MQ – P

____________________________________________________________________

1. For storing mother tincture ________ c) Hour

bottles are not used d) Daily in a day
a) Amber coloured
b) Blue colored 4. Such amount of dose which can cause death
c) Yellow coloured of living being
d) Gutta Purcha a) Minimum dose
b) Booster dose
2. Sanguinaria Canadensis belongs to c) Lethal or fatal dose
________ family. d) Large dose
a) Rutaceacea
b) Liliaceae 5. Agaricus this medicine is prepared
c) Papaveraceae according to old method class __________
d) Leguminoceae a) Class X
b) Calss VIII
3. H.S. Means _______ c) Class IX
a) An hour d) Class III
b) Bed time
a) Pharmacophobia
6. _______medicine is prepared from Fungus b) Pharmacomania
growing on the stem grains of Indian corn c) Pharmacopsychosis
a. Ambra grisea d) Pharmacopraxy
b. Ustilago
c. Secale cor 9. Elaps Corallinus is prepared from
d. Anthracinum ____________
a) Coral snake
7. In India the first Pharmacopoeia was b) Rattle snake
published by __________ c) Surukuku
a) Dr. B. K. Sarkar d) Yellow viper
b) Dr. M. Bhattacharya
c) DR D. D. Banerjee 10. Specific gravity of Dispensing alcohol is
d) Dr A C Gupta __________
a) 0.840
b) 0.8294
8. A mental disease due to alcohol, drugs or c) 0.816
poison d) 0.792

___________________________________________________________________

Key:
1. b 5. c 9. c
2. b 6. b 10. c
3. c 7. c
4. a 8. b
 MQ – FT
___________________________________________________________________________

1. criminal negligence is punishable under 6. Wid mark’s formula for urine analysis of
a) 377 IPC alcohol is
b) 304 A IPC a) a=cpr
c) 306 IPC b) a=1/2 qpr
302 IPC c) a=1/2 cpr
d) a=3/4 qpr
2. Walking in sleep is called as
a) Fetichism 7. Pissiform bone ossifies at the age of
b) Masochism a) 6 to 8 years
c) Somnabulism b) 8 to 9 years
d) Eonism c) 10 to 12 years
d) 12 to 16 years
3. Coroner is governed by Act known as
a) Coroner’s act 1971 8. Puckering of skin is due to burn caused by
b) Coroner’s act 1871 a) Chemical
c) Coroner’s act 1844 b) Electricity
d) Coroner’s Act 1865 c) UV Rays
d) Steam
4. Test for respiration are except 9. Uterine soufflé is heard from
a) Mirror test a) Second week onward
b) Feather test b) Tenth week onward
c) Mercury or water test c) Third month onwards
d) Diaphenous test d) Fourth month
onwards
5. B. A. L. is
a) Universal antidote 10. In Nux Vomica poisoning following
b) Physiological antidote important visceras are preserved
c) Chemical antidote a) Heart
d) Physical antidote b) Lungs
c) Spinal cord
d) Kidney

_____________________________________________________________________
Key :
1. b 5. d 9. d
2. c 6. c 10. d
3. b 7. d
4. c 8. b
 MQ – At
_________________________________________________________________________________
1. Kidney helps in d) None of them
a) Eliminating nitrogenous waste 10. Aortic opening of the diaphragm is at the
products level of
b) Autoregulation in blood flow, a) T 10
blood pressure and maturation of b) T 11
RBCs, c) T 12
c) Control of calcium metabolism d) L 2
d) All of them 11. Most of the venous blood of the heart drains
2. The largest gland in our body is into the
a) Liver a) Right atrium
b) Pituitary b) Left Atrium
c) Spleen c) Right ventricle
d) Supra Renal Gland d) Left Ventricle
3. Duodeno – jejunal flexure is at the level of
________ Vertebra
a) T 12 12. Zygomatic branch of facial nerve supplies
b) L 1 _____
c) L 2 a) Masseter
d) L 3 - b) Zygomaticus major
4. Average range of movement of diaphragm c) Lower part of Orbicularis Oculli
a) 1.5 cm d) Zygomaticus Minor
b) 3 cm 13. The cavity of Telencephalon becomes -
c) 2.5 cm a) Lateral Ventricle
d) 4 cm b) Third Ventricle
c) Fourth ventricle
5. Duodenal ulcer is common in d) Aqueduct of silvius
a) Hyposthenic stomach 14. Average hair present on the scalp in normal
b) Hypersthenic stomach adult is
c) Sthenic stomach a) 1,20,000
d) None of them b) 50,000
6. In average adult capacity of stomach is c) 20,000
a) 500 – 700 ml d) 5,000
b) 800 – 1000 ml 15. Thebesion valve is present at
c) 1000 – 1500 ml a) opening of Inf. Vena cava
d) 1500 – 2000 ml b) Pulmonary Orifice
7. Anatomical capacity of bladder is c) Opening of coronary sinus
a) 120 to 220 ml d) Right atrioventricular orifice
b) 250 to 450 ml 16. Cervical part of Oesophagus is
c) 450 to 800 ml a) 2 cm
d) 1000 ml or more b) 1.25 cm
c) 20 cm
8. Left kidney comes with the relation to parts of d) 4 cm
a) Foregut & midgut 17. Tennis elbow is
b) Only midgut a. Tearing of flexor dig. Superficialis in its
c) Midgut and hindgut radial head
d) Foregut, midgut & Hindgut b. Tearing or degeneration of deep extensor
9. In a normal average adult in supine position muscles or arm
________ is palpable c. Tearing or degeneration of superficial
a) Liver extensor from lateral epicondyle of
b) Spleen humerus
c) Kidney
 d. Tearing or degeneration of superficial c) Fibrous capsule and Paranephric
flexor muscles from the front of the fat
medial epicondyle d) Renal fascia & Paranephric fat
24. All the structures present in the level of L 1
18. Where will you look for a foreign body in vertebra except
the eye? a) Piloric end of stomach
a) Superior or inferior fornices of b) Fundus of Gall Bladder
eye c) Hila of both kidneys
b) Sclera d) Third part of Duodenum
c) Medial angle 25. Body of first thoracic vertebra is
d) Eyelids a) Heart shaped
19. Which joint in our body has maximum b) Circular
mobility? c) Oval
a) Wrist joint d) Triangular
b) Shoulder joint 26. “Danger zone” of face is
c) Hip joint a) Lower lip area
d) Knee joint b) Nasal area
20. A direct hernia passes through c) Upper lip area
a) Superficial Inguinal Ring d) Upper lip & lower nasal area
b) Deep Inguinal Ring 27. The largest lymph node in our body is
c) Inguinal canal a) Inguinal lymph node
d) None of them b) Axillary lymph node
21. Which of the following bone is used for c) Spleen
grafting after mandibular fracture d) Liver
a) Fibula 28. Which is the longest bone in our body?
b) Occipital a) Humerus
c) Femur b) Tibia
d) Ulna c) Fibula
d) Femur
22. Trigone of blood is developed from 29. Which is the shortest bone in the body?
a) Mesoderm a) Talus
b) Endoderm b) Stapes
c) Ectoderm c) Mallealus
d) Both mesoderm & Endoderm d) Patella
30. Which one of these is long bone?
a) Meta tarsal
23. Space of gerota is the space between b) Phalanges
a) Fibrous capsule & perinephric c) Clavicle
fat d) Rib
b) Fibrous capsule & Renal fascia
Key:
1. c 11. a 21. a
2. a 12. c 22. a
3. a 13. a 23. b
4. c 14. b 24. d
5. d 15. c 25. c
6. c 16. d 26. d
7. a 17. d 27. c
8. b 18. d 28. d
9. a 19. c 29. b
10. d 20. a 30. d
 MQ – MM (S-1)

