysteresis and eddy current loss?
(a) Copper loss (b) Iron loss (c) Variable loss (d) Total loss
Q.81) Which loss is independent of frequency?
(a) Copper loss (b) Iron loss (c) hysteresis loss (d) eddy current loss
Q.82) Which loss is known as the constant/core loss?
(a) Copper loss (b) Iron loss (c) hysteresis loss (d) eddy current loss
Q.83) Which loss is taking place in the core of the transformer?
(a) Copper loss (b) Iron loss (c) Total loss (d) None of these
Q.84) The power, P = I₁² R₁ + I₂² R₂ represents which loss in a transformer?
(a) Copper loss (b) Iron loss (c) Total loss (d) None of these
Q.85) A 3300/200 V, 100 KVA transformer has N₁ = 80 then the rated primary current is
(a) 500 A (b) 50 A (c) 303 A (d) 30.3 A
Q.86) For a transformer, if primary voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz & N₁ = 500, Bm = 1.2 mWb/m² then
the cross sectional area of the core is
(a) 172 m² (b) 17 m² (c) 1.7267 mm² (d) 1.7267 m²
Q.87) A 3300/240 V, 10 KVA, 50 Hz transformer has core area 300 cm² and flux density of
1.3 T. Then the numbers of primary turns are
(a) 28 (b) 382 (c) 38.2 (d) 238
Q.88) The material used for the construction of transformer core is
(a) cast steel (b) rain forced steel (c) silicon steel (d) cast iron
Q.89) The d.c. supply is not used for the transformer because
(a) burning of windings due to high current is possible.
(b) eddy current losses are more.
(c) d.c. winding resistance is very high.
(d) hysteresis losses are more.
Q.90) The average value of the e.m.f. per turn in a transformer is

(a) 2Φmf (b) 4Φmf (c) Φmf (d) 4.44Φmf
Q.91) The value of flux used in an e.m.f. equation of a transformer is
(a) r.m.s. (b) average (c) maximum (d) instantaneous
Q.92) The turns ratio is _______ to current ratio.
(a) inversely proportional
(b) directly proportional
(c) equal to
(d) none of these
Q.93) In a step-up transformer ______ remain constant.
(a) Voltage (b) Current (c) Power (d) none of these
Q.94) A high voltage side is
(a) low current, high impedance side.
(b) low current, low impedance side.
(c) high current, low impedance side.
(d) none of these.
Q.95) A low voltage side is
(a) low current, high impedance side.
(b) low current, low impedance side.
(c) high current, low impedance side.
(d) none of these.

Q.96) The expression for eddy current loss is
(a) Kh Bm f² t² V
(b) Kh Bm² f² t²
(c) Kh Bm² f t
(d) Kh Bm² f² t² V
Q.97) The advantage of direct loading test is
(a) efficiency at any load can be predicted without actually loading.
(b) equivalent circuit parameters can be obtained.
(c) Results are accurate.
(d) None of these
Q.98) What KVA rating is required for a transformer that must handle a maximum load current
of 8 A with a secondary voltage of 2 KV?
(a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 4
Q.99) The turns ratio required to match an 80 Ω source to a 320 Ω load is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.05 (c) 4 (d) 2
Q.100) If supply frequency of a transformer increases, the secondary output voltage of the
transformer
(a) remains same (b) decreases (c) increases (d) becomes 4 times
Q.101) If the cross sectional area of magnetic core of a transformer increases, the secondary
output voltage of the transformer
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) becomes 2 times
Q.102) If the maximum flux density of core of a transformer increases, the secondary
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains same (d) becomes 2 times
Q.103) If the secondary number of turns in a transformer increases then the secondary
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains same (d) becomes 2 times
Q.104) When a 400 Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz, its KVA rating is
(a) reduced to 1/16
(b) reduced to 1/4
(c) reduced to 1/2
(d) reduced to 1/8
Q.105) Which of the following machine will have maximum efficiency?
(a) Generator (b) Transformer (c) D.C. Motor (d) Induction motor
Q.106) The flux in the transformer core is ________.
(a) increases with load
(b) decreases with load.
(c) remains constant irrespective of load.
(d) none of these
Q.107) In a certain loaded transformer, the secondary voltage is 1/4 th the primary voltage.
the secondary current is
(a) 1/4 th the primary current
(b) equal to the primary current
(c) four times the primary current
(d) none of these
Q.108) The input power under no load condition of a transformer consists of
(a) core losses in transformer.
(b) core losses and very small amount of copper loss in primary.
(c) copper loss in transformer.
(d) significant amount of copper loss along with negligible amount of core losses.
Q.109) For a given applied voltage with increase in frequency, the eddy current loss will
(a) Increases
(b) decreases
(d) will increase associated with increase of copper losses
Q.110) Copper is preferred than aluminum for windings of a transformer because it is
(a) having high permittivity
(b) having high resistivity
(c) having high conductivity
(d) low eddy current loss
Q.111) Primary of a transformer is connected to constant voltage supply. What will happen to
Flux if the secondary current is increased.
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Nothing will happen. It will remain constant
(d) Increase in exponential manner
Q.112) The purpose of providing iron core for a transformer is

(a) To support the windings
(b) To provide magnetic couplings between windings
(c) To improve mechanical strength
(d) To increase conductivity of windings

Q.113) If the transformation ratio K > 1, the transformer is
(a) Step-down transformer (b) Step-up transformer
(c) One to one transformer (d) None of these
Q.114) No load current of a transformer
(a) Has small magnitude & low power factor
(b) Has high magnitude & low power factor
(c) Has high magnitude & high power factor
(d) Has small magnitude & high power factor
Q.115) When a 50 Hz transformer is operated on 60 Hz, its KVA rating will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Unaffected
(d) Depend on secondary load
Q.116) The transformation ratio, K is defined symbolically as
(a) Φ₂/Φ₁ (b) V₂/V₁ (c) I₂/I₁ (d) None of these
Q.117) At no load, the power factor of a transformer is
(a) Unity (b) leading (c) lagging (d) none of these
Q.118) The limbs of transformer core are stepped to reduce
(a) eddy current loss (b) copper winding material
(c) Labor cost (d) aesthetically good look
Q.119) The voltage induced per turn, both in primary and secondary of a two winding single
phase transformer is
(a) Infinity (b) zero (c) same (d) different

Q.120) A 2000/200 V, 10 KVA, 50 Hz transformer is operating at full load and unity p. f. Its
Secondary current is
(a) 500 A (b) 50 A (c) 5 A (d) None of these
Q.121) The efficiency of a transformer is maximum at the load when
(a) Iron loss is 50 % of copper loss
(b) Iron loss = Copper loss
(c) Iron loss = √Copper loss
(d) None of these

Scanned by CamScanner
Ans. A
B. 25 ohms
resistance will be
Ans. C
D. 1:8 Ans. D
Ans. B
B. infite Ans. C
C. zero
Ans. D pure metals
A. increases
B. low Ans. A
C. zero
A. increases
C. atoms
1
Ans. B A. chemical
B. mechanical
resistance Ans. C
A. manganin
C. carbon A. R
D. copper B. L
Ans. A C. Q
D. t
Ans. C C. magnitude
D. magnetism
Que. Ohm‟s law is not applicable to Ans. B
A. vaccume tubes
Ans. A C. volt
D. tesla
Ans. A D. 4186 KJ
Ans. A
A. MMF B. Ω-m
B. EMF C. Ω/m
D. all above Ans. B
Ans. B
2
D. Henry C. zero
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
D. all above C. θ
Ans. B D. Φ
Ans. A
D. all above A. OC
Ans. D B. /OC
C. Ω/OC
A. size
Ans. C B. voltage
C. leakage current
A. increases
C. decreses is ____
coefficient Ans. A
A. positive
B. negative
3
____ Ans. B
A. current
Ans. C B. chemical
C. heating
A. directly
Ans. B B. V.I
C. V.I.t
A. length
Ans. A C. Thermal
D. None of above
A. carbon A. 50
B. constantan B. 75
C. copper C. 100
D. silver D. 35
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. A
4
D. None of above
Ans. C Ans. B
Ans. B Ans. A

Ans. C Ans. A
Ans. C
D. All of above
5
A. E=1/2 mV2
D. all above
true?
power plant means it‟s B. 200 kΩresistance is equivalent to 2MΩ
Ans. B
Ans. C
Ans. C Ans. B
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. C
B. E=m.g A. Ohms
Ans. A D. Micro Ohm
Ans. B
6
Ans. B
ρ
B. Ri =2πl 𝑙𝑛(R2/R1) A. length
ρ B. thickness
C. Ri=2πl (R2/R1)
C. resistivity of insulating material
Ans. B Ans. D

cable increases it‟s insulation resistance will A. Flow of electrons.
Ans. A
C. decrease Ans. B
D. none of above
A. Volts.
C. glass Ans. C
D. plastic
increase of?
Ans. A
7
Que. According to Ohm‟s law current is B. No effect on resistance.
increases?
Que. According to Ohm‟s law current is A. No effect on resistance.
D. Temp.
Ans. D Ans. C
Ans. B
behave as?
8
Ans. B is given by.
𝑅𝑡 −𝑅0
A. α0= 𝑅𝑜 .𝑡
Que. At high temperature semi-conductor will 𝑅𝑜 −𝑅𝑡
behave as? B. α0= 𝑅𝑡 .𝑡
𝑅1−𝑅2
A. Insulator. C. α0= 𝑅1 𝑡
B. Conductor. 𝑅2
C. Semi-conductor. D. α0= 𝑅𝑜 .𝑡
Ans. B
D. None of above.
_________
A. one watt
temperature. Ans. B
A. True.
Ans. A time respectively, then according to Joule‟s
A. /Ώ/0C B. I2Rt2
B. /0C C. I2R2t
C. 0C D. I2R2t2
D. Ώ/0C Ans. A
Ans. B
in size?
A. 100Ω, 10W
9
B. 10Ω, 50W Ans. C
C. 1MΩ, 0.5W
speed C. 1000 MΩ
layer Ans. C
Ans. C A. 0.3A
B. 0.4A
incorrect? D. 0.6A
B. 𝑃 = 𝐼 2 R
Ans. D A. 625Ω
B. 526Ω
C. 62.5Ω
UNIT IB D. 625mΩ
Ans. A
A. 2x10-8Ω-m B. 0.00006 s
C. 6x10-8Ω-m D. 0.6 s
Ans. C
A. 1.2 MΩ Ans. B
B. 0.2 Ω
10
C. 0.1V A. 5 min
D. 10V B. 5s
Ans. C C. 50min
D. 50s
C. 80W A. 6J
D. 100W B. 8J
Ans. D C. 4J
D. 10J
resistance of
A. 1400 ohm Que. 0.32mA=. . . . . . μA
B. 60 ohm A. 0.0032
C. 960 ohm B. 0.032
D. 325 ohm C. 0.00032
Ans. C D. 320
Ans. D
C. 7500 J A. Ri1 + Ri2
D. 450000 J B. Ri1 - Ri2
Ans. D C. Ri1 / Ri2
A. Ri1 + Ri2
A. 45s D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2
B. 30s Ans. A
C. 65s
A. 4:25
11
B. 57Ω-m
_______
D. 60W be 2 ohm at
Ans. D A. 1154 K
B. 1100 K
A. 25W, 220V Ans. B
B. 100W, 220V
UNIT IC ___
A. 120 MΩ
A. nr Ans. C
B. R/n
A. 1/4 ohm C. 0.240 MΩ
B. 1/16 ohm D. 0.160 Ω
C. 4 ohm Ans. A
D. 16 ohm
Resistance a- /0C
12
RTC c-ohm
C. 1-d,2-c,3-a,4-b A. 0.000124/0C
Ans. C C. 0.00324/0C
A. reduce by 25%
Ans. B A. 990 Ώ.
B. 881.667 Ώ.
700C
A. 2×1012 Ώ.
A. 4.5mΏ.
A. 111 Ώ.
13
0.0039/0C
Ans. C A. 210 sec
B. 420 sec
brightly?
Ans. B C. 4W
D. 12 W
Ans. A B. 60m
C. 40m
resistance?
C. 60W bulb 1.3A at 230V?.
Ans. C B. 7.47KW
C. 325W
appliances: Ans. A
14
C. 250A C. 15 min
D. 231.4A D. 20 min
Ans. D Ans. A
200C. A. 1000 W
A. 0.126Ω B. 500 W
B. 0.121Ω C. 1050 W
C. 0.125Ω D. 1500 W
D. 0.127Ω Ans. C
Ans. B
A. 960C Ans. A
B. 86.10C
C. 500C
D. 600C UNIT ID
Ans. B

4200j/Kg.k) B. 2.7 kWh
A. 4.65KWh C. 9 kWh
C. 5.185KW Ans. B
D. 50KW
power developed
4200j/Kg.k,) Ans. D
A. 13.08 min
B. 13 hr
15
A. 198J D. 0.02 kWh
B. 981W Ans. B
C. 198W
100oC is
A. 160kW C. 42kJ
B. 1600W D. 420J
C. 16kW Ans. B
D. 160W
A. 9kJ B. 1637 N-m
B. 65J C. 163 N-m
C. 25kJ D. 16370 N-m
D. 90kJ Ans. B
Ans. A
B. 7.5W A. 88.08 %
C. 750W B. 88 %
D. 600W C. 88.88%
Ans. B D. 78 %
Ans. C
C. 500W A. 2400 KJ
D. 10KW B. 240 KJ
Ans. D C. 24 J
D. 24000 KJ
16
is….
A. 8.8 X 109 Wh Ans. D
B. 7.99 X 109 Wh
A. 1234.6H.P Ans. A
B. 1172.9H.P
A. 2 Kg Ans. B
B. 0.6 kg
is…… C. 5336.1 KJ
A. 41.87 Wh D. 6000 KJ
B. 4.187W Ans. C
C. 4.187 Wh
D. 4500 w
17
station is 86.4%.
D. 2.316x108m3 of motor is 89.77%
Ans. B A. 40KW
B. 35Kw
A. 40KW
A. 40.25 W Ans. B
B. 4025 KW
is -------
A. 95% D. 75KW
B. 80% Ans. C
C. 30%
D. 50%
Ans. A UNIT IIA
18
Ans. B Ans. C

surrounded by
D. current C. Tesla
Ans. A D. AT
Ans. A
A. Lenz‟s law A. wb/m2
C. Fleming‟s left hand rule C. AT/wb
D. Kirchoff‟s law D. A
Ans. B Ans. A
A. current B. wb
Ans. C
Ans. B
A. flux A. Flux
Ans. A Ans. D
called A. AT/m
19
direction current
Ans. C
Ans. C C. air flux
D. leakage flux
means
Ans. D
D. increase mmf
A. 4π × 10-7 H/m
strength Ans. A
20
Ans. C C. flux
D. magnetic field
𝑁𝑥𝑎
A. ф = 𝑙µ0µ𝑟
𝑙
B. 𝑁𝐼 = 𝐵 × 𝜇 carrying on conductor when placed in
0𝜇 𝑟 𝑎
∅𝑥 𝑙 𝑑∅
D. 𝑁𝐼 = 𝜇 𝜇 𝑎 A. 𝐹 = 𝑁 𝑑𝑡
0 𝑟
𝑑𝑖
Que. The permeance in a magnetic circuit D. 𝐹 = 𝐿 𝑑𝑡
current of the coil
Ans. A C. glass
21
C. low
D. both b and c are
Ans. D A. very high
A. value of flux
𝑁𝐼
D. all of above A. 𝐻 = 4𝜋𝑑
Ans. D 𝐼
B. 𝐻 = 2𝜋𝑑
𝑁𝐼
Que. Two current carrying conductor lying C. 𝐻 = 2𝜋𝑑
carrying current in the opposite direction. The D. 𝐻 = 𝑙
A. repulsive
B. Attractive Que. Fleming‟s left hand rule is used to find
conductor
field
22
carrying conductor
Ans. C Ans. D
Ans. B
𝐴 B. 1wb/cm2
A. 𝑚
𝐻 C. 1mwb/cm2
B. D. 1wb/mm2
𝑚
𝑙
C. 𝑚 Ans. A
𝐻
D. 𝑙 Que. Which part of the magnetic path requires
Ans. B largest mmf
A. coil
23
B. silicon steel
B. total flux
coil varies with
C. area/length
is__________ Ans. B
A. 1
C. mmf
A. 300
D. none of above
material?
Ans. A
24
Ans. A
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. Magnetomotive force is given by Que. According to Lenz‟s law direction of

Ans. D D. Non above
Ans. C
A. Flux always remains same Que. According to Faraday‟s Laws of
object is
B. thumb Ans. D
25
Ans. B
B. Inductance
Que. Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic B. Dynamic inductance
Ans. C A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
A. Fleming‟s right hand rule Ans. A
B. Lenz‟s law
C. Faraday‟s first law Que. The phenomenon of the self induction is
D. Faraday‟s second law felt only when the current in the coil is
Ans. A A. Changing
B. Increasing
A. Mutual Ans. D
B. Self
C. Dynamic
D. Static
26
Ans. D D. Hopkinson‟s coefficient
Ans. D
A. Volt A. MMF
C. Henry C. Voltage
D. Linkages D. Flux
Ans. C Ans. B
B. Ampere A. Sum
Ans. A D. ratio
Ans. D
Ans. D
𝑁𝐼
Que. Expression is called
𝑙
A. MMF
is_________
B. EMF
A. Volt
C. Flux linkage
B. Ampere/ Volt
C. Henry
Ans. D
D. Linkages
Ans. C
A. –L dI/dt
B. MdI / dt
represents
C. N2 Ф2/ I1
A. Mutual induction
D. NФ/I
Ans. C
27
D. Induced emf
Que. As per Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic Ans. A
induction, e=
A. –NdФ/dt 𝑙
Que. In the expression for reluctance𝑆 = 𝜇𝑎
B. MdI / dt
C. N2 Ф2 / I1 of a conduced, letter „a‟ represents_________
B. Surface area
A. Ф1/Ф2 Ans. C
B. Ф2/Ф1
A. steady
A. N l
A. Ф D. NI / ℓ
B. dФ/dt Ans. D
C. NФ
1
A. 𝐸 = 2 𝐶𝐼 2
The term NФ/I is generally called 1
Que. B. 𝐸 = 2 𝐿𝐼 2
as______ 1
A. Self inductance C. 𝐸 = 2 𝐿𝑉 2
1
C. Flux linkage
Ans. B
28
Ans. A
1
A. 𝐸 = 2 𝐵𝐿 Que. If two side by side placed coils are
B. 𝐸 = 2 𝐵𝐻 two coils are always ….
1
2
D. 𝐸 = 2 𝜇𝐵 C. in outward direction
Ans. B
𝐾
B. 𝑀 = 𝐿 𝐿 inductance is……
1 2
𝑀 A. L1+L2+2M
C. 𝐾 = B. L1+L2-2M
𝐿1 𝐿2
D. 𝐾 = 𝑀𝑥 𝐿1 𝐿2 C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. C
Ans. A
coupling is….
A. less than 1
B. More than 1
inductance is……
C. equal to 1
A. L1+L2+2M
D. equal to zero
B. L1+L2-2M
Ans. C
C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. B
coupling is….
A. less than 1
C. equal to 1
D. equal to zero
29
B. 270000 AT ring is_____
C. 1500 AT A. 5000AT
D. 7500 AT B. 7200AT
Ans. C C. 750AT
D. 7500 AT
A. 40 mH
A. 2000 AT D. 25 mH
B. 200 AT Ans. A
C. 20 AT
A. 0V D. 25 mH
B. 1.26V Ans. B
C. 0.18V
A. 1.12 J D. 0.4A
B. 0.14 J Ans. C
C. 0.56 J
current is
30
A. 3.75 A B. 0.7×106 AT/Wb
B. 3. 75 mA C. 6×107 AT/Wb
D. 37.5 mA Ans. B
Ans. B
A. 0V D. 106mwb
B. 1.26V Ans. C
C. 0.63V
A. 0.3125N Ans. B
B. 3.125N
A. 225 AT/m
must be D. 375 AT/m
A. 130.3mm Ans. D
B. 13.33cm
D. 4.12cm of 20cm, C/S area of 1 cm2, µr of 2400 . The
A. 663.48 x 104 AT/wb
31
mwb__________ B. 4 N
A. 13x103 AT C. 0.4 N
C. 13x102AT Ans. A
D. none of these
is___________ C. 53N
D. 75N
A. 1.67 x 106 AT/Wb Ans. D
B. 16.7 x 106 AT/Wb
D. 1.67 x 104 AT/Wb
Ans. A
A. 373N
B. 0
C. 53N
D. 75N
Ans. b
___
A. 707.714 x 103 AT/Wb
B. 70.77 x 103 AT/Wb
C. 707.714 x 104 AT/Wb
D. 7.07 x 104 AT/Wb
Ans. A
A. 2.5A
B. 3.53 mA
C. 2.8A
D. none of these
Ans. D
A. 0V
B. 1.26V
C. 0.18V
D. 0.88V
Ans. A
A. 3 x 10-5wb
B. 2 x 10-3wb
C. 1.5 x 10-2wb
D. 2.5 x 10-4wb
Ans. B
32
A. 60 J A. 0.53H
B. 30 J B. 0.169H
C. 15 J C. 0.011H
D. 13.33 J D. 0.0188H
Ans. C Ans. C
A. 0.9 J B. 20 V
B. 0.45 J C. 10V
C. 450J D. 5V
D. 18 J Ans. A
Ans. B

C. 225 J Ans. D
D. 450 J
__________
is…. Ans. B
A. 0.245
A. Motor
33
D. Transistor
of__________
winding. C. Power
B. Secondary Ans. B
C. Tertiary
A. Low resistance
A. Primary Ans. B
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
A. Physically
A. Decreases Ans. D
B. increases
as_________
34
D. all of the above
used for__________
D. (N1xN2)/N2
for___________
Ans. C B. step-up
C. Isolation
core__________ Ans. B
Ans. A A. step-down
B. step-up
B. Magnetic circuit
Ans. B called____
35
Ans. C
C. Auto Ans. C
D. Control
has__________
has__________
B. 60 to 75 % Ans. B
C. 80 to 90 %
side
D. 0 C. E= 4.44 Bm f N
Ans. D
36
C. I2/I1 A. kW
D. V1/V2 B. kVA
Ans. A C. kV
D. kWh
D. 1 will_________
Ans. D A. Be halved
B. Not change
B. 1
Ans. A A. 1 to 3%
B. 3 to 9 %
B. 1
D. 0 provide_______
B. Frequency
B. Always the same
37
Ans. B is______________
reduce Ans. D
Ans. C
A. 1
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 −𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 B. 100
A. 𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
C. 0.01
𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 −𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
D. 0.1
B. Ans. B
𝑁𝑜 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 −𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 Que. An ideal transformer does not
C. 𝐹𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 change______________
A. Voltage
D. B. Power
C. current
Ans. A
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. The efficiency of single phase
A. 𝑉 𝐼 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 core____________
2 2 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 +𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠 𝑠
V 1 I 1 Cos∅ A. increases with load
B.
V 2 I 2 Cos∅ +iron loss +copper loss B. decreases with load
V 1 I 1 Cos∅
C. V C. remains constant irrespective of load
1 I 1 Cos ∅+iron loss +copper loss
D. none of these
𝑉2 𝐼2 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅ Ans. C
D. 𝑉 𝐼
1 1 𝐶𝑜𝑠∅+𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 +𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠
Ans. A
38
when___________ Ans. D
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. D Ans. B
39
Ans. C D. infinity
Ans. D
because__________
constant Ans. D
Ans. C
Ans. B
40
Ans. A
Ans. B
B. friction loss pf
Ans. B
inductively coupled
A. iron core Ans. B
B. copper winding
A. low
41
B. unity
be_____________ Ans. B
A. constant
Ans. C A. second
B. first
A. exactly equal
Ans. A C. Conductor
D. Semiconductor
Ans. D C. C2V/2
D. CV
to_____________
D. 50 Hz ac
A. 0.8 pf lead
42
capacitor
Ans. C
Que. As per Coulomb‟s
Ans. C
Ans. A C. neutral
D. supercharged
43
Ans. D voltage
A. E = D/𝝐
true?
the range
A. Henry
B. Ohm
A. Glass Ans. C
B. Vaccum
C. Ceramics Que. Voltage across capacitor at any time „t‟
Ans. C is given by
A. ν = Ve-t/λ
44
B. paper
medium Ans. D
A. permeability
Ans. B B. paper
C. mica
B. 63.2, initial
A. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m Ans. C
B. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m
given by „ B. 63
A. 1 C. 42
B. 10 D. 73
C. 100 Ans. A
D. 1000
A. Farad/sq-m
Ans. B on_________________
A. moisture content
45
Ans. B
Ans. C D. Coulomb
Ans. D
A. 0 capacitors of equal capacitance „C‟ when
C. 8.854 × 10−12 A. 4C
Ans. B C. 3C/4
D. C
C. One Joule/ Volt
Ans. B B. 1/QC
C. Q2/2C
B. potential
C. charge
46
Ans. A C. 909.0 Amp
D. 9.09 Amp
D. C= Єr A / d A. 16/9
Ans. C B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 9/16
Ans. D
UNIT IIIB
A. 400 Watt A. 3200 W and 2500 W
B. 100 Watt B. 3200 W and 5200 W
C. 200 Watt C. 1600 W and 1250 W
D. 50 Watt D. 1600 W and 5000 W
Ans. B Ans. D
C. 250 W C. 15A
Ans. D Ans. A

current is____________ A. 10
A. 909.09 Amp B. 5
B. 90.90 Amp C. 0.1
C. 9.09 Amp D. 9
Ans. C
47
A. 2.6%
B. 2.67%
is ________ Ans. A
A. 200 W
Ans. C A. 2.5 µF
B. 40 µF
should be________
C. 400 A. 10 µF
D. 1250 B. 2 µF
Ans. A C. 25 µF
D. none of these
C. 375 will be________________
D. 429 A. 100 V
Ans. B B. 200 V
C. 150 V
B. 33.03 amp is___________________________
C. 30.3 amp A. 0.4 F
D. 0.303 amp B. 0.2 F
Ans. A C. 3.2 F
D. 0.8 F
48
A. 8 S B. 900 µC
B. 3 S C. 1200 µC
C. 6 S D. 1600 µC
D. 2.4 S Ans. C
Ans. B
________________ C. 5 × 10−5 𝐹/𝑀
A. 3 µF D. 9 × 105 𝐹/𝑀
B. 6 µF Ans. A
C. 12 µF
combination
is________.
A. 10 F C. C1 C2
B. 10 µF D. 1/ C1 C2
C. 100 µF Ans. B
D. 1000 µF
D. 8 Joule Ans. B
Ans. D
49
Ans. D is______.
A. 0.1sec
A. 10 sec Ans. C
B. 0.1 sec
is____________. C. 8.854 mF
A. 1mA D. 8.854 F
B. 0.1 mA Ans. A
C. 0.01mA
D. 1.00A
A. 36V B. 8 mC
B. 36.6V C. 8 nC
C. 63.2V D. 8 pC
D. 63 V Ans. A
Ans. C
A. 1A A. 0.000295 x 10-6 F
B. 10A B. 0.00295 x 10-6 F
C. 0.01A C. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
D. 0.1A D. 0. 295 x 10-6 F
Ans. D Ans. B
50
B. Henery Ans. B
C. Farad
Ans. D on
capacitors of equal capacitance „C‟ when C. 6.24 x 10 12 electrons
A. 4C Ans. A
B. C/4
B. C = Є0 d / A
B. electric field
be_________.
Ans. A
capacitor is ___________ A. 3.54 x 10-12 F
A. 1/2QC B. 35.4 x 10-12 F
B. 1/QC C. 3.54 x 10-10 F
C. Q2/2C D. 3.54 x 10-11 F
D. Q/2C Ans. A
Ans. C
B. 7.5 µF is___________
51
Ans. D
is__________
A. 71 turns
B. 75 turns
D. 923 turns
Ans. A
A. 25.22 mwb
A. 1.25 Tesla
B. 22.52 mwb
B. 1.52 Tesla
C. 52.22 mwb
C. 1.3 Tesla
D. none of these
Ans. B
Ans. A
A. 16.516 x 10–3 m2
winding________
A. 600 turns B. 61.516 x 10–3 m2
B. 900 turns C. 26.516 x 10–3 m2
C. 300 turns D. 62.516 x 10–3 m2
D. 450 turns Ans. A
Ans. B
52
A. 99%
is_____
is___________ Ans. A
A. 96.97%
A. 98.13% Ans. B
B. 98.73%
C. 99%
D. none of these
Ans. B

