TUS APRIL 2002 BASIC SCIENCES QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is a sellar type joint?

A) Articulatio temporomandibularis
B) Articulatio carpometacarpalis pollicis
C) Articulatio humeri
D) Articulatio coxae
E) Articulatio genus
(Answer B)

2. Choanae connects the two structures given in which of the following?

A) Cavum nasi- pars oralis pharyngis
B) Cavum oris- pars nasalis pharyngis
C) Cavum nasi- pars nasalis pharyngis
D) Vestibulum laryngis- pars laryngea pharyngis
E) Pars oralis pharyngis - pars nasalis pharyngis
(Answer C)

3. Which of the following structures is not located in the right atrium?

A) Crista terminalis
B) Fossa ovalis
C) Ostium sinus coronarii
D) Musculi pectinati
E) Musculus papillaris
(Answer E)

4. In the foramen infra piriforme, which of the following muscles is paralyzed when the Nervus
gluteus inferior is cut?
A) M. Gluteus medius
B) M. Gluteus minimus
C) M. Gluteus maximus
D) M. Tensor fasciae latae
E) M. Piriformis
(Answer C)

5. When the nerve r a dialis is cut from the axilla, which of the following muscles makes the
supination movement to the forearm?
A) M. Brachialis
B) M. Biceps brachii
C) M. Brachioradialis
D) M. Pronator teres
E) M. Teres major
(Answer B)

6. Which of the following passes through the musculus buccinator?

A) Ductus parotideus
B) Arteria facialis
C) Arterio maxillaris
D) Ductus submandibularis
E) Ductus sublingualis
(Answer A)

7. Arteria alveolaris inferior which of the following arteries is a branch?

A) A) Facialis
B) A) Pharynegea ascendes
C) A) Meningea media
D) A) Auricularis posterior
E) A) Maxillaris
(Answer E)
8. Angulus venosus is formed by the union of two given veins in which of the following?
A) V. Subclavia- V. Jugularis externa
B) V. Jugularis externa- V. Jugularis interna
C) V. Jugularis interna- V. Subclavia
D) V. Cephalica- V. Basilica
E) V. Saphena magna- V. Saphena parva
(Answer C)

9. In a patient whose eye cannot look down, which of the following nerves should be considered to
be damaged?
A) N. Abducens
B) N. Trochlearis
C) N. Oculomotorius
D) N. Facialis
E) N. Opticus
(Answer B)

10. Which of the following nerves transmits the sense of taste of the 2/3 front part of the tongue?
A) Nervus petrosus superficialis major
B) Nervus tympanicus
C) Chorda tympani
D) Nervus alveolaris inferior
E) Nervus lingualis
(Answer C)

11. Which of the following has hyaline cartilage?

A) Auricle
B) Trachea
C) Intervertebral discs
D) Symphisis pubis
E) Epiglottis
(Answer B)

12. Which hematopoietic stem cells appear first in the embryo?

A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Red bone marrow
D) Vitellus sac and amnion wall
E) Thymus
(Answer D)

13. Which of the following is not one of the structures that make up the respiratory membrane
(blood-air barrier)?
A) Cytoplasm of Type I epithelial cells
B) Cytoplasm of type II epithelial cells
C) Common basement membrane of epithelial and endothelial cells
D) Cytoplasm of endothelial cells
E) Surfactant
(Answer B)

14. Which of the following cells is not found in the small intestine mucosa?
A) Goblet cells
B) Paneth cells
C) M cell
D) Zymogenic cells
E) Absorbtive cells
(Answer D)

15. In which of the following, a subgroup of lymphocytes undergoes apoptosis by contact with
epithelial cells?
A) Lymph node
B) Tonsilla palatina
C) Tonsilla lingualis
D) Spleen
E) Thymus
(Answer E)