1. Impression reaches in her mind with 9. Intense thirst, although the tongue is
great slowness. moist and there is profuse salivation is
a) Nat. Mur. are of the peculiar symptom of
b) Belladonna a. Pulsatilla b. Belladonna
c) Alumina c. Both d. Merc. Sol.
d) Platina
2. Winter season aggravation of skin 10. The symptoms are aggravated by
complain thinking of it.
a) Petroleum a. Mag. Phos. b. Ferr. Phos.
b) Sulphur c. Calc. Phos. d. Nat. Phos.
c) Graphitis
d) Echinesia 11. Aversion to tight bandage like lachesis
3. Superiority complex is marked feature is very much present in
of a. Carbo. Veg. b. Apis Mel.
a) Clmicifuga c. Nat. Mur d. Sulphur
b) Platina 12. Puff. Ball is the common name of
c) Anacardim a. Bovista b. Pulsetilla
d) Sulphur c. Allium Sativa d. Digitalis
4. Sharp stitching pain aggravated by 13. Wild indigo is common name of
slightest motion. a. Bryonia b. Podophylium
a) Belladonna c. Rhus Tox d. Baptisia
b) Aconite 14. The patient wants constantly to be
c) Bryonia fanned rapidly and from near the
d) Allium cepa characteristic of
5. Phosphorus patient is craving for a. Lachesis b. Sulphur
a) Bitter c. Phosphorus d. Carbo. Veg.
b) Cold 15. Rash & other eruption on face, hands
c) Warm and arms before menses is one of the
d) Sweet feature of
6. Suppression of Menses particularly by a. Aconite Nep. b. Pusatilla
getting the feet wet is one of the c. Dulcamara d. Calc Carb
characteristic symptom of 16. For first stage of Inflammatory
a) Kali Mur. condition in bio-chemic medicine.
b) Pulsatilla a. Calc. Phos. b. Mag. Phos
c) Nat. Mur c. Nat. Phos. d. Ferr. Phos.
d) Cimicifuga
17. Extreme inactivity of the rectum even
7. Toothache is aggravated at night and soft stool require great straining &
relived by heat is one of the feature of there is no desire for stool for days
a. Mag. Phos b. Bryonia together is the characteristic of
c. Pulsatilla d. Arnica a) Aloes
b) Alumina
8. What are the medicine for every little c) Bryonia
injury suppurates d) Sulphur
a. Mercurious b. Aconite.
c. Bryonia d. Belladonna
18. Leucorrhoea is acrid , burning and a) Alumina
profuse runs down to the heels b) Sepia
a) Alumina c) Dulcamara
b) Bovista d) Platina
c) Kreosote 25. Desire for very hot or boiling water to
d) Nat mur drink is character of
19. Great loquacity wants to talk all the a) Arsenic Alb.
time but without any relevancy is red line b) Hepar. sulph.
symptoms of c) Chelidonium
a) Lycopodium d) Nat. Mur
b) Lachesis
c) Arsenic Alb 26. Aconite patient is
d) Pulsatilla a) Thirstless
20. Bearing down sensation is imp. b) Thirsty
feature of c) Thirst for warm water
a) Sulphur d) Thirstless with dry tongue
b) Nat Mur.
c) Bryonia 27. Common name of Antim Tart is
d) Sepia a. Tarter emetic b. Common salt
21. Nat. Mur. Patient has strong craving c. Marking nut d. Black Cohosh
for
a) Salt 28. Idiotic and foolish with loss of
b) Sweet memory or deficient intelligence is one
c) Sour of the characteristic mental symptom
d) Bitter of
22. Nat Mur is the chronic of a. Chamomilla b. Aethusa
a) Ignatia c. Anacardium d. Baryta Carb.
b) Anacardium
c) Platina 29. Red sand in urine is one of the red line
d) Alumina symptom of
23. Complaints in infants who are fed with a. Caustiucm b. Lycopodium
artificial food c. Hep. Sulph d. Sarsaparilla
a) Podophylum
b) Nux vomica 30. One of the great anti neuralgic
c) Alumina remedies
d) Baryta Carb a. Mag. Phos. b. Rhus Tox.
24. Patient thinks that her body is larger c. Arnica M. d. Causticum
then others

Key:
1. b 11. a 21. a
2. a 12. d 22. c
3. d 13. d 23. d
4. b 14. c 24. c
5. a 15. d 25. c
6. a 16. b 26. a
7. a 17. a 27. b
8. d 18. b 28. c
9. c 19. d 29. b
10. b 20. a 30. b
 MQ –MM (Set 2)

