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St. Paul University Philippines d. Stored at room temperature after

centrifugation
Tuguegarao City, Cagayan 3500 9. A 45 yr old woman has fasting serum glucose of
95mg/dL and a 2hour post prandial glucose
SCHOOL OF HEALTH SCIENCES concentration of 105 mg/dL. The statement which
Department Of Medical Technology best describes the patients fasting serum glucose is:
a. Normal; reflecting glycogen breakdown by
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY the liver
-------------------------------------------------------------------------- b. Normal; reflecting glycogen breakdown by
1. In flame emission photometry, a photon of light with a the skeletal muscle
wavelength specific for a given element is emitted c. Abnormal; indicating diabetes mellitus
when: d. Abnormal; indicating hypoglycaemia
a. An orbital electron is raised higher energy 10. Which of the following glucose methods should not be
state used during administration of an oral xylose
b. An excited orbital electron returns to the absorption test?
ground state a. Glucose oxidase – colorimetric
c. The element absorbs UV light b. Glucose oxidase – polarographic
d. The bonds in the molecules vibrate c. Glucose dehydrogenase
2. The current reference method for cholesterol assay d. hexokinase
is: 11. A patient with type I, insulin dependent diabetes
a. Abell-Kendall mellitus has the following results:
b. Abell-Levy and Brodie method Test Patient Reference range
c. Modified van Handel and Zilmersmith FBS 150mg/dL 70-110 mg/dL
d. Liebermann-Burchardt HBA1C 8.5% 4-6%
3. The following is true about centrifuge EXCEPT: Fructosamine 2.5 mmol/L 2.0-2.9 mmol/L
a. Centrifugal force depends on three variables: a. “steady state” of metabolic control
mass speed and radius b. State of flux, progressively worsening
b. The speed of a centrifuge is checked using metabolic control
sphygmomanometer c. Improving state of metabolic control as
c. Centrifuge are clean of any spills or debris indicated by fructosamine
daily d. State of flux as indicated by fasting glucose
d. The centrifuge cover should remain closed level
until the centrifuge has come to a come to a 12. In using ion-exchange chromatographic methods,
complete stop to avoid any aerosol falsely increased levels of HBA1C might be
contamination demonstrated in the presence of:
4. Which of the following error-example is a. Iron deficiency anemia
INCORRECTLY matched? b. Pernicious anemia
a. Systematic error – sample stability c. Thalassemias
b. Random error – changes in the standard d. Hgb S
material 13. Blood samples were collected at the beginning of an
c. Systematic error – improper calibration exercise class and after thirty minutes of aerobic
d. Random error – mislabelling a sample activity. Which of the following would be most
5. A pipette with a blub close to the delivery tip is used consistent with the post-exercise sample?
for viscous fluids and is called a: a. Normal lactic acid, low pyruvate
a. Mohr pipette b. Low lactic acid, elevated pyruvate
b. Volumetric pipet c. Elevated lactic acid, low pyruvate
c. Lewis-Dahn pipette d. Elevated lactic acid, elevated pyruvate
d. Ostwald-Folin pipette 14. The following results are from a 21 year old patient
6. The preparation of a patient for standard glucose with a back injury who appears otherwise healthy:
tolerance testing should include: Whole blood glucose: 77mg/dL
a. A high carbohydrate diet for 3days Serum glucose: 88 mg/dL
b. A low carbohydrate diet for 3 days CSF glucose: 56 mg/dL
c. Fasting for 48hours prior to testing The best interpretation of these results that:
d. Bed rest for 3days a. The whole blood and serum values are
7. If a fasting glucose was 90mg/dL, which of the expected but the CSF value is elevated
following 2-hour post prandial glucose results would b. The whole blood glucose value should be
closely represent normal glucose metabolism? higher than the serum value
a. 55mg/dL c. All values are consistent with a normal
b. 100mg/dL healthy individual
c. 180mg/dL d. The serum and whole blood values should
d. 260mg/dL be identical
8. CSF for glucose assay should be: 15. The following blood gas result were obtained:
a. Refrigerated pH 7.18
b. Analyzed immediately pO2 86 mmHg
c. Heated at 56⁰C pCO2 60 mmHg
 Page 2 of 8

O2 saturation 92% b. respiratory acidosis

HCO3 7921 mEq/L c. metabolic alkalosis
TCO2 23 mEq/L d. metabolic acidosis
BE -8.0 mEq/L 22. Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations
a. Fever in blood pH and CO2 content due to changes in:
b. Uremia a. Bohr effect
c. Emphysema b. O2 content
d. Dehydration c. Bicarbonate buffer
16. Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring d. Carbonic anhydrase
60-120 seconds to reach equilibrium include the: 23. Quantitation of Na and K by Ion-Selective electrode is
a. Diffusion characteristics of the membrane the standard method because:
b. Actual PO2 a. Dilution is required for flame photometry
c. Type of calibrating standard b. There is no lipoprotein interference
d. Potential of the polarizing mercury cell c. Of advances in electrochemistry
17. A 68 year old man arrives in the emergency room d. Of the absence of an internal standard
with glucose level of 722 mg/dL and serum acetone of 24. What battery test is most useful in evaluating an
4+ undiluted. An arterial blood gas from this patient is Anion Gap of 22mEq/L?
