Pragyan: Uppsc 2021 Civil Engineering TEST-02

PRAGYAN
A Journey to Excellence
UPPSC 2021 CIVIL ENGINEERING
TEST-02
Time : 1 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 225

Write your Roll Number In numbers
in the box In words
To mark Answer use Black Ball-point Pen only
Candidate must read all the instructions before writing the answer.
You are to mark your answer to Answer-Sheet only.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks.
2. The candidate should indicate the correct Roll Number, Subject, Paper Code and its Series on the
Answer-Sheet, otherwise the Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and the candidate will be solely
responsible for it.
3. This Test Booklet contains 75 questions. Each questions has four (4) options which are given
below the questions. Only one option is correct out of four. You are required to darken the circle
corresponding to the alternative which you consider to be the correct or most appropriate answer
in the Answer-Sheet by Black Ball-point Pen.
4. Do not write anything on the cover page of the Test Booklet except Roll Number. Use the space
for rough work given in the last two pages of Test Booklet.
5. If you happen to find that the Booklet issued to you does not have all the pages properly printed
or it has any other deficiency, then you need to approach the Invigilator to get another Booklet of
same Series and Code.
6. Penalty for wrong answer:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE
IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
(2) CE (Test–02), UPPSC AE Test Series | 12th October 2021 PRAGYAN
1. The archaeological finds from Alamgirpur (c) Jahangir

in Ghaziabad district reflected the
(d) Humayun
(a) Harappa Culture
5. Who among the following, rejected the
(b) Vedic Culture title of ‘Knight hood’ and refused to accept
a position in the council of the Secretary
(c) Mauryan Culture
of State for India?
(d) Gupta Period Culture
(a) Motilal Nehru
2. Match List–I with List–II and select the
(b) M.G. Ranade
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists: (c) G.K. Gokhle
List–I (Events related to Buddha) (d) B.G. Tilak
A. Birth of Buddha 6. The Unitary System of Government
possesses which of the following
B. Enlightenment
advantages?
C. First sermon
(a) Greater adaptability
D. Death of Buddha
(b) Strong state
List–II (Places)
(c) Greater participation by the people
1. Bodh Gaya
(d) Lesser chances of authoritarianism
2. Lumbini
7. Match List–I (Articles) with List–II
3. Kushinagar (Kasia) (Provisions) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
4. Sarnath
List–I
5. Rajgriha
A. Article 14
(a) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
B. Article 36
(b) A–1, B–3, C–4, D–5
C. Article 74
(c) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
D. Article 368
(d) A–4, B–2, C–5, D–3
List–II
3. The Moti Masjid in Agra was built during
the reign of 1. Amendment procedure
(a) Humayun 2. Council of minister
(b) Shahjahan 3. Right to equality
(c) Aurangzeb 4. Directive principles
(d) Shah Alam II (a) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
4. Jaziya was reimposed during the reign of (b) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2
(a) Akbar (c) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(b) Aurangzeb (d) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
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PRAGYAN CE (Test–02), UPPSC AE Test Series | 12th October 2021 (3)
8. The president can be impeached on the B. Nokrek

grounds of violating the consitution by:
C. Gulf of Manner
(a) The Chief Justice of India
D. Nanda Devi
(b) The Vice-President of India
List–II (States)
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
1. Meghalaya
(d) The two houses of Parliament
2. Assam
9. FDI refers to:
3. Uttarakhand
(a) Fixed Deposit Interest
4. Tamil Nadu
(b) Fixed Deposit Investment
(a) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(b) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(d) Future Derivative Investment
(c) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
10. Match List–I (Pass) with List–II (State)
(d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists: 12. Match List–I with List–II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
List–I
the lists
A. Zoji La Pass
List–I (Projects)
B. Bara Lacha Pass
A. Sardar Sarovar
C. Jelep La pass
B. Dulhasti
D. Niti Pass
C. Kadem
List–II
D. Gerusoppa
1. Sikkim
List–II (Location)
2. Uttarakhand
1. Telangana
3. Himachal Pradesh
2. Karnataka
4. Ladakh
3. Gujarat
(a) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
4. Jammu and Kashmir
(b) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(a) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
(c) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2
(b) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
(d) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(c) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
11. Match List–I with List–II select the
(d) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists: 13. The highest wheat-producing state of
India is
List–I (Biosphere Reverse)
(a) Haryana
A. Manas
(b) Punjab (d) The lower part of the intake well