Ans. B Ans. C
53
C. 𝑖 = 100 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
Que. The rms value of a sine wave of peak D. 𝑖 = 100 2𝑠𝑖𝑛157𝑡
A. Im/√2
C. Im/2 𝜋
expression 𝑖 = 200 sin⁡
(314𝑡 + 3 ) amperes.
D. Im/π
A. Im/π C. 200 A, 100 Hz
B. 2Im/π D. 200 A, 25 Hz
C. zero Ans. A
D. Im/2
is________second. B. 90°
A. 0.05 C. 135°
B. 0.005 D. 60°
C. 0.0005 Ans. B
D. 0.5
because_______
A. 1.01 magnitude
Ans. B appliances
Ans. A
54
circuits Que. An alternating voltage is given by
C. it is nature‟s standard 𝑣 = 30 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 .The time taken by the
D. other waves can not be produced easily voltage to reach 30 V for the first time is_____
B. 0.1 second
C. electroplating
A. √3 A
Que. _________will produce ac voltage. 3
B. 2 A
A. friction
D. crystal Ans. C
Ans. D
C. four Ans. B
D. eight
Ans. C Que. An alternating voltage is given by
𝑣 = 100 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 volts. Its average value will
Que. An alternating voltage is given by be________
𝑣 = 20 sin 157𝑡. The frequency of the A. 70.7 V
alternating voltage is_____ B. 50 V
A. 50 Hz C. 63.7 V
B. 25 Hz D. 100 V
C. 100 Hz Ans. C
D. 75 Hz
D. 5 V Ans. B
Ans. B
55
be_______ is___________
A. 𝜋
B. 2𝜋 C. unpredictable
𝐼𝑚
C. 2 𝜋 D. from positive to negative
Ans. C
Que. The area of a sinusoidal wave over a 𝐴sin⁡(𝜔𝑡 + 30°) and 𝐵sin⁡ (𝜔𝑡 − 60°). The
Ans. B
Ans. A
Que. An alternating voltage is given by
Que. A sinusoidal voltage is expressed as
𝑣 = 200 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Its rms value will be_____ 𝜋
A. 100 V 𝑣 = 20 sin⁡(314.16𝑡 + 3 ) V. Its frequency
B. 282.8 V and phase angle respectively
C. 141.4 V are____________
D. 121.4 V A. 314.16 Hz, 60°
Ans. C B. 60Hz, 60°
C. 50 Hz, 60°
Que. A sinusoidal voltage is represented as D. 50 Hz, -60°
𝜋 Ans. C
𝑣 = 141.4 sin⁡(314.18𝑡 − 2 ). Its rms value of
respectively_______
A. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°
Then__________
B. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
C. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90°
D. 100 V,50 Hz, -90°
same time
Ans. D
same time
D. all of the above
Ans. D
instant
instant
A. 7.07 A
B. 14.14 A
zero value
C. 10 A
D. none of these
D. 28.28 A
Ans. C
56
Ans. B B. +1
C. -1
Que. If A=10∠45° and B=5∠15°, then the 1
D. 2
Ans. A
A. 50∠60°
B. 2∠60° Que. An alternating current is given by
C. 2∠-30° 𝑖 = 𝐼𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃. The average value of squared
D. 2∠30° wave of this current over a complete cycle
Ans. D is________
A. I2m/2
A. 90° Ans. A
B. 180°
Ans. C A. 1.414
B. 1.11
A. more than Ans. B
B. less than
A. 0.4 × 2 A
Que. Alternating voltages and currents are
B. 0.4 ÷ 2 A
expressed in rms values because______
A. they can be easily determined C. 0.8 ÷ 2 A
as_____dc
A. +1 C. 70.7 V
1 Ans. C
C.
2
B. square
A. zero Ans. B
57
Ans. D Ans. B
A. 1.11 A. 127.4V
B. 1.414 B. 141.4V
C. 2 C. 282.8V
D. 1.5 D. 200V
Ans. B Ans. A
A. 15V A. 70.7A
B. 15 × 2 V B. 141.4A
C. 15/ 2 V C. 150A
Ans. A Ans. B
Ans. B
C. 40 Hz value?
58
C. triangular wave Que. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time
D. sine wave period will be_________
Ans. A A. 0.05 S
B. 0.005 S
Que. For the same peak value which of the C. 0.0005 S
following wave will have the least mean D. 0.5 S
value? Ans. B
B. triangular wave
C. sine wave
D. square wave
Ans. A
Que. For a sine wave with peak value Imax, the Que. An ac voltage of 50 Hz has a maximum
rms value is_______ value of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second
A. 0.5Imax after the instant the current is zero will
B. 0.707Imax be_________
C. 0.9Imax A. 5V
D. 1.414Imax B. 12.5V
Ans. B C. 25V
D. 43.8V
Que. Form factor is the ratio of_________ Ans. C
A. average value/rms value
B. average value/peak value Que. For 200V rms value triangular wave, the
C. rms value/average value peak voltage will be______
D. rms value/peak value A. 200V
Ans. C B. 222V
C. 282V
Que. For a sine wave with peak value E max, the D. 346V
average value is______ Ans. D
A. 0.636Emax
B. 0.707Emax Que. The rms value of a half-wave rectified
C. 0.434Emax current is 100 A. Its value for full-wave
D. 1.414Emax rectification would be_________amperes.
Ans. A A. 141.4
B. 200
Que. The current in a circuit is given by: C. 200/π
𝑖 = 100 sin 314𝑡 amperes. The maximum D. 40/π
value and frequency of current are_________ Ans. A
A. 50√2 A, 100 Hz
B. 100√2 A, 100 Hz Que. The rms value of a sinusoidal ac current
C. 100 A, 50 Hz is equal to its value at an angle of
D. 70.7 A, 50 Hz ______degrees.
Ans. C A. 90
B. 60
C. 45
59
D. 30 A. 200 Hz
Ans. C B. 100 Hz
C. 60 Hz
Ans. B
value Ans. D
A. 42.42 sin 314𝑡
A. 230V,50 Hz
B. sine wave Ans. A
60
B. half peak value A. whole cycle
C. average value B. half cycle
Ans. A
minute B. about 2 A
point in one second
𝜋
𝑖 = 70.7 sin⁡(520𝑡 + ). The frequency and
6
A. 60 sin 25𝑡 B. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
B. 60 sin 50𝑡 C. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
C. 84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 D. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
D. 42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Ans. A
Ans. C
Ans. C Ans. A
𝜋
A. 2 C. 100 Hz
B. π D. 0.02 Hz
C. 2π Ans. B
D. 4π
61
C. rms value Que. The phase of alternating quantity at any
D. peak to peak value particular instant is the fraction of ______
Ans. C A. phase
B. time
Que. The form factor for dc supply voltage is C. time period
always D. all above
A. zero Ans. C
B. unity
C. infinity
Ans. B
Que. The ________ varying alternating Que.

A. circular
B. sinusoidally
C. rectangular
D. triagular
Ans. B
In the above figure, the phase quantity at A is
Que. The phasors are assumed to be rotated in _______
_________ direction. A. T
A. clockwise B. T/2
B. anticlockwise C. T/3
C. circular D. T/4
D. all above Ans. D
Ans. B
Que.
A. rms
B. average
C. rectangular
D. polar
Ans. A
_______
A. T
B. T/2
diagram.
C. 3T/4
A. Same
D. T/4
B. Different
Ans. C
C. multiple
D. all above
Ans. A
A. zero
62
B. positive C. phase difference
C. negative D. none of the above
Ans. B
A. zero B. unity
B. positive C. zero
C. negative D. π/2
Ans. C
the „v‟ is said to _______ „i‟ by angle Φ
C. Lengths
D. both a and b
the „i‟ is said to _______ „v‟ by angle Φ
B. length Ans. B
C. phase
D. time Que. If v = Vm Sin ωtand i = Im Sin ωt, the „i‟
Ans. C is said to _______ „v‟ by angle Φ
A. in phase
63
Que. With respect to reference, plus sign of indicating exact phase relationship is called
angle indicates _______ phasor diagram.
A. leading A. time
C. inphase C. sign
Ans. A Ans. B
A. leading A. base
B. lagging B. range
Ans. B Ans. C
Ans. A
C. minus B. phase
D. dot C. direction
Ans. C D. line
Ans. B
D. picture
64
D. all above C. XL=ΦL
Ans. B D. XL=ωC
Ans. A
A. 30 A. Farad
B. 60 B. Henry
C. 90 C. Ohm
D. 120 D. Joule
Ans. C Ans. C
A. high A. phase
B. low B. sign
Ans. C Ans. C
DC frequency.
Ans. B Ans. B
Ans. C Ans. C
B. inductor A. lags
C. starter B. leads
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
65
A. 30 Que. Inductive reactance is given by_____
B. 60 A. XC=1/ωC
C. 90 B. XC=1/2𝝅C
D. 120 C. XC=1/ΦC
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. D
to DC ______
Ans. C Ans. C

Ans. C Ans. A
A. sine B. phase
D. sawtooth Ans. C
Ans. A
A. resistor A. 8
B. capacitor B. 10
C. starter C. 12
D. circuit D. 20
Ans. B Ans. C
66
Que. The square of aj operator _____ D. from positive to negative
A. can never be negative Ans. B
B. can never be positive
A. 0+j0 A. fL
B. 6+j12 B. πfL
C. -6-j12 C. 2 πfL
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. B
time B. 90,90
time D. 270,90
D. none of these
____
is _____ B. unity
67
B. sinusoid of double the original frequency
Que. If e1 = 100 sin(2πf) and e2 = 100 sin(2πf- C. sinusoid of half the original frequency
Φ), then _____ D. non-sinusoid
Ans. C A. 2.8 A
B. 2 A
B. is negative
Ans. C A. zero
B. unity
Ans. A direction
A. 90
A. 45 Ans. C
B. 90
Ans. A B. imaginary
C. in-phase
A. sinusoid of same frequency
68
Que. The reciprocal of a complex number is Ans. B
a_____
A. complex number Que. The difference of two conjugate number
B. real component only results in _____
then_____
Ans. C Ans. B
B. -j2 A. 360
C. -2 B. 180
D. 2 C. 90
Ans. C D. 0
Ans. B
C. 1 A degrees.
D. 1.33 A A. approx.180
C. approx. 60
A. 100 -60
Ans. C degrees
A. 15
A. 4-j3 C. 60
B. -4-j3 D. 105
C. 4+j3 Ans. D
69
Que. Capacitive reactance is more when____ B. current leads the voltageby 90 degrees
A. capacitance is less and frequency of supply C. current can lead or lagthe voltageby 90
is less degrees
is more Ans. B
cycle
Ans. C except
C. pure capacitive
C. pure capacitive
degrees
70
D. i = Im sin (ωt+π) Ans. A
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following statements
Que. For purely resistive circuit if v = Vm sin pertains to resistor only
(ωt) then equation of current is _____ A. can dissipate considerable amount of power
A. i = Im sin (ωt-π/2) B. can act as energy storage device
B. i = Im sin (ωt+π/2) C. connecting them in parallel increases the
C. i = Im sin (ωt) total value
D. i = Im sin (ωt+π) D. opposes sudden change in voltage
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. A sinusoidal voltageV1 leads another Que. The length of a phasor in a phasor
sinusoidal voltage V2 by 180 degrees. Then diagram normally represents the …………
____ value of the alternating quantity
A. voltageV2 leads voltageV1 by 180 degrees A. rms or effective
B. both voltagehave their zero values at the B. average
same time C. peak
C. both voltagehave their peak values at the D. none of these
same time Ans. A
D. all of above
Ans. D Que. The two quantities are said to be in phase
with each other when
Que. If A = 10 45 and B = 5 15, then the A. the phase difference between two quantities
value of A/B will be___ is zero degree or radian
A. 50 60 B. each of them pass through zero values at the
B. 2 60 same instant and rise in the same direction
C. 2 -30 C. each of them pass through zero values at the
D. 2 30 same instant but rises in the opposite
Ans. D directions
D. either (a) or (b)
Que. The active power of AC circuit is given Ans. D
by ___
A. VI sin Φ Que. The phase difference between the two
B. I2XL waveforms can be compared only when they
C. I2R A. have the same frequency
D. I2Z B. have the same peak value
Ans. C C. have the same effective value
D. are sinusoidal
Que. Inductance of coil____ Ans. A
A. is unaffected by the supply frequency
B. decreses with the increase in supply Que. The phasor diagram for alternating
frequency quantities can be drawn if they have ………
C. increases with the increase in supply waves
frequency A. rectangular
D. becomes zero with the increase in supply B. sinusoidal
frequency C. triangular
71
D. any of these Que. The phasor diagram of voltage and
Ans. B current considering phasors are rotates
clockwise direction is of
associated with purely resistive circuits is
I
correct?
A. PF is unity
V
D. PF is zero A. Pure resistance
Ans. A B. pure inductance
C. pure capacitance
Que. Average power in a pure resistive circuit D. pure capacitance and pure inductance
is equal to Ans. B
A. zero
B. product of average values of current and Que. The power factor of an ac circuit lies
voltage between
C. product of peak values of current and A. 0 and 1
voltage B. -1 and 1
D. product of rms or effective values of C. 0 and -1
current and voltage D. none of these
Ans. D Ans. A
Que. The power factor of an ac circuit is equal

to UNIT IVB
B. sine of phase angle Que. The period of a certain sine wave is 10
C. unity for a resistive circuit milliseconds. Its frequency is________
D. unity for a reactive circuit A. 10 MHz
Ans. C B. 10 KHz
C. 10 Hz
Que. The phasor diagram of voltage and D. 100 Hz
current considering phasors are rotates Ans. D
anticlockwise direction is of
I maximum value 10A equals a dc current of
______ampere.
V A. 7.07
B. 6.37
C. 5
A. pure resistance D. 5.77
B. pure inductance Ans. A
C. pure capacitance
D. pure capacitance and pure inductance Que. The rms value of a sinusoidal voltage
Ans. C with peak-to-peak value of 240 V
is________V.
72
A. 84.84 C. 100V
B. 77.82 D. 173.2V
C. 94.68 Ans. C
D. 89.15
line?
A. 254.6 C. 2 A
B. 282.6 D. 3 A
C. 400 Ans. B
D. 565.5
Volt is ________
𝜋
200 sin 𝑡 from 𝑡 = 0 to 𝑡 = 2 is ______ B. 70.7106 30
A. 400 π C. 61.2371 35.3553
400 D. 70.710+ j30
B. 𝜋 Ans. B
1
C. 400
D. 400
sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is ________
Ans. B A. 61.2371+j35.3553
B. 70.7106 30
Que. An alternating current is given by C. 61.2371 35.3553
𝑖 = 10 sin 314𝑡. The time taken to generate D. 70.710+ j30
two cycles of current is____ Ans. A
A. 0.02 second
C. 0.04 second is _______
D. 0.05 second A. 57.99
Ans. C B. 47.1699
C. 60
A. 100π
D. 5π I1/I2 =________
Ans. A A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
B. 2150 A
A. 50V
B. 82.8V
73
____
A. 0 P P
+
+
B. 3.14 W v
C. 0.5 W 0
i

D. 1 W    t
2 2
Ans. A
- -
P P

i
Ans. C

0
 t
UNIT IVC
supply_________
P P
D. 250 W
+ +
Ans. B
v
i 
 
0

2
t
Que. The mean value of the current
𝜋
2
𝑖 = 20 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 from θ=0 to θ=2 is_______
-
P
-
P A. 40π
T
40
B. 𝜋
C. 40
B. pure inductance 𝜋
C. pure capacitance D. 40
Ans. B
current are____
74
A. 16.36 A, 17.07 A D. 10
B. 10 A, 17.07 A Ans. A
C. 10 A, 12.25 A
I1+I2 =________ C. 250 W
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A D. 100 W
B. 5.55964.924 A Ans. A
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
I1-I2 =________ B. 20 ohms
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A C. 5 ohms
B. 5.5596 4.924 A D. 2.5 ohms
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A Ans. C
C. one-half Ans. A
D. one-third
is______ A. 10 kW
A. -24+j14 B. 1 kW
B. 24-j14 C. 500 W
C. -38-j34 D. 250 W
D. -24-j14 Ans. C
Ans. C
A. 62.8 A. 2000
B. 628 B. 500
C. 0.2 C. 250
75
D. 4000 A. 5 A
Ans. D B. 3.18 A
C. 1.57 A
A. the big size of the inductor Que. An alternating current is given by
B. the reactance of the inductor 𝑖 = 10 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Measuring time from 𝑡 = 0,
C. the current flowing in the inductor the time taken by the current to reach +10 V
D. the statement given is false for the second time is_________
B. 0.1 second
1
A. 900
frequency has a maximum value of 100 A. Its B. 800
C. 700
A. 25 A D. 600
B. 12.5 A Ans. D
C. 50 A
1
to a maximum of 250 V. The voltage at the A. 50 S
A. 150 V B. 100 S
1
B. 216.5 V C. 300 S
C. 125 V 1
D. 108.25 V D. 600 S
Ans. B Ans. C

be_________
76
Sr.
Question A B C D
No.
change ac change dc step up or step up or

1 A transformer is used to___________ voltage to voltage to down dc down ac
dc voltage ac voltage voltages voltages
The two windings of a transformer is conductively inductively not linked electricall

2
__________ linked linked at all y linked
The magnetically operated device that
can change values of voltage, current,
and impedance without changing Transfor
3 Motor Generator trasistor
frequency is the______ mer
The transformer winding across which
the supply voltage applied is called the
4 _____ winding. Primary secondary terrtiary tapped
The transformer winding which is
connected to the load is called
5 the_______ winding Primary secondary terrtiary tapped
If supply frequency of a transformer

remains decreases
6 increases, the secondary output voltage decreases increases
constant slightly
of the transformer___
The horizontal and vertical portions of

7 transformer magnetic core are called limb, yoke yoke,limb yoke limb
as_________respectively.
The principle of working of transformer Static mutual dynamic self

8
is based on ________ induction induction induction induction
Transformer is used to change values all of

9 Frequency voltage impedance
of__________ above
High
conductiv
The path of the magnetic flux in Low Low High
10 ity
transformer has_________ resistance reluctance reluctance
Electrical power is transformed from one
.
coil to other coil in
Magnetical Electrom
11 transformer_________ Physically Electrically
ly agneticall
y
At power
At power
Always at factor
factor none of
12 A transformer operates___________ unity power below
depending above
factor particular
on load
value
Nickel Chrome
The laminations of transformer core are Low carbon Silicon
13 alloy steel sheet
made up from__________ steel sheet steel
stamping steel
High
The material used for construction of Low Low high
permeabilit
transformer core should permeability permeability permeabil
y & high
14 have___________ & high & low ity & low
hysteresis
hysteresis hysteresis hysteresis
loss
loss loss loss
Most transformer cores are not made

from a solid piece of metal. Instead, they
tape
15 are assembled from many thin sheets of Laminated Toroid H core
wound
metal. This type of construction is
called__________
The concentric cylindrical winding is None of
Berry type
used for__________ Core type Shell type these
16 transforme
r
The sandwich type winding is used None of
Berry type Shell type
for____________ Core type these
17 transformer transforme
transformer
r
Silicon steel is used for laminations of
transformer core__________ To reduce To reduce
To reduce . None of
18 hysteresis eddy current
both losses these
loss loss
What is common in two windings of None of
transformer_________ Electric Magnetic Winding these
19
current circuit wire guage
Decrease Reduce
The main function of transformer iron the eddy
Provide To decrease
core is to__________ reluctance current
20 strength to hysteresis
of loss
the winding loss
magnetic
path
same as less than more than
The primary current of 200/400V none of
21 secondary secondary secondary
transformer is above
current current current
about
about the about the
The transformation ratio of transformer regulation all of
22 efficiency of secondary
gives information of above
transformer voltage
transformer
Turns ratio of single phase transformer is
given as__________ (N1xN2)/ (N1xN2)/
23 N2/N1 N1/N2
N1 N2
In a transformer, the turns of primary

24 wire compared to the turns of secondary isolation step-up step-down Turns
wire is called the _____ ratio
A transformer in which the secondary

25 voltage is more than the primary voltage step-down step-up Isolation Auto
is called a _____ transformer
A transformer in which the primary

26 voltage is more than the secondary step-down step-up Isolation Auto
voltage is called a _____ transform
Any transformer flux that does not follow
the core and escapes into the surrounding
magnetizing coupling leakage reactance
27 air is called____
flux flux flux flux
transformer that does not isolate the
output from the input is called _____ Distribution
28 transformer . step-up Auto Control
Zero
Ideal transformer assumptions do not No
reactance of Zero . No
include____________ saturation
29 the winding resistance of leakage
of the
the winding flux
core
The wattmeter readings of primary and

secondary sides of a single phase
30 80% 90% 100% 50%
transformer are 500W and 450W.The
efficiency of transformer is
The efficiency of the transformer is

90 to
31 normally is normally in the range 50 to 70% . 60 to 75 % 80 to 90 %
98%
of____________
Is less than
. Is more
The resistance of low voltage side of Is equal to its
than its
transformer________ resistance of resistance
32 resistance 0
its high on high
on high
voltage side voltage
voltage side
side
Using
Decreasing wire of
Increasing Decreasing
the air gap higher
Eddy current losses in transformer core is the the
33 in guage for
reduced by_________ thickness of thickness of
magnetic winding
laminations lamination
circuit
A good transformer oil should be All of the

absolutely free from__________ above
34 Sulpher Alkalies Moisture
Single phase core type transformer

One Two No
has__________ None of
these
One Two No
Single phase shell type transformer None of
has__________ these
Berry
. Core type Shell Type Both A & type
37 Natural cooling is better in_________
transformer transformer B transform
er
EMF equation for single phase
transformer is________ E= 1.11 Φm E= 1.11 Bm E= 1.11 E= 4.44
38
f N AfN Bm A f N Φm f N
Transformation ratio(K) of transformer

39 N2/N1 E1/E2 I2/I1 V1/V2
is_________
three
single automatic
two winding winding
40 Auto transformer is winding transform
transformer transforme
tansformer er
r
In step up transformer the transformation
ratio (K) is_____________ Greater than Less than
41 1 0
1 1
In step down transformer the Greater than Less than
42 1 0
transformation ratio (K) is__________ 1 1
alternating
flux
resistance of reactance of all of
43 Core losses in tranformer is due to linking
windings windings above
with the
core
No of
The induced emf in transformer Maximum Frequency ,
Frequency turns on
secondary depends on__________ flux in core flux & no of
44 and supply secondary
and turns on
only
frequency secondary
Transformer rating usually expressed
in____________
45 kW KVA KA Kwh
In a transformer if secondary turns are Be

doubled, at the same time primary reduced
be four
46 voltage is reduced by half, the secondary Be halved Not change to quarter
times
voltage will_________
The no load current in terms of full load
12 to
current is usually________
47 1 to 3% 3 to 9 % 9 to 12% 20%
Insulation
, cooling
Insulation
Transformer oil is used in transformer to Cooling and Cooling and and
48 and
provide_______ insulation lubrication lubricatio
lubrication
n
What is the typical use of

Variable Isolating
autotransformer____________ Toy Control
49 transforme transform
r er
In any transformer the voltage per turn in
Always in
primary and secondary Sometime
Always Always the ratio of K
50 remains____________ s same
different same
Full load copper loss in a transformer is
400 Watt. At half load copper losses will
51 be___________ 400 Watt 200 Watt 100 Watt 50 Watt
A transformer is working with its
maximum efficiency. If the iron losses
52 300 W 350 W 250 W 500 W
are 500 W, the copper loss
will__________
Hysteresis None of
If we increase the flux density in case The
The size of and eddy these will
transformer_______________ distortion in
53 transformer current be true
transformer
will reduce losses will
will reduce
reduce
The direct loading test is performed on

transformer to find its____________ Both A None of
54 Regulation Efficiency
and B these
no load
no load full load
The voltage regulation of transformer is current -
voltage-full voltage-no
calculated as_________ full load all of
55 load load
voltage/ no above
voltage/ no voltage/ no
load
load voltage load voltage
voltage
9090.9
phase transformer, the primary full load
909.09 Amp
56 current is____________ 90.90 Amp 9.09 Amp
Amp
9090.9
phase transformer, the secondary full
909.09 Amp
57 load current is________ 90.90 Amp 9.09 Amp
Amp
No
More
separation Size is more
The disadvantage of auto transformer costlier
between than normal
is______________ than
58 primary & transformer All
normal
secondary for same
transforme
rating
r
A transformer steps up voltage by a
factor of 100. The ratio of current in the
59 primary to that in secondary_____ 1 100 0.01 0.1
remains
Power on primary and secondary side of are always is always none of
60 approximate
transformer different 100KVA these
ly constant
remains
The flux in transformer increases decreases constant none of
61
core____________ with load with load irrespectiv these
Efficiency of transformer is maximum copper e of load
eddy
it is
when___________ transformer losses is current
62 maximall
is unloaded equal to iron losses are
y loaded
losses equal to
Hysteresis loss in transformer depends none of
both voltage
on__________ voltage frequency these
63 and
alone alone
frequency
The flux involved in EMF equation of a
average maximum instantane
64 RMS Value
value value ous value
maximum least
equal no ohmic
on primary on primary
side and side ans
For an ideal transformer the windings on primary on either
65 least maximum
should have____________ and side
secondary
on on
side
secondary secondary
side side
The full load copper and iron loss of a
transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W
respectively. The copper loss and iron 1600 W 1600 W
3200 W and 3200 W and
66 loss at half load will be and 1250 and 5000
2500 W 5200 W
respectively______ W W
Faradays
law of
Electroma
there is no gnetic
DC circuit
A transformer does not raise or lower the need to Induction none of
67 has more
voltage of DC supply because________ change the are not these
losses
DC voltage valid since
the rate of
change of
flux is zero
could
Primary winding of a transformer either be a none of
is always is always
_____________ low or these
68 low voltage high voltage
high
winding winding
voltage
winding
Which winding of a transformer has secondary
High
more number of turns_______________ Low voltage Primary winding
69 voltage
winding winding
winding
In a given transformer for a given applied hysteresis

Friction and
voltage, which losses remain constant and eddy none of
70 wingdage copper loss
irrespective of change in current these
loss
load____________ loss
A 10KVA transformer is half loadedwith

resistive load. Its full load copper and
71 iron loss is 50W and 30W respectively. 50% 90% 96% 98.91%
I\he efficiency of transformer when half
loaded is
all of
72 Transformer can steps up and steps down voltage resistance power
these
increase reduce
reduce reduce
current in current in
73 transformer core is laminated to hystersis eddycurre
loss nt loss
winding winding
increase reduce
reduce reduce
Transformer core is made of silicon steel current in current in
74 hystersis eddycurre
to transformer transformer
loss nt loss
winding winding
frequency
number of , number
The induced emf in transformer Frequency frquency
turns of of turns
75 secondary depends on__________ of the and flux in
seondary and flux
supply only the core
only in the
core
the number the number
the
of turns of of turns of the
The eddy current loss in transformer is laminatio
76 primary secondary lamination
reduced if ns are
winding is winding is s are thick
thin
reduced reduced
The eddy current loss in transformer primary secondary both B &

77 core
occurs in -------- of transformer winding winding C
both ac
d.c voltage ac voltage 100V ac
78 A Transformer can step up or step down and dc
only only only
voltage
Two transformers operating under same

same in does not
technical conditions,transformer A has
more in A more in b both depend on
79 core volume 1.5 times as that of
than in B than in A transforme volume of
transformer B , both laminated and made
rs. core
of silicon steel .Hysteresis loss will be
Two transformers, transformer A

both have
woking on 230V , 50Hz and Transformer
Traansform Transformer same eddy none of
80 B working on 230V, 60Hz. Which
er A B current above
transformer will have more eddy current
loss
loss?
current
higher than lower than same as
doesnot
81 Current in high voltage winding is low voltage low voltage low curent
depend on
winding winding winding
voltage
Two transformers A and B having

efficiencies 95% and 90% transformer Transformer Both A none of
82
respectively.Which transformer is of A B and B above
better quality
Two transformers P and Q having
regulation 3% and 5% transformer transformer none of
83 Both
respectively.Which transformer is of P Q above
better quality
dynamicall
Type of emf induced in primary winding mutual self induced all of
84 y induced
is called induced emf emf above
emf
both
statically
Type of emf induced in transformer statically dynamically none of
85 and
windings is induced emf induced above
dynamicall
y
primary secondary none of
86 Which part in transformer is rotating? core
winding winding above
equal to
equal to iron
87 Frictional losses in transformer are 20% only copper zero
loss
loss
The full load primary current for 1 KVA
88 5A 3A 4.35A 3.45
, 230/ 150V transformer will be
89 30W 40W 10W 60W
copper loss of 20W and 10W iron loss.
Its full load iron loss will be
90 copper loss of 20W and iron loss of 10W 15W 20W 25W
15W. Its iron loss when primary carries
4A will be
Efficiency of ideal transformer is more than less than
91 100% 50%
90% 90%
92 Regulation of ideal transformer is 5% 2% 3% 0%
As the load on transformer changes,------- secondary all of
93 efficiency regulation
-------------- changes. current these
square of square of
Copper loss at any load in transformer is full load no load
94 full load load
directly proportional to current only. current
current current
The applied voltage of transformer is
changed from 400 V to 200V. Core loss remains
none of
95 will approximate increases decreases
these
ly constant
A transformer when carrying a full load

current of 20A has copper loss of 400W.
96 400W 260W 30.76W 169W
The value of copper loss when carrying a
current of 13A will be
A 3300/110V ,50Hz 60KVA transformer
has primary and secondary resistances
1245.67
97 are 3.3ohm and 0.011 ohm respectively. 4363.53W 436.53W 1000W
W
The value of copper loss at full load will
be
A transformer with primary voltage of

40V has 80 and 8000 turns of primary
98 400V 2000V 4000V 40V
and secondary winding respectively. Its
secondary voltage is
Voltage per turn of primary winding of a

99 transformer is 20V . The value of voltage 6000V 3000V 2500V 4000V
in 300 turns of primary winding will be
A transformer with 200/400V has full
100 load primary current of 10A. Its KVA 200VA 2KVA 4KVA 400VA
rating is
A single phase transformer of 4KVA is none of

101 400VA 2000VA 20KVA
half loaded . Its half load KVA output is above
The readings of direct loading method on

a single phase transformer is
no load test :
primary side :220V, 0.7A.40W
102 secondary side : 102V, 0A, 0W on 0% 3.92% 10% 7.80%
load test : primary
side : 220V.4.45A,960W secondary
side : 98V, 808, 862.4W Its regulation
will be
A transformer with 400/200V delivers