likely to be: a. Ca++, Mg++, PO-4, and pH
a. Low pH b. BUN, creatinine, salicylate and methanol
b. High pH c. AST, ALT, LD and amylase
c. Low pO2 d. Glucose, CK, myoglobin and cryoglobulin
d. High pO2 25. The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a
18. A patient is admitted to the emergency room in a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate
state of metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following and:
would be consistent with this diagnosis? a. Sodium
a. High TCO2, increased HCO3 b. Potassium
b. Low TCO2, increased HCO3 c. Calcium
c. High TCO2, decreased H2CO3 d. Chloride
d. Low TCO2, decreased H2CO3 26. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma
19. Metabolic acidosis is described as a(n): cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic
a. Increased in CO2 content and pCO2 with pressure?
decreased pH a. Chloride
b. Decrease in CO2 content with an increased b. Calcium
in pH c. Potassium
c. Increased in CO2 with an increased in pH d. Sodium
d. Decreased in CO2 content and pCO2 with a 27. Which of the following drugs of abuse are classified
decreased pH as stimulants:
20. A blood gas sample was sent to the lab on ice, and a 1. metamphetamine hydrochloride
2. cocaine
bubble was present in the syringe. The blood had
3. nicotine
been exposed to room air for at least 30 minutes. The 4. marijuana
following change in blood gases will occur: A. 1 only
a. CO2 content increased/ pCO2 decreased B. 1 and 2
b. CO2 content and pO2 increased / pH C. 1, 2 and 3
increased D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. CO2 content and pCO2 decreased / pH 28. A patient with myeloproliferative disorder has the
decreased following values:
d. pO2 increased/ HCO3 decreased Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
21. The following laboratory results were obtained: Hematocrit 38%
Serum electrolytes Arterial Blood WBC 30 x 103/uL
Sodium: 136 mEq/L pH: 7.32 Platelets 1000 x 103/uL
Potassium: 4.4 mEq/L pCO: 279 mmHg Serum Na 140 mEq/L
Chloride: 92 mEq/L Serum K 7 mEq/L
Chloride: 92 mEq/L
Bicarbonate: 40 mEq/L The serum K should be confirmed by:
a. Repeat testing of the original serum
These results are most compatible with: b. Testing freshly drawn serum
a. respiratory alkalosis c. Testing heparinised plasma
d. Atomic absorption spectrometry
 Page 3 of 8

29. A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L is obtained. Before d. Stored at room temperature until tested
reporting the results, the first step the technologist 36. In jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with:
should take is to: a. Alkaline sulfasalazine solution to produce an
a. Check the serum for hemolysis orange – yellow complex
b. Rerun the test b. Potassium iodide to form a reddish – purple
c. Check the age of the patient complex
d. Do nothing, simply report out the result c. Sodium nitroferricyanide to yield a reddish –
30. Which of the following is true about direct ion brown color
selective electrodes for electrolytes? d. Alkaline picrate solution to yield an orange –
a. Whole blood specimens are acceptable red complex
b. Elevated lipids cause falsely decreased 37. Technical problems encountered during the collection
results of an amniotic fluid specimen caused doubt as to
c. Elevated proteins cause falsely decreased whether the specimen was amniotic in origin. Which
results one of the following procedures would best establish
d. Elevated platelets cause falsely increased that the fluid is amniotic in origin?
