Units and Measurements

1 UNITS 3 MEASUREMENT 4 MEASUREMENT OF MASS 5 MEASUREMENT OF TIME

OF LENGTH SI unit is kilogram (kg)
Measurement of any physical quantity involves m m Atomic standard of time: This is based on
m Large distance is measured Unified atomic mass unit (u). It is used to
comparison with certain basic arbitrarily chosen m caesium clock, uncertainty gained overtime by
by parallax method. measure mass of atoms and molecules 13
internationally accepted reference called units. Basis caesium atomic clock is less than 1 part in 10
m Parallax angle = m 1 u = 1/12 × mass of one C-12 atom.
Classification Distance –27 (loss of 3 ms in one year)
–2 m 1 u = 1.66 × 10 kg –24
m 1° = 1.745 × 10 rad –30 m Time span of most unstable particle 10 s
–6 m Electron mass 10 kg 8
Fundamental units Derived units m 1¢¢ = 4.85 × 10 rad 25 m Travel time for light from nearest star 10 s
m Measurement of very small m Earth mass 10 kg
17
Independent of Expressed as combination of Observable universe
55
10 kg m Age of universe 10 s
distance like size of molecule m
each other fundamental units uses, Optical microscope,
m A complete set of these units, both the base units Electronic microscope and 6 ACCURACY and PRECISION
Tunneling microscope m Every measurement by any measuring instrument contains some uncertainty called error.
and derived units is known as system of units. 11
m 1 AU = 1.496 × 10 m m Accuracy of a measurement is a measure of how close is the measured value to true value.
m Old system of units: CGS, FPS and MKS system. 15
m In CGS fundamental units are centimeter, gram and m 1 ly = 9.46 × 10 m m Precision tells us to what resolution the quantity is measured.
16
second. m 1 parsec = 3.08 × 10 m m It is not necessary that more precise value is more accurate too.
–15
m In FPS fundamental units are foot, pound and m Size of proton 10 m
7
second. m Radius of Earth 10 m 7 ERRORS IN MEASUREMENT
26
m In MKS fundamental units are meter, kilogram and m Distance to boundary 10 m Errors
second. of observable universe
Systematic Random
2 SI SYSTEM OF UNITS (INTERNATIONAL SYSTEM OF UNITS)
m Presently accepted internationally for measurement is SI system of units, revised
Instrumental Experimental Personal
in 2018. Certain rules to follow with standard symbols
m It is decimal system thus, conversion within system is easy and convenient m Every measurement is approximate due to errors.
m It has 7 base unit and 2 supplementary units m Random errors occurs irregularly.
m Least count error is smallest value that can be measured by instrument (occurs within both
Base Units Supplementary Units systematic and random errors).
S.N. Quantity Unit Symbol S.N. Quantity Unit Symbol S(|ai – amean|)
m Absolute error =
1. Plane angle radian rad n
1. Length meter m Damean
2. Solid angle steradian sr m Relative error =
2. Mass kilogram kg amean
3. Time second s Damean
m Percentage error = a × 100
4. Electric current ampere A r mean
ds Combination of errors
5. Thermodynamic kelvin K
temperature dq
O
dq = ds/r radian
6. Amount of mole mol r Sum and difference Product or Quotient
substance dW dA DZ = DA + DB DZ DA DB
O = +
7. Luminous candela cd Z A B
a b
intensity AB Dx DA DB DC
2 m If X = c then % =a% +b% +c%
dW = dA/r steradian C x A B C

1
 Units and Measurements

8 SIGNIFICANT FIGURES 10 DIMENSIONAL FORMULAE AND SI UNITS OF VARIOUS PHYSICAL QUANTITIES

m Reliable digits plus first uncertain digit are known as
S. Physical Quantity Relation with other quantities Dimensional Formula SI Unit
significant digit.
No.
m A choice of change of different units does not change
2 –2 2
number of significant digits. Force × (distance) [MLT ] [L ] 2 –2
1. Gravitational constant ‘G’ = [M–1L3T–2] N m kg
m All non-zero digits are significant. Mass × mass M×M
m All zero between two non-zero digits are significant. –2
Force MLT –2
m The terminal zeros in a number without a decimal point are 2. Stress 2 = [ML T ]
–1 –2
Nm
Area L
not significant.
–1 –2
m The trailing zeros in a number with decimal point are Stress ML T –2
significant. 3. Coefficient of elasticity = [ML–1T–2] Nm
Strain 1
Rules of Arithmatic Operations with Significant Figures –2
m Addition/Substraction: Final result contains as many Force MLT –2 0 –2 –1
4. Surface tension = MT = [ML T ] Nm
decimal places as in number with least decimal places. Length L
–2
e.g. 3.307 + 0.52 = 3.83 Force × distance MLT × L
–2
N m or
–1 1
m Multiplication/Division: Result contains as many 5. Coefficient of viscosity 2 –1
= [ML T– ] Pa s or
Area × velocity L × LT
significant figures as in number with least number of decapoise
significant figures. 2 –2
E Energy ML T 2 –1
e.g. 4.11/1.2 = 3.4 6. Planck's constant 'h' = –1
= [ML T ] Js
n Frequency T
Rounding off
–1
m Preceding digit is raised by 1 if insignificant digit to be Velocity LT –1 0 0 1 –1
dropped is more than 5 and left unchanged of latter is less 7. Velocity gradient = T = [M L T– ] s
Distance L
than 5. –1 –2
Pressure ML T
m If insignificant digit is 5 then preceding digit is left 8. Pressure gradient = [ML T– ]
–2 2
Pa m
–1

unchanged if its even and uncreased by 1 if it is odd. Distance L

9 DIMENSIONAL ANALYSIS

Dimensions Dimensional Homogeneity Applications Limitations of Dimensional

m Nature of physical equation
m The expression which
quantity is determined
shows how and which of
by its dimension.
the base quantities
m The dimensions of
represent the dimension
physical quantity are of physical quantity is
powers to which base called dimensional
quantities are raised to formula.
represent it. m An equation is obtained
by equating physical
m The dimension of time
principle Analysis
Physical quantities m Dimensional analysis is useful in
represented by Checking dimensional Deducing relations among deducing relations among inter
symbols on both consistency of equations physical quantities. dependent physical quantities but
sides of a m It is based on homogeneity m We should know the dimensional constant can not be
mathematical law. An equation is dependence of physical determined.
m It can test dimensional validity but not
equation must dimensionally correct if quantity on other upto
exact relationship between physical
have same dimension of fundamental three physical quantities
quantities having same dimensions.
dimensions. quantities of each term on and product type of
m It does not distinguish between the

in speed is –1. quantity with its left side of equation is equal dependence physical quantities having same
dimensional formula. to that on right hand side. dimensions.
0 2 0
m For example [A] = [M L T ]

2
 MCQs

1. Choose the correct option. [NCERT Pg. 22] 1 7. Two resistors of resistances R1 = 300 ± 3
(3) of the thermodynamic
273.16 ohm and R2 = 200 ± 2 ohm are connected in
(1) A most precise measurement may be
temperature of triple point of water parallel. The equivalent resistance of parallel
most accurate combination with error is [NCERT Pg. 37]
1
(2) A most precise measurement will (4) of the thermodynamic temperature (1) [120 ± 1.8] ohm (2) [120 ± 1] ohm
273
necessarily be most accurate (3) [120 ± 1.6] ohm (4) [120 ± 2.0] ohm
of triple point of mercury
(3) A most precise measurement will be less 8. If percentage error in measurement of
accurate 4. 1′′ (second of arc) in radian is
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and
(approximately) [NCERT Pg. 19]
4% respectively, then percentage error in
(4) A most accurate measurement will
(1) 5.85 × 10–6 rad (2) 8.55 × 10–6 rad A2B1/2
necessarily be most precise
measurement of z = is
2. 1 metre is the length of path travelled by light
(3) 5.85 × 10–5 rad (4) 4.85 × 10–6 rad C1/3 D1/4
in vacuum during a time interval of 5. The diameter of sun is 1.39 × 109 m. The [NCERT Pg. 27]
[NCERT Pg. 17] distance of sun from earth is 1.496 × 1011 m. (1) 5%
The angular diameter of sun is
1 (2) 4%
(1) of a second [NCERT Pg. 19]
299, 972, 458 (3) 6%
1 (1) 1290′′
(2) of a second (4) 8%
299, 792, 548 (2) 9210′′ 9. The number of insignificant zeros in
1 0.0048050 [NCERT Pg. 28]
(3) of a second (3) 2190′
299, 792, 458
(1) 1
1 (4) 1920′′
(4) of a second (2) 2
299, 792, 854 6. The measured length of two rods are l1 = 30
cm ± 0.5 cm and l2 = 20 cm + 0.1 cm. The (3) 3
3. The kelvin is the fraction [NCERT Pg. 17]
percentage error in difference of length of (4) 4
1 rods is [NCERT Pg. 26]
(1) of the thermodynamic temperature 10. The value of (3.8 × 103 + 3.5 × 102) with
273
(1) 6% regards to significant figure is
of triple point of water
(2) 4% [NCERT Pg. 30]
1
(2) of the thermodynamic temperature (3) 5% (1) 7.3 × 105 (2) 4.2 × 103
312
of triple point of water (4) 3% (3) 4.15 × 103 (4) 7.3 × 103

3
11. The value of gravitational constant is 1.93 s, 1.99 s, 2.06 s, 2.08 s and 1.95 s. A (1) [M], [LT–1]
N × m2 more accurate way to write the
G = 6.67 × 10–11 . Suppose we (2) [M], [L2T–2]
2 measurement with error is [NCERT Pg. 25]
kg
(3) [M½], [L2T–2]
employ a new system of units in which unit (1) (2.00 ± 0.05) s (2) (2.03 ± 0.06) s
(4) [M½], [LT–1]
of mass is α kg, the unit of length β m and (3) (2.0 ± 0.06) s (4) (2.03 ± 0.1) s
the unit of time is γ s. The value of 18. Parsec is a unit of
15. Each side of a cube is measured to be
gravitational constant in terms of new units [NCERT Pg. 21]
6.372 m. The total surface area of cube with
is [NCERT Pg. 35]
appropriate significant figures is (1) Distance
(1) 6.67 × 10–11 α β–3 γ2
[NCERT Pg. 32] (2) Velocity
(2) 6.67 × 10–11 α–1 β3 γ–2
(1) 2.5 × 102 m2 (2) 2 × 102 m2 (3) Time
(3) 6.67 × 10–11 α β3 γ–2
(3) 243.6 m2 (4) 251.3207 m2 (4) Angle
(4) 6.67 × 10–11 α–1 β–3 γ2
16. Choose the correct statement 19. If the size of atom is in the range of 10–10 m
12. In Cesium clock 1 second is the time in
[NCERT Pg. 33] to 10–9 m is scaled up to the tip of sharp pin
which cesium – 133 atom, vibrate between
(assume tip of pin to be in the range of
two hyperfine levels [NCERT Pg. 22] (1) A dimensionally correct equation need
10–6 to 10–5 m). Roughly, size of nucleus is
(1) 9, 292, 631, 770 times not be an actually correct equation
[NCERT Pg. 20]
(2) 9, 192, 361, 770 times (2) A dimensionally correct equation may be
an actually correct equation (1) 0.1 Å
(3) 9, 192, 136, 770 times
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may (2) 0.01 Å
(4) 9, 192, 631, 770 times
be correct (3) 0.001 Å
13. Least count error belongs to the category of
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) 10 Å
[NCERT Pg. 24]
17. A famous relation in physics with many 20. In a screw gauge, each main scale division
(1) Random error only
printing errors, relates the moving mass 'm' is 1 mm and there are 200 divisions on the
(2) Systematic error only with rest mass for a moving object with circular scale. The least count of screw
(3) Neither systematic error nor-random n02 gauge is [NCERT Pg. 35]
speed v is printed as m = . The
error b
1− (1) 0.05 mm
(4) Systematic and random error both c2
(2) 0.005 mm
dimensional formula of n0 and b are
14. A student measures the period of oscillation
respectively (c is speed of light) (3) 0.05 cm
of a simple pendulum in successive
measurements, the reading turn out to be [NCERT Pg. 36] (4) 0.005 cm

4
 Fill in the Blanks

1. The value of 1° is ________ rad. 9. Least count is the ________ value that can 15. The dimensions of a physical quantity are
[NCERT Pg. 19] be measured by the measuring instrument. the ________ to which the base quantities
2. The value of 2′ is ________ rad. [NCERT Pg. 24] are raised to represent that quantity.
10. When two quantities are subtracted, the [NCERT Pg. 31]
[NCERT Pg. 19]
absolute error in the final result is the sum of 16. The trailing zero(s) in a number with a
3. Speed is a ________ quantity.
________ in the individual quantities. decimal point are ________.
[NCERT Pg. 17]
[NCERT Pg. 26] [NCERT Pg. 28]
4. 1 second is the duration of 9192631770
11. When the two quantities are multiplied or 17. In ________, the final result should be
periods of radiation corresponding to the
divided, the relative error in the result is the reported in least number of significant figure
transition between two hyperfine level of
sum of the ________ in the multipliers. as there in the original number.
ground state of the ________ atom.
[NCERT Pg. 26]
[NCERT Pg. 17] [NCERT Pg. 29]
5. The indirect method used to measure large 12. The result of a measurement should be
reported in a way that indicates the 18. The number of significant figures in
distances is ________ method.
________ of measurement. 1.67 × 10–27 kg are ________.
[NCERT Pg. 18]
[NCERT Pg. 27] [NCERT Pg. 35]
6. 1 parsec is the distance at which the
average radius of ________ subtends an 13. A choice of change of different units does
m2 cm2
angle of ________. [NCERT Pg. 21] not change the ________ of significant 19. h ≈ 6.6 × 10−34 kg =________ g .
s s
7. 1 Fermi equals to ____ m. [NCERT Pg. 21] digits in a measurement. [NCERT Pg. 28]
[NCERT Pg. 35]
8. The efficient caesium atomic clock are so 14. In ________, the final result should be
reported in least number of decimal places 20. The value of (4.2 × 10–3 – 5.4 × 10–4) =
accurate that uncertainty in time realisation
in used quantities. [NCERT Pg. 29] ________. [NCERT Pg. 29]
as ________. [NCERT Pg. 22]