1 Traumatic chronic neuritis and 7 Every Sound Seems to penetrate

neuralgia of stump after through the whole body, causing
amputation with burning and nausea and vertigo
stinging pains. a) Lachesis
a) Arnica b) Theridion
b) Symphytum c) Tarantula
c) Allium Cepa d) Silicea
d) Hypericum
8 Sour smell of the whole body,
2 What Graphites is at the child smells sour even after
climacteric, which medicine is at washing or bathing
puberty a) Sulphur
a) Alumina b) Rheum
b) Sepia c) Psorinum
c) Belladonna d) Graphites
d) Pulsatilla
3 Constant pain under the lower 9 During Sleep red face with eyes
and inner angle of right scapula half closed and stertorous
a) Merurius breathing
b) Chelidonium a) Iodum
c) Sangunaria b) Gelsemium
d) Ferrum Phos. c) Antim tart
d) Opium
4 Hungry in the middle of the
night, must have something to eat 10 About which medicine.
a) Psorinum Hahnemann says, ‘One single
b) Calc. Carb dose of the 30th potency is
c) Thuja sufficient to cure entirely
d) Iodum epidemic whooping cough and
never give a second dose
5 The Skin feels cold to the touch, immediately after the first.”
yet the patient cannot tolerate a) Rumen
covering b) Aconite
a) Sulphur c) Drosera
b) Arsenic d) Belladonna
c) Secale cor.
d) Spongia 11 The sight or sound of running
6 Dysponea relieved by dancing or water or pouring water
walking rapidly aggravates all complaints.
a) Cocca a) Lyssin
b) Arsenic b) Nux Vomica
c) Mag.Carb c) Lachesis
d) Sepia d) Colchicum
12 Violent Vomiting with profuse 18 What is common name of
diarrhea Asterias Rubens is.
a) Carbo Veg a) Cuttle fish
b) Ipecac b) Purple fish
c) Veratrum Alb c) Oyster Shell
d) Bismuth d) Star fish

13 Sensation as if sticks, sand or 19 The remedy of great

gravel, stool lodged in rectum contradictions.
with painful bleeding piles. a) Ignatia
a) Nitric Acid b) Nat. Mur
b) Ratanhia c) Borax
c) Collinsonia d) Sepia
d) Aloe
20 Aconite & Rhus Tox are the two
14 Sexual organs exceedingly medicines from the Nash’s trio of
sensitive, cannot bear the napkin restlessness which is the third
to touch her medicine
a) Platina a) Arsenic Alb
b) Sepia b) Strammonium
c) Mephitis c) Carsinocin
d) Actaea racemosa d) Capsicum

15 Constant picking at the nose until 21 Adapted to book worm, sensitive,

it bleeds romantic girls with irregular
a) Aurum Met menstruation also vomiting from
b) Ammon Carb riding in carriage, boat etc.
c) Cina a) Ferrum Met
d) Arum Triphyllum b) Dulcamara
c) Cocculus
16 Marasmus of children with d) Iodum
marked emaciation especially of
legs 22 Very forgetful in business, but
a) Nat. Mur during sleep dreams of what be
b) Sanicula had forgotten
c) Abrotanum a) Staphisagria
d) Tabacum b) Selenium
c) Anacardium
17 Bag like, puffy swelling under d) Cannabis Indica
the eyes with stinging and 23 Whole body feels as if caged,
burning pain each wire being twisted tighter
a) Kali. Carb and tighter.
b) Apis. Mell a) Adonis
c) Apocynum b) Digitalis
d) Phosphorus c) Kalmia
d) Cactus G.
24 Feels complaint more when
thinking about them. 28 Which part is used for the
a) Calc. Phos preparation of drug Allium Cepa
b) Hellaborus a) Leaves of Oniun
c) Camphora b) Flowers of Onion
d) Silicea c) Fresh Bulb of Onion
d) Seeds of Onion
25 Sweet Sweat attracts the flies
a) Sulphur 29 Drug for the constitutional effect
b) Sanicula of maltreated and suppressed
c) Caladium gonorrhoea when the best
d) Psorinum selected remedy fails to relieve
or permanently improve.
26 What is the Principle constituent a) Medorrhinum
of Apis Mell. b) Cantharis
a) Carbohydrate c) Lycopodium
b) Toxalbumin d) Berb vulgaris
c) Rhatanic Acid
d) Atropine 30 Which is the most rational source
27 From the following drugs which to study Materia Medica.
is not belong to the ophidia group a) Clinical observations
a) Blatta Orientalis b) Imperical source
b) Crotalus Horridus c) Drug proving
c) Naja d) Doctrine of signature
d) Elapse Cor.
KEY

1. c 13. c 25. c
2. d 14. a 26. b
3. b 15. d 27. a
4. a 16. c 28. c
5. c 17. b 29. a
6. d 18. d 30. c
7. b 19. a
8. b 20. a
9. d 21. c
10. c 22. b
11. a 23. d
12. c 24. a
 MCQs – Obstetrics / Gynaecology
_________________________________________________________________________________

1) Indications of caesarean section in placenta 10) Normal labour is divided into how many
previa are the following except stages?
a) Severe degree of placenta praevia a) 2 b) 3
b) Elderly primigravida with 1st and 2nd c) 4 d) 5
degree with alive baby at term
c) Dead baby with type IV 11) Episiotomy is done in which stage of
d) Ist degree placenta previa labour?
a) I b) II
2) Which type of oedema is seen over the c) III d) after removal of placenta
ankles in toxemia of pregnancy?
a) Clubbing b) Pitting 12) A death of the baby within 18 days after
c) Pressing d) suppressing birth is called as
a) Extra uterine death b) Still birth
3) Following are the common cause of APH c) Neonatal mortality d) Prenatal Mortality
except
a) Severe anemia b) Placenta praevia 13) Thrombophlebitis is the cause of
c) Abruptio placenta d) ca cervix a) Mastitis
b) Puerperal sepsis
4) What will be the effects of severs anemia c) Puerperal Pyrexia
on baby d) post partum hemorrhage
a) Intrauterine death b) Prematuring
c) Both A & B d) None of these 14) Twins having same sex is seen in
a) Bin ovular b) Uniovular
5) Which condition may simulate tubal c) Both A & B d) None of these
gestation?
a) Acute Salpingitis b) Appendicitis 15) Hydramnios may be associated c
c) Intestinal obstruction d) Both A& B a) Anencephaly b) Oesophagial atresia
c) Uniovular twins d) All the above
6) In which abortion shock is the
complication? 16) Bearing down as if everything would
a) Threatened b) Recurrent come out call for the remedy
c) Incomplete d) septic a) Nat carb b) Sepia
c) Murex d) All of them
7) Second trimester starts from
a) 13th Week b) 15th week 17) Constipation during pregnancy
th
c) 16 week d) 20th Week a)Alumina b)sepia
c) Platina d) All of them
8) Which is the greatest pelvic inlet diameter
a) Oblique b) Diagonal type
c) Transverse d) Android type
18) Retained Placenta from atony of uterus
intense after pains call for the remedy
a) Sabina b) Caullophyllum
9) Morning sickness usually occurs c) Sec-cor d) All of them
a) In 5th month b) in 2nd & 3rd Month
c) After 28th Week d) After 20th Week
19) Nausea and vomiting in the morning from
the odour of cooking food 25) When the fetus is dead and retained inside
a) Arsenic b) Stannum the uterus for more than four week, it is called
c) Colchicum d) All of them a) Complete abortion
b) missed abortion
20) Which is the choice of medicine for c) Incomplete abortion
toxemia in pregnancy d) Inevitable abortion
a) Belladonna b) Cimicifuga
c) Sepia d)Baptisia.

