CL Prime Mock Clat#07

Prime Mock 07 (CLAT) (2022)
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1
The suicide attack on a mosque in Kunduz last week, killing at least 50 people, all of them from Afghanistan's
persecuted Shia minority, is a grave reminder that the conflict in the country is far from over. The Islamic State-Khorasan
(IS-K), the Afghanistan-based arm of the terrorist organisation, has claimed responsibility. The IS's doctrinal hatred
towards the Shias is known. In Iraq and Syria, it systematically targeted Shias, who it calls "rejectionists" of faith, and
used such attacks to mobilise the support of Sunni hardliners and trigger sectarian conflicts. The Kunduz blast was the
third major attack by the IS since the Taliban's takeover of Kabul on August 15. Days later, an IS suicide squad attacked
Kabul airport when thousands of Afghans were desperately trying to flee the country, killing at least 170 Afghans and 13
American soldiers. On October 3, a bomb targeted a memorial service being held for the mother of the Taliban
spokesman, Zabihullah Mujahid, in a Kabul mosque, killing five. All these attacks suggest that the IS-K's ability to strike
has grown. The group, which started operating in Afghanistan's eastern provinces after it suffered setbacks in Iraq and
Syria in 2015-16, is no longer confined to the east
When the Taliban captured power in 1996, their main promise was to provide security to a people who were living
through almost two decades of civil war. The Taliban had taken control of almost 90% of the country and established
order through the implementation of their brutal code. This time, the Taliban control almost all of the country, but still
struggle to establish order. There have been multiple instances of direct fighting between the Taliban and IS-K jihadists.
The Taliban is an enemy for the IS-K, which wants to establish a foothold in Afghanistan exploiting the sectarian wounds
and security vacuum. While both groups have used tactics of terror, the IS-K is a pan-Islamist jihadist outfit, while the
Taliban are largely a Pashtun nationalist militancy. The rise of the IS-K poses multiple challenges to the Taliban's rule
over Afghanistan, which many in Afghanistan and Pakistan saw as a solution to the country's security woes. On one
side, their promise to provide security looks hollow. Afghanistan's cities under the Taliban remain as insecure as they
were under the previous Islamic Republic. On the other hand, even if the Taliban, under pressure from Afghanistan's
donors and the public, want to make some concessions on the many restrictions already imposed, they would come
under pressure from the more extremist IS-K, which says the Taliban are not Islamic enough. For the people of
Afghanistan, who are stuck between the devil and the deep blue sea, the war that started 40 years ago continues, no
matter who is in power in Kabul.
Q 1. What is the central idea of the passage?
a) No matter who is in power in Kabul, Afghanistan sees little prospect of peace
b) Taliban is unable to provide the security and safety it promised to the people
c) The power and authority of IS-K is increasing consistently in Afghanistan

d) Pashtun nationalism Vs Sunni fundamentalism is new power struggle
Q 2. Which of the following best describes the relation between Taliban and IS-K?
a) Potential allies for power
b) Inimical to each other

c) Ideologically joined but politically separated
d) Secret collusion but seemingly in conflict

Q 3. Which of the following can be concluded about IS-K in context of Afghanistan?
a) It is largely restricted to Eastern Afghanistan

b) It has embarked on a fully fledged military offensive
c) It has a more liberal religious outlook than Taliban
d) It incites sectarian conflict by promoting religious polarization
Q 4. Taliban can be described as all of the following except:
a) A military fighting force

b) A collaboration of different feudal leaders
c) A group made up of religiously indoctrinated Pashtuns
d) Pashtun Nationalist force with support from Pakistan
Q 5. Which of the following best captures the meaning of the expression "stuck between the devil and the deep blue
sea"?
a) Abundance of options
b) Two equally bad options
c) A very difficult choice
d) Short term vs. long term
Passage – 2
Air India, the airline started by J.R.D. Tata in the 1930s, is all set to return to the Tata fold after a 68-year-long journey as
India's state-owned flag carrier. The Centre's announcement on Friday that Tata Sons' subsidiary Talace Pvt. Ltd. was
the winning bidder for the 100% stake in the debt-laden airline brings the curtain down on the government's multi-year
effort to privatise the loss-making carrier. Talace emerged winner in the two-horse race by bidding to take over Rs.
15,300 crore of Air India's more than Rs. 60,000 crore of accumulated debt and offering an additional Rs. 2,700 crore in
cash for the Government's equity stake. For the Tatas, who have retained an abiding interest in the country's airline
industry and currently majority own both a budget carrier, AirAsia India, and a full-service airline, Vistara, the Air India
acquisition brings opportunities to gain scale and synergies at a significant level. This definitely enhances the status and
profile of Tata in the aviation sector.
The Centre, for its part, can finally heave a sigh of relief at having successfully exited the commercial aviation space, a
high-cost industry that most governments around the world have left in the hands of private carriers so as to ensure
taxpayers' money is deployed more meaningfully in social and strategic sectors. After having ploughed in more than Rs.
1-lakh crore of capital in the past decade alone and seeing Air India suffer a daily loss of over Rs. 20 crore, the
Government's desperation to cut its losses and close out a fire sale is understandable. The pandemic's impact on public
finances and the carrier's operations, especially given the devastating impact on air travel both domestic and
international, is sure to have helped spur the Government's decision to agree to not only absorb 75% of the carrier's
debt, but to also pick up the tab on medical benefits for former employees. And in a bid to protect the interests of the
more than 13,000 permanent and contractual staff at the airline and its unit, the government has bound Talace to
ensuring there should be no job cuts for at least one year. Still, integrating the state-run carrier's sizeable workforce is
going to be one among the many serious challenges, awaiting the Tatas. To turn around Air India at a time of soaring fuel
costs and COVID-hit air travel, is sure to test the conglomerate's managerial mettle. Tatas surely think that they are upto
it.
Q 6. Which of the following is definitely not true about the selling process of Air India from GOI to Tata group?
a) It was sold privately at the end of a multi-year long process

b) It was originally a part of the Tata group and was acquired by the government
c) It was sold in the process of bidding where the Tatas emerged winners
d) The airline run by the government for 68 years is saddled with debts; the primary reason for the sale
Q 7. Which of the following has not been mentioned as an advantage for the Tata from the acquisition?
a) Prospective Expansion
b) Expedient Mergers
c) Easy Retrenchment
d) All of the above are advantages mentioned
Q 8. As per the passage, it can be inferred that after the sale, the government will be feeling:
a) A sense of regret
b) A sense of relief
c) A sense of retribution
d) A sense of repulsion
Q 9. Which of the following is not true as per the passage?

a) Covid precipitated the sale of Air India, as incremental losses mounted on
b) Government will ensure that Tata bears the medical benefits cost of the employees
c) Government has ensured that no employee can be fired in the next one year
d) Tata will have to face the challenge of integrating huge Air India manpower
:
Q 10. Which of the following if true will make this sale an attractive one for the Tatas?
a) Air India serve 55 overseas destinations, hold over 3,000 landing and parking slots, operate a 141-aircraft fleet
b)
Air India is the only Indian airlines, holding membership of the 26-airline Star Alliance, world's largest global airline
alliance
c)
Air India's 13.2% consolidated market share of domestic traffic gives the Tata group a more competitive combined
share of 27%
d) All of the above
Passage – 3
Bringing to a close speculation about the winner of the Physics Nobel prize this year, the Nobel committee decided to
award a trio of researchers. One half went to Syukuro Manabe of Princeton University, U.S., and Klaus Hasselmann of
the Max Planck Institute for Meteorology, Hamburg, Germany, for their work in climate science. In the long line of
researchers who estimated the warming of the atmosphere due to gases in it, Syukuro Manabe's modelling, in
collaboration with others - and over decades - is a classic work that showed, even in the 1960s, that the atmosphere
would undergo another 2.3° C warming with the doubling of carbon dioxide content. Klaus Hasselmann identified a way
of treating the random noise-like variations of the weather, devising a method to generate useful "signals" on the scale of
the climate. Of interest was the way these models could show the effect of human activities on the climate. The other
half of the prize, to Giorgio Parisi from the Sapienza University of Rome, Italy, is for developing a method to sensibly
study complex condensed matter systems called "spin glasses" - an outstanding feat in both mathematical and physical
innovation. The idea to break what is called "replica symmetry", seen in a spin glass, in a consistent manner, which was
his contribution, led to a method to study one of the simplest models of a genuinely complex system. His work has
helped solve problems in mathematics, biology and neuroscience; for instance, how memory is stored in networks of
nerve cells.
What ties together the seemingly disparate works - the climate science work by Syukuro and Hasselmann on the one
hand and theoretical condensed matter physics work by Parisi on the other - is that both describe complex physical
systems. Physics is often thought of as a science of simple systems, and it is mostly celebrated and sometimes chided
for this. Even rocket science, which inspires awe for its grandeur and accuracy, is mostly the study of so-called simple
systems. Complexity arises when there are many, many interacting pieces in the system, with each moving in an
independent way. The deceptively easy-looking problem of water rushing out of a tap is notoriously difficult to understand
as to when it makes a transition from simple streamlined flow to a complex turbulent flow. The Nobel winners this year
have handled such complex systems and developed tools to get meaningful, quantitative results out of them. Notable in
this is the climate scientists' work, which makes it obvious where science stands on the issue of global warming and
estimates the human fingerprint on climate change. With the COP26 summit drawing close, the Nobel committee's
decision only underscores the need to take this into account.
:
Q 11. Which of the following is the most apt title of the passage?
a) Handling complexity: On 2021 Nobel Prize in Physics

b) Physics: Science of simple systems
c) Climate science and Condensed matter
d) Nobel Prize in Physics goes to climate science
Q 12. Which of the following is a common trait of both the different winners of the Prize, and their respective work?
a)
Both the Physics Nobel Prize winners have worked on similar projects with same end goals, independently of each
other
b) Both the Physics Nobel Prizewinners have managed to solve problems which have plagued humanity for centuries
c) Both the Physics Nobel Prizewinners have worked in areas which have never been explored before
d) Both the Physics Nobel Prize winners have developed tools to get a handle on complex systems
Q 13. The word 'chided' as mentioned in the passage cannot be replaced by:
a) Scold
b) Rebuked
c) Rebutted
d) Chastise
Q 14. Which of the following is true as per the passage?
a)
Syukuro Manabe has been working on his project modeling- which finally won him the Nobel Prizesinglehandedly, for
decades
b)
Klaus Hasselmann was awarded for developing a method to sensibly study complex condensed matter systems called
"spin glasses"
c) The work of Giorgio Parisi can be used to solve problems in mathematics, biology and neuroscience
d)
The Nobel Prize was awarded because the scientists proved that the atmosphere would undergo another 2.3° C
warming with the doubling of carbon dioxide content
:
Q 15. Which of the following is definitely not true, as per the passage?
a) Nobel Prize winners developed complex, quantitative tools for simple problems
b) Physics is sometimes described a science of simple systems
c) Human impact on climate change is an important scientific research area
d) Water flowing out of a tap can be considered as a complex system
Passage – 4
The precarious power situation, triggered by the apparent shortage of coal at thermal plants across the country, has
caught both the Centre and the states off guard. Even as the Union government has denied that there is any crisis
pertaining to the availability of coal as well as electricity, several states are feeling the heat, including Punjab, Delhi, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar and Rajasthan. As usually happens in such cases, a Centre-State slanging match has already started
and taken an ugly turn. Lack of clarity on the actual state of affairs is causing confusion and panic. Everyone seems to
be blaming everyone else, with no transparency in accusations and explanations. The Union Power Ministry has pointed
a finger at some states on two counts: not supplying power to their consumers; and instead selling it in the power
exchange at high prices. If that is indeed the case, strict action needs to be taken against the distribution companies that
are wrongfully keeping various categories of users deprived of power. The ministry has told the states to utilise
unallocated power of the central generating stations to meet their requirements, failing which this allocation will be
withdrawn and given to others that need it badly. However, in the absence of coordination between the Centre and the
states, things have taken a turn for the worse. It's a hand-tomouth existence for most thermal plants as their coal
supplies are dwindling fast. All roadblocks ought to be removed at the earliest so that the plants keep operating, even if
at a diminished capacity. This matter requires urgent and immediate response based on coordination between center
and states and keeping the politics at bay.
The abatement of the pandemic's second wave and the encouraging tempo of the vaccination programme have
contributed to a full-throttle resumption of economic activity and consequently a sharp rise in the consumption of
electricity. The onset of the festival season has also upped the power demand. While short-term arrangements are being
made to ease the situation that threatens to derail the nation's economic recovery, it is imperative to look at the larger
picture. India is the world's second-highest importer, producer and consumer of coal, with China being on top. This
heavy dependence on coal, coupled with the reluctance to optimally tap sources of renewable energy, should be
reduced to make the country less vulnerable on the power front.
Q 16. As per the passage, which of the following is the reason for the sudden increase in demand of electricity?
a) Companies have cancelled home from work and offices are opening up and being attended in full capacity
b) Trade and business have resumed with a vengeance and they have a high requirement of electricity
c) Movie festivals and fetes are being organized frequently and on grand scale, consuming huge amount of electricity
d) Government offices and institutions which were closed during pandemic have started operations again
:
Q 17. Which of the following has been mentioned as a reason for taking action against the distribution companies?
a) States have engaged in slanging match with the Center

b) States have not utilized the unallocated power of central generating stations
c) States have sold electricity to power exchanges at higher cost, rather than using it
d) States have not provided thermal power stations with adequate supply of coals
Q 18. Which of the following word cannot be considered as opposite in meaning to the word 'precarious', as used in
the passage?
a) Comfortable
b) Secured
c) Stringent
d) Guaranteed
Q 19. Which of the following is not a synonym of an idiom used in the passage?
a) To encounter an uncomfortable situation
b) To become worse
c) To live uncertainly from day to day
d) To be satisfied with whatever little one has
Q 20. The author suggests that the following lesson needs to be drawn from this crisis:
a) Better relations between Center and States
b) More efficient distribution methods of power
c) Regular supply and stocking of coal to power plants

d) Less reliance on conventional fuel for power
Passage – 5
The divide is evident everywhere in India. The fruits of development are not distributed with any parity. The need to
guard against the hazards of lopsided development is evident from the deplorable condition of the village road leading to
Kharkara from Bhatsana village in Dharuhera block of Haryana's Rewari district. One is forced to wonder, how can it
happen in a state like Haryana. A state that has seen unprecedented emphasis on roadbuilding, aimed at decongesting
the national capital and boosting connectivity to the adjoining states to spur the development process, can ill-afford to
neglect the maintenance of infrastructure. The matter has caught fire now. While the Haryana Human Rights
Commission has sought a report from the district authorities, the reason given for the problem - that the inundation of the
road took place due to the release of water from a dam to improve the water table in the area -indicates that there was
no adequate monitoring by the authorities concerned to avoid inconvenience to people. This is as deplorable as the state
:
of the road.
It cannot be denied that the farmers' agitation has seen that the rural roads in Haryana, hitherto isolated and desolate,
being put to greater use to reach destinations by those commuting to and from Delhi and NCR, the epicenter of the
agitation. However, for the state government, the maintenance of village roads should be a priority. While user fee
collection at the toll plazas might have been hit because of the stir, the state should generate additional resources and
put to good use the market committee fee which was only recently hiked, along with the rural development fund cess.
The upkeep of roads should also be a must after the rains. The lockdown saw the suspension of regular repair work.
With the situation returning to normal, it should be resumed. The Centre has formulated from time to time projects for the
development of roads, not just the national and state highways, but also the village and other district roads. With nearly
two-thirds of the roads in the country being village roads, their serviceability is important to ensure that the benefits of
government schemes percolate down to the people for whom they are intended. The district administration should be
accountable for ensuring coordination between the different wings of the government and fixing lapses.And this
accountability must be exposed in the public domain, to bring about the real change.
Q 21. Which of the following excuse for non maintenance of the road has the author dismissed?
a) The lack of funds due to non collection of tolls
b) Road-blocking by Farmers due to the agitation

c) Inaccessibility due to extreme weather
d) Workers' unwillingness to work due to safety concerns
Q 22. Where does the author fix the ultimate accountability for the ill state and consequent improvement in road
maintenance?
a) State government
b) Local bureaucracy
c) Central government
d) Autonomous institutions
Q 23. The ________ in the fact that this particular village road which is in a deplorable condition lies in Haryana which
has "seen unprecedented emphasis on road-building, aimed at decongesting the national capital and boosting
connectivity to the adjoining states to spur the development process" is an indication of ____________
a) Sarcasm, infrastructure development
b) Dilemma, village development
c) Irony, lopsided development

d) Pathos, economic development
:
Q 24. Which of the following has been mentioned as a reason for roads connecting villages to be maintained
properly?
a) 2/3rd of the roads are connected with the villages
b) Benefits of development need to reach the villages
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q 25. All of the following can be inferred from the passage except:
a) Village roads have lower or zero toll collections
b) Centre allocates funds for National and state Highways, and State for village roads
c) Roads require regular maintenance, especially after monsoons

d) The farmers' agitation has created bottlenecks at highways and major roads
Passage – 6
The Centre has read the message wrong, once again. Environmental activists have been urging the government to 'go
green' by protecting India's forests. But it seems more interested in protecting the 'green' in the wallet instead. Consider
a recent instance. The Union environment ministry has proposed an amendment to the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
This seeks to exempt certain categories of infrastructure project developers from requiring the Centre's permission to
use forest land for 'non-forestry' purposes. Although advertised as a green move, the proposal is riddled with
contradictions. While the ministry claims that the intervention would incentivize afforestation on private lands, it concedes
that it seeks to clear the path for land-holding agencies - the railways and the road and highway ministry included - to
deforest lands acquired before 1980 as well as allow constructions for 'bona fide' purposes. What the government seems
to ignore, however, is why the definition of 'forest' had been broadened in the first place. Has this been done to facilitate
profiteering at the cost of India's green cover? This is not idle speculation. India's forests have been suffering for long:
'very dense forests', capable of absorbing copious amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, constitute only three
per cent of the country's geography. If the aim is indeed for India to meet its environmental goal of increasing forest and
tree cover to 33 per cent, paying lip-service to the protection of 'pristine' forests - yet another objective of the amendment
- would not be enough. The amendment would also allow non-invasive exploration or extraction of oil and natural gas.
Given that illegal depredations threaten the forests in spite of protective laws in place, it is not difficult to imagine their
fate without strict oversight.India's forests, with all their local variation and ecosystems, cannot be managed using
singular, Central legislation - involving local bodies in case-specific inspection would be more effective. In fact,
decentralized forest management is not without precedence: the National Forest Policy, 1988 had encouraged local
participation through the joint forest management institution, while the Forest Rights Act, 2006 empowered gram sabhas
with rights to manage, conserve and protect forests. Moreover, development of forest land must take into account local
communities whose livelihoods depend on it - community participation in India's first jungle safari in Chandrapur in
Maharashtra is an inspiring example. The community must be made the principal stakeholder in deliberations on forest
land if India is to save what remains of its wilderness.
:
Q 26. Which of the following has not been cited in support of involvement of local communities in forest management?
a) Jungle safari in Chandrapur

b) Amendment to Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
c) National Forest Policy, 1988
d) Forest Rights Act, 2006
Q 27. What is the author's objection to the following: The amendment would also allow non-invasive exploration or
extraction of oil and natural gas?
I. Provides legal endorsement to an activity which is illegal at present
II. The illegal activity has not been completely weeded out, in spite of the law
III. This will increase the supervision which will affect the economic output
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) I, II and III
d) II and III
Q 28. The author is accusing the government of:
a) Not maintaining the spirit of the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

b) Giving confusing signals about extraction and mining activities
c) Encouraging poachers and not doing enough for protecting wildlife
d) Not distributing the economic benefits of forest produce equally
Q 29. Which of the following can best explain the phrase in the passage "paying lip-service to the protection of
'pristine' forests"?
a) Fallacious claims of natural beauty
b) Facetious promises of preserving virgin nature
c) Ferocious demands on the bounty of the nature
d) False pledges of arresting climate change
Q 30. Which of the following, if true would weaken the concept of decentralized forest management?
a) Local communities have a greater incentive to manage and conserve forests
b) Local communities obtain valuable products like honey, herbs etc from forests
c) Gram Panchayats have been more susceptible to bribery by timber smugglers
d) Local communities are more capable of regular monitoring and inspection of forests
Passage – 1
:
India successfully test-fired the recently inducted [1], the nuclear-capable intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), amid
rising tensions with China along the Line of Actual Control (LAC). The successful launch of the surface-tosurface ballistic
missile, which has a range of over [2] km, was done from the APJ Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha.
This is the first user launch of the missile, which was last tested in 2018, before it got inducted into the Strategic Forces
Command that looks after India's nuclear arsenal.
In a statement, the Defence Ministry said the successful test of [1] "is in line with India's stated policy to have credible
minimum deterrence that underpins the commitment to 'No First Use'".
The missile, which uses a three-stage solid-fuelled engine, is capable of striking targets at ranges up to [2] kilometres
with a very high degree of accuracy, the ministry said.
[1] has the capability to reach almost every part of China, sources had said in 2018, when the missile was tested last by
its developer, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
The launch comes just months after India also test-fired the Agni Prime, the next generation nuclear-capable ballistic
missile in the nuclear arsenal. While the Agni Prime and the rest of the Agni series is focussed primarily on Pakistan, the
[1] is a much larger strategic weapon, capable of striking at much longer ranges.
With [1], India has joined an exclusive club of countries, with the others being China, US, Russia, Britain and France, to
have ICBMs.
A DRDO official had in 2018 said that [1] is programmed in a way that after reaching the peak of its trajectory, it will turn
towards Earth to continue its journey towards the intended target with increased speed due to the attraction of the
Earth's gravitational pull.
Q 31. India successfully test-fired the recently inducted [1], the nuclear-capable intercontinental ballistic missile
(ICBM), amid rising tensions with China along the Line of Actual Control (LAC). Which of the following has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Agni-VI
b) Agni-V
c) Agni Prime -IV
d) AKASH-V
Q 32. The missile [1], which uses a three-stage solid-fuelled engine, is capable of striking targets at ranges up to [2]
kilometres with a very high degree of accuracy. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage
above?
a) 2,000 km
b) 5,000 km
c) 6,000 km
d) 7,000 km
:
Q 33. India's first indigenous anti-radiation missile_____________, developed for the Indian Air Force, was
successfully flight-tested from a Sukhoi-30 MKI jet off the east coast.
a) Brahmos
b) Rudram
c) Surya
d) Akash
Q 34. Who is the current Defence Minister of India?

a) Baldev Singh Chokkar
b) Rajnath Singh
c) Amit Shah
d) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
Q 35. Which of the following companies is an Indian state-owned aerospace and defence company, headquartered in
Bengaluru?
a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
b) Bharat Aeronautics Limited
c) Bharat Earth Movers Limited

d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Passage – 2
It was the death anniversary of [1], the Bharatiya Jan Sangh founder who remains an emotively inspiring figure for the
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). It was on this day that Prime Minister Narendra Modi held his Kashmir meeting.
[1] died in a Jammu and Kashmir prison in 1953 agitating against its special status granted earlier under [2] and
Presidential Orders under 35A. The Modi government fulfilled that demand on August 5, 2019.
It was the first meeting between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the leaders from Jammu and Kashmir for
deliberation on political progress in the Union Territory. Here are five major takeaways from PM Modi's Kashmir meeting:
The central government had moved swiftly in August 2020 before stripping Jammu and Kashmir of its special status to
put several leaders under house arrest in the Valley. Three former chief ministers Farooq Abdullah, Omar Abdullah and
Mehbooba Mufti were among those leaders. The Centre had apprehension that they might create trouble in fulfilling a
long-standing poll promise of the BJP.
Later, these leaders buried their political differences to demand restoration of status quo in Jammu and Kashmir.
Some of them charged the Centre with furthering the BJP's Hindutva agenda in the Kashmir Valley. On the government's
part, Union Home Minister Amit Shah vented out his frustration by labelling them as '[3] Gang' after the leaders formed
People's Alliance for [3] Declaration (PAGD) to demand undoing what was done on August 5, 2019.
:
Months after their release, 14 political leaders held talks with PM Modi at his official residence in New Delhi. The leaders
still reiterated their demand and PM Modi and HM Shah listened to them. The message was loud and clear that the
Centre was in a conciliatory mood.
Q 36. What is the name of the Bharatiya Jan Sangh founder whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?
a) Syama Prasad Mookerjee

b) Deendayal Upadhyaya
c) Chandikadas Amritrao Deshmukh
d) Bhupen Hazarika
Q 37. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Article 37
b) Article 365
c) Article 372
d) Article 370
Q 38. Which of the following declarations has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?
a) Jammu and Kashmir Special Status Declaration

b) Jammu and Kashmir Independence Declaration
c) Gupkar Declaration
d) United Jammu and Kashmir Declaration
Q 39. On 19 January 2021, which of the following parties has announced that it was pulling out of the [3] alliance,
citing differences with the member parties?
a) Jammu and Kashmir People's Conference
b) National Conference
c) People's Democratic Party
d) Awami National Conference

:
Q 40. Which of the following statements is Not correct regarding the India and Pakistan relations?
a)
Recently, Pakistan has released a new political map that includes all of Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Sir Creek and
Junagadh.
b)
Recently, France has called India's move in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) "illegal and invalid" and raised the issue at the
United Nations Security Council (UNSC) in New York (USA).
c)
The map has been released on the eve of the first anniversary of the abrogation of special status to Jammu and
Kashmir under Article [2].
d)
India has called Pakistan's move as an exercise in political absurdity, which lays untenable claims to the Indian
territories.
Passage – 3
Electoral bonds worth 150.5 crore were sold and encashed between July 1 and July 10 of this year, an RTI response has
revealed. This was the 17th phase of the sale of electoral bonds since their inception in 2018.
According to the RTI response, no bonds of 1,000 were sold during this period. In fact, only 14 bonds of 10,000 each
(1.4 lakhs) were sold in the 17th phase.
Electoral bonds worth 1 crore each accounted for the most number of bonds sold between July 1 and July 10 of this
year. The RTI response also revealed that political parties received 126 crore in donations in the form of electoral bonds
worth 1 crore each.
The Kolkata branch of State Bank of India (SBI) recorded the highest sales of electoral bonds in the 17th phase,
according to a report. Bonds worth 97.31 crore were sold by this branch between July 1 and July 10.
In the previous phase in April, electoral bonds worth 695.34 crore were sold. Of these, only two electoral bonds of value
1,000 were not redeemed.
The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) had stated in its contribution report to the Election Commission of India (ECI) that it
received over 785 crore in donations in 2019-20. This was five times more than what the Congress had received in
political donations in the same year.
Q 41. The central government of India had notified the electoral bond scheme in which of the following years?
a) 1991
b) 2009
c) 2015
d) 2018
:
Q 42. Electoral bonds have been pitched as an alternative to cash donations made to political parties as part of efforts
to bring ______________ in political funding.
a) Corruption free
b) Transparency
c) Ethics and values
d) Honesty
Q 43. Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Electoral Bonds?
a)
The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 crore without any
maximum limit.
b)
State Bank of India is authorised to issue and encash these bonds, which are valid for fifteen days from the date of
issuance.
c)
The bonds are available for purchase by any person for a period of fifteen days each in the months of January, April,
July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
d) A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
Q 44. Which of the following statements is Not correct regarding Central Government and Election Commission of
India supporting for electoral bonds?
a)
Only parties registered under the Representation of the People Act 1951 could receive donations through electoral
bonds.
b) Only white money is involved in the bonds as the amounts are paid only through cheque or demand draft.
c) KYC norms are also followed.
d)
ECI was opposed the bonds initially and later supported the bonds but was only concerned about the nature of the
political parties in India.
Q 45. In 2019, the Supreme Court held that all political parties who had received donations through electoral bonds
must submit details to the Election Commission of India. This undercuts a fundamental constitutional principle, the
freedom of political information, which is an integral element of________________.
a) Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution

b) Article 19(1) (g) of the Constitution
c) Article 21(1) (a) of the Constitution
d) Article 21(1) (b) of the Constitution

:
Passage – 4
Jignesh Mewani, an independent MLA from Gujarat, has said he has joined the Congress "in spirit" as he could not
formally do so, having been elected as an independent.
The [1] Schedule of the Constitution, popularly known as the anti-defection law, specifies the circumstances under which
changing of political parties by legislators invites action under the law. It includes situations in which an independent
MLA, too, joins a party after the election.
The law covers three scenarios with respect to shifting of political parties by an MP or an ML(a) The first is when a
member elected on the ticket of a political party "voluntarily gives up" membership of such a party or votes in the House
against the wishes of the party. The second is when a legislator who has won his or her seat as an independent
candidate joins a political party after the election. In both these instances, the legislator loses the seat in the legislature
on changing (or joining) a party.
The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law gives them six months to join a political party, after
being nominated. If they join a party after such time, they stand to lose their seat in the House.
Q 46. Under the anti-defection law, the power to decide the disqualification of an MP or MLA rests with the presiding
officer of the legislature. The law does not specify a time frame in which such a decision has to be made. In 2020, the
Supreme Court observed that anti-defection cases should be decided by Speakers in ___________months' time.
a) Two Months
b) Three Months
c) Six Months
d) Nine Months
Q 47. The anti-defection law is contained in the [1] Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Which of the following
schedules has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution

b) 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
c) 9th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
d) 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Q 48. The anti-defection law was enacted by Parliament in 1985. It came into effect on _________.
a) 1st March 1985

b) 1st April 1986
c) 1st April 1985
d) 1st April 1987

:
Q 49. The [1] Schedule of the Indian Constitution says that if there is a merger between two political parties and
______________ of the members of a legislature party agree to the merger, they will not be disqualified.
a) Two-thirds of the members of a legislature party agree to the merger.
b) One-thirds of the members of a legislature party agree to the merger.
c) Half of the members of a legislature party agree to the merger.
d) All members of a legislature party agree to the merger.
Q 50. The question of disqualification under the [1] Schedule of the Indian Constitution is decided by the
a) President of India
b) Election Commission of India
c) Supreme Court of India
d) Chairman in case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in case of Lok Sabha
Passage – 5
The US, Britain and Australia have announced a new trilateral security alliance for the Indo-Pacific to protect their shared
interests and allow for greater sharing of defence capabilities, including help Australia acquire nuclearpowered
submarines, amid China's growing influence over the strategically vital region.
The new alliance [1], dubbed as "landmark", was launched virtually with a joint televised address. Under the [1] alliance,
the three nations have agreed to enhance the development of joint capabilities and technology sharing, foster deeper
integration of security and defence-related science, technology, industrial bases and supply chains.
Under the first major initiative of [1], [2] would build a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines with the help of the US and
the UK, a capability aimed at promoting stability in the Indo-Pacific region.
The UK, Australia and US are natural allies while we may be separated geographically, our interests and values are
shared, said British Prime Minister Boris Johnson, who joined US President Joe Biden and Australian Prime Minister
Scott Morrison from Downing Street for the virtual address before a joint statement was released.
The [1] alliance will bring us closer than ever, creating a new defence partnership and driving jobs and prosperity. This
partnership will become increasingly vital for defending our interests in the Indo-Pacific region and, by extension,
protecting our people back at home, he said.
Johnson said the aim of the new partnership was working for hand in glove and to preserve security and stability in the
Indo-Pacific. We're opening a new chapter in our friendship. And the first task of this partnership will be to help Australia
acquire a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines.
"Emphasising, of course, that the submarines in question will be powered by nuclear reactors not armed with nuclear
weapons. And our work will be fully in line with our nonproliferation obligations, he said.
All three leaders insisted that the submarines would be nuclear-powered and the effort is geared towards ensuring peace
in the Indo-Pacific region.
:
Q 51. What is the name of the new trilateral security alliance launched by the UK, Australia and US which has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) AUKUS
b) CORBAT
c) AUSUK
d) ABUS
Q 52. Under the first major initiative of [1], [2] would build a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines with the help of the
US and the UK, a capability aimed at promoting stability in the Indo-Pacific region. Which of the following countries has
been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Argentina
b) Austria
c) Algeria
d) Australia
Q 53. Which of the following four countries have agreed to establish a forum for economic cooperation at a
quadrilateral meeting during which they discussed possibilities for joint infrastructure projects in the fields of
transportation, technology, maritime security, and economics and trade?
a) India, Israel, US and UAE

b) India, Iran, Qatar and Egypt
c) India, UAE, Australia and New Zealand
d) India, Israel, the US and Saudi Arabia
Q 54. Which of the following countries are members in the QUAD grouping?
a) India, USA, Australia, and Brazil
b) India, USA, Australia, and Japan
c) India, USA, Australia, and Germany
d) India, USA, Australia, and France
Q 55. India signed two landmarks defence agreements such as 'Mutual Logistics Support Arrangement' (MLSA)' and
the 'Defence Science and Technology Implementing Arrangement' with which of the following countries in June 2020?
a) Australia
b) United Kingdom
c) USA
d) France
:
Passage – 6
The frequency and intensity of cyclones developing over the Arabian Sea has increased in the last two decades, while
fewer such storms have been seen over the Bay of Bengal, researchers have found in a paper that underlines the
increasing risk of disasters hitting the west coast of India if the trend continues to hold over the years.
A 52% increase was noticed in the frequency of cyclones over the Arabian Sea between 2001 and 2019, and an 8%
decrease over the Bay of Bengal, compared to the 19-year period between 1982 and 2002, according to a new study by
scientists of the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) under the Union ministry of earth sciences.
Normally four to five cyclones form over the north Indian Ocean region (includes both Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea) in
a year, with the majority -- about three-four of them -- developing over the Bay of Bengal.
But this is fast changing. For instance, 2019 witnessed eight cyclones in the north Indian Ocean, out of which five formed
in the Arabian Sea. The total figure was seven for 2018, including three over the Arabian Sea.
Not just the frequency, the intensity and duration of the cyclones over the Arabian Sea too are changing, according to the
paper published in Springer's Climate Dynamics journal. Apart from a higher than usual number of cyclones over
Arabian Sea in recent years, back-to-back "extremely severe cyclonic storms" (with wind speeds between 167-221kmph)
occurred within a single month over the Arabian Sea in 2015, according to the paper. This trend means India's west
coast may have to prepare for more frequent and stronger storms, researchers said.
Q 56. Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. Which of the following conditions is Not
favourable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms?
a) Small sea surface with temperature lower than 27°C
b) Presence of the Coriolis force.
c) A pre-existing weak low- pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation.

d) Upper divergence above the sea level system.
Q 57. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the naming of tropical cyclones?
a)
The process of naming cyclones involves several countries in the region and is done under the aegis of the World
Meteorological Organization (WMO).
b) For the Indian Ocean region, a formula for naming cyclones was agreed upon in 2004.
c)
All eight countries in the Indian Ocean region contributed a set of names which are assigned sequentially whenever a
cyclonic storm develops.
d) All of the above

:
Q 58. Tropical Cyclones are given many names in different regions of the world, which of the following is Not correctly
matched?
a) Typhoons : China Sea and Pacific Ocean
b) Willy-willies: North-Western South Africa
c) Tornados : Guinea lands of West Africa and southern USA
d) Hurricanes: West Indian islands in the Caribbean Sea and Atlantic Ocean
Q 59. Tropical cyclones originate over the Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and the Indian ocean. These tropical cyclones
have very high wind velocity and heavy rainfall and hit the Indian Coastal states. Which of the following states is Not
impacted by Tropical cyclones?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) West Bengal
d) Madhya Pradesh
Q 60. Which of the following is the main cause for occurring most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across
North-West India?
a) Western Disturbance
b) Eastern Disturbance
c) South West Monsoon
d) Southern Disturbance
Passage – 7
The 2021 Nobel Prize for economic sciences has been awarded in one half to Canadian-born [1] and the other half
jointly to Israeli-American Joshua D Angrist and Dutch-American Guido W Imbens.
[1] is a Canadian labour economist and Professor of Economics at the University of California, Berkeley. He has been
awarded the 2021 prize "for his empirical contributions to labour economics." Using natural experiments, [1] has
analysed the labour market effects of minimum wages, immigration and education.
His studies from the early 1990s challenged conventional wisdom, leading to new analyses and additional insights.
The results showed, among other things, that increasing the minimum wage does not necessarily lead to fewer jobs.
Meanwhile, Joshua D Angrist and Guido W Imbens got the prize "for their methodological contributions to the analysis of
[2]."
In the mid-1990s, Joshua Angrist and Guido Imbens demonstrated how precise conclusions about cause and effect can
be drawn from natural experiments.
:
The researchers were honoured for providing us "with new insights about the labour market" and showing "what
conclusions about cause and effect can be drawn from natural experiments", the Nobel committee said in a statement
The prize winners share a sum of 10 million Swedish crowns or $1.14 million. The prize in economics, formally known as
the [3] in Economic Sciences, is the last of this year's crop of Nobels.
Q 61. The 2021 Nobel Prize for economic sciences has been awarded in one half to Canadian-born [1] for his
empirical contributions to labour economics." What is the name redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) David Card
b) John McCallum
c) Paul Beaudry
d) David Laidler
Q 62. The other half of 2021 Nobel Prize for economic sciences has been awarded to Joshua D Angrist and Guido W
Imbens "for their methodological contributions to the analysis of [2]." Which of the following has been removed with [2]
in the passage above?
a) a significant contribution to economic thought and knowledge
b) causal relationships
c) any area other than corporate finance

d) the most important contribution to financial economics
Q 63. The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences, officially the [3] in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred
Nobel is an economics award administered by the Nobel Foundation. Which of the following has been redacted with [3]
in the passage above?
a) Global Economy Prize

b) Sveriges Riksbank Prize
c) Deutsche Bank Prize in Financial Economics
d) Jensen Prize
Q 64. Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee is an India-born naturalized American economist. He shared the 2019 Nobel Memorial
Prize in Economic Sciences with Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer "for their experimental approach to
______________".
a) alleviating global poverty
b) alleviating corruption in the economy
c) alleviating bad loans from the banks

d) alleviating financial stress in the corporate governance
:
Q 65. Amartya Kumar Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher, he was awarded the Nobel Memorial Prize in
Economic Sciences in ____________ and India's Bharat Ratna in 1999 for his work in welfare economics.
a) 1990
b) 1995
c) 1998
d) 1999
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information
given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is
to be applied.
Passage – 1
The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence (DV) Act, 2005 was introduced to deal with violence against women.
The complaint of domestic violence can be filed by the 'aggrieved person'. Section 2 of the Act defines this term. It
means a woman who has been in a domestic relationship with the respondent (a man in a domestic relationship with
such women) and alleges that he has inflicted domestic violence upon her. Domestic Relationship refers to a relationship
between two people who live or have lived together in a shared household, and are related by: Marriage; A relationship
in the nature of marriage (like live-in relationships); Adoption; Are family members; and are related through blood
relations.Shared household as mentioned in this clause is the house belonging to or taken on rent by the man, the house
in which the man and woman lived together with shared rent, or the house in which the man and woman lived along with
his joint family. However, it must be mentioned here that not all live-in relationships are covered under the Act. There are
certain requirements that must be fulfilled like:
• Both parties must behave like husband and wife;
• They must have attained the legal age of marriage;
• They should qualify to enter into marriage;
• They must voluntarily live together in the same place for a significant amount of time;
• They must have lived together in a significant household.
Section 3 of the Act explains the term 'domestic violence' in detail. It states that an act or omission will qualify as
domestic violence if it: Harms or injures health, safety, limbs (body organs), life or/and mental and physical wellbeing of a
woman. Such abuse can be physical, sexual, economic, verbal and emotional; Harms, harasses, injures or endangers
the aggrieved person to coerce her or any of her family members to meet unlawful demands like dowry; or causes any
other physical and mental injury to the aggrieved person. Types of abuse covered by the Act:
Physical Abuse: Use of physical force against a woman such that she suffers from bodily injury or hurt. Physical assault,
threaten to cause hurt and using force to cause him/her injury in the form of beating, kicking, punching, abandoning the
aggrieved person in a dangerous place, making use of weapons to threaten her, forcing her to leave her matrimonial
home etc.
Sexual abuse: This is a form of physical force and includes any act in which a woman is forced to perform any
unwanted, unsafe or degrading sexual activity.
Emotional Abuse: Not all abusive relations involve violence and physical hurt. Many women face emotional abuse which
is equally destructive. It includes verbal abuse such as yelling name calling, blaming, isolating, intimidating, showcasing
controlling behaviour, insulting or continually criticising her.
:
Economic Abuse: Economic abuse mainly includes a woman not being provided with enough money by her partner to
maintain herself and her children, through buying clothes, food, medicines, etc. It also includes not allowing women to
take up employment.
Q 66. Sapna was married to Kamal and after five years of their marriage they separated themselves and left the
shared household. After three months, Kamal stopped the allowances made to Sapna. She filed a petition under the
DV act. Decide?
a) Kamal will be liable for inflicting Economic Abuse.

b) Kamal will not be liable as they have separated from their household.
c) Kamal will not be liable as there were no prerequisite made regarding allowances.
d) Kamal will be liable as he is responsible to maintain his wife.
Q 67. Komal, belonged to not a well-to-do family, was married to Prakash. After a month of their marriage her mother-
in-law and husband started asking her for more dowry and when refused they used to beat her and also not provide
her with food or any money to maintain herself and finally abandoned her. Decide?
a) Prakash and her mother both will be liable.
b) The liability arises for inflicting physical abuse on Komal.
c) The liability arises for inflicting economic abuse on Komal.

d) All of the above
Q 68. Rekha was married to Kartik but their relationship did not work as they had a lot of complexities in their own life.
One day Kartik shifted her to another home established in a remote area in order to keep themselves free from each
other and also provided allowances to maintain themselves. Rekha filed a petition under the DV Act. Decide?
a) He will not be liable as he provided allowances to her.

b) He will be liable as he abandoned her.
c) He will not be liable as she also separated herself from him.
d) He will not be liable as Kartik separated himself in good faith.

:
Q 69. Which of the following live-in relationships will not be covered under the DV Act?
a)
P was living with Q for 10 years and were yet to marry each other but at the same time P used to beat Q and therefore
she filed a suit under the DV Act.
b)
P was living with Q and they were waiting to attain their legal age to get married but before they could marry each
other Q started torturing P.
c)
P and Q were living together for 20 years and everyone believed that they were married as they acted like a married
couple when P accused Q for physically abusing her.
d) All of the above
Q 70. Which of the following abuses will be covered under the DV Act?
a) X was married to Y for one month and he started controlling her actions claiming it his right.
b)
X belonged to an indigent family and was married to Y who belonged to well to do family but when she raised her voice
against discrimination, Y and his family stopped giving her food.
c)
X and Y were married for three years and due to continuous arguments between them when they were travelling
through denseforest, X left her there alone.
d) All of the above
to be applied.
Passage – 2
But Section 90 of IPC talks about what does not amount to consent. It describes consent in a negative term. It states, a
consent given by a person under the fear of injury, or under a misconception of facts, or by reason of unsoundness of
mind, intoxication, or a child under the age of 12 years (unless the contrary appears from the context), who is incapable
to understand the nature and consequences of the consented act, is no consent. Both express and implied consent are
recognized under the Section. As long as there is consent and it was freely given, the number of words or specific
articulation of the said consent is not necessary.
Section 90 of the IPC, though does not define 'consent', yet lays down what is not consent. It regulates the operations of
Section 87, 88 and 89 of the I.P.C. There are four cases where a consent given by a person is no consent.Person giving
consent under the fear of injury- Under criminal law, consent obtained by threat and violence would not be a
defence.Person giving consent under the misconception of facts- if consent is obtained under a misconception of facts,
then it will have no value in the eyes of law.Consent given by insane people- People who are of unsound mind, or in an
intoxicated state of mind, incapable to understand the nature and consequences of their acts.Consent given by child-
The last para of section 90 says consent given by a child under the age of 12 years has no value in the eyes of law. In
this case, the consent will be given by the child's guardians or the person in charge of him.
:
Section 87, 88, 89 and 90 of the Code deals with various conditions which are needed to plead consent as a defence.
These are mentioned below:
• Person has consented to the risk.
• The person must be above the age of 12 years unless the contrary appears from the context and must not be of
unsound mind, if yes then the consent must be given by guardians or the person in charge of them on their behalf.
• Consent must be given under no fear or misconception of facts.
• The said consent must be made expressly or impliedly.
• The consent was not intended to cause death or grievous hurt.
Section 89 of IPC deals with children below 12 years of age and persons of unsound mind and hence, they do not have
the legal capacity to give consent as they are incapable of understanding the nature and consequence of their act.
Hence, the consent on their behalf is given by guardians or persons legally in charge of them. The doer must act in good
faith and for the benefit of the person harmed.The following four provisos have been laid down by the legislature to make
sure some additional safeguards other than the fact that the doer should act in 'good faith':Act shall not extend to
intentional causing of death, an attempt to cause death; This provision will not apply in the situations wherein the person
was aware or had a knowledge of his act which is likely to cause death unless it was done for the prevention of death or
grievous hurt, or the curing of any grievous disease or infirmity; This provision will not extend to the abetment of any
offence, which is not covered under this provision.
Q 71. Suraj performed an operation on Vishwas after taking his consent for the appendix by cutting it out but he used
an ordinary knife instead of a sterilized knife because of the emergency and unavailability of equipment in good faith.
The patient died of profuse bleeding and Suraj sought protection under Section 88. Decide?
a) Suraj will be entitled to protection as consent was already given.

b) Suraj will not be entitled as he did not act in good faith.
c) Suraj will be entitled as he used an ordinary knife due to unavailability of equipment.
d) Suraj will be entitled to protection as his actions were under good faith.
Q 72. Sarthi consented to donate his left kidney knowing the fact that with his damaged right kidney he will not be
able to survive for more than 2 months but due to huge constraint of money he agreed to donate it. The doctor
removed his kidney and Sarthi died soon after the operation. Decide?
a) The doctor will be liable as consent cannot be given for causing death.
b) The doctor will not be liable because he acted under good faith.
c) The doctor will be liable as donating organs is illegal without express consent.
d) The doctor will not be liable as consent was given by Sarthi.
:
Q 73. Nawab was a magician and was doing a show in Hyderabad when he asked one of his spectators to come in a
box and he would cut the whole box into two pieces without causing any harm to the person. Pratik consented to help
him but he died due to misconception. Decide?
a) Nawab will not be liable as Pratik gave his consent.
b) Nawab will be liable as Pratik's consent cannot be given in these situations.
c) Nawab will not be liable as he was a magician and it happened due to misconception.
d) Nawab will not be liable as he had no intention to kill Pratik.
Q 74. Which of the following situations will not be included for consent given under Section 89?
a)
X, the fatherof an 8 years old minor gave consent to perform an operation for tuberculosis knowing that it can risk the
life of a minor.
b) X, who was the father of a 16 years old unsound son, locked him to prevent him from harming himself and others.
c) X knowing that her 4 years child is physically fit, killed him because of poverty and inability to feed him.
d) All of the above
Q 75. Under which of the following scenarios the defence of consent will be availed?
a) X killed his daughter of 7 years as she was suffering from unbearable pain due to a rare disease.
b) X in good faith drowned his son in water, believing that he could bring his life back.
c)
X, who used to visit Y's library and took some books home without issuing them, did the same thing in the absence of
Y.
d) None
to be applied.
Passage – 3
It seems to me that Article 25 focuses on the most basic of the various rights defined in the full set and merits further
comment. But before I do so, three clarifications need to be made. First, Article 13 declared 'void' any existing laws that
might be judged to be 'inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights listed in Part III of the Constitution
(Articles 12-35). Secondly, all the freedoms and rights conferred by Articles 25-30 were made "subject to public order,
morality and health". Not only that: they are to be exercised in a manner that is progressive in spirit. Clause 2(b) of
Article 25 provides for state intervention within the framework of the said article to promote 'social welfare and reform',
and to throw open "Hindu religious institutions of a public charter to all classes and sections of Hindus' '. (Explanation II
attached to sub-clause (b) clarifies that the category Hindu shall for purposes of this clause include Sikhs, Jains and
Buddhists. I will not go into the tricky question whether such categorisation limits in any way the freedom of religion of
these latter communities.) Read together, Articles 25 and 26 place public interest above the claims of freedom of
:
religion. In this respect, "the Constitution is", in Marc Gallanter's words, "a charter for the reform of Hinduism'' (1989:
247)
Moreover, since all the fundamental rights must be read together, nothing may be claimed in terms of freedom of religion
that would deny or abridge any other fundamental right. Thus, human sacrifice cannot be claimed as essential to any
community's religious practice since Article 21 guarantees "protection of life and personal liberty". Similarly, the
dedication of any girl or woman to a temple deity (as a devadasi, for example), who is then compelled to engage in
sexual inter- course with specified men, cannot be claimed as a religious right as it would violate Article 23, which
prohibits "traffic in human beings"
Thirdly, although there is no specific prohibition of the establishment of a religion by the state, the spirit of the
Constitution, and, after the 42nd Amendment, the Preamble also entail the prohibition. Thus understood, Article 25
focuses on the entitlements within defined limits. There never has been any doubt or controversy about the connotation
of either the phrase 'freedom of conscience', or of the rights to profess and practise a religion of one's choice. It is the
right to propagate one's religion that has become a bone of contention. This right was written into the Constitution on the
insistence of the Christian members of the Constituent Assembly. Under the Government of India Act of 1935, the right
of representation of religious minorities (Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians) had been secured through separate
electorates and the reservation of seats in the provincial and central legislatures. Such measures had come to be seen
by the leadership and the mass following of the Indian National Congress as the imperial stratagem of 'divide and rule'
and, therefore, highly mischievous. It had paved the way for the enunciation of 'the two-nation theory' by the Indian
Muslim League, which eventually became the basis of the partition of the country on the basis of religious identity.
Q 76. Dashuk was a community in India. They had a practise where the so-called Dalit community members had to
wash the legs of Dashuk members and drink that water in the holy shrine of the community. This practise hasbeen
followed for hundreds of years. The government of India prohibited the practise. Dashuk community approaches the
supreme court seeking that their fundamental right to practise and profess religion has been violated. Decide.
a) The fundamental right provided under article 25 of the constitution is violated by prohibiting the said practise.
b) The fundamental right is not violated as the practise was violative of article 13(2) of the constitution.
c) The prohibition is not a violation of article 25 as it is subject to public order, health and morality.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 77. Which of the following ideas is the author conveying through the first paragraph of the passage?
a) Fundamental right to practise and profess religion is quintessential and is an essence of part-III of the constitution.
b) Public order shall be considered and kept in mind over the right to freedom of religion.
c) The term Hindus also shall include Jains, Sikhs, Buddhists etc.
d) The restriction of public order, health and morality is provided under article 26 of the constitution.
:
Q 78. What was the view of the leadership and the mass following of the Indian National Congress regarding
representation of religious minorities?
a)
The representation of religious minorities was a ground-breaking introduction which paved the way Indian
independence.
b)
Representation of religious minorities planted the idea in the mind of Jinna to demand a separate nation for Muslims.
c) It was seen as an imperial stratagem of 'divide and rule' and, therefore, highly mischievous.
d)
The Christian community has demanded the introduction of the same and it was because they conspired with the
British.
Q 79. The Holy Cross mission was a Christian based NGO which took tours to North-East India's tribal areas in order
to support them financially and also to spread the Holy bible. Rashtriya Sabha, an organisation filed a PIL against the
Holy cross mission stating it was endeavour for religious conversation. Decide.
a)
The Holy cross should be held liable as they are converting tribal people in the name of development and preaching.
b) The holy cross shall not be held liable as their actions are protected under the right to practise and profess religion.
c) The holy cross shall be held liable as under the 'term' profess conversion is not included.
d)
The Rashtriya Sabha should provide more evidence to prove that the Holy cross is undertaking religious conversion.
Q 80. Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a) Nothing may be claimed in terms of freedom of religion that would deny or abridge any other fundamental right.
b)
Article 13 declared 'void' any existing laws that might be judged to be 'inconsistent with or in derogation of the
fundamental rights.
c) Article 21 guarantees "protection of life and personal liberty".

d) Article 22, which prohibits "traffic in human beings"
to be applied.
Passage – 4
As it is often observed, rights without remedy is a meaningless formality. So, very wisely, the founding fathers have
engrafted Article 32 by which the individual may secure a guaranteed remedy in case of the infringement of fundamental
rights. Article 32, with its first three clauses, has necessarily done the job. As M V Pylee rightly claims, "the first three
sections of the article, taken together, make fundamental rights under the Constitution real and, as such, they form the
:
crowing part of the entire chapter"
Clause (4) of the Constitution, however, mentions an exception. When the president proclaims an emergency under
Article 352, the provision for guaranteed remedy of fundamental rights remains suspended. In such times, the president
may, under Article 358, make a separate proclamation by which Article 32 remains suspended. In other words, an
individual cannot, during such an emergency, move the Supreme Court, even if he feels that he has been unduly
deprived of the Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Constitution. Obviously, it is a black spot on the fair face of the
Constitution which claims to stand for democracy and freedom. But B R Ambedkar, the chief architect of the Constitution,
observed in the constituent assembly that the interests of the state as a whole are of much greater importance than
those of the individual and, hence, individual liberty cannot be allowed to destroy the very fabric of national security. He
observed, "...it is equally clear that in certain cases, where, for example, the state's very life is in jeopardy, these rights
must be subject to a certain amount of limitations". Particularly, the Constitution was drafted during a period of horrid
ordeal marked by war, infiltration, partition, communal riots and other subversive activities. This is why, the makers felt
that during an emergency, the enforcement of fundamental rights should remain suspended because the unrestrained
right of the individual might, in such times, endanger the security of the nation as a whole. But, in normal times,
fundamental rights seem to be 'fundamental'. In the case of Ram Singh vs Delhi, the Supreme Court observed, "It is our
privilege and duty to see that rights which are intended to be fundamental are kept fundamental..."
Thus, as the judicial sentinel of fundamental rights, they are equipped with some constitutional weapons, known as
'writs', for the enforcement of such rights. (i) First, the writ of Habeas Corpus (meaning 'you may have the body') may be
issued in order to set free a person who is, in the opinion of the court, arbitrarily arrested or detained by the executive
authority. (ii) Secondly, there is the writ of Mandamus. The Latin word 'Mandamus' means 'we order'. The Supreme Court
can issue this writ for the reason of directing an inferior court or department to do the needful for protecting or
maintaining a Fundamental Right. It is normally used for public purposes to enforce performance of public duties. But the
court often enforces some private rights when they are withheld by the public officers. Thirdly, the Supreme Court some-
times issues the writ of 'prohibition' for preventing an inferior court from doing something which it is not legally competent
to do. Fourthly, there is another writ known as 'certiorari' with which the Supreme Court can remove a case from an
inferior court to a superior court in order to protect Fundamental Rights. Lastly, with the help of 'quo warranto', the
Supreme Court can protect a Fundamental Right from being violated by a government order based upon favouritism. If a
person, for example, is unduly promoted by superseding his seniors, the Supreme Court can, by such writ, quash the
order of such appointment for protecting the Right to Equality as guaranteed by Article 14 and Article 16. The power of
issuing writs is also extended to the high courts under article 226 of the constitution.
Q 81. How Dr BR Ambedkar has justified the presence and requirement of clause 4 of article 32 in the constitution?
a) An uncontrolled individual liberty is a pathway to misery and corruption. Hence some regulations are necessary.
b)
The application of article 32 clause 4 is almost non-existent and its presence is only there to give a sense of authority
to the executives in dire situations.
c)
Interests of the state as a whole are of much greater importance and, hence, individual liberty cannot be allowed to
destroy the very fabric of national security.
d)
Removal of article 32 clause 4 from the constitution will turn out to be a black spot on the fair face of the Constitution.
:
Q 82. A case was present before the district consumer court. The case dealt with the sum of around 2 crores, while
the pecuniary jurisdiction of the district court was up to INR 1 crore. However, the judgement had reached the final
stages and the judge decided to continue with the hearing. How can the higher court stop the district court from
proceeding with the case?
a)
The high court should order the consumer court to immediately halt the proceedings and pass it to the state consumer
dispute redressal forum.
b) The high court can put a halt to the proceedings by issuing the writ of 'prohibition'.
c) The high court can put a halt to the proceedings by issuing the writ of 'certiorari'
d) The high court is not empowered to issue writs and instead notify the supreme court to do the same.
Q 83. Dinesh was arrested under the impression that he was in connection with Naxalites and helping them to
escape. However, there was no evidence to support the same. Dinesh was not allowed to meet a lawyer nor to apply
for a bail. Which writ can Dinesh apply for in order to set himself free?
a) The writ of Habeas Corpus
b) The writ of certiorari
c) Dinesh cannot apply for any writs as he is arrested under UAPA.

d) The writ of Mandamus.
Q 84. Ramesh was a civil judge in the district court of Lucknow. He had 7 years of experience. Ramesh's father was a
retired high court judge and a very influential person. After serving 7 years in district court he was elevated to high
court. The actual tenure to be appointed as a high court judge was not fulfilled by Ramesh. How can the higher court
quash this appointment?
a) The higher court can set up an investigation regarding the procedure that was followed to elevate Ramesh.
b) The higher court can issue a writ of 'quo warranto' in order to suspend his appointment.
c) The higher court can issue a writ of 'certiorari' to nullify his appointment.
d) An investigation within executive authorities has to be started to find the reason behind this misdemeanour.
Q 85. Which of the following cases is not an example of a writ petition under article 32 of the constitution?
a) Issuing a writ to let go of a person who has been unlawfully detained.

b) Protecting Fundamental Right from being violated by a government order based upon favouritism.
c)
Issuing a writ for the reason of directing an inferior court or department to do the needful for protecting or maintaining a
Fundamental Right.
d) Issuing a writ for the higher court to attend to the appeals sent by the lower courts.
:
to be applied.
Passage – 5
Section 79 of the IT Act forms the basis of exempting intermediaries from liability for the acts of third parties until they
comply with updated guidelines or safe harbor provision provided under Section 84 A would be destroyed, and the
intermediary would be held liable in case of illegal content. Analysing past scenarios, intermediaries were removing
content readily by applying their judgment as per rule 3(d) of 2011 rules pursuant to civilian requests. In the Shreya
Singhal Case, the Apex court held that only upon receiving 'actual knowledge' from the court or appropriate government
agency about the commission of unlawful acts, an intermediary could remove the content to avoid the risk of losing the
safe harbour provision.
Firstly, this situation, when read in the context of traceability rule under Rule 4(2), implies that there is a compulsion on
intermediaries to comply with the ministry guidelines. This means that they would be required to enable the identification
of the first originator of the message if it is illegal which inter alia is a threat to the sovereignty of India. Further, the end to
end encryption feature in an intermediary facilitates the users to send their messages securely without intimating the
third party, including the platform itself. Applying the rules, this feature would have to be weakened, and the genuine
users would be under surveillance as well. This would break the secure use of the electronic medium, which is supposed
to be a primary objective of the rules. Citizens are at a rock and a hard place as neither the government nor an
intermediary is affected by the violation of their fundamental rights.
Secondly, it is public knowledge that social media platforms need to be regulated strictly. However, these amended rules
single-handedly destroy the basic values which India is known for. The Constitution emphasizes the right to privacy
principle established in Puttaswamy judgment, and as per it, the government should not per se invade a citizen's
personal communications. Further, as reiterated in Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India, proportionality needs to be
determined as to whether the impact of the encroachment on a fundamental right is disproportionate to the benefit which
is likely to ensue.
Even if the government tries to take the shade of specific restrictions provided by sub-clauses under Article 19 in the
current case, the traceability rule has crossed the original intention of the law and should be revisited. The legislative
intent may be capturing criminal minds, preventing violence and identifying disturbance all over the country, but the harm
is far greater than one could ever imagine.
When we observe the status of decryption and traceability in India, we will find that the pre-existing laws are vague and a
source of major confusion. As per Section 69 of the IT Act, the central government or intelligence agencies can access
or decrypt any data stored if satisfied that it is a threat to national security. The role would be of assistance, facilitating
and handling requisition regarding decryption as mentioned under IT Rules 2009. However, the position of whether there
is an obligation over an intermediary to assist the government in decryption is dicey. The controversy that the rules
encroach fundamental rights was discussed in the case of Facebook Inc v. Union of India but without any solid outcome,
although the court highlighted that the intermediary shall observe due diligence while discharging its duties.
However, presently, the intermediaries are forced to give up the information of citizens to the government, which is an
imposition. This unpalatable act is far from their 'due diligence and is a violation of the rights of intermediaries as well as
citizens. This way, the executive is slyly delegating the efforts of generating Orwellian society to intermediaries. Instead
of solving the existing race between fundamental rights and surveillance, the executive is taking the road of digital
authoritarianism. The new traceability rule would compel an individual to restrict the thoughts of oneself because of the
fear of being targeted, thereby causing an indirect restriction on freedom of speech and expression. This freedom, being
one of the intrinsic and guaranteed rights in a democracy, is outrightly challenged, and the challenger is the protector
itself of such a democracy.
:
Q 86. How the genuine citizens are at risk of surveillance under the new requirements that have to be complied with
by the social media organisations?
a)
The end-to-end encryption which facilitates the users to send their messages securely without intimating the third party
should have to be weakened.
b)
The end-to-end encryption which previously provided information only to the intermediary will now supply the
information to the government too.
c) The rise of anti- national activities and fake users have led to the scrutiny of each and every user.
d) None of the above.
Q 87. Which of the following is the opinion of the author regarding the traceability rule of the government?
a)
The introduction of the traceability rules has weakened the privacy of the citizens and provides undue advantage to the
government.
b)
The introduction of the traceability rules has weakened the privacy of the citizens and provides undue advantage to the
government.
c)
The unpalatable act is far from the 'due diligence' and is a violation of the rights of intermediaries as well as citizens.
d) Both (b) and (c).
Q 88. What was the outcome of the case of Facebook Inc v. Union of India?
a)
The intermediaries shall assist the government fully in handling the anti- national unlawful activities that take place on
the platforms.
b) The intermediaries also have a personal right which cannot be surpassed by the government of India.
c) The government of India does not have the power to violate the right to privacy of the citizens.
d) The passage provides that the said case did not have a solid outcome, nothing further.
:
Q 89. Is there any law in India which allows the central government or intelligence agencies to access or decrypt any
data?
a)
No, Indian laws prohibit the accessing any personal data or decryptionby the central government or any other
intelligence agency.
b)
Section 69 of the IT Act allows the central government or intelligence agencies to access or decrypt any data stored if
satisfied that it is a threat to national security.
c)
Section 69 of the IT Act allows the central government or intelligence agencies to access or decrypt any data stored if
satisfied that it is a threat to national security.
d) Rule 4(2), of Social media rules 2021 allows the government to access or decrypt any data.
Q 90. Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India states that proportionality needs to be determined as to whether the impact of the
encroachment on a fundamental right is disproportionate to the benefit which is likely to ensue.
b)
Section 79 of the IT Act forms the basis of exempting intermediaries from liability for the acts of third parties until they
comply with updated guidelines.
c) The only defence that the government can take is the restriction clauses mentioned in article 19 of the constitution.
d) Constitution emphasizes the right to privacy principle established in Puttaswamy judgment.
to be applied.
Passage – 6
Many of the cyber-crimes penalized by the IPC and the IT Act have the same ingredients and even nomenclature. Here
are a few examples:
Hacking and Data Theft: Sections 43 and 66 of the IT Act penalize a number of activities ranging from hacking into a
computer network, data theft, introducing and spreading viruses through computer networks, damaging computers or
computer networks or computer programmes, disrupting any computer or computer system or computer network,
denying an authorised person access to a computer or computer network, damaging or destroying information residing
in a computer etc. The maximum punishment for the above offences is imprisonment of up to 3 (three) years or a fine or
Rs. 5,00,000 (Rupees five lac) or both.
Section 378 of the IPC relating to "theft" of movable property will apply to the theft of any data, online or otherwise, since
section 22 of the IPC states that the words "movable property" are intended to include corporeal property of every
description, except land and things attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the
earth. The maximum punishment for theft under section 378 of the IPC is imprisonment of up to 3 (three) years or a fine
:
or both.
It may be argued that the word "corporeal" which means 'physical' or 'material' would exclude digital properties from the
ambit of the aforesaid section 378 of the IPC. The counter argument would be that the drafters intended to cover
properties of every description, except land and things attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything which
is attached to the earth.
Section 424 of the IPC states that "whoever dishonestly or fraudulently conceals or removes any property of himself or
any other person, or dishonestly or fraudulently assists in the concealment or removal thereof, or dishonestly releases
any demand or claim to which he is entitled, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which
may extend to 2 (two) years, or with fine, or with both." This aforementioned section will also apply to data theft. The
maximum punishment under section 424 is imprisonment of up to 2 (two) years or a fine or both.
Section 425 of the IPC deals with mischief and states that "whoever with intent to cause, or knowing that he is likely to
cause, wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person, causes the destruction of any property, or any such
change in any property or in the situation thereof as destroys or diminishes its value or utility, or affects it injuriously,
commits mischief". Needless to say, damaging computer systems and even denying access to a computer system will
fall within the aforesaid section 425 of the IPC. The maximum punishment for mischief as per section 426 of the IPC is
imprisonment of up to 3 (three) months or a fine or both.
Receipt of stolen property: Section 66B of the IT Act prescribes punishment for dishonestly receiving any stolen
computer resource or communication device. This section requires that the person receiving the stolen property ought to
have done so dishonestly or should have reason to believe that it was stolen property. The punishment for this offence
under Section 66B of the IT Act is imprisonment of up to 3 (three) years or a fine of up to Rs. 1,00,000 (Rupees one lac)
or both.
Q 91. Tango was an online food delivery company. For the month of July-2021 the 'creativity team' of Tango came up
with an idea of giving a 50 percent offer on Pizzas and Burgers and a coupon for lucky winners. Damian, an expert
hacker, gainedaccess into the system of the creativity team and got the information regarding the new introduction and
sold the information of the idea to a rival company. Which of the following punishments shall Damian be liable?
a) Damian shall be liable under section 424 of IPC for fraudulent use of the property.
b) Damian shall be liable under section 378 of the IPC for theft.
c) Damian shall be liable under section 43 and 66 of IT act 200.

d) Damian shall not be held liable, but the rival company shall be for accepting the data.
Q 92. Binod was an electrician. Once Binod was working in an area which happened to be in the vicinity of a
computer class owned by his ex-girlfriend, Radhe. Binod while working, purposefully fluctuated the power which led to
the damage of most of the computers belonging to Radhe. Is there any provision under which Binod can be held liable
for his act?
a)
Binod cannot be held liable under any specific provision of a statute as his act is neither defined or bound by any law.
b) Binod shall be held liable under section 424 of IPC that is criminal misappropriation of property.
c) Binod shall be held liable under section 425 of IPC that is mischief.
d) Binod shall be held liable under section 43 and 66 of IT act 2000.

:
Q 93. Damian stole certain data from an online food delivering company Tomato. The date was regarding a new
creative drone delivery plan of Tomato. Damian proposed to sell this idea to Wiggy, a rival food delivering company.
While bargaining the deal the authorities asked Damian from where did he get the following information. Damian bluntly
stated he had stolen the idea from Tomato. Nevertheless, Wiggy proceeded with the deal to buy the idea. Is wiggy
anyhow liable in the given case?
a) Wiggy is not liable as they are in no way involved in the stealing of the data from the tomato.
b)
Wiggy shall be liable under section 378 of IPC for theft as the act done by a second person for the welfare of the
company shall make them vicariously liable.
c) Wiggy shall be liable under section 66B of IT act 2000.
d) Wiggy shall be liable under section 43 of IT act 2000.
Q 94. Pick the wrong combination out of the following.

a) Section 43 of IT act- Hacking into computer networks.
b) Section 378 of IPC- Criminal breach of trust.
c) Section 425 of IPC- Fraud.
d) Section 66B of IT act- Punishment for dishonestly receiving any stolen property.
Q 95. Which of the following statements is falsely presented with reference to the above given passage?
a) A counter argument against the idea corporeal excluding digital media is strong and valid.
b)
The maximum punishment under Sections 43 and 66 of the IT Act is imprisonment of up to 3 (three) years or a fine or
Rs. 5,00,000 (Rupees five lac) or both.
c)
The maximum punishment for mischief as per section 426 of the IPC is imprisonment of up to 6 (six) months or a fine
or both.
d) None of the above
to be applied.
Passage – 7
Animal Preservation Regulation, 2021

The primary purpose of the Animal Preservation Regulation is to ban slaughter of all sorts of animals unless the person
performing it has a certificate from the competent authorities to do such an act. Section 5(2) clearly states that these
certificates are not valid for the slaughter of a cow, a calf of a cow, a bull or a bullock. The Regulation also states that no
certificate can be granted for the slaughter of animals that can be used for agricultural operations, breeding or bearing
offspring. Section 8 of the Regulation prohibits any selling, keeping, transporting, buying or exposing of beef or beef
:
products. Residents of the UT have sternly opposed this proposal. Beef is a normal part of the die of Muslim majority
islanders, and imposing such sanctions would be arbitrary. Various political parties have also joined in the protests
alleging that the Administrator did not consult local bodies before drafting the Regulation and is promoting his own
party's agendas by issuing such a Draft. However, the ban on slaughter is not the only issue plaguing this Regulation.
The punishment, as specified under section 10(2), states that any person convicted for the offence of slaughtering an
animal without the certificate, or any person convicted of slaughtering a cow, a calf of a cow, a bull or a bullock shall be
imprisoned for life. Such a heavy penalty for a meagre offence of slaughtering an animal is not logical, and it clearly
shows the perverse nature of the authorities. It also violates the fundamental right to carry out any occupation, trade or
business. Several states have banned such a practice, however, there is no precedent for such a stringent punishment,
nor is there any logic behind introducing such a provision. A sound conclusion that can be made for the Regulation is
that although the state must endeavour to prohibit cow slaughter as per Article 48 of the Directive Principles of State
Policy, it should be based on logic and support from the people. Since there are eight states which still do not have a
cow slaughter ban in their territory, the UT Administrator should take cognizance of the facts and should retrieve this
Regulation on account of the vehement opposition expressed by the citizens of the UT.
Lakshadweep Panchayat Regulation, 2021
According to Article 243(b)(2), every state/UT in India should constitute a Panchayat at Village and District level. Article
243(f)(1)(b) states that any member of the Panchayat can be disqualified from being elected to the Panchayat as per any
law made by the state legislature. The Lakshadweep Administration, following the above-mentioned, drafted the
Lakshadweep Panchayat Regulation, 2021. This Regulation aligns with the existing laws and policies of the country.
However, one of the clauses is quite controversial considering the demography of the island. Section 14(1)(n) mentions
the disqualification of members of Gram Panchayat or disqualification from election to Gram Panchayat if the person has
more than two children. A population control measure is not unconstitutional as per entry 20A in the Concurrent List of
the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. There are numerous precedents available on this issue; 12 states have
enacted similar regulations for their respective Panchayats. The Supreme Court has also validated this policy in the case
of Javed vs State of Haryana. The court clearly stated that the policy is based on "intelligible differentia" and that the aim
is to control population growth. The critical point to note here is that the validation of a particular policy is wholly based
on the fact of whether it does any public good or not. In the present case if one were to look at the fertility rate of the
islands, then, according to NFHS-5, the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of Lakshadweep is 1.4 (rural) which is way less than
the national average of 2.2. The TFR is 1.6 (urban) which is 0.2 less than the TFR of NFHS-4. Thus, decreasing fertility
rate in the islands-along with the ageing population-is a sign to contain this decrease in TFR rather than adding to its
further deterioration. The administration should also consider people's opinions before adopting this policy as there are
widespread protests against this Draft. In conclusion, the Lakshadweep administration should understand the grave
implications that the two-child policy could have on the future of the islands. Experts have time and again noted that
coercive family planning policies have enormous negative impacts on the demography of a particular geographical
location.
Q 96. Which of the following is the major concern regarding the ban on slaughtering animals in Lakshadweep?
a) Lakshadweep has a Muslim majority population who primarily are dependent on beef for consumption
b) The punishment for slaughtering animals under section 10(2) of the act awards a punishment of life imprisonment.
c) Administrator did not consult local bodies before drafting the Regulation and is promoting his own party's agendas.
d) Fundamental right to carry out any business trade or occupation is being violated.
:
Q 97. The union territory of Lakshadweep banned slaughtering of animals. One Binod slaughtered an anteater to
cook the same for dinner. Anteater was primarily used to kill insects in the agricultural fields by the farmers. Can Binod
be punished under Animal Preservation Regulation, 2021 for slaughtering the ant-eater?
a)
No, as ant-eaters do not come under the category of animals which are used for agricultural operations, breeding or
bearing offspring.
b) Yes, under Animal Preservation Regulation, 2021 killing of any animal irrespective of their use shall be punishable.
c)
Yes, as Ant-eaters were primarily used for agricultural purposes in Lakshadweep, the killing of the same shall be
punishable.
d) No, naturally ant-eaters are not considered as animals for agricultural purposes. Hence, it is not punishable.
Q 98. Why population control method under Lakshadweep Panchayat Regulation, 2021 is problematic?
a) The introduction is not on the basis of 'intelligible differentia' provided under article 14 of the constitution.
b) This introduction will further cause a problem to the already decreasing TFR in the island.
c) The introduction is arbitrary and unreasonable and against the constitutional spirit.
d)
The introduction is not problematic per se, but lack of explanation regarding the necessity of introducing the same has
created the problems.
Q 99. Is population control method in elections unconstitutional per se?
a) The population control method is not unconstitutional under entry 20 A of the concurrent list.
b) The Supreme Court has also validated this policy in the case of Javedvs State of Haryana.
c) In the case of Javed v State of Haryana, the population control method has been outrightly rejected.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 100. According to the other, what is the reason behind his expression to take back animal slaughter bill in the Union
Territory of Lakshadweep?
a)
Prohibiting cow slaughter as per Article 48 of the Directive Principles of State Policy is not enforceable or actionable.
b) The prohibition of animal slaughter is against the fundamental rights of the islanders.
c) The consumption of beef is a custom of the islanders and ancient customs cannot be abrogated.
d)
The UT Administrator should take cognizance of the vehement opposition by the local bodies and citizens and take
back the bill.
:
to be applied.
Passage – 8
To understand the concept of Defence of Insanity, it is necessary that first, we examine this section in detail. Ambi v
State of Kerala (1962) held that an act does not constitute a crime unless it is done with a guilty intention. In this section,
unsoundness of mind is used to depict all those conditions that influence the cognitive limitations of a human being.
Thus, every individual who is mentally sick isn't mitigated from his responsibilities. The law makes a distinction between
legal and medical insanity. The medical conception of Insanity covers many more mental states than is covered by the
legal conception of insanity. A person is termed medically insane if he is suffering from any disease or disorder of mind
like emotions, fear, hatred and revenge. There are many conditions of mind which affect the emotional capacity of a
person but which are not taken into consideration by Law in determining whether the person was suffering from insanity,
to be excused from criminal liability. The law is not concerned with the medical condition of the man, it is only concerned
with a particular sphere of mental defect which has affected the ability of a man to know the nature of his acts and which
impairs the cognitive facilities of the mind. To sum it up, we can say that Section 84 embodies two mental conditions
which exempt a man from responsibility for his wrongful act namely - 1. That his unsoundness of mind was such that he
was 'incapable of knowing the nature of the act', or 2. 'that it had precluded him from understanding that the act he was
doing was wrongful'. These two elements need not be simultaneously present in each case. The absence of both
relieves the offender from liability to punishment. Along with this, the IPC also recognizes the M'Naghten Test, which was
primarily used to lay down the former two rules. The M'Naghten Test is viewed as an appropriate guide for cases
involving the plea of Insanity. It says that,
'Every man is to be presumed to be sane, and, that to establish a defence on the ground of insanity, it must be clearly
proved that, at the time of the committing of the act, the party accused was labouring under such a defect of reason,
from disease of mind, and not to know the nature and quality of the act he was doing; or if he did know it, that he did not
know he was doing what was wrong.'
This rule, however, was criticized by medical scientists and eminent lawyers. The presumption that an individual
intellectually perceives the difference between right and wrong at a given time was apprehended on the basis that
insanity does not only or primarily affect the cognitive or intellectual faculties but affects the whole personality of the
patient, including both the will and the emotions. The capacity of knowing right from wrong can be unscathed and can
function thoroughly even though the defendant might be mentally ill.
Q 101. Ron had been on a voyage to find out passage to Asia through artic and was stranded in the Arctic for 2 years.
Only 5 of them made it back during the rescue. After this incident Raju faced severe mental health problems. Once,
Ron's neighbor's kid had dressed as a polar bear for a fancy dress competition. Seeing this Ron severely panicked and
shot the kid. Later he revealed he was saving himself from the Polar bear that had killed his companions. Can Ron be
held liable for murder?
a) Ron can be held liable as he is no longer in arctic and has been rescued and looked after.
b) Ron can be held liable as he is capable of understanding the nature of his act.
c)
Ron cannot be held liable because due to unsoundness of mind, he was 'incapable of knowing the nature of the act'.
d) Ron cannot be held liable as his perilous arctic voyage experience is a defense against the nature of his response.
:
Q 102. Rishav was a man who had a rare condition of going insane for a small amount of time. Other than that,
Rishav was a perfectly fine man. Once he had a fight with his friend Raju over a girl and Raju was killed. There was no
evidence to prove that Rishav was insane during the fight. Can Rishav take the defense of insanity irrespective of his
mental condition at the time of the fight?
a)
Raju can take the defense under section 84 as he suffered from a rare phenomenon of suffering from periodical mental
insanity.
b)
Raju cannot take the density of section 84 as there is no proof that shows he was mentally insane during the time of
the fight.
c) Raju can take the defense of insanity irrespective of his mental health at the time of the fight
d) Raju cannot take the defense of insanity as it is clearly evident that it was a murder for a girl.
Q 103. Tom, an 18-year-old was suffering from a disorder which resulted in turning violent when he saw colour red
and violet. Once he attacked his neighbor Roger and severely injured him. Is there medical insanity or legal insanity in
the given case?
a) There is medical insanity in the given case.
b) There is legal insanity in the given case.

c) Legal insanity is present in the given case while medical insanity cannot be proved by the facts.
d) Medical insanity is present in the given case while legal insanity cannot be proved by the facts.
Q 104. Which of the following is a reasonable explanation of the McNaugthen rule?
a)
McNaughten rule confirms that it has to be verified whether a person was under insanity when the actual crime was
committed.
b) McNaughten rule confirms that it has to be checked whether a person was aware of the nature of his act or not.
c)
According to the McNaughten rule the insanity is confirmed by the test of whether the person is rationally aware
regarding the nature of his/her act.
d)
According to McNaugthen rule insanity can only be proved by medical experts o=under the grounds of medical
insanity.
:
Q 105. Which of the following statements is inconsistent with the idea presented in the passage?
a) The jurists and philosophers have highly appreciated the rationale of McNaughten rule.
b) Ambi v State of Kerala, explains the principle of insanity under section 84 of the IPC.
c) Section 84 embodies two mental conditions which exempt a man from responsibility for his wrongful act namely.
d) Both (a) and (c)
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments
set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately
and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
When US gymnast Simone Biles unexpectedly withdrew from the Olympics saying she wasn't in the right headspace, it
created a furore. Even one Olympics ago, Biles would have been berated for poor sportsmanship but the postpandemic
buzzword dominating the international narrative is: mental health. Twitter India itself has noted a 108% increase in
mentions of the term 'wellness' and a surge in popularity of hashtags like #selflove #LoveYourSelf and
#MentalHealthMatters. This display of fragility can feel either like righteous self-preservation or a euphemism for a cop-
out. Recently, it feels like the world has done a dramatic U-turn, from stigmatising mental health problems to embracing
them manically. So much so that while the greatest spectacle of human endurance is on, quitting is being hailed as some
sort of noble act. The fact is, all work is, occasionally, painful. Not wanting to strive, resolutely, every day, is rarely
depression, anxiety - frightfully misused terms these days. Stress is universal and a fear of failure haunts all of humanity.
I dread writing this piece fortnightly. I'm convinced every time I begin that I'm a hopeless fraud with nothing new to say.
While largely true, I do it anyway because leaving my editor in the lurch is not an option. Even in India, progressive
schools frown upon rankings - first, second, third is infra-dig and prizes are freely distributed not on merit, but for
showing up. This trend (of everyone is great in their own special way!) has infiltrated the discourse in all aspects of our
lives. Drug addiction and alcoholism are "illness", not poor decision-making. The conversation around obesity is fraught,
dare one dwell on the huge health risks. Instead, 'body positivity' celebrates size in all its forms.
In this environment, praise for those who can push themselves to superhuman feats is almost a backhanded criticism,
like they are not doing enough for those whose anxieties stood in their way.
Q 106. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) Twitter hashtags give an indication of the current popular narrative dominating the public discourse.
b) Staying in the competition and battling your mental demons, is the only definition of good 'sportsmanship'.
c) The furore over Biles' exit was more because of her stature than the reason of the exit.
d) Corona pandemic has caused a global uptick in the cases of mental health.
:
Q 107. Which of the following would most strongly undermine author's argument about 'coping out'?
I. Public admission of mental fragility by a sportsperson requires immense courage and serves as an inspiration for
those who are suffering silently to seek help.
II. Many people across the world have experienced serious mental trauma for the first time during the pandemic and
this has heightened their sense of empathy.
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Q 108. Which of the following rhetorical questions will support author's complaint in the following statement, "quitting
is being hailed as some sort of noble act"?
a) What would happen if soldiers became immobile thanks to panic attacks before battle?
b) What would happen if doctors and nurses started having breakdowns and not showing up for duty?
c) What would happen if hordes of students refuse to turn up for exams citing exam stress?
d) All of the above
Q 109. Which of the following, if true, will not strengthen author's argument?
a)
One can empathise with how mentally difficult and emotionally traumatic it must be to perform at a stratospheric level
i.e., Olympics.
b)
Olympic Games best embody the brutal Darwinism - that the Olympics is the ultimate and surest test of the survival of
the fittest.
c)
Record setting athletes remain obscure like two 13-year-old girls who won the first ever medals for skateboarding, but
everyone remembers Biles.
d)
An Olympic pedestal is the preserve of that minuscule minority that can conquer panic, the defining characteristic of a
true champion.
Q 110. As per the passage, author will agree with all of the following, except?
a) Those who achieve superhuman feats may have to face unfair criticism.
b) Work related worries are needlessly categorised as depression or anxiety.

c) Schools are right in giving prize to the students on the basis of participation.
d) Frank conversation around obesity is socially unacceptable nowadays.
:
Passage – 2
The need for infrastructure development in the Himalayan region rubs up against the environmental and ecological
challenges that they pose. The Uttarakhand government has for decades envisaged hydroelectric projects as the way
forward to power the State, premised on the region's undulating topography. However, the rising frequency of intense
rains has been contributing to landslips, avalanches, and the loss of lives and property. All of this has a bearing on
hydroelectric projects being situated in terrain prone to environmental shocks. In the aftermath of the devastating
Kedarnath floods of 2013, the Supreme Court ordered a halt to hydro projects in the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi River
basins pending a review on whether they exacerbated the damage. The last few years have seen considerable friction
on this issue, especially because the future of hydro projects is closely linked to the National Mission for Clean Ganga
(NMCG) programme. For the health of the river, it must be allowed to flow unimpeded, and hydropower projects are an
obstacle. A committee of experts recommended to the Court that almost all hydropower projects, cleared by the
Government for construction, be scrapped. Proponents of six of these projects approached the Court on the grounds
that they had obtained prior clearances and scrapping projects would entail significant losses. Since then, the Centre
has been trying to walk a fine line between salvaging some of them while acknowledging, at least on paper, the
environmental costs.
There have been divisions even within various Central ministries: the Water Resources Ministry, which manages the
NMCG, is opposed to hydropower projects while the Ministry of Power roots for them. Through the years, whenever a
group of experts has recommended a cessation of infrastructure development, there is always another group of experts,
usually affiliated to government institutions, that differ and recommend the opposite. The avalanche in Chamoli this
February, that destroyed two power projects and killed at least 200, was only the latest reminder of the fraught risks that
committees and their tussles inadequately account for. Along with better dialogue, power companies and the Centre
must inspire greater trust in the residents of the region: infrastructure development will have to necessarily account for
the region's constraints.
Q 111. Which of the following can inferred to be the dilemma facing the government in respect to the six hydropower
projects in the lurch?
a) Comparing the projected environmental costs with the financial losses that the scrapping of the project will cause.
b)
Comparing the projected environmental costs with the economic development losses that the scrapping of the project
will cause.
c)
Comparing the projected environmental costs with the social issue losses that the scrapping of the project will cause.
d)
Comparing the projected environmental costs with the hydro electrification losses that the scrapping of the project will
cause.
:
Q 112. Consider the following statements and identify them as Fact, Inference or Judgment
I. The rising frequency of intense rains has been contributing to landslips, avalanches, and the loss of lives and
property.
II. The weather turpitude has a bearing on hydroelectric projects being situated in terrain prone to environmental
shocks.
III. In the aftermath of the devastating Kedarnath floods of 2013 and many such similar incidents, it seems that hydro
projects in these areas exacerbated the damage.
a) Fact, Inference, Judgment

b) Fact, Judgment, Inference
c) Inference, Fact, Judgment
d) Inference, Judgment, Fact
Q 113. As per the passage, it can be inferred that the tussle which is the most important one in deciding the future of
hydropower projects in Uttarakhand is:
a) Water Resources Ministry vs Ministry of Power
b) Environmental Protection experts' group vs Economic Development experts' group
c) Centre vs Court
d) Hydroelectricity projects vs National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) programme
Q 114. Which of the following solutions is the author most likely to agree with?
a)
The Centre says that it is only permitting those hydropower projects that have been provided the go ahead already,
given the sunk costs.
b) Central government needs to have a clear policy balancing development with environmental protection.
c)
Uttarakhand is not immune from the demands for reliable power and infrastructure from its people and needs those
hydropower projects to go ahead at any cost.
d) All of the above
Q 115. Which of the following can be concluded about hydropower projects?

a) They are only suited in terrains in undulating topography.
b) They exacerbate the environmental damage in areas susceptible to ecological hardships.
c) They impede the cleaning of rivers by ejecting huge quantities of the waste effluents.
d) They can play an important role in achieving the energy needs and infrastructural goals.
:
Passage – 3
Let me share an interesting fact with you. If you go by marks awarded, Indian students have turned in their best ever
performance in a year, they seldom went to school, endured unprecedented education hardships and never took the final
exam. CBSE Class X and XII boards have passed a record 99.04% and 99.37% students respectively, with those
scoring above 95% jumping 38% and 81%. This extraordinary uptick is echoed across state boards. For example,
Maharashtra HSC results have witnessed a gravity-defying 1,000% rise in the 90% category. And the same tune is
played in all other states.
With all the other evidence crying how learning outcomes have suffered in this period, who will such grade inflation fool?
Even the argument that it helps reduce student stress will crumble when college cut-offs move brutally north too. And
you can't blame the pandemic alone. Grade inflation was an epidemic even before the pandemic. Before the 95% club
more than doubled in the 2020 Class XII CBSE boards, it soared by 39% in 2019. India's gross enrolment ratio in higher
education is 27% as compared to Indonesia's 36%, Brazil's 51%, and the US's 88%. So, more students should definitely
be attending colleges and universities. But for that we need more quality college capacity. In the near term the challenge
is, how will existing institutions filter a dramatically increased number of applicants with 'high marks'? A ready framework
is available in the Central Universities Common Entrance Test conducted by the National Testing Agency. Think of it as
an Indian SAT, which could be held multiple times a year. Until the pandemic lasts and such a nationwide test has to be
taken online, testing centres could be widely set up for digitally deprived students. Next step: We need an overhaul of
school examination systems if examinations are to have any meaning.
Q 116. "Even the argument that it helps reduce student stress will crumble when college cut-offs move brutally north
too"
In the context of the statement, which of the following does not weaken the author's opinion?
a) Colleges across the country have increased the number of seats in most of the courses.
b) Many colleges had to shut down as they could not sustain with the reduced fees.
c)
As the passing percentage has increased in the last year, more students will be eligible for different courses in State
and Central Universities.
d) Greater number of students will qualify for higher studies as well as government jobs.
Q 117. Which of the following is a correct expression of the author's opinion as stated in passage?
a)
When board results are more about rewarding students than awarding marks, education system display an empathetic
side.
b) When board results abandon all pretence of actually measuring ability, relying on them alone would be unsound.
c) When board results take into account the pandemic induced stress, it is a cause of celebration, not censure.
d) When board results are uniform in their absurdity, college admissions are more about chance than calibre.
:
Q 118. As per the passage, which of the following is likely to be a major challenge for colleges while giving
admission?
a) To filter the students as per their vocational inclination.
b) To set a cut off score for filtering applications.
c) To consider the Board exams or CET for admission.
d) To give adequate weightage to non-academic achievements.
Q 119. According of the author, this year's Board results can be described as:
a) An absurd act of appeasement
b) An exercise in education empathy
c) An endeavour suffused with evangelism
d) An attempt to assuage hurt sentiments
Q 120. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Less than .9% of all students have failed in all the Board examinations this year.
b) Students who scored more than 90% marks in Class XII have increased 100 times in Maharashtra.
c) More students have scored more than 95% marks in Class XII Boards than Class X Boards, in 2020.
d) Number of students scoring more than 95% marks in Class XII Boards have increased for two consecutive years.
Passage – 4
In a verdict that should educate authorities everywhere, the Supreme Court has said preventive detention requires
serious threats to public order, not merely law and order apprehensions. An alleged white collar offender's wife had
complained that her husband was placed under preventive detention for a year by Telangana authorities under the
apprehension that he would commit offences. This, after being granted anticipatory bail in five cases. The court noted
that cheating or criminal breach of trust certainly affects "law and order" but to place a person under preventive detention
required a serious threat to public order, potentially affecting the community or the public at large. In the Telangana case,
the police didn't demand cancellation of anticipatory bail - an omission that tells us a lot about policing. Recourse to
preventive detention is particularly troubling because it tantamounts to imprisonment without trial or proper investigation
or arraignment before a magistrate within 24 hours of detention. Justification for such detentions came from India's
history of massive agitations - on statehood, quotas, peasant and labour issues - as well as localised violence,
communal riots and insurgencies. But preventive detention is sanctioned by the Constitution only with safeguards.
Therefore, even granting there is a grey area between detention before commission of any offence and the necessity of
preserving public order, this power must be sparingly used - only when there's reasonable probability of public disorder,
not to "punish" troublemakers or keep them out of circulation.
:
While 3,223 detenues were in prison on December 31, 2019, a 35% rise from 2018, another 6,533 detenues were
released during the year. Significantly, 25% of surveyed detenues were illiterate and 41% had sub-Class 10 education,
suggesting the possibility that many detentions are targeted at citizens who can be easily bullied. Advisory Boards that
vet preventive detention orders must do their job far better. As the SC did here.
Q 121. Which of the following is the inherent assumption in the statement: "Significantly, 25% of surveyed detenues
were illiterate and 41% had sub-Class 10 education, suggesting the possibility that many detentions are targeted at
citizens who can be easily bullied"?
a) People with less than class X education are also classified as illiterate.
b) Ability to resist bullying is influenced by the education level of the bullied.
c) People with higher income have better access to legal resources.
d) People who have studied more than class X cannot be easily detained.
Q 122. Which of the following defines preventive detention correctly according to the given passage?
a) It involves arresting and incarcerating a person.
b) It can be imposed in-spite of the anticipatory bail.
c) It is at complete discretion of the local police.
d) It is used in anticipation of wrongdoing.
Q 123. Which of the following requirement is mandatory to reduce the risk of misuse of preventive detention?
a) Punish troublemakers to banish them.
b) Sparing and cautious political usage.
c) Reasonable probability of public disorder.
d) Cheating or criminal breach of trust.
Q 124. Consider the following statements:

I. Preventive detention is prohibited by Constitution.
II. SC had pulled up Telengana cops for misuse of preventive detention.
III. Preventive detention is a convenient and exigent option for police.
Which of the following are true according to the given passage?
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) I,II and III
d) II and III
:
Q 125. Which of the following can deduced to be the challenge for the police in imposing preventive detection?
a) Assessment of the extent of the probable risk.

b) Evaluation of the crime committed in terms of public disorder.
c) Estimating the extent of the damage of the public order.
d) Forecasting the likelihood of the suspect not committing the crime.
Passage – 5
Announcing 27% reservation for OBC and 10% for EWS candidates in the all-India quota for medical admissions, while
proportionately increasing overall seats, continues the trend of entrenching reservations. Indeed, it's surprising this move
took so long. Now BJP can claim bragging rights, just like Congress in 2006, when the latter initiated OBC reservations
in central education institutions. By upholding EWS quotas too, BJP has theoretically placated most social groups.
Politics of quotas is such that no one will ask even basic questions. How soon will an increase in medical seats to
accommodate new quotas happen and what will be the quality of education after that increase? The pandemic should
have told the political class that already-existing shortcomings in medical education restrict the output of thoroughly
trained doctors. How will putting more stress on this system produce a better outcome? We need many more quality
medical institutions to increase the supply of quality medical professionals. But that requires policy that knows how to
attract entrepreneurs who value creating institutions and also does rigorous performance reviews of medical colleges.
Quota balancing will now be an added job for medical regulators not known for their commitment to excellence.
Indian netas excel in failing at basics and covering them up with populist appeals. They have failed to provide high
quality school education or facilitate job creation. Consequently, subpar human capital makes quotas, which involve
subdividing a static or shrinking pie, an attractive fallback option. Without economic growth or learning outcomes, OBC
groups, sandwiched between the general category and SC/STs, were rallied on the promise of quotas. Now, groups
within the OBC quota are clashing over who benefited or lost out, and even the GoI-appointed Rohini Commission is
struggling to reconcile claims. Expect more politics on quota and little policy aimed at quality.
Q 126. What is the author conveying in the statement "Indeed, it's surprising this move took so long"?
a) Mild anguish at the delay of the necessary action.

b) Mock surprise at the happening of the inevitable.
c) Moderate shock at the timing of the move.
d) Modest amazement at the duration of the decision.

:
Q 127. Consider the following statements:
I. People who avail quotas benefits are usually below the average academic standards.
II. There is lack of clarity about the exact extent and beneficiaries of OBC quota.
III. Rohini Commission was appointed to analyse the quota policy in reference to OBC beneficiaries.
As per the above passage, which of these statements is implicit?
a) I Only
b) I and II
c) I, II and III
d) I and III
Q 128. "Expect more politics on quota and little policy aimed at quality"
Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation for the above statement?
a) Framing policies envisioning creation and maintenance of high-quality institutions requires foresight.
b) Quota policy yields quicker and easier electoral rewards and political power, especially in rural areas.
c) Politicians prefer the more populist option over taking hard decisions which might be necessary for public good.
d) Quotas are ad hoc decisions announced by the government which they have to revoke later under Court's duress.
Q 129. Which of the following solution will the author agree with?
a) Scrapping all existing quota except EWS.
b) Retain existing quotas, but don't add any more.
c) Focus on quality education and job creation.

d) Set up more commissions to analyse the quota policy.
Q 130. Which of the following cannot be construed to be a challenge faced by the medical institutions as a result of
the quota policy?
a) Quality of education.
b) Strain on the education system.

c) Ability of medical regulator.
d) Number of available seats.
:
Passage – 6
With the Supreme Court set to hear the pleas seeking a court-monitored probe into the Pegasus snooping row on
Thursday, a new dimension has been added to the controversy. Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar, an ally of the BJP-led
NDA government at the Centre, has lent his weight to the demand for a probe. The Bihar CM asked the Opposition to
put pressure by placing the relevant facts and figures before the government if it was not prepared for an inquiry. Nitish's
demand came on the eve of a meeting of leaders from several Opposition parties convened by Congress leader Rahul
Gandhi to present a united front on the Pegasus issue even as the controversy continued to rock both Houses of
Parliament, prompting PM Modi to slam the Opposition for its conduct. Ever since the revelation about the phone-tapping
incident was made, there have been demands for an inquiry. The demand was earlier raised by TMC chief and West
Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee who called for an all-party meeting on the issue. West Bengal even constituted
a commission to probe the controversy. The Centre, on its part, has continued to deny that it has got anything to do with
the snooping row, calling it instead an attack on Indian democracy. With the country figuring on the list of global
democracy watchdogs that are concerned over the growing trend towards 'authoritarianism' and the plight of minorities,
the government may well be on the defensive, but the attempts at stone-walling the Opposition have not helped matters
either. In fact, the meetings of the parliamentary panel on information technology have seen BJP members boycott the
proceedings and spar with the chairman who is from the Congress.
Q 131. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) Government has not set up an inquiry for the Pegasus fiasco.
b) Pegasus is related to phone tapping of important people.
c) Nitish Kumar has asked to government to place relevant facts and figures.
d) Mamata Banerjee would favour a court monitored probe in the snooping row.
Q 132. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a) All opposition parties are united in their stance against Pegasus.
b) Central government is suggesting a concentrated assault on Indian autonomy.
c) Opposition have failed to use the snooping row to put the government in dock.
d) Opposition parties are instructed by global watchdogs to pressurize the Indian government.
Q 133. Which of the following cannot be considered an instance of government being cornered on snooping row?
a) Parliament proceedings forced to be suspended due to a vociferous opposition.
b) BJP ally voicing support for opposition stance and even suggesting recourse.
c) BJP members boycotting the proceedings of the parliamentary panel on information technology.
d) None of the Above.
:
Q 134. Consider the following possible solutions by the government for the above-mentioned Pegasus imbroglio:
I. Constitute an all-party panel to monitor the probe.
II. Call an all-party meeting to share all facts and information.
III. Invite international watchdogs to monitor the probe.
Which of the above will the author most agree with?
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) I, II and III
d) II and III
Q 135. "The Centre, on its part, has continued to deny that it has got anything to do with the snooping row, calling it
instead an attack on Indian democracy"
Which of the following can be concluded from the above statement?
a) Centre is trying to deflect by making this an issue about nationalism.
b) Centre is trying to regress by raising the spectre of Western imperialism.
c) Centre is trying to obfuscate by treating political protests as national security threats.

d) Centre is trying to manipulate by soliciting help as well as slamming the opposition parties.
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The total number of students appearing for the Higher Secondary Board Exam from six different schools - A, B, C, D, E
and F - in a city is 1650. The number of boys is 150 less than the number of girls. The number of girls from school F is
20% more than the number of boys in school C. The total number of students from school C is 300 and the number of
girls is 50 more than the number of boys. The number of boys from school D is 10 less than the number of boys from
school C. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls from school B is 13 : 15. The total number of students
from school A as well as from school E is 260. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls from school E is 6 :
7. The number of boys from school A is 110. The number of girls from school A and school B are equal.
Q 136. What is the ratio of number of boys is to the number of girls from school F?
a) 2 : 3
b) 3 : 4
c) 1 : 2
d) 1 : 1
:
Q 137. What is the total number of students from school B?
a) 260
b) 280
c) 300
d) 250
Q 138. The average score of the students of school E was 86%. If the average score of the girls from school E was
80%, then what was the average score of the boys from school E?
a) 88%
b) 95%
c) 93%
d) 92.5%
Q 139. If 80% of the students appearing for the board exam got at least 80% marks, then find the number of students
that got less than 80%.
a) 330
b) 255
c) 275
d) 315
Q 140. If 2% of girls and 4% of the boys fail in the exam from school F, then how many students pass from the same
school?
a) 293
b) 281
c) 291
d) 294
A private sector company brings out an advertisement for recruitment of graduates for certain posts. Out of 1500
applications received 250 are engineering graduates who have prior experience in IT field. 25% of the total applicants
are non-engineering graduates having experience in non-IT field. 12% of total applicants are non-engineering graduates
having experience in IT field. The ratio of the number of engineering graduates having experience in IT and non-IT fields
is 5 : 3. The remaining candidates have no work experience among whom 40% are engineering graduates.
:
Q 141. What is the total number of applicants that are engineering graduates with experience?
a) 350
b) 425
c) 400
d) 175
Q 142. What is the absolute difference between the number of non-engineering graduates that have experience in IT
and non-IT fields?
a) 175
b) 215
c) 180
d) 195
Q 143. What is the total number of applicants that have no experience?

a) 545
b) 525
c) 625
d) 445
Q 144. What is the total number of applications received from non-engineering graduates?
a) 664
b) 884
c) 786
d) 882
Q 145. What approximate percentage of total applicants with experience are from non-IT field?
a) 40%
b) 55%
c) 60%
d) 35%
Three inlet water pipes A, B and C are all used to fill a tank. These pipes can fill the tank individually in 6 hours, 12 hours
and 18 hours, respectively. Apart from these there are two outlet pipes D and E which can individually empty the tank in
36 hours and 45 hours respectively.
:
Q 146. How long will the pipes A, B and C take to fill the empty tank if D is also kept open?
a) 3 hours
b) 3.6 hours
c) 2.5 hours
d) 4.4 hours
Q 147. If on a certain day the flow of water in pipes A and B is two-third of the original flow, then how long will A and B
together take to fill the tank?
a) 4.5 hours
b) 5 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 7.5 hours
Q 148. Pipe C alone supplied water at half of its normal rate for 6 hours, after which C was closed and both A and B
were opened. How long will it take to fill the remaining part of the tank?
a) 2 hours 30 minutes
b) 3 hours 40 minutes
c) 2 hours 20 minutes
d) 3 hours 20 minutes
Q 149. If the tank is half full and pipes A, C and E are opened, then how long will it take to fill the tank?
a) 2.5 hours
b) 3.2 hours
c) 3.6 hours
d) 4.5 hours
Q 150. How long will pipes D and E take to empty a tank that is 75% full?
a) 13.5 hours
b) 15 hours
c) 16 hours
d) 11.5 hours
:

CL Prime Mock Clat#07

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

CL Prime Mock Clat#07

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CL Prime Mock Clat#07

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Prime Mock 07 (CLAT) (2022)

a) No matter who is in power in Kabul, Afghanistan sees little prospect of peace

c) The power and authority of IS-K is increasing consistently in Afghanistan

a) Potential allies for power

b) Inimical to each other

d) Secret collusion but seemingly in conflict

a) It is largely restricted to Eastern Afghanistan

c) It has a more liberal religious outlook than Taliban

d) It incites sectarian conflict by promoting religious polarization

Q 4. Taliban can be described as all of the following except:

a) A military fighting force

c) A group made up of religiously indoctrinated Pashtuns

d) Pashtun Nationalist force with support from Pakistan

b) Two equally bad options

c) A very difficult choice

d) Short term vs. long term

a) It was sold privately at the end of a multi-year long process

d) All of the above are advantages mentioned

Q 9. Which of the following is not true as per the passage?

d) All of the above

a) Handling complexity: On 2021 Nobel Prize in Physics

c) Climate science and Condensed matter

d) Nobel Prize in Physics goes to climate science

Q 14. Which of the following is true as per the passage?

c) Human impact on climate change is an important scientific research area

d) Water flowing out of a tap can be considered as a complex system

a) States have engaged in slanging match with the Center

c) To live uncertainly from day to day

d) To be satisfied with whatever little one has

b) More efficient distribution methods of power

c) Regular supply and stocking of coal to power plants

a) The lack of funds due to non collection of tolls

b) Road-blocking by Farmers due to the agitation

d) Workers' unwillingness to work due to safety concerns

a) Sarcasm, infrastructure development

b) Dilemma, village development

c) Irony, lopsided development

a) 2/3rd of the roads are connected with the villages

b) Benefits of development need to reach the villages

a) Village roads have lower or zero toll collections

c) Roads require regular maintenance, especially after monsoons

a) Jungle safari in Chandrapur

c) National Forest Policy, 1988

d) Forest Rights Act, 2006

Q 28. The author is accusing the government of:

a) Not maintaining the spirit of the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

c) Encouraging poachers and not doing enough for protecting wildlife

d) Not distributing the economic benefits of forest produce equally

b) Facetious promises of preserving virgin nature

c) Ferocious demands on the bounty of the nature

d) False pledges of arresting climate change

c) Gram Panchayats have been more susceptible to bribery by timber smugglers

Q 34. Who is the current Defence Minister of India?

d) Nitin Jairam Gadkari

a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

b) Bharat Aeronautics Limited

c) Bharat Earth Movers Limited