  

5
 Answer Key

MCQs Fill in the Blanks 11. Relative errors

1. (1) 2. (3) 1. 1.745 × 10–2 12. Precision
3. (3) 4. (4) 2. 5.82 × 10–4
13. Number
5. (4) 6. (1) 3. Derived
14. Addition or subtraction
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. [caesium – 133]
15. Powers or exponents
9. (3) 10. (2) 5. Parallax
16. Significant
11. (1) 12. (4) 6. Earth orbit, one arc second
13. (4) 14. (1) 17. Multiplication or division
7. 10–15
15. (3) 16. (4) 8. ± 1 × 10–13 18. 3

17. (3) 18. (1) 9. Smallest 19. 6.6 × 10–27

19. (1) 20. (2) 10. Absolute error 20. 3.7 × 10–3

6
 Motion in a Straight Line
1 FRAME OF REFERENCE 4 VELOCITY
m A rectangular coordinate system consisting of three m The rate of change of position, It tells how fast position is changing with time and in what direction.
mutually perpendicular axes, along with a clock. The
point of intersection of these three axes is called origin Average velocity
r
(O) r Dx
v av =
m If a body changes its position as time passes w.r.t. frame Dt x x
of reference, it is said to be in motion. m SI units are m s
–1

m Motion of objects along a straight line is called rectilinear

motion. Y Instantaneous velocity
11
12
1 r r 0 0
10
9
2
3 r Dx dx t t
8
7 5
4
v = lim =
6
Dt ®0 Dt dt Fig: Moving with positive velocity Fig: Moving with negative velocity

X m Slope of position time graph

O
Z
5 ACCELERATION
2 DISTANCE AND DISPLACEMENT The time rate of change of velocity
m Distance: Actual path length in motion. During motion it Average Acceleration x x x
is non-zero r
r (v - v ) Dv Positive a Negative a a=0
m Displacement: The shortest path between initial and aav = 2 1 =
final position. Equal to change in position. May or may (t2 - t1) Dt
not be equal to path length travelled. It can be positive, Instantaneous Acceleration
r r
negative or zero. r Dv dv
x(m)
a = lim =
x(m) Dt ®0 Dt dt
Uniform Acceleration
40 Equal change in velocity in equal
intervals of time t t t
20
Non-Uniform Acceleration Fig: Positive acceleration Fig: Negative acceleration Fig: Zero acceleration
t(s) t(s)
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 0 Acceleration changes with time
Fig: Stationary object Fig: Object in uniform motion

3 SPEED
m The rate of distance covered with time is called speed,
v v0 t
distance l 0
v= = –v0
total time t
Average Speed
v0 v
total distance total path length
v av = = –v
total time total time interval
Instantaneous speed 0 t 0 t
Dl d l Fig: Motion in positive direction Fig: Motion in positive direction Fig: Motion in negative direction
v = lim = with positive acceleration with negative acceleration with negative acceleration
Dt ® 0 Dt dt

7
Motion
10 in a Straight Line

6 Kinematic Equations 8 FOR MOTION UNDER GRAVITY

m A mathematical treatment to describe the motion of a m A mathematical treatment to describe the motion of a body in one-dimension under free fall
body in one-dimension. Vertically downward motion
For uniformly accelerated motion When object is released from y = 0
0 2 2 t(s)
m v = – gt
v B
1
m y = - gt 2
(v – u) 2 –5
A C 2
u m v = – 2gy
–10 2
Vertically upward motion –9.8 m/s
u ¹ 0, acceleration a = – g
D
O m v = u – gt 2
m v = u + at t a (m/s )
1
1 2 æu +v ö m S = ut - gt 2 Fig: Variation of acceleration with time
s = ut + at = ç 2
m
2 ÷t
è 2 ø m v2 = u2 – 2gh
2 2
m v = u + 2as m Distance travelled during equal intervals of time by a body falling freely from rest is in ratio 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : 11 .. (Galileo's law)
a t (s)
m sn = u + (2n - 1)
2 0 t(s)
u +v 1 2 3 4 5 0
m v =
2 –10 –10 1 2 3 4
–20
7 FOR MOTION WITH VARIABLE ACCELERATION –20 –30
dv –40
m = a Þ v - u = ò adt –30 –50
dt
–60
dx
m = v Þ Dx = ò vdt (Area under v – t curve) –40 –70
dt
v (m/s) y (m) –80
vdv
m =a –50 –90
dx
Fig: Variation of velocity with time Fig: Variation of distance with time
d 2x
m =a
dt 2 140 140
A A
x (m) 120 120
9 Relative Velocity A x(m) 100 B x(m) 100
40 B 80 80
m The velocity with which an object moves with respect 60 60
to another object is called relative velocity. 40 40 40
20 20
vAB = (vA – vB) 0 0
2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3
4 5 6 –20 1 2 3 4 5 6
t (m) t(s) t(s) B
vAB = (vA + (–vB)) –40
Fig: Position-time graphs of two Fig: Position-time graphs of two
objects with equal velocities objects with unequal velocities, Fig: Position-time graphs of two objects with velocities in
vBA = (vB – vA) showing the time of meeting opposite directions, showing the time of meeting

8
 MCQs

1. Choose the correct statement 4. The reaction time is the time interval in which 7. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a
[NCERT Pg. 42] a person [NCERT Pg. 51] velocity of 20 m/s from the top of 160 m high
(1) Observe the things building. The time taken by ball to hit the
(1) Area under velocity-time graph gives the ground is [NCERT Pg. 48]
distance traveled (2) Think about the observations
(1) 8 s (2) 10 s
(2) Area under velocity-time graph gives the (3) Observe the things and act
change in position (3) 4 s (4) 6 s
(4) Observe the things, think and act
(3) Area under velocity-time graph gives 8. In which of the following cases an object can
5. A person driving a car with a speed of be considered as point object?
average acceleration 72 km/h observes a boy crossing the road at
(4) Area under velocity time graph gives a distance of 100 m from the car. Driver [NCERT Pg. 55]
change in acceleration applies the brakes and retards the car with a (1) Length of train in comparison to platform
2. Choose the correct statement for one retardation of 5 m/s2 and is just able to avoid (2) Length of engine in comparison to length
dimensional motion [NCERT Pg. 57] this accident. The reaction time of driver is of a small bridge
[NCERT Pg. 51]
(1) A constant speed in an interval must have (3) A spinning cricket ball that turns sharply
non-zero acceleration in that interval (1) 2.0 s on hitting the pitch
(2) With negative value of acceleration (2) 2.4 s (4) A railway carriage moving without jerks
speed must decrease (3) 3.0 s between two stations
(3) With negative value of acceleration (4) 2. 8 s 9. The velocity time graph of a particle moving
speed may increase 6. In any realistic condition (v – t) and (a – t) along a fixed direction is as shown in figure.
(4) With positive value of acceleration speed graph cannot have sharp kinks at some The average velocity of particle between 5 s
must increase points. This implies that [NCERT Pg. 47] to 10 s is [NCERT Pg. 60]

3. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 (1) Both velocity and acceleration can
steps forward, 3 steps backward and then change abruptly at an instant
stay for 1 s and repeat the same process (2) Both velocity and acceleration cannot
again and again. Each step is 1 m long and change abruptly at an instant
takes 1 s. The time taken by drunkard to fall
in a pit 10 m away from start is (3) Only velocity cannot change abruptly at (1) 15.6 m/s
an instant but acceleration can change
[NCERT Pg. 56] (2) 6.0 m/s
(4) Only acceleration cannot change
(1) 45 s (2) 27 s (3) 8.9 m/s
abruptly at an instant but velocity can
(3) 30 s (4) 31 s change (4) 15.0 m/s

9
10. The velocity-time graph of a particle in one
dimensional motion is as shown in figure.
Which of the following relation is correct for
describing the motion of particle over time
interval t1 to t2? [NCERT Pg. 60]
12. Which of the following graphs can represent 15. Two towns A and B are connected by a
one dimensional motion of a particle? regular bus service with a bus leaving in
[NCERT Pg. 57] either direction every T minutes. A man
cycling with a speed of 20 km/h in the
direction from A to B notices that a bus goes
past him every 18 min in the direction of his
(1) (2) motion and every 6 min in the opposite
direction. The speed with which (assumed
constant) buses ply on road is
[NCERT Pg. 56]

2
(1) 40 km/h
v t21 + 2aaverage (t2 − t1)
(1) v t2 =
(3) (4) (2) 60 km/h
(2) xt2 =
xt1 + v average (t1 − t2 ) (3) 75 km/h

1 13. A man walks on a straight road from his (4) 80 km/h

+ aaverage (t2 − t1 )2 home to market 2.0 km away with a speed of
2 16. Two stones are thrown up from the edge of
4.0 km/h. The stays in the market for 30
(3) v t2 =v t1 + a(t2 − t1) minute for purchasing and returns to home a cliff 300 m high with initial speed of 10 m/s
with a speed of 6 km/h. The magnitude of and 20 m/s. Which of the following graph
v t2 − v t1 average speed of whole journey is best represents the variation of relative
(4) aaverage = position of second stone with respect to
t2 − t1 [NCERT Pg. 57]
first stone till both the stones are in air?
(1) 4.0 km/h (2) 3.0 km/h
11. A boy is standing on an open lift moving (neglect air resistance) g = 10 m/s2
upwards with speed 10 m/s. The boy throws (3) 4.5 km/h (4) 3.5 km/h
[NCERT Pg. 59]
the ball with speed w.r.t. lift is 24.5 m/s. In 14. Two trains P and Q of length 300 m and
500 m are moving on two parallel tracks each
how much time the ball returns to the hand
with a uniform speed of 72 km/h in the same
of boy? (g = 10 m/s2) direction, with Q ahead of P. The driver of (1) (2)
[NCERT Pg. 59] train P decide to overtake train Q and
accelerates by 2.0 m/s2, if after 40 s the
(1) 10 s guard of P just brushes past the driver of Q,
then the original distance between the trains
(2) 4.9 s
is [NCERT Pg. 56]
(3) 7.5 s (3) (4)
(1) 450 m (2) 650 m
(4) 6 s (3) 800 m (4) 1300 m

10
17. Graphically derivative or differential away in same direction with speed is (1) 10 m/s (2) 12 m/s
coefficient means [NCERT Pg. 61] 192 km/h. Thief in the car fires bullet on
(3) 15 m/s (4) 18 m/s
(1) Angle made by the line joining two points police van. If muzzle speed of bullet is 150
m/s, then the speed with which bullet hits the 20. The position of an object moving along x-
on the curve with x-axis
w.r.t. police van is [NCERT Pg. 58] axis is given by, x = 10 + 15t + 5t2, where x
(2) Slope of the tangent line at any point on
(1) 145 m/s (2) 130 m/s is in meter and t is in second. The velocity of
the curve
(3) 115 m/s (4) 105 m/s body at t = 3 s is [NCERT Pg. 45]
(3) Area enclosed under the curve
19. The acceleration of a body starting from rest (1) 15 m/s (2) 30 m/s
(4) Both (1) and (3) varies with time as a = 2t + 3, where t is in
18. A police van moving on a highway with a second. The speed of body at t = 2 s, is (3) 40 m/s (4) 45 m/s
speed of 30 km/h and a thief’s car speeding [NCERT Pg. 63]

Fill in the blanks

1. The study of motion of objects along a 8. For uniform motion, velocity is same as the initial and final position corresponding to
_______ called rectilinear motion. _______ at all instants. [NCERT Pg. 45] that interval [NCERT Pg. 53]
[NCERT Pg. 39] 9. Acceleration may result due to change in 15. For uniform motion, acceleration-time graph
2. In _______, we study ways to describe _______, a change in _______ or change in is a straight line _______ to the time axis.
motion without going into the causes of _______. [NCERT Pg. 46] [NCERT Pg. 53]
motion. [NCERT Pg. 39] 10. The area under velocity-time graph for any 16. For uniform motion, position-time graph is
3. A co-ordinate system along with a clock moving object represents the _______ over having a _____ non-zero slope.
constitutes a _______ [NCERT Pg. 40] a given time interval. [NCERT Pg. 46] [NCERT Pg. 53]
4. Displacement has both _______ and 11. The acceleration and velocity cannot 17. For uniform motion, velocity-time graph is a
_______ [NCERT Pg. 40] change values abruptly at an instant. straight line _______ to the time axis.
5. The magnitude of displacement _______ Changes are always _______. [NCERT Pg. 53]
equal to the distance traversed by an object. [NCERT Pg. 47] 18. For motion with _______ position-time is a
[NCERT Pg. 41] 12. Free fall is the case of motion with _______. parabola. [NCERT Pg. 54]
6. The magnitude of average velocity in [NCERT Pg. 49] 19. The sign of acceleration does not tell us
general is _______ than the average speed. 13. The _____ speed is always equal to whether the particle speed is _______ or
[NCERT Pg. 43] magnitude of instantaneous velocity _______. [NCERT Pg. 55]
7. The velocity at an instant is defined as the [NCERT Pg. 57] 20. The zero velocity of a particle at any instant
limit of _______ as the time interval 14. On an x – t graph, the average velocity over does not necessarily imply zero _______ at
becomes _______ small [NCERT Pg. 43] a time interval is the _______ connecting that instant. [NCERT Pg. 55]

