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All India Test Series: JEE (Advanced) - 2022 Open Test - I
All India Test Series: JEE (Advanced) - 2022 Open Test - I
JEE (Advanced)-2022
OPEN TEST – I
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 23-01-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 57 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 19 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C.
Section – A (01 –06, 20 – 25, 39 – 44): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 –10, 26 – 29, 45 – 48): This section contains SIX (06) paragraphs. Based on each
paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE
of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 13, 30 – 32, 49 – 51): This section contains NINE (09) questions. The answer to each
question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
Section – C (14 – 19, 33 – 38, 52 – 57): This section contains NINE (09) question stems. There are TWO
(02) questions corresponding to each question stem. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which
are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Section – C: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 2
Physics PART – I
1. 1025 atoms of helium in a container of volume 27 liter are in random motion. Assume speed of
atoms is same and equal to 2 103 m/s. Mass of He atom is 6.65 1027 kg and each collision is
elastic.
Ans. A, C
10251028
Sol. no. of atoms per m3
27 103 27
Assuming a cube of 1 m volume frequency of collisiion is n
3
4 kg
5 m/s
B
Ans. A, B, C
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3 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
72
T 1 a 1
1
a A,g a A,B aB,g
72
a
= 1
(49 a)
Motion of B with respect to A
72
T 4(49 a) 4
1
Solving we get T = 39.2 N and a = 9.8 m/s2
Ans. A, C
Sol. Reflection will take place from water surface which will introduce /2 path difference.
At distance y above point O, path difference
dy
x
D 2
for y = 0, x = at point O, I is minimum.
2
dy
x = n =
D 2
D 1
y n
d 2
dy 1 dD y
n A cos t
dt d 2 dt D
dy Ay 1 cm 100 5 cm
dt 10 cm/s
max D 50 cm
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 4
4. Two particles of equal mass m interact with each other by a force for which potential energy
1 2
function U U0 12 6
r r
Where U0 is a constant, r is separation between the particles. Equilibrium separation between
them is r0. When their separation slightly changes from equilibrium separation they start
oscillating with angular frequency . Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) r0 = 1
r0 2
1/6
(B)
144U0
(C)
m
72U0
(D)
m
Ans. A, C
dU 12 12
Sol. F U0 13 7
dr r r
F = 0 r0 = 1
If slightly displaced by r then
r = r0 + r
= 1 + r
12 12
F U0 13
72U0 r
(1 r) (1 r)7
F 144U0 144U0
a a r
(m / 2) m m
5. -particle collides elastically with a nucleus of gas which is filled in a chamber. After collision
-particle deviates at 60 and nucleus at 30 with the direction of motion of incident -particle.
Then choose the correct option(s).
1
(C) Ratio of the speed of struck nucleus to the speed of incident -particle is
3
3
(D) Ratio of the speed of struck nucleus to the speed of incident -particle is
2
Ans. A, D
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5 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
6. A particle of charge q and mass m is dropped from rest. It falls under the effect of uniform gravity
where acceleration due to gravity is g. There exists a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. Choose
the correct statement(s).
(A) After falling through certain distance the particle starts climbing up
2mg
(B) Speed of particle when it starts climbing is
qB
2m2 g
(C) Depth after which particle starts climbing is
q2B2
mg
(D) Speed of particle when it starts climbing is
qB
Ans. A, B, C
dv dv y z
Sol. m x ˆi ˆj mgjˆ q(v ˆi v ˆj) Bkˆ
dt dt
x y
dv x qB dv y qB
v y and g vx x
dt m dt m
mg mg
Solving v x (1 cos t) and v y sin t vx y
qB qB
qB B
Where
m
v y 0 t v
vy
2mg
vx
qB
Conservation of energy
2
1 2gm
mghmax m
2 qB
2m2 g
hmax
q2B2
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 6
B
P0
C
V0 4V0 V
(A) 400 K
(B) 625 K
(C) 450 K
(D) 550 K
Ans. B
PV
Sol. T
nR
For Tmax product of PV must be maximum Tc is minimum.