103 0.10% 20% 10% 0.01%
5A at 180V. Its regulation is
four times
In a certain loaded tranformer, the one fourth equal the
the none of
104 secondary voltage is 1/4 of primary yhe primary primary
primary these
voltage.The secondary current is current current
current
using
using
In a transformer the magnetic coupling increasing using soft transform
magnetic
105 between primary and secondary winding number of material for er oil of
core of low
can be increased by turns winding better
reluctance
quality
when transformer is loaded, the

106 secondary voltage increases. That means leading lagging unity zero
power factor is
When 400Hz transformer is operated at reduced to reduce to reduce to reduce to
107
50Hz, its KVA rating is 1/16 1/4 1/2 1/8
What should be the KVA rating of
108 transformer to handle load current of 8A 4 8 24 32
with a secondary voltage of 3KV?
As load current increases, the regulation remains none of
109 increases decreases
of transformer same these
No load secondary voltage of a
transformer is 400V. When transformer
110 is loaded its seconndary voltage is 5% 0.05% -5% -10%
observed to drop down to 380V. Its
regulation is
A transformer with 2% voltage
111 regulation has no load voltage of 200V. 190V 196V 100V 200V
Its on load voltage is
If frequency of voltage applied to
primary of step up transformer is 100Hz,
112 50Hz 60Hz 100Hz 200Hz
the frequency of secondary induced emf
is
voltage load
The current at any instant in the windings applied to connected to eddy all of
113
of transformer is due to primary primary of currents above
winding transformer
A load requires 400V, 18A for its

114 operation. KVA rating of transformer 2KVA 4KVA 1KVA 8KVA
required must be around
A transformer has KVA loading of 20 at
0.8 p.f lagging on full load with 100W
115 and 200W as core and copper losses 98.15% 100% 95.18% 90%
respectively. The eficiency of transformer
at full load will be
doesnot
Transformer Transformer both the
Transformer A has core volume les than depend on
116 A is more B is more transforme
transformer B. The copper losses in volume of
than B than A r same
material
In equation of transformer, maximum average instantane

117 rms value
E= 4.44 Φm f N, E has value value ous value
both
only only primary
flux in the
When the load on transformer is primary secondary and
118 core
changed, its current current secondary
changes
changes changes current
changes
A transformer of 30KVA ,200/400 is

carrying secondary current of 75A. The
119 full load copper loss is 300W and iron 50W 300W 600W 60W
loss is 50W. The value of copper loss
when carrying a current of 75A is
#VALUE!
answ
er
C
B
C
C
D
C
A
C
C
D
A
C
C
C
D
D
B
A
D
D
D
A
C
C
D
A
B
d) None of these
frequencies
a) pulsating DC
b) alternating
c) pure DC
d) none of these
d) All of the above
a) Faraday’s law
c) Ohms law
d) Kirchoff’s law
a) BIL
b) BLV
c) BIV
d) LIV
a) Em tanѲ
b) Em CosѲ
c) Em sinѲ
d) Em2sinѲ
a) 45̊°
b) 90̊̊°
c) 180°
d) 270°
a)45
b) 90
c) 180
d) 270
a) frequency
b) speed
c) waveform
d) time period
a) rad/sec
b) seconds
c) Hertz
d) Volts
a) f=1/ w
b) w=2π/f
c) w=2πf
d) w=1/f
a) 0.05 sec
b) 0.005 sec
c) 0.0005 sec
d) 0.5 sec
a) instantaneous
b) peak
c) peak to peak
d) average
a) non periodic
b) sawtooth
c) periodic
d) triangular
a) π rad
b) 90°
c) π/4rad
d) 2π rad
a) 60Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 100Hz
d) 10Hz
cycle is called
a) maximum
b) amplitude
c) peak
d) all of these
a) Ѳ=t/w
b) w=t/Ѳ
c) Ѳ=wt
d) w/Ѳ=t
a) 10 msec
b) 20 msec
c) 1msec
d) 5msec
a) 314.16
b) 50
c) 0.126
d) none of these
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2.5
d) 20
a) 150
b) 216.5
c) 125
d) 108.25
a) 75
b) 50
c) 25
d) 100
cycles is sec
a) 0.02
b) 0.06
c) 0.08
d) 0.01
a) 4.33
b) 6.123
c) 8.66
d) 3.061
a) 100
b) 100√2
c) 100/√2
d) 0
a) 100
b) 400
c) 200
d) 300
a) 50
b) 75
c) 25
d) 100
b) heating effect
c) friction
d) none of these
a) peak
b) average
c) r.m.s
d) mean
a) average
b) maximum
c) r.m.s.
d) none of these
a)10
b) 30
c) 5
d) 20
a) Im/√2
b) √2 Im
c) Im/2
d) 2Im
a) 0.5 Im
b) 0.637 Im
c) Im/√2
d) √2 Im
a) 1
b) √2
c) 0
d) 1/√2
a) 254.8
b) 282.6
c) 400
d) 565.5
a) more
b) less
c) same as
a) 127.4
b) 282.6
c) 400
d) 565
a) 1.11
b) 1.21
c) 1.414
d) √2
a) sine
b) square
c) Triangular
a) 1.414
b) 1.11
c) 0866
d) 0.707
a) vectors
b) scalars
c) phasors
d) horizontal
a) clockwise
b) anticlockwise
c) vertical
d) horizontal
a) Y axis
b) X axis
c) Z axis
d) none of these
a) Ns
b) w
c) F
d) none of these
a. 0-90
b. 0-180
c. 0-360
d. 180-360
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. infinite
a. 30°
b. 90°
c. 0°
d. 60°
a 30°
b. 90°
c. 0°
d. 60°
a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270
A. phasor
b. polar
c. rectangular
d. none of these
a. 45
b. 90
c. 135
d. 0
a. 90
b. -90
c. -270
d. 0
a. 5<-53.13
b. 5<53.13
c. 5<-126.86
d. 5<126.86
a. 4.33+j2.5
b. - 4.33+j2.5
c. -4.33-j2.5
d. 4.33-j2.5
a. rectangular
b. cylindrical
c. polar
d. spherical
a. cylindrical
b. spherical
c. rectangular
d. polar
a. zero
b. unity
c. lagging
d. leading
a. double
b. one half of
c. one forth of
d. equal to
a. 1000<45
b. 40<45
c. 40<0
d. 1000<0
a. w/L
b. 2πL/f
c. wL
d. 2fl
a. 0.7957
b. 314.16
c. 1.2566
d. 2
a. 15.7
b. 157
c. 50
d. 25
A maximum
b. minimum
c. zero
d infinite
A infinite
b 1
c zero
e none of these
d none of these
d none of these
a. leads
b. in phase
c. lags
a. 1/fc
b. 1/2πwc
c. 2πw/C
d. 1/2πfc
a. zero
b. infinite
c. negative
d none of the above
a. square
b. direct
c. inverse
d. linear
current is
a. 20<120
b. 20<30
c. 20<-60
d. 20<0
a. zero
b. infinite
c. one
d. negative
a. R-jXl
b. R+j Xl
c. R+j0
d. R-jXc
a. twice
b. same as
c. thrice
d. half
consumption is W
a. 1000
b. 4000
c. 2000
d. 0
a. 0.159
b. 6.283
c. 2
d. 0
a. 6.28
b. 3.14
c. 0.1519
d. 0
70̊°?
a. 70
b. 20
c. 160
d. -20
voltage is- 30̊°?
a. 60
b. -60
c. 120
d.-120
across it is
a. 0
b. 30
c. 120
d. -60
across
a. 60
b. -120
c. -30
d. -60
a. pure inductor
b. pure capacitor
c. pure resistor
d. none of these
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. none of these
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
a. VI
b. VI cosΦ
c. v(t) i(t) cosΦ
d. v(t)i(t)
a. VI
b. VI cosΦ
c. v(t) i(t) cosΦ
d. v(t)i(t)
a. rms
b. average
c. square of rms
d. square of avg
a. phase
b. amplitude
d. frequency
a. peak
b. instantaneous
c. rms
d. average
a. 212.132,30
b. 150,0
c. 150,30
d. 212.132,0
a. 2
b. 1
c. 0.5
d. 4
a. 2A
b. 1A
c. 0.5A
d. 4A
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 0
a. lead
b. in phase with
c. lag
d. none of these
a. -153.43°
b. 63.43°
c. -26.57°
d. 26.57°
a. -153.43°
b. 63.43°
c. -26.57°
d. 26.57
(A) Ohm.
(B) Farad.
(C) Mho.
(D) Henry. Ans: D
(A) Dot
(B) Cross
(C) Star
(D) Dash Ans: B
(B) Lenz’s law
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: B
(A) Mutual
(B) Self
(C) Dynamic
(D) Static Ans: A
(A) self- induction
(B) Inductance
___________ of the coil.
(C) Self inductance
(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Wattmeter
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing
(A) mechanical
(B) Electronic
(C) electric
(D) Magnetic Ans :D
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere
(C) Henry
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere
(C) Henry
(D) Linkages Ans :A
between two coils.
(C) Self inductance

(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/ Volt
(C) Henry
(A) 3.75 A
(B) 3. 75 mA
(D) 37.5 mA Ans : B
(A) 1.1
(B) 0.5
(C) -0.5
(D) -1.1 Ans : C
(A) 2000 AT
(B) 200 AT
(C) 20 AT
(D) 0.5 AT Ans : B
(A) Fringing
(A) MMF
(B) Current
(C) Voltage
(D) Flux Ans : B
( A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(A) MMF
(B) EMF
(C) Flux linkage
(A) – L dI /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : B
(A) –Nd φ /dt
(B) M dI / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
(A) φ1/ φ2
(B) φ2/ φ1
(C) φ1/I1
(D) φ2/I2 Ans : B
(A) Magnetic flux
(B) Magnetic field
(A) –L dI/dt
(B) MdI1 / dt
(C) N2 φ 2/ I1
(D) N φ /I Ans : A
(A) φ
(B) d φ /dt
(C) N φ
(D) φ /I Ans : C
(A) Self inductance
(C) Flux linkage
the conductor
(A) Total area
(B) Surface area
(A) axes
(B)induction
(C) poles
(D)fluxes Ans:C
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:B
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:A
(A) 108
(B) 106
(C) 103
(D) 10-8 Ans:A
(A) Tesla
(B) AT/m
(C) Weber
(D) Henry Ans:A
-----

(B) Pole strength
(C) Flux density

the paper is ----------------
(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Vertical
(C) Clockwise
(A) Voltage
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) E.M.F. Ans:C
(A) H/m
(B) Wb/m
(C) Nm
(D) No unit Ans:D

(A) Cast iron
(B) Cast steel
(C) Free space
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:B
(A) 3.98
(B) 5.28
(C) 4.989
(D) 1.989 Ans:D
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(A) Reluctance
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(A) Reluctances
(B) Mmf
(C) Flux
(A) Mmf
(B) Reluctance
(C) Flux
--------.
(A) Useful flux

(B) Mutual flux
(C) Leakage flux
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) Infinite
(D) 0.5 Ans:B

(A) very high

(C) low
(A) Resistance
(B) reluctance
(C) conductance
induced is…..
(A) steady
(B) alternating
(C) changing
(D) reversing Ans:B
(A) mmf
(B) reluctance
(C) permeability
(A) 0
(B) 1.5 V
(C) 75 V
(D) 100 V Ans:C
(A) Ф/NI
(B) NI/Ф
(C) NФ/I
(D) ФI/N Ans:C
(A) 0.8 V
(B) 0.008 V
(C) 0.16 V
(D) 0.064 V Ans:A
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.75 Ans:A
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Small
(D) Unity Ans:A
----.

(C) End rule

(A) Generator
(B) Transformer
(C) Bulb

(A) 200
(B) -200
(C) -400
(D) 400 Ans:D
(A) Changing
(B) Increasing
(C) Decreasing

(C) Self inductance
(A) Loosely coupled

(B) Tightly coupled
(C) Series aiding
(A) 400μH
(B) 158.11μH
(C) 40μH
(D) 40mH Ans:C
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/Wb
(C) Unit less
(D) H/m Ans:C
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1 Ans:A
(A) 2500
(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
---------.
(A) Permeance
(B) Permeability
(C) Reluctance

(A) Total area

(B) Surface area
(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) 2
(D) 0.5 Ans:B
(A) 4π x 10-7
(B) 10000
(C) 100
(D) 1000 Ans:D
-----T.
(A) 0.2
(B) 5
(C) 50
(D) 1.2 Ans:B
(A) 32
(B) 128
(C) 64
(D) 0.64 Ans: C

(A) Permeability
(B) Permeance
(C) Susceptance

the paper is-------------.
(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Vertical
(C) Clockwise
(A) 5
(B) 0.2x10-3
(C) 5x 10-3
(D) 0.2 Ans:C
Q87. The unit of μ is -----------.
(A) H/m
(B) Wb/m
(C) Nm
(D) Ni unit Ans:A
(A) L1+L2+2M
(B) (L1+L2)/2M
(C) L1+L2-2M
(A) Loosely couple

(B) tightly coupled
(C) series aiding
(A) kinetic
(B) electrostatic
(C) potential
(D) residual Ans:C
(A) LI2
(B) LI2/2
(C) 2LI2
(D) I2/2L Ans:B
(A) 5
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1 Ans:A
(A) 2500
(B) 1500
(C) 1200
(D) 500 Ans:B
(A) Volt
(B) Ampere/Volt
(C) Henry
(D) Linkage Ans:C
(A) 100%
(B) More then 100%
(C) 90%
(A) Amperes
(B) AT/m
(C) Unitless
(D) H/m Ans:C
(A) Weber
(B) AT
(C) Tesla
(A) Φxa
(B) φ/a
(C) 1/(φ+a)
(D) Φ+a Ans:B

(C) Circular
(A) Faraday
(B) Coulomb
(C) Orested
(D) Newton Ans:A

a) Electric field
b) Magnetic field
a) 1800 b) 00
b) 450 c) 900
a) Newton
b) Coulomb
c) Weber
d) Tesla
d) Electric flux
a) c/m
b) c/m2
c) N/C
d) N/m2C
a) V/m2
b) V/m
c) C/m
d) Wb/V
a) F/Q
b) Q/F
c) B/Q
d) 1/(2VQ)
a) V/Q
b) V/d
c) 1/(2V2)
d) VQ
d) None of above
a) H/m
b) A/m
c) F/m
d) N/m
a) 8.854x10-10
b) 8.854x1012
c) 6.657x10-12
d) 8.854xz10-12
a) D=Є/E
b) D=ЄE
c) E=Є/D
d) E=ЄD
a) F α Q1Q2 d2
b) F α ( Q1Q2 ) /d2
c) F α d2/(Q1 Q2 )
d) F α 1/(Q1Q2 d2)
a) Capacitor
b) Dipole
c) Capacitance
d) Inductance
a) Farad
b) Henry
c) Hertz
d) Farad/m
a) 10-6
b) 10-9
c) 10-12
d) 10-15
a) Єd/A
b) Є/dA
c) ЄA/d
d) A/Єd
a) 10μC
b) 10nC
c) 10C
d) 1μC
a) 04427 μF
b) 04427 pF
c) 0.4427nF
d) 0.4427 F
a) 22.580
b) 2.5588
c) 225.88
d) 255.88
a) 10 kv/m
b) 10 v/m
c) 0.1V/m
d) 8.854 kv/m
a) 5 μC
b) 0.5 μC
c) 5 nC
d) 0.5 mC
a) 0.8854
b) 88.54
c) 8.854
d) 0.00885
a) 200
b) 100
c) 400
d) 4000
a) + 12 μC
b) - 12 μC
c) - 24 μC
d) -24 μC
a) KV/N
b) V/C
c) KV/cm
d) F/m
a) Temperature
b) Moisture
c) Moisture content
d) All of these
a) Voltage
b) Capacitance
c) Charge
d) One of these
________
a) 9μF
b) 4.5μF
c) 2μF
d) 1μF
a) 3C,V/3
b) C/3,3V
c) 3C,3V
d) C./3,V/3
capacitor is_____
a) 10μC
b) 15μC
c) 3μC
d) 20μC
_______μF.
a) 0.5
b) 8
c) 2
d) 4
a) 500
b) 5000
c) 1200
d) 400
a) 100
b) 66.667
c) 33.333
d) 0
________μF
a) 0.3
b) 3
c) 30
d) 3.333
a) 1/(2CV)
b) 1/(2CV2)
c) v/(2C)
d) c2/2v
a) 11
b) 10
c) 2.1
d) 21
a) 1 s b) 1 μs
b) 1ms c) 0.1 sec
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Breakdown
d) None of above
a) 0.5 b) 8 c) 2 d) 4
Answer:
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 D
2 A 12 C 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 A 43 C
4 C 14 D 24 C 34 B 44 B
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 c
6 C 16 B 26 B 36 D 46 B
7 A 17 B 27 C 37 D 47 D
8 C 18 C 28 A 38 C 48 A
9 B 19 A 29 D 39 C 49 B
10 A 20 B 30 B 40 b 50 B
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Pu
rp
le
H
at
Ap
p
Sr.
Question A B C D ANS
No.
The time period or periodic time T of an
none of the
1 alternating quantity is the time taken in one cycle alternation Half cycle
above
seconds to complete
The time period of an alternating quantity is

2 25 Hz 50 Hz 100 Hz 0.02 Hz
0.02 second. Its frequency will be
The angular frequency of an alternating
quantity is a mathematical quantity
3 π/2 π 2π 4π
obtained by multiplying the frequency f of
thealternating
An alternatingcurrent
quantityis by a factor
given by the
expression 〖i=200 sin (314t+ π/3) amperes.
4 200 A; 50 Hz 100√2; 50 Hz 200 A; 100 Hz 200 A; 25 Hz
The maximum value and frequency of the
current are
The frequency of emf generated by a both (A) and
5 speed number of poles machine rating
generator depends upon its (B)
In a multipolar (P-pole) machine running at

6 a speed of N rpm, the frequency of f = PN/60 f = PN/120 f = PN f = N/P
generated emf is given as
An ac generator running at 1000 rpm
7 produces emf of 50 Hz. The number of poles 2 4 6 8
on the generator is
An insulation is subjected to …………….. value double of the

8 average peak rms
of applied alternating voltage to it. peak
unsymmetrical
The average value of an unsymmetrical
9 whole cycle half cycle Quarter cycle part of the
alternating quantity is calculated over the
waveform
The mean value of the current I = 20 sin t

10 40π 40/π Jan-40 π/40
from t = 0, to t = π/2 is
A constant current of 2.8 A exists in a

11 2.8 A about 2 A 1.4 A undefined
resistor. The rms value of current is
The rms value of a sinusoidal ac voltage is

12 π/6 radians π/4 radians π/3 radians π/2 radians
equal to its value at an angle of
The size (cross-sectional area) of a
conductor, with regard to the heating peak to peak
13 average value peak value rms value
effect, is determined on the basis of ……….. value
value of current to be carried by it
The length of a phasor in a phasor diagram
rms or
14 normally represents the ………… value of the average peak none of these
effective
15 The form factor is the ratio of
to rms value average value average value rms value

16 The peak factor is the ratio of
to rms value average value rms value average value
. The ratio of effective value to average

17 form peak average Q-factor
value is called the ………… factor
any value
The form factor for dc supply voltage is
18 zero unity infinity between 0 and
always
1
the phase each of them each of them
The two quantities are said to be in phase difference pass through pass through
19 A AND B
with each other when between two zero values at zero values at
quantities is the same instant the same
When the two quantities are in quadrature 450 or π/4 900 or π/2 1350 or 3π/4 600 or π/3
20
the phase angle between them will be radians radians radians radians
have the
The phase difference between the two have the same have the same
21 same are sinusoidal
waveforms can be compared only when they peak value effective value
frequency
e2 is leading e1 is lagging e2 e2 is leading e1 e2 is lagging e1
If θ1=π/3 and θ2= π/6 e1 = A sin(wt+ θ1)
22 e1 by an by an angle (θ1 by an angle (θ2 by an angle (θ2
and e2 = B sin(w t+ θ2) then
angle (θ1 –θ2) –θ2) –θ1) –θ1)
Two sinsusoidal emfs are given as e1 = A
sin(w t+ π/4) and e2 = B sin(w t- π/6). The
23 75⁰ 105⁰ 60⁰ 15⁰
phase difference between the two
quantities in degrees is rms value and average value magnitude and
phase of an and phase of an direction of an none of the
24 A phasor is a line which represents the
alternating alternating alternating above
quantity quantity quantity
The phasor diagram for alternating
25 quantities can be drawn if they have ……… rectangular sinusoidal triangular any of these
waves
26 Two alternating quantities are added arithmetically graphically vectorially geometrically
sinusoid of
If two sinusoids of the same frequency but sinusoid of sinusoid of half
double the
27 of different amplitudes and phase the same the original non-sinusoid
original
difference are added, the resultant is a frequency frequency
frequency
All the rules and laws which apply to dc
resistance capacitance
28 networks also apply to ac networks inductance only all of these
only only
consisting of
same
double the half the
In ac circuits the power curve is a sine wave frequency as none of the
29 frequency of the frequency of
have that of above
voltage the voltage
voltage
Ohmic resistance is termed as …………
30 apparent inductive effective capacitive
resistance

Power Heat produced
31 associated with purely resistive circuits is PF is unity PF is zero
consumed is zero is zero
correct?
Electrical power converted into heat due to
32 flow of an alternating current through an heating TRUE reactive apparent
ohmic resistance is called the ………….. Power
they oppose they can
they can act as
Which of the following statements pertains sudden dissipate none of the
33 energy storage
to resistors only? changes in desirable above
devices
voltages product of amount
product of
of peak product of rms
Average power in a pure resistive circuit is average values values of or effective
34 zero
equal to of current and current and values of
voltage voltage current and
If an alternating triangular voltage is applied
35 to a resistor, the shape of the current triangular sawtooth sinusoidal square
waveform will be ………….. Waveform
In a purely resistive circuit, the average

36 equal to double one-half of one-fourth
power Pav is …………….. the peak power Pmax
A boiler at home is switched on to the ac
mains supplying power at 230 V, 50 Hz. The
37 0 Hz 50 Hz 100 Hz 150 Hz
frequency of instantaneous power
consumed
The is field energy in an inductor
magnetic
changes from maximum value to minimum
38 20 Hz 50 Hz 200 Hz 500 Hz
value in 5m sec when connected to an ac
source. The frequency of the source is
The inductive reactance of a circuit
remains
39 ……………. with the increase in supply increases decreases unpredictable
unchanged
frequency
zero power zero heat zero current
40 associated with pure inductive circuit is not zero pf
consumed produced drawn
true?
lag behind
lead the voltage remain in phase lag or lead the
41 In a pure inductive circuit, the current will the voltage
by 900 with the voltage applied voltage
by 900
In a purely inductive circuit…………….power

42 apparent reactive TRUE inductive
is zero
If the supply frequency of a purely inductive

43 half doubled same one-fourth
circuit is doubled, the circuit current will be
both applied applied voltage applied voltage
both applied
Purely inductive circuit takes power from voltage and decreases but increases but
44 voltage and
the ac mains when current current current
current decrease
increase increases decreases
Which of the following quantities is not
45 resistance capacitance inductance both(b) and (c)
expressed in ohms?
ohmic loss
A pure capacitance connected across 50 Hz, capacitive
due to ohmic loss of energy in
46 230 V supply consumes 0.04W. This reactance in both (a) and (b)
resistance of dielectric
consumption is attributed to ohms
plates
With the decrease in supply frequency the remains the
47 decrease increase unpredictable
capacitive reactance of the circuit will same
A circuit component that opposes the

48 resistance capacitance inductance all of the above
change in circuit voltage is
An instantaneous change in voltage is not a current

49 a resistor an inductor a capacitor
possible in source
If the supply frequency of a pure capacitive

50 tripled one-third nine times one-ninth
circuit is tripled, the current will be
Capacitive reactance increases with the

51 capacitance frequency voltage none of these
increase in
Which of the following statements power

heat produced is work done is power factor is
52 associated with a pure capacitive circuit is consumed is
zero zero zero
not true? zero
lag behind remains in
lead behind the none of the
53 In a pure capacitive circuit, the current will the voltage phase with
voltage by 900 above
by 900 voltage
What capacitance will give the same

54 1 µF 10 µF 1F 10 F
reactance as an inductor of 1H at 50 Hz?
A two-terminal black box contains a series
combination of a resistor and unknown two-
55 an inductor a capacitor a resistor an unknown
terminal linear device. As soon as the
battery is connected to the black box the
56 The pf of a practical inductor is unity zero lagging leading
A circuit of zero lagging power factor an inductive a capacitive

57 . R-L circuit R-C circuit
behaves as circuit circuit
Power loss in an electrical circuit can take inductance inductance and capacitance
58 resistance only
place in only resistance only
59 In an R-L series circuit the power factor is leading lagging zero unity
The power factor of an ordinary electric slightly more slightly less
60 zero unity
bulb is than unity than unity
cosine of the sine of phase unity for a unity for a

61 The power factor of an ac circuit is equal to
phase angle angle resistive circuit reactive circuit
While drawing phasor diagram for a series

62 voltage current resistance power
circuit, the reference phasor is
voltage drops voltage drops . voltage drops
voltage drops
across L leads across L lags across R and L
63 In a series R-L circuit across R and
the voltage drop the voltage are in phase
L are in phase
across R by 900 drop across R opposition
The voltage applied across an R-L series
64 circuit is equal to the ……………sum of arithmetic algebraic phasor none of these
voltage drops across R and L (VR and VL)
A resistance is connected in series with an
remains the
65 inductive coil. The phase difference increases decreases none of these
same
between the current I and applied voltage V
i = Im sin (wt •+
66 the pure resistance what will be the i = Im sinwt i =Imsin (w t-p/2) d. i = Im coswt
π/2)
equation of current
i = Im sin (wt •+
67 the pure inductance what will be the i = Im sinwt i =Imsin (w t-p/2) d. i = Im coswt
π/2)
equation of current
i = Im sin (wt •+
68 the pure capacitance what will be the i = Im sinwt i =Imsin (w t-p/2) d. i = Im coswt
π/2)
equation of current
When the applied voltage varies as v = Vm
sin wt, the current in the body is i = Im voltage lagging voltage leading
sinwt. to current to current
phase. of phase
the
Whenequations of voltage
the applied voltage&varies
currentas indicate
v = Vm
sin wt, the current in the body is i = Imsin voltage lagging voltage leading
(wt • •/2)the equations of voltage & to current to current
phase. of phase
current indicate that
When the applied voltage varies as v =Vmsin
voltage and voltage and current lagging current leading
w t, the current in the body is i = Imsin(w t
71 current are in current are out perpendicular perpendicular
+p/2)the equations of voltage & current
phase of phase to voltage to voltage
indicate that
Average power over one cycle consumed

72 Vrms X Irms Vrms X Irms cosǾ Zero VrmsXIrms sinǾ
(utilized) in the pure inductance is
73 2πf L 4πf L 1/2πfL 1/2pfc
reactance and given by
74 The term ‘wc’ is called as the capacitive reactance and given
2πf L by 4πf L 1/2πfL 1/2pfc
75
inductive property is called as reactance reactance inductance capacitance
76
capacitive property is called as reactance reactance inductance capacitance
proportional is inversaly proportional to proportional to
77
Opposition to the alternating current due to to the proportional to the double of the double of
inductive property frequency the frequency frequency frequency
Opposition to the alternating current due to proportional is inversaly proportional to proportional to
78
capacitive property to the proportional to the double of the double of
frequency the frequency frequency frequency
79 90 60 0 180
voltage and current in pure resistance is

80 60 90 0 180
voltage and current in pure inductance is

81 90 60 0 180
voltage and current in pure capacitance is
The term ‘wc’ is called as the capacitive
For a pure capacitive circuit the frequency
reduced to
84 of power supply is doubled. The current in reduced to half unchanged doubled
one fourth
the circuit will be
capacitive inductive
85 Ohm is not the unit of inductance resistance
reactance reactance
86 Capacitive reactance will increases with
capacitance frequency voltage above
87 Inductive reactance will increases with
Inductance frequency voltage above
A pure capacitance is connected of 220V,50

loss of energy I2R due to ohmic
Hz supply.The power consumption is none of the
88 in the resistance of both a and b
0.02 W .This consumption is attributed to above
dielectric plates

89 Capacitive reactance will decreases with a and b both
power
Which of the following statement of the power factor is current flowing heat produced
90 consumed is
pure inductive circuit is incorrect? zero in the ckt is zero is zero
zero
91 Inductive reactance will decreases with a and b both
current wave leads the voltage wave by π/2. resistive

current wavelags the voltage wave by π/2. resistive
94 to pure resistor of 20 ohm what is the rms 5 amp 3 amp 2 amp 1 amp
value of current
95 to pure inductor of 0.1henry what is the rms 5.2 amp 3.2 amp 2.2 amp 1.2 amp
value of current
97 to pure capacitance of 100 micro-farad 5.1 amp 3.1 amp 2.1 amp 1.1 amp
what is the rms value of current

21.21 sin 21.21 sin 21.21 sin
98 applied to resistor of 10 ohm what is the 21.21 cos(100πt)
(100πt) (100πt-90) (100πt+90)
expression of instantaneous current