  

11
 Answer Key

MCQs Fill in the blanks 11. Continuous

1. (2) 2. (3) 1. Straight line 12. Uniform acceleration
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Kinematics 13. Instantaneous
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Frame of reference
14. Slope of line
7. (1) 8. (4) 4. Magnitude, direction
15. On
9. (2) 10. (4) 5. May or may not be
16. Constant
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Less
17. Parallel
13. (2) 14. (3) 7. Average velocity, infinitesimally
15. (1) 16. (1) 8. Average velocity 18. Uniform acceleration

17. (2) 18. (4) 9. Speed, Direction, Both 19. Increasing, Decreasing

19. (1) 20. (4) 10. Displacement 20. Acceleration

12
 Motion in a Plane
1 SCALARS AND VECTORS 2 RESOLUTION OF VECTORS 5 MOTION IN A PLANE WITH CONSTANT ACCELERATION
P r r r
m Scalar quantity: It has only magnitude with proper m v = v o + at r r r 1r 2 1
r uuur uuuur uuur r m r = r +v t +
o o at , x = xo + v ox t + ax t 2
unit. All base quantities are scalar. The rules A = OP = OQ + QP A 2 2
r v x = v ox + ax t
mb 1
combining scalars are rules of ordinary algebra.
r r r v y = v oy + ay t y = y o + v oy t + ay t 2
A = l a + mb O 2
m Vector quantity: It has both magnitude and direction
r
and obeys the triangle law or parallelogram law of la 6 RELATIVE VELOCITY IN TWO DIMENSIONS
Q
vector addition.
r r The velocity of object A relative to B
m Equality of vector: Two vectors A and B are said to ur ur ur
3 RECTANGULAR COMPONENTS V AB = V A - V B
be equal, if and only if, they have same magnitude r r r ur ur
m A = A1 + A2 y where V A and V B are velocities in the same frame.
and direction. ur ur ur
r
m Multiplication of vector by real numbers: If a vector A = A x iˆ + Ay jˆ Similarly, V BA = V B - V A
r r r A2 ur ur ur ur
A is multiplied by real number l, then A ¢ = l A A = A cos q iˆ + A sin q jˆ A V AB = -V BA and V AB = V BA
r q
if l > 0, magnitude will change and direction remains x
A = Ax2 + Ay2 A1
same y 7 PROJECTILE MOTION
Ay æ Ay ö
if l < 0, magnitude changes l times and direction gets tan q = , q = tan - 1 ç ÷ 1 gx 2
Ax Equation of trajectory y = x tan q 0 -
è Ax ø 2 v o cos 2 q 0
2
reverse. This is equation of parabola.
m Parallelogram law of vector addition: For two co- m Resolution in three. Ay 2v o sin q 0
rectangular components
Ay
b A
m Time of flight Tf =
initial vectors represented by two adjacent sides of a g
parallelogram, the diagonal of a parallelogram A x = A co s a , A y = A sin a g a Ax
(v o sin q0 )2
vy j
x
m Maximum height hm = v
passing through same point will be resultant. A z = A co s g Az 2g vo
r Az
vox i
R = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q B r v o2 sin 2q0 voy j
A = Ax2 + Ay2 + Az2 m Horizontal range R = vox i
z Ax g
B sin q R q0 vox i
tan f = q v2 O
A + B cos q f for Rmax, q = 45°,Rmax = o voxi –voy j q = – q0
4 MOTION IN A PLANE g
A
r y
m Subtraction of vector: It can be defined as addition r = xiˆ + yjˆ n of v
Directio 8 UNIFORM CIRCULAR MOTION (t + Dt)
of a vector and negative of other vector.
r r r r P¢
r ¢ = x ¢iˆ + y ¢ jˆ Dr P In uniform circular motion particle moves P¢
S = A-B uur r r Dr
r r r r with constant speed. r¢ Dr
S = A + ( -B ) Þ S = A2 + B 2 – 2 AB cos q Dr = r ¢ - r r¢
uur r Arc ( PP ¢) Dq
m Angular displacement Dq = t=t
Unit Vectors: It is a vector of unit Dr = ( x ¢ - x )iˆ + ( y ¢ - y ) ˆj r C P
Y r
magnitude and points in a particular r Dq 2 p
r Dr r ˆ r ˆ O Dx x
m Angular velocity w =
Dt
=
T
= 2 pn
direction. It has no unit and dimension. j v av = = v xi + vy j
Dt r Linear speed v = rw
Unit vectors along the x, y and z axis r dr m

X Instantaneous velocity, v = m Centripetal acceleration-Due to change in direction of velocity and

of a rectangular coordinate system dt
i is always directed towards centre.
represented by iˆ, jˆ and kˆ respectively, k m The direction of velocity at any point on path is tangent to
v2
called basic unit vectors. path and in direction of motion. a= = r w2 = 4 p 2 n 2 r = v w
Z r

13
 MCQs

1. Two vectors are said to be equal, if 5. The magnitude of component of a vector 8. In circular motion, the direction of angular
[NCERT Pg. 66] [NCERT Pg. 70] velocity is [NCERT Pg. 80]
(1) They have equal magnitude only (1) In the plane of circle
(1) Is always less than magnitude of vector
(2) Same direction only (2) Perpendicular to plane of circle
(2) Is always equal to magnitude of vector
(3) They have equal magnitude and same (3) In the direction of velocity
direction (3) May be greater than magnitude of vector
(4) In the direction of acceleration
(4) They have unequal magnitude and (4) Is always greater than magnitude of
same direction vector 9. The shape of the trajectory of an object is
determined by [NCERT Pg. 85]
2. A null vector has [NCERT Pg. 68] 6. A motor boat is racing towards north at
25 km/h and the water current in that region (1) Acceleration only
(1) Zero magnitude, specified direction
is 10 km/h in the direction of 60° east of (2) Velocity of projection only
(2) Zero magnitude, arbitrary direction
south. The resultant velocity of the boat is (3) Initial position and initial velocity only
(3) Non-zero magnitude, no direction nearly [NCERT Pg. 72]
(4) Non-zero magnitude, arbitrary direction (4) Initial position, initial velocity and
(1) 22 km/h acceleration
3. To a person moving with a speed of 5 m/s
towards east, rain appears to be falling (2) 12 km/h 10. Which of the following vector operation is
(3) 35 km/h meaningful? [NCERT Pg. 85]
vertically downward with speed 5 3 m/s .
The actual velocity of rain is (1) Multiplication of any two vectors
(4) 26 km/h
[NCERT Pg. 69] (2) Adding any two vectors
7. In uniform circular motion, the centripetal
(1) 10 m/s at 30° with vertical acceleration is [NCERT Pg. 79] (3) Adding a component of vector to the
(2) 20 m/s at 30° with vertical same vector
(1) Due to change in magnitude of velocity
(3) 10 m/s at 60° with vertical only (4) Both (2) and (3)

(4) 20 m/s at 60° with vertical 11. Which of the following quantities is/are
(2) Due to change in direction of velocity
vector? [NCERT Pg. 85]
4. A vector can be resolved [NCERT Pg. 70] only
(1) Angular frequency
(1) Only in two components (3) Due to change in both magnitude and
(2) Only in three components direction of velocity (2) Angular velocity

(3) In any number of components (4) Neither due to change in magnitude of (3) Number of moles

(4) Either two or three components velocity nor due to change in direction (4) Both (1) and (2)

14
12. Which of the following option is correct? 15. Equation of trajectory of projectile is 18. The correct statement for a scalar quantity
[NCERT Pg. 86] =
y 2
3 x − 5 x . Then angle of projection is [NCERT Pg. 87]

(1) Each component of a vector is always with vertical is (Assume x-axis as horizontal (1) It is conserved in a process
scalar and y-axis as vertical) [NCERT Pg. 78]
(2) It can never take negative values
(2) Three vectors not lying in a plane can (1) 45°
(3) It does not vary from one point to
never add up to give null vector (2) 30°
another in space
(3) Two vectors of different magnitude can (3) 60°
(4) It has the same value for the observers
be add up to give null vector (4) 53° with different orientations of axis
(4) Minimum number of vectors to give null 16. A projectile is projected with initial velocity
19. A man can swim with a speed of 5 km/h in
vector is five (10iˆ + 20 ˆj ) m/s from the ground. The still water. How long does he take to cross a
13. A particle A is moving with velocity velocity of the body just before hitting the river 1.0 km wide, if the river is flowing
( )
3iˆ + 4 jˆ m/s and particle B is moving with ground is [NCERT Pg. 79] steadily at 3 km/h and he makes his strokes
normal to the river current? [NCERT Pg. 86]
velocity ( −3iˆ − 4 jˆ ) m/s . The magnitude of (1) 10iˆ + 20 ˆj
(1) 20 min
velocity of B w.r.t A is (2) −10iˆ + 20 ˆj
(2) 30 min
[NCERT Pg. 76]
(3) 10iˆ − 20 jˆ (3) 12 min
(1) 6 m/s
(4) −10iˆ − 20 jˆ (4) 15 min
(2) 8 m/s

(3) 10 m/s
( )
17. The component of 3iˆ + 4 jˆ in the direction 20. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 s with a
velocity 4.0 ˆj m/s and moves in x-y plane
(4) 5 m/s (
of iˆ − jˆ is ) [NCERT Pg. 87]
with a constant acceleration of
 
= aiˆ + 6 jˆ and B
14. If two vectors A = biˆ + cjˆ are (1)
ˆj − iˆ ( )
6iˆ + 4 jˆ m/s2 . The time after which
2 y-coordinate of particle will be 48 m, will be
equal then correct options for value of a, b
and c is [NCERT Pg. 66] iˆ − ˆj [NCERT Pg. 87]
(2)
(1) a = b 2 (1) 6 s
1 ˆ ˆ
(2) a = c (3) (i − j ) (2) 4 s
2
(3) c = 6 (3) 8 s
1
(4) ( ˆj − iˆ)
(4) Both (1) and (3) 2 (4) 5 s

15
 Fill in the blanks

1. The _______ of a vector is called its 8. The sum of the squares of direction cosines 15. In uniform circular motion, magnitude of
absolute value. [NCERT Pg. 66] of a vector is _______. [NCERT Pg. 71] velocity and acceleration remains _______
9. The instantaneous acceleration is the [NCERT Pg. 81]
2. Addition and subtraction of scalars make
limiting value of _______ as the time interval 16. In projectile motion x-component of velocity
sense only for quantities with _______ units.
approaches zero. [NCERT Pg. 74] _______ while y-component of velocity
However, you can multiply and divide
scalars of _______ units. [NCERT Pg. 66] 10. In two or three dimensions, velocity and undergoes a _______.
acceleration vectors may have any angle
3. Displacing a vector parallel to itself leaves [NCERT Pg. 79]
between _______. [NCERT Pg. 75]
the vector unchanged. Such vectors are
11. In one dimension, the velocity and 17. In projectile motion if air resistance is
called _______. [NCERT Pg. 66]
 acceleration may have angle _______ considered then both x and y component of
4. Multiplying a vector A by a negative number between them. [NCERT Pg. 75] velocities undergoes a _______.

λ gives a vector λA whose direction is
 12. Motion in a plane can be treated as [NCERT Pg. 79]
_______ to the direction of A . superposition of two separate simultaneous 18. When an object follows a circular path at a
[NCERT Pg. 67] _______ motions along two perpendicular _______ the motion is said to be uniform
directions. [NCERT Pg. 76] circular motion. [NCERT Pg. 79]
5. Vector addition follows _______ law and
_______ law [NCERT Pg. 68] 13. The resultant velocity is the _______ sum of
19. The shape of the trajectory of motion is not
two velocities. [NCERT Pg. 77]
6. On adding two equal and opposite vectors, determined by the _______ alone, but also

resultant will be a _______. 14. Particle A is moving with velocity v A and depends on initial conditions of motion.

