Data Interpretation Practice Exercise

DATA
INTERPRETATION
(Practice Exercise)
This book is a part of set, not be sold separately.

Contents
Exercise - 1 ... 5 - 11
Exercise - 2 ... 12 - 20
Exercise - 3 ... 21 - 28
Exercise - 4 ... 29 - 37
Exercise - 5 ... 38 - 41
Exercise - 6 ... 42 - 45
Exercise - 7 ... 46 - 52
Exercise - 8 ... 53 - 59
Exercise - 9 ... 60 - 67
Exercise - 10 ... 68 - 75
Exercise - 11 ... 76 - 84
Exercise - 12 ... 85 - 90
Exercise - 13 ... 91 - 95
Exercise - 14 ... 96 - 100
Answers ... 101 - 104
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 1
No. of Questions : 20 Time : 40 min
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5:

These questions are based on the following data.
Distribution of employees in a Software Development organization
Platform Development Testing

Women Men Women Men
Java 125 145 60 85
VB 6.0 45 162 12 68
C++ 28 86 18 14
Oracle 56 93 24 38
1. The percentage of employees working on VB 6.0 is

(1) 26% (2) 27%
(3) 29% (4) 28%
2. By what percentage is the number of employees working on Java platform
(development) more than the number of employees working on Oracle platform
(development)?
(1) 82.2% (2) 78.4%
(3) 81.6% (4) 80.7%
3. What percentage of the number of women in development is the number of
men in testing?
(1) 79.3% (2) 83.1%
(3) 80.7% (4) 82.4%
4. If 60% of women on Java platform (development) and 50% of men on C++
platform (development) plan to leave the organisation, then what percentage
of the employees will leave the organisation?
(1) 10.7% (2) 11.1%
(3) 8.8% (4) 9.5%
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DATA INTERPRETATION
5. Taking all the employees, approximately by what percentage does the number
of men exceed the number of women?
(1) 78% (2) 30%
(3) 46% (4) 86.48%
The following table shows the Market share data (in percent) of Russian Paints
from 1993 - 2004 for four of its products (Regal Emulsion, Merger International
Plastic Paints, Tumco Coatings and SCIB paints). Refer to the table and answer
the questions that follow.
The fifth largest player in Regal Emulsion has a market share of 2% throughout.
Merger
Year Regal International Tumco SCIB All
Product Emulsion Plastic paints Coatings paints Products
1993 73.0 20.5 0.0 87.0 36.9
1994 73.0 21.0 0.0 89.0 39.9
1995 73.0 21.1 0.0 88.9 43.8
1996 71.9 26.2 0.5 88.7 45.3
1997 76.3 26.9 8.5 87.2 47.9
1998 75.9 29.0 14.7 91.3 49.0
1999 74.5 29.8 14.9 96.3 49.3
2000 71.7 30.5 14.1 94.1 48.6
2001 70.4 29.5 11.1 87.1 46.0
2002 69.1 31.1 9.4 84.4 44.5
2003 64.5 27.5 7.1 82.1 40.5
2004 64.8 26.9 6.4 83.6 39.8
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DATA INTERPRETATION
6. Which of the following observations could be wrong?

(1) For Regal Emulsion, the company has the largest market share.
(2) For Merger International, the most impressive gain was in the year 1996,
while the sharpest drop was in 2003.
(3) The company started manufacturing of the Tumco Coatings in the year
1996.
(4) Over the last 12 years, the company has maintained a monopolistic grip in
the market for SCIB paints.
7. Which of the following observations could be wrong?
If Tumco coatings does not have a bearing on all product market share.
(1) The company cannot be the market leader in Merger International.
(2) The worst-hit year for Regal Emulsion was the year 2003.
(3) If for each percent of the market share, the company made 2 times more
profit in Tumco Coatings than Merger International and 5 times more
profit than Regal Emulsion, then the profits of Regal Emulsion, Merger
International and Tumco Coatings were more or less comparable in the
year 1999.
(4) Merger International is the most important product influencing the All
product market share.
8. Which of the following observations could be right about the Regal Emulsion?
(1) The market did not grow at all during the years 1995 to 2003.
(2) The company introduced a production-based incentive plan in the year
1998 reflected in the largest ever market share.
(3) In recent times, the next dominant player has about 30-35% market share.
(4) Over 12 years, the market share has come down by more than 10%.
9. Which of the following could be right?
(1) If market share for the year 2004 for Regal Emulsion amounts to 7.8 lakh
units of sales and for Merger International to 3.4 lakh units, then the size
of the total market in terms of units for Merger International is smaller
than Regal Emulsion.
(2) If market share of Tumco Coatings in the year 2003 amounts to 52000 units
sold, then the total sales of the product in year 2003 is less than 7 lakh
units.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
(3) If the market share of SCIB paints in the year 2000 was 2 lakh and the size
of the market shrunk by about 10% next year, then the company sold more
unit in the next year.
(4) In the recent two years, across all products, the company is struggling to
maintain its market share of about 47% that it had enjoyed, on an average,
in the previous 8 years
DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 12: These questions are based on the data given
below.
In a coaching centre, 12 students enrolled for 4 different courses C1, C2, C3 or C4
under four instructors W, X, Y and Z. The 12 students are A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J,
K and L. In each course at least one student and at the most, four students have
joined and at the most three courses can have the same number of students. A and
L are the only students in one of the courses. B is not in the same course as D. While
C, I and J are in the same course, E is in the same course as F but in a different course
from D. In each of the courses C2 and C3, there were exactly three students admitted.
J joins C3, and C4 has more students than Cl. Y is the instructor for the course with
maximum number of students, while Z is the instructor of C2. D has joined the
course whose instructor is Y.
10. In which course did K join?
(1) Cl (2) C2
(3) C3 (4) C4
11. Who is the instructor of course C3?
(1) W (2) X
(3) Y (4) Cannot be determined
12. Who is in the same course as H?
(1) L (2) J
(3) G (4) Cannot be determined
DIRECTIONS: for questions 13 to 16: These questions are based on the following
table which gives the number of trains passing through certain railway stations, and
the freight and the number of passengers handled by these railway stations.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
Sl. Station, Number Passengers Male Freight Grade

No. State of trains carried passengers (in tonnes) of the
(in thousands) station
1 Hyderabad, A.P. 925 966.2 510 1675 A
2 Visakhapatnam, A.P. 645 648.5 345 1125 C
3 Patna, Bihar 620 682 414 936 B
4 New Delhi, Delhi 1100 1208.4 634 1986 A
5 Ahmedabad, Gujarat 782 643.8 386 1344 B
6 Gandhinagar, Gujarat 840 756 381 1545 B
7 Gurgaon, Haryana 720 648 340 1068 B
8 Chandigarh, Haryana 650 520 280 720 C
9 Shimla, H.P. 430 336 168 624 C
10 Srinagar, J & K 120 72 54 104 C
11 Ranchi, Jarkhand 320 245 135 485 C
12 Bangalore, Karnataka 960 921.6 469 1756 A
13 Thinivananthagaram,
Kerala 875 787.5 360 1648 B
14 Mumbai, Maharastra 1125 1210 634 2250 A
15 Pune, Maharastra 756 825 450 1236 B
16 Bhubaneshwar,
Orissa 725 507.5 256 1344 C
17 Amritsar, Punjab 666 532.8 265 1320 C
18 Jaipur, Rajasthan 824 747.6 385 1425 C
19 Chennai, Tamilnadu 1008 1108.4 645 1927 A
20 Coimbatore,
Tamilnadu 876 943.8 613 1748 B
21 Salem, Tamilnadu 747 672.3 398 1448 C
22 Dehradun,
Uttaranchal 432 260 137 432 C
23 Lucknow,
Uttar Pradesh 696 492 295 985 B
24 Noida, Uttar Pradesh 865 778.5 455 1345 C
25 Kolkata, West Bengal 1066 1172.6 624 2128 A
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DATA INTERPRETATION
13. At how many grade C stations are more than fifty percent of the passengers
handled males?
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 7 (4) 6
14. The number of passengers handled at Mumbai station forms what percentage
of the total passengers handled by top five stations in terms of number of
passengers handled?
(1) 21% (2) 24%
(3) 16% (4) 18%
15. How many of the top 10 railway stations (in terms of the number of trains
passing through them) are in Tamilnadu?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
16. The number of stations of Grade A is less than that of Grade C by
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3
DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20
Each of the following questions is followed by two statements.
Mark [1] if the question can be answered by using any of the statements alone but
not by using the other statement alone.
Mark [2] if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark [3] if the question can be answered only by using both the statements
together.
Mark [4] if the question cannot be answered.
17. Find the sum of first n prime numbers.
I. nP2 = 12.
II. n is such that-cube of it’s square root is 8.
18. Rama’s servant was pouring wheat in a container with a vessel which when
full takes 15 minutes to pour 1 kg of wheat. Find the capacity of the container.
I. There is no leakage.
II. There is a hole in the container which empties it in 15 hours @ 1 vessel per
hour.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
19. In a village, there are 2 shopkeepers A and B. Both the shopkeepers are
wholesalers and sell sugar. Between the two shopkeepers who gains more
percentage profit?
I. Shopkeeper ‘A’ uses the weight which is 10% less than the actual weight
and sells the goods at the cost price whereas shopkeeper ‘B’ sells the
goods at 10% profit and uses proper weight.
II. Shopkeeper ‘A’ sells the goods at 20% more than the cost price and gives
1 kg free on the purchase of every 5 kg, whereas shopkeeper ‘B’ sells the
goods a 10% profit. Both the shopkeepers use proper weights.
20. If X is an integer, is Y an integer?
I. The average (arithmetic mean) of X and Y is not an integer.
II. X + Y = 2 (X – Y)
Score Table
Total Questions Total Attempts Correct Attempts Wrong Attempts Score
+1 –1/3
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DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 2
These questions are based on the following two graphs which represent the total
cost incurred and total sales earned by a company by selling two products A and B.
PRO DUCT A
50
Amount (in rupees thousands)
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
100 200 300 400 500 600
No. of units
Total sales Total cost Fixed cost
PRODUCT B
60
55
50
Amount (in rupees thousands)
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
100 200 300 400 500 600
No. of units
Total sales Total cost Fixed cost
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DATA INTERPRETATION
Note :
– The point at which the total cost of a product is equal to its total sales is
called the “break-even” point.
– The costs which change with units of production are called variable costs
and the costs which remain the same for any number of units are fixed
costs.
Total cost = Total fixed cost + total variable cost
Total contribution = Total sales – total variable cost
Profit = Total sales – Total cost
1. Find the average profit per unit of product A at the same level of production for
which product B reached its break-even point.
(1) Rs. 50 (2) Rs. 37.5
(3) Rs.25 (4) Rs. 0
2. How many units of each of the products A and B should be sold by the
company to have break-even on the whole?
(1) 200 (2) 250
(3) 300 (4) 360
3. If the selling prices per unit of the products A and B are interchanged, then
what will be the total contribution of product A at its original break-even point,
other things remaining constant?
(1) Rs.50,000 (2) Rs. 10,000
(3) Rs. 15,000 (4) Rs. 12,500
Answer these questions on the basis of the information given.
The following graph and table give information regarding the sales of mobiles by
the company SMS and the total market sales of mobiles during the period 1995 to
2004.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
70% 66 b %
60% 60%
60%
50% 50%
50% 45%
40% 40%
37.5%
40% 33 a %
30%
20%
15% 15% 16¼% 16% 16%
20% 12% 11%
10%
6b %
10%
0%
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
Year
The percentage market share of the company SMS in the total market sales (by value)
Profit of the company SMS as a percentage of its sales
Year Total market sales of mobiles Average selling price per mobile of
(Rs. crore) the company SMS (in Rs.)
1995 1600 4000
1996 2500 5000
1997 2000 3000
1998 4000 2500
1999 4800 3200
2000 4000 2400
2001 4500 3000
2002 3000 3200
2003 4000 4000
2004 5000 5000
Note : The company SMS sells only mobiles.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
4. If in the year 2001, the sales of the mobiles of SMS form 25% by volume of the
total market sales of mobiles, what is the average selling price per mobile of all
the other companies together in that year?
(1) Rs.200 (2) Rs.1500
(3) Rs.2000 (4) Cannot be determined
5. In how many of the years from 1996 to 2004, did the value of the sales of the
mobiles of SMS increase and the profit of SMS decrease over the previous
year?
(1) less than 5 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) more than 6
6. The ratio of the profit earned by SMS in the year 2000 to that in 2004 is
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 7 : 6
(3) 8 : 9 (4) 9 : 10
7. If the percentage share by volume of the sales of the mobiles of SMS in the
total sales of the market grew by 10 percentage points from 1998 to 1999, find
the percentage change in the total volume of sales of mobiles in the market
from 1998 to 1999.
(1) 20% increase (2) 25% decrease
(3) 20% decrease (4) Cannot be determined
8. If in any year, the average selling price per mobile in the total market is less
than that of the mobiles of SMS, then in at least how many of the given years
was the market share by volume of SMS less than 50% of the total market?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7
DIRECTIONS for question 9 to 12:
The following list of returns from some mutual funds is published by an investment
company, for the benefit of their clients. All the figures are based on returns as on
March 31, 2006.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
Mutual Funds Three Month Annual

Return (%age) Return (%age)
ABCL Bond 4.1 17.36
A Bond Deposit 3.69 16.86
A Bond Wholesale 3.8 17.47
HUDCO Income Fund 3.59 17.04
Kodak SSI 3.63 17.49
MK Income Fund-D 7.84 19.87
MK Income Fund-G 4.84 18.69
Prestige ITI Income Builder 4.08 18.3
PSB Debt 4.59 21.5
SDBI Principal Income 0.59 17.04
Zenith India High Interest 3.89 16.86
Category Average 35 15.61
Alliance Growth 26.87 19.85
Alliance Vision 30.19 30.81
Aristocrat IGF 16.07 12.7
HUDCO Growth Fund 18.46 12.35
IT Exclusive 23.47 34.42
LIC Fortune ‘94 36.01 21.0
Prestige ITI Prima 35.08 37.34
Prestige ITI Prima Plus 23.01 20.42
Zenith India Equity 25.38 25.59
Zenith India Top 200 19.94 12.28
Category Average 14.81 2.87
Dhanraksha’ 89 1.89 12.72
Dube Balanced Fund 14.1 16.04
Franfyn India Balanced - G 11.16 14.92
Franfyn India Balanced - D 11.02 11.81
HUDCO Children’s Gift Inv. 9.75 18.82
HUDCO Balanced Fund 12.71 13.36
MK Balanced -G 8.59 67.19
Premium (RO) 5.61 32.14
Prestige ITI Balanced 16.04 16.19
Zenith India Prudence 15.33 22.94
Category Average 9.08 8.41
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DATA INTERPRETATION
9. In how many funds from the given ones, across all categories, is the annual
return at least four times than of the three-month return, based on returns as
on March 31, 2006?
(1) 9 (2) 12
(3) 10 (4) 11
10. Which of the funds listed under Balanced Funds category has the highest
ratio of three month return to annual return, based on returns as on March 31,
2006?
(1) MK Balanced – G (2) Dhanraksha’ 89
(3) Prestige ITI Balanced (4) Franfyn India Balanced – D
11. Equal amounts of money are invested for a period of three-month and one-
year in each of the three categories of mutual funds (The same equal amount
is invested across categories). The expected rate of return is the same as the
arithmetic mean of the category averages for that period of investment, based
on returns as on March 31, 2006. The return on investment for the three-month
period will be what percentage of the return on investment for the one-year
period?
(1) 101.9% (2) 100%
(3) 98.1% (4) Cannot be determined
12. Mr. Daulatwala invested equal amount of money in IT Exclusive, LIC Fortune’
94 and Alliance Vision Funds for a three-month period ending March 31, 2006.
However, Mr. Daulatwala now wants to keep it invested for a total period of
one-year (that is, till December 31, 2006), with the expectation that he will earn
the same annual rate as on March 31, 2006. If the annual return as on December
31, 2006 meets his expectation, then did he make more money now?
(1) Yes, he will make more money
(2) No, he will make less money
(3) He will make same amount of money
(4) Cannot be determined
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DATA INTERPRETATION
DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Answer these questions on the basis of the
information given below and on the next page.
Mr. Jhunjhunwala, the owner of “Global Cars Pvt Ltd” has been keeping a record of
the number and the brand of cars sold by his company to different countries of the
world.
Number of cars sold of different brands
BRAND DAY
I II III
Bentley 10 8 11
Mercedez 18 4 4
BMW 16 7 6
Hyundai 12 13 14
Maruti 8 2 2
Number of cars sold to different countries
COUNTRY DAY
I II III
India 8 1 5
China 7 3 6
USA 6 4 2
Russia 5 6 2
France 9 7 3
UK 4 3 12
Sri Lanka 4 2 2
Pakistan 4 6 1
Australia 8 1 1
New Zealand 9 1 3
During the above mentioned three days, Mr. Jhunjhunwala observed that on any
day, each brand was sold to exactly two countries. Also, no brand was sold to the
same country on two different days and not more than one brand was sold to any
given country on any given day.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
13. On Day 1, Bentley was sold to