21.21 sin 21.21 sin 21.21 sin
99 applied to inductance of 0.2 henry what is 21.21 cos(100πt)
(100πt) (100πt-90) (100πt+90)
the expression of instantaneous current
An alternating voltage e = 200 sin 314 t is

applied to a device which offers an ohmic
resitance of 20Ω to the flow of current in
100 5.0 AMP 3.18 A 1.57 A 1.10 A
one direction while entirely preventing the
flow in the opposite direction. The average
value of current will be
A 50 Hz ac voltage is measured with a

moving iron voltmeter and a rectifier type
ac voltmeter connected in parallel. If the
101 meter readings are V1 and V2 respectively V1/V2 1.11V1 /V2 2V1 /V2 πV1/2V2
and the meters are free from calibration
errors, then the form factor of the ac
voltage may be estimated as
An ac current is given as i = 10 + 10 sin 314
16.36 A,
102 t, the average and rms values of the current 10 A, 17.07 A 10 A, 12.25 A 16.36 A, 12.2 A
17.07 A
are
An alternating current is represented as
103 〖i=70.7 sin〗〖(520 t+ π/6〗 ). The frequency 82.76 Hz, 50 A 41.38 Hz, 25 A 41.38 Hz, 50 A 82.76 Hz, 25 A
and rms value of the current are
The rms value of a half wave rectified
104 current is 50 A. Its rms value for full wave 100 A 70.7 A 50/π A
rectification would be
Power dissipated in 10 Ω resistance when a
105 voltage of 100 + 100 sin 314 t is applied 2,914 watts 1,500 watts 2,488 watts 2,976 watts
across it will be
An electric iron is rated as 230V, 500W ac. peak to peak
106 rms value average value peak value
The value of 230V refers to value
107 The emf generated is given by the formula Blv BIr BVr IVr
The value of the supply voltage available for

108 Vavg Vmax Vrms Vdc
connection to various appliance is ----------
form factor of a sinusoidal wave form is ------
109 0.707 1.414 1.11 0.637
---
110 peak factor of sinusoidal waveform is 0.707 1.414 1.11 0.637
the relation between rms and maximum Vrms = 2 Vmax = 2
111 Vrms = Vmax Vrms=3 Vmax
value is ---------- Vmax Vrms
the relation between average and Iavg = 2/π x
112 2 Iavg = π Im Imax = 2 Iavg Irms =1.44 Iavg
maximum value is ---------- Imax
the relation between rms and average value Irms = 1.11
113 Irms = 2 Iavg Irms = 1.44 Iavg Irms = 2/π Iavg
is ---------- Iavg
average value
114 form is the ratio of ---------- to maximum
value
average value
115 peak factor is ratio of ---------- to maximum
value
if the form factor of waveform is 1.11 then
the wave is
if the peak factor of waveform is 1.414 then
the wave is
a sinusoidal quantity can be represented by
118 i=Im sin2 (ωt) i=Irms sin (ωt) i=Im sin (ωt) i=Iavg sin (ωt)
the expression
119 in any circuit, power is consumed only by inductance resistance capacitance all of above
the ac voltmeter or ammeter indicates the --
120 average rms peak Non of above
-------- value
the ---------- value of a waveform is also maximum
121 average rms peak
called as its effective value. value
122 1 cycle = 180⁰ 90⁰ 2π radian π radian
123 time period 'T' corresponding to ------------- quarter cycle half cycle one-half of one cycle
the phasor represented in its polar form as
124 Z= 14.142 - 45⁰ its equivalent rectangular 10 - j10 5-j5 25+j5 2+j6
form is
A coil is connected across a 200 v, 50Hz
125 supply and takes a current of 8 amp. Loss in 10 Ω 15 Ω 25Ω 50 Ω
the coil is 960 W the impedance of the coil is
the a.c.voltage
a.c.Motors a.c.transmission
126 The main advantage of a.c. is can be raised or none of above
are expensive is very costly
lower
any other
waveform can
be resolved it produces
it is the only it is only
the main advantage of purely sinusoidal into series of distorted
127 alternating standard
waveform is sinusoidal waveforms
waveform waveform
waveforms of when applied
different
frequencies
the waveform in which magnitude changes
128 pulsating d.c. alternating pure d.c none of these
but its direction remain same is called
a.c.can be
the voltage a.c. transmission
easily
129 disadvantage of a.c. is can be raised is economical Non of above
converted to
or lowered and efficient
d.c.
Thevenin's
130 the generation of a.c.is according to farady's law Ohm's law kirchhoff's law
theorem
the --------- represents maximum value of
131 BIl Bl V BIV l IV
alternating e.m.f.
132 standard alternating e.m.f. is represented as EmtanѲ EmcosѲ EmsinѲ Em2sinѲ
133 45⁰ 90⁰ 180⁰ 270⁰
positive maximum value at Ѳ=-------
134 45⁰ 90⁰ 180⁰ 270⁰
negative maximum value at Ѳ=-------
the time taken by alternating quantity to
135 frequency speed waveform time period
complete one cycle is called.
136 the unit of frequency is rad/sec seconds hertz volts
137 the relation between f and ω is f =1/ω ω= 2π/f ω=2πf ω=1/f
the time period of sinusoidal waveform with
138 0.05 s 0.005 s 0.0005 s 0.5 s
200 Hz frequency is -------.
the value of alternating quantity at
139 instataneous peak peak to peak average
perticular instant is called -------- value
the waveform which shows repetition of
non periodic sawtooth periodic triangular
140 variations after a regular time interval is
waveform waveform waveform waveform
called
141 one cycle corresponds to π radians 90⁰ π/4 radians 2π radians
in our nation,the standard frequency of
142 60 cycles/sec 50 cycles/sec 100 cycles/sec 10 Hz.
alternating voltage is
the heighest value attained by an
143 alternating quantity during positive or maximum peak amplitude all of above
negative half cycle is called
the value
the value the value
attained at
144 the amplitude of an alternating quantity is attained at attained at Ѳ= none of these
Ѳ= π/2
Ѳ=180⁰ π/4 radians
radians
145 which of given relation is true Ѳ=t/ω ω=t/Ѳ Ѳ=ωt ω/Ѳ=t
2 x peak to 2 x Average
146 the amplitude of an alternating quantity is peak to peak /2 R.M.S.value/2
peak value value
one forth cycle of 50 Hz.waveform
147 10 msec 20 msec 1 msec 5 msec
corresponds to
for a 50 Hz. Alternating waveform, the
148 314.16 50 0.126 non of these
angular frequency is ---------- rad/sec
the time corresponding to Ѳ=π/4 radians
149 5 msec 10 msec. 2.5 msec 20 msec
for 50 Hz.alternating waveform is.------.
A sinusoidal voltage varies from zero to

150 maximum of 250 V. the voltage at the 150 V 216.5 V 125 V 108.25 V
instant of 60⁰ of the cycle will be -------.
An a.c. voltage is given by V= 40sin314t.the
151 75 Hz 50 Hz. 25 Hz. 100 Hz.
frequency is
The equation of an alternating current is
152 given by, i=14.1421 sin 100πt then the time 0.02 sec 0.06 sec 0.08 sec 0.01 sec
taken by it to complete three cycles is -------
153 current having r.m.s.value of 7.071 Amp.at 4.33 A 6.123 A 8.66 A 3.061 A
120⁰ is
154 voltage having 50 Hz.frequency and max. 100 V 100 2 V 100/2 V 0V
value of 100V at 0.01 sec is.----------
A sinusoidal voltage has a magnitude of 200

155 100 V 400 V 200 V 300 V
V at 150⁰ then its maximum value is.

expression 〖i=20 sin 100 t amperes. The
156 0.035 sec 0.015 sec 0.02 sec 0.07 sec
time taken by the current to achieve - 20 A
second time,measuring from t=0 is
An alternating voltage v = 100 sin (314 t-
157 25 Hz 50 Hz 60 Hz 100 Hz.
30⁰) volts.the frequency is --------.
158 50 Hz 75 Hz 25 Hz. 100 Hz.
314t.The frequency is.----------.
159 314t.The instantaneous value of emf at 150 V 175 V 200 V 225 V
t=1/200 sec is.----------.
160 expression 〖i=Im sin 2ωt amperes. Then ω/π Hz. 2ω/π Hz. ω/2π Hz. None of these
frequency of the alternating current is,
An alternating voltage v = 282.84 sin 100π t
161 200 V 200 2 V 141.421 V 400 V
volts.then its rms value is..
photoelectric
162 The concept of effective value is based on. heating effect friction non of these
effect
The value of domestic a.c. supply is 230 V.
163 peak value average value r.m.s.value mean value
this value represents.---------.
The voltmeter in a.c.circuit always measures
164 peak value average value mean value r.m.s.value
------------ value.
The r.m.s.value of an alternating current is
165 10 Amp 30 Amp 5 Amp 20 Amp
10/2 A.then its peak to peak value is.
A sinusoidal voltage is represented as

141.42 V,314
166 141.42 sin 314 ωt then its r.m.s.value of the 100 V, 50 Hz. 100 V, 60 Hz. 200 V, 100 Hz.
Hz.
voltage and frequency are respectively

167 Im/2 2 Im Im/2 2Im
Im then its r.m.s. value is.----------.

168 0.5Im 0.637Im Im/2 2 Im
Im then its average value is.----------.
For symmetrical alternating waveform,the

169 1 2 0 1/2
average value over a complete cycle is.----
The peak value of an alternating wave is 400

170 254.8 V 282.6 V 400 V 565.5 V
V. then its average value is.----------.
The average value of sinusoidally varing

171 more less same as non of above
voltage is ------- than its r.m.s. value
For a sinusoidal alternating waveform, form

172 factor is 1.11 and its peak value is 20 V then 18.018 12.74 22.2 25.481
its average value is---------V.
An alternating current has crest factor of
173 1.414 and its average value is 10 A. then its 4.505 3.185 11.102 7.072
r.m.s. value is ---------- A.
For a certain waveform, form factor is 1.25
174 and its peak factor is 1.57 then its maximum 1.25 1.9625 0.5095 1.57
value is -------- times its average value.
A wire carries 5 A d.c.and alternating

175 current of 15 sin ωt A. then the effective 5 15Ö2 20 11.72
value of the resultant current is.------ A.
An a.c. voltage is given by V(t) =
176 50sinωt+100 sin 3ωt V.then its r.m.s.value is 79.056 10.2988 106.066 75
--------- V.
177 Alternating quantities are represented by vectors scalars phasors graphs
178 Phasors always rotates in -------- direction clockwise anticlockwise vertical horizontal
which axis projection of phasor represents
179 an instantaneous value of alternating Y-axis X- axis Z- axis Non of above
quantity.
A phasor representing i(t)=Imsinωt rotates
180 Ns r.p.m. ω rad/sec f r.p.m. Non of these
at a speed -----------.
The phasor of an alternating quantity varies
181 0⁰ to 90⁰ 0⁰ to 180⁰ 0⁰ to 360⁰ 180⁰ to 360⁰
from -----------.
An alternating quantity having positive
An alternating quantity having zero phase
has------------- value at t=0
An alternating quantity having negative
An alternating voltage is given by V(t)=
185 30⁰ 90⁰ 0⁰ 60⁰
150sin (ωt + π/3) V then its phase is
An alternating current is 14.142 sin(100πt-
30⁰) A and an alternating voltage is 282.842
186 75⁰ 30⁰ π/4 radians 15⁰
sin(100πt+π/4) V then the phase difference
between V and I is ---------.
i1 leads i2 by i1 and i2 are in i2 leads i1 by

187 If i1 = A sinωt and i2 = B sin(ωt+30⁰) then Non of above
30⁰ phase 30⁰
An alternating current is i(t) = 5 sin(ωt-30⁰)

188 while an alternating voltage V(t) = 50 π/12 rad. π/6 rad. π/3 rad. π/4 rad.
sin(ωt+15⁰) then their phase difference is.
An alternating current is i(t) = 2 sin(ωt+π/6)

Voltage lags Voltage lags current leads current lags
189 A while an alternating voltage V(t) = 120
current by 40⁰ current by 10⁰ voltage by 10⁰ voltage by 40⁰
sin(ωt-π/18) V then
which representation gives r.m.s. value of
190 phasor polar rectangular non of these
191 The phase of V(t)=100(314t+π/4) is ------- 45⁰ 90⁰ 135⁰ 0⁰
192 The phase of e(t)=-Em cosωt is ( )⁰ 90 -90 -270 0
193 The polar form of -3+j4 is 5-53.13⁰ 553.13⁰ 5-126.86⁰ 5126.86⁰
194 The rectangular form of 5Ð30 is⁰ 4.33+j2.5 - 4.33 +j2.5 - 4.33 -j2.5 4.33-j2.5
The addition of 1+j2 and -4 +j2 in polar form
195 5-53.13⁰ 553.13⁰ 5-126.86⁰ 5126.86⁰
is
The addition of 1+j1 and 1030 in
196 9.667 +j6 7.667 +j6 9.667 +j4 7.667 +j4
rectangular form is
The substraction of 1+j1 and 1030 in
197 9.667 +j6 7.667 +j6 9.667 +j4 7.667 +j4
rectangular form is
The addition of 260⁰ and 530⁰ in polar 6.805-
198 6.80538.45⁰ 3.42-167.02⁰ 6.805113.25⁰
form is 141.55⁰
For addition and substraction,the phasor
For multiplication and division, the phasor

Eventhough an a.c.waveform can take any
201 shape,the -------- is the most preferred squarewave sinewave triangular wave sawtooth wave
waveform of all
In the equation V(t) = Vmsin 2πft the term
V(t) denotes the --------- voltage
In the equation V(t) = Vmsin 2πft the term t voltage v is time t depends
203 time t is variable none of these
in bracket indicates that variable on voltage
light
Rms value is also called as --------- of a.c. heat producing useful useless
204 producing
current component component component
component
The value is also called as virtual value of
the waveform
answer marks unitno status
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 2 4 2
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 2 4 2
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
D 1 4 1
D 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 4
B 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
C 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
B 1 4 1
C 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
A 2 4 2
D 2 4 2
B 2 4 2
A 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
C 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
B 1 4 1
Sr.
Question A B C D
No.
Semicondu
1 A dielectric material must be________ resistor Insulator Conductor
ctor
When a capacitor is connected across a
2 battery for charging time period, it Defective Punctured Charged Discharged
becomes____________
The dielectric that would make a capacitor
Barium
3 to possess highest capacitance air mica electrolyte
titanate
is_______________
The energy stored in capacitance is given
4 C2V CV2/2 C2V/2 CV
by__________
Capacitor having lowest capacitance
5 air paper micad. plastic
is________________
Electrolytic capacitors can be used both
6 a.c.only d.c.only 50 Hz a.c.
for___________ a.c.and d.c.
If four 10 µF capacitors are connected in
7 parallel, then the effective capacitance will 2.5 µF 40 µF 0.4 µF .20 µF
be_________
If a glass slab is inserted between the
plates of an air capacitor without moving
8 decreased increased unaltered zero
the plates, then capacitance
is_________________
If a number of capacitors are connected in greater
series then the total capacitance of greater than the smaller average of
combination is_____ than the capacitance than the the
9 capacitance of any capacitance capacitanc
of largest capacitor of smallest e of all
capacitor capacitor capacitor
The total capacitance of five capacitor

none of
10 each of 10 µF in series 10 µF 2 µF 25 µF
these
is________________
Two capacitors of capacitance C1=0.1 and
C2=0.2 are connected in series to a 300V
11 100 V 200 V 150 V 300 V
source. The voltage across C1 will
be________________
A capacitor stores 0.4C at 2 V. Its
12 0.4 F 0.2F 3.2 F 0.8 F
capacitance is_________________
A20microF capacitor is in series with a
150 resistor. The combination is placed
13 across a 40V dc source. Time constant of 8s 3s 6s 2.4s
the circuit is______
If a dielectric field is placed in electric remains the becomes
14 decreases increases
field the field strength________ same zero
If dielectric slab is inserted in a parallel decreases increases remains become
15 plate capacitor, the potential difference same zero
will___________
Three capacitors of values 3 µF, 6 µF , and 3 µF 6 µF 12 µF all the
12 µF are connected in parallel across an capacitors
16 a.c. source. The maximum current pass
through ______
As per Coulomb’s F= Q1Q2 / F= Q1Q2 / F= Q1Q2 / F= Q1Q2
17 law___________________ 2
εoεrd 4d2 4 εoεrd2 /4 εoεrd
Electric field intensity at any point in an potential (potential (potential
18 electric field is equal to_______ gradient gradient)2 gradient)1/2 (potential
gradient)1/3
The lines of forces due to charged particles always always sometimes none of
19
are___________ straight curved curved the above
The direction of electric field due to away from towards both (a) none of
20
positive charge is___ the charge the charge and (b) the above
If the sheet of bakelite is inserted between
remains becomes
21 the plates of an air capacitor the decreases increases
unchanged zero
capacitance will__
The units of capacitance are volts/coulo coulombs/v ohms henry/Wb
22 mb olt
For making a capacitor, it is better to low high permittivity permittivit
select a dielectric having permittivity permittivity same as y slightly
23 that of air more than
that of air
An electrolytic capacitor can be used for D.C. only A.C. only both D.C. none of
24 as well as these
A.C.
The capacitance of a capacitor is not distance area of thickness all of the
25 affected by between plates of plates above
plates
26 Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor voltage voltage charge on charge on
after being charged from a constant across the across the the the
voltage source are separated apart by plates plates capacitor capacitor
means of insulated handles then the increases decreases decreases increases
If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive varying of high charging discharge
circuit, the alternating current can flow in voltage peak value current can current
the circuit because produces flow can flow
the
27 charging
and
discharging
currents
Which of the following statements is Air Electrolytic Ceramic Mica
correct? capacitors capacitor capacitors capacitors
have a must be must be are
blackband connected connected available
28 to indicate in the in the in
the outside correct correct capacitanc
foil polarity polarity e value of
1 to 10 µF
29 Three capacitors each of the capacity C are all in series all in two in two in
given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be parallel parallel and series and
obtained by using them third in third in
series with parallel
this across this
combination combinatio
n.
30 For which of the following parameter Distance Area of the Nature of Thickness
variation, the capacitance of the capacitor between plates dielectric of the
remains unaffected? plates plates
Which of the following expression is
31 E = D/ E = D2/ E= D E = D2
correct for electric field strength?
Which of the following statement is true? The The The current The
current in current in in the current in
the the discharging the
discharging discharging capacitor dischargin
32 capacitor capacitor decays g
grows grows exponentiall capacitor
linearly exponential y decreases
ly constantly
In a capacitor the electric charge is stored both (a) none of

33 metal plates dielectric
in and (b) the above
34 Which of the following materials has the Glass Vaccum Ceramics Oil
highest value of dielectric constant
35 The sparking between two electrical capacitor capacitor resistance none of
contacts can be reduced by inserting a in parallel in series in line the above
with with each
contacts contact
36 The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is zero proportiona proportional both (b)
l to applied to value of and (c)
voltage capacitance above
37 Capacitance increases with increase in increase in decrease in reduction

plate area plate area plate area in plate
and and and value area and
decrease in distance of applied distance
distance between voltage between
between the plates the plates
the plates
38 A capacitor consists of two two two two

insulators conductors insulators conductors
separated separated only only
by a by a
conductor insulator
39 A paper capacitor is usually available in tubes rolled foil disc meshed

the form of plates
40 Air capacitors are generally available in 10 to 400 1 to 20 pF 100 to 900 20 to 100
the range pF pF pF
41 The unit of capacitance is henry ohm farad farad/m
42 A capacitor charged to 200V has 2000 µC 10 F 10 µF 100 µF 1000 µF
of charge. The value of capacitance will be
Voltage across capacitor at any time T

ν = V(1-e- ν = V2(1-
43 during charging from a D.C. source of ν = Ve-t2/λ t/λ ν = V 2 -t/λ
e
voltage V is given by ) e-t/λ)
The ratio of electric flux density to electric
permeabilit capacitanc
44 field intensity is called ………. Of the permittivity reluctance
y e
medium
Energy stored in the electricl field of a
capacitor C when charged from a D.C,
45 ½ CV2 ½ C2V CV2 C2V
source of voltage V is equal to ……..
joules
- - -
The absolute permittivity of free space is 8.854 x 10 8.854 x 10 8.854 x 10 8.854 x
46 -12
given by 9
F/m 10
F/m 11
F/m 10 F/m
The relative permittivity of free space is
47 1 10 100 1000
given by ‘
When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1
48 2 joules 4 joules 6 joules 8 joules
farad capacitor, it will store energy of
The capacitor preferred for high frequency air mica electrolytic none of
49
circuits is capacitor capacitor capacitor the above
The capacity of capacitor bank used in
50 power factor correction is expressed in kW kVA kVAR volts
terms of
If a 6µF capacitor is charged to 200 V the
51 charge in coulombs will 800 µC 900 µC 1200 µC 1600 µC
be_______________
The breakdown voltage for paper capacitor
200 to 2000 to more than
52 is usually_________ 20 to 60 V
1600 V 10000 V 10000 V
Which of the following capacitors is

53 marked for air paper mica electrolyte
polarity____________________
Which of the following capacitor are
54 usually used for radio frequency air paper mica electrolyte
tuining__________
d.c.__________
in transistor__________
57 for audio frequency and radio frequency air plastic film mica ceramic
coupling and tuning__________
--------- is that property of a capacitor
potential none of
58 which delays any change of voltage across inductance capacitance
gradient the above
it.
59 37, initial 63.2, initial 63.2, final 37, final
charging voltage actually rises to ------------
----percent of its ---------- value

60 37 63 42 73
charging current actually falls to -------------
---percent of its initial maximum value
61 Permitivity is expressed in_______ Farad/sq-m weber/metr Farad/meter weber/
e square
metre
Dielectric strength of a material depends moisture all of the
62 temperature thickness
on_________________ content above
1
1 newton 1 newton 1 joule
63 1Volt /metre is same as metre/coulo
metre /coulomb /coulomb
mb
1 coulomb 1 coulomb
1 joule 1 coulomb
64 1 Volt is the same as_________________ /coulomb joule /
/coulomb / joule
joule coulomb
The relative permittivity of air none of
65 0 1
is__________ the above
The relative permittivity of a material is
66
10.Its absoulete permittivity will be
67 The capacitance of a capacitor is ……… directly inversely independent directly
relative permittivity proportiona proportiona of proportion
l to l to al to
square of
An air capacitor has the same dimensions
that of a mica capacitor. If the capacitance
68 of mica capacitor is 6 times that of air 36 12 3 6
capacitor, then relative permittivity of
mica is
69 The most convenient way of achieving multiplate decreased air as dielectric
large capacitance is by using constructio distance dielectric of low
n between permittivit
plates y
70 Another name for relative permittivity is dielectric breakdown specific potential
strength voltage inductive gradient
capacity
71 A capacitor opposes change in change in both none of
current voltage change in the above.
current and
voltage
72 The capacitance of a parallel plate area of medium separatin metal of

capacitor does not depend upon plates between between plates
plates plates
73 The capacitance of a parallel plate the type of separatin thickness potential
capacitor depends upon metals used between of plates difference
plates between
plates
The force between the plates of a parallel
plate capacitor of capacitance C and
74
distance of separation of plates d with a
potential difference V between the plates is
A parallel-plate air capacitor is immersed
increased increased decreased 2 none of
75 is oil of dielectric constant 2. The electric
2 times 4 times times the above
field between the plates is
Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2
are connected in parallel. A charge Q
76 C2/ C1 C1/ C2 C1 C2/1 1/ C1 C2
given to them is shared. The ratio of
charges Q1/Q2 is
Two capacitors have capacitance 25 µF
12 µF and 15 µF and 10 µF and none of
77 when in parallel and 6 µF when in series.
13 µF 10 µF 8 µF the above
Their individual capacitance are
Which of the following does not change
electric
when a glass slab is introduced between electric electric
78 capacitance field
the plates of a charged parallel plate charge energy
intensity
capacitor?
A capacitor of 1 µF is charged to a
potential of 50V. It is now connected to an
79 50 V 20 V 15 V 10 V
uncharged capacitor of capacitance 4 µF.
The common potential is
conductors
insulators conductors
separated insulators
separated separated
by an separated
80 A capacitor consists of two by air by air
insulator by a
medium medium
called the conductor
only only
dielectric
In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored none of

81 metal plates dielectric both (a) (b)
in the above
If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced capacitor plates will capacitor capacitanc
by a conducting material the will get get short- can store e will
heated up circuited infinite become
82
owing to charge very high
eddy
currents
The charge on an isolated conductor at the inside the partly at none of
resides conductor conductor the surface the above
surface and partly
83
inside the
conductor
Two capacitors each having capacitance C

and breakdown voltage V are joined in
84 series. The capacitance and breakdown 2C and 2V 2C and
voltage of the combination will be
The total capacitance of two condensers is

.03µF when joined in series and 0.16µ
85 5.33 2 3 4
when connected in parallel. The ratio of
two capacitance will be__________
If V, W,q stand for voltage ,energy and

86 charge then V can be expressed
as________
Electric
none of
87 Joule / Coulomb is the unit of field Potential charge
the above.
potential
ans
wer
B
A
B
A
B
C
A
A
C
B
B
C
A
B
A
A
B
A
B
Ans. A
B. 25 ohms
resistance will be
Ans. C
D. 1:8 Ans. D
Ans. B
B. infite Ans. C
C. zero
Ans. D pure metals
A. increases
B. low Ans. A
C. zero
A. increases
C. atoms
1
Ans. B A. chemical
B. mechanical
resistance Ans. C
A. manganin
C. carbon A. R
D. copper B. L
Ans. A C. Q
D. t
Ans. C C. magnitude
D. magnetism
A. vaccume tubes
Ans. A C. volt
D. tesla
Ans. A D. 4186 KJ
Ans. A
A. MMF B. Ω-m
B. EMF C. Ω/m
D. all above Ans. B
Ans. B
2
D. Henry C. zero
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
D. all above C. θ
Ans. B D. Φ
Ans. A
D. all above A. OC
Ans. D B. /OC
C. Ω/OC
A. size
Ans. C B. voltage
C. leakage current
A. increases
C. decreses is ____
coefficient Ans. A
A. positive
B. negative
3
____ Ans. B
A. current
Ans. C B. chemical
C. heating
A. directly
Ans. B B. V.I
C. V.I.t
A. length
Ans. A C. Thermal
D. None of above
A. carbon A. 50
B. constantan B. 75
C. copper C. 100
D. silver D. 35
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. A
4
D. None of above
Ans. C Ans. B
Ans. B Ans. A

Ans. C Ans. A
Ans. C
D. All of above
5
A. E=1/2 mV2
D. all above
true?
Ans. B
Ans. C
Ans. C Ans. B
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. C
B. E=m.g A. Ohms
Ans. A D. Micro Ohm
Ans. B
6
Ans. B
ρ
ρ B. thickness
C. Ri=2πl (R2/R1)
Ans. B Ans. D

Ans. A
C. decrease Ans. B
D. none of above
A. Volts.
C. glass Ans. C
D. plastic
increase of?
Ans. A
7
increases?
D. Temp.
Ans. D Ans. C
Ans. B
behave as?
8
Ans. B is given by.
𝑅𝑡 −𝑅0
𝑅1−𝑅2
B. Conductor. 𝑅2
Ans. B
D. None of above.
_________
A. one watt
temperature. Ans. B
A. True.
A. /Ώ/0C B. I2Rt2
B. /0C C. I2R2t
C. 0C D. I2R2t2
D. Ώ/0C Ans. A
Ans. B
in size?
A. 100Ω, 10W
9
B. 10Ω, 50W Ans. C
C. 1MΩ, 0.5W
speed C. 1000 MΩ
layer Ans. C
Ans. C A. 0.3A
B. 0.4A
incorrect? D. 0.6A
B. 𝑃 = 𝐼 2 R
Ans. D A. 625Ω
B. 526Ω
C. 62.5Ω
UNIT IB D. 625mΩ
Ans. A
A. 2x10-8Ω-m B. 0.00006 s
C. 6x10-8Ω-m D. 0.6 s
Ans. C
A. 1.2 MΩ Ans. B
B. 0.2 Ω
10
C. 0.1V A. 5 min
D. 10V B. 5s
Ans. C C. 50min
D. 50s
C. 80W A. 6J
D. 100W B. 8J
Ans. D C. 4J
D. 10J
resistance of
A. 1400 ohm Que. 0.32mA=. . . . . . μA
B. 60 ohm A. 0.0032
C. 960 ohm B. 0.032
D. 325 ohm C. 0.00032
Ans. C D. 320
Ans. D
C. 7500 J A. Ri1 + Ri2
D. 450000 J B. Ri1 - Ri2
Ans. D C. Ri1 / Ri2
A. Ri1 + Ri2
A. 45s D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2
B. 30s Ans. A
C. 65s
A. 4:25
11
B. 57Ω-m
_______
D. 60W be 2 ohm at
Ans. D A. 1154 K
B. 1100 K
A. 25W, 220V Ans. B
B. 100W, 220V
UNIT IC ___
A. 120 MΩ
A. nr Ans. C
B. R/n
A. 1/4 ohm C. 0.240 MΩ
B. 1/16 ohm D. 0.160 Ω
C. 4 ohm Ans. A
D. 16 ohm
Resistance a- /0C
12
RTC c-ohm
C. 1-d,2-c,3-a,4-b A. 0.000124/0C
Ans. C C. 0.00324/0C
A. reduce by 25%
Ans. B A. 990 Ώ.
B. 881.667 Ώ.
700C
A. 2×1012 Ώ.
A. 4.5mΏ.
A. 111 Ώ.
13
0.0039/0C
Ans. C A. 210 sec
B. 420 sec
brightly?
Ans. B C. 4W
D. 12 W
Ans. A B. 60m
C. 40m
resistance?
C. 60W bulb 1.3A at 230V?.
Ans. C B. 7.47KW
C. 325W
appliances: Ans. A
14
C. 250A C. 15 min
D. 231.4A D. 20 min
Ans. D Ans. A
200C. A. 1000 W
A. 0.126Ω B. 500 W
B. 0.121Ω C. 1050 W
C. 0.125Ω D. 1500 W
D. 0.127Ω Ans. C
Ans. B
A. 960C Ans. A
B. 86.10C
C. 500C
D. 600C UNIT ID
Ans. B