TA = TB = 400 K
4P0 V0 PV
400 0 0 100
R R
A B process
P
P 0 V 5P0
V0
RT P0 2 5P0
PT V V
V RV0 R
2
dT 5 P 5 5P 5
0 V V0 and Tmax 0 V0 0 V0
dV 2 RV0 2 R 2
25 P0 V0
Tmax 625 K
4 R
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7 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
(A) T (B) T
B
B
A A
C C
P P
(C) T (D) T
A
B
B
A
C C
P P
Ans. C
Sol. Use the relation from the given graph, and make the required graph
Experiments are going on to produce large scale energy by using Deuterium 1H2
and Tritium 1H3 .
They are using laser beams to compress the material. Fuel pallets are made by mixing equal number of
atoms of 1H3 and 1H2 . Such fuel pallets are spheres of radius r = 200 m and its density is 200 kg/m3.
When laser beams hit the pallet, it gets compressed and its density is increased by 1000 times. Assume
that only 10% of the atoms take part in fusion reaction
2 3 4 1
1H 1 H 2He 0 n Q
Ans. D
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 8
(A) 108 J
(B) 105 J
(C) 103 J
(D) 106 J
Ans. B
Ans. 5
V
Sol. 30g = kx w g
2
And
kx Vw g
Solving, x = 50 cm
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9 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Ans. 3
v
Sol. fT 3
2 80
v
fT 3 80 Hz
2 81
Ans. 6
0 2 0
1
xdx q ydy 2 mv
2
mg dy q
2 0 2
v = 6 m/s
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 10
Ans. 8.18
Ans. 6.69
2
v0 0
r v2
3
v2 2
v3
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11 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Question Stem
A metal sphere with its centre at origin has radius R = Y P(2R, 2R, 0)
1m. It has three spherical cavities each of radius R/4 and
R R R
their centres are at 0, , 0 , , 0, 0 and 0, ,0
2 2 2
A
respectively. Initially cavity A and B have some non zero
charges and cavity C is empty. The electric field at point R=1m
P is zero. x
B
C
kV
16. When charge from cavity A is removed, electric field at point P(2R, 2R, 0) is found to be 1 .
m
The magnitude of charge present in the cavity A (in C) was …………
Ans. 0.89
17. By keeping the charges same in the cavities A and B and the charge of 2 C is placed at the
kV
centre of cavity C. The electric field at point P (in ) is …………….
m
Ans. 2.25
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 12
Ans. 4.90
Ans. 4.24
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Chemistry PART – II
20. Compound (X), C4H8 O decolorizes Baeyer’s reagent. It undergoes hydrolysis on reaction with
dil. H2SO 4 and produces (Y) and (Z). Both (Y) and (Z) give iodoform test positive. Only (Y) gives
Tollen’s silver mirror test positive
(A) Y
i aq. NaOH10%
ii CH3 CH CH CHO
(B) Z
PCC
CH Cl
2
Y
2
Br
(C) X
Br2
CCl4
H2C CH O CH2 CH3
Br
(D) X 1. O 3
2. Zn/H O
Y other product
2
Ans. A, B, C
V
W
(Where DMF = N,N - dimethyl formamide)
Identify the correct statement (s) among the following:
Ans. A, B, C, D
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 14
Sol. O OH
O O
1. LiAlH4 ether
2. H2 O
HCHO
dry HCl g
O OH
U
chiral Z
PCC / DMF
O O
COOH
CH3
CO2
H3C
W
V
22. Consider the following reaction sequence:
M2 aq
H2 S
HCl dilute
Black precipitate
conc. HNO3
White precipitate
Which of the following metal ion(s) can be M2 ?
(A) Hg2
(B) Ni2
(C) Cu2
(D) Pb2
Ans. C, D
Sol. Only IInd group cations form ppt. of sulphide with H2S in presence of dil. HCl.
So, Ni2 cannot be M2 as it belongs to IVth group. Also, HgS does not dissolve in nitric acid. So,
Hg2 is also not possible. CuS and PbS are black precipitates which dissolve in nitric acid form
colloidal sulphur, a white ppt.