(1) USA and UK. (2) USA and Sri Lanka.
(3) USA and Pakistan. (4) Cannot be determined
14. Which brand was sold to Australia on Day 3?
(1) Mercedez (2) BMW
(3) Maruti (4) Cannot be determined
15. BMW could not have been sold to which of the following countries on any of
the three days?
(1) UK (2) China
(3) New Zealand (4) Russia
16. What could the minimum number of cars of the brand Hyundai that were sold
to any country on any day?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 5 (4) 6
Each of the following questions is followed by two statements marked (A) and (B).
The questions are to be answered with the help of these two statements. Mark your
answer as
(1) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements
together;
(2) if the question can be answered with the help of statement (B) alone;
(3) if the question can be answered with the help of statement (A) alone;
(4) if the question can be answered with the help of both statements together.
17. An industrial plant manufactures certain commodities. In 1995, the number of
commodities manufactured by the plant was twice the number of commodities
manufactured in 1994. What was the total number of commodities manufactured
in the years 1994, 1995 and 1996?
(A) In 1996, the number of commodities manufactured was thrice the number
of commodities manufactured in 1994.
(B) In 1997, the number of commodities manufactured was 1/2 the total number
of commodities manufactured in the years 1994, 1995 and 1996.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
18. Students in a school can choose one or more foreign languages from among
German, French and Russian. In a class of 250 students, 98 study French and
German only. No student studies only one language. How many students
study all three languages?
(A) All students in the class study German.
(B) 102 students study only Russian and German.
DIRECTIONS for questions 19 and 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below. BCCI has to select a committee of five persons to serve as
their representative on the board of ICC. List of candidates is given as:
 Three coaches — A, B and C.
 Five players — D, E, F, G, H.
 The committee must include two coaches and three players.
 B and H cannot be selected simultaneously.
 F and G cannot be selected simultaneously.
 E and H cannot be selected simultaneously.
19. If C is not selected, then any of the following can be selected except
(1) F (2) E
(3) G (4) H
20. For every possible acceptable selection of the committee representing BCCI
on the board of ICC, which of the following replacement will always result in
another acceptable selection of the committee representing BCCI on the board
of ICC?
(1) B for C (2) F for E
(3) F for G (4) B for A
Score Table
+1 –1/3
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DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 3
DIRECTIONS for question 1 to 4: The bar graphs show the number of Industrial
licence holders in different sectors for year 2001 to 2004. Refer to the following
graphs to answer the questions that follow.
Number of licence holders Number of licence holders

in 2001 in 2002
1400
1280
850
700 670
650
420 450
Iron Engg. Pl astic Agri cul . Iron Engg. Plastic Agri cul .
Industries Industries
Number of licence holders Number of licence holders

in 2003 in 2004
1600
1500
900 985
780 840
475 525
Iron Engg. Pl astic Agri cul . Iron Engg. Plastic Agri cul .
Industries Industries
1. The number of newly issued licences to the Engineering Industries between

2001 and 2003 forms approximately what percent of the number of newly issued
licences to the Iron Industries during the same period?
(1) 91% (2) 105.25%
(3) 123.4% (4) 80%
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DATA INTERPRETATION
2. Which of the following industries had the highest percentage increase in the
number of licence holders over the given four year period?
(1) Iron (2) Engineering
(3) Plastic (4) Agriculture
3. If the average cost of setting up a new Agriculture unit is Rs.20 lakh while for
maintaining an existing unit is Rs. One lakh per annum, then what was the
average expenditure of an Agricultural unit in the year 2002?
(1) Rs. 2.00 lakh (2) Rs. 2.3 lakh
(3) Rs. 11.45 lakh (4) Rs. 1.6 lakh
4. Due to a new government regulation in Plastic industries in year 2003, 40% of
the new units in Plastic industries (in 2003) and 20% of the existing units in
the Plastic sector were forced to shut down due to non-conformance with the
new environmental laws. What percent of the total Plastic industries remained
unaffected?
(1) 66.6% (2) 24.1%
(3) 61.3% (4) 78.9%
Answer these question on the basis of the information given on the next page.
5. If the number of old people in the Southern region exceeds the number of old
people in the Eastern region by 20%, by approximately what percentage does
the number of young people in the Southern region exceed that in the Eastern
region?
(1) 661/6% (2) 862/3%
(3) 961/6% (4) Cannot be determined
6. If the total population of the Western region is 20% more than that of the
Northern region, the number of middle-aged people in the Northern region
forms what percentage of the number of old people in the Western region?
(1) 161/6% (2) 331/3%
(3) 55% (4) Cannot be determined
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DATA INTERPRETATION
The following graph gives the percentage of young people and middle-aged people
in the four regions of a state, as a percentage of the total population of the respective
region.
45 40
40 35 35
35 30 30 30
30
Percentage
25
25 20
20
15
10
5
0
North East West South
Region
Young People Middle-aged People
Note : The population is classified into people of only three age groups - young
people, middle-aged people and old people.
7. If the number of middle-aged people in each of the four regions is the same,
then the number of young people is the greatest in the
(1) Northern region. (2) Eastern region.
(3) Western region. (4) Southern region.
8. If the respective number of young people in the Northern, Eastern, Western
and the Southern regions are in the increasing order and the number of old
people in these regions are denoted by a, b, c and d respectively, then which
of the following is always true?
(1) a < b (2) b < c
(3) c < d (4) None of these
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DATA INTERPRETATION
9. If the total population of the Northern and the Western regions put together is
equal to that of the Eastern and the Southern regions put together, and x is the
total middle-aged population in the Northern and Western regions put together
and y is the total middle-aged population in Eastern and Southern regions put
together, then which of the following is always true?
(1) x = y (2) x > y
(3) x < y (4) None of these
DIRECTIONS for question 10 to 14:
The Bar graph shows the music cassettes/CDs buying behavior of people according
to their age during the period 1990 to 1994 of a city called Musicland. It is
assumed that nobody below the age of 10 years buys any music cassette/CD in this
city. The Line chart represents the buying pattern for the same set of people classified
according to the type of sales outlets from where music cassettes /CDs are bought.
Refer to the Data given below and answer the questions that follow.
B uyers by age
50
45
A
40
Percentage of total
35
30
25 B
20
15
10 C
5
0
1 99 0 1991 1992 1 9 93 19 9 4
A : 10 years to below 25 years, B : 25 years to below 45 years, C : 45 years and above.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
70
65
60
55
50
Mail order
Percentage of total
45
40 Online stores
35 Multi product shops
30 Music shops
25
20
15
10
5
0
1990 1991 1992 1993 1994
Buying from outlet
10. In year 1990, there were a total of 1000 buyers of music cassettes/CDs in
Musicland. If the number of buyers increase by 100 every year, then what is
the total number of buyers of music cassettes/CDs who were from age group
45 years and above during the period 1990 to 1994?
(1) 725 (2) 785
(3) 815 (4) 875
11. By what percentage has the difference between number of buyers who buy
music by Mail order and those from On-line stores changed between 1990
and 1994? (Assume the number of buyers of music cassettes /CDs have
remained the same for every year during this period)
(1) Decrease by 16.66% (2) Decrease by 33.33%
(3) Increase by 16.66% (4) Increase by 33.33%
12. Which of the following outlets has/have managed to retain the number of its
customer at almost the same level for a period of three consecutive years in the
period 1990 and 1994?
(1) Multi product shops (2) On-line stores
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Data insufficient
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DATA INTERPRETATION
13. If in every age group the pattern of buying from various sales outlets show the
same break-up as the one given for the total, then what was the number of
buyers in the age group 25 years to below 45 years buying music cassettes/
CDs from Music shops in 1990? (Use data from Q.10)
(1) 500 (2) 322
(3) 425 (4) 380
14. For various sales outlets, the pattern of buying for different age group follow
the same pattern as that given for the total buyers in the given period
(1990-1994). What is the percentage change in percentage of buyers in age
group of 10 years to below 25 years from On-line stores between 1990 and
1994?
(1) 30.7% (2) 25.3%
(3) 43.0% (4) Data insufficient
Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following two tables give the information regarding the distances between four
printing presses – PP1 to PP4 –and six godowns – GD1 to GD6 – and also the
distances between the six godowns and eight destinations – D1 to D8. All the
distances are in kilometres and the cost of transporting one tonne of material for
every kilometre is Rs.250.
PP1 PP2 PP3 PP4
GD1 234 576 384 473
GD2 346 278 272 968
GD3 570 225 483 354
GD4 425 840 372 527
GD5 640 920 486 225
GD6 725 386 680 324
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DATA INTERPRETATION
GD1 GD2 GD3 GD4 GD5 GD6

D1 580 663 721 816 917 1127
D2 640 1006 927 834 339 556
D3 775 713 916 614 572 1157
D4 480 576 812 537 528 911
D5 574 847 1108 913 737 668
D6 386 902 778 786 748 1248
D7 447 853 883 488 497 625
D8 533 912 525 845 1216 359
15. The maximum cost per tonne of transporting material from any printing press
to any destination is
(1) Rs. 5.34 1akh (2) Rs. 6.24 lakh
(3) Rs. 4.70 lakh (4) Rs. 7.80 lakh
16. The approximate difference between the maximum and minimum cost per tonne
of transporting the material from PP4 to D5 is
(1) Rs.2.02 lakh (2) Rs. 2.15 lakh
(3) Rs. 3.56 lakh (4) Rs. 3.05 lakh
17. In how many distinct ways can material be transported to D7?
(1) 32 (2) 192
(3) 24 (4) None of these
18. The least total distance for transporting material between any printing press
and any destination is
(1) 814 km (2) 497 km
(3) 722 km (4) 564 km
Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each question using
the following instructions.
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but
not by using the other statement alone.
Choose 2 if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
Choose 3 if the question can be answered by using both statements together but
not by either statement alone.
Choose 4 if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
19. Find the value of the four-digit number with non-zero digits.
I. The number is a perfect square with the last digit being twice the first
digit.
II. The third digit equals one-third the sum of the first and the fourth digits,
while the sum of the first and the third digits equals the fourth digit,
which, in turn, is six times the second digit.
20. A work can be completed by a woman in 36 days. Find the time taken by two
men and three women to complete the work.
I. 2 men, 4 women and 4 children take 3 days to complete the work. 4 men, 3
women and 6 children take 2 days to complete the work.
II. 6 men and 4 children take one-third the time as one woman and 2 men to
complete the work. 16 men and 12 children take one-fourth the time as 5
men to complete the work.
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
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DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 4
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Answer these questions on the basis of the

information given below.
Statistics of Credit Card Expenditure (CCE) and Personal Consumption Expenditure
(PCE) for various Asian countries
Country PCE (billion $) CCE as % of PCE*

INDIA 320 0.5
SOUTH KOREA 214 36.0
TAIWAN 195 12.0
INDONESIA 100 1.8
HONG KONG 96 19.0
THAILAND 64 4.0
THE PHILIPPINES 60 2.7
MALAYSIA 38 11.5
SINGAPORE 12 40.0
Statistics regarding Credit Card usage in various countries of the World
Average Card Spend in a year (in $) Usage Level (Times per year)
5500 UK 14
2500 US 10
2300 HONGKONG 22
2000 THAILAND 27
2000 MALAYSIA 24
1200 JAPAN 10
600 INDONESLA 12
500 INDIA 12
6000 5000 4000 3000 2000 1000 0 0 6 12 18 24 30
Average Annual Card spend ($) Number of times per year
* All cards are used only for PCE

Note : PCE is part of Gross Domestic Expenditure (GDE).
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DATA INTERPRETATION
1. Assuming that every card holder has only one card, what is the total number
of credit card holders in India?
(1) 3.2 lakh (2) 4 million
(3) 7.5 lakh (4) None of these
2. In the above table, if the Gross Domestic Expenditure (GDE) of the country
whose CCE as a percentage of PCE is the highest is 2,400 billion dollars, then
what percentage of the GDE of that country is spent through credit cards?
(1) 40% (2) 20%
(3) 2% (4) 0.2%
3. What is the female population of Thailand, given that the number of males and
the number of females in Thailand are in the ratio of 3 : 1 and the number of
credit cards per person in Thailand is 0.4?
(1) 2.56 million (2) 3.2 million
(3) 0.8 million (4) Cannot be determined
4. What is the value of the Global Gold market provided that India accounts for
a sixth of it and 20% of the card spend in India is on purchase of gold which in
turn accounts for 5% of the total gold purchased in India?
(1) $22.6 billion (2) $60.5 billion
(3) $38.4 billion (4) Cannot be determined
5. Which of the following is not true?
I. The average card spend per usage for Hong Kong is more than that of
Japan.
II. The total number of times in a year that a credit card is used in India (for
all cards put together) is 38.4 million.
III. The amount of PCE spent through credit cards is the highest for South
Korea.
(1) Only II and III (2) Only I
(3) Only I and III (4) Only III
30
DATA INTERPRETATION

