CRIMINALISTICS

Dr. Ariel C. Manlusoc, Reg. Criminologist

WHAT IS MY GOAL?
TOP
PASSED
FAILED
It takes a lot of (3P)
PROPER PREPARATION, PERSPIRATION & PERSEVERANCE

What Do I Want in Life?

How much does this mean to me?

Am I willing to sacrifice something?
How determine am I to pursue my dream?

Remember:

ACE Technique
1. Analysis of the question
2. Comparison between the question and the choices
3. Eliminate or exclude the detractors .
Don’t leave your common sense AT HOME!!!

 Question:
The word forensic means ____?
Choices: Consisting of Key & Detractors.
a. Forum
b. Market Place
C. Public Discussion
d. Legal
e. All of these
The word Forensic was derived from the Latin word “Forum” which means a market place, a place where
people gather for purposes of public discussion.

Is a magnified photograph of small object obtained by attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound microscope to
show its minute details?

a. Photomicrography
b. Photomacrography
c. Photomicrograph
d. Photomacrograph
e. Microphotograph

N.B. “the issue is the photograph and not the process”

B. ANALYSIS and Case Study Type

1. Which of the following object should be taken individual photograph?
a. Latent prints
b. Identifying details
c. Weapon used
d. Wound sustained

All of the following requires individual photograph.

But which is the correct answer?
Known as the Access Devices Act of 1998, concerning the illegal use of one’s credit cards etc.

a. R.A. 8484 c. R.A. 9372

b. R.A. 9208 d. R.A.9514

Pedro Penduco Committed a rape by inserting his Penis on the Anus of another man.
For what crime Pedro Penduco can be charged?

a. Rape
b. Marital Rape
c. Statutory Rape
d. Rape by sexual intercourse
e. Rape by Sexual Assault

Forensic Science = refers to the application of various sciences to law or administration of justice. It is the
application of a broad spectrum of sciences to answer questions of interest to a legal system.

Forensic = was derived from the Latin word “Forum” which means a market place, a place where people gathered
for public discussion.

Criminalistics = is a profession or a field of forensic science that deals with recognition, collection, preservation and
examination of physical evidence for the administration of justice.

Fields of Criminalistics

Dactyloscopy = science of fingerprint Identification and classification.

Forensic Photography = the application of the principle of photography in discovering truth.
Forensic Odontology = the scientific identification by means of dental record.
Forensic Ballistics = the science of F/A identification by means of the ammunition fired from them.
Forensic Entomology = study of role or importance of insects in the crime investigation.
Forensic Chemistry = the application of the principle of chemistry in relation to the administration of justice.
( Physical and Chemical composition of matters)
Forensic Anthropology = the scientific method of identification by means of skeletal remains.
Questioned Document = scientific analysis of documents which is under scrutiny.
Forensic Toxicology = the application of the principle of toxicology (study of poison) in discovering truth
concerning suspicious death in a person.
Forensic Microbiology
Forensic Serology
Forensic Zoology
Forensic Biology
 PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION

= a system of recognizing and identifying a particular person based on his/her characteristics as differentiate from
others.

1. A system of identification which was used earlier than the fingerprint system, made by measuring various bony
structure of human body. Developed by Alphonse Bertillion.

a. Portrait Parle c. Tattoo

b. Anthropometry d. Photography

Note: Portrait Parle, Tattoo and photography did not served the purpose of identification using bone measurement.

2. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person who is almost a stranger.

a. 100 yards c. 16-17 yards

b. 25 yards d. 10-13 yards

100 yards = never seen even once

16 – 17 yards = moonlight
10 -13 yards = starlight.

3. Is the basic principle involve in personal Identification which states that the greater the number of similarity or
difference the greater the probability for the identity or non identity to be conclusive.

a. Law of individuality c. Law of infallibility

b. Law of multiplicity of evidence d. Law of constancy

A, C, and D are principles of fingerprint identification.

4. Which of the following personal Identification is not easy to change?

a. Hair b. Dress
c. Speech d. personal pharapernalia

5. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of Identification.

a. DNA fingerprinting c. Dactyloscopy

b. Fingerprint Identification d. Photography

DNA fingerprinting = the most indispensable science.

6. Identification of person can be done either by Comparison or by____?

a. Exclusion b. Experimentation
c. Examination d. Inclusion

7. A system of Identification best used in case of burned body.

a. Fingerprint c. Skeletal Identification

b. Odontology d. Photography

DNA Fingerprinting
Forensic Odontology= dental identification
Forensic Anthropology = skeletal identification

8. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the science of fingerprint?

a. People Vs. Medina (10 points) c. People Vs. Jennings

b. Miranda Vs. Arizona d. West Case

People vs. Jennings (U.S. case) (14 points)

West case = defeats the Anthropometry System
9. Known as the Father of Modern Fingerprint, whose system of classification was spread in almost all English
speaking country.

a. Juan Vucitich c. Sir Edward Richard Henry

b. Francis Galton d. William Herschel

Juan Vucetich = his system of classification was accepted by Spanish Speaking Countries.
Francis Galton = undertook the first definitive study and classification of F.P., statistical study to prove uniqueness of
F.P. and wrote the book “Finger Prints”.
William Herschel = first application of F.P. for identification and developed Chiroscopy.

10. Is the person who discover the two main layer of the friction skin (Epidermis and Dermis) and to whom one of the
thin layer of the friction skin was named.

a. Herman Welcker c. Marcelo Malpighe

b. Nehemiah Grew d. Dr. Henry Faulds

Herman Welcker = proved the principle of permanency by printing is palm twice with a lapse of 41 years.
Nehemiah Grew = the first to wrote a treaty on the study of ridges and sweat pores
Dr. Henry Faulds = a surgeon who gives value to latent prints.

11. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own
thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.

a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier b. Capt James Parke

c. Gilbert Thompson d. Dr. Henry P. De Forest

Dr. Henry P. De Forest =Utilized the first Municipal Civil use of fingerprint for Criminal Registration.
Capt. James L. Parke = Advocate the first state and penal use of fingerprint adopted in SingSing prison
Sgt. John Kenneth Ferrier = First fingerprint instructor at St. Louis Police Dept. Missouri.

12. Is the person known for being the U.S. public enemy number one, who attempt to destroy his friction by applying
a corrosive acid.

a. Robert James Pitts c. Roscoe Pitts

b. John Dillenger d. John Augustus

Robert James Pitts = used surgery to destroy his friction ridges. Known as the Man without fingerprint. Also known by
the name Roscoe Pitts.

13. Is the scientific study of the prints of the soles of the feet?

a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Chiroscopy d. Dactyloscopy

Chiroscopy – ( Greek word “ Cheir” – a hand, “Skopien” –to examine) study of the prints of the palms of the hand.
Podoscopy – ( Greek word “Podo” – the foot, and Skopien – to the study of the footprints.
Poroscopy – (Greek word “poros” – a pare, and “Skopien” – to examine) study of the arrangement of the sweat
pores.

14. Is the science of fingerprint identification

a. dactyloscopy c. dactylomancy
b. dactylography d. dactylo-analysis

Dactyloscopy – (derived from the Latin words Dactyl = finger and Skopien – to study or examine) is the practical
application of the science of fingerprints.
Dactylography – is the scientific study of fingerprint as a means of identification.
Dactylomancy – is the scientific study of fingerprint for purposes of personality interpretation.
15. The word finger was derived from what Latin word?

a. dermis c. digitus
b. dactyl d. Skopien

Dactyloscopy =derived from Latin word “dactyl” and “skopien”

Polydactyl = born with more than the regular number of fingers.
Macrodactyl = enlarged finger.
Microdactyl = reduced/small finger.
Ectodactyl = missing finger at birth.
Syndactyl = side fussion of the finger.

16. The principle in fingerprint study that states that fingerprint cannot be forged. Fingerprint is a reliable and a
positive means of identification.

a. principle of infallibility
b. principle of permanency
c. principle of individuality

Dogmatic Principles of F.P. Identification

1. Individuality = based on Statistical probability that no two persons have the same fingerprint. (1:64,000,000,000 –
Francis Galton).
2. Infallibility = reliable, positive, not easy to be forged.
3. Permanency/Constancy = F.P. is unchangeable. (Herman Welcker)

17. What is the main layer of the epidermis, which covers the surface on which ridges are visible?

a. dermis c. stratum corneoum

b. stratum mucusom d. sanguinal stratum

Epidermis =outer layer

Dermis =inner layer
Epidermis is divided into: stratum corneum and stratum mucosum

18. Friction skin (Epidermal skin/ Papillary skin) may be damage permanently when which of its layer was damage?

a. dermis c. dermal papillae

b. epidermis d. generating layer

19. How deep is the cut in order to produced permanent scar?

a. more than 1 cm c. 1 m
b. more than 1mm d. 1dm

20. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores) in an inked finger impression?

a. sweat pores c. furrows

b. ridges d. sweat duct

21. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin (found between ridges).

a. pores c. indentions
b. furrows d. duct

Component parts of Friction skin

1. Ridge Surface
a. Ridges = elevated portion/hill like/black-lines.
b. Furrows = depressed portion/canal-like/ white space.
2. Sweat Pores= tiny/small openings/ tiny white dots.
3. Sweat Duct = passage way of sweat.
4. Sweat Glands= the producer of sweat.
22. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there? (types)

a. three c. eight
b. two d. nine

23. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise in the
center?

a. loop c. tented arch

b. plain arch d. exceptional arch

Arch (5%) = two types (2): plain (A) and tented arch (T) --- (a) uptrust, (b) angle, and (c) Incomplete loop type.
= no ridge count.
Loop (60%) = Two types :radial and ulnar loop.
= core, dellta, a sufficient recurve, at least 1 ridge count.
Whorl (35%) = Four types (4) plain whorl (W), central pocket loop whorl (C), double loop whorl (D) and accidental
whorl (X).
= Two or more deltas and at least one circuiting ridge.

24. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?

a. Plain arch ` c. central pocket loop

b. tented arch d. accidental whorl

25. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should have _______ridge count.

a. 1 b. at least 1
c. 2 d. 3

26. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridges makes a turn through one complete circuit?

a. arch b. accidental whorl

c. loop d. whorl

27. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?

a. loop b. radial loop

c. ulnar loop d. tented arch

Radial loop (radius bone) = towards the thumb.

Ulnar loop (ulna bone) = towards the little finger.

28. The diagonal sign / means ________.

a. right hand ulnar c. left hand radial

b. left hand ulnar d. none

29. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and
when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as
the most common type of whorl.

a. plain whorl c. Central pocket loop whorl

b. double loop whorl d. Accidental whorl

Plain Whorl = lines from left to right delta cross/touch at least one circuiting ridge.
Central pocket loop whorl = lines from left to right delta does not cross/touch at least one circuiting ridge.
Double loop whorl = two separate loop/shoulders.
Accidental whorl = combination of two patterns, except with plain arch.
30. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the combination?

a. ulnar loop b. plain whorl

c. tented arch d. plain arch

31. The core and delta are also termed as _____?

a. inner terminus c. outer terminus

b. focal point d. pattern area

Fingerprint Terminus/Focal Points

Core – inner terminus
Delta – outer terminus

32. Is a point along a ridge formation, which is found in front or near the center of the diverging typelines.

a. core c. island ridge

b. delta d. convergence

33. What is the rule where there are two or more possible bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of
delta?

a. the one nearest the core should be chosen

b. the one away from the core should be counted
c. the one which does not open towards the core is counted
d. the one towards the core should be counted

34. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it counted?

a. one b. two
c. three d. Six

35. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously running side by side?

a. bifurcation c. convergence
b. divergence d. enclosure

36. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a period?

a. lake c. ending ridge

b. island ridge d. incipient ridge

Basic types of ridges: ridge dot, ending ridge, bifurcation and short ridge.
Convergence = two separate ridges that meets at certain point. (meeting of two separate ridges).
Divergence = two ridges that spreads apart. (Spreading of two separate ridges)
Bifurcation = single ridge that splits into two or more forming a Y-shape.
Enclosure = a single ridge that splits into two ridges and meets to form the original ridge.

37. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that meets to form the original figure?

a. bifurcation c. island ridge

b. lake ridge d. convergence

38. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the direction from which it started.

a. diverging ridge c. recurving ridge

b. converging ridge d. bifurcation

39. Is a pointalong the recurving ridge in which the ridge curves inward.

a. sufficient recurve c. appendage

b. obstruction ridge d. shoulder of loop
40. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from the inner
delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in the second type of central pocket loop.

a. bar c. uptrust
b. appendage d. obstruction

Appendage – is a short ridge found at the top or summit of a recurve.

Rod or Bar – is a short of long ridge found inside the recurve and directed towards the core or parallel to the recurve.
Uptrust = a horizontal ridge that makes a sufficient rise at the center.

41. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the line flow below the right delta and there are three
intervening ridge.

a. meeting whorl c. outer whorl

b. inner whorl d. central pocket loop whorl

Meeting whorl = there are two or less intervening ridge/s.

Inner whorl = with three (3) intervening ridge and the tracing flows above/inside the right delta.

42. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular ridge which is not included as a ridge count even if it has
been cross by the imaginary line.

a. ending ridge c. incipient ridge

b. intervening ridge d. enclosure

43. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and which resembles a fork structure

a. divergence c. convergence
b. bifurcation d. enclosure

44. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its infants stage which usually starts:

a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life

b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
d. 5th to 6th months before birth

3rd to 4th months of the fetus life or 5th to 6ht months before birth.
Epidermis = temporary destruction
Dermis = permanent destruction
cut of more than 1mm = permanent scar.

45. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene between the delta and core of a loop?

a. ridge tracing c. ridge counting

b. ridge tracking d. ridge summing

Ridge tracing = between tracing ridge and right delta.

Intervening ridge = ridges between tracing ridge and right delta.
Ridge count = ridges between delta and core.

46. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impression?

a. both little finger c. both thumb finger

b. all finger except thumb d. both index finger

Types of fingerprint impression on the FP Card

 Rolled impression = taken individually by rolling the finger from the tip to the end of the first joint. Used for
classification purposes.
 Plain Impression = taken simultaneously by simply pressing the ten fingers. It serves as guide or reference in
checking the rolled impression.
47. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the fingerprint ink to the slab?

a. Fingerprint brush c. Fingerprint lifting tapes

b. Fingerprint roller d. fingerprint card

Fingerprint card =where F.P. is recorded (8”X8”)

Ink slab = metal/glass plate where ink is spread.

48. Is the process of placing the letter symbols under each pattern as the results of the interpretation of all ten
fingers.

a. classification formula
b. reference classification (additional classification formula)
c. blocking out
d. fingerprint identification

49. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch.

a. T b. A
c. P d. W

50. Is the division in the classification formula which is always represented by numerical value depending upon a
whorl pattern appearing in each finger?

a. primary b. Key
c. final d. Major

Primary div. = derived from the sum of the numerator and denominator plus the pre-established fraction of 1/1.

51. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl pattern
appears therein:

a. left little finger and right thumb

b. right thumb and left little finger
c. right little finger and left thumb
d. left thumb and right

52. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the primary
division?

a. 25/29 b. 29/25
c. 24/28 d. 28/24

P = 1/1 + the sum of N/D = 25/29

53. What patterns are included in the secondary division in deriving the small letter category?

a. ulnar loop, plain arch and tented arch

b. radial loop, ulnar and arch
c. radial, plain arch and tented arch
d. radial, ulnar, plain arch

Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index fingers) and small letters (from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t).

54. What would be the secondary divisions if all the right hand fingers are radial loops while all the left hand fingers
are tented arches?

a. 3Rr b. rR3r c. R3r d. R4r

3Tt tT3t T3t T4t

Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index fingers) and small letters (from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t).
55. What is the interpretation for a ridge count on the left index that reaches 8.

a. exceptional c. radial loop

b. inner loop d. outer loop

Sub-secondary = derived by ridge counting loop and ridge tracing whorl appearing in the Index, Middle and Ring
fingers.

Loops = Inner (I) or Outer (0)

Index (9), Middle (10), and Ring (13)
Whorls = Meeting (M), Inner (I), and Outer (O)
Arches = Dash (-)

56. In interpreting a loop pattern, what is the numerical value of S in the left hand?

a. 1 to 11 c. 1 to 17
b. 18 to 22 d. 12 to 16

57. In a loop pattern, when the number of the ridges on the left thumb is 17 or more, it constitutes as:

a. exceptional c. isolation
b. alteration d. Conditional

Major Div. = derived from both thumb fingers.

Loops = R. C. = S, M, L
Whorls = R.T. = M,O,I Arches = Dash (-)

58. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket loop whorl in the little finger it is derived by:

a. getting the ridge count of the top loop (double loop whorl)
b. treating it as ulnar loop
c. getting the least ridge count (accidental whorl)
d. getting the delta opposite each hand

59. What division in the classification formula is derived from both little finger and is place at the extreme right of the
classification formula.

a. key b. final
c. major d. secondary

60. The key division is the division in the classification which is located at the extreme left of the classification formula
and it is taken by getting the ridge count of _______?

a. loop pattern c. first loop

b. first radial loop d. first whorl

Key div = derived from the ridge count of the First Loop, EXCEPT the little finger.
= If there were no loops, get the ridge count of the First Whorl.
= Only numerator.

61. In case of a missing digits or an amputated finger, what will be the classification of said missing finger?

a. The same as the corresponding digit of the other hand

b. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
c. Mutilated finger
d. None
One finger is missing/amputated = interpreted as the same as the corresponding digit of the other hand.
Both are amputated or missing = plain whorl with meeting tracing.
If all fingers are missing/amputated the formula:

FPC = M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
62. Prints found at the scene of the crime.

a. suspected prints
b. molded prints
c. latent prints
d. prints made by contamination with colored substance.

63. Prints which were left in the place accidentally or unconsciously?

a. chance prints c. fragmentary prints

b. smudge prints d. latent prints

Latent prints:
1. visible (molded prints or made by contamination with colored substance)
2. Invisible = made from sweat.

64. What method of developing latent prints in paper is best to be used being easy to apply and less destructive to
the paper.

a. iodine fuming c. ninhydrin method

b. silver nitrate method d. dusting method

Dusting = traditional/simplest method of developing prints in the crime scene.

65. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a latent fingerprint impression dusted
with black powder on a green background?

a. yellow filter c. red filter

b. green filter d. blue filter

66. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a latent fingerprint impression dusted
with gray powder on a yellow background?

a. yellow filter b. green filter

c. red filter d. violet filter

Opposite Colors:
Blue – Orange Green – Red Yellow – Violet

67. The identification of two impressions can be established primarily through:

a. formation of different types of pattern

b. formation of the two terminus
c. unexplained similarity of ridges
d. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative positions

(a and b are used for classification)

68. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed latent print?

a. Fingerprint lifting tapes

b. Evidence Identification tags
c. Fingerprint transfer card
d. Post-mortem fingerprint equipment

69. In case of split thumb, which should be classified?

a. get the smaller one

B. get the outer one
C. get the bigger one
D. get the inner one
70. In case of wounded finger, how should fingerprint be taken?

a. Just take the subject fingerprint.

b. don’t print said finger and left the rolled impression box empty.
c. don’t print the finger and write in the box wounded
d. kill the subject

71. What modern method of developing print is best use when all conventional methods become ineffective?

a. iodine fuming c. ninhydrin method

b. laser method d. dusting method

72. Prints made by blood, dust or dirt or other coloring substances:

a. visible prints c. invisible prints

b. chance prints d. fragmentary prints

73. In filing classified fingerprint card what should be the first attempt to be made:

a. primary numerator
b. secondary numerator
c. primary denominator
d. secondary denominator

74. What division of the classification formula is left blank if all fingers are amputated.

a. Mayor and key c. key and final

b. Key and primary d. final and major

75. Is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?

a. Mutilated finger c. Amputated finger

b. Fragmentary finger d. Deformities

76. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are missing or cut?

a. 1/1 c. 31/31
b. 32/32 d. 16/16

77. Reagents commonly used in liquid method are the following, except:

a. Silver nitrate c. victoria blue e. none

b. Ninhydrin d. tetra methyl benzidine

78. The type of latent print which is made from blood, dust or dirt?

a. Chance prints b. semi-visible

c. Visible prints d. fragmentary

79. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin method?

a. immersion b. spraying
c. dusting d. Brushing

80. Once the latent print has been visualized, it must be preserved by:

a. Developing the latent print

b. Lifting the impression
c. Photography
d. Brushing it
 FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY

= it is the application of the principles of photography to law or administration of justice.

Police photography = the application of photography to police work. Also known in its old usage as black and white
photography.

1. The word Photography was coined by _____?

a. John F. W. Herschel
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre (Daguerreo type
c. Henry Fox Talbot (Talo or Calo type)
d. Leonardo Da Venci

2. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in police work?

a. for identification c. For preservation

b. for record purpose d. For court presentation

Personal Identification = first used of photography in police work.

Mugging = the process of taking photograph of suspect.

3. Is an electromagnetic energy which travels with the speed of 186, 000 miles per second?

a. light b. energy
c. rays d. radiation

Rays = characterized the direction of light travel. Usually used interchangeably with light.
Radiation = is the process by which heat is transferred through electromagnetic wave.

4. The theory of light which states that it is produced as energy made by action of some small particles such as
electron and protons.

a. Wave theory c. Corpuscular theory

b. Modified wave theory d. spectrum theory

5. Light travels in a form of a wave according to wave theory of Huygens. What is that unit of light wavelength which
is express in ten millionth part of a millimeter?

a. Millimicron c. Nanometer
b. Angstrom d. Micron

Millimicron / Nanometer = one millionth part of mm.

Micron = equivalent to one thousand part of millimicron.

6. Is the action of light when passing a transparent object.

a. Absorbed c. reflected
b. transmitted d. refracted

RAT Law
Reflected = bouncing of light.
Absorbed = light that is block by the surface where it falls such as black cloth (opaque)
Transmitted = light that passed through usually in a transparent object such as plain glass.
Refracted =light that bends.

7. It is characterized as the bending of light.

a. reflection c. refraction
b. dispersion d. defraction
Defraction = lights fall around the object.
Dispersion = the spread of light as it bends forming the light spectrum.
Light Spectrum = the spreading of light beam (white light) into light of varying wavelength.
8. In Photographing the scene of the crime, what view should be used in order to show the best feature of the nature
of the crime scene?

a. medium c. close-up
b. general d. extreme close-up

Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in court; it should be taken from (GENERAL TO SPECIFIC)
General View – location of the crime scene.
Mid –(view) (range) – 8 or 10 feet from the victim. Show the nature of the crime.
Close–up view – five (5) feet or less from the subject/object, show the details of the crime.

9. Is the condition of the sunlight where object in an open space cast a transparent or bluish shadow.

a. bright light c. dull sunlight

b. hazy sunlight d. none of these
Dull sunlight = thick clouds covers the sun, no shadow will be produced.
Hazy sunlight = thin clouds covers the sun.
Bright sunlight = clear sky, well defined shadow, glossy object.