23. An ideal gas is subjected to three different type of adiabatic processes from same initial state to
same final volume as given below:
Expansion Work Final temperature Internal energy Enthalpy
change change
Reversible W T2 U H
Irreversible W T2 U H
Free W T2 U H
Which of the following relation(s) is/are correct?
(B) W W W and W W W
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15 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Ans. A, B, C, D
Sol. (i) Free expansion of an ideal gas is isothermal as well as adiabatic irreversible process. So,
q 0,W 0, U 0, H 0 .
(ii) For the same change of volume, magnitude of work done in reversible expansion is more
than irreversible expansion.
So, W W or W W with sign
U W for adiabatic
U U
Also, H H
nRTf
Pfinal
Vf
So, T2 T2 T2
(A) can also be obtained by reacting white phosphorus with conc. HNO3 .
(B) is diamagnetic.
Ans. A, C, D
(A) No reaction
(C) B3N3H6 show addition reaction and produces B3N3H9 Cl3 in which ‘Cl’-atoms are bonded
to boron atoms.
(D) B3N3H6 shows addition reaction and produces B3N3H9 Cl3 in which ‘Cl’-atoms are bonded
to nitrogen atoms.
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 16
Ans. A, B, D
Sol. H H Cl
H B H
B N N
H N N H 3HCl H H
Cl H
H B B H B B
N N Cl
H
H H
H
OH (P);
OH (Q);
NH2
NH2
CH3 O CH3 O
OH (R); OH (S)
NH2 NH2
Consider the following data to answer the questions posted:
o
(i) Set molar Gibb’s free energy of ‘P’, Gm 0 kJ mol1.
(ii) The equilibrium constant K eq for epimerization of (P) has the value of 1.38 (at 374 K).
(iii) Epimerization of (R) into (Q) follows first order kinetics with rate constant ‘k’ (at 374 K) =
9.02 10 5 hr 1 and considered to be irreversible.
RQ
(iv) Diastereomeric excess is defined as De 100 .
RQ
Where, [R] and [Q] represents the concentrations of R and Q forms in their mixture.
o
26. What is the Gm of ‘Q’? [Given ln1.38 = 0.322]
(A) 0 kJ
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17 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Ans. A
27. If ‘R’ is boiled for 1943 hours at 374 K, then it undergoes epimerization to form (Q). What is the
value of Diastereomeric excess (De) after 1943 hours? e0.175 1.19
(A) 83.5%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 68.2%
(D) 19.6%
Ans. C
Sol. order 1
R Q
at t 0 1 0
after time ' t ' 1
1 1
9.02 10 5 n
1943 1
1
n 1943 9.02 10 5 0.175
1
1
e0.175 1.19
1
0.159
So, (R) = 1 – 0.159 = 0.841, (Q) = 0.159
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 18
28. If the iron nail rusts, what would the colour of rust indicator be around the nail?
(A) Yellow
(B) Brown
(C) Red
(D) Blue
Ans. D
Sol. In the rust, iron is present in +3 oxidation state and form blue solution with K 4 Fe CN6 .
Ans. C
Sol. Since Zn and Mg are more electropositive than iron. So, iron will not rust. But Cu and Ag are less
electropositive than iron, so, can not reduce the rust.
30. A sample of camphor used in a method for determining of molar mass had melting point of 450 K.
The melting point of a solution containing 0.5 gm camphor and 0.04 gm of an unknown non-
volatile non-electrolyte compound was 430 K. The molar mass of camphor is 152 and its
Hfusion 1.52 Kcal mol1. The molar mass of unknown compound in gm/mole is………
R 2 cal mol 1
K 1 .
Ans. 162
2
R Tfo 2 152 450
2
M2
Sol. K f of camphor 40.5
1000 Hof 1000 1.52 1000
Tf i K f M
0.04 1000
450 430 1 40.5
Msolute 0.5
0.04 1000 40.5
Msolute 162
0.5 20
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19 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
31. The sum of total numbers of isomers possible for the complexes
Co ox PMe3 NH3 Cl and K 4Fe CN is……….