Answer the questions on the basis of information given below.
The Great Auto company decides to shift from Automobile assembling to Diesel
Engine manufacturing.
The company has all the required skills and technology to manufacture Intake Valve
and Cover, Engine Blocks, Coolant, Oil Pan, Oil Sump, Camshaft, Exhaust Valve and
Port, Connecting Rod and Bearings, Intake Port and Piston. However, manufacturing
of all parts cannot be started at the same time. Oil Pan and Oil Sump can be
manufactured only after Intake Valve and cover are manufactured. Intake Port and
Pistons can be manufactured after Coolants are manufactured. Camshaft can be
only made after Oil Sump and Engine blocks are manufactured. Exhaust Valve & Port
and Connecting Rod and bearings together can be manufactured after Camshaft
and Intake port are manufactured. The project begins with the manufacturing of
Intake Valve and Cover, Engine Block and Coolant. The project ends with the
manufacture of Oil Pan, Piston and Exhaust Valve & Port and Connecting Rod and
bearings. The adjacent table showing the number of technicians allotted for
manufacturing the components. Each man alone can finish the assigned activity in
720 hours.
Component Technicians
Intake Valve and Cover 8
Engine Block 10
Coolant 12
Oil Pan 16
Oil Sump 10
Camshaft 6
Intake Port 10
Piston 8
Exhaust Valve and Port &
Connecting Rod & Bearings 9
6. What is the minimum time in which a Diesel Engine can be manufactured?
(1) 360 hours (2) 362 hours
(3) 218 hours (4) 33 hours
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DATA INTERPRETATION
7. A group of people consisting of 3 men who can help in making Camshaft, 4

men who can help in making Intake valve & cover and 3 men who can help in
making Exhaust Valve & Port and Connecting rod & bearings are employed
along with the existing technicians. Each man in new labour can finish the
assigned activity in 600 hours. What is [the approximate minimum time in
which the Diesel Engine can now be manufactured?
(1) 231 hours (2) 311 hours
(3) 291 hours (4) 261 hours
8. The labour is multi-skilled labour that is any man can do any type of work at
the same previous rate. What is the minimum number of labour required to
complete the project in minimum time?
[Assuming that work start for each activity only when all the men allotted to
the activity are available.]
(1) 30 (2) 89
(3) 33 (4) 20
Answer these questions independently of each other.
9. Four predators - Lion, Hyena, Tiger and Crocodile - killed one animal each
among Antelope, Thompson’s Gazelle, Spotted Deer and Wildebeest, at a
different water hole. It is further known that:
* Either the Lion killed the Wildebeest or the Tiger killed the Spotted Deer.
* The Hyena and the Crocodile killed the Antelope and the Wildebeest,
though not necessarily in that order.
* Thompson’s Gazelle was killed at the Savuti waterhole.
* Only if the Antelope was killed at the Etosha waterhole, then the
Thompson’s Gazelle was killed by the Crocodile.
* Neither the Hyena nor the Crocodile killed their prey at the Onconocono
or the Savuti waterhole.
* One of the waterholes was called Kalahari.
Which of the following is definitely true?
(1) The Hyena killed the Antelope at the Kalahari waterhole.
(2) The Tiger killed the Spotted Deer at the Savuti waterhole.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
(3) The Lion killed the Thompson’s Gazelle at the Savuti waterhole.
(4) The Crocodile killed the Antelope at the Onconocono waterhole.
10. How many pairs of statements are there among the five statements given
below, such that they will give at least one logical conclusion when taken
together (not considering conclusions that can be drawn from a single
statement alone)?
A. All ants are animals.
B: No animal is a reptile.
C. Some reptiles are birds.
D. Some birds are not ants.
E. Some reptiles are not mammals.
(1) 1 (2) 3
11. Ten creatures of the Kingdom of Insectia are at a round table conference to
discuss the threat posed by the neighbouring Kingdom of Birdesia. It is known
that
(1) the Cockroach is to the immediate right of the Ant.
(2) the Millipede is to the immediate right of the Bee.
(3) the Centipede and the Caterpillar are opposite each other and neither of
them is next to the Cockroach, Bee or the Ant.
(4) the Bee is opposite to the Ant.
(5) the Scorpion is opposite to the Tsetse, either of which are not next to the
Ant.
Which of the following is definitely false?
(1) The Cockroach is opposite to the Millipede.
(2) Neither the Caterpillar nor the Centipede is next to the Bee.
(3) The Tsetse can be to the immediate right of the Cockroach.
(4) The Scorpion is opposite the Ant.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
12. I was searching for the Royal palace of the Kingdom of “Truvillie” when 1
came across five people, namely Akai, Bush, Weston, Diana and Thompson.
Four of them belonged to the Kingdom while one was a visitor to that Kingdom.
Upon asking for directions, the five of them gave me the following replies.
Akai : The palace is to the East. I just lied.
Bush : The palace is to the South. I just lied.
Diana : The palace is not to the South. I just spoke the truth.
Weston : The palace is not to the North. I never speak the truth.
Thompson: The palace is not to the West. I do not know where the palace is.
I know that the people of “Truvillie” always make alternately true and false statements,
but the order being uncertain.
Who is the visitor?
(1) Akai (2) Weston
(3) Diana (4) None of these
The following questions are based on the bar graph provided.
Banks : Net Loss 95-96

1400
1200
1000
Rs. crore
800
600
400
200
0
Indian Vijaya UCO United Punjab & Central
Sindh
34
DATA INTERPRETATION
13. Which bank showed maximum deviation from average loss?

(1) Indian Bank (2) Vijaya Bank
(3) Central Bank (4) United Bank
14. Which of the following is true?
I. The loss incurred by Indian Bank is equal to the loss incurred by all the
other banks given.
II. If the reserve Bank of India ploughs in approx. Rs.2350 crore, the losses
suffered by the given banks can be offset.
III. Indian Bank will surely lose its popularity very soon.
(1) I & II (2) II only
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
15. Finding no other alternative to offset the loss if Vijaya Bank decided to
compensate the same by raising the lending rates the by how many percentage
points would it have to increase the lending rates for a total loaned amount of
Rs.8250 crore?
(1) 5% (2) 2.5%
(3) 1 % (4) Cannot be determined
16. The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs.75000 crore. If the assets of Vijaya Bank,
UCO Bank, United Bank, Punjab & Sindh Bank, & Central Bank are 23%, 19%,
17%, 13% and 12% of the assets of the Indian Bank respectively then, which
of the following banks shows the maximum loss per crore rupees of assets?
(1) Indian (2) Vijaya
(3) UCO (4) United
17. With reference to the values in the above question, what change would have
to be made in the assets of the Indian Bank if its loss per crore of assets is to
be made equal to that of Central Bank?
(1) increase by 62% (2) reduce by 15%
(3) increase by 215% (4) reduce by 25%
Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below. The statistics
regarding the credit cards in operation in India
35
DATA INTERPRETATION
Name of Type Income Fee Credit Details

Maximum
Credit Card of Card Eligibility details (Rs.) Cash
With-
Salaried Self Joining Add-on Annual Credit Interest Credit drawal
(Rs.’000) Employed Fee Card Fee Fee Limit rate Period (Rs.’000)
(Rs.‘000) (Rs.’000) (%) (in days)
ABN-AMRO
Freedom MC 84 90 800 Nil 595 25 2.89 50 NA
AMEX-Gold AC 150 150 Nil 1250 2495 NS 2.79 51 15
AMEX-Green AC 72 72 Nil 495 995 NS 2.79 51 8
Bank of
India-Taj MC 200 220 400 450 900 20 3.10 45 20
BOB-Paras MC 60 75 Nil 200 300 21 3.10 45 6
BOB-Gold VC 150 160 600 750 1250 75 2.25 48 12
Citi Bank-
Gold MC&VC 156 170 Nil 1000 2000 250 2.95 50 14
Citi Bank-
MTV MC 72 96 300 350 750 NS 2.80 50 6
Citi Bank-
Silver MC&VC 96 100 Nil 350 600 75 2.90 48 8
ICICI-
Solid Gold VC 120 150 300 600 1200 300 2.50 52 90
ICICI-Blue VC 75 100 100 150 300 50 2.95 50 12
Stanchart-
Classic VC 60 72 100 350 700 NS 3.20 55 NA
Stanchart-
Gold MC 150 160 1000 1000 2000 160 3.15 52 16
SBI-Classic VC 75 60 250 250 500 70 2.75 50 7
SBI-Gold VC 225 150 300 500 1500 300 2.50 50 45
SBI-
International VC 75 75 250 250 750 75 2.60 50 5
UTI-Gold MC 156 156 Nil 1000 2000 250 3.00 45 30
HSBC-Silver VC 96 96 Nil 350 750 50 2.90 50 5
HSBC-Gold MC 175 175 Nil 1000 1000 300 2.95 48 40
PNB-Gold MC&VC 180 200 600 1200 3000 125 2.50 45 25
MC  Master Credit
VC  Visa Credit
AC  American Express Credit
NS  Not specified, in which case the credit limit is 50% of income.
NA  Not Allowed
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DATA INTERPRETATION
The Reserve Bank of India, as per its latest guidelines, has decided to award
ratings to the credit cards mentioned above based on their meeting the stipulated
criteria.
The ratings are A, B and C, which are awarded as follows:
* Rating A is awarded to a credit card if its joining fee is nil and its credit limit
is greater than Rs.30,000.
* Rating B is awarded to a credit card if it is of type ‘VC’ only and its annual
fee is greater than Rs. 1,000.
* Rating C is awarded to a credit card if it is of type ‘MC only or if its credit
period is greater than 48 days.
18. Mr. Ashok Soota, who is a salaried person and earns Rs. 1,80,000 p.a, is looking
for a credit card whose annual fee is in the range of Rs.500 to Rs. 1,500 (both
inclusive), add-on card fee is less than Rs. 1,000 and whose interest rate is less
than 2.85%. How many of the credit cards mentioned in the table meet his
specifications?
(1) 6 (2) 7
19. How many credit cards get a rating of A as well as B?
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
20. Which of the following cards gets all the three ratings issued by the RBI?
(1) BOB-Gold (2) PNB-Gold
(3) Amex-Gold (4) None of these
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
37
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 5
DIRECTIONS: Answer questions 1 to 15 on the basis of information given below:

There are five people A,B, C, D and E waiting for five different flight to different
countries (C1,C2,C3,C4 and C5) at an airport.
Each of them have different surname (S1,S2,S3,S4 and S5) and have different
profession (P1,P2,P3,P4,P5). Also they are working in different offices( O1, O2,O3,O4
and O5) and belong to different district of a state( D1,D2,D3,D4,D5).
The one flying to C1 belongs to O3 and his profession is not P4.
The one from D2 has P3 and does not belong to O1.
The one from D1 belongs to O2 and is not flying to C5.
The one flying to C4 has profession P2 and is not from O4.
The one flying to C2 is from D3 and has profession P1.
A has surname S2 and is from D4 and does not belong to O1,O2 or O4.
B has S1 as surname and does not belong to O3 and O5 and does not have P1, P4 or
P5.
C who has surname S5 is from D1 is not flying to C1,C2 or C4.
D does not belong to O2,O3 or O5 and is flying to C4 and does not belong D2 or D3.
E has surname S4 and belongs to O5 and is not flying C1, C3 or C5.
The one flying to C2 is a good friend of the one from D5.
The one from D4 is a good friend of the person from O4.
Mark 1 if both statement are true.
Mark 2 if both statement are false.
Mark 3 if only first statement is true.
Mark 4 if only second statement is true.
1. I. A is flying to C1.
II. B is from O4.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
2. I. A is from O3.
II. B has P2.
3. I. B is from D3.
II. C is from O2.
4. I. B has S2.
II. C is flying to C4.
5. I. C is from O2.
II. D has P2.
6. I. C is flying to C3.
II. D belongs to D4.
7. I. D is from O3.
II. E is flying to C2.
8. I. D is from D4.
II. E has P1.
9. I. E is from D3.
II. A is from 05.
10. I. E is flying to C5.
II. A has P5.
11. I. A is not from office O5.
II. D is not from D2.
12. I. A is a good friend of D.
II. A is a good friend of B.
13. I. E is good friend of D.
II. B is good friend of D.
14. I. C is not from D2.
II. C3 is the country C is flying to.
39
DATA INTERPRETATION
15. If district D1 is merged with district D2 and district D3 is merged with district
D4 which one of the following will be true :
I. B and C will belong to same district.
II. D and A will belong to same district.
III. E and A will belong to same district.
IV. E and C will belong to same district.
(1) I & IV (2) I & III
(3) II & IV (4) None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below. The following table gives the export figures of wheat, rice
and maize from a particular country for the last 10 years. Answer these questions on
the basis of this table.
Wheat Rice Maize
‘000 kg Rs. In crore ‘000 kg Rs. In crore ‘000 kg Rs. In lakh
1993 45666 38.2 89656 57.4 1432 343
1994 49089 39.4 84556 56.8 1266 361
1995 55454 39.6 106766 57.2 1392 372
1996 53343 39.6 138786 59 1255 378
1997 65454 40.5 135565 59.4 1385 392
1998 76636 40.7 152787 59.2 1504 385
1999 88787 40.9 186545 61.1 1596 403
2000 87678 42 183434 61.7 1705 409
2001 90897 43.1 206565 62.6 1835 421
2002 108987 44.6 215656 63.4 1812 438
16. What is the difference (in Rs.) between the rice exports and maize exports in
2001 ?
(1) 358.4 crore (2) 205 crore
(3) 20.5 crore (4) 58.39 crore
17. For how many of the given years have wheat exports (in kgs) been less than
half that of rice exports (in kgs)?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
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DATA INTERPRETATION
18. Which of the following years marked the third highest difference between rice
and maize exports (in kgs)?
(1) 2001 (2) 2000
(3) 1999 (4) 1998
19. What is the average export price of rice over the given period?
(1) Rs 400/tonne (2) Rs 4/kg
(3) Rs 40/kg (4) Rs 400/kg
20. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
I. The average export price of wheat has decreased during each year for the
given period.
II. The average export price of maize is less than the average export price of
rice over the given period,
(1) I only (2) II only
(3) Both I and II (4) None of these
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
41
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 6
DIRECTIONS: Answer questions 1 to 8 on the basis of information given below:
Five personnel (Ajay, Bhaskar, Chandan, Dubey and Manish ) of a company from
Delhi were sent for a training program to Mumbai for 15 days. Their company made
the boarding and lodging arrangement for them in its guesthouse in Mumbai. They
were suppose to pay only for their morning breakfast they take at the guesthouse.
There were only five dishes available for the breakfast namely Samosa, Idli, Noodles,
Vada Pav and Dumplings. Each one of them had breakfast everyday taking one dish
everyday at the guesthouse in such a manner that each dish was taken 15 times in
total. All the dishes were tried by each one of them at least once and the maximum
number of times any dish was taken by any one personnel was 5. Cost of Samosa,
Idli, Noodles, Vada Pav and Dumplings were Rs.8, Rs 15, Rs 10, Rs 12 and Rs 18
respectively.
Ajay paid Rs. 212 in total out of which Rs 60 were for idlis, Rs 30 for noodles and Rs
24 for Vada Pavs.
Bhaskar who had Noodles, Vada Pav and Dumplings same number of times paid Rs
175 in total out of which Rs. 36 were for VadaPav.
Chandan ate Samosa, idli and Noodles same number of times paid Rs. 198 in total
out of which Rs 66 were for samosas, Idli and Noodles.
Dubey ate Samosa and Noodles same number of times and paid Rs 72 for these two
items. For Idli he paid Rs 75 and in total he paid Rs 177.
Mark 1 if both statement are true.
Mark 2 if both statement are false.
Mark 3 if only first statement is true.
Mark 4 if only second statement is true.
1. I. Manish paid Rs. 175 in total.
II. Manish paid Rs. 30 for noodles.
2. I. Manish paid Rs. 183 in total.
II. Manish tried VadaPav 4 times.
3. I. In total the five of them paid Rs. 945.
II. Manish paid the maximum.
42
DATA INTERPRETATION
4. I. Ajay paid the maximum of the 5 personnel.