16. Which of the following is the task of the T-tubule system in the skeletal muscle?
A) To ensure rapid relaxation
B) Storing Ca2 +
C) Regulating muscle metabolism
D) Ensuring that the action potential is rapidly transmitted through the cell membrane to myofibrils.
E) Breaking down ATP and maintaining contraction
(Answer D)

17. Which of the following does not increase the intensity of the stimulus acting on a receptor?
A) Increase in receptor or generator potential amplitude
B) Increase in action potential intensity in the relevant afferent nerve
C) Increase in impulse conduction frequency in the related afferent nerve
D) Increase in impulse frequency reaching the relevant sensory center
E) Increase in the number of action potentials per unit time
(Answer B)

18. At the beginning of the middle part of the ventricular diastole, which is the sound caused by the
blood flowing from the atrium to the ventricle?
A) First heart sound
B) Second heart sound
C) Third heart sound
D) Fourth heart sound
E) Presistolic voice
(Answer C)

19. Which of the following inhibits the synthesis and secretion of growth hormone?
A) Somatostatin
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Exercise
D) Stress
E) Sleep
(Answer A)

20. If the parallel beam of light coming to the eye is focused in front of the retina, which of the
following applies?
A) Hyperopia
B) Myopia
C) Prespyopia
D) Astigmatism
E) Emetropy
(Answer B)

21. Which amino acid has a net negative charge at physiological pH?
A) Alanine
B) Arginine
C) Tyrosine
D) Glutamic acid
E) Phenylalanine
(Answer D)

22. Which of the following electron carriers functions by carrying electrons one by one in biological
oxidations?
A) FADH2
B) NADH
C) Coenzyme Q
D) NADPH
E) Cytochrome C
(Answer E)

23. Which has no function in glycolysis?

A) Ribulose-1,5 diphosphate
B) Glucose 6 phosphate
C) Fructose 1.6 diphosphate
D) 3-phosphoglycerate
E) 1,3-diphosphoglycerate
(Answer A)

24. In which of the following metabolic pathways can 3-7 carbohydrates occur?
A) Glycolysis
B) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
C) Glucose-alanine cycle
D) Cori loop
E) Pentose phosphate pathway
(Answer E)

25. Which inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase?

A) NADH
B) NAD +
C) ADP
D) Coenzyme A
E) Insulin
(Answer A)

26. With which intermediate product does the acetyl CoA formed during the oxidation of fatty acids
enter the citric acid cycle?
A) Citrate
B) Oxaloacetate
C) Succinate
D) Alpha-ketoglutarate
E) Malat
(Answer B)

27. Methylmalonic aciduria is seen in which one is deficient?

A) Vitamin B2
B) Vitamin B6
C) Vitamin B12
D) Biotin
E) Vitamin B1
(Answer C)

28. Which of the following is the substance used in the treatment of some hyperlipidemias?
A) Thiamine
B) Riboflavin
C) Nicotinic acid
D) Biotin
E) Pantothenic acid
(Answer C)

29. Which amino acid is 5-HIAA (Hydroxy Indole Acetic Acid) metabolic product?
A) Tyrosine
B) Tryptophan
C) Histidine
D) Glycine
E) Cool
(Answer B)

30. Which is not involved in the urea cycle?

A) Ornithine
B) Citrulline
C) Arginine
D) Threonine
E) Arginosuccinate
(Answer D)

31. Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?

A) Thiolase
B) HMG-CoA synthase
C) Fosfomevalunat kinase
D) HMG-CoA reductase
E) Mevalunat kinase
(Answer D)

32. Injection of heparin causes the following to be released into the plasma?
A) Acid lipase
B) Lipoprotein lipase
C) Hormone sensitive lipase
D) Pancreatic lipase
E) Gastric lipase
(Answer B)

33. Which of the following converts HDL2 to HDL 3?

A) Lipoprotein lipase
B) Lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase
C) Hepatic lipase
D) Acyl CoA-Cholesterol acyl transferase
E) Acid lipase
(Answer C)

34. Which of the following hormones inhibit the adenyl cyclase enzyme system?
A) Somatostatin
B) ACTH
C) Calcitonin
D) Glucagon
E) Thyroid stimulating hormone
(Answer A)

35. Insulin does not increase the speed of the following?

A) Glycolysis
B) Lipogenesis
C) Glycogenesis
D) Lipolysis
E) Protein synthesis
(Answer D)

36. Which is not involved in the synthesis of purine bases?

A) Glycine
B) Tetrahydrofolate
C) Glutamine
D) Aspartate
E) Alanine
(Answer E)

37. 5-Fluorouracil acts as an analogue of the following?

