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1. A prosecution witness, by viewing a NDTV’s news film,
identified the accused as a member of a group of persons
Publish Your Article
who had caused serious public disturbance. The original
film was retained by NDTV and at trial the prosecution
relied on the video cassette, which the Court was satisfied
was an authentic copy of the original film. The evidence- LATEST

Expected Questions for Indian Judicial

A. Is admissible, as the rules for submitting primary documents Services Mains Examination
cannot be extended to films
Expected Questions for OJS Mains Exam
B. Is not admissible as the original is in existence, the secondary [Odisha Judicial Services Main Exam]
document cannot be used
IMPORTANT: 100 MCQs for OJS Preliminary

C. Is not admissible as the Court is competent to order NDTV to Exam

submit the original film

Expected Questions on Indian Penal Code:

D. Is admissible as the Original document is a public document Indian Judicial Services Mains Exam

Ans. A Indian Judicial Service Mains Exam Mock Test

2. In which of the following circumstances will section 71 of

the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 NOT apply?

A. In case the attesting witness turns hostile

B. In case out of two attesting witnesses one fails to prove the

execution of the will

C. In case the attesting witness does not recollect the execution of

the document

Replay

D. In case the document is a will or testamentary document

Ans. B

3. Which of the following statements hold true under the

provisions of section 73 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. The writings obtained under this section will fall within the
expression ‘evidence’

B. The Court can send the documents to an expert who is a

prosecution witness
 Replay

C. The Court can call upon the accused to give his writing in Court

Replay

D. The person required by the Court to give a specimen cannot

refuse to do so

Ans. C

4. Which of the following documents is NOT a public doc-

ument?

A. Registered power of attorney

B. Records of Nationalised banks

C. A death certificate

D. Certified copy of annual return of the Company is a public

document

Ans. A

5. A marriage certificate –

A. Is proof of a valid marriage per se

B. Is a determining factor regarding the validity of the marriage

C. Is of great evidentiary value in family matters

D. All of the above

Ans. C

6. A letter purporting to be issued from the Chief Secretary

to the Government of Bengal was signed by a deputy
secretary not in his official capacity, but for the Chief
Secretary. The Court –

A. Can draw a presumption under section 79 of the Indian Evidence

Act, 1872 that the document is an authorised document
B. Can draw a presumption under section 81 of the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 that the document is an authorised document

C. Can draw a presumption under section 83 of the Indian Evidence

Act, 1872 that the document is an authorised document

D. Cannot draw a presumption under the provisions of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872 that the document is an authorised document

Ans. D

7. B executed a power of attorney in USA, and submitted it

as evidence in Punjab and Haryana High Court. The power
of attorney was not authenticated by the Indian Consul or
any other relevant Indian Authority in US. The relevant
laws in the United States about the power of the Notary
Public were also not cited. The authenticity of the power of
attorney –

A. Must be presumed under section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act,

1872

B. May be presumed under section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act,

1872

C. Cannot be presumed under section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act,

1872

D. May be presumed under section 84 of the Indian Evidence Act,

1872

Ans. C

8. Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

which of the following presumptions can be made with
regards to telegraphic messages?

I. That the message was received as it was sent

II. That the message was sent by the person purporting to send the
message

III. That the message was delivered to the addressee on the date
indicated thereon
IV. The contents of the message are authenticated and true

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and IV

D. IV and III

Ans. B

9. B sues to recover one-fourth of the price of the house

alleged to have been sold by the A to C. The proper reg-
istered sale deed is available. The claim is based on local
custom. The transaction between A and C was ostensibly
not a sale but a usufructuary mortgage. B wants to give
oral evidence in support of this. Which of the following
statements will be true for the case?

A. B is not a party to the transaction between A and C as such he is

entitled to give evidence

B. The evidence by B will be hit by section 92 of the Indian Evidence

Act, 1872 and as such will not be admissible

C. The B is not a party to the transaction between A and C, as such

he cannot give oral evidence

D. A and C have committed a fraud, as such the evidence of B is

admissible as long as it is supported by written proof

Ans. A

10. Which of the following statements concerning the

burden of proof are false?