II. Bhaskar paid minimum.
5. I. Two person paid more than 20 % of the total amount paid.
II. All of them paid more than 16 % of the total amount.
6. I. Bhaskar paid Rs 40 for Samosas.
II. Bhaskar paid Rs. 60 for idlis.
7. I. Ajay paid Rs. 90 for dumplings.
II. Ajay paid Rs. 8 for Samosas.
8. I. Chandan paid Rs. 72 for vadapavs.
II. Chandan paid Rs. 54 for Dumplings.
Each of the following questions is followed by two statements (A) and (B). Mark
your answer as
(1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but
cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.
(2) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
(3) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together,
but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
(4) if the question cannot be answered even by using both statements
together.
9. A circle C2 with radius r2 lies completely within another circle C1 with radius r1.
What the value of r2? (In terms of k and m)
(A) The difference in the circumferences of C1 and C2 is k cm.
(B) The difference in the areas of C1 and C2 is x sq. cm.
10. How long will it take for a sum to double itself in a bank?
(A) The sum was half its value 4,5 years ago.
(B) The sum will be Rs. 12000 next year.
11. Is m greater than n? Assume that m # n = m + 2n
(A) m # n = (n # m) – 4
(B) m # n = n # m
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DATA INTERPRETATION
12. What is the value of X?

(A) X4 = 2401,
(B) X2 + 3X – 24 = 1/2 (6X + 50).
13. What is the ninth term of a G.P. whose common ratio is the root of the equation
x2 + 8x - 20 = 0?
(A) All the terms of the G.P. are positive.
(B) Fifth term of the G.P. is 32.
14. x, y, z are three different natural numbers such that x = y + 2 ±. Is x a prime
number?
(A) y and z are odd.
(B) z = y – 2.
15. How many times will A and B be abreast of each other when they both run in
the clockwise direction a round two concentric circles?
(A) They both start from the end points of the same radius segment
simultaneously.
(B) Their speeds are in the ratio of the radii of the circles.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 18: Answer the questions based on the following
information.
a
1
d 4 2 b
3
c
A process consists of interchanging the letters at the position given within brackets,
for example, (1, 2) means that letters in positions 1 and 2 are interchanged. The
whole process may be an interchange of one or more pairs of letters.
16. If a process is a combination of (1,2); (2, 3); (3, 4) and (4,1) in succession, which
letter will be at the position 3 when the process is executed 100 times
successively?
(1) a (2) b
(3) c (4) d
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DATA INTERPRETATION
17. If a process is a combination of (1,2); (2,4); (3,4) in succession, which letter will
be at the position 1 when the process is executed 100 times successively?
(1) a (2) b
(3) c (4) d
18. If a process is a combination of (1,2); (2, 3); (3, 4); (4, 2); (4, 1); (3, 1); (3, 2);
(2, 4) and (1, 4) in succession, the intermediate processes are redundant except
the exchange of letters at the positions a.
(1) 1,2 (2) 1,3
(3) 1,4 (4) (3,4)
DIRECTIONS for questions 19 and 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below. In what-what island, two types of people are residing—x-
type and y-type. x-type people always speak the truth and y-type always tqll the lie.
Rajesh and Nishit are the inhabitants of what-what island.
19. Rajesh says, “I always lie.” Based on this statement, which of the following
options is TRUE ?
(1) Rajesh is an inhabitant of x-type.
(2) Rajesh is an inhabitant of y-type.
(3) It cannot be determined as to which type of inhabitant is Rajesh.
(4) This is an impossible statement.
20. Nishit says, “Rajesh always speaks the truth.” Which of the following
statements is definitely TRUE?
(A) Nishit is an inhabitant of x-type. B: Rajesh is an inhabitant of y-type.
(B) Nishit and Rajesh are inhabitants of the opposite type.
(C) Nishit and Rajesh are inhabitants of the same type,
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) A, B and C (4) None of these
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
45
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 7
India has witnessed a tremendous growth in terms of the media industry. This
growth has also resulted in a huge increase in the advertising revenue of various
categories of media. The following table shows the share of the advertising revenue
earned by each media as a percentage of the total advertising revenue of the
industry, for the years 2001 to 2005. The total advertising revenue of the industry in
2002 was lower than that in 2004, while the total advertising revenue in 2003 was
higher than that in 2005.
Year Category 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005

Television 63 55 60 52 48
Internet 2 4 5 6 7
Magazines 5 8 13 19 28
Newspaper 17 11 12 16 10
Journals 2 3 4 5 6
Billboards 11 19 6 2 1
1. The percentage share of the advertising revenue of which of the following

categories of media was increasing at an increasing rate?
(1) Television (2) Internet
(3) Magazines (4) Journals
2. The advertising revenue of Magazines in the year 2002 is
(1) greater than the corresponding revenue in 2003.
(2) greater than the corresponding revenue in the year 2005.
(3) lesser than the corresponding revenue in the year 2004.
(4) All the above are certainly true.
3. The advertising revenue of Television in 2003 is how many times the total
advertising revenue of the industry in 2005?
(1) 0.8 (2) 1.2
(3) 1.25 (4) Cannot be determined
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DATA INTERPRETATION
4. What is the least possible number of categories of media for which the
advertising revenue saw a definite decrease from 2003 to 2005?
(1) 0 (2) 1
Refer to the following information to answer the questions that follow.
Mr. Brookbond loved to climb mountains. He used to go on many expeditions where
he used to climb exactly five mountains and come back. On one such expedition he
climbed Mt. Zenith, Mt. Highest, Mt. Acme, Mt. Peakpoint and Mt. Topest.
 Mt. Highest is higher than atleast one mountain.
 Mr. Brookbond has a Satellite phone using which he calls up his home
just as soon as he reaches the top.
 He climbs the first mountain with a particular speed then according to him
there is no need to climb the other mountains at a speed slower or faster
than the first one.
 He always starts climbing a mountain at exactly 9.00 AM and keeps on
climbing non stop till he reaches the top and immediately starts descending
down.
 He always starts climbing a mountain on a new day.
 Just before he starts climbing he calls up his wife and does so again just
as soon as he reaches the summit.
 On this particular expedition, using only his phone calls as a guide his
wife could arrange the mountains in the ascending order of heights.
What she told us was when her husband climbed Mt. Zenith the time he took
between the two calls was the least. The duration between the two calls for Mt.
Topest was the most. The time taken between the two calls for Mt. Acme was exactly
in between the time taken for Mt. Peakpoint and Mt. Highest.
5. Which mount is the tallest?
(1) Mt. Zenith (2) Mt. Highest
(3) Mt. Topest (4) None of these
6. Arranged in ascending order of heights, the order would be
(1) Mt. Zenith, Mt. Highest, Mt. Acme, Mt. Peakpoint, Mt. Topest
(2) Mt. Zenith, Mt. Peakpoint, Mt. Acme, Mt. Highest, Mt. Topest
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DATA INTERPRETATION
(3) Could be option (1) or (2)

(4) none of these
7. Mr. Brookbond takes a minimum of one day and a maximum of two days to
climb a mountain. What is the minimum guaranteed time in which he would
anyhow climb all the mountains?
(1) 9 days (2) 6 days
(3) 5 days (4) 11 days
Answer these questions independently of each other.
8. In a competition where no two participants secured the same position, the
person who stood fifth found that he had beaten at least 32 people. The
seventh person from the last found that there were not more than 32 people
ahead of him. There is no person who had as many people ahead of him as
there were behind him. Which of the following statements is true about the
person who stood 19th in the competition?
(1) There were more people ahead of him than those behind him.
(2) Had one more person (who was behind him) got ahead of him, his own
position would have become 19th from the last.
(3) The person who stood 8th from the last is 11 places behind him.
(4) None of these
9. If computers sing or internet dances, then internet is the national anthem. If
internet is the national anthem, then either I will have gulabjamun for breakfast
or I will fast the whole day. I had only paratha for breakfast. Assuming that
gulabjamun, paratha, breakfast and fasting have the meanings that we normally
associate these words with, then which of the following conclusions is/are
valid?
I. Internet is the national anthem.
II. Internet is not the national anthem.
III. Neither computers sing nor internet dances.
IV. Computers sing or internet dances.
(1) Only II and III (2) Only I
(3) Only I and IV (4) Only IV
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DATA INTERPRETATION
10. Ulhas, Bala and Ajay are three of my very good friends. The following are the
details regarding the types of suits they wear, the type of food they eat and the
vehicles they use. The three of them wear different types of suits, eat different
types of food and use different brands of vehicles.
Ulhas does not eat Chinese food and he does not travel in an Ikon. Ajay eats
south Indian food. The person who travels in Qualis wears a T-shirt. The
person who travels in Corsa eats North Indian food and wears a kurta. Ajay
does not wear safari suits. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) The person who travels in Qualis eats Chinese food.
(2) Ajay wears a kurta and travels in an Ikon.
(3) Bala wears a safari suit and eats Chinese food.
(4) Ulhas travels in Qualis and eats North Indian food.
11. Abhijit spends more than Bhavesh but earns less than Charu. Dinesh earns
more than Charu but spends less than Bhavesh. Charu spends more than
Bhavesh and earns more than him. Which of the following statements is
definitely true about these four people?
(1) Dinesh earns the most and Charu spends the most.
(2) Charu spends the least and Abhijit earns the most.
(3) Bhavesh spends more than Abhijit and Charu spends less than Abhijit.
(4) Dinesh spends the least and earns the most.
DIRECTIONS: for questions 12 to 16
Following table shows total sales statistics of four branches of a company over a
three month period. Refer to the table and answer the questions that follow.
January February March
Cities First Last Sale First Last Sale First Last Sale
Bill Bill (in Rs.) Bill Bill (in Rs.) Bill Bill (in Rs.)
Mumbai 2864 2942 345641 2943 3106 461750 3107 3280 485097
Delhi 4051 4101 147345 4102 4204 231469 4205 4296 221895
Kolkata 3469 3601 269473 3602 3704 208947 3705 3762 210494
Chennai 2644 2703 165442 2704 2787 187928 2788 2841 175427
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DATA INTERPRETATION
12. What were the total number of bills raised by the company from January to
March?
(1) 1652 (2) 777
(3) 1151 (4) 1040
13. Over the three month period which branch’s average sale per bill was the
highest?
(1) Chennai (2) Delhi
(3) Kolkata (4) Mumbai
14. In the three months January-March, what was the contribution of Kolkata
branch to the total company sale?
(1) 29% (2) 22%
(3) 31% (4) 17%
15. Ranking the branches by the sale amount in the three months results in the
order
(1) Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai
(2) Mumbai-Kolkata-Chennai- Delhi
(3) Mumbai-Kolkata-Delhi-Chennai
(4) Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata-Delhi
16. Which of the statements given below are true?
I. Sales of all four branches increased every month.
II. Sale of Chennai branch in March was approximately its average sale for
the given 3 months.
III. Mumbai branch raised the highest number of bills in January.
(1) II and III (2) I, II and III
(3) I and II (4) II only
Read the given information to solve the following questions.
In India, One day international Cricket matches can be played only at a few specific
grounds. The complete list is as: Feroze Shah Kotla in New Delhi, Chinnaswamy in
Bangalore, Chepauk in Chennai, Eden Gardens in Kolkata, Mohali in Punjab, Nehru
Stadium in Orissa, Motera in UP, and KD in Jaipur.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
One country can play on one pitch only once. The participating countries in the
tournament are Pakistan, Australia, Bangladesh, New Zealand, Zimbabwe, Holland,
Kenya, England, Sri Lanka and India. To decide the venue where a particular country
will play its match, the total number of matches that a country had played on all the
grounds is taken into consideration. If on a particular ground, the team has won
more than fifty percent of the matches played, then, it will wish to play a match on
that ground. Each team was allotted a unique number. The first two teams played
against each other, the next two against each other and so on and so forth. The
countries (in the sequence given above) were allotted numbers 1, 10, 2, 9, 3, 8, 4, 7,
5, and 6 respectively. Each country played only once.
17. If Australia was given the first choice of venue, where do you think that New
Zealand played their match (given: Australia has played 34 matches in Orissa
and won 1 8 of them, and no other better record about Australian team’s
performance in India is available)?
(1) Motera (2) KD
(3) Nehru Stadium (4) Chepauk
18. If Holland has played a total of 56 one day international out of which they
have won only 3 matches, out of 4, 5, 6 matches played in Kolkata, Chennai
and Bangalore respectively with a win in each city, where do you think England
will play their match?
(1) Calcutta or Chennai or Bangalore (2) Pune
(3) New Delhi (4) Indeterminable
19. Indian team has played the maximum number of one day international matches
in Kolkata, of which they have won more than 50% and the record of Sri Lanka
is that, in all the matches that they have played in each of the grounds, they
have failed to win more than fifty percent. If India was playing at a venue of its
choice then where and with whom will it be playing?
(1) Kolkata, Australia (2) Chennai, Sri Lanka
(3) Kolkata, England (4) Kolkata, Sri Lanka
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DATA INTERPRETATION
20. Zimbabwe has played only sixteen matches in India spread over five cities.
Among those five cities, they played three matches each in four cities and 4
matches in the fifth city. If they won all the matches that they played in Jaipur
and Kenya played just one match in India in KD then where will Zimbabwe
wish to play the match?
(1) KD (2) Motera
(3) Chinnaswamy (4) Indeterminable
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
52
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 8

Use the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
Raju worked for many years in a company and finally decided to retire. As his
retirement benefits, he received a certain sum from the company. He invested half
the sum in land and the other half in shares. At the end of one year he sold off both
the land and the shares. The dealing in land gave him profit of 20% whereas the
dealing in shares resulted in a loss of 5%. He then took the entire amount that he had
realised and bought gold. At the end of one year he sold off the gold because he
saw some other business opportunity. This transaction resulted in a profit of 20%.
He then put 2/3 of the sum realised into a new factory his friend was setting up and
the rest he put it in a bank gave him interest of 10% per anum. At the end of the year
he sold off his stake in the factory to someone resulting in a profit of 12.5%. He
realised Rs. 193500 from this transaction and the money in the bank had by now
grown to Rs.94600.
1. What was the total amount Raju realised after selling off his shares?
(1) Rs. 180000 (2) Rs. 95000
(3) Rs. 47500 (4) Rs. 35000
2. What amount did Raju invest in gold?
(1) Rs. 215000 (2) Rs. 185000
(3) Rs. 172000 (4) indeterminable
3. What amount did Raju invest in his friend’s factory?
(1) Rs. 172000 (2) Rs. 354000
(3) Rs. 86000 (4) indeterminable
4. What was the profit or loss percentage recorded by Raju on his initial amount
after all the transaction?
(1) 45% loss approximately (2) 44%profit approximately
(3) 30% loss approximately (4) indeterminable
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DATA INTERPRETATION