results a. Measurement of absorbance at 450nm
31. A sweat chloride result of 55 mEq/L and sweat b. Creatinine measurement
sodium of 52 mEq/L were obtained on a patient who c. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
has a history of respiratory problems. The best d. Human amniotic placental lactogen (HPL)
interpretation of these results is: 38. Oligoclonal bans are present on electrophoresis of
a. Normal concentrated CSF and also on concurrently tested
b. Normal sodium and an abnormal chloride serum of the same patient. The proper interpretation
test should be repeated is:
c. Abnormal results a. Diagnostic for primary CNS tumor
d. Borderline results, the test should be b. Diagnostic for multiple sclerosis
repeated c. CNS involvement by acute leukemia
32. The electrophoretic pattern of plasma sample as d. Nondiagnostic for multiple sclerosis
compared to a serum sample shows a: 39. Refer to the following laboratory results:
a. Broad prealbumin peak Patient values reference values (g/dL)
b. Sharp fibrinogen peak Total protein 8.9 6.0 – 8.0
c. Diffuse pattern because of the presence of Albumin 4.8 3.6 – 5.2
anticoagulants Alpha 1 0.3 0.1 – 0.4
Alpha 2 0.7 0.1 – 1.0
d. Decreased globulin fraction
Beta 0.8 0.5 – 1.2
33. At pH of 8.6 the gamma globulins move toward the
Gamma 2.3 0.6 – 1.6
cathode, despite the fact that they are negatively
charged. What is this phenomenon called? The serum protein electrophoresis pattern is
a. Reverse migration consistent with:
b. Molecular sieve a. Cirrhosis
c. Endosmosis b. Acute inflammation
d. Migratory inhibition factor c. Monoclonal gammopathy
34. A patient’s blood was drawn at 8AM for a serum iron d. Polyclonal gammopathy (eg, chronic
determination. The result was 85 ug/dL. A repeat inflammation)
specimen was drawn at 8PM; the serum was stored 40. Total iron binding capacity measures the serum iron
at 4C and run the next morning. The result was transporting capacity of:
40ug/dL. These results are most likely due to: a. Haemoglobin
a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Ceruloplasmin
b. Improper storage of the specimen c. Transferrin
c. Possible liver damage d. Ferritin
d. The time of day the second specimen was 41. A patient’s blood was drawn at 8AM for serum iron
drawn determination. The result was 85 ug/dL. A repeat
35. To assure an accurate ammonia level result, the specimen was drawn at 8PM; the serum was stored
specimen should be: at 4C and run the next morning. The result was 40
a. Incubated at 37C prior to testing ug/dL. These results are most likely due to:
b. Spun and separated immediately, tested as a. Iron deficiency anemia
routine b. Improper storage of the specimen
c. Spun, separated, iced and tested c. Possible liver damage
immediately
 Page 4 of 8

d. The time of day the second specimen was a. Incomplete precipitation of LDL-C
drawn b. Coprecipitation of HDL-C and LDL-C
42. The following bilirubin results are obtained on a c. Inaccuarate protein estimation of HDL-C
patient: d. A small concentration of apo-B containing
Day 1: 4.3 mg/dL lipoproteins after precipitation
Day 2: 4.6 mg/dL 48. A 1-year-old girl with hyperlipoproteinemia and lipase
Day 3: 4.5 mg/dL deficiency has the following lipid profile:
Day 4: 2.2 mg/dL Cholesterol 300 mg/dL
Day 5: 4.4 mg/dL LDL increased
Day 6: 4.5 mg/dL HDL decreased
Given that the controls were within range each day, Triglycerides 200 mg/dL
what is a probable explanation for the result on day Chylomicrons present
4? A serum specimen from this patient that was
a. No explanation necessary refrigerated overnight would most likely be:
b. Serum, not plasma, was used for testing a. Clear
c. Specimen had prolonged exposure to light b. Cloudy
d. Specimen was hemolyzed c. Creamy layer over cloudy serum
43. The principle of the tablet test for bilirubin in urine or d. Creamy layer over clear serum
feces is: 49. A fasting serum sample from an asymptomatic 43-
a. The reaction between bile and 2,4- year old woman is examined visually and chemically
dichloronitrobenzene to a yellow color with the following results:
b. The liberation of oxygen by bile to oxidize Initial appearance of serum: milky
ortholidine to a blue-purple color
c. Chemical coupling of bile with a diazonium
salt to form a brown color Triglyceride level: 2,000 mg/dL
Cholesterol level: 550 mg/dL
d. Chemical coupling of bilirubin with diazonium
This sample contains predominantly:
salt to form purple color
a. Chylomicrons, alone
44. Serial bilirubin determinations are charted below:
b. Chylomicrons and very low density
Day Collected Assayed Result
lipoproteins
1 7 AM 8 AM 14.0 mg/dL
c. Very low density lipoproteins and low density
2 7AM 6PM 9.0 mg/dL
lipoproteins
3 6AM 8AM 15.0 mg/dL
d. High density lipoproteins
50. Chylomicrons are present in which of the following
The best explanation for the result is:
dyslipedemias?