10. An artificial light source which contains in its tube certain powders capable of illuminating with some support
from small amount of electricity. It is commonly used in the house or commercial establishment.

a. Incandescent lamp c. fluorescence lamp

b. photo flood lamp d. flash bulb

Sources of light
1. Natural light source such as sunlight, starlight, lightning etc.
2. Artificial /Man-made light (short duration and long continuous) Flash bulb, Incandescent lamp, Fluorescent lamp,
spotlight or reflectorized light.

11. Light in which there wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human eye?

a. visible c. invisible
b. natural d. artificial or man-made

Visible light = (from 400 to 700 millimicron)

Invisible light = (X-ray, ultra-violet light, and Infra-red light etc.)

12. What color will be produced by the combination of a red and blue color?

a. magenta c. yellow
b. cyan d. Green

Primary colors == Blue, Green and Red

Blue + Green = cyan
Green + Red = yellow
Blue + Red = magenta
Secondary = cyan, yellow and magenta

13. How many photographic rays are there?

a. three b. five
c. four d. nine

14. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength?

a. infra-red c.ultra-violet
b. visible rays d. x-rays
X-ray (roentgen rays) = .01 to 30 millimicron.
Ultra-violet light (black light) =30 to 400 mill.
Visible light = 400 to 700 millimicron.
Infra-red (heat rays) = 700 to 1000 millimicron
15. Is a type of an artificial light which makes sympathetic inks visible?

a. ultra-violet c. infra-red
b. transparent light d. oblique light

16. What determine the amount of light a flash unit will yield at a given distance?

a. luminescence b. wattage
c. guide number d. light meter

Light meter = an accessory of a camera which measures the amount of reflected light.

17. Laser light is also referred to as ______?

a. ultra-violet c. visible
b. coherent d. Heat

Concurrent = light that is scattered.

Light Amplified by stimulating emission of radiation. (LASER)

18. Hologram refers to a:

a. 1 dimensional image in a film. b. 2- dimensional image in a film

c. 3 – dimensional image in a film d. 4 – dimensional image in a film

3D –image (length, height and width)

19. Sidelight photography is usually done to show ________in a questioned document.

A. Stamped out writin C. Watermarks

B. Faded writing D. Erasures

Direct light = support photographing.

Oblique light = from one side at a very low angle.
Side light = from one side.
Transmitted light =from the back/bottom. Used for water markings examination.

20. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography to_________.

a. record the image b. . Exclude all unwanted and unnecessary lights

c. makes the image visible d. makes the image permanent

21. How many parts does a camera generally has, with all other parts treated as accessories?

a. five c. six
b. four d. Three

22. What lens system of the camera reflects the light passing the lens and mirror making the image possible to be
viewed from the viewfinder.

a. pentaprism c. condenser
b. shutter d. filter

Condenser = is that part of the enlarger that ensures even illumination of the light to the negative.
Filter = is a piece of plastic or glass used to subtract or control light passing through it.

23. Is that part of the camera which controls the passage of light reaching the sensitized material? It compared to
the eyelid of the human eye.

a. lens c. shutter
b. lens opening d. film plane
24. Is that part of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the area coverage of a given lens.

a. lens c. view finder

b. shutter d. pentaprism

25. Is a camera accessory designed to fix the camera focus and avoid its unusual movement during the process of
photographing?

a. cable release c. stand

b. tripod d. camera strap

Cable release = attached to the shutter release.

Tripod = a three-leg stand designed to fix the camera focus.
B-shutter = manually controlled shutter to allow more light to pass through.

26. What problem is usually encountered by a photographer in using a flash unit?

a. neutral density c. synchronization

b prospective d. Parallax

Synchronization = timing between the shutter and the flash.

Parallax = omission of an object. Image viewed in the view finder is not exactly produce in the photograph.

27. To readily determine the degree of magnification of a subject in a photograph ________ should be place beside
the subject.

A. Ruler C. rangefinder
B. Scale bed D. Gray-scale

28. Why must the taking of photographs from an unusual camera position in crime photography be avoided?

a. it distorts the focus b. it distorts the perspective

c. it distorts the magnification d. it distorts the texture

29. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography?

a. view finder type c. single lens reflex (SLR)

b. twin lens reflex (TLR) d. press/view camera

SLR = is an interchangeable lens type of camera.

View finder = simplest /cheapest
TLR = one lens for focusing/ one for forming.
View or Press = biggest and expensive.
Polaroid camera= camera with instant photograph.

30. What type of a film has the longest range of sensitivity in the electromagnetic spectrum called?

a. orthochromatic film c. blue-sensitive film

b. panchromatic film d. infra-red film

Film = is a sheet of celluloid or glass coated with an emulsion of silver halides suspended in gelatine which retains on
invisible image when exposed to light.
Black & White Film =“ortho” or “pan”
Colored (negative type—color or reversal -- chrome)
31. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic form?

a. ISO b. DIN
c. ASA d. GNP

ASA – American Standard Association

10, 20, 30 , 40 , 50, 100, 200, 400, 800, 1000
DIN - DeutcheIndustreNormen
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36
ISO = International Standard Organization.

32. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives the finest of grains?

a. ASA 1000 b. ASA 100

c. ASA 200 d. ASA 400

Film speed/emulsion speed = the higher the number the more sensitive or faster the film.
Finest grains = the lower the number the finer the grains.

33. In Police Photography, what is the ideal weight for enlarging paper?

a. double weight c. medium weight

b. single weight d. light weight

For ordinary photographing = single weight, #2, silver bromide, white and glossy.

34. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed film?

a. # 1 b. # 3
c. # 2 d. # 4

# 0 for extremely overexposed and # 1 for overexposed

# 3, #4 and #5 are for underexposed

35. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best suited for police   photography?

a. Chloride paper c. Chloro-bromide

b. Bromide paper d. Iodide paper

Chloride paper = for contact printing.

Note: in the absence of bromide paper, chlorobromide will do.

36. A convex lens is capable of?

a. reducing the object b. making the object appear hairy

c. enlarging the object d. reducing the size of the picture

Convex = thicker at the center.

(positive/converging lens)
Concave = thinner at the center.
(negative/diverging lens)

37. Zoom lens is composed of?

a. Positive lens c. negative lens

b. a and c d. none
38. Is a lens defect which unable for the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical lines in a  plane at the same time

a. Coma c. Distortion
b. Astigmatism d. Chromatic aberration

Coma / lateral aberration = straight line becomes blurred.

Distortion = a defect not in blurredness but in shape. (barrel/pinchusion)
Chromatic aberration = defects in color.

39. What type of a lens is used in a simplest and cheapest type of a camera?

a. rapid rectillinear lens c. meniscus lens e. Apochromatic lens

b. anastigmat lens d. achromatic lens

Meniscus = no correction
Rapid rectillinear = corrected from distortion.
Anastigmat = corrected from astigmatism
Achromatic = corrected from chromatic aberration.

40. What kind of diaphragm opening should a photographer used in order to get a wider depth of field?

a. wider c. shorter
b. smaller d. Longer

F-Number = focal length/diameter of the whole lens

f 2.8, f -4, f-5.6, f-8, f-11, f-16
The lower the F- numbers the bigger the lens opening.

41. What lens has a variable focal length?

a. wide angle lens c. telephotolens

b. normal focus lens d. zoom lens

Wide angle/short focus = less than 35mm focal length. Increase the area coverage but reduce the size of the object.
Normal/medium focus = based on human vision. (more than 35mm but not more than two times the diagonal half of
the negative).
Telephoto/long focus = reduced the area coverage but enlarged the size of the object.

42. A type of a lens that would make an object to be exaggeratedly closes to the photographer and is ideal in stake
out surveillance photography.

a. short focus lens c. telephoto lens

b. normal focus lens d. wide angle lens

43. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object that is sharp           when the lens is
set or focused at a particular distance?

a. focal length c. depth of field

b. hyperfocal distance d. Focusing

44. The determining factor of the size of an image as well as the area of coverage of a given camera lens is the?

a. focal length c. Diaphragm opening

b. hyper-focal distance d. Depth of field

Focal length = is the distance from the optic center of the lens to film plane once the lens is focus in an infinite
position.
Focal distance = distance from the camera lens to the nearest object.
Hyperfocal distance = the nearest distance between the optic center of the lens to the nearest object that would give
the maximum depth of field.
45. When one uses a Photographic filter in taking a photograph, he is actually __________light rays or color from the
light to reach the film.

a. adding b. multiplying
c. subtracting d. Dividing

46. A filter used in photographing fingerprints on a shiny or highly polished surfaced because it reduces or eliminates
glare is known as:

A. Neutral density C. Color

B. Polarizing D. Contrast filter

47. Is the light condition where object in an open space cast a deep and uniform shadow.

a. Bright sunlight b. Dull sunlight

c. Hazy sunlight d. dark sunlight

48. If the basic exposure for a given film in bright sunlight is l/125, f11, the exposure setting at dull sunlight would be?

a. 1/125 f4 c. 1/125 f8
b. 1/125 f5.6 d. 1/125 f16

BS = 1/125 , f-11
HS= 1/125 , f-8
DS = 1/125 , f-5.6

49. The part of enlarger that will assure the even illumination of the negative when enlarging is the:

A. Lamp house C. Condenser

B. Bellows D. Focusing speed

50. What is the recommended size of photographic evidence?

a. 5 x 7 inches b. Passport size

c. 2 x 2 inches d. 4 x 8 inches

51. What is the usual time of fixing of a negative or a photograph?

a. five to six minutes c. one to one and half minutes

b. ten to fifteen twelve d. twenty to thirty minutes

5- 6 minutes = Developing time for D-76

1 – 1 ½ minutes = developing time for dektol

52. Is the reducers or the developing agents.

a. Elon, Hydroquinone c. sodium sulfate

b. sodium carbonate d. potassium bromide

Sodium sulfate = preservative

Potasium alum/ Potassium bromide = hardener.

53. The need for long and continuous washing in water of a negative or finished print is to remove the presence
of___________ because its presence will result to the early fading.

A. Sodium sulfite C. Acetic acid

B. Potassium alum D. Hypo
Sodium thiosulfate (Hypo) = the fixing or dissolving agent.
Acetic acid = neutralizer

54. Error in the processing step like overdevelopment could be remedied by the used of a:

A. reducer c. Bleacher
b. intensifier d. stain remover
Underdeveloped = intensifier.
Stained = stain remover

53. What is that process of eliminating unwanted portions of a negative during enlarging process?

a. dodging c. burning-in
b. vignetting d. Cropping

Cropping = omitting an object.

Burning –in =additional exposure on the desired portion of a negative.
Vignetting = gradual fading of the image towards the side.

55. What is the function of the boric acid and acetic acids in the fixer?

a. as preservative c. as hardener
b. as neutralizer d. as dissolving agent

Preservative = sodium sulfate

Neutralizer = acetic acid/boric acid
Hardener = potassium alum/potassium bromide.

56. The chemical that will dissolve all the unexposed and undeveloped silver halides after           development is the?

a. acetic acid c. hypo

b. sodium sulfate d. potassium alum

57. What shutter speed will freeze a moving object?

a. B-shutter b. Slow shutter

c. Fast shutter d. moderate shutter

 Fast shutter= freeze a moving object.

B-shutter = used when taking photograph at night or when the source of light is low. Used together with cable
release and tripod.