These questions are based on the following data.
Four cities W, X, Y and Z together have 11 hotels, five of which viz; P, Q, R, S and T,
are five-star hotels and the rest viz; A, B, C, D, E and F are three-star hotels.
(i) P and Q are situated in different cities and they are the only five-star
hotels in the cities in which they are situated.
(ii) E and F are the only hotels in city Y.
(iii) P is not situated in the city which has largest number of hotels.
(iv) Five-star hotels are, situated in more number of cities than three-star
hotels.
(v) City Z has more number of five-star hotels than W, which does not have
any three-star hotels.
(vi) Each city has a different number of hotels.
5. How many hotels are there in city Z?
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 2 (4) 0
6. Which of the following conditions are sufficient to determine the number of
hotels in city W?
(1) Only (i) and (v) (2) Only (ii), (v) and (vi)
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (v) (4) Only (i), (v) and (vi)
7. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) There are three cities which have either only three-star hotels or only five-
star hotels.
(2) There are exactly three cities which have five-star hotels.
(3) There are only two cities which have three-star hotels.
(4) The difference between the number of hotels in city X and city Z is same
as the difference between the number of hotels in city W and city Y.
8. How many cities have three-star hotels?
(1) 3 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) Cannot be determined
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DATA INTERPRETATION

The following bar graph shows the Annual Salaries (in $ million) for the
Governors of the Central bank for 10 different countries in year 2002.
1.2
1
Annual Salary (in $ million)
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
US
Italy
Japan
Canada
Sweden
Germany
Hong Kong
Australia
Netherland
Switzerland
Country Name
9. How many countries pay a salary more than the average salary paid by all the
countries?
(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 7 (4) 2
10. What is the difference between the percentage of the second weakest country
and the second strongest country when they are compared with the strongest
one? (A country is to be considered strong if the salary offered to the Governor
is high and vice-versa)
(1) 12% (2) 1.27%
(3) 45.45% (4) 28%
11. North America (US + Canada) proposed a single governor system for the
whole continent whose pay will be the average of the pay provided by the two
countries and the position will be retained by the Governor of Canada. What
will be the percentage loss in salary to the Governor of Canada?
(1) 16.66% (2) 83.3%
(3) 25% (4) 12.25%
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DATA INTERPRETATION
12. If the countries giving salary above the average, increase their salary further
by 10% in 2003 and rest of the countries (which are giving salaries below the
average) increase by 15%, then what will be the new average salary of the
Governor for the 10 countries?
(1) $ 0.49 m (2) $ 0.46 m
(3) $ 0.47 m (4) $ 0.48 m
Surveys were conducted in three different years -2003, 2004 and 2005 - to find out
the likelihood of people investing in shares or real estate. Each year, exactly 500
people were surveyed and the results of the survey are given in the following table.
Number of People
Likelihood of investing in Shares in Real Estate
2003 2004 2005 2003 2004 2005
Very unlikely 250 230 110 85 90 105
Somewhat Unlikely 120 130 145 70 65 40
Undecided 50 60 75 20 25 35
Somewhat likely 25 30 55 230 180 170
Very likely 10 20 35 80 105 125
No response 45 30 80 15 35 25
 Persons likely to invest = Persons somewhat likely to invest + Persons

very likely to invest
 Persons unlikely to invest = Persons somewhat unlikely to invest +
Persons very unlikely to invest
13. In the year 2003, at least how many of the persons surveyed are unlikely to
invest in both shares and real estate?
(1) 25 (2) 35
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DATA INTERPRETATION
14. In the year 2005, what is the least number of persons surveyed who are likely
to invest in shares or real estate?
(1) 0 (2) 90
15. In the year 2004, if of all the persons surveyed, exactly 70 persons said that
they were undecided to invest either in shares or in real estate, what percentage
of the total number of persons surveyed were undecided to invest both in
shares and in real estate?
(1) 4% (2) 5%
(3) 6% (4) 3%
Additional information for questions 16 and 17:
The same set of 500 persons were surveyed in each of the three given years.
16. The number of persons who responded with the same likelihood of investment
in real estate in 2004 and 2005 is at most
(1) 170 (2) 325
(3) 400 (4) 455
17. The number of persons who were very unlikely of investing in shares in two
or more of the three years given, is at least
(1) 25 (2) 30
(3) 45 (4) 90
India started permitting Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) to invest in Indian
companies from 1st January, 2000. On that day, the FII invested in the Indian stock
market with a fund size of $28.5 million as per the following investment plan. (The
exchange rate on 1st January, 2000 was 1$ = Rs 35).
1. They invested 60% of the funds in Group A+ shares and the remaining
funds in Group A shares.
2. They invested only in three sectors - Software, Electronics and
Petrochemical.
3. The amount invested in Software sector and Electronics sector is the
same.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
4. The amount invested in Petrochemical sector exceeds the amount invested

in Electronics sector by Rs.10 crore.
5. The amount invested in Petrochemical stocks of Group A is twice the
amount invested in Electronics stocks and Software stock of Group A
individually.
6. The investment is done only in the following companies.
Sector Group A + Group A

Software Funfosys, Quipro, Hexil Amniocies
Electronics Satsung, Elgi Viditron
Petrochemical Indoil, Harparoil Baratoil, Ongoil
The price (in Rs.) for various shares is as follows
Company As on 01.01.2000 As on 01.01.2001

Amniocies 3600 4115
Hexil 800 700
Quipro 250 200
Funfosys 450 400
Satsung 4000 4500
Elgi 350 350
Viditron 12500 15000
Indoil 250 300
Baratoil 700 800
Ongoil 300 400
Harparoil 300 400
18. What is the amount invested in Electronics companies of group A+ according

to the investment plan?
(1) Rs.17 crore (2) Rs.20 crore
(3) Rs.24 crore (4) Rs.30 crore
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DATA INTERPRETATION
19. If the amount invested in Petrochemical companies of Group A + is equally

distributed among the companies, then the number of Indoil shares bought by
FII on January 1st, 2000, is
(1) 2.6 lakh (2) 3.0 lakh
(3) 3.6 lakh (4) 4.0 lakh
20. If the amount invested in Electronics companies of Group A+ is equally
distributed among the companies, then the number of Satsung shares bought
by FII on January 1st, 2000 is
(1) 15000 (2) 21000
(3) 25000 (4) 30000
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
59
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 9
These questions are based on the following bar graphs. Outstanding loan amounts
of various states to the World Bank.
N O N -S P EC IAL C A T EG O R Y S T A T ES
(R s . cr or e )
U tta r P ra de s h 8 0 ,0 0 0
W e s t B e n g al 5 8 ,0 0 0
M ah a ra s tra 50 ,00 0
An dh ra P ra de s h 4 5 ,0 0 0
B ihar 3 9 ,0 0 0
G u ja r at 3 8 ,0 0 0
R a ja s th a n 3 6 ,00 0
T a m i l N a du 3 4 ,0 0 0
P u n jab 3 2 ,0 0 0
M a dh y a P ra de s h 3 0,0 00
K a rn ata k a 2 7 ,0 0 0
K e ral a 2 6 ,0 0 0
O ri s s a 2 4 ,0 0 0
H a r ya n a 1 5 ,0 0 0
G oa 2 ,7 0 0
S PEC IAL C AT EGO RY S TAT ES

(Rs.crore )
Ass am 10,000
Hi mach al Pradesh 8,500
Jamm u & Kash m ir 8,000
Tri pu ra 2,700
N agalan d 2,200
Jh ark h an d 2,000
Man i pu r 1,700
Uttaran ch al 1,500
Me gh al aya 1,300
Aru n ach al Pradesh 1,300
C h atti sgarh 1,000
Miz oram 1,000
S ik k i m 800
Note: The outstanding loan amount of the state of Andhra Pradesh to the World
Bank is equal to 30% of the receipts of the budget of the state.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
1. The World Bank has now allocated a total amount of Rs. 1,20,000 crore as a
free grant for all the states together. The total grant sanctioned to non-special
category states and special category states is in the ratio of 7 : 3. If the amount
granted to each category of states is to be disbursed among the states in that
category, in proportion to their respective outstanding loan amounts, then
what is the amount of grant allocated to Mizoram (approximately)?
(1) Rs.36,000 crore (2) Rs.2,857 crore
(3) Rs.857 crore (4) Rs. 1,215 crore
2. The state of Andhra Pradesh collected sales tax to the extent of 11% of the
total receipts of its budget. What is the amount collected by it through sales
tax?
(1) Rs. 12,650 crore (2) Rs. 16,500 crore
(3) Rs. 11,550 crore (4) Rs. 13,200 crore
3. The states of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh
borrowed another Rs. 5,000 crore each from the World Bank. The previous
loan amounts from the World Bank, already outstanding, constitute 10% of
the total outstanding loan amount of each state. Now, for which state out of
the following is the outstanding loan amount from the World Bank as a
percentage of the state’s total outstanding loan amount the maximum?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Madhya Pradesh
For each of the questions given below, four options are provided. Choose the
correct option.
4. A, B, C, D, ... X, Y, Z are the players who participated in a tournament. Everyone
played with every other player exactly once. A win scores 2 points and a loss
scores 0 points. None of the matches ended in a draw. No two players scored
the same score. At the end of the tournament, the ranking list is published
which is in accordance with the alphabetical order. Then
(1) N wins over M. (2) Q wins over A.
(3) S wins over H. (4) None of these.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
5. Six puppies - K, L, M, S, T, U - must each be scheduled for examination by a

veterinarian. The puppies are to be examined one at a time in six consecutive
time slots on the same day according to the following conditions:
 M cannot be examined immediately before or immediately after S.
 L must be examined immediately before U.
 K must be examined fourt h.
If S is examined sixth, then which of the following is a complete and accurate
list of the time slots where M could be examined?
(1) First (2) First or second
(3) First or third (4) First or second or third
Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
Sita and Gita are two sisters. They designed a game called “CHALO KHEL KHELEIN”.
They divided the courtyard of their house into a chessboard; each box having a
distinct natural number starting from the smallest natural number. Both the girls are
required to throw a dice (a special one having the first eight natural numbers) and
accordingly move those many places.
There are certain rules to play the game (The rules are same for both of them).
 If they reach a perfect square, they have to move back those many steps
equal to the difference of that number and the predecessor of the previous
perfect cube number.
 If they reach a perfect cube number, they have to move back those many
steps equal to the difference of the previous perfect square and the
previous perfect cube.
 If they reach a perfect number, then they get a bonus of those many steps
as the sum of the digits of the number divided by 2.
 If they reach a prime number, they get a bonus of that many steps as the
number added to the successor of the next higher prime number.
 Both of them can move only across a row. The moment they reach the last
block, the game is finished.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
6. If Sita is on 1 and the dice shows 5, then where does she finally reach?
(1) 7 (2) 19
7. What could be the number obtained on throwing a dice, if on throwing and
following the rules Gita ends upto 33 and before throwing the dice she was at
21?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 7
THE DEMOGRAPHY OF INDIA AND FOUR OF
ITS STATES BIRTH RATE
(per thousand)
Year State 2000 1999 1998 1997

Andhra Pradesh 21.3 21.7 22.4 22.5
Bihar 31.9 31.5 31.1 31.7
Uttar Pradesh 32.8 32.8 32.4 33.5
Goa 14.3 14.3 14.3 14.2
India 25.8 26.0 26.5 27.2
NATURAL GROWTH RATE

(per thousand)
Year State 2000 1999 1998 1997
Andhra Pradesh 13.1 13.5 13.6 14.2
Bihar 23.1 22.6 21.7 21.7
Uttar Pradesh 22.5 22.3 21.9 23.2
Goa 6.8 7.1. 6.1 6.5
India 17.3 17.4 17.5 18.3
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DATA INTERPRETATION
INFANT MORTALITY RATE
Year State 2000 1999 1998 1997

Andhra Pradesh 65 66 66 63
Bihar 62 63 67 71
Uttar Pradesh 83 84 85 85
Goa 23 21 23 19
India 68 70 72 71
Note: (1) Natural Growth rate = Birth rate - Death rate.