A. Deposit of money in wife’s name does not amount to a gift. If

anybody says it was a gift he must prove it

B. Tenant taking a plea that the suit premises wad not vacated by
him, will need to prove it
C. In determining whether a trust is public or private, the burden of
proof lies with a person asserting that it is a public one

D. In the plea challenging the constitutionality of the stature, the

burden of proof is on the person challenging the constitutionality

Ans. C

11. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence

Act deals with questions lawful in cross-examination?

A. Section 139

B. Section 166

C. Section 140

D. Section 146

Ans. D

12. Four murders took place in the house of the accused,

and the accused tried to commit suicide in his house.
Which of the following statement will hold true in this
case?

A. This being a criminal case the burden of proof is on the

prosecution

B. The burden of proof will lie on the accused under section 101 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 because his actions are suspicious

C. The burden of proof will lie on the accused under section 102 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 because the accused will fail if no
evidence is given by him

D. The burden of proof will fall of the accused under section 106 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 because the facts were in the special
knowledge of the accused

Ans. D

13. Shortly before the death of the victim, both the accused,
a man and a woman had entered the house of the victim.
They bolted the door from inside and did not open it
despite tapping several times. The door had to be broken
by the neighbours and the relatives. Both the accused were
found hiding under the cot in the bedroom of the deceased.
The deceased was lying dead with the injuries on his
person. Which of the following statements will apply to the
case?

A. The burden of proof will lie on the accused under section 102 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 because the accused will fail if no
evidence is given by them

B. The burden of proof will lie on the accused under section 105 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 because special circumstances exist in
this case

C. The burden of proof will fall of the accused under section 106 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 because the facts were in the special
knowledge of the accused

D. The burden of proof will lie with the prosecution under section
101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 because they have to prove the
murder

Ans. C

14. Which of the following statements do NOT hold true for

the section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. The rule of Muhammadan Law that a missing person is to be

regarded as alive till the expiry of 21Rs ninety years from the date of
birth is superseded by this section

B. The rule of Hindu Law that twelve years must elapse before an
absent person, of whom nothing has been heard during the period is
superseded by this section

C. The burden of proof lies with the person claiming that the death
has not happened

D. None of these

Ans. D

15. In which of the following cases will the presumption

against the accused NOT arise?

A. A Government Servant was found in possession of assets

disproportionate to his earning. Presumption of corruption

B. A newly born child was injured in the Government Hospital.

Presumption of negligence by the Staff

C. One joint owner was permitted to be in possession for a long

period of over 50 years without any protest or objection.
Presumption regarding exclusive ownership

D. Death of a person occurred in police custody. Presumption of

murder

Ans. D

16. Which of the following cases can the Court make

presumptions?

A. Property in name of co-sharers. Presumption that it is ancestor’s

property

B. A registered sale deed. Presumption of genuineness

C. A letter sent by registered post, is not returned to sender within 15

days. Presumption that the letter has been delivered
D. Delivery of post card by the post office. Presumption that it was
send by the sender

Ans. B

17. Which of the following statements are true regarding

the difference between res judicata and estoppels?

A. Estoppels outs the jurisdiction of the Court, res judicta shuts the
mouth of the party

B. Estoppels belongs to the procedure, res judicta is part of Law of

evidence

C. Estoppels prevents a man saying one thing at one time and

opposite at another, res judicta precludes a man averring the same
thing twice over in successive litigations

D. All of these

Ans. C

18. The father and one of his son were judgement debtors
in a decree of eviction ant they had applied for a review.
The father died and the son continued the review pro-
ceedings without asking for substitution of his brothers for
the deceased father. He was not latter allowed to challenge
the validity of the execution proceedings because of the
absence of legal representatives. This is an example of –

A. Estoppels by matter of record

B. Estoppels by deed

C. Estoppels in pais

D. Waiver

Ans. A

19. In an accident claim petition the owner of the vehicle

did not file the original policy and made no objection to the
genuineness of the printed copy filed by the insurance
company, the owner cannot later on make objection to its
genuineness. This is an example of –

A. Estoppels by matter of record

B. Estoppels by deed

C. Estoppels in pais

D. Waiver

Ans. C

20. A University was charging different fee from different

batches and the batch B was subjected to higher and the
structure of the fee was clearly disclosed in the prospectus.
Can the students in batch B challenge the validity of the fee
structure?