serves as the pump house.
(c) Bihar
18. For a city having population of 1,00,000,
(d) Uttar Pradesh
the number of simultaneous fire streams
14. Which Indian state is to launch a program required will be
named ‘Kisan Kalyan Mission’, to double
(a) 20
the farmers income?
(b) 14
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(c) 28
(b) Rajasthan
(d) 35
(c) Gujarat
19. The consumption of Boron in drinking
(d) Bihar
water beyond permissible limit may
15. ‘KAPILA’ programme, which was making
(a) Cause black or brown color skin
news recently, is associated with which
sector? (b) Discoloration of skin, eyes
(a) Automobile (c) Affects central nervous system
(b) Aviation (d) Leads to blue-baby syndrome
(c) Intellectual Property Rights 20. In which of the following thermal
stratified zones of the lake, anaerobic
(d) MSME
condition prevailed?
16. Filtration plants remove
(a) Epilimnion
1. Objectionable color
(b) Hypolimnion
2. Turbidity
(c) Mesolimnion
3. Bacteria and other harmful organism
(d) Thermocline
4. Remove excessive iron
21. Which of the following statements
(a) 1 and 2 regarding Nephelometer is correct?
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Light intensity is measured in the
direction of incident light
(c) 2 and 4
(b) Light intensity is measured at right
(d) 1, 3 and 4
angles to the incident ray
17. Which of the following statements is
(c) It is based on refraction of light
incorrect?
principle
(a) River intake is located to the
(d) It is used to measure turbidity when
upstream of the city.
it is more than 25 ppm
(b) River intake is located sufficiently
22. A wastewater from an industry having pH
inside the river.
= 11 contains KOH only. The total
(c) They may be located near the river quantity of KOH per day if the wastewater
bank. discharge is 100 m3/day will be
(a) 4.48 kg 2. Surface area of basin relative to flow

rate.
(b) 5.6 kg
3. Basin depth.
(c) 4.8 kg
4. Detention period.
(d) 2.8 kg
(a) 1 and 2 only
23. Consider the following statements related
to Aeration of water (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Possibility of air borne (c) 2 and 4 only
contamination in water is there.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Aeration is economical only in
27. A city has a population of 30,000 with an
colder months.
average demand as 150 lpcd. If the
Which of the above statements is/are average rate of filtration is 200 litres per
correct? hours per m2 of filter area, then the surface
area of slow sand filter will be
(a) 1 only
(a) 935 m2
(b) 2 only
(b) 1410 m2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1250 m2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None of these
24. Which of the following type of settlings
refers to flocculent suspension of 28. What is quantity of bleaching powder
intermediate concentration? required per day for disinfecting 5 million
litres/day? The dose of chlorine has to be
(a) Discrete settling
0.4 ppm and bleaching powder contains
(b) Hindered settling 40% of available chlorine.
(c) Zone settling (a) 4 kg
(d) Compression settling (b) 5 kg
25. The settling velocity of spherical silica (c) 6.67 kg
particle of specific gravity 2.7, in water
(d) None of these
at 25°C, if the diameter of particle is 0.005
cm, will be [Take g = 10 m/sec2, at 25°C, 29. At the break-point in the chlorination of
 = 0.9 centistokes] water
(a) 0.0262 cm/sec (a) residual chlorine has its maximum
value.
(b) 0.262 cm/sec
(b) residual chlorine has its minimum
(c) 0.162 cm/sec
value.
(d) 0.347 cm/sec
(c) the oxidation of organic matter
26. For unhindered settling in a rectangular starts.
settling tank, basin efficiency is a function
(d) chloramines have been recorded as
of
residual chlorine.
1. Settling velocity.
30. The slope of a 1 m diameter concrete (a) Carbonates of magnesium and

