NAV1

F T ra n sf o F T ra n sf o
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Participant: TAA, TAA
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Examination: 060 Navigation General
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1 Polarisation is the term used to describe the plane of oscillation of the;
electrical field of an electromagnetic wave
the magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
the electrical and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
none of the above
Origin ID: 1102 Maximum attainable 1.00

Theme 21.2.5 Basic radio propagation theory Reached points 1.00
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2 Amplitude modulation is;
varying the frequency of the carrier in accordance with the change in the amplitude of
the audio, keeping the amplitude of the carrier constant
varying the amplitude of the audio frequency in accordance with the change in
amplitude of the carrier, keeping the frequency of the carrire constant
varying the amplitude of the carrier wave in accordance with the change in amplitude of
the audio modulating signal keeping the carrier frequency constant
All of the options

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3 The importance of knowledge of polarization is said to lie in the orientation of the receiver
aerial. This is because.
Only a circularly polarized signal will be received by a horizontal aerial.
A vertical aerial will efficiently receive both the magnetic and electrical components that
spin about the axis of advance.
A horizontal aerial will efficiently receive the magnetic component of a vertically

polarized signal.
A perfectly horizontal aerial will not receive any electrical component from a vertically
polarized signal.

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4 Amplitude modulation of frequency fm carried on a transmitted frequency fc produces:
a multiple of sidebands and a greater bank width.
2 sidebands ( fc + fm ) and ( fc - fm )
3 sidebands (fc + fm), fc and ( fc - fm )
One sideband fc + fm

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5 When tracking outbound from an NDB with the proper drift correction established, which
direction will the head of the ADF bearing pointer be deflected?
To the downwind side of the aircraft's nose.
To the windward side of the aircraft's nose.
To the windward side of the aircraft's tail.
To the downwind side of the aircraft's tail.

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6 An aircraft is heading 160°T, variation is 5°W. An NDB bears 110° R.
What is the QDM of the aircraft?
270° T
275° M
090° T
095° M

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7 The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:
40 m.
7.5 m.
4 m.
75 m.

Theme 21.2.5.1 Basic principles Reached points 0.00
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8 The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is:
2.53 m.
2.53 cm.
25.3 m.
25.3 cm.

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9 The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:
metric.
centimetric.
decimetric.
hectometric.

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10 The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:
decimetric.
centimetric.
hectometric.
metric.

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11 The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:
metric.
centimetric.
hectometric or kilometric.
decimetric.

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12 A transmitter with a vertical aerial or antenna produces;
a horizontally polarised radio wave.
a vertically polarised radio wave.
a loop type wave.
either a)or b) depending on receiver antenna.

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13 What is the meaning of the word "wave length" in relation to radio signals?
The physical distance traveled by the radio wave during one complete cycle of
transmission.
One complete series of values or one complete process.
The number of cycles occurring in one second expressed in Hertz.
The maximum displacement or value a radio signal attains from its mean position
during a cycle.

Theme 21.2.5.1.2 wave length, ampl., phase angle, freq. Reached points 0.00
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14 The frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 750 metres is
400 Hz
400 GHz
400 KHz
400 MHz

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15 When using HF communications at night the best frequency is one which is;
twice the day frequency
thrice the day frequency
half the day frequency
the same as the frequency for day operation

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16 The factors that determine the ranges available from the sky waves are:
Transmission power, conductivity of earth's surface and angle of incidence.
Transmission power, depth of penetration, critical angle and angle of incidence.
Critical angle, refraction, angle of incidence and diffraction.
Transmission power, diffraction, critical angle and angle of incidence.

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17 When considering factors affecting radio wave propagation it can be said that;
as frequency is increased surface attenuation increases
as frequency is increased surface attenuation decreases
as frequency is increased ionospheric attenuation decreases
as frequency is increased ionospheric attenuation increases

Theme 21.2.5.3 Wave propagation Reached points 0.00
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18 A radio wave usually increases in speed when crossing a coastline leaving the land and
passing over the sea resulting in
A change in wave length.
A change in modulation.
A change in frequency.
No change in either frequency or wave length.

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19 Which of the following is an advantage of using Amplitude Modulation over Frequency

Modulation?
AM LHF band free from static.
Less complex transmitters are used to propagate the AM signals.
AM transmissions utilise a narrower bandwidth.
Less modulating power is required when using AM.