4200j/Kg.k) B. 2.7 kWh
A. 4.65KWh C. 9 kWh
C. 5.185KW Ans. B
D. 50KW
power developed
4200j/Kg.k,) Ans. D
A. 13.08 min
B. 13 hr
15
A. 198J D. 0.02 kWh
B. 981W Ans. B
C. 198W
100oC is
A. 160kW C. 42kJ
B. 1600W D. 420J
C. 16kW Ans. B
D. 160W
A. 9kJ B. 1637 N-m
B. 65J C. 163 N-m
C. 25kJ D. 16370 N-m
D. 90kJ Ans. B
Ans. A
B. 7.5W A. 88.08 %
C. 750W B. 88 %
D. 600W C. 88.88%
Ans. B D. 78 %
Ans. C
C. 500W A. 2400 KJ
D. 10KW B. 240 KJ
Ans. D C. 24 J
D. 24000 KJ
16
is….
A. 8.8 X 109 Wh Ans. D
B. 7.99 X 109 Wh
A. 1234.6H.P Ans. A
B. 1172.9H.P
A. 2 Kg Ans. B
B. 0.6 kg
is…… C. 5336.1 KJ
A. 41.87 Wh D. 6000 KJ
B. 4.187W Ans. C
C. 4.187 Wh
D. 4500 w
17
station is 86.4%.
D. 2.316x108m3 of motor is 89.77%
Ans. B A. 40KW
B. 35Kw
A. 40KW
A. 40.25 W Ans. B
B. 4025 KW
is -------
A. 95% D. 75KW
B. 80% Ans. C
C. 30%
D. 50%
Ans. A UNIT IIA
18
Ans. B Ans. C

surrounded by
D. current C. Tesla
Ans. A D. AT
Ans. A
Ans. B Ans. A
A. current B. wb
Ans. C
Ans. B
A. flux A. Flux
Ans. A Ans. D
called A. AT/m
19
direction current
Ans. C
Ans. C C. air flux
D. leakage flux
means
Ans. D
D. increase mmf
A. 4π × 10-7 H/m
strength Ans. A
20
Ans. C C. flux
D. magnetic field
𝑁𝑥𝑎
𝑙
0𝜇 𝑟 𝑎
0 𝑟
𝑑𝑖
current of the coil
Ans. A C. glass
21
C. low
D. both b and c are
Ans. D A. very high
A. value of flux
𝑁𝐼
Ans. D 𝐼
B. 𝐻 = 2𝜋𝑑
𝑁𝐼
A. repulsive
conductor
field
22
carrying conductor
Ans. C Ans. D
Ans. B
𝐴 B. 1wb/cm2
A. 𝑚
𝐻 C. 1mwb/cm2
B. D. 1wb/mm2
𝑚
𝑙
C. 𝑚 Ans. A
𝐻
Ans. B largest mmf
A. coil
23
B. silicon steel
B. total flux
coil varies with
C. area/length
is__________ Ans. B
A. 1
C. mmf
A. 300
D. none of above
material?
Ans. A
24
Ans. A
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. D

Ans. D D. Non above
Ans. C
object is
B. thumb Ans. D
25
Ans. B
B. Inductance
Ans. C A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
B. Lenz‟s law
Ans. A A. Changing
B. Increasing
A. Mutual Ans. D
B. Self
C. Dynamic
D. Static
26
Ans. D
A. Volt A. MMF
C. Henry C. Voltage
D. Linkages D. Flux
Ans. C Ans. B
B. Ampere A. Sum
Ans. A D. ratio
Ans. D
Ans. D
𝑁𝐼
𝑙
A. MMF
is_________
B. EMF
A. Volt
C. Flux linkage
B. Ampere/ Volt
C. Henry
Ans. D
D. Linkages
Ans. C
A. –L dI/dt
B. MdI / dt
represents
C. N2 Ф2/ I1
A. Mutual induction
D. NФ/I
Ans. C
27
D. Induced emf
induction, e=
A. –NdФ/dt 𝑙
B. MdI / dt
B. Surface area
A. Ф1/Ф2 Ans. C
B. Ф2/Ф1
A. steady
A. N l
A. Ф D. NI / ℓ
B. dФ/dt Ans. D
C. NФ
1
A. 𝐸 = 2 𝐶𝐼 2
Que. B. 𝐸 = 2 𝐿𝐼 2
as______ 1
1
C. Flux linkage
Ans. B
28
Ans. A
1
1
2
Ans. B
𝐾
1 2
𝑀 A. L1+L2+2M
C. 𝐾 = B. L1+L2-2M
𝐿1 𝐿2
D. 𝐾 = 𝑀𝑥 𝐿1 𝐿2 C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. C
Ans. A
coupling is….
A. less than 1
B. More than 1
inductance is……
C. equal to 1
A. L1+L2+2M
D. equal to zero
B. L1+L2-2M
Ans. C
C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. B
coupling is….
A. less than 1
C. equal to 1
D. equal to zero
29
B. 270000 AT ring is_____
C. 1500 AT A. 5000AT
D. 7500 AT B. 7200AT
Ans. C C. 750AT
D. 7500 AT
A. 40 mH
A. 2000 AT D. 25 mH
B. 200 AT Ans. A
C. 20 AT
A. 0V D. 25 mH
B. 1.26V Ans. B
C. 0.18V
A. 1.12 J D. 0.4A
B. 0.14 J Ans. C
C. 0.56 J
current is
30
A. 3.75 A B. 0.7×106 AT/Wb
B. 3. 75 mA C. 6×107 AT/Wb
D. 37.5 mA Ans. B
Ans. B
A. 0V D. 106mwb
B. 1.26V Ans. C
C. 0.63V
A. 0.3125N Ans. B
B. 3.125N
A. 225 AT/m
must be D. 375 AT/m
A. 130.3mm Ans. D
B. 13.33cm
A. 663.48 x 104 AT/wb
31
mwb__________ B. 4 N
A. 13x103 AT C. 0.4 N
C. 13x102AT Ans. A
D. none of these
is___________ C. 53N
D. 75N
A. 1.67 x 106 AT/Wb Ans. D
B. 16.7 x 106 AT/Wb
D. 1.67 x 104 AT/Wb
Ans. A
A. 373N
B. 0
C. 53N
D. 75N
Ans. b
___
A. 707.714 x 103 AT/Wb
B. 70.77 x 103 AT/Wb
C. 707.714 x 104 AT/Wb
D. 7.07 x 104 AT/Wb
Ans. A
A. 2.5A
B. 3.53 mA
C. 2.8A
D. none of these
Ans. D
A. 0V
B. 1.26V
C. 0.18V
D. 0.88V
Ans. A
A. 3 x 10-5wb
B. 2 x 10-3wb
C. 1.5 x 10-2wb
D. 2.5 x 10-4wb
Ans. B
32
A. 60 J A. 0.53H
B. 30 J B. 0.169H
C. 15 J C. 0.011H
D. 13.33 J D. 0.0188H
Ans. C Ans. C
A. 0.9 J B. 20 V
B. 0.45 J C. 10V
C. 450J D. 5V
D. 18 J Ans. A
Ans. B

C. 225 J Ans. D
D. 450 J
__________
is…. Ans. B
A. 0.245
A. Motor
33
D. Transistor
of__________
winding. C. Power
B. Secondary Ans. B
C. Tertiary
A. Low resistance
A. Primary Ans. B
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
A. Physically
A. Decreases Ans. D
B. increases
as_________
34
D. all of the above
used for__________
D. (N1xN2)/N2
for___________
Ans. C B. step-up
C. Isolation
core__________ Ans. B
Ans. A A. step-down
B. step-up
B. Magnetic circuit
Ans. B called____
35
Ans. C
C. Auto Ans. C
D. Control
has__________
has__________
B. 60 to 75 % Ans. B
C. 80 to 90 %
side
D. 0 C. E= 4.44 Bm f N
Ans. D
36
C. I2/I1 A. kW
D. V1/V2 B. kVA
Ans. A C. kV
D. kWh
D. 1 will_________
Ans. D A. Be halved
B. Not change
B. 1
Ans. A A. 1 to 3%
B. 3 to 9 %
B. 1
D. 0 provide_______
B. Frequency
B. Always the same
37
Ans. B is______________
reduce Ans. D
Ans. C
A. 1
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
B. Ans. B
A. Voltage
D. B. Power
C. current
Ans. A
D. None of these
Ans. B
B.
V 1 I 1 Cos∅
D. none of these
D. 𝑉 𝐼
Ans. A
38
when___________ Ans. D
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. D Ans. B
39
Ans. C D. infinity
Ans. D
because__________
constant Ans. D
Ans. C
Ans. B
40
Ans. A
Ans. B
B. friction loss pf
Ans. B
inductively coupled
A. iron core Ans. B
B. copper winding
A. low
41
B. unity
be_____________ Ans. B
A. constant
Ans. C A. second
B. first
A. exactly equal
Ans. A C. Conductor
D. Semiconductor
Ans. D C. C2V/2
D. CV
to_____________
D. 50 Hz ac
A. 0.8 pf lead
42
capacitor
Ans. C
Ans. C
Ans. A C. neutral
D. supercharged
43
Ans. D voltage
A. E = D/𝝐
true?
the range
A. Henry
B. Ohm
A. Glass Ans. C
B. Vaccum
Ans. C is given by
A. ν = Ve-t/λ
44
B. paper
medium Ans. D
A. permeability
Ans. B B. paper
C. mica
B. 63.2, initial
A. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m Ans. C
B. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m
given by „ B. 63
A. 1 C. 42
B. 10 D. 73
C. 100 Ans. A
D. 1000
A. Farad/sq-m
Ans. B on_________________
A. moisture content
45
Ans. B
Ans. C D. Coulomb
Ans. D
C. 8.854 × 10−12 A. 4C
Ans. B C. 3C/4
D. C
C. One Joule/ Volt
Ans. B B. 1/QC
C. Q2/2C
B. potential
C. charge
46
Ans. A C. 909.0 Amp
D. 9.09 Amp
D. C= Єr A / d A. 16/9
Ans. C B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 9/16
Ans. D
UNIT IIIB
A. 400 Watt A. 3200 W and 2500 W
B. 100 Watt B. 3200 W and 5200 W
C. 200 Watt C. 1600 W and 1250 W
D. 50 Watt D. 1600 W and 5000 W
Ans. B Ans. D
C. 250 W C. 15A
Ans. D Ans. A

current is____________ A. 10
A. 909.09 Amp B. 5
B. 90.90 Amp C. 0.1
C. 9.09 Amp D. 9
Ans. C
47
A. 2.6%
B. 2.67%
is ________ Ans. A
A. 200 W
Ans. C A. 2.5 µF
B. 40 µF
should be________
C. 400 A. 10 µF
D. 1250 B. 2 µF
Ans. A C. 25 µF
D. none of these
C. 375 will be________________
D. 429 A. 100 V
Ans. B B. 200 V
C. 150 V
B. 33.03 amp is___________________________
C. 30.3 amp A. 0.4 F
D. 0.303 amp B. 0.2 F
Ans. A C. 3.2 F
D. 0.8 F
48
A. 8 S B. 900 µC
B. 3 S C. 1200 µC
C. 6 S D. 1600 µC
D. 2.4 S Ans. C
Ans. B
________________ C. 5 × 10−5 𝐹/𝑀
A. 3 µF D. 9 × 105 𝐹/𝑀
B. 6 µF Ans. A
C. 12 µF
combination
is________.
A. 10 F C. C1 C2
B. 10 µF D. 1/ C1 C2
C. 100 µF Ans. B
D. 1000 µF
D. 8 Joule Ans. B
Ans. D
49
Ans. D is______.
A. 0.1sec
A. 10 sec Ans. C
B. 0.1 sec
is____________. C. 8.854 mF
A. 1mA D. 8.854 F
B. 0.1 mA Ans. A
C. 0.01mA
D. 1.00A
A. 36V B. 8 mC
B. 36.6V C. 8 nC
C. 63.2V D. 8 pC
D. 63 V Ans. A
Ans. C
A. 1A A. 0.000295 x 10-6 F
B. 10A B. 0.00295 x 10-6 F
C. 0.01A C. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
D. 0.1A D. 0. 295 x 10-6 F
Ans. D Ans. B
50
B. Henery Ans. B
C. Farad
Ans. D on
A. 4C Ans. A
B. C/4
B. C = Є0 d / A
B. electric field
be_________.
Ans. A
capacitor is ___________ A. 3.54 x 10-12 F
A. 1/2QC B. 35.4 x 10-12 F
B. 1/QC C. 3.54 x 10-10 F
C. Q2/2C D. 3.54 x 10-11 F
D. Q/2C Ans. A
Ans. C
B. 7.5 µF is___________
51
Ans. D
is__________
A. 71 turns
B. 75 turns
D. 923 turns
Ans. A
A. 25.22 mwb
A. 1.25 Tesla
B. 22.52 mwb
B. 1.52 Tesla
C. 52.22 mwb
C. 1.3 Tesla
D. none of these
Ans. B
Ans. A
A. 16.516 x 10–3 m2
winding________
A. 600 turns B. 61.516 x 10–3 m2
B. 900 turns C. 26.516 x 10–3 m2
C. 300 turns D. 62.516 x 10–3 m2
D. 450 turns Ans. A
Ans. B
52
A. 99%
is_____
is___________ Ans. A
A. 96.97%
A. 98.13% Ans. B
B. 98.73%
C. 99%
D. none of these
Ans. B

Ans. B Ans. C
53
C. 𝑖 = 100 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
A. Im/√2
C. Im/2 𝜋
D. Im/π
A. Im/π C. 200 A, 100 Hz
B. 2Im/π D. 200 A, 25 Hz
C. zero Ans. A
D. Im/2
is________second. B. 90°
A. 0.05 C. 135°
B. 0.005 D. 60°
C. 0.0005 Ans. B
D. 0.5
because_______
A. 1.01 magnitude
Ans. B appliances
Ans. A
54
B. 0.1 second
C. electroplating
A. √3 A
B. 2 A
A. friction
D. crystal Ans. C
Ans. D
C. four Ans. B
D. eight
A. 50 Hz C. 63.7 V
B. 25 Hz D. 100 V
C. 100 Hz Ans. C
D. 75 Hz
D. 5 V Ans. B
Ans. B
55
be_______ is___________
A. 𝜋
𝐼𝑚
Ans. C
Ans. B
Ans. A
C. 141.4 V are____________
D. 121.4 V A. 314.16 Hz, 60°
Ans. C B. 60Hz, 60°
C. 50 Hz, 60°
𝜋 Ans. C
respectively_______
A. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°
Then__________
B. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
C. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90°
D. 100 V,50 Hz, -90°
same time
Ans. D
same time
D. all of the above
Ans. D
instant
instant
A. 7.07 A
B. 14.14 A
zero value
C. 10 A
D. none of these
D. 28.28 A
Ans. C
56
Ans. B B. +1
C. -1
D. 2
Ans. A
A. 50∠60°
Ans. D is________
A. I2m/2
A. 90° Ans. A
B. 180°
Ans. C A. 1.414
B. 1.11
A. more than Ans. B
B. less than
A. 0.4 × 2 A
B. 0.4 ÷ 2 A
as_____dc
A. +1 C. 70.7 V
1 Ans. C
C.
2
B. square
A. zero Ans. B
57
Ans. D Ans. B
A. 1.11 A. 127.4V
B. 1.414 B. 141.4V
C. 2 C. 282.8V
D. 1.5 D. 200V
Ans. B Ans. A
A. 15V A. 70.7A
B. 15 × 2 V B. 141.4A
C. 15/ 2 V C. 150A
Ans. A Ans. B
Ans. B
C. 40 Hz value?
58
Ans. A A. 0.05 S
B. 0.005 S
value? Ans. B
B. triangular wave
C. sine wave
D. square wave
Ans. A
B. 0.707Imax be_________
C. 0.9Imax A. 5V
D. 1.414Imax B. 12.5V
Ans. B C. 25V
D. 43.8V
Ans. C B. 222V
C. 282V
A. 0.636Emax
Ans. A A. 141.4
B. 200
A. 50√2 A, 100 Hz
D. 70.7 A, 50 Hz ______degrees.
Ans. C A. 90
B. 60
C. 45
59
D. 30 A. 200 Hz
Ans. C B. 100 Hz
C. 60 Hz
Ans. B
value Ans. D
A. 42.42 sin 314𝑡
A. 230V,50 Hz
B. sine wave Ans. A
60
Ans. A
minute B. about 2 A
point in one second
𝜋
6
A. 60 sin 25𝑡 B. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
B. 60 sin 50𝑡 C. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
C. 84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 D. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
D. 42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Ans. A
Ans. C
Ans. C Ans. A
𝜋
A. 2 C. 100 Hz
B. π D. 0.02 Hz
C. 2π Ans. B
D. 4π
61
Ans. C A. phase
B. time
always D. all above
A. zero Ans. C
B. unity
C. infinity
Ans. B

A. circular
B. sinusoidally
C. rectangular
D. triagular
Ans. B
A. clockwise B. T/2
C. circular D. T/4
D. all above Ans. D
Ans. B
Que.
A. rms
B. average
C. rectangular
D. polar
Ans. A
_______
A. T
B. T/2
diagram.
C. 3T/4
A. Same
D. T/4
B. Different
Ans. C
C. multiple
D. all above
Ans. A
A. zero
62
Ans. B
A. zero B. unity
B. positive C. zero
C. negative D. π/2
Ans. C
C. Lengths
D. both a and b
B. length Ans. B
C. phase
A. in phase
63
A. leading A. time
C. inphase C. sign
Ans. A Ans. B
A. leading A. base
B. lagging B. range
Ans. B Ans. C
Ans. A
C. minus B. phase
D. dot C. direction
Ans. C D. line
Ans. B
D. picture
64
Ans. B D. XL=ωC
Ans. A
A. 30 A. Farad
B. 60 B. Henry
C. 90 C. Ohm
D. 120 D. Joule
Ans. C Ans. C
A. high A. phase
B. low B. sign
Ans. C Ans. C
DC frequency.
Ans. B Ans. B
Ans. C Ans. C
B. inductor A. lags
C. starter B. leads
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
65
B. 60 A. XC=1/ωC
C. 90 B. XC=1/2𝝅C
D. 120 C. XC=1/ΦC
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. D
to DC ______
Ans. C Ans. C

Ans. C Ans. A
A. sine B. phase
D. sawtooth Ans. C
Ans. A
A. resistor A. 8
B. capacitor B. 10
C. starter C. 12
D. circuit D. 20
Ans. B Ans. C
66
A. 0+j0 A. fL
B. 6+j12 B. πfL
C. -6-j12 C. 2 πfL
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. B
time B. 90,90
time D. 270,90
D. none of these
____
is _____ B. unity
67
Ans. C A. 2.8 A
B. 2 A
B. is negative
Ans. C A. zero
B. unity
Ans. A direction
A. 90
A. 45 Ans. C
B. 90
Ans. A B. imaginary
C. in-phase
68
a_____
then_____
Ans. C Ans. B
B. -j2 A. 360
C. -2 B. 180
D. 2 C. 90
Ans. C D. 0
Ans. B
C. 1 A degrees.
D. 1.33 A A. approx.180
C. approx. 60
A. 100 -60
Ans. C degrees
A. 15
A. 4-j3 C. 60
B. -4-j3 D. 105
C. 4+j3 Ans. D
69
is less degrees
is more Ans. B
cycle
Ans. C except
C. pure capacitive
C. pure capacitive
degrees
70
Ans. B
Ans. C Ans. A
same time C. peak
same time Ans. A
D. all of above
Ans. D directions
by ___
D. are sinusoidal
71
I
correct?
A. PF is unity
V
C. pure capacitance
is equal to Ans. B
A. zero
voltage between
voltage B. -1 and 1
Ans. D Ans. A

to UNIT IVB
Ans. C B. 10 KHz
C. 10 Hz
______ampere.
V A. 7.07
B. 6.37
C. 5
C. pure capacitance
is________V.
72
A. 84.84 C. 100V
B. 77.82 D. 173.2V
C. 94.68 Ans. C
D. 89.15
line?
A. 254.6 C. 2 A
B. 282.6 D. 3 A
C. 400 Ans. B
D. 565.5
Volt is ________
𝜋
A. 400 π C. 61.2371 35.3553
400 D. 70.710+ j30
B. 𝜋 Ans. B
1
C. 400
D. 400
sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is ________
Ans. B A. 61.2371+j35.3553
B. 70.7106 30
A. 0.02 second
C. 0.04 second is _______
D. 0.05 second A. 57.99
Ans. C B. 47.1699
C. 60
A. 100π
D. 5π I1/I2 =________
Ans. A A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
B. 2150 A
A. 50V
B. 82.8V
73
____
A. 0 P P
+
+
B. 3.14 W v
C. 0.5 W 0
i

D. 1 W    t
2 2
Ans. A
- -
P P

i
Ans. C

0
 t
UNIT IVC
supply_________
P P
D. 250 W
+ +
Ans. B
v
i 
 
0

2
t
𝜋
2
-
P
-
P A. 40π
T
40
B. 𝜋
C. 40
Ans. B
current are____
74
A. 16.36 A, 17.07 A D. 10
B. 10 A, 17.07 A Ans. A
C. 10 A, 12.25 A
I1+I2 =________ C. 250 W
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A D. 100 W
B. 5.55964.924 A Ans. A
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
I1-I2 =________ B. 20 ohms
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A C. 5 ohms
B. 5.5596 4.924 A D. 2.5 ohms
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A Ans. C
C. one-half Ans. A
D. one-third
is______ A. 10 kW
A. -24+j14 B. 1 kW
B. 24-j14 C. 500 W
C. -38-j34 D. 250 W
D. -24-j14 Ans. C
Ans. C
A. 62.8 A. 2000
B. 628 B. 500
C. 0.2 C. 250
75
D. 4000 A. 5 A
Ans. D B. 3.18 A
C. 1.57 A
B. 0.1 second
1
A. 900
C. 700
A. 25 A D. 600
B. 12.5 A Ans. D
C. 50 A
1
A. 150 V B. 100 S
1
B. 216.5 V C. 300 S
C. 125 V 1
D. 108.25 V D. 600 S
Ans. B Ans. C

be_________
76
Ans. A
B. 25 ohms
resistance will be
Ans. C
D. 1:8 Ans. D
Ans. B
B. infite Ans. C
C. zero
Ans. D pure metals
A. increases
B. low Ans. A
C. zero
A. increases
C. atoms
1
Ans. B A. chemical
B. mechanical
resistance Ans. C
A. manganin
C. carbon A. R
D. copper B. L
Ans. A C. Q
D. t
Ans. C C. magnitude
D. magnetism
A. vaccume tubes
Ans. A C. volt
D. tesla
Ans. A D. 4186 KJ
Ans. A
A. MMF B. Ω-m
B. EMF C. Ω/m
D. all above Ans. B
Ans. B
2
D. Henry C. zero
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
D. all above C. θ
Ans. B D. Φ
Ans. A
D. all above A. OC
Ans. D B. /OC
C. Ω/OC
A. size
Ans. C B. voltage
C. leakage current
A. increases
C. decreses is ____
coefficient Ans. A
A. positive
B. negative
3
____ Ans. B
A. current
Ans. C B. chemical
C. heating
A. directly
Ans. B B. V.I
C. V.I.t
A. length
Ans. A C. Thermal
D. None of above
A. carbon A. 50
B. constantan B. 75
C. copper C. 100
D. silver D. 35
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. A
4
D. None of above
Ans. C Ans. B
Ans. B Ans. A

Ans. C Ans. A
Ans. C
D. All of above
5
A. E=1/2 mV2
D. all above
true?
Ans. B
Ans. C
Ans. C Ans. B
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. C
B. E=m.g A. Ohms
Ans. A D. Micro Ohm
Ans. B
6
Ans. B
ρ
ρ B. thickness
C. Ri=2πl (R2/R1)
Ans. B Ans. D

Ans. A
C. decrease Ans. B
D. none of above
A. Volts.
C. glass Ans. C
D. plastic
increase of?
Ans. A
7
increases?
D. Temp.
Ans. D Ans. C
Ans. B
behave as?
8
Ans. B is given by.
𝑅𝑡 −𝑅0
𝑅1−𝑅2
B. Conductor. 𝑅2
Ans. B
D. None of above.
_________
A. one watt
temperature. Ans. B
A. True.
A. /Ώ/0C B. I2Rt2
B. /0C C. I2R2t
C. 0C D. I2R2t2
D. Ώ/0C Ans. A
Ans. B
in size?
A. 100Ω, 10W
9
B. 10Ω, 50W Ans. C
C. 1MΩ, 0.5W
speed C. 1000 MΩ
layer Ans. C
Ans. C A. 0.3A
B. 0.4A
incorrect? D. 0.6A
B. 𝑃 = 𝐼 2 R
Ans. D A. 625Ω
B. 526Ω
C. 62.5Ω
UNIT IB D. 625mΩ
Ans. A
A. 2x10-8Ω-m B. 0.00006 s
C. 6x10-8Ω-m D. 0.6 s
Ans. C
A. 1.2 MΩ Ans. B
B. 0.2 Ω
10
C. 0.1V A. 5 min
D. 10V B. 5s
Ans. C C. 50min
D. 50s
C. 80W A. 6J
D. 100W B. 8J
Ans. D C. 4J
D. 10J
resistance of
A. 1400 ohm Que. 0.32mA=. . . . . . μA
B. 60 ohm A. 0.0032
C. 960 ohm B. 0.032
D. 325 ohm C. 0.00032
Ans. C D. 320
Ans. D
C. 7500 J A. Ri1 + Ri2
D. 450000 J B. Ri1 - Ri2
Ans. D C. Ri1 / Ri2
A. Ri1 + Ri2
A. 45s D. Ri1 Ri2 / Ri1 + Ri2
B. 30s Ans. A
C. 65s
A. 4:25
11
B. 57Ω-m
_______
D. 60W be 2 ohm at
Ans. D A. 1154 K
B. 1100 K
A. 25W, 220V Ans. B
B. 100W, 220V
UNIT IC ___
A. 120 MΩ
A. nr Ans. C
B. R/n
A. 1/4 ohm C. 0.240 MΩ
B. 1/16 ohm D. 0.160 Ω
C. 4 ohm Ans. A
D. 16 ohm
Resistance a- /0C
12
RTC c-ohm
C. 1-d,2-c,3-a,4-b A. 0.000124/0C
Ans. C C. 0.00324/0C
A. reduce by 25%
Ans. B A. 990 Ώ.
B. 881.667 Ώ.
700C
A. 2×1012 Ώ.
A. 4.5mΏ.
A. 111 Ώ.
13
0.0039/0C
Ans. C A. 210 sec
B. 420 sec
brightly?
Ans. B C. 4W
D. 12 W
Ans. A B. 60m
C. 40m
resistance?
C. 60W bulb 1.3A at 230V?.
Ans. C B. 7.47KW
C. 325W
appliances: Ans. A
14
C. 250A C. 15 min
D. 231.4A D. 20 min
Ans. D Ans. A
200C. A. 1000 W
A. 0.126Ω B. 500 W
B. 0.121Ω C. 1050 W
C. 0.125Ω D. 1500 W
D. 0.127Ω Ans. C
Ans. B
A. 960C Ans. A
B. 86.10C
C. 500C
D. 600C UNIT ID
Ans. B

4200j/Kg.k) B. 2.7 kWh
A. 4.65KWh C. 9 kWh
C. 5.185KW Ans. B
D. 50KW
power developed
4200j/Kg.k,) Ans. D
A. 13.08 min
B. 13 hr
15
A. 198J D. 0.02 kWh
B. 981W Ans. B
C. 198W
100oC is
A. 160kW C. 42kJ
B. 1600W D. 420J
C. 16kW Ans. B
D. 160W
A. 9kJ B. 1637 N-m
B. 65J C. 163 N-m
C. 25kJ D. 16370 N-m
D. 90kJ Ans. B
Ans. A
B. 7.5W A. 88.08 %
C. 750W B. 88 %
D. 600W C. 88.88%
Ans. B D. 78 %
Ans. C
C. 500W A. 2400 KJ
D. 10KW B. 240 KJ
Ans. D C. 24 J
D. 24000 KJ
16
is….
A. 8.8 X 109 Wh Ans. D
B. 7.99 X 109 Wh
A. 1234.6H.P Ans. A
B. 1172.9H.P
A. 2 Kg Ans. B
B. 0.6 kg
is…… C. 5336.1 KJ
A. 41.87 Wh D. 6000 KJ
B. 4.187W Ans. C
C. 4.187 Wh
D. 4500 w
17
station is 86.4%.
D. 2.316x108m3 of motor is 89.77%
Ans. B A. 40KW
B. 35Kw
A. 40KW
A. 40.25 W Ans. B
B. 4025 KW
is -------
A. 95% D. 75KW
B. 80% Ans. C
C. 30%
D. 50%
Ans. A UNIT IIA
18
Ans. B Ans. C

surrounded by
D. current C. Tesla
Ans. A D. AT
Ans. A
Ans. B Ans. A
A. current B. wb
Ans. C
Ans. B
A. flux A. Flux
Ans. A Ans. D
called A. AT/m
19
direction current
Ans. C
Ans. C C. air flux
D. leakage flux
means
Ans. D
D. increase mmf
A. 4π × 10-7 H/m
strength Ans. A
20
Ans. C C. flux
D. magnetic field
𝑁𝑥𝑎
𝑙
0𝜇 𝑟 𝑎
0 𝑟
𝑑𝑖
current of the coil
Ans. A C. glass
21
C. low
D. both b and c are
Ans. D A. very high
A. value of flux
𝑁𝐼
Ans. D 𝐼
B. 𝐻 = 2𝜋𝑑
𝑁𝐼
A. repulsive
conductor
field
22
carrying conductor
Ans. C Ans. D
Ans. B
𝐴 B. 1wb/cm2
A. 𝑚
𝐻 C. 1mwb/cm2
B. D. 1wb/mm2
𝑚
𝑙
C. 𝑚 Ans. A
𝐻
Ans. B largest mmf
A. coil
23
B. silicon steel
B. total flux
coil varies with
C. area/length
is__________ Ans. B
A. 1
C. mmf
A. 300
D. none of above
material?
Ans. A
24
Ans. A
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. D