sewer laid at slope 1 in 2500 develops a calcium hardness
velocity of flow as 2 m/sec, when flowing
(b) Non-carbonates of magnesium and
full. When it is running half full, then the
calcium hardness
velocity of flow through the sewer will
be (c) Carbonates and non-carbonates
hardness of calcium
(a) 1 m/sec
(d) Carbonates and non-carbonates of
(b) 2 m/sec
magnesium
(c) 3 m/sec
35. A 5 ml of raw sewage was diluted by
(d) None of these specially prepared water, in a 300 ml
capacity of BOD bottle. The DO
31. Which of the following system of
concentration of the diluted sample at the
distribution water is easy to design and
begining of the test was 9.2 mg/lt and 4.7
cheap also?
mg/lt after 5 days incubation at 20°C. The
(a) Dead end system BOD of the raw sewage sample is
(b) Grid iron system (a) 4.5 mg/lt
(c) Ring system (b) 450 mg/lt
(d) Radial system (c) 270 mg/lt
32. Population of a town in three consecutive (d) 225 mg/lt
years are 6000, 8000 and 9400,
36. If the total BOD 5 of an industrial
respectively. The population of the town
wastewater is 800 kg/day and BOD5 value
in the fifth consecutive year according to
is 80 gm/capita/day, then population
arithmatic increase method is
equivalent will be
(a) 17200
(a) 100
(b) 18000
(b) 1000
(c) 13800
(c) 10000
(d) 12800
(d) None of these
33. If the total hardness and alkalinity of
37. Which of the following treatment
sample of water are 400 mg/lt and 150
processes are recommended for water
mg/lt as CaCO3, then its carbonate and
source as unprotected impounded or
non-carbonate hardness (in mg/lt as
upland river with faecal contamination?
CaCO3) will be respectively
(a) Not recommended for drinking
(a) 150 and 400
water supply
(b) 400 and 150
(b) Filtration and disinfection
(c) 400 and zero
(c) Pre-disinfection or storage,
(d) None of these filtration, disinfection
34. During the softening of hard water, soda (d) Disinfection
ash removes
38. The design service life of water treatment (b) 25

units may be taken as
(c) 30
(a) 15 years
(d) 50
(b) 20 years
42. Which of the following plume behaviour
(c) 30 years is observed on cloudy day or night with
strong wind and lapse rate in near neutrl
(d) 50 years
(adiabatic condition)?
39. The domestic sewage of a town was tested
(a) Looping plume
for volatile solids and following results
were obtained (b) Coning plume
Weight of sample of sewage = 1000 gm (c) Fanning plume
Weight of solids after evaporation of (d) Lofting plume
liquid = 0.955 gm
43. Which of the following is not a primary
Weight of dry residue after ignition = air pollution?
0.545 gm
(a) Nitrogen oxides
The volatile solids of the given sample is
(b) Formaldehyde
(a) 955 ppm
(c) Photochemical oxidants
(b) 545 ppm
(d) Crbon monoxide
(c) 410 ppm
44. What will be the resultant decibel level
(d) None of these when three sources make noise of 80 dB
each?
40. A town discharges 80 cm3/sec of sewage
into a stream having rate of flow of 1500 (a) 83 dB
m3/sec during lean days, at a BOD5 of
(b) 84 dB
sewage at given temperature is 250 mg/
lt. If deoxygenation coefficient k is 0.1 (c) 86 dB
per day, coefficient of selfpurification (fs)
(d) None of these
is 3.5 and saturation DO at given
temperature is 9.1 mg/lt, then initial DO 45. For a given domestic wastewater
deficit will be treatment plant,
(a) 0 mg/lt Raw sludge loading rate = 75 m3/day
(b) 0.46 mg/lt Digested sludge accumulation rate = 21
m3/day
(c) 0.575 mg/lt
Detention time = 30 days
(d) 8.6 mg/lt
The required volume of anaerobic sludge
41. One litre of sewage when allowed to settle
digester will be (Neglect monsoon
for 30 minutes gives a sludge volume of
storage)
50 cm3. If dry weight of sludge is 5 gms,
then the sludge volume index will be (a) 1440 m3
(a) 10 (b) 1170 m3
(c) 3330 m3 (c) 1 and 2