A. No, applicability of promissory estoppels stops them from

challenging the structure
B. No, they by taking admission gave up the right of parity treatment
with others

C. Yes, there is no ground for estopping them from challenging the

validity of the fee structure

D. No, by accepting the admission they have waivered their right to

object

Ans. C

21. Which of the following statements is NOT true for the

principle of Estoppels?

A. It cannot operates against statute

B. It cannot operate on point of Law

C. It does not require fraudulent intentions

D. It can be ambiguous

Ans. D

22. A Child witness below the age of____________

cannot give evidence in the Indian Courts.

A. 15 years

B. 12 years

C. 10 years

D. There is no such limit

Ans. D

23. Which of the following statements do NOT hold true for

admissibility of the evidence?

A. A party filing a document cannot urge its inadmissibility when the

opposite party seeks to use it against him

B. The fact that a document was procured by improper of illegal

means will not be a bar to its admissibility if it is relevant and its
genuineness proved

C. The faculties of a sniffer dog may be taken as evidence for the

purpose of establishing the guilt of an accused

D. If the evidence is irrelevant, consent of the parties cannot make it

relevant

Ans. C

24. Consider the following facts.

I. Witness disposed that immediately after the occurrence; his niece

told him that his wife was shot by the accused

II. Witness deposed that the deceased had made certain statements
to him either nine months or ten days prior to his murder

III. The accused intruded into the victim’s house and inflicted gun-
shot injury on him. He was able to identify him, before dying he
stated that the accused was standing with a gun before him, he also
explained the time, space, proximity between him and the assailant

IV. The accused assaulted the deceased and within half an hour of
the incident told the brother of the deceased of his act

Which of them are relevant under section 6 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872?

A. I and II

B. II, III and IV

C. I, II and III

D. Ill and IV

Ans. C

25. Which of the following facts will NOT be relevant under

section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. The conduct of an accused in absconding when the police got

suspicious of his complicity in the offence of murder

B. The presence of the accused before and after the incident in the
vicinity of the village in which dacoity took place

C. In case of bride burning, the conduct of the husband after the

incident

D. All of these

Ans. D

26. In which of the following cases NOT holding a test iden-

tification parade will prove fatal?

A. In an offense of rape, accused was not known to the victim. No

test identification parade was held for three years after the
occurrence

B. A murder took place in a rickshaw, the accused was known to the

rickshaw puller. The rickshaw puller was with the accused for more
than three hours and witnessed the killing

C. Accused fatally assaulted the husband of the eye witness, she

identified him for the first time in the Court

D. All the witness stated that they had otherwise known the accused
persons, they being not strangers, and they recognised them in
moonlight and lantern light, it was held that a test identification
parade was not necessary

Ans. A

27. The motives are covered under –

A. Section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

B. Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

C. Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

D. Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Ans. B

28. Which of the following need NOT be established for

making the evidence admissible under section 10 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. There must be reason to believe that there was a conspiracy

B. There must be reason to believe that the accused persons were

members of the conspiracy

C. The evidence must be related to things said, done or written

D. The offence must have been committed

Ans. D

29. Which of the following statements are true for the

pleas of alibi?

A. The fact that the accused resorted to false plea of alibi is positive
evidence that the accused is responsible for the offence

B. The plea of alibi need not be proved with absolute certainty,

benefit of the doubt is given to the accused

C. A false plea of alibi can be regarded as link in the chain of

circumstances leading to conviction

D. The plea of alibi is not admissible under section 11 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872

Ans. C

30. Which of the following statements hold true for the

admissions?