a. Sample hemolysis and haemoglobin
a. Familial hypercholesterolemia
deterioration
b. Hypertriglyceridemia
b. Sample exposure to light
c. Deficiency of lipoprotein lipase activity
c. Sample left in warm location
d. Familial hypoalphalipoprotenemia
d. Reagent deterioration
51. Blood received in the laboratory for blood gas
45. A 21 year old man with nausea, vomiting, and
analysis must meet which of the following
jaundice has the following laboratory findings:
requirements?
a. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, probably
a. On ice, thin fibrin strands only, no air
due to hemolysis
bubbles
b. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, probably
b. On ice, no clots, fewer than 4 air bubble
due to liver damage
c. On ice, no clots, no air bubbles
c. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, probably due
d. Room temperature, no clots, no air bubbles
to biliary tract disease
52. After a difficult venipuncture requiring prolonged
d. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, probably due
application of the tourniquet, the serum K was found
to hepatocellular obstruction
to be 6.8 mEq/L. The best course of action is to:
46. In which of the following disease state is conjugated
a. Repeat the testing using the same specimen
bilirubin a major serum component?
b. Adjust the value based on the current serum
a. Biliary obstruction
Na
b. Hemolysis
c. Repeat the test using freshly drawn serum
c. Neonatal jaundice
d. Cancel the test
d. Erythroblastosis fetalis
53. Serum from a patient with metastatic carcinoma of the
47. The most consistent analytical error involved in the
prostate was separated from the clot and stored at
routine determination of HDL-C is caused by:
 Page 5 of 8

room temperature. The following results were d. Sodium

obtained: 59. Arterial blood that is collected in a heparinised syringe
Patient value reference range but exposed to room air would be most consistent
Ca++ 10.8 8.8 -10.3 mg/dL with the changes in which of the following
LD 420 50-150 U/L specimens?
Acid phosphatase 0.1 0 – 5.5 U/L Specimen pO2 pCO2 pH
A elevated decreased elevated
The technician should repeat the: B decreased elevated decreased
a. LD using diluted serum C unchanged elevated unchanged
b. Acid phosphatase with freshly drawn serum D decreased decreased decreased
c. LD with fresh serum a. Specimen A
d. Tests using plasma b. Specimen B
54. A lipemic serum is separated and frozen at -20C for c. Specimen C
assay at a later date. One week later, prior to d. Specimen D
performing an assay for triglycerides, the specimen 60. Specimen for blood gas determination should be
should be: drawn into syringe containing:
a. Warmed to 37C and mixed thoroughly a. No preservative
b. Warmed at 15C and centrifuged b. Heparin
c. Transferred to glycerated test tube c. EDTA
d. Discarded and new specimen obtained d. Oxalate
55. The different water content of erythrocytes and 61. Which of the following serum constituents is unstable
plasma makes true glucose concentration in whole if a blood specimen is left standing at room
blood a function of the: temperature for 8 hours before processing?