Ans. D D. Non above
Ans. C
object is
B. thumb Ans. D
25
Ans. B
B. Inductance
Ans. C A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
B. Lenz‟s law
Ans. A A. Changing
B. Increasing
A. Mutual Ans. D
B. Self
C. Dynamic
D. Static
26
Ans. D
A. Volt A. MMF
C. Henry C. Voltage
D. Linkages D. Flux
Ans. C Ans. B
B. Ampere A. Sum
Ans. A D. ratio
Ans. D
Ans. D
𝑁𝐼
𝑙
A. MMF
is_________
B. EMF
A. Volt
C. Flux linkage
B. Ampere/ Volt
C. Henry
Ans. D
D. Linkages
Ans. C
A. –L dI/dt
B. MdI / dt
represents
C. N2 Ф2/ I1
A. Mutual induction
D. NФ/I
Ans. C
27
D. Induced emf
induction, e=
A. –NdФ/dt 𝑙
B. MdI / dt
B. Surface area
A. Ф1/Ф2 Ans. C
B. Ф2/Ф1
A. steady
A. N l
A. Ф D. NI / ℓ
B. dФ/dt Ans. D
C. NФ
1
A. 𝐸 = 2 𝐶𝐼 2
Que. B. 𝐸 = 2 𝐿𝐼 2
as______ 1
1
C. Flux linkage
Ans. B
28
Ans. A
1
1
2
Ans. B
𝐾
1 2
𝑀 A. L1+L2+2M
C. 𝐾 = B. L1+L2-2M
𝐿1 𝐿2
D. 𝐾 = 𝑀𝑥 𝐿1 𝐿2 C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. C
Ans. A
coupling is….
A. less than 1
B. More than 1
inductance is……
C. equal to 1
A. L1+L2+2M
D. equal to zero
B. L1+L2-2M
Ans. C
C. L1+L2+M
D. L1+L2-M
Ans. B
coupling is….
A. less than 1
C. equal to 1
D. equal to zero
29
B. 270000 AT ring is_____
C. 1500 AT A. 5000AT
D. 7500 AT B. 7200AT
Ans. C C. 750AT
D. 7500 AT
A. 40 mH
A. 2000 AT D. 25 mH
B. 200 AT Ans. A
C. 20 AT
A. 0V D. 25 mH
B. 1.26V Ans. B
C. 0.18V
A. 1.12 J D. 0.4A
B. 0.14 J Ans. C
C. 0.56 J
current is
30
A. 3.75 A B. 0.7×106 AT/Wb
B. 3. 75 mA C. 6×107 AT/Wb
D. 37.5 mA Ans. B
Ans. B
A. 0V D. 106mwb
B. 1.26V Ans. C
C. 0.63V
A. 0.3125N Ans. B
B. 3.125N
A. 225 AT/m
must be D. 375 AT/m
A. 130.3mm Ans. D
B. 13.33cm
A. 663.48 x 104 AT/wb
31
mwb__________ B. 4 N
A. 13x103 AT C. 0.4 N
C. 13x102AT Ans. A
D. none of these
is___________ C. 53N
D. 75N
A. 1.67 x 106 AT/Wb Ans. D
B. 16.7 x 106 AT/Wb
D. 1.67 x 104 AT/Wb
Ans. A
A. 373N
B. 0
C. 53N
D. 75N
Ans. b
___
A. 707.714 x 103 AT/Wb
B. 70.77 x 103 AT/Wb
C. 707.714 x 104 AT/Wb
D. 7.07 x 104 AT/Wb
Ans. A
A. 2.5A
B. 3.53 mA
C. 2.8A
D. none of these
Ans. D
A. 0V
B. 1.26V
C. 0.18V
D. 0.88V
Ans. A
A. 3 x 10-5wb
B. 2 x 10-3wb
C. 1.5 x 10-2wb
D. 2.5 x 10-4wb
Ans. B
32
A. 60 J A. 0.53H
B. 30 J B. 0.169H
C. 15 J C. 0.011H
D. 13.33 J D. 0.0188H
Ans. C Ans. C
A. 0.9 J B. 20 V
B. 0.45 J C. 10V
C. 450J D. 5V
D. 18 J Ans. A
Ans. B

C. 225 J Ans. D
D. 450 J
__________
is…. Ans. B
A. 0.245
A. Motor
33
D. Transistor
of__________
winding. C. Power
B. Secondary Ans. B
C. Tertiary
A. Low resistance
A. Primary Ans. B
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
A. Physically
A. Decreases Ans. D
B. increases
as_________
34
D. all of the above
used for__________
D. (N1xN2)/N2
for___________
Ans. C B. step-up
C. Isolation
core__________ Ans. B
Ans. A A. step-down
B. step-up
B. Magnetic circuit
Ans. B called____
35
Ans. C
C. Auto Ans. C
D. Control
has__________
has__________
B. 60 to 75 % Ans. B
C. 80 to 90 %
side
D. 0 C. E= 4.44 Bm f N
Ans. D
36
C. I2/I1 A. kW
D. V1/V2 B. kVA
Ans. A C. kV
D. kWh
D. 1 will_________
Ans. D A. Be halved
B. Not change
B. 1
Ans. A A. 1 to 3%
B. 3 to 9 %
B. 1
D. 0 provide_______
B. Frequency
B. Always the same
37
Ans. B is______________
reduce Ans. D
Ans. C
A. 1
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
B. Ans. B
A. Voltage
D. B. Power
C. current
Ans. A
D. None of these
Ans. B
B.
V 1 I 1 Cos∅
D. none of these
D. 𝑉 𝐼
Ans. A
38
when___________ Ans. D
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. D Ans. B
39
Ans. C D. infinity
Ans. D
because__________
constant Ans. D
Ans. C
Ans. B
40
Ans. A
Ans. B
B. friction loss pf
Ans. B
inductively coupled
A. iron core Ans. B
B. copper winding
A. low
41
B. unity
be_____________ Ans. B
A. constant
Ans. C A. second
B. first
A. exactly equal
Ans. A C. Conductor
D. Semiconductor
Ans. D C. C2V/2
D. CV
to_____________
D. 50 Hz ac
A. 0.8 pf lead
42
capacitor
Ans. C
Ans. C
Ans. A C. neutral
D. supercharged
43
Ans. D voltage
A. E = D/𝝐
true?
the range
A. Henry
B. Ohm
A. Glass Ans. C
B. Vaccum
Ans. C is given by
A. ν = Ve-t/λ
44
B. paper
medium Ans. D
A. permeability
Ans. B B. paper
C. mica
B. 63.2, initial
A. 8.854 x 10-9 F/m Ans. C
B. 8.854 x 10-10 F/m
given by „ B. 63
A. 1 C. 42
B. 10 D. 73
C. 100 Ans. A
D. 1000
A. Farad/sq-m
Ans. B on_________________
A. moisture content
45
Ans. B
Ans. C D. Coulomb
Ans. D
C. 8.854 × 10−12 A. 4C
Ans. B C. 3C/4
D. C
C. One Joule/ Volt
Ans. B B. 1/QC
C. Q2/2C
B. potential
C. charge
46
Ans. A C. 909.0 Amp
D. 9.09 Amp
D. C= Єr A / d A. 16/9
Ans. C B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 9/16
Ans. D
UNIT IIIB
A. 400 Watt A. 3200 W and 2500 W
B. 100 Watt B. 3200 W and 5200 W
C. 200 Watt C. 1600 W and 1250 W
D. 50 Watt D. 1600 W and 5000 W
Ans. B Ans. D
C. 250 W C. 15A
Ans. D Ans. A

current is____________ A. 10
A. 909.09 Amp B. 5
B. 90.90 Amp C. 0.1
C. 9.09 Amp D. 9
Ans. C
47
A. 2.6%
B. 2.67%
is ________ Ans. A
A. 200 W
Ans. C A. 2.5 µF
B. 40 µF
should be________
C. 400 A. 10 µF
D. 1250 B. 2 µF
Ans. A C. 25 µF
D. none of these
C. 375 will be________________
D. 429 A. 100 V
Ans. B B. 200 V
C. 150 V
B. 33.03 amp is___________________________
C. 30.3 amp A. 0.4 F
D. 0.303 amp B. 0.2 F
Ans. A C. 3.2 F
D. 0.8 F
48
A. 8 S B. 900 µC
B. 3 S C. 1200 µC
C. 6 S D. 1600 µC
D. 2.4 S Ans. C
Ans. B
________________ C. 5 × 10−5 𝐹/𝑀
A. 3 µF D. 9 × 105 𝐹/𝑀
B. 6 µF Ans. A
C. 12 µF
combination
is________.
A. 10 F C. C1 C2
B. 10 µF D. 1/ C1 C2
C. 100 µF Ans. B
D. 1000 µF
D. 8 Joule Ans. B
Ans. D
49
Ans. D is______.
A. 0.1sec
A. 10 sec Ans. C
B. 0.1 sec
is____________. C. 8.854 mF
A. 1mA D. 8.854 F
B. 0.1 mA Ans. A
C. 0.01mA
D. 1.00A
A. 36V B. 8 mC
B. 36.6V C. 8 nC
C. 63.2V D. 8 pC
D. 63 V Ans. A
Ans. C
A. 1A A. 0.000295 x 10-6 F
B. 10A B. 0.00295 x 10-6 F
C. 0.01A C. 0.0295 x 10-6 F
D. 0.1A D. 0. 295 x 10-6 F
Ans. D Ans. B
50
B. Henery Ans. B
C. Farad
Ans. D on
A. 4C Ans. A
B. C/4
B. C = Є0 d / A
B. electric field
be_________.
Ans. A
capacitor is ___________ A. 3.54 x 10-12 F
A. 1/2QC B. 35.4 x 10-12 F
B. 1/QC C. 3.54 x 10-10 F
C. Q2/2C D. 3.54 x 10-11 F
D. Q/2C Ans. A
Ans. C
B. 7.5 µF is___________
51
Ans. D
is__________
A. 71 turns
B. 75 turns
D. 923 turns
Ans. A
A. 25.22 mwb
A. 1.25 Tesla
B. 22.52 mwb
B. 1.52 Tesla
C. 52.22 mwb
C. 1.3 Tesla
D. none of these
Ans. B
Ans. A
A. 16.516 x 10–3 m2
winding________
A. 600 turns B. 61.516 x 10–3 m2
B. 900 turns C. 26.516 x 10–3 m2
C. 300 turns D. 62.516 x 10–3 m2
D. 450 turns Ans. A
Ans. B
52
A. 99%
is_____
is___________ Ans. A
A. 96.97%
A. 98.13% Ans. B
B. 98.73%
C. 99%
D. none of these
Ans. B

Ans. B Ans. C
53
C. 𝑖 = 100 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡
A. Im/√2
C. Im/2 𝜋
D. Im/π
A. Im/π C. 200 A, 100 Hz
B. 2Im/π D. 200 A, 25 Hz
C. zero Ans. A
D. Im/2
is________second. B. 90°
A. 0.05 C. 135°
B. 0.005 D. 60°
C. 0.0005 Ans. B
D. 0.5
because_______
A. 1.01 magnitude
Ans. B appliances
Ans. A
54
B. 0.1 second
C. electroplating
A. √3 A
B. 2 A
A. friction
D. crystal Ans. C
Ans. D
C. four Ans. B
D. eight
A. 50 Hz C. 63.7 V
B. 25 Hz D. 100 V
C. 100 Hz Ans. C
D. 75 Hz
D. 5 V Ans. B
Ans. B
55
be_______ is___________
A. 𝜋
𝐼𝑚
Ans. C
Ans. B
Ans. A
C. 141.4 V are____________
D. 121.4 V A. 314.16 Hz, 60°
Ans. C B. 60Hz, 60°
C. 50 Hz, 60°
𝜋 Ans. C
respectively_______
A. 141.42 V, 314.16 Hz, 90°
Then__________
B. 100 V, 100 Hz, -90°
C. 87.92 V, 56 Hz, 90°
D. 100 V,50 Hz, -90°
same time
Ans. D
same time
D. all of the above
Ans. D
instant
instant
A. 7.07 A
B. 14.14 A
zero value
C. 10 A
D. none of these
D. 28.28 A
Ans. C
56
Ans. B B. +1
C. -1
D. 2
Ans. A
A. 50∠60°
Ans. D is________
A. I2m/2
A. 90° Ans. A
B. 180°
Ans. C A. 1.414
B. 1.11
A. more than Ans. B
B. less than
A. 0.4 × 2 A
B. 0.4 ÷ 2 A
as_____dc
A. +1 C. 70.7 V
1 Ans. C
C.
2
B. square
A. zero Ans. B
57
Ans. D Ans. B
A. 1.11 A. 127.4V
B. 1.414 B. 141.4V
C. 2 C. 282.8V
D. 1.5 D. 200V
Ans. B Ans. A
A. 15V A. 70.7A
B. 15 × 2 V B. 141.4A
C. 15/ 2 V C. 150A
Ans. A Ans. B
Ans. B
C. 40 Hz value?
58
Ans. A A. 0.05 S
B. 0.005 S
value? Ans. B
B. triangular wave
C. sine wave
D. square wave
Ans. A
B. 0.707Imax be_________
C. 0.9Imax A. 5V
D. 1.414Imax B. 12.5V
Ans. B C. 25V
D. 43.8V
Ans. C B. 222V
C. 282V
A. 0.636Emax
Ans. A A. 141.4
B. 200
A. 50√2 A, 100 Hz
D. 70.7 A, 50 Hz ______degrees.
Ans. C A. 90
B. 60
C. 45
59
D. 30 A. 200 Hz
Ans. C B. 100 Hz
C. 60 Hz
Ans. B
value Ans. D
A. 42.42 sin 314𝑡
A. 230V,50 Hz
B. sine wave Ans. A
60
Ans. A
minute B. about 2 A
point in one second
𝜋
6
A. 60 sin 25𝑡 B. 41.38 Hz, 25 A
B. 60 sin 50𝑡 C. 41.38 Hz, 50 A
C. 84.84 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡 D. 82.76 Hz, 25 A
D. 42.42 𝑠𝑖𝑛314𝑡. Ans. A
Ans. C
Ans. C Ans. A
𝜋
A. 2 C. 100 Hz
B. π D. 0.02 Hz
C. 2π Ans. B
D. 4π
61
Ans. C A. phase
B. time
always D. all above
A. zero Ans. C
B. unity
C. infinity
Ans. B

A. circular
B. sinusoidally
C. rectangular
D. triagular
Ans. B
A. clockwise B. T/2
C. circular D. T/4
D. all above Ans. D
Ans. B
Que.
A. rms
B. average
C. rectangular
D. polar
Ans. A
_______
A. T
B. T/2
diagram.
C. 3T/4
A. Same
D. T/4
B. Different
Ans. C
C. multiple
D. all above
Ans. A
A. zero
62
Ans. B
A. zero B. unity
B. positive C. zero
C. negative D. π/2
Ans. C
C. Lengths
D. both a and b
B. length Ans. B
C. phase
A. in phase
63
A. leading A. time
C. inphase C. sign
Ans. A Ans. B
A. leading A. base
B. lagging B. range
Ans. B Ans. C
Ans. A
C. minus B. phase
D. dot C. direction
Ans. C D. line
Ans. B
D. picture
64
Ans. B D. XL=ωC
Ans. A
A. 30 A. Farad
B. 60 B. Henry
C. 90 C. Ohm
D. 120 D. Joule
Ans. C Ans. C
A. high A. phase
B. low B. sign
Ans. C Ans. C
DC frequency.
Ans. B Ans. B
Ans. C Ans. C
B. inductor A. lags
C. starter B. leads
Ans. B D. all above
Ans. B
65
B. 60 A. XC=1/ωC
C. 90 B. XC=1/2𝝅C
D. 120 C. XC=1/ΦC
Ans. A
Ans. A Ans. D
to DC ______
Ans. C Ans. C

Ans. C Ans. A
A. sine B. phase
D. sawtooth Ans. C
Ans. A
A. resistor A. 8
B. capacitor B. 10
C. starter C. 12
D. circuit D. 20
Ans. B Ans. C
66
A. 0+j0 A. fL
B. 6+j12 B. πfL
C. -6-j12 C. 2 πfL
Ans. A Ans. C
Ans. B
time B. 90,90
time D. 270,90
D. none of these
____
is _____ B. unity
67
Ans. C A. 2.8 A
B. 2 A
B. is negative
Ans. C A. zero
B. unity
Ans. A direction
A. 90
A. 45 Ans. C
B. 90
Ans. A B. imaginary
C. in-phase
68
a_____
then_____
Ans. C Ans. B
B. -j2 A. 360
C. -2 B. 180
D. 2 C. 90
Ans. C D. 0
Ans. B
C. 1 A degrees.
D. 1.33 A A. approx.180
C. approx. 60
A. 100 -60
Ans. C degrees
A. 15
A. 4-j3 C. 60
B. -4-j3 D. 105
C. 4+j3 Ans. D
69
is less degrees
is more Ans. B
cycle
Ans. C except
C. pure capacitive
C. pure capacitive
degrees
70
Ans. B
Ans. C Ans. A
same time C. peak
same time Ans. A
D. all of above
Ans. D directions
by ___
D. are sinusoidal
71
I
correct?
A. PF is unity
V
C. pure capacitance
is equal to Ans. B
A. zero
voltage between
voltage B. -1 and 1
Ans. D Ans. A

to UNIT IVB
Ans. C B. 10 KHz
C. 10 Hz
______ampere.
V A. 7.07
B. 6.37
C. 5
C. pure capacitance
is________V.
72
A. 84.84 C. 100V
B. 77.82 D. 173.2V
C. 94.68 Ans. C
D. 89.15
line?
A. 254.6 C. 2 A
B. 282.6 D. 3 A
C. 400 Ans. B
D. 565.5
Volt is ________
𝜋
A. 400 π C. 61.2371 35.3553
400 D. 70.710+ j30
B. 𝜋 Ans. B
1
C. 400
D. 400
sin(100πt+π/6) Volt is ________
Ans. B A. 61.2371+j35.3553
B. 70.7106 30
A. 0.02 second
C. 0.04 second is _______
D. 0.05 second A. 57.99
Ans. C B. 47.1699
C. 60
A. 100π
D. 5π I1/I2 =________
Ans. A A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A
B. 2150 A
A. 50V
B. 82.8V
73
____
A. 0 P P
+
+
B. 3.14 W v
C. 0.5 W 0
i

D. 1 W    t
2 2
Ans. A
- -
P P

i
Ans. C

0
 t
UNIT IVC
supply_________
P P
D. 250 W
+ +
Ans. B
v
i 
 
0

2
t
𝜋
2
-
P
-
P A. 40π
T
40
B. 𝜋
C. 40
Ans. B
current are____
74
A. 16.36 A, 17.07 A D. 10
B. 10 A, 17.07 A Ans. A
C. 10 A, 12.25 A
I1+I2 =________ C. 250 W
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A D. 100 W
B. 5.55964.924 A Ans. A
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A
I1-I2 =________ B. 20 ohms
A. 5.5596+ j4.924 A C. 5 ohms
B. 5.5596 4.924 A D. 2.5 ohms
C. 7.296+ j12.58 A Ans. C
C. one-half Ans. A
D. one-third
is______ A. 10 kW
A. -24+j14 B. 1 kW
B. 24-j14 C. 500 W
C. -38-j34 D. 250 W
D. -24-j14 Ans. C
Ans. C
A. 62.8 A. 2000
B. 628 B. 500
C. 0.2 C. 250
75
D. 4000 A. 5 A
Ans. D B. 3.18 A
C. 1.57 A
B. 0.1 second
1
A. 900
C. 700
A. 25 A D. 600
B. 12.5 A Ans. D
C. 50 A
1
A. 150 V B. 100 S
1
B. 216.5 V C. 300 S
C. 125 V 1
D. 108.25 V D. 600 S
Ans. B Ans. C

be_________
76
Basic electrical engineering
UNIT - 3
1 - MARKS
PART A (SINGLE PHASE TRANSFORMERS)

Q.1) Alternating voltages can be raised or lowered with the help of ----------
A) generator
B) transformer
C) induction motor
D) universal motor
Q.02) A transformer is a ------- device
A) a.c.
B) d.c.
C) both a.c.and d.c.
D) none of these
Q.03) A transformer works on the principle of -------
A) Faraday's law
B) Mutual induction
C) Self induction
D) superposition
Q.04) The flux in the transformer core is --------
A) rotating
B) partly rotating
C) partlyalternating
D) purely alternating
Q.05) Generally ------- is used for laminations of a transformer core
A) high grade silicon steel
B) copper
C) iron
D) manganin
Q.06) In a core type transformer ----------
A) the core encircles the winding
B) the winding enircles the core
C) the limb encirles the yoke
D) none of the above
Q.07) -------- Coils are generally used in core type construction
A) single layor
B) sandwich
C) cylinderical
D) PVC
Q.08) An ideal transformer does not change --------
A) voltage
B) current
C) power
Q.09) The value of flux used in an e.m.f.equation of a transformer is -------
A) r.m.s.
B) average
C) maximum
D) instantaneous
Q.10) An ideal transformer is the one having--------
A) no losses
B) zero resistance winding
C) zero leakage flux
D) all of these
Q.11) For a 250/25 V transformer having 1 kVA Rating, the ull load primary current is --
------
A) 40A
B) 4A
C) 0.4A
D) 0.04A
Q.12) In a step-up transformer ------- remain constant
A) voltage
B) current
C) power
D) none of these
Q.13) An isolation transformer has turns ratio of ---------
A) 1:10
B) 10:1
C) 1:1
D) none of these
Q.14)A high voltage side is ----------
A) low current , low impendance side
B) high current, low impendance side
C) low current, high impendance side
Q.15) For leading power factor loads, the regulation of transformer is --------
A) possitive
B) negative
C) zero
D) unity
Q.16) For better performance of transformer, the regulation must be --------
A) high
B) infinite
C) very low
D) none of these
Q.17) If the transformer regulation is positive, ------------ load is a connected to the
transformer
A) capacitive
B) inductive
C) resistive
D) none of these
Q.18) Losses which do not occur in transformer are ---------
A) copper losses
B) magnetic losses
C) friction losses
D) none of these
Q.19) The cor losses are dissipated in form of ---------
A) heat
B) magnetic hum
C) light
D) electric energy
Q.20) Which losses is variable in transformer?
A) Eddy current
B) Copper
C) Hysteresis
D) Friction
Q.21) A transformer has 200 W iron loss at full load. The iron loss at half full load is -----
------
A) 100W
B) 200W
C) 400W
D) 300W
Q.22) Regulation and efficiency of a transformer should be respectivel;y ----------
A) high, high
B) high, low
C) low, high
D) low, low
Q.23) In direct loading test, the wattmeter on load side reads 225W while the wattmeter
on supply side reads 250W then the transformer efficiency is---------
A) 90%
B) 80%
C) 95%
D) 98%
Q.24) As the load current increases, the regulation of the transformer ----------
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) remains same
D) None of these
Q.26) In a transformer electrical power is transformed from one cirtcuit to another
without change in the ----------
A) voltage
B) current
C) frequency
D) none of these
Q.27) The dc supply is not used for the transformer as ----------
A) eddy current losses are more
B) hysteresis losses are more
C) d.c. winding resistance is very high.
D) burning of winding due to high current is possible.
Q.28) -----------coils are generally used in shell type construction.
A) single layer
B) sandwich
C) cylindrical
D) PVC
Q.29) ------------construction is used for high voltage transformers.
A) Berry type
B) Core type
C) Shell type
D) None of this.
Q.30) For 400 V/ 100 V transformer, the secondary turns are 16 then the primary turns
are-----------
A) 4
B) 64
C) 16
D) 8
Q.31) The losses which vary with load in power transformer are ---------
A) friction and windage losses
B) copper losses
C) eddy current losses
D) hysteresis losses
Q.32) Which losses is not common between rotating machines and transformer?
A) Copper loss
B) Eddy current loss
C) Core loss
D) Friction loss
Q.33) The full load copper loss for a transformer is 800 W, then the copper loss at half
the full load is---------------
A) 200W
B) 800W
C) 400W
D) 1600W
PART B (ELECTROSTATICS) (1 marks)