A. The admissions made to strangers are not admissible under the

Indian Evidence Act, 1872

B. Before admitting the evidence of the admission, it should be

brought to the notice of the party who made it

C. Admissions can be oral as well as written in documents

D. Only judicial admissions are acceptable under the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872

Ans. C

31. Section 18 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 lays down

five classes of people who can make admissions. Which of
the following is NOT one of them?

A. Party to the proceedings

B. Agent authorised by the party of the proceedings

C. Party suing or being suing in the representative character making

admission while holding the character

D. Witness for the party suing or being sued in the representative

character making the admission as a witness

Ans. D
32. Which of the following admissions will NOT be binding
under section 18 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. The statement made by the suspect before the Coroner

B. An admission by a counsel or pleader on the point of Law

C. An admission by a counsel or pleader on the point of fact

D. Admission by a partner of a dissolved firm on the other partners

when they have an identical interest in the subject matter of the suit

Ans. B

33. Which of the following statements hold true regarding

the admissibility of admissions under section 19 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. The admissions must satisfy the requirements of section 17 of the

Indian Evidence Act, 1872

B. The admissions need not satisfy the requirements of section 17 of

the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

C. The admissions must satisfy the requirements of section 21 of the

Indian Evidence Act, 1872

D. The admissions cannot satisfy the requirements of section 21 of

the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Ans. A

34. Which of the following statement holds true for the

section 21 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. It only applies to civil cases

B. It only applies to criminal cases

C. This section is subject to section 24, 25 and 26 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872

D. The section does not apply to the admissions made to strangers

Ans. C

35. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence

Act, 1872 deals with ‘without prejudice’ rule?

A. Section 21

B. Section 22

C. Section 23

D. Section 24

Ans. C

36. The confession of an accused is only relevant against

him. Which of the following sections of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to this rule?

A. Section 23
B. Section 25

C. Section 28

D. Section 30

Ans. D

37. Generally In which of the following cases the

confession of the person will be valid?

A. If it is made to the police officer

B. If it is made in the presence of a police officer

C. If it is made in the presence of two independent witnesses while in

the custody of the Police Officer

D. If it is made in the presence of a Magistrate when the accused is in

the custody of the Police Officer

Ans. D

38. Which of the following statement is NOT true

regarding the extra-judicial confessions?

A. It is a weak evidence by itself

B. It should be made voluntarily and should be truthful

C. It cannot by itself become basis of conviction

D. It should inspire confidence

Ans. C

39. In a murder case before identification of the culprit, B

wrote a letter of confession to the police officer. At the time
of writing the letter there was no suspicion cast on B.
Choose the most relevant answer from the following
choices.

A. Is inadmissible as it was made to a police officer

B. Admissible as it was made voluntarily, the fact it was made before

the police officer is irrelevant

C. Admissible as it was neither made in police custody nor in the

presence of the police officer

D. Inadmissible as it was not made before the magistrate

Ans. C

40. While the accused was in the lock-up of the Magistrate

under trial, he was sent by the Magistrate to a hospital for
treatment. He was taken from the lock-up to the dispensa-
ry by two policemen who waited outside on the verandah
of the hospital. During the examination inside the dis-
pensary by the doctor, the accused made a confession of
his guilt to another patient who happened to be there
within the hearing of the doctor. Which of the following
statements will hold true for the case?
A. The confession is inadmissible because it was made in the
presence of the doctor

B. The confession in inadmissible as the accused was in the police

custody at the time of making the confession

C. The confession is admissible because the accused ceased to be in

police custody the movement he entered the hospital

D. The confession is admissible as it is in form of extrajudicial

confession and the doctor in not a person in authority

Ans. B

41. Which of the following conditions are essential for

applicability of section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

I. The person giving information must be in police custody

II. The person giving information must NOT be in police custody

III. The person giving the information must not be accused of any
offence

IV. The person giving the information must be accused of any

offence

A. I and III

B.I and IV

C. II and III

D. II and IV

Ans. B

42. Which of the following confessions CANNOT be admit-

ted under section 29 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. The accused asked the police officer to post the letter for him.
Police officer promised to do so and the accused handed over his
letter to the officer. The police officer handed over the letter to the
prosecution