(2) Infant mortality rate = Number of infant deaths per thousand births.
(3) An infant death is defined as the death of a child in the very year that it
is born.
8. Approximately what percent of the total deaths in India in the year 1999 are
infant deaths?
(1) 25% (2) 26%
(3) 21% (4) 19%
9. The figures for the Birth rate and the Natural growth rate in Uttar Pradesh for
the years 1995 and 1996 were constant and equal to 40 and 30 (per thousand)
respectively. If the population of Uttar Pradesh as on 01/01/1995 was 10 crore,
then find the total number of births in Uttar Pradesh during the years 1995 and
1996 put together.
(1) 80 lakh (2) 81.2 lakh
(3) 76 lakh (4) 78.8 lakh
10. Considering the four years given, which of the following states recorded the
highest percentage decrease in Death rate over the previous year, in any of the
years?
(1) Goa (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Cannot be determined
11. Which of the following statements is true for the given data?
(1) The Natural Growth rate and Birth rate have shown the same trend for all
the four states.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
(2) The Death rate and Infant Mortality rate of India have shown exactly
opposite trends.
(3) The trends of Birth rate and Natural Growth rate of Andhra Pradesh are
similar to that of India.
(4) The trends of Birth rate and Infant Mortality rate of Bihar are similar to
that of India.
Refer to the following information to Answer the questions that follow.
Six people - P, Q, R, S, T and U – are X’s husband, sister, son, daughter, mother and
aunt, although not necessarily in that order. They satisfy the following conditions
1. R and S are either both male or both female.
2. Either P or Q, or both are male.
3. Either T or U, or both are female.
12. Any of the following could be X’s son except
(1) P (2) Q
(3) S (4) T
13. Which of the following statements must be false?
(1) P is S’s grandson (2) S is P’s niece
(3) P is Q’s nephew (4) U is T’s son
14. If Q is U’s daughter, which of the following statements could be true?
(1) P is X’s sister (2) U is R’s aunt
(3) T is S’s nephew (4) Q is S’s niece
15. If P is T’s brother, U could be any of the following except
(1) X’s sister (2) X’s daughter
(3) X’s aunt (4) X’s husband
DIRECTIONS: for questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
As a part of the Best City contest a newschannel invited ten eminent personalities
– Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z - and asked each of them to vote for one of the four
shortlisted cities - Bangalore, Delhi, Hyderabad and Mumbai - in each of the two
categories most beautiful city and most happening city. The sum of the number of
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DATA INTERPRETATION
votes obtained by a city in these two categories put together is considered to be the
total number of votes, for the city. The city with the maximum total number of votes
is finally adjudged as the Best City.
After the voting, it was found that,
(i) no two cities got the same number of votes in the most beautiful city
category and the same was the case in the most happening city category.
However, every city got at least one vote in each of the two categories.
(ii) No two cities got the same total number of votes and Hyderabad emerged
as the winner of the contest.
(iii) In case of S and T, in each of the two categories, S voted for the same
city as T. However, the same cannot be said to be true for any other pair
of persons.
(iv) In the most beautiful city category, no other person voted for the city
for which R voted and the same was the case in the most happening city
category.
(v) Except V, who voted for Hyderabad in both the categories and Y, who
voted for Bangalore in both the categories, no other person voted for
the same city in both the categories.
(vi) Q did not vote for Hyderabad in the most beautiful city category.
(vii) U and W voted for the same city in the most happening city category.
(viii) In the most beautiful city category, only W and X voted for Mumbai,
while S voted for Bangalore.
16. Which city did Z vote for as the most beautiful city”?
(1) Mumbai (2) Hyderabad
(3) Delhi (4) Bangalore
17. Which city did X vote for as the most happening city?
(1) Bangalore (2) Delhi
(3) Hyderabad (4) Mumbai
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DATA INTERPRETATION
18. Which of the following pairs of persons voted for the same city in the most
happening city category?
(1) V and Q (2) Q and X
(3) V and U (4) Z and W
(5) Q and U
19. How many persons voted for Mumbai as the most happening city?
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
20. Which of the following pairs of persons voted for Bangalore as the most
beautiful city?
(1) Q and S (2) Q and U
(3) R and U (4) T and U
(5) R and T
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
67
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 10
These questions are based on the following table.
EXPORTS OF SPICES FROM INDIA
1989-90 1990-91 1991-92
Quantity Value Quantity Value Quantity Value
Pepper 34483 15296.59 29985 10239.50 20565 7420.82
Cardamom (S) 180 306.88 400 1086.61 553 1606.75
Cardamom (L) 787 294.82 1077 490.53 932 476.25
Chillies 11983 2585.31 24534 2755.55 33398 9790.64
Ginger 9037 1268.96 6555 1175.79 13396 2032.45
Turmeric 16860 1615.28 13624 1548.48 16565 3157.57
Coriander 2664 278.50 3488 405.45 9228 1190.39
Cumin 4030 695.06 1029 304.95 1460 589.53
Celery 3106 373.85 3199 414.03 2782 463.69
Fennel 2284 311.25 1163 201.22 1663 362.73
Fenugreek 6241 401.43 3748 304.56 4941 424.09
Other seeds 1578 174.05 1035 122.59 1340 280.47
Garlic 900 70.00 4023 256.89 9894 763.25
Other Spices 4001 903.12 11740 1049.06 9659 1179.00
Curry Powder 3320 40.00 3144 660.04 3068 863.92
Spice Oils &
Oleoresin 717 2285.77 892 3198.74 1132 5602.63
Note : Quantity figures are in metric tonnes and value figures are in lakhs of rupees.
1. By what percentage has the total quantity of all spices exported increased
from 1989-90 to1991-92?
(1) 42% (2) 28%
(3) 17% (4) 37%
2. How many products showed an increase in quantity exported for both the
years 1990-91 and 1991-92 over their respective previous years?
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 7
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DATA INTERPRETATION
3. If the growth rate of the value of total exports from 1989-90 to 1991-92 is
supposed to be double the average annual growth rate for the next two years
(i.e., 1992-93 and 1993-94), what will be the value of exports in 1993-94?
(1) Rs.49,750 lakhs (2) Rs.56,350 lakhs
(3) Rs.65,460 lakhs (4) Rs.42,980 lakhs
4. Which of the following statements is/are not true?
I. Ratio of the value per tonne of cardamom(S) and of cardamom (L)
deteriorated steadily from 1989-90 to 1991-92.
II. Value of other seeds per metric tonne has improved from 1990-91 to
1991-92.
III. Pepper is the single largest contributor to exports in value in all 3 years.
(1) Only statement I (2) Only statement II
(3) Only statements I and III (4) All three statements
5. The percentage increase in value per tonne of garlic from 1990-91 to 1991-92 is
(1) 145.9 (2) 97.1
(3) 20.8 (4) 120.8
A chemist has exactly four unlabeled bottles containing colourless liquid standing
on a laboratory shelf. The chemist knows that the only six liquids that the bottles
could possibly contain are pure X, pure Y, pure Z or any mixture of two of these, and
that no two bottles are filled with the same liquid. The only feasible way of testing
for the identity of the liquids is to use strips of a special white reactive paper that
turns red, blue or yellow depending on the liquids it is dipped in. The full table of
colour changes and the triggers for those changes is given below.
Red : Pure Y, Y mixed with Z.
Blue : Pure X, Pure Z, X mixed with Y.
Yellow : X mixed with Y; X mixed with Y mixed with Z.
6. If none of the four liquids turns the reactive paper yellow, each of the following
must be the contents of one of thebottles except
(1) pureX. (2) pure Y.
(3) pure Z. (4) X, Y and Z mixed together
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DATA INTERPRETATION
7. If the liquid in the first bottle tested turns the reactive paper red, and if the
liquid in the second bottle tested turns the paper yellow, then a mix of some of
the liquid from each of the first two bottles tested will turn the reactive paper
(1) red. (2) yellow.
(3) either blue or yellow. (4) either red or blue.
8. If the liquid in the first bottle tested turns the reactive paper red and the liquid
in the second bottle tested turns it blue, and if a mix of some of the liquid from
each of the first two bottles tested turns it red, then which of the following
must be true?
(1) The first bottle tested contains pure Y.
(2) The first bottle tested contains Y mixed with Z.
(3) The second bottle tested contains pure X.
(4) The second bottle tested contains pure Z.
Table A provides data about the Wind Speed Reading and the corresponding increase
in the Beaufort Number over the Beaufort Number of the immediately preceding
Wind Speed Reading. Table B gives the Sea Disturbance Number and its
corresponding Beaufort Number (given in parentheses) and the associated Average
Wave Height. Table C gives the observable wind characteristics - i.e. the common
name assigned to the wind, for the corresponding Beaufort Number.
Table A Table B
Wind Speed Increase in Sea Disturbance Average
Reading Beaufort Number Wave
(in Km/Hr) Number * (Beaufort Number) Height
1-5 1 0(0) 0
6-11 1 0(1) 0.1
12-19 2 1(2) 0.3
20-38 1 2(4) 0.4
39-49 3 3(5) 0.6
50-61 2 4(8) 1.2
62-74 3 5(10) 2.4
75-88 3 6(13) 4
89-102 2 7(16) 6
> 102 1 8(18) 9
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DATA INTERPRETATION
Table C
Beaufort Wind
Number Name
0 Calm
1 Light Air
2 Light Breeze
4 Gentle Breeze
5 Moderate
8 Fresh
10 Strong
13 Gale
16 Storm
18 or more Hurricane
* Beaufort Number is 0 for Wind Speed Reading of less than 1 km/hr and for all
wind speeds in excess of 1 km/hr, the Beaufort Number is calculated over that of
the immediate preceding wind speed reading.
9. What is the range over which the Average Wave Height can vary when the
wind speed reading varies between 20 and 74 km/hr?
(1) 0.3 - 2.4 (2) 0.6 – 4
(3) 0.1 - 6 (4) Data Inadequate
10. Which of the following is not a possible Wind Speed Reading (in km/hr) when
the wind is either Light Breeze, Gentle Breeze, Moderate, Fresh or Strong?
(1) 60 (2) 42
(3) 32 (4) 72
11. The coast guard of Bangladesh raises cautionary signal 1 for a Storm, 2 for a
Gale and 3 for a Hurricane in times of inclement weather. On 5 June 2003, the
wind speeds at Coastal Bangladesh were in excess of 94 km/hr. Which of the
following is true regarding the cautionary signal raised?
(1) The signal raised was 1. (2) The signal raised was 2.
(3) The signal raised was 3. (4) None of the above
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DATA INTERPRETATION
12. What is the increase in the Sea Disturbance Number when the Wind Speed
Reading has increased from 17 krn/hr to 83 km/hr?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 4
The radar graph shows the attendance in a class on 6 working days of a particular
week. Refer to the graph to answer the questions that follow.
Monday
100
80
60
Saturday Tuesday
40
20
Friday Wednesday
Thursday
13. What is the average attendance for the six given days?
(1) 73.8 (2) 49.6
(3) 77.2 (4) 80.83
14. The number of days on which the attendance was higher than the average for
the six given days, is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
15. If the total number of registered students is 120, then on which day was the
percentage turnout maximum?
(1) Tuesday (2) Friday
(3) Wednesday (4) Saturday
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DATA INTERPRETATION

These questions are based on the information given below.
Statistics Regarding Some of the Top Fighter Planes of the World
Machine Gun Bore Diameter (mm)

Maximum Speed* (Mach Number) Weaponry***
Number of Targets Engaged

Capacity of Machine Gun
Total Number of Missiles

Total Weight** (Tonnes)
Range of Laser-guided
(Rounds/minute)
Munitions (km)
Type of Munitions Weight (Kg) ×
Aircraft Number of Munitions
Ordinary Laser-guided
Munitions Munitions
Mig 29 1.5 8 30 1000 22 2000 × 2 1000 × 1 16 6

Mig 27 1.2 11 60 1200 20 1500 × 3 2000 × 1 20 4
Mig 25 1.1 12 40 1200 16 1200 × 4 2000 × 1 20 4
Mig 23 1 10 25 1000 18 1000 × 2 1000 × 1 14 2
Mig 21 0.8 16 25 800 16 1000 × 2 - - 2
Mig 39 2.8 20 60 1600 28 1000 × 6 2500 × 4 10 8
Mig 37 2.5 21 55 1500 26 2000 × 4 2500 × 4 12 8
Mig 35 2 25 40 1600 22 1400 × 2 2000 × 3 30 6
Mirage-2000 2.4 28 80 2000 28 1600 × 4 800 × 6 45 8
Mirage-2000Al 2.9 30 75 2200 30 1500 × 4 1000 × 8 100 10
F-16 3.2 14 35 1500 30 1500 × 1 1200 × 2 40 6
F-15 3.1 12 40 1600 30 1500 × 1 1200 × 2 40 6
J-117A 2.8 10 60 2600 16 1200 × 4 3000 × 1 25 12
Stealth 4.0 24 50 3000 20 1800 × 4 2000 × 2 80 12
Jaguar 2.0 18 30 4000 12 800 × 4 - - 4
Sea Harrier 1.3 3.8 60 3500 12 600 × 6 - - 3
Su-30 3.9 21 30 3000 3000 × 2 1000 × 4 60 8
Su-27 3.6 20 40 2500 12 3000 × 2 1000 × 4 50 8
Su-25 3.4 18 50 2200 10 2500 × 3 1000 × 2 40 6
* Speed in km/hr = Mach Number × 1200 km/hr
** Excluding weapons
*** Weaponry comprises Missiles, Ordinary Munitions and Laser-guided
Munitions.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
Total weight of aircraft

µ. (coefficient of an aircraft) =
Maximum Speed of aircraft
Total Number of Missiles of the aircraft

Fire power of an aircraft =
Number of Targets Engaged by the aircraft
16. How many types of aircraft have a maximum speed in excess of 1800 km/hr and
can also engage at most ten targets?
(1) Less than 7 (2) More than 7 but less than 9
(3) More than 9 but less than 12 (4) More than 12
17. If each missile weighs 200 kg, then what is the total weight of weaponry carried
by the aircraft having the highest µ coefficient?
(1) 1200 kg (2) 12000 kg
(3) 5200 kg (4) None of these
18. What is the maximum distance that can be covered in three hours by the
aircraft with the maximum fire power at its disposal?
(1) 3000 km (2) 3600 km
(3) 10800 km (4) None of these
19. How many types of aircraft listed in the above table qualify to be part of this
military exercise?
(1) Less than 7 (2) More than 7
(3) More than 8 but less than 11 (4) More than 11
DIRECTIONS for question 20: Answer the question on the basis of the information
given below. In Anna Nagar, languages spoken by the families living there is as
follows:
Language Number of families
Hindi 100
Tamil 70
English 46
Hindi and Tamil 30
Hindi and English 28
Tamil and English 23
Hindi, Tamil and English 18
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DATA INTERPRETATION
20. What is the number of families speaking only English in Anna Nagar?
(1) 23 (2) 13
(3) 37 (4) Cannt be determined
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
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DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 11
These questions are based on the information given below.
A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance, in terms of ranks, that
the students in six different educational institutes - AIMI, BIMI, CIMI, LIMI, KIMI
and IIMI - assigned to five different traits in their respective Deans. The traits were
Knowledge (K), Communication Skills (C), Punctuality (P), Interpersonal Skills (I),
and Vision (V). The level of similarity of an institute with any other institute is
defined as the minimum difference in the ranks assigned by the students of the two
institutes to any one of the five traits in their Deans.
For any given institute, the institute which is least similar (or most dissimilar) to it
wiil have the maximum value of level of similarity with it, while the institute which is
most similar (or least dissimilar) to it will have the minimum value of level of similarity
with it.
The following table indicates the ranks awarded by the students of the institutes to
each of the five traits.
Ranks
Trait Institute
AIMI BIMI CIMI LIMI KIMI IIMI
K 3 1 1 4 2 2
C 2 3 3 2 5
P 1 4 2 1 3 5
I 4 5 5 3 4 4
V 5 2 4 5 1 1
1. Considering the level of similarity within each of the following four pairs of
institutes, identify the odd pair of institutes.
(1) AMI and BIMI (2) CIMI and LIMI
(3) KIMI and BIMI (4) IIMI and KIMI
2. The institute which is least dissimilar to LIMI is
(1) AIMI (2) BIMI
(3) KIMI (4) CIMI
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DATA INTERPRETATION
3. Which of the following pairs of institutes is the most similar?

(1) CIMI and LIMI (2) AIMI and KIMI
(3) LIMI and KIMI (4) KIMI and BIMI
4. The Overall Similarity Index of any institute is defined as the sum total of the
levels of similarity of that institute with each of the other institutes. Which
institute has the least Overall Similarity Index?
(1) KIMI (2) IIMI
(3) AIMI (4) LIMI
The following line and bar graphs show the number, of banking centres in urban,
semi-urban and rural areas of different states in year 1969. Refer to the graphs to
answer the questions that follow.
2 40
2 20 Sem i-urban
Ru ral 1750
2 00
Number of banking centres
Urban
1 80
1 60
1 40
1 20 1020
1 00 650 620
80
60
40 460 60
20 20
0
Jammu & Kashmir
Jammu & Kashmir