21)Pre Eclampsia is a syndrome complex 26) Indicated remedy for normal labour is
characterized by a) Caulophyllum b) China
a)Anaemia,protenuria,oedema c) Secale cor d) Phosphorus
b) Hypertension, protenuria, oedema
c) Amenorrhoea, oedema, convulsion 27) Cancer of Mammae , breast feels drawn in
d) protenuria, Oedema, convulsion and distended as before menses
a) Phytolaca b) Arsenic
22) The duct of Bartholin’s gland opens into c) Apis Mell d) Ammon Crab.
a) Outer surface of labia majora
b) Outer surface of labia minora 28) Indicated remedy for Habitual Abortion is
c) Inner surface of labia minora a) Belladonna b) Aconite
d) Inner surface of labia majora c) Nat Mur d) Sabina

23) Inversion of uterus is the complication of 29) 3rd Stage of labour comprise
Delivery a) Delivery of fetus
a) 1st stage b) 2nd stage b) Placental separation & Expulsion with
c) 3rd stage d) 4th stage membranes
c) Dilatation of cervix
24) When the long axis of the fetus lies d) Rupture of membranes
perpendicularly to the maternal spine is it
called 30) Polyhydramnios is defined as a state
a) Brow Presentation where liquor amnii exceeds above
b) Vertex Presentation a) 100ml b) 300ml
c) Compound Presentation c) 200ml d) 500ml
d) Transverse Presentation
 MCQs – Repertory
____________________________________________________________________

1. BTP has how many grades

a. Three 8. Cataract is found in ____ chapter of Kent’s
b. Four repertory
c. Five a. Eye
d. Six b. Face
c. Generalities
2. Concordance chapter is given in ---- d. Vision
repertory 9. There are basic _______ number of
a. Kneers Repertory chapters of BTP
b. BBCR a. 20
c. BTP b. 7
d. Boerick c. 21
d. 11
3. Kent’s Repertory has _______ number of 10. Synthesis Repertory has _____ number of
sections volumes
a. 30 a. 3
b. 31 b. 2
c. 27 c. 4
d. 32 d. 5
11. The word repertory has originated from
4. Fragmenta - De-Viribis _______ has been a) Latin
written by b) German
a. Dr Kent c) Greek
b. Dr Hahnemann d) Marathi
c. Dr Boericke 12. Fredrick shreyoens has given --- repertory
d. Dr Boger a. Synthesis
b. Synthetic
5. There are _________ number of grades in c. Software
Kent’s Repertory d. Boger’s Repertory
a. 3 13. CARA is a ______ repertory
b. 4 a. Clinical Repertory
c. 5 b. Computer Repertory
d. 6 c. Logical repertory
d. Concordance Repertory
6. Radar has been built on ________ source 14. Card repertory was firstly discovered by
book a. Gurnesy b. Jhar
a. Complete Repertory c. Shankaran d. Shashi Mohan
b. Kent’s Repertory
c. Boericke’s repertory 15. B.T.P.has been built up on which source
d. Murphy’s repertory book
a. Repertory on Antipsoric
7. The cross reference idea is given by ______ medicine
author b. Repertory on non antipsoric
a. Jahr medicine
b. Gibson Miller c. Fragmeta de veribus
c. Kent d. B.B.C.R.
d. Boenninghaussen
 MCQs – Physiology
_________________________________________________________________________________

1. Trachea links _______ to the lungs. a) Starch, b) Fats,

a) Larynx, b) Pharynx, c) Proteins, d) Glucose
c) Naso pharynx, d) Oesophagus
10. Gastric Acid is secreted by ______ of
2. Total area of gas exchange in an adult gastric mucosa
individual is a) Parietal cells, b) Oxantic Cells,
a) 40 to 60 m2, b) 50 to 70 m2 c) G Cells, d) B cells
c) 60 to 80 m2 d) 45 to 55 m2
11. Gastric secretions begins when
3. Which of these is not a true respiratory a) The fluid reaches the stomach,
muscle b) The food is masticated,
a) Diaphragm, c) Saliva is mixed with food,
b) Internal Intercostal, d) Gets sight or smell of food.
c) External Intercostal,
d) Pyramidalis 12. Deficiency of intrinsic factors causes
a) Aplastic Anaemia,
4. Lungs surfactant are mainly b) Haemolytic anaemia,
a) Proteins, b) Glycolipids, c) Pernicious anemia,
c) Lipo proteins, d) Phospholipids d) Haemorrhagic anemia

5. Blood flow through the up right lung is 13. Which of the following is excitatory
greatest at nerotransmitter
a) Base, b) Middle 1/3, a) Glutamata, b) Glycine,
c) Apex, d) Lower 1/3 c) Malatonin, d) GABA

6. Which does not relate to pulmonary 14. Nerve signals are transmitted by
circulation a) Post titanic controls,
a. Whole of cardiac output passes through b) Resting membrane potential,
lungs, c) Action Potential,
b. b) Pressure in pulmonary arteries are d) Miniature end plate potential
similar to those in the systemic artery,
c. The mean pressure in the pulmonary 15. Which is the center for optical righting
arteries rise as cardiac output increases, reflex
d. In an upright man pulmonary blood flow is a) Hypothalamus,
greatest at the base of the lung b) Medulla,
c) Mid Brain,
7. Villi are not present in d) Cerebral Cortex
a) Stomach, b) Duodenum,
c) Jejunum, d) Ileum 16. Test from anterior 2/3 of tongue is
carried by
8. G. I. absorbs almost _________ fluid a) Vagus nerve,
per day b) Glossopharyngeal nerve,
a) 6 Lits., b) 8 Lits, c) Facial Nerve,
c) 10 Lits, d) 12Lits. d) Trigeminal Nerve