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20 Side bands in relation to radio signals are:
Additional frequencies which occur whenever an audio frequency is modulated by a

frequency higher than itself.
Additional frequencies which occur whenever a carrier is modulated by a frequency

lower than itself particularly audio frequencies.
The resultant frequency when a carrier is modulated by a frequency higher than itself.
Only additional frequencies when the audio frequency is amplitude modulated by a

carrier frequency lower than it.

Theme 21.2.5.3.3 propagation with the frequency bands Reached points 0.00
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21 Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W

Waypoint 2. 60°S 020°W
What will be the approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial
navigation system at longitude 025°W?
059°49'S
060°11'S
060°00'S
060°06'S

Theme 61.1.2 The earth Reached points 0.00
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22 Position A is located on the equator at longitude 130°00E.

Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of 225°(T).
The coordinates of position B are:
01°11'N 128°49'E
01°11'S 128°49'E
01°11'S 131°11'E
01°11'N 131°11'E

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23 If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following parallel 60°N at a ground
speed of 480 kt. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same
amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:
550 kt
480 kt
240 kt
960 kt

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24 The great circle track from A (20°00'N 010°00'W) to B (40°00'N 010°00'E) is 060° (T).
The great circle track from B to A is:
250° (T)
240° (T)
230° (T)
245° (T)

Theme 61.1.2.0.1 great circle, small circle, rhumbline Reached points 0.00
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25 Taking the circumference of the earth as 21600 NM at the Equator , what is the distance
between two longitudes one degree apart at 45 N or S of the Equator ?
30 NM
42 NM
60 NM
2700 NM

Theme 61.1.2.0.5 use of latitude and longitude Reached points 0.00
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26 Agonic lines are lines joining places of
Zero variation
Equal elevation
equal temperature
Equal variation

Theme 61.1.4.0.2 magnetic poles, isogonals Reached points 0.00
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27 The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N 'x' is 900 NM.
What is the longitude of 'x'?
175°E
145°E
140°W
170°W

Theme 61.1.5 Distance Reached points 0.00
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28 The scale of a chart is 1: 750,000 at the Equator.

The Chart length to the nearest inch between meridians 7o apart at the equator is :
22
41
63

Theme 61.1.5.0.1 units of distance and height Reached points 0.00
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29 The scale of a map is 1 :780,000. What is the Chart length representing 217 KM on the earth
?
27.8 cm
15.2 cm
6.2 cm
7.8 cm

Theme 61.1.5.0.2 conversion from one unit to another Reached points 0.00
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30 When is the magnetic compass most effective?
About midway between the magnetic poles
In the region of the magnetic South Pole.
In the region of the magnetic North Pole.
On the geographic equator

Theme 61.2.1 General principles Reached points 0.00
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31 At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:
depends on the true heading
depends on the magnetic heading
varies slowly over time
depends on the type of compass installed

Theme 61.2.1 General principles Reached points 0.00
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32 When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass

card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn:
anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

Theme 61.2.2 Aircraft magnetism Reached points 0.00
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33 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on
a direct reading compass?
Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes
Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes
Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high
latitudes
Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high
latitudes

Theme 61.2.2 Aircraft magnetism Reached points 0.00
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34 The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system is used when:
synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements
compensating for deviation
setting local magnetic variation
setting the 'heading' pointer

Theme 61.2.3 Knowledge of the principles Reached points 0.00
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35 The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and
38°20' N.
The constant of the cone for this chart is:
0.39
0.42
0.92
0.60

Theme 61.3.1 General properties of miscellaneous Reached points 0.00
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36 On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two meridians spaced
5° apart at latitude 60°N is 8 cm.
The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
1: 4 750 000
1: 7 000 000
1: 3 500 000
1: 6 000 000

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37 On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5° apart along latitude
37° North is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates:
1: 5 000 000
1: 2 000 000
1: 3 750 000
1: 6 000 000

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38 The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm.
What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?
1: 18 000 000
1: 21 000 000
1: 25 000 000
1: 30 000 000

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39 Which one of the following is not a classification of projections according to Properties

that it has?
Equal area
Equi distance
Zenithal
Orthomorphic

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40 Given:
Chart scale is 1: 1 850 000.
The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres.
Earth distance is approximately:
74 NM
4 NM
100 NM
40 NM

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41 A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM.