a. Hematocrit a. Cholesterol
b. Leukocyte count b. Triglyceride
c. Erythrocyte count c. Creatinine
d. Erythrocyte indices d. Glucose
56. In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, 62. In monitoring glomerular filtration, which of the
sodium fluoride: following tests has the highest sensitivity?
a. Serves as coenzyme of hexokinase a. Urine sodium
b. Prevents reactivity of non-glucose reducing b. BUN/creatinine ratio
substances c. Creatinine clearance
c. Precipitates proteins d. Urea clearance
d. Inhibits glycolysis 63. A 45 year old male of average height and weight was
57. As part of hyperlipidemia screening program, the admitted to the hospital for renal function studies. He
following results were obatained on a 25 year old had the following laboratory results:
woman 6 hours after eating: Urine creatinine 120 mg/dL
Triglycerides 260 mg/dL Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
Cholesterol 120 mg/dL Total urine volume in 24 hours: 1800/mL
Which of the following is the best interpretation of Calculate the creatinine clearance for this patient in
these results? mL/min.
a. Both results are normal, and not affected by a. 100
the recent meal b. 144
b. Cholesterol is normal, but triglycerides are c. 156
elevated, which may be attributed to the d. 225
recent meal 64. Which of the following methods is susceptible to the
c. Both results are elevated, indicating a solvent displacing effect that results in falsely
metabolic problem in addition to the non decreased electrolyte values?
fasting state a. Indirect Ion-Selective Electrode
d. Both results are below normal despite the b. Direct ion-selective electrode
recent meal, indicating a metabolic problem c. Spectrophotometric
58. Blood was collected in a serum separator tube on a d. Fluorescence
patient who has been fasting since midnight. The time 65. To detect barbiturate abuse when nalyzing urine
of collection was 7AM. The laboratory test which specimens, immunoassay is themethod of choice for
should be recollected is: screening. The method of choice for confirmation is:
a. Triglycerides a. Nephelometry
b. Iron b. Thin-layer chromatography
c. LD c. Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry
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d. Ultraviolet absorption spectroscopy b. Adenylate kinase produce more ATP than

66. An automated method for measuring chloride which ADP
generates silver ions in the reaction is: c. Creatine kinase is very high in the red blood
cells
a. Coulometry
d. of the activators released into the serum
b. Mass spectroscopy 74. The widely recognized criteria for the diagnosis of
c. Chromatography Myocardial infarction are those of the World Health
d. Polarography Organization, which requires the presence of two of
67. How many grams of NaCl are needed to prepare 0.4L the following three features. Which of the following
of a 4.0M NaCl (MW=58)? features primarily suggest Myocardial infarction?
a. 9.28g a. Prolonged chest pain
b. 2.98g b. Esophageal reflux
c. 1.60g c. ECG changes
d. 92.8g d. Abnormal cardiac markers
68. LD is often elevated in Pneumocystis carinii e. Unstable angina
pneumonia, while it is often normal in most other 75. The activities of serum enzymes AST and ALT are
forms of pneumonia. markedly increased in:
Hemolytic anemia, megaloblastic anemia and renal a. Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
cortical diseases such as renal infarcts and renal b. Acute Hepatitis
carcinoma cause LD “flip” pattern. c. Alcoholic Cirrhosis
a. Both statement is true d. Metastatic Hepatic Carcinoma
b. First statement is true; Second statement is 76. Which of the following enzyme/s is/are bound to
false plasma membrane?
c. First statement is false; Second statement is a. CK
true b. AST
d. Both statement is false c. GGT
69. Which of the following best describes GAMMA- d. A and B
CARBOXYLATION OF GLUTAMIC ACID? e. B and C
a. It is needed in the synthesis of 77. Which of the following characterizes the pattern of
Ceruloplasmin. secretion of Creatine kinase in acute myocardial
b. It is involved in the activation of Vitamin K- infarction?
dependent coagulation factors. a. It starts to rise in 8-12 hours after onset,
c. It is essential for the production of bile acids. reaches peak in 24-48 hours, and returns to
d. It is important in drug metabolism. normal in 7-12 days.