(d) 3690 m3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
46. Rate of removal of organic matter in 50. In which of the following stage of surveys
attached growth system depends upon for highway alignment temporary bench
marks are fixed at drainage and under pass
1. Hydraulic loading rate
structures?
2. Organic loading rate
(a) Preliminary survey
3. Temperature
(b) Reconnaissance survey
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Material location survey
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Detailed survey
(c) 2 and 3 only
51. The maximum value of cross-slope
(d) 1, 2 and 3 provided for earth shoulders is
47. A sludge had 100 m3 volume when its (a) 3%
moisture content was 98%. What would
(b) 4%
be its volume when its moisture content
changed to 96%? (c) 5%
(a) 200 m3 (d) 4.5%
(b) 50 m3 52. Calculate the stopping sight distance,
given that velocity v = 80 kmph and
(c) 33.333 m3
friction f = 0.2.
(d) None of these
(a) 182 m
48. Which raod pattern has been adopted in
(b) 234 m
the city roads of Chandigarh?
(c) 267 m
(a) Rectangular or block pattern
(d) 174 m
(b) Hexagonal pattern
53. A 3% downgrade curve is followed by a
(c) Radial or star and circular pattern
1% upgrade curve and rate of change of
(d) Star and grid pattern grade adopted is 0.1% per 30 m length,
the length of the respective vertical curve
49. Which of the following factors controls
is
the highway alignment is general?
(a) 800 m
1. Obligatory points.
(b) 900 m
2. Geometric design.
(c) 1100 m
3. Traffic.
(d) 1200 m
4. Economics
54. Hardness of water is caused by the
(a) 2, 3 and 4
presence of which of the following in
(b) 2 and 4 water?
(a) Chlorine and Sulphate (b) Origin & destination studies :

(Desire lines)
(b) Calcium and Magnesium
(c) Los angles test : (Toughness of
(c) Nitrites and Nitrates
aggregates)
(d) Sodium and Potassium
(d) Soundness test : The resistance of
55. Consider the following parameters related aggregates to weathering action
to a rotary intersection
59. The corrected modulus of sub-grade
1. Length of the weaving section. reaction for standard diameter plate is 5.0
kg/m3. What would be the modulus of sub-
2. Weaving angle.
grade reaction of the soil when tested with
3. Width of the weaving section. a 30 cm diameter plate?
4. Proportion of weaving traffic. (a) 15.5 kg/m3
5. Width of the carriageway at entry. (b) 20 kg/m3
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 12.5 kg/m3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 12 kg/m3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 60. Effect of impact on the design of rigid
pavements is accounted for by
(d) 4 and 5
(a) Providing a base course
56. When two roads with two-lane, two-way
traffic cross at an uncontrolled (b) Adopting an increased stress relative
intersection, the total number of potential to that produced by static wheel load
major conflict points would be
(c) Adopting a reduced flexural strength
(a) 24 of concrete through a factor of safety
(b) 4 (d) Increasing the thickness as would be
calculated with static wheel load
(c) 32
61. Radius of relative stiffness of cement
(d) 16
concrete pavement does not depend upon
57. If the total seven-day traffic volume for which one of the following?
the week is 3625 and the traffic volume
(a) Modulus of subgrade reaction
for monday is 670, then the monthly
expansion factor for monday would be (b) Wheel size
(a) 5.6 (c) Modulus of elasticity of cement
concrete
(b) 1.25
(d) Poission’s ratio of concrete
(c) 0.8
62. Which of the following is the
(d) 0.77
chronological sequence in regard to road
58. Which one of the following pairs is NOT construction/design development?
correctly matched?
(a) Tresaguet, Telford, Macadam,
(a) Horizontal curves : Superelevation C.B.R
(b) Telford, Tresaguet, C.B.R., (d) 2900

Macadam
66. Which of the following speed is
(c) Macadam, C.B.R, Tresaguet, considered as “safe speed limit” on a
Telford roadway?
(d) Tresaguet, Macadam, Telford, (a) 15th percentile speed
C.B.R
(b) 85th percentile speed
63. What will be the theoretical maximum
(c) 98th percentile speed
capacity (to nearest 10 units) for a single
lane of highway given that the speed of (d) Modal speed
traffic stream is 50 kmph?
67. A summit curve is formed at the
(a) 3000 veh/hr intersection of 4% upgradient and 4.8%
down gradient. To provide a stopping
(b) 3170 veh/hr
distance of 140 m, the length of summit
(c) 2010 veh/hr curve need is
(d) 2570 veh/hr (a) 298 m
64. A street lighting system is to be designed (b) 392 m
for the following conditions:
(c) 404 m
Street width = 15 cm
(d) 302 m
Mounting height = 8 m
68. The maximum superelevation on hill
Lamp size = 6000 lumen roads not bound to snow is
Maintenance factor = 0.8 (a) 7%
Coefficient of utilisation = 0.30 (b) 8%
The spacing between lighting with units (c) 9%
to produce average lighting intensity of 6
(d) 10%
lux, will be
69. While aligning a hill road with a ruling
(a) 12 m
gradient of 6%, a horizontal curve of
(b) 14 m radius 60 m is encountered. The grade
compensation provided on the road is
(c) 16 m
(a) 1.5%
(d) 19.2 m
(b) 1.25%
65. The free mean speed on a roadway is
found to be 80 kmph. Under stopped (c) 4.5%
condition the average spacing between
(d) 4.75%
vehicles is 6.9 m. The capacity flow in
terms of veh/hr/lane will be 70. If the load, warping and frictional stresses
in a cement concrete slab are 200 N/mm2,
(a) 2600
300 N/mm2 and 20 N/mm2, respectively,
(b) 2700 the critical combination of stresses during
summer mid day is
(c) 2800
(a) 280 N/mm2 73. The extra widening required for a two-
lane National Highway at a horizontal
(b) 520 N/mm2
curve of 225 m radius, considering a
(c) 480 N/mm2 wheel base of 7.5 m and a design speed
of 95 kmph is
(d) 220 N/mm2
(a) 0.25 m
71. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? (b) 0.67 m
1. Rigidity factor > 1; means tyre is in (c) 0.92 m
tension.
(d) None of these
2. Rigidity factor < 1; means tyre is in
74. If aggregate size of 50–60 mm is tested
compression.
for finding out the portion of elongated
(a) 1 only aggregates using length gauge, the slot
length of the gauge should be
(b) 2 only
(a) 55 mm
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 60 mm
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 110 mm
72. A one day axle load survey gives the result
as repetition of equivalent standard axle (d) 99 mm
as 4000.
75. Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are
If 800 axle are surveyed and the number in series. The fractional efficiencies of the
of vehicles involved are 400, then vehicle upstream and downstream ESPs for size
damage factor will be dp are 90% and 70%, respectively. The
overall efficiency of the system for the
(a) 5
same dp is
(b) 10
(a) 97%
(c) 8
(b) 99%
(d) None of these
(c) 93.5%
(d) None of these

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PRAGYAN

Time : 1 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 225

1. The archaeological finds from Alamgirpur (c) Jahangir

8. The president can be impeached on the B. Nokrek

(b) Punjab (d) The lower part of the intake well

(a) 4.48 kg 2. Surface area of basin relative to flow

30. The slope of a 1 m diameter concrete (a) Carbonates of magnesium and

38. The design service life of water treatment (b) 25

(c) 3330 m3 (c) 1 and 2

(a) Chlorine and Sulphate (b) Origin & destination studies :

(b) Telford, Tresaguet, C.B.R., (d) 2900

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