9. Saliva contains ptylin that digests

17. The normal dead space in a respiratory a) Cardia output is normal,
system is
a) 50 ml, b) 150 ml, b) There is underperfusion of tissues,
c) 100 ml, d) 200 ml c) The central venou spressure is
usually normal,
18. Which one of the following is not d) The ventricular function curve
increases in exercise? tends to be normal
a) Stroke volume, 27. Sustained hypertension may be caused
b) respiratory rate, by
c) Heart rate, a) Renal artery disease,
d) Total peripheral circulation. b) Excessive ACTH production,
c) Thyrotoxicosis,
19. The lowest PCO2 is found in d) All of the above.
a) Expired air b) Pulmonary artery, 28. A lower motor neurone lesion is
c) Alveolar air, d) pulmonary vein characterized by
a) Pronounced skeleton muscle
20. Trypsinogen is activated by atrophy,
a) Enterogastrone, b) State of flaccid paralysis,
b) Enterokinase, c) Loss of stretch reflex,
c) Bile salt, d) All of the above
d) Bi carbonate ions 29. The temperature regulating center is
mainly located in
21. Deficiency of clotting factors can a) Medulla, b) Pons,
cause the following except c) Cerebral Cortex, d) Hypothalamus
a) Purpura,
b) Afibrimogenemia, 30. Normally pain from viscera arises due
c) Haemophilia B, to
d) Haemophilia A a) Distension,
b) Mechanical Irritation,
22. Pain arising from visceral organ felt at c) Compression,
distance site is called d) Chemical Stimulation
a) Pricking pain, b) Burning pain,
c) Deep pain, d) referred pain

23. Calciferol is other name of

a) Vit A, b) Vit. D,
c) Vit C, d) Vit E

24. Beriberi is caused due to deficiency of

vitamin
a) Vit B1, b) Vit B2,
c) Vit B5, d) Vit B6.

25. Prolonged hypertension would produce

changes in
a) Kidneys, b) Fundus,
c) Heart, d) All of the above

26. Hypovolemic Shock differes from

cardiogenic shock in that
 MCQs – Organon (Set 1)
___________________________________________________________________________

1. In which year Homoeopathy c. Sycosis

discovered d. Tubercular
a. 1970
b. 1976 8. Who was the founder of isopathy
c. 1805 a. W. B. Lux
d. 1819 b. Galen
c. Hahnemann
2. Dr. Samuel Hahnemann was died d. Kent
in the year of
a. 1755 9. As per Homoeopathy causes of
b. 1805 disease are
c. 1790 a. Bacteria
d. 1843 b. Viruses
c. Miasm
3. 6th edition of Organon was d. Psora
published in the year of
a. 1810 10. Homoeopathic Central Council Act
b. 1819 passed in the year of
c. 1829 a. 1961
d. 1921 b. 1973
c. 1979
4. In which edition of Organon 50 d. 1990
milicimal scale introduced
a. First 11. Homoeopathic Medicine was used
b. Second in
c. Third a. Physiological doses
d. Fourth b. Toxic doses
c. Material doses
5. Decimal scale of potency was d. Dynamic doses
introduced by
a. Dr. Hering 12. What is prima causa morbi
b. Dr. Hanemann a. Exciting cause
c. Dr. Kent b. Maintaining cause
d. Dr. Boenninghausne c. Primary cause of disease
d. Fundamental cause
6. Biochemic system of medicine is
based on 13. Homoeopathic Law of nature given
a. Excess of nutrition theory in Aphorism No.
b. Deficiency of disorder theory a. 12
c. Miasm b. 21
d. Bacteria c. 26
d. 29
7. Fundamental cause of all the
diseases are 14. Acute disease are the acute
a. Psora explosion of
b. Syphilis a. Psora
 b. Syphilis b. 29
c. Sycosis c. 39
d. Tubercular d. 48

15. Tolle causm means 22. Action of medicine on vital force is

a. Palliation called
b. Suppression a. Primary action
c. Removal of cause b. Secondary action
d. Cure c. Alternating action
d. Physiological action
16. Total No. Aph. In 6th Edition is
a. 320 23. The Homoeopathic medicine must
b. 318 be tested on
c. 259 a. Male
d. 291 b. Female
c. Male and Female
17. What is meant by Aude Sapere d. Animal
a. Gain the knowledge
b. Dare to be wise 24. The patient should advised to speak
c. Unprejudiced observer during case taking
d. Fundamental canse a. Loudly
b. Slowly
18. What was the original German c. Quickly
word used by Dr. Hahnemann in Place of d. In acting
Mission
a. Aim 25. Diseases developed with few
b. Calling symptoms is called
c. Beruf a. One sided disease
d. Objective b. Chronic disease
c. Acute disease
19. Homoeopathy can remove d. Surgical disease
symptoms but the disease remains who
comment this first 26. How many observation of Dr. Kent
a. Dr. Hanemann has given after the administration of
b. Dr. Kent medicine.
c. Dr. Hughes a. Ten
d. Dr. Hufeland b. Twelve
c. Four
20. Who is the father of medicine d. Six
a. Dr. Hahnemann
b. Dr. Hippocrates 27. Who is called the father of
c. Dr. Davidson Homoeopathy in India
d. Dr. Harrison a. Dr. B. K. Sarkar
b. Dr. Mahyendralal Sarkar
c. Dr. Rajendra Dutta
d. Dr. Jugol Kishore

21. In which Aph. Dr. Hahnemann 28. Which Homoeopathic Medicine

discussed about the Homoeopathic cure. converted Dr. Hering to be a Homoeopath.
a. 26 a. Pulsatilla
 b. Arsenic a. High
c. Lachesis b. Low
d. China c. Moderate
d. Mother tincture

30. Low of direction of cure was given

by
a. Dr. Hahnemann
b. Dr. Hering
29. Acute diseases respond well to ---- c. Dr. Kent
potencies d. Dr. Boenninghausen

KEY

1. b 11. d 21. b
2. d 12. c 22. a
3. d 13. c 23. c
4. d 14. a 24. b
5. q 15. c 25. a
6. b 16. d 26. b
7. a 17. b 27. c
8. a 18. c 28. c
9. c 19. d 29. a
10. b 20. b 30. b
 MCQS – Organon (Set 2)
___________________________________________________________________________

1. In which year homoeopathy discovered?

(a)1790 (b)1796 (c)1805 (d) 1910

2. ‘Medicine of experience’ was written by

a. Dr. Hahnemann b. Dr. William Boericke c. Dr. Kent d. Dr. Nash

3. First edition of organon of medicine was published in

a. 1805 b. 1810 c. 1817 d. 1828

4. On the occasion of school leaving day Dr. Hahnamann has written essay on
a. Aetiological consideration of spasmodic affection
b. The wonderful consitruction of human hand
c. Difficulties for the poor to take education d. My teachers.