58. How much light will the combination of 1/125, f-4 has compare to 1/250, f-5.6.

a. equal b. 2 times
c. four times d. 6 times

1/125, f -4 = 1/250, f-5.6

59. That part of the camera responsible for transmitting the light to form the image (Image forming device).

a. Light tight box b. shutter

c. Lens d. view finder

60. It is the process of taking a magnified (enlarged) photograph of small object obtained by attaching an extended
tube lens to a camera.

a. Photomicrography b. Photomacrography
c. Microphotography d. Photomacrograph

61. Is a magnified photograph of small object obtained by attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound
microscope.
 a. Photomicrography b. Microphotograph
c. Photomicrograph d. Photomacrograph

Photomicrography and photomacrography are process.

Photomacrograph = is an enlarged photograph.
Microphotograph = is a reduced photograph. Making big object small.

62. Is that part of the sensitized which is sensitive to light.

a. emulsion b. Anti halation

c. base d. Coating

Anti halation = designed to prevent further reflexes by absorbing excess light.

63. Is that substance present in the emulsion surface of the film or photo paper which is sensitive to light.

a. silver nitrate b. silver halides

c. silver chloride d. silver bromide

64. Taking photograph in back lighting will produce what image?

a. Good image b. Bad image

c. fare image d. better image

** what is required in front lighting**

65. What is meant by total take?

a. photograph the crime scene in all angles.

b. Photograph only important evidence.
c. Photograph the crime scene
d. Photograph the body of the crime.
 Forensic Ballistics

= it is the science of firearms identification by means of an ammunition fired from them

1. The word forensic means _______?

a. Forum
b. public discussion
c. market place   
d. In connection with administration of justice

The word forensic was derived from the Latin word “forum” meaning a “market place”, a place where people
gathered for public discussion.

2. The person accredited as successful inventor of gun powder.

a. Horace smith
b. Alexander John Forsyth
c. Berthhold Schwartz
d. Col Calvin H. Goddard

Roger Bacon (1242 AD) wrote a literary article which turns out to be the original formula of black powder.
Calvin H. Goddard = father of modern ballistics.
Horace Smith= founder of Smith and Wesson company.

3. It is the science of mobility of the projectile.

a. forensic ballistics c. applied physics

b. ballistics d. applied science

4. Is that branch of ballistics which treats of the motion of the projectile while it is in its flight?
     
a. Interior b. terminal c. exterior d. forensic

Interior = before leaving the gun muzzle.

Exterior = upon leaving the gun muzzle.
Terminal = upon reaching/hitting the target.

5. Is a Greek word from which the word “ballistics” was derived which means “to throw”

a. Ballistics c. Ballein or ballo

b. Catapult d. Ballista

Ballista = is a gigantic catapult (Roman war machine) designed to throw stone to the enemy.

6. It refers to the motion of the projectile once it enters a rifled barrel of a gun.

a. Direct c. Transnational
b. Rotatory d. Twist

Direct = forward movement.

Rotatory = twist of the bullet either to the R or L.
Translational = change in the motion of the bullet.

7. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell.

a. hammer c. trigger
b. primer d. flash hole

Trigger = release the hammer.

Hammer = push the firing pin.
Firing pin = hits the primer.
Primer = imparts ignition to the gun powder
Flash hole = where the primer imparts ignition to the gun powder.

8. Is the rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to the forward movement of the bullet upon firing?

a. percussion action c. back fire

b. recoil d. ricochet

Percussion action = is the ignition of the priming mixture.

Jump = upward reaction of the gun.

9. Is the stillness or the steadiness of the bullet in flight? (Straight travel in flight)

a. key hole shot c. yaw

b. ricochet d. gyroscopic action

Recochet =bouncing of bullet as a result of not penetrating or hitting a hard object.

Yaw = unstable rotation motion of bullet.
Key hole shot = thumbling of bullet in flight hitting the target sideways.

10. The actual pattern or curve path of the bullet in flight.

a. curve c. gyroscopic action

b. trajectory d. drop of bullet

11. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time, expressed in ft/sec?

a. muzzle velocity c. muzzle blast

b. velocity d. Trajectory

Muzzle blast = noise or sound generated at the muzzle point.

Muzzle velocity = the speed at which the bullet leaves the muzzle.

12. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot. Where the bullet travel straight.

a. Maximum range c. Maximum effective range

b. Accurate range d. Effective range

Range = imaginary straight distance between muzzle and the target.

Effective range = distance where bullet is lethal.
Maximum effective range = farther distance where bullet is still lethal.
Maximum range= farthest possible distance of travel.

13. Is the size of the bullet grouping on the target?

a. Terminal penetration c. Terminal accuracy

b. Terminal trajectory d. Muzzle velocity

14. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with more than one inch diameter?

a. small arms c. artillery

b. machine gun d. Cannon

Artillery =more than one inch

Small Arms = less than one inch
Machine gun = automtic/continuous firing
Shoulder arm = carry/fired with the aid of the shoulder.
Hand gun = can be fired in one hand.

15. A type of a firearm in which the mechanism is so arranged that makes it capable of continuous firing in a single
press of a trigger and while the trigger is press.

a. machine gun c. sub-machine gun (SMG)

b. grease gun d. shoulder arm
SMG and grease gun are the same.

16. What type of a firearm is designed to propel a projectile by means of compressed air or strong string?

a. air rifle c. Springfield armory

b. carbine d. musket

17. A type of a firearm which propels a number of lead pellets in one charge to a smooth bore barrel.

a. rifle c. machine gun

b. shotgun d. Musket

Smooth bore = without rifling

a. musket =muzzle loading/ancient weapon
b. shotgun = breech loading/a number of lead pellets.

Rifled bore = with rifling

a. rifle
b. carbine = short barrel rifle (less than 22”)

18. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry. (riding a horse)

a. carbine c. pistol
b. revolver d. rifle

Revolver = ideal for horse riding.

19. What type of a hand firearm has a rotating cylinder that serves as the magazine and which successively places
cartridge into position for firing.

a. pistol c. rifle
b. revolver d. Carbine

20. A type of a firearm in which pressure upon the trigger will both cock and release the hammer.

a. single action c. single shot

b. double action d. repeating arms

Single action =requires manual cocking.

21. What type of a firearm contains rifling (land and grooves) only a few inch from the muzzle point?

a. cylinder type c. rifled bore

b. choke d. Paradox

Cylinder type = equal diameter

Choke type = reducing diameter
Paradox = with rifling a few inch from the muzzle point.

22. What type of a firearm is fed by chamber?

a. single shot F/A c. bolt action

b. slid action d. repeating arms

23. Generally applied to all home made gun, just as the one used by juvenile delinquent in United States.

a. zip gun c. freakish gun

b. grease gun d. paltik

24. A copper jacketed type of a bullet is usually fired from a:

 a. rifle b. pistol c. revolver d. pistol and revolver

Freakish gun = a tool in which F/A mechanism is attached.

Paltik = the counter part of zip gun in the Phils.

25. Known as the smallest pistol in the world.

a. Colibre c. senorita
b. cal 22 d. Kolibre

26. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.

a. housing c. frame
b. casing d. chamber

27. The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the empty shells from the chamber?

a. Ejector c. Extractor
b. Firing pin d. Extractor pin

Extractor = causes the empty shell to be withdrawn/pull out from the chamber.
Ejector = causes the empty shell to be thrown out of the firearm.

28. In case that cartridge case are found at the scene of firing it only means that_____firearm was used.

a. single shot c. bold action

b. automatic d. double action

29. What is that condition in firing at which the cartridge took several seconds before it      discharged upon firing?
(delayed in the discharged of the cartridge).

a. mis-fire c. hang fire

b. backfire d. Backshot

Misfire = failure to discharged.

Hangfire = delay in the discharged of firearm.

30. What is the steel block that closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge?

a. breechface c. breechblock
b. hammer d. chamber

Breechface = the flat surface where the base of the shell comes in contact when fired.
Chamber = part of the f/a where cartridge is placed when ready to be fired.

31. Type of primer consisting of two flash hole or vent.

a. Berdan c. Battery
b. Boxer d. none

Boxer=one flash hole; Battery= shotgun primer.

32. Father of percussion ignition.

a. Alexander John Forsyth

b. Roger Bacon
c. Bethold Schwartz
d. Veillie

Veillie = developed smokeless powder for rifle.

33. Primers are used for igniting the propellant charge by means of a blow from the firing pin on the primer cup
producing flames that passes through the:
 a. Anvil c. Vent/ flash hole
b. Paper disc d. Primer cup

Anvil = solid metallic support.

Paper disc= thin foil/animal skin which protect the priming mixture from moist.
Primer cup = gilding metal cup which holds the priming mixture.

34. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, primer, gun powder and shell:

a. ammunition c. shotgun cartridge

b. cartridge d. missile

Ammunition =loaded shell.

Shotgun cartridge = consists of pellet, gunpowder, primer, shell and wads.

35. Is that type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in film-making:

a. dummy c. drill
b. blank d. live

36. Is the type of cartridge with a rim diameter which is smaller than the diameter of the body of the cartridge?

a. Belted type c. Rimless

b. Rebated d. Rimmed type

37. Is the type of cartridge in which is the priming mixture is not found at the cavity rim of the cartridge case?

a. Pin fire c. Center fire

b. Rimmed type d. Rim fire

38. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:

a. .730” b. .729” c. .726” d. .724”

39. European made firearm are usually referred in millimeter in determining calibers, when you talk of 9mm you are
referring to?

a. .38 cal c. .45 cal

b. .357 cal d. .30 cal

40. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propel from a firearm.

a. bullet b. slug
c. projectile d. missile e. all of these

Projectile = metallic and non metallic ball propel from a firearm.

Bullet = projectile usually fired from small arms.
Slug =other term/police term for bullet.
Shot = also referred to as slug/commonly used in shotgun.
Missile = used for artillery.

41. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a bright flame at its base and usually colored red-tip.

a. armor piercing c. tracer

b. incendiary d. explosive

Armor piercing = used in light metallic target/harden metal core.

Incendiary = design to set fire upon impact (blue tip)
Explosive = design to fragment.

42. A type of a bullet made in order to inflict greater damage used by India. (expanding bullet)
a. Dum-Dum c. expanding bullet
b. baton round d. explosive
e. mushroom bullet

Expanding bullet = hallow point & soft point also called mushroom bullet.

43. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to prevent leading is known as:

a. Plated bullet c. Metal cased bullet

b. Jacketed bullet d. Metal point bullet

44. Shots consisting of a small lead ball or pellets which are made by dropping with the exception of the very largest
sizes which are made by molding are known as:

a. Soft shots c. Buck shots

b. Drop shots d. Chilled shots

45. A miscellaneous type of bullet design as anti riot, basically made from rubber at a larger caliber.

a. Discarding sabot c. Baton Round

b. Flechette d. Frangible

Discarding Sabot = design for greater velocity.

Flechette = a number of nail type or neddle-like projectile.

46. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which serves as the projector for the propellant against
moisture?

a. Bullet c. Cartridge case

b. Primer d. Paper disc

47. Is that part of the cartridge case which characterized by a cylindrical grooves that prevents the bullet from being
push down to the cartridge?

a. Crimp c. Shoulder
b. Neck d. Cannelure

Crimp = prevent loss/pull out.

48. A cylindrical groove around the body of a bullet which may contains lubricating substances and which can be the
basis in determining its manufacturer.

a. Body c. ogive
b. Bullet crimp d. bullet cannelure.

49. Black powder basically composed of:

a. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.

b. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
c. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % sulfur.
d. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.

50. A form of smokeless powder made from sticks or cords?

a. balistite c. cordite
c. powder B d. nitroglycerine

51. The don’t MAC rule in collection of physical evidence stands for: Mutilate, Alter and ____?

a. Cut c. contaminate
b. Consume d. conserve
52. Is the part of the cartridge case which holds the primer securely in a central position and providing a solid support
for the primer anvil?

a. Flash hole c. Extractor groove

b. Primer pocket d. Rim

Rim = limits the forward movement of the cartridge to the cylinder.