[NCERT Pg. 68] particle B is moving with velocity v B in same [NCERT Pg. 85]

7. A unit vector is a vector of _______ direction then their relative velocity is given 20. In uniform circular motion, acceleration is
magnitude. It has no _______. by the _______ of two velocities. directed along the _______ of circular path
[NCERT Pg. 77] [NCERT Pg. 81]
[NCERT Pg. 70]

  

16
 Answer Key

MCQs Fill in the blanks 11. 0° or 180°

1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Magnitude 12. One dimensional
3. (1) 4. (3) 2. Same, Different 13. Vector
5. (3) 6. (1) 3. Free vectors
14. Vector difference
7. (2) 8. (2) 4. Opposite
15. Constant
9. (4) 10. (1) 5. Commutative, Associative
16. Remains constant, continuous change
11. (2) 12. (2) 6. Zero vector or null vector
17. Continuous change
13. (3) 14. (4) 7. Unit, dimension and unit
18. Constant speed
15. (2) 16. (3) 8. One
19. Acceleration
17. (1) 18. (4) 9. Average acceleration
20. Radius
19. (3) 20. (2) 10. 0° and 180°

17
 Laws of Motion
ST RD
1 NEWTON’S 1 LAW 3 NEWTON’S 3 LAW 5 COMMON FORCES IN MECHANICS 6 CIRCULAR MOTION
A body continues its state of rest or of motion To every action there is always an equal and Tension Force A body moving in a circular path is called
until unless an external force is acted on it opposite reaction ® ® m Restoring force in string is called tension. circular motion.
Inertia of rest FAB = –FBA m It is due to electromagnetic force
FC = mv2/R is called centripetal force.
The property of body due to which it cannot m Always acts away from the body
m Forces always occur in pairs. Force on
change its state of rest by itself. m It is a contact force. Uniform circular motion
body A by B is equal and opposite to force 2
Inertia of motion m v
on body B by A. Weight a = ac = R = Rw2
The property of body due to which it cannot m It is equal to the gravitational pull i.e.
Some examples of Newton’s 3rd Law m
a = ac = v.w
change its state of motion by itself. W = Mg
m Recoiling of Gun
Inertia of direction m It is non-contact force. Non-uniform circular motion
The property due to which a body cannot m Rowing of boat
m ® ® ®
Normal Reaction a = aT + ac
change its direction of motion by itself. m When a man jumps from a boat, the boat
It is always perpendicular to the surface in m ¾
2
moves backward contact. a = Ö a T + ac
2

2 NEWTON’S 2ND LAW m It is difficult to walk on sand or ice. m It is a contact force.

Motion of car on level Road
Spring Force v
The rate of change of Linear momentum of a Rocket Propulsion m ¾
® ® vmax = Ö ms Rg
body is directly proportional to the external u dm a­ m ­ v m F = –Kx R
a = rel
2
force applied on the body and takes place in m –g It is due to electromagnetic force
m
mmin = v
m dt m ¾
the direction in which force acts Rg
m It is a contact force.
dp Thrust m 2 fs
F= = ma dm Friction Rmin = v
dt m F = – u rel ¯ ¾
m The same force for the same time causes dt urel It is the resistance offered to the relative mg
same change in momentum for different motion between two bodies in contact Motion of car on Banked Road
bodies. 7 PROBLEM SOLVING TECHNIQUES m It is parallel to surface of body in contact. ¾
m Rg(ms + tanq)
Impulse
A large force acts for very short duration of
IN MECHANICS Type of Friction
N
vmax =
Ö ¾
(1 – ms tanq)
N N cosq

m Identify the unknown forces and m Static friction: Fs = Fapplied

time produces a finite change in momentum. ®
® m ¾ N sinq
Fs voptimum = ·
Product of force and time duration for which it accelerations m Limiting friction Flim = msN M Fapp ÖRgtanq
acts is impulse. m Draw FBD of bodies in system m Kinetic friction Fk = mkN ¾
Mg m Rg(tanq – ms ) f
Impulse = F × Dt = Dp
Equilibrium of a particle
m

m
Resolve forces into components
®
Apply SF = 0 in the direction of equilibrium
msN
Frictional force
vmin =
Ö ¾
(1 + mstanq) mg
® ® ® ® ® ®
FK = mKN Bending of cyclist on a circular turn
pp
SF = 0 Þ SFx = 0, SFy = 0 and SFz = 0 m Apply SF = Ma in the direction of Fa R cosq R
s =

Conservation of Liner Momentum accelerated motion m Angle of Bending

F

Total momentum of an isolated system of m Write constraint relations if exists.

intracting particles is conserved if there is no
external force acting on it.
® ®
m

m
®
Solve the equations SF = 0 and SF = Ma
®

For equilibrium of concurrent forces use

®

(Fs = Fapp) applied force

q = tan
–1
( )
v2
Rg
q
R sinq

pinitial = pfinal m Acceleration of body sliding down a rough

sine rule F1
g inclined plane mg
4 NON-INTERTIAL FRAME OF REFERENCE F1 F2 F3
® = = F2 b a = g(sinq – mcosq)
Pseudo Force Fpseudo = –Maframe
®
sin a sin b sin g m Numerically: a = q
a m Angle of friction: q = tan–1(ms) m Kinetic friction is usually less than
® ® ®
Fext + Fpseudo = Ma F3 m Angle of repose: a = tan–1 (ms) maximum value of static friction.

18
 MCQs

1. A constant retarding force 100 N is applied The correct statement is

to a body of mass 20 kg, moving initially with [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110]
speed 20 m/s. How long does the body take
(1) (a) only
to stop? [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110]
(2) (b) only
(1) 2 s (2) 3 s
(3) (a) and (b) both
(3) 1 s (4) 4 s
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
2. A man of mass 60 kg stands on a weighing
scale in a lift which is moving upward with a 5. Two identical billiard balls strike a rigid wall
with same speed as shown in the figure. The (1) 400 N s (2) 300 N s
uniform speed of 10 m/s. The reading on the
scale is. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] ratio of magnitude of impulse imparted to the (3) 500 N s (4) 200 N s
balls by the wall [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98]
(1) Zero (2) 120 kg wt 7. For a given surface, the normal reaction and
frictional force are inclined at
(3) 60 kg wt (4) 90 kg wt
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101]
3. A rocket with a lift-off mass 10000 kg is
blasted upwards with an initial acceleration (1) 0º to each other
of 2 m/s2. The initial thrust of the blast is (2) 90º to each other
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] (3) 45º to each other
(1) 120 kN 2 (4) tan ( µ ) to each other
–1
(1)
(2) 80 kN 3
8. A machine gun fires 10 bullets per second
(3) 100 kN 1
(2) each with speed 200 m/s. If the mass of
(4) 140 kN 3 each bullet is 20 g, then the force required
1 to keep the gun stationary is
4. Consider the following statements (3)
2 [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98]
(a) Frictional force between block and
contact surface depends on area of 1 (1) 40 N
(4)
contact 3
(2) 0.4 N
(b) Frictional force may also act when there 6. A force-time plot for a body is shown in the
(3) 4 N
is no relative motion between the figure. The total change in momentum of the
contact surfaces. body is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98] (4) 8 N

19
9. A mass of 2 kg rests on a horizontal plane. 12. The tension in string PQ as shown in the 14. The ratio of tension T1 and T2, as shown in
The plane is gradually inclined until at an figure is (g = 10 m/s2) the figure is NCERT-I, XI Pg. 100]
angle θ = 30° with the horizontal, the mass
just begins to slide. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the surface is
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 102]
1
(1) 3 (2)
3
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 99]
1
(3) 2 (4)
2 (1) 100 N 3 1
(1) (2)
2 2
10. A cyclist speeding at 5 m/s on a level road (2) 150 N
takes a sharp circular turn of radius 2.5 m 1 4
(3) 130 N (3) (4)
without reducing the speed. The minimum 3 3
value of coefficient of static friction between (4) 50 N
tyre and road such that cyclist does not slip 15. A car is moving on a curved road of radius
13. In the given figure, the reading of spring
is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 105] R. The road is banked at an angle θ . The
balance is (g = 10 m/s2)
coefficient of friction between tyres of the car
(1) 0.5 [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 100] and road is µ . The minimum safe velocity
(2) 1.5
on this road is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 104]
(3) 1.0
(4) 0.8 gR ( µ + tan θ )
(1)
11. A truck starts from rest and accelerates (1 − µ tan θ )
uniformly with 5 m/s2. The minimum value of
coefficient of static friction between surface gR ( tan θ − µ )
(2)
of truck and a box placed on it such that box (1 + µ tan θ )
does not slip back, will be
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] gR 2 ( tan θ − µ )
(1) 10 N (3)
(1) 0.4 (1 + µ tan θ )
(2) 20 N
(2) 0.6
(3) 80 N gR ( tan θ − µ )
(3) 0.5 (4)
(4) 0.2 (4) 40 N (1– µ tan θ )

20
16. Two masses as shown in the figure are
suspended from a smooth massless pulley.
The acceleration of 3 kg mass, when system
is released, will be [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 106]
18. Two blocks A and B are released from rest
on two inclined plane as shown in the
figure.
19. A 60 kg monkey, climbs on a rope which
can withstand a maximum tension of 900 N.
The case in which the rope will break if the
monkey [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 113]

(1) Climbs up with acceleration of 6 m/s2

(2) Climbs down with acceleration of 4 m/s2

(3) Climbs up with uniform speed of 5 m/s

(4) Falls down the rope nearly freely under

gravity
(1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 2.0 m/s2 The ratio of the accelerations ( a A / aB ) is
(3) 4.0 m/s2 (4) 5.0 m/s2 20. Which of the following is self adjusting
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 102] force? [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101]
17. A body is acted upon by unbalanced forces,
then body [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 95] (1) 1 (1) Static friction
(1) Will be at rest
(2) 2 (2) Limiting friction
(2) Will keep moving with uniform speed
(3) Will accelerate (3) 1.5 (3) Kinetic friction
(4) Will be at rest if even number of forces
(4) 0.8 (4) All of these.
will act

Fill in the blanks

1. When horse starts suddenly, the rider falls
backward due to inertia of ______.
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93]
2. An athlete runs some distance, before
taking a long jump due to inertia of ______.
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93]
3. Suppose we are standing in a stationary bus
and the driver starts the bus suddenly. Then
we get thrown in ______ direction with a jerk
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93]
4. ______ of a body is defined to be the
product of its mass and velocity.
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93]
5. The same force for same time causes the
same ______ for different bodies
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 94]
6. The rate of change of momentum of a body
is ______ proportional to the applied force
and takes place in the ______ in which the
force acts. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 94]

21
7. The product of force and ______, which is 12. A body is in translational equilibrium under 17. The maximum velocity of car moving on a
change in Linear momentum of body, is also   
three concurrent forces F 1, F 2 and F 3 , then level circular road of radius R is ______ of
called ______ [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 96]    mass of the car. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 104]
  F1 + F 2 + F 2 =
______.
8. In equation F = Ma , any ______ forces in 18. A car is moving on circular banked road
system are not included. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 99]
having inclination angle θ. If coefficient of
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 95] 13. Static friction opposes ______ motion static friction between road and tyre of car is
9. The motion of a particle of mass m is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101] µs , the maximum velocity of the car is
1
described by y= ut + gt 2 . The force 14. The kinetic friction, like static friction in ______. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 105]
2
acting on the particle is ______. solids is found to be ______ of area of 19. Impulse has the dimensional formula as
contact. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101] ______. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 108]
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 96]
10. Action and Reaction forces acts on ______ 15. Frictional force is the _______ of contact
20. µ s is the coefficient of static friction and µk
bodies [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 97] force which opposes the relative motion not
is the coefficient of kinetic friction. It is found
the motion. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 102]
11. The total momentum of an isolated system experimentally that µk is ______ than µ s
of interacting particles is ______. 16. We are able to walk because of the
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 99] ________. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 103] [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 108]

  

Answer Key
MCQs Fill in the blanks 11. Conserved
1. (4) 2. (3) 1. Rest 12. Zero
3. (1) 4. (2) 2. Motion 13. Impending
5. (1) 6. (3) 3. Backward 14. Independent
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. Momentum 15. Component
9. (2) 10. (3) 5. Change in momentum 16. Friction
11. (3) 12. (1) 6. Directly, Direction 17. Independent
13. (4) 14. (1) 7. Time, Impulse 18. Rg ( µ s + tan θ )

15. (2) 16. (2) 8. Internal (1– µs tan θ )

17. (3) 18. (2) 9. mg 19. [MLT –1 ]

19. (1) 20. (1) 10. Different 20. Less

22
 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
1 CLASSIFICATION OF MATTER 3 UNCERTAINTY IN MEASUREMENT
m Matter can exist in three physical states viz solid, liquid and gas m Scientific notation is exponential notation in which any number
m MATTER
represented in N × 10n, where n is exponent having positive or
MIXTURES PURE
SUBSTANCES
negative values and N is number between 1.000 … and 9.999

HETEROGENOUS HOMOGENOUS
.....
MIXTURES MIXTURES
m Significant figures are meaningful digits which are known
ELEMENTS COMPOUNDS with certainity plus one which is estimated or uncertain.
m A mixture contains particles of two or more pure substances in any ratio.
m Rules for determining the number of significant figures.
m Movement of air follow pressure gradient.
m In Homogeneous mixture, components completely mix with each other. m All non zero digits are significant.
m In Heterogeneous mixture, composition is not uniform.
m Zeros preceding to first non-zero digit are non significant.
m Constituent particles of pure substance have fixed composition.
m Compound is formed when two ore more atoms of different elements combine together in definite ratio. m Zeroes between two non-zero digits are significant.

m Zeroes at the end or right of a number are significant

2 PROPERTIES OF MATTER AND THEIR MEASUREMENT
provided they are on the right side of decimal point.
m Properties are of two types viz. physical and chemical properties.
m Physical properties can be measured or observed without changing the identity or the composition of the substance. m Counting numbers have infinite significant figures.
m Chemical properties requires a chemical change to occur. m In a number written in scientific notation, all digits are
m Colour, odour, melting point, density etc are some physical properties.
significant.
m Composition, combustibility, reactivity with acids and bases are examples of chemical properties.
m Quantitative measurement of physical properties represented by a number followed by units. m Precision refers to the closeness of various measurements for
m SI system has seven base units. the same quantity.
m Base physical quantities and their units.
Length (m) Mass (kg) m Accuracy is the agreement of a particular value to the true
Time (s) Electric current (A) value of the result.
Thermodynamic Amount of substance (mol)
m In addition and subtraction of significant figures the result
Temperature (K) Luminous intensity (cd)
cannot have more digits to the right of the decimal point than
SOME PREFIX USED IN SI SYSTEMS ARE
either of the original numbers.
10–12 (pico), 10–9 (nano), 10–6(micro) –3 –2
10 (milli), 10 (centi),
3 6
10 (kilo), 10 (mega) 109(giga) m In multiplication and division of significant figures the result
SOME COMMON UNITS must be reported with no more significant figures as are there
m 1 L = 1000 mL = 1000 cm3 = 1 dm3, °F = 9/5 (°C) + 32, K = °C + 273.15 in the measurement with the fewer significant figures.