Himachal Pradesh
Himachal Pradesh
Punjab
Punjab
Rajasthan
Rajasthan
Bihar
Kerala
Haryana
Kerala
Bihar
Haryana
5. If the banking centres have increased at a steady rate of 35% in all states of
India, then what will be the number of banking centers in Haryana in year
1975?
(1) 4840 (2) 4600
(3) 5630 (4) 3990
6. If Kerala Government decided to increase banking centres in rural areas @
46% per year and in semi-urban areas @ 53% per year, then what will be the
total number of banking centres in Kerala in 1973?
(1) 180 (2) 150
(3) 328 (4) 282
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DATA INTERPRETATION
7. If in 1969 the average number of banking centres in rural areas of Haryana, J & K,
Punjab, Rajasthan, Bihar, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh is 670,
then the number of banking centres in rural areas of Madhya Pradesh will be
(1) 790 (2) 400
(3) 820 (4) 500
8. In the year 1967, the Government decided to increase the banking centers
according to the population increase in particular state. If according to 1971
census, the semi-urban population of Punjab has increased by 25% from 1969,
then what will be the number of banking centres that the Government has to
increase in the year 1971 in semi-urban parts of Punjab?
(1) 22 (2) 28
(3) 50 (4) 38
9. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) Number of banking centres in semi-urban areas of Jammu & Kashmir is
equal to the number of banking centers in urban areas of Rajasthan in the
year 1969.
(2) Number of banking centres in rural areas of Bihar is equal to the number of
banking centres in urban areas of Haryana in the year 1969.
(3) Number of banking centers in rural areas of Rajasthan is almost 2.8 times
the number of banking centers in rural areas of Himachal Pradesh in the
year 1969.
(4) Number of banking centres in semi-urban areas of Himachal Pradesh is 4
times of number of banking centres in rural areas of Kerala in 1969.
These questions are based on following table, which describes the details of the
applicants in a recruitment camp held in the city of Bangalore by a software company
for their new production unit.
Male applicants Male applicants Applicants Number of Total applicants
selected as a as a percentage selected as a applicants with work
Stream percentage of of total percentage of rejected experience as a
Education female applicants applicants total applicants percentage of
selected male applicants
with work
experience
MBA 150% 50 % 10 % 90 0 250%
B.Tech 200% 60 % 30 % 14 00 150%
MCA 150% 60 % 25 % 12 00 175%
PGDCA 300% 75 % 20 % 12 00 125%
M.Sc. 100% 70 % 40 % 30 0 100%
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DATA INTERPRETATION
10. From which stream were the maximum number of female applicants selected?
(1) MCA (2) B.Tech
(3) MBA (4) PGDCA
11. How many female applicants who applied from the M.Sc. stream did not have
any work experience?
(1) 0 (2) 150
12. For how many streams were the number of applicants selected more than the
average number of applicants selected for all five steams together?
(1) 2 (2) 1
13. If the number of female applicants with work experience from the B.Tech stream
was 30, then what was the total number of applicants without any work
experience from the B.Tech stream?
(1) 90 (2) 60
(3) 1910 (4) 1850
These questions are based on the bar charts and pie charts given below.
60 STATISTICS REGARDING CAT FROM 1999 TO 2002
55
No. of Questions
50
45
40
1999 2000 2001 2002
Reading Comprehension & Verbal Ability (RC/VA)

Quantitative Ability
Data Interpretation; Data Sufficiency and Reasoning (DI/DS/AA)
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DATA INTERPRETATION
BREAK-UP OF THE QUANTITATIVE SECTION BY TEST AREA FOR

THE YEARS 1999-2002
Coordinate
Geometry/Trignometry/Statistics
Functions & Graphs
SI/CI/TD/TW
P&C and Probability
Geometry & Mensuration
AMA & PPL
ERPV
Numbers
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18
Number of Questions
1999 2000 2001 2002
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DATA INTERPRETATION
BREAK-UPOF READING COMPREHENSIONAND VERBALABILITY

SECTION (RC/VA) BYAREA
D E E
E 10% 12%
9.09%
18.18% D
C 10% D
18.18% 12%
A
C
A D A 48%
10%
18.18% 54.54% A
B 63.63% C
60%
9.09% B 16%
B 10%
9.09% B
1999 2000 2001 12% 2002
A  Reading comprehension; B  Sentence Completion;

C  Paragraph sequencing; D  Vocabulary;
E  Grammar;
BREAK-UP OF DATA INTERPRETATION/DATASUFFICIENCY / REASONING
(DI/DS/AA) SECTION BY AREA
Z Z Z
18.18% Z 20% 20%
27.27%
Y X Y
18.18% 54.54% Y X 16%
X X
20% 60%
63.63% Y 64%
18.18%
1999 2000 2001 2002
X  Data Interpretation Y  Data Sufficiency Z  Reasoning

It is also known that every correct answer fetches 1 mark and every wrong answer
fetches a penalty of 1/3 mark. Cut-off marks are the minimum marks to be achieved in
a section to pass in it. Overall cut-off marks are the minimum marks required to get a
call from the IIM’s and they are either equal to or greater than the sum of the cut-off
marks of all the sections.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
Use the following additional data for questions 14 and 15:

Ashok Trivedi wrote the CAT exam in 1999 and had attempted 12 questions in
Numbers and ERPV put together of which 9 were correct. The overall marks he got
in the above two areas is 66.66% of the cut-off marks in the Quantitative section,
which is in turn 75% of the cut-off in the RC/VA section, which in turn is 80% of the
cut-off in the DI/DS/AA section.
14. What is the over all cut-off for the paper that Ashok wrote given that it is
112.5% of the combined cut-off of all three sections put together?
(1) 51.33 (2) 54.00
(3) 45.66 (4) None of these
15. The marks obtained by Ashok in Numbers and ERPV in 1999 is what percentage
of the cut-off marks in the DI/DS/AA section?
(1) 40% (2) 33.33%
(3) 25% (4) 12.5%
16. In the given graph how many test areas have seen the maximum increase in the
number of questions asked from any one year to the next (in percentage terms)?
(Disregard infinite increases if any).
(1) less than 2 (2) more than 2 but less than 4
(3) more than 3 but less than 6 (4) more than 6
17. The number of questions asked in geometry/mensuration and functions/graphs
in 2000 and 2002 put together is how many more/less than the number of
reasoning questions asked in all exams from 1999-2002?
(1) less by 21 (2) more by 21
(3) less by 17 (4) more by 17
18. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the number of questions asked in
DS from 1999 to 2002?
(1) decrease by 20% (2) increase by 20%
(3) decrease by 25% (4) increase by 25%
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DATA INTERPRETATION

The tables given below give the statistics of crop production in A.P for the years
1998 to 2002.
Percentage distribution of the total crop production (season wise)
Season Year Kharif Rabi
1998 50 50
1999 60 40
2000 75 25
2001 52 48
2002 70 30
Percentage distribution of the total crop production in a season
Kharif Rabi
Food grains Cash crops Food grains Cash crops
1998 40 60 50 50
1999 44 56 75 25
2000 60 40 30 70
2001 50 50 80 20
2002 55 45 42 58
Percentage distribution of the total Food grain production in a season
Kharif food grains Rabi food grains
Crop Year
Rice Wheat Rice Wheat
1998 50 50 50 50
1999 40 60 60 40
2000 45 55 55 45
2001 38 62 62 38
2002 44 56 64 36
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DATA INTERPRETATION
19. If the Kharif production in 1998 was 1 million tonnes and it grew by 10% every
succeeding year, then the wheat produced in Kharif experienced the highest
percentage increase in which of the following periods?
(1) 1998-1999 (2) 1999-2000
(3) 2000-2001 (4) Cannot be determined
20. If the total crop production in 2000 is 100% more than the total crop production
in 1998, then the food grains produced in Kharif in 2000 are what percentage
more than the total Kharif crop in 1998?
(1) 10% (2) 17.5%
(3) 35% (4) None of these
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
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DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 12
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 13: are based on following information :

Following is the production capacity of an automobile Plant. The plant manufactures
Scooters, Mopeds, Motor Cycle , Passenger Cars and Jeeps.
Year Scooter Mopeds M.Cycle Cars Jeeps

1998 22,000 12,500 21,000 32,000 25,600
1999 24,750 14,750 22,750 32,500 26,000
2000 25,000 15,850 24,000 33,100 26,800
2001 28,800 17,600 23,500 31,500 25,200
2002 29,000 18,700 24,350 34,500 27,260
2003 31,000 17,000 25,500 38,000 30,780
The plant utilisation in % for Scooters, Mopeds, Motor Cycle , Passenger Cars and
Jeeps for the various year is as given below.
Year Scooter Mopeds M.Cycle Cars Jeeps

1998 75 75 87 67 54
1999 88 78 92 68 55
2000 93 82 91 69 58
2001 90 85 89 70 60
2002 87 69 90 72 55
2003 85 79 91 79 60
1. Which of the following is/are True ?

I. Less than 15,000 mopeds were manufactured in 2001.
II. 13,824 Jeeps were manufactured in year 1998.
III. 22,900 Cars were manufactured in 1999.
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DATA INTERPRETATION
IV. The number of cars manufactured in 2002 is less than number of cars
manufactured in 2001.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) All (4) Only I and II
2. If 90 % of the Jeeps manufactured in 1999 were sold at a profit of Rs 4,200 each
and the remain 10 % were sold at a profit of 3,800 each what was the total profit
from jeeps ?
(1) 5.94 Crore (2) 6.94 Crore
(3) 5.82 Crore (4) Cannot be determined.
3. How many Two wheelers in year 2000 were sold assuming all but 1000 of each
type manufactured were sold ?
(1) 56097 (2) 58087
(3) 66097 (4) 59097
4. How much was the difference in profit earned between Cars and Jeeps in year
1999 if the profit earned per Car was 2920 and profit earned per jeep was 4200.
Assume 100 % of the manufactured units were sold ?
(1) 44.72 Lakh more in cars. (2) 44.72 Lakh more in Jeeps
(3) 43.72 Lakh more in cars. (4) 43.72 Lakh more in Jeeps.
5. What was the total sales revenue earned in year 2002 assuming 100 % of the
manufactured items were sold and each manufactured unit was sold at a profit
of Rs 1000 each ?
(1) 11.78 Crore (2) 18.98 Crore
(3) 9.98 Crore (4) Cannot be determined.
6. Which one of the following were produced in largest number between year
1998 to 2003 ?
(1) Scooters (2) Passenger Cars
(3) Jeeps (4) Moped
7. The profit per unit sold for motorcycle for the year 1998 is Rs 1350. What was
the total profit from motorcycle if 100 % motorcycle produced were sold ?
(1) 2.46 Crore (2) 2.35 Crore
(3) 0.55 Crore (4) Cannot be determined
86
DATA INTERPRETATION
8. Which of the following is/are False ?

I. The total production capacity of the plant (in terms of number of vehicle)
has been constantly increasing from 1998 to 2003.
II. Mopeds always had the least production capacity compared to other
vehicles.
III. The production capacity of Motorcycle increased every year compared
to the previous year from 1999 to 2003.
IV. The production capacity of Jeeps was approximately always 20% less
(Plus or Minus 2%) than that of Cars.
(1) I, II and III (2) II and III
(3) Only III (4) Only IV
9. How many Jeeps were manufactured in year 1999 ?
(1) 15,300 (2) 14,300
(3) 14,700 (4) 15,700
10. What was profit earned from Cars in year 1999, if all the cars manufactured
were sold and each car was sold at a profit of Rs. 2920 ?
(1) 6.45 Crore (2) 6.77 Crore
(3) 6.35 Crore (4) Cannot be determined
11. The total production capacity of year 2000 (inclusive of all the vehicle) is
larger by ______ units compared to year 1998.
(1) 12,650 (2) 11,650
(3) 13,550 (4) 11,550
12. The total production of Jeeps from year 1998 to 2003 is :
(1) 92,249 (2) 95,249
(3) 92,349 (4) 92,247
13. All the scooter produced in 1998 were sold at a profit of 1200 each. If the profit
from the scooters accounted for 66 % of the total profit of the company for the
year, what was the total profit for the year ?
(1) 3.0 Crore (2) 3.1 Crore
(3) 2.9 crore (4) 3.33 Crore
87
DATA INTERPRETATION
DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 16: These questions are based on the data given
below.
Seven envelopes, each of a different colour among Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green,
Yellow, Orange and Red, were posted by a company to seven of its employees -
Anand, Anurag, Arun, Arvind, Arya, Ashok and Ashwin - not necessarily in the
same order. Each employee gets exactly one envelope. An illiterate clerk in the
company pasted the address slips on the envelopes and finally it was found that
not all the envelopes went to the employees that they were respectively intended
for. The following information was also available:
(i) Arun received the Indigo coloured envelope, while he was supposed to
get the Violet coloured envelope and Ashwin received the envelope that
was intended for him.
(ii) Arvind received the Yellow coloured envelope, which was not intended
for him and Anurag received the Red coloured envelope, which was
intended for him.
(iii) Arya received the Orange coloured envelope, which was not intended for
him while Ashok received the Blue coloured envelope.
(iv) At least three employees received the envelopes that were intended for
them.
14. Who were the employees who got the right coloured envelopes that were
intended for them?
(1) Anurag, Ashwin and Arya (2) Ashwin, Arvind and Anurag
(3) Anurag, Anand and Ashwin (4) Anurag, Ashwin and Ashok
15. If Arya was not supposed to get the Indigo coloured envelope, then who got
the envelope that was intended for Arya?
(1) Arya (2) Ashok
(3) Arvind (4) Anand
16. Which among the following statements would definitely determine the colour
of the respective envelopes intended for each of these employees?
(1) Ashok was supposed to get the Blue coloured envelope.
(2) Arvind was supposed to get the Orange coloured envelope.
(3) Arya was supposed to get the Indigo coloured envelope.
(4) Arya was supposed to get the Yellow coloured envelope.
88
DATA INTERPRETATION

These questions are based on the table given below.
The worlds top twelve wrestlers ranked 1 through 12 participated in a round-robin
tournament, where every wrestler fought every other wrestler exactly once. In the
table given below, the number in the nth row and the mth column represents the rank
of the winner of the fight between the nth ranker and the mth ranker. For every win, the
number of points that a wrestler got was either three OR the number by which the
loser’s rank was better than his rank, whichever was greater.
Table of outcomes of all the fights between the 12 wrestlers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
1 - 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 1 - 2 2 2 6 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 2 - 3 5 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 1 2 3 - 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 1 2 5 4 - 5 5 8 9 5 5 12
6 1 6 3 4 5 - 6 8 6 6 11 6
7 1 2 3 4 5 6 - 8 9 7 7 7
8 1 2 3 4 8 8 8 - 8 10 8 8
9 1 2 3 4 9 6 9 8 - 9 9 9
10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 10 9 - 10 12
11 1 2 3 4 5 11 7 8 9 10 - 11
12 1 2 3 4 12 6 7 8 9 12 11 -
17. If the player who got the maximum total number of points was declared the
winner of the tournament, then who was the winner?
(1) 1st ranker (2) 2nd ranker
(3) 3rd ranker (4) 8th ranker
18. In the tournament, which player defeated the maximum number of players
ranked better than himself?.
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 4
89
DATA INTERPRETATION
Additional information for questions 19 and 20:

It is known that the earlier table represented the outcomes of only the first round of
the tournament. After the first round, only the top four performers (in terms of
points) advanced to the second round. Also, the 3rd ranker failed a doping test
immediately after the first round and hence was disqualified, because of which the
next best performer advanced to the second round.
19. Which four players finally went through to the second round and in what
order (when arranged in the descending order of the total number of points
scored by them).
(1) 1, 2, 8, 9 (2) 1, 2, 9, 8
(3) 1, 4, 2, 8 (4) 1, 2, 4, 8
20. Considering both the first and the second rounds, what is the highest possible
total number of points that any wrestler could have scored? (Assume that in
the second round also everyone fought exactly once with everyone else, but
the points awarded in the second round were exactly and correspondingly
double of that awarded in the first round).
(1) 52 (2) 55
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
90
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 13
POWER TO THE PEOPLE OF INDIA
G e n e r a ti n g C a pa c i ty P e r C api ta C o n s u m ptio n
100 500
90 450
80 400
70 350
(in '000 MW)
60 300
50 250
40 200
30 150
20 100
10 50
0 0
1950- 1960- 1970- 1980- 1990- 1995- 1950- 1960- 1970- 1980- 1990- 1995-
51 61 71 81 91 96 51 61 71 81 91 96
1. In which decade was the highest percentage increase in generating capacity?