5. Who was the founder of “ Isopathy”

a. Dr. Kent b. Dr. Allen c. Dr. W.B. Lux d. Dr. Borericke

6. Mission of the physician is

a. To prove the drugs b. Explanation of disease
c. Perception d. To restore the sick to health

7. Who stated “ Homoeopathy removes only symptoms but diseases remains ?

a. Dr. Hahnemann b. Dr. Herings c. Dr. Hufeland d. Dr. Kent

8. Who excepts of Hanemann desided to prove the drugs on healthy human beings ?
a. Dr. Allen b. Dr. Nash c. Albrect von Haller d. Dr. Herings

9. Dr. Hahnemann gives us idea of case taking in apporis

a. 90 to 104 b. 116 to 143 c. 140 to 152 d. 83 to 104

10. “ Therapeutic law of nature “ is explained in

a. Aph. 2 b. Aph . 6 c. Aph 26 d. Aph. 72

11. Theory of drug proving explained in

a. Aph. 105 – 145 b. Aph 93 to 104
c. Aph. 20 to 26 d. Apho. 153 to 159

12. Apho, No. 6 of ‘ Organon of Medicine’ dea;s with the concept of

a. Chronic disease b. unpredudiced observer
c. Individualization d. Ideal cure

13. According to Homoeopathy drugs must be proved on

a. Diseased individuals b. Healthy human being
c. Lower animals d. Giniapigs
14. Soleguide for selection of remedy is
a. Disease diognosis b. Pathology
c. Totality of the symptoms d. prognosis of diseases

15. Who is author of the book “ Genius of Homoeopathy “?

a. Dr. Robert b. Dr. Kent c. Dr. Stuart Close d. N.M. Choudhary

16. Dr. Hahnemann has given idea about mental disease in Aph. No.
a. 83-104 b. 105-145 c. 210-230 d. 260 to 276

17. Dr. Hahnemann has given idea about administration of the medicine in Aph.No.
a. 22-27 b. 262 -263 c.272 -290 d. 264 to 271

18. “ Homoeopathic Posoplogy explained in Aph. No.

a. 105-145 b. 146 -154 c.245 -258 d. 262 to 263

19. “ Local maladies” are

a. Artifical chronic diseases b. false chronic diseases
c. Indisposition d. External one sided diseases

20. “ Tolle Causum” means

a. Palliation b. Removal of the cause
c. Suppression d. Causeless diseases

21. “ Aude Sepere” means

a. Sepration of diseases b. Latent cause of diseases
c. Acute disease d. Dare to wise

22. Aphorisms deals with the chapter of different systems of medicine

a. 52 – 60 b. 61-62 c. 63-69 d. 70-73

23. Total No. Aph. In sixth edition of Organon are

a. 320 b. 391 c. 272 d. 221

24. In first edition of organon of medicine Hahnemann quoted a poem on the title page
which was written by
a. Hahnemann b Dr. Boericke
c. Gellerb d.. Albreart von Haller

25. Who gave the idea of complete symptom

a. Dr. Nash b. Dr. Roberts
c. Dr. Stuart close d. Dr. Boenninghausen

26. “ Pseudo – chronic diseases” are caused by

a. Exciting b. Maintaining
c. Fundamental d. Indisposition

27. In which edition of organon ‘ Isopathy introduction first ?

a. Fifth b. Third
c. Second d. Fourth
28. Who defined ‘vital force’ as ‘simple substance’
a. Dr. Hahnemann b. Dr. Boericke
c. Dr. J.T. Kent d. Dr. Boger

29. Action of the vital force against the primary action is called as
a. Second action b. primary action
c. Alternating action d. Physiological action.

30. Sixth edition of “Organon of Medicine” was translated by

a. Dr. Hahnemann b. Dr. Nash
c. Dr. William Boricke c. Dr. Kents

KEY
1. b 11. a 21. d
2. a 12. b 22. a
3. b 13. b 23. b
4. b 14. c 24. c
5. c 15. c 25. d
6. d 16. c 26. b
7. c 17. c 27. a
8. c 18. c 28. c
9. d 19. d 29. a
10. c 20. b 30. c
 MCQS – Surgery
___________________________________________________________________________

1. Secondary shock is 8. Psychic moans, groans and stones

a. Irreversible shock is characteristic features of
b. Reversible shock a. Hypothyrodism
c. Anaphylactic shock b. Hypoparathyroidism
d. None of above c. Hyperparathyrodism
d. All of above
2. Which of following acts as a buffer
to regulate PH of blood, Acid – 9 Tumor of breast commonly known
base balance as Breast mouse
a. Carbohydrates a. Fibroadenoma
b. Plasma proteins b. Fibroadenosis
c. Fatty acids c. Duct papilloma
d. Platelet factors d. Giant Fibroadenoma

3. Rule of nine in burn was 10. Pancoast Tumour synonyms with

introduced by a. Superior pulmonary sulcus tumour
a. Alexander Fleming b. Inferior pulmonary sulcus tumour
b. Justin c. Bronchial Ca.
c. Alexander Wallace d. Ca. Lung
d. Kupose
11. On X-Ray chest “Peasant boot ”
4. Butterfly keloid is seen at appearance indicates
a. Front of chest a. Arterial septal detects
b. Neck b. Ventricular septal defects
c. Ear lobule c. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. Face d. Fallots tetralogy

