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Arihant NEET 34 Years Chapterwise Solutions Chemistry 2022
Arihant NEET 34 Years Chapterwise Solutions Chemistry 2022
YEARS’ (1988-2021)
Chapterwise Topicwise
NEET
Solved Papers
CHEMISTRY
34
YEARS’ (1988-2021)
Chapterwise Topicwise
NEET
Solved Papers
CHEMISTRY
Complete Collection of all Questions
asked in last 34 years’ in NEET & CBSE AIPMT
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PREFACE
It has been our efforts to provide correct solutions to the best of our
knowledge and opinion. Detailed explanatory discussions follow the
answers. Discussions are not just sketchy–rather, have been drafted in a
manner that the students will surely be able to answer some other
related questions too ! Going through this book, the students would be
able to have the complete idea of the questions being asked in the test.
Publisher
CONTENTS
7. Solutions 56-64
UNIT VI Thermodynamics
First law of thermodynamics internal energy and enthalpy, heat capacity and specific heat, measurement of U
and H, Hess's law of constant heat summation, enthalpy of : bond dissociation, combustion, formation,
atomization, sublimation, phase transition, ionization, solution and dilution. Introduction of entropy as state
function, Second law of thermodynamics Gibbs’ energy change for spontaneous and non-spontaneous process,
criteria for equilibrium and spontaneity. Third law of thermodynamics Brief introduction.
UNIT IX Hydrogen
Occurrence, isotopes, preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen, hydrides-ionic, covalent and interstitial,
physical and chemical properties of water, heavy water, hydrogen peroxide-preparation, reactions, uses and
structure.
UNIT II Solutions
Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids in liquids, solubility of gases in liquids,
solid solutions, colligative properties- relative lowering of vapour pressure, Raoult's law, elevation of boiling
point, depression of freezing point, osmotic pressure, determination of molecular masses using colligative
properties abnormal molecular mass. Van Hoff factor.
UNIT XV Polymers
Classification Natural and synthetic, methods of polymerisation (addition and condensation),
copolymerization. Some important polymers natural and synthetic like polyesters, bakelite, rubber,
Biodegradable and non-biodegradable polymers.
06 The number of protons, neutrons Thus, the empirical formula of the 12 An organic compound contains
and electrons in 175 compound is CH3O.
71 Lu, C = 40%,O = 53.34% and
respectively, are [NEET (Sep.) 2020] H =6.60%. The empirical formula
09 An element, X has the following
(a) 104, 71 and 71 (b) 71, 71 and 104 of the compound is
isotopic composition: [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(c) 175, 104 and 71 (d) 71, 104 and 71 200
Ans. (d)
X : 90%, 199 X : 8.0%, (a) CH2O (b) CHO
202
175
X :2.0% (c) CH4O2 (d) C2H2O
In 71 Lu,
The weighted average atomic Ans. (a)
Mass number (A) = 175 = n + p
mass of the naturally occurring
Atomic number (Z) = 71 = p = e −
Element
element X is closest to
∴ Number of protons = 71 % At. wt. Molar ratio
Simple
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] ratio
Number of neutrons
(a) 201 u (b) 202 u
= A − Z = 175 − 71 = 104
(c) 199 u (d) 200 u C 40 12 40 3.33
Number of electrons = 71 = 3.33 = 1
Ans. (d) 12 3.33
07 Suppose the elements X and Y Weight of 200 X = 0.90 × 200 = 180.00 u H 6.60 1 6.60 6.60
= 6.60 =2
combine to form two compounds Weight of 199 X = 0.08 × 199 = 15.92u 1 3.33
XY 2 and X 3Y 2 . When 0.1 mole of XY Weight of 202 X = 0.02 × 202 = 4.04u 3.33
O 53.3 16 53.34 =1
Total weight = 199.96 ≈ 200 u = 3.33
2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of 4 16 3.33
X 3Y 2 weighs 9 g, the atomic
weights of X and Y are 10 Which of the following is Hence, empirical formula is
isoelectronic? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
[NEET Phase II 2016] C : H : O = 1 : 2 : 1 = CH2O
(a) 40, 30(b) 60, 40(c) 20, 30(d) 30, 20 (a) CO2 , NO2
Ans. (a) (b) NO2–, CO2 13 Boron has two stable isotopes, 10 B
(c) CN–, CO (19%) and 11 B (81%). Calculate
Let atomic masses of X and Y be AX and
AY , respectively (d) SO2 , CO2 average atomic weight of boron in
10 Ans. (c) the periodic table.
For XY2 , nXY2 = 0.1 =
AX + 2AY CN− and CO are isoelectronic because [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
or AX + 2AY = 100 …(i) they have equal number of electrons. (a) 10.8 (b) 10.2
For X3Y2 , nX Y2 = 0.05 =
9 InCN− the number of electrons (c) 11.2 (d) 10.0
3
3AX + 2AY = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 Ans. (a)
or 3AX + 2AY = 180 …(ii) In CO the number of electrons Average of atomic weight
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get, = 6 + 8 = 14
% of 10
B × atomic mass of 10 B + % of 11B
−1 −1
A X = 40 g mol ⇒ A Y = 30 g mol × atomic mass of 11B
11 An organic compound containing C, =
H and N gave the following results % of 10 B + % of 11B
08 An organic compound contains
on analysis C = 40%, 19 × 10 + 81 × 11
carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its =
H = 13.33%, N = 46.67%. Its 19 + 81
elemental analysis gave C, 38.71%
empirical formula would be 190 + 891
and H, 9.67%. The empirical [CBSE AIPMT 2002, 1999, 98] = = 10.81
formula of the compound would be 100
(a) C2 H7 N2 (b) CH5 N
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(c) CH4 N (d) C2 H7 N 14 While extracting an element from
(a) CH3O (b) CH2O (c) CHO (d) CH4O
Ans. (c) its ore, the ore is grind and leached
Ans. (a)
Table for empirical formula with dil. KCN solution to form the
Element
cyanide, then a soluble complex 17 Which one of the followings has Number of molecules of water
potassium dicyanoargentate (I) is formed = 0.01 × N A
maximum number of atoms?
which when reacted with zinc, silver is (iii) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
extracted as a ppt. and 273 K. At STP [1 atm and 273 K],
(a) 1 g of Mg(s ) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
Ag2S + 4KCN → 2K[Ag(CN) 2 ] + Na2S Number of moles [with reference to
(b) 1 g of O2 (g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
2K[Ag(CN)2 ] + Zn → K2 [Zn(CN) 4 ] volume]
(c) 1 g of Li(s ) [Atomic mass of Li = 7] Volume of gas in litres
+ 2Ag ↓ (d) 1 g of Ag(s ) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108] =
22.4
Ans. (c) 0.00224
15 A metal oxide has the formula = = 0.0001
Z 2O 3. It can be reduced by Number of atoms (n) 22.4
Mass in g (1 g) × Atomicity of Number of molecules of water
hydrogen to give free metal and
the molecule = 0.0001 × NA
water. 0.1596 g of the metal oxide = × NA
Gram molar mass (M) (iv) 10 −3 mol of water
requires 6 mg of hydrogen for Number of molecules of water
[QN A = Avogadro’s number]
complete reduction. The atomic Atomicity = 10 −3 × N A
weight of the metal is ⇒ n∝
M ∴ Among the given options, option (i)
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] contains the maximum number of water
1
(a) 27.9 (b) 159.6 (a) nMg = molecules.
24
(c) 79.8 (d) 55.8 2 1
Ans. (d) (b) nO = = 19 If Avogadro number N A , is changed
32 16
Z2O3 + 3H2 → 2 Z + 3H2O 1 from 6.022 × 10 23 mol −1 to
(c) nLi =
Q 6 × 10 −3 g H2 reduces = 0.1596 g of Z2O3 7 6.022 × 10 20 mol −1 this would
0.1596 (d) nAg =
1 change [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
∴ 1 g H2 reduces = g Z2O 3
6 × 10 –3 108 (a) the definition of mass in units of
= 26.6 g of Z2O 3 So, nLi > nO > nMg > nAg grams
(b) the mass of one mole of carbon
∴ Equivalent weight of Z2O 3 =26.6
18 In which case is the number of (c) the ratio of chemical species to each
Equivalent weight of Z + Equivalent molecules of water maximum? other in a balanced equation
weight of O = 26.6 (d) the ratio of elements to each other in
[NEET 2018]
Equivalent weight of Z + 8 = 26.6 (a) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm
a compound
Equivalent weight of Z = (26.6 – 8) = 18.6 and 273 K Ans. (b)
Valency of metal inZ2O3 =3 (b) 0.18 g of water If Avogadro numberN A , is changed from
Equivalent weigh (c) 18 mL of water 6.022 × 1023 mol − 1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol − 1,
Atomic weight (d) 10 −3 mol of water this would change the mass of one mole
= of carbon.
Valency Ans. (c)
Q 1 mole of carbon has mass = 12 g
Atomic weight Number of molecules = Mole ×
Avogadro’s number (N A ) or 6.022 × 1023 atoms of carbon have
= 18.6 × 3 = 55.8 mass = 12 g
The number of molecules of water in
each of the given options is calculated ∴6.022 × 1020 atoms of carbon have
TOPIC 3 as mass
12
Mole Concept and (i) 18 mL of water = × 6.022 × 1020 = 0.012 g
Number of moles (nH 2 O ) 6.022 × 1023
Concentration Terms Mass of substance in g (wH 2 O )
= 20 How many grams of concentrated
16 One mole of carbon atom weighs 12 Molar mass in g mol −1 (MH 2 O ) nitric acid solution should be used
g, the number of atoms in it is wH 2 O = 18g to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO 3 ?
equal to, (Mass of carbon -12 is [QDensity of water (dH 2 O ) = 1 g L−1] The concentrated acid is 70%
1.9926 × 10 −23 g) [NEET (Oct.) 2020] 18 HNO 3 .
∴ nH 2 O = = 1 [NEET 2013]
(a) 1.2 × 1023 (b) 6.022 × 1022 18 (a) 45.0 g conc. HNO 3
(c) 12 × 1022 (d) 6.022 × 1023 Number of molecules of water (b) 90.0 g conc. HNO 3
Ans. (d) = 1 × NA (c) 70.0 g conc. HNO 3
(ii) 0.18 g of water (d) 54.0 g conc. HNO 3
1 mole of carbon atoms weight 12 g, its
wH O 0.18
contains Avogadro number of carbon nH 2 O = 2 = = 0.01 Ans. (a)
atoms, i.e. 6022
. × 1023 number of carbon MH 2 O 18 Given, molarity of solution = 2
atoms.
Volume of solution = 250mL
4 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Ans. (d) 45 The number of moles of KMnO 4 Q For 108 g of Al, 36 g of C is required in
PbO + 2HCl → PbCl2 + H2O that will be needed to react with above reaction.
207 + 16 2 × 36.5 one mole of sulphite ion in acidic ∴For270 × 10 3 g of Al required amount of C
(1 mol)
= 223 = 73 solution is 36
(1 mol) (2 mol) [CBSE AIPMT 2007] = × 270 × 10 3
(a) 4/5 (b) 2/5 108
6.5
Mole of PbO = = 0.029 (c) 1 (d) 3/5 = 90 × 10 3 g = 90 kg
223
Ans. (b)
3.2
Mole of HCl = = 0.087
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4
48 In Haber process 30L of dihydrogen
36.5
+ 3H2O + 5[O]
and 30L of dinitrogen were taken
Since, 1 mole of PbO reacts with 2 moles
of HCl, thus in this reaction PbO is the [MnO–4 + 8H+ + 5e – → Mn2 + + 4H2O] × 2
for reaction which yielded only 50%
of the expected product. What will
limiting reagent. [SO23– + H2O → SO24– + 2H+ + 2 e − ] × 5
Hence, 1 mole of PbO forms be the composition of gaseous
2 MnO–4 + 6H+ + 5SO23– → 2Mn2 + + 5 SO24–
= 1 mole of PbCl2 mixture under the aforesaid
0.029 mole of PbO will form = 0.029 mole + 3H2O condition in the end?
of PbCl2 5 moles of sulphite ions react with [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
= 2 moles of MnO–4 (a) 20 L ammonia, 10 L nitrogen, 30 L
43 What volume of oxygen gas (O 2 ) So, 1 mole of sulphite ions react with hydrogen
2 (b) 20 L ammonia, 25 L nitrogen, 15 L
measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is = moles of MnO−4 .
5 hydrogen
needed to burn completely 1L of (c) 20 L ammonia, 20 L nitrogen, 20 L
propane gas (C 3H8 ) measured hydrogen
46 The number of moles of KMnO 4
under the same conditions? (d) 10 L ammonia, 25 L nitrogen,
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
reduced by one mole of KI in 15 L hydrogen
(a) 7 L (b) 6 L alkaline medium is Ans. (d)
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(c) 5 L (d) 10 L N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
(a) one fifth (b) five
Ans. (c) 1V 3V 2V
(c) one (d) two 10 L 30 L 20 L
C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O Ans. (c)
As only 50% of the expected product is
22.4 L 5 × 22.4 L In alkaline medium,KMnO4 is reduced to formed, hence only 10 L ofNH3 is formed.
For the combustion of 22.4 L propane, K2MnO4
Thus, for the production of 10 L ofNH3, 5
oxygen required = 5 × 22.4 L KI + H2O → KOH + HI L of N2 and 15 L of H2 are used and
For the combustion of 1 L of propane +7 +6
composition of gaseous mixture under
2KMnO4 + 2KOH → 2K2 MnO4
oxygen required the aforesaid condition in the end is
5 × 22.4 + H2O + [O]
= L = 5L H2 = 30 − 15 = 15 L
22.4 Hence, one mole ofKMnO4 is reduced by
one mole of KI. N2 = 30 − 5 = 25 L
NH3 = 10 L
44 Number of moles of MnO–4 required
47 The mass of carbon anode
to oxidise one mole of ferrous consumed (giving only carbon 49 Which has maximum number of
oxalate completely in acidic dioxide) in the production of 270 kg molecules? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
medium will be [CBSE AIPMT 2008] of aluminium metal from bauxite by (a) 7 g N2 (b) 2 g H2
(a) 0.6 mole (b) 0.4 mole the Hall process is (c) 16 g NO2 (d) 16 g O2
(c) 7.5 moles (d) 0.2 mole (at. mass of Al = 27) Ans. (b)
Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 2005] In 7 g nitrogen, number of molecules
In acidic mediumMnO−4 oxidises ferrous (a) 180 kg (b) 270 kg (c) 540 kg(d) 90 kg 7.0
= mol
oxalate as follows: Ans. (d) 28
2MnO–4 + 5C2O24– + 16H+ → 2Mn2 +
In Hall and Heroult process, = 0.25 × NA molecules
+ 10CO2 + 8H2O
2 Al2O3 + 4C → 4 Al + 2CO2 + 2CO where, N A = Avogadro numbe
Q 5 moles of oxalate ions are oxidised by
2 moles of MnO−4 . but for the removal of only CO2 , following = 6.023 × 1023
equation is possible. 2.0
∴ 1 mole of oxalate ion is oxidised by In 2 g of H2 = mol
2 2 Al2O3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2 2
= mole of MnO−4 = 0.4 mole of MnO–4
3 × 12 4 × 27
5
= 108 = 1 × N A molecules
= 36
8 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Q Total energy ( E n ) =KE + PE 10 When an electron of charge e and (a) Energy of the electrons in the orbits
1 Ze2 mass m moves with a velocity v are quantised
In first excited state = mv2 + – (b) The electron in the orbit nearest the
2 r about the nuclear charge Ze in nucleus has the lowest energy
1 Ze2 Ze2 circular orbit of radius r, the (c) Electrons revolve in different orbits
=+ –
2 r r potential energy of the electrons is around the nucleus
Energy of first excited state is 3.4 eV given by [CBSE AIPMT 1994] (d) The position and velocity of
1 Ze2 Z2 e2 Ze2 Ze2 mv 2 electrons in the orbit cannot be
– 3 .4 eV = – (a) (b) − (c) (d) determined simultaneously
2 r r r r r
Ans. (d)
1 Ze2 Ans. (b)
∴ KE = = + 3 .4 eV The main postulates of Bohr model of
2 r Potential energy = work done
atom are
r Ze2 dr Ze2
=∫ − =− (i) The electrons in an atom revolve
07 Who modified Bohr’s theory by ∞ r 2
r around the nucleus only in certain
introducing elliptical orbits for selected circular paths, called orbits.
electron path? [CBSE AIPMT 1999] 11 If ionisation potential for hydrogen (ii) The energy is emitted or absorbed
(a) Hund (b) Thomson atom is 13.6 eV, then ionisation only when the electrons jump from
(c) Rutherford (d) Sommerfeld potential for He + will be one energy level to another.
Ans. (d) [CBSE AIPMT 1993] (iii) Only those orbits are permitted in
(a) 54.4 eV (b) 6.8 eV which the angular momentum of the
Sommerfeld modified Bohr’s theory.
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 24.5 eV electron is a whole number multiple
According to him electrons move in h
elliptical orbits in addition to circular Ans. (a) of (where, h is Planck’s constant)
orbits. 2π
For hydrogen atom Z = 1 that's why only certain fixed orbits
2 π2 me 4 are allowed, i.e. the momentum of an
08 Bohr radius for the hydrogen atom ∴ Ionisation energy, EH = …(i)
n2h2 electron is quantised.
(n = 1) is approximately 0.530Å. The
For He+ ion, (He+ = 1s 1 )
radius for the first excited state 14 If r is the radius of the first orbit,
so, (He+ = H) ionisation energy,
(n = 2) is (in Å) [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
2 π2 me 4 Z2 the radius of nth orbit of H-atom is
(a) 0.13 (b) 1.06 (c) 4.77 (d) 2.12 EHe + = …(ii)
n2h2 given by [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
Ans. (d) Eq (i)/Eq (ii), we get (a) rn2 (b) rn
r ∝ n /Z 2
EHe + = EH × Z2 = 136 . × 4 = 54.4 eV (c)
r
(d) r2n2
where, n = number of orbit n
Z = atomic number 12 The energy of an electron in the nth Ans. (a)
Q r1 ∝ n21 Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is Radius of an orbit,
r2 ∝ n22 (Z = 1 for H-atom) [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
n2h2
r1 n21 13.6 13.6 rn =
So, = (a) − 4 eV (b) − 3 eV 4π2 me2 Z
r2 n22 n n
13.6 13.6 0.529n2
0 . 530 12 (c) − 2 eV (d) − eV = Å
= 2 n n Z
r2 2 For H-atom, Z = 1
Ans. (c)
∴ r2 = 0 .530 × 4 = 2 .120 Å Energy of an electron in an orbit, If r1 = r
2 π2 me 4 Z2 1311.8 Z2 (according to question r1 = r)
09 The radius of hydrogen atom in the En = − = − kJ mol –1
n2h2 n2 r × n2
ground state is 0.53 Å. The radius ∴ rn = = rn2
21. 8 × 10 −12 Z2 1
of Li 2+ ion (at. no. = 3) in a similar En = − erg atom–1
n2
state is [CBSE AIPMT 1995] 15 The spectrum of helium is
21. 8 × 10 −19 Z2
(a) 0.17 Å (b) 0.53 Å En = − J atom–1 expected to be similar to that of
(c) 0.265 Å (d) 1.06 Å n2 [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
13.6 Z2 −13.6
Ans. (a) En = − eV atom−1 = 2 eV atom (a) H (b) Na
n2 n (c) Li+ (d) He +
We know that rn (H-like)
(Q Z = 1 atomic number Ans. (c)
r (H- atom) × n2
= n for hydrogen atom)
Z The spectrum of an atom depends on
For ground state, n = 1 the number of electrons present in it.
13 Which of the following statements Here, helium has two electrons, so the
0.53 Å × (1)2 do not form a part of Bohr’s model
∴ rn (Li2 + ) = spectrum of Li+ (Z = 3) is similar to that of
3 of hydrogen atom? helium because both He andLi+ have
(Li,Z = 3) = 0.17 Å [CBSE AIPMT 1989] two electrons.
Atomic Structure 11
TOPIC 3 18 Which one is the wrong statement? According to Hund’s rule of maximum
multiplicity, An orbital can accommodate
[NEET 2017]
Wave Particle and a maximum number of 2 electrons of
(a) de-Broglie’s wavelength is given by
Quality of Matter h
exactly opposite spin. Hence, option (a)
λ= , where is correct.
mv Caution Remember, maximum number
16 A particular station of All India m = mass of the particle, of electrons in an orbital do not depend
Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a v = group velocity of the particle upon the quantum numbers as given in
frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). (b) The uncertainty principle is the question.
The wavelength of the ∆E × ∆t ≥ h /4π
electromagnetic radiation emitted (c) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals 20 The number of d-electrons in
by the transmitter is have greater stability due to greater Fe 2+ (Z=26) is not equal to the
exchange energy, greater symmetry number of electrons in which one
[Speed of light, c = 3.0 × 10 3 ms −1 ] and more balanced arrangement
[NEET 2021] of the following? [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(d) The energy of2s-orbital is less than
(a) 219.3 m (b) 219.2 m the energy of2p-orbital in case of (a) s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
(c) 2192 m (d) 21.92 cm hydrogen like atoms (b) p-electrons in CI (Z = 17)
Ans. (a) Ans. (d) (c) d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
(d) p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
Frequency of electromagnetic radiation (a) According to de-Broglie’s equation,
ν = 1368 kHz h Ans. (b)
Wavelength (λ) =
= 1368 × 10 3 s−1 mv Electronic configuration of Fe2 + is
Speed of light, c = 3 × 10 8 ms −1 where,h = Planck’s constant. [Ar]3d 6 4s 0 .
Wavelength of electromagnetic Thus, statement (a) is correct. ∴Number of electrons = 6
radiation, λ =
c (b) According to Heisenberg uncertainty Mg – 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 (6s electrons)
ν principle, the uncertainties of It matches with the6d electrons of Fe2 +
3 × 10 8 ms−1 position (∆x) and momentum
λ= = 219.3 m Cl – 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p5 (11p electrons)
(p = m∆v) are related as
1368 × 10 3 s−1 It does not match with the6d electrons
h
∆x . ∆p ≥
4π of Fe2 + .
17 In hydrogen atom, the de-Broglie h Fe – [Ar]3d 6 4s 2 (6d electrons)
wavelength of an electron in the or, ∆x . m∆v ≥
4π It matches with the6d electrons of Fe2 + .
second Bohr orbit is h Ne – 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 (6p electrons)
∆x . m. ∆a . ∆t ≥
[Given that, Bohr radius, 4π It matches with the6d electrons of Fe2 + .
a 0 = 52.9 pm] [NEET (Odisha) 2019] ∆v = ∆a, a = acceleration Hence, Cl has 11p electrons which does
(a) 211.6 pm (b) 211.6 π pm ∆t not matches in number with6d electrons
of Fe2 + .
(c) 52.9 π pm (d) 105.8 pm h
or, ∆x ⋅ F ⋅ ∆t ≥ [QF = m⋅ ∆a]
Ans. (b) 4π
h 21 The angular momentum of
According to Bohr, or, ∆E ⋅ ∆t ≥ electrons in d orbital is equal to
nh 4π
mvr = [Q∆E = F ⋅ ∆x, E = energy]
[CBSE AIPMT 2015]
2π (a) 6 h (b) 2 h (c) 2 3 h (d) 0 h
nh h Thus, statement (b) is correct.
2πr = = nλ …(i) Qλ = Ans. (a)
mv mv (c) The half and fully filled orbitals have
greater stability due to greater Angular momentum of electron in
where, r = radius, exchange energy, greater symmetry d-orbital is
λ = wavelength and more balanced arrangement. h
= l (l + 1) ;for d-orbital, l = 2
n = number of orbit Thus statement (c) is correct. 2π
a n2 (d) For a single electronic species like H, h
Also, r= 0 …(ii) energy depends on value of n and = 2(2 + 1 Q h =
Z 2π
does not depend onl. Hence energy
where,a 0 = Bohr radius = 52.9 pm of 2s-orbital. and 2p-orbital is equal in h= 6h
Z = atomic number case of hydrogen like species.
On substituting the value of ‘r ’ from Eq. Therefore, statement (d) is incorrect. 22 Calculate the energy in joule
(ii) to Eq. (i), we get corresponding to light of
2 πn2a 0 19 How many electrons can fit in the wavelength 45 nm (Planck’s
nλ =
Z orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1? constant, h = 6.63 × 10 −34 Js; speed
λ=
2 πna 0 [NEET (Phase II) 2016] of light, c = 3 × 10 8 ms −1 ).
Z (a) 2 (b) 6 [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
λ = 2 π × 2 × 52.9 [Q n = 2, Z = 1] (c) 10 (d) 14 (a) 6.67 × 1015 (b) 6 . 67 × 1011
= 211.6π pm Ans. (a) (c) 4 .42 × 10−15 (d) 4 .42 × 10− 18
12 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
30 The uncertainty in momentum of Ans. (c) increase the kinetic energy of ejected
electron.
an electron is 1 × 10– 5 kg m/s. The According to de-Broglie relation,
h h
uncertainty in its position will be λ= = 35 The electron was shown
mv p
(Given, h = 6.62 × 10–34 kg m 2 /s) where, λ = wavelength experimentally to have wave
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
h = Planck’s constant properties by [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(a) 1.05 × 10–28 m (b) 1.05 × 10–26 m (a) de-Broglie
p = momentum
(c) 5 . 27 × 10–30 m (d) 5 . 25 × 10–28 m
Here, h = 6.625 × 10 −34 J s (b) N Bohr
Ans. (c) (c) Davisson and Germer
λ = 10 −17 m
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty h 6.625 × 10 –34 (d) Schrodinger
&&
principle ∴ p= =
λ 10 −17 Ans. (c)
h
∆p × ∆ x ≥ = 6.625 × 10 −34 × 10 17 The wave nature of an electron is proved
4π
= 6.625 × 10 −17 kg m s–1 by Davisson and Germer experiment. In
Uncertainty in momentum this experiment the scattering pattern of
∆p = 1 × 10 −5 kg m/s 33 Uncertainty in position of an an electron is similar to that of X-rays.
6.62 × 10 –34 electron (mass of an
1 × 10 –5 × ∆ x = (Given)
4×
22 electron is = 9.1 × 10 −28 g) moving TOPIC 4
7 with a velocity of 3 × 10 4 cm/ s Quantum Mechanical,
6.62 × 10 –34 × 7 accurate upto 0.001% will be (use
∆x = Model and Electronic
1 × 10 –5 × 4 × 22 h
in uncertainty expression where
= 5 .265 × 10 –30 m 4π Configuration
≈ 5 .27 × 10 –30 m h = 6.626 × 10 −27 erg s)
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] 36 The number of angular nodes and
31 The position of both, an electron (a) 1.93 cm (b) 3.84 cm radial nodes in 3s orbital are
and a helium atom is known within (c) 5.76 cm (d) 7.68 cm [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
1.0 mm. Further the momentum of Ans. (a) (a) 0 and 2, respectively
the electron is known within According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty (b) 1 and 0, respectively
(c) 3 and 0, respectively
5.0 × 10 −26 kg ms–1 . The minimum principle
h (d) 0 and 1, respectively
uncertainty in the measurement of ∆ x × ∆v =
4π m Ans. (a)
the momentum of the helium atom
is [CBSE AIPMT 1998] Here, ∆ x = uncertainty in position For 3 s-orbital, n = 3, l = 0
(a) 50 kg ms–1 ∆v = uncertainty in velocity Number of radial nodes
(b) 80 kg ms–1 h = Planck’s constant (6.626 × 10 −27 Js) = (n − l − 1) = 3 − 0 − 1 = 2
(c) 80 × 10–26 kg ms–1 m = mass of electron (9.1 × 10 −28 kg) Number of angular nodes = l = 0.
Here, ∆v = 0.001% of 3 × 10 4 Hence, option (a) is correct.
(d) 5.0 × 10–26 kg ms–1
0.001
Ans. (d) = × 3 × 10 4 =0.3 cm / s
100 37 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p-orbitals are
By Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle h
h ∴ ∆x = arranged in the order of decreasing
∆ x × ∆p ≥ 4πm ∆v
4π energy. The correct option is
6.626 × 10 −27 [NEET (National) 2019]
when the position of electron and helium = = 1.93 cm
atom is same and momentum of 4 × 3.14 × 9.1 × 10 −28 × 0.3 (a) 6 p > 5 f > 5 p > 4 d
electron is known within a range, (b) 5 p > 5 f > 4 d > 5 p
therefore the momentum of helium 34 In the photoelectron emission, the (c) 5 f > 6 p > 4 d > 5 p
atom is also equal to the momentum of energy of the emitted electron is (d) 5 f > 6 p > 5 p > 4 d
electron, i.e. [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Ans. (d)
5 × 10 −26 kg m s–1 (a) greater than the incident photon
The order of energy of orbitals can be
(b) same as that of the incident photon calculated from (n + l ) rule. The lower the
32 The momentum of a particle having (c) smaller than the incident photon value of (n + l ) for an orbital, lower is its
a de-Broglie wavelength of 10 −17 m (d) proportional to the intensity of energy. If two orbitals have same (n + l )
is [CBSE AIPMT 1996] incident photon value, the orbital with lower value of n
(Given, h = 6.625 × 10 −34 m) Ans. (c) has the lower energy.
(a) 3.3125 × 10−7 kg m s–1 In the photoelectric effect, the energy of (i) 6p = 6 + 1 = 7 (ii) 5f = 5 + 3 = 8
(b) 26.5 × 10−7 kg m s–1 the emitted electron is smaller than that (iii) 4d = 4 + 2 = 6 (iv) 5p = 5 + 1 = 6
(c) 6.625 × 10–17 kg m s–1 of the incident photon because some ∴ The order of decreasing energy will be
(d) 13.25 × 10−17 kg m s−1 energy of photon is used to eject the 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d.
electron and remaining energy is used to
14 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
38 Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 41 Which is the correct order of 45 If n = 6, the correct sequence for
3 total nodes is [NEET (Odisha) 2019] increasing energy of the listed filling of electrons will be
(a) 5 p (b) 3 d orbitals in the atom of titanium? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(c) 4 f (d) 6 d [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (a) ns → (n − 1) d → (n − 2) f → np
Ans. (c) (a) 3s 4s 3p 3d (b) 4s 3s 3p 3d (b) ns → (n − 2) f → np → (n − 1) d
Angular node (l ) = 3 (c) 3s 3p 3d 4s (d) 3s 3p 4s 3d
(c) ns → np → (n − 1) d → (n − 2) f
Total node = radial node + angular node Ans. (c) (d) ns → (n − 2) f → (n − 1) d → np
3 = (n − l − 1) + l According to Aufbau rule Ans. (d)
3s < 3p < 3d < 4s
3 = n− 1 6s → 4f → 5d → 6p for n = 6
⇒ n=4 42 What is the maximum numbers of
∴Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 electrons that can be associated 46 Which of the following is not
total nodes is = nl = 4f [Ql = 3 for f- with the following set of quantum permissible arrangement of
orbital]
numbers? electrons in an atom?
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
n = 3, l = 1 and m = − 1
39 Which one is a wrong statement? (a) n = 4,l = 0, m = 0, s = −1/2
[NEET 2013]
[NEET 2018]
(a) 10 (b) 6 (b) n = 5,l = 3, m = 0, s = + 1/2
(a) The electronic configuration of (c) n = 3,l = 2, m = − 3, s = −1/2
N-atom is (c) 4 (d) 2
Ans. (d) (d) n = 3,l = 2, m = −2, s = −1/2
2p1x 2p1y 2p1z Ans. (c)
1s2 2s2 The orbital of the electron having n = 3,
l = 1 and m = − 1 is 3pz (as nl m ) and an If n = 3,
orbital can have a maximum number of l = 0 to (3 − 1) = 0, 1, 2
(b) An orbital is designated by three
two electrons with opposite spins.
quantum numbers while an electron m = − l to + l = − 2, − 1, 0, + 1, + 2
in an atom is designated by four ∴ 3pz orbital contains only two electrons 1
or only 2 electrons are associated with s =±
quantum numbers 2
(c) Total orbital angular momentum of n = 3 , l = 1, m = − 1.
Therefore, option (c) is not a permissible
electron in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero set of quantum numbers.
(d) The value of m for d 2 is zero
43 Maximum number of electrons in a
z subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is
Ans. (a) 47 Maximum number of electrons in a
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
According to Hund’s rule “the pairing of (a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 10 (d) 12 subshell of an atom is determined
electrons in the orbitals of a particular by the following [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
subshell does not takes place until all the Ans. (a)
(a) 4 l + 2 (b) 2 l + 1
orbitals of a subshell are singly occupied. n represents the main energy level and
Moreover, the singly orbitals must have l represents the subshell. (c) 4 l − 2 (d) 2 n2
the electrons with parallel spin. i.e. If n = 4 and l = 3, the subshell is 4f. Ans. (a)
1s2 2s2 2p 1x 2p1y 2p1z In f-subshell, there are 7 orbitals and Total number of subshells = (2l + 1)
each orbital can accommodate a ∴ Maximum number of electrons in the
maximum number of two electrons, so subshell
or maximum number of electrons in
1s2 2s2 2p 1x 2p1y 2p1z = 2 (2l + 1) = 4l + 2
4f subshell = 7 × 2 = 14 .
(viii) 1,4-dichloro benzene Key concept The species that have same µ4
(p=C6H4Cl2) ⇒ Cl number of electrons have same bond µ4
N µ1 µ3 N µ1
order. µ3
H µ2H F µ2 F
Species Number of electrons H F
; µ=0
CO 6 + 8 = 14 Resultant of Resultant of
3N H 3N F
Cl NO 7 + 8 = 15 bond lie in the same bond lie opposite to µ4
direction as µ4
(ix) Ammonia (NH3) O2 8 + 8 = 16
Hence, µnet = µres + µ4
+
NO 7 + 8 − 1 = 14 This is because in case ofNH3, the net
−
6 + 7 + 1 = 14
N H bond dipole is in the same direction
⇒ N ; µ≠0 CN
as the direction of dipole of lone pair but
H H O −2 8 + 8 + 1 = 17 in case of NF3, the direction of net bond
H dipole of three N F bonds is opposite
[Q µ = Dipole moment] Thus, both CN− and CO have equal than that of the dipole of the then lone
number of electrons. So, their bond pair.
order will be same.
04 Which of the following is the
correct order of dipole moment? 08 Which one of the following
06 Predict the correct order among molecules contain no π-bond?
[NEET (Odisha) 2019]
the following. [NEET 2016, Phase I] [NEET 2013]
(a) NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H2O
(a) lone pair-lone pair > bond pair-bond (a) CO2 (b) H2O
(b) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O pair > lone pair-bond pair (c) SO2 (d) NO2
(c) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O (b) bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-bond
(d) H2O < NF3 < NH3 < BF3 Ans. (b)
pair > lone pair-lone pair
Ans. (b) (c) lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond All the molecules have O-atom with lone
pair > lone pair-lone pair pairs, but inH2O the H-atom has no
BF3 has zero dipole moment as it is vacant orbital for π-bonding. That’s why
symmetrical in nature.H2O has maximum (d) lone pair-lone pair > lone pair-bond
it does not have any π-bond.
dipole moment as it possess two lone pair > bond pair-bond pair
In all other given molecules, the central
pair of electrons. BetweenNH3 and NF3, Ans. (d)
atom because of the presence of vacant
NH3 has greater dipole moment though According to the postulate of VSEPR orbitals is capable to form π-bonds.
in NH3 and NF3, both N possesses one theory, a lone pair occupies more space
lone pair of electrons. than a bonding pair, since it lies closer to
This is beacuse in case ofNF3, the net
09 Which of the following is least likely
the central atom. This means that the
N—H bond dipole is in the same direction to behave as Lewis base?
repulsion between the different electron
as the direction of dipole of lone pair. [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
pairs follow the order.
But in case ofNF3, the direction of net (a) NH3 (b) BF3
lp − lp > lp − bp > bp − bp
dipole moment of three —N—F bonds is (c) OH− (d) H2O
opposite to that of the dipole moment of Ans. (b)
the lone pair. Thus, the correct of dipole 07 Which of the following molecules
moment is has the maximum dipole moment? BF3 is an electron deficient species, thus
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] behaves like a Lewis acid.
N − Na
O > N >
(a) CO2 (b) CH 4 Q Bond order = b
(c) NH 3 (d) NF 3 2
H H H H
H Ans. (d)
(H2O) (NH3) 10 The electronegativity difference
CO2 and CH4 have zero dipole moment as
these are symmetrical in nature. between N and F is greater than
F
N > F BetweenNH3 and NF3,NF3 has greater that between N and H yet the
B
F F F
dipole moment though inNH3 and NF3 dipole moment of NH3 (1.5 D) is
F both, N possesses one lone pair of larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This
(NF3) (BF3) electrons. is because [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
H
µ1 (a) in NH3 as well as inNF3 , the atomic
05 Which one of the following pairs of µres
O C O C µ4 dipole and bond dipole are in the
species have the same bond order? µ1 same direction
net = 0
[NEET 2017] H µH
H 3 (b) in NH3 , the atomic dipole and bond
(a) CO, NO ∴ µ = µ + µ + µ = –µ dipole are in the same direction
res 1 2 3 4
(b) O2 , NO + and µnet = µres + µ4 whereas inNF3 these are in opposite
(c) CN− , CO ∴ µnet = µ1 + µ2 + µ3 + µ4 directions
(d) N2 , O2− = – µ4 + µ4 = 0 (c) in NH3 as well asNF3 , the atomic
dipole and bond dipole are in
Ans. (c) net = 0
opposite directions
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 19
(b) bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-bond Thus, option (c) is correct.
pair > lone pair-lone pair
(D) NH3 ⇒ H N H
(c) lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond 39 Which of the following species
3 pair > lone pair-lone pair contains equal number of σ and
sp H (d) lone pair-lone pair > lone pair-bond π-bonds? [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
⇒electrongeometry = tetrahedral pair > bond pair-bond pair (a) HCO–3 (b) XeO4
⇒ Shape = trigonal pyramidal
Ans. (d) (c) (CN)2 (d) CH2 (CN)2
Hence, option (a) is wrongly matched
According to the postulate of VSEPR Ans. (b)
pair.
theory, a lone pair occupies more space
than a bonding pair, since it lies closer to Structure σ and π bonds
35 Match the xenon compounds in
the central atom. This means that the (a) O
Column I with its structure in
repulsion between the different electron σ bond-4
Column II and assign the correct pairs follow the order. C
π bond-1
code : [NEET (National) 2019] lp − lp > lp − bp > bp − bp O O H
Column I Column II (b) O
37 Consider the molecules CH4 , NH3
A. XeF4 (i) Pyramidal and H2O. Which of the given Xe
statements is false? σ bond-4
B. XeF6 (ii) Square planar [NEET 2016, Phase I]
O O O π bond-4
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 23
104.5° bond angle. Thus, its dipole 14 Si = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2p6 , 3s 2 3p2 (in ground 59 Which of the following has pπ - dπ
moment is positive or more than zero. state)
bonding? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
14 Si = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3s 3p (in excited
2 2 6 1 3
O
state) (a) NO –3 (b) SO2–
3
3–
H
104.5°
H 3s 3p (c) BO 3 (d) CO2–
3
TOPIC 3 From the information mentioned in the 77 Consider the following species
above curve, bond energy (BE) of H2
Molecular Orbital Theory, molecule is (b − a) or | b − a |. CN + , CN − , NO and CN
Hydrogen and Metallic Which one of these will have the
Bonding 75 Which of the following diatomic highest bond order? [NEET 2018]
molecular species has only (a) CN+ (b) CN−
π-bonds according to molecular (c) NO (d) CN
73 Identify a molecule which does not
exist. [NEET (Sep.) 2020] orbital theory? [NEET (National) 2019] Ans. (b)
(a) Li2 (b) C2 (c) O2 (d) He2 (a) N2 (b) C2 The formula of bond order is given as
Ans. (d) (c) Be2 (d) O2 B.O.
No. of electrons No. of electrons
If bond order of a molecules becomes
Ans. (b) in bonding − in antibonding
zero, the molecule will not exist. The molecular orbital configuration of C2 =
is 2
Bond order
Number of bonding electrons − C2 (Z = 12 ) = σ1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , Energy level pattern for molecular
orbitals of different molecules depends
Number of antibonding electrons π2p2x = π2p2y . upon their central atom.
=
2 Double bond in C2 consists of both NO : Central atom is N
N b −N a π-bonds because of the presence of last (Total number of electrons = 15)
= (valence) four electrons in two
2 ∴ σ 1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 ,
4−2 π-molecular orbitals.
Li2 (6e − ) ⇒σ21s σ *1s2 σ22 s ; BO = =1 ( π2p2x ~− π2p2y ), σ2p2z ,( π2*px1 ≈ π2*py0 )
The configuration of N2 , Be2 and O2 are as
2 10 − 5
C2 (12e − ) ⇒σ21s σ *1s2 σ2 s σ2 s π2 p x = π22 py ;
2 *2 follows: B.O. = = 2.5
2
8−4 N2 (Z = 14) − σ1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 ,
BO = =2 CN − : Central atom is C
2 π2p2x = π2p2y , σ2p2z (1 σ and 2π-bonds)
[Total number of electrons= 14]
O2 (16e − ) ⇒σ21s σ 1*s2 σ22 s σ2*2s σ22 p z π 22 p x Be2 (Z = 8) − σ1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 (σ
= π22 p y π2*1p x = π2*1p y ; σ 1 s 2 , σ * 1 s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , ( π2px2
bonds only) ≈ π2py2 σ2p2z )
10 − 6
BO = =2
O2 (Z = 16) − σ1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ * 2 s 2 , 10 − 4
2 B.O. = =3
2−2 σ * 2p2z , π2p2x = π2p2y , π * 2px1 = π * 2pz1 (σ, π 2
He2 (4e − ) = σ21s σ *1s2 ; BO = =0
2 and 1π* bond) CN : Central atom is C
So, He2 does not exist. Hence, option (b) is correct. [Total number of electrons = 13]
σ 1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 ,( π2p2x
74 The potential energy (y) curve for 76 Which of the following is ≈ π2p2y ), σ2pz1
paramagnetic? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] 9−4
H2 formation as a function of B.O = = 2.5
(a) N2 (b) H2 2
internuclear distance (x) of the
H-atoms is shown below. (c) Li2 (d) O2 CN + : Central atom is C
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] Ans. (d) [Total number of electrons = 12]
Key Idea If all the electron in a molecule σ 1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , ( π2p2x ≈ π2p2y )
are paired, the molecule is diamagnetic 8−4
a B.O = =2
and if there are unpaired electrons in a 2
molecule, it is paramagnetic. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
y
b Molecular orbital configuration of given
c molecules are as follows: 78 Which one of the following
x
(a) N2 (Z = 14) − σ 1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , compounds shows the presence of
The bond energy of H2 is σ * 2s 2 , π2p2x = π2p2y , σ2p2z intramolecular hydrogen bond?
(c − a)
(a) (b − a) (b) It is a diamagnetic molecule due to [NEET 2016, Phase II]
2 absence of unpaired electron.
(b − a) (a) H2O2
(c) (d) (c − a) (b) H2 (Z = 2) − 1σ2 (b) HCN
2 It is a diamagnetic molecule. (c) Cellulose
Ans. (a) (c) Li2 (Z = 6) − σ 1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 (d) Concentrated acetic acid
[Repulsion between two H-atoms]
+ve
H H
It is a diamagnetic molecule. Ans. (c)
(0.00) a
H H
(d) O2 (Z = 16) − σ 1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is
y
–ve BE Infinite separation of two σ2p2z , π2p2x = π2p2y , π * 2px1 = π * 2py1 present in concentrated acetic acid,H2O2
H-atom (No attraction)
(PE)
(No repulsion) It is a paramagnetic molecule due to and HCN while cellulose has intra-
(–ve) b H H
Ovarlapping of two H-atom to
presence of unpaired electrons in molecular hydrogen bonding as shown
C form a covalent bond (σ) each orbital of degenerate levels. below :
x (Internuclear distance) Thus, option (d) is correct.
28 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Concentrated Acetic Acid σ 2p2z ( π2p2x = π2p2y ) ( π *2px1 = π *2py1 ) π2p2x ≈ π2p2y , π* 2px1 ≈ π* 2py0
Bond order Nb − Na
H δ+ number of electrons in BMO − number Bond order (BO) =
O O 2
δ–
=
of elections ABMO (where,N b = number of electrons in
H δ+ H δ+ bonding molecular orbital,
2
δ– 10 − 7 3 N a = number of electrons in antibonding
O O δ– = = = 1.5
H δ+ 2 2 molecular orbital)
10 − 5
H2O 2 O2+ = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 σ 2p2z ∴ BO = = 2.5
2
δ– δ+ δ– ( π2p2x = π 2p2y ) ( π *2px1 = π *2py0 ) Similarly,
H C N H C N
10 − 5 5 (b) O2− (8 + 8 + 1 = 17)
BO = = = 2. 5
HCN 2 2 N − N a 10 − 7
so, BO = b = = 1.5
HO δ+ 3
OH
1 O2 = σ 1s 2 σ* 1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 σ 2p2z 2 2
δ– 2
(c) O22 − (8 + 8 + 2 = 18)
6 HO
4 O O
( π2p2x = π 2p2y ) ( π* 2px1 = π* 2py1 )
5 N − N a 10 − 8
O 2 O 10 − 6 4 BO = b = =1
δ+ 3 1 4 5 O BO = = =2 2 2
δ–
HO OH HO 6 n 2 2
(d) O2 (8 + 8 = 16)
Cellulose So, the correct sequence is 10 − 6
O2− < O2 < O2+ BO = =2
In above molecules, dotted lines 2
represent hydrogen bonding.
Thus, O2− shows the bond order 1.5.
81 Which of the following is
79 Which of the following pairs of ions paramagnetic? [NEET 2013]
83 The pair of species with the same
is isoelectronic and isostructural? (a) CO (b) O2−
bond order is [NEET 2013]
[NEET 2016, Phase II] (c) CN− (d) NO +
(a) O22 − , B2 (b) O2+ , NO +
(a) CO23− , NO −3 (b) CIO −3 , CO23− Ans. (b) (c) NO, CO (d) N2 , O2
(c) SO23− , NO −3 (d) CIO −3 , SO23− Paramagnetic species contains unpaired Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) and (d) electrons in their molecular orbital
electronic configuration. According to molecular orbital theory,
Total
Molecular orbital configuration of the O22 − (8 + 8 + 2 = 18)
Species number of Structure Shape
electrons given species is as = σ 1 s 2 , σ* 1 s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 , σ2p2z , π2p2x
CO (6 + 8 = 14)
ClO –3 42 Cl Pyramidal ≈ π2p2y , π* 2p2x ≈ π* 2p2y
–
O = σ 1s , σ* 1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 , π2p2x
2
Nb − Na 10 − 8
O O Bond order (BO) = = =1
≈ π2p2y , σ2p2z 2 2
SO 2–
3 42 S Pyramidal
– (All the electrons are paired so, it is
–
O
diamagnetic). B2 (5 + 5 = 10) = σ 1s , σ 1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 ,
2 *
O O
O2− (8 + 8 + 1 = 17) π2px1 ≈ π2py1
CO 2– 32 O Trigonal 6−4
3 BO = =1
C
planar = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1 s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2p2z , π2p2x 2
–
* 2p2 ≈ π Thus, O22 − and B2 have the same bond
≈ π2p2y , π * 2py1
O –
O x order.
NO –3 32 O Trigonal (It contains one unpaired electron so, it NOTE
planar
N is paramagnetic.) BO of O2+ = 2.5 , NO + = 3 , NO = 2 .5 , CO = 3 ,
– CN− (6 + 7 + 1 = 14) = same as CO N2 = 3 and O2 = 2
O O
NO+ ( 7 + 8 − 1 = 14) = same as CO
Hence both options (a) and (d) are Thus, among the given species onlyO2− is 84 Which of the following has the
correct. paramagnetic. minimum bond length?
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
80 Which of the following options 82 Bond order of 1.5 is shown by (a) O2− (b) O2–
2
represents the correct bond order? [NEET 2013] (c) O2 (d) O2+
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] (a) O2+ (b) O2− Ans. (d)
(a) O2– > O2 > O2+ (b) O2– < O2 < O2+ (c) O2− (d) O2 10 − 5
2 Bond order of O2+ = = 2.5
(c) O2– > O2 < O2+ (d) O2– < O2 > O2+ Ans. (b) 2
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 29
10 − 7 Hence, it is the intermolecular 10 − 5
Bond order of O2– = = 1.5 BO = = 2.5
2 H-bonding that must be overcome in 2
10 − 8 converting liquid CH3OH to gas. C22 − (6 + 6 + 2 = 14) = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 ,
Bond order of O22 – = =1
2 σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 , π2p2y ≈ π2p2z , σ2p2x
10 − 6 87 According to molecular orbital 10 − 4
Bond order of O2 = =2 BO = =3
2 theory which of the following lists 2
Q Maximum bond order = minimum bond rank the nitrogen species in terms He2+ (2 + 2 − 1 = 3) = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 1
length. of increasing bond order? 2− 1 1
BO = = = 0.5
∴ Bond length is minimum forO2+ [CBSE AIPMT 2009] 2 2
(a) N2− < N2 < N22 − (b) N22 − < N2− < N2 Hence, order of increasing bond order is
85 Which one of the following species (c) N2 < N22 − < N2− (d) N2− < N22 − < N2
He2+ < O2– < NO < C22 –
does not exist under normal Ans. (b)
conditions? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] According to the molecular orbital 89 The correct order of C—O bond
(a) Be +2 (b) Be 2 theory (MOT), length among CO, CO 2−
3 , CO 2 is
(c) B2 (d) Li 2 [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
N2 ( 7 + 7 = 14) = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ 2 s 2 ,
Ans. (b) (a) CO2 <CO2–
3 <CO
σ* 2 s 2 , π2p2x ≈ 2p2y , σ2p2z
Key Idea Molecules with zero bond order, (b) CO <CO2–
3 <CO2
do not exist. 10 − 4 (c) CO2– <CO
Bond order = =3 3 2 <CO
According to molecular orbital theory, 2 (d) CO <CO2 <CO2–3
(a) Be 2+ (4 + 4 − 1 = 7) N2− ( 7 + 7 + 1 = 15) Ans. (d)
= σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ 2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 , A bond length is the average distance
= σ 1s 2 , σ* 1 s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 1 between the centres of nuclei of two
σ2p2z , π2p2x ≈ 2p2y , π* 2px1 bonded atoms. A multiple bond (double
4− 3
Bond order (BO) = = 0.5 10 − 5 or triple bonds) is always shorter than
2 BO = = 2.5
2 the corresponding single bond.
(b) Be 2 (4 + 4 = 8)
N22 − ( 7 + 7 + 2 = 16) The C-atom inCO23 – is sp2 hybridised as
= σ 1 s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 shown:
4−4 = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 ,
BO = =0 O– O
2 σ2p2z , π2p2x ≈ π2p2y , π* 2px1 ≈ π* 2py1 O= =C ←→ O – —C ←→
(c) B2 (5 + 5 = 10) 10 − 6 O
–
O
–
BO = =2
= σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 , π2px1 ≈ π2py1 2 O–
6−4 Hence, the increasing order of bond
Bond order (BO) = =1 O– —C
2 order is,
O
N22 − < N2− < N2
(d) Li2 (3 + 3 = 6) = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 The C-atom inCO2 is sp hybridised with
4−2 bond distance carbon-oxygen is 122 pm.
BO = =1 88 Four diatomic species are listed –
2 +
below in different sequences. O== C==O ←→ O ≡≡ C —O ←→
Thus, Be2 does not exist under normal Which of these presents the – +
conditions. O— C ≡≡ O
correct order of their increasing
The C-atom in CO is sp hybridised with
86 What is the dominant bond order? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
C—O bond distance is 110 pm.
intermolecular force on bond that (a) O2– <NO <C2–
2 <He2
+
• ≡≡ + •
2– – + •C O •
must be overcome in converting (b) NO <C 2 <O2 <He2 So, the correct order is
liquid CH3OH to a gas? (c) C2– +
2 <He2 <NO <O2
–
CO < CO2 < CO23–
+ – 2–
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] (d) He2 <O2 <NO <C2
(a) Hydrogen bonding Ans. (d) 90 The number of unpaired electrons
(b) Dipole-dipole interaction The molecular orbital configuration of in a paramagnetic diatomic
(c) Covalent bonds O2− (8 + 8 + 1 = 17) = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , molecule of an element with
(d) London or dispersion force σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 , atomic number 16 is
Ans. (a) σ2px , π2py ≈ π2pz , π 2py ≈ π 2pz1
2 2 2 * 2 * [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
In betweenCH3OH molecules N − N a 10 − 7 (a) 2 (b) 3
Bond order (BO) = b = = 1.5 (c) 4 (d) 1
intermolecular H-bonding exist. 2 2
δ+ δ− δ+ δ− δ+ δ− Ans. (a)
- - - H — O- - - H — O- - - H — O- - - NO (7 + 8 = 15) = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 ,
σ* 2 s 2 , σ2p2x Suppose the diatomic molecule is X.
CH3 CH3 CH3 π2py ≈ π2pz , π 2py1 ≈ π* 2pz0
2 2 * Then, molecular orbital electronic
configuration of
Intermolecular H-bond
30 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
16 X = σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 , σ2p2z , π2p2x 94 Among the following group which So, bond order of
represents the collection of N − N a 10 − 4
N2 = b = =3
≈ π2p2y , π* 2px1 ≈ π* 2py1 2 2
isoelectronic species?
9−4
Due to presence of two unpaired [CBSE AIPMT 2000] and bond order ofN2 + = =2.5
electrons, it shows paramagnetic (a) NO, CN–, N2 , O2– 2
character. (b) NO + , C2– – As the bond order ofN2 is greater than
2 , O2 , CO
2–
(c) N2 , C2 , CO, NO N2 + so, the dissociation energy ofN2 will
91 Main axis of a diatomic molecule is be greater thanN2 + .
(d) CO, NO + , CN–, C2– 2
z molecular orbital, p x and p y
Ans. (d) 97 Which one of the following
overlaps to form which of
Species having equal number of molecules will form a linear
the following orbitals? electrons are known as isoelectronic
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] polymeric structure due to
species.
(a) π-molecular orbital hydrogen bonding?
Number of electrons,
(b) σ-molecular orbital [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
In CO = 6 + 8 = 14
(c) δ-molecular orbital (a) NH3 (b) H2 O
In NO+ = 7 + 8 − 1 = 14 (c) HCl (d) HF
(d) No bond will form
In CN– = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
In C22 − =12 + 2 = 14
For π-overlap the lobes of the atomic HF molecules have linear polymeric
Hence, all have 14 electrons, so they are structure due to hydrogen bonding.
orbitals are perpendicular to the line
isoelectronic species.
joining the nuclei. H — F --- H — F --- H — F --- H — F
↑
+ + + 95 Which one of the following is not H- bond
π-overlapping paramagnetic? [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
+ 98 The number of antibonding
(a) NO (b) N2+
– – – electron pairs in O 2−
2 molecular ion
(c) CO (d) O2−
on the basis of molecular orbital
Ans. (c)
92 In X — H− − − Y , X and Y both are theory is (at. no. of O is 8)
Paramagnetic character is shown by [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
electronegative elements, then those atoms or molecules which have
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
unpaired electrons.
(a) electron density on X will increase Ans. (c)
In the given compounds CO is not
and on H will decrease paramagnetic since, it does not have Total number of electrons in
(b) in both electron density will increase unpaired electrons. The configuration of O 22 – = 19 + 2 = 18
(c) in both electron density will decrease CO molecule is According to MOT, the configuration of
(d) on X electron density will decrease O 22 − is
CO(14)= σ 1s 2 , σ
*
1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ
*
2 s 2 , σ2p2x ,
and on H increase
π2p2y ≈ π2p2z σ 1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2 s 2 , σ* 2 s 2 , σ2p2x , π2p2y ≈
Ans. (a)
In X — H ----- Y, X and Y both are π 2p2z , π* 2p2y ≈ π* 2p2z
96 The relationship between the
electronegative elements, then electron
density on X will increase and on H will dissociation energy of N 2 and N 2+ is So, the number of antibonding electron
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] pairs = 4
decrease.
(a) dissociation energy ofN2+ >
dissociation energy ofN2 99 The high density of water
93 A compound contains atoms of
(b) dissociation energy ofN2 = compared to ice is due to
three elements A, B and C. If the
dissociation energy ofN2+ [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
oxidation number of A is +2, B is +5 (c) dissociation energy of (a) hydrogen bonding interactions
and that of C is –2, the possible N2 > dissociation energy ofN2+ (b) dipole-dipole interactions
formula of the compound is (d) dissociation energy ofN2 can either (c) dipole-induced dipole interactions
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] be lower or higher than the (d) induced dipole-induced dipole
(a) A2 (BC 3)2 (b) A3 (BC 4 )2 dissociation energy ofN2+ interactions
(c) A3 (B4C)2 (d) ABC2 Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) The dissociation energy will be more Due to polar nature, water molecules
In A3 (BC 4 )2 when the bond order will be greater and show intermolecular hydrogen bonding
bond order ∝ dissociation energy as
3 × oxidation number of A
Molecular orbital configuration of - - - H —O- - - H —O - - - H —O
+ 2 [oxidation number ofB + 4 × oxidatio
oxidation number ofC ] = 0 N2 (14) = σ 1s 2 , σ
*
1s 2 , σ 1 s 2 , σ
*
2 s 2 , π 2py 2
H H H
3 × (+2) + 2 [5 + 4 × (–2)] = 0
≈ π2pz2 , σ2px 2 Hydrogen bonding
6 + 2 [–3] = 0
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 31
(Ea)f
(Ea)b
Liquid Vapour
!
∆H Enthalpy for the reaction,
Which of the following relations is H H H H
correct? Progress of the reaction
dlnP − ∆Hv C == C + H — H → H —C—C— H
(a) =
dT RT From the figure, it is clear that
dlnP − ∆Hv (E a ) b = (E a ) f + ∆H H H H H
(b) =
dT 2 T2 [Here (E a ) b = activation energy of will be [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
dlnP − ∆Hv backward reaction and (E a )f = activation
(c) = (a) 1523.6 kJ mol −1
dT RT 2 energy of forward reaction].
(b) –243.6 kJ mol −1
dln G − ∆Hv If (E a ) b = (E a ) f
(d) = (c) –120.0 kJ mol −1
dT 2 RT 2 then ∆H = 0 (d) 553.0 kJ mol −1
36 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Which of the following option is (c) Entropy is negative in case of 51 For a sample of perfect gas when
not correct? 2H(g) → H2 (g) as the number of
its pressure is changed
moles of gaseous reactants are more
(a) ∆S isothermal > ∆S adiabatic than that of gaseous products. isothermally from pi to pf , the
(b)TA = TB (d) Entropy is positive in case of entropy change is given by
evaporation of water as gas is much [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(c) Wisothermal > Wadiabatic
disordered than a liquid. p
(d) Tc > TA (a) ∆S = nR ln f
Hence, option (c) is correct. pi
Ans. (d)
49 For a given reaction, ∆H = 35.5 kJ p
From first law of thermodynamics, (b) ∆S = nR ln i
∆U = q + W mol −1 and ∆S = 83.6 JK −1 mol −1 . The pf
In adiabatic expansion,q = 0 reaction is spontaneous at : p
∴ ∆U = W (c) ∆S = nRT ln f
(Assume that ∆H and ∆S do not pi
During expansion of a gasw is negative vary with temperature) [NEET 2017] pi
i.e w < 0 or ∆U < 0. (d) ∆S = RT ln
(a)T < 425 K
We know that, ∆U = nC V ∆T pf
(b)T > 425 K
∴ nC V ∆T < 0 (c) all temperatures Ans. (b)
or ∆T < 0 (d)T > 298 K Entropy change is given as,
∴ TC −TA < 0 Ans. (b) T p
∆S = nC p ln f + nR ln i K(i)
or TC < TA According to Gibbs-Helmholtz equation, Ti pf
Thus, option (d) is incorrect while the Gibbs energy (∆G) = ∆H − T∆S For isothermal process,Ti = Tf
remaining options are correct.
Where, ∆H = Enthalpy change T T
∴ nC p ln f = nC p ln i = 0 [ln 1 = 0]
∆S = Entropy change Ti Ti
47 For an ideal solution, the correct
T = Temperature
option is [NEET (National) 2019] From Eq. (i)
For a reaction to be spontaneous pi
(a) ∆ mix V ≠ 0 at constantT and p ∆S = nR ln
∆G < 0.
(b) ∆ mix H = 0 at constantT and p pf
∴ Gibbs -Helmholtz equation becomes,
(c) ∆ mix G = 0 at constantT and p
(d) ∆ mix S = 0 at constantT and p ∆G = ∆H − T∆S < 0 52 Which of the following statements
or, ∆H < T∆S is correct for a reversible process
Ans. (b)
∆H 35.5 kJ mol −1 in a state of equilibrium?
Ideal solutions are those which obey or, T> =
Raoult’s law over all concentration ∆S 83.6 JK−1mol −1 [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
ranges at a given temperature, e.g. 35.5 × 1000 (a) ∆G = – 2.30 RT log K
= = 425 K
benzene-toluene, n-hexane-n-heptane, 836
. (b) ∆G = 2.30 RT log K
etc. T > 425 K (c) ∆G ° = – 2.30 RT log K
For an ideal solution,
(d) ∆G ° = 2.30 RT log K
∆Vmix = 0, ∆Hmix = 0, 50 The correct thermodynamic
Ans. (a)
∆G mix < 0, ∆S mix > 0. conditions for the spontaneous
Mathematical expression of the
Hence, option (b) is correct. reaction at all temperatures is
thermodynamic equilibrium is
[NEET 2016, Phase I]
∆G = ∆G ° + 2 .303RT log Q
48 In which case change in entropy is (a) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
At equilibrium when ∆G = 0 and Q = K
negative? [NEET (National) 2019] (b) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
then ∆G = ∆G ° + 2.303 RT log K = 0
(a) Expansion of a gas at constant (c) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
∆G ° = − 2.303 RT log K
temperature (d) ∆H < 0 and ∆S = 0
(b) Sublimation of solid to gas Ans. (b,d)
(c) 2H(g )→ H2 (g ) 53 Which of the following statements
We have the Gibbs Helmholtz reaction is correct for the spontaneous
(d) Evaporation of water for spontaneity as
Ans. (c) absorption of a gas?
∆G = ∆H − T∆S [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
The explanation of given statements are : For reaction to be spontaneous, ∆G must (a) ∆S is negative and therefore, ∆H
(a) Entropy is positive in case of be negative. should be highly positive
expansion of a gas at constant For this, ∆H should be negative and ∆S (b) ∆S is negative and therefore, ∆H
temperature. It is because during should be positive. should be highly negative
expansion of gas volume increases
∴ ∆H < 0 (c) ∆S is positive and therefore, ∆H
and hence randomness increases.
(b) Entropy is positive in case of and ∆S > 0. should be negative
and also ∆S = 0 shows ∆G a negative (d) ∆S is positive and therefore, ∆H
sublimation of solid to gas as gas is
quantity. should also be highly positive
much disordered than a solid.
40 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
0 = 30 × 10 3 (J mol –1) following equation (Gibbs-Helmholtz (a) 2.198 JK−1mol −1 (b) 21.98 JK−1mol −1
− T × 105 (J K–1 mol –1) equation) (c) 20.13 JK−1mol −1 (d) 2.013 JK−1mol −1
30 × 10 3 ∆G = ∆ H − T∆ S Ans. (b)
∴ T= K = 285.71 K If the magnitude of ∆ H − T∆ S is negative,
105 Given, ∆Hf = 60. kJ mol −1
then the reaction is spontaneous.
T = 0 + 273 = 273 K
61 Identify the correct statement for whenT∆ S > ∆ H or we can say that ∆H
∆Hf 60 .
and ∆ S are positive, then ∆G is ∆S = = = 0.02198 kJ K–1 mol –1
change of Gibbs free energy for a negative. T 273
system (∆G system ) at constant (T = 0 ° C + 273 = 273 K)
temperature and pressure. 64 Considering entropy (S) as a
= 0.02198 × 1000 JK–1 mol –1
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] thermodynamic parameter, the
(a) If ∆G system > 0, the process is = 21.98 JK–1 mol –1
criterion for the spontaneity of any
spontaneous process is [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(b) If ∆G system = 0, the system has 67 The densities of graphite and
(a) ∆S system + ∆S surrounding >0
attained equilibrium diamond at 298 K are 2.25 and 3.31
(b) ∆S system – ∆S surrounding >0
(c) If ∆G system = 0, the system is still g cm −3 , respectively. If the
(c) ∆S system >0
moving in a particular direction standard free energy difference
(d) ∆S surrounding >0
(d) If ∆G system < 0, the process is not (∆G° ) is equal to 1895 J mol −1 , the
spontaneous Ans. (a)
pressure at which graphite will be
Ans. (b) For spontaneous process, ∆S must be transformed into diamond at 298 K
positive. In reversible process
If the Gibbs free energy for a system ( is [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
∆G system ) is equal to zero, then system is ∆ S system + ∆ S surrounding = 0
(a) 9.92 × 106 pa
present in equilibrium at a constant Hence, system is present in equilibrium.
(i.e. it is not spontaneous process) (b) 9.92 × 105 pa
temperature and pressure.
∆G = ∆ r G o + RT ln K ; ∆G = 0 While in irreversible process (c) 9.92 × 108 pa
∆S system + ∆S surrounding > 0 (d) 9.92 × 107 Pa
∆ r G o = − RT ln K
Hence, in the process ∆ S is positive. Ans. (c)
K = equilibrium constant
Mass 12
If ∆G system < 0, then the process is 65 Standard enthalpy and standard Volume of graphite = =
Density 2.25
spontaneous entropy changes for the oxidation 12
of ammonia at 298 K are Volume of diamond =
62 Which of the following pairs of a 3.31
−382.64 kJ mol −1 and Change in volume,
chemical reaction is certain to
−145.6 JK –1mol–1 , respectively. 12 12 −3
result in a spontaneous reaction? ∆V = − × 10 L
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
Standard Gibbs energy change for 331
. .
225
(a) Exothermic and decreasing disorder
the same reaction at 298 K is = − 1.91 × 10 −3 L
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(b) Endothermic and increasing disorder ∆G ° = work done= − p∆V
(c) Exothermic and increasing disorder (a) − 221.1 kJmol–1 (b) − 339.3 kJ mol–1 ∆G °
(c) − 439.3 kJ mol–1 (d) − 523.2 kJ mol–1 p= −
(d) Endothermic and decreasing disorder ∆V
Ans. (c) Ans. (b) 1895 J mol –1
=
If reaction is exothermic, therefore ∆H is ∆G ° = ∆H ° − T∆S ° K(i) 1.91 × 10 −3 × 101.3
negative and on increasing disorder, ∆S Given that, ∆H ° = − 382 .64 kJ mol –1 = 9794 atm
is positive thus, at these condition, ∆G is ∆S ° = − 1456
. J K–1 mol –1 [Q 1 atm = 10 5 × 1.013 Pa]
negative according to following
= − 145.6 × 10 −3 kJ K–1 = 992
. × 10 8 Pa
equation.
T = 298 K
∆G = ∆H − T∆S
∆G = negative, and for spontaneous On putting the given values in eq. (i) 68 2 moles of an ideal gas at 27°C
reaction ∆G must be negative. we get, temperature is expanded reversibly
or ∆G ° = − 382 .64 from 2 L to 20 L. Find entropy
63 A reaction occurs spontaneously if − [298 × (− 145.6 × 10 −3)] change (R = 2 cal/mol K).
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
= − 339.3 kJ mol –1
(a)T∆S < ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve (a) 92.1 (b) 0 (c) 4 (d) 9.2
(b)T∆S > ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve 66 What is the entropy change (in Ans. (d)
(c)T∆S = ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve J K −1 mol −1 ) when one mole of ice V2
(d)T∆S > ∆H and ∆H is +ve and ∆S is –ve ∆S (entropy change) = 2 .303 nR log 10
is converted into water at 0°C? V1
Ans. (b) (The enthalpy change for the 20
= 2 .303 × 2 × 2 × log 10
The spontaneity of a reaction is based conversion of ice to liquid water is 2
upon the negative value of ∆G and ∆G is
6.0 kJ mol −1 at 0°C) = 2 .303 × 2 × 2 × 1 = 9.212 cal
based upon T, ∆S and ∆H according to
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
42 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
200
V
K
400 As temperature increases, gas expands T = 0 ° C = 273 K, V = 1 L
K
600 K i.e. volume of gas increases. 9
(a) p× 1= × 0.082 × 273
So, the product pV increases and the p 8
Volume (V) vs V curve of Boyle’s law shifts upwards. ⇒ p = 25.18 atm
(dm3)
K
0
20
V2 = 150 dm3
(bar)
Mass of the gas = mass of the cylinder p2V = n2 RT …(ii) Ans. (d)
including gas – mass of empty cylinder From Eqs. (i) and (ii) Root mean square velocity atT1
So, it is a wrong statement. p1V n1RT p n temperature,
= ⇒ 1 = 1
p2V n2 RT p2 n2 3RT1 3R (27 + 273)
20 At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 U1 = = …(i)
n1 p1 170 M M
mL of dry oxygen was collected. If = = = 0.30
n2 p2 570 Root mean square velocity atT2
the temperature is constant, what temperature,
volume will the oxygen occupy at 23 600 cc of a gas at a pressure of 750 3RT2 3R (927 + 273)
760 mm pressure? U2 = = …(ii)
mm is compressed to 500 cc. M M
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
Taking the temperature to remain Eq. (i) divided by Eq. (ii)
(a) 365 mL (b) 2 mL
constant,the increase in pressure U1 27 + 273
(c) 10 mL (d) 20 mL =
is [CBSE AIPMT 1995] U2 927 + 273
Ans. (a)
(a) 150 mm (b) 250 mm 300 1
As the temperature is constant, Boyle’s (c) 350 mm (d) 450 mm = =
law is applicable. 1200 2
Ans. (a)
p 1V1 = p2V2 U2 = 2 U 1
V1 = 380 mL, p1 = 730 mm ,V2 = ?, According to Boyle’s law,
p2 = 760 mm p 1V1 = p2V2 26 When is the deviation more in the
730 × 380 = 760 × V2 750 × 600 = p2 × 500 behaviour of a gas from the ideal gas
730 × 380 750 × 600 equation pV = nRT ?
V2 = = 365 mL p2 =
760 500 [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
= 900 mm (a) At high temperature and low
21 At which one of the following So, the increase in pressure pressure
temperature pressure conditions, = 900 − 750 = 150 mm (b) At low temperature and high
the deviation of a gas from ideal pressure
behaviour is expected to be 24 500 mL of nitrogen at 27°C is (c) At high temperature and high
pressure
minimum? [CBSE AIPMT 1996] cooled to –5°C at the same
(d) At low temperature and low pressure
(a) 350 K and 3 atm pressure. The new volume
Ans. (b)
(b) 550 K and 1 atm becomes [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(a) 326.32 mL Gases show deviation from ideal gas
(c) 250 K and 4 atm
behaviour when the temperature is low
(d) 450 K and 2 atm (b) 446.66 mL
and pressure is high. At low
Ans. (b) (c) 546.32 mL temperature, the volume of one
A real gas behave as an ideal gas at low (d) 771.56 mL molecule is not negligible in comparison
pressure and high temperature. Among Ans. (b) to total volume and intermolecular force
the given option 550K temperature is the of attraction is maximum at low
Initial volume,V1 = 500 mL
highest and 1atm pressure is the lowest temperature and high pressure.
Initial temperature,
pressure.
T1 = 27 ° C = 27 + 273 = 300 K 27 The ratio among most probable
22 Cyclopropane and oxygen at partial Final temperature, velocity, mean velocity and root
pressures 170 torr and 570 torr are T2 = − 5 + 273 = 268 K mean square velocity is given by
mixed in a gas cylinder. What is the V2 = ? [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
V1 V2 (a) 1 :2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 : 3
ratio of the number of moles of =
cyclopropane to the number of T1 T2 8 8
(c) 2 : 3 : (d) 2 : : 3
moles of oxygen? VT 500 × 268 π π
V2 = 1 2
=
[CBSE AIPMT 1996] T1 300 Ans. (d)
170 × 42 = 446.66 mL
(a) = 0.39 Most probable velocity, U mp =
2 RT
570 × 32 M
170 170 570 25 The temperature of the gas is
(b) + ≈0.19 Mean velocity, U av =
8RT
42 42 32 raised from 27°C to 927°C the root πM
170 mean square velocity is
(c) = 0.23 Root mean square velocity, U rms =
3RT
740 [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
M
170 927
(d) = 0.30 (a) times of the earlier value so,
570 27 2RT 8RT 3RT
U mp : U av : U rms = : :
Ans. (d) (b) same as before M πM M
According to ideal gas equation, (c) halved 8
= 2: : 3
p1V = n1RT …(i) (d) doubled π
48 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
28 Internal energy and pressure of a 31 An ideal gas cannot be liquefied 34 The root mean square speeds at
gas per unit volume are related as because [CBSE AIPMT 1992] STP for the gases H2 , N 2 ,O 2 and
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] (a) its critical temperature is always HBr are in the order
2 3 above 0°C [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(a) p = E (b) p = E
3 2 (b) its molecules are relatively smaller in (a) H2 < N2 < O2 < HBr
1 size
(c) p = E (d) p = 2 E (b) HBr < O2 <N2 <H2
2 (c) it solidifies before becoming a liquid (c) H2 <N2 == O2 <HBr
Ans. (a) (d) forces operating between its (d) HBr <O2 <H2 <N2
molecules are negligible
The average translational kinetic energy Ans. (b)
1 Ans. (d)
of a gas molecule is mu− 2 at a The root mean square velocity of gas
2 Gases can be liquefied by lowering the molecule at STP is given by
temperature, T. The total energy of the temperature and increasing the
3RT
whole of the gas containingN molecules pressure. An ideal gas have no U rms =
is intermolecular force of attraction, so it M
1 cannot be liquefied by applying high ∴ As the molar mass of gas increases,
E k = mN u− 2 …(i) pressure and decreasing temperature.
2 then U rms will decrease, so the order of
U rms of these gases is
The kinetic gas equation is
1 32 The correct value of the gas HBr < O2 < N2 < H2
pV = mN u− 2 …(ii)
3 constant ‘ R ’ is close to
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
35 At constant temperature, in a given
2 1
pV = × mN u− 2 mass of an ideal gas
3 2 (a) 0.082 L atm K
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
2 (b) 0.082 L atm K −1 mol −1
pV = E k …(iii) (a) the ratio of pressure and volume
3 (c) 0.082 L atm −1 K mol −1 always remains constant
2
so, p = E k per unit volume. (d) 0.082 L −1 atm −1 K mol (b) volume always remains constant
3 Ans. (b) (c) pressure always remains constant
The numerical value of R depends upon (d) the product of pressure and volume
29 Under what conditions will a pure the units in which pressure and volume always remains constant
sample of an ideal gas not only are expressed. When pressure is Ans. (d)
exhibit a pressure of 1 atm but also expressed in atmosphere and volume in According to ideal gas equation,
a concentration of 1 mol L−1 ? litres, then the value of R at STP for pV = nRT
1 mole of gas is
(R=0.082 L atm mol–1 deg–1 ) If T is constant and mass is constant, so
1 atm × 22.414 L
(a) At STP [CBSE AIPMT 1993] R= number of moles (n) also constant
1 mole × 273.15 K mass
(b) When V = 22.4 L n= ,
= 0.082 L atm K–1 mol –1 molar mass
(c) WhenT = 12 K
(d) Impossible under any conditions therefore
Ans. (c) 33 Which is not true in case of an ideal pV = constant
gas? [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
According to ideal gas equation,
(a) It cannot be converted into a liquid 36 In a closed flask of 5 L, 1.0 g of H2 is
pV = nRT
n (b) There is no interaction between the heated from 300 to 600 K. Which
p = RT molecules
V statement is not correct?
(c) All molecules of the gas move with
1atm = 1mol L–1 × 0.082 × T [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
1 same speed
T= =12 K (d) At a given temperature, pV is
(a) Pressure of the gas increases
0.082 (b) The rate of collision increases
proportional to the amount of the
gas (c) The number of moles of gas
30 Select the correct statement. In increases
Ans. (c)
the gas equation pV = nRT (d) The energy of gaseous molecules
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] A gas is a collection of tiny particles increases
separated from one another by large
(a) n is the number of molecules of a gas Ans. (c)
empty space and moving rapidly at
(b) V denotes volume of one mole of the
random in all the directions. In the Here, volume is constant and mass of
gas
course of their motion, they collide with hydrogen gas is also fixed, therefore the
(c) n moles of the gas have a volume V one another and also with the walls of number of moles remains same. Now as
(d) p is the pressure of the gas when the container. Due to frequent collisions, the temperature increases, then
only one mole of the gas is present speeds and direction of motion of pressure also increases. This will lead to
Ans. (c) molecules keeps on changing. Thus, all more collisions among the gaseous
The ideal gas equation is pV = nRT the molecules in a sample of a gas do not molecules and hence, the energy of
have same speeds. molecules increases.
where, V is the volume of n moles of a gas.
States of Matter 49
where, r = radius of atoms, On substituting the given values, we get 12 The vacant space in bcc lattice cell
a = edge length of the unit cell. d room temp. 2× M 4× M is
= [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
d 900 ° C 4r
3
N A × (2 2r) 3 (a) 26% (b) 48%
08 A compound is formed by cation C NA ×
3 (c) 23% (d) 32%
and anion A. The anions form
[QGiven, M and r of iron remains Ans. (d)
hexagonal close packed (hcp) constant with temperature]
lattice and the cations occupy 75% Q Packing efficiency in bcc lattice = 68%.
2 × 3 3 16 2 r 3 ∴ Vacant space in bcc lattice
of octahedral voids.The formula of = ×
64 r 3 4 = 100 − 68 = 32%
the compound is
d bcc 3 3
[NEET (National) 2019] =
(a) C 3A2 (b) C 3A4 (c) C 4 A3 (d) C2 A3 d fcc 4 2 13 A given metal crystallises out with
Ans. (b)
a cubic structure having edge
Anions (A) form hexagonal close packed
10 The ionic radii of A + and B − ions length of 361 pm. If there are four
(hcp) lattice, so are 0.98 × 10 −10 m and 1.81 × 10 −10 m. metal atoms in one unit cell, what
Number of anions (A) = 6 The coordination number of each is the radius of one atom?
ion in AB is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Number of octahedral voids = Number of [NEET 2016, Phase I]
atoms in the close packed structure = 6. (a) 4 (b) 8 (a) 40 pm (b) 127 pm
(c) 2 (d) 6 (c) 80 pm (d) 108 pm
Cations (C ) occupy 75% of octahedral
75 Ans. (b)
voids, so number of cations (C ) = 6 × Ans. (d)
100
Given, ionic radius of cation (A + ) = 0.98 Given, edge length = 361 pm
= 6 × 3 /4 = 9 /2
× 10 −10 m Four metal atoms in one unit cell
∴The formula of compound = C 9 / 2 A6 i.e. effective number in unit cell (z) = 4
Ionic radius of anion (B − ) = 1.81 × 10 −10 m
= C 9 A12 = C 3A4 (given)
∴ Coordination number of each ion in AB
Thus, option (b) is correct.
=? ∴ It is a FCC structure
Now, we have ∴ Face diagonal = 4r
09 Iron exhibits bcc structure at room Radius of cation 2 a = 4r
temperature. Above 900°C , it Radius ratio =
2 × 361
Radius of anion r=
transforms to fcc structure. The 4
0.98 × 10 −10 m
ratio of density of iron at room = = 127 pm
1.81 × 10 −10 m
temperature to that at 900°C
(assuming molar mass and atomic = 0.541 14 Lithium metal crystallises in a body
radii of iron remains constant with If radius ratio range is in between 0.441 – centred cubic (bcc) crystal. If the
0.732, ion would have octahedral
temperature) is [NEET 2018] length of the side of the unit cell of
structure with coordination number ‘six’.
3 3 4 3 3 1 lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 2 3 2 2 2 11 In calcium fluoride, having the of the lithium will be
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Ans. (a) fluorite structure, the coordination
Z×M numbers for calcium ion (Ca 2+ ) and (a) 240.8 pm (b) 151.8 pm
Density of unit celld =
NA × a 3 fluoride ion (F − ) are (c) 75.5 pm (d) 300.5 pm
[NEET 2016, Phase II] Ans. (b)
where, Z = Number of atoms per unit cell
(a) 4 and 2 (b) 6 and 6 In case of body centred cubic (bcc)
M = Molar mass crystal,
(c) 8 and 4 (d) 4 and 8
a 3 = Volume of unit cell [a = edge length] a 3 = 4r
Ans. (c)
NA = Avogadro’s number = 6.022 × 1023
In CaF2 (Fluorite structure), Ca2 + ions Given, edge length,a = 351 pm
3a
For bcc, Z = 2, radius (r) = are arranged in ccp arrangement (Ca2 + Hence, atomic radius of lithium,
4 ions are present at all corners and at the a 3 351 × 1.732
a=
4r centre of each face of the cube) whileF − r= =
4 4
3 ions occupy all the tetrahedral sites.
= 151.98 pm
a
For fcc, Z = 4, r = ⇒ a =2 2r
2 2
15 Copper crystallises in a face
According to question Ca2+ centred cubic (fcc) lattice with a
ZM F– unit cell length of 361 pm. What is
d room temp. N Aa 3 bcc the radius of copper atom in pm?
= [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
d 900 ° C ZM From the above figure, you can clearly
(a) 128 pm (b) 157 pm
N a3 see that coordination number ofF − is 4
A fcc (c) 181 pm (d) 108 pm
while that of Ca2 + is 8.
52 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
32 Lithium has a bcc structure. Its Ans. (c) 37 The pyknometric density of sodium
density is 530 kg m − 3 and its Doping of NaCl with 10 −4 mol% of SrCl2 chloride crystal is 2.165
atomic mass is 6.94 g means, 100 moles of NaCl are doped with × 10 3 kg m–3 while its X-ray density
10 −4 mol of SrCl2 .
mol − 1 . Calculate the edge length of is 2.178 × 10 3 kg m–3 . The fraction
∴ 1 mol of NaCl is doped with
a unit cell of lithium metal. of unoccupied sites in sodium
(N A = 6.02 × 10 23 mol − 1 ) 10 −4
SrCl2 = = 10 −6 mole chloride crystal is
[NEET 2016, Phase I] 100 [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
(a) 352 pm (b) 527 pm As each Sr2 + ion introduces one cation (a) 5.96 × 10−1
(c) 264 pm (d) 154 pm vacancy. (b) 5.96 × 10−3
∴ Concentration of cation vacancies (c) 5.96
Ans. (a)
= 10 −6 mol/mol of NaCl (d) 5.96 × 10−2
Given, Li has a bcc structure.
= 10 −6 × 6023
. × 1023 mol −1
Density (ρ) = 530 kg-m −3 Ans. (b)
Atomic mass (M) = 6.94 g mol −1 = 6023
. × 10 17 mol −1 The fraction of unoccupied site in
Avogadro’s number (N A ) sodium chloride crystal
35 The appearance of colour in solid X - ray density – pyknometric density
= 6.02 × 1023 mol −1 =
alkali metal halides is generally due X - ray density
We know that, number of atoms per unit
cell in bcc (Z) = 2. to [CBSE AIPMT 2006] 2.178 × 10 3 − 2.165 × 10 3
=
∴ We have the formula for density, (a) F-centres 2.178 × 10 3
ZM (b) Schottky defect 0.013 × 10 3
ρ= =
N Aa 3 (c) Frenkel defect
2.178 × 10 3
(d) Interstitial positions
where a = edge-length of a unit cell. =
13
Ans. (a)
ZM 2178
or a = 3 F-centres are the sites where anions are
ρN A = 5 .96 × 10 −3.
missing and instead electrons are
. g mol −1
2 × 694 present and the appearance of colour in
38 The second order Bragg diffraction
=3 solid alkali metal halides is generally due
0.53 g cm−3 × 602
. × 1023 mol −1 of X-rays with λ = 1.0 Å from a set
to F-centres.
. × 10 −23 cm−3
= 3 435 of parallel planes in a metal occurs
= 3.52 × 10 −8 cm
36 CsBr crystallises in a body centred at an angle 60°. The distance
a = 352 pm
cubic lattice. The unit cell length is between the scattering planes in
436.6 pm. Given that the atomic the crystals is [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
33 The correct statement regarding mass of Cs = 133 u and that of Br = (a) 0.575 Å (b) 1.00 Å
defects in the crystalline solid is 80 u and Avogadro number being (c) 2.00 Å (d) 1.17 Å
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] 6.023 × 10 23 mol–1 , the density of Ans. (d)
(a) Schottky defects have no effect on CsBr is [CBSE AIPMT 2006] According to Bragg’s equation,
the density of crystalline solids (a) 42.5 g /cm 3 nλ = 2 d sinθ
(b) Frenkel defects decreases the (b) 0.425 g /cm 3 n=2
density of
crystalline solids (c) 8.25 g /cm 3 λ=1
(c) Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect (d) 4.25 g /cm 3 deflected angleθ = 60 °
(d) Frenkel defect is found in halides of Ans. (d) d=?
alkaline metals Z×M Distance between two plane of crystal.
Density of CsBr =
Ans. (c) a3 × N0 2 × 1 = 2 × d × sin 60 °
In Frenkel defect, ions in solids dislocate 3
Z → number of atoms in the bcc unit cell 2× 1=2×d ×
from their positions. Hence, Frenkel =2 2
defect is a dislocation defect. 2
M → molar mass of CsBr = 133 + 80 = 213 d=
a → edge length of unit cell = 436.6 pm 3
34 If NaCl is doped with 10 −4 mol % of 2
= 436.6 × 10 −10 cm = = 1.17 Å
SrCl 2 , the concentration of cation 1.7
2 × 213
vacancies will be ∴ Density =
(436.6 × 10 −10 ) 3 × 6.023 × 1023
(NA = 6.023 × 10 23 mol −1 ) 39 Schottky defect in a crystal is
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] = 8.49 × 10 −7 × 10 7 g / cm3 observed when [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) 6.023 × 1015 mol−1 = 8.50 g / cm 3 (a) an ion leaves its normal site and
(b) 6.023 × 1016 mol−1 For a unit cell =
8 .50 occupies an interstitial site
(c) 6.023 × 1017 mol−1 2 (b) unequal number of cations and
(d) 6.023 × 1014 mol−1 = 4 .25 g /cm3 anions are missing from the lattice
Solid State 55
14 The mixture that forms maximum 17 Which of the following statements 20 Which one is not equal to zero for
boiling azeotrope is about the composition of the an ideal solution?
[NEET (National) 2019] vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(a) ethanol + water mixture of benzene and toluene is (a) ∆H mix
(b) acetone + carbon disulphide correct? Assume that the (b) ∆S mix
(c) heptane + octane temperature is constant at 25°C. (c) ∆Vmix
(d) water + nitric acid [NEET 2016, Phase I] (d) ∆P = Pobserved − PRaoult
Ans. (d) (Given, vapour pressure data at Ans. (b)
Key Idea The binary liquid mixtures 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene For an ideal solution
having the same composition in liquid and = 3.85 kPa) (i) There will be no change in volume on
vapour phase and boil at constant (a) The vapour will contain a higher mixing the two components i.e.
temperature are called azeotropic percentage of toluene ∆Vmixing = 0
mixtures or azeotropes. (ii) There will be no change in enthalpy
(b) The vapour will contain equal
The solutions that show large negative amounts of benzene and toluene so ∆Hmixing = 0
deviation from Raoult’s law forms (c) Not enough information is given to So, ∆S mix ≠ 0 for an ideal solution.
maximum boiling azeotrope. For, e.g. make a prediction
nitric acid and water. 21 p A and p B are the vapour pressure
(d) The vapour will contain a higher
The remaining option containing percentage of benzene
different mixtures forms minimum of pure liquid components A and B,
boiling azeotrope.
Ans. (d) respectively of an ideal binary
Since, component having higher vapour solution. If χ A represents the mole
15 Which of the following statements pressure will have higher percentage in
fraction of component A, the total
vapour phase. Benzene has vapour
is correct regarding a solution of pressure of the solution will be
pressure 12.8 kPa which is greater than
two compounds A and B exhibiting toluene 3.85 kPa. [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
positive deviation from ideal Therefore, the vapour will contain a (a) pA + χ A (pB − pA) (b) pA + χ A (pA − pB)
behaviour? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] higher percentage of benzene. (c) pB + χ A (pB − pA) (d) pB + χ A (pA − pB)
(a) Intermolecular attractive forces Ans. (d)
between A—A and B—B are stronger 18 Which one of the following is
According to Raoult’s law, if volatile
than those between A—B. incorrect for ideal solution?
liquid added in pure solvent, then total
(b) ∆mix H = 0 at constant T and p [NEET 2016, Phase II]
pressure equal to sum of the partial
(c) ∆mix V = 0 at constant T and p (a) ∆H mix = 0 pressure of volatile liquid and solvent.
(d) Intermolecular attractive forces (b) ∆Umix = 0 Total pressure, pT = pA′ + pB′ …(i)
between A—A and B—B are equal to (c) ∆P = Pobs. − Pcalculated by Raoult’ s law = 0
those between A—B. We know that, pA′ = pA χ A
(d) ∆G mix = 0 pB′ = pBχ B
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d) Substituting the values of pA′ and pB′ in
Solution exhibits positive deviation from
Key Idea For this problem, the following Eq. (i)
ideal behaviour if the intermolecular
expression can be used. pT = pA χ A + pBχ B
interactions, i.e., A B interactions are
more stronger than in pure components, ∆G mix = ∆Hmix −T∆S mix Mole fraction, χ A + χ B = 1 ⇒ χ B = 1 − χ A
i.e. between A B or B B. Thus. For an ideal gas On substituing in above equation,
option (a) is correct. The remaining ∆Hmix = 0; ∆U mix = 0; ∆S mix ≠ 0 pT = pA χ A + pB (1 − χ A )
options are valid only for ideal solutions. Putting all these values in the
= pA χ A + pB − pBχ A
expression,
16 In water saturated air the mole ∴ pT = pB + χ A (pA − pB)
∆G mix = ∆Hmix −T∆S mix
fraction of water vapour is 0.02. If
⇒ ∆G mix = 0 −T∆S mix
the total pressure of the saturated 22 A solution of acetone in ethanol
∴ ∆G mix ≠ 0 [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
air is 1.2 atm, the partial pressure
Thus, option (d) is incorrect. (a) shows a negative deviation from
of dry air is [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
Raoult’s law
(a) 1.18 atm (b) 1.76 atm 19 A gas such as carbon monoxide (b) shows a positive deviation from
(c) 1.176 atm (d) 0.98 atm would be most likely to obey the Raoult’s law
Ans. (c) ideal gas law at [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (c) behaves like a near ideal solution
Partial pressure of dry air = total (a) high temperatures and low pressures (d) obeys Raoult’s law
pressure × mole fraction of dry air (b) low temperatures and high pressures Ans. (b)
⇒ pdry air = ptotal × λ dry air (c) high temperatures and high pressures A solution of acetone in ethanol shows a
Given, λ saturated air = 0.02 (d) low temperatures and low pressures positive deviation from Raoult’s law due
λ dry air = 1 − 0.02 = 0.98 Ans. (a) to miscibility of these two liquids with
ptotal = 12. atm Real gases show ideal gas behaviour at difference of polarity and length of
∴ pdry air = 12 . atm × 0.98 = 1. 176 atm high temperatures and low pressures. hydrocarbon chain.
Solutions 59
Colligative Properties dissolved in 114 g of n-octane to From Raoult’s law of partial pressure,
reduce its vapour pressure to 80%, pA° − pS nB
=
the molar mass (in g mol −1 ) of the pS nA
31 The following solutions were
solute is [Given that, molar mass of 760 − 732 WB × MA
prepared by dissolving 10 g of ⇒ =
n-octane is 114 g mol −1 ] 732 MB × WA
glucose (C 6H12O 6 ) in [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
250 mL of water (p 1 ), 10 g of urea 28 6.5 × 18
(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 20 ⇒ =
(CH4N 2O) in 250 mL of water (p 2 ) 732 MB × 100
Ans. (*)
and 10 g of sucrose ⇒ MB = 30.6
Does not match with the options.
(C 12H22O 11 ) in 250 mL of water (p 3 ). 6.5 × 1000
Here, relative lowering of given vapour ∴ ∆Tb = 0.52 × = 1.10
The right option for the decreasing 30.6 × 100
pressure,
order of osmotic pressure of these ∆p p° − p° × 0.8 ∴ Boiling point = 100 + 1.10 = 101.1°C
solutions is = = 0.2
[NEET 2021] p° p° ≈ 101° C
(a) p2 > p1> p3 (b) p1 > p2 > p3 wB
(c) p2 > p3 > p1 (d) p3 > p1 > p2 ∆p nB MB 36 An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in
Now, = xB = = KI. Which change will cause the
Ans. (a) p° nB + nA w B + w A
MB MA vapour pressure of the solution to
van’t Hoff factor for glucose, urea and
sucrose is one as all are non-ionic.
increase? [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
p° = vapour pressure of pure solvent
Mass of glucose = 10 g (a) Addition of NaCl
(octane)
(b) Addition of Na2 SO 4
Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol −1 Mass of solute (w B) = 8 g
(c) Addition of 1.00 molal KI
Number of moles of glucose Mass of solvent (w A ) = 114g
10 1 (d) Addition of water
= = mol = 0.056 mol Molar mass of solute (MB) = ?
180 18 Ans. (d)
Molar mass of solvent (octane) (MA )
Mass of urea = 10 g Key Idea Vapour pressure depends upon
= 114g mol − 1.
Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol −1 8 / MB
the surface area of the solution. Larger
10 1 ⇒ 0.2 = ⇒ MB = 32g mol − 1 the surface area, higher is the vapour
Number of moles of urea = = mol 8
+
114 pressure.
60 6 MB 114
= 0.167 mol Addition of solute decreases the vapour
pressure as some sites of the surface
Mass of sucrose = 10 g
34 If molality of the dilute solution is are occupied by solute particles,
Molar mass of sucrose = 342 g mol −1 resulting in decreased surface area.
doubled, the value of molal
Number of moles of sucrose However, addition of solvent, i.e.
10 depression constant (K f ) will be dilution, increases the surface area of
= = 0.029 mol [NEET 2017]
342 the liquid surface, thus results in
(a) doubled (b) halved increased vapour pressure.
Osmotic pressure is a colligative
property which depends on the amount (c) tripled (d) unchanged Hence, addition of water to the aqueous
of solute present in the solution. As the Ans. (d) solution of (1 molal) KI, results in
amount of urea is more than that of increased vapour pressure.
For a dilute solution, the depression in
glucose and sucrose. freezing point (∆Tf ) is directly
Amount of solute : Urea > Glucose > proportional to molality (m) of the 37 A solution of sucrose (molar mass
Sucrose solution. = 342 g mol −1 ) has been prepared
∴Osmotic pressure, p2 > p1 > p3 ∆Tf ∝ m or ∆Tf = K f m by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in
Where,K f is called molal depression 1000 g of water. The freezing point
32 Isotonic solutions have same constant or freezing point depression of the solution obtained will be
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] constant or cryoscopic constant. The (k f for water = 1.86 K kg mol −1 )
(a) vapour pressure value of K f depends only on nature of the [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(b) freezing temperature solvent and independent of composition
of solute particles, i.e. does not depend (a) − 0.372 °C (b) − 0.520°C
(c) osmotic pressure
on the concentration of solution. (c) + 0.372 °C (d) − 0.570°C
(d) boiling temperature Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) 35 At 100°C the vapour pressure of a Depression in freezing point,
Isotonic solutions have same osmotic solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g ∆Tf = kf × m
pressure ( π) at a given temperature. water is 732 mm. If K b = 0.52, the W × 1000
where, m = molality = B
π = CRT boiling point of this solution will be MB ⋅ WA
When, two solution have same molar [NEET 2016, Phase I]
68.5 × 1000 68. 5
concentration (C) their osmotic pressure (a) 100°C (b) 102°C = =
will be equal. 342 × 1000 342
(c) 103°C (d) 101°C
Solutions 61
Given, ∆G ° = + 63.3 kJ where, [∆ng gaseous = np − nR ] By dividing eq. (ii) by (i) we get
= 63.3 × 10 3 J (a) nP = nR = 2, thus, K p = K C 1
×x=1
Thus, substitute ∆G ° = 63.3 × 10 3 J, (b) nP = nR = 2, thus, K p = K C 64
R = 8.314 JK−1 mol −1 andT = 298K [25 + ⇒ x = 64 times
(c) nP = nR = 2, thus, K p = K C
273 K] from the above equation we get,
(d) nP = 2, nR = 1, thus, K p ≠ K C 10 The value of equilibrium constant
63.3 × 10 3 = − 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 log K sp
∴ log K sp = − 11.09 of the reaction,
08 The dissociation constants for
⇒ K sp = antilog (− 11.09) 1 1
acetic acid and HCN at 25°C are HI(g) r H2 (g) + I 2 (g) is 8.0.
K sp = 8.0 × 10 −12 1. 5 × 10 −5 and 4.5 × 10 −10 , 2 2
respectively. The equilibrium The equilibrium constant of the
06 For the reaction, reaction,
constant for the equilibrium,
N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) r 2NO(g), the H2 ( g ) + I 2 (g ) r2HI(g) will be
CN– + CH3COOH HCNr
equilibrium constant is K 1 . The [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
equilibrium constant is + CH3COO– would be 1 1 1
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] (a) (b) (c) 16 (d)
K 2 for the reaction, 16 64 8
(a) 3.0 × 105 (b) 3.0 × 10−5
2NO(g) + O 2 (g) r 2 NO 2 (g). What is (c) 3.0 × 10−4 (d) 3.0 × 104
Ans. (b)
K for the reaction,
1
Ans. (d) HI( g) s 12 H (g) + 21 I (g)
2 2
On reversing the equation (i) and the concentration of CO2 will increased Ans. (c)
multiplying the equation (iii) by 3, we get in same order. Hence, on addition of CH4 r1
2NH2 q N2 + 3H2 ,
1
…(v)
or O2 equilibrium will cause to the right. BaO2 (s ) sBaO(s) +O (g), ∆H = + ve
r2 2
22 For the reversible reaction, Ans. (c) 26 For a reversible reaction, if the
N 2 (g) + 3H2 (g) r 2NH 3 (g) + heat Since,OH− are generated from weak acid concentrations of the reactants are
(H2O), and a weak acid (like CO2 ) should be doubled, the equilibrium constant
the equilibrium shifts in forward used to remove it. Because if we add
direction [CBSE AIPMT 2014] strong acid like (HCl) it reverse the
will be [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(a) by increasing the concentration of reaction. KOH increases the (a) one-fourth (b) halved
NH3 ( g) concentration of OH− , thus again shifts (c) doubled (d) the same
(b) by decreasing the pressure the reaction in backward side. Ans. (d)
(c) by decreasing the concentrations of CO2 combines withOH− to give carbonate Consider a hypothetical change,
N2 ( g) and H2 ( g) which is easily removed.
A+B s C +D
(d) by increasing pressure and SO2 reacts with water to give strong acid, [C] [D]
decreasing temperature so it cannot be used. For this reaction,K eq =
[A] [B]
Ans. (d)
Any change in the concentration,
24 The value of ∆H for the reaction, For the above reaction if concentration
of reactants are doubled then the rate of
pressure and temperature of the X 2 (g) + 4Y 2 (g) 2 XY 4 (g)
r forward reaction increases for a short
reaction results in change in the time but after sometime equilibrium will
direction of equilibrium. This change in is less than zero. Formation of
established. So, concentration has no
the direction of equilibrium is governed XY 4 (g) will be favoured at effect on equilibrium constant. It
by Le-Chatelier’s principle. According to [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
remains unchanged after increasing the
this equilibrium shifts in the opposite (a) low pressure and low temperature concentration of reactants.
direction to undo the change. (b) high temperature and low pressure
N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g)
s 2NH3 ( g) + Heat (c) high pressure and low temperature 27 According to Le-Chatelier’s
(a) Increasing the concentration of (d) high temperature and high pressure principle, adding heat to a solid
NH 3 (g) On increasing the Ans. (c) r liquid equilibrium will cause
concentration of NH3 ( g), the the
equilibrium shifts in the backward X2 (g) + 4Y2 s2 XY (g); where
4
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
Ans. (c)
(c) NH2OH (d) NH3 (a) CH3COO – and H+
Ans. (d) (b) CH3COO –,H3O + and CH3COOH
Boron is an element of 13 group and
The species formed after adding a (c) CH3COO –, H3O + and H+
contains three electrons in its valence
shell. When its compoundBH3 dimerises, proton to the base is known as (d) CH3COOH,CH3COO – and H+
each boron atom carry only 6 electrons conjugate acid of the base and the Ans. (b)
that is their octet is incomplete. Hence, species formed after losing a proton is
known as conjugate base of acid. So, The aqueous solution of acetic acid
(BH3)2 is an electron deficient ionise as follows:
compound. NH2– + H+ → NH3
Conjugate acid H2O+ CH3COOH ! CH3COO– +H3O+
In all other given molecules octet of Base
Base Acid
central atom is complete. 16 The strongest conjugate base is
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] So, the aqueous solution of acetic acid
contains CH3COO– , H3O+ and CH3COOH.
13 Which of the following molecules (a) NO –3 (b) Cl–
acts as a Lewis acid? (c) SO2–
4 (d) CH3COO –
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] Ans. (d) TOPIC 3
(a) (CH3) 3B (b) (CH3)2 O Weak acid forms strong conjugate base. Solubility Product and
(c) (CH3) 3P (d) (CH3) 3N In HNO3 , HCl, H2SO4 and CH3COOH ,
CH3COOH is weakest acid, so its Common Ion Effect
Ans. (a)
conjugate base is strongest.
CH3
CH3COOH 3 CH3COO– + H+ 20 Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in
ו ••×
CH3 ו B CH3 ו O • CH3 0.1 M NaOH. Given, that the ionic
••
ו
CH3 Complete octet and 17 The hydride ion H− is stronger base product of Ni(OH) 2 is 2 × 10 −15 .
presence of lp of e – than its hydroxide ion OH− . Which [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Incomplete (Lewis base)
octet of the following reactions will occur (a) 2 × 10−8 M (b) 1 × 10−13 M
(Lewis acid) if sodium hydride (NaH) is dissolved (c) 1 × 108 M (d) 2 × 10−13 M
CH3 CH3 in water?
•× ו Ans. (d)
CH3 ו P •• CH3 •× N •• [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
ו NaOH(aq) → Na+ (aq) + OH− (aq)
CH3
•×
CH3 (a) 2H– (aq) + H2O(l ) → H2O + H2 + 2 e – (0. 1 M ) (0. 1 M)
(b) H– (aq) + H2O (l ) → OH– + H2
complete octet complete octet
(c) H– + H2O (l ) → No reaction Ni(OH)2 (s ) w Ni (aq) + 2OH− (aq)
2+
and presence and presence S′ 0.1 + 2S ′
of lp of e – of lp of e – (d) None of the above
(Lewis base) (Lewis base)
Ans. (b) Ionic product = (S ′) (0.1 + 2S ′)2 (Q2S ′ is
very small)
Sodium hydride dissolved in water as
14 Which of the following statements 2 × 10 −15 = S ′ (0.1)2
NaH +H2O → NaOH + H2
about pH and H + ion concentration S ′ = 2 × 10 −13 M
or H− (aq) +H2O(l ) → OH– + H2 ↑
is incorrect? [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
In the above reaction hydride ion take
(a) Addition of one drop of
proton from water molecule and
21 The molar solubility of CaF2 (
concentrated HCl in NH4 OH solution
decreases pH of the solution
hydrogen gas is evolved. K sp = 5.3 × 10 −11 ) in 0.1 M solution of
(b) A solution of the mixture of one NaF will be [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
equivalent of each of CH3COOH and 18 0.1M solution of which one of these (a) 5.3 × 1011 mol L −1
NaOH has a pH of 7 substances will be basic? (b) 5.3 × 10−8 mol L −1
(c) pH of pure neutral water is not zero [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(c) 5.3 × 10−9 mol L −1
(d) A cold and concentratedH2SO4 has (a) Sodium borate . × 10 −10 mol L −1
(d) 53
lowerH+ ion concentration than a (b) Calcium nitrate
dilute solution ofH2SO4
Ans. (c)
(c) NH4Cl
Ans. (b) Let the solubility of CaF2 in 0.1 M NaF is
(d) Sodium sulphate
‘S’ mol L −1
Ionic Equilibrium 73
CaF2 (s ) - Ca2 + (aq) + 2F − (aq) Solubility product (K sp ) = [A y + ] x [B x − ] y NaCl(aq ) → Na+ (aq ) + Cl – (aq )
S 2S For BaSO4 (binary solute giving two ions) 0.1 M 0 0
0 0.1M 0.1+s
NaF (aq) - Na+ + F − (aq) BaSO4 (s ) r Ba2 + (aq) + SO24− (aq)
AgCl(s ) q Ag + (aq ) + Cl – (aq )
[F ] = 2 S + 0.1 1 M 0. 1 M
− 0. S S s s+0.1
K sp of CaF2 = [Ca2 + ] [F − ]2 ∴ K sp = [Ba2 + ] [SO24− ] = (S ) (S ) = S 2 …(i)
Given, K sp = 1.6 × 10 −10 = [Ag + ][Cl − ]
= [S ] [2S + 0.1]2 [where, S =
Solubility] or 1.6 × 10 −10 = s (0 . 1 + s ) = 0.1 s + s 2
= 53 . × 10 −11 = [S ] [2 S + 0. 1]2
−11 Given, S = 2.42 × 10 −3 gL−1 Q K sp is small, so s is very less in
⇒ . × 10 = [S ] [0. 1]2 [Q2S << 0.1 ]
53 comparison with 0.1. Hence, s 2 can be
Molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol −1
. × 10 −11
53
[S ] = = 5.3 × 10 −9 mol L−1 ∴Solubility of BaSO4
neglected.
(0. 1)2 Thus, 1.6 × 10 −10 = 0 . 1 s
2.42 × 10 −3
(S ) = mol L−1 or s = 1.6 × 10 −9 M
22 pH of a saturated solution of 233
Ca(OH) 2 is 9. The solubility product = 1.04 × 10 −5 mol L−1 26 MY and NY 3 , two nearly insoluble
(K sp ) of Ca(OH) 2 is On substituting the value of S in Eq. (i), salts, have the same K sp values of
[NEET (National) 2019] we get 6.2 × 10 −13 at room temperature.
. × 10−10
(a) 025 (b) 0125
. × 10−15 K sp = (1.04 × 10 −5 mol L−1)2 Which statement would be true in
. × 10−10
(c) 05 . × 10−15
(d) 05 = 1.08 × 10 −10 mol2 L−2 regard to MY and NY 3 ?
[NEET 2016, Phase I]
Ans. (d) +
24 Concentration of the Ag ions in a (a) The molar solubility of MY in water is
For the reaction, less than that of NY 3.
− saturated solution of Ag 2C 2O 4 is
Ca(OH)2 (s ) - Ca2 + (aq) + 2OH(aq) (b) The salts MY and NY 3 are more
S 2S 2.2 × 10 −4 mol −1 solubility product soluble in 0.5M KY than in pure water
[where, S = solubility] of Ag 2C 2O 4 is [NEET 2017] (c) The addition of the salt of KY to
K sp = [Ca2 + ] [OH− ]2 = S (2 S )2 … (i) (a) 2.42 × 10−8 (b) 2.66 × 10−12 solution of MY and NY 3 will have no
Given, pH = 9 effect on their solubilities
(c) 4.5 × 10−11 (d) 5.3 × 10−12
(d) The molar solubilities of MY and NY 3
We know that, pH + pOH = 14 Ans. (d) in water are identical.
∴ pOH = 14 − 9 = 5 Key concept For a sparingly soluble salt,
− Ans. (a)
pOH = − log[OH] if S is the molar solubility,
For MY, MY r M+ + Y −
− Ax B y (s ) + H2O q xA y + + yB x − 0 S S
5 = − log [OH] where, s = solubility andK sp = solubility
At saturation,
or, [OH− ] = 10 − 5 K [Ax B y ] = [A y + ] x × [B x − ] y = [xS ] x [yS ] y
product.
∴ K sp = [M+ ] [Y − ] = S 2
From above equation, or K sp = x y . y y S x + y
− S = K sp = 6.2 × 10 −13 = 7.874 × 10 −7
[OH] = 2 S = 10 − 5 Where, the constantK sp is called
solubility product. Similarly, for NY3,
10 −5 Ag2 C2O4 ( s ) q 2Ag + + C2O24−
∴ S= NY3 r N + + 3Y −
2 2S S 0 S 3S
On substituting the value of ‘S’ in eqn. (i), K sp = [Ag + ]2 [C2O24− ] = [2S ]2 [S ] ∴ K sp = [N + ] [Y − ] 3 = s × (3s ) 3
we get Given, 2S = 22 . × 10 −4 or S = 1.1 × 10 −4 M K sp = 27 S 4
3
10 −5 ∴ . × 10 −4 ]2 [1.1 × 10 −4 ]
K sp = [22 K sp 6.2 × 10 −13
K sp = 4S = 4
3
= 0.5 × 10 − 15 ∴ s =4 =4 = 3.89 × 10 −4
2 . × 10 −12
= 53 27 27
Therefore, molar solubility of MY in water
23 The solubility of BaSO 4 in water is 25 The solubility of AgCl(s) with is less than that ofNY3.
solubility product 1.6 × 10 −10 in 0.1 M
2.42 × 10 −3 g L−1 at 298 K. The 27 The K sp of Ag 2CrO 4, AgCl, AgBr
NaCl solution would be
value of its solubility product (K sp ) [NEET 2016, Phase II]
will be and AgI are respectively,
(a) 1.26 × 10−5 M (b) 1. 6 × 10−9 M 1.1 × 10–12 , 1.8 × 10 −10 , 5.0 × 10 −13 ,
(Given molar mass of BaSO 4 = 233 (c) 1. 6 × 10−11 M (d) zero 8.3 × 10 −17 . Which one of the
g mol −1 ) [NEET 2018]
Ans. (b) following salts will precipitate last
(a) 1.08 × 10−14 mol2L−2
(b) 1.08 × 10−12 mol2L−2 Key Idea As solubility of AgCl(s) is asked if AgNO 3 solution is added to the
(c) 1.08 × 10−10 mol2L−2
in 0.1 M NaCl solution, so in the solution containing equal moles of
calculation, solubility of Cl – (from NaCl)
(d) 1.08 × 10−8 mol2L−2 must be added to the solubility of
NaCl,NaBr,NaI and Na 2CrO 4 ?
Ans. (c) Cl – (from AgCl). [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
For a general reaction, Let s be the solubility of Ag + and Cl – in (a) AgI (b) AgCI
y+ x− AgCl before the addition of NaCl. (c) AgBr (d) Ag2CrO 4
Ax B y r xA + yB
74 NEET Chapterwise Topiewise Chemistry
TOPIC 4 Let us consider all the options, pH of which one of them will be
(a) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL equal to 1? [NEET 2018]
pH, Buffer and Indicator of 0.1M NaOH (a) IV (b) I (c) II (d) III
CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
Ans.
36 The pK b of dimethyl amine and pK a Initial 100 mL × 100 mL × 0 mmol
M M
of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 conc. 0.1 M 0.1 M 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5
respectively atT(K). The correct =10mmol =10mmol
Milliequivalent of HCl
option for the pH of dimethyl Final conc. 0 0 10 mmol M 1
It is not basic buffer because hydrolysis = 75 mL of HCl = × 75 = 15
ammonium acetate solution is 5 5
[NEET 2021] of salt takes place and final solution Milliequivalent of NaOH
contains salt of weak acid with strong M
(a) 8.50 (b) 5.50 (c) 7.75 (d) 6.25
base only. = 25 mL of NaOH
Ans. (c) 5
Hence, option (a) is incorrect. 1
= × 25 = 5
Dimethyl ammonium acetate (b) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M 5
[CH3COONH2 (CH3)2 ] is a salt of weak acid NH4OH ∴ Milliequivalent of HCl left unused
(CH3COOH) and weak base [(CH3)2 NH].
HCl + NH4OH → NH4 Cl + H2O = 15 − 5 = 10
pH of dimethyl ammonium acetate salt
solution can be calculated using Initial conc. 100 mL× 200 mL × 0 mmol Volume of solution = 100 mL
formula : 0.1 M HCl 0.1 M ∴ Molarity of [H+ ] in the resulting mixture
1 =10 mmol =20mmol 10 1
pH = 7 + (pK a − pK b ) = =
2 Final conc. 0 10 mmol 10 mmol 100 10
pK a of acetic acid = 4.77 1
It is basic buffer because final solution ∴ pH = log + = log(10) = 1
pK b of dimethyl amine = 3.27 contains weak base and its salt with [H ]
1 strong acid. Hence, option (b) is correct.
pH = 7 + (4.77 − 3.27)
2 (c) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M 40 What is the pH of the resulting
1 NaOH solution when equal volumes of 0.1
pH = 7 + × 1.50
2 HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed?
⇒ pH = 7 + 0.75 Initial conc. 100 mL 100 mL × 0 mmol [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
pH = 7.75 ×01
.M 0.1 M (a) 12.65 (b) 2.0 (c) 7.0 (d) 1.04
=10 mmol =10 mmol Ans. (a)
37 The pH of 0.01 M NaOH (aq) solution Final conc. 0 0 10 mmol Key Concept When equal volumes of
will be [NEET (Odisha) 2019] It is a neutral solution. Hence, option (c) acid and base are mixed, then resulting
(a) 7.01 (b) 2 is incorrect. solution become alkaline if concentration
(c) 12 (d) 9 (d) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25mL of 0.1 M of base is taken high.
CH3COOH Let normality of the solution after mixing
Ans. (c)
0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl is N.
NaOH is a strong base, thus CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O ∴ N 1V1 − N2V2 = NV
[OH− ] = 0.01M = 10 −2 M Initial 25mL 50mL or 0.1 × 1 − 0.01 × 1 = N × 2
0 mmol
pOH = − log [OH− ] conc. × 0.1 M × 0.1 M Since, normality of NaOH is more than
= − log(10 −2 ) = 2 =2 .5 mmol = 5mmol that of HCl.
We know that, pH + pOH = 14 Final conc. 0 2.5 mol 2.5 mmol Hence, the resulting solution is alkaline.
∴ pH = 14 − 2 = 12 It is basic solution. Hence, option (d) is or [OH] = N =
0.09
= 0.045 N
Thus, option (c) is correct. incorrect. 2
or pOH = − log (0.045) = 1.35
38 Which will make basic buffer? 39 Following solutions were prepared ∴ pH = 14 − pOH = 14 − 1.35 = 12.65
[NEET (National) 2019] by mixing different volumes of
(a) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL NaOH and HCl of different 41 Which one of the following pairs of
of 0.1 M NaOH
concentrations : solution is not an acidic buffer?
(b) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
NH4OH
M M
I. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH (a) HClO 4 and NaClO 4
(c) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M 10 10
NaOH M M (b) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
(d) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M II. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH (c) H2CO 3 and Na2CO 3
10 10
CH3COOH (d) H3 PO 4 and Na3 PO 4
M M
Ans. III. 75 mL HCl + 25mL NaOH Ans. (a)
Key idea A buffer solution having pH
5 5
Strong acid with its salt cannot form
more than 7 is known as basic buffer. It is M M
IV. 100 mL HCl + 100mL NaOH buffer solution. Hence,HClO4 and NaClO4
obtained by mixing weak base and its salt 10 10 is not an acidic buffer.
with strong acid in a fixed proportion.
76 NEET Chapterwise Topiewise Chemistry
49 Equal volumes of three acid So, in aqueous solution of 10 –8 M HCl, neutralisation of NaOH with H2O,H2S,
solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed [H+ ] = [H+ ] of HCl + [H+ ] of water H2Se and H2Te.
in a vessel. What will be the H+ ion = 10 –8 + 10 –7 Na2O > Na2S > Na2Se > Na2Te
concentration in the mixture? = 11 × 10 –8 M ≈ 1.10 × 10 –7 M (Q pH of basic solution is higher than
acidic or least basic solution)
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(a) 1.11 × 10−4 M (b) 3.7 × 10−4 M 52 Which of the following pairs
54 The rapid change of pH near the
(c) 3.7 × 10−3 M (d) 1.11 × 10−3 M constitutes a buffer?
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] stoichiometric point of an acid
Ans. (b)
(a) HNO2 and NaNO2 base titration is the basis of
Let the volume of each acid = V indicator detection. pH of the
(b) NaOH and NaCl
pH of first, second and third acids = 3, 4 solution is related to ratio of the
(c) HNO 3 and NH4NO 3
and 5 respectively
(d) HCl and KCl concentrations of the conjugate
[H+ ] of first acid (M1) = 1 × 10 −3
Ans. (a) acid (HIn) and base (In − ) forms of
[Q H+ = 1 × 10 − pH ]
A pair constituent withHNO2 and NaNO2 the indicator given by the
[H ] of second acid (M2 ) = 1 × 10 −4
+
because HNO2 is weak acid andNaNO2 is expression [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
[H+ ] of third acid(M3) = 1 × 10 −5 a salt of weak acid (HNO2 ) with strong [In–]
Total [H+ ] concentrated of mixture base (NaOH). Hence, it is an example of (a) log = pK In – pH
[HIn]
M V + M2V2 + M3V3 acidic buffer solution.
(M) = 1 1 [HIn]
V1 + V2 + V3 (b) log = pK In – pH
53 What is the correct relationship [In–]
1 × 10 −3 × V + 1 × 10 −4 × V + 1 × 10 −5 × V between the pH of isomolar [HIn]
= (c) log = pH –pK In
V +V +V solutions of sodium oxide (pH1 ), [In–]
1 × 10 −3 × V (1 + 0.1 + 0.01) sodium sulphide (pH2 ) , sodium [In–]
= (d) log = pH – pK In
3V selenide (pH3 ) and sodium telluride [HIn]
1.11 × 10−3 (pH4 ) ? Ans. (d)
= = 3.7 × 10−4 M [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
3 (a) pH1 > pH2 ≈ pH3 > pH4 Acid indicators are generally weak acid.
(b) pH1 < pH2 < pH3 < pH4 The dissociation of indicator HIn takes
50 Calculate the pOH of a solution at (c) pH1 < pH2 < pH3 ≈ pH4 place as follows
25°C that contains 1 × 10 −10 M of (d) pH1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4 HIn 3 H+ + In–
hydronium ion. [CBSE AIPMT 2007] Ans. (d) [H ] [In– ]
+
∴ K In =
(a) 7.00 (b) 4.00 The correct order of pH of isomolar [HIn]
(c) 9.00 (d) 1.00 solution of sodium oxide (pH1), sodium [HIn]
or [H ] =K In ⋅
+
K(i)
Ans. (b) sulphide (pH2 ),sodium selenide (pH3) and [In– ]
[H3O+ ] = [H+ ] =10 −10 sodium telluride (pH4 ) is
Q pH = – log [H+ ] K(ii)
pH1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4 because in
pH + pOH = 14 K(i) aqueous solution, they are hydrolysed as From eq. (i) and (ii) we get,
and pH = − log [H+ ] follows. [HIn]
∴ pH = − log KIn ⋅
pH = − log [10 −10 ] K(ii) Na2O + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2O [In− ]
pH = 10 Base
[In– ]
from eq. (i) and (ii), we get Na2S + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 S = − log KIn + log
[HIn]
pOH + 10 = 14 Strong base Weak acid
[In– ]
pOH = 14 − 10 = 4 Na2Se + 2H2O → 2NaOH = pK In + log
Strong base [HIn]
pOH = 14 – pH 58 The pH value of blood does not [Where ⇒WB= Weak base,SB =
= 14 – 925
. = 4.75 Strong base WA = Weak acid,SA =
change appreciably by a small
0.1 Strong acid.]
4.75 = pK b + log addition of an acid or base,
0.1 Hence, option (d) is the correct.
because the blood
pK b = 4.75 [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
61 Which of the following salts will
(a) is a body fluid
give highest pH in water?
56 The concentration of [H+ ] and (b) can be easily coagulated [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
concentration of [OH– ] of a 0.1 M (c) contains iron as a part of the
(a) KCl (b) NaCl
aqueous solution of 2% ionised molecule
(c) Na2CO 3 (d) CuSO4
(d) contains serum protein that acts as
weak monobasic acid is Ans. (c)
buffer
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
Ans. (d) The highest pH refers to the basic
[ionic product of water = 1 × 10–14 ] solution containingOH− ions. Therefore,
Blood is an example of buffer solution,
. × 10–3 Mand 5 × 10–11 M
(a) 002 the basic salt releasing moreOH− ions on
which contains serum protein, so its pH
(b) 1 × 10–3 M and 3 × 10–11 M does not change appreciably by adding
hydrolysis will give highest pH in water.
(c) 2 × 10–3 M and 5 × 10–12 M small amount of an acid or a base to it. Only the salt of strong base and weak
(d) 3 × 10–2 M and 4 × 10–13 M acid would release moreOH− ion on
hydrolysis. Among the given salts,
Ans. (c) 59 The pH value of a 10 M solution of Na2 CO3 corresponds to the basic salt as
[H + ] in monobasic acid HCl is [CBSE AIPMT 1995] it is formed by the neutralisation of
= molarity × degree of ionisation (a) less than 0 (b) equal to 0 NaOH [strong base] and H2 CO3 [weak
2 (c) equal to 1 (d) equal to 2 acid].
= 0.1 ×
100 Ans. (a) CO23− + H2O s HCO3− + OH−
= 2 × 10 –3 M +
HCl(aq) → H (aq) + Cl (aq) −
[NH4OH][H+ ] Ammonium chloride (NH4 Cl) is a salt of Sodium carbonate (Na2 CO3) is a salt of
Kh = …(ii)
[NH+4 ] weak base and strong acid. So, its strong base and weak acid. Its aqueous
aqueous solution will be acidic as solution is also basic and its pH value will
[NH4OH][H+ ][OH– ]
or K h = …(iii) NH4 Cl + H2O → NH4OH + HCl be more than 10,
[NH+4 ][OH– ] i.e. highest among them.
Weak base Strong acid
From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii)
So, pH of NH4 Cl is less than 7. Na2 CO3 + H2O → 2NaOH
K
Kh = w [Q [H+ ][OH− ] = K w ] Sodium nitrate (NaNO3 ) is the salt of
Strong base
Ka
strong acid and strong base. So, its + H2 CO3
10 −14 Weak acid
= aqueous solution is neutral as
1.77 × 10 −5 NaNO3 + H2O → NaOH 65 The compound whose aqueous
= 5.65 × 10 −10 Strong base solution has the highest pH is
[CBSE AIPMT 1988]
+ HNO3
64 Which has highest pH? Strong acid (a) NaCl (b) NaHCO3
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] (c) Na2CO3 (d) NH4Cl
So, pH of NaNO3 is 7.
(a) CH3CO −OK + (b) Na2CO3 Ans. (c)
Potassium acetate (CH3COOK) is a salt of
(c) NH4 Cl (d) NaNO3 strong base and weak acid. Its aqueous The hydrolysis of NaCl gives neutral
Ans. (b) solution will be basic and pH value will be solution because it is salt of strong acid
pH=log
1 greater than 7 ≈ 8.8 and strong base and hence, its pH is 7.
[H+ ] CH3COO−K+ + H2O → CH3COOH NH4 Cl is salt of weak base and strong
acid, so its pH is less than 7.NaHCO3 is
pH is inversely proportional to hydrogen Weak acid
also acidic whereasNa2 CO3 is salt of
ion concentration. As concentration of + KOH strong base and weak acid, so its pH is
H+ decreases pH increases and Strong base
more than 7.
vice-versa.
10
Redox Reactions and
Electrochemistry
TOPIC 1 O
TOPIC 2
Redox Reactions O 115° O Electrolytic Conductance,
Cr Electrolysis and Its
O O
01 The oxidation state of Cr in CrO 5 is Quantitative Aspect
Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is +6 due to
[NEET (Odisha) 2019]
the presence of two peroxide linkages
(a) − 6 (b) + 12 which can be calculated as 05 The molar conductance of NaCl,
(c) + 6 (d) + 4 x + (−1) × 4 + 1 × (−2) HCl and CH3COONa at infinite
[For Cr]
Ans. (c) [For 0 − 0] [For 0] dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0
The structure of CrO5 is x − 6 = 0; x = +6 S cm 2 mol − 1 respectively. The
O molar conductance of CH3COOH at
O O 03 Oxidation state of Fe in Fe 3 O 4 is infinite dilution is
Cr Choose the right option for your
O O [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
3 4 5 8 answer. [NEET 2021]
Oxidation state of Cr is +6 due to the (a) (b) (c) (d)
presence of two peroxide linkages, 2 5 4 3 (a) 201.28 S cm2 mol − 1
which can be calculated as. Ans. (d) (b) 390.71 S cm2 mol − 1
In CrO(O2 )2 , let the oxidation state of Cr (c) 698.28 S cm2 mol − 1
Oxidation state of Fe inFe3O4 is
be x calculated as (d) 540.48 S cm2 mol − 1
x + (−1) 4 + (−2) = 0 x –2
Ans. (b)
Fe3 O4
x − 6 = 0 ⇒ x = +6
Molar conductance of NaCl,
3x + (–2 × 4) = 0
λ°NaCl = 126.45 S cm2 mol −1
02 In acidic medium, H2O 2 changes 3x = + 8
8 Molar conductance of HCl,
Cr 2O 2−
7 to CrO 5 which has two
x=+
λ°HCl = 426.16 S cm2 mol −1
3
(—O—O—) bonds. Oxidation state of − +
Cr in CrO 5 is Molar conductance of CH3COONa,
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] 04 The oxidation state of Cr in
λ°CH COONa = 91.0 S cm2 mol −1
(a) +5 (b) +3 (c) +6 (d) −10 K 2Cr 2O 7 is [CBSE AIPMT 1988] 3
According to Kohlrausch’s law;
Ans. (c) (a) +5 (b) +3 (c) +6 (d) +7
λ°HCl = λ°H + + λ°Cl− …(i)
When H2O2 is added to an acidified Ans. (c)
solution of a dichromate Cr2O27− , a deep λ°NaCl = λ°Na + + λ°Cl− …(ii)
Let the oxidation state of Cr is x
blue coloured complex, chromic
K2 Cr2O7 λ°CH + = λ°Na + + λ°CH − …(iii)
3 COONa 3 COO
peroxide CrO5 [or CrO(O2 )2 ] is formed.
∴ 2 (+1) + 2x + 7 (−2) = 0 λ°CH = λ°CH + λ°H +
Cr2O27− + 2 H+ + 4H2O → 2 CrO(O2 )2 3 COOH 3 COO
−
14243 2 + 2x − 14 = 0
Chromic peroxide λ°CH = (λ°CH + λ°Na + )
2x − 12 = 0 3 COOH 3 COO
−
λ°CH = 91.0 + 426.16 − 126.45 H2SO4 → 2H+ + SO24 − The above reaction is a
3 COOH
Strong electrolyte disproportionation reaction as Cu(+1)
λ°CH = 390.71 S cm2 mol −1 as it is dilute is oxidised to Cu(+2 ) and reduced to
3 COOH
H2O r H+ + OH− Cu(0).
+6 +7 +4
06 The molar conductivity of 0.007 M Reaction at cathode (Pt) (ii) 3MnO24 − + 4H+ → 2MnO4− + MnO2
acetic acid is 20 S cm 2 mol − 1 . 2H+ + 2e − → H2 ↑ + 2H2O
The above reaction is a
What is the dissociation constant Reaction at anode (Pt)
− disproportionation reaction as Mn
of acetic acid ? Choose the correct 4OH − 4e − → O2 ↑ + 2H2O (+ 6) is oxidised to MnO−4 (Mn+ 7 ) and
option. +4
We get,O2 gas at anode. reduced toMnO2 (Mn).
[λ °H = 350S cm 2 mol − 1 , +7 +6 +4
λ °CH COO− = 50 S cm 2 mol − 1 ] 08 The number of Faradays (F ) ∆ K2 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(iii) 2KMnO4 →
3 [NEET 2021] required to produce 20 g of The above reaction is not a
−4 −1 −1 disproportionation reaction as Mn
(a) 1.75 ×10 mol L calcium from molten CaCl 2 (Atomic
(+7) is only reduced toK2MnO4 (Mn+ 6 )
(b) 2.50 ×10− 4 mol − 1 L − 1 mass of Ca = 40 g mol −1 ) is and MnO2 (Mn+ 4 ).
(c) 1.75 ×10− 5 mol − 1 L − 1 [NEET (Sep.) 2020] +7
(iv) 2MnO−4 + 3Mn2 + + 2H2O + 4
(d) 2.50 ×10− 5 mol − 1 L − 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
→ 5MnO2 + 4H+
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
The above reaction is not a
λ CH COOH = 20 S cm2 mol −1 CaCl2 r Ca2 + + 2Cl − disproportionation reaction as Mn(+7 ) is
3 Molten
Concentration of CH3COOH , C = 0.007 M only reduced toMnO2 (+ 4).
2+
λ°H + = 350 S cm2 mol −1 At cathode Ca + 2e − → Ca Hence, option (d) is correct.
(Reduction)
λ°CH − = 50 S cm2 mol −1 According to Faraday’s first law,
10 Following limiting molar
3 COO
Charge passed in Faraday = Gram
According to Kohlrausch’s law, equivalent of product
conductivities are given as
λ°CH COOH = λ°H + + λ°CH COO −
3 =
Given mass
× no. of e − released
λ °m (H SO ) = x S cm 2mol −1
3 2 4
Atomic mass
λ°CH
3 COOH
= 350 + 50
20 λ °m (K = y S cm 2mol −1
2 SO4 )
= × 2= 1 F
= 400 S cm2 mol −1 40 λ °m (CH COOK) = z S cm 2mol −1
2
Degree of dissociation, So, one Faraday (F) is required for the
λ CH COOH process. λ °m (in S cm 2mol −1 ) for CH3COOH
α= 3
electrolytic conductivity of Putting all values in expression (i) we get As per the equation, for 1 mole ofMnO24− , 1
F of electricity is required. Thus, for 0.1
5.76 × 10 −3 S cm −1 at 298 K is (0.10 × 71) =
35.5
×3 ×t mole of MnO24− , 0.1 F of electricity is
[CBSE AIPMT 2016, Phase II] 96500
required.
(a) 2.88 S cm2 /mol or t = 6433 s
Since, 1 F = 96500 C
(b) 11.52 S cm2 /mol or t = 107 .22 min
∴ 0.1 F = 0.1 × 96500 C = 9650 C
(c) 0.086 S cm2 /mol ~− 110 min 1 s = 1 min
Hence, 9650 C of electricity is required
(d) 28.8 S cm2 /mol 60 to completely oxidise MnO24− to MnO−4 .
Ans. (b)
Key Idea The relation between molar
13 The number of electrons delivered 16 The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108)
conductivity (λm) and electrolytic at the cathode during electrolysis
displaced by a quantity of
conductivity (κ) is given as by a current of 1 ampere in 60
κ × 1000 electricity which displaces
λm = seconds is (charge on electron =
5600 mL of O 2 at STP will be
M 1.60 × 10 −19 C) [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
where, M is molarity of solution. [CBSE AIPMT 2016, Phase II]
(a) 5.4 g (b) 10.8 g
Given, concentration of solution, (a) 6 × 1023
(b) 6 × 10 20
(c) 54.0 g (d) 108.0 g
M = 0 . 5 mol / dm3 (c) 3.75 × 1020 (d) 7.48 × 1023
Ans. (d)
Electrolytic conductivity, Ans. (c)
Since, 22400 mL volume is occupied by 1
κ = 5. 76 × 10 −3 S cm–1 From Faraday’s first law of electrolysis, mole of O2 at STP.
Temperature,T = 298 K w it
= …(i) Thus, 5600 mL O2 means
∴ Molar conductivity, E 96500 5600 1
κ × 1000 Given,i = 1 A;t = 60 s = mol O2 = mol O2
λm = 22400 4
M Putting these values in Eq. (i), we get 1
5. 76 × 10 −3 × 1000 w 1 × 60 ∴ Weight of O2 = × 32 = 8 g
= = 4
0. 5 E 96500 According to problem,
= 11. 52 S cm2 /mol or
w
=
6
Equivalents of Ag = Equivalents of O2
E 9650 Weight of Ag
12 During the electrolysis of molten =
= Number of mole of electrons Equivalent weight of Ag
sodium chloride, the time required ∴ Number of electrons WO2
to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas 6 =
= × 6.022 × 1023 Equivalent weight of O2
using a current of 3 amperes is 9650
WAg WO 2
[CBSE AIPMT 2016, Phase II] = 3.75 × 1020 =
(a) 55 minutes (b) 110 minutes MAg MO 2
(c) 220 minutes (d) 330 minutes 14 Aqueous solution of which of the 1 4
Ans. (b) following compounds is the best ∴
WAg
×1=
8
×4
Key Idea This problem is based on conductor of electric current? 108 32
Faraday’s first law of electrolysis which [CBSE AIPMT 2015] [Q2H2O → O1 + 4H+ + 4e − ]
states that when an electric current is (a) Acetic acid, C2 H4O2 ⇒ WAg = 108 g
passed through an electrolytic solution, (b) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
the amount of substance (w), deposited at (c) Ammonia, NH3
the electrode, is proportional to the 17 At 25° C molar conductance of
(d) Fructose, C 6 H12O 6
electric charge (q) passed through the 0.1 molar aqueous solution of
electrolytic solution. Ans. (b)
ammonium hydroxide is
The formula used in the problem is Since, HCl is strong acid and dissociates 9.54 Ω −1 cm 2 mol −1 and at infinite
Eit completely. Hence, it conducts
w= …(i) dilution its molar conductance is
96500 electricity best in its aqueous solution.
Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry 83
31 The standard electrode potential 33 In the electrochemical cell ∴ For potential of H2 electrode to be
zero, pH 2 should be equal to [H+ ]2 , i.e.
(E − ) values of Zn||ZnSO 4 (0.01 M)|| CuSO 4 (1.0M) 10 −14 atm.
(Al 3+ / Al, Ag + / Ag, K + /K and Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is 10 −14
∴ log =0
Cr 3+ /Cr are − 1.66 V, 0.80V, 2.93 V E 1 . When the concentration (10 −7 )2
and − 0.74 V, respectively. The ZnSO 4 is changed to 1.0 M and
°
correct decreasing order of that of CuSO 4 changed to 0.01 M, 35 If the E cell for a given reaction has
reducing power of the metal is the emf changes to E 2 . From the a negative value, which of the
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] followings, which one is the following gives correct
(a) Ag > Cr > Al > K relationship between E 1 and E 2 ? relationships for the values of ∆G°
(b) K > Al > Cr > Ag RT
( Given, = 0.059) and K eq ?
(c) K > Al > Ag > Cr F [CBSE AIPMT 2016, Phase II, 2011]
[NEET 2017, 2003]
(d) Al > K > Ag > Cr (a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2 (a) ∆G ° > 0; K eq < 1 (b) ∆G ° > 0; K eq > 1
Ans. (b) (c) E1 > E2 (d) E2 = 0 ≠ E1 (c) ∆G ° < 0; K eq > 1 (d) ∆G ° < 0; K eq < 1
More negative the value of standard Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
reduction potential, higher is the Given, ° = −ve
E cell
Thinking process Calculate the value of
reduction power.
E cell i.e. E 1 and E2 by substituting the ° is
i.e. Reducing power The relation between ∆G ° and E cell
respective given values in the Nernst
1 given as
∝ equation,
standard reduction potential 0.059 [Zn2 + ] ∆G ° = − nF E ° ... (i)
E cell = E ° − log cell
Thus, the correct decreasing order of n [Cu2 + ] ° is negative , so ∆G ° comes out to
If E cell
reducing power of the metal is
Compare the calculated values of E 1 and be positive. Again, relation between ∆G °
K > Al > E2 and find the correct relation. and K eq is given as
(EKº + /K = −2.93V) (E º 3 + = −166 . V)
Al / Al For the electrochemical cells, ∆G ° = −2 . 303 nRT log K eq ... (ii)
Cr >Ag Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01M)| | CuSO4 (1M)| Cu From Eq. (i) we get that ∆G ° is positive.
(E º 3 + = −0.74 V) (E Ag º
+ / Ag = 0.80 V) Cell reaction : Now, if ∆G ° is positive thenK eq comes
Cr / Cr
Zn + Cu2 + → Zn2 + + Cu; n = 2 out to be negative from eq (ii).
32 For the cell reaction, i.e. ∆G ° >1 and K eq < 1
0.059 Zn2 +
2Fe 3+ (aq) + 2I − (aq) → 2Fe 2+ (aq) E1 = E ° − log 2 +
2 Cu Short trick As E ° is negative so
cell
+I 2 (aq) 0.059 0.01 reaction is non-spontaneous or you can
= E° − log
E cell = 0. 24 V at 298 K. The
È
2 1 say reaction is moving in backward
direction. For non-spontaneous
standard Gibbs energy (∆ r G È ) of E1 = E ° −
0.059
log
1
= (E ° + 0.059) reaction, ∆G ° is always positive andK eq
the cell reaction is 2 100
is always less than 1.
[Given that Faraday constant For cell, Zn|ZnSO4 (1M)| | CuSO4 (0.01M)| Cu
0.059 1
F = 96500 C mol −1 ] E2 = E ° − log 36 A hydrogen gas electrode is made
2 0.01
[NEET (National) 2019]
0.059 by dipping platinum wire in a
(a) −23.16 kJ mol −1 (b) 46.32 kJ mol −1 E2 = E ° − log 100
2 solution of HCl of pH=10 and by
(c) 23.16 kJ mol −1 (d) −46.32 kJ mol −1 ∴ = (E °− 0.059) ⇒ E 1 > E2 passing hydrogen gas around the
Ans. (d) platinum wire at 1 atm pressure.
The relation between E cell
º
and ∆ r G º is as 34 The pressure of H2 required to The oxidation potential of
follows: make the potential of H2 -electrode electrode would be [NEET 2013]
∆ r G º = − nFE cell
º
zero in pure water at 298 K is (a) 0.059 V (b) 0.59 V
For the cell reaction, [CBSE AIPMT 2016, Phase I] (c) 0.118 V (d) 1.18 V
2Fe3 + (aq) + 2 I− (aq) → 2Fe2 + (aq) + I2 (aq) (a) 10−12 atm (b) 10−10 atm Ans. (b)
n=2 (c) 10−4 atm (d) 10−14 atm For hydrogen electrode, oxidation half
Given, F = 96500 C mol −1
= 0.24 V
, E cell
º Ans. (d) reaction is
Now, we know that ∆ r G º = − nFE cell
º
From the question, we have an equation H2 → 2H+ + 2e−
(1 atm) (At pH 10)
On substituting the given values in above 2H+ + 2e − → H2 (g)
equation we get According to Nernst equation, If pH = 10
∆ r G º = − 2 mol × 96500 C mol − 1 0.0591 pH H+ = 1 × 10 − pH = 1 × 10 −10
E = E° − log + 2 2
× 0.24 J mol − 1 2 [H ] From Nernst equation,
= − 46320 J mol −1
0.0591 pH 2 0.0591 [H+ ]2
=0 − log E cell = E ° cell − log
. KJ mol − 1
= − 4632 2 (10 −7 )2 2 pH 2
Hence, option (d) is correct. [Q [H+ ] = 10 −7 ] For hydrogen electrode, E ° cell = 0
86 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
+8 × ∆GO 2 ]
E 1° = 0.15 V, ∆G 1° = − n1E 1°F ∆G ° = − 2 × 96500 × 0.46
= 5 × (−394.4) + 6 × (−237.2) − (−8.2 + 0)
Cu+ + e – → Cu, E2° = 0.50 V, = − 88780 J
= − 1972 − 1423.2 + 8.2
∆G2° = − n2 E2°F = − 88.7 kJ ≈ − 89.0 kJ
= − 3387 kJ / mol
Cu2 + + 2e – → Cu, E ° = ?, 41 Given, = −3387 × 10 3 J / mol
∆G ° = − nE °F °
∆G = − nFE cell
(i) Cu 2+ + 2 e − → Cu,
∆G ° = ∆G 1° + ∆G2° E° = 0.337 V °
−3387 × 10 3 = − 32 × 96500 × E cell
(ii) Cu 2+ + e − → Cu + , ° =
−3387 × 10 3
= 1.0968 V
− nE ° F = − n1E 1°F − n2 E2°F E cell
E° = 0.153 V –32 × 96500
or − 2 E ° F = − 1 F × 0.15 + (− 1 F × 0.50)
Electrode potential, E° for the
or − 2 E ° F = − 0.15 F − 0.50 F reaction, 43 On the basis of the following E°
or − 2 FE ° = − F(0.15 + 0.50) Cu + + e − → Cu, will be values, the strongest oxidising
0.65 [CBSE AIPMT 2009] agent is [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
∴ E° = = 0.325 V
2 (a) 0.52 V (b) 0.90 V [Fe(CN) 6] 4– → [Fe(CN) 6] 3– + e − ;
(c) 0.30 V (d) 0.38 V E° = − 0.35 V
Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry 87
°
50 Standard electrode potentials are On adding above equation we get, E cell = 0.00 V
2Cu+ Cu2+ + Cu ; ∆G − RT C2
Fe 2+ / Fe, E° = − 0.44 V º E= ln
∆G = ∆G 1 + ∆G2
Fe 3+ / Fe 2+ , E° = 0.77 V
nF C 1
− nFE ° = 0.15F + (−0.53F ) RT C2
Fe 2+ , Fe 3+ and Fe block are kept E= ln
−FE ° = = 0.38F nF C 1
together, then [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
E ° = 0.38V C2 > C 1
(a) Fe 3+ increases
Thus, for the result reaction E ° value is RT C2
(b) Fe2+ decreases 0.38 V. E= ln
nF C 1
Fe2 +
(c) 3+ remains unchanged (R, T, n and F are constant)
Fe 52 Which one of the following pairs of
C
(d) Fe2+ decreases substances on reaction will not therefore, E ° is based upon ln 2
C1
Ans. (b) evolve H2 gas? [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) Iron and H2 SO 4 (aq) ∆G = − nFE °
The metals have higher negative values RT C2
of their electrode potential can displace (b) Iron and steam = − nF × ln
(c) Copper and HCl (aq) nF C 1
metals having lower values from their
salt solution. (d) Sodium and ethyl alcohol C2
= − RT ln
So, Fe3+ decreases. Ans. (c) C1
Since copper is placed below hydrogen Hence, at constant temperature Gibbs
51 Cu + (aq ) is unstable in solution and in the electrochemical series, thus C
free energy ∆G depends uponln 2 .
undergoes simultaneous oxidation copper does not give hydrogen with C1
and reduction according to the dilute acids. While all other pairs give
hydrogen on reaction. 55 E° for the cell,
reaction [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
Fe + dil. H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2 ↑ Zn|Zn 2+ (aq )||Cu 2+ (aq )|Cu is 1.10 V
2Cu + (aq ) º Cu 2+ (aq ) + Cu( s ) 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2 ↑ at 25°C. The equilibrium constant
Choose the correct E° for above Steam
for the reaction,
reaction if 2Na + C2H5OH → 2C2H5ONa + H2 ↑
Zn( s ) + Cu 2+ (aq ) Cu( s )
E ° 2+ = 0.34 V Cu + dil. HCl → No reaction º
Cu /Cu + Zn 2+ (aq ) is of the order
and E° = 0.15 V 53 Without losing its concentration [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Cu2+ /Cu+
ZnCl 2 solution cannot be kept in (a) 10−37 (b) 10−28 (c) 1018 (d) 1017
(a) – 0.38 V (b) + 0.49 V (c) + Ans. (a)
0.38 V (d) – 0.19 V contact with [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) Au (b) Al (c) Pb (d) Ag Zn(s ) + Cu2 + (aq) º Cu(s) + Zn 2+
(aq),
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b) E ° = + 1.10 V
∆G ° = − nFE ° 0.0591
From given data, In electrochemical series, Al is placed ∴ E° = log 10 K eq
above Zn and all other are present below n
(i) Cu(s ) → Cu2 + (aq) + 2e − , because at equilibrium, E cell = 0
Zn. So, aluminium displaces zinc from
∆G 1° = − 2 (− 0.34) × F ZnCl2 solution. Hence, it cannot keep in (n = number of electrons exchanged = 2)
(ii) Cu2 + (aq) + e − → Cu + (aq), contact with Al.
1.10 =
0.0591
log 10 K eq
∆G2° = − 1 (0.15) × F 2
54 For the cell reaction, 2.20
= log 10 K eq
On addition, Cu 2+ (C 1 , aq ) + Zn( s ) º 0.0591
Cu(s ) → Cu+ (aq) + e − ,
Zn 2+ (C 2 , aq ) + Cu(s) K eq = antilog 37.225 = 1.66 × 10 −37
∆G 3° = − 1 × E ° × F
of an electrochemical cell, the
and ∆G 3° = ∆G 1° + ∆G2° change in free energy (∆G) at a 56 Reduction potential for the
− n3FE ° = − n 1FE 1° − n2FE2 given temperature is a function of following half-cell reactions are
− E ° = − 2(−0.34) − 1(0.15)
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] Zn → Zn 2+ + 2 e − ,
= (−2 × − 0.34) + ( − 1 × 0.15)
(a) ln (C 1) (b) ln (C2 /C 1) (E ° 2+ = − 0.76 V)
(Zn /Zn)
(c) ln (C2 ) (d) ln (C 1 + C2 )
− E ° = + 0.68 − 0.15 = 0.53
Ans. (b) Fe → Fe 2+
+ 2 e− ,
or E ° = − 0.53 V
∆G = − nFE ° (E ° 2+ = − 0.44 V)
Cu+ (aq) º Cu2 + (aq) + e − ; Fe /Fe
For concentration cell, from Nernst
∆G 1 = − 1 × (−0.15) × F The EMF for the cell reaction,
equation,
Cu+ (aq) + e −
º Cu(s ) ;
°
E = E cell −
RT C 1
ln Fe 2+ + Zn → Zn 2+ + Fe will be
∆G2 = − 1 × (−0.53) × F nF C2 [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry 89
Based on the above data which one Ans. (a) The rate of this reaction is, given
of the following is correct? Rate of appearance/disappearance by
1
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] =± × (a) rate =k [A] 2 [B]
(a) Rate = k [A] 2 [B] stoichiometric coefficient
(b) rate =k [A][B] 2
[reactant or product]
(b) Rate = k [A] [B] (c) rate = k [A] 2 [B] 2
time taken
(c) Rate = k [A] 2 [B] 2 (d) rate = k [A][B]
For the reaction,
(d) Rate = k [A] [B] 2 Ans. (b)
BrO−3 (aq) + 5Br − (aq) + 6H+ → 3Br2 (l )
Ans. (d) For the reaction,
+ 3H2O(l )
Let the order of reaction with respect to A + B → Products
Rate of appearance of bromine (Br2 )
A is x and with respect to B is y.Thus, On doubling the initial concentration of A
1 d [Br2 ]
rate = k [A] x [B] y =+ only, the rate of the reaction is also
3 dt doubled, therefore
(x and y are stoichiometric coefficient )
For the given cases,
Rate of disappearance of bromide ion Rate ∝ [A] 1 …(i)
(Br − ) Let initial rate law is
I. rate = k (0.1) x (0.1) y = 6.0 × 10 −3 1 d [Br − ]
=− Rate = k [A][B] y …(ii)
II. rate = k (0.3) x (0.2) y = 7.2 × 10 −2 5 dt If concentration of A and B both are
III. rate = k (0.3) x (0.40) y = 2.88 × 10 −1 d [Br2 ] 3 d [Br − ] doubled, the rate gets changed by a
or =−
IV. rate = k (0.4) x (0.1) y = 2.40 × 10 −2 dt 5 dt factor of 8.
Dividing Eq. (I) by Eq. (IV), we get 8 × rate = k [2 A] [2 B] y …(iii)
x y −3 06 For the reaction, [Q Rate ∝ [A] 1]
0.1 0.1 = 6.0 × 10
N 2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 , if
0.4 0.1 −
2.4 × 10 2 Dividing Eq. (iii) by Eq. (ii), we get
x 1 d [NH3] 8 = 2 × 2y
or 1 = 1
= 2 × 10 −4 mol L−1 s −1 , the 4 = 2y
4 4 dt (2)2 = (2) y
∴ x=1 −d [H2]
value of would be ∴ y =2
On dividing Eq. (II) by Eq. (III), we get dt [CBSE AIPMT 2009] Hence, rate law is,rate = k [A][B]2
7.2 × 10 −2
x y
0.3 0.2
= (a) 3 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1 08 The bromination of acetone that
0.3 0.4 2.88 × 10 −1
(b) 4 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1 occurs in acid solution is
y
1
or =
1 (c) 6 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1 represented by this equation
2 4 (d) 1 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1
y 2 Ans. (a)
CH3COCH3 (aq) + Br 2 (aq) →
1 1 CH3COCH2Br(aq) + H+ (aq) + Br − (aq)
or =
2 2 For the reaction,
These kinetic data were obtained
∴ y =2 N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
for given reaction concentrations.
Thus, rate law is, d [N2 ] 1 d [H2 ] 1 d [NH3] Initial concentrations, M
rate = k [A] 1 [B]2 Rate = − =− =+
dt 3 dt 2 dt [CH3COCH3] [Br2 ] [H + ]
= k [A] [B]2
1 d [H2 ] 1 d [NH3]
or − =+ 0.30 0.05 0.05
3 dt 2 dt
05 In the reaction, 0.30 0.10 0.05
d [H2 ] 3
BrO −3 (aq) + 5Br − (aq) + 6H+ → − = × 2 × 10 −4 mol L−1s−1 0.30 0.10 0.10
dt 2
3Br 2 (l) + 3H2O(l) −4 −1 −1 0.40 0.05 0.20
= 3 × 10 mol L s
the rate of appearance of bromine
Initial rate, disappearance of Br 2 ,
(Br 2 ) is related to rate of 07 For the reaction,
Ms–1
disappearance of bromide ions as A + B → products, it is observed 5.7 × 10−5
following. that
[CBSE AIPMT 2009, 2000] 5.7 × 10−5
I. On doubling the initial 1.2 × 10−4
d [Br2] 3 d [Br −]
(a) =− concentration of A only, the 3.1 × 10−4
dt 5 dt rate of reaction is also doubled
d [Br2] 5 d [Br −] Based on these data, the rate
(b) =− and equation is [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
dt 3 dt
II. On doubling the initial (a) rate = k [CH3COCH3][H+]
d [Br2] 5 d [Br −]
(c) = concentrations of both A and
dt 3 dt (b) rate = k [CH 2 == COCH3][Br2]
B, there is a change by a factor
d [Br2] 3 d [Br −] of 8 in the rate of the reaction. (c) rate = k [CH3COCH3][Br2][H+] 2
(d) =
dt 5 dt [CBSE AIPMT 2009] (d) rate = k [CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]
92 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Ans. (a)
−
d [N2 ]
=−
1 d [H2 ]
=+
1 d [NH3] y = −2
Let the order of reaction wrt CH3COCH3, dt 3 dt 2 dt Hence, order of reaction with respect to
Br2 and H+ are x, y and z respectively. d [NH3] 2 d [H2 ] B is –2.
or + =−
Thus, dt 3 dt d [B]
Rate (r) = [CH3COCH3] x [Br2 ] y [H+ ] z d [NH3] 2d [N2 ] 12 3A → 2B, rate of reaction +
or + =− dt
5.7 × 10 −5 = (0.30) x (0.05) y (0.05) z …(i) dt dt
is equal to [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
5.7 × 10 −5 = (0.30) x (0.10) y (0.05) z …(ii) 3 d [A] 2 d [A]
10 For the reaction, (a) − (b) −
1.2 × 10 −4 = (0.30) x (0.10) y (0.10) z …(iii) 2 dt 3 dt
2A + B → 3 C + D 1 d [A] d [A]
(c) − (d) + 2
3.1 × 10 −4 = (0.40 )x (0.05)y (0.20 )z …(iv) which of the following does not 3 dt dt
From Eqs. (i) and (ii) express the reaction rate? Ans. (b)
y y
1 or 1° =
1 [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
1= For reaction,
2 2 d [C] d [B]
(a) – (b) – 3A → 2 B
y =0 3 dt dt
1 d [A]
d [D] d [A] Rate = −
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii) (c) (d) – 3 dt
z=1 dt 2 dt
[Rate of disappearance]
From Eqs. (i) and (iv) Ans. (a) 1 d [B]
=+
x=1 For the reaction, 2 dt
Thus, rate law ∝ [CH3COCH3] 1 [Br2 ] 0 [H+ ] 1 2A + B → 3 C + D [Rate of appearance]
= k [CH3COCH3][H+ ] The reaction rate is written as follows: d [B] 2 d [A]
∴ + =−
The reaction rate with respect to dt 3 dt
09 Consider the reaction, 1 d [A]
A=−
N 2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) 2 dt 13 3A → B + C It would be a zero
The equality relationship between The reaction rate with respect to order reaction, when
d [NH3] d [H2] B=−
d [B] [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
and – is
dt dt dt (a) the rate of reaction is proportional to
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] The reaction rate with respect to square of concentration of A
d [NH3] 1 d [H2 ] 1 d [C] (b) the rate of reaction remains same at
(a) =– C=+ any concentration of A
dt 3 dt 3 dt
(c) the rate remains unchanged at any
d [NH3] 2 d [H2 ] The reaction rate with respect to
(b) + =– concentration of B and C
3 dt d [D]
dt D= (d) the rate of reaction doubles if
d [NH3] 3 d [H2 ] dt concentration of B is increased to
(c) + =–
dt 2 dt Hence, the answer (a) is not correct double
d [NH3] d [H2 ] expression to represent the rate of the Ans. (b)
(d) =– reaction.
dt dt For reaction,
Ans. (b) 11 The rate of reaction between two 3A → B + C
For the reaction, reactants A and B decreases by a If it is zero order reaction, then the rate
remains same at any concentration of A
N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) → 2NH3 ( g) factor of 4, if the concentration of dx
or = k [A 0 ] [A 0 = 1].
The rate of reaction wrt reactant B is doubled. The order of dt
d [N2 ] this reaction with respect to
N2 = − It means that for zero order reaction,
dt reactant B is [CBSE AIPMT 2005] rate is independent of concentration of
[Rate of disappearance] (a) −1 (b) −2 reactants.
The rate of reaction with respect to (c) 1 (d) 2
1 d [H2 ] Ans. (b) 14 For the reaction,
H2 = −
3 dt A + B → Product 2N 2O 5 → 4NO 2 + O 2 , rate and
[Rate of disappearance] Rate, r ∝ [A] x [B] y …(i) rate constant are 1.02 × 10 −4 and
The rate of reaction with respect to The rate decreases by a factor 4 if the 3 .4 × 10 −5 s −1 respectively, then
1 d [NH3] concentration of reactant B is doubled concentration of N 2O 5 at that time
NH3 = +
2 dt r
∝ [A] x [2 B] y …(ii) will be [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
[Rate of appearance] 4
(a) 1.732 (b) 3
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
y . × 10−4
(c) 102 (d) 3 .4 × 105
Hence, at a fixed time 1
4= Ans. (b)
2
Chemical Kinetics 93
2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 Rate constant (k) = 4.606 × 10 − 3 s− 1 19 If the rate constant for a first order
–d [N2O5 ] Initial amount (a 0 ) = 2g reaction is k, the time (t) required
= k ⋅ [N2O5 ]
Final amount (a) = 0.2 g
dt for the completion of 99% of the
So, time required,
. × 10 –4 = 3 .4 × 10 –5 s–1 × [N2O5 ]
102 reaction is given by
2.303 a
t= log 0 [NEET (National) 2019]
1.02 × 10 –4 k a
∴ [N2O5 ] = =3 (a) t = 6.909/k (b) t = 4.606/k
3.4 × 10 –5 2.303 2
= × log = 500 s (c) t = 2.303/k (d) t = 0.693/k
4.606 × 10 − 3 0.2
15 The experimental data for the Ans. (b)
reaction 2 A+B2 → 2 AB is 17 The half-life for a zero order Key Idea For first order reaction,
reaction having 0.02 M initial 2 .303 a
Exp. [A] [B2] Rate (M s −1)
t= log
concentration of reactant is 100 s. K a−x
. × 10 −4
1. 0.50 0.50 16
The rate constant (in mol L −1 s −1 ) where,a = initial concentration,a − x =
2. 0.50 1.00 3. 2 × 10 −4 for the reaction is [NEET (Oct.) 2020] final concentration.
3. 1.00 1.00 3. 2 × 10 −4 (a) 1.0 × 10−4 (b) 2.0 × 10−4 Let the initial concentration (a) = 100
After timet, final concentration
(c) 2.0 × 10−3 (d) 1.0 × 10−2
The rate equation for the above (a − x) = 100 − 99 = 1
Ans. (a) 2 .303 a
data is [CBSE AIPMT 1997] We know that, t = log
1 a−x
(a) rate = k [B2] (b) rate = k [B2] 2 For a zero order reaction,t = (a 0 − a) K
k
(c) rate = k [A] [B] (d) rate = k [A] 2 [B]
2 2
1 a0
On substituting the given values in above
⇒ t 50 = × [Qat t 50 , a = a 0 /2] eqn. we get
Ans. (a) k 2 2.303 100 2 .303
Consider the following rate law equation, a0 0.02 M t= log = log 102
⇒ k= = K 1 K
dx
= k [A] m [B2 ] n 2 × t 50 2 × 100 s 2.303 4606
.
dt = × 2log 10 =
= 1 × 10 − 4 Ms− 1 = 1 × 10 − 4 mol L− 1 s− 1 K K
1 .6 × 10 −4 = k [0.50] m [0.50] n ...(i)
Thus, option (b) is correct.
3 .2 × 10 −4 = k [0.50] m [10 . ]n ...(ii) 18 A first order reaction has a rate
−4
3 . 2 × 10 = k [100 constant of2.303 × 10 −3 s −1 . The
m
. ] [10 . ]n ...(iii) 20 The correct difference between
By dividing Eq. (iii) by (ii) we get, time required for 40 g of this first-and second- order reactions is
3 .2 × 10 −4 k [1.00] m [1.0] n reactant to reduce to 10 g will be that
= [NEET 2018]
3 .2 × 10 −4 k [0.50] m [1.0] n [Given that log 10 2 = 0.3010] (a) a first-order reaction can be
1 = 2m or 20 = 2m [NEET (Odisha) 2019] catalysed; a second-order reaction
cannot be catalysed
∴ m=0 (a) 230.3 s (b) 301 s
(b) the half-life of a first-order reaction
By dividing Eq. (ii) by (i) (c) 2000 s (d) 602 s
does not depend on [A] 0 ; the
3 .2 × 10 −4 [0.50] m [1.0] n Ans. (d) half-life of a second-order reaction
=
1.6 × 10 −4 [0.50] m [0.50] n For first order reaction, does depend on [A] 0
2 = 2n or 21 = 2n 2.303 a (c) the rate of a first-order reaction does
t= log …(i)
k a−x not depend on reactant
∴ n= 1
concentrations; the rate of a
Hence rate, Given : k = 2.303 × 10 −3 s−1,
second-order reaction does depend
dx a = 40 g, a − x = 10 g on reactant concentrations
= k [A] [B2 ] = k [B2 ]
0 1
dt On substituting the given values in Eq. (i), (d) the rate of a first-order reaction does
we get depend on reactant concentrations;
2.303 40 the rate of a second-order reaction
t= log
TOPIC 2 2.303 × 10 −3 10 does not depend on reactant
concentrations
Order and Molecularity = 10 3 log 22 = 2 × 10 3 × log 2
= 2 × 10 3 × 0.3010 = 602 s Ans. (b)
Alternative method For first order reactions, the rate of
16 The rate constant for a first order reaction is proportional to the first
For first order reaction,
reaction is 4.606 × 10 −3 s −1 . The power of the concentration of the
0.693
time required to reduce 2.0 g of t 1/ 2 = reactant .
k For, A → B
the reactant to 0.2 g is
0.693 d [A]
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] t 1/ 2 (t 50%) = = 301s Rate = − = k [A]
(a) 200 s (b) 500 s 2.303 × 10 −3 dt
(c) 1000 s (d) 100 s Also, t 75% = 2t 50% [where, k = constant]
Ans. (b) 0.693
∴ t 75% = 2 × 301 = 602 s Half-life (t 1/ 2 ) =
For a first order reaction, k
94 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
∴ Rate of first order reaction depends Alternatively, (a) rate is proportional to the surface
upon reactant concentrations and half Half-life for the first order reaction, coverage
life does not depend upon initial t 1/ 2 0.693 0.693 (b) rate is inversely proportional to the
concentration of reactant, [A] 0 . = = −2 = 69.3 s surface coverage
2 k 10
For second order reactions, the rate of (c) rate is independent of the surface
reaction is proportional to the second Two half-lives are required for the coverage
power of the concentration of the reduction of 20 g of reactant into 5 g. (d) rate of decomposition is very slow
t1/2 t1/2
reactant. 20 g → 10 g → 5 g. Ans. (a)
For, 2A → B ∴ Total time = 2t 1/ 2 W 3
Rate = k [A]2 PH3 → P + H2
= 2 × 693 . = 1386
. s 2
1
Half-life (t 1/ 2 ) = This is an example of surface catalysed
k [A] 0 23 The rate constant of the reaction unimolecular decomposition.
∴ Rate of second order reaction A → B is 0.6 × 10 −3 mole per second. For the above reaction, rate is given as
depends upon reactant concentration If the concentration of A is 5 M then kαp
and half life also does depend on [A] 0 . Rate =
concentration of B after 20 min is 1 + αp
[CBSE AIPMT 2015]
21 When initial concentration of the where, p = partial pressure of absorbing
(a) 1.08 M (b) 3.60 M substrate.
reactant is doubled, the half-life (c) 0.36 M (d) 0.72 M At low pressure, αp<< 1 or Rate = kαp
period of a zero order reaction
[NEET 2018]
Ans. (d) So, (αp + 1) can be neglected.
(a) is tripled Key Concept For a zero order reaction hus, the decomposition is predicted to
unit of rate constant is mole per second. be first order.
(b) is doubled
Hence, we can easily calculate
(c) is halved concentration of B after 20 min by the 26 When initial concentration of a
(d) remains unchanged following formula, reactant is doubled in a reaction,
Ans. (b) x = Kt its half-life period is not affected.
For zero order reaction, x = Kt = 0.6 × 10 −3 × 20 × 60 = 0.72 M The order of the reaction is
[R] 0
t 1/ 2 = [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
2k 24 The rate of a first-order reaction is (a) zero
where, [R] 0 = Initial concentration of the 0.04 mol L−1 s −1 at 10 sec and 0.03 (b) first
reactant. mol L−1 s −1 at 20 sec after initiation (c) second
k = Rate constant. of the reaction. The half-life period (d) more than zero but less than first
Thus, t 1/ 2 for zero order reaction is of the reaction is Ans. (b)
directly proportional to the initial [NEET 2016, Phase I]
concentration of the reactant. For a zero order reactiont 1/ 2 is directly
(a) 34.1 s (b) 44.1 s (c) 54.1 s (d) 24.1 s
proportional to the initial concentration
t 1/ 2 ∝ [R] 0 Ans. (d) of the reactant [R]0
∴ For zero order reaction, when the
Given, order of reaction = 1 t 1/ 2 ∝ [R]0
concentration of reactant is doubled, the
half-life (t 1/ 2 ) will also get doubled. Rate of reaction at 10 s = 0.04 mol L −1 s −1 For a first order reaction
Rate of reaction at 20 s = 0.03 mol L −1 s −1 k=
2303
. [R]
log 0
22 A first order reaction has a specific ∴ Half-life period (t 1/ 2 ) = ? t [R]
reaction rate of 10 −2 s −1 . How much We have the equation for rate-constant ‘ at t 1/ 2 , [R] =
[R] 0
time will it take for 20 g of the k’ in first order reaction. 2
2303
. A 2.303 0.04
reactant to reduce to 5 g? k= log t = log So, the above equation becomes
[NEET 2017] t A0 105 0.03 2303
. [R] 0
2.303 K= log
(a) 238.6 s (b) 138.6 s = × 0.124 t 1/ 2 [R]0 /2
(c) 346.5 s (d) 693.0 s 105
2303
. 2303
.
k = 0.028 s−1 t 1/ 2 = = log 2= × .3010
Ans. (b) K K
We know that, .693
For a first order reaction, t 1/ 2 =
0.693 0.693
Rate constant (k) =
.
2303 a t 1/ 2 = = K
log k 0.028773391 s−1
t a−x i.e., half life period is independent of
where,a = initial concentration = 24.14 s ≈ 24.1 s initial concentration of a reactant.
a − x = concentration after time ‘t’
25 The decomposition of phosphine 27 Which one of the following
t = time in sec.
(PH 3 ) on tungsten at low pressure is statements for the order of a
Given, a = 20 g, a − x = 5 g, k = 10 −2
2303
. 20
a first-order reaction. It is because reaction is incorrect?
∴ t = −2 log = 1386. s the [NEET 2016, Phase II] [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
10 5
Chemical Kinetics 95
(a) Order is not influenced by is first order reaction with respect toH2 Ans. (d)
stoichiometric coefficient of the and ICI. Thus, the mechanism B will be For first order reaction,
reactants more consistent with the given 2.303 a
(b) Order of reaction is sum of power to information. Rate constant, k = log
t (a − x)
the concentration terms of
reactants to express the rate of 30 If 60% of a first order reaction was 2.303 a a
t 1/ 2 = log x =
reaction completed in 60 min, 50% of the k a−
a 2
(c) Order of reaction is always whole 2
same reaction would be completed
number 2.303 ln2
in approximately (log 4 = 0.60, = log 2 or =
(d) Order can be determined only k k
experimentally log 5 = 0.69) [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
Ans. (c) (a) 50 min (b) 45 min 32 For a first order reaction, A → B,
(c) 60 min (d) 40 min
Order of reaction may be zero, whole the reaction rate at reactant
number or fraction number. Ans. (b)
concentration of 0.01 M is found to
From first order reaction,
be 2.0 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1 . The half-life
28 Half-life period of a first order Rate constant,
reaction is 1386s. The specific rate 2.303 a period of the reaction is
k= log 10 [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
constant of the reaction is t (a − x)
(a) 220 s (b) 30 s
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] 2.303 a1
−3 −1 −2 −1 k1 = log …(i) (c) 300 s (d) 347 s
(a) 5.0 × 10 s (b) 0.5 × 10 s t1 a1 − x1
Ans. (d)
(c) 0.5 × 10−3 s−1 (d) 5.0 × 10−3 s−1 2.303 a2
k2 = log …(ii) For first order reaction,
Ans. (c) t2 a2 − x2
A → B
Specific rate constant, 60
x1 = a 1,t 1 = 60 rate = k × [A]
0.693 0.693 100
k= = Rate = 2.0 × 10 –5 mol L–1s–1
t 1/ 2 1386 50
x2 = a2 ,t2 = ? [A] = 0.01 M
100
= 0.5 × 10 −3 s−1 So, 2 .0 × 10 −5 = k × 0.01
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
2.303 a1 2.303 a2 2.0 × 10 –5 –1
29 The reaction of hydrogen and log = log k= s
t1 a1 − x1 t2 a2 − x2 0.01
iodine monochloride is given as −3 −1
= 2 .0 × 10 s
2.303 a1 2.303
H2 (g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I 2 (g) log = log For first order reaction,
60 a − 60 a t2
This reaction is of first order with 1 1
t 1/ 2 =
0.693
100 a2
respect to H2 (g) and ICl(g), k
50
following mechanisms were a2 − a2
=
0.693
100
proposed 2 .0 × 10 −3
2.303 100a 1 2.303 100a2
Mechanism A log = log =346.5 ≈ 347 s
60 40a 1 t2 50a2
H2 (g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I 2 (g) 1 100 1 100
log = log 33 The rate of first order reaction is
Mechanism B 60 40 t2 50 1.5 × 10 −2 mol L–1 min–1 at 0.5 M
H2 (g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + HI(g), 60 log
100
concentration of the reactant. The
slow t2 = 50
100 half-life of the reaction is
HI(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + I 2 (g), fast log [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
40
Which of the above mechanism(s) 60 (log 10 − log 5) (a) 0.383 min (b) 23.1 min
=
can be consistent with the given (log 10 − log 4) (c) 8.73 min (d) 7.53 min
information about the reaction? 60(1 − 0.69) 60 × 0.31 Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] = =
(1 − 0.60) 0.40 For the first order reaction,
(a) Only B = 1.5 × 31 = 46.5 ≈ 45 min dx
Rate = k [A]
(b) Both A and B dt
(c) Neither A nor B 31 In a first order reaction, A → B, [A] = concentration of reactant
(d) Only A if k is rate constant and initial k = rate constant
Ans. (a) concentration of the reactant A is Given that,
In the reactions which take place in a 0.5 M, then the half-life is dx
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] = 1.5 × 10 − 2 mol L–1 min–1
number of steps, the slowest step is dt
known as the rate determining step. 0.693 log 2
(a) (b) k=?
Hence, rate of reaction always depends 0.5k k
on slow step. and [A] = 0.5 M
log 2 ln2
H2 (g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + HI (g) (c) (d) ∴ 1.5 × 10 − 2 = k × 0.5
k 0.5 k
96 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
1.5 × 10 − 2 (c) first power of final concentration For first order reaction
∴ k=
0.5 (d) square root of final concentration A0 = Initial concentration
= 3 × 10 − 2 min−1 Ans. (a) A = Final concentration
For first order reaction, 1 2.303 [A] 0
t 1/ 2 of nth order reaction ∝ Rate constant, k = log
0.693 0.693 a n –1 t [A]
half-life period,t 1/ 2 = =
k 3 × 10 −2 where,a = initial concentration of =
2.303
log
2.0
= 23.1 min reactant 200 0.15
n= order of reaction 2.303
= (log 200 − log 15)
34 If the rate of a reaction is equal to ∴t 1/ 2 for first order reaction (n = 1) 200
the rate constant, the order of the 1
t 1/ 2 ∝ 1– 1 =
2.303
× (2.3010 − 1.1761)
reaction is [CBSE AIPMT 2003] a 200
1
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1 or t 1/ 2 ∝ 0 (a 0 = 1) 2.303 × 1.1249
a =
Ans. (c) 200
So, for a first order reaction half-life is
Rate of reaction is equal to the rate
independent on initial concentration of = 0.01295 min−1
constant for zero order reaction. 0.6932
reactants. Now, half life,t 1/ 2 =
Let us consider the following k
hypothetical change. 37 The plot of concentration of the 0.6932
=
A → B + C reactant versus time for a reaction 0.01295
Suppose this reaction is zero order, then is a straight line with a negative = 53.50 min
rate ∝ [A] 0 slope. This reaction follows
∴ rate = k [A] 0 = k [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(a) zero order rate equation
TOPIC 3
35 The reaction, A→ B follows first (b) first order rate equation Activation Energy, Arrhenius
order kinetics. The time taken for (c) second order rate equation and Collision Theory, Factors
0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole (d) third order rate equation Affecting Rate of Reaction
of B is 1h. What is the time taken Ans. (b)
for the conversion of 0.9 mole of A For first order reaction, we know that 39 For a reaction, A → B, enthalpy of
to 0.675 mole of B ? log [A] = −
kt
+ log [A] 0 reaction is − 4.2 kJ mol −1 and
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] 2.303 enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol
(a) 0.25 h (b) 2 h (c) 1 h (d) 0.5 h −1
On comparing it with the equation of . The correct potential energy
Ans. (c) straight line, profile for the reaction is shown in
Rate constant of first order reaction i.e. y = mx + c option. [NEET 2021]
2 .303 (A) Plot of log [A] versus time
k= log 10 0
t (A) t → straight line
−k
2 .303 0.8 slope = (negative)
or k= × log 10 ...(i) 2.303
1 0.2 PE B
(a)
(because 0.6 mole of B is formed) A
Suppose t 1 hour are required for log [A]
changing the concentration of A from Reaction progress
0.9 mole to 0.675 mole of B. slope (m) = –k
log [A]0 2.303
Remaining mole of A = 0.9 − 0.675 = 0.225
2 .303 0.9
∴ k= log 10 ...(ii)
t1 0.225
t
From Eqs. (i) and (ii) PE A
(b)
2 .303 0.8 2 .303 0.9 B
log 10 = log 10 38 A substance A decomposes by a
1 0.2 t1 0.225 Reaction progress
first order reaction starting initially
2 .303
2 .303 log 10 4 = log 10 4 ⇒ t 1 = 1 h with [A] = 2.00 m and after 200 min,
t1
[A] becomes 0.15 m. For this
reaction t 1/ 2 is [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
36 For a first-order reaction, the
(a) 53.49 min (b) 50.49 min
half-life period is independent of (c)
PE
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(c) 48.45 min (d) 46.45 min A B
ln k = ln A − a
E 1 . JK −1 mol −1
R = 8314 EP
R T According to Arrhenius equation,
Products
−E a Progress of reaction
is the slope of Arrhenius plot k Ea 1 1
R log 2 = −
ln k vs 1 k1 2.303R T1 T2
T 45 The activation energy of a reaction
On substituting the given values in above
ln A is the intercept equation, we get can be determined from the slope
Slope = − 5 × 10 3 K k2 0 1 1 of which of the following graphs?
log = −
R = 8.314 J K–1 mol –1 . × 10 6 2.303 × 8314
16 . 200 400 [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Ea In K
So, − = − 5 × 10 3 K k2 (a) In K vs T (b) vs T
R log =0 T
16
. × 10 6
⇒ E a = 5 × 10 3 × R = 5 × 10 3 × 8.314 I T I
k2 (c) In K vs (d) vs
= 41.57 × 10 3 J mol −1 = 41.5 kJ mol −1 = 10 0 = 1 T In K T
. × 10 6
16
41 In collision theory of chemical . × 10 6 s−1 at 400K
k2 = 16 Ans. (c)
reaction, Z AB represents Thus, option (b) is correct. By Arrhenius equation
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] K = Ae − Ea / RT
(a) the fraction of molecules with
43 Which one of the following
statements is not correct? where, E a = energy of activation
energies greater than E a
[NEET 2017] Applyinglog on both the side,
(b) the collision frequency of reactants, E
(a) Catalyst does not initiate any ln k = ln A − a …(i)
A and B
reaction RT
(c) steric factor
(b) The value of equilibrium constant is Ea
(d) the fraction of molecules with
changed in the presence of a or log k = − + log A …(ii)
energies equal to E a 2303
. RT
catalyst in the reaction equilibrium
98 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Compare the above equation w.r.t. 47 In a zero order reaction for every 49 The rate constants k 1 and k 2 for
straight line equation of y = mx + c. 10°C rise of temperature, the rate is
1 two different reactions are
Thus, if a plote oflnk vs is a straight doubled. If the temperature is
T 10 16 ⋅ e −2000 /T and 10 15 ⋅ e −1000 /T ,
line, the validity of the equation is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the
respectively. The temperature at
confirmed. rate of the reaction will become
E [CBSE AIPMT 2012] which k 1 = k 2 is [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
Slope of the line = − a 2000
R (a) 256 times (b) 512 times (a) 1000 K (b) K
(c) 64 times (d) 128 times 2.303
Thus, measuring the slope of the line, 1000
the value of Ans. (b) (c) 2000 K (d) K
2.303
E a can be calculated. For 10° rise in temperature, n = 1
Ans. (d)
so rate = 2n = 21 = 2
Given, k1 = 10 16 ⋅ e −2000 / T
When temperature is increased from
Ea 10°C to 100°C, change in temperature k2 = 10 15 ⋅ e −1000 / T
lnk
slope = –
R = 100 − 10 = 90 ° C On taking log of both the equations we
i.e. n=9 get
2000
So, rate = 29 = 512 times log k1 = 16 −
2.303T
1/T Alternate method with every 10° rise in
1000
temperature, rate becomes double, log k2 = 15 −
2.303T
100 − 10
46 What is the activation energy for a r′
At k1 = k2
so =2 10
= 29 = 512 times.
reaction if its rate doubles when r 2000 1000
the temperature is raised from 16 − = 15 −
2.303T 2.303T
20°C to 35°C? 48 For an endothermic reaction, 1000
T= K
(R = 8.314J mol −1 K −1 ) [ NEET 2013] energy of activation is E a and 2.303
(a) 342 kJ mol−1 enthalpy of reaction is ∆H (both of
(b) 269 kJ mol−1 these in kJ/mol). Minimum value of 50 The activation energy for a simple
(c) 34.7 kJ mol−1 E a will be [CBSE AIPMT 2010] chemical reaction, A → B is E a in
(d) 15.1 kJ mol−1 (a) less than ∆H forward direction. The activation
Ans. (c) (b) equal to ∆H energy for reverse reaction
Given, initial temperature, (c) more than ∆H [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
T1 = 20 + 273 = 293 K
(d) equal to zero (a) can be less than or more than Ea
Final temperature, Ans. (c) (b) is always double of Ea
T2 = 35 + 273 = 308 K Key Idea In endothermic reactions, (c) is negative of Ea
. J mol −1 K−1
R = 8314 energy of reactants is less than that of (d) is always less than Ea
the products. Ans. (a)
Since, rate becomes double on raising
temperature, Potential energy diagram for endothermic
The energy of activation of reverse
r reactions is
reaction is less than or more than energy
∴ r2 = 2r1 or 2 = 2
r1 of activation (E a ) of forward reaction.
As rate constant, k ∝ r ∴ ∆H = (E a ) F − (E a ) R
k2 Ea' Because it depends upon the nature of
∴ =2 Ea reaction.
k1
Potential P
If (E a ) F > (E a ) R , reaction is endothermic
From Arrhenius equation, we know that Energy
∆H or (E a ) F < (E a ) R , reaction is exothermic
k E a T1 − T2
log 2 = −
R
k1 2.303 R TT1 2 Progress of the reaction 51 The temperature dependence of rate
Ea 293 − 308 constant (k ) of a chemical reaction is
log 2 = − where,
. 293 × 308
2.303 × 8314 written in terms of Arrhenius equation,
E a = activation energy of forward
Ea −15 reaction k = Ae −E */ RT . Activation energy (E*) of
0.3010 = −
. 293 × 308
2.303 × 8314 activation energy of backward reaction the reaction can be calculated by
∴ ∆H = enthalpy of the reaction. plotting [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
0.3010 × 2.303 × 8.314 × 293 × 308 From the above diagram, 1 1
Ea = (a) log k vs (b) log k vs
15 E a = E a′ + ∆H T log T
= 34673.48 J mol −1 1
Thus, E a > ∆H (c) k vs T (d) k vs
= 34.7 kJ mol −1 log T
Chemical Kinetics 99
When a biochemical reaction is carried reaction decide whether the given energy
out in laboratory from outside of human reaction is exothermic or endothermic, (Ea )P
body in the absence of enzyme, then rate so, the energy of activation of reverse
of reaction obtained is 10 –6 times than reaction is either greater or less than Reactant
∆ rH
activation energy of reaction in the 50 kcal. In case of exothermic reaction, Product
presence of enzyme. It is different from the activation energy for reverse
E a obtained in laboratory because for a reaction is more than activation energy Reaction coordinates
given chemical reaction. of the forward reaction and in case of
− E / RT
k = Ae a (Arrhenius equation) endothermic reaction, the activation It is clear from the above plot that the
energy for reverse reaction is less than activation energy of reactant is less than
Also activation energy have different activation energy of the forward the activation energy of products.
value in absence or presence of reaction.
enzyme.
12
Surface Chemistry
TOPIC 1 As the process is exothermic and The value of n is always greater than 1.
randomness of molecule (entropy) So, the value of 1/n lies between 0 and 1
Adsorption and decreases hence, both ∆H and ∆S will be in all cases.
Various Isotherms negative as well.
05 If x is amount of adsorbate and m is
01 The correct option representing a 03 Which of the following statements amount of adsorbent, which of the
Freundlich adsorption isotherm is is correct for the spontaneous following relations is not related to
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] adsorption of a gas? adsorption process?
x x [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) = kp 0. 3 (b) = kp2. 5 (a) ∆S is negative and therefore, ∆H
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
m m x
should be highly positive (a) = f (T ) at constant p
x x m
(c) = kp −0. 5 (d) = kp −1 (b) ∆S is negative and therefore, ∆H
m m x
should be highly negative (b) p = f (T ) at constant
Ans. (a) (c) ∆S is positive and therefore, ∆H m
should be negative x
According to Freundlich adsorption (c) = p × T
isotherm, (d) ∆S is positive and therefore, ∆H m
x should also be highly positive x
= kp1/ n (d) = f (p) at constant T
m Ans. (b) m
x
where, = amount of the gas adsorbed ∆S [change in entropy] and ∆H [change Ans. (c)
m in enthalpy] are related by the equation x
= p × T is the incorrect relation. The
per unit mass of adsorbent ∆G = ∆ H − T ∆S m
p = pressure k and n = constants. [Here, ∆G = change in Gibbs free energy] correct relation is amount of adsorption
x p
The value of n lies in between 0 to 1. For adsorption of a gas, ∆S is negative ∝
x because randomness decreases. Thus, m T
Thus, = kp0. 3 and option (a) is correct.
m in order to make ∆G negative [for
spontaneous reaction], ∆H must be 06 The Langmuir adsorption isotherm
highly negative because reaction is is deduced by using the
02 Which one of the following exothermic. Hence, for the adsorption of
characteristics is associated with assumption that
a gas, if ∆S is negative, therefore, ∆H
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
adsorption? [NEET 2016, Phase I] should be highly negative.
(a) the adsorption takes place in
(a) ∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are negative
multilayers
(b) ∆G and ∆H are negative but ∆S is 04 In Freundlich adsorption isotherm,
(b) the adsorption sites are equivalent in
positive the value of 1/n is their ability to adsorb the particles
(c) ∆G and ∆S are negative but ∆H is [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(c) the heat of adsorption varies with
positive (a) between 0 and 1 in all cases coverage
(d) ∆G is negative but ∆H and ∆S are (b) between 2 and 4 in all cases (d) the adsorbed molecules interact
positive
(c) 1 in case of physical adsorption with each other
Ans. (a) (d) 1 in case of chemisorption Ans. (b)
Adsorption is a spontaneous process Ans. (a) The main points of Langmuir’s theory of
that occurs with release in energy and
In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, adsorption are as
decrease in the randomness (i.e.
x (i) Adsorption takes place on the
entropy) of the adsorbed substance. = kp1/ n
m surface of the solid only till the whole
For a spontaneous process, ∆G must be
Where, x = amount of adsorbent of the surface is completely covered
negative.
with a unimolecular layer of the
∆G = ∆H −T∆S m = amount of adsorbate
adsorbed gas.
Surface Chemistry 101
14 Which mixture of the solutions will I− < SO24− < PO34− < [Fe(CN) 6 ] 4 − . 19 Which property of colloidal solution
lead to the formation of negatively Similarly, to coagulate a negatively is independent of charge on the
charged colloidal [AgI]I − sol ? charged sol, the order of coagulating colloidal particles?
[NEET (National) 2019] power of positive ions is [CBSE AIPMT 2015, 2014]
(a) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI Ag + < Pb2 + < Fe3+ < Si4+ (a) Coagulation
(b) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI (b) Electrophoresis
(c) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI 16 Fog is a colloidal solution of (c) Electroosmosis
[NEET 2016, Phase I]
(d) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI (d) Tyndall effect
Ans. (d) (a) Gas in liquid (b) Solid in gas
Ans. (d)
(c) Gas in gas (d) Liquid in gas
Key Idea The colloidal particles acquire Coagulation is generally brought about
positive or negative charge by Ans. (d)
by the addition of electrolytes. When an
preferential adsorption of positive ions Fog is a colloidal solution of liquid in a electrolyte is added to a colloidal
on negative ions. gas, in which liquid is the dispersed solution, the particles of the sol take up
When silver nitrate (AgNO3) solution is phase whereas gas is the dispersion the ions which are oppositely charged.
added to potassium iodide (KI) solution, medium. Examples of other options are As a result their charge gets neutralised.
the precipitated silver iodide (AgI) as follows: Electrophoresis The movement of
adsorbs iodide ions (I− ) from the Gas in liquid : Shaving cream, soda colloidal particles under an applied
dispersion medium and negatively water, froth electric potential is called
charged colloidal solution results. Solid in gas : Dust in air electrophoresis.
Among the given options, in option (a) Gas in gas : Atmospheric air. Electroosmosis may be defined as a
and option (b) millimole of KI is higher phenomenon in which the molecules of
than AgNO3. Hence, both the mixture will 17 The coagulation values in the dispersion medium are allowed to
lead to the formation of negatively more under the influence of an electric
charged colloidal [AgI]I− sol. millimoles per litre of the
electrolytes used for the field whereas colloidal particles are not
Note The most appropriate option is (a) allowed to more.
because millimole of KI coagulation of As 2 S 3 are given
Tyndall effect is the scattering of light
(50 mL × 2 M = 100 mmol)is maximum in below by sol particles, which cannot be
this option. I. (NaCl) = 52, affected by charge on them.
II. (BaCl 2 ) = 0.69
15 On which of the following 20 The protecting power of lyophilic
properties does the coagulating III. (MgSO 4 ) = 0.22
colloidal sol is expressed in terms
power of an ion depend? The correct order of their of [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
[NEET 2018] coagulating power is (a) coagulation value
(a) Both magnitude and sign of the [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(b) gold number
charge on the ion (a) I > II > III (b) II > I > III
(c) critical micelle concentration
(b) Size of the ion alone (c) III > II > I (d) III > I > II
(d) oxidation number
(c) The magnitude of the charge on the Ans. (c)
ion alone Ans. (b)
Lower the coagulating power, higher is
(d) The sign of charge on the ion alone Lyophobic sols are unstable, so they are
the coagulation value in millimoles per
Ans. (a) stabilised by adding some lyophilic
litre, i.e. coagulating power is inversely
colloids which protect them from
The process of settling of colloidal proportional to coagulation values. Thus,
precipitation. Thus, lyophilic colloids are
particles due to the neutralisation of correct order of coagulating power is
called protecting colloids. Their
their charge by any means is called MgSO4 > BaCl2 > NaCl or III > II > I protecting power is expressed in terms
coagulation. of gold number. In other words, gold
Coagulation power of an ion depends 18 The suspension of slaked lime in number can be defined as the minimum
both on magnitude and sign of the water is known as amount of lyophilic colloid in milligrams,
charge (positive or negative) on the ion. [NEET 2016, Phase II] which prevent the flocculation of 10 mL
This fact can be explained by Hardy gold sol by the addition of 1 mL of 10%
Schulze rule.
(a) limewater
NaCl solution.
(b) quicklime
According to this rule “greater the NOTE Lesser the gold number, higher is
valency of the coagulating (c) milk of lime
the protecting power.
ion/flocculating ion (oppositely charged (d) aqueous solution of slaked lime
ion) added, the greater is its power to Ans. (c) 21 Which one of the following forms
cause coagulation.
Aqueous solution of slaked lime is called micelles in aqueous solution above
To coagulate a positively charged sol, lime water whereas suspension solution
the order of coagulating power of certain concentration?
of slaked lime is called milk of lime. [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
negative ion is
Surface Chemistry 103
Ans. (*) (a) Ca2 + > K + > S2 − > Cl− 17 Amongst the elements with
(No option is correct.) (b) Cl− > S2 − > Ca2 + > K + following electronic configurations,
(a) H− > H+ > H (c) S2 − > Cl− > K + > Ca2 + which one may have the highest
It is known that radius of a cation is (d) K + > Ca2 + > Cl− > S2 − ionisation energy?
always smaller than that of a neutral Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
atom due to decrease in the number of (a) [Ne] 3 s 2 3p 3
Key Idea Ionic radii ∝ charge on anion
orbits. Whereas, the radius of anion is
∝
1 (b) [Ne] 3 s 2 3p2
always greater than a cation due to
decrease in effective nuclear charge. charge on cation (c) [Ar] 3d 10, 4 s 2 4 p 3
Hence, the correct order is During the formation of a cation, the (d) [Ne] 3 s 2 3p 1
H− > H > H+ electrons are lost from the outer shell Ans. (a)
and the remaining electrons experience
(b) Na+ > F − > O2 − Key Idea Across a period, increasing
a great force of attraction by the
The given species are isoelectronic as nuclear charge outweighs the
nucleus, i.e. attracted more towards the
they contain same number of electrons. shielding, hence the outermost
nucleus. In other words, nucleus hold the
For isoelectronic species, remaining electrons more tightly and electrons are held more and more
1 tightly and ionisation energy. increases
Ionic radii ∝ this results in decreased radii.
atomic number across a period while as we move down
However, in case of anion formation, the
Ion: Na+ F − O2 − a group increase in shielding outweighs
addition of electron(s) takes place in the
same outer shell, thus the hold of
the increasing nuclear charge and the
Atomic number : 11 9 8
nucleus on the electrons of outer shell removal of the outermost electron
Hence, the correct order of ionic radii is required less energy down a group.
decreases and this results in increased
O2 − > F − > Na+ Electronic configuration Group
ionic radii.
(c) Similarly, the correct option is [Ne] 3 s 2 3p3 V
Thus, the correct order of ionic radii is
O2 − > F − > Na+ [Ne] 3 s 2 3p2
S2 − > Cl − > K+ > Ca2 + IV
(d) Ions : Al 3+ Mg2 + N3− [Ar] 3d 10 , 4 s 2 4p3 V
Atomic number : 13 12 7 16 Which of the following represents [Ne] 3 s 2 3p1 III
Hence, the correct order is, the correct order of increasing Since, ionisation energy increases in a
N3− > Mg2 + > Al 3+ electron gain enthalpy with period and decreases in a group,
negative sign for the elements [Ne] 3 s 2 3p3 configuration has the
14 Identify the wrong statement in the O, S, F and Cl? [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
highest ionisation energy among the
following. [CBSE AIPMT 2012] given elements.
(a) Cl < F < O < S
(a) Amongst isoelectronic species,
(b) O < S < F < Cl 18 Which of the following oxides is not
smaller the positive charge on the
cation, smaller is the ionic radius (c) F < S < O < Cl expected to react with sodium
(b) Amongst isoelectronic species, (d) S < O < Cl < F hydroxide? [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
greater the negative charge on the Ans. (b) (a) B2O 3 (b) CaO (c) SiO2 (d) BaO
anion, larger is the ionic radius Key Idea Electron gain enthalpy, Ans. (b)
(c) Atomic radius of the elements generally, increases in a period from left
increases as one moves down the to right and decreases in a group on Sodium hydroxide, NaOH, being a strong
first group of the periodic table moving downwards. However, members alkali never react with a basic oxide
(d) Atomic radius of the elements of III period have somewhat higher (compound). Among the given options,
decreases as one moves across electron gain enthalpy as compared to B2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxides,SiO2
from left to right in the 2nd period of the corresponding members of second is an acidic oxide and CaO is a basic
the periodic table period, because of their small size. oxide. Therefore, NaOH does not react
with CaO.
Ans. (a) O and S belong to VI A (16) group and Cl
Atomic radius of the elements and F belong to VII A (17) group. Thus, the
electron gain enthalpy of Cl and F is 19 The correct order of decreasing
decreases across a period from left to
higher as compared to O and S. second ionisation enthalpy of
right due to increase in effective nuclear
charge. On moving down a group, since, Cl and F > O and S Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) and Mn(25) is
number of shells increases, so atomic [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
Between Cl and F, Cl has higher electron
radius increases. gain enthalpy then the F, since the (a) Cr > Mn > V > Ti
Amongst isoelectronic species, ionic incoming electron experiences a greater (b) V > Mn > Cr > Ti
radius increases with increase in force of repulsion because of small size (c) Mn > Cr > Ti > V
negative charge or decrease in positive of F-atom. Similar is true in case of (d) Ti > V > Cr > Mn
charge. O and S, i.e. the electron gain enthalpy
of S is higher as compared to O due to
Ans. (a)
15 The correct order of the its small size. Thus, the correct order The amount of energy required to
of electron gain enthalpy of given remove an electron from unipositive ion
decreasing ionic radii among the is referred as second ionisation
elements is
following isoelectronic species is potential.
O < S < F < Cl
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 107
Li, Be, B and C are present in IInd period. Order of attraction of electrons towards
So, the correct order of size is as In a period from left to right ionisation nucleus is2 s > 2 p, so more amount of
Ca2 + < K+ < Ar < Cl – < S2 – potential increases. energy is required to remove the
Ionisation potention increases electron from 2 s orbital in comparison
22 Ionic radii are [CBSE AIPMT 2004] → to 2p orbital. So, ionisation potential of
Li Be B C
(a) inversely proportional to effective Be is 9.32 eV and B is 8.29 eV.
* But in case of Be and B, Be has higher
nuclear charge
ionisation potential than B due to stable
(b) inversely proportional to square of configuration of Be.
27 In crystals of which of the following
effective nuclear charge ionic compounds would you expect
4 Be = 1s , 2s
2 2
(c) directly proportional to effective maximum distance between
nuclear charge Stable configuration
(due to fully-filled orbital) centres of cations and anions?
(d) directly proportional to square of [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
effective nuclear charge 2 s2
2 2 1 (a) LiF (b) CsF
5B = 1s , 2 s 2p
(c) CsI (d) LiI
108 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Ans. (c) the atomic volume first decreases and Ans. (c)
On moving from top to bottom in a group then increases because atomic size in N, O, F are more electronegative
of periodic table distance between ions last of any period increases. element, so they accept electrons more
in ionic compounds increases. Hence, it easily and form negative ions (anions).
is maximum in CsI. 32 One of the characteristic
properties of non-metals is that 36 The ionisation of hydrogen atom
28 Which one of the following ions will they [CBSE AIPMT 1993] would give rise to
be smallest in size? (a) are reducing agents [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
[CBSE AIPMT 1996] (b) form basic oxides (a) hydride ion (b) hydronium ion
(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ (c) F − (d) O2− (c) form cations by electron gain (c) proton (d) hydroxyl ion
Ans. (b) (d) are electronegative Ans. (c)
Na+ ,Mg2 + , O2 − and F − all are isoelectronic Ans. (d) Hydrogen have one proton and one
but Mg2 + have 12 protons in his nucleus, Non-metals easily gain electrons and electron, when it ionise, i.e. it lose one
so the attraction force on last shell is hence, they form negative ions, so they electron, then only proton is left in the
maximum and hence, it have smallest are electronegative in nature. nucleus, soH+ ion is formed during
size. ionisation which is also called proton.
33 Na + , Mg 2+ , Al 3+ and Si 4+ are H → H+ + e −
e − = 1
29 Among the following, the one Proton
isoelectronic. The order of their p= 1
which is most basic is
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] ionic size is [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
37 In the periodic table, with the
(a) ZnO (b) MgO (a) Na+ > Mg2+ < Al3+ < Si4+
increase in atomic number, the
(c) Al2O 3 (d) N2O 5 (b) Na+ < Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+
metallic character of an element
Ans. (b) (c) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
(d) Na+ < Mg2+ > Al3+ < Si4+
ZnO and Al2O3 are amphoteric oxide,N2O5 (a) decrease in a period and increases in
is oxide of non-metal, so it is acidic and Ans. (c) a group
hence, MgO is most basic among In isoelectronic species the number of (b) ncreases in a period and decreases
Al2O3, ZnO, N2O5 and MgO. electrons are same but nuclear charge in a group
is different. As the nuclear charge (c) increases in a period as well as in the
30 Which electronic configuration of increase, the attraction force on last group
an element has abnormally high electron increases, so the size (d) decreases in a period and also in the
difference between second and decreases or in other words group
1
third ionisation energy? Ionic size ∝ and Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] Charge on cation
In periodic table, the metallic character
(a) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 1 hence, order is increases down the group because the
(b) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3p 1 Na+ > Mg2 + > Al 3+ > Si4+ ionisation enthalpy decreases down the
→ group and metallic character decreases
(c) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3p2
from left to right because the ionisation
(d) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 Nuclear charge increase
→ enthalpy increases from left to right.
Ans. (d) Size decrease
When the element having 38 Pauling’s electronegativity values
1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3 s 2 configuration, loss two 34 One would expect proton to have for elements are useful in
electrons, then it acquire the electronic very large [CBSE AIPMT 1993] predicting [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
configuration of noble gas (Ne), so to (a) charge (a) polarity of the molecules
remove third electron a large amount of (b) ionisation potential (b) position in the emf series
energy is required and hence, its second (c) hydration energy (c) coordination numbers
and third ionisation energy have large (d) radius (d) dipole moments
difference. Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
Proton have very small size, so have Pauling’s electronegativity values are
31 In the periodic table from left to
large hydration energy. The degree of useful in determination of polarity of the
right in a period, the atomic volume hydration depends upon the size of the bond in molecules. If electronegativity
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] cation. Smaller the size of a cation difference is zero, then the molecule is
(a) decreases greater the hydration energy. non-polar otherwise it is polar.
(b) increases x A − x B = 0.028 ∆ E
(c) remains same 35 Which of the following sets has
x A and x B are electronegativities of the
(d) first decrease then increases strongest tendency to form
atoms A and B respectively. While,
Ans. (d) anions? [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
∆ E = actual bond energy
In the periodic table the atomic size first (a) Ga, In, TI (b) Na, Mg, Al
− EA − A × EB − B
decreases from left to right in period, so (c) N, O, F (d) V, Cr, Mn
14
General Principles and
Processes of Isolation
of Metals
TOPIC 1 03 Considering Ellingham diagram, 04 Roasting of sulphides gives the gas
Occurrence, Thermodynamic which of the following metals can X as a by-product. This is a
and Electrochemical be used to reduce alumina? colourless gas with choking smell
Principles of Metallurgy [NEET 2018] of burnt sulphur and causes great
(a) Mg (b) Zn damage to respiratory organs as a
(c) Fe (d) Cu result of acid rain. Its aqueous
01 Identify the incorrect statement.
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] Ans. (a) solution is acidic acts as a reducing
(a) The scientific and technological Key concept Ellingham diagrams help us agent and its acid has never been
process used for isolation of the in predicting the feasibility of thermal insolated. The gas X is [NEET 2013]
metal from its ore is known as reduction of an ore. The criterion of
(a) H2 S (b) SO2 (c) CO2 (d) SO 3
metallurgy feasibility is that at a given temperature,
(b) Minerals are naturally occurring Gibbs energy of the reaction must be Ans. (b)
chemical substances in the earth’s negative. SO2 gas is obtained when any sulphide
crust Gibbs energy ∆G °vsT plots (schematic) ore is roasted.
(c) Ores are minerals that may contain a for formation of some oxides (Ellingham ∆ 2 M2O + 2 SO2
2 M2S + 3 O2 →
metal diagram). This gas exhibits all the characteristics
(d) Gangue is an ore contaminated with According to Ellingham diagram, the that are given in the question.
undesired materials temperature at which two lines intersect
Ans. (d) shows that the metal will reduce the 05 Which one of the following is a
oxide of other metals which lie above it
The earthly impurities like sand, clay, in Ellingham diagram.
mineral of iron? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
mica, etc., associated with ores are (a) Malachite (b) Cassiterite
0
called gangue or matrix. In other words, –100 (c) Pyrolusite (d) Magnetite
2Cu 2O
contaminated undesired materials –200
4Cu+O 2
present in an ore is called gangue. Thus, 2FeO Ans. (d)
DG°/kJ mol–1of O2
This method is useful for removing all of the impurity in the molten state than in this process 99.9% pure aluminium
the oxygen and nitrogen present in the the solid. metal is obtained.
form of impurity in certain metals like Zr Elements which are used as The cell used for this process consist of
and Ti. semiconductors like Si, Ge, Ga etc, are three layers. In this cell pure Al acts as
refined by this method. Gallium arsenide cathode and anode is made up of impure
25 The method of zone refining of and indium antimonide (also used as Al.
metals is based on the principle of semiconductor) are also refined by this
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] method. 27 Elemental silicon to be used as a
(a) greater noble character of the solid semiconductor is purified by
metal than that of the impurity 26 Purification of aluminium by [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(b) greater solubility of the impurity in electrolytic refining is known as (a) heating under vacuum
the molten state than in the solid [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(b) floatation
(c) greater mobility of the pure metal (a) Hall’s process (c) zone refining
than that of impurity (b) Baeyer's process (d) electrolysis
(d) higher melting point of the impurity (c) Hoope's process
than that of the pure metal
Ans. (c)
(d) Serpeck's process
Ans. (b) Zone refining is used for metals which
Ans. (c) are required in very high purity.
The method of zone refining of metals is Purification of aluminium by electrolytic Semiconductor grade silicon is purified
based on the principle of greater solubility refining is known as Hoope’s process. By by this method (Si, Ge).
15
Hydrogen
TOPIC 1 Protium is the most common isotopes of
TOPIC 2
hydrogen with an abundance of 99.98%.
Preparation and
Properties of Hydrogen
Hydrides and Water
03 ‘‘Metals are usually not found as
nitrates in their ores’’. 04 Match the following and identify the
01 Tritium, a radioactive isotope of [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
correct option. [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
hydrogen, emits which of the Out of the following two (I and II)
following particles? [NEET 2021] reasons which is/are true for the A. CO(g ) + H2 (g ) (i) Mg(HCO 3) 2 +
(a) Beta (β − ) (b) Alpha (α) above observation? Ca(HCO 3) 2
(c) Gamma (γ) (d) Neutron (n) I. Metal nitrates are highly B. Temporary (ii) An electron
Ans. (a) hardness of deficient
unstable. water hydride
Tritium ( 31 H) is an isotope of hydrogen. It II. Metal nitrates are highly soluble
is a radioactive isotope and decays by C. B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
emitting beta-particle ( β − ) to form 23He+ . in water.
D. H2O 2 (iv) Non-planar
3
→ 23He+ + e− (a) I and II are true structure
1H
Tritium β-particle (β – ) (b) I and II are false
+ 18.6 keV (c) I is false but II is true A B C D A B C D
(d) I is true but II is false (a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
02 Which of the following statements
Ans. (c) (c) (i) (ii) (ii) (iv) (d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
about hydrogen is incorrect?
[NEET 2016, Phase I] Metals are usually not found as nitrates Ans. (d)
in their ores, because metal nitrates are So, correct combinations are:
(a) Hydrogen never acts as cation in
highly soluble in water.
ionic salts (a)—(iii), (b)—(i), (c)—(ii), (d)—(iv)
(b) Hydronium ion, H 3O + exists freely in For example,KNO3 (salt peter) would be (a) Water gas (CO + H2 ) is also known as
solution classified as completely soluble. synthesis gas (iii).
(c) Dihydrogen does not act as a Thus, KNO3 could be expected to (b) Temporary hardness of water is due
reducing agent dissociate completely in aqueous to the presence ofHCO−3 radicals of
(d) Hydrogen has three isotopes of solution to give K+ and NO−3 ions. Mg2 + and/or Ca2 + ion(s) (i).
+ −
which tritium is the most common KNO3 eK (aq) + NO (aq) 3 (c) Boron atoms of B2H6 are
Ans. (c,d) The nitrate anion has three equivalent sp3-hybridised but due to the
oxygen surrounding a central nitrogen presence of twoB H B bonds
• For ionic salts, hydrogen never
behaves as cation, but behaves as atom. (3C2e − ), B2H6 becomes as an
electron deficient hydride (ii).
anion (H− ). This tends to spread the single negative
(d) H2O2 has a book-shaped non-planar
• H3 O + exists freely in solution. charge and make it easier for water
structure (iv).
• Dihydrogen acts as a reducing agent. (using hydrogen bonds) to separate the
ions in solution. H
• Hydrogen has three isotopes. – – O
O O O
• Protium (11H)
• Deuterium (21 H) N N N O
• Tritium (31 H) – – – – H
O O O O O O
Non-planar structure
114 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
08 Which of the following is known as Ans. (a) 15 HCl was passed through a solution
fusion mixture? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] The ionic radii of alkali metal increases of CaCl 2 , MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of
(a) Mixture of Na2CO 3 + NaHCO 3 as the atomic number increases when the following compound(s)
we move from top to bottom because on
(b) Na2CO 3 ⋅10H2O crystallise(s)? [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
moving down the group, there is a
(c) Mixture of K2CO 3 + Na2CO 3 increase in the number of shells and (a) Only NaCl (b) Only MgCl2
(d) NaHCO 3 therefore, ionic radii increases. (c) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
Ans. (c) (d) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
A mixture of Na2 CO3 and K2 CO3 is used as Ans. (a)
a fusion mixture. TOPIC 2 Let us explain the crystallisation process
by a flow-sheet diagram.
09 Which of the following elements is Group 2 Elements
Aqueous solution : Filtration
extracted commercially by the (Alkaline Earth Metals) CaCl2+MgCl2+NaCl Insoluble
Filtrate
electrolysis of an aqueous solution impurities Excess of
of its compound? get removed HCl(g) is
13 Among the following alkaline earth passed
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
metal halides, one which is
(a) Cl (b) Br (c) Al (d) Na covalent and soluble in organic Aqueous solution
Crystals of
Ans. (d) solvents is [NEET 2021] pure NaCl(s) of CaCl2 and MgCl2
Sodium is prepared by electrolysis of as these are more
(a) calcium chloride soluble than NaCl
molten NaCl as (b) strontium chloride
Electrolysis
2NaCl → 2Na + Cl2 (c) magnesium chloride
16 What is the role of gypsum,
At cathode : 2Cl – + 2 e − → Cl2 (d) beryllium chloride
CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H2O is setting of cement?
At anode : 2Na → 2Na+ + 2e − Ans. (d)
Identify the correct option from the
On moving down the group, the ionic size following. [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
10 Which of the following has largest of alkaline earth metals increases. So,
(a) to fasten the setting process
size? [CBSE AIPMT1993] due to small size ofBe2 + ion, Be has
highest polarising power [ability to attract (b) to provide water molecules for
(a) Na the electron cloud of anion (Cl − )]. hydration process
(b) Na+ (c) to help to remove water molecules
∴ BeCl2 is more covalent than other
(c) Na– alkaline earth metal halides. (d) to slow down the setting process
(d) Can’t be predicted Organic molecules are covalent in Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) nature. Rule for solubility is “Like Gypsum (CaSO4 ⋅2H2O) is present in
Na− has largest size because anion is dissolves like”. So,BeCl2 is soluble in cement (Portland cement) by a mass of
always larger than neutral atom and organic solvents as both are covalent in 2-3%.
cation is smaller than neutral atom. So nature. Gypsum slow down the process of
the order is given as setting of cement so that it gets
Na− > Na > Na+ 14 The structures of beryllium sufficiently hardened.
Anion > Parental atom > Cation chloride in solid state and vapour
phase, are [NEET 2021] 17 Which of the following is an
11 Washing soda has formula (a) chain and dimer, respectively amphoteric hydroxide?
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] (b) linear in both [NEET (National) 2019]
(a) Na2CO 3 ⋅ 7H2O (b) Na2CO 3 ⋅10H2O (c) dimer and linear, respectively (a) Ca(OH)2 (b) Mg(OH)2
(c) Na2CO 3 ⋅ 3H2O (d) Na2CO 3 (d) chain in both (c) Be(OH)2 (d) Sr(OH)2
Ans. (b) Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
Washing soda is chemicaly named as Beryllium chloride (BeCl2 ) is an electron Be(OH)2 is amphoteric in nature as it
sodium carbonate decahydrate, so its deficient compound. So, it does not exist reacts with acid and alkali both as :
formula is Na2 CO3 ⋅ 10H2O. in its monomer form. Be(OH)2 + 2HCl → BeCl2 + 2H2O
In solid state and vapour phase,BeCl2 Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH → Na2 [Be(OH) 4 ]
12 Which one of the following exists in chain and dimer forms This amphoteric nature of Be is due to
properties of alkali metals respectively. small size of Be. The other hydroxides of
increases in magnitude as the Cl Cl Cl alkaline earth metals are basic in nature.
Be Be Be
atomic number rises?
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] Cl Cl Cl 18 The product obtained as a result of
(a) Ionic radius
Chain form a reaction of nitrogen with CaC 2 is
Cl [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(b) Melting point Cl Be Be Cl
(c) Electronegativity (a) CaCN (b) CaCN 3
Cl (c) Ca2 CN (d) Ca(CN)2
(d) First ionisation energy Dimer form
s-Block Elements 117
(c) Plaster of Paris is obtained by partial (c) Ca and CaH2 36 Which of the following metal
oxidation of gypsum (d) Ba and BaO2 evolves hydrogen on reacting with
(d) Gypsum contains a lower percentage Ans. (c)
of calcium than plaster of Paris
cold dilute HNO 3 ?
Ca and CaH2 gives H2 and calcium [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (d) hydroxide when reacted with water. (a) Mg (b) Al
The formula of gypsum is CaSO4 ⋅2H2O Ca + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2 ↑ (c) Fe (d) Cu
and that of plaster of Paris is CaH2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH) 2 + 2H2 ↑ Ans. (a)
(CaSO4 )2 ⋅2H2O, so the percentage of Ca
in plaster of Paris is more than gypsum. Magnesium react with cold and dilute
33 Which one of the following has nitric acid to form hydrogen.
29 Which of the following statement is minimum value of size of Mg + 2HNO3 → Mg(NO3)2 + H2
false? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] cation/anion ratio?
(a) Strontium decomposes water readily [CBSE AIPMT 1993] 37 Which one of the following atoms
than beryllium (a) NaCl (b) KCl will have the smallest size?
(b) BaCO3 melts at a higher temperature (c) MgCl2 (d) CaF2 [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
than CaCO3 Ans. (c) (a) Mg (b) Na
(c) Barium hydroxide is more soluble in
water than Mg(OH)2 The size of Mg2 + is minimum amongNa+ , (c) Be (d) Li
Ca2 + , K+ and Mg2 + and size of Cl − is more Ans. (c)
(d) Beryllium hydroxide is more basic
than F − , so the ratio of size of cation and
than barium hydroxide Atomic size increases down the group
anion are minimum inMgCl2 .
Ans. (d) and decreases in period from left to
right. So, Be is smallest in size in these
The size of beryllium is very small and 34 When chlorine is passed over dry elements.
the hydroxide formed by it, are
amphoteric in nature, so its hydroxide is slaked lime at room temperature,
Alkali Alkaline earth
less basic than barium hydroxide. the main reaction product is metal metal
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] Group 1 Group 2
30 Which of the following metal ions (a) Ca(ClO2 )2 (b) CaCl2
play an important role in muscle (c) CaOCl2 (d) Ca(OCl)2 Li Be
contraction? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Ans. (c) Size increases
Na Mg
(a) K + (b) Na+ (c) Mg2+ (d) Ca2+ When chlorine gas is passed over dry
Ans. (d) slaked lime, it form bleaching powder i.e.
CaOCl2 . Size decreases
Calcium ion (Ca2 + ) play an important role
in muscle contraction. Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
38 Bleaching powder is obtained by
31 The formula for calcium chlorite is 35 Compared with the alkaline earth the action of chlorine gas and
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
metals, the alkali metals exhibit
(a) Ca(ClO 4 )2 (b) Ca(ClO 3)2 [CBSE AIPMT 1990] (a) dilute solution of Ca(OH)2
(c) CaClO2 (d) Ca(ClO2 )2 (a) smaller ionic radii (b) concentrated solution of Ca(OH)2
Ans. (d) (b) higher boiling points (c) dry CaO
The formula of calcium chlorite is (c) greater hardness (d) dry slaked lime
Ca(ClO2 )2 . (d) lower ionisation energies Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) Bleaching powder is prepared by passing
32 All the following substances react chlorine gas over dry slaked lime Ca(OH)2
with water. The pair that gives the Alkali metals have the lowest ionisation
enthalpy in each period because alkali by Hesenclaver method or by Bachmann
same gaseous product is metals are largest in their respective method.
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] periods and therefore, the valency Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
(a) K and CO2 electrons are loosely held by the
(b) Na and Na2O2 nucleus.
17
p-Block Elements
TOPIC 1 03 AlF 3 is soluble in HF only in 06 Which one of the following
Group 13 Elements molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis
presence of KF. It is due to the
acid? [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
formation of [NEET 2016, Phase II]
01 Which one of the following (a) K 3 [AIF3H3] (b) K 3 [AIF6]
(a) NH3 (b) H2O
elements is unable to form MF63− (c) AIH 3 (d) K [AIF3H]
(c) B2H6 (d) CH4
ion? [NEET 2018] Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
(a) B (b) Al Key Idea Electron deficient molecules
(c) Ga (d) In Key Idea Al 3+ shows maximum behave as Lewis acid.
coordination number 6, thus it will form
Ans. (a) Among the given molecules, only
AlF63− .
diborane is electron deficient, i.e. does
Boron belongs to 2nd period of the AlF3 forms K3 [AlF6 ] when dissolved in HF not have complete octet. Thus, it acts as
periodic table with electronic in the presence of KF as shown below: a Lewis acid.
configuration 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p1. It does not HF
have vacant d-orbitals, thus cannot AlF3 + 3KF → K3 [AlF6 ] NH3 and H2O being electron rich
increase its covalency above four. molecules behave as Lewis base.
Therefore, boron (B) cannot form MF63− 04 The stability of +1 oxidation state
ion. In contrast, aluminium (Al), gallium among Al, Ga, In and Tl increases 07 The tendency of BF3 , BCl 3 and
(Ga), indium (In) have the vacant in the sequence [CBSE AIPMT 2015] BBr 3 behave as Lewis acid
3d-orbitals, thus can increase their decreases in the sequence
covalence above four and form MF63− ion. (a) Ga < ln < Al < Tl (b) Al < Ga < ln < Tl
(c) Tl< ln < Ga < Al (d) ln < Tl < Ga < Al [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
08 The stability of +1 oxidation state 11 Which one of the following Ans. (a)
increases in the sequence statements about the zeolites is In diborane 3 centred 2 electron bond is
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] false? [CBSE AIPMT 2004] present.
(a) Al < Ga < In < Tl (b) Tl < In < Ga < Al H H H
(a) They are used as cation exchangers
(c) In < Tl < Ga < Al (d) Ga < In < Al < Tl (b) They have open structure which B B
Ans. (a) enables them to take up small H H H
molecules Diborane
The given elements belong to third (3c -2 e bond present)
(c) Zeolites are aluminosilicates having
group. These elements mainly exhibit +3
three dimensional network
and +1 oxidation states. As we know, the
(d) Some of the SiO4–
15 Which of the following statements
stability of lower oxidation state, 4 units are replaced
by AlO54 – and AlO96 – ions in zeolites about H3BO 3 is not correct?
increases on moving down a group due [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
to inert pair effect. Thus, the sequence Ans. (d) (a) It is a strong tribasic acid
of stability of +1 state is
Zeolites are aluminosilicates having (b) It is prepared by acidifying an
Al < Ga < In < Tl three dimensional open structure in aqueous solution of borax
which four or six membered rings (c) It has a layer structure in which
09 Al 2O3 can be converted into predominates. Thus, due to open chain planar BO3 units are joined by
anhydrous AlCl 3 by heating structure, they have cavities and can hydrogen bonds
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] take up water and other small molecules.
(d) It does not act as proton donor but
(a) Al2O3 with HCl gas acts as a Lewis acid by accepting
(b) Al2O3 with NaCl in solid state 12 In borax bead test which hydroxyl ion
(c) a mixture of Al2O3 and carbon in dry compound is formed? Ans. (a)
Cl2 gas [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
Boric acid (H3BO3) is a weak monobasic
(d) Al2O3 with Cl2 gas (a) Ortho borate (b) Meta borate acid withK a = 1.0 × 10 −9 .It may be noted
Ans. (c) (c) Double oxide (d) Tetra borate that boric acid does not act as a protonic
Al2O3 may be converted into anhyd. AlCl 3 Ans. (b) acid (i.e. proton donor) but behaves as a
by heating a mixture of Al2O3 and carbon In borax bead test the coloured meta Lewis acid by accepting a pair of
in dry chlorine. borates are formed by transition metal electrons from OH− ion.
salts. B(OH) 3 + 2H — O — H →
Al2O3 + 3C + 3Cl2 → Al2 Cl 6
∆ [B(OH) 4 ] – + H3O+
Hot and dry AnhyAlCl3 Na2B4O7 ⋅ 10H2O → Na2B4O7
–10H2O
NOTE Anhydrous AlCl 3 exists in the form
of dimer as Al2 Cl 6 ∆ 2NaBO2 + B2O3
→ TOPIC 2
B2O3 + CuO → Cu(BO2 ) 2
10 Which of the following is the Cupric metaborate Group 14 Elements
(Blue bead)
electron deficient molecule?
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] 16 Which of the following oxide is
(a) B2H6 (b) C2H6 13 Among the following the electron
amphoteric in nature?
(c) PH3 (d) SiH4 deficient compound is [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
Ans. (a) (a) SnO2 (b) SiO2
(a) BCl3 (b) CCl4 (c) PCl5 (d) BeCl2 (c) GeO2 (d) CO2
B2H6 is electron deficient molecule
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
because boron atom has three half-filled
orbitals in excited state. The structure of Cl
In BCl 3 Cl —B boron contains six Nature of dioxides (MO2 ) of group 14
B2H6 is represented as follows: elements can be represented as.
Cl
H CO2 SiO2 GeO2 SnO2 PbO2
electrons in its valence shell so, it is
H 97° H capable to accommodate one pair of Acidic oxides Amphoteric oxides
electrons. Hence, it acts as Lewis acid or Hence, option (a) is correct.
122° B B 122° electron deficient (incomplete octate)
compound. As we know that Lewis acids
H Å 97° H are the substances having a tendency to
17 Identify the correct statements
1.19 3Å
1.3 accept a pair of electron. from the following:
H
1. CO 2 (g) is used as refrigerant
1.77Å
14 Which of the following compound for ice-cream and frozen
has a 3-centre bond? food.
In it two electrons of aB H bond are [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
involved in formation of three centre 2. The structure of C 60 contains
(a) Diborane (b) CO2 twelve six carbon rings and
bond, these bonds are represented as
dotted lines. (c) Boron trifluoride twenty five carbon rings.
(d) Ammonia
p-Block Elements 121
Ans. (c) exhaust fumes and when fossil fuels are Due to the presence of one replaceable
In gaseous and liquid phases,PCl 5 has a burnt as well as produced during proton in phosphinic acid, it is
trigonal bipyramidal structure with thunderstorms. In each case NO is monoprotic acid. And due to presence of
sp3d-hybridisation. formed first and thenNO2 . two replaceable proton in phosphonic
acid, it is diprotic acid.
Axial
Cl 39 The species, having bond angles of
Cl bond
202
120° is [NEET 2017] 41 Among the following, which one is
90°
a wrong statement?
120°
Cl—— P pm
(a) PH3 (b) ClF3 (c) NCl3 (d) BCl3
[NEET 2016, Phase II]
Equatorial 240 Cl Ans. (d)
bond
pm
Cl (a) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist
The species having bond angles of 120°
(b) pπ-dπ bonds are present in SO2
Due to presence of longer and weaker is BCl 3. It is sp2 -hybridised and central
axial bonds PCl 5 is a reactive molecule. atom does not have any lone pair of (c) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape
Hence, statement in option (c) is electrons. (d) I+3 has bent geometry
incorrect while the remaining options Ans. (c)
Chemical
contain correct statements. Species Bond angle
formula PH5 does not exist due to very less
electronegativity difference between P
PH 3 93.5°
37 The correct order of N-compounds and H. Hydrogen is slightly more
in its decreasing order of oxidation P electronegative than phosphorus, thus
states is [NEET 2018] could not hold significantly the sharing
H H H electrons.
(a) HNO 3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (Pyramidal) On the other hand,BiCl 5 does not exist
(b) HNO 3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 due to inert pair effect.
(c) HNO 3, NO, N2 , NH4Cl ClF3 F 90°
On moving down the group, +5 oxidation
(d) NH4Cl, N2 , NO, HNO 3 Cl F state becomes less stable while +3
Ans. (c) oxidation state becomes more stable.
F In SO2 , pπ-dπ and pπ-pπ both types of
Let the oxidation state of nitrogen in (T-shaped)
each of the given N-compounds be x. bonds are present
(i) HNO3 : + 1 + x + 3 (−2) = 0 NCl 3 N 107.8°
x=+5 Cl Cl Cl
∴Oxidation state of N inHNO3 is +5. (Pyramidal)
(ii) NO : x + 1(−2) = 0
x = +2 BCl 3 Cl 120°
∴Oxidation state of N in NO is +2. B
(iii) NH4 Cl : x + 4(+1) + 1(−1) = 0 Cl
Cl Thus, SeF4 and CH4 do not have same
x = −3 (Trigonal planar) shape.
∴ Oxidation state of N inNH4 Cl is −3.
(iv) N2 : x = 0 [QN2 is present in elemental r
state] 40 Which is the correct statement for
∴Oxidation state of N inN2 is 0. the given acids? I
Thus, the correct decreasing order of [NEET 2016, Phase I]
I I
oxidation states of given N- (a) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid
Geometry-Bent
compounds will be while phosphonic acid is a diprotic
+5 +2 0 −3 acid
HN O3 > NO >N2 > NH4 Cl Thus, option (c) is incorrect statement.
(b) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid
while phosphonic acid is a
42 Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is
38 Which oxide of nitrogen is not a monoprotic acid
(c) Both are triprotic acids
present in which of the following?
common pollutant introduced into [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
the atmosphere both due to natural (d) Both are diprotic acids
(a) NO2 (b) NO2–
and human activity? Ans. (a)
[NEET 2018] (c) NO2+ (d) NO –3
(a) N2O (b) NO2 Phosphinic acid Ans. (c)
(c) N2O 5 (d) NO O
Ans. (c) Species Hybridisation Bond angle
P
H OH NO 2 sp less than 120°
Nitrous oxide (N2O) , nitrogen dioxide
(NO2 ) and nitric oxide (NO) are the H
NO −2 sp 2
115.4°
common pollutant introduced into the Phosphonic acid
atmosphere. O NO 2+ sp ( linear) 180°
N2O occurs naturally in environment. NO NO −3 sp 2 120°
P
and NO2 causes considerable amount of HO H
air pollution. They are given off in car HO So, NO2+ has maximum bond angle.
124 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
52 Repeated use of which one of the 55 An aqueous solution of sodium 59 Cane sugar on reaction with nitric
following fertilizers would increase carbonate absorbs NO and NO 2 to acid gives [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
the acidity of the soil? give [CBSE AIPMT 1996] (a) CO2 and SO2 (b) 2HCOOH
(a) Urea [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (a) CO2 + NaNO 3 (c) (COOH)2 (d) no reaction
(b) Superphosphate of lime (b) CO2 + NaNO2 Ans. (c)
(c) Ammonium sulphate (c) NaNO2 + CO When nitric acid reacts with cane sugar,
(d) Potassium nitrate (d) NaNO 3 + CO it forms oxalic acid.
Ans. (c) Ans. (c) COOH
C12H22O11 + 18[O] → 6 + 5H2O
The fertilizer ammonium sulphate is a 2Na2 CO3 + NO + 3NO2 → 4NaNO2 + CO COOH
Cane sugar From
salt of weak base and strong acid, thus nitric acid Oxalic acid
its aqueous solution is acidic, so it 56 Which of the following fluorides
produces acidity. does not exist? [CBSE AIPMT 1993] 60 Number of electrons shared in the
(a) NF5 (b) PF5 formation of nitrogen molecule is
53 The structural formula of (c) AsF5 (d) SbF5 [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
hypophosphorous acid is (a) 6 (b) 10
Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Nitrogen does not form pentahalide (c) 2 (d) 8
O
|| because it does not have vacant Ans. (a)
(a) P d-orbital. Nitrogen molecule is formed by sharing
|
H OH of three electrons by each nitrogen, so
H
57 H3PO 2 is the molecular formula of total number of electrons shared are six.
O
|| an acid of phosphorous. Its name
(b) P and basicity respectively are N N ⇒ N N ⇒N N
|
OH [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
H OH
(a) phosphorous acid and 2
O
|| (b) hypophosphorous acid and 2 61 Which is used in the laboratory for
(c) P (c) hypophosphorous acid and one fast drying of neutral gases?
| (d) hypophosphoric acid and two [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
HO H OH
Ans. (c) (a) P2O 5
O The name ofH3PO2 is hypophosphorous (b) Anhyd. CaCl2
|| acid when dissolve in water, it gives only (c) Activated charcoal
(d) P one H+ , so its basicity is one. (d) Na3PO 4
|
OH O O Ans. (a)
HO OH
Ans. (a) P → H+ + P P2O5 absorb moisture, so it is used as a
Hypophosphorous acid (H3PO2 ) is H OH H O– drying agent for neutral gases.
H H
monobasic acid, so its structure is
O 62 Pure nitrogen is prepared in the
58 Nitrogen is relatively inactive laboratory by heating a mixture of
P element because [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
H OH [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
H (a) NH4OH + NaCl (b) NH4NO 3 + NaCl
(a) its atom has a stable electronic (c) NH4Cl + NaOH (d) NH4Cl + NaNO2
configuration
54 Which of the following oxides will (b) it has low atomic radius
Ans. (d)
be the least acidic? (c) its electronegativity is fairly high In the laboratory dinitrogen is prepared
[CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(d) dissociation energy of its molecule is by heating an aqueous solution
(a) As4O 6 (b) As4O 10 fairly high containing an equivalent amount of
(c) P4O 10 (d) P4O 6 ammonium chloride and sodium nitrite.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) NH4 Cl(aq) + NaNO2 (aq) →
Heat
N2 (g)
Dinitrogen (N2 ) is chemically unreactive
As the oxidation state of central atom at ordinary temperature. The N—N bond + 2 H2O(l ) + NaCl
increases the acidic character in nitrogen molecule is a triple bond
increases, so the correct order of acidic (N ≡≡ N) with a bond distance of 109.8 pm 63 PH4I + NaOH forms
character is and bond dissociation energy of 946 kJ
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
+5 +3 +5 +3 mol −1. The low reactivity of nitrogen is
P4 O10 >P4 O6 > A s4 O10 > A s4 O6 due to fairly high bond dissociation (a) PH3 (b) NH3
and hence, As4O6 is least acidic. energy of the molecule. (c) P4O 6 (d) P4O 10
126 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Ans. (a) 68 Which of the following statements 72 Which of the following compound
When PH4I and NaOH react, phosphine is not correct for nitrogen? does not exist? [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
gas is obtained. [CBSE AIPMT 1990] (a) NCl5 (b) AsF5
PH4I + NaOH → PH3 + NaI + H2O (a) Its electronegativity is very high (c) SbCl5 (d) PF5
(b) d-orbitals are available for bonding Ans. (a)
64 PCl 3 reacts with water to form (c) It is a typical non-metal
Nitrogen does not formNCl 5 (nitrogen
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] (d) Its molecular size is small
pentachloride) because nitrogen does
(a) PH3 (b) H3PO 3, HCl Ans. (b) not have vacant d-orbital, so it can form
(c) POCl3 (d) H3PO 4 Nitrogen does not have vacant d-orbital only NCl 3.
Ans. (b) in its outermost shell.
PCl 3 is easily hydrolysed by water to give N(7) = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p3 73 Which of the following is a nitric
POCl 3 and finally it givesH3PO3 and HCl. acid anhydride? [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
=
PCl 3 + H2O → POCl 3 + 2HCl (a) NO (b) NO2
POCl 3 + 3H2O → H3PO3 + 3HCl 1s 2s 2p (c) N2O 5 (d) N2O 3
Ans. (c)
65 Basicity of orthophosphoric acid is 69 Which one has the lowest boiling Dinitrogen pentaoxide (N2O5 ) is prepared
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] point? [CBSE AIPMT 1989] by dehydrating the concentrated nitric
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) NH3 (b) PH3 acid with phosphorus pentoxide.
(c) 4 (d) 5 (c) AsCl3 (d) SbH3 4HNO 3 + P4O 10 → 2N2O 5 + HPO 3
Ans. (b) Ans. (b) So, N2O5 is regarded as anhydride of
Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4 ) have the In the hydrides of group 15, the boiling HNO3.
following structure points changes as
O NH3 > PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
TOPIC 4
P 238.5 K 185.5 K 210.6 K 254.6 K 290 K
HO OH
OH
∴Generally mass increases then boiling Group 16 Elements
point increases.
It is clear from the structure that it The higher boiling point ofNH3 is due to
contains three replaceable hydrogen excessive hydrogen bonding, soPH3
74 In which one of the following
atoms, so it gives threeH+ ions on have lowest boiling point among arrangements the given sequence
dissolution in water. So, the basicity of hydrides of group number 15, i.e. is not strictly according to the
H3PO4 is three. nitrogen family. properties indicated against it?
H3PO4 → 3H+ + PO34− [NEET 2021]
70 When orthophosphoric acid is (a) HF< HCI < HBr < HI : Increasing
66 P2O 5 is heated with water to give heated to 600°C, the product acidic strength
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] formed is [CBSE AIPMT 1989] (b) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing
(a) PH3 (b) P2O 5 (c) H3PO 3 (d) HPO 3 pK a values
(a) hypophosphorous acid
(c) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing
(b) phosphorous acid Ans. (d) acidic character
(c) hypophosphoric acid When orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4 ) is (d) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbP2 : Increasing
(d) orthophosphoric acid heated and dehydration takes place. It oxidising power
Ans. (d) form metaphosphoric acid (HPO3).
Ans. (b)
∆
When P2O5 (or P4O10 ) is heated with water, H3PO4 → HPO3 + H2O HF < HCl < HBr < HI; Down the group,
600 ° C
it form orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4 ). size of atom increases, bond length
P4O10 + 6H2O → 4H3PO4 decreases and bond enthalpy decreases.
71 Each of the following is true for So, acidic strength increases.
67 Aqueous solution of ammonia white and red phosphorus except ∴ The given sequence is correct
consists of [CBSE AIPMT 1991] that they [CBSE AIPMT 1989] H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te, pK a is inversely
(a) H+ (a) both are soluble in CS2 proportional to acidic strength. So, pK a
decreases.
(b) OH− (b) can be oxidised by heating in air
∴ The given sequence is incorrect.
(c) NH+4 (c) consist of the same kind of atoms
(d) NH+4 and OH− (d) can be converted into one another NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3; Acidic
Ans. (a) character increases down the group,
Ans. (d)
∴ The given sequence is correct.
When ammonia dissolve in water, it form White and red phosphorus are the main
allotropes of phosphorus. White CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbP2 ; on moving
ammonium hydroxide which is ionise as down the group oxidising power
given below phosphorus is soluble in carbon
disulphide whereas red phosphorus is increases.
NH3 + H2O → NH4OH ºNH+4 + OH– ∴ The given sequence is correct.
insoluble in carbon disulphide.
p-Block Elements 127
75 Which of the following oxoacid of Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl 3 + 3H2O Ans. (b)
sulphur has O O linkage? Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O For group 16 elements, the hydrides with
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] (D) Cl2O7 It is an acidic oxide and high molar mass (e.g.H2 Po) are less
(a) H2 SO 4 , sulphuric acid produces a very strong acid, thermally stable than hydride with lower
(b) H2 S2O 8 , peroxodisulphuric acid perchloric acid inH2O. molar mass (e.g.H2O). This is due to the
(c) H2 S2O 7 , pyrosulphuric acid Cl2O7 + H2O → 2HClO4 increase in size of central atom which
results to the weakening of MHbond
(d) H2SO3, sulphurous acid due to increased bond length.
77 Identify the correct formula of
Ans. (b) Thus, the correct order of thermal
oleum from the following
The structure of given sulphur oxyacids [NEET (Odisha) 2019] stability for
are : H2 E(E = O, S, Se, Te and Po) is as follows:
(a) H2 S2O 7 (b) H2 SO 3
l H2SO4 (Sulphuric acid) ⇒ (c) H2 SO 4 (d) H2 S2O 8 H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
O Ans. (a)
HOSOH The correct formula of oleum isH2 S2O7 80 In which pair of ions both the
which is also known as pyrosulphuric
O acid.
species contain S S bond?
l H2S2O8 (Peroxodisulphuric acid) ⇒ [NEET 2017]
O O
Peroxy linkage (a) S2O27− , S2O23−
O O HO—S—O—S—OH (b) S4O26− , S2O23−
HOSO OSOH
O O
(c) S2O27− , S2O28−
O O (d) S4O26− , S2O27−
l
H2S2O7 (Pyrosulphuric acid) ⇒ 78 Match the oxide given in column A Ans. (b)
l
H2S2O7 (Pyrosulphuric acid) ⇒ with its property given in column B. S 4O26− and S2O23− have S—S bond
O O Which of the following options has O 2–
O– S–
HOSO SOH all correct pairs? S S O
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] O S S S
O O O– O O
l
H2SO3 (Sulphurous acid) ⇒ Column-A Column-B O O
O 1. Na 2O i. Neutral 1
(S4O62–) Thiosulphate ion
HOSOH 2. Al 2O 3 ii. Basic (tetrathionate) (S2O32–)
3. N 2O iii. Acidic
76 Match the following. 4. Cl 2O 7 iv. Amphoteric 81 Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is
Oxide Nature
a moderately strong oxidising
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 agent. Which of the following
A. CO (i) Basic (a) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (b)(iii), (ii), (i), (iv) reaction does not show oxidising
B. BaO (ii) Neutral (c) (i), (ii), (ii), (iii) (d)(ii), (iv), (i), (iii) behaviour? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
Ans. (d) (a) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
C. Al 2O 3 (iii) Acidic
Key Idea Metal oxides are basic, (b) 3S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + 2H2O
D. Cl 2O 7 (iv) Amphoteric non-metal oxides are acidic while (c) C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
semi-metal oxides are amphoteric in
Which of the following is correct nature. Thus, the basic character of (d) CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
option? [NEET (Sep.) 2020] oxides decreases across the period and Ans. (d)
increases down the group. Key Idea An oxidising agent is a species,
A B C D A B C D
The correct match of oxide with its which oxidises the other species and
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) property are as follows: itself gets reduced.
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Na2O- Basic Al2O3- Amphoteric 0 +2
(i) Cu+ 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
Ans. (a) N2O- Neutral Cl2O7 - Acidic
0 +4
The correct matching is : Thus, option (d) is correct. (ii) 3S+ 2H2SO4 → 3 S O2 + 2H2O
(A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) 0 +4
(A) CO It is a neutral oxide and almost 79 Which is the correct thermal (iii) C+ H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
insoluble in water. stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, +2 –1 +2 –1
(iv) C aF2 + H2SO4 → C aSO4 + 2HF
(B) BaO It is basic oxide. Te and Po)? [NEET (National) 2019]
BaO + H2O → Ba(OH)2 (a) H2O < H2 S < H2 Se < H2Te < H2Po In reaction (iv), oxidation number of
(C) Al2O 3 It is an amphoteric oxide, (b) H2Po < H2Te < H2 Se < H2 S < H2O elements remains unchanged. Thus, in
because it reacts with both acids and this reaction,H2SO4 does not act as an
(c) H2 Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2 S
alkalis. oxidising agent.
(d) H2 S < H2O < H2 Se < H2Te < H2Po
128 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
82 Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur (c) Number of electrons in ONF = 24 S to Te size increases, bond dissociation
dioxide have some properties in Number of electrons inNO2 = 24 enthalpy decreases and acidic nature
∴ ONF and NO2 both are increases.
common. Which property is shown
isoelectronic.
by one of these compounds, but (d) OF2 is a fluoride of oxygen because 87 Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by
not by the other? [CBSE AIPMT 2015] electronegativity of fluorine is more which of the following reaction?
(a) Forms’ acid-rain than that of oxygen. [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(b) Is a reducing agent OF2 = Oxygen difluoride ∆
(c) Is soluble in water (a) CaSO 4 + C →
(d) Is used as a food-preservative 85 The formation of the oxide ion ∆
(b) Fe2 (SO 4 ) 3 →
Ans. (a) O 2− (g), from oxygen atom requires
first an exothermic and then an ∆
Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide (c) S + H2 SO 4 →
forms acid rain. ‘Acid rain’ is the rain endothermic step as shown below, ∆
water containing sulphuric acid and [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (d) H2 SO 4 + PCl5 →
nitric acid. O(g )+ e − → O−(g ); Ans. (b)
HNO2 + 2H2O + O2 → 4HNO3 ∆f H° = −141 kJmol−1 ∆
(a) CaSO4 + C → CaO + SO2 + CO
2SO2 + 2H2O + O2 → 2H2SO4
∆
(b) NO2 and SO2 act as a good reducing
O−(g ) + e − → O2−(g ); (b) Fe2 (SO4 ) 3 → Fe2O3 + 3 SO3
agent
∆
e.g. SO2 reduces halogens to halogen ∆f H° = +780 kJ mol−1 (c) S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + 2H2O
acid Thus, process of formation ofO 2− ∆
(d) H2SO4 + PCl 5 → SO3HCl
Cl2 + 2H2O + SO2 → 2HCl + H2SO4 in gas phase is unfavourable even Chloro sulphonic acid
(c) NO2 and SO2 both are soluble in water.
though O 2− is isoelectronic with + POCl 3 + HCl
(d) SO2 is used in the manufacture of
neon. It is due to the fact that Thus, SO3 is obtained by heating
sodium bisulphite (NaHSO3) which is
(a) electron repulsion outweighs the Fe2 (SO4 ) 3.
used as a preservative for jams,
jellies and squashes. stability gained by achieving noble
gas configuration 88 Which one of the following oxides
83 Decreasing order of stability of (b) O− ion has comparatively smaller is expected to exhibit
size than paramagnetic behaviour?
O 2 ,O −2 ,O +2 and O 2−
2 is oxygen atom
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(c) Oxygen is more electronegative (a) CO2 (b) SO2
(a) O2+ > O2 > O2− > O22 − (d) addition of electron in oxygen result (c) ClO2 (d) SiO2
(b) O22 − > O2− > O2 > O2+ in large size of the ion
(c) O2 > O2+ > O22 − > O2− Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
(d) O2− > O22 − > O2+ > O2 ClO2 shows paramagnetic character due
Since, electron repulsion predominate to presence of unpaired electron in its
Ans. (a) over the stability gained by achieving structure.
Order of stability ∝ bond order noble gas configuration. Hence,
formation of O2 − in gas phase is Cl
∴Order of the stability of given species, unfavourable.
+
O2+ > O2 > O2− > O22 − O O
Bond order 2.5 2 1.5 1 86 Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous
solutions increases in the order 89 The oxidation states of sulphur in
84 Which of the statements given [CBSE AIPMT 2014] the anions SO 2– 2– 2−
3 , S 2O 4 and S 2O 6
below is incorrect? (a) H2 S < H2 Se < H2Te follows the order
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] (b) H2 Se < H2 S < H2Te [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
(a) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid (c) H2Te < H2 S < H2 Se (a) S2O2– 2– 2–
4 < S2O 6 < SO 3
(b) O3 molecule is bent (d) H2 Se < H2Te < H2 S (b) S2O 6 < S2O 4 < SO2–
2– 2–
3
(c) ONF is isoelectronic withNO2
Ans. (a) (c) S2O2– 2– 2–
4 < SO 3 < S2O 6
(d) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine (d) SO2– 2– 2–
3 < S2O 4 < S2O 6
Acidic strength of hydrides increases as
Ans. (d) Ans. (c)
the size of central atom increases which
(a) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid weakens the MH bond. Since, the size Oxidation state of S inSO23−
∆ Cl2O7
2HClO4 → increases from S to Te thus acidic x + (− 2 × 3) = − 2.
−H2 O strength follows the order. x = + 6−2= + 4
(b) Shape of O3 molecule is bent. H2S < H2Se < H2Te Oxidation state of S inS2O24−
Acidic nature 2 x + (–2 × 4) = –2
1
∝ 2x = + 8 − 2 = + 6
O Bond dissociation enthalpy +6
O x= =+3
O 2
p-Block Elements 129
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II Time Saver If someone know correct to accept an electron. Thus, option
are true. match of B, i.e. (iii) then according to the (b) is correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II options (c) is the only correct answer as (c) All halogens form monobasic
are false. this match is given in this option only. oxyacids. Thus, option (c) is also
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II correct.
is false. 102 The correct structure of (d) Electron gain enthalpy of halogens
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II tribromooctaoxide is become less negative down the
is true. [NEET (National) 2019]
group. However, the negative
O electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is
Ans. (a) O O less than chlorine due to small size of
–
The order of acidic strength is (a) O == BrBrBrO fluorine atom.
HF << HCl << HBr << HI O– Thus, option (d) is also correct.
O O–
As we move down the group, the size of O
atom increases. Thus, the bond length O O– 104 In the structure of ClF3 , the number
–
also increases and bond enthalpy (b) O Br Br Br == O–
decreases. So, it becomes easier to
of lone pairs of electrons on central
break H—X bond on moving down the
–
O O– O– atom ‘Cl’ is [NEET 2018]
group. This results the increase in the O O– O (a) four (b) two
acidic strength. (c) one (d) three
(c) O == BrBrBrO –
So, both statements I and II are true. Ans. (b)
O O– O–
The central atom Cl has seven electrons
101 Match the following : O O O in the valence shell. Three of these will
A. Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine (d) O == BrBrBr==O form electron pair bonds with three
fluorine atoms leaving behind four
B. Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid O O O electrons.
C. Contact (iii) Ammonia Ans. (d) F
process
The correct structure of F Cl
D. Deacon’s (iv) Sodium azide tribromooctaoxide is
process or barium O F
O O
azide
Thus, there are three bond pairs and two
O=
=Br—Br—Br=
=O
Which of the following is the lone pairs of electrons.
correct option? O O O
[NEET (National) 2019] In this compound, Br exhibits variable 105 Match the interhalogen compounds
A B C D oxidation state. The oxidation state of Br of Column I with the geometry in
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) from left to right are + 6, + 4 and + 6, Column II and assign the correct
respectively. code. [NEET 2017]
(b) (iii (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 103 Which of the following statements Column I Column II
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) is not true for halogens? A. XX′ (i) T- shape
Ans. (c) [NEET 2018]
B. XX′ 3 (ii) Pentagonal
The correct match is as follows : (a) All but fluorine show positive bipyramidal
oxidation states
(A) Pure nitrogen Pure nitrogen can be C. XX′ 5 (iii) Linear
obtained by thermal decomposition (b) All are oxidising agents
of sodium or barium azide. (c) All form monobasic oxyacids D. XX′ 7 (iv) Square-pyramidal
∆ Ba + 3N2
Ba(N3)2 → (d) Chlorine has the highest (v) Tetrahedral
electron-gain enthalpy
2NaN3 → ∆ 2Na + 3N2
(B) Haber’s process On large scale, Ans. (a) Code
ammonia is manufactured by Haber’s Fluorine is the most electronegative A B C D
process. element and cannot exhibit any positive
oxidation state. Other halogens have
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) -
2NH3 (g)
d-orbitals and therefore, can expand (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) Contact process Sulphuric acid is
manufactured by the contact their octets and show +1, +3, +5 and +7 (c) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
process. oxidation states. Thus, option (a) is
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
incorrect.
(D) Deacon’s process Chlorine is Ans. (b)
prepared by Deacon’s process. Note Fluorine can form an oxoacid, HOF
CuCl in which oxidation state ofF is +1. But Two different halogens may react to
4HCl + O2 2→ 2Cl2 + 2H2O. form interhalogen compounds as
HOF is highly unstable compound.
Hence, the correct match is (b) All halogens are strong oxidising XX′ (ClF, BrF, BrCl, IF, ICl) Linear
(A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C)→ (ii), (D) → (i) agents as they have strong tendency
XX′ 3 (ClF3, BrF3, IF3, ICl 3) Bent T-shaped
p-Block Elements 131
115 Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the (c) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable (c) Both MnO2 and KMnO 4
than Mn(II) in aqueous state (d) Either MnO2 and KMnO 4
element which can form more than
(d) Elements of 15th group shows only Ans. (c)
one binary compound with chlorine +3 and +5 oxidation states
is [CBSE AIPMT 2004] MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Ans. (b)
(a) Fe (b) Zn (c) K (d) Ca 2KMnO4 + 16HCl → 2KCl + 2MnCl2
Bond energy ofF2 is less than Cl2
Ans. (a) + 8H2O + 5Cl2
because inF2 molecule electron-electron
A binary compound is that compound repulsion of 2p-orbital of two fluorine
which is formed by two different atom is maximum in comparison to the 122 Which of the following elements
elements. Metals or elements which repulsion of 3p-orbitals of two chlorine has maximum electron affinity?
shows variable oxidation states can form atom. So, less amount of energy is [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
more than one binary compound. In the required to break the bond ofF2 in (a) Cl (b) Br
given elements only Fe shows +2 and +3 comparison to Cl2 . (c) I (d) F
oxidation states. So, it can form two
Ans. (a)
binary compounds with chlorine asFeCl2 119 Which reaction is not feasible?
and FeCl 3. [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
The electron affinity decreases from
Cl → Br → I, i.e. on moving down the
(a) 2KI + Br2 → 3KBr + I2 group. However, electron affinity of
116 Which is the best description of
(b) 2KBr + I2 → 2KI + Br2 fluorine is unexpected low. It cannot be
behaviour of bromine in the
(c) 2KBr + Cl2 → 2KCl + Br2 explained by any simple mechanism. It is
reaction given below? probably due to small size of the atom.
(d) 2H2O + 2F2 → 4HF + O2
H2O + Br 2 → HBr + HOBr Ans. (b)
The addition of an extra electron
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] produces high electron charge density in
(a) Only oxidised 2KBr + I2 → 2KI + Br2 a relatively compact 2p subshell
(b) Only reduced Reaction is not possible becauseBr − ion resulting in strong electron-electron
is not oxidised in Br2 with I2 due to higher repulsion. The repulsive forces between
(c) Both oxidised and reduced electrons imply low electron affinity. So,
electrode potential ofI2 than bromine.
(d) Only proton accepted the correct order of electron affinity for
In halogens, fluorine can displace chlorine
Ans. (c) bromine and iodine, chlorine can displace halogens is
In the reaction, bromine and iodine and bromide can I < Br < F < Cl
0 +1 –1 displace iodine from their salts.
H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr 123 Regarding F − and Cl − which of the
The oxidation number of bromine 120 Which one of the following following statement (s) is/are
increases from 0 to + 1 and decreases arrangements does not truly correct?
from 0 to − 1, due to this reason bromine
is both oxidised as well as reduced in the
represent the property indicated I. Cl − can give up an electron
above reaction.
against it? [CBSE AIPMT 2000] more easily than F − .
(a) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 Oxidising power II. Cl − is a better reducing agent
117 Which of the following statement is (b) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 Electronegativity than F − .
not true? [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (c) Br2 < F2 < Cl2 Electron affinity III. Cl − is smaller in size than F − .
(a) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr (d) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 Bond energy IV. F − can be oxidised more
(b) HF is a stronger acid than HCl Ans. (d) readily than Cl − .
(c) Among halide ions, iodide is the most sbond dissociation enthalpy of halogens [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
powerful reducing agent follows the sequency as : (a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
(d) Fluorine is the only halogen that does
not show a variable oxidation state Cl2 > Br > F2 > I2 (c) III and IV (d) Only I
Enthalpy of dissociation decreass as the Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
bond distance increases fromF2 to I2 due
Due to strong H—F bond,H+ ions are not The electronegativity of F − ion is high, so
to a corresponding increase in size of
easily removed due to higher it accept an electron and Cl − ion can give
the atom as one move down the group
electronegativity (EN) of F. Hence more an electron more easily. Also the size of
from F to I. However, the F-F bond
bond dissociation energy required. F − is smaller than chloride ion (Cl − ).
dissociation enthalpy is smaller than that
1 of Cl-Cl (even than that of Br-Br) because
Acidic nature ∝ 124 HI can be prepared by all the
Bond dissociation energy F-atom is very small and hence
So, HF is not a stronger acid than HCl. electron-electron repulsion between the following methods except
lone pairs of electrons are very large. [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
125 Which one of the following oxides Bromide ion when treated with Cl2 gas Ans. (a)
then form chloride ion and Br2 gas
of chlorine is obtained by passing When bleaching powder reacts with HCl,
liberated. it form chlorine gas.
dry chlorine over silver chlorate at
90°C? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] 130 Strongest hydrogen bonding is CaOCl2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + Cl2
(a) Cl2O (b) ClO 3 shown by [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(c) ClO2 (d) ClO 4
Ans. (c)
(a) water (b) ammonia TOPIC 6
(c) HF
2 AgClO3 + Cl2 (dry) →
Heat
2AgCl (d) hydrogen sulphide Group 18 Elements
+ 2ClO2 + O2
Ans. (c)
HF has strongest hydrogen bonding due 135 Noble gases are named because of
126 Which among the following is to the fact that it have small size and their inertness towards reactivity.
paramagnetic? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] high electronegativity. Identify an incorrect statement
(a) Cl2O (b) ClO2 (c) Cl2O 7 (d) Cl2O 6
about them. [NEET 2021]
131 Elements of which of the following (a) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in
Ans. (b) groups will form anions most water.
ClO2 contains total valence electrons 19, readily? [CBSE AIPMT 1992] (b) Noble gases have very high melting
7 valence electrons of Cl (a) Oxygen family (b) Nitrogen family and boiling points.
6 valence electrons of one oxygen atom (c) Halogens (d) Alkali metals (c) Noble gases have weak dispersion
So there must be unpaired electron, thus forces.
Ans. (c)
it is paramagnetic in nature. (d) Noble gases have large positive
Halogens have maximum electron gain values of electron gain enthalpy.
enthalpy due to the fact that the atoms Ans. (b)
127 A solution of KBr is treated with of these elements have only one
each of the following. Which one electron less than the stable noble gas (a) Noble gases or inert gases are
would liberate bromine? (ns 2 np6 ) configuration. Therefore, they sparingly soluble in water as they are
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] have maximum tendency to accept the non-polar in nature. For solubility the
electron to form negative ion (anion). thumb rule is “Like dissolves like”.
(a) Hydrogen iodide
∴ Statement (a) is correct.
(b) Sulphur dioxide
132 Which of the following bonds will (b) Nobles gases have weak interatomic
(c) Chlorine forces (van der Waals’ forces). So,
(d) Iodine be most polar? [CBSE AIPMT 1992) they have low melting and boiling
Ans. (c) (a) N—Cl (b) O—F (c) N—F (d) N—N points.
Chlorine is good oxidising agent than Ans. (c) ∴ Statement (b) is incorrect.
bromine, so, Cl2 oxidise Br − to bromine. The polar character arises due to the (c) Noble gases have weak London
2KBr + Cl2 → 2KCl + Br2 difference in electronegativity. The dispersion forces which is weaker
electronegativity difference of N—F than all other intermolecular forces.
128 Which of the following species has bond is maximum, so it is more polar ∴ Statement (c) is correct.
bond. (d) The last shell of noble gas have 8
four lone pairs of electrons?
electrons. They have stable
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
133 The bleaching action of chlorine is electronic configuration. So, addition
(a) I (b) O − of an electron is difficult. Hence, they
(c) Cl− (d) He
due to [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
have large positive values of electron
(a) reduction (b) hydrogenation gain enthalpy.
Ans. (c)
(c) chloronation (d) oxidation ∴ Statement (d) is correct.
Cl − has eight electrons in it valence shell,
•• – Ans. (d)
so its Lewis dot structure is •• Cl •• thus, it
•• When chlorine react with water it gives 136 Match the compounds of Xe in
has four lone pairs of electrons. nascent oxygen which bleaches the column I with the molecular
coloured substances. structure in column II.
129 In the manufacture of bromine H2O + Cl2 → 2HCl + [O] [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
from sea water the mother liquor Coloured substance +
Column I Column II
containing bromide is treated with [O] → Colourless substance
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] A. XeF2 I. Square planar
(a) carbon dioxide
134 Bleaching powder reacts with a B. XeF4 II. Linear
(b) chlorine few drops of conc. HCl to give C. XeO 3 III. Square pyramidal
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
(c) iodine D. XeOF4 IV. Pyramidal
(d) sulphur dioxide (a) chlorine
(b) hypochlorous acid A B C D A B C D
Ans. (b)
(c) calcium oxide (a) II I III IV (b) II IV III I
Cl2 + 2Br – → Br2 + 2Cl – (d) oxygen
(c) II III I IV (d) II I IV III
134 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
06 Match the metal ions given in The complex which contains unpaired 09 Which of the following does not
electrons exhibitd-d transition and
Column I with the spin magnetic give oxygen on heating? [NEET 2013]
paramagnetism.
moments of the ions given in (a) KClO 3 (b) Zn(ClO 3)2
(i) In MnO−4 ,
Column II and assign the correct (c) K2Cr2O 7 (d) (NH4 )2 Cr2O 7
The electronic configuration ofMn7 + is
code : [NEET 2018]
[Ar]3d 0 . Ans. (d)
Column I Column II Number of unpaired electrons = 0 Oxygen rich compounds like chlorate,
3+ perchlorate, K2 Cr2O7 , etc. when heated
1. Co i. 8 BM Therefore, it will be diamagnetic and
gives oxygen but ammonium dichromate
will not showd-d transition.
2. Cr 3+ ii. 35 BM gives nitrogen gas when heated.
(ii) In Cr2O27− ,
3. Fe 3+ iii. 3 BM ∆
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3 O2 ↑
The electronic configuration of Cr 6 + is
4. Ni 2 + iv. 24 BM [Ar]3d 0 . ∆
2Zn(ClO3)2 → ZnCl2 + 3 O2
v. 15 BM Number of unpaired electrons = 0
∆
So, it will be diamagnetic and will not 4K2 Cr2O7 → 4K2 CrO4
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 show d-d transition. Potassium Potassium
(a) iv i ii iii (b) i ii iii iv dichromate chromate
(iii) In CrO24− ,
(c) iv v ii i (d) iii v i ii + 2Cr2O3 + 3 O2 ↑
The electronic configuration of Cr 6 + is Chromic
Ans. (c) [Ar]3d 0 . oxide
∆
Key Concept Spin magnetic moment can Number of unpaired electrons = 0 (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 → N2 ↑ + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
be calculated as Therefore, it is also diamagnetic and
µ = n(n + 2) BM will not showd-d transition. 10 Which of the following statements
where, µ = magnetic moment (iv) In MnO24− , The electronic about the interstitial compounds is
BM = Bohr Magneton (unit of µ) configuration of Mn is [Ar] 3d 1.
6+
incorrect? [NEET 2013]
n = number of unpaired electrons Number of unpaired electrons = 1 (a) They retain metallic conductivity
in d-orbital. Since, it contains one unpaired (b) They are chemically reactive
The electronic configuration of Co3+ is electron so it will exhibit bothd-d (c) They are much harder than the pure
[Ar] 3d 6 . transition and paramagnetism. metal
Here, n = 4 (d) They have higher melting points than
08 Magnetic moment 2.84 BM is given the pure metals
µ = 4(4 + 2) = 24 BM
The electronic configuration of Cr 3+ is by (At. no. Ans. (b)
[Ar]3d 3. Ni =28, Ti=22, Cr =24, Co = 27) Interstitial compounds are obtained
Here, n = 3 [CBSE AIPMT 2015, 2014] when small atoms like H, B, C, N, etc., fit
into the interstitial space of lattice
µ = 3 (3 + 2) = 15BM (a) Ni2 + (b) Ti3+
3+ metals. These retain metallic
The electronic configuration ofFe3+ is (c) Cr (d) Co2+ conductivity. These resemble the parent
[Ar]3d 5 . Ans. (a) metal in chemical properties (reactivity)
Here, n = 5 Magnetic moment,µ = n(n + 2) BM but differ in physical properties like
where, hardness, melting point, etc.
µ = 5 (5 + 2) = 35 BM
n = number of unpaired electrons 11 The d-electron configurations of
The electronic configuration ofNi2 + is
[Ar] 3d 8 . µ = 2. 84 (given) Cr 2+ , Mn2+ Fe 2+ and Co 2+ are
Here, n = 2 ∴ 2.84 = n(n + 2) B.M d 4 , d 5 , d 6 and d 7 respectively.
µ = 2 (2 + 2) = 8 BM (2. 84)2 = n(n + 2)
Which one of the following will
So, the correct option is (c). 8 = n2 + 2n exhibit minimum paramagnetic
n + 2n − 8 = 0
2
behaviour? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
07 Which one of the following ions n2 + 4n − 2n − 8 = 0
exhibits d-d transition and (At. no.
n (n + 4) − 2(n + 4) = 0 Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
paramagnetism as well? [NEET 2018]
n=2 (a) [Fe(H2O) 6] 2+ (b) [Co(H2O) 6] 2+
(a) MnO −4 (b) Cr2O2− 2− 2−
7 (c) CrO 4 (d) MnO 4 2+
Ni = [Ar]3d 8 4s 0 (two unpaired
Ans. (d) (c) [Cr(H2O) 6] 2+ (d) [Mn(H2O) 6] 2+
electrons)
Ans. (b)
Key Concept In d-d transition, an electron Ti3+ = [Ar] 3d14s 0 (one unpaired
in a d-orbital of the metal is excited by a Cr2+ : d4 (4 unpaired
electrons) electrons)
photon to another d-orbital of higher
energy. Cr 3+ = [Ar] 3d 3, (three unpaired Mn2+ : d5 (5 unpaired
electrons)
Paramagnetism The complex compound electrons)
(4 unpaired
which contains unpaired electrons shows Co2 + = [Ar], 3d 7 , 4s 0 (three unpaired Fe2+ : d6 electrons)
paramagnetism while which contains electrons) (3 unpaired
paired electrons shows diamagnetism. Co2+ : d7
So, only Ni2 + has 2 unpaired electrons. electrons)
d- and f-Block Elements 137
∴ [Co(H2O) 6 ]2 + has minimum number of Ans. (c) (a) Ni2+ , Ti3+ (b) Sc 3+ , Ti3+
unpaired electrons and thus, shows In general, the atomic and ionic radii (c) Sc 3+ , Co2+ (d) Ni2+ , Cu +
minimum paramagnetic behaviour. increases on moving down a group but Ans. (a)
Higher the unpaired e – . the elements of second transition series
(Zr, Nb, Mo) have almost same radii as 28 Ni = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 ,3 s 2 3 p6 3d 8, 4s 2
Higher the magnetic moment 2+
the elements of third transition series Ni = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 3d 8
µ = n(n + 2)
(Hf, Ta, W, etc). This is because of
n = Number of unpaired e – 3d
8
lanthanoid contraction, i.e. imperfect
shielding of one4f e − by another. (2 unpaired electrons)
12 For the four successive transition
22 Ti = 1s , 2 s 2p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 3d2 ,4s 2
2 2
elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the 15 Which one of the following ions is 3+
stability of +2 oxidation state will the most stable in aqueous Ti = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 3d 1
be there in which of the following solution? [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(1 unpaired electron)
order ? [CBSE AIPMT 2011] Sc = 1s 2
, 2 s 2
2p 6
, 3 s 2
3p6 3d 1,4s 2
(At. no. Ti = 22, V = 23,Cr = 24, 21
3+
(At. no. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Sc = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3 s 3p6
2 2 6 2
Mn = 25)
Fe = 26, Co = 27) (a) Cr 3+ (b) V 3+ (c) Ti3+ (d) Mn3+
(no unpaired electron)
(a) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr 29 Cu = 1s 2
, 2 s 2
2p 6
, 3s 2 3p6 3d 10 ,4s 1
Ans. (d) +
(b) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr Cu = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3 s 2 3p6 3d 10
2 2 6
Stability of transition metal ions is (no unpaired electron)
(c) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
directly proportional to the unpaired
(d) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
electrons. The exactly half-filled and Hence, in the above ions,Ni2 + and Ti3+
Ans. (d) completely filled d-orbitals are extra are coloured in aqueous solution due to
stable. the presence of unpaired electrons in d
This can be understood on the basis of
subshell.
E ° values for M2 +/M. Cr 3+ (21) = 3d 3, 4s 0 (3 unpaired electrons)
E °/V Cr Mn Fe Co V 3+ (20) = 3d2 , 4s 0 (2 unpaired electrons) 18 The aqueous solution containing
M2 +/M – 0.90 –1.18 –0.44 –0.28 Ti3+ (19) = 3d 1, 4s 0 (1 unpaired electron) which one of the following ions will
E ° value for Mn is more negative than Mn3+ (22) = 3d 4 , 4s 0 (4 unpaired electrons) be colourless ?
expected from general trend due to So, Mn3+ ion is most stable in aqueous
extra stability of half-filled electronic solution. (At. no. Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22,Mn
configuration of Mn2 + ion. = 25) [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
Thus, the correct order should be 16 The d electron configurations of (a) Sc 3+ (b) Fe2+
Mn > Cr > Fe > Co Cr 2+ , Mn 2+ , Fe 2+ and Ni 2+ are 3d 4 , (c) Ti3+ (d) Mn2+
An examination of E ° values for redox 3d 5 ,3d 6 and 3d 8 respectively. Ans. (a)
couple M3 / M2 + shows that Cr2 + is strong
Which one of the following aqua 21Sc = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 1, 4s 2
reducing agent (E ° 3 + 2 + = 0.41 V) and So, Sc = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6
3+
M /M complexes will exhibit the
liberatesH2 from dilute acids. minimum paramagnetic behaviour? (It is colourless due to the absence of
2Cr2 + (aq) + 2H + (aq) → 2Cr 3+ (aq) + H2 ↑ (g) unpaired electrons in d sub-shell)
(At. no. of Cr = 24,Mn = 25, Fe = 26,
26 Fe = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s
2 2 6 2 6 6 2
∴ The correct order is Mn > Fe > Cr > Co.
Ni = 28) [CBSE AIPMT 2007] 2+
Fe = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3s 3p 3d
2 2 6 2 6 6
13 Which one of the following ions has (a) [Fe(H2O) 6] 2+ (b) [Ni(H2O) 6] 2+
d
(c) [Cr(H2O) 6] 2+ (d) [Mn(H2O) 6] 2+
electronic configuration [Ar]3 d 6 ?
Ans. (b)
(At. no. Mn = 25, Fe = 26,
As the number of unpaired electron (It is coloured due to the presence of
Co = 27, Ni = 28)
increases, the magnetic moment four unpaired electrons in d sub-shell)
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
22 Ti = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s
increases and hence, the paramagnetic 2 2 6 2 6 2 2
(a) Ni3+ (b) Mn3+ (c) Fe 3+ (d) Co 3+ behaviour increases. 3+
Ti = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3s 3p 3d
2 2 6 2 6 1
Ans. (d) So, Cr2 + (22) = 3d 4 (4 unpaired electrons)
d
Ni3+ (28) = [Ar] 3d 7 Mn2 + (23) = 3d 5 (5 unpaired electrons)
Mn3+ (25) = [Ar] 3d 4 Fe2 + (24) = 3d 6 (4 unpaired electrons)
Fe3+ (26) = [Ar] 3d 5 Ni2 + (26) = 3d 8 (2 unpaired electrons) (It is coloured due to the presence of an
3+ unpaired electron ind sub-shell)
Co (27) = [Ar] 3d So, [Ni(H2O) 6 ]2 + exhibit minimum
6
19 Four successive members of the 21 Which one of the following Ans. (d)
first row transition elements are characteristics of the transition The electronic configuration of Sc is
listed below with their atomic metals is associated with their 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 3d 1, 4s 2
numbers. Which one of them is catalytic activity? and configuration of Sc 3+ is
expected to have the highest third [CBSE AIPMT 2003] 1 s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6
3+
ionisation enthalpy? (a) Colour of hydrated ions So, Sc is colourless due to absence of
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] (b) Variable oxidation states electrons in d-orbital.
(a) Vanadium (Z = 23) (c) High enthalpy of atomisation
(b) Chromium (Z = 24) (d) Paramagnetic behaviour 25 Bell-metal is an alloy of
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(c) Iron (Z = 26) Ans. (b)
(a) Cu + Pb (b) Cu + Sn
(d) Manganese (Z = 25) The catalytic activity of transitional
(c) Cu + Zn (d) Cu + Ni
metals is due to their variable oxidation
Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
states.
In 23V = 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 3, 4s 2 Bell-metal is an alloy of copper and tin.
Third electron which is removed to give 22 The basic character of the Cu = 80% and Sn = 20%.
third ionisation potential, belongs to3d 3 transition metal monoxides follows It is used for making bells, utensils, etc.
subshell. the order [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
24 Cr = 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 5 , 4s 1 (At. no. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, 26 Which of the following has more
Third electron which is removed to give Fe = 26) unpaired d-electrons?
third ionisation potential, belongs to3d 5 (a) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(b) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO +
subshell. (a) Zn (b) Fe2+
26 Fe = 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s
2 2 6 2 6 6 2 (c) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO (c) N3+ (d) Cu +
(d) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO Ans. (b)
Third electron which is removed to give
third ionisation potential, belongs to3d 6 Ans. (b)
Zn+ (at. no.= 30) = 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2p6 ,
subshell. The order of basic character of the 3 s 2 3p6 3d 10 ,4s 1
Mn = 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 5 , 4s 2 transition metal monoxide is TiO > VO >
25 (no unpaired d-electrons)
CrO> FeO because basic character of
Third electron which is removed to give oxides decreases with increase in Fe2 + (at .no.= 26) = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 ,
third ionisation potential, belongs to3d 5 atomic number. Hence, oxides of 3 s 2 3 p6 3 d 6
subshell. transitional metals in low oxidation
3d 6
state, i.e. +2 and +3 are generally basic
In all elements shell and subshells are
except Cr2O3 .
same. Required amount of energy
4-unpaired d-electrons
(enthalpy) is based upon the stability of
23 In the following transition metals, N3+ (at. no.= 7) = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p0
d- subshell.
the maximum number of oxidation (no unpaired d-electrons)
The 3d 5 -subshell has highest stability in
states are exhibited by Cu+ (at. no.= 29) = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 ,
all because it is half-filled subshell. So,
[CBSE AIPMT 2002, 2000]
Mn shows highest third ionisation 3 s 2 3p6 3d 10
potential. (a) chromium (Z = 24)
(no unpaired d-electrons)
(b) manganese (Z = 25)
(c) iron (Z = 26) So, maximum number of unpaired
20 Among the following series of electrons are present in Fe2 + .
(d) titanium (Z = 22)
transition metal ions, the one in
Ans. (b) 27 Which one of the following ionic
which all metal ions have 3 d 2
Manganese shows maximum number of species will impart colour to an
electronic configuration is oxidation states because it has 5 aqueous solution?
(At. no. Ti =22,V =23,Cr =24, unpaired electrons in 3d and also [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
Mn =25) [CBSE AIPMT 2004] contains 2 electrons in 4s sub-shell.
(a) Ti4+ (b) Cu + (c) Zn2 + (d) Cr 3 +
(a) Ti3+ , V2+ , Cr 3+ , Mn4+ + 2 +3 +4+ 5+6+ 7
Other given metals show the following Ans. (d)
(b) Ti+ , V 4+ , Cr 6+ , Mn7 + oxidation states Cr 3+ = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 3 (coloured)
(c) Ti4+, V 3+ , Cr2 + , Mn3+ Cr = + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 (Cr 3 + contains 3 unpaired e − , so it gives
(d) Ti2+ , V 3+ , Cr 4+ , Mn5+ Fe = + 2 + 3 ; Ti = + 2 + 3 + 4 colour)
Ans. (d) 24 Which one of the following forms a Zn2 + = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d10
(colourless)
Ti2 + = 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 3d2 , 4s 0 colourless solution in aqueous
Cu+ = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 10
V 3 + = 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 , 3d2 , 4s 0 medium? (colourless)
Cr 4 + = 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 3d2 , 4s 0 (At. no. Sc = 21, Ti = 22, V = 23, Ti4+ = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 (colourless)
Mn5 + = 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 3d2 , 4s 0 Cr = 24) [CBSE AIPMT 2000] (Colour is produced due to presence of
(a) V2+ (b) Cr 3+ (c) Ti3+ (d) Sc 3+ unpaired electrons.)
d- and f-Block Elements 139
H2O OH2 H----O O and when conc.HNO3 is used, reaction ∴ Formation of Fe(CO) 5 from Fe does not
Cu O S proceeds as involve oxidation of iron because there is
H2O OH2 H----O O Cu + 4HNO3 (conc.) → Cu(NO3) 2 no change in oxidation state.
+ 2NO2 + 2H2O
Thus, the number of hydrogen bonded 43 The pair of compounds that can
water molecule associated with CuSO4 . exist together is [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
5H2O is 1. 40 Which one of the following
statements is correct when SO 2 is (a) FeCl3, SnCl2 (b) HgCl2 , SnCl2
37 Name the gas that can readily passed through acidified K 2 Cr 2 O 7 (c) FeCl2 , SnCl2 (d) FeCl3, Kl
decolourise acidified KMnO 4 solution? [NEET 2016, Phase I] Ans. (c)
solution. [NEET 2017] (a) The solution is decolourised The compounds with lower oxidation
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) NO2 (d) P2O 5 (b) SO2 is reduced number and which cannot reduced by
(c) Green Cr2 (SO 4 ) 3 is formed one another can exist together. Thus,
Ans. (b) FeCl2 and SnCl2 can exist together as
(d) The solution turns blue
SO2 gas can readily oxidise acidified Fe2 + cannot be reduced bySn2 + .
KMnO4 solution becauseKMnO4 is an Ans. (c)
oxidising agent andSO2 act as reducing When SO2 is passed through acidified 44 The reaction of aqueous KMnO4
agent. K2 Cr2O7 solution, green chromium
2MnO−4 + 5SO2 + 2H2O → 2Mn2 + sulphate is formed. In this reaction, with H2O 2 in acidic conditions gives
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
+ 5SO24− + 4H+ oxidation state of Cr changes from +6 to
+3. (a) Mn4 + and O2 (b) Mn2 + and O2
While other options such asNO2 (strong
oxidising agent), CO2 (neither oxidising K2 Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 3SO2 → K2SO4 (c) Mn2 + and O 3 (d) Mn4 + and MnO2
OS of Cr = +6
agent nor reducing agent) cannot Ans. (b)
+ Cr2 (SO4 ) 3 + H2O
decolourise acidifiedKMnO4 Solution. OS of Cr = + 3 The reaction of aqueousKMnO4 with H2O2
Green
in acidic medium is
38 HgCl 2 and I 2 both when dissolved in The appearance of green colour is due to
3H2SO4 + 2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 →
the reduction of chromium metal.
water containing I − ions the pair of 5 O2 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + K2SO4
species formed is [NEET 2017] 41 Assuming complete ionisation, In the above reaction,KMnO4 oxidises
(a) HgI2 , I3− (b) HgI2 , I− H2O2 to O2 and itself i.e. [MnO−4 ] gets
same moles of which of the
(c) HgI24− , I−3 (d) Hg2I2 , I− reduced toMn2 + ion as MnSO4 . Hence,
following compounds will require aqueous solution of KMnO4 with H2O2
Ans. (c) the least amount of acidified yields Mn2 + and O2 in acidic conditions.
HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water KMnO 4 for complete oxidation?
containing I− ions, the pair of species [CBSE AIPMT 2015] 45 Identify the alloy containing a
formed is HgI24− and I−3 . (a) FeSO 4 (b) FeSO 3 non-metal as a constituent in it.
In aqueous solution, I2 reacts with I − and (c) FeC2O 4 (d) Fe(NO2 )2 [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
maintains the following equilibrium. Ans. (a) (a) Invar (b) Steel
I2 + I− q I−3 (c) Bell-metal (d) Bronze
2+ FeSO4 will require the least amount of
Hg gives ppt. of HgI2 on reaction with acidifiedKMnO4 for complete oxidation. Ans. (b)
I− .
But HgI2 is soluble in excess of I − 42 Which of the following processes
Alloy Constituents
Hg2 + + 2I− → HgI2 ↓ + 2Cl − does not involve oxidation of iron?
Invar Fe + Ni
Red ppt.
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] Steel Fe + C
HgI2 + 2I− q [HgI4 ]2 − Bell-metal Cu (80%) + Sn(20%)e
(a) Rusting of iron sheets
(b) Decolourisation of blue CuSO4 Bronze Cu(75.90%) + Sn(10.25)%
39 When copper is heated with conc. solution by iron
HNO 3 it produces (c) Formation of Fe(CO) 5 from Fe
Among these alloys, only steel contains
[NEET 2016, Phase I] carbon which is a non-metal.
(d) Liberation of H2 from steam by iron a
(a) Cu(NO 3)2 and NO high temperature
(b) Cu(NO 3)2 , NO and NO2 46 Acidified K 2Cr 2O 7 solution turns
Ans. (c)
(c) Cu(NO 3)2 and N2 O 0 III
green when Na 2SO 3 is added to it.
(d) Cu(NO 3)2 and NO2 (a) Fe + H2O + O2 → Fe2 O3 ⋅x H2O] This is due to the formation of
1424 3
Ans. (d) from air [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
58 Nitriding is the process of surface The surface area increases when (c) [Xe] 4f 7 6s 2 , [Xe] 4f 7 5d 16s 2 and
actinoids are finely divided which results [Xe] 4f 9 6s 2
hardening of steel by treating it in
in exposure of more reactant molecules (d) [Xe] 4f 7 6s 2 , [Xe] 4f 8 6s 2 and
an atmosphere of to react. Hence, rate increases and so, [Xe] 4f 8 5d 16s 2
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] actinoids are highly reactive metals Ans. (c)
(a) NH3 (b) N2 when finely divided.
(c) O 3 (d) H2 S Electronic configuration of
∴ Statement (d) is correct.
63Eu = [Xe] 54 4f 6s
7 2
Ans. (a)
Electronic configuration of
Nitriding is the process of heating of 61 Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have
64 Gd = [Xe] 54 4f 5d 6s
7 1 2
steel in the presence of ammonia. In this similar atomic and ionic radii
process the layer of iron nitride is Electronic configuration of
because of [NEET 2021]
formed which prevent the rusting of 65
Tb = [Xe] 54 4f 9 6s 2
iron. (a) belonging to same group
(b) diagonal relationship 64 Which one of the following
59 Photographic plates and films have (c) lanthanoid contraction statements related to lanthanons is
an essential ingredient of (d) having similar chemical properties incorrect? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(a) silver nitrate [CBSE AIPMT 1989] Ans. (c) (a) Europium shows +2 oxidation state
(b) silver bromide Zr (Z = 40) → 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 (b) The basicity decreases as the ionic
3d 10 , 4s 2 4p6 4d2 , 5s 2 radius decreases from Pr to Lu
(c) sodium chloride
(c) All the lanthanons are much more
(d) oleic acid Hf(Z = 72) → 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 10 , reactive than aluminium
Ans. (b) 4s 2 4p6 4d 10 , 5s 2 5p6 4f 14 5d2 , 6s 2 (d) Ce (+4) solutuion are widely used as
The photographic plate of film consists Hf is a post lanthanoid element. Due to oxidising agent in volumetric
of a glass plate or thin strip of celluloid presence of4f-orbitals which have poor analysis
which is coated with the thin layer of an shielding effect, the effective nuclear Ans. (c)
emulsion of silver bromide dispersed in charge on valence shell electrons is
more which result in the decrease of the Eu(63) = 4f 7 ⋅ 5d 0 , 6s 2 , Eu2 + = 4f 7
gelatin.
size of Hf. This effect is known as In lanthanoids series, ionic radius
lanthanoid contraction. decreases and covalent character
TOPIC 3 increases, thus basicity decreases.
Lanthanons are less reactive than
Inner Transition Elements 62 The reason for greater range of aluminium due to high ionisation
oxidation states in actinoids is potential. The reason for this high
60 The incorrect statement among the attributed to [NEET 2017] ionisation potential is lanthanoid
following is [NEET 2021] (a) the radioactive nature of actinoids contraction. Ce4+ is a good oxidising
(a) actinoid contraction is greater for (b) actinoid contraction agent, it is easily converted to Ce3+
element to element than lanthanoid (c) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having
contraction. comparable energies 65 Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It’s
(b) most of the trivalent lanthanoid ions (d) 4f and 5d levels being close in atomic number is 64. Which of the
are colourless in the solid state. energies following is the correct electronic
(c) lanthanoids are good conductors of Ans. (c) configuration of gadolinium?
heat and electricity. [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
The reason for greater range of
(d) actinoids are highly reactive metals,
oxidation states in actinoid is attributed (a) [Xe]4 f 8 6d2 (b) [Xe]4 f 9 5 s 1
especially when finely divided. to the 5f, 6d and 7s levels having (c) [Xe]4f 7 5d1 6s 2 (d) [Xe]4 f 6 5 d2 6 s 2
Ans. (b) comparable energies. Ans. (c)
The shielding effect of 5f-orbitals in The 5f-orbitals extend into space beyond 64 Gd = [Xe] 4f 7 5d 1 6s 2
actinoids is poor than the shielding the 7s and 6p-orbitals and participate in
effect of 4f-orbitals. So, the effective bonding. This is in direct contrast to the 66 Because of lanthanoid contraction,
nuclear charge on valence electrons is lanthanides where the4f-orbitals are which of the following pairs of
more in actinoids. Hence, actinoid buried deep inside the atom, totally elements have nearly same atomic
contraction is greater than lanthanoid shielded by outer orbitals and thus radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis
contraction. unable to take part in bonding.
are atomic numbers).
∴ Statement (a) is correct. [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured in 63 The electronic configurations of Eu (a) Ti (22) and Zr (40)
the solid state due to presence of (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic no. 64) (b) Zr (40) and Nb (41)
f-electrons. and Tb (Atomic no. 65) are (c) Zr (40) and Hf (72)
∴ Statement (b) is incorrect. [NEET 2016, Phase I] (d) Zr (40) and Ta (73)
Lanthanoids are inner transition metals. (a) [Xe] 4f 6 5d 16s 2 , [Xe] 4f 7 5d 16s 2 and Ans. (c)
So, they are good conductors of heat [Xe] 4f 9 6s 2
and electricity. Because of the lanthanoid contraction Zr
(b) [Xe] 4f 6 5d 16s 2 , [Xe] 4f 7 5d 16s 2 and
(atomic radii 160 pm) and Hf (atomic radii
∴ Statement (c) is correct. [Xe] 4f 8 5d 16s 2
158 pm) have nearly same atomic radii.
d- and f-Block Elements 143
Lanthanoids include the elements from 69 Which of the following ions will (b) lesser energy difference between 5f
lanthanum La (Z = 57) to lutetium and 6d-orbitals than that between 4f
exhibit colour in aqueous
Lu(Z = 71). zirconiumZr (40) belong to the and 5d-orbitals
second transition series (4d) and Hf (72) solutions? [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(c) greater metallic character of the
belongs to third transition series (5d). (a) La3+ (Z = 57) (b) Ti3+ (Z = 22) lanthanides than that of the
Lanthanoid contraction is associated (c) Lu 3+ (Z = 71) (d) Sc 3+ (Z = 21) corresponding actinides
with the intervention of the4f orbitals Ans. (b) (d) more active nature of the actinides
which are filled before the 5d-series of
Key Idea Colour is obtained as a Ans. (b)
elements starts. The filling of4f orbitals
before 5d-orbitals results in regular consequence of d-d (or f-f) transition, and More number of oxidation states are
decrease in atomic radii which for d-d (or f-f ) transition, presence of exhibited by the actinides than by the
compensates the expected increase in unpaired electrons is the necessary corresponding lanthanides due to lesser
atomic size with increasing atomic condition. energy difference between 5f and 6d
number. As a result of this lanthanoid Electronic configuration of orbitals than that between4f and
contraction, the elements of second and La3+ (Z = 57 ) = [Xe] 4f 0 5 d 0 6s 0 5d-orbitals.
third transition series have almost (no unpaired electron)
similar atomic radii. Ti3+ (Z = 22) = [Ar] 3 d 14s 0 72 Lanthanides are
(one unpaired electron) [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
67 Reason of lanthanoid contraction is 3+
Lu (Z = 71) = [Xe]4f 14 5 d 0 6s 0 (a) 14 elements in the sixth period
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(no unpaired electron) (At. no. = 90 to 103 ) that are filling4f
(a) negligible screening effect of
Sc3+ (Z = 21) = [Ar] 3d 0 4s 0 sub-level
f-orbitals
(no unpaired electron) (b) 14 elements in the seventh period
(b) increasing nuclear charge (At. no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 5f
(c) decreasing nuclear charge sub-level
(d) decreasing screening effect
70 Identify the incorrect statement
(c) 14 elements in the sixth period
among the following.
Ans. (a) (At. no. = 58 to 71) that are filling4f
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
Lanthanoid contraction is the regular sub-level
(a) There is a decrease in the radii of the (d) 14 elements in the seventh period
decrease in atomic and ionic radii of atoms or ions as one proceeds from
lanthanides. This is due to the imperfect (At. no. = 58 to 71) that are filling4f
La or Lu sub-level
shielding [or poor screening effect] of
(b) Lanthanide contraction is the
f-orbitals due to their diffused shape Ans. (c)
accumulation of successive
which unable to counterbalance the Lanthanides are the 14 elements of IIIB
shrinkages
effect to the increased nuclear charge.
(c) As a result of lanthanide contraction, group and sixth period (at. no. = 58 to 71)
Hence, the net result is a contraction in
the properties of4d series of the that are filling4f sub-shell of
size of lanthanoids.
transition elements have no antipenultimate shell from 1 to 14.
similarities with the 5d series of Actually, they are placed below the
68 Which of the following lanthanoid elements periodic table in horizontal row as
ions is diamagnetic? (d) Shielding power of4f electrons is lanthanide series.
(At. no. Ce = 58, Sm = 62 , Eu = 63, quite weak
Yb = 70) [NEET 2013] Ans. (c) 73 The correct order of ionic radii of
(a) Ce2+ (b) Sm2+ (c) Eu2+ (d) Yb2+ The regular decrease in the radii of Y 3 + , La 3 + , Eu 3 + and Lu 3+ is
Ans. (d) lanthanide ions fromLa3+ to Lu3+ is [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
known as lanthanides contraction. (At. no. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu
Lanthanoid ion with no unpaired electron
is diamagnetic in nature. It is due to the greater effect of the = 71)
increased nuclear charge than that of
Ce58 = [Xe] 4f2 5d 0 6s 2 (a) Lu 3+ < Eu 3+ < La3+ < Y3+
screening effect (shielding effect).
Ce2 + = [Xe] 4f2 (b) La3+ < Eu 3 + < Lu 3+ < Y3+
As a result of lanthanide contraction, the
(two unpaired electrons) atomic radii of element of4d and 5d (c) Y3 + < La3+ < Eu 3+ < Lu 3+
Sm62 = [Xe] 4f 6 5 d 0 6s 2 come closer, so the properties of4d and (d) Y3+ < Lu 3+ < Eu 3+ < La3+
Sm2 + = [Xe] 4f 6 5d-transition element shows the
similarities.
Ans. (d)
(six unpaired electrons)
The correct order of ionic radii of
Eu63 = [Xe] 4f 7 5 d 0 6s 2 71 More number of oxidation states Y 3 + , La3 + , Eu3 + and Lu3 + , is
Eu2 + = [Xe] 4f 7 are exhibited by the actinides than Y 3+ < Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3 + because Eu and
(seven unpaired electrons) Lu are the members of lanthanide series
by the lanthanides. The main (so they show lanthanide contraction)
Yb70 = [Xe] 4f 14 5 d 0 6s 2 reason for this is and La is the representative element of
Yb2 + = [Xe] 4f 14 [CBSE AIPMT 2006, 2005] all elements of such series and Y 3+ ion
(no unpaired electrons) (a) more energy difference between 5f has lower radii as comparison toLa3+
Because of the absence of unpaired and 6d-orbitals than that between 4f because it lies immediately above it in
electrons, Yb2 + is diamagnetic. and 5d-orbitals the periodic table.
144 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
74 General electronic configuration 76 Which one of the following elements have the same radius and also known as
twins.
of lanthanides are shows maximum number of different
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] oxidation states in its compounds?
(a) (n − 2) f 1− 14 (n − 1) s 2 p 6d 0− 1ns 2 [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
78 Among the lanthanides, the one
obtained by synthetic method is
(b) (n − 2) f 10− 14 (n − 1) d 0− 1ns 2 (a) Eu (b) La (c) Gd (d) Am
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(c) (n − 2) f 0− 14 (n − 1) d 10ns 2 Ans. (d)
(a) Lu (b) Pm
(d) (n − 2) d 0− 1 (n − 1) f 1− 14 ns 2 Oxidation states shown by elements are as (c) Pr (d) Gd
follows:
Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
La = + 3
In lanthanides (at. no. of elements 57 Promethium (Pm) is the element which is
Eu and Gd = + 2 and + 3 prepared only by synthetic methods. It is
to 71) the electronic configuration of
outermost shells are Am = + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 not present in nature. It is the only
(n − 2)f 1 − 14 (n − 1) s 2 p6d 0 to 1ns 2 . and +6 synthetic radioactive lanthanoid.
Am shows maximum number of different
75 Which of the following oxidation state due to its larger size and low 79 Actinides [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
statements is not correct? ionisation energy. (a) are all synthetic elements
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] (b) include element 104
(a) La(OH) 3 is less basic thanLi(OH) 3 77 The lanthanide contraction is (c) have any short lived isotopes
(b) In lanthanide series, ionic radius responsible for the fact that (d) have variable valency
of Ln3+ ion decreases [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Ans. (d)
(c) La is actually an element of (a) Zr and Yt have about the same radius
transition series rather lanthanide (b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state All actinides show different oxidation
(d) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are states such as +2 +3 +4 +5 and +7.
(c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
same because of lanthanide However, +3 oxidation state is most
(d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
contraction common among all the actinides. The
Ans. (c) wide range of oxidation states of
Ans. (a) actinides is attributed to the fact that
The elements of second and third transition
La3 + ions larger thanLi3 + . So, it easily series resembles more in properties than the 5f,6d and 7s energy levels are of
gives OH− ion La (OH) 3 is more basic the elements of first and second transition comparable energies. Therefore, all
than Li(OH) 3. In lanthanides the basic series. It is due to lanthanide contraction. these three sub-shells can participate.
character of hydroxides decreases as So, due to lanthanide contraction Zr and Hf
the ionic radius decreases.
19
Co-ordination Compounds
TOPIC 1 number of Co is 6 with octahedral 3d
geometry. Ni(CO)4 ×× ×× ×× ××
Nomenclature, Isomerism
Cl Cl
and Werner’s Theory Cl
CO CO CO CO
en Co en Co en sp3-hybridised
01 Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (Tetrahedral geometry)
(EDTA) ion is [NEET 2021] en
Cl There is no unpaired electron, hence,
(a) hexadentate ligand with four O and cis-isomer trans-isomer
two N donor atoms (Optically (Optically Ni(CO) 4 is diamagnetic with tetrahedral
active) inactive) geometry.
(b) unidentate ligand CO
(c) bidentate ligand with two N donor Thus, [CoCl2 (en)2 ] show geometrical
atoms isomerism. Ni
(d) tridentate ligand with three N CO
OC
donor atoms 03 The geometry and magnetic CO
Ans. (a) behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO) 4]
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) are [NEET 2018] 04 The correct order of the
ion. (a) square planar geometry and stoichiometrics of AgCl formed
O O paramagnetic when AgNO 3 in excess is
(b) tetrahedral geometry and treated with the complexes:
O—C—CH2 CH2—C—O
N ––CH2 —CH2—N
diamagnetic CoCl 3 ⋅ 6NH3 , CoCl 3 ⋅ 5NH3 ,
O CH2
CH2—C—O (c) square planar geometry and CoCl 3 ⋅ 4NH3 respectively is
diamagnetic (a) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl [NEET 2017]
C (d) tetrahedral geometry and
(b) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
paramagnetic
(c) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
Ans. (b)
EDTA is a hexadentate ligand with four ‘O’ (d) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
and two ‘N’ donor atoms. Key Concept The complexes having Ans. (c)
sp3-hybridisation are tetrahedral while
having dsp2 -hybridisation are square According to Werner’s theory,
02 The type of isomerism shown by
planar. The magnetic behaviour of CoCl 3 ⋅6NH3 → [Co(NH3) 6 ] 3 + 3Cl −
the complex [COCl 2 (en) 2] is complexes can be paramagnetic and
[NEET 2018] diamagnetic based on the presence and CoCl 3 ⋅ 5NH3 → [Co(NH3) 5 Cl]2 + 2Cl −
(a) ionisation isomerism absence of unpaired electrons, CoCl 3 ⋅4NH3 → [Co(NH3) 4 Cl2 ] + Cl −
(b) coordination isomerism respectively. When AgNO3 in excess is treated with
(c) geometrical isomerism Electronic configuration of Ni (Z =28) is these complexes then following
(d) linkage isomerism [Ar] 18 3d 8 4s 2 . Due to presence of CO reactions takes place :
Ans. (c) (neutral ligand), oxidation state of Ni in [Co(NH3) 6 ] 3+ 3Cl − + AgNO3 → 3AgCl
[Ni(CO) 4 ] is 0. (Excess)
Isomers in which the atoms or ligands 3d + [Co(NH3) 6 ] 3+
occupy different positions around 2+ −
central metal/ion are called geometrical
Ni-atom [Co(NH3) 5 Cl] 2Cl + AgNO3 →
4s 4p (Excess)
isomers. Complexes having coordination
number of central atom/ion 6 with 2AgCl + [Co(NH3) 5 Cl]2 +
formula M(AA)2 B 2 exhibit geometrical + −
[Co(NH3) 4 Cl2 ] Cl + AgNO3 → AgCl
isomerism [where, AA is a bidentate Since, CO is a strong field ligand, it pair (excess)
ligand]. In [CoCl2 (en)2 ], coordination up the unpaired electrons of Ni. + [Co(NH3) 4 Cl2 ] +
146 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
05 The correct increasing order of 08 Number of possible isomers for the (c) Geometrical isomerism
trans-effect of the following species complex [Co(en) 2 Cl 2]Cl will be (d) Linkage isomerism
is [NEET 2016, Phase II] (en = ethylenediamine) Ans. (b)
(a)NH3 > CN > Br > C 6H−5
− −
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] The complexes [Co(NH3) 6 ][Cr(CN) 6 ] and
(b)CN− > C 6H−5 > Br − > NH3 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4 [Cr(NH3) 6 ][Co(CN) 6 ] are the examples of
(c)Br − > CN− > NH3 > C 6H−5 Ans. (c)
coordination isomerisms. This
isomerism occurs only in those
(d)CN− > Br − > C 6H−5 > NH3 [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Cl complexes in which both cation and
Ans. (b) Possible isomers are anion are complex. It occurs due to
Trans effect is the effect of a Cl Cl exchange of ligands between cation and
coordinated group upon the rate of Cl anion.
substitution at the position trans to itself
in a square or octahedral complex.As the en Co en Co en 12 The complex, [Pt(Py)(NH3 )BrCl] will
rate of substitution of the trans ligand
increases, the intensity of trans effect en have how many geometrical
cis Cl isomers? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
also increases. Thus, correct order is, Optically active trans
Optically inactive
CN− > C6H–5 > Br – > NH3 Stereoisomers =2 Stereoisomers =1 (a) 4 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3
Ans. (d)
Hence, total number of stereoisomers
06 Jahn-Teller effect is not observed The complex is square planar and is of
= 2 + 1 = 3.
in high spin complexes of the type [M(abcd)]. It has three
[NEET 2016, Phase II] geometrical isomers.
09 The sum of coordination number
(a) d 7 (b) d 8 (c) d 4 (d) d 9 Py NH3 Py Br
and oxidation number of the metal
Ans. (b) M in the complex [M(en) 2 (C 2O 4 )]Cl Pt Pt
Key Idea Jahn-Teller distortion is (where, en is ethylenediamine) is
observed in those octahedral complexes [CBSE AIPMT 2015] Cl Br ; Cl NH3 ;
in which d-electrons are filled
(a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
unsymmetrically.
Ans. (b) Py NH3
Given complex compound is Pt
eg eg
[M(en)2 (C2O4 )]Cl
Let oxidation number of M is x. Br Cl
t2g t2g
d4 d7 ∴ x −2−2= − 1
or x=+3 13 The existence of two different
eg eg
Now, as coordination number is defined coloured complexes with the
as the total number of binding sites composition of [Co(NH3 ) 4 Cl 2] + is
t2g t22g attached to the metal. Hence, in the due to [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
d8 d9
given complex coordination number is 6. (a) linkage isomerism
Except d 8 , all are unsymmetrically filled, (b) geometrical isomerism
thus d 8 complex will not show 10 The name of complex ion, (c) coordination isomerism
Jahn-Teller distortion. [Fe(CN) 6] 3− is [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (d) ionisation isomerism
(a) hexacyanoiron (III) ion
07 Cobalt (III) chloride forms several Ans. (b)
(b) hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
octahedral complexes with (c) tricyanoferrate (III) ion Key Idea Complexes of [MA4 B2 ] type
ammonia. Which of the following exhibit geometrical isomerism.
(d) hexacyanidoferrate (III)ion
will not give test for chloride ions The complex [Co(NH3) 4 Cl2 ] + is a [MA4 B2 ]
Ans. (d) type complex and thus, fulfills the
with silver nitrate at 25°C?
Key Concept When complex ion is an conditions that are necessary to exhibit
[CBSE AIPMT 2015]
anion, the name of the metal ends with geometrical isomerism. Hence, it has two
(a) CoCl3 ⋅ 3NH3 (b) CoCl3 ⋅4NH3 suffix -ate along with its oxidation geometrical isomers of different colours
(c) CoCl3 ⋅5NH3 (d) CoCl3 ⋅ 6NH3 number in the complex ion. as :
Ans. (a) [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3 − = Hexacyanoferrate (III) ion The structure of the geometrical
[Co (NH3) 6 ]Cl 3 → [Co(NH3) 6 ] 3+ + 3Cl − isomers is as
11 The complex [Co(NH3) 6][Cr(CN) 6] Cl
[Co (NH3) 3 Cl 3] → [Co(NH3) 3 Cl 3] H3N Cl
[Co(NH3) 4 Cl2 ] Cl → [Co(NH3) 4 Cl2 ] + and [Cr(NH3 ) 6][Co(CN) 6] are the
+ Cl − examples of which type of Co
[Co(NH3) 5 Cl] Cl2 → [Co(NH3) 5 Cl] 2+
isomerism? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
+ 2Cl − (a) Ionisation isomerism H3N NH3
NH3
So, [Co (NH3) 3 Cl 3] does not ionise so (b) Coordination isomerism Cis-form
does not give test for chloride ions.
Co-ordination Compounds 147
19 According to IUPAC nomenclature 23 Which one of the following 25 The total number of possible
sodium nitroprusside is named as complexes will have four isomers? isomers for the complex compound
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] [CBSE AIPMT 2000] [CuII (NH3 ) 4] [PtII Cl 4] are
(a) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (a) [Co(en) 3]Cl3 [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(II) (b) [Co(en)2 Cl2]Cl (a) 5 (b) 6
(b) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (c) [Co(PPh3)2 (NH3)Cl2]Cl (c) 3 (d) 4
(III) Ans. (d)
(d) [Co(PPh3) 3Cl]Cl2
(c) sodium nitroferricyanide
Ans. (b) Given complex gives four isomers that
(d) sodium nitroferrocyanide are as follow.
Complex [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Cl will have four
Ans. (b) (i) [Cu(NH3) 4 ] [PtCl 4 ]
different isomers.
IUPAC name of sodium nitroprusside (i) Geometrical isomers (ii) [Cu(NH3) 3 Cl] [Pt(NH3)Cl 3]
Na2 [Fe (CN) 5 NO] is sodium pentacyanoni + + (iii) [Pt(NH3) 3 Cl] [Cu(NH3)Cl 3]
Cl Cl
trosyl ferrate (III) because in it NO is Cl (iv) [Pt(NH3) 4 ] [CuCl 4 ]
neutral ligand and the oxidation number
en Co en en Co
of Fe is +3. Which is calculated as 26 IUPAC name of
Na2 [Fe (CN) 5 NO] Cl en [Pt(NH3 ) 3 (Br) (NO 2 ) Cl] Cl is
2 × (+1) + x + 5 × (– 1) + 1 × 0 =0 Trans Cis [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
[where x = oxidation state of Fe] (ii) Optical isomers (a) triamminebromochloronitroplatinum
2+ x − 5=0 + + (IV) chloride
Cl Cl
x −3=0 ⇒ x = +3 Cl Cl (b) triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum
(IV) chloride
en Co Co en
20 Which one of the following (c) triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum
octahedral complexes will not show en en (IV) chloride
geometrical isomerism? (A and B (d) triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum
Optically active cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (IV) chloride
are monodentate ligands)
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] Ans. (a)
24 A coordination complex compound
(a) [MA4B2] (b) [MA5B] The IUPAC name of
of cobalt has the molecular formula [Pt(NH3) 3 (Br)(NO2 )Cl]Cl is
(c) [MA2B4] (d) [MA3B3]
containing five ammonia triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV)
Ans. (b)
molecules, one nitro group and two chloride.
[MA 5 B] due to absence of symmetry of chlorine atoms for one cobalt (Oxidation number ofPt = + 4, and ligands
B cannot exist in the form of
cis-trans-isomer.
atom. One mole of this compound are arranged in alphabetical order)
produces three mole ions in an
21 The hypothetical complex chloro aqueous solution. On reacting this 27 The number of geometrical
diaquatriammine cobalt (III) solution with excess of isomers of the complex
chloride can be represented as AgNO 3 s olution, we get two moles [Co(NO 2 ) 3 (NH3 ) 3] is
of AgCl precipitate. The ionic [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(a) [CoCl(NH3) 3 (H2O)2]Cl2 formula for this complex would be (a) 4 (b) 0
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] (c) 2 (d) 3
(b) [Co(NH3) 3 (H2O)Cl3]
(c) [Co(NH2 ) 3 (H2O)2 Cl] (a) [Co(NH3) 5 (NO2 )]Cl2 Ans. (c)
(d) [Co(NH3) 3 (H2O) 3]Cl3 (b) [Co(NH3) 5 Cl] [Cl(NO2 )] Geometrical isomers of the complex
(c) [Co(NH3) 4 (NO2 )Cl] [(NH3)Cl] [Co(NO2 ) 3 (NH3) 3] are two. These are
Ans. (a)
(d) [Co(NH3) 5] [(NO2 )2 Cl2] NO2 NO2
Chlorodiaquatriammine cobalt (III)
chloride is [CoCl(NH3) 3 (H2O)2] Cl2 . Ans. H3N NO2 H3N NO2
(a)
Co Co
22 Which of the following will give The complex gives three ions in aqueous
solution. H3 N NH 3 H N NO2
maximum number of isomers? 3
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] ∴The complex should be NO2 NH3
(a) [Co(NH3) 4 Cl2] [CO(NH3) 5 NO2 ]Cl2 . Maridonal isomers Facial isomers
(b) [Ni(en)(NH3) 4] 2+ It will give three ions on dissociation as
(c) [Ni(C2O4 )(en)2] 2– follows : 28 The formula of dichlorobis (urea)
(d) [Cr(SCN)2 (NH3) 4] + [Co(NH3) 5 NO2 ] Cl2 → [Co(NH3) 5 NO2 ]2 + copper (II) is [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
1 mol
Ans. (d) (a) [Cu{O == C(NH2 )2 Cl}] Cl
+ 2Cl − (Counter ion) (b) [CuCl2 {O == C(NH2 )2 }2]
+
[Cr(SCN)2 (NH3) 4 ] Oxidation number of 2 mol
Cr is 6 shows linkage, geometrical and (c) [Cu{O == C(NH2 )2 }] Cl2
2Cl + 2AgNO3 → 2AgCl + 2NO–3
–
(d) [CuCl2 {O == C(NH2 )2 H2 }]
optical isomerism. Silver ppt
Co-ordination Compounds 149
We know that, 37 What is the correct electronic The examples of dinuclear, trinuclear
4 complexes are Co2 (CO) 18 , Fe3 (CO) 12
∆ tetrahedral = ∆ octahedral configuration of the central atom in
9 respectively.
K 4 [Fe(CN) 6] based on crystal field
4
= × 18000 cm −1 = 8000 cm −1 theory? [NEET (National) 2019]
9 39 An example of a sigma bonded
(a) t26g e g0 (b) e 3 t23 (c) e 4 t22 (d) t24g e2g organometallic compound is
35 Aluminium chloride in acidified Ans. [NEET 2017]
aqueous solution forms a complex ‘ (a) (a) ruthenocene
A’, in which hybridisation state of Al In K4 [Fe(CN) 6 ], (b) Grignard’s reagent
is ‘B’. What are ‘A’ and ‘B’, Fe2 + = [Ar] 3d 6 4s 0 . (c) ferrocene
CN− is a strong field ligand and as it (d) cobaltocene
respectively? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] approaches the metal ion, the electrons
(a) [Al(H2O) 6] 3+ , sp 3d2 Ans. (b)
must pair up.
(b) [Al(H2O) 4] 3+ , sp 3 The splitting of thed-orbitals in two sets The organometallic compounds having
orbitals in an octahedral complex, sigma bond between carbon and metal
(c) [Al(H2O) 4] 3+ ,dsp2 are sigma bonded organometallic. An
K4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] may be represented as :
(d) [Al(H2O) 6] 3+ ,d2 sp 3 example of a sigma bonded
Ans. (a) organometallic compound is Grignard’s
d-orbitals dx2–y2 dz2 reagent.
Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous free ion
solution forms an octahedral complex. eg R Mg X
12
4 43
Aqueous solution is mostly water and σ− bond
en > NH3 > H2O (From spectrochemical (b) [Co(CN) 6] 3– has four unpaired 45 Among the following complexes,
series) electrons and will be in a low-spin the one which shows zero crystal
1 configuration.
Q Wavelength of absorbed light (λ) ∝ field stabilisation energy (CFSE) is
∆o (c) [Co(CN) 6] 3– has four unpaired [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
∴ For ligand the order of wavelength of electrons and will be in a high-spin 3+
configuration. (a) [Mn(H2O) 6] (b) [Fe(H2O) 6] 3+
absorption in the visible region will be :
en < NH3 < H2O (d) [Co(CN) 6] 3– has no unpaired (c) [Co(H2O) 6] 2+ (d) [Co(H2O) 6] 3+
or, [Co(en) 3] 3+ < [Co(NH3) 6 ] 3+ < electrons and will be in a high-spin Ans. (b)
[Co(H2O) 6 ] 3+ configuration. The CFSE for octahedral complex is
Ans. (a) given by
41 Pick out the correct statement
[Co(CN) 6 ] 3− CFSE = [−0.4 t2 g e − + 0.6 e g e − ]
with respect to [Mn(CN) 6] 3−
[NEET 2017]
Co3+ = 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d 6 For Mn3+ , [3d 4 ] → t23g e g1
3 2 CN− is a strong field ligand and as it ∴ CFSE = [(−0.4 × 3) + (0.6 × 1)] = −0.6
(a) It is sp d hybridised and
approaches the metal ion, the electrons
octahedral For Fe3+ , [3d 5 ] → t23g e2g
must pair up.
(b) It is sp 3d2 hybridised and
The splitting of thed-orbitals into two CFSE = [− (0.4 × 3) + (0.6 × 2)] = 0
tetrahedral
(c) It is d2 sp 3 hybridised and
sets of orbitals in an octahedral For Co2 + , [3d 7 ] → t25g e2g
[Co(CN) 6 ] 3− may be represented as
octahedral CFSE = [(−0.4 × 5) + (2 × 0.6)] = −0.8
(d) It is dsp2 hybridised and square eg For Co3+ , [3d 6 ] → t24g e2g
3d
planar dx2–y2 dz2 ∇orbital CFSE = [(−0.4 × 4) + (2 × 0.6)] = −0.4
o
Ans. (c)
t2g
[Mn(CN) 6 ] 3− is d2 sp3-hybridised and 46 A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will
octahedral complex. In [Mn(CN) 6 ] 3− , Mn dxy dxz dxz orbital
be shown by one among the
is in +3 oxidation state
Here, for d 6 ions, three electrons first following
Mn3+ = 3d 4 4s 0 [CBSE AIPMT 2013]
enter orbitals with parallel spin put the
3d 4s 4p remaining may pair up int2 g orbital giving (a) [Cu(NH3) 4] 2+ (b) [Ni(CN) 4] 2−
Orbitals of
3+ = rise to low spin complex (strong ligand) (c) TiCl4 (d) [CoCl6] 4−
Mn ion
3d 4s 4p field. Ans. (a)
[Mn (CN)6]3– = ∴ [Co(CN) 6 ] 3− has no unpaired electron
and will be in a low spin configuration. Magnetic moment,µ is related with
d2sp3-hybridised number of unpaired electrons as
(Octahedral)
44 The hybridisation involved in µ = n (n + 2) BM
complex [Ni(CN) 4] 2− is (Atomic (1.73)2 = n (n + 2)
42 Which of the following has longest On solving n= 1
C—O bond length? (Free C—O bond number of Ni = 28)
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] Thus, the complex/compound having
length in CO is 1.128 Å.) one unpaired electron exhibit a magnetic
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (a) dsp 2 (b) sp 3
moment of 1.73 BM.
(c) d 2 sp 2 (d) d2sp 3
(a) [Co(CO) 4] − (b) [Fe(CO) 4] 2 − (a) In [Cu(NH3) 4 ]2 +
(c) [Mn(CO) 6] + (d) Ni(CO) 4 Ans. (a)
Cu2 + = [Ar] 3d 9
Ans. (b) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 −
Let oxidation state of Ni in [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 − is
As negative charge on metal carbonyl
x.
complex increases, back π-bonding
increases and hence bond length of C—O ∴ x −4= −2 (Although in the presence of strong field
bond increases while bond length of or x =2 ligand NH3, the unpaired electron
gets excited to higher energy level but it
metal-carbon bond decreases. Now, Ni2 + = [Ar] 3d 8 4s 0
still remains unpaired).
Hence, [Fe(CO) 4 ]2 − has longest C—O
(b) In [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 −
bond length among the given complexes.
The correct order of bond length of the
3d 3s 4p Ni2 + = [Ar] 3d 8
given complexes is Q CN– is a strong field ligand. Hence, all
[Mn(CO) 6 ] + < [Ni(CO) 4 ] < [Co(CO) 4 ] − unpaired electrons are paired up.
< [Fe(CO) 4 ]2 − But CN− being strong field ligand pair up
3d 3s 4p the unpaired electrons and hence in this
43 Which of these statements about complex, number of unpaired electrons
[Co(CN) 6] 3– is true? = 0.
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] CN– CN– CN– CN– (c) In [TiCl 4 ]
(a) [Co(CN) 6] 3– has no unpaired Ti 4+ = [Ar]
∴ Hybridisation of [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 − is dsp2 no unpaired electron.
electrons and will be in a low-spin
configuration.
152 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
{
exhibits a magnetic moment 1.73 BM. Three d2sp3 hybridisation ∴ [Ni(CN)4]2– =
unpaired
electrons 3d 4s 4p
47 Which one of the following is an Because of the involvement of (n − 1)d,
outer orbital complex and exhibits i.e.3d-orbital in hybridisation, it is an 14444244443
paramagnetic behaviour? inner orbital complex. Its nature is dsp2 hybridisation
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] paramagnetic because of the presence (Pairing occurs because CN− is a strong
(a) [Ni(NH3) 6] 2+
(b) [Zn(NH3) 6] 2+ of three unpaired electrons. field ligand).
(d) In [Co(NH3) 6 ] 3+
(c) [Cr(NH3) 6] 3+ (d) [Co(NH3) 6] 3+ Since, in [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 − , no unpaired
Co3+ = [Ar] 3d 6 electron is present in d-orbitals so it
Ans. (a)
3d does not absorb visible light.
Outer orbital complex utilises
(n − 1) d-orbitals for bonding and exhibit (b) In [Cr(NH3) 6 ] 3+ , Cr is present as Cr 3+ .
paramagnetic behaviour, only if there Cr 3+ = [Ar] 3d 34 s 0 (Three unpaired
present unpaired electrons. [Co(NH3)6]3+ =
4p electrons)
3d 4s
(a) In [Ni(NH3) 6 ]2 + : (c) In [Fe(H2O) 6 ] 3+ , Fe is present asFe2 + .
Ni2 + = [Ar] 3d 8 4 s 0 [Ar]3d 6 4 s 0 (Four unpaired electrons)
3d
51 Out of TiF62− , CoF63− , Cu 2Cl 2 and Ans. (c) Hence, complex [Co(ox)2 (OH)2 ] − has
As in all the given complex the central maximum number of unpaired electrons,
NiCl 2−
4 (At. no. Z of Ti = 22, Co = 27, thus show maximum paramagnetism.
metal atom is same and contains same
Cu = 29,Ni= 28), the colourless number of d electrons, thus CFSE is
species are [CBSE AIPMT 2009] decided by ligands. In case of strong 55 [Cr(H2O) 6]Cl 3 (at. no. of Cr = 24)
(a) TiF62 − and CoF63− field ligand, CFSE is maximum. CN− is a has a magnetic moment of 3.83
(b) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl2− strong field ligand, Hence, in [Co(CN) 6 ] 3−
4
magnitude of CFSE i.e. ∆ 0 is maximum. BM, the correct distribution of 3d
(c) TiF62 − and Cu2Cl2 electrons in the chromium of the
(d) CoF63− and NiCl24− complex is
54 Which of the following complexes [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
Ans. (c) 1
(a) 3 dxy 1
, 3 dyz , 3 dz1 2
exhibits the highest paramagnetic
In TiF62 − , Ti is present asTi4+ . behaviour? (b) 3 d 2 2 , 3 dz1 2 , 3 dxz
1
(x – y )
Ti = [Ar] 3d 4s
4+ 0 0
where, gly = glycine, en = (c) 3 dxy , 3 d 1
, 3 dyz
Hence,TiF62 − is colourless due to the (x 2 − y 2 )
absence of unpaired electrons. ethylenediamine and bpy =
1 1 1
bipyridyl moities) (d) 3 d xy , 3 d yz , 3 d zx
In Cu2 Cl2 , Cu is present as Cu+ .
(At. no. of Ti = 22,C = 23,Fe = 26, Ans. (d)
Cu+ = [Ar]
3d 10
4s Co = 27) [CBSE AIPMT 2008] Magnetic moment (µ ) = n(n + 2) BM
(a) [V(gly)2 (OH)2 (NH3)2] + or 3 .83 = n (n + 2)
(b) [Fe(en)(py)(NH3)2] 2+ or 3 .83 × 3 .83 = n2 + 2n
Due to absence of unpaired electrons,
Cu2 Cl2 is colourless. (c) [Co(ox)2 (OH)2] − 14 .6689 = n2 + 2n
(d) [Ti(NH3) 6] 3+ n ~− 3
52 Which of the following complex Ans. (c) Hence, number of unpaired electrons in
ions is expected to absorb visible d-subshell of chromium (Cr= 24) = 3.
The electronic configuration of
light? (At. no. of So, the configuration of chromium ion is
V(23) = [Ar] 4s 2 , 3d 3
Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24) Cr 3+ = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 3
Let in [V(gly)2 (OH)2 (NH3)2 ] + oxidation
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] state of V is x. In [Cr(H2O) 6 ]Cl2 , oxidation state of Cr is +3.
x + (−1) × 2 + (−1)2 + (0 × 2) = + 1 Hence, in3d 3 the distribution of
(a) [Sc(H2O) 3 (NH3) 3] 3+
electrons
(b) [Ti(en)2 (NH3)2] 4+ x=+5 1 1 1
3d xy ,3d yz ,3d zx ,3d 02 2 ,3d 02
(c) [Cr(NH3) 6] 3+ V5 + = [Ar] 4s 0 , 3d 0 x −y z
27 Co = 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s
Electron donated by NH3 ligand 2 2 6 2 6 7 2
The electronic configuration of
hybridisation d 2sp3 3+
Co = 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d
2 2 6 2 6 6
Co(27) = [Ar] 4s 2 , 3d 7
Since, this complex has three unpaired Let the oxidation state of Co in
d s p
electrons, excitation of electrons is [Co(ox)2 (OH)2 ] − is x
possible and thus, it is expected that this
complex will absorb visible light. x + (−2) × 2 + (−1) × 2 = − 1
x=+5 d 2sp 3
53 In which of the following Co5 + = [Ar], 3d 4 [4 unpaired electrons] [Co(NH3) 6 ] 3+ is an inner orbital complex
coordination entities the as well as diamagnetic in behaviour (due
ox and OH are weak field ligands, thus
to absence of unpaired electrons).
magnitude of ∆ o (CFSE in pairing of electron units does not occur.
octahedral field) will be maximum? The electronic configuration of [Zn(NH3) 6 ] 2 + → sp3d2
(At. no. of Co = 27) Ti(22) = [Ar] 4s 2 , 3d2 hybridisation (outer orbital complex and
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] Oxidation state of Ti in [Ti(NH3) 6 ] 3+ is 3. diamagnetic in nature).
Ti3+ = [Ar] 3d 1 [Cr(NH3) 6 ] 3+ → d2 sp3
(a) [Co(H2O) 6] 3+ (b) [Co(NH3) 6] 3+
hybridisation (inner orbital complex and
(c) [Co(CN) 6] 3– (d) [Co(C2O 4 ) 3] 3− (one unpaired electron)
paramagnetic in nature).
154 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
57 Among [Ni(CO) 4], [Ni(CN) 4] 2– , of weak field, ligand there will be no 62 Atomic number of Cr and Fe are
pairing of electrons in 3d. So, it will respectively 24 and 26, which of
[NiCl 4] 2– species, the hybridisation form high spin complex due to
states of the Ni atom are, the following is paramagnetic with
presence of five unpaired electrons.
respectively (At. no. of Ni = 28) the spin of electron?
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
59 CN − is strong field ligand. This is
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
3
(a) sp , dsp dsp 2, 2 3
(b) sp , dsp , sp 2 3 (a) [Cr(CO) 6] (b) [Fe(CO) 5]
due to the fact that (c) [Fe(CN) 6] 4– (d) [Cr(NH3) 6] 3+
(c) sp 3, sp 3, dsp2 (d) dsp2 , sp 3, sp 3 [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
(a) it carries negative charge
In Ni(CO) 4 , nickel is sp3 hybridised (b) it is a pseudohalide Atoms, ions or molecules having
because in it oxidation state of Ni is zero. unpaired electrons are paramagnetic. In
(c) it can accept electrons from metal [Cr(NH3) 6 ] 3+ , Cr is present as Cr (III).
So, configuration of species
Cr 3+ = 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 3
28 Ni = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3 s 3p 3d , 4s
2 2 6 2 6 8 2
(d) it forms high spin complexes with
d s p In excited state
metal species
d s p
Ans. (b)
CN− is a strong field ligand because it is
sp 3 an example of pseudohalide.
(CO is a strong field ligand, hence pairing Pseudohalide ions are stronger d 2sp3 hybridisation
of electrons will occur) coordinating ligands and they have the Number of unpaired electrons = 3, so it is
In [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 – , nickel is present asNi2 + , ability to form σ and π-bonds. paramagnetic while rest of the species
so its configuration are diamagnetic.
= 1s 2 ,2s 2 2p6 , 3s 2 3p6 3d 8 60 Among the following which is not
d s p the π-bonded organometallic 63 Which of the following
compound? [CBSE AIPMT 2003] organometallic compounds is σ and
(a) K[PtCl3 (η2 − C2H4 )] π-bonded? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
dsp 2
(b) Fe(η5 − C 5H5 )2 (a) [Fe(η5 —C 5H5 )2]
−
CN is strong field ligand, hence it makes (b) K[PtCl3 (η2 —C2H4 )]
Ni2 + electrons to be paired up. (c) Cr (η6 –C 6H6 )2
(c) [Co(CO) 5 NH3] 2+
In [NiCl 4 ] 2 − , nickel is present as Ni2 + , so (d) (CH3) 4 Sn (d) Fe(CH3) 3
its configuration Ans. (d)
= 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 , 3 s 2 3p6 , 3d 8 Ans. (c)
d s p In (CH3) 4 Sn (organometallic compounds [Co(CO) 5 NH3]2 + . In this complex,
of tin) single bonds are present in form Co-atom attached with NH3 through
of sigma bond. pi-bonded σ-bonding and with CO through dative
organometallic compound includes π-bond.
sp 3 alkenes, alkynes and some other carbon
Cl − is a weak field ligand, hence inNi2 + containing compounds having
64 Coordination number of Ni in
electrons are not paired. pi-electrons in their molecular orbitals.
[Ni(C 2O 4 ) 3] 4– is
CH3 [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
58 Considering H2O as a weak field
Sn (a) 3 (b) 6
ligand, the number of unpaired H3C CH3 (c) 4 (d) 2
electrons in [Mn(H2O) 6] 2+ will be CH3 Ans. (b)
(At. no. of Mn = 25) Coordination number of nickel in
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] [Ni(C2O4 ) 3] 4– is 6 because C2O24– is a
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 4 61 The number of unpaired electrons bidentate ligand.
Ans. (b) in the complex ion [CoF6] 3– is
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
In [Mn(H2O) 6 ] 2 + , Mn is present asMn2 + or 65 Which statement is incorrect?
Mn (II), so its electronic configuration (At. no. of Co = 27) [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
= 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3s 3p , 3d
2 2 6 2 6 5 (a) 3 (b) 2 (a) Ni(CO) 4 -tetrahedral, paramagnetic
(c) 4 (d) 0 (b) [Ni(CN) 4] 2− -square planar,
d
Ans. (c) diamagnetic
p In complex ion[CoF6 ]3 – , Co is present in (c) Ni(CO) 4 -tetrahedral, diamagnetic
s d
+3 oxidation state (d) [Ni(Cl) 4] 2– tetrahedral,
27 Co = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s
2 2 6 2 6 7 2
paramagnetic
3+
Co = 1s , 2 s 2p , 3 s 3p 3d
2 2 6 2 6 6
Ans. (a)
sp 3d 2
Therefore, the number of unpaired
In [Mn(H2O) 6] 2+ the coordination electrons in3d subshell of [CoF6 ] 3− is 4.
In Ni(CO) 4 , Ni has zero oxidation state. It
number of Mn is six, and in presence is sp3 hybridised.
Co-ordination Compounds 155
05 In steam distillation of toluene, the 08 Prussian blue is formed when Ans. (b)
pressure of toluene in vapour is [CBSE AIPMT 1989] Lassaigne’s test is given by only those
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] (a) ferrous sulphate reacts with FeCl3 compounds which contain both carbon
(b) ferric sulphate reacts with and nitrogen. When compounds
(a) equal to the pressure of barometer
Na4 [Fe(CN) 6] containing C and N heated with sodium,
(b) less than the pressure of then it form NaCN which is easily
barometer (c) ferrous ammonium sulphate
detected byFeCl 3.
(c) equal to vapour pressure of reacts with FeCl3 Or
toluene in simple distillation (d) ammonium sulphate reacts with
Some compounds live hydrazine
(d) more than vapour pressure of FeCl3 (NH2 ⋅ NH2 ) although contain nitrogen but
toluene in simple distillation Ans. (b) they do not respond Lassaigne’s test
Ans. (b) When the sodium fusion extract is added because they do not have any carbon
with FeCl 3 and then the resulting solution and hence, NaCN is not formed.
In steam distillation of toluene, the
pressure of toluene in vapour is less than is acidified with dilute hydrochloric acid,
pressure of barometer, because it is the appearance of Prussian blue 11 In sodium fusion test of organic
carried out when a solid or liquid is colouration confirms the presence of compounds, the nitrogen of the
insoluble in water and is volatile with nitrogen in the organic compound. organic compound is converted
steam but the impurities are Na + C + N → NaCN into [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
non-volatile. FeSO4 + 2NaCN → Fe(CN) 2 + Na2SO4 (a) sodamide (b) sodium cyanide
Fe(CN)2 + 4NaCN → Na4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] (c) sodium nitrite (d) sodium nitrate
06 Which of the following techniques
3Na4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] + 4FeCl 3 → Ans. (b)
is most suitable for purification of
Fe4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3 + 12NaCl When the nitrogen containing compound
cyclohexanone from a mixture Prussian blue is heated with sodium, then nitrogen and
containing benzoic acid, isoamyl carbon of organic compound converted
alcohol, cyclohexane and into sodium cyanide.
cyclohexanone? [CBSE AIPMT 1997] TOPIC 2 Na + C2
1 +3
N → NaCN
(a) Crystallisation (b) IR spectroscopy Qualitative Analysis From organic compound
(c) Sublimation (d) Evaporation
Ans. (b) 12 Lassaigne’s test is used to detect
09 The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled
IR spectroscopy is used for the with conc. HNO 3 while testing for [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
purification of cyclohexanone from a (a) nitrogen (b) sulphur
mixture of benzoic acid, isoamyl alcohol,
halogens. By doing so it
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] (c) chlorine (d) All of these
cyclohexane and cyclohexanone
because in IR spectroscopy each (a) helps in the precipitation of AgCl Ans. (d)
functional group appears at a certain (b) increases the solubility product of The detection of chlorine, sulphur and
peak. IR spectroscopy exploits the fact AgCl nitrogen in organic compounds is done
that molecules absorb specific (c) increases the concentration of by Lassaigne’s test.
frequencies that are characteristic of NO –3 ions
their structure. (d) decomposes Na2 S and NaCN, if
formed
07 A is a lighter phenol and B is an Ans. (d)
TOPIC 3
aromatic carboxylic acid. Separation Quantitative Analysis
Na2S and NaCN, if present in the extract,
of a mixture of A and B can be will be decomposed toH2S and HCN by
carried out easily by using a HNO3 . 13 In Duma’s method for estimation of
solution of [CBSE AIPMT 1992] NaCN + HNO3 → NaNO3 + HCN nitrogen, 0.25g of an organic
(a) sodium hydroxide Na2S + 2HNO3 → 2NaNO3 + H2S compound gave 40 mL of nitrogen
(b) sodium sulphate These will escape from the solution and
(c) calcium chloride
collected at 300 K temperature and
will not interfere with the test for
(d) sodium bicarbonate halogens.
725 mm pressure. If the aqueous
tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the
Ans. (d)
10 Lassaigne’s test for the detection percentage of nitrogen in the
Carboxylic acids are soluble in sodium
bicarbonate but phenol are not dissolve of nitrogen fails in compound is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
in it, so they are separated because [CBSE AIPMT 1994] (a) 17.36 (b) 18.20 (c) 16.76 (d) 15.76
carboxylic acid react withNaHCO3 and (a) NH2CONHNH2 ⋅HCl Ans. (c)
form sodium carboxylate. (b) NH2NH2 ⋅HCl Mass of the substance taken = 0.25 g
R — COOH + NaHCO3 (c) NH2CONH2 Volume of nitrogen collected = 40 mL
→ R — COO−Na+ + H2 CO3 (d) C 6H5NHNH2 ⋅HCl Atmospheric pressure = 725 mm
Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds 159
01 The IUPAC name of the compound CH3 C CH2
[NEET 2017] is
H
(a) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
(‘yl’ suffix is used to represent one —H
(b) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one (a) 3-ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
less than the parent hydrocarbon.)
(c) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al (b) 3-ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene
(d) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal (c) 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene
03 Which nomenclature is not
Ans. (a) according to IUPAC system? (d) 4-ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene
O [CBSE AIPMT 2012] Ans. (d)
O
H C (a) Br CH2 CH == CH2 1
1 2
3 4 1-bromo prop-2-ene 2
5 CH3 3
6
4
— CHO group gets higher priority over > (b) CH 3CH 2 CCH 2CH CH 3 5
C == O and 6
C == C group in numbering of 4-ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene
Br CH3
principal carbon chain. 4-bromo-2, 4-dimethylhexane Priority order→ = > −
IUPAC name =
3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal. (c) CH3CHCHCH2CH3 05 The IUPAC name of the compound
having the formula
02 The structure of isobutyl group in CH3 CH≡≡C—CH==CH2 is
an organic compound is [NEET 2013] 2-methyl-3-phenylpentane
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
CH3 (a) 3-butene-1-yne
(a) CH CH2 (d) CH3C—CH2CH2CH2COOH (b) 1-butyn-3-ene
CH3 (c) but-1-yne-3-ene
O
(b) CH3 CH CH2 CH3 5-oxohexanoic acid (d) 1-butene-3-yne
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
(c) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 In IUPAC system of nomenclature, In IUPAC nomenclature, double bond is
CH3 given more preference than triple bond.
preference is given to multiple bond than
halogen substituent, so the correct 4 3 2 1
(d) CH3 C CH ≡≡ C CH == CH2
name of
1-butene-3-yne
3 2 1
CH3 Br CH2 CH==CH2 is
Ans. (a) 3-bromoprop-1-ene 06 The state of hybridisation of
Priority is given to double bond than C 2 , C 3 , C 5 and C 6 of the
‘Iso’ mean’s one Me group is present in
side chain. Hence, the structure of halogen. hydrocarbon,
Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry 161
(c) sp < sp2 > sp 3 (d) sp < sp2 < sp 3 11 Name of the compound given Cl CH2CH3
Ans. (b) below [CBSE AIPMT 2003] C ==C is
The correct order regarding the CH3 H 3C I
electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of H3C
carbon is sp > sp2 > sp3 because in sp, sp2 CH3
and sp3 hybrid orbitals, s-orbital (a) trans-3- iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
character is 50%, 33.3% and 25% CH3 (b) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
162 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
heptane.
CH3—C CH—CH3 21 With respect to the conformers of
1 2 3 4
16 For the compound ethane, which of the following
H3C — CH — CH — CH2 — CH3 statements is true?
19 Which of the following possesses a
sp-carbon in its structure? (a) Bond angle remains same but
CH3 CH2CH3 [CBSE AIPMT 1989] bond length changes [NEET 2017]
(a) CH2 == CCl — CH ==CH2 (b) Bond angle changes but bond
which of the following IUPAC length remains same
names is correct? (b) CCl2 == CCl2
(c) CH2 ==C ==CH2 (c) Both bond angle and bond length
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
change
(a) 2-methyl-3-ethyl pentane (d) CH2 ==CH — CH ==CH2
(d) Both bond angles and bond length
(b) 3-ethyl-2-methyl pentane Ans. (c) remain same
(c) 2-ethyl-3-methyl pentane In structure CH2 == C == CH2 , the middle Ans. (d)
(d) 3-methyl-2-ethyl pentane carbon is attached with two π-bonds, so
it have sp hybridisation. Isomers which are possible by rotation
Ans. (b) about single bonds without cleavage of
5 4 3 2 1 CH2==C==CH2
CH3—CH2—CH—CH—CH3 any bond are called conformers. In
sp2 sp sp2 ethane, an infinite number of
C2H5 CH3 Also, called allenes. conformations are possible. There are
3-ethyl-2-methyl pentane two extreme forms, the staggered
conformation, which is the most stable
Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry 163
and the eclipsed conformation which is H H H H (a) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
least stable. Among the conformers of (b) 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
H H
ethane, bond angle and bond length (c) 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
remains same while their energy, H H H H
(d) 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
stability and dihedral angle are different.
all carbons are sp2 -hybridised. Ans. (a)
22 The correct statement regarding a 24 Which among the given molecules The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate
carbonyl compound with a has 16 single bonds i.e. 16 σ-bonds and 2
can exhibit tautomerism? double bonds i.e. 2 σ-bonds and 2
hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, [NEET 2016, Phase II] π-bonds.
is [NEET 2016, Phase I] O O
Hence, the given structure has 18
(a) a carbonyl compound with a O Ph σ-bonds and 2 π-bonds.
hydrogen atom on its Ph
alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates I II III H
with its corresponding enol and (a) III Only (b) Both I and III H3C O
C
this process is known as C C
(c) Both I and II (d) Both II and III
aldehyde-ketone equilibration
(b) a carbonyl compound with a Ans. (a) O H OC2H5
hydrogen atom on its In tautomerism,α −hydrogen must be H
alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates present in the molecule. Thus, molecule σ Hσ H
with its corresponding enol and II will not show tautomerism. As at σ σ
H C s σ C σ O
this process is known as bridge, double bond is highly unstable. σ C σ p-bond
C
carbonylation Thus, molecule I will also not show H σ p-bond σ Hσ Hσ
(c) a carbonyl compound with a tautomerism. O O C σ C
σ σH
hydrogen atom on its For III molecule, σ σ
alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates H H
with its corresponding enol and O OH
this process is known as keto-enol 27 Which of the following compounds
H
tautomerism
III H
will undergoes racemisation when
(d) a carbonyl compound with a Enol form
Keto form solution of KOH hydrolysis?
hydrogen atom on its
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
alpha-carbon never equilibrates So only, III molecule will show CH2 Cl
with its corresponding enol tautomerism. Thus, correct option is (a). (a)
Ans. (c)
In keto-enol tautomerism, a carbonyl 25 Two possible stereo-structures of (b) CH3 CH2 CH2 Cl
compound with a hydrogen atom on its CH3CHOH⋅ COOH, which are
alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its optically active, are called CH3
corresponding enol. [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
O OH (c) CH3 CH CH 2 Cl
(a) diastereomers (b) atropisomers
R —C—CH2 R ′ r R —C—CHR ′ (c) enantiomers (d) mesomers CH3
Ketone Enol Ans. (c)
(d) C
(containing α-hydrogen) H Cl
COOH COOH
C2H5
23 In which of the following H OH HO H
Ans. (c)
molecules, all atoms are coplanar?
[NEET 2016, Phase II]
CH3 CH3 Option (c) is most probable answer. Out
Both are enantiomers. of compound (c) or (d), the (d) results in
(a) (b) formation of racemic product due to
chirality. Compound (c) although not
26 The enolic form of ethyl
chiral but can form racemic product.
acetoacetate as below has After removal of Cl − gives a carbocation
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] which in turn undergo racemisation after
H rearrangement.
CH3 CN H3C C O
(c) C C (d) C C
CH3 CN 28 The order of stability of the
Ans. (a) OH OC2 H5 H2 following tautomeric compound is
The molecule in which all the carbon H3C O [NEET 2013]
C
atoms are sp2 -hybridised will be C C OH O
coplanar. Thus, in option (a) i.e.
O OC2 H5 CH2 == C CH2 C CH3 º
I
164 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
do not show optical activity inspite of the 36 Which one of the following pairs 38 Which of the following pair of
presence of chiral carbon atoms are
represents stereoisomerism? compounds are enantiomers ?
called meso-compounds. The absence
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
of optical activity in these compounds is
(a) Chain isomerism and rotational CH3 CH3
due to the presence of plane of
symmetry in the molecule. isomerism H OH H OH
(b) Structural isomerism and (a) and
HO H H OH
geometrical isomerism
CH3 CH3
34 Which of the following is not chiral? (c) Linkage isomerism and
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] geometrical isomerism CH3 CH3
(a) 2-butanol (d) Optical isomerism and geometrical HO H HO H
isomerism (b) and
(b) 2, 3-dibromo pentane H OH HO H
(c) 3-bromo pentane Ans. (d)
CH3 CH3
(d) 2-hydroxy propanoic acid Pair of optical isomerism and
geometrical isomerism are able to CH3 CH3
Ans. (c)
exhibit the phenomenon of H OH HO H
(a) 2-butanol (c) and
stereoisomerism because both type of HO H H OH
H Chiral ‘C’ isomers differ only in their orientation in
| space. CH3 CH3
CH3CCH2CH3
| CH3 CH3
OH 37 The molecular formula of diphenyl
(b) 2,3-dibromo pentane H OH HO H
methane (d) and
H H HO H HO H
CH3 CH3
CH3CCCH2CH3
CH 2 is C13H12
Ans. (c)
Br Br Enantiomers are mirror images of each
Chiral ‘C’ How many structural isomers are other but they are not superimposable
(c) 3-bromo pentane possible when one of the on each other.
H hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine CH3 CH3
atom? [CBSE AIPMT 2004] H OH HO H
CH3CH2CCH2CH3 e.g. and
(a) 6 (b) 4 HO H H OH
Br (c) 8 (d) 7 CH3 CH3
Not chiral ‘C’ Ans. (b)
(d) 2-hydroxy propanoic acid The molecular formula of diphenyl 39 Geometrical isomers differ in
H methane shows four isomers in form of [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
mono chloro derivatives. (a) position of functional group
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CCOOH
(b) position of atoms
OH CH2 (c) spatial arrangement of atoms
Chiral ‘C’ (d) length of carbon chain
Hence, 3-bromopentane is not a chiral (diphenyl methane) Ans. (c)
molecule due to absence of chiral C13H12 Geometrical isomers The isomers
C-atom. Monochloro derivatives having same molecular formula but
Cl differ in the position of atoms or groups
35 The chirality of the compound in space due to hindered rotation about a
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(i) CH2 double bond.
Br
s
••
–R +R
Ans. (a) (c)
So, with the options, order of reactivity Halogenation of benzene is an example
in ArSE2 reaction will be of electrophilic substitution reaction.
(d) > (a) > (c) > (b) AlCl3
CH3
+ Cl2 —Cl + HCl
CHO
84 Which of the following is a free Chlorobenzene
radical substitution reaction?
Reaction given in option (b) is an example (d)
[(NEET (Oct.) 2020]
of addition reaction, reaction in option
(a) Benzene with Br2 / AlCl3 (c) is an example of nucleophilic
(b) Acetylene with HBr substitution and option (d) is an example
(c) Methane with Br2 /hv of substitution reaction. NO2
(d) Propene with HBr/(C 6H5COO)2 Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) 86 In an SN 1 reaction on chiral centres Reactivity of carbonyl compounds
Br / AlCl
(a) C6H5 H
2
3→ C6H5 Br there is [CBSE AIPMT 2015] towards nucleophilic addition reactions
−HBr
(a) 100% racemisation depends on the presence of substituted
It is an electrophilic group.
aromatic substitution (ArSE2) reaction.
(b) inversion more than retention
leading to partial racemisation Electron withdrawing (−I, − M) groups
HBr
(b) HC ≡≡ CH → CH2 == CH Br (c) 100% retention
increase reactivity towards nucleophilic
HBr addition reactions. Thus, correct order is
→ CH3 CHBr2 (d) 100% inversion
Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry 173
24 Reaction of HBr with propene in 25 The compound, the decreasing order of stability is
the presence of peroxide gives CH3 [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] (a) II > I > III (b) III > II > I
(a) iso-propyl bromide CH3 —C == CH—CH3 on reaction (c) III > I > II (d) I > II > III
(b) 3-bromo propane with NaIO 4 in the presence of Ans. (b)
(c) allyl bromide KMnO 4 gives [CBSE AIPMT 2003] Stability of alkene
(d) n-propyl bromide (a) CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO 1
∝
Ans. (b) CH3CHO + CO2 Heat of hydrogenation of alkene
(d) Reaction of HBr with propene in the (c) CH3COCH3 Stability of an alkene depends upon the
presence of peroxide gives n-propyl (d) CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH heat of hydrogenation of an alkene.
bromide. This addition reaction is an Therefore, lower the heat of
example of anti-Markownikoff’s addition Ans. (d)
hydrogenation of an alkene, higher will
reaction. H3C be stability.
NaIO
(i.e. it is completed in form of free radical C == CH— CH3 + 3[O]
4
→ Order of stability is
in presence
addition) H3C of KMnO4
trans-but-2-ene > cis-but-2-ene >
Peroxide H3C but-1-ene.
CH3 — CH == CH2 + HBr →
C ==O + CH3COOH Heat of hydrogenation (kJ/mol) are 115.5,
CH3 — CH2 —CH2Br 119.6 and 126.8 respectively.
H3C
n− propyl bromide
Mechanism of this reaction is
28 In a reaction,
represented asfollows : 26 Which alkene on ozonolysis gives
Hypochlorous
Step I Formation of free radical of CH3CH2CHO and CH3 C CH3 ? CH2 == CH2 →M
acid
peroxide by means of decomposition.
C6H5 — C—O O— C — C6H5 → ∆ O CH2OH
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] →
R
O O
Benzoyl peroxide CH3 CH2OH
•
2C6H5 — COO (a) CH3CH2 CH==C
Benzoate free radical CH3 M = molecules, R = reagent. M and R
Step II Benzoate free radical forms are [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(b) CH3CH2 CH ==CHCH2 CH3
bromine free radical with HBr. (a) CH3CH2 Cl and NaOH
(c) CH3CH2 CH==CHCH3
• • (b) CH2 Cl ⋅ CH2OH and aq. NaHCO3
C6H5 COO + H Br → C6H5 COOH + Br (d) CH3 — C==CHCH3 (c) CH3CH2OH and HCl
Step III Bromine free radical attacks on
CH3 (d) CH2 CH2 and heat
C== C of propene to form intermediate
free radical. Ans. (a)
•
O
•
CH3 — CH==CH2 +Br → CH3 — CH— CH2 + When O3 reacts with alkene, it forms Ans. (b)
| ozonide, which on reaction with Zn and CH2OH
Br acid or H2 / Ni gives aldehydes and/or HOCl
CH2 == CH2 →
1° free radical ketones. These products helps in CH2 Cl
(less stable) locating the position of a double bond as
•
‘ M’ CH2OH
CH3 R
CH3 C H CH2Br →
2° free radical NaHCO 3 ( aq ) CH2OH
(more stable)
CH3—CH2—CH == C + O3
Glycol
• CH3
Hence, CH3 — C H — CH2Br is the major CH2OH
O So, M is and R is NaHCO3.
product of this step.
CH3 CH2 Cl
Step IV More stable free radical accept CH3—CH2—CH C
hydrogen free radical from benzoic acid CH3
and give final product of reaction. i.e. 29 In the presence of platinum
n-propyl bromide. O O
Ozonide
•
catalyst, hydrocarbon A adds
(Reduction)
CH3 — CH— CH2Br + C6H5 COOH → CH3—CH2—CHO + CH3COCH3 hydrogen to form n-hexane. When
Zn/H2O
• + ZnO + H2O hydrogen bromide is added to A
CH3 — CH2 — CH2Br + C6H5 COO
n-propyl bromide instead of hydrogen only a single
Step V Benzoate free radicals are 27 Among the following alkenes, bromo compound is formed. Which
changed into benzoyl peroxide for the 1-butene cis-2-butene of the following is A?
termination of free radical chain. I III [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
• •
C6H5 COO + C6H5 COO → (C6H5 COO)2 trans-2-butene (a) CH3 —CH2 —CH ==CH —CH2 —CH3
II (b) CH3 —CH2 —CH2 —CH ==CH —CH3
180 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
(c) CH3 —CH ==CH — CH2 —CH2 —CH3 (c) R —C == O (d) R — CH — CH2 alkene thus formed has
(d) CH2 ==CH —CH2 —CH2 —CH2 —CH3 cis-configuration.
Ans. (a) CH3 OH OH —
H3C—C=
=C—CH3
H2, Pd/C
Quinoline
CH3 — CH2 — CH == CH— CH2 — CH3 Ans. (b) But-2-yne
Reagent Ans. (d) towards the carbon atom and help in the
44 R—CH2 —CCl 2 —R → Acetylene have shortest C—C bond release of H+ ions.
R —C ≡≡ C —R. The reagent is length because it have C ≡≡ C triple bond. For a example ethyne react with sodium
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] The bond length follows the following metal and release theH+ ions.
(a) Na (b) HCl in H2O order CH≡≡ CH + Na → HC ≡≡ C−Na+
(c) KOH in C2H5OH (d) Zn in alcohol C — C > C ≡≡ C > C ≡≡ C
Ans. (c)
Dehydrohalogenation reaction,
48 Which is the most suitable reagent TOPIC 4
among the following to distinguish
Cl
compound (III) from rest of the
Aromatic
C 2 H 5 OH + KOH
RCH2 — C — R →
–KCl, –H 2 O
compounds? [CBSE AIPMT 1989] Hydrocarbons
Cl I. CH3 —C ≡≡ C —CH3
KOH + C H OH II. CH3 —CH2 —CH2 —CH3 50 In the following reaction,
RCH== C — R → 2 5
–KCl, –H2 O III. CH3 — CH2 — C ≡≡ CH H3C C ≡≡ CH →
Red hot iron tube
A,
873 K
Cl IV. CH3 — CH== CH2
R — C ≡≡ C — R (a) Br2 / CCl4 (b) Br2 / CH3COOH the number of sigma (σ) bonds
In presence of ethanolic KOH, substrate (c) Alk. KMnO 4 present in the product A is
gives elimination reaction. (d) Ammoniacal AgNO 3 [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
Ans. (d) (a) 21 (b) 9
45 Select the true statement about (c) 24 (d) 18
It may be noted that only the terminal
benzene amongst the following. alkynes react with ammoniacal silver Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] nitrate. Therefore, this reaction can be Key Idea Single bond = 1σ, Double bond
(a) Because of unsaturation benzene used to distinguish between 1-alkynes = 1σ, 1 π; Triple bond = 1σ and 2π.
easily undergoes addition and others such as alkane, alkenes and Alkynes form aromatic compounds when
(b) There are two types of C—C bonds non-terminal alkynes. their vapours are passed over red hot
in benzene molecule CH3 — CH2 — C ≡≡ CH + 2[Ag(NH3) 2 ]NO3 copper or iron tubes.
(c) There is cyclic delocalisation of → CH3CH2 C ≡≡ CAg ↓ Red hot iron tube
3CH3—C≡≡CH
pi-bonds in benzene White ppt. 873 K
(d) Monosubstitution of benzene gives CH3
49 Acetylenic hydrogens are acidic
three isomeric products because [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (c) (a) sigma electron density of C—H
According to the orbital concept, each bond in acetylene is nearer to H3C CH3
carbon atom in benzene is Mesitylene
carbon which has 50% s-character (A)
sp2 -hybridised and one p-orbital of each (b) acetylene has only one hydrogen
carbon remains unhybridised. The The number of sigma (σ) bonds present
on each carbon in the product (A) is 21.
π-electron charge in benzene is not
(c) acetylene contains least number
confined to space between two carbon H
of hydrogens among the possible σ|
atoms as in ethylene, but is spread over σ
a greater area. This is known as the hydrocarbons having two carbons H—
σ C—H
delocalisation of the electron charge. (d) acetylene belong to the class of σ
σ σ σ σ
alkynes with molecular formula H H
C nH2 n −2 π
46 Which one of the following has the H σ π σ H
shortest carbon-carbon bond Ans. (a) σ| σ π σ |σ
σ C σ σ C
length? [CBSE AIPMT 1992] Acidic character of alkynes can be
H σ σ| σ H
σ|
(a) Benzene (b) Ethene explained on the basis of H H
sp-hybridisation state of the carbon H
(c) Ethyne (d) Ethane
atom in alkynes. We know that an
Ans. (c) electron in s orbital is more tightly held 51 In the given reaction
Ethyne (acetylene) have shortest C—C than in a p orbital because s-electrons
HF
bond length because it have C ≡≡ C i.e. are more closer to the nucleus. In +
0°C
P
triple bond. The bond length follows the sp-hybridisation, s-character is more
following order (50%) as compared to sp2 -(33%) or
the product P is
C ≡≡ C < C == C < C C sp3-(25%) hybrid orbitals. Due to very
[NEET 2016, Phase I]
large s-character, the electrons in
sp-hybrid orbitals are held tightly by the F
47 The shortest C—C bond distance is (a) (b) F
nucleus and are quite electronegative.
found in [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
Consequently, the electron pair of
(a) diamond (b) ethane (c) F — C ≡≡ bond gets displaced more
benzene (d) acetylene
Hydrocarbons 183
FeCl 3 + Cl2 → FeCl −4 + Cl + (c) H2C ==CH2 + C 6H6 62 Which one of these, is not
Electrophile attacking species (d) H3C —CH3 + C 6H6 compatible with arenes?
(Q—CH3 is an o/p-directing group.) Ans. (c) (a) Greater stability [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
In presence ofhν, reaction is free radical From the reaction of benzene with (b) Delocalisation of π-electrons
substitution reaction. ethylene in the presence of anhy. AlCl 3, (c) Electrophilic additions
CH3 CH2Cl ethylbenzene isproduced. (d) Resonance
CH2 — CH 3
Ans. (c)
Cl2 Cl2
Anhy. AlCl3 Arenes gives an electrophilic
hν hν + CH2 ==CH 2 95°C substitution reactions. They do not give
electrophilic addition reaction in normal
CHCl2 CCl3 60 In Friedel-Craft’s synthesis of state due to resonance stabilisation.
toluene, the reactants in addition
Cl2 to anhydrous AlCl 3 are 63 Which is the correct symbol
hν [CBSE AIPMT 2000] relating the hetero Kekule
(a) C 6H5Cl + CH4 (b) C 6H5Cl + CH3Cl structure of benzene?
Trichloromethyl
(c) C 6H6 + CH4 (d) C 6H6 + CH3Cl [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
benzene
Ans. (d) (a) º (b) → (c) ≡≡ (d) ←→
57 Nitrobenzene can be prepared Friedel-Craft’s alkylation of benzene Ans. (d)
from benzene by using a mixture of (Ar—H) Kekule in 1865 proposed a ring
conc. HNO 3 and conc.H2SO4 . In Mechanism of this reaction is structure for benzene in which the
the mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an represented as follows : position of the three double bonds are
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] Step I not fixed. He suggested that the
(a) reducing agent (b) acid + double bond keeps on changing their
CH3Cl + AlCl 3 → C H3 + AlCl –4
(c) base (d) catalyst Electrophilie position and this is called resonance.
Ans. (c) According to Kekule, benzene is a
Step II
resonance hybrid of two structures (a)
Conc. H2SO4 and conc. HNO3 react in the H CH3
and (b) and the hybrid structure may
following manner be represented as (c). The (a) and (b)
+ Slow
HNO3 +H2SO4 → H2NO+3 + HSO–4 + CH3 + are called resonating structures and
Base Acid are represented by putting ( ←→)
Intermediate
H2NO+3 → NO2+ + H2O carbocation double headed arrow between them.
Nitronium
ion Step III
Attacking species
(electrophile) H CH3 CH3
Hence, in this reactionHNO3 acts as a
– Fast (a) (b) (c)
base andH2SO4 as an acid. + + AlCl4
64 Benzene reacts with n-propyl
58 Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the + AlCl3 + HCl chloride in the presence of
presence of anhy. AlCl 3 to form Thus, C6H6 and CH3Cl are required in anhydrous AlCl 3 to give
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] addition to AlCl 3. [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(a) toluene (b) chlorobenzene (a) 3-propyl-1-chlorobenzene
(c) benzylchloride (d) xylene 61 In Friedel-Craft’s alkylation, besides (b) n-propyl benzene
Ans. (a) CH3 AlCl 3 the other reactants are (c) no reaction
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] (d) iso-propyl benzene
Anhy. AlCl3 (a) C 6H6 + NH2 (b) C 6H6 + CH4 Ans. (d)
+ CH3Cl (c) C 6H6 + CH3Cl (d) C 6H6 + CH3COCl Electrophilic substitution reaction of
Ans. (c) benzene ring yields iso-propyl benzene.
Benzene Toluene
This reaction is known as Friedel-Craft’s Friedel-Craft’s alkylation When
alkylation of benzene. benzene reacts with alkyl halide in + Cl—CH2—CH2—CH3 Anhy. AlCl3
presence of anhy. AlCl3 , toluene is n-propyl chloride
obtained. It is called Friedel-Craft’s H3C—CH—CH3
59 Using anhy. AlCl 3 as catalyst, which alkylation reaction. Friedel-Craft’s
Benzene
CH3 CH3 O
H H —Cl |
Br MgBr C—O—MgBr
Br2/FeBr3
Electrophilic Cl3C C O+
CH3 substitution Trichloroacetaldehyde CO2 +
CH3 H3O
H —Cl
Not possible
due to steric Chlorobenzene
O
hinderance
Conc. H2SO4 –H2O ||
C—O—H
29 Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl 3CHO
reacts with chlorobenzene in the H —Cl + Mg(OH)Br
presence of sulphuric acid and Cl3C C
P
produces [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Cl —Cl
31 Replacement Cl of chlorobenzene
(a) Cl C Cl Dichlorodiphenyl to give phenol requires drastic
trichloroethane (DDT) conditions but chlorine of 2,
CH2Cl 4-dinitro chlorobenzene is readily
Cl 30 MgBr replaced. This is because
[CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(i) CO2
+ P (a) NO2 makes the ring electron rich at
(ii) H3O
ortho and para-positions
In the above reaction product ‘P ’ (b) NO2 withdraw electrons from
meta-position
(b) Cl C Cl is [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(c) NO2 donates electrons at
CHO COOH meta-position
H
OH (d) NO2 withdraw electrons from ortho/
(a) (b) para-positions
(c) Cl C Cl Ans. (d)
Cl OH —NO2 group is electron withdrawing
O group, so it deactivates the benzene ring.
||
(d) Cl CH Cl (d) C6H5—C—C6H5 Due to electron withdrawing nature of
(c) —NO2 group, it develops positive charge
CCl3 at o/pposition. This cause easier for the
Ans. (d) Ans. (b) removal of —Cl-atom.
24
Organic Compounds
Containing Oxygen
TOPIC 1 Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
δ+ δ– Least substituted
EDG (+ R, + I) decreases acidity and EWG
Alcohols and Phenols (− R, − I) increases acidity of phenol. H OH sp2 carbon
(i) B2H6
(a) OH CH3CH2 CH CH2
01 The major product formed in (ii) H2O, H2O2, OH
–
dehydrohalogenation reaction of
2-bromo pentane is pent-2-ene. Anti-Markownikoff's
addition of H2O (overall)
This product formation is based on H OH
[NEET 2021]
NO2
(a) Saytzeff’s rule (b) Hund’s rule CH3CH2—CH—CH2
(Z )
(c) Hoffmann rule (d) Huckel’s rule –R from para position Butan-1-ol
Ans. (a) makes its a stronger acid
It is hydroboration-oxidation (HBO)
Saytzeff’s rule states that more (b) OH reaction of an alkene which undergoes
substituted alkene is formed in a hydration to give an alcohol.
dehydrohalogenation reaction. Here, anti-Markownikoff’s addition of H2O
In dehydrohalogenation of takes place.
2-bromopentane, pent-2-ene is formed
as major product which is a more 04 The structure of intermediate A in
substituted alkene. OCH3
the following reaction, is
Br +R from para-position [NEET (National) 2019]
–HBr
deceases its acid remarkably CH3
CH
2-bromopentane Major (pent-2-ene) OH CH3
+ O2 H+
A H2O
Minor (pent-1-ene) (c, d)
(R = CH3, C2H5) OH
O
02 Which of the following substituted
R
phenols is the strongest acid? + H3C CH3
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] +I from para position
decreases its acidity CH3
OH OH
Thus, option (a) is correct.
(a) H3CCOOH
(a) (b) B2H6
03 CH3CH2CH== CH2 −→ Z
H2 O,H2 O2 ,OH
NO2 OCH3
what is Z? [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
OH OH CH3
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(b) OOCH
(b) CH3 CH2 CHCH3
(c) (d)
CH3
OH
C2H5 CH3 (c) CH3CH2CH2CHO (d) CH3CH2CH2CH3
192 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
(a) K2Cr2O7
(c) H2 C == CH CH2 Cl →
aq. NaOH PCl5
↓
COCH3 aq.NaOH C2H5 Cl
(i) NaOCl (d) CH2Cl Ethyl chloride
(b) (C )
(ii) H3O+ − S N2
+
CH2OH (ii) C2H5 O N a + C2H5 Cl →
CH2OH
PCC C2H5 O C2H5 + NaCl
(c) Ans. (a) Diethyl ether
(Pyridinium
chlorochromate)
Cl is a benzylic halide. Thus, The above reaction is known as
CH2OH Williamson’s ether synthesis. It involves
KMnO4/H + there is a partial double bond character
(d) nucleophilic attack of alkoxide ion on
between sp3-hybridised C atom next to
alkyl halide according toS N 2
an aromatic ring and Cl. It is most
mechanism.
Ans. (c) difficult to break this bond and hence it
C2H5O− + CH3 CH2 Cl →
Slow
undergoes hydrolysis reaction with
Primary aromatic alcohols on reaction
slowest rate. Nucleophile Substrate
with pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) (Alkoxide ion) (Alkyl halide)
Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen 193
+ Fast
C2H5 O… CH2 … Cl − → OH OH Ans. (d)
O2N NO2 OH OH
CH3 (c) (d) CHO
Dil./NaOH
C2H5 O C2H5 + Cl − + CHCl3
NO2 NO2 Phenol Chloroform Major
09 Compound A, C 8H10 O, is found to
OH
react with NaOI (produced by Ans. (d)
reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a Thinking process This problem is based
yellow precipitate with on the acidic character of phenol. +
characteristic smell. Electron -withdrawing group ato and
p-position w.r.t. —OH group of phenol, CHO
A and Y are respectively. increase the acidic strength. Minor
[NEET 2018]
Picric acid (2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol) is This is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. So
extremely more acidic than given finally —CHO group is introduced
(a) CH CH3 and I2
compounds because its pKa value is
OH close to zero also due to the presence of 13 Which of the following reaction(s)
three strong electron withdrawing group
( NO2 group) at ortho and
can be used for the preparation of
(b) CH2 CH2 OH and I2
para-positions, picric is more acidic alkyl halides? [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
anh.ZnCl
compound. I. CH3CH2OH+ HCl 2→
(c) H3C CH2 OH and I2
11 Which of the following reagents II. CH3CH2OH+ HCl →
CH3 would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, III. (CH3 ) 3 COH+ HCl →
2-diol from the trans-isomer? IV. (CH3 ) 2 CHOH+ HCl 2→
anh.ZnCl
(d) CH3 OH and I2 [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(a) Ozone (a) I, III and IV (b) I and II
Ans. (a) (b) MnO2 (c) Only IV (d) III and IV
Iodoform reaction with sodium (c) Aluminium isopropoxide Ans. (a)
hypoiodite is used for the detection of (d) Acetone In (I) and (IV) due to the presence of
CH3CO group. Also compounds Ans. (d) Lucas reagent (HCl + anh. ZnCl2 )
containing CH3CH(OH) group shows alcohols give alkyl halides while in (III)
cis-cyclopenta-1,2-diol when reacts alkyl halide is formed due toS N 1
positive iodoform test as it produces
CH3CO group on oxidation.
with acetone, forms cyclic ketal reaction.
whereas trans-isomer of cyclopenta-1,
Since, among the compounds,
2-diol can not form cyclic ketal. 14 Which of the following is not the
CH3CH(OH) group is given only in the
substrate of option (a) hence, it is OH
CH3 product of dehydration of
correct. The reaction of compound A + O == C
with NaOI is given as follows : CH3
OH
2NaOH + I2 → NaOI + NaI + H2O cis – cyclopenta Acetone
?
-1, 2-diol
OH
NaOI O CH3
CH CH3
C [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
OH O CH3
(A) C CH3 Cyclic ketal
But, (a) (b)
O OH
Acetophenone CH3
I2/NaOH + O == C
- CH3
CONa++ CHI3 OH
Iodoform Trans-cyclopenta -1, 2-diol (c) (d)
O (yellow ppt.)
Sodium benzoate No reaction
Ans. (b)
10 Which one is the most acidic 12 Reaction of phenol with chloroform Key Concept When
compound? [NEET 2017] in the presence of dilute sodium intermediate carbocation is
OH OH hydroxide finally introduces, which stable, no rearrangement takes place in
one of the following functional carbocation.
group? [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(a) (b)
(a) CH2Cl (b) COOH
(c) CHCl2 (d) CHO
CH3
194 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
CH3
18 Which one is a nucleophilic
∆
OH
–H2O
+ (a) H3C—C—CH—CH3 substitution reaction among the
following? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
OH CH3
(a) RCHO + R′ MgX → R — CH— R′
+ CH3
OH
(b) CH2—C—CH2—CH3 CH3
15 Which of the following will not be
soluble in sodium hydrogen OH CH3 (b) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 Br
carbonate? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] CH3 + NH3 → CH3 CH2
(a) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol CH3
(c) H3C—C—CH—CH3
(b) Benzoic acid
CH CH2 — NH2
(c) o-nitrophenol CH3OH
(d) Benzenesulphonic acid CH3 (c) CH3CHO + HCN → CH3 —CH(OH)CN
Ans. (c)
H+
OH (d) H3C—C—CH2—CH2 (d) CH3 CH == CH2 + H2O →
NO2 CH3 OH CH3 CH CH3
NaHCO3
1No reaction
Ans. (a)
OH
CH3 CH3
O-nitrophenol is insoluble in sodium | | + Ans. (b)
H+
hydrogen carbonate. While H3CCCH== CH2 H3CCCHCH3
| | (a) RCHO+ R ′MgX →
2,4,6-trinitrophenol, benzoic acid and CH3 (Nucleophilic
CH3 addition)
benzene sulphonic acid are soluble in 2° carbocation
NaHCO3. R CH R ′
Infact, Acid + NaHCO3 → Salt + H2 CO3 CH3 CH3
OH
This reaction is possible in forward H3C CCHCH3
(i) H2O
direction if acid is more acidic than H+ | | (ii) –H+
(b) CH3 CH2 CH CH2Br + NH3
H2 CO3. o-nitrophenol is less acidic than CH3 OH CH3
H2 CO3. Hence, it is not soluble in sodium Minor product
hydrogen carbonate. ‘B’ → CH3 CH2 CH CH2NH2
CH3 (Nucleophilic
| substitution)
16 In the following sequence of CH3 C CH CH3 → (c) CH3CHO + HCN →
reactions, | | (Nucleophilic
KCN H 3O + LiAlH 4 CH3 O+ addition)
CH3 Br → A → B → C CH3CH(OH)CN
ether H
H CH3
the end product C is | (d) CH3 CH == CH2 + H2O
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] CH3 C CH CH3 H+
| + → CH3 CH CH3
(a) acetone (b) methane (Electrophilic
CH3 addition)
(c) acetaldehyde (d) ethyl alcohol 2° carbocation OH
(less stable)
Ans. (d)
H O+ CH3 CH3
KCN
CH3Br → CH3CN →
3
CH3COOH 19 In the following reactions,
Methyl −KBr Ethane Complete Ethanoic 1, 2-Me shift H 2O [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
bromide nitrile hydrolysis acid H3CCCCH3
CH3
A B +
→
4LiAlH
CH3CH2OH H H + /Heat
Ether
Ethanol 3° carbocation I. CH3—CH—CH—CH3 →
C (more stable)
In the presence ofLiAlH4 carboxylic acid CH3 H OH
reduce in alcohols directly.
–H+ A + B
17 In the following reaction, H3CCCCH3 Major Minor
CH3 product product
+ O CH3 HBr, dark
H 2O/H + H H CH3 CH3 II. A →
H3C C CH==CH2 → in absence of peroxide
H3CCCHCH3 C + D
CH3 Major
product
Major
product
OH
A + B
Major product Minor product
2,3-dimethyl butan-2-ol the major products A and C are
(major product) respectively
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] ‘ A’
Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen 195
–
(a) CH2 ==CH2 (b) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 CH3 COOH OH O
(c) CH3CH2OSO 3H (d) CH3CH2OH
Ans. (d) Alk. KMnO4
PBr3 h + H+
C2H5OH → C2H5Br
Ethanol Toluene Benzoic acid Phenol Phenoxide ion
→
Alc. KOH
CH2 == CH2 Y Z
–K Br
–H 2 O Phenoxide ion is stabilised due to
β- elimination
25 Ethylene oxide when treated with following resonating structures :
H SO
2 4 H O/ ∆ Grignard reagent yields s
→ CH3 CH2OSO3H →
2
O O O
–H2 SO4 [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
CH3CH2OH (a) secondary alcohol s
Ethanol (b) tertiary alcohol
23 H2COH⋅ CH2OH on heating with (c) cyclopropyl alcohol
periodic acid gives (d) primary alcohol s
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] I II III
Ans. (d)
(a) 2CO2 (b) 2HCOOH s
Ethylene oxide on treatment with O O
CHO H Grignard reagent give additive product s
(c) (d) 2 C==O which undergo hydrolysis to give primary
CHO H alcohol as final product
OH
CH2CH2 + RMgX RCH2CH2OMg IV V
Grignard’s
KOH
O reagent
+ CHCl3 –NaCl, Ethylene oxide 28 The enzyme which hydrolysis
Hydrolysis triglycerides into fatty acids and
–H2O RCH2CH2OH –Mg(OH)X
Phenol
OH Primary alcohol glycerol is called
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
CHO
(a) maltase (b) lipase
26 The general molecular formula, which
(c) zymase (d) pepsin
represents the homologous series of
Ans. (b)
Salicylaldehyde alkanols is [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
CH2OOCR CH2OH
Ans. (d) (a) C nH2 nO2 (b) C nH2 nO
Lipase
CH2OH (c) C nH2 n + 1O (d) C nH2 n + 2O CHOOCR + 3H2O hydrolysis
CHOH
+ HIO4 → Ans. (d)
CH2OH Periodic acid CH2OOCR CH2OH
Alkanols are the derivatives of alkanes Triglycerides Glycerol
Ethylene glycol (Oxidising agent) which are derived by the replacement of
H —H of alkanes with —OH (hydroxyl + RCOOH
2 C==O + HIO3 Fatty acid
H groups).
–H C H
CnH2 n + 2 → 29 Which of the following will not form
n 2 n + 1 OH
24 Consider the following reaction, Alkanes
+OH Alkanols
a yellow precipitate on heating with
Phenol or CnH2 n + 2O an alkaline solution of iodine?
Alk. [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Zn -dust CH Cl KMnO4
→ X →
3
Y → Z 27 Which one of the following (a) CH3CH(OH)CH3
Anhy. AlCl 3
compounds is most acidic ? (b) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
The product Z is [CBSE AIPMT 2005] (c) CH3OH
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] (d) CH3CH2OH
OH
(a) toluene (b) benzaldehyde (a) ClCH2—CH2OH (b) Ans. (c)
(c) benzoic acid (d) benzene
NO2 An organic compound form yellow
Ans. (c) precipitate of iodoform with I2 in
OH OH
OH presence of alkali, if it has
Friedel-Craft's
(c) (d) CH3CO — group directly or it has
reaction
CH3 H
Zn-dust CH3Cl
–ZnO anhy. AlCl3 Ans. (c) CH3 C group.
reduction
Phenol of Phenol Benzene Phenols are much more acidic than OH
X alcohols, due to the stabilisation of
NaOH
phenoxide ion by resonance (a) CH3CH(OH)CH3 + I2 → CH3COCH3
+ 2HI + 3NaI + CH3COO−N+ a + 3H2O
Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen 197
Ans. (c)
Resonance
– representation Resonance stabilisation of phenoxide ion 40 The boiling point of p-nitrophenol is
of phenol
– higher than that of o-nitrophenol
δ +OH O O O
OH because [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Ans. (a) of functional group are known as (b) H3C CH2 CH2 OH and
Cl OH metamers and this phenomenon is I C(CH3) 3
O2N NO2 NO2 NO2
known as metamerism. (c) H3C CH2 CH2 I and
(a) C5H12 contains no functional group. HO C(CH3) 3
H2O
Warm
So, it cannot show metamerism. (d) H3C CH2 CH2 OH and
dil. HCl (b) C3H8O has ether functional group in HO C(CH3) 3
NO2 NO2 which only one arrangement is Ans. (a)
Picric acid possible. So, it does not show
or 2, 4, 6-trinitrochlorobenzene metamerism. Ethers are readily cleaved by heating in
presence of halogen acids to form
CH3 — O — CH2 — CH3
alcohol and an alkyl halide. In case of
50 When phenol is heated with CHCl 3 (c) C3H6O has carbonyl functional group unsymmetrical ethers, halogen goes
and alcoholic KOH, salicylaldehyde is in which following two arrangements preferentially with smaller alkyl group or
are possible. more stable carbocation.
produced. This reaction is known as
[CBSE AIPMT 1989, 88]
O If excess of acid is used then only alkyl
(a) Rosenmund’s reaction CH3 — C— CH3, CH3CH2 CHO halide is formed because alcohol formed
(b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction reacts further with halogen acid to form
So, it shows functional group corresponding alkyl halide.
(c) Friedel-Craft’s reaction isomerism and does not show
HI
(d) Sommelet reaction metamerism. CH3CH2CH2OC(CH3)3
∆
Ans. (b) (d) C4H10O has ether functional group in CH3CH2CH2OH + (CH3)3 I
which following two arrangements
When phenol is heated with chloroform ‘D’
are possible. So, it shows ∆ Excess
(CHCl 3) and alcoholic KOH, metamerism.
HI
salicylaldehyde is formed. This reaction CH3CH2CH2I
is known as Reimer-Tiemann reaction. CH3 O CH2 CH2 CH3
Methoxy propane ‘C’
OH
CH3 CH2 O CH2 CH3
Ethoxy ethane 55 The heating of phenyl-methyl
+ CHCl3
KOH
53 Anisole on cleavage with HI gives: ethers with HI produces. [NEET 2017]
–NaCl,
–H2O [NEET (Sep.) 2020] (a) ethyl chlorides (b) iodobenzene
OH I I
(c) phenol (d) benzene
Phenol
CHO Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) (c) CH3 (CH2 ) 4 O CH3 product with hot conc. HI. The order of
The formation of ether from alcohol in stability of carbocation is
the presence of base followed by (d) CH3CH2 CH(CH3) O CH2CH3 3° > 2° > 1°
alkylation is known as Williamson ether CH3
Ans. (a)
synthesis reaction.
HBr / H2 O2 Thus, CH3 C OCH3 gives CH3OH as
OH
NaH
OsNa+
CH3CH2 CH == CH2 →
–H2 Anti - Markownikoff' s rule
CH3
Alkylation MeI CH3CH2 CH2 CH2Br → one of the product. The reaction
Bromo-butanane (1° product) proceeds as
NaI + O
Me C 2 H ONa CH3
⋅⋅
CH3CH2 CH2 CH2Br →
5
⋅⋅
SN 2 reaction
H3C C O CH3 + H+
57 The reaction, (Williamson’s synthesis)
CH3 CH3CH2 CH2 CH2OC2H5 CH3
Ethoxy-butane CH3
CH3 C ONa + CH3CH2Cl +
59 Among the following sets of → H3C C O CH3
CH3 reactants which one produces
anisole? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] CH3 H
CH3 CH3
(a) CH3CHO, RMgX
→
−NaCl
CH3 C O − CH2 − CH3 (b) C 6H5OH, NaOH, CH3 I → H3C C+ +CH3OH
(c) C 6H5OH, neutral FeCl3
CH3 (d) C 6H5 —CH3, CH3COCl, AlCl3 CH3
3°carbocation
is called [CBSE AIPMT 2015] Ans. (b) CH3
(a) Williamson synthesis Williamson’s synthesis +I È
→ CH3 C I + CH3OH
(b) Williamson continuous etherification OH O-N+a Methanol
process CH3
(c) Etard reaction
(d) Gatterman-Koch reaction + NaOH
61 The reaction
Ans. (a)
CH3
The reaction of alkyl halides with sodium OCH3
alkoxide or sodium phenoxide to form
ethers is called Williamson synthesis. H3C CH CH2 O CH2 CH3
CH3I
Here, in this reaction alkyl halide should Heated
be primary and alkoxide, should be SN2 + HI → ---
bulkier as shown below, Anisole Which of the following
R X + R ′ ONa → compounds will be formed?
Alkyl
halide
Sodium alkoxide 60 Among the following ethers which [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
R O R ′+NaX one will produce methyl alcohol on CH3
Ether treatment with hot concentrated
CH3 (a) H3C CH CH2 I + CH3CH2OH
HI? [CBSE AIPMT 2013]
CH3 C ONa + CH3CH2 Cl → (a) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 O CH3 (b) CH3 CH CH3 + CH3CH2OH
−NaCl
CH3 (b) CH3 CH2 C H O CH3 CH3
CH3
(c) CH3 CH CH2OH + CH3CH3
CH3
CH3 C O CH2 CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
(c) CH3 C O CH3 CH3
58 Identity Z in the sequence of CH3 (d) H3C CH CH2OH + CH3 CH2 I
reactions, [CBSE AIPMT 2014] Ans. (d)
(d) CH3 CH CH2 O CH3
HBr /H2O 2 When conc. HI or HBr reacts with ether,
CH3CH2CH == CH2 → Y
CH3 the corresponding alcohol and alkyl
C 2H ONa
5
→ Z Ans. (c) iodide is formed. When there is a case of
mixed ethers the halogen atom attaches
(a) CH3 (CH2 ) 3 O CH2CH3 The ether which gives more stable to the smaller alkyl group, due to steric
carbocation, forms CH3OH as one of the effect.
(b) (CH3)2 CH2 O CH2CH3
202 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Enolate ion
[NEET 2021] H2
H
(i) C2H5MgBr, Dry ether Tautomerism Pd/BaSO4
Acetone → product (Lindlar catalyst)
(ii) H O, H+ O —H O Benzoyl chloride
2
H2O (A) CHO
(a) 2-methyl propan 2-ol PhC==CH2 Ph C==CH2
–OH
(b) pentan-2-ol Oδ
–
O
(c) pentan-3-ol H2O Benzaldehyde
(ii) Ph CH + CH2 C Ph
(d) 2-methyl butan-2-ol +
δ –OH s
It is Rosenmund reaction, in which an
Ans. (d) OH O acid chloride gets converted into an
–H2O aldehyde.
Acetone on reaction with Grignard Ph CH CH C Ph
reagent and on further hydrolysis gives
2-methyl butan-2-ol as follows H 71 Predict the correct intermediate
Aldol PhCH==CH COPh
– + and product in the following
O OMgBr
69 Identify compound X in the reaction. [NEET 2017]
(i) C2H5MgBr H2 O, H2 SO4
CH3CCH3 CH3CCH3 following sequence of reactions. H3C C ≡≡ CH →
Dry ether
Acetone HgSO4
C2H5 CH3 CHO
OH Intermediate → Product
( A) ( B)
Cl2/hv H2O
(ii) H2O, H+ CH3—C—CH3 X 373 K (a) A =H3C C == CH2 ;
CH2
[NEET (Sept.) 2020] SO4
CH3 CH2Cl CHCl2 B=H3C C CH3
(Product)
IUPAC name of product is O
(a) (b)
2-methylbutan-2-ol. (b) A =H3C C == CH2 ;
CCl2 Cl OH
68 Reaction between benzaldehyde
and acetophenone in presence of B =H3C C == CH2
dilute NaOH is known as (c) (d)
[NEET (Sept.) 2020] SO4
(a) Cannizzaro’s reaction Ans. (b) (c) A =H3C C CH3;
(b) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
An 1, 1-gem-dihalide on hot hydrolysis O
(c) Cross aldol condensation (H2O/373 K) can produce an aldehyde.
(d) Aldol condensation B =H3C C ≡≡ CH
Cl
Ans. (c) CH3 CH (d) A =H3C C == CH2 ;
Cl
Dilute NaOH is the reagent for aldol OH
condensation. Dilute NaOH process 2Cl2
hν B =H3C C CH3
enolate ion from acetophenone which
CHO
attacks benzaldehyde to give aldol. (X)
O
Ans. (d)
O H2O
PhCH==O + CH3CPh 373 K
Benzaldehyde Acetophenone
OH O 70 Identify compound (A) in the
Dil. NaOH
PhCHCH2CPh following reaction.
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
O
–H2O CHO
PhCH==CHCPh
(Cis + trans) H2/Pd/BaSO4
A
It is cross aldol condensation or
Claisen-Schmidt reaction or Claisen (a) Benzoyl chloride (b) Toluene
reaction. (c) Acetophenone (d) Benzoic acid
204 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
OH
Identify A, X , Y and Z [NEET 2017] 75 The correct structure of the
Therefore, A = CH3 C == CH2 (a) A-methoxymethane, X-ethanoic acid, product A formed in the reaction
O Y-acetate ion, Z-hydrazine [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(b) A-methoxymethane, X-ethanol, O
B = CH3 C CH3 Y-ethanoic acid, Z-semicarbazide
H2 (gas, l atmosphere)
(c) A-ethanal, X-Acetaldelyde, A is
72 Of the following which is the Y-but-2-enal, Z-semicarbazone Pd/carbon, ethanol
product formed when (d) A-ethanol, X-acetaldehyde,
cyclohexanone undergoes aldol Y-butanone, Z-hydrazone OH O OH OH
condensation followed by heating? Ans. (c) r
[NEET 2017] (a) (b) (c) (d)
O Aldehydes gives silver mirror test so, ‘X’
may be alcohol which is oxidised by Cu
gives aldehydes. Ans. (b)
(a)
Therefore, In presence of Pd-catalyst, selective
A is acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) reduction of α,β-unsaturated carbonyl is
OH observed as hydrogenation takes place
Cu/573 K
C 2H5OH → CH3CHO of carbon-carbon double bond only.
oxidation
(b) Acetaldehydol
(A ) O O
[Ag(NH3 )2]
O → Silver H2 (gas 1, atmosphere)
OH /D
Tollen's reagent mirror observed Pd/ Carbon, Ethanol
(c)
2
NH
OH 76 Treatment of cyclopentanone
O
O
C
Aldol But-2-en-1-al
(Y)
condensation gives which of the following
O O
2
species?
NH
CH3 O OH
81 The oxidation of benzene by V2O 5
CH3 CH3
Ans. (a) in the presence of air produces
CH3 II.
1 α CH3 CH3 [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
O3 (a) benzoic anhydride
CH3 Zn,H
2 2 O OH (b) maleic anhydride
CH3 CH3 H γ H (c) benzoic acid
(d) benzaldehyde
OHC1 C C2 β
CH2 CH2 O III. CH3 CH3 Ans. (b)
H α O
H3C CH3 CH3
O OH Air
CHC
O3 O
2 Here, γ-H participates in tautomerism. V2O5
Zn,H2 CHC
H3C 1
O CH3
79 An organic compound X having O
Maleic anhydride
molecular formula C 5H10 O yields
H C CH2 CH CH CHO phenyl hydrazone and gives
1 2 82 Reaction by which benzaldehyde
negative response to the iodoform
CH3 cannot be prepared? [NEET 2013]
test and Tollen's test. It produces
H3C CH3
CH3 n-pentane on reduction. X could be CH3
1 [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (a) + CrO2Cl2 and CS2
O3
Zn,H2
OHC C CH2 (a) pentanal
2 1 followed by H3O+
(b) 2-pentanone
CH3 (c) 3-pentanone COCl
CH2 CHO (d) n-amyl alcohol (b) + H2 in presence of
2 Pd-BaSO4
Ans. (c)
CH3 O
2 Since, the compound X yields phenyl
O3
1 H3C C CH2 hydrazone and gives negative response (c) + CO + HCl in presence of
Zn,H2 to the iodoform test and Tollen’s test , it
CH3 1 anhy. AlCl3
O must contain a C == O group but is
neither a methyl ketone nor an aldehyde.
CH2 CH2 C CH COOH
The structure of X could be
2
O
(d) + Zn / Hg and conc. HCl
78 Given,
CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3 Ans. (d)
CH3 CH3 3-pentanone
CH3 CH3
having molecular formula C5H10O. (a)
2CrO2Cl2
CH3 CS2
CH3
80 Reaction of a carbonyl compound CH3.2CrO2Cl2
CH3 with one of the following reagents
O O O
(I) (II) (III) involves nucleophilic addition Brown
(addition product)
followed by the elimination of
Which of the given compounds CHO
water. The reagents is
can exhibit tautomerism? [CBSE AIPMT 2015] H2O
[CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(a) a Grignard reagent
(a) I and II (b) hydrazine in presence of feebly Benzaldehyde
(b) I and III acidic solution
(c) II and III This reaction is known as Etard
(c) hydrocyanic acid
reaction.
(d) I, II and III (d) sodium hydrogen sulphite
206 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
O O Ans. (c)
C Cl When benzaldehyde is treated with 50%
(b)
Pd/BaSO4, S (a) CH 3CH 2CH 2CCH 3 alkali, it undergoes oxidation to give an
(Boiling xylene) acid salt as well as reduction to give an
O
Benzoyl alcohol. This reaction is called
chloride CHO (b) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 C CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 Cannizaro’s reaction.
OH CHO CH2OH
+ HCl (c) (CH3)2C 3½
This reaction is called Rosenmund OC2H5 50% KOH 2
reaction. +
OC2H5
Anhy. AlCl3 (d) (CH3)2C Cl 1 Cl
(c) + CO + HCl 3-hydroxy methyl
OC2H5
chlorobenzene
CHO Ans. (d)
–+ or
1 COOK
+ HCl When carbonyl compounds are treated COO–
with alcohol, they form hemiacetal
The above reaction is known as 2
(hemiketal and acetal/ketal.)
Gattermann-Koch aldehyde synthesis. 3
COOH (CH3)2C ==O+ C2H5OH
HCl
Cl
Conc. HCl Acetone ethanol
Potassium-3-chloro Cl
(d) + Zn/Hg benzoate
(2-propanone) OH
COCl (CH3)2C
OC2H5 86 Clemmensen reduction of a ketone
Hemiketal
+ H2O is carried out in the presence of
C2H5OH OC2H5
Thus, from the reactants given in option (excess)
(CH3)2C which of the following?
(d) benzaldehyde is not obtained. OC2H5 [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
HCl Ketal
NOTE Formation of hemiketal is a (a) Zn-Hg with HCl
83 CH3CHO and C 6H5CH2CHO can be nucleophilic addition reaction. (b) LIAlH4
distinguished chemically by (c) H2 and Pt as catalyst
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] 85 Predict the products in the given (d) Glycol with KOH
(a) Benedict test reaction, [CBSE AIPMT 2012] Ans. (a)
(b) iodoform test CHO The reducing agent used in Clemmensen
(c) Tollen’s reagent test reduction is Zn-Hg and HCl.
(d) Fehling solution test Zn-Hg /HCl
50% KOH C == O → CH2
Ans. (b)
CH3CHO and C6H5 CH2 CHO both being Cl
aliphatic aldehydes react with Tollen’s – 87 Acetophenone when reacted with a
CH2OH CH2COO
reagent, Fehling solution and Benedict base, C 2H5ONa, yields a stable
solution. So, these reagents cannot be (a) compound which has the structure
used to distinguish them. + [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
CH3CHO due to the presence of
O Cl Cl C CHC
(a)
CH — C — group reacts with NaOH CH2OH OH O
3 CH3
(b)
+ CHCH2C
and I2 to give yellow crystals of iodoform (b)
while C6H5 CH2 CHO does not react with it. OH OH CH3 O
CH3CHO + 3I2 + 4NaOH → CHI3
CH2OH COO– CH3 CH3
+ HCOONa + 3NaI + 3H2O
C6H5 CH2 CHO + I2 + NaOH → (c) CC
+ (c)
No reaction
OH OH
Thus, CH3CHO and C6H5 CH2 CHO can be Cl Cl
distinguished by iodoform test.
CHCH
CH2OH COO– (d)
84 Acetone is treated with excess of (d) OH OH
ethanol in the presence of + Ans. (a)
hydrochloric acid. The product
obtained is [CBSE AIPMT 2012] OH OH Aldehydes and ketones withα-hydrogen
atom, when reacted with a base yields
Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen 207
aldol which on heating loses water (c) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone Ans. (a)
molecule to giveα, β-unsaturated (d) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester Clemmensen reduction Aldehydes and
aldehydes or ketones. This reaction is Ans. (b) ketones are reduced to the
called aldol condensation reaction. corresponding alkanes by means of
Condensation between two molecules of
C2H5ONa iC2H5O– + Na+ amalgamated zinc and HCl.
an aldehyde or a ketone having atleast
Base one α-hydrogen atom in presence of a Zn-Hg /HCl
C==O +4[H] → CH2 + H2O
C O base to form a β-hydroxy aldehyde or
+ C2H5O
– β-hydroxy ketone is known as aldol
CH3 Base condensation. Aldol condensation are 92 Nucleophilic addition reaction will
divided into two parts one is self aldol be most favoured in
condensation and another is cross-aldol [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(Abstract the acid hydrogen) condensation, when both molecules are
O O
s same then it is called self aldol and vice
CH2—C versa. (a) CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3
C2H5OH + H H
(b) (CH3)2 C ==O
O O OH −
H C C +H C C 3 (c) CH3CH2CHO
(Attacking species) H H
(d) CH3CHO
(Nu) H H
CH3 O α -hydrogen Ans. (d)
s H H
—C O + CH2C O Slow
→ CH3 C C C Nu C==O
α β H Nucleophile Carbonyl
OH H compound
CH3 O 3-hydroxy butanal or
b-hydroxy aldehyde O– H+ OH
CCH2C C C
Fast
Nu
– 90 Which one of the following on Tetrahedral Adduct Nu
O
CH3 O
treatment with 50% aqueous intermediate
sodium hydroxide yields the The carbonyl compounds undergo
H
+ C−CHC corresponding alcohol and acid? nucleophilic addition reaction because
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] oxygen is more electronegative than
OH H (a) C 6H5CH2CHO carbon. As such, it withdraws shared
π-electron pair towards itself and gets
CH3 O (b) C 6H5CHO
partial negative charge, therefore
(c) CH3CH2CH2CHO carbon get partial positive charge and
—C CHC O becomes susceptible to nucleophilic
–H2O attack.
(d) CH3 C CH3
Aldehydes are more reactive than
Ans. (b) ketones towards nucleophiles. This can
88 A strong base can abstract an Aldehydes which do not have any be explained on the basis of inductive
α-hydrogen from α-hydrogen atom when heated with a effect as well as steric effect. The
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] concentrated solution of NaOH undergo addition of nucleophiles is based upon
(a) alkene (b) amine a simultaneous oxidation and reduction the positive charge present on carbon
(c) ketone (d) alkane (disproportionation) forming a salt of atom of C==O group. In aldehyde
carboxylic acid and alcohol. This
Ans. (c)
reaction is called Cannizaro reaction. C==O group is present with at least
Since the carbonyl carbon is electron 2C6H5 CHO + NaOH → C6H5 CH2OH
deficient, so most susceptible to attack
Benzyl alcohol one alkyl group (except formaldehyde)
by nucleophilic reagents or base. A base − + which has +I-effect (electron donating
increases the acidity of hydrogen atom + C6H5 COONa
effect) and which decreases the positive
attached to theα-C of the ketones or Sodium benzoate
charge of carbon, thereby making the
aldehydes. That’s why α-hydrogen is
attack to nucleophile difficult. The
easily abstracted from ketones by a 91 Reduction of aldehydes and nucleophilic attack becomes more
base, e.g. in aldol condensation reaction,
α-hydrogen atom of aldehyde or ketone
ketones into hydrocarbons using difficult in ketones having minimum of
zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is two alkyl groups.
is abstracted by a strong base.
called [CBSE AIPMT 2007] Hence, by means of attachment of alkyl
groups (due to +I-effect) rate of
89 The product formed in aldol (a) Clemmensen reduction nucleophilic addition decreases. That
condensation is [CBSE AIPMT 2007] (b) Cope reduction means e − density at C-atom decreases,
(a) a beta-hydroxy acid (c) Dow reduction nucleophilic addition reaction increases.
(b) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a (d) Wolff-Kishner reduction Order of +I-effect in alkyl group
beta-hydroxy ketone
208 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
condensation and another is cross-aldol So, its IUPAC name is oxygen atom. The actual structure may
condensation. When both molecules are 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanone be represented as
same called as self aldol and vice versa. δ+ δ−
(Colourless liquid) (Camphor odour) C==O or O
C --------
107 Aldehydes and ketones will not 110 (CH3 ) 2 C==CHCOCH3 can be Consequently, the carbonyl carbon is
form crystalline derivatives with positively charged while the oxygen is
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] oxidised to (CH3 ) 2 C==CHCOOH by negatively charged. The positively
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] charged carbon is easily attacked by a
(a) sodium bisulphite
(a) chromic acid (b) NaOI nucleophilic reagent (Nu− ).
(b) phenyl hydrazine
(c) semicarbazide hydrochloride (c) Cu at 300°C (d) KMnO 4 Slow O–
C == O + Nu– → C
(d) dihydrogen sodium phosphate Ans. (b) Nu
Aldehyde Intermediate
Ans. (d) Haloform reaction, or ketone
O
Dihydrogen sodium phosphate sp2 hybridisation planar structure.
(NaH2PO 4 ) does not react with (CH3)2 C==CHCOCH3 contains CH3 — C — H + OH
aldehydes and ketones because → C
unit so it can be oxidised to fast Nu
NaH2PO 4 does not have any lone pair (CH3)2 C==CH— COOH by NaOI. Addition product
of electron on phosphorus atom, so it O sp3 hybridisation tetrahedral structure.
cannot act as a nucleophile. NaOI
CH3 C == CH C CH3 →
113 The reagents which can be used to
108 Benzaldehyde reacts with ethanolic CH3 distinguish acetophenone from
KCN to give [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
CH3 C == CH COOH + CHI3 benzophenone is (are)
(a) C 6H5CHOHCN [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
(b) C 6H5CHOHCOC 6H5 CH3
(a) 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(c) C 6H5CHOHCOOH 111 In which of the following the (b) aqueous solution of NaHSO3