23
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

m Important points for rounding off the numbers.

l If the rightmost digit to be removed is more than 5, the preceding number is increased by one.

l If the rightmost digit is less than 5, the preceding number is not changed.

l If the rightmost digit is 5 then preceding number increased by 1 only if it is an odd number.

m Method used to interconversion of unit is known as dimensional analysis, unit factor method.

4 LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION

m Law of conservation of mass conclude that in all physical and chemical changes, there is no net change in mass during the change.
m Law of definite proportions/composition stated that a given compound always contains exactly the same proportion of elements by weight.
m Law of multiple proportions stated that, if two elements can combine to form more than one compound, the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of other element are in the
ratio of small whole number.
m Gay Lussac's law of gaseous volume : When gases combine or are produced in a chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio by volume, provided all gases are at same temperature and
pressure.
m Avogadro's law proposed that equal volumes of all gases at same temperature and pressure should contain equal number of molecules.
m Dalton's Atomic Theory proposed to following points
l Matter consists of indivisible atoms.
l All atoms of a given element have indentical properties, including identical mass, atoms of different elements differ in mass
l Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in a fixed ratio
l Chemical reactions involve reorganisation of atoms. These are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

5 ATOMIC AND MOLECULAR MASS
m One atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as a mass exactly equal to one-twelfth of the mass of one
C-12 atom, 1 amu = 1.66056 × 10–24 g.
m At present amu has been replaced by unified mass (u)
m Average atomic mass can be computed when we take into account the existence of isotopes
and their relative abundance.
m Molecular mass is the sum of atomic masses of the elements present in a molecule.
m Formula mass is used instead of molecular mass for ionic solids as in solid state they do not
exist as a single entity.
6 MOLE CONCEPT AND MOLAR MASSES
m Mole (Symbol, mol) is seventh base quantity for amount of a substance.
m One mole contains exactly 6.02214076 × 1023 elementary entities. This number is the fixed
numerical value of the Avogadro's constant (NA).
m The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is called its molar mass.
m Mass% of an element = Mass of that element in the compound × 100 / Molar mass of the
compound.
m Empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound, whereas, the molecular formula shows exact number of
different types of atoms present in a molecule of a compound.
7 STOICHIOMETRY AND STOICHIOMETRIC CALCULATIONS
m Stoichiometry deals with calculation of masses (sometime volume) of the
reactants and products involved in a chemical reaction.
m Reactant, which gets consumed first, limits the amount of product formed is
called limiting reagent.
m A majority of reactions are carried out in solutions. The concentration of a solution can
be expressed in following ways.
m Mass percent = Mass of solute × 100 / (Mass of solution)
m Mole fraction of solute = No. of moles of solute/No. of moles of solution
m Molarity (M) = No. of moles of solute / Volume of solution in litres
l For dilution of solutions, M1V1 = M2V2
m Molality (m) = No. of moles of solute/Mass of solvent in kg.

24
 MCQs

1. Incorrect boiling point of water is 5. An element has two isotopes having atomic 11. Mass of one CO molecule in gram is
mass 10 and 15 u respectively. If the % [NCERT Pg. 18]
[NCERT Pg. 10] abundance of lighter isotope is 80% then the
(1) 4.65 × 10–23 (2) 1.66 × 10–24
(1) 373 K (2) 100°C average atomic mass of the element is
[NCERT Pg. 17] (3) 3 × 10–24 (4) 6.22 × 10–23
(3) 212°F (4) 98.6°F
(1) 9 u (2) 11 u 12. If 2 mol of N2 and 3 mol of H2 mixed together
2. Number of significant digits in 0.200 g is to produce NH3 then select the correct
(3) 12 u (4) 14 u
[NCERT Pg. 12] option. [NCERT Pg. 22]
6. Formula mass is used instead of molecular
(1) N2 is limiting reagent
(1) 1 (2) 2 mass in the case of [NCERT Pg. 17]
(2) 1 mole of NH3 will be formed
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) H2O (2) NaCl
(3) He (4) H2 (3) H2 is limiting reagent
3. Law of multiple proportions is not valid for
7. 88 g of CO2 contains (NA = Avogadro’s No.) (4) N2 and H2 both are limiting reagents
the pair of [NCERT Pg. 15]
[NCERT Pg. 18] 13. The aqueous solution contains 2g of solute
(1) H2O and H2O2 in 18 g solution. The mass% of solute is
(1) NA molecules (2) 2NA molecules
(2) CO and CO2 (3) 0.5 NA molecules (4) 4NA molecules [NCERT Pg. 23]

8. In which molecule, mass % of both elements (1) 11.1% (2) 10%

(3) CH4 and CO2
in the molecule are equal? [NCERT Pg. 19] (3) 12.5% (4) 80%
(4) CH4 and C2H6 14. A gaseous mixture of CH4 and O2 contains
(1) CO (2) SO2
4. Select the incorrect statement regarding (3) NH3 (4) H2O2 equal masses of both. The mole fraction of
Dalton’s atomic theory [NCERT Pg. 16] CH4 in the mixture is [NCERT Pg. 23]
9. A hydrocarbon contains 80% carbon by
mass. The empirical formula of the 1 1
(1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms (1) (2)
hydrocarbon is [NCERT Pg. 19] 2 3
(2) Atoms of given element have identical
(1) CH (2) CH2 2 1
properties (3) (4)
(3) CH3 (4) CH4 3 4
(3) Compounds are formed when atoms of
10. Mole(s) of CO2 gas obtained at STP, when 15. In order to prepare 500 mL, 0.2 M NaOH
different elements combined in a fixed 32g CH4 reacted with 32 g of oxygen is solution, the mole(s) of NaOH required is
ratio [NCERT Pg. 20] [NCERT Pg. 23]
(4) Atoms are created or destroyed in a (1) 0.5 (2) 1 (1) 0.1 (2) 0.2
chemical reactions (3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2

25
16. 2M, 2L aqueous HCl solution is mixed with 18. The density of 1 M solution of compound A (1) 1 (2) 0.5
3L H2O, the molarity of resultant solution is is 1.12 g mL–1. The molality of the solution is
1 1
[NCERT Pg. 23] (Molar mass of A = 120 g mol–1) (3) (4)
55.55 56.55
(1) 1.34 M (2) 0.4 M [NCERT Pg. 23]
20. 0.0014 can be written in scientific notation
(3) 0.8 M (4) 1 M (1) 0.55 m as [NCERT Pg. 11]
17. 58.5 g of NaCl is added in 2500 g of water. (2) 0.75 m
(1) 0.14 × 10–2
The molality of the solution formed is (3) 1 m
[NCERT Pg. 23] (2) 1.4 × 10–3
(4) 1.2 m
(1) 0.2 m (2) 0.4 m 19. Mole fraction of solute in 1 molal aqueous (3) 14 × 10–4
(3) 0.8 m (4) 1 m NaOH solution is [NCERT Pg. 28] (4) 140 × 10–3

Fill in the blanks

1. _____ refers to the closeness of various 7. Empirical formula of CH3COOH is _____ 14. Counting the number of object has _____
measurements for the same quantity. [NCERT Pg. 19] significant figures. [NCERT Pg. 13]
[NCERT Pg. 13] 8. The reactant, which gets consumed first, 15. Volume of 56 g CO gas at STP is _____
2. According to law of definite proportions, a limits the amount of product formed is [NCERT Pg. 28]
given compound always contains same known as _____ [NCERT Pg. 21] 16. For a binary solution, mole fraction of solute
elements combined together in the same 9. Number of moles of _____ after and before is 0.2 then mole fraction of solvent is_____
proportion by _____ [NCERT Pg. 16] dilution remained the same. [NCERT Pg. 23]
3. 12C and 14C are _____ of carbon. [NCERT Pg. 24] 17. Concentration term which changes with
[NCERT Pg. 16] 10. 15 ppm means 15 g of solute in _____ g of temperature is _____ [NCERT Pg. 23]
solution. [NCERT Pg. 26] 18. 1 mol of C3H8 for complete combustion
4. 1 amu is defined as mass exactly equal to
_____ of the mass of one carbon-12 atom. 11. 12.7106 can be rounded up in three requires _____ mol of O2 [NCERT Pg. 21]
[NCERT Pg. 17] significant figures as _____ 19. Two volumes of hydrogen react with one
5. 6.022 × 1023 is known as _____ [NCERT Pg. 27] volume of oxygen to give _____ of water
12. 1 dm3 is equal _____ L. vapours. [NCERT Pg. 16]
[NCERT Pg. 18]
[NCERT Pg. 27] 20. For the multiplication of 3.7 and 1.384, the
6. 5 moles of H2SO4 contains_____ moles of
result should not have more than _____
atoms. [NCERT Pg. 18] 13. 1 micro is equal to _____
significant figures. [NCERT Pg. 13]
[NCERT Pg. 9]
  

26
 Answer Key

MCQs Fill in the blanks 11. 12.7

1. (4) 2. (3) 1. Precision 12. 1
3. (3) 4. (4) 2. Mass 13. 10–6
5. (2) 6. (2) 3. Isotopes
14. Infinite
7. (2) 8. (2) 4. One-twelfth
15. 44.8 L
9. (3) 10. (1) 5. Avogadro constant
16. 0.8
11. (1) 12. (3) 6. 35
17. Molarity
13. (1) 14. (3) 7. CH2O
15. (1) 16. (3) 8. Limiting reagent 18. 5

17. (2) 18. (3) 9. Solute 19. Two volumes

19. (4) 20. (2) 10. 106 20. 2

27
 Structure of Atom
1 SUBATOMIC PARTICLES Atomic no. (Z) = Number of protons m Photoelectric effect: Ejection of electrons when certain
Name Discovery Charge Mass/kg Mass no. (A) = Number of protons and neutrons metals were exposed to beam of light.
–19 –31
Electron (e) Cathode rays –1.6 × 10 C 9.1 × 10 Isotopes = Same atomic number but different mass Observation of photoelectric effect
–19 –27 12 14
Proton (p) Anode rays +1.6 × 10 C 1.67 × 10 number e.g. 6C, 6C m No time lag between ejection of electrons from metal
–27
Neutron (n) a particles 0 1.67 × 10 Isobars = Atoms with same mass number but different surface and striking of light beam.
bombarded on
14 14
Be thin sheet atomic number e.g. m Number of ejected electrons proportional to the intensity
6C, 7N
or brightness of light.
2 ATOMIC MODELS
3 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES m Minimum frequency required to eject electron is known as
m Thomson model (Plum pudding model)
The atom is of spherical shape in which positive charge is m Unlike sound wave, electromagnetic waves do not require threshold frequency (n0).
uniformly distributed and electrons are embedded in it.
medium and can move in vacuum. m Einstein photoelectric equation
m Rutherford's Nuclear Model
Electromagnetic waves are characterised by the properties, 1 m v2
a particle scattering experiment m hn = hn0 +
Gold foil
2 e
frequency (n) and wave length (l) and travel with speed of
8
4 ATOMIC SPECTRA
light i.e., c = 3 × 10 m/s
a m The spectrum of radiation emitted by a substance that has
rays c = nl
absorbed energy is called an emission spectrum.

