2010 December TUS Exam - Clinical Sciences - TUS Questions

DECEMBER 2010 CLINICAL MEDICAL SCIENCES TEST
1. Which of the following is the murmur heard in pulmonary hypertension due to mitral stenosis?
A) Austin Flint murmur
B) Graham Steell murmur
C) Venous murmur
D) Carey Coombs murmur
E) Double murmur of Duroziez
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 2. Fascicle , Page: 211 Click for the page in the
lecture note
Reference: KLINİSYEN Internal Medicine (Dr. Sait BUĞDACI) Subject Book 6th Edition Page: 13
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 2. Fascicule, Page: 261
2. Which of the following should not be given to a patient presenting with paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia ?
A) Isoproterenol
B) Verapamil
C) Digitalis
D) Diltiazem
E) Adenosine
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note, 2nd Fascicle , Page: 279 Click for the page in
the lecture note
3. Which of the following drugs used alone in the treatment of hypertension of a patient with
pheochromocytoma leads to a further increase in blood pressure?
A) Phentolamine
B) Labetalol
C) Sodium nitroprusside
D) Prazosin
E) Beta-blocking drugs
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery Summary Note Page: 93
4. Which of the following is the most sensitive method for determining glomerular filtration rate ?
A) Creatinine clearance
B) Urea clearance
C) Inulin clearance
D) Scintigraphy
E) Renal angiography
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 1. Fasikül , Page: 157 Click for the page in the
lecture note
Reference: CLINICIAN Biochemistry Topic Book 4th Edition (Dr. Ercan ÖZTÜRK - Dr. Gürkan ÇIKIM)
Page: 384 (Dr. Ercan ÖZTÜRK - Dr. Gürkan ÇIKIM lectures in Tusdata with CLINICIAN Biochemistry
Subject Book.)
Reference: TUSDATA Physiology Lecture Note, Page: 208
5. Which of the following is the most common etiology leading to severe lower gastrointestinal
bleeding in adults over the age of 60 ?
A) Internal hemorrhoids
B) Colonic diverticulosis
C) Anal fissure
D) Colon cancer
E) Ischemic colitis
lecture note
6. Which of the following is the most common cause of pyogenic liver abscesses ?
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Liver cancers
C) Traumas
D) Bile duct infections
E) Acute pancreatitis
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology Lecture Note 2. Fascicule, Page: 415
7. repeatedly in recent months 2 times pneumonia treated 65-year-old male patient's lab results are as
3 3
follows: Hemoglobin: 14 g / dl, WBC: 6000 / mm , platelets: 250 000 / mm , BUN 15 mg / dL, creatinine
0.8 mg / dL; monoclonal band in the gamma region in serum protein electrophoresis; serum IgG: 20 g / L,
IgA: 2.5 g / L, IgM: 1.0 g / L; plasma cell ratio 8% in bone marrow; bone scan is normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient ?
A) Waldenström macroglobulinemia
B) Benign monoclonal gammopathy
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Solitary plasmacytoma
E) POEMS syndrome
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 1. Fasikule , Page: 55 Click for the page in the
lecture note
8.
3
Neutrophil count: 400 / mm
3
II. Platelet count: 15 000 / mm
3
III. Reticulocyte count: 50 000 / mm
IV. Cellular density (cellularity) in bone marrow: 50%
Which of the above laboratory findings are expected in a patient with severe aplastic anemia at the
age of 20?
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I and IV
D) II and IV
E) III and IV
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pathology Summary Lecture Note Page: 139
9. Which of the following tumors releases ectopic ACTH most frequently ?

A) Seminoma
B) Small cell lung cancer
C) Lymphoma
D) Hepatoma
E) Melanoma
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 1. Fascicule, Page: Click for the page in the 100
course note
10. Which of the following is not a risk factor for the development of adenocarcinoma of the stomach
?
A) Helicobacter pylori infection
B) Excessive salt consumption
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Smoking
E) Blood type being 0
lecture note
11. Which of the following joints is least likely to be involved in rheumatoid arthritis ?
A) Metacarpophalangeal joints
B) Atlantoaxial joint
C) Shoulder joints
D) Distal interphalangeal joints
E) Temporomandibular joints
lecture note
12. Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary spontaneous pneumothorax ?
A) Lung cancer
B) Bacterial pneumonia
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Tuberculosis
E) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 3. Fascicle , Page: 622 Click for the page in the lecture
note
13. In the transudate type, pleural fluid is most common in the following diseases?
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Tuberculous pleurisy
C) Pleurisy due to rheumatoid arthritis
D) Parapneumonic pleurisy
E) Pleurisy due to systemic lupus erythematosus
lecture note
5
14. 10 colonies / ml Escherichia coli are produced in the urine culture taken from a 25-year-old, 2.5-month-
old pregnant woman without any complaints .
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the treatment of this patient?
A) No treatment is required, urine culture is repeated after 2 weeks.
B) No treatment is required, there is no need for culture follow-up.
C) A single oral dose of 400 mg ofloxacin is given.
D) If the bacteria are sensitive, amoxicillin-clavulanate is given for 7 days.
E) Treatment is given only if the patient is symptomatic.
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 3. Fascicle , Page: 622 Click for the page in the lecture
note
Reference: KLINİSYEN Internal Medicine (Dr. Sait BUĞDACI) Subject Book 6th Edition Pages: 464,
631
15. Which of the following antibiotics is not a betalactam derivative ?

A) Ampicillin
B) Aztreonam
C) Cefazolin
D) Doripenem
E) Tigecycline
Reference: TUSDATA Pharmacology Lecture Note 2. Fascicle , Page: 246 Click for the page in the
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Pharmacology Lecture Note 2. Fascicule, Page: 461
Reference: UTS Pharmacology Book 7th Edition Page: 461
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology Lecture Note 1. Fascicule, Page: 46,47
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Microbiology Summary Lecture Note Page: 25
16. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated to administer to an immunocompromised

patient?
A) BCG vaccine
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) Polysaccharide pneumococcal vaccine
D) Inactive influenza vaccine
E) Polysaccharide meningococcal vaccine
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 3. Fascicule, Page: 497 Click for the page in the
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 2. Fascicule, Page: 446 Click for the page in the
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology Lecture Note 1. Fascicule, Page: 54,55
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology (Prof. Dr. Volkan ÖZGÜVEN) Lecture Note 1. Fasikül, Page: 144
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology (Prof. Dr. Volkan ÖZGÜVEN) Lecture Note 2. Fascicule, Page: 270
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pediatrics Summary Lecture Note Page: 110
17. tyrosine kinase receptors involved in intracellular signal transduction which of the following
does not ?
A) Growth hormone
B) Insulin
C) Epidermal growth factor
D) Insulin-like growth factor-1
E) Nerve growth factor
Reference: TUSDATA Pathology (Dr. Mehmet SAR) Lecture Note 1. Fasikül Page: 78 Click for the
page in the lecture note
386, 338
18. What is the clinical condition that develops in patients who underwent bilateral adrenalectomy
for Cushing's disease and is characterized by excessive increase in ACTH levels and skin
hyperpigmentation?
A) Conn's syndrome
B) Nelson's syndrome
C) McCune-Albright syndrome
D) Craniopharyngioma
E) Empty sella syndrome
lecture note
19.
Number of stillbirths from 28 weeks and above + deaths in

the first 7 days postnatal
x1000
Total number of births
Which of the following is the death rate criterion given the formula above?
A) Postnatal mortality rate
B) Neonatal mortality rate
C) Perinatal mortality rate
D) Infant mortality rate
E) Postneonatal death rate
Reference: TUSDATA Junior Internships Lecture Note Page: 61 Click for the page in the lecture note
20. Which of the following is secondary protection?

A) The worker wears a helmet
B) Vaccination
C) Hand washing
D) Waste water treatment
E) TB screening
Reference: TUSDATA Junior Internships Lecture Note Page: 68, 69 Click for the page in the lecture
note
21. In DeQuervain's tenosynovitis, the affected tendons were co-administered in which of the
following?
A) M. abductor pollicis longus + extensor pollicis brevis
B) M. adductor pollicis longus + extensor pollicis brevis
C) M. abductor pollicis brevis + flexor pollicis longus
D) M. adductor pollicis brevis + flexor pollicis longus
E) M. abductor pollicis longus + extensor pollicis longus
Reference: TUSDATA Junior Internships Lecture Note Page: 252 Click for the page in the lecture
note
Reference: CLINICIAN Premium Ozan Anatomy Page: 121
22. A 32-year-old female patient, who was found to have started to have pain in her right knee after skiing,
complained of pain and stiffness when standing up, especially after resting. In the examination of the patient
whose pain increases with flexion, there are no signs of inflammation and a slight crepitation is felt in flexion.
A) Tibiofemoral osteoarthritis
B) External meniscus lesion
C) Inner meniscus lesion
D) Chondromalacia patella
E) Anterior cruciate ligament lesion
Reference: The pictorial-evidence-based reference work on this question continues.
23. Which of the following cerebrospinal fluid examination findings is important for the diagnosis of
multiple sclerosis?
A) Protein increase
B) Oligoclonal band positivity
C) IgG index below 0.6
D) Mononuclear cell increase
E) Presence of myelin breakdown products
24. A 42-year-old alcoholic and malnutrition patient admitted to the emergency room with impaired
consciousness. Nystagmus and conjugated gaze paralysis, trunk ataxia, global confusion and memory
impairment are detected in neurological examination.
A) Tobacco-alcohol amblyopia
B) Subacute combined degeneration
C) Alcoholic cerebellar degeneration
D) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E) Strachan syndrome
note
Subject Book.)
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Biochemistry (Dr. Ercan ÖZTÜRK) Abstract Lecture Note Page: 157
25. Which of the following statements about AIDS-related Kaposi sarcoma is false ?
A) Associated with Human Herpes virus type 8 infection.
B) Its incidence has decreased due to highly active antiretroviral therapy.
C) It progresses slower than classical Kaposi's sarcoma.
D) Initial lesions are seen primarily on the face.
E) Oropharyngeal involvement is common.
note
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology (Prof. Dr. Volkan ÖZGÜVEN) Lecture Note 2. Fascicle, Page:
213 Click for the page in the lecture note
26. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to diagnose a chancre syphilis in the
penis or vulva ?
A) Culturing the material taken from the ulcer
B) Dark field investigation
C) Taking the material and dyeing it with methylene blue
D) Performing serological tests
E) Examination of the material by KOH
note
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Microbiology (Prof. Dr. Volkan ÖZGÜVEN) Abstract Lecture Note
Page: 66
27. A 2 cm diameter nodular lesion was observed on chest radiography of a 65-year-old male patient who
had been smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day for 40 years.
Which of the following imaging methods should be chosen first for detailed evaluation of this
region in this patient ?
A) Ultrasonography
B) Angiography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Computed tomography
E) Scintigraphy
lecture note
28. Transvaginal ultrasonography of a 40-year-old female patient revealed a 5 cm diameter cystic mass in
the left ovary. This mass contains septa formations and there is a solid nodular lesion on its wall.
Which of the following should be considered first in the differential diagnosis in this patient ?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Ovarian cyst
C) Endometrioma
D) Ovarian torsion
E) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology Lecture Note Page: 181 Click for the page in the lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology Spot information Spot No: 152
29. Which of the following is not associated with a high risk of suicide ?
A) History of suicide attempt in the family
B) Loss of someone close
C) Don't get involved in gang fights
D) Pessimism and despair
E) School failure
note
30. Which of the following side effects may occur in a patient using lithium carbonate?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C) Leukopenia
D) Azoospermia
E) Metabolic syndrome
note
Subject Book.)
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 3. Fascicle Page: 400
31. Short stature, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, neutropenia and skeletal changes are found in a 2-year-
old child who was brought for chronic diarrhea. The sweat test is normally found.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this child ?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
C) Celiac disease
D) Giardiasis
E) Kostmann syndrome
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 1. Fascicule Page: 159, 3. Fascicule Page: 549 Click
for the page in the lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Tanju TÜTÜNCÜ - Dr. Nadi YÜKSEK) Abstract Note Page:
173,174
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 3. Fascicle , Page: 583 (Spot Question: 61)
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 1. Fascicule, Page: 199 (Spot Question: 26)
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Hematology Question: 822
32. Which of the following statements is correct regarding what should be done to prevent bleeding
due to vitamin K deficiency in newborn babies?
A) Since vitamin K deficiency is not seen in babies fed with breast milk, no special prevention is required.
B) A high dose of vitamin K is administered to the mother before birth.
C) Multivitamin is started on the 15th day for the baby.
D) 1 mg of intramuscular vitamin K is administered to the baby after birth.
E) Folic acid is started after the baby is born.
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 1. Fascicule Page: 5 Click for the page in the lecture
note
33. Which of the following does not cause hypocalcemia in the newborn ?
A) Maternal diabetes
B) Maternal anticonvulsant use
C) Prematurity
D) Hypomagnesemia
E) Maternal hypoparathyroidism
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 1. Fascicule Page: 2, 59, 60, 3. Fascicle Page: 480
Click for the page in the lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Newborn Question: 45
Reference: TUSDATA Case Camp Pediatrics Questions, Question : 2
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pediatrics Summary Lecture Note Page: 186 Spot: 7
34. A 4,000-gram baby born by normal vaginal delivery is brought after birth because he cannot
move his right arm. On physical examination, it is determined that the baby's right arm is held in
extension and internal rotation, that the tone is low on that side and there is no Moro reflex;
However, it is observed that there is no pain in the baby during passive movements.
Which of the following should be considered first in this baby ?
A) Isolated muscle absence or weakness on the affected side
B) Early signs of early onset muscular dystrophies
C) Fracture of the humerus on the affected side
D) Brachial plexus injury on the affected side
E) Since the baby was born 4000 grams, it may be the baby of a diabetic mother and thrombosis on the
affected side
note
35. During pregnancy, which of the following vitamins deficiency causes neural tube defects?
A) Vitamin C
B) Pantothenic acid
C) Folic acid
D) Thiamine
E) Vitamin E
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 1. Fascicule Page: 138, 200 Click for the page in the
lecture note
Subject Book.)
Reference: TUSDATA Biochemistry (Dr. Okhan AKIN - İ. Ethem ŞAHİN) Lecture Note 2. Fasikül Page: 311
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 1. Fasikül Page: 20

36. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for a 5-year-old girl presented with
hepatomegaly, renal tubular dysfunction, and galactose intolerance ?
A) Galactosemia
B) Glycogen storage disease type 1
C) GLUT-2 deficiency
D) Fructose intolerance
E) Glucose-galactose malabsorption
note
37. Which of the following enzymes should be considered for deficiency in a 3-year-old child without
any complaints other than bilateral cataracts and hepatocellular dysfunction?
A) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
B) Galactokinase
C) Galactose 4-epimerase
D) Galactose pyrophosphorylase
E) Fructose-1-phosphate aldolase
note
Subject Book.)
38. Which of the following is not one of the ocular signs of congenital Rubella ?
A) Cataract
B) Microphthalmia
C) Glaucoma
D) Retinopathy
E) Aniridi
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 1. Fascicle Page: 75 Click for the page in the lecture
note
Page: 132
39. Which of the following is not one of the principles of acute bronchiolitis treatment ?
A) Removal of bronchial obstruction
B) Acyclovir treatment
C) Correction of hypoxemia and acidosis
D) Prevention of potential cardiac complications
E) Treatment of secondary bacterial infections
note
note
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology Lecture Note 2. Fascicle , Page: 277
Page: 104
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pediatrics Summary Lecture Note Page: 93, 202 Spot: 251, 252
40. Which of the following infections is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis a complication?

A) Measles
B) Rubella
C) Herpes simplex virus type 1
D) Cytomegalovirus
E) Herpes simplex virus type 2
note
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology (Prof. Dr. Volkan ÖZGÜVEN) Lecture Note 2. Fascicle, Page: 237
Page: 122
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 2. Fascicle , Page: 421 (Spot Question: 55)
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Rash Diseases Question: 530
41. Which of the following bacteria most frequently causes acute meningitis in the neonatal period
(0-1 month) ?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Salmonella
D) Group B streptococcus
E) Neisseria meningitidis
lecture note
625
95,109
Page: 49
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Newborn Question: 108, 118
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pediatrics Summary Lecture Note Page: 28, 192 Spot: 115
42. Which of the following diseases is iron deficient?

A) Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Diamond-Blackfan anemia
E) Thalassemia major
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 2. Fascicule Page: Click for the page in the 353 lecture
note
43. Which of the following is the major cause of thrombosis in acute lymphoblastic leukemia ?
A) Immobilization
B) Frequent infection
C) Decreased fibrinolysis
D) Procoagulant release from leukemic cells
E) L-asparaginase treatment
note
44. Skin necrosis developed during warfarin treatment in a 2-year-old child who was found to
have had purpura fulminans in the neonatal period.
A) Antithrombin deficiency
B) Protein C deficiency
C) Factor VIII deficiency
D) Factor V Leiden mutation
E) Prothrombin mutation
note
45. A two-year-old girl is brought to the hospital with abdominal distension. On physical
examination, a 7 × 8 cm mass in the left upper quadrant is palpated, and blasts forming a rosette
in the bone marrow of the child are detected.
A) Lymphoma
B) Rhabdomyosarcoma
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Hepatoblastoma
E) Ewing tumor
lecture note
46. In which of the following tumors α-fetoprotein level rises?

A) Hepatoblastoma
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Nephroblastoma
D) rhabdomyosarcoma
E) Adrenal carcinoma
note
Subject Book.)
47. Which of the following statements about acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is false ?
A) Serum C3 levels are low.
B) Nephritis is generally self-limited and has a good prognosis.
C) Recurrence is frequent.
D) It is common between the ages of 5-12.
E) There is microscopic hematuria.
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 1. Fasikül Pages: 178, 179
449
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 3. Fascicle , Page: 654 (Spot Question: 48, 49, 51, 53,
51, 58)
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Nephrology Question: 892, 893, 894, 906
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pediatrics Summary Lecture Note Pages: 178, 179, 221, Spot: 487,
488, 490
48. Which of the following is not a risk factor for the development of urinary tract infections ?
A) Urination dysfunction
B) Constipation
C) Neurogenic bladder
D) Pregnancy
E) Hypertension
note
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Nephrology Question: 921
49. Which of the following is not the cause of erythema nodosum in children ?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Lymphoma
C) Sarcoidosis
D) use of phenytoin
E) Inflammatory bowel diseases
Disclosure: Click to see our explanation and objection file regarding the question.
note
50. In a healthy child, which of the following is combined with the second heart sound on inspiratory
and expired?
In inspiration On express
A) Single Single
B
Double Double
)
C
Single Hard
)
D
Single Double
)
E
Double Single
)
note
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 2. Fasikule Page: 206
51. A five-year-old child is brought with complaints of leg pain after exercise. In physical
examination, blood pressure is found as 130/85 mmHg and femoral pulses are weak.
A) Atrial septal defect
B) Patent ductus arteriosus
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Aortic coarctation
E) Pulmonary stenosis
note
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 2. Fascicle , Page: 321 (Spot Question: 142, 143, 144)
52. Which of the following is not one of the conditions that leads to the elevation of indirect bilirubin
?
A) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
B) Gilbert syndrome
C) Rotor syndrome
D) Rh blood group incompatibility
E) AB0 blood group incompatibility
lecture note
Subject Book)
Reference: TUSDATA Biochemistry (Dr. Okhan AKIN - İ. Ethem ŞAHİN) Lecture Note 2. Fasikül Page:
265
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture 3. Fasikül Page: 610
53. Which of the following conditions gives clinical symptoms later and milder than others?
A) Proximal esophageal atresia + distal tracheoesophageal fistula
B) Isolated (H type) tracheoesophageal fistula
C) Proximal tracheoesophageal fistula + distal esophageal atresia
D) Esophageal atresia without tracheoesophageal fistula
E) Esophageal atresia + proximal and distal tracheoesophageal fistula
note
54. Which of the following statements about congenital hypothyroidism is false ?

A) The prevalence of congenital hypothyroidism in the world is 1/4000.
B) Thyroid dysgenesis is responsible for approximately 85% of cases.
C) Endemic goiter is one of the causes.
D) Excessive exposure to iodine during fetal period may cause.
E) Most of the cases are symptomatic in the neonatal period.
note
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 3. Fascicule, Page: 503 (Spot Question: 40, 41, 47)
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Endocrinology Question: 666
55. Which of the following statements about congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase
enzyme deficiency is incorrect ?
A) Boys are often brought in with an enlarged penis, scrotum and testicles at the age of 4-5 years.
B) External genital structure is usually normal in boys in the neonatal period.
C) Approximately 70% of cases progress with salt loss.
D) Girls may be completely in the male phenotype.
E) Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone activity is increased.
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 3. Fascicle Page: 490, 494, 495 Click for the page in
the lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Endocrinology Question: 704, 705, 708
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pediatrics Summary Lecture Note Pages: 128, 129
56. Which of the following best describes infantile spasm ?
A) Suddenly motor activity or speech ceases, there is a meaningless expression and winking on the
face.
B) Sometimes there are seizures that can be in aura period, with tonic and clonic contractions in the
whole body, accompanied by loss of consciousness and cyanosis.
C) It is a type of epilepsy in which body tone is lost, there are short-symmetrical muscle
contractions, and the patient tends to fall forward.
D) It is a type of epilepsy in which short-symmetrical muscle contractions occur in the neck, trunk
and extremities, and hypsarrhythmia is seen on EEG.
E) Recurrent torticollis attacks are observed, together with pallor, agitation and vomiting.
note
Subject Book.)
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Neurology Question: 271
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pediatrics Summary Lecture Note Pages: 57, 196 Spot: 178
57. In which of the following is the genetic transition and gene defect correctly given in Duchenne
muscular dystrophy?
A) Autosomal dominant, 17q21
B) There is no genetic transition.
C) X linked recessive, Xp21
D) Autosomal dominant, 13q12
E) Autosomal recessive, 15q
note
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Pediatrics Summary Lecture Note Pages: 65, 196 Spot: 188
58. Which of the following is not one of the clinical features observed in DiGeorge syndrome ?
A) Ear anomalies
B) Neonatal hypocalcemia
C) Aortic arch anomaly
D) Situs inversus
E) Thymic hypoplasia
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 2. Fascicule Page: 434, 3. Fascicle Page: 480 Click for
the page in the lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Lecture Note 2. Fascicle , Page: 463 (Spot Question: 67, 68, 69, 70)
Reference: TUSDATA Pediatrics Study Questions Allergy-Immunology Question: 611
59. Which of the following symptoms does not occur in a child with bronchial asthma ?
A) Dry cough
B) wheezing
C) Stridor
D) shortness of breath
E) Chest tightness
note
Reference: KLINİSYEN Internal Medicine (Dr. Sait BUĞDACI) Subject Book 6th Edition Pages: 89, 106
60. Which of the following is not microdeletion syndrome ?

A) Silver-Russell syndrome
B) Prader-Willi syndrome
C) Angelman syndrome
D) DiGeorge syndrome
E) Williams syndrome
note
61. Where did Hippocrates establish the medical school?

A) Pergamon (Bergama)
B) Kos island (Kos)
C) Rhodes island
D) Milas
E) Knidos
62. In which of the following types of surgery is surgical site infection most common?
A) Cholecystectomy
B) Thyroidectomy
C) Mass excision from the breast
D) Colon resection
E) Inguinal hernia surgery
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery Lecture Note 1. Fascicle Page: 43 Click for the page in the
lecture note . Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Levent KODAL) Lecture Note 2. Fascicle
Page: 380 Click for the page in the lecture note Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Tanju
TÜTÜNCÜ - Nadi YÜKSEK) Lecture Note 1. Fasikül Page: 137 Click for the page in the lecture note
63. In the posttraumatic period, persistent hypokalemia develops in a patient hospitalized in the
surgical intensive care unit due to the following conditions?
A) Hypomagnesemia
B) Rhabdomyolysis
C) Acidosis
D) Hyperglycemia
E) Massive blood transfusion
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery Lecture Note 1. Fascicule Page: 21 Click for the page in the
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Levent KODAL) Lecture Note 1. Fascicule Page: 54 Click
64. Nitric oxide promotes smooth muscle relaxation by increasing which of the following?
A) cAMP
B) cGMP
C) PGI 2
D) Endothelin (ET 1-2-3)
E) TNF
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Tanju TÜTÜNCÜ - Nadi YÜKSEK) Lecture Note 1. Fascicle
Page: 12 Click for the page in the lecture note
Subject Book.)
Reference: TUSDATA Biochemistry (Dr. Okhan AKIN - İ. Ethem ŞAHİN) Lecture Note 1. Fasikül Pages: 75, 76
Reference: TUSDATA Biochemistry (Dr. Okhan AKIN - İ. Ethem ŞAHİN) Spot information Page: 78
Item: 10
65. In which area are soft tissue sarcomas most common ?

A) Extremities
B) Back
C) Head and neck area
D) Retroperitoneal area
E) Chest wall
66. Which of the following is not a risk factor for the development of possible lung problems after
any major surgical intervention ?
A) Tobacco use
B) Age
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Heart disease
E) Obesity
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Levent KODAL) UTS question book Question 375 Page:
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Tanju TÜTÜNCÜ - Nadi YÜKSEK) Lecture Note 1.
Fascicule Page: 149 Click for the page in the lecture note
67. Which of the following statements about malignant melanoma is correct?

A) It can develop from wherever transformed melanocytes migrate, except the eye.
B) The most common type is acral lentiginous type.
C) The first choice in treatment is hyperthermic perfusion.
D) Lentigo maligna most often settles in the nail bed.
E) Superficial spreading type is observed everywhere except hands and feet.
68. Which of the following is not one of the oncogenes involved in the development of thyroid
cancer ?
A) RET
B) BRAF
C) Ras
D) c-MYC
E) BAT
69. Where are the ectopic parathyroid glands most likely to be found?
A) Paraesophageal groove
B) Intra thymus
C) Intra thyroid
D) Carotid sheath
E) Submandibular region
70. Bird beak appearance with dilated esophagus in barium esophagography is typical for the
following diseases?
A) Achalasia
B) Diffuse esophageal spasm
C) Epiphrenic diverticulum
D) Nutcracker (nutcracker) esophagus
E) Hypersensitive lower esophageal sphincter
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Levent KODAL) Summary Note Page: 104 Click for the
71. A 65-year-old male patient who presented with jaundice was diagnosed with type I bile
duct cancer in the ERCP examination.
Which of the following is the cancerous area in this patient?
A) Extensive in the extrahepatic bile ducts
B) At the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts
C) Between the cystic duct and the pancreas
D) In intrapancreatic common bile duct and ampulla
E) Intrahepatic bile ducts
72. Forty-two-year-old male patient admitted to the emergency department with acute
abdominal findings. Sensitivity and defense are detected in all abdominal regions,
especially in the right lower abdomen of the patient. It is learned that diarrhea started after
a trip 3 weeks before the history of the patient, who had free air on the abdominal X-ray.
A) Acute appendicitis perforation
B) Perforation of Meckel's diverticulitis
C) Typhoid enteritis perforation
D) Tuberculous enteritis perforation
E) Campylobacter infection perforation
Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery (Dr. Levent KODAL) Summary Note Page: 181 Click for the
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology (Prof. Dr. Volkan ÖZGÜVEN) Lecture Note 1. Fasikül, Page: 49,51
Page: 25
73. What is the stage of colorectal cancer according to the TNM system by extending beyond the
visceral peritoneum and invading neighboring organs, without lymph node involvement and distant
metastasis?
A) TisN0M0
B) T2N0M0
C) T3N0M0
D) T4N0M0
E) T3N1M0
lecture note
74. Which of the following lesions have the highest risk of developing breast cancer ?
A) Atypical lobular hyperplasia
B) Atypical ductal hyperplasia
C) Sclerosing adenosis
D) Intraductal papilloma
E) Lobular carcinoma in situ
lecture note
75. Which of the following is one of the proliferative breast diseases without atypia?
A) Apocrine metaplasia
B) Ductal ectasia
C) Intraductal papilloma
D) Fibroadenomas
E) Fibrocystic changes
lecture note
Subject Book.)
76. Which of the following diseases causes Cushing syndrome most often ?
A) Ectopic ACTH-secreting tumor
B) Adrenal cortical adenoma
C) Ectopic CRH-secreting tumor
D) ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma
E) Adrenal cortical carcinoma
77. Which direction is the paralytic eye oriented in a patient with oculomotor paralysis?
A) Outward-downward
B) Inward
C) Up
D) In-down
E) In-up
78. From which part of the prostate gland most frequently benign prostatic hyperplasia develops?
A) Anterior fibromuscular stroma
B) Peripheral zone
C) Central zone
D) Transitional zone
E) Lateral zone
note
79. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents produces a depolarizing type of
neuromuscular block?
A) Vecuronium
B) Atracurium
C) Succinylcholine
D) Rocuronium
E) Mivacurium
note
80. Which of the following is not seen in patients with pure blow-out fractures ?
A) Restricted eye movements
B) The displacement of the eyeball inward and deeper
C) Double vision
D) Hypoesthesia of the face on the same side as the fracture
E) Restricted chin opening
note
81. Which of the following is the preliminary diagnosis of a patient with a radiolucent, benign-
looking, centrally located lesion in the second finger proximal phalanx on his hand radiograph?
A) Enchondroma
B) Chondroblastoma
C) Benign osteoblastoma
D) Fibrous cortical defect
E) Osteoid osteoma
note
82. Pneumatosis intestinalis (air in the intestinal wall) and gas appearance in the portal vein trace are
the radiological findings of the following diseases?
A) Jejunal atresia
B) Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C) Bile duct cysts
D) Meconium ileus
E) Necrotizing enterocolitis
note
83. Which of the following extrophic anomalies are most often associated with additional anomalies?
A) Ekstrofia vzikalis
B) Isolated epispadias
C) Superior vesical fissure
D) Duplex exstrophy
E) Exstrophy cloaca
84. A patient who had a head trauma and was brought into a coma had an eye opening to the painful
stimulus, no response to the verbal stimulus, and a normal flexor response to the painful stimulus.
Which of the following is the Glasgow coma scale of this patient?
(E: eye opening, M: motor response, V: verbal)
A) E1 M3 V1
B) E2 M4 V1
C) E2 M5 V2
D) E2 M3 V3
E) E4 M5 V6
85. A 30-year-old male patient was brought to the emergency room after a traffic accident.
Severe respiratory distress, neck vein fullness, and hypotension are detected. Breathing
sounds are not heard on the right side of the chest.
A) Lung contusion
B) Hemothorax
C) Tension pneumothorax
D) Lung hematoma
E) Chylothorax
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 2. Fascicle Page: Click for the page in the 365
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note, 2nd Fascicle , Page: 307 Click for the page in
the lecture note
86. Maternal serum alphafetoprotein levels were measured at the 16th gestational week and it was
found to be low. In this case, which of the following should be considered?
A) Spina bifida
B) Cystic hygroma
C) Sacrococcygeal teratoma
D) Gestational trophoblastic disease
E) Omphalocele
Reference: TUSDATA Obstetrics Course Grade 2 Fascicle Page: Click for the page in the 365 lecture
note
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology (Dr. Kemal GÖL) Lecture Note 1. Fasikule Page: 79 Click for the
Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Gynecology Lecture Grade 2 Fasicle Page: 365
87. Which of the following chromosome defects are most frequently encountered in early abortions
due to fetal chromosomal disorders ?
A) Autosomal trisomy
B) Monosomy X
C) Tetraploidy
D) Structural anomaly
E) Triploidy
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology Lecture Note 2nd Fascicle Page: 293 Click for the page in the
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Obstetrics and Gynecology (Dr. Kemal GÖL) Lecture Note 1. Fasikule Page:
88. Which of the following is not one of the factors that increase the incidence of transverse posture
of the fetus and associated shoulder presentation ?
A) Posttherm fetus
B) Placenta previa
C) Uterine anomaly
D) Polyhydramnios
E) Pelvic stenosis
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology Lecture Grade 2 Fascicle Page: 420 Click for the page in the
lecture note
89. It was found that the pregnant woman who was taken urgently for surgery with acute
abdominal findings had a torsioned ovarian mass.
Which of the following is most likely the type of cyst ?
A) Follicle cyst
B) Ovarian abscess
C) Endometrioma
D) Corpus luteum cyst
E) Cystic teratoma
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Obstetrics and Gynecology (Dr. Kemal GÖL) Lecture Note 2. Fascicule Page:
90. Which of the following vaginal examination findings is not one of the diagnostic criteria used for
Bishop scoring ?
A) Cervix 3 cm dilated
B) Vertex level -2
C) Amnion sac is intact
D) The cervix is soft
E) Cervical effacement 70%
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology Lecture Note 2nd Fascicle Page: 422 Click for the page in the
lecture note
91. At what level do the nerve fibers carrying the pain sensation due to uterine contractions enter the
spinal cord in the first stage of labor?
A) T5 - T6
B) T11 - T12
C) L3 - L4
D) L5 - S1
E) S2 - S4
Reference: TUSDATA Anatomy Lecture Note 2. Fascicule Page: 246 Click for the page in the lecture
note
Reference: CLINICIAN Premium Ozan Anatomi Page: 318, 398
92. Which of the following is not unusual to be seen in normal vaginal flora ?
A) Aerobic environment
B) pH below 4.5
C) Streptococci
D) Bacilli producing hydrogen peroxide
E) Monosaccharides

40,80,88
93. Which of the following is the vessel most frequently injured during laparoscopic trocar insertion
?
A) Superficial inferior epigastric
B) Superficial circumflex iliac
C) Deep inferior epigastric
D) Superficial superior epigastric
E) Deep circumflex iliac
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology Lecture Grade 1 Fascicle Page: 25 Click for the page in the lecture
note
94. Which of the following has the highest frequency of sexually transmitted pelvic inflammatory
disease among sexually active women ?
A) In premenopause
B) In the 30s who are not pregnant
C) Pregnant women
D) In adolescents
E) After menopause
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology (Prof. Dr. Volkan ÖZGÜVEN) Lecture Note 1. Fasikül, Page:
155,156
Reference: TUSDATA Microbiology (Prof. Dr. Volkan ÖZGÜVEN) Lecture Note 1. Fascicle, Page: 90
Click for the page in the lecture note
95. Which of the following is the most common malignant tumor of the ovary during pregnancy ?
A) Epithelial
B) Germ cell
C) Gonadal stromal
D) Sarcoma
E) Metastatic
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology Lecture Note (Cihan Öztopcu) 2nd Fascicle Page: 183 Click for the
96. What is the most common future reproductive performance of a woman who has had two
hydatidiform mole ?
A) Term live birth
B) Premature birth
C) Stillbirth
D) Abortion
E) Repeat molar pregnancy
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology Lecture Note 2. Fascicule Page: 272 Click for the page in the +
97. Primary peritoneal tumors can not be histologically distinguished from the following epithelial
ovarian tumors ?
A) Mucinous
B) Serous
C) Endometrioid
D) Mesonephroid
E) Brenner
Reference: TUSDATA Obstetrics and Gynecology (Dr. Kemal GÖL) Lecture Note 2. Fascicule Page:
98. According to the endometriosis staging system, which of the following findings alone
constitutes the highest score?
A) Deep peritoneal implant over 3 cm in diameter
B) Deep implant in a single ovary
C) Complete posterior use-de-sac obliteration
D) Thick adhesions covering more than 2/3 of a single ovary
E) Thick adhesions covering more than 2/3 of a single tube
Reference: TUSDATA Obstetrics (Dr. Kemal GÖL) Lecture Note 1. Fasikule Page: 45 Click for the
99. Which of the following is the only bone-sparing treatment approach proven to reduce the risk of
fractures in a non-osteoporotic postmenopausal woman population ?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Selective estrogen receptor modulators
C) Calcitonin
D) Estrogen therapy
E) Calcium and vitamin D treatment
lecture note
Reference: TUSDATA Gynecology (Dr. Kemal GÖL) Lecture Note 2. Fascicule Page: 220 Click for the
100. Which of the following progestins in combined oral contraceptive pills is a spironolactone
derivative and is antagonist to both mineralocorticoids and androgens?
A) Norethindron
B) Dezogestrel
C) Gestoden
D) Drospirenone
E) Norgestimate
Reference: UTS Pharmacology Book 7th Edition Page: 409

Reference: TUSDATA TUS Camp Gynecology Lecture Grade 1 Fasicle Page: 135
Reference: TUSDATA Obstetrics and Gynecology (Dr. Kemal GÖL) Lecture Note 2. Fascicle Page:
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DECEMBER 2010 CLINICAL MEDICAL SCIENCES TEST

9. Which of the following tumors releases ectopic ACTH most frequently ?

15. Which of the following antibiotics is not a betalactam derivative ?

16. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated to administer to an immunocompromised

Number of stillbirths from 28 weeks and above + deaths in

20. Which of the following is secondary protection?

Reference: The pictorial-evidence-based reference work on this question continues.

Reference: TUSDATA Internal Medicine Lecture Note 1. Fasikül Page: 20

40. Which of the following infections is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis a complication?

42. Which of the following diseases is iron deficient?

46. In which of the following tumors α-fetoprotein level rises?

54. Which of the following statements about congenital hypothyroidism is false ?

60. Which of the following is not microdeletion syndrome ?

61. Where did Hippocrates establish the medical school?

Reference: The pictorial-evidence-based reference work on this question continues.

Reference: TUSDATA General Surgery Summary Note Page: 24

65. In which area are soft tissue sarcomas most common ?

Reference: The pictorial-evidence-based reference work on this question continues.

67. Which of the following statements about malignant melanoma is correct?

Reference: The pictorial-evidence-based reference work on this question continues.

Reference: UTS Pharmacology Book 7th Edition Page: 409

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