The scale of this chart is approximately:
1: 6 000 000
1: 3 500 000
1: 5 000 000
1: 7 000 000

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42 How does the chart convergency change with latitude in a Lambert Conformal
projection?
It changes with sine of latitude.
It increases with increase of latitude.
It is constant and does not change with latitude.
It changes with cosine of latitude.

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43 Which of the following properties must an orthomorphic chart possess ?
Areas correct relative to each other , both great circles and rhumb lines are straight
lines and shapes correctly drawn.
Scale correct and constant at all points ,similar bearings as measured on the earth and
meridians and latitudes cutting at 90
Scale correct and constant at all points , shapes correctly drawn and world wide
coverage.
Fit C6 of sheets , coverage world wide and shapes correctly drawn.

Theme 61.3.1.0.2 lambert conformal conic Reached points 0.00
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44 The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are represented by:
arcs of concentric circles
hyperbolic lines
parabolic lines
straight lines

Theme 61.3.2 The representation of meridians, parallels Reached points 0.00
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45 To which bearings must radio bearings be converted before plotting on the Mercator's
Projection Chart?
From great circle bearings to rhumb line bearings.
From rhumb line bearings to great circle bearings.
They need not be converted to any other bearing.
To rhumb line bearings or to great circle bearings depending on whether it is in the

Northern or Southern Hemisphere.

Theme 61.3.2.0.1 direct mercator Reached points 0.00
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46 060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non-compulsory reporting point?
15

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47 060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a compulsory reporting point?
15

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48 On a chart a straight line is drawn between two points and has a length of 4.63 cm.
What is the chart scale if the line represents 150 NM?
1 : 6 000 000
1 : 1 000 000
1 : 3 000 000
1 : 5 000 000

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49 In a Lambert Conformal Chart convergency equals earth convergency at the :
Poles
Equator.
P of O
Standard Parallels

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50 An aircraft is flying from point X to Y and the distance between is shown on a map to be 32
inches apart on a chart with a scale 1 :530,000. The flight time of the aircraft between the
two points is 52 minutes .Find the ground speed of the aircraft .
189 kt
218 kt
269 kts
164 kt

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51 On a lambert Conformal Chart a straight line joining position A ( Longitude 20oE) to C

(Longitude 15oW) passes through position B. The direction of the line is 260o (T) at A and
272o at B. If chart convergence factor is 0.8, what are the true rhumbline tracks from A to
B and from A to C.
A to B A to
266 274
246 280
258 270
254 246

Theme 61.3.3.0.5 plotting bearings Reached points 0.00
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52 The ICAO definition of ETA is the:
estimated time en route
actual time of arrival at a point or fix
estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix
estimated time of arrival at destination

Theme 61.4.1 Basics of dead reckoning Reached points 0.00
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53 Given: GS = 95 kt.
Distance from A to B = 480 NM.
What is the time from A to B?
5 HR 00 MIN
4 HR 59 MIN
5 HR 03 MIN
5 HR 08 MIN

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54 265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)
940 kg
895 kg
803 kg
862 kg

Theme 61.4.2 Use of the navigational computer Reached points 0.00
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55 Given:
TAS = 140 kt,
HDG (T) = 005°,
W/V = 265/25kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
9R - 140 kt
11R - 142 kt
11R - 140 kt
10R - 146 kt

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56 Given:
TAS = 205 kt,
HDG (T) = 180°,
W/V = 240/25kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4L - 195 kt
3L - 190 kt
6L - 194 kt
7L - 192 kt

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57 Given:
TAS = 465 kt,
Track (T) = 007°,
W/V = 300/80kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
017 - 490 kt
358 - 428 kt
357 - 502 kt
001 - 435 kt

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58 Given:
True HDG = 074°,
TAS = 230 kt,
Track (T) = 066°,
GS = 242 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
185/35kt
180/35kt
180/30kt
180/40kt

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59 Given:
TAS 487kt,
FL 330,
Temperature ISA + 15.
Calculate the MACH Number?
0.84
0.81
0.76
0.78

Theme 61.4.5 Measurement of DR elements Reached points 0.00
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60 An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.

Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM
True airspeed 470 kt
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
1759 NM
1611 NM
2141 NM
2844 NM

Theme 61.4.7 Measurements of: Reached points 0.00
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61 Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
197 MIN
219 MIN
290 MIN
167 MIN

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62 An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of
090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure before
sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is:
97 NM
115 NM
105 NM
84 NM

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63 During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft.
The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
groundspeed
track
position
drift

Theme 61.5.1 Use of visual observations and application to in-f Reached points 0.00
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64 An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is required to
reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS
should be reduced to:
174 kt
159 kt
169 kt
165 kt

Theme 61.5.3 Navigation in cruising flight, use of fixes to rev Reached points 0.00
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65 An aircraft at FL140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind component minus 35 kt, is required
to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when 150 NM from the reporting point
the IAS should be reduced by:
20 kt
25 kt
30 kt
15 kt

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66 Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM,
Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of course.
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?
8° Left
12° Left
4° Left
16° Left

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67 060-017.jpg
Given:
TAS is120 kt.
ATA 'X' 1232 UTC,
ETA 'Y' 1247 UTC,
ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC.
What is ETA 'Z'?
1300 UTC
1302 UTC
1257 UTC
1303 UTC

Theme 61.5.4 Flight log (including navigation records) Reached points 0.00
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68 The automatic flight control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial
navigation system.
Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference between initial track read-out
and the average true course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of 10°?
30°S to 25°S
60°N to 50°N
30°S to 30°N
60°N to 60°N

Theme 61.6.5 INS operation Reached points 0.00
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69 The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs of an inertial
navigation system (INS).
The aircraft is flying between waypoints No. 4 (45°00'N 040°00'W) and No.5 (45°00'N 030°00'W).
If a constant drift angle were experienced between the two waypoints, on arrival over waypoint No. 5 the track has:
remained unchanged
increased by less than 10°
decreased by less than 10°
decreased by more than 10°

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70 What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management System

(FMS)?
Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position
and the aircraft magnetic heading
Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the

true heading calculated by the respective IRS
The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve)
positioned in the wingtip
The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position

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71 What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down
may be flown?
VOR/DME
none
VOR
VHF radio

Theme 62.1.1 Ground D/F Reached points 0.00
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72 Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in
the aircraft or on the ground
It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft

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73 What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
"Request QNH".
"Request QDM".
"Request QDR".
"Request QTE".

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74 An aircraft on a constant heading with 8? right drift is tracking parallel to and 5 nm left of
the centre line of an airway. The ADF reading of an NDB on the centre line 42 nm ahead is;
015?R
011?R
286?R
359?R

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75 An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs
and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic
variation is:
NDB: aircraft position

VOR: aircraft position
NDB: beacon position

VOR: beacon position
NDB: aircraft position

VOR: beacon position
NDB: beacon position

VOR: aircraft position

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76 Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are
maximum when the NDB is:
near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

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77 An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft.

Given:
Compass heading 270°
At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°
At station Variation 28°E,
Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
072°
252°
074°
254°

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78 Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
Coastal effect
Quadrantal error
Precipitation interference
Local thunderstorm activity

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79 The ICAO NDB frequency band is;
200 khz to 800 khz.
200 khz to 112 Mhz.
200 khz to 1750 khz.
200 khz to 500 khz.

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80 An NDB co- located with a VOR bears 178 º relative in the Northern Hemisphere . The
aircraft heading is 300 º C .The deviation is 1 º W, variation at the VOR is 10 º E and at the
aircraft's position is 15 º E . If the OBS selector is set at 090 º with the indicator
indicating 'TO' and the pointer centred , what do you plot on a Mercator chart ? Use
conversion factor of 0.8 and change in longitude 5 º W ,what is the heading True of the
aircraft ?
314ºT
310ºT
300ºT
309ºT

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81 If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative
bearing to the station will be:
Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure.
135°.
225°.
315°.

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82 The four factors affecting the accuracy of NDB's are;
quadrantal error, mountain effect, night effect and static interference
thunderstorm effect, night effect, slant range error,and station interference
quandrantal error,night effect, pilotage error and aggregate error
all of the options.