(1) 1950-51 to 1960-61 (2) 1960-61 to 1970-71
(3) 1970-71 to 1980-81 (4) 1980-81 to 1990-91
2. In which decade was the highest percentage increase in per capita
consumption?
(1) 1980-81 to 1990-91 (2) 1960-61 to 1970-71
(3) 1970-71 to 1980-81 (4) None of these
3. The percentage in generating capacity in the decade 1980-81 to 1990-91 was
approximately double the percentage increase in per capita consumption in
which decade?
(1) 1950-51 to 1960-61 (2) 1960-61 to 1970-71
(3) 1970-71 to 1980-81 (4) 1980-81 to 1990-91
4. In which decade did generating capacity exactly double?
(1) 1960-61 to 1970-71 (2) 1980-81 to 1990-91
(3) 1970-71 to 1980-81 (4) 1950-51 to 1960-61
5. Which decade witnessed the second highest percentage increase in per capita
consumption?
(1) 1950-51 to 1960-61 (2) 1960-61 to 1970-71
(3) 1970-71 to 1980-81 (4) 1980-81 to 1990-91
91
DATA INTERPRETATION
WORLD TEA PRODUCTION

P ri ce o f t e a i n th e i n t e rn a t i o n a l
60 m a rk e t
70
64 66
50 60
54
40 50 48 52
million kg
US cents/kg
40
30
30
20
20
10 10
0 0
1980- 1981- 1982- 1983- 1984- 1980- 1981- 1982- 1983- 1984-
81 82 83 84 85 81 82 83 84 85
6. The average price of tea in the period 1980-81 to 1984-85 is :

(1) 51 cents (2) 57 cents
(3) 50 cents (4) 54 cents
7. The value of the world production of tea declined from 1981-82 to 1982-83 by:
(1) 22.2% (2) 28%
(3) 23.5% (4) 17%
8. In value terms the world’s tea industry was at its highest point in the year:
(1) 1980-81 (2) 1981-82
(3) 1983-84 (4) 1984-85
9. In India’s share of the world’s tea production in 1984-85 was 28% and India
exported 47% of the tea produced, then what was the quantity of tea (in million
kg) exported by India during 1984-85?
(1) 10 (2) 18
(3) 8 (4) 5
10. Which of the following statements are true?
(I) The international price of tea changed in the opposite manner as the
world’s tea production in period shown.
(II) After 1982-83, the tea industry the world over has revived.
(III) 1982-83, was the worst year of the tea industry.
(1) III only (2) I,II & III
(3) II & III (4) I & III
92
DATA INTERPRETATION
The line graph below gives the cost of Apples and Bananas (in Rupees) for the
period 1991 to 1997.
25
20
15
In Rs.
10
0
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997
Cost 1 kg of ap p les Cost of 1 doz en bananas
The Table below give the weight of 1 dozens bananas (in kgs.) for the period 1991 to
1997.
Weight of dozen bananas (in kgs.)
1991 0.5
1992 0.8
1993 1.0
1994 1.1
1995 1.2
1997 1.2
11. If pay equal amounts of kg of apples and 1 kg of bananas, I bought them in

(1) 1993 (2) 1994
(3) 1997 (4) 1997 or 1993
12. In 1992, how much more does 1 kg of banana cost as against 1 kg apples?
(1) 15.4% (2) 16.5%
(3) 13.4% (4) 12.38%
13. If the costs were to rise at the same rate, how much would 1 kg of apples cost
in the year 2005?
(1) Rs. 24 (2) Rs. 26
(3) Rs. 28 (4) Rs.32
93
DATA INTERPRETATION
14. What is the percentage increase in the cost of 1 kg of banana between 1991
and 1997?
(1) 20 (2) 100/3
(3) 50 (4) No the these
15. What the average cost of 1 dozen bananas during the given period?
(1) Rs. 14 (2) Rs. 16
(3) Rs. 15 (4) Rs. 17
16. What is the average cost of 1 kg of apple during the given period?
(1) Rs. 14.50 (2) Rs. 15
(3) Rs. 16 (4) Rs. 16.50
Statewise breakup of new projects outlay
1998-99 1999-2000
Others Others
10% AP Maharashtra 15%
Maharashtra 25% AP
5%
30% 3%
MP
10%
MP
15%
UP
Gujarat 15%
UP 20% TN
TN Gujarat
20% 2%
5% 25%
Statewise breakup of no. of new projects

30
Number of projects
25
20
15
10
5
0
Maharashtra UP Gujarat MP AP TN Others
1998-99 1999-2000
94
DATA INTERPRETATION
17. In 1999-2000, in how many states other than the ‘other’ states, did the project
outlay per project decline ? (Assume no change total project outlay)
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
18. If in 1999-2000 the total project outlay increased by 20 percent, find the
percentages increase in MP’s outlay.
(1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 50 (4) 80
19. If in 1999-2000 the total project outlay increased by Rs. 200 crore and that of
UP remained unchanged.
Find total project outlay in 1998-99 in Rs. crore.
(1) 600 (2) 320
(3) 350 (4) 420
20. If in 1999-2000, the total project outlay of Gujarat increased by x percent, find
the percent increase in the total outlay.
(1) 100-5x/4 (2) 5x-100/4
(3) 100-4x/5 (4) 4x-100/5
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
95
DATA INTERPRETATION
EXERCISE – 14
1. If 50% of commission are savings, what is the difference between the amount
contributed to it in January and April?
(1) 1000 (2) 2000
2. He wanted to purchase a second hand car of Rs. 35,000 for which he had Rs.
10500 in December. He deposited 50% of his savings towards the purchase of
the car. He still needs Rs. x at the end of June of purchase the car, what is x ?
(1) 21000 (2) 20780
(3) 3780 (4) 2300
3. If he would have earned his highest commission in the month of his lowest
salary, how much would have been his expenditure in assets?
(1) 2100 (2) 2000
(3) 2200 (4) 2300
4. If he would have received his lowest commission in the month of his highest
salary, by how much would his food expenses suffer?
(1) 1500 (2) 300
5. If he received his highest commission in the highest salary month, what would
have been the difference in expenses in clothing and miscellanceous?
(1) 1260 (2) 1040
The table below gives the total number of villages in a country (in ‘000) over a
period of time.
Year Number of villages Year Number of villages
1980 540 1987 578
1981 560 1988 600
1982 565 1989 605
1983 570 1990 615
1984 571 1991 618
1985 576 1992 620
1986 577
96
DATA INTERPRETATION
1980 1990
More than Rs. 15001 to More than
Rs. 15001 to
Rs. 20000 Rs. 20000 Rs. 20000
Rs. 20000
10% 15% 20%
20%
Less than
Rs. 10001 to Rs. 10000 Less than
Rs. 15000 30% Rs. 10001 to
Rs. 10000
40% Rs. 15000
20%
45%
The following pie-charts gives the distribution of villages by per capita income. (Per
capita income of a village is defined as total income per annum of the village divided
by the total number of people in that village).
6. What was the simple average annual increase in the number of villages (from
1980 to 1992)?
(1) 1.25% (2) 1.07%
(3) 1.875% (4) 2.1%
7. What was the increase in number of villages that had above Rs. 20000 from the
period 1980 to 1990 (in thousands)?
(1) 46 (2) 70
(3) 69 (4) 100
8. What was the increase in average per village income from the period 1980 to
1990?
(1) Rs.500 (2) Rs.1500
(3) Rs. 2000 (4) cannot be determined
DIRECTIONS: for questions 9 to 12: These questions are based on the following
table.
COMPOSITION AND PERFORMANCE OFA CERTAIN FOOD PRICE INDEX
Item Weightage Price Price Price

in Index on 1/1/1992 on 1/7/1992 on 1/1/1993
Rice 30% 11.50 11.20 11.70
Wheat 25% 7.50 8.70 9.80
Oil 15% 34.00 36.75 36.50
Sugar 10% 8.90 10.40 12.50
Milk 15% 6.90 7.20 8.70
Pulses 5% 15.70 19.20 21.80
97
DATA INTERPRETATION
(The prices of Oil and Milk are in Rs. per litre and that of all the other items are in
Rs. per kg.)
The value of the index on any given date is proportional to the sum of the product
of the price of each item on that date and the respective weightage of that product
in the index, for all the items given above.
9. If the value of the index was 250 on 1st January 1992, what was its value on
1st January 1993?
(1) 242 (2) 248
(3) 266 (4) 287
10. The average annual increase in the price of wheat, estimated solely on the
basis of the increase in the price of wheat in the first half of 1992, is
(1) 32% (2) 12%
(3) 16% (4) 24%
11. Which item has shown the maximum percentage increase in its price during
the year 1992?
(1) Wheat (2) Oil
(3) Sugar (4) Pulses
12. In a certain month, a household consumes 70 kg of the food grains given
above (rice + wheat). 20 kg of pulses, 30 litres of milk and 6 litres of oil. If the
difference between the quantities of rice and wheat bought is at most 30 kgs,
then what is the least possible expenditure for the month on these provisions,
considering the prices as on 1st January, 1993?
(1) Rs. 1,314 (2) Rs. 1,567
(3) Rs. l,429 (4) Rs. 1,659
DIRECTIONS: for questions 13 to 16: Each question is followed by two statements
A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions.
Choose (1) if the question can be answered by any one of the statements alone,
but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.
Choose (2) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose (3) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together,
but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose (4) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements
together.
98
DATA INTERPRETATION
13. There are 5 members in Sharma family and all of them use the only toilet in the
house in the morning as per a defined sequence. In what sequence does Bunty
get the chance to use the toilet in the morning?
A: There are as many people using the toilet after Bunty as there are before
Bunty uses it.
B: Bunty gets to use the toilet only after all other members have used it.
14. Both Mr. and Mrs. Verma go for a morning walk to the nearby park every
morning. However, both do not go together on all days of the week. Each of
them goes for a morning walk for 4 days per week. Mr. Sharma alone goes for
a walk on Monday, Wednesday and Friday. Mrs. Sharma goes for the morning
walk on Tuesday, Thursday and Saturday. Both of them together go for a
morning walk on Sunday. How many hours does Mr. Sharma walk during his
morning walk per week?
A: Mr. Sharma walks for 0.75 hours per day when he goes for morning walk
alone.
B: Mrs. Sharma walks for 0.50 hours per day when she goes for morning walk
alone and 1.25 hours when she goes for a walk together with Mr. Sharma.
15. Sapna runs a friendship club on the 10th floor of a multi-storeyed building.
The lift in this building has a different stop sequence on different days of the
week. On which days of the week should Sapna keep her club open, if the club
members visit the club only on those days when the lift stops at the 10th floor?
A: The lift stops on only odd-numbered floors on Monday, Tuesday and
Wednesday.
B: The ml iiops on floors divisible by 3 or 5 on Thursday and Friday.
16. The volume of water in a swimming pool at the Sports Complex depends on the
expected number of people using the pool in different months of the year.
What is the volume of water in the swimming pool in the month of December?
A: The number of people expected to use the pool in December will be the
lowest and will be 25.
B: The maximum number of people who can use the pool is 95 and the volume
of water in the pool is reduced by 20 cc for a reduction of each user in the
pool.
99
DATA INTERPRETATION
DIRECTIONS: for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below. Six ladies are travelling in a train together. They are sitting
in one block facing each other, three on a side. Each has written a book in the area of
her occupation, and everyone is reading a book written by one of them (not their
own). No two persons are reading the same book. Now understand the following:
(a) Aishwarya is reading mathematics in a corner. She does not have interest
in psychology.
(b) Bipasha is reading a book authored by the person opposite her.
(c) Champi is sitting between the mathematician and the chemist, and is
reading a book on biology.
(d) Dola is sitting opposite the biologist and is reading a geology book.
(e) The mathematician is sitting opposite the psychologist.
(f) Geeta is sitting next to the geologist and is reading a chemistry book.
(g) Ms. Farah is sitting in a corner, next to the astronomer.
17. Who sits opposite to Champi?
(1) Aishwarya (2) Bipasha
(3) Geeta (4) Dola
18. Which book is Ms. Farah reading?
(1) Psychology (2) Chemistry
(3) Astronomy (4) Biology
19. Aishwarya is
(1) an astronomer (2) a geologist
(3) a biologist (4) a psychologist
20. Which of the pair of girls sitting opposite to each other is not true?
(1) Aishwarya – Dola (2) Bipasha – Champi
(3) Geeta – Ms. Farah (4) None of these
Score Table
+1 –1/3
20
100
DATA INTERPRETATION
ANSWERS EXERCISE – 1
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (4)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (2)
16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (3)
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (4)
16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (3)
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (2)
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2)
6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (2)
16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (4)
101
DATA INTERPRETATION
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (2)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (1)
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (1)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (2)
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (4)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (3)
102
DATA INTERPRETATION
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (2)
16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (5) 19. (4) 20. (1)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3)
6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (2)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (2)
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (4)
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4)
6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (3)
16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1)
103
DATA INTERPRETATION
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2)
6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (4)
16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (3)
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (4)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (4)
104

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DATA

This book is a part of set, not be sold separately.

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5:

Platform Development Testing

1. The percentage of employees working on VB 6.0 is

6. Which of the following observations could be wrong?

Sl. Station, Number Passengers Male Freight Grade

Total sales Total cost Fixed cost

Mutual Funds Three Month Annual

13. On Day 1, Bentley was sold to

Number of licence holders Number of licence holders

Number of licence holders Number of licence holders

1. The number of newly issued licences to the Engineering Industries between

Young People Middle-aged People

A : 10 years to below 25 years, B : 25 years to below 45 years, C : 45 years and above.

GD1 GD2 GD3 GD4 GD5 GD6

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Answer these questions on the basis of the

Country PCE (billion $) CCE as % of PCE*

* All cards are used only for PCE

DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 8:

7. A group of people consisting of 3 men who can help in making Camshaft, 4

Banks : Net Loss 95-96

13. Which bank showed maximum deviation from average loss?

Name of Type Income Fee Credit Details

DIRECTIONS: Answer questions 1 to 15 on the basis of information given below:

4. I. Ajay paid the maximum of the 5 personnel.

12. What is the value of X?

Year Category 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005

1. The percentage share of the advertising revenue of which of the following

(3) Could be option (1) or (2)

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4:

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8:

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12:

 Persons likely to invest = Persons somewhat likely to invest + Persons

4. The amount invested in Petrochemical sector exceeds the amount invested

Sector Group A + Group A

The price (in Rs.) for various shares is as follows

Company As on 01.01.2000 As on 01.01.2001

18. What is the amount invested in Electronics companies of group A+ according

19. If the amount invested in Petrochemical companies of Group A + is equally

S PEC IAL C AT EGO RY S TAT ES

5. Six puppies - K, L, M, S, T, U - must each be scheduled for examination by a

Year State 2000 1999 1998 1997

NATURAL GROWTH RATE

INFANT MORTALITY RATE

Year State 2000 1999 1998 1997

Note: (1) Natural Growth rate = Birth rate - Death rate.

DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 19:

Machine Gun Bore Diameter (mm)

Number of Targets Engaged

Total Number of Missiles

Mig 29 1.5 8 30 1000 22 2000 × 2 1000 × 1 16 6

Total weight of aircraft

Total Number of Missiles of the aircraft

3. Which of the following pairs of institutes is the most similar?

Jammu & Kashmir

60 STATISTICS REGARDING CAT FROM 1999 TO 2002

Reading Comprehension & Verbal Ability (RC/VA)

BREAK-UP OF THE QUANTITATIVE SECTION BY TEST AREA FOR