70. Alkaline phosphatase is increased in both b. It starts to rise in 6-8 hours after onset,
hepatobiliary and bone diseases. Which of the reaches peak in 24 hours, and returns to
following statements would help make a differential normal in 5 days.
diagnosis using the following enzymes, to wit: c. It starts to rise in 6-8 hours after onset,
Leucine aminopeptidase (LAP) reaches peak in 6-18 hours, and returns to
Gamma- glutamyl transferase (GGT) normal in 3 days.
5’ nucleotidase (5’N) d. It starts to rise in 12 hours after onset,
a. LAP,GGT and 5’N are increased in bone reaches peak in 24-48 hours, and returns to
disease only normal in 14 days.
b. LAP,GGT and 5’N are increased in 78. Substrate most often used for continuous monitoring
hepatobiliary disease only methods of acid phosphatase?
c. GGT and 5’N are both increased in a. p- nitrophenyl phosphate
hepatobiliary disease with normal LAP b. alpha- naphthyl phosphate
d. LAP and ALP are both increased in bone c. beta- glycerophosphate
disease d. thymolphpthalein monophosphate
71. The main reason/s for measuring 79. All of the following cause/s release of cardiac
pseudocholinesterase is/are: enzymes, EXCEPT?
a. to monitor those exposed to cholinesterase a. Cardiac surgery
inhibitors b. Myocardial infarction
b. as a liver function test c. Ischemia
c. for diagnosis of genetic variants d. Myocarditis
d. A and C e. NOTA
e. A,B and C 80. Causes HYPOKALEMIA include all of the following,
72. Isoenzyme fractionation assay makes use of wheat- EXCEPT
germ- derived lectin, which serves to inhibit I. Muscle injury
a. Pancreatic amylase II. Hyperaldosteronism
b. Macroamylase III. Chemotherapy
c. Salivary amylase IV. Thrombocytosis
d. Lipase a. I,II,III,IV
73. Hemolysis of serum causes false increase in creatine b. I,III,IV
kinase activity because c. II,IV
a. of direct interference of hemoglobin d. NOTA
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81. Highest elevation of ALP is seen in Pernicious 88. In the measurement of total bilirubin, the primary
anemia. difference between the Evelyn- Malloy (EM) and
Nephrotic Syndrome elevates LDH for up to 3 times Jendrassik- Grofmethods is that the EM method
the normal. a. Measures the absorbance of the reaction
a. First statement is true; Second statement is after alkalinisation at pH 13, whereas JG
true method measures the absorbance at the
b. First statement is true; Second statement is reaction pH of 1.2
false b. Provides a greater sensitivity at low bilirubin
c. First statement is false; Second statement is levels as compared with the JG method
true c. Cannot be automated, whereas the JG can
d. First statement is false; Second statement is be
false d. Is not affected by haemoglobin, whereas the
82. Pronounced elevation of Creatine kinase can be JG method necessitates the use of a sample
observed in patients with blank to correct for the haemoglobin
1. Dermatomyositis interference
2. MI e. Uses methanol, whereas the JG uses
3. Pulmonary edema caffeine and sodium benzoate to solubilize
4. Duchenne Muscular dystrophy the unconjugated bilirubin
a. 1,2,3,4 89. A 45- year old jaundiced man is admitted to the
b. 1,4 hospital. Serum bilirubin is 14 mg/dL and serum
c. 1,2,3 alkaline phosphatase is 500 U/L. The most likely
d. 1,2,4 diagnosis from these findings is
e. 1,3 a. Viral hepatitis
83. There are several isoenzymes of ACP with some b. Alcoholic hepatitis
tissue specificity, each of the major forms is coded for c. Hepatocellular damage
by a different gene. The isoenzymes can be d. Haemolytic jaundice
fractionated by electrophoresis into five bands. e. Obstructive jaundice
__________, found mainly in osteoclasts and is also 90. If whole blood is exposed to air
resistant to tartrate inhibition. a. The CO2 content decreases, and pCO2 and
a. Band 1 pH increases
b. Band 2 b. The CO2 content and pCO2 decrease and
c. Band 3 the pH increases
d. Band 4 c. The CO2 content increases, and pCO2 and
e. Band 5 pH decreases