A) dTMP
B) dUMP
C) Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
D) Uric acid
E) Hypoxanthine
(Answer B)
38. Which is not one of the properties of nitric oxide?
A) Acting as a neurotransmitter in the brain
B) Stimulating platelet aggregation
C) Do not cause vasodilation
D) Intervening bactericidal effects of macrophages
E) Causes skeletal muscle relaxation
(Answer B)

39. Which inhibits ATPase and RNA polymerase noncompetitively?

A) Selenium
B) Nickel carbomyl
C) Cobalt
D) Iron
E) Zinc
(Answer B)

40. Which of the following is wrong with respect to albumin?

A) It is synthesized in the liver
B) Its synthesis is inhibited by TNFalfa
C) It is stored in the liver
D) Catabolism and synthesis increase in hyperthyroidism
E) Maintains normal plasma oncotic pressure
(Answer C)

41. Which of the following is the microorganism most resistant to germicidal chemicals?
A) P. aeuginosa
B) M. tuberculosis
C) S. aureus
D) Poliovirus
E) HIV
(Answer A)

42. Which bacterium is most likely to cause nosocomial pneumonia in a patient on prolonged
mechanical ventilation and previous antibiotic therapy?
A) H. influenzae
B) proteus vulgaris
C) S. Pnemoniae
D) Methicillin sensitive S. aureus
E) P. aeruginosa
(Answer E)

43. In which part of the bacterial cell do the functions of selective permeability, transport of
solutions, electron transport, oxidative phosphorylation and secretion of some exoenzymes occur?
A) Periplasmic space
B) Outer membrane
C) Peptidoglycan layer
D) Cytoplasmic membrane
E) Cytoplasmic granules
(Answer D)

44. Which of the following is not from the exogenous secretions of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A) Beta lactamase
B) Streptolysin
C) Fibrinolysis
D) Pyogenic toxin
E) Hiyluronidase
(Answer A)

45. Bacteriophages have no role in typing which of them?

A) C) tetany
B) P. aerugunosa
C) S. aureus
D) V. cholerae
E) S. typhi
(Answer A)

46. Which type of streptococcus is the most important factor causing meningitis in the newborn?
A) S. pyogenes
B) S. agalactieae
C) S. sangius
D) S. mutans
E) S. pneumoniae
(Answer B)

47. Which is seen in gram staining in urethral discharge of a male patient with suspected gonorrhea
infection?
A) Gram (+) diplococcus
B) Gram (+) Basil
C) Gram (-) diplococcus
D) Gram (+) cocci forming clusters
E) Acid-resistant bacteria
(Answer C)

48. Which of the following is in the structure of axial fibrils?

A) H. pylori
B) L. monocytogenes
C) P. vulgaris
D) V. cholera
E) Borrelia recurrentis
(Answer E)

49. Which antibiotic is the first choice in the treatment of Corynebacterium diphtheria carriage?
A) Erythromycin
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Rifampin
D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethaxazole
E) Ampicillin sulbactam
(Answer A)

50. Which of the following antigen receptors shows specificity for B lymphocyte?
A) CD3
B) CD4
C) CD8
D) CD16
E) CD20
(Answer E)

51. Which of the following is not involved in antibody-dependent cytotoxicity?

A) Natural killer cell
B) Neutrophil
C) Cytotoxic T cell
D) Macrophage
E) Eosinophil
(Answer C)

52. Which of the following is the cytokine that enhances the inflammation response and is also
effective as an acute phase protein?
A) Interferon gamma
B) IL-2
C) IL-4
D) IL-6
E) IL-8
(Answer D)
53. Which virus microglial cells are used as reservoir in the central nervous system?
A) HIV
B) Respiratory syncytial virus
C) Mumps
D) Influenza
E) Human papilloma virus
(Answer A)

54. Which is the causative agent of erythema infectiosum (5th disease)?

A) Coxackie A
B) Parvorvirus B-19
C) Human herpesvirus 6
D) Echovirus
E) Varicella zoster virus
(Answer B)

55. Which of the following is a latent viral infection?

A) Influenza
B) Herpes labialis
C) Poliomyelitis
D) Creutzfeld jacob
E) Rubella
(Answer B)

56. Which is not dimorphic?

A) H. capsulatum
B) B) dermatitis
C) P. brasiliensis
D) C) immitis
E) C) neoformans
(Answer E)

57. Which of the following dermatophytes cause endotrix infection in hair?

A) Tricphyton tonsurans
B) Tricophyton mentogirophytes
C) Tricophyton verrucosum
D) Microsporium canis
E) Microsporium gypseum
(Answer A)

58. Septal branching hyphae and conidiophores were found in fungal culture of a patient with
paranasal sinusitis. Which of the following is the most likely factor?
A) Alternaria species
B) H. capsulatum
C) Cladosporium species
D) Aspergillus
E) Rihzogus
(Answer D)

59. Which of the following occurs in the advanced stage of Kalaazar disease?
A) Leukocytosis
B) Thrombocytosis
C) Anisocytosis
D) Polycythemia
E) Anemia
(Answer E)

60. Which of the following is cestode that can settle in liver, lung and bone and cause infection?
A) Hymenolepus nana
B) Echinococcus granulous
C) Dyphyllobathrium latum
D) Taenia solium
E) Taenia saginata
(Answer B)

61. Which characteristic cell must be present in the structure of the granuloma in order to confirm
the diagnosis of granulomatous inflammation?
A) Lymphocyte
B) Langhans type giant cell
C) Epithelioid cell
D) Fibroblast
E) Plasma cell
(Answer C)

62. What are the microscopic changes observed in the neuron itself after an incision or injury occurs
in the axis of a neuron?
A) Chromatolysis
B) Neuronolysis
C) Axonal dystrophy
D) Neuronophagia
E) Transynaptic degeneration
(Answer A)

63. Which is an example of metastatic calcification?

A) Pleural calcification
B) Calcified lymphadenitis
C) Calcified atherosclerosis
D) Nephrocalcinosis
E) Calcified thyroid nodule
(Answer D)

64. Which is a benign epithelial tumor?

A) Fibroma
B) Papilloma
C) Hamartome
D) Osteoma
E) Lipoma
(Answer B)

65. Which is the result of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A) Paraseptal emphysema
B) Panaciner emphysema
C) Asthma
D) Sarcoidosis
E) Bronchiectasis
(Answer B)

66. How does miliary tuberculosis spread in the lungs?

A) Bronchoalveolar route
B ) Via pulmonary artery
C
) Via pulmonary vein D) Perineural bacillus spread
E) Endobronchial spread
(Answer C)

67. Which of the following should be considered if a large number of keratin-forming epithelial cells
and globe corns are found in the microscopic examination of a cavitary mass located in the lung
hilum in a smoking patient?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Large cell carcinoma
C) Broncholoalveolar carcinoma
D) Squamous cell tarcinoma
E) Small cell carcinoma
(Answer D)

68. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 60-year-old patient with diffuse
lymphadenopathy and hepato splenomegaly and absolute lymphocytosis in peripheral blood?
A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia
B) Acute myelocytic leukemia
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Hodgkin lymphoma
E) Large cell lymphocytic lymphoma
(Answer C)

69. Which of the following is a langerhans cell-borne disease?

A) Polycythemia vera
B) Large cell lymphocytic lymphoma
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Chronic myeloid leukemia
E) Eosinophilic granuloma
(Answer E)

70. Which of the following types of gastritis has the least risk of developing gastric carcinoma?
A) Acute erosive gastritis
B) Chronic atrophic gastritis
C) Hypertrophic gastritis
D) Autoimmune gastritis accompanied by pernicious anemia
E) Chronic gastritis with intestinal metaplasia
(Answer A)

71. Which of the following is a typical feature of ulcerative colitis?

A) Inflammation involves all layers of the intestinal wall
B) Granulomoteous inflammation
C) The disease can be seen in every part of the gastrointestinal tract
D) Narrowing of the intestinal lumen
E) The formation of false polyps
(Answer E)

72. Total villus atrophy was found in small intestine biopsy in a child with malabsorption
syndrome. Antigliadin Ig A antibodies were found to be high in the blood. Which of the following
diseases should be considered first in this child?
A) Whipple's disease
B) Crohn's disease
C) Gluten sensitive enteropathy
D) Intestinal lymphangiectasia
E) Sjögren syndrome
(Answer C)

73. Which of the following is most likely to have hepatocellular carcinoma?

A) Toxic hepatitis
B) Cirrhosis
C) Congestive hepatomegaly
D) Hemochromatosis
E) Autoimmune hepatitis
(Answer D)

74. Which of the following diseases should be considered first in the case of findings such as
neurofibrillary nodes, senile plaque amyloid angiopathy, granulovakolar degeneration and Hirano
body in the microscopic examination of the brain?
A) Pick's disease
B) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) Huntington's disease
E) Multiple sclerosis
(Answer C)
75. Which of the following microscopic glomerular changes is an indication that the disease will
progress rapidly and progressively?
A) Excessive proliferation in all glomeruli
B) Exudation of proliferation
C) Presence of segmental necrosis
D) Hemispherical parietal epithelial proliferation
E) Diffuse basement membrane thickening
(Answer D)

76. Which of the following is the most common kidney tumor in adults?
A) Pelvis renalis carcinoma
B) Kidney adenocarcinoma
C) Wilms tumor
D) Angiomyolipoma
E) Medullary fibroma
(Answer B)

77. Which of the following is the most common type of cervical carcinoma?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Adenosquamous carcinoma
D) Clear cell carcinoma
E) Indifferentiated carcinoma
(Answer A)

78. Which of the following ovarian tumors is most likely to be bilateral?

A) Indifferent carcinoma
B) Malignant teratoma
C) Mucinous cystadenoma
D) Serous carcinoma
E) Dermoid cyst
(Answer D)

79. Which of the following is the most important factor regarding the prognosis of invasive breast
cancer?
A) Presence of activated oncogenes
B) Histological type and grade
C) Presence of progesterone receptors
D) Presence of estrogen receptors
E) Axillary lymph node involvement
(Answer E)

80. Yellow-green double diffraction (birefringence) under polarized light with Congo red dye is an
expected finding in which of the following tumors?
A) Papillary thyroid carcinoma
B) Serous papillary carcinoma of the ovary
C) Medullary thyroid carcinoma
D) Medullary carcinoma of the breast
E) Lobular carcinoma of the breast
(Answer C)

81. What vitamin deficiency can long-term use of phenytoin cause?

A) Calcitriol
B) Pyridoxine
C) Vitamin B12
D) Vitamin C
E) Vitamin A
(Answer A)

82. Which of the following is not a MAO inhibitor?

A) Tranylcypramine
B) Isocarboxide
C) Bromocriptine
D) Deprenil
E) Fenelzine
(Answer C)

83. Which one activates the formation of precallikrein kallikrein in plasma?

A) Aprotinin
B) Epsilon aminocaproic acid
C) Acetyl salicylic acid
D) Aminopeptide
E) Hegeman factor (XIIa)
(Answer E)

84. Which of the following is a thromboxane synthetase inhibitor?

A) Glucocorticoids
B) Acetyl salicylic acid
C) Dazoxiben
D) Tranylcypramine
E) Heparin
(Answer C)

85. Which of the following receptors stimulation is effective in treating migraine symptoms?
A) Seratonin 5HT1d receptor
B) Histamine H2 receptor
C) Histamine H1 receptor
D) B2 adrenoreceptor
E) B1 adrenoreceptor
(Answer A)

86. Which of the following changes will an arterial vasodilator drug produce?
A) Decrease in heart rate
B) Increase in plasma renin activity
C) Decrease in cardiac output
D) reduction in plasma volume
E) Decrease in renal blood flow
(Answer B)

87. First-line treatment for cysticercosis due to tenia solium?

A) Mebendazole
B) Praziksantel
C) Niclosamide
D) Thiobendazole
E) Metronidazole
(Answer B)

88. Which does not potentiate the antidiuretic effect of ADH on the kidneys?
A) Frosemid
B) Thiazides
C) Chlorpropamide
D) Carbamazepine
E) Clofibrate
(Answer A)

89. Which should not be used alone in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?

A) Metimazole
B) Propylthiouracil
C) Iodides
D) Carbimazole
E) 131
(Answer C)
90. Which drug is vitamin K used in the treatment of intoxication?
A) Aspirin
B) Heparin
C) Dipridamole
D) Sodium warfarin
E) Sulfinpyrazone
(Answer D)

91. Which of the following poisoning-antidote pairs is due to the antimetabolite effect?
A) Methyl alcohol-Ethyl alcohol
B) Arsenic- Dimercaprol
C) Cyanide-Sodium thiosulfate
D) Carbon monoxide-Oxygen
E) D) Tubocuranine-Neostigmine
(Answer C)

92. What is the main mechanism responsible for the hypolipidemic effect of lovastatin?
A) Binding of bile acids from the intestine
B) Reducing the amount of high density lipoprotein
C) Inhibition of cholesterol synthesis
D) Reducing the number of low-density lipoprotein receptors
E) Prevention of cholesterol absorption from the intestine
(Answer C)

93. Which of the following increases uterine motility?

A) Isoproterenol
B) Ether
C) Alcohol
D) Terbutaline
E) Ergonovine
(Answer E)

94. Which of the following drugs has a protective effect against motion sickness?
A) Ondansetron
B) Domperidone
C) Metoclopramide
D) Trimetabenzamide
E) Dimenhydrinate
(Answer E)

95. Which one has the shortest plasma half-life?

A) Amiadarone
B) Sodium nitroprusside
C) Guanetidine
D) Digitoxin
E) Mepakin
(Answer B)

96. With the acidification of urine, which of the following drugs increases excretion from the
kidneys?
A) Salicylate
B) Sulfamerazine
C) Fenaobarbital
D) Sulphodiazine
E) Quinine
(Answer E)

97. Which one can be used as an antagonist in beta blocker poisoning?

A) Verapamil
B) Hydralazine
C) Glucagon
D) Cimetidine
E) Pididoxine
(Answer C)

98. Which of the following is the antagonism that occurs when a drug binds to another drug and
inhibits the effectiveness of that drug?
A) Reversible competitive antagonism
B) Irreversible non-competitive antagonism
C) Chemical antagonism
D) Physiological antagonism
E) Negative antagonism
(Answer C)

99. Which drug does not cause bronchodilation?

A) Morphine
B) Ipratropism
C) Etrilnoradrenaline
D) Atropine
E) Ephedrine
(Answer A)

100. Which of the following is a characteristic of phenothiazine derivative neuroleptic drugs?

A) They do not have a sedative effect
B) Strengthens dopaminergic excess in the brain
C) Block alpha adrenergic receptors
D) Their use in the treatment of affective disorders
E) Antiepileptic effects
(Answer C)