2 6
Ans. 16
Sol. Total isomers of Co ox PMe3 NH3 Cl are 6 and total isomers of K 4Fe CN6 are 10.
32. 2-methyl butane on photochemical monochlorination gives ‘x’ number of isomeric products of the
formula C4H9 Cl . The number of product(s) obtained when major structural isomer of C4H9 Cl
produced in the reaction is heated with KOH in presence of C2H5 OH is y. What is the value of
(x + y)?
Ans. 8
Sol. Cl
Cl2
h
Cl Cl
Cl
Major
alc. KOH
Cl
Major
Section – C (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) question stems. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each
question stem. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more
than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Question Stem
An acid ‘A’ which is an important constituent of vinegar; on reaction with red phosphorous and Br 2, gives
a monobromo derivative (B) which on reaction with NH3 gives white solid (C). However, ethanal on
reaction with a mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium cyanide undergoes strecker synthesis to give a
product which on acidic hydrolysis gives another high melting solid (D). The sum of total optical isomers
of (C) and (D) are ‘x’ while ‘y’ is the total number of dipeptides (excluding stereoisomers) that a mixture of
(C) and (D) can form.
Ans. 2.00
Br NH2 NH2
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 20
Ans. 4.00
Question Stem
Scheme 1: A person takes 6.1 gm of an antacid tablet comprising bicarbonate ion at 20.8% by mass.
The volume of CO2 g evolved at 1 atm, 25o C in the stomach be ‘x’ litres.
Where ‘T’ is the absolute temperature. The standard enthalpy change of the cell reaction
at 298 K is – ‘y’ kJ mol-1 corresponding to 1 Faraday charge [1 F = 96500 C].
o
Sol. S nF ET
o
298
P, 298
1 96500 10 4
9.65 J / K
Go298 nFEcell
o
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21 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Question Stem
Three isomers of molecular formula C6H12O3 is shown below. On complete acidic hydrolysis P, Q, R
and S are formed as organic products:
H3C O CH3
H O
3
P
O O
CH3
O CH3
H3C
H O
3
Q R P
O O
O
H O
3
R S
O O
CH2 CH3
H3C
Let, the ratio of the number of products (P, Q, R, S) which gives haloform reaction to the co-ordination
number of an atom in the top most layer of cubic close packed (ccp) structure be ‘x’ and let the ratio of
packing fraction of diamond to the number of organic products (P, Q, R, S) which gives Tollen’s test
positive be ‘y’, 3.14, 2 1.414, 3 1.732
37. Value of ‘x’ is________
Ans. 0.25
0.34
Sol. y 0.11
3
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 22
(A) A B C D
(B) A B C D
n A B
(C) 1
n C D
n A B
(D) 4
n C D
Ans. A, C
Sol. Let z = x + iy
A and B are real and imaginary part of z2 = z–1 + 3i
Similarly C and D are real and imaginary part of z3 – 3iz = 1
(x, y) A B (x, y) C D A B = C D
40. Let x0 > 0 – {3} and xn be defined recursively by xn 6 x n1 where n 1, then lim xn is
n
(A) 6
(B) 6 x0
Ans. D
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23 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
x2 y2
41. If ABC be a triangle inscribed in an ellipse 1 , then
4 2
2
(A) area of ABC is maximum when the eccentric angles of the vertices differ by
3
5
(B) area of ABC is maximum when the eccentric angles of the vertices differ by
9
3
(C) maximum area of ABC = 3
2
Ans. A, C
ar A BC
Sol. ar ABC
2
Hence, two areas are maximum simultaneously thus ABC is equilateral
2 3
So, | – | = | – | = | – | = ; ABC 3
3 2
Hence, let < < ; sin sin sin
2 4
= sin 2 sin 2 2 sin 2
3 3
= 2 sin 2 cos sin 2 0
3
343
(A) volume of tetrahedron is
6 2
243
(B) volume to tetrahedron is
2
2
(C) minimum distance of any vertex from the opposite face is 7
3
3
(D) minimum distance of any vertex from the opposite face is 7
2
Ans. A, C
aa ab ac
2
Sol. a b c b a b b b c ; a a 72 b b c c ; a b 72 cos 60
c a c b c c
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 24
1 2
v base area height ; h 7
3 3
1n 1 c
43. If 3n 1 a lnb , then
n 0 a
(D) [2c] = 6
Ans. A, B, C, D
x 2 x3 x 4
Sol. ln 1 x x ..... ….. (1)
2 3 4
x 2 2 x 3
2 ln 1 x x ..... ….. (2)
2 3
2 x 2 x 3 x 4
ln 1 2 x x ..... ….. (3)
2 3 4
1
Adding equation (1) + (2) + (3), we get S ln2
3
3
19991999 2000
1998
(A)
1 1 3 2n 1 1
(D) .....