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83 An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation
indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of
the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the
airway is 10 NM wide)
3.0
1.5
6.0
4.5

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84 An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing

accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°.
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum
distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
165 NM
105 NM
210 NM
50 NM

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85 An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked
on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available
information from the VOR is:
Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°
Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown
Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown
Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°

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86 You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the
course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
Full scale deflection right with a 'to' indication
Full scale deflection right with a 'from' indication
Full scale deflection left with a 'to' indication
Full scale deflection left with a 'from' indication

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87 A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m.
Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might
expect to receive the VOR signals?
151 NM
120 NM
100 NM
180 NM

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88 Given:
Aircraft heading 160°(M),
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,
Selected course on HSI is 250°.
The Horizontal Situation Indicator ( HSI) indications are deviation bar:
ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

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89 The two modulations from which bearing information is obtained in a VOR are
both frequency modulated at the transmitter
reference signal frequency modulated and directional signal apparent amplitude

modulated
reference signal apparent amplitude modulated and directional signal frequency

modulated
none of the options are correct

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90 If the variable phase of a VOR transmission lags the reference signal by 75° the bearing to
the VOR is
105°.
075°.
255°.
285°.

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91 If one needle of an RMI is tuned to a VOR and the other to an NDB at the same site the
needles will
point different directions at different times
differ by the amount of drift
point in exactly the same direction
point in different directions because of a difference in variation

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92 After passing overhead a VOR station, the deviation indicator shows a half scale deviation
to the right. If the deflection remains constant for a period of time then
the aircraft is flying closer to the radial
the VOR is offset
the OBS is erroneously sets on the reciprocal heading
the aircraft is flying further from the radial

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93 A receiver is moving away from a stationary transmitter at a speed of 380 m/s.
If the transmission wavelength is 4.3 cm, what is the Doppler frequency?
7 GHZ
88.372 Hz
883.72 Hz
8.8372 kHz

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94 The VOR frequency range is;
108 - 118 MHz
108 - 112 MHz
108 - 136 MHz
106 - 136 MHz

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95 The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject
replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from
each other
pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
the time interval between pulse pairs is unique to that particular aircraft
transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft

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96 The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the
ground because:
DME transmits twin pulses
aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different

frequencies
reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

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97 An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that
time, the DME reading will be:
approximately 2 NM.
fluctuating and not significant.
0 NM.
FLAG/OFF, the aircraft is within the cone of silence.

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98 A DME beacon is normally capable of replying to a maximum of aircraft. The approximate

number is:
20
100
120
150

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99 The DME frequency band is
Ultra high frequency band.
Medium to High frequency band.
Very Low Frequency band.
Very high frequency band.

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100 What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3°
ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the
localiser centreline
0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline
1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the
localiser centreline
3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline

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101 In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
UHF
SHF
VHF
EHF

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102 An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from

150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in
groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
100 FT/MIN
150 FT/MIN
250 FT/MIN
50 FT/MIN

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103 Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter
identification group?
Inner marker.
Glide path.
Locator.
Outer marker.

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104 Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is
the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is
deflected 2 dots to the right?
1.0° to the left.
1.0° to the right.
2.0° to the right.
2.0° to the left.

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105 Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)
compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not

possible to use an ILS
It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth)

transmitter
There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated

because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available
The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or
DME) to determine range

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106 Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a
Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons
Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility

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107 Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum
unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
3000
6000
167
330

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108 In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing
severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
green to yellow to red
yellow to amber to blue
yellow to orange to red
green to red to black

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109 The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
1050 +/- 0.5 MHz
1030 +/- 0.2 MHz
1090 +/- 0.3 MHz
1120 +/- 0.6 MHz

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110 On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning
mode?
Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data computer;
heading from the aircraft compass.
TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass.
Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs.
TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last
computed W/V.

Theme 62.5.1 General philosophy Reached points 0.00
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111 Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system
switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
When 'DR' is selected by the pilot.
VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the Air Data
Computer.
VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the aircraft
compass system.
VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data
information from VOR/DME stations.