53. The caliber of a bullet is measured through?

a. Two opposite lands

b. Measuring the base diameter
c. using the caliper
d. using a micrometer

54. Is the helical groove mark found inside the bore of the barrel designed to impart rotation motion of the bullet

a. lands c. rifling
b. grooves d. pitch of rifling

55. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of a firearm with identical
class characteristics as that of:

a. Browning c. Colt
b. Smith and Wesson d. Steyer

62. The pitch of rifling (rate of twist) in the barrel of a firearm is called as____?

a. land
b. one complete revolution of bullet
c. groove
d. range

57. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of rifling of a firearm?

a. calipher c. tortion balance

b. helixometer d. Chronograph

Caliper = measure caliber

Chronograph = measure velocity.

58. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the _________?

a. outside near open mouth b. side or body of the shell

c. inside near open mouth d. any of the above

59. Fired bullet found at the scene of the crime are usually  marked at the ______.

a. Ogive c. Base e. none of the above

b. Nose d. Any of the above

60. Fired bullet/fired shell are usually mark with:

a. Initial of the investigator

b. Initials of investigator and date of recovery.
c. Letter “t” plus the last two digit of the firearm.
d. Letter “t-1, t-2…., plus the last two digit of the firearm used.

61. It is the list of the people who have handled the physical evidence from the time of its discovery until their final
disposition in court.

a. Evidence list c. Chain link

b. Chain of events d. chain of custody

62. The basis in shell identification is________?

a. firing pin marks

b. breech face marks
c. Firing pin and/or breech face marks
d. extractor and ejector marks

63. Individual marks found at the interior portion of the bullet due to poor alignment of the cylinder with bore of the
firearm.

a. skid marks c. stripping marks

b. shaving marks d. slippage marks

Skid mark = due to forward movement of the bullet to the bore before it rotates.

64. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel is that it is useful in directly identifying the:

a. bullet which caused the fatal wound

b. person who fired the particular firearm
c. gun from which a bullet was fired
d. possible direction of shot

65. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the crime scene?

a. picking it through the handle

b. picking it through the barrel
c. inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
d. inserting a rod at the barrel

66. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:

a. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the barrel

b. Oversized barrel
c. Oily barrel
b. badly worn-out (stripping mark)

67.  It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are determinable even before the manufacture of the firearm?

Class Characteristics c. Individual Characteristics

b. Repetitive mark d. accidental mark

68. Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are examined and compared under the comparison microscope at the
same time, level and direction and magnification and same image?

a. Pseudo match c. Juxtaposition

b. false match d. Sodo match

69. Is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object done by attaching a camera to the ocular of a
compound microscope?

a. Photomacrography c. Photomicrography
b. Microphotography d. Macrophotography

70. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index finger should?

a. touch the outside of the trigger guard

b. grasp the stock
c. be straighten along the barrel
d. be inside the trigger guard

71 . What is the secret of good shooting form?

a. relaxed and natural position
b. keeping the thumb along the hammer
c. proper sighting of the target
d. firing slowly and carefully

72. Are small grooves, channels or ridges on the surface of the bullet due to the tool marks or other irregularities in
the interior surface of the bore?

a. Land marks c. Groove marks

b. Striation d. Accidental marks

73. Is an instrument used in determining the caliber of the bullet by getting a equivalent weight?

a. Caliper c. Micrometer
b. Torsion Balance d. Flat-form balance

74. Is a type of a powder used in modern cartridges being powerful?

a. Corrosive c. Non-corrosive
b. Black d. Smoke less

0 to 2 inches (contact firing) = singeing, smudging, tattooing, presence of nitrates.

2 to 6 inches = there is singeing, smudging, tattooing, presence of nitrates.
6 to 12 inches = smudging, tattooing and presence of nitrates.
12 to 36 inches = there is tattooing and presence of nitrates.

75. An optical instrument used or designed to make simultaneous comparison of two specimens?

a. Comparison microscope c. Chronograph

b. Micrometer d. Shadowgraph

76. Instrument used in obtaining test bullet:

a. caliper
b. bullet comparison microscope
c. bullet recovery box
d. water tank

77. A pointed instrument use in marking fired bullet/fired shell.

a. pointer c. stylus
b. marker d. driller

78.Firearms includes muskets, carbine shotgun etc. as mention in _______of the Revised Administrative Code.

a. sec.788 b. sec.787 c. sec.878 d.sec.877

79. The law which prohibits possession of firearms/ammunition.

a. P.D. 1866 c. R.A. 8294

b. P.D. 1688 d. R.A. 9284

80. Low power gun are those firearms that uses projectile not more than 9mm or .38 cal. Except:

a. Magnum .22 c. magnum 357

b. Magnum 40 d. a and c only

81. Otherwise known as the Comprehensive Firearms and Ammunition Regulation Act?

a. R.A. 10591 c. R.A. 10592

b. R.A. 10158 d. R.A. 10354
82. Under the New law on firearms the following shall be considered firearm, EXCEPT.

a. Barrel c. Frame
b. Receiver d. Magazine

83. Refers to any handheld or portable weapon, whether a small arms or light weapon, that expels or is designed to
expel a bullet, shot, slug, missile or any projectile, which is discharged by means of expansive force of gases from
burning gun powder or other form of combustion or any similar instrument or implement.

a. Firearm c. Forfeited firearm

b. Antique firearm d. Confiscated firearm

84. The following are “Antique Firearms”, EXCEPT:

a. Firearm which was manufactured at least seventy-five (75) years prior to the current date but not including
replicas;
b. Firearm which is certified by the National Museum of the Philippines to be curio or relic of museum interest.
c. Any other firearm which derives a substantial part of its monetary value from the fact that it is novel, rare,
bizarre or because of its association with some historical figure, period or event.
d. Firearms which was manufacture at least 70 years prior to the current date.
 Questioned Document

1. A document completely written and signed by one person is known as____________.

a. Holograpic document
b. all of the above
c. Questioned document
d. disputed document
e. None of the above

Holograph = latin word “holo” and “graph” meaning “hand writing”.

2. It serves as the focal points of all document examination and it is where the document examiner relies as to the
determination of the appropriate examination and the extent of the problem involved.

a. Questioned document c. disputed document

b. Standard document d. evidential document

Questioned document
Collected/procured
Document
Standard
Requested/dictated

3. An autopsy report is an example of what kind of evidence?

a. documentary c. experimental
b. testimonial d. object/Real

4. Specimen of writing which was executed in the regular course of one’s activities.

a. requested c. collected
b. executed at one time d. day to day standard

5. When document examiner as well as police are dealing with documents, the most common problem they
encountered are those concerning.

a. origin c. authorship
b. counterfeit d. content (alteration)

6. Refers to the study of one’s handwriting in attempting to determine one’s personality.

a. Agraphia c. graphology
b. Chromatography d. handwriting identification

Agraphia = a kind of disease in the brain which makes the person unable to write.
Calligraphy = art of beautiful writing.
Cacography = bad writing.

7. Known Father of Questioned Document

a. Albert S. Osborn c. John Augustus

b. Dr. Hans Gross d. Ordway Hilton

8. Is the combination of the basic designs of letter and the writing movement involved in the writing?

a. copy book form c. writing movement

b. system of writing d. line quality

Copy book form = the illustration of the basic designs of letter/fundamental to the writing system.
Angular &roundhand = basic system of writing.
Writing movement = refers to the mobility/motion of the pen.

9. Is the visible record of the written strokes resulting from a combination of various factors associated to the motion
of the pen. Is the overall quality of the strokes.

a. movement c. line quality

b. writing habits d. significant writing habits

Writing habits = any repeated elements of writing.

Significant writing habits = sufficiently unique and well-fixed.
Handwriting = visible effect.
Writing = visible result.

10. Refers to the usual or normal deviations found in a repeated specimen of individual’s handwriting.

a. Natural variation c. transitory change

b. permanent damage d. temporary defect

Transitory change = changes which are only temporary.

11. In document examination when referring to contemporary documents this refers to______?

a. Document which is more than 5 years before and after.

b. Document which are not more than 5 years before and after
c. Document which are more than 30 years
d. Document which are not more than 20 years

Ancient Document = more than 30 years found in a place where it is normally to be found if genuine and not
embellish by any alteration.

12. A type of a document which bears the seals of the office issuing and the authorized signature to such document.

a. Public document c. private document

b. Official document d. commercial document

13. What is the first step in the procurement of handwriting exemplars?

a. Request for standard specimen

b. Study of the questioned specimen
c. Determine the writing instrument and paper used
d. Arrange for normal writing condition

Handwriting standards = should be three or more.

14. Is a specimen of writing prepared with deliberate intent of altering the usual writing habits in the hope of hiding
his identity.

a. disguised writing c. handlettering

b. cursive d. block capital

15. Refers to properties or marks, elements or qualities which serve to distinguish. Known as the basis of
identification.

a. Characteristics c. individual characteristics

b. class characteristics d. sample

Class/common/general characteristics or Gross = can be found in a group of writing.

16. A specimen of writing which was executed without intention of changing the usual writing habits. It is executed
normally by the writer.

a. Natural writing c. disguised writing

b. Guided writing d. assisted writing
Natural writing = consisting of usual writing habits.
Disguised = inferior than natural writing.
Guided or Assisted = executed with the writer’s hand at steadied.

17. Writing forms can either be a disconnected or joined letter writings. What specimen of writing is characterized by
disconnected style?

a. Hand lettering c. cursive writing

b. Manuscript form d. rounded

Handprinting or handlettering
Cursive = letters are joined.
Connection = (ductus link) strokes joining two successive letters in a word.

18. A genuine signature which was used in the preparation of a simulated or traced forgery.

a. Authentic signature c. standard signature

b. Model signature d. evidential signature

19. It refers to the group of muscles which is responsible for the formation of the upward strokes.

a. Flexor b. Cortex c. Lumbrical d. extensor

20. If John Loud is known for ball-point pen, who is for the fountain pen?

a. Lewis Watterman c. Laszlo Biro

b. John Parker d. Lewis Parker

21. Is a type of writing movement that gives a great freedom of movement. Also considered as the most skillful
type of movement.

a. finger movement c. hand movement

b. forearm movement d. whole arm movement

22. Is an irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or wavering stroke which is   perfectly apparent even without
magnification?

a. tremor c. tremor of illiteracy

b. tremor of old age d. tremor of fraud

Tremor of illiteracy = due to lack of skills.

Tremor of fraud = due to copying/imitation

23. A sign of forgery in guided hand signature is;

a. Good pen control c. Uneven alignment

b. Disconnected stroked d. Slanting strokes

Sign of genuine guided writing = abrupt change in direction.

24. A modern pen nib which contains a reservoir of ink in a specially designed back or chamber is described as (used
to prevent forgery).

a. ball point pen (difficult to examine) c. pencil

b. fountain pen d. fiber pen

25. What is that which widens the ink strokes due to the added pressure on a flexible pen  point.

a. pen pressure c. shading

b. pen lifting d. retouching

Pen pressure = average/usual force applied in writing.

Pen emphasis = periodic increased in pressure/intermittently forcing the pen against paper surface.
Retouching = goes back over a defective stroke.

26. Are meant to those grace lines, superfluous strokes and are useful only for ornamentation and are not essential
to the legibility of the signatures and usually occurs among writers who attempt to express some phase of their
personalities.

a. diacritical marks c. idiosyncrasies

b. embellishments d. flourishing strokes

Diacritics = strokes added to complete certain letters.