Q.26) The branch dealing with electricity at rest is called --------
A) electromagnetic
B) electro mechanics
C) electrostatics
D) magneto statics
Q.27) ------- is true for electric line force.
A) They intersect each other at regular interval
B) They form a closed loop
C) They can pass only through intersecting medium
D) They can enter charged bodies and pass through them
Q.28) The electric flux density is also called--------
A) displacement density
B) conduction density
C) magnetic flux density
D) volume charge density
Q.29) The electric field intensity at a point is -------
A) F/Q
B) Q/F
C) B/Q
D) 1/2 VQ
Q.30) The ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to establish in it
is ---------
A) permeability
B) permittivity
C) permeance
D) persistance
Q.31) The ratio of electric flux density to electric field intensity at any point is called -----
---
A) absolute permittvity
B) relative permittivity
C) permittivity of free space
D) none of these
Q.32) The relative permittivity also called -------- of the material.
A) dielectric constant
B) dielectric strenght
C) breakdown voltage
D) coloumb's constant
Q.33) The units of -------- are same.
A) electric field strength, potential difference
B) electric field strength, potential gradient
C) electric field strngth, electric flux density
D) electric flux density, potential gradient
Q.34) Two conducting surfaces separated by a dielectric medium is called---------
A) capacitor
B) dipole
C) capacitance
D) inductance
Q.35) Capacitance of the capacitor is the ratio of ---------
A) p.d. between the plates and charge
B) charge and p.d. between the plates
C) charge and spacing between plates
D) p.d. and thickness of dielectric
Q.36) The ability of an insulating medium to resist its breakdown is called as ------
B) dielectric strength
C) relative permittivity
D) insulation resistance
Q.37) The dielectric strength is measured in ---------
A) kV/N
B) V/C
C) kV/cm
D) F/m
Q.38) --------is the factor affecting dielectric strength.
A) Presence of air pockets in material
B) Molecular arrangement of material
C) moisture content
D) All of these
Q.39) Three capacitance connected in series have equivalent capacitance of 2 uF. If one
of the capacitors is removed the effective capacitance between 3uF then the value of
capacitance is removed is --------uF
A) 6
B) 3/2
C) 2/3
D) cannot be determined
Q.40) If the p.d. between the plates is increased by 10% then energy stored in the
capacitor increased by ------%
A) 11
B) 10
C) 2.1
D) 21
Q.41) As capacitor charges, voltage across it --------
A) decreases exponentially
B) increases instantly
C) increases exponentially
D) decreases instantly
Q.42) Initially capacitor acts as -------.
A) open circuit
B) short circuit
C) breakdown
D) none of these
Q.43) A charging time constant of RC circuit is time required by the capacitor voltage to
rise from---------.
A) 0 to 90% of final value
B) 0 to 36.8% of fi9nal value
C) 0 to 63.2% of final value
D) none of these
Q.44) The force between two charges can be obtained by -------.
A) Joule's law
B) Faraday's law
C) Coulomb’s law
D) Lenz's law
Q.45) As charge capacitor discharge through resistance R ---------.
A) The voltage increases, current decreases
B) The voltage increases, current decreases
C) The voltage decreases , current decreases
D) The voltage decreases current incrases
Q. 46) When a capacitor C is charged through resistance R then the initial rate of rise of
capacitor voltage is -------.
A) VRC
B) V/RC
C) VR/C
D) VC/R
Q.47) In the steady state, the capacitor act as -------.
A) open circuit
B) short circuit
C) breakdown
D) none of these
Q.48) Three capacitors each of capacitance C and breakdown voltage V are connected in
parallel then the equivalent capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination is -----
------.
A) 3C, V/3
B) C/3, 3V
C) 3C, 3V
D) 3C, V
Q.49) --------- is used as dielectric in a capacitor.
A) copper
B) Aluminium
C) Paper
D) Carbon
Q.50) The unit of capacitance is ---------.
A) Farad
B) Henry
C) Hertz
D) Farad/m
Q.51) Electric charge interaction can be summarized by-------------
A) – charge repels other - charge
B) + charge repels other + charge
C) – charge and + charge attract to each other
D) All of these.
Q.52) The permittivity is----------
A) the ease with which magnetic flux passes through dielectric medium
B) the ease with which current can pass through the given material
C) the ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to established in it
D) none of these
Q.53) The absolute permittivity is measured in------------
A) H/m
B) A/m
C) F/m
D) N/m
Q.54) Two capacitors 3 µF and 6µF are in series then the equivalent capacitance is--------
A) 9 µF
B) 4.5 µF
C) 2 µF
D) 1 µF
Q.55) The energy stored in capacitor is given by------------
A) ½ CV
B) ½ QV
C) ½ QV2
D) ½ C/V
Q.56) The energy stored in capacitor is given by-----------------
A) ½ CV
B) ½ CV2
C) V/2C
D) C2/2V
Q.57) A capacitor is charged to 100 mC and the energy stored is 10 J trhen the voltage
across capacitor is-----------------
A) 100 V
B) 1kV
C) 200 V
D) 2 kV
2-MARKS
PART A (SINGAL PHASE TRANSFORMER)
Q.1) For a transformer, the induced emf on primery is 199.8V with 50turns at 50Hz
frequency then the maximum flux in the core is------
A) 79.92mWb
B) 18mWb
C) 18Wb
D) 0.99Wb
Q.2) For a 250/25V transformer having 1kVA rating, the full load primery current is-----
A) 40A
B) 4A
C) 0.4A
D) 0.04A
Q.3) If an ammeter in the secondary of 100/10V. The ratio of current in the primery to
that in secondary is----
A) 1
B) 100
C) 0.01
D) 0.1
Q.4) For 10kVA, 2000/200 V transformer, the half load secondary current is-----
A) 50A
B) 5A
C) 25A
D) 10A
Q.5) A transformer has secondary full load current of 10A & secondary no load induced
emf of 200V then its kVA rating is------
A) 2000
B) 200
C) 2
D) 20
Q.6) For a transformer, the turns ratio is 10:1 then its primery resistance of 10 ohm will
be----when referred to secondary.
A) 1ohm
B) 0.1ohm
C) 0.01ohm
D) 10ohm
Q.7) A transformer has primary leakage reactance of 10ohm & secondary leakage
reactance of 0.8ohm while its transformation is 0.25 then equivalent leakage reactance
referred to primary is-----ohm
A) 10.05
B) 1.425
C) 12.8
D) 10
Q.8) The no load voltage of transformer is 400V while its drops to 395V on full load then
its regulation is----%
A) 1.265
B) 12.65
C) -1.265
D) 135.25
Q.9) A transformer has a full load regulation of -2% & its no load voltage is 120V then
its full load voltage is------
A) 122.55
B) 122.45
C) 160
D) 135.25
Q.10) A transformer has 200 W iron loss at full load. The iron loss at half full load is ----
-------
A) 100W
B) 200W
C) 400W
D) 300W
Q.11) IF copper loss of transformer at 1/4th full load is100watt,then itsfull load copper
loss would be ------
A) 100W
B) 400W
C) 1600W
D) 800W
Q.12) A transformer has minimum efficiency at full load when iron losses are 1600W
then its half load copper losses are-----
A) 1600W
B) 400W
C) 6400W
D) none of thes
Q.13) R.M.S. value of the induced emf per turn in transformer is----------
A) 4.44 fфm
B) 4фm
C) 2фm
D) fфm
Q.14) A transformer has primary impedance of 2 ohms and secondary impedance of 4
ohms while its transformation ratio is 2 then its equivalent impedance reffered to
secondary is------------ ohms
A) 12
B) 3
C) 18
D) 4.5
Q.15) The expression for the eddy current loss is---------------
A) KeBmf2t2
B) KeBm2ft2
C) KeBm1.67f2t2
D) KeB2mf2t2
Q.16) For maximum efficiency-------
A) Cu losses > iron losses
B) Cu losses < iron losses
C) Cu losses = iron losses
D) Cu losses must be zero
Q.17) The advantage of autotransformer is--------
A) gives highly stable voltage
B) Cu saving
C) Efficiency is 100%
D) none of these
PART B (ELECTROSTATICS)
Q.13) The electric field intensity is also measured in -----
A) c/m
B) c/m2
C) N/C
D) N/m2C
Q.14) -----represents electric field intensity
A) V/Q
B) Q/F
C) B/Q
D) 1/2VQ
Q.15) The value of є0 is-----F/m
A) 8.854 x 10-10
B) 8.854 x 10-12
C) 6.657 x 10-12
D) 8.854 x 1012
Q.16) If Q 1=Q2=1C & distance between them is 1m then the force between them is----N
A) 9 x 1010
B) 9 x 109
C) 1/(9 x 109)
D) 0.1 x 1011
Q.17) The capacitor is charged to 10V & its capacitance is 1µF then charge on it is ----
A) 10µC
B) 10nC
C) 10C
D) 1µC
Q.18) A capacitor uses the plates of area 25cm2 & distance between the plates is 5cm.
Then its capacitance with air as a dielectric is ----
A) 0.4427µF
B) 0.4427pF
C) 0.4427nF
D) 0.4427F
Q.19) A capacitor of 10µF as a charge of 1mC. If the distance between the plates is 1cm
then the electric field intensity between the plates is----
A) 10kV/m
B) 10V/m
C) 0.1V/m
D) 8.854kV/m
Q.20) For a 5µF capacitor, distance between the plates is 0.5cm & the electric field
intensity is 20kV/m then the charge on capacitor is
A) 5µC
B) 0.5µC
C) 5nC
D) 0.5mC
Q.21) A capacitor uses a dielectric of єr=2. It is charge to 500V & distance between the
plates is 10cm then the electric flux density between the plates is -----nC/m2
A) 0.8854
B) 88.54
C) 8.854
D) 0.008854
Q.23) The p.d. between the plates of a 5µF capacitor with a charge of a 2mC on it is ----V
A) 200
B) 100
C) 400
D) 4000
Q.24) A 2µF capacitor connected in a circuit has 1 plate at +ve 6V &the other plate -6V.
The charge on the –ve plate of capacitor is -----µC
A) +12
B) -12
C) +24
D) -24
Q.25) 3 capacitors each of capacitance C & breakdown voltage V are connected in series
then the capacitance & breakdown voltage of the combination is ----
A) 3C,V/3
B) C/3,3V
C) 3C,3V
D) C/3,V/3
Q.26) A capacitor with air has a dielectric has a capacitance of C farads with separation
of plates as ‘d’. If a dielectric of εr =2 is introduced with thickness 0.2d then the new
capacitance is---------
A) 1.111C
B) 0.9C
C) C
D) 2C
Q.27) Ten Identical capacitors, each of value 2 F are connected in series and this series
stored any one of the 2 F capacitors is--------.
A) 1 J
B) 2 J
C) 5 J
D) 10 J
Q.28) When fully charged capacitor ot v is discharged through R, the expression for the
capacitor voltage is ---------.
A) V/RCe-t/RC
B) –V/Re-t/RC
C) V/Re-t/RC
D) Ve-t/RC/RC
Q.29) Two charges of 1µC and 3µC are separated by a distance of 1mm in vacuum then
the force between is--------N.
A) 26.963 * 103
B) 26.963
C) 3*103
D) 9*103
Q.30) The voltage across capacitor of 5 µF is 66 V after 3 sec when charged from 200 V
source then the value of resistance in series with the capacitor is approximately is --------
MΩ.
A) 1.5
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10
ANSWERS
1.B 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.C 10.D
11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.C 16.B 17.B 18.B 19.C 20.B
21.A 22.A 23.A 24.B 25.B 26.C 27.D 28.B 29.C 30.B
PART B
31.B 32.D 33.A 27.C 28.A 29.A 30.B
26.C
31.A 32.A 33.B 34.A 35.B 36.B 37.B 38.D 39.A 40.D
41.B 42.C 43.C 44.C 45.C 46.B 47.A 48.D 49.C 50.A
51.D 52.C 53.C 54.C 55.D 56.C 57.C
2 MARK
1.B
2.B 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.C 8.A 9.B 10.B
11C. 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.D 16.C 17.B
PART B
13.B 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.D
21.B 22.C 23.D 24.B 25.D 26.A 27.A 28.D 29.A 30.A
Basic electrical engineering
UNIT - 3
1 - MARKS
PART A (SINGLE PHASE TRANSFORMERS)

Q.1) Alternating voltages can be raised or lowered with the help of ----------
A) generator
B) transformer
C) induction motor
D) universal motor
Q.02) A transformer is a ------- device
A) a.c.
B) d.c.
C) both a.c.and d.c.
D) none of these
Q.03) A transformer works on the principle of -------
A) Faraday's law
B) Mutual induction
C) Self induction
D) superposition
Q.04) The flux in the transformer core is --------
A) rotating
B) partly rotating
C) partlyalternating
D) purely alternating
Q.05) Generally ------- is used for laminations of a transformer core
A) high grade silicon steel
B) copper
C) iron
D) manganin
Q.06) In a core type transformer ----------
A) the core encircles the winding
B) the winding enircles the core
C) the limb encirles the yoke
Q.07) -------- Coils are generally used in core type construction
A) single layor
B) sandwich
C) cylinderical
D) PVC
Q.08) An ideal transformer does not change --------
A) voltage
B) current
C) power
Q.09) The value of flux used in an e.m.f.equation of a transformer is -------
A) r.m.s.
B) average
C) maximum
D) instantaneous
Q.10) An ideal transformer is the one having--------
A) no losses
B) zero resistance winding
C) zero leakage flux
D) all of these
Q.11) For a 250/25 V transformer having 1 kVA Rating, the ull load primary current is --
------
A) 40A
B) 4A
C) 0.4A
D) 0.04A
Q.12) In a step-up transformer ------- remain constant
A) voltage
B) current
C) power
D) none of these
Q.13) An isolation transformer has turns ratio of ---------
A) 1:10
B) 10:1
C) 1:1
D) none of these
Q.14)A high voltage side is ----------
A) low current , low impendance side
B) high current, low impendance side
C) low current, high impendance side
Q.15) For leading power factor loads, the regulation of transformer is --------
A) possitive
B) negative
C) zero
D) unity
Q.16) For better performance of transformer, the regulation must be --------
A) high
B) infinite
C) very low
D) none of these
Q.17) If the transformer regulation is positive, ------------ load is a connected to the
transformer
A) capacitive
B) inductive
C) resistive
D) none of these
Q.18) Losses which do not occur in transformer are ---------
A) copper losses
B) magnetic losses
C) friction losses
D) none of these
Q.19) The cor losses are dissipated in form of ---------
A) heat
B) magnetic hum
C) light
D) electric energy
Q.20) Which losses is variable in transformer?
A) Eddy current
B) Copper
C) Hysteresis
D) Friction
Q.21) A transformer has 200 W iron loss at full load. The iron loss at half full load is -----
------
A) 100W
B) 200W
C) 400W
D) 300W
Q.22) Regulation and efficiency of a transformer should be respectivel;y ----------
A) high, high
B) high, low
C) low, high
D) low, low
Q.23) In direct loading test, the wattmeter on load side reads 225W while the wattmeter
on supply side reads 250W then the transformer efficiency is---------
A) 90%
B) 80%
C) 95%
D) 98%
Q.24) As the load current increases, the regulation of the transformer ----------
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) remains same
D) None of these
Q.26) In a transformer electrical power is transformed from one cirtcuit to another
without change in the ----------
A) voltage
B) current
C) frequency
D) none of these
Q.27) The dc supply is not used for the transformer as ----------
A) eddy current losses are more
B) hysteresis losses are more
C) d.c. winding resistance is very high.
D) burning of winding due to high current is possible.
Q.28) -----------coils are generally used in shell type construction.
A) single layer
B) sandwich
C) cylindrical
D) PVC
Q.29) ------------construction is used for high voltage transformers.
A) Berry type
B) Core type
C) Shell type
D) None of this.
Q.30) For 400 V/ 100 V transformer, the secondary turns are 16 then the primary turns
are-----------
A) 4
B) 64
C) 16
D) 8
Q.31) The losses which vary with load in power transformer are ---------
A) friction and windage losses
B) copper losses
C) eddy current losses
D) hysteresis losses
Q.32) Which losses is not common between rotating machines and transformer?
A) Copper loss
B) Eddy current loss
C) Core loss
D) Friction loss
Q.33) The full load copper loss for a transformer is 800 W, then the copper loss at half
the full load is---------------
A) 200W
B) 800W
C) 400W
D) 1600W
PART B (ELECTROSTATICS) (1 marks)

Q.26) The branch dealing with electricity at rest is called --------
A) electromagnetic
B) electro mechanics
C) electrostatics
D) magneto statics
Q.27) ------- is true for electric line force.
A) They intersect each other at regular interval
B) They form a closed loop
C) They can pass only through intersecting medium
D) They can enter charged bodies and pass through them
Q.28) The electric flux density is also called--------
A) displacement density
B) conduction density
C) magnetic flux density
D) volume charge density
Q.29) The electric field intensity at a point is -------
A) F/Q
B) Q/F
C) B/Q
D) 1/2 VQ
Q.30) The ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to establish in it
is ---------
A) permeability
B) permittivity
C) permeance
D) persistance
Q.31) The ratio of electric flux density to electric field intensity at any point is called -----
---
A) absolute permittvity
B) relative permittivity
C) permittivity of free space
D) none of these
Q.32) The relative permittivity also called -------- of the material.
B) dielectric strenght
C) breakdown voltage
D) coloumb's constant
Q.33) The units of -------- are same.
A) electric field strength, potential difference
B) electric field strength, potential gradient
C) electric field strngth, electric flux density
D) electric flux density, potential gradient
Q.34) Two conducting surfaces separated by a dielectric medium is called---------
A) capacitor
B) dipole
C) capacitance
D) inductance
Q.35) Capacitance of the capacitor is the ratio of ---------
A) p.d. between the plates and charge
B) charge and p.d. between the plates
C) charge and spacing between plates
D) p.d. and thickness of dielectric
Q.36) The ability of an insulating medium to resist its breakdown is called as ------
B) dielectric strength
C) relative permittivity
D) insulation resistance
Q.37) The dielectric strength is measured in ---------
A) kV/N
B) V/C
C) kV/cm
D) F/m
Q.38) --------is the factor affecting dielectric strength.
A) Presence of air pockets in material
B) Molecular arrangement of material
C) moisture content
D) All of these
Q.39) Three capacitance connected in series have equivalent capacitance of 2 uF. If one
of the capacitors is removed the effective capacitance between 3uF then the value of
capacitance is removed is --------uF
A) 6
B) 3/2
C) 2/3
D) cannot be determined
Q.40) If the p.d. between the plates is increased by 10% then energy stored in the
capacitor increased by ------%
A) 11
B) 10
C) 2.1
D) 21
Q.41) As capacitor charges, voltage across it --------
A) decreases exponentially
B) increases instantly
C) increases exponentially
D) decreases instantly
Q.42) Initially capacitor acts as -------.
A) open circuit
B) short circuit
C) breakdown
D) none of these
Q.43) A charging time constant of RC circuit is time required by the capacitor voltage to
rise from---------.
A) 0 to 90% of final value
B) 0 to 36.8% of fi9nal value
C) 0 to 63.2% of final value
D) none of these
Q.44) The force between two charges can be obtained by -------.
A) Joule's law
B) Faraday's law
C) Coulomb’s law
D) Lenz's law
Q.45) As charge capacitor discharge through resistance R ---------.
A) The voltage increases, current decreases
B) The voltage increases, current decreases
C) The voltage decreases , current decreases
D) The voltage decreases current incrases
Q. 46) When a capacitor C is charged through resistance R then the initial rate of rise of
capacitor voltage is -------.
A) VRC
B) V/RC
C) VR/C
D) VC/R
Q.47) In the steady state, the capacitor act as -------.
A) open circuit
B) short circuit
C) breakdown
D) none of these
Q.48) Three capacitors each of capacitance C and breakdown voltage V are connected in
parallel then the equivalent capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination is -----
------.
A) 3C, V/3
B) C/3, 3V
C) 3C, 3V
D) 3C, V
Q.49) --------- is used as dielectric in a capacitor.
A) copper
B) Aluminium
C) Paper
D) Carbon
Q.50) The unit of capacitance is ---------.
A) Farad
B) Henry
C) Hertz
D) Farad/m
Q.51) Electric charge interaction can be summarized by-------------
A) – charge repels other - charge
B) + charge repels other + charge
C) – charge and + charge attract to each other
D) All of these.
Q.52) The permittivity is----------
A) the ease with which magnetic flux passes through dielectric medium
B) the ease with which current can pass through the given material
C) the ease with which a dielectric medium permits an electric flux to established in it
D) none of these
Q.53) The absolute permittivity is measured in------------
A) H/m
B) A/m
C) F/m
D) N/m
Q.54) Two capacitors 3 µF and 6µF are in series then the equivalent capacitance is--------
A) 9 µF
B) 4.5 µF
C) 2 µF
D) 1 µF
Q.55) The energy stored in capacitor is given by------------
A) ½ CV
B) ½ QV
C) ½ QV2
D) ½ C/V
Q.56) The energy stored in capacitor is given by-----------------
A) ½ CV
B) ½ CV2
C) V/2C
D) C2/2V
Q.57) A capacitor is charged to 100 mC and the energy stored is 10 J trhen the voltage
across capacitor is-----------------
A) 100 V
B) 1kV
C) 200 V
D) 2 kV
2-MARKS
PART A (SINGAL PHASE TRANSFORMER)
Q.1) For a transformer, the induced emf on primery is 199.8V with 50turns at 50Hz
frequency then the maximum flux in the core is------
A) 79.92mWb
B) 18mWb
C) 18Wb
D) 0.99Wb
Q.2) For a 250/25V transformer having 1kVA rating, the full load primery current is-----
A) 40A
B) 4A
C) 0.4A
D) 0.04A
Q.3) If an ammeter in the secondary of 100/10V. The ratio of current in the primery to
that in secondary is----
A) 1
B) 100
C) 0.01
D) 0.1
Q.4) For 10kVA, 2000/200 V transformer, the half load secondary current is-----
A) 50A
B) 5A
C) 25A
D) 10A
Q.5) A transformer has secondary full load current of 10A & secondary no load induced
emf of 200V then its kVA rating is------
A) 2000
B) 200
C) 2
D) 20
Q.6) For a transformer, the turns ratio is 10:1 then its primery resistance of 10 ohm will
be----when referred to secondary.
A) 1ohm
B) 0.1ohm
C) 0.01ohm
D) 10ohm
Q.7) A transformer has primary leakage reactance of 10ohm & secondary leakage
reactance of 0.8ohm while its transformation is 0.25 then equivalent leakage reactance
referred to primary is-----ohm
A) 10.05
B) 1.425
C) 12.8
D) 10
Q.8) The no load voltage of transformer is 400V while its drops to 395V on full load then
its regulation is----%
A) 1.265
B) 12.65
C) -1.265
D) 135.25
Q.9) A transformer has a full load regulation of -2% & its no load voltage is 120V then
its full load voltage is------
A) 122.55
B) 122.45
C) 160
D) 135.25
Q.10) A transformer has 200 W iron loss at full load. The iron loss at half full load is ----
-------
A) 100W
B) 200W
C) 400W
D) 300W
Q.11) IF copper loss of transformer at 1/4th full load is100watt,then itsfull load copper
loss would be ------
A) 100W
B) 400W
C) 1600W
D) 800W
Q.12) A transformer has minimum efficiency at full load when iron losses are 1600W
then its half load copper losses are-----
A) 1600W
B) 400W
C) 6400W
D) none of thes
Q.13) R.M.S. value of the induced emf per turn in transformer is----------
A) 4.44 fфm
B) 4фm
C) 2фm
D) fфm
Q.14) A transformer has primary impedance of 2 ohms and secondary impedance of 4
ohms while its transformation ratio is 2 then its equivalent impedance reffered to
secondary is------------ ohms
A) 12
B) 3
C) 18
D) 4.5
Q.15) The expression for the eddy current loss is---------------
A) KeBmf2t2
B) KeBm2ft2
C) KeBm1.67f2t2
D) KeB2mf2t2
Q.16) For maximum efficiency-------
A) Cu losses > iron losses
B) Cu losses < iron losses
C) Cu losses = iron losses
D) Cu losses must be zero
Q.17) The advantage of autotransformer is--------
A) gives highly stable voltage
B) Cu saving
C) Efficiency is 100%
D) none of these
PART B (ELECTROSTATICS)
Q.13) The electric field intensity is also measured in -----
A) c/m
B) c/m2
C) N/C
D) N/m2C
Q.14) -----represents electric field intensity
A) V/Q
B) Q/F
C) B/Q
D) 1/2VQ
Q.15) The value of є0 is-----F/m
A) 8.854 x 10-10
B) 8.854 x 10-12
C) 6.657 x 10-12
D) 8.854 x 1012
Q.16) If Q 1=Q2=1C & distance between them is 1m then the force between them is----N
A) 9 x 1010
B) 9 x 109
C) 1/(9 x 109)
D) 0.1 x 1011
Q.17) The capacitor is charged to 10V & its capacitance is 1µF then charge on it is ----
A) 10µC
B) 10nC
C) 10C
D) 1µC
Q.18) A capacitor uses the plates of area 25cm2 & distance between the plates is 5cm.
Then its capacitance with air as a dielectric is ----
A) 0.4427µF
B) 0.4427pF
C) 0.4427nF
D) 0.4427F
Q.19) A capacitor of 10µF as a charge of 1mC. If the distance between the plates is 1cm
then the electric field intensity between the plates is----
A) 10kV/m
B) 10V/m
C) 0.1V/m
D) 8.854kV/m
Q.20) For a 5µF capacitor, distance between the plates is 0.5cm & the electric field
intensity is 20kV/m then the charge on capacitor is
A) 5µC
B) 0.5µC
C) 5nC
D) 0.5mC
Q.21) A capacitor uses a dielectric of єr=2. It is charge to 500V & distance between the
plates is 10cm then the electric flux density between the plates is -----nC/m2
A) 0.8854
B) 88.54
C) 8.854
D) 0.008854
Q.23) The p.d. between the plates of a 5µF capacitor with a charge of a 2mC on it is ----V
A) 200
B) 100
C) 400
D) 4000
Q.24) A 2µF capacitor connected in a circuit has 1 plate at +ve 6V &the other plate -6V.
The charge on the –ve plate of capacitor is -----µC
A) +12
B) -12
C) +24
D) -24
Q.25) 3 capacitors each of capacitance C & breakdown voltage V are connected in series
then the capacitance & breakdown voltage of the combination is ----
A) 3C,V/3
B) C/3,3V
C) 3C,3V
D) C/3,V/3
Q.26) A capacitor with air has a dielectric has a capacitance of C farads with separation
of plates as ‘d’. If a dielectric of εr =2 is introduced with thickness 0.2d then the new
capacitance is---------
A) 1.111C
B) 0.9C
C) C
D) 2C
Q.27) Ten Identical capacitors, each of value 2 F are connected in series and this series
stored any one of the 2 F capacitors is--------.
A) 1 J
B) 2 J
C) 5 J
D) 10 J
Q.28) When fully charged capacitor ot v is discharged through R, the expression for the
capacitor voltage is ---------.
A) V/RCe-t/RC
B) –V/Re-t/RC
C) V/Re-t/RC
D) Ve-t/RC/RC
Q.29) Two charges of 1µC and 3µC are separated by a distance of 1mm in vacuum then
the force between is--------N.
A) 26.963 * 103
B) 26.963
C) 3*103
D) 9*103
Q.30) The voltage across capacitor of 5 µF is 66 V after 3 sec when charged from 200 V
source then the value of resistance in series with the capacitor is approximately is --------
MΩ.
A) 1.5
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10
ANSWERS
1.B 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.C 10.D
11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.C 16.B 17.B 18.B 19.C 20.B
21.A 22.A 23.A 24.B 25.B 26.C 27.D 28.B 29.C 30.B
PART B
31.B 32.D 33.A 27.C 28.A 29.A 30.B
26.C
31.A 32.A 33.B 34.A 35.B 36.B 37.B 38.D 39.A 40.D
41.B 42.C 43.C 44.C 45.C 46.B 47.A 48.D 49.C 50.A
51.D 52.C 53.C 54.C 55.D 56.C 57.C
2 MARK
1.B
2.B 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.C 8.A 9.B 10.B
11C. 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.D 16.C 17.B
PART B
13.B 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.D
21.B 22.C 23.D 24.B 25.D 26.A 27.A 28.D 29.A 30.A
UNIT 4
1-MARKS
Q.1) The main advantage of a.c. is --------
A) a.c. motors are expensive
B) the a.c. voltage can be raised or lowered
C) a.c. transmission is very costly
D) none of these
Q.2) The waveforms in which magnitude changes but it’s direction
remains same is called -------.
A) pulsating d.c.
B) alternating
C) pure d.c.
D) none of these
Q.3) The generation of a.c. is according to --------.
A) Faraday’s law
B) Thevenin’s therom
C) Ohm’s law
D) Kirchhoff’s law
Q.4) ------ represents maximum value of alternating e.m.f.
A) BIl
B) Blv
C) BIv
D) lIv
Q.5) Standard alternating e.m.f. is represented as -----.

A) EmtanӨ
B) EmcosӨ
C) EmsinӨ
D) Em2sinӨ
Q.6) The unit of frequency is ------.
A) rad/sec
B) seconds
C) hertz
D) volts
Q.7) Standard alternating e.m.f. achieves it’s positive max. value at Ө=--
---.
A) 450
B) 900
C) 1800
D) 2700
Q.8) The waveform which shows repetition of variations after regular
time interval is called as ------.
A) nonperiodic waveform
B) sawtooth waveform
C) periodic waveform
D) triangular waveform
Q.9) One cycle corresponds to -------.

A) π radians
B) 900
C) π/4 radians
D) 2π radians
Q.10) Amplitude of an alternating quantity is -------.
A) 2*peak to peak value
B) peak to peak value /2
C) r.m.s. value/2
D) 2*avg. value
Q.11) One fourth cycle of 50 Hz waveform corresponds to -------.
A) 10msec
B) 20sec
C) 1sec
D) 5sec
Q.12) The concept of the effective value is based on -----.
A) photoelectric effect
B) heating effect
C) friction
D) none of these
Q.13) The voltage of domestic a.c. supply is 230 volt. This value
represent ------.
A) peak value
B) average value
C) r.m.s. value
D) mean value
Q.14) The voltmeter in a. c. circuit always measures ------- values.
A) average
B) maximum
C) r.m.s
D) none of these
Q.15) The r.m.s. value of an alternating current is 10/√2A then it’s peak
to peak value is --------.
A) 10A
B) 30A
C) 5A
D) 20A
Q.16) For a symmetrical alternating waveform, the avg. value over the
complete cycle is ------.
A) 1
B) √2
C) 0
D) 1/√2
Q.17) The avg. value of sinusoidally varying voltage is ----- then it’s
r.m.s. value
A) more
B) less
C) same as
Q.18) The form factor of purety sinusoidal waveform is -------.
A) 1.11
B) 1.21
C) 1.414
D) √2
Q.19) An alternating current has crest factor of 1.414 and it’s average
value is 10A then it’s r.m.s. value is ------.
A) 4.505
B) 3.185
C) 11.102
D) 7.072
Q.20) A wire carries 5A d,c. and alternating current of 15sinωt A then
the effective value of resultant current is -------.
A) 5A
B) 20A
C) 15√2
D) 11.72
Q.21) Alternating quantities are represented by -----.
A) vectors
B) scalers
C) phasors
D) graphs
Q.22) Phasors always rotate in ------ direction.
A) clockwise
B) anticlockwise
C) vertical
D) horizontal
Q.23) The phase of an alternating quantity varies from --------.
A) 00 to 900
B) 00 to 1800
C) 00 to 3600
D) 1800 to 3600
Q.24) --------- projection phasors represents an instantaneous value of
A) Y axis
B) X axis
C) Z axis
D) none of these
Q.25) An alternating quantity having positive phase has ------ value at
t=0.
A) possitive
B) negative
C) zero
D) infinity
Q.26) An alternating quantity having zero phase has ---------- value at
t=0.
A) positive
B) negative
C) zero
D) infinity
Q.27) an alternating quantity having negative phase has ------ value at
t=0.
A) positive
B) negative
C) zero
D) infinite
Q.28) When two alternating quantities are in phase then their phase
difference ----.
A) 300
B) 900
C) 00
D) 600
Q.29) -------- representation gives r.m.s. value of alternating quantity.
A) phasor
B) polar
C) rectangular
D) none of these
Q.30) The polar form of -3+j4 is -----.
A) 5∠ − 53.130
B) 5∠53.130
C) 5∠-126.860
D) 5∠126.860
Q.31) For addition and subtraction, the phasors must be expressed in ----
- system.
A) rectangular
B) cylinderical
C) polar
D) spherical
Q.32) For multiplication and division, a.c. quantity is represent in ------
system.
A) cylinderical
B) spherical
C) rectangular
D) polar
Q.33) The power factor of pure resistive circuit is ----.
A) 0
B) unity
C) lagging
D) leading
Q.34) In a purely resistive circuit, the avg. Pav is -----. The peak power,
Pmax
A) double
B) one-half of
C) 1/4
D) equal to
Q.35) For a pure resistive circuit, the voltage and current relation is, -----
--.
A) in phase
B) voltage leads current
C) voltage lags current
Q.36) The avg. power consumption in a pure resistance is, -------.
A) VrmsIm
B) VrmsI2rms
C) I2mR
D) VmIm/2
Q.37) The fluctuating component of power consumption is pure resistor,
supplier from v(t)=vmsinωt has a frequency of ----- rad/sec.
A) ω
B) 3ω
C) 2ω
D) ω/2
Q.38) The avg. power consumption in a pure resistance is -------.
A) VmIm
B) VavgIavg
C) VrmsIavg
D) VrmsIrms
Q.39) In a pure inducture the current, -----.
A) lags the voltage by 900
B) leads the voltage by 900
C) in phase with the voltage
D) none of these
Q.40) The inductive reactance of inductor L is ------.
A) directly proportional to the frequency of supply
B) inversely proportional to the frequency of supply
C) inversely proportional to square of the frequency of supply
D) directly proportional to the square of the frequency of supply
Q.41) The avg. power consumption in a pure inductance is -----.
A) maximum
B) minimum
C) zero
D) infinite
Q.42) The power curve for a pure inductor is --------.
A) sine of double frequency
B) cosine of double frequency
C) sin of same frequency as supply
D) none of above
Q.43) In a pure capacitive circuit, the current ------.
A) lags behind voltage by 900
C) remains in phase with voltage
D) none of these
Q.44) The avg. poer consumption in a pure capacitor is -------.
A) zero
B) infinite
C) nagative
D) none of these
Q.45) The relation between frequency and capacitive reactance is -----.
A) square
B) direct
C) inverse
D) linear
Q.46) For a d.c. supply, capacitive reactance is --------.
A) zero
B) infinite
C) one
D) negative
Q.47) The frequency of instantaneous power in a pure capacitive circuit
is ------the frequency of applied voltage
A) twice
B) same as
C) trice
D) half
Q.48) What will be the phase of the current flowing through a pure
capacitor if the phase of the applied voltage is 700.
A) 700
B) 200
C) 1600
D) -200
Q.49) A tungsten filament lamp is example of ------.
A) pure inductor
B) pure capacitor
C) pure resistor
D) none of these
Q.50) Heat produced by an electrical equipment like geyser is
proportional to -----.
A) r.m.s. current
B) avg. current
C) square of r.m.s. current
D) square of avg. current
Q.51) --------- is the advantage of a.c.
A) The voltage can be raised or lowered
B) AC transmission is economical and efficient
C) AC can be easily converted in to DC
D) Aii of the above
Q.52) Standard alternating emf achives its negative max. value at Ѳ=----
---
A) 450
B) 900
C) 1800
D) 2700
Q.53) The time taken by an alternating quantity to complete one cycle is
called as-------.
A) Frequency
B) speed
C) waveform
D) time period
Q.54) In our nation, the standard frequency of alternating voltage is------
---.
A) 60 cycles/sec
B) 50 cycles/sec
C) 100 cycles/sec
D) 10 cycles/sec
Q.55) An sinusoidal voltage is varies from zero to max. of 250 V. The
voltage at the instant of 60o of a cycle will be-------.
A) 150 V
B) 216.5 V
C) 125 V
D) 108.25
Q.56) A sinusoidal voltage has a magnitude of 250 V at 1500 then its
max. value is---------.
A) 100 V
B) 400 V
C) 200 V
D) 300 V
Q.57) The peak value of an alternating current is Im the its rms value is --
---------
A) Im/√2
B) √2Im
C) Im/2
D) 2Im
Q.58) Which of the following wave has least value of peak factor ?
A) Sine wave
B) Square wave
C) Triangular wave
D) Full wave rectified sine wave
Q.59) A phasor representing i(t)=Imsinωt rotates at a speed -----------
A) Ns rpm
B) ω rad/sec
C) f rpm
D) none of these
Q.60) The negative max. of a cosine wave occurs at---------.
A) 45o
B) 90o
C) 180o
D) 270o
Q.61) The division of 10 A600 and (3+j4) is ----------.
A) 2A-173.13o
B) 2A6.860
C) 50A113.13010
D) 2A11313010
Q.62) The multiplication of 10A600 and (3+j4) is --------.
A) 2A-173.13o
B) 2A6.860
C) 50A113.13010
D) 2A11313010
Q.63) Inductive reactance of a coil of inductance 0.5 H at 50Hz is --------
.ohm
A) 15.7
B) 157
C) 50
D) 25
Q.64) For d.c. supply, inductive reactance is -------
A) infinity
B) 1
C) zero
D) none of these
Q.65) What will be the phase of current flowing through pure inductor if
the phase of apllied voltage is -300 ?
A) 600
B) -600
C) 1200
D) -1200
2-MARKS
Q.1) The relation between f and ω is --------.
A) f=1/ω
B) ω=2π/f
C) ω=2πf
D) ω=1/f
Q.2) The time period of a sinusoidal waveform with 200 Hz frequency is
--------
A) 0.05 s
B) 0.005 s
C) 0.0005 s
D) 0.5 s
Q.3) The amplitude of an alternating quantity is -----
A) the value attained at Ө=π/2
B) the value attained at Ө=1800
C) the value attained at ωt=π/4 rad
D) none of these
Q.4) --------- relation is true.
A) Ө=t/ω
B) ω=t/Ө
C) Ө=ωt
D) ω/Ө=t
Q.5) For a 50Hz alternating waveform, the angular frequency ia--------
rad/sec
A) 314.16
B) 50
C) 0.126
D) none of these
Q.6) the time corresponding to Ө=π/4 raduans for a 50Hz alternating
waveform is ---------.
A) 5 msec
B) 10 msec
C) 2.5 msec
D) 20 msec
Q.7) An a.c. voltage is given by v=40sin314t. The frequency is -----.
A) 75Hz
B) 50Hz
C) 25Hz
D) 100Hz
Q.8) The equation of alternating current is given by, i=14.1421sin100πt.
then the time taken by it to complete tree cycles is ------.
A) 0.02 sec
B) 0.06 sec
C) 0.08 sec
D) 0.01 sec
Q.9) An instantaneous value of an alternating voltage having 50Hz
frequency and max value of 100V at 0.01 sec us -----.
A) 100V
B) 100√2
C) 100/√2
D) 0 V
Q.10) An A.C. voltage is given by equation 100sin314t. The frequency
is -----------.
A) 50Hz
B) 75Hz
C) 25Hz
D) 100Hz
Q.11) An alternating emf is given by e=200 sin 314t. The instantaneous
value of emf at t=1/200 sec is -----.
A) 150V
B) 175V
C) 200V
D) 225V
Q.12) An alternating current is given by i= sin2ωt. Then frequency of
the alternating current is -----.
A) ω/πHz
B) 2ω/πHz
C) ω/1πHz
D) none of these
Q.13) A sinusoidal voltage is represented as 141.42sin314ωt then its rms
value of voltage and frequency are respectively -------
A) 141.42V,314Hz
B) 100V,50Hz
C) 100V,60Hz
D) 200V,100Hz
Q.14) THE peak value of an alternating wave is 400V,its avg value is ---
----
A) 254.8V
B) 282.6V
C) 400V
D) 565.5V
Q.15) for a sinusoidal alternating waveform , form factor is 1.11 and its
peak value is 20V then its avg value is -------
A) 18.018
B) 12.74
C) 22.2
D) 25.481
Q.16) An ac voltage is given as, v(t)=50sinωt+100sin3ωt V, then its rms
value is -----V.
A) 79.0956
B) 10.2981
C) 106.066
D) 75
Q.17) If two sinusoidal quantities are in phase quadrature then the phase
diff. between them is ------
A) 450
B) zero
C) 1800
D) 900
Q.18) Phase of e(t)=-Emcosωt is --------
A) +900
B) -900
C) -2700
D) 00
Q.19) The rectangular form of 5∠300 is---------
A) 4.33+j2.5
B) -4.33+j2.5
C) -4.33-j2.5
D) 4.33-j2.5
Q.20) The substraction of 1+j1 & 10∠300 in rectangular form is---------
A) 9.667+j6
B) 7.667+j6
C) 9.66+j4
D) +7.66+j4
Q.21) The inductive reactance an inductor L is --------
A) ω/L
B) 2πL/f
C) ωL
D) 2fL
Q.22) The inductive reactance of a coil of inductance 2 mH at 100 Hz is-
----------------
A) 0.79557Ω
B) 314.16Ω
C) 1.256Ω
D) 2 Ω
Q.23) The reactance of a capacitor at 50Hz is 5Ω. If the frequency is
increased to 100 Hz , the new reactance is-------Ω
A) 5
B) 2.5
C) 10
D) 25
Q.24) For a purely resistive ckt , i(t)=14.142 sin(ωt) &
v(t)=282.842sin(ωt) then the avg power consumption is---------W
A) 1000
B) 4000
C) 2000
D) 0
Q.25) What will be the phase of current flowing through a pure capacitor
if the phase of the applied voltage is 700 ?
A) 700
B) 200
C) 1600
D) -200
frequency and max. value of 100 V at 0.01 sec is-----------.V
A) 100
B) 100√2
C) 100/√2
D) 0
Q.27) An alternating voltage is given by v=100sin(314t-300) volts. The
frequency is ---------.
A) 25Hz
B) 50Hz
C) 60Hz
D) 100Hz
Q.28) The peak value of an alternating current is Im then its avg. value is
------------.
A) 0.5Im
B) 0.637Im
C) Im/√2
D) √2Im
Q.29) The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V, its avg. value is -----------
.V
A) 127.4
B) 282.6
C) 400
D) 565
Q.30) The addition of 1+j2 and -4+j2 in polar form is-----------.
A) 5A-53.130
B) 5A53.130
C) 5A-126.86o
D) 5A126.860
Q.31) The voltage 200A+450 V is applied to R=5ohm then the current
is--------------.
A) 1000A45
B) 40A45
C) 40A0
D) 1000A0
Q.32) The voltage 50𝑒 𝑗60 V is applied to R=1ohm then consumption is---
------------W
A) 2500
B) 1500
C) 25
D) 15
Q.33) The capacitive reactance of capacitor C is given by,----------------.
A) 1/fC
B) 1/2∏ωC
C) 2∏ω/C
D) 1/2∏fC
Q.34) The 50 Hz voltage of 100 A 300 B is applied to pure capacitor of
636.6197µF then the current is-------A
A) 20 A1200
B) 20A300
C)20A-600
D)20A 00
Q.35) Z= 0+j25 ohm represent------- circuit.
A) purely inductive
B) purely capacitive
C) purely resistive
D) none of these
ANSWERS
1.B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.C 9.D 10.B
11.D 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.C 20.D
21.C 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.A 26.C 27.B 28.C 29.B 30.D
31.A 32.D 33.B 34.B 35.A 36.D 37.C 38.D 39.A 40.A
41.C 42.A 43.B 44.A 45.C 46.B 47.A 48.C 49.C 50.C
51.D 52.D 53.D 54.B 55.B 56.B 57.A 58.B 59.B 60.C
61.B 62.C 63.B 64.C 65.D
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.A
11.C 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.D
21.C 22.C 23.B 24.C 25.A 26.D 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.D
31.B 32.A 33.D 35.A 35.A
UNIT 4
1-MARKS
Q.1) The main advantage of a.c. is --------
A) a.c. motors are expensive
B) the a.c. voltage can be raised or lowered
C) a.c. transmission is very costly
D) none of these
Q.2) The waveforms in which magnitude changes but it’s direction
remains same is called -------.
A) pulsating d.c.
B) alternating
C) pure d.c.
D) none of these
Q.3) The generation of a.c. is according to --------.
A) Faraday’s law
B) Thevenin’s therom
C) Ohm’s law
D) Kirchhoff’s law
Q.4) ------ represents maximum value of alternating e.m.f.
A) BIl
B) Blv
C) BIv
D) lIv
Q.5) Standard alternating e.m.f. is represented as -----.

A) EmtanӨ
B) EmcosӨ
C) EmsinӨ
D) Em2sinӨ
Q.6) The unit of frequency is ------.
A) rad/sec
B) seconds
C) hertz
D) volts
Q.7) Standard alternating e.m.f. achieves it’s positive max. value at Ө=--
---.
A) 450
B) 900
C) 1800
D) 2700
Q.8) The waveform which shows repetition of variations after regular
time interval is called as ------.
A) nonperiodic waveform
B) sawtooth waveform
C) periodic waveform
D) triangular waveform
Q.9) One cycle corresponds to -------.

A) π radians
B) 900
C) π/4 radians
D) 2π radians
Q.10) Amplitude of an alternating quantity is -------.
A) 2*peak to peak value
B) peak to peak value /2
C) r.m.s. value/2
D) 2*avg. value
Q.11) One fourth cycle of 50 Hz waveform corresponds to -------.
A) 10msec
B) 20sec
C) 1sec
D) 5sec
Q.12) The concept of the effective value is based on -----.
A) photoelectric effect
B) heating effect
C) friction
D) none of these
Q.13) The voltage of domestic a.c. supply is 230 volt. This value
represent ------.
A) peak value
B) average value
C) r.m.s. value
D) mean value
Q.14) The voltmeter in a. c. circuit always measures ------- values.
A) average
B) maximum
C) r.m.s
D) none of these
Q.15) The r.m.s. value of an alternating current is 10/√2A then it’s peak
to peak value is --------.
A) 10A
B) 30A
C) 5A
D) 20A
Q.16) For a symmetrical alternating waveform, the avg. value over the
complete cycle is ------.
A) 1
B) √2
C) 0
D) 1/√2
Q.17) The avg. value of sinusoidally varying voltage is ----- then it’s
r.m.s. value
A) more
B) less
C) same as
Q.18) The form factor of purety sinusoidal waveform is -------.
A) 1.11
B) 1.21
C) 1.414
D) √2
Q.19) An alternating current has crest factor of 1.414 and it’s average
value is 10A then it’s r.m.s. value is ------.
A) 4.505
B) 3.185
C) 11.102
D) 7.072
Q.20) A wire carries 5A d,c. and alternating current of 15sinωt A then
the effective value of resultant current is -------.
A) 5A
B) 20A
C) 15√2
D) 11.72
Q.21) Alternating quantities are represented by -----.
A) vectors
B) scalers
C) phasors
D) graphs
Q.22) Phasors always rotate in ------ direction.
A) clockwise
B) anticlockwise
C) vertical
D) horizontal
Q.23) The phase of an alternating quantity varies from --------.
A) 00 to 900
B) 00 to 1800
C) 00 to 3600
D) 1800 to 3600
Q.24) --------- projection phasors represents an instantaneous value of
A) Y axis
B) X axis
C) Z axis
D) none of these
Q.25) An alternating quantity having positive phase has ------ value at
t=0.
A) possitive
B) negative
C) zero
D) infinity
Q.26) An alternating quantity having zero phase has ---------- value at
t=0.
A) positive
B) negative
C) zero
D) infinity
Q.27) an alternating quantity having negative phase has ------ value at
t=0.
A) positive
B) negative
C) zero
D) infinite
Q.28) When two alternating quantities are in phase then their phase
difference ----.
A) 300
B) 900
C) 00
D) 600
Q.29) -------- representation gives r.m.s. value of alternating quantity.
A) phasor
B) polar
C) rectangular
D) none of these
Q.30) The polar form of -3+j4 is -----.
A) 5∠ − 53.130
B) 5∠53.130
C) 5∠-126.860
D) 5∠126.860
Q.31) For addition and subtraction, the phasors must be expressed in ----
- system.
A) rectangular
B) cylinderical
C) polar
D) spherical
Q.32) For multiplication and division, a.c. quantity is represent in ------
system.
A) cylinderical
B) spherical
C) rectangular
D) polar
Q.33) The power factor of pure resistive circuit is ----.
A) 0
B) unity
C) lagging
D) leading
Q.34) In a purely resistive circuit, the avg. Pav is -----. The peak power,
Pmax
A) double
B) one-half of
C) 1/4
D) equal to
Q.35) For a pure resistive circuit, the voltage and current relation is, -----
--.
A) in phase
B) voltage leads current
C) voltage lags current
Q.36) The avg. power consumption in a pure resistance is, -------.
A) VrmsIm
B) VrmsI2rms
C) I2mR
D) VmIm/2
Q.37) The fluctuating component of power consumption is pure resistor,
supplier from v(t)=vmsinωt has a frequency of ----- rad/sec.
A) ω
B) 3ω
C) 2ω
D) ω/2
Q.38) The avg. power consumption in a pure resistance is -------.
A) VmIm
B) VavgIavg
C) VrmsIavg
D) VrmsIrms
Q.39) In a pure inducture the current, -----.
A) lags the voltage by 900
C) in phase with the voltage
D) none of these
Q.40) The inductive reactance of inductor L is ------.
A) directly proportional to the frequency of supply
B) inversely proportional to the frequency of supply
C) inversely proportional to square of the frequency of supply
D) directly proportional to the square of the frequency of supply
Q.41) The avg. power consumption in a pure inductance is -----.
A) maximum
B) minimum
C) zero
D) infinite
Q.42) The power curve for a pure inductor is --------.
A) sine of double frequency
B) cosine of double frequency
C) sin of same frequency as supply
D) none of above
Q.43) In a pure capacitive circuit, the current ------.
A) lags behind voltage by 900
C) remains in phase with voltage
D) none of these
Q.44) The avg. poer consumption in a pure capacitor is -------.
A) zero
B) infinite
C) nagative
D) none of these
Q.45) The relation between frequency and capacitive reactance is -----.
A) square
B) direct
C) inverse
D) linear
Q.46) For a d.c. supply, capacitive reactance is --------.
A) zero
B) infinite
C) one
D) negative
Q.47) The frequency of instantaneous power in a pure capacitive circuit
is ------the frequency of applied voltage
A) twice
B) same as
C) trice
D) half
Q.48) What will be the phase of the current flowing through a pure
capacitor if the phase of the applied voltage is 700.
A) 700
B) 200
C) 1600
D) -200
Q.49) A tungsten filament lamp is example of ------.
A) pure inductor
B) pure capacitor
C) pure resistor
D) none of these
Q.50) Heat produced by an electrical equipment like geyser is
proportional to -----.
A) r.m.s. current
B) avg. current
C) square of r.m.s. current
D) square of avg. current
Q.51) --------- is the advantage of a.c.
A) The voltage can be raised or lowered
B) AC transmission is economical and efficient
C) AC can be easily converted in to DC
D) Aii of the above
Q.52) Standard alternating emf achives its negative max. value at Ѳ=----
---
A) 450
B) 900
C) 1800
D) 2700
Q.53) The time taken by an alternating quantity to complete one cycle is
called as-------.
A) Frequency
B) speed
C) waveform
D) time period
Q.54) In our nation, the standard frequency of alternating voltage is------
---.
A) 60 cycles/sec
B) 50 cycles/sec
C) 100 cycles/sec
D) 10 cycles/sec
Q.55) An sinusoidal voltage is varies from zero to max. of 250 V. The
voltage at the instant of 60o of a cycle will be-------.
A) 150 V
B) 216.5 V
C) 125 V
D) 108.25
Q.56) A sinusoidal voltage has a magnitude of 250 V at 1500 then its
max. value is---------.
A) 100 V
B) 400 V
C) 200 V
D) 300 V
Q.57) The peak value of an alternating current is Im the its rms value is --
---------
A) Im/√2
B) √2Im
C) Im/2
D) 2Im
Q.58) Which of the following wave has least value of peak factor ?
A) Sine wave
B) Square wave
C) Triangular wave
D) Full wave rectified sine wave
Q.59) A phasor representing i(t)=Imsinωt rotates at a speed -----------
A) Ns rpm
B) ω rad/sec
C) f rpm
D) none of these
Q.60) The negative max. of a cosine wave occurs at---------.
A) 45o
B) 90o
C) 180o
D) 270o
Q.61) The division of 10 A600 and (3+j4) is ----------.
A) 2A-173.13o
B) 2A6.860
C) 50A113.13010
D) 2A11313010
Q.62) The multiplication of 10A600 and (3+j4) is --------.
A) 2A-173.13o
B) 2A6.860
C) 50A113.13010
D) 2A11313010
Q.63) Inductive reactance of a coil of inductance 0.5 H at 50Hz is --------
.ohm
A) 15.7
B) 157
C) 50
D) 25
Q.64) For d.c. supply, inductive reactance is -------
A) infinity
B) 1
C) zero
D) none of these
Q.65) What will be the phase of current flowing through pure inductor if
the phase of apllied voltage is -300 ?
A) 600
B) -600
C) 1200
D) -1200
2-MARKS
Q.1) The relation between f and ω is --------.
A) f=1/ω
B) ω=2π/f
C) ω=2πf
D) ω=1/f
Q.2) The time period of a sinusoidal waveform with 200 Hz frequency is
--------
A) 0.05 s
B) 0.005 s
C) 0.0005 s
D) 0.5 s
Q.3) The amplitude of an alternating quantity is -----
A) the value attained at Ө=π/2
B) the value attained at Ө=1800
C) the value attained at ωt=π/4 rad
D) none of these
Q.4) --------- relation is true.
A) Ө=t/ω
B) ω=t/Ө
C) Ө=ωt
D) ω/Ө=t
Q.5) For a 50Hz alternating waveform, the angular frequency ia--------
rad/sec
A) 314.16
B) 50
C) 0.126
D) none of these
Q.6) the time corresponding to Ө=π/4 raduans for a 50Hz alternating
waveform is ---------.
A) 5 msec
B) 10 msec
C) 2.5 msec
D) 20 msec
Q.7) An a.c. voltage is given by v=40sin314t. The frequency is -----.
A) 75Hz
B) 50Hz
C) 25Hz
D) 100Hz
Q.8) The equation of alternating current is given by, i=14.1421sin100πt.
then the time taken by it to complete tree cycles is ------.
A) 0.02 sec
B) 0.06 sec
C) 0.08 sec
D) 0.01 sec
frequency and max value of 100V at 0.01 sec us -----.
A) 100V
B) 100√2
C) 100/√2
D) 0 V
Q.10) An A.C. voltage is given by equation 100sin314t. The frequency
is -----------.
A) 50Hz
B) 75Hz
C) 25Hz
D) 100Hz
Q.11) An alternating emf is given by e=200 sin 314t. The instantaneous
value of emf at t=1/200 sec is -----.
A) 150V
B) 175V
C) 200V
D) 225V
Q.12) An alternating current is given by i= sin2ωt. Then frequency of
the alternating current is -----.
A) ω/πHz
B) 2ω/πHz
C) ω/1πHz
D) none of these
Q.13) A sinusoidal voltage is represented as 141.42sin314ωt then its rms
value of voltage and frequency are respectively -------
A) 141.42V,314Hz
B) 100V,50Hz
C) 100V,60Hz
D) 200V,100Hz
Q.14) THE peak value of an alternating wave is 400V,its avg value is ---
----
A) 254.8V
B) 282.6V
C) 400V
D) 565.5V
Q.15) for a sinusoidal alternating waveform , form factor is 1.11 and its
peak value is 20V then its avg value is -------
A) 18.018
B) 12.74
C) 22.2
D) 25.481
Q.16) An ac voltage is given as, v(t)=50sinωt+100sin3ωt V, then its rms
value is -----V.
A) 79.0956
B) 10.2981
C) 106.066
D) 75
Q.17) If two sinusoidal quantities are in phase quadrature then the phase
diff. between them is ------
A) 450
B) zero
C) 1800
D) 900
Q.18) Phase of e(t)=-Emcosωt is --------
A) +900
B) -900
C) -2700
D) 00
Q.19) The rectangular form of 5∠300 is---------
A) 4.33+j2.5
B) -4.33+j2.5
C) -4.33-j2.5
D) 4.33-j2.5
Q.20) The substraction of 1+j1 & 10∠300 in rectangular form is---------
A) 9.667+j6
B) 7.667+j6
C) 9.66+j4
D) +7.66+j4
Q.21) The inductive reactance an inductor L is --------
A) ω/L
B) 2πL/f
C) ωL
D) 2fL
Q.22) The inductive reactance of a coil of inductance 2 mH at 100 Hz is-
----------------
A) 0.79557Ω
B) 314.16Ω
C) 1.256Ω
D) 2 Ω
Q.23) The reactance of a capacitor at 50Hz is 5Ω. If the frequency is
increased to 100 Hz , the new reactance is-------Ω
A) 5
B) 2.5
C) 10
D) 25
Q.24) For a purely resistive ckt , i(t)=14.142 sin(ωt) &
v(t)=282.842sin(ωt) then the avg power consumption is---------W
A) 1000
B) 4000
C) 2000
D) 0
Q.25) What will be the phase of current flowing through a pure capacitor
if the phase of the applied voltage is 700 ?
A) 700
B) 200
C) 1600
D) -200
frequency and max. value of 100 V at 0.01 sec is-----------.V
A) 100
B) 100√2
C) 100/√2
D) 0
Q.27) An alternating voltage is given by v=100sin(314t-300) volts. The
frequency is ---------.
A) 25Hz
B) 50Hz
C) 60Hz
D) 100Hz
Q.28) The peak value of an alternating current is Im then its avg. value is
------------.
A) 0.5Im
B) 0.637Im
C) Im/√2
D) √2Im
Q.29) The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V, its avg. value is -----------
.V
A) 127.4
B) 282.6
C) 400
D) 565
Q.30) The addition of 1+j2 and -4+j2 in polar form is-----------.
A) 5A-53.130
B) 5A53.130
C) 5A-126.86o
D) 5A126.860
Q.31) The voltage 200A+450 V is applied to R=5ohm then the current
is--------------.
A) 1000A45
B) 40A45
C) 40A0
D) 1000A0
Q.32) The voltage 50𝑒 𝑗60 V is applied to R=1ohm then consumption is---
------------W
A) 2500
B) 1500
C) 25
D) 15
Q.33) The capacitive reactance of capacitor C is given by,----------------.
A) 1/fC
B) 1/2∏ωC
C) 2∏ω/C
D) 1/2∏fC
Q.34) The 50 Hz voltage of 100 A 300 B is applied to pure capacitor of
636.6197µF then the current is-------A
A) 20 A1200
B) 20A300
C)20A-600
D)20A 00
Q.35) Z= 0+j25 ohm represent------- circuit.
A) purely inductive
B) purely capacitive
C) purely resistive
D) none of these
ANSWERS
1.B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.C 9.D 10.B
11.D 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.C 20.D
21.C 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.A 26.C 27.B 28.C 29.B 30.D
31.A 32.D 33.B 34.B 35.A 36.D 37.C 38.D 39.A 40.A
41.C 42.A 43.B 44.A 45.C 46.B 47.A 48.C 49.C 50.C
51.D 52.D 53.D 54.B 55.B 56.B 57.A 58.B 59.B 60.C
61.B 62.C 63.B 64.C 65.D
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.A
11.C 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.D
21.C 22.C 23.B 24.C 25.A 26.D 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.D
31.B 32.A 33.D 35.A 35.A

1all Merged

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

1all Merged

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Electrical Circuits

UNIT I: Basic circuit Analysis and Simplification Techniques

1.KCL is based on the fact that

2. Relation between currents according to KCL is

I1 = 3/3+5 = 3/8 = 0.375Ω

6. Determine currents I1 , I2 and I3.

a) -3.3A, -8.5A, 2.4A

7. All _____________ are loops but _______________ are not meshes

Explanation: Veq = 10 + 5 -20 = -5u

9. The basic laws for analyzing an electric circuit are :-

11. What is the other name for Dependent sources?

13. Dependent sources are _____________ types.

26. Kirchhoff’s current law is applied at

1. An RL network is one which consists of ____________

Explanation: An R-L network is a network which consists of a resistor which is connected in

2. If the switch is opened at t=0, what is the current in the circuit?

4. If the switch is closed at t=0, what is the current in the circuit?

5. What is the voltage across the inductor at t=0?

6. What is the expression for current in the given circuit?

Explanation: Applying KVL in above circuit, we get

7. What is the expression for voltage in the given circuit?

8. At steady state, the current in the inductor is?

11. The current in the R-L circuit at a time t = 0+ is?

13. The time constant of an R-C circuit is?

1. Two ports containing no sources in their branches are called?

2. Two ports containing sources in their branches are called?

5. Which of the following expression is true in case of open circuit parameters?

6. Which of the following expression is true in case of open circuit parameters?

7. Find the Z – parameter Z11 in the circuit shown below.

8. The value of Z21 in the circuit shown in the question 7 is?

9. Find the value of Z12 in the circuit shown in the question 7.

Explanation: Open circuiting port 1, we get V2 = I2((2+2)||4) => V2 = I2 x 2 =>V2/I2 = 2.

15. The parameters Y11, Y12, Y21, Y22 are called?

16. Find the Y – parameter Y11 in the circuit shown below.

26. The hybrid parameter h21 is called?

27. In the circuit shown below, find the h-parameter h11.

39. In two-port networks the parameter h11 is called _________

40. In two-port networks the parameter h21 is called _________

41. In two-port networks the parameter h12 is called _________

42. In two-port networks the parameter h22 is called _________

42. The scale factor is denoted by the letter?

43. The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by?

44. The poles in the transfer function are denoted by?

1. Where is field winding mounted in a DC machine?

2. What are the materials used for brushes in dc machines?

3. In PMDC motors we use magnetic material with ___________

5. The current drawn by the armature of DC motor is directly proportional to

7. Torque developed by a DC motor depends upon _____________

9. PMDC produces high torque on ______________

11. DC shunt motor is still used instead of synchronous motor in _____________

12. Which type motors are preferred for lathes?

14. Maximum torque in a DC machine is limited by ______________

15. Voltage equation of a dc motor is-----

16. Which of the following motor has the constant speed?

c)Cumulatively compound motor

d)All of the above

17. The function of commutator in a d. c machine is------

a)to change direction of rotation

b)to change alternating voltage to direct voltage

c)to provide easy control of voltage

d)to protect the machine from overcurrents

18. In Fleming's right-hand rule, the thumb point towards________

7. All _ are loops but ___ are not meshes