1 m An absorption spectrum is like photographic negative of

Source of Lead plate Photographic plate
m Wave number (n) = l
alpha particles an emission spectrum.
Observation of experiment dec , inc. Line Spectrum of Hydrogen
n l
(i) Most of a ray passed through gold foil undeflected g X Micro Radio
UV Visible IR n = 109,677 12 12 cm
–1
(ii) A small fraction of the a-particles was deflected by small rays rays wave wave m

angles n1 n1
(iii) A very few a-particles bounced back m Experiment supporting wave nature of electromagnetic where n is the wave number of spectral line in hydrogen spectrum.
m On the basis of Rutherford experiment most of the space in an radiation are interference & diffraction
Series n1 n2 Spectral Region
atom is empty, a centre of atom is occupied by the nucleus in m Experiment supporting particle nature of electromagnetic
which positive charge is concentrated in a very small volume. radiations are photoelectric effect and black body radiations. Lyman 1 2, 3... Ultraviolet
The nucleus is surrounded by electrons that move around the Planck's Quantum Law: Atoms and molecules could emit or Balmer 2 3, 4... Visible
nucleus with a very high speed in circular path called orbits absorb energy only in discrete quantities and not in continous
while electrostatic forces of attraction held nucleus and Paschen 3 4, 5... Infrared
manner known as quantum
electrons together. Brackett 4 5, 6... Infrared
m Draw back of Rutherford model E = hn
It cannot explain the stability of atom. E = energy of quantum Pfund 5 6, 7... Infrared

28
 Structure of Atom

5 BOHR'S MODEL FOR HYDROGEN ATOM 7 QUANTUM MECHANICAL MODEL OF ATOM 9 SHAPES OF ATOMIC ORBITALS
Key points of Bohr's theory m Orbitals and quantum number m Shapes of p-orbital
2px 2py 2pz
m Electron in the hydrogen atom can move in circular path of (1) Principal quantum number 'n' determines the size and z z z
fixed radius and energy known as orbits. energy of orbital.
m The energy of orbit does not change with time. l Number of allowed orbital in a shell = n2
(2) Azimuthal quantum number 'l' defines the three- x x x
m Electron moves from a lower stationary state to higher state
when required amount of energy is absorbed by the electron. dimeinsional shape of orbital y y y
m Electron move from higher energy state to lower energy state l For a given n, possible value of l = 0, 1, 2 ... (n – 1)
leaving the extra energy in the form of electromagnetic l Value of l 0 1 2 3 4 5 m Shapes of d-orbitals
waves.
Notation of s p d f g h dxy dxz dyz
m Angular momentum of electron is quantized. subshell z z z
nh
mvr = (3) Magnetic orbital quantum number 'm l ' gives
2p
information about the spatial orientation of the orbital with
m Frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted respect to standard set of coordinate axis. x x y x
For any subshell, 2l + 1 values of ml are possible. y y
DE E2 – E1 l
n= h = h
l Subshell s p d f g h (a) (b) (c)
2 dx2 – y2 dz2
52.9 (n ) Number of 1 3 5 7 9 11
m rn = pm; radius of nth orbit z z
Z orbitals
2 (4) Two orientations of electrons are distinguished by the
m En = –2.18 × 10
–18 Z
2 J; energy of electron in nth orbit spin quantum numbers (ms) which can take value of
n
1 1 x
+ and – . x
2 2 y y
6 DUAL BEHAVIOUR OF MATTER
m de-Broglie relationship between wavelength (l) and 8 FILLING OF ORBITALS IN ATOM (d) (e)
momentum (P) of the material particle. m Aufbau Principle: In the ground state
of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in 1s
h h Total nodes = n – 1, angular nodes = l, radial nodes
l= = order of their increasing energies. m
P mv
m The maximum number of electrons in 2s 2p =n–1–l
m Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle 2
a shell = 2n 3d
Energies of Orbitals
It states that it is impossible to determine simultaneously, the 3s 3p

m Hund's Rule of Maximum m 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p = 4d = 4f <

exact position and exact momentum (or velocity) of an 4s 4p 4d 4f (for hydrogen)
Multiplicity
electron. m (n + l) rule – the lower the value of (n + l) for an orbital, the
Pairing of electrons in degenerate 5s 5p 5d 5f
h orbitals take place only after each lower is its energy. It two orbitals have the same value of
Dx × Dpx ³ (n + l), the orbital with lower value of n will have the lower
4p degenerate orbitals is singly filled. 6s 6p 6d
energy for multielectron atom.
m Heisenberg uncertainty principle is not valid for macroscopic m Pauli Exclusion Principle 7s 7p m Energies of the orbital in the same subshell decreases
objects. No two electrons in an atom can have
with increase in the atomic number (Zeff)
m Failure of Bohr model: It ignores dual behaviour of matter the same set of four quantum
but also contradicts Heisenberg uncertainty principle. numbers. e.g. E2s(H) > E2s(Li) > E2s(Na) > E2s(K)

29
 MCQs

1. Isobars are atoms with same 5. The kinetic energy of photoelectron when a 8. Radius of first excited state of Be3+ ion is
radiation of 104 Hz frequency hit the metal is
[NCERT Pg. 35] [NCERT Pg. 48]
(ν0 = 103 Hz) [NCERT Pg. 43]
(1) Atomic number (1) 13.22 pm (2) 52.9 pm
(1) 2.14 × 10–18 J
(2) Mass number (3) 105.8 pm (4) 211.6 pm
(2) 6.73 × 10–24 J
(3) Number of protons 9. Energy required to excite the electron in a
(3) 5.96 × 10–30 J hydrogen atom from 2nd to 3rd orbit is
(4) Number of neutrons
(4) 7.12 × 10–34 J [NCERT Pg. 48]
2. Correct order of wavelength is
6. Minimum wavenumber possible for the (1) 3.63 × 10–19 J (2) 2.18 × 10–18 J
[NCERT Pg. 38] spectral line present in Balmer series is
(3) 3.00 × 10–19 J (4) 5.45 × 10–19 J
(1) IR > Visible > UV [NCERT Pg. 45]
10. de Broglie wavelength of 20 g ball moving
(2) UV > IR > Visible (1) 82257 cm–1 with a velocity of 50 ms–1 is [NCERT Pg. 50]

(3) Visible > IR > UV (2) 109677 cm–1 (1) 6.626 × 10–37 m–1

(4) Visible > UV > IR (3) 15233 cm–1 (2) 6.626 × 10–34 m–1

3. Wavenumber of radiation having wavelength (4) 18347 cm–1 (3) 1.5 × 10–36 m–1
λ = 5000 Å is [NCERT Pg. 40] 7. Angular momentum of electron in 5th (4) 2.26 × 10–34 m–1
stationary orbit of hydrogen atom is
(1) 2 × 106 cm–1 11. Correct expression for Heisenberg
[NCERT Pg. 46] uncertainty principle is [NCERT Pg. 51]
(2) 2 × 104 cm–1
h h
(3) 2 × 10–6 cm–1 (1) (1) ∆x × ∆Vx ≥
2π 4π
(4) 2 × 10–4 cm–1
h h
4. Energy of one mole of photons of radiation (2) (2) ∆x × ∆Vx ≥
5π 4π m
whose frequency is 2 × 1014 Hz is nearly
h h
[NCERT Pg. 43] (3) (3) ∆x × ∆Vx ≥
π 2π
(1) 80 kJ (2) 153 kJ
5h h
(4) (4) ∆x × ∆Vx ≥
(3) 247 kJ (4) 366 kJ 2π 2π m

30
12. Number of orbital present in L-shell is 15. xy plane is nodal plane for [NCERT Pg. 59] 19. Maximum number of unpaired electrons
(1) dxy present in chromium atom is
[NCERT Pg. 55]
(2) d [NCERT Pg. 66]
(1) 1 (2) 2 x2 − y2
(1) 2
(3) 4 (4) 9 (3) d
z2
(2) 3
13. Which of the following set of quantum (4) dxz
numbers is not possible? [NCERT Pg. 56] (3) 5
16. Energy of which orbital is maximum for
1 hydrogen atom? [NCERT Pg. 61]
(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = + (4) 6
2 (1) 6s (2) 5p
1 20. Which of orbital representation is following
(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = − (3) 4d (4) 5f Hund's rule? [NCERT Pg. 63]
2
17. According to Aufbau principle filling of which
1 orbital takes place just after 5s in a
(3) n = 2, l = –1, m = 0, s = + (1)
2 multielectron atom? [NCERT Pg. 62]
1 (1) 5p (2) 5d
(4) n = 5, l = 3, m = –2, s = −
2 (2)
(3) 4f (4) 4d
14. Total number of nodes present in 3d
18. Maximum number of electrons present in 4th
subshell is [NCERT Pg. 59] (3)
shell is [NCERT Pg.62]
(1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 2 (2) 8
(3) 2 (4) 3 (4)
(3) 16 (4) 32

Fill in the blanks

1. The characteristics of cathode rays 4. Black-body radiations and photoelectric 7. Size of atomic orbital depends on _______
_______ depends upon the material of effect support _______ nature of quantum number. [NCERT Pg. 55]
electromagnetic radiations. [NCERT Pg. 39]
electrodes. [NCERT Pg. 31] 8. The region where the probability density
5. Paschen series belongs to _______ region. reduces to zero is called _______.
2. Most of the α-particles passed through the
[NCERT Pg. 45] [NCERT Pg. 57]
gold foil _______. [NCERT Pg. 34]
6. The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty 9. Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen atom is
3. Protium and deuterium are _______ of each principle is significant only for motion of _______ than that of 2s orbital of lithium
other. [NCERT Pg. 35] _______ objects. [NCERT Pg. 51] atom. [NCERT Pg. 61]

31
10. Maximum number of electrons present in 'g' 14. The probability of finding an electron at a 17. Canal rays were used to discover _______.
subshell is _______. [NCERT Pg. 56] point within an atom is proportional to [NCERT Pg. 32]
11. Only two electrons may exist in the same _______. [NCERT Pg. 47] 18. In vacuum, all electromagnetic waves travel
orbital and these electrons must have
_______ spin. [NCERT Pg. 62] with _______. [NCERT Pg. 38]
15. Transition of electron from 4th shell to 1st
shell in an hydrogen atom belongs to 19. _______ quantum number has only two
12. Completely filled subshells are _______
stable than partially filled subshells. _______ series. [NCERT Pg. 47] possible values. [NCERT Pg. 56]
[NCERT Pg. 65]
20. Radius of orbit is directly proportional to
16. Electron microscope is based on _______
13. Energy of quantum of radiation is _______. [NCERT Pg. 48]
behaviour of electron. [NCERT Pg. 50]
proportional to its _______. [NCERT Pg. 41]

  

Answer Key
MCQs Fill in the blanks 11. Opposite
1. (2) 2. (1) 1. Do not 12. More
3. (2) 4. (1) 2. Undeflected 13. Frequency
5. (3) 6. (3) 3. Isotopes
14. |ψ|2
7. (4) 8. (2) 4. Particle
15. Lyman
9. (3) 10. (2) 5. Infrared
16. Wavelike
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Microscopic
7. Principal 17. Protons
13. (3) 14. (3)
15. (4) 16. (1) 8. Nodes 18. Speed of light
17. (4) 18. (4) 9. Greater 19. Spin
19. (4) 20. (1) 10. 18 20. n2

32
 States of Matter
1 INTERMOLECULAR FORCES 5 CHARLE'S LAW 7 AVOGADRO LAW
m Gas ® Liquid ® Solid
m Forces of attraction and repulsions (i) Pressure remaining constant, the (i) Equal volumes of all gases under the same
Predominance of intermolecular
between interacting particles force intereactions volume of a fixed mass of a gas is
conditions of temperature and pressure contain
m Types of intermolecular forces directly proportional to its absolute
m Gas ¬ Liquid ¬ Solid temperature. equal number of molecules.
(i) Dispersion forces or London forces
Predominance of thermal energy V V V
(a) Force of attraction between (ii) = k2 or 1 = 2 (ii) V µ n
instantaneous dipole and T T1 T2
t
induced dipole.
(b) Interaction energy proportional m
3 GASEOUS STATE
Gaseous state is characterised by
(iii) Vt = V0 1 + ( 273.15 ( (iii) At standard temperature and pressure (STP),

1 molar volume of ideal gases is 22.7 L mol–1.

to , where r is the distance
r6
between two particles.
(ii) Dipole-Diple forces act between the
molecules possessing permanent
dipole. Dipole-dipole intereaction
following physical properties Vt and V0 are volumes of gas at
(i) Highly compressible
t°C and 0°C respectively.
(ii) Exert pressure equally in all 8 IDEAL GAS EQUATION
direction
p1<p2<p3<p4 m Boyle's law, Charles' law and Avogadro law can
(iii) M u c h l o w e r d e n s i t y t h a n
p1 be combined together in single equation known

Volume
solid /liquid (iv) p2
p3 as ideal gas equation.
energy between stationary (iv) Indefinite shape and volume p4 Ideal gas equation : PV = nRT
molecules is proportional to 13 . (v) Mix evenly and completely in all
m
r
proportions without any ñ
-273.15 m R is universal gas constant and equal to
(iii) Dipole-Induced dipole forces –300 –200 –100 0 100
mechanical aid (i) 8.314JK–1 mol–1
operate between the polar Temperature (°C)
–2 –1 –1
molecules having permanent (ii) 8.20578 × 10 L atm K mol
4 GAS LAWS
dipole and the molecule lacking PM
6 GAY LUSSAC'S LAW m Density of gas = RT
permanent dipole. Interaction m Boyle's law
(i) At constant volume, pressure of a
energy is proportional to 1 . (i) A t c o n s t a n t t e m p e r a t u r e ,
fixed amount of gas varies directly
r6 pressure of a fixed amount of
with temperature 9 DALTON'S LAW OF PARTIAL PRESSURE
(iv) Hydrogen bond is a special case of gas varies inversely with its
dipole-dipole interaction and is volume. (ii) P µ T or P = k3 (i) Total pressure exerted by the mixture of non-
T
found in the molecules in which (ii) P = k1 1 Þ pV = k1 reactive gases is equal to the sum of the partial
highly polar N – H, O – H, or H – F V
V1<V2<V3<V4 pressures of individual gases.
Pressure (bar)

bonds are present. P1V1 = P2V2 V1

V2 Ptotal = P1 + P2 + P3 + ..... (at constant T, V)
V3
2 THERMAL ENERGY T3>T2>T1 V4 (ii) PDry gas= PTotal – Aqueous tension
(iii) P T3
m Energy of a body arising from motion of (iii) P1 = PTotal x1, P2 = PTotal x2 where x1, x2 are the
its atoms or molecules and it is directly T2
T1 0 100 200 300 400
mole fractions of gas 1 and 2 in the mixture.
proportional to the temperature V Temperature (K)

33

10 KINETIC ENERGY AND
MOLECULAR SPEEDS
u + u2 + ... un
m Average speed (uav) = 1 n law, Charles law and Avogadro law perfectly
where n number of molecules in the sample
and u1, u2 .... are their individual speeds.
1 CH4
m KE = mu2rms
2 H2
m Most probable speed(u m p ) is the speed
possessed by the maximum number of
molecules
m Root mean square speed(Urns) is the square
root of the mean of the square of speeds.
u12 + u 22 .... un2
urms =
n
m ump : uav: urms :: 1 : 1.128:1.224
11 KINETIC MOLECULAR THEORY OF GASES
m Postulates of kinetic molecular theory
(i) Gases consist of large number of identical
particles and their actual volume is
negligible in comparison to the empty
space between them
(ii) No force of attraction between particles at
ordinary temperature and pressure
(iii) Particles of gas are always in constant
random motion.
(iv) Particles of gas move in all possible
direction in straight lines and during
motion they collide with each other and
with wall of container elastically.
(v) Individual speed of particles are changing
but distribution of speeds remains
constant at a particular temperature.
States of Matter
12 BEHAVIOUR OF REAL GASES: 14 LIQUID STATE
DEVIATION FROM IDEAL GAS BEHAVIOUR
m It is found that real gases do not follow, Boyle's m Volume occupied by the molecules also m Vapour pressure is the pressure
become significant because instead of at equilibrium between liquid and
vapour phase.
under all conditions. moving in volume V, these are now
m The temperature at which
restricted to volume V-nb where nb is vapour pressure of liquid is equal
CO
approximately the total volume of to external pressure is called
molecules occupied by themselves. boiling temperature at the
He m van der Waals equation pressure.
ideal gas m At 1 atm pressure boiling
pV
2
temperature is called normal
(P+
an
V
2 ( (V-nb) = nRT boiling point and at 1 bar then
the boiling point is called
0 p standard boiling point of the
a and b are called van der waals constant
liquid.
and depends on nature of gas.
m Surface Tension is defined as the
m Compressibility factor Z
force acting per unit length
Real gas
V perpendicular to the line drawn
Ideal gas (i) Z = PV , Z = real on the surface of liquid. Denoted
nRT Videal
Pressure by g and SI unit is Nm–1.
(ii) For ideal gas Z = 1 m Viscosity
(i) It is a measure of resistance
(iii) At very low pressure Z » 1 for all gases. to flow which arises due to
0 Volume
(iv) At high pressure Z > 1 and at internal friction between
intermediate pressure most gases layers of fluid as they slip
past one another while liquid
m Two assumption of kinetic theory do not hold have Z < 1. flows.
good for real gases i.e (i) No interparticle (ii) In laminar flow there is a
m Boyle temperature or Boyle point
attraction and (ii) Negligible volume of regular gradation of velocity
The temperature at which a real gas obeys in passing from one layer to
molecule of gas in comparison to space
ideal gas law over an appreciable range of next.
occupied by the gas.
pressure. du
m Real gases show deviations from ideal gas (iii) F = h A dz where F is force
of viscosity; A, area of
because molecules of gases intereact with 13 LIQUIFACTION OF GASES
du
each other. This affects the pressure exerted contact; dz velocity gradient;
m Critical temperature (TC) is the highest
by the molecules on the walls of container. h, coefficient of viscosity
temperature at which liquid is observed.
an2 m Critical volume (VC) is the volume of one (iv) SI unit of h is Nsm–2, in cgs
Pideal = Preal + mole of the gas at critical temperature
V system unit is poise
(observed (correction and pressure. 1 poise = 1 gcm–1s–1
pressure) term)
m For CO2, TC is 30.98°C = 10–1 kgm–1s–1.
34
 MCQs
1. In London force, the interaction energy is 5. Value of universal gas constant in L atm 9. Which of the curve belong to H2 gas at
proportional to (r = distance between two K–1 mol–1 is [NCERT Pg. 146] 273 K? [NCERT Pg. 150]
interacting particles) [NCERT Pg. 138] (1) 0.082
1 1 (2) 1.99
(1) (2)
r r2 (3) 8.314
1 1 (4) 0.83
(3) (4)
r3 r6 6. A gaseous mixture contains equal masses
2. A gas occupies 1 L volume at 720 mm then of O2 and CH4. If the total pressure of the
the pressure at which it occupies 600 mL mixture is 15 atm then the partial pressure
volume at constant temperature is of CH4 in the mixture is [NCERT Pg. 147] (1) a (2) b
[NCERT Pg. 140] (1) 1 atm (2) 5 atm (3) c (4) d
(1) 600 m (2) 720 mm (3) 10 atm (4) 15 atm 10. Select the correct relation.
[NCERT Pg. 151]
(3) 900 mm (4) 1200 mm 7. Ratio of ump : uav : urms is [NCERT Pg. 149]
a 2n
3. If volume of a gas at 0°C is V0 then the (1) 1 : 1·128 : 1·224 (1) Pideal = Preal +
V2
volume of the gas at 27·3°C is nearly (2) 1·128 : 1 : 1.224
[NCERT Pg. 142] a 2n
(3) 1·128 : 1·224 : 1 (2) Pideal = Preal –
V2
(1) V0 (2) 1.1V0
(4) 1 : 1·224 : 1·128 an2
(3) 1.5 V0 (4) 10 V0 (3) Pideal = Preal +
8. Which assumption of the kinetic molecular V2
4. At constant volume, pressure of a fixed theory is not correct? [NCERT Pg. 149]
an2
amount of a gas varies directly with the (4) Pideal = Preal –
(1) At any particular time, different particles V2
temperature. This statement is based on of gas have different speeds 11. The temperature at which real gas obeys
[NCERT Pg. 143] (2) Collisions of gas molecules are perfectly ideal gas law over an appreciable range of
(1) Charle’s law elastic. pressure is called [NCERT Pg. 152]
(3) Pressure is exerted as a result of (1) Boiling temperature
(2) Boyles’s law
collision of particles with each other. (2) Boyle temperature
(3) Gay Lussac’s law
(4) Particles of a gas move in all possible (3) Critical temperature
(4) Avogadro law direction in straight lines. (4) Inversion temperature

35
12. Density of CO2 gas (in gL–1) at 8·21 atm and (1) HF (1) 0·9 bar
400 K is [NCERT Pg. 146] (2) H2O (2) 1·2 bar
(1) 1·1 (2) 5·5 (3) NH3 (3) 1.8 bar
(3) 11 (4) 22 (4) H2 (4) 2.7 bar
13. Maximum value of vander Waals constant 16. S.I Unit of surface tension is 19. Real gas behaves as an ideal gas at
‘a’ is of [NCERT Pg. 151,154] [NCERT Pg. 156] [NCERT Pg. 151,152]
(1) He (2) O2 (1) Nm (2) Nm–1 (1) High pressure and low temperature
(3) NH3 (4) CO2 (2) Nm2 (4) Nm–2 (2) Low pressure and high temperature
14. At critical temperature, the density of liquid 17. Force of viscosity depends on (3) High pressure and high temperature
becomes [NCERT Pg. 155] [NCERT Pg. 156] (4) Low pressure and low temperature
(1) Greater than the density of vapours (1) Coefficient of viscosity 20. According to Avogadro Law equal volume of
(2) Area of contact between liquid layers all gases under same conditions of
(2) Less than the density of vapours
(3) Velocity gradient temperature and pressure contain equal
(3) Equal to the density of vapours [NCERT Pg. 144]
(4) All of these
(4) Zero (1) Number of Atoms
18. Pressure exerted by a gaseous mixture
15. In which of the following molecules when 0.5 L H2 at 0.8 bar and 2.0 L of O2 at (2) Number of molecules
hydrogen bonding does not occur? 0.7 bar are introduced in 1L vessel at 27°C (3) Mass
[NCERT Pg. 138,139] is [NCERT Pg. 158] (4) Number of electrons

Fill in the blanks

1. Energy of a body arising from motion of its 5. Average kinetic energy of a gas molecule is 10. If value of Z = 2 for a real gas then volume
atoms or molecules is called _______. directly proportional to the _______. of 1 mol of gas at STP is _______ L.
[NCERT Pg. 139] [NCERT Pg. 149] [NCERT Pg. 152]
11. Boyle’s law is applicable at constant
2. Lowest temperature possible is _______ °C. 6. At high pressure, all the gases have Z
[NCERT Pg. 143] _______. [NCERT Pg. 140]
_______ 1. [NCERT Pg. 151]
12. _______ interaction occurs between two
3. The difference between the total pressure of 7. At 1 atm pressure boiling temperature is
HCl molecules. [NCERT Pg. 138]
the moist gas and pressure of dry gas is called _______ boiling point.
13. If volume of a gas is V L at 10°C then volume
equal to _______. [NCERT Pg. 146] [NCERT Pg. 154]
of the same gas at 293°C is _______ L.
4. At any given temperature, nitrogen 8. Liquid tends to rise (or fall) in the capillary [NCERT Pg. 142]
molecules have _______ value of most because of _______. [NCERT Pg. 156] 14. Dalton’s law of partial pressure is not
probable speed than the chlorine molecules. 9. SI unit of vander Waals constant ‘b’ is applicable for _______ gaseous mixture.
[NCERT Pg. 148] _______. [NCERT Pg. 151] [NCERT Pg. 146]

36
15. Schematic plot of number of molecules Vs
molecular speed at different temperatures is
called ______ of speeds. [NCERT Pg. 148]
16. Repulsive interactions are _______
interactions. [NCERT Pg. 151]
17. Critical temperature of CO2 gas is _______. 19. 1 poise is equal to _______ kg m–1 s–1.
[NCERT Pg. 153] [NCERT Pg. 157]
20. _______ is the difference between the mass
18. Vapour pressure of a liquid depends only on of displaced air and mass of balloon.
_______. [NCERT Pg. 154] [NCERT Pg. 158]

  

Answer Key
MCQs Fill in the blanks 11. Temperature
1. (4) 2. (4) 1. Thermal energy 12. Dipole-dipole
3. (2) 4. (3) 2. –273·15 13. 2V
5. (1) 6. (3) 3. Aqueous tension
14. Reactive
7. (1) 8. (3) 4. Higher
15. Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
9. (3) 10. (3) 5. Absolute temperature
16. Short-range
11. (2) 12. (2) 6. Greater than
17. 30·98°C
13. (3) 14. (3) 7. Normal
18. Temperature
15. (4) 16. (2) 8. Surface Tension
19. 10–1
17. (4) 18. (3) 9. L mol–1
19. (2) 20. (2) 10. 22.4 20. Pay load

37
 Redox Reactions
1 CLASSICAL IDEA OF REDOX REACTIONS (5) Oxidation number of F is –1, other halide ions is – 1, X + YZ ® XZ + Y
m Oxidation- addition of oxygen/electronegative elements positive oxidation number of halogens (except F) in Types of displacement to reactions.
to a substance or removal of hydrogen/electropositive oxoacids and oxoanions. (1) Metal displacement reaction in which a metal in a
element from a substance. compound can be displaced by another metal in
(6) Algebraic sum of oxidation number of all atoms in a
m Reduction is the removal of oxygen/electronegative uncombined state.
compound is 0. In polyatomic ions, the algebraic sum of
element from a substance or addition of hydrogen/ e.g. CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) ® Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)
oxidation number of all atoms is equal to charge
electropositive element to a substance. (2) Non-metal displacement redox reaction generally
present on the ions. include hydrogen displacement
2 REDOX REACTION IN TERMS OF ELECTRON m Stock notation is expressed by putting a Roman numeral
e.g. 2Na(s) + 2H4O(l) ® 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
TRANSFER REACTIONS representing the oxidation number in parenthesis after the
m Disproportionation reactions
m Half reactions that involve loss of electrons are called symbol of metal in the molecular formula eg. Au (III) Cl3 In this type of reaction an element in one oxidation state
oxidation reactions. m Oxidation : An increase in the oxidation number of the is simultaneously oxidised and reduced.
m Half reactions that involve gain of electrons are called element in the given substance. eg: 2H2O2(aq) ¾® 2H2O (l) + O2(g)
reduction reactions.
– m Reduction : A decrease in the oxidation number of the
loss of 2e
element in the given substance. 5 PARADOX OF FRACTIONAL
+ –
2Na (s) + Cl2 (g) ¾® 2Na Cl (s) m Oxidising agent : A reagent which can increase the OXIDATION NUMBER
oxidation number of an element in a given substance
gain of 2e
– In certain compound, the oxidation number of a particular
m Reducing agent : A reagent which can decrease the
m Oxidising agent : Acceptor of electron(s). element in the compound is in fraction. Actually this
oxidation number of an element in a given substance.
m Reducing agent : Donor of electron (s) fractional oxidation state is the average oxidation state of
same element in the compound.
3 OXIDATION NUMBER 4 TYPES OF REDOX REACTIONS
m Combination reactions O O O
m Oxidation number denotes the oxidation state of an +6 +4 +6
element in a compound ascertained according to a set of A + B ¾® C eg: Br3O8 O Br Br Br O,
rules formulated on the basis that electron pair in a (Either A and B or both A and B must be in the elemental
O O O
covalent bond belongs entirely to more electronegative form)
element eg : C(s) + O2(g) ¾® CO2(g) Oxidation no. of Br = 16/3
m Rules of the calculation of oxidation numbers: m Decomposition reactions are the opposite of
(1) In elements in the free state, oxidation number of ¸2 0 +2
combination reaction. eg: C3O2 O C C C O
each atom is zero. D
(2) For ion containing single atom, oxidation number is e.g : 2NaH (s) 2Na (s) + H2 (g) Oxidation no. of C = 4/3
equal to charge on the ion. All decomposition reactions are not redox reactions
(3) Oxidation number of oxygen in oxide = –2, in D O O
e.g : CaCO3 CaO(s) + CO2 (g) +5 0 0 +5 –
peroxide = – 1, in super oxide = –½, in OF2 = + 2, in –
O S S S S O
m Displacement reaction are those in which an ion (or an eg: S4O62–
O2F2 = + 1
O O
(4) Oxidation number of hydrogen is + 1 in binary atom) in a compound is replaced by an ion (or an atom) of
Oxidation of S = 2.5
compound except with metal eg: LiH, CaH2 another element.

38
Redox Reactions

6 BALANCING OF REDOX REACTIONS Step 3: Balance the atoms other than O and H in
each half reaction individually. Here the oxidation
1. Oxidation Number Method
half reaction is already balanced with respect to
MnO4– (aq) + Br – (aq) ® MnO2 (s) + BrO3– (aq) (in basic medium) Fe atoms. For the reduction half reaction, we
3+
Step 1: The Skeletal ionic equation multiply the Cr by 2 to balance Cr atoms.
MnO4– (aq) + Br – (aq) ® MnO2 (s) + BrO3– (aq) Cr2O72 - (aq) 2Cr 3 + (aq)
For the reaction in a basic medium, first balance the
+
atoms as is done in acidic medium. Then for each H ion,
–
add an equal number of OH ions to both sides of the
+ –
equation. Where H and OH appear on the same side
of the equation, combine these to give H2O.

Step 4: For reactions occurring in acidic medium, 7 REDOX REACTIONS AND

Step 2: Assign oxidation number for Mn and Br +
+7 –1 +4 +5 add H2O to balance O atoms and H to balance H ELECTRODE PROCESSES
MnO4– (aq) + B r – (aq) ® MnO2 (s) + B rO3– (aq) atoms. Thus, we get :
m A redox couple is defined as having together the
This indicates that permanganate ion is the oxidant and bromide Cr2O72– (aq) + 14H+ (aq) 2 Cr 3+ (aq) + 7H2O(l)
oxidised and reduced forms of a substance taking
ion in the reductant.
Step 5: Add electrons to one side of the half part in an oxidation or reduction half reaction.
Step 3 : Calculate the increase and decrease of oxidation
reaction to balance the charges. If need be, make
number, and make the increase equal to the decrease. m Daniell cell
the number of electrons equal in the two half
–1 Current flow
+7 +4 +5 reactions by multiplying one or both half reactions
Switch
2MnO4– (aq) + Br – (aq) ® 2MnO2 (s) + Br O3– (aq) by appropriate number.
Electron flow

The oxidation half reaction is thus rewritten to Anode Cathode

Step 4 : As the reaction occurs in the basic medium, and the ionic
balance the charge: +
–
charges are not equal on both sides, add 2OH . ions on the right 2+ 3+ –
Fe (aq) ® Fe (aq) + e
to make ionic charges equal Now in the reduction half reaction there are net Salt
2M nO 4– (aq) + B r – (aq) ® M nO 2 (s) + B rO 3– (aq) + 2O H – (aq) twelve positive charges on the left hand side and bridge

Step 5 : Finally, count the hydrogen atoms and add appropriate only six positive charges on the right hand side.
Therefore, we add six electrons on the left side.
number of water molecule (i.e. one H2O molecule, on the left + – 3+
Cr2O72– (aq) + 14H (aq) + 6e ® 2Cr (aq) +
side to achieve balanced redox change.)
7H2O (l) Oxidation Reduction
2M nO 4– (aq) + B r – (aq) + H 2 O( l ) ® 2M nO 2 (s) + B rO 3– (aq) + 2O H – (aq)
To equalise the number of electrons in both the
2. Half Reaction Method: half reactions, we multiply the oxidation half
Suppose we have to balance the equation showing the oxidation reaction by 6 and write as : m The potential associated with each electrode is known
2+ 3+ 2– 2+ 3+ – as electrode potential.
of Fe ions to Fe ions by dichromate ions (Cr2O7) in acidic 6Fe (aq) ® 6Fe (aq) + 6e
2– 3+ m If the concentration of each species taking part in the
medium, wherein, Cr2O7 ions are reduced to Cr ions. Step 6: We add the two half reactions to achieve
the overall reaction and cancel the electrons on electrode reaction is unity at 298 K then the potential of
The following steps are involved in this task.
Step 1: Produce unbalanced equation for the reaction in ionic each side. This gives the net ionic equation as : each electrode is said standard electrode potential.
2+ + 3+
form : 6Fe (aq) + Cr2O72– (aq) + 14H (aq) ® 6 Fe (aq) m By convention the standard electrode potential (E°)
3+ of hydrogen electrode is 0 volts.
Fe2+ (aq) + Cr2O72– (aq) Fe3+ (aq) + Cr 3+ (aq) +2Cr (aq) + 7H2O(l)
Step 7: Verify that the equation contains the same m A negative E° means redox couple is a stronger
Step 2: Separate the equation into half reactions:
+2 +3 type and number of atoms and the same charges reducing agent than H+/H2 couple.
Oxidation half : Fe2 + (aq) Fe3 + (aq) on both sides of the equation. This last check
m A positive E° means redox couple is weak reducing
+6 +3 reveals that the equation is fully balanced with
Reduction half : Cr 2 O72– (aq) 3+
Cr (aq) respect to number of atoms and the charges. +
agent than H / H2 couple.

39
 MCQs
1. Species undergoing oxidation in the reaction 7. Correct stock notation of aurous chloride is 12. In the balanced redox reaction
H2S(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) + S(s) is [NCERT Pg. 269]
Cr2O27 − + SO23 − → Cr 3 + + SO24−
[NCERT Pg. 264] (1) Au(III)Cl3 (2) Au(II)Cl2
2− 2−
(1) H2S (2) Cl2 (3) Au(I)Cl (4) Au(III)Cl The ratio of number of Cr2O7 ion and SO3
(3) HCl (4) S 8. Non-redox reaction is [NCERT Pg. 270] ion is [NCERT Pg. 276]
2. Which of the following is/are true for a ∆
(1) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
reducing agent? [NCERT Pg. 265] (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
∆
(2) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(1) Oxidises itself (2) Reduces other 13. Which of the following can act as self
(3) Donor of electron (4) All of these (3) KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 indicator? [NCERT Pg. 277]
3. Oxidation number of S in Na2S2O3 is 2− −
(1) Cr2O7 (2) MnO4
(4) 2NaH → 2Na + H2
[NCERT Pg. 268]
2−
(3) C2O4 (4) Cu2+
(1) 0 (2) – 2 9. CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4 is an
(3) 2 (4) 6 example of [NCERT Pg. 270] 14. Select the incorrect statement regarding
Daniell cell [NCERT Pg. 278]
4. Oxidation number of oxygen in KO2 is (1) Combination reaction
(1) Electrons are produced at the anode
[NCERT Pg. 268] (2) Decomposition
(2) Oxidation of Zn takes place
1 (3) Metal displacement reaction
(1) − (2) –1 (3) Circuit is completed inside the cell by
2 (4) Non-metal displacement reaction
migration of ions through salt bridge
(3) –2 (4) +1 10. Disproportionation reaction cannot be
(4) Direction of current is from anode to
5. Which of the following halogen cannot have shown by the ion [NCERT Pg. 272]
cathode in external circuit
positive oxidation number [NCERT Pg. 268] (1) ClO–
−
(2) ClO4 15. Oxidation number of Fe in Fe3O4 is
(1) F (2) Cl
− [NCERT Pg. 280]
(3) ClO3 (4) ClO2−
(3) Br (4) I (1) +2 (2) +3
6. Highest oxidation state of group 16 element 11. Oxidation number of middle carbon in C3O2
8
is [NCERT Pg. 269] molecule is [NCERT Pg. 273] (3) + (4) 0
3
(1) 0 (1) 0
16. Oxidation number of hydrogen is –1 in
(2) –2 (2) –2
[NCERT Pg. 280]
(3) +2 (3) +2
(1) NaH2PO4 (2) NaHSO4
(4) +6 (4) + 4
(3) NaBH4 (4) H2

40
17. For the reaction (1) K (2) Ag 20. Consider the reaction
−
P4 (s) + OH (aq) → PH3 (g) + H2PO2− (aq) aMnO−4 (aq) + bSO2 (g) → cMn2+ (aq) + dHSO−4 (aq)
(3) Hg (4) Cr
−
The ratio of PH3 and H2PO2 in a balanced The value of a, b, c and d in the balanced
19. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
reaction is [NCERT Pg. 282] reaction in acidic medium is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 4 [NCERT Pg. 269]
[NCERT Pg. 282]
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 1 : 6 (1) Na + HCl → NaCl + H2 a b c d
18. Given the standard electrode potential
(2) Na2O + HCl → NaCl + H2O (1) 2 5 2 5
K+ /K = – 2.93 V, Ag+ /Ag = 0.80 V
(2) 5 2 5 2
Hg2+ /Hg = – 0.79 V, Cr3+ /Cr = –0.74 V (3) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(3) 1 5 1 5
The maximum reducing power is of
[NCERT Pg. 283] (4) Na2CO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2 (4) 5 1 5 1

Fill in the blanks

1. Oxidising agent is ______ of electron(s). 8. In electrolysis of aqueous solution of AgNO3 14. A negative E° means that the redox couple
using platinum electrodes ______ is is a ______ reducing agent than the H+/H2
[NCERT Pg. 265] liberated/deposited at cathode. couple. [NCERT Pg. 279]
2. When Zn rod placed in copper nitrate [NCERT Pg. 283] + −
15. E° for the reaction 2H (aq) + 2e → H2 (g)
solution, the intensity of blue colour is 9. I2, though insoluble in water, remains in
solution containing KI as ______. is ______ volt. [NCERT Pg. 279]
______. [NCERT Pg. 266]
[NCERT Pg. 277] 16. Formula of Iron (III) sulphate is ______.
3. Oxidation number of Sulphur in S8 molecule 10. Adding hydrogen to sodium is ______ of [NCERT Pg. 280]
is ______. [NCERT Pg. 269] sodium. [NCERT Pg. 265, 266] 17. ____ has lowest value of standard reduction
4. Decomposition of H2O2 is an example of 11. In Br3O8 oxidation states of Br are ______ potential. [NCERT Pg. 279]
______ reaction. [NCERT Pg. 272] and ______. [NCERT Pg. 273] 18. Carbon can show oxidation states from
12. In basic medium H atoms are balanced by ______ to ______. [NCERT Pg. 280]
5. The assigned oxidation number of oxygen in the help of ______ and ______.
19. Oxidation number of S in KAl(SO4)2·12H2O
O2F2 is ______. [NCERT Pg. 268] [NCERT Pg. 276] is ______. [NCERT Pg. 280]
6. Greater is the reduction potential, greater is 13. A U-tube containing a solution of potassium
20. In the third period, the highest value of
the ______ power. [NCERT Pg. 279] chloride or ammonium nitrate usually
oxidation number changes ______ to
solidified by boiling with agar-agar and later
______ in the compounds of the elements.
7. In galvanic cell, cathode is ______ charged. cooling to a jelly like substance is known as
[NCERT Pg. 278] ______. [NCERT Pg. 278] [NCERT Pg. 268]

  

41
 Answer Key

MCQs Fill in the blanks 11. + 6 and + 4

1. (1) 2. (4) 1. Acceptor 12. H2O, OH–
3. (3) 4. (1) 2. Reduced 13. Salt bridge
5. (1) 6. (4) 3. Zero
14. Stronger
7. (3) 8. (2) 4. Disproportionation
15. Zero
9. (3) 10. (2) 5. +I
16. Fe2(SO4)3
11. (1) 12. (3) 6. Oxidising
17. Li+
13. (2) 14. (4) 7. Positively
18. – 4 to + 4
15. (3) 16. (3) 8. Silver
17. (1) 18. (1) 9. KI3 19. + 6

19. (1) 20. (1) 10. Oxidation 20. 1, 7

42