4n 2 4 2n 2n
Ans. A, B, C
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25 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
1 3 2n 1
(D) Let P .....
2 4 2n
2 4 2n 2 1
Q ..... ; PQ
3 5 2n 1 2n
1 2 3 4 2n 1
.....
2 3 4 5 2n
So, 2P Q ; 2P2 PQ (where n I+)
1 1
f x dx 1 and L x f x dx , then
2 2021
If f(x) be a continuous function over [0, 1] R+ such that
0 0
1
(A)
4041
2
(B)
4041
1
(C)
4043
3
(D)
4043
Ans. C
46. If maximum value of L is achieved for f(x) = g(x), then number of points of non-differentiability of
1
x 1 x 2 2023
g x x (0, 1) is/are
2 3
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
Ans. C
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 26
Let A and B be points on the same branch of the hyperbola xy = 1. Suppose that P is a point lying
between A and B on this hyperbola, such that the area of the triangle APB is maximum
1
47. Let A (1, 1) and B 4, , then abscissa of P is equal to
4
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 3
Ans. C
1
(A)
2
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Ans. B
a b a t b t 1
Sol. A t A a,
2abt a
a b t 2 ab
A t
2abt 2
So, t ab is point of maxima moreover P(t) 1
B b,
ab b b
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
x dx =
at a t x x dx
bt b t x
a ab
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27 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
1 2 n
49. lim sin 2 sin 2 ..... sin 2 is t, then 2t is equal to
n n n n
Ans. 1
1 2 n
Sol. Let sin 2 sin 2 ..... sin 2 be Sn
n n n
1 1 n3 1 2 n
So, n2
6 n 6
Sn 2 2 ..... 2
n n n
Ans. 1
a b
Sol. Let A , a + d = 3 = ad – bc
c d
51. To each positive integer with n2 decimal digits we associate the determinant of the matrix
obtained by writing the digits in order across the rows. For example, for n = 2, to the integer 8617
8 6
we associate det 50 . If the sum of all the determinants associated with n -digit integers
2
1 7
be S, then
S
is equal to
451 45
(Leading digits are assumed to be nonzero; for example, for n = 2, there are 9000 determinants)
Ans. 1
Sol. n = 1 ; 1 + 2 + 3 + ….. + 9 = 45
1 0 1 0 9 9
n=2; .....
0 0 0 1 9 9
i j
= k
i jk = 100 i 90 jk
1 i 9 1 i 9 1 j, k 9
0 j, k, 9 09
= 100.452 – 90.452
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 28
Question Stem
Let be the equation of the line which intersect each of the two lines x + 2y – 2 = 0 = 2x – 2y + z
and 3x – 2y + z –1 = 0 = x + 4y + z – 3 and is parallel to the line x + 2y – 3z = 0 = 2x + y + z + 3.
If line meets the plane x + y + z = 0 at the point (, , ), then
52. is equal to
Ans. 0.80
53. is equal to (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
Ans. 1.00
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29 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Question Stem
Suppose 20 distinct objects are placed along a circle at equal distances. Let n1 be the number of ways of
selecting 3 objects so that no two of them are adjacent and n2 be the number of ways of selecting 3
objects so that neither of them are adjacent nor diametrically opposite, then
n1
54. The value of is
400
Ans. 2.00
n2
55. The value of is
75
Ans. 8.80
Question Stem
Ans. 2.00
Ans. 9.00
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