84. The level of which of the following enzymes is usually d. The CO2 content and pCO2 increase and
depressed in liver disease? the pH decreases
a. LAP (Leucine aminopeptidase) e. theCO2 content and pCO2 decrease and the
b. Glutamate dehydrogenase pH decreases
c. Pseudocholinesterase 91. Respiratory acidosis is
d. Aldolase a. Caused by decrease in CO2 levels
85. In this method, NADH serves as a cosubstrate and is b. Evidenced by an increase in
consumed during the course of the reaction. If kinetic c. pH Compensated by the kidney excreting
measurement activity is carried out, a decrease in hydrogen ion
340nm absorbance is observed? d. Compensated by the hyperventilation
a. Wacker e. Caused by increase in bicarbonate levels
b. Tanzer- Gilvarg 92. Which of these antibodies are associated with
c. Oliver- Rosalki autoimmune thyroiditis
d. Wrobleuski- LaDue a. Neither microsomal nor thyroglobulin
86. This enzyme is elevated in Multiple Sclerosis antibodies
a. CK- MB b. Microsomal antibodies
b. CK- BB c. Thyroglobulin antibodies
c. CK- 3 d. Both microsomal and thyroglobulin
d. B and C antibodies
e. A and B 93. An enzymatic method used to analyze ethanol
87. A ptient’s liverfunction panel gives the following measures NADPH from the oxidation of ethanol +
results (IU/L) NADP. What enzyme catalyzes this reaction?
AST: 630 ALT: 802 ALP: a. Ethanolamine hydrolase
160 b. Ethanol hydrolase
GGT: 256 LD: 235 c. Alcohol dehydrogenase
What is the most likely cause of these results? d. Acetate dehydrogenase
a. Biliary carcinoma 94. Which of the following is/ are associated with
b. Haemolytic anemia HYPERTHYROIDISM?
c. Alcoholic liver disease I. Increased TBG
d. Acute hepattis II. Decreased TSH
III. Increased T4
IV. Decreased T3 Uptake
 Page 8 of 8

V. Increased FT4 Index AVP. How would the medical technologist interpret
a. I, III this result?
b. III,V a. Normal
c. I,III,IV b. Neurogenic DI
c. Nephrogenic DI
d. I,III,V
d. Psychogenic polydipsia
e. AOTA e. NOTA
95. It is an isoxazole derivative, which inhibits lymphocyte
proliferation. This is thought to be due to its effect on
de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis and/r its effect on the
IL-2 signal transduction pathway? ***END***
a. Sirolimus
b. Mizorbine
c. Leflunamide
d. Tacrolimus
e. Cyclosporine
96. The signs and symptoms experienced by a person
who has an alcohol level of 0.06 % w/v are:
a. no obvious impairment, some changes
observable on performance testing
b. mild euphoria, decreased inhibitions, some
impairment of motor skills
c. decreased inhibitions, loss of critical judgment,
memory impairment, diminished reaction time
d. mental confusion, dizziness, strongly impaired
motor skills
e. unable to stand, impaired consciousness
97. This enzyme has been found to be helpful in the
diagnosis and treatment of hypertension. Also,
increased activity values have been found in patients
with active sarcoid.
a. ACE
b. Aldosterone
c. Renin
d. ACTH
e. Metanephrine
98. It is a cyclic polypeptide containing 11 amino acids,
five of which are methylated, that is believed to inhibit
selectively T-Helper-Cell function with sparing and
augmentation of T-suppressor-cell populations. The
latter mechanism spears to be important in
maintaining an unresponsive state to allografts.
a. Cyclosporine
b. Tacrolimus
c. Mizorbine
d. Lithium
e. Methotrexate
99. Laboratory confirmation of organophosphate
poisoning includes measurement of erythrocyte
pseudocholinesterase and plasma
acetylcholinesterase.
Carbon monoxide binds to cytochrome A3, which
inhibits cellular respiration and electron transport.
a. First statement is true; Second statement is
true
b. First statement is true; Second statement is
false
c. First statement is false; Second statement is
true
d. First statement is false; Second statement is
false
100.In the dehydration test for Diabetes insipidus, the
medical technologist found out that the urine
gradually becomes more and more concentrated
during 12 hours of water restriction, and urine
osmolality rises by less than 10% after exogenous