5. Ulcer margin punched out ulcer is

a. Non malignant ulcer 12. Migrating thrombophlebitis is a
b. Varicose ulcer feature of
c. Malignant ulcer a. Ca. Oesophagus
d. Gummatous ulcer b. Ca. Breast
c. Ca. Stomach
6. Sebaceous cyst is not seen at d. Ca. Ovary
a. Scalp
b. Scrotum
c. Face 13. Kenaway’s sign positive in patient
d. Palm of
a. Portal hypertension
7. Brown’s vasomotor index is b. Portal pyaemia
special investigation for c. Hepatic coma
a. Arterial conditions d. Portal hypertension with
b. Embolic condition splenomegaly
c. Vasospastic conditions
d. Syphilitic condition
14. The earliest change in glaucoma is c. Ethmoidal sinus
a. Papilloedema d. None of above
b. Hazy cornea
c. Absolute glancoma 22. Unilateral blood stained and
d. Phlycten purulent nasal discharge in elderly
person is suggestive of
15. The earliest symptoms occur in a. Foreign body in nose
corneal ulcer is b. Suspicion of malignancy
a. Pain c. Vasomotor rhintis
b. Photophobia d. DNS
c. Loss of sensation
d. Diminished vision 23. Pain in oropharynx is known as
a. Otalgia
16. Alveolar abscess is commonly seen b. Odynophagia
at c. Dysphagia
a. Upper third molar d. None of above
b. Lower third molar
c. Upper second molar 24. The common age for adenoids is
d. Lower second molar between
a. 2 to 9 months
17. Good vision during night is b. 3 to 7 yrs
characteristic feature of c. 12 – 18 yrs
a. Central cataract d. 15-20 yrs.
b. Complicated cataract
c. Rosette shaped cataract 25. Sagging of posterio- superior canal
d. Snow flake cataract wall near ear drum is due to
a. Otitis externa
18. The commonest cause of swelling b. Otits media
of jaw is c. Chronic otitis media
a. Alveolar abscess d. Mastoiditis
b. Chronic pulpitis
c. Osteomyelitis of jaw 26. Paracusis willisii is seen in cases of
d. Odontomes a. Tympanosclerosis
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Otosclerosis
19. Which of following is benign tumour of d. Deafness.
oropharynx
a. Papilloma 27. The most commonest infection of
b. Lipomas
throat is
c. Mixed salivary tumours
a. Acute tonsillitis
d. All of abov
b. Pharyngitis
.
c. Sore throat
20. “Potato” nose is called as
d. Chronic tonsillitis
a. Rhinophyma
b. Rhinoscleroma
28. Hyperacusis is seen
c. Rhinitis sicca.
a. Bell’s palsy
d. Rhinitis caseosa
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Cochlear otoselerosis
21. Water’s view reveals details of
d. Acoustic neuroma
a. Frontal sinus
b. Maxillary sinus
29. Which is not a factor responsible 30. ….. is not a cause of gangrene
for delay in wound healing a. Infection
a. Infection b. Atherosclerosis
b. Foreign body c. Diabetes Mellitus
c. Diabetes mellitus d. Fracture
d. Good blood supply

KEY

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. a
5. d
6. c
7. c
8. b
9. a
10. a
11. d
12. c
13. d
14. a
15. b
16. d
17. a
18. a
19. c
20. a
21. b
22. b
23. b
24. b
25. c
26. c
27. a
28. d
29. c
30. d
 MCQs - MEDICINE

Q.1. Which disease comprised in COPD b. Longh reflex

a. Chronic bronchitis c. Touch reflex
b. Pulm TB d. Pupil’s are reactinve to light
c. Emyena
d. La Lng Q.9. Select ‘Hallmark’ feature of UTI
a. Burning Micturation
Q.2. Butterfly oppearance fascial rash seen b. Uraemia
in c. Polyuria
a. Small pox d. Anuria
b. S.L.E.
c. Chicken pox Q.10. In which disease BUN level increased
d. Measles with Hypertention
a. Nephrotic syndrome
Q.3. ‘Koplik’ spot is a key feature of b. CRF
a. Typhoid c. Lt. V. Failure
b. Chicken pox d. Mitral valve stenosis
c. Allergic rash
d. Measle’s Q.11. Predisposing risk facter for coronary
Heart disease
Q.4. Small Flat area of alter red colour of the a. Smoking
skin lesion is called as b. Heavy diet
a. Macule c. Tension
b. Papule d. Hypertension
c. Sinus
d. Bulla Q.12. Which is not clinical feature of AMI
a. Prolonged chest pain
Q.5. Wrticaria Manifested by b. Breathlessness
a. Wheats c. Hypotention
b. Pain d. Headache
c. Swelling
d. Redness Q.13. ‘Dyspnoen’ is a key feature of
a. Bronchial Asthma
b. Hypertension
Q.6. Psoriasis flare-up by c. Diabetic
a. Sunlight d. ARF
b. Itching
c. Rubing Q.14. ‘Tight Chest’ Feeling is the symptom
d. Touch of
a. Chronic bronchitis
Q.7. Which is not the first aid case of seizures b. Emphysena
a. Move person away from danger c. Pulm T.B.
b. Ensure airway is clear d. Bronchial Ashtma
c. Insert mouth (cloth) in mouth
d. Urgent medical attention Q.15. Decrease PaO2 is seen in
a. C.H.d.
Q.8. Which are the test for confirming brain b. Asthma Hypertension
death c. Pulm Tub.
a. Corneal reflexes areabsent d. La Lung
Q.16. ‘Stency dullness’ is key feature of Q.24. Micro-Onemysm is key feature of
a. Hepatitis a. Portol Hypertension
b. Pleural effusion b. Diabetic Retinopathy
c. Splenemegally c. Atherosdecotic diseases
d. Pancretitis d. Co-araatation of aorta

Q.17. High pitch expiratory ronchi Heard in Q.25. ‘Lapute Medusae’ is key feature of
a. Ch. Bronchities a. Portal Hypertension
b. Co. Lung b. Essentian hypertension
c. Lardioe Asthma c. Oppendicities
d. Trachetitis d. Hepatomegale

Q.18. Dryness of mouth is called as Q.26. Retinal Haemorrhage caused by

a. Stomatitis a. Diabetes
b. Candidosis b. Measles
c. Xerustomia c. Portal Hypertension
d. Lenkoplakia d. Ascities

Q.19. Failure of peristalsis & Dexaphageal Q.27. Which disease is called as mother of all
syhincter on swollwing is a key feature of diseases
a. pyloric stenosis a. Hyperthyrodism
b. Acholasia of cardia b. Diabetes
c. Reflure Desophagitis c. Typhoid
d. Oesephegitis d. S.L.E.

Q.20. Jaundice is synomameus called as Q.28. Which disease is called as enforic Force
a. Hypatitis A a. Maleria
b. Hepatitis B b. Typheid
c. La Liver c. Kala-azar
d. Hepatomegaly d. Paratyphoid

Q.21. Which is rash appearance disease Q.29. ‘Rebond Theleness is a key feature of
a. Typhoid a. Paitonities
b. Diabetes b. Diabetics
c. Thyropenicusos c. Hypertension
d. Pancreatitis d. Thyretoxicases

Q.22. What is the complication of typhoid Q.30. ‘Pleomarphism’ is a key feature of

force a. Typhoid
a. Fereq b. Chicke pox
b. Headache c. Small pox
c. Perferation d. Measles
d. Bodyache

Q.23. ‘Dew drop’s’ rash seen in

a. Measles
b. Chcken pox
c. Typhoid
d. Small pox
 Key:
1. a
2. b
3. d
4. a
5. a
6. a
7. c
8. a
9. a
10. b
11. a
12. d
13. a
14. d
15. a
16. b
17. a
18. c
19. b
20. d
21. a
22. c
23. b
24. a
25. a
26. a
27. c
28. b
29. a
30. b
 PATHOLOGY
Q.1. Hydatid cyst is the larval form of Q.8. Sexually transmitted disease includes all
a. T.Saginata except
b. T.Solium a. Plague
c. E.Granulosus b. Non-gonococcal urethritis
d. E. Histolytica c. Gonorrhea
d. Syphilis
Q.2. Intermediate host for the life cycle of
Dog tape warm is Q.9. Diseases caused by Oro-Fecal
a. Human being transmission included all except
b. Dog a. Typhoid fever
c. Fish b. Filariasis
d. Pig c. Ascariasis
d. Giardiasis
Q.3. Loethler’s syndrome is caused by
a. A. Lumbricoidis Q.10. VDRL test is
b. T.Sagnata a. Agglutination test
c. D. Latum b. Floqulation test
d. E.Histolytica c. Complement fixation test
d. Neutralization test
Q.4. Causes of necrosis is seen in
a. Leprosy Q.11. One of following is type 1
b. Tuberculosis hypersensitivity reaction
c. Typhoid fever a. Anaphylaxis
d. Measles b. Erythroblastosis foetalis
c. Ac. Rheumatic fever
Q.5. Typical feature of wet gangrene include d. Tuberculin test
all except
a. Caused by obstruction of veins Q.12. Schick’s test is done to diagnose
b. Common in terminal parts of finger immunological status of individual against
c. Caused by volvulus, intussusceptions a. Pertussis
& strangulated hernia b. Tetanus
d. Gangrenous part is mast, without line c. Diphtheria
of demarcation d. Plague

Q.6. Plasmodia responsible for malignant Q.13. Food poisoning is caused by all of
malaria is following bacteria except
a. P-Vivax a. Staph. Aureus
b. P. Falciparum b. Cl-welchi
c. P.Ovale c. S.typhi
d. P.Malaria d. Pneumococci

Q.7. First all to migrate in formation of Q.14. Gram positive diplococcic by

exudates during acute inflammation is a. T.Pallidum
a. Neutrophils b. L. Icterhemorhagae
b. Lymphocyte c. B. Recuweatis
c. Macrophage d. R. Rickettssiae
d. Giant Cell
Q.15. Weils disease is caused by
 a. T.Pallidum b. MCH reduced
b. L.Icterhemarhagae c. MCHC is normal
c. B.Recuweatis d. PCV elevated
d. R.Rickettssiae
Q.19. Causes of Hemolytic Anemia includes
Q.16. Zoonotic diseases includes all except all except
a. Rabies a. G6PD deficiency
b. Plague b. Malaria
c. Enteric fever c. Erythroblastosis foetalis
d. Leptospirosis d. Acute myloid leukemia

Q.17. Subacute combined degeneration of Q.20. Commonest cause of Acute myocardial

spinal card is caused by deficiency of infarction is
a. Thiamine a. Thrombosis of atherosclerotic coronary
b. Pyridoxine artery
c. Cynocobalamine b. A. Atrial fibrillation
d. Ascorbic arid c. Infective endocarditic
d. Congenital valvular heart disease
Q.18. About megaloblastic Anemia, true is
a. MCV reduced

----

KEY FOR ANSWERS

1. C 6. B 11. A 16. C
2. A 7. A 12. C 17. C
3. A 8. A 13. D 18. C
4. B 9. B 14. A 19. D
5. B 10. B 15. B 20. A
 PSM

Q.1. Nosocomial infection spreads through Q.8. Pre-term of Baby is when its weight is
a. Upper respiratory tract below
b. Skin a. 10 percentile
c. Orofaecal route b. 20 percentile
d. Hospitals c. 50 percentile
d. 60 percentile

Q.2. Who was the discoverer of yoga method Q.9. Thophatare test is milk is done to know
of treatment a. Quality of pasteurisation
a. Atreya b. Contamination of milk
b. Patanjali c. Nutrative value
c. Vagbhata d. Coliform test
d. Vrdukunda
Q.10. There is source of Vitamin A in
Q.3. Iodisation of salt is an example of A. Carrot
a. Health promotion B. Shark Oil
b. Specific protection C. Pulses
c. Early Diagnosis and treatment D. Soya bean
d. Disability limitation
Q.11. A Child of breast feed need
Q.4. Cholera is characterized by the following supplements of
except a. Vitamin A
a. No nausea & retching b. Vitamin B
b. No Abdominal tenderness c. Calcium
c. Fever d. Vitamin D
d. Very marked de-hydration

Q.5. The Commonest viral hepatitis in India at Q.12. Mid day meal programme is sponsored
present is by
a. Hepatitis A a. Health Ministry
b. Hepatitis B b. Home ministry
c. Hepatitis E c. Ministry of social welfare
d. Delta Hepatitis d. Education ministry

Q.6. Dose of chloroquine in infants is Q.13. Sullabh International manufactures

a. 25 mg a. Aqua Privy
b. 50 mg b. Water seal latrine
c. 75 mg c. Dug well
d. 130 mg d. Smokeless Chullah

Q.7. Best method of contraception in post Q.14. Silicosis was first Identified in
coital is a. Uttar Pradesh
a. Suction & Evacuation b. Andhra Pradesh
b. Oral pills c. Karnataka
c. Menstrual regulation d. Kerala
d. IUD (cu ’T’) insertion
Q.15. Calculate the MODE of 70, 71, 72, 70, Q.18. RED CROSS founded by
73, 70, 75 a. John Snow
a. 70 b. Henry Durant
b. 71 c. Galton
c. 73 d. Hyppocretes
d. 75
Q.19. For which of the following man is an
Q.16. Maternal mortality rate is calculated for intermediate host
a. Crude death rate a. Malaria
b. 1000 live birth b. Filaria
c. 1000 birth c. Taeniasis
d. 1000 crud death d. Ascariasis

Q.17. Intermediate health agencies excluding Q.20. Strength of Sullage is Expressed in

WHO are term of
a. UNICEF a. Biological Oxygen demand
b. FAO b. Suspended solids
c. UNESCO c. Chemical Oxygen demand
d. ILO d. E-coli cornt

-----

Key for Answers

1. D
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. D
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. A
20. A