Theme 62.5.1 General philosophy Reached points 0.00
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112 060-008.jpg
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in
Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
Figure 4
Figure 6
Figure 5
Figure 1

Theme 62.5.2 Typical flight deck equipment and operation Reached points 0.00
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113 In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS),
data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
air data computer
auto flight computers
performance database
navigation database

Theme 62.5.2 Typical flight deck equipment and operation Reached points 0.00
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114 060-011.jpg
What wind velocity is indicated?
255°(M)/20KT
030°(M)/20KT
285°(M)/20KT
105°(M)/20KT

Theme 62.5.3 Instrument indications Reached points 0.00
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115 Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is
proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
the transmitter moves away from the receiver
the transmitter and receiver move towards each other
the transmitter moves toward the receiver
there is no relative movement between the transmitter and the receiver

Theme 62.6.1 Doppler Reached points 0.00
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116 In a Doppler display in an aircraft the distance to go on the stage is usually more accurate
than the distance left/right of the desired track because:
The land/sea switch enhances sensitivity and therefore ground speed input for the
calculation of distance to G is very accurate.
The Doppler computer is much more accurate when computing distance to go.
The heading input is the main source of error and it affects the across track accuracy.
none of the above.

Theme 62.6.1.0.1 principles of operation (airborne system) Reached points 0.00
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117 Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be
processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
C/A
P and Y
C/A- and P

Theme 62.6.5 Satellite assisted navigation : Reached points 0.00
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118 The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the
satellite and the receiver
determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the
speed of light
determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by
the speed of light
calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies

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119 What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for
use on board an aircraft?
Multiplex
Multichannel
Sequential
Any hand held type

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120 The GPWS operates in a height range above ground level of
300 ft to 900 ft.
100 ft to 1 800 ft.
50 ft to 2 450 ft
200 ft to 2 500 ft

Theme 62.7.1 Ground Proximity Warning System Reached points 0.00

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F T ra n sf o F T ra n sf o

1 Polarisation is the term used to describe the plane of oscillation of the;

electrical field of an electromagnetic wave

the magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave

the electrical and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave

none of the above

Origin ID: 1102 Maximum attainable 1.00

2 Amplitude modulation is;

All of the options

Origin ID: 1117 Maximum attainable 1.00

Only a circularly polarized signal will be received by a horizontal aerial.

A horizontal aerial will efficiently receive the magnetic component of a vertically

Origin ID: 1270 Maximum attainable 1.00

4 Amplitude modulation of frequency fm carried on a transmitted frequency fc produces:

a multiple of sidebands and a greater bank width.

3 sidebands (fc + fm), fc and ( fc - fm )

Origin ID: 1271 Maximum attainable 1.00

To the downwind side of the aircraft's nose.

To the windward side of the aircraft's nose.

To the windward side of the aircraft's tail.

To the downwind side of the aircraft's tail.

Origin ID: 1320 Maximum attainable 1.00

6 An aircraft is heading 160°T, variation is 5°W. An NDB bears 110° R.

What is the QDM of the aircraft?

Origin ID: 1329 Maximum attainable 1.00

7 The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:

Origin ID: 1052 Maximum attainable 1.00

Origin ID: 1053 Maximum attainable 1.00

9 The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:

Origin ID: 1056 Maximum attainable 1.00

10 The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:

Origin ID: 1059 Maximum attainable 1.00

11 The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:

Origin ID: 1062 Maximum attainable 1.00

12 A transmitter with a vertical aerial or antenna produces;

a horizontally polarised radio wave.

a vertically polarised radio wave.

a loop type wave.

either a)or b) depending on receiver antenna.

Origin ID: 1307 Maximum attainable 1.00

One complete series of values or one complete process.

The number of cycles occurring in one second expressed in Hertz.

Origin ID: 1092 Maximum attainable 1.00

14 The frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 750 metres is

Origin ID: 1108 Maximum attainable 1.00

twice the day frequency

thrice the day frequency

half the day frequency

the same as the frequency for day operation

Origin ID: 1134 Maximum attainable 1.00

Transmission power, conductivity of earth's surface and angle of incidence.

Transmission power, depth of penetration, critical angle and angle of incidence.

Critical angle, refraction, angle of incidence and diffraction.

Transmission power, diffraction, critical angle and angle of incidence.

Origin ID: 1272 Maximum attainable 1.00

as frequency is increased surface attenuation increases

as frequency is increased surface attenuation decreases

as frequency is increased ionospheric attenuation decreases

as frequency is increased ionospheric attenuation increases

Origin ID: 1123 Maximum attainable 1.00

A change in wave length.

No change in either frequency or wave length.

Origin ID: 1275 Maximum attainable 1.00