27. What was done, when one retouches or goes back over a defective portion of a writing stroke?

a. retracing c. patching
b. pressuring d. shading

28. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused by sudden removal of the writing instrument from the paper
surface?

a. tremor c. retouching
b. pen lifting d. hiatus

Hiatus = obvious gap.

29. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the beginning and continues beyond the end of a vanishing point
and are found on free natural writing and as a rule are important indication of genuineness.

a. Ending stroke c. Terminal stroke

b. Flying start and finish d. Pen movement

30. Strokes which goes back over another writing strokes and which is slightly to occur   due to lack of movement
control.

a. retouching c. retracing
b. shading d. patching

31. Is outer portion of a curve bend or crook?

a. humps b. staff/stem/shank
c. whirl d. central part

Arc = the inner portion of upper curve.

Whirl = long upward strokes.
Staff/stem/shank = long downward strokes.
Central part = the body of the letter.

32. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in almost all capital letters.

a. hitch b. humps c. beard d. buckle knot

Hitch – introductory backward stroke.

33. Forged signature made by free hand (imitation) movement and constant practice is called:

a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery

b. Simple forgery d. spurious signature

34. A traced forgery of signature is not really a writing but a,

a. Retouching c. Drawing
b. Patching d. tremor of fraud
35. What type of forgery is made when the writer’s exerts no effort to effect resemblance or facsimile between the
forged and the genuine signatures?

a. simple c. simulated
b. traced d. spurious

36. A type of forgery which involves fraudulent signature executed by actually following the outline (tracing) of a
genuine signature with a writing instrument?

a. carbon outline process c. lasered

b. indention process d. traced

37. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a signature is forgery, but it is very difficult on the other hand to
established who committed the forgery because:

a. the forger might be a left handed

b. imitation is one of the most effective means to disguise one’s handwriting
c. it might be a traced forgery
d. there should be no sufficient standard available

38. Philippine Paper bills are printed in what process.

a. Letter process
b. Intaglio process
c. Off-set process
d. Lithographic process
e. All of the above

39. Paper, which has been treated in such a way as to minimize the change of a successful forgery by erasure,
whether mechanical or chemical, being carried out on any document of which it forms the basis called.

a. Chemical paper
b. Safety paper
c. Tested paper
d. Polyethylene coated paper

40. . What is that indelible ink whose marking substance is composed of mixture of aniline ink and graphite?

a. stencil c. nut gall ink

b. printers ink d. copy pencil

Carbon ink = oldest ink

Indian rubber = oldest eraser
Papyrus = Egyptian plant from which the word paper was derived.

41. What is the first step in the procurement of typewriting exemplars?

a. procurement of the suspected typewriter

b. acquisition of typewriting exemplars
c. study of the questioned typewriting
d. preparation of exemplars

42. Is one of the most expensive instruments used for examination of documents that would show three dimensional
enlargements.

a. polarizing light c. stereoscopic microscope

b. infra-red gadget d. ultra-violet light

Handwriting slope measuring test plates = used to examine handwriting slant.

Typewriting measuring testplates = for typewriting examination.
Magnifying lens = basic tool which can solved almost 75% of document cases.
43. What is that type of signature which has been made in a particular date, time, place and at a particular purpose of
recording it.

a. model signature c. evidential signature

b. standard signature d. guided signature

44. Is a light examination in which the source of illumination strikes the surface of the paper from the back or at the
bottom, usually designed in identification of water     markings?

a. direct light c. side light

b. oblique light d. transmitted light

45. An illegible form of a writing which is characterized by partially visible depression appearing underneath the
original writing.

a. invisible writing c. indented writing

b. obliterated writing d. contact writing

46. A type of conventional typewriter in which the characters are normally space 12 in one horizontal

a. pica c. elite
b. proportional spacing machine d. computer

47. Is a typeface defect in which the letters are printed to the right or left of its proper position.

a. vertical mal alignment (Above and below)

b. twisted letter
c. horizontal mal alignment
d. off-its feet

48. What is that substance which is capable of bleaching an ink.

a. Sympathetic Ink c. Superimposing Ink

b. Ink Eradicator d. Invisible ink

Sympathetic Ink or Invisible ink = inks with no readily visible strokes.

Superimposing ink = used for blotting or smearing over an original writing. (Used in Obliteration)

49. Is the type of light examination best used in deciphering an obliterated writing and charred document.

a. Ultra violet light c. Infra-red light

b. transmitted light d. x-ray

50. Is a type of an abnormality/defects in typewriter that can easily be corrected by simply  cleaning the machine or
replacing the ribbon.

a. temporary defect c. permanent defect

b. Clogged type face d. actual breakage
Remington Model 1 (1874) = first commercial typewriter.
 Polygraphy

= scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of polygraph machine.
= also known as instrumental interrogation/ lie detector test.

1. The word Polygraph was derived from What word?

a. Poly and Graph c. Greek

b. Many writing chart d. Latin

The word Polygraph was derived from the Greek word “poly” which means “many or several” and “graph” meaning
“writing chart”

2. The first man noted for the used of the word “Polygraph”

a. Thomas Jefferson b. Cesare Lombroso

c. Galileo Galilee d. Sir James Mackenzie

Polygraph = is a scientific instrument capable of recording changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and respiration as
indicative of emotional disturbances.

3. Is the person who devise an instrument that can record changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and respiration
simultaneously which he called the “Bread board Lie Detector”.

a. Cesare Lombroso b. John A. Larson

c. Sir James Mackenzie d. Leonarde Keeler

Pulselogim was invented by Galileo Galilee as 1st instrument used for measuring pulse beat.
Bread Board lie detector is the first portable polygraph machine invented by John Larson in 1921.
William Marston = utilized sphygmomanometer for detecting systolic blood pressure and developed the
discontinuous technique in questioning.
Sir James Mackenzie = is a heart specialist who described in two (2) British Journal a machine which he called “Ink
Polygraph”.

4. A person who makes a great improvement on the polygraph machine in the year 1926.

a. John A. Larson c. John E. Reid

b. Richard O. Arthur d. Leonarde Keeler

Richard D. Arthur = developed his own polygraph machine with two (2) galvanic skin resistance.
John E. Reid = developed his Reid polygraph known for the addition of muscular resistance. Later the machine was
adopted by the company and named after it “Stoelting Polygraph”.

5. An Australian Magistrate who described the work of investigator/detectives as “Search for Truth”

a. Dr. Paul Kirk c. August Vollmer b. Dr. Hans Gross d. Angelo Mosso

Dr. Paul Kirk = the father of criminalitistics in U.S.

August Vollmer = the first head of the first comprehensive crime laboratory in U.S.
Angelo Mosso= the one who studied fear as a strong influence in detecting deception and also utilized
sphygmomanometer.

6. The person who made the first suggestion for using the Psycho Galvanic reaction for detecting deception and we
stated that galvanic skin phenomenon is under the influence of exciting mental impressions and the will has no effect
upon it.

a. Veraguth c. Sticker
b. Harold Burtt d. Vittorio Bennussi

Vittorio Benussi= devised a system of computing the ratio between inhale and exhale and exhale of the subject.
Harold Burtt“= respiration & systolic B.P.”
Sticker =“Activity of Sweat Glands & Electro dermal Response.”
7. He devised a quantitative analysis on a polygraph chart and the test called Backster Zone Comparison Technique.
(numerical scoring)

a. Cleve Backster c. C.D. Lee

b. Richard D. Arthur d. Galilleo

Richard D. Arthur = developed two (2) galvanic skin resistance.

C.D. Lee = developed “psychograph machine”
Galilleo = developed the first instrument to record pulse beat called “pulselogium”

8. Is an ancient method of detecting deception practice in Bengal, India where accused to proved his innocent would
touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal.

a. boiling water ordeal c. red hot iron ordeal

b. ordeal of balance d. Ordeal of heat and fire

Scientific Methods:
1. Word Association test = used of time pressure
2. Used of Alcoholic Beverages
3. Narco- Analysis
4. Hypnotism = Subject is under control of the hypnotizer.
5. Polygraphy = instrumental interrogation.

9. The Raid polygraph differs from the keeler’s in the following respect except:

a. An adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal bellows are inserted in the chair arm rests.
b. The chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the machine to form closed pneumatic systems.
c. Three additional recordings are made by this method
d. There is no need of using corrugated rubber tubing.

10. It is the act of deceiving usually accompanied by uttering falsehood?

a. lying c. deception
b. Misleading d. lie

11. Which of the following is true about Polygraph machine?

a. It is a machine that can diagnose subject.

b. It is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion.
c. It is a lie detector machine.
d. It is a machine that detects physiological responses.

12. The polygraph machine should be _________ in relation to the credibility and competence of the examiner?

a. Indirectly proportion
b. Supplementary to investigation
c. Substitute to investigation
d. Directly proportion

Polygraphy is an aid and never a substitute for investigation.

13. The following notions about polygraph machine are wrong, EXCEPT.

a. It rings a bell
b. It has a dial indicator
c. It flash a light
d. It is like an X-ray

14. Is the scientific basis of the polygraph test which states that the polygraph machine is an instrument capable of
making records of various human functioning simultaneously in a chart paper.

a. mechanical leg basic premise

b. physiological leg basic premise
c. psychological leg basic premise
d. psycho motor leg basic premise

15. A type of deceit for the purpose of humor, when the falsehood is generally understood, is often regarded as not
immoral and is widely practiced by humorists and comedians.

a. White lie c. Jocose lie

b. Emergency lie d. Malicious lie

White lie (officious)=where the lie is harmless, and there are circumstances where there is an expectation to be less
than totally honest through necessity or pragmatism.
Emergency lie =is a strategic lie told when the truth may not be told because, for example, harm to a third party
would result.

16. A Hindu book of science and health which is considered one of the earliest reference on detecting deception.

a. Ayur Vida
b. Dharmasatra of Gautama
c. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
d. Omerta

Dharmasastra of Gautama = explains the nature of lying.

Vasistra of Dharmasastra = justifies lying.
Omerta = Code of Silence (MAFIA)

17. Considered to be the ancient method of crime detection.

a. Methods of Ordeal
b. Trial by Combat
c. Boiling Water ordeal
d. The Ordeal of rice chewing

18. Which of the following is a major component of the polygraph machine?

a. Blood pressure cuff

b. Pen and inking system
c. keymograph
d. cardiosphygmograph

Major Components
1. Cardiosphygmograph = detects B.P. and P.B.
2. Galvanograph = detects skin resistance.
3. Pneumograph = detects breathing or respiration.

Major Section
1. Cardiosphygmograph
2. Galvanograph
3. Pneumograph
4. Keymograph = driving mechanism (6 – 12 inches)
5. Pen and Inking System = designed to make a permanent record of the polygraph test.

19. Is that part of the pneumograph component which was attached to the body of the subject with the usual length
of 10 inches.

a. beaded chain
b. finger electrode plate
c. rubber convulated tube
d. blood pressure cuff

20. Is that section of the polygraph machine designed to run the paper at a regular speed of 6 inches per minutes.

a. keymograph c. pen and inking system

b. pnuemograph d. galvanogaph
21. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial artery.

a. arm cuff c. Wrist cuff

b. infant cuff d. hand cuff

Wrist cuff = attached above the radial artery.

22. This is a galvanograph attachment section EXCEPT:

a. sets of electrodes
b. stretched band
c. electrodes jelly
d. rubber tube

23. The size of the galvanograph recording pen is ______?

a. 5 inches c. 7 inches
b. 6 inches d. 10 inches

5 inches = for pneumograph and cardiosphygmograph recording.

24. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an average length of?

a. 100 yards c. 100 ft

b. 100 meters d. 100 km

25. Is the sum total of the dissimulation which the child acquires from his surrounding once he learn to go out and
socialized with his neighborhood.

a. Personality c. Heredity
b. Environment d. Education

26. What should be the attitude of a polygraph examiner in confronting subject in a polygraph test.

a. arrogant c. authoritative
b. cordial but firm d. antagonistic

PER-SON-AL-ITY = the sum total of H2E

Heredity = transmission of physical and mental traits of the parents to the offspring upon conception.
Education = formal process of learning in an accredited/ recognized institution.

27. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector examination are all ___ and this creates a set of
distortion.

a. Terrified c. convenient
b. nervous d. confident

28. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the examiner do?

a. reschedule the examination

b. prolong the period of the pre-test interview.
c. call for a doctor or request for an ambulance.
d. do not continue with the pre test and ask the subject for his available date for reschedule.

29. Is a short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at the middle of the diastolic stem.

a. Dicrotic c. Diastotic
b. Diastolic d. Systolic

Systolic B.P = the upward blood pressure.

Diastolic B.P. = the downward blood pressure.
30. Is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test.

a. 60 –65 c. 6- 12
b. 70 – 75 d. 13- 15

13- 15 – cyclic rate of respiration.

31. In polygraph test Questions are usually answerable by:

a. yes c. neither yes nor no

b. no d. a or b

32. The following are disqualified to be subject of polygraph test, EXCEPT.

a. minor c. nervous
b. imbecile d. insane

33. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the start of the test?

a. X/60/1.5 A C. XX/60/1.5 A
b. X/50/2.5 A D. XXX/60/2.5 A

34. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long complicated questions because this will:

a. Give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.

b. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
c. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
d. Embarass him and cause him to answer he does not know

35. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the investigator to:

a. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment

b. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement
c. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
d. Devote adequate time for an interviewee’s evaluation.

36. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the atmosphere during the interrogation?

a. interrogator’s behavior
b. the type of crime involved
c. questioning style of the interrogator
d. the subject’s personal history

37. Who determines the guilt of the subject in a polygraph test?

a. Examiner c. Judge
b. Prosecutor d. Investigator

38. Is the stage in the conduct of the polygraph test, which is designed to prepare or conditionthe subject for the
actual test.

a. Initial Interview
b. Pre-test Interview
c. Instrumentation
      d. Post test Interview/Interrogation

 Stages in the Conduct of Polygraph Examination

Initial interview =between subject & Investigator.
= designed to obtain information.
1. Pre-test Interview includes: appraisal of constitutional rights, taking subject consent, Filing-up of the PDS and
determine the Physical, mental, psychological condition of the subject.
2. Actual test/Instrumentation = begin with the attachment of the various component parts.
3. Post-test Interview/Interrogation = after test.
39. It is conducted for the purpose of obtainingconfession or an admission from the subject once deception is
observed.

a. initial interview c. Pre-test interview

b. Instrumentation d. post-test interview or interrogation

40. Refers to any outside force coming from the environment, which could excite a receptor or any of his organs.

a. Stimulus c. Reaction
b. Response d. Emotion

Stimulus = refers to any force or motion coming from the environment and which reach an organism has the
tendency to arouse.
Fear = it refers to an emotional response to specific danger that appears to be beyond a persons defensive power.
Response =the reaction to a stimulus, in response to, in answer to.
Reaction = an action in mental attitude evoke by external influence.

41. Is the type of question designed to established normal response from the subject?

a. relevant c. irrelevant
b. control d. knowledge

42. “ Did you shoot Rose last night?” is an example of what question?

a. irrelevant question c. control question

b. relevant question d. none of the above

Irrelevant = not related to the facts in issue. Always answerable by “yes” and design to established the norms of the
subject.
Relevant = to establish specific response.

43. Is that type of questions given to determine information known or the subject possess  regarding the crime or the
criminal or his whereabouts?

a. evidence connecting question

b. knowledge question
c. sacrifice questions
d. control questions

44. Is a type of test designed to overly responsive subject, consisting of questions that are purely fictitious incident of
a similar nature to the one that is under investigation.

a. general question test c. peak of tension test

b. guilt complex test d. silent answer test

General Question test = series of relevant and irrelevant answerable by either yes or no.
Peak of tension test = there is only one relevant questions usually at the center and a series of irrelevant question
(padding question).
SAT= (silent answer test) no verbal response is required.
Guilt Complex test = used fictitious incident to overly responsive subject.
Yes test, No test, Card test, mixed test.

45. Is a force questioning of a person who is reluctant to give an information.

a. Interview c. Confession
b. Interrogation d. Admission

46. Is a self incriminating statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.

a. Admission c. Interview
b. Confession d. Interrogation
Interview = simple questioning of victim or witnesses who are willing to give information.
Interrogation = forceful/rigid/vigorous questioning.

47. Of the following which is a kind of polygraph machine?

a. Stoelting polygraph c. keeler's polygraph

b. Laffayette polygraph d. all of these

48. Is that part of the galvanograph component which converts electrical to mechanical current:

a. Amplifier unit c. finger electrode assembly

b. resonance control d. sensitivity knob

49. In any interrogation the belief that man is fallible human being should not be overlooked and therefore polygraph
examiners are always subject to _________?

a. precision of diagnosis c. errors

b. certainty of interpretations d. none of these

50. Refers to the brief confrontation between the subject and the polygraph examiner done every after taking each
chart.

a. initial interview c. Pre-test interview

b. chart probing d. post-test interview or interrogation
 Forensic Medicine

1. Is a poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg?

a. H2S c. CO2
b. CO d. H2O

CO is a poisonous gas that liberates from the unburned part of the ordinary cumbustibles.

2. In the schematic outline on the isolation and identification of some common poisons,   the specimen should first
be:

a. alkaline solution (Na(OH))

b. distilled with or without stem
c. ether-extracted
d. mixed with chemical antidotes.

3. Is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a normal built person.

a. 1.5 to 3.5 cc b. 2.5 to 3.5 cc

c. 3.5 to 5.5 cc d. 3.5 to 4.5 cc

400 to 500 millions = number of average spermatozoa per ejaculation.

Aspermia = semen without spermatozoa
Oligospermia =lack of sperm counts

4. What is known as the reproduction of an impression made on soft surface by utilizing casting materials.

a . dry fussion c. moulage

b. metallic aides d. plaster of paris

5. What will be the possible child of a man with Group A and Type M blood with woman of Group B, type N blood.

a. AB, N b. B,N c. O, M d. AB, MN

Anti -A (blue) and anti –B (yellow) used for blood grouping

6 quarts = the amount of blood in normal built person.

Chronological Steps in Blood Testing:

1. Preliminary test (Maybe blood) = Benzidine, Phenolphthalein, etc.
2. Confirmatory test (surely blood) = microscopic, micro-chemical, spectroscopic.
3. Biological or precipitin test (Human or Animal)
4. Blood Grouping and Blood typing.
6.To confirm the presence of blood we look for?
a. white crystalline
b. Salmon pink, haemochromogen
c. white cloudy precipitate
d. Dark brown rhomboid crystals

7. It is a biological test for blood?

a. benzidine test c. takayama test

b. blood grouping/typing d. precipitin test

Bezidine = preliminary test for blood (deep blue)

Takayama = confirmatory test (micro-chemical)

8. This blood is characterized as bright scarlet in color, leaves the blood vessel with pressure and high oxygen
content.

a. Arterial blood c. Venous blood

c. Menstrual blood d. Child’s blood
9. A preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to 300,000 dilution is:

a. Benzidine c. guiacum
b. Phenolphthalein d. leucomalachine Green

Phenolphthalein = reddish pink result (1:80,000)

10. Is the chemical substance found in all cells whose composition have been passed on from parents to their
children.

a. RNA b. DNA
c. Genotype d. Phenotype

11. How much blood sample is required for purposes of DNA testing?

a. 5 cc b. 10 cc c. 7 cc d. 15 cc

11. DNA is found in all nucleats cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for.

a. Deonaturalacide c. dynamic natural antibody

b. deoxyribonucleic acid d. deocxyribonuclic acid

12. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?

a. Takayama test c. paraffin test

b. Diphenylamine d. Florence test

Nitrate = produced deep blue speaks

Nitrite = produced green speaks

13. What is the other name for cells clump?

a. overlapping c. clumping
b. agglutinate d. constipation

14. What kinds of skin is dry, and dead, peeled away from the surface skin?

a. slight skin c. incipient ridge

b. burned skin d. scarf skin

15. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers? (Stainless steel, lead, cast iron are
examples).

a. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate

b. etching solution
c. colloidal magnesium
d. borax solution

Metallurgy = study of the micro-metallic composition of metals.

16. A mercury fulminate is as example of what explosive?

a. Low c. high
b. primary d. None

Kinds of Explosives:
1. Low Explosives (Propellants) =gun powders
2. High Explosives
a. Primary High = (Primers) designed to ignite.
b. Secondary High = designed to explode.
17. What causes the pink color of blood and tissue of a gunshot wound of entry?

a. Carbon monoxide c. carbon dioxide

b. cellulose nitrite d. Hydrogen disulfide

Smokeless powder = nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine.

18. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form the bulk of the fiber.

a. cuticle b. Cortex c. medulla d. Shalf

Parts of Hair: Root, Shaft & Tip.

19. The cuticle of the animal hair is:

a. rounded c. oblong
b. serrated d. circular

Human = rounded cuticle

20. It is the ratio between the width of the medulla and the width of the whole hair?

a. medulary index c. medula

b. medulary ratio d. medula radius

21. There are two kinds of fiber natural and _____?

a. artificial c. animal
b. plant d. man-made
e. a and d

22. Which of the following test would distinguished an animal fiber from plant fiber?

a. bursting test c. ignition test

b. solubility testd. dissolving test

23. A type of test usually administered to determine soil?

a. Gas chromatography
b. Thin layer Chromatograhpy
c. Density Gradient Test
d. Mass Spectropotography

24. An adult has only ____bones

a. 200 b. 202 c. 204 d. 206

25. In the determination of the sex of the skeleton, the following bones must be studied, except.

a. pelvis c. sternum
b. skull d. none of these

26. The following are methods of approximating the height of a person, except.

a. two times the length from the vertex of the skull to the coccyx.
b. Two times the length of one arm plus 12 inches for the clavicle and 1.5 inches for the sternum
c. The distance between the tips of the middle fingers of both hands with the arms extended laterally.
d. None of these

27. It is a crack on the glass similar to a spoke of the wheel. It is a crack that extends outward from the center.

a. radial crack c. concentric crack

b. simple crack d. circular crack
28. Legal medicine is that branch of medicine which deals with the application of medical knowledge to the purpose
of _____.

a. law and justice

b. determination of cause of death
c. identifying the victim
d. none of these

29. Medical jurisprudence is that branch of _____which deals with the regulation and organization of medical
profession.

a. law c. justice
b. medicine d. jurisprudence

30. The Father of Forensic Medicine?

a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias

b. Imhotep d. Dr. Pedro Solis

Imhotep = builder of the first pyramid and was considered as the first or earliest recorded medico-legal expert.
Antistius = Earliest known forensic pathologist or public surgeon who performed the autopsy of Julius Ceasar,
reporting that out of the 23 stab wounds, only one penetrated the chest cavity between the first and second rib
which the proximate cause of Caesar’s death.

32 In 1858, who published the first textbook in legal medicine?

a. Dr. Rafael Genard y Mas

b. Dr. Sixtodelos Angeles
c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
d. Dr. Mariano Lara

“Manual de MedicinaDomestica”

33. A gait similar to that of a duck is?

a. paretic c. spastic (without bending knee)

b. waddling d. cow’s (knock-knee)

34. On what months of the fetus life the Hair of eyebrow and eye-lashes begin to appear?

a. 4th months c. 3rd months

b. 5th months d. 6th months

3rd = nails begins to appear.

4th = hair on the head starts to grow.
5th = Nails are distinct. Skin shows sebaceous secretion. Dental gum appears at the mandible.

35. At what age the breast of a woman is usually starts to develop?

a. 11 to 12 y/o c. 13 to 14 y/o
b. 16 to 18 y/o d. 7 to 9 y/o

11 to 12 menstruation
16 to 18 = development of mustache and beard.

36. The sum total of all reaction of tissues or organs for which the activities of the living cells are necessary.

a. physical reaction c. chemical reaction

b. vital reaction d. inflammation
37. It is a complete and persistent cessation of vital reactions such as respiration, circulation and almost all brain
functions.

a. death c. apparent death

b. somatic death d. mollecular death

38. As a general rule, if there is no heart action for a period of ___death is regarded as certain.

a. 5 minutes c. 7 minutes
b. 6 minutes d. 8 minutes

39. Which of the following is a more conclusive sign of death–

a. cessation of respiration
b. cooling of the body
c. cessation of heart function and circulation
d. heating of the body

40. What test determines cessation of respiration?

a. Winslow’s test c. Diaphanus test

b. Magnus test d. none of these

Magnus and Diaphanus test are test for circulation.

41. A person who is considered dead if no rate of fall of body temperature is about

a. 10 - 15°F c. 15– 20°

b. 20 – 25° F d. 25 – 30° F

42. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some internal
changes. It is usually observed in the first two hours of death

a. post mortem caloricity c. algor mortis

b. heat stiffening d. rigor mortis

43. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in the dependent portion of the body.

a. Rigor mortis c. livor mortis

b. algor mortis d. none of the above

44. Molecular death is a kind of death where:

a. there is loss of life of the individual cells of the body

b. It occurs immediately after death
c. It is usually pronounced by the physician
d. There is a transient loss of vital functions of the body

45. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, Cadaveric spasm will suggest _____?

a. duration of death c. age of the victim

b. cause of death d. none of the above

46. Stage of muscular change, which occurs 3-6 hours after death characteristics by stiffening of the muscles.

a. livor mortis c. secondary flascidity

b. algor mortis d. post-mortem rigidity

47. Post mortem lividity or livormortes is a very good basis for determining the

a. time of death
b. relative position of the assailant
c. position maintained by the body after death
 d. cause of death

48. The following are muscle changes after death except:

a. primary flascidity c. rigor mortis

b. secondary flascidity d. post-mortem lividity

49. Stages in blood changes where blood goes to the dependent portion of the body but not yet solidify.

a. livor mortis c. hypostatic lividity

b. diffusion lividity d. cadaveric spasm

50. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of death. What is that condition
characterized by spontaneous stiffening of certain group of muscles.

a. heat stiffening c. cold stiffening

b. livor mortis d. cadaveric spasm

51. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and no longer responds to mechanical or
electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein.

a.Primary flaccidity c. stage of secondary flaccidity e. Decomposition

b. Post mortem rigidity d. Putrefaction

52. Rigor mortis is very important in determining the approximate time of death for it starts at about 2 to 6 hrs and
completes at ______?

a. 36 hrs b. 24 hrs
c. 12 hrs d. 48 hrs

53. Refers to the stiffening of the muscles due to the solidification the body is exposed to freezing temperature.

a. cold stiffening c. froze stiffening

b. iced stiffening d. none of these

54. The following are important of cadaveric lividity, EXCEPT.

a. sign of death
b. determines whether the position of the body has been changed
c. may indicate the cause of death
d. none of these

55. Moggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days from death.

a. l day b. 2 days c. 3 days d. 4 days

56. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours after death?

a. 24 hours b. 12 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours

57. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles occurring at the moment of death, usually     associated with violent
death due to extreme nervous tension, or even fatigue?

a.heat stiffening c. cadaveric spasm

b. Rigor mortis d. cold stiffening

58. Is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler component associated with the evolution of foul
smelling gases and accompanied by the change of color of the body

a. putrefaction c. maceration
b. auto digestion d. saponification
59. What is a waxy substance derived from the body fat and is caused by hydrolysis and hydrogenation of adipose
tissue.

a. adipocere c. saponification
b. lipo d. none of these

60. It is a formation of a soft freoble brownish white greasy substance in the soft tissues after death.

a. Mummification c. Putrefaction
b. saponification d. decomposition

61. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents

a. 2 – 3 hours c. 4 – 5 hours
b. 3 – 4 hours d. 5 – 6 hours

62. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the development of complications
which becomes the cause of death.

a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death

b. Immediate or primary cause of death
c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death

63. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred more than 24 hours hence are useful to
approximate the time of death.

a. flies b. earthworms c. bees d. butterflies

64. EXCEPT one, the following are characteristics of cadaveric spasm

a. a natural phenomena which occur after death

b. appears immediately after death
c. involves only a group of muscles
d. all of these

65. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained physician.

a. Autopsy c. medical examination

b. embalming d. post-mortem examination

66. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by some forms of outside force.

a. violent death c. sudden death

b. natural death d. none of these

67. The elements of violent death are the following EXCEPT one.

a. That the victim at the time the injuries were inflicted was in normal health
b. That death maybe expected from physical injuries
c. That death ensued within a reasonable time
d. That death ensued from a lingering illness

68. Period of time wherein the body would b e completely skeletonized under normal conditions in tropical countries

a. 1 month c. 6 months
b. 3 months d. 12 months

69. X and Y are husband and wife, X has a mistress, Miss W, to whom he has a son (C ), a 2 years old baby. What kind
of death is involved if X killed his illegitimate child (C).

a. Homicidal death c. Murder

b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death
70. What if it is Y who killed (C)?

a. Homicidal death c. Murder

b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death

71. The act or practice of killing or bringing about the death of a person who suffers from incurable disease or
condition.

a. Euthanasia c. pathological death

b. suicide d. none of these

72. The following judicial executions were exercised in the Philippines except.

a. judicial hanging c. electrocution

b. musketry d. lethal injection

73. Average time of decomposition for tropical countries such as Philippines –

a. 12 – 24 hours c. 36 – 48 hours
b. 24 – 48 hours d. 48 – 72 hours

74. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense fire___

a. charring c. exhumation
b. cremation d. baking

75. Is a pathological classification of death which is characterized by increasing dypsnea.

a. Coma c. Syncope
b. Asphyxia d. Somatic

76. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it.

a. defense wound
b. self inflicted wound
c. patterned wound
d. mutilated wound

77. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.

a. punctured wound c. lacerated wound

b. hack wound d. incised wound

78. What is the last stage in the toxicological examination?

a. qualification c. quantification
b. multiplication d. division

79. Person who is qualified to conduct toxicological examination?

a. Physician c. forensic examiner

b. medico-legal d. forensic pathologist

80. The following are indication of gunshot wound of entrance.

a. that the size is smaller than the exit

b. that the edge is inverted
c. that the shape is round or oval
d. that the edge is everted
e. a, b, and c only

81. Vital reaction is/are present on the following EXCEPT:

 a. Ante Mortem injuries c. Stab wound over the body
b. fist blow over the body d. Post mortem injuries

82. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill – treat or incapacitated for work or require medical attendance for a
period of one to 9 days.

a. slight physical
b. less serious physical injury
c. serious physical injury
d. mutilation

83. Stab wound is produced by

a. sharp edges and sharp pointed instrument

b. sharp edged instrument
c. blunt instrument
d. Sharp pointed instrument

sharp edge instrument = incised wound

blunt = lacerated wound
rough object = abrasion
sharp pointed = punctured wound

84. Solution of the natural continuity of any tissue of the living body is called

a. fracture c. wound
b. dislocation d. contusion

85. Points to be considered in reporting of wound

a. character of wound
b. location of wound
c. number of wound
d. measurement of wound
e. all of the above

86. A wound which is the result of instinctive reaction of self protection is what special type of wound.

a. defense c. offensive
b. self inflicted wound d. Patterned

87. When the head is free and mobile, a blow on the back of the head may produce laceration in the front part of
the brain. This is what type of inury.

a. direct or coup injury c. remote

b. contre-coup injury d. coup-contre coup injury

Coup injury = the wound/injury is found in the site of application of force.

Contre coup = opposite the site
Coup-contre coup = on the site and opposite site.
Locus minoris = not on the site nor opposite but on the weak part of the body.
Extensive injury = great destruction or scatered wound/injury

88. wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger one’s life

a. non-mortal wound c. trauma

b. mortal wound d. coup injury

89. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained
that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately.

a. 6 inches c. 18 inches
 b. 12 inches d. 24 inches

90. A physical injury which is found at the site and also at the opposite of the application of force

a. extensive injury c. contre-coup injury

b. coup injury d. coup-contre coup injury

91. When the person was stabbed by an ice-pick, what wound would be exhibited.

a. punctured wound c. lacerated wound

b. hack wound d. incised wound

92.Is a form of ligature strangulation in which the force applied to the neck is derived from the gravitational drag of
the weight of the body?

a. hanging c. lynching
b. strangulation by ligature d. none of these

93. Smothering means ________

a. blockage of the external air-passages

b. blockage of the upper airways
c. deprivation of oxygen
d. none of these

94. ______is associated with the failure of the arterial blood to become normally saturated with oxygen.

a. Anoxic death
b. anemic anoxic death
c. stagnant anoxic death
d. none of these

95. It is produced by compression of the neck by means of a ligature which is tightened by a force other than the
weight of the body.

a. strangulation by ligature c. throttling

b. hanging d. gagging

96. This is a form of asphyxial death whereby the constrict force applied in the neck is the hand.

a. Throttling c. mugging
b. gagging d. none of these

97. According to Phopel, there are five level of stiffening of the joints. What level is that where some stiffening
allows relaxed repetitive movement of the hands?

a. level IV c. level III

b. level II d. level I

98. In which instance can you get more evidence of poisoning?

a. When the victim survive

b. When the victim died
c. When the suspect was arrested
d. When the victim is aware of the poisoning

99. When there is poisoning?

a. When the substance was introduced to the body.

b. When the poison combined with the food.
c. When the substance is absorbed by the body and act chemically.
d. When the substance is introduced to the body and absorbs.
100. What is the principal active component of opium which comes in white crystalline powder and light tablets.

a. heroin b. Morphine
c. cocaine d. shabu

Opium poppy –morphine -- heroin

-- codeine

101. Types of drugs that relieves pain and often induce sleep.

a. narcotics b. Stimulants
c. sedatives d. neurotics

102. __________are drugs which affects sensation, thinking, self awareness and emotion. It           may be mild or
overwhelming depending on dose and quality of drugs.

a. Narcotics b. Hallucinogens
c. sedatives d. stimulants

103. Which one is not included in street name of MARIJUANA?

a. Mary Jane c. Brownies

b. snow d. Flower

THC- Tetrahydrocannabinol = the active component of marijuana responsible for its hallucinogenic effect.

104. It is a type of virginity in which a woman has awareness and had sexual indulgence but the hymen is considered
in tact

a. Virgo Intacta c. Moral Virginity

b. Demi Virgin d. Physical Virginity

Moral virginity = innocent mind

Physical virginity (True Physical/ False Physical) = No actual experience.
Demi Virginity = had sexual experience but hymen is intact.
Virgo Intacta = raptured hymen but never gave birth.

105. Which of the following is a potential biological agent?

a. Viagra c. Antrax
b. Hydrogen d. Smallpox

Glass = supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity. Non-crystaline inorganic substance.
Silica = the most important constituent of glass.

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