B. The evidence of a police officer who overheard an accused

person’s statement made in another room and in ignorance of the
policeman’s vicinity and uninfluenced by it

C. A person while in sleep confessed his guilt and the police officer
nearby heard the confession

D. The police officer gave liquor to the accused, and the accused
made the confession to the magistrate under the influence of the
liquor

Ans. A

43. The evidence accepted by the Court under section 30 of

the Indian Evidence Act, 1872-

A. Amounts to proof

B. May be used as the basis of conviction

C. Cannot be used as the basis of conviction

D. Cannot be used for corroboration

Ans. C

44. Which of the following statements hold true for a

retracted confession?

A. It cannot be used as evidence

B. It can be acted upon only if substantially corroborated by

independent circumstances

C. Cannot be disregarded even if proved to be obtained under duress

D. None of these

Ans. B

45. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence

Act, 1872 states that the admissions can operate as
estoppels?

A. Section 28

B. Section 30

C. Section 31

D. Section 34

Ans. C

46. Persons who can make admissions are mentioned in:

(a) section 17 of Evidence Act

(b) section 20 of Evidence Act

(c) section 19 of Evidence Act

(d) section 18 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (d)

47. Admissions by agents are:

(a) admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances

(b) admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority
to make admissions

(c) never admissible in criminal proceedings

(d) both (b) & (c).

Ans. (d)

48. Admissions made by a party are evidence against:

(a) privies in blood

(b) privies in law

(c) privies in estate

(d) all the above.

Ans. (c)

49. Which of the following admission is no evidence:

(a) an admission by one of the several defendants in a suit against

another defendant

(b) an admission by a guardian ad litem against a minor

(c) an admission by one of the partners of a firm against the firm or

other partners

(d) only (a) & (b).

Ans. (d)

50. When the liability of a person who is one of the parties

to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the
suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his
liability shall be an admission on the part of that person
who is a party to the suit. It has been so provided:

(a) under section 21 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 20 of Evidence Act

(c) under section 19 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 17 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (c)

51. In a reference made over a disputed matter to a third

person, the declaration so made by that person shall be an
evidence against the party making a reference, by virtue of:

(a) section 17 of Evidence Act

(b) section 19 of Evidence Act

(c) section 20 of Evidence Act

(d) section 21 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (c)

52. Communication made ‘without prejudice’ is protected:

(a) under section 22 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 23 of Evidence Act

(c) under section 24 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 21 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

53. Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is

contained in:

(a) section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(c) section 26 of Evidence Act

(d) section 27 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (a)

54. Section 24 of Evidence Act applies:

(a) when the inducement, threat or promise comes from a person in

authority

(b) when the inducement is of a temporal kind

(c) when the inducement is spiritual or religious

(d) only (a) & (b) are correct.

Ans. (d)

55. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible

under:

(a) section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(c) section 26 of Evidence Act

(d) section 27 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

56. A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of

Evidence Act:

(a) must relate to the same crime for which he is charged

(b) must relate to another crime

(c) may relate to the same crime or another crime

(d) only (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect.

Ans. (c)

57. Which of the following is not given by section 25 of

Evidence Act:

(a) confessions made to custom officers

(b) confession made to a member of Railway Protection Force

(c) confession made to an officer under FERA

(d) all the above.

Ans. (d)

58. A retracted confession:

(a) can be made solely the basis of conviction

(b) cannot be made solely the basis of conviction under any

circumstances
(c) cannot be made solely the basis of conviction unless the same is
corroborated

(d) both (a) & (c) are incorrect.

Ans. (c)

59. A confession made by a person while in police custody

is inadmissible as per:

(a) section 25 of Evidence Act

(b) section 26 of Evidence Act

(c) section 27 of Evidence Act

(d) section 30 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

60. A confession made while in police custody is

admissible under section 26 of Evidence Act:

(a) if made in the presence of a doctor

(b) if made in the presence of a captain of a vessel

(c) if made in the presence of a Magistrate

(d) all the above.

Ans. (c)

61. Section 27 control:

(a) section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(c) section 26 of Evidence Act

(d) all the above.

Ans. (d)

62. Section 27 applies to:

(a) discovery of some fact which the police had not previously learnt
from other sources and was first derived from the information given
by the accused

(b) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt
from other sources

(c) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt
from other sources and the accused has also given information
regarding the same

(d) all the above.

Ans. (a)

63. Under section 27 of Evidence Act, ‘discovery of fact’

includes:
(a) the object found

(b) the place from where it is produced

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. (c)

64. Section 27 of Evidence Act applies:

(a) when the person giving information is an accused but not in

police custody

(b) when the person giving information is an accused and is in police

custody

(c) when the person is in police custody but not an accused

(d) when the person is neither in police custody nor an accused.

Ans. (b)

65. Under section 27 of Evidence Act:

(a) the whole statement is admissible

(b) only that portion which distinctly relates to the discovery is

admissible

(c) both are admissible depending on the facts & circumstances of

the case

(d) only (a) & not (b).

Ans. (b)

66. Facts discovered in consequences of a joint

information:

(a) are not admissible and cannot be used against any of the accused
person

(b) are admissible and can be used against any one of the accused
person

(c) are admissible and can be used against all the accused persons

(d) both (a) & (c) are correct.

Ans. (a)

67. Confession of an accused is admissible against the

other co-accused:

(a) under section 28 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 29 of Evidence Act

(c) under section 30 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 31 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (c)
68. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-
accused:

(a) if they are tried jointly for the same offences

(b) if they are tried jointly for different offences

(c) if they are tried for the same offences but not jointly

(d) if they are tried for different offences and not jointly.

Ans. (a)

69. Confession of a co-accused not required to be on oath

and cannot be tested by cross- examination:

I. is no evidence within the meaning of section 3 of Evidence Act and

cannot be the foundation of a conviction

II. the only limited use which can be made of a confession of a co-
accused is by way of furnishing an additional reason for believing
such other evidences as exists

III. it is a very weak type of evidence and is much weaker even than
the evidence of an approver.

In the aforesaid propositions:

(a) all I, II & III are correct

(b) only I & III are correct

(c) only I & II are correct

(d) only II & III are correct.

Ans. (a)

70. ‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of evidence is

contained in:

(a) section 31 of Evidence Act

(b) section 32 of Evidence Act

(c) section 60 of Evidence Act

(d) section 61 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

71. Necessity rule as to the admissibility of evidence is

applicable, when the maker of a statement:

(a) is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence

(b) is a person who can be found but his attendance cannot be

procured without unreasonable delay or expenses

(c) is a person who cannot be found

(d) all the above.

Ans. (d)
72. Under section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a
person who is dead, to be admissible:

(a) must relate to the cause of his own death

(b) may relate to the cause of someone else’ death

(c) may relate to the cause of his own death or someone else’ death

(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.

Ans. (a)

73. The person whose statement is admitted under section

32 of Evidence Act:

(a) must be competent to testify

(b) need not be competent to testify

(c) may or may not be competent to testify

(d) only (a) is correct and (b) & (c) are incorrect.

Ans. (c)

74. A dying declaration is admissible:

(a) only in criminal proceedings

(b) only in civil proceedings

(c) in civil as well as criminal proceedings both

(d) in criminal proceedings alone & not in civil proceedings.

Ans. (c)

75. A dying declaration:

(a) can form the sole basis of conviction without any corroboration
by independent evidence

(b) can form the basis of conviction only on corroboration by

independent witness

(c) cannot form the sole basis of conviction unless corroborated by

independent witness

(d) only (b) & (c) are correct.

Ans. (a)

76. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence

Act extends the protection to an agent which Section 130,
Indian Evidence Act provides for a principal?

A. Section 127

B. Section 129

C. Section 131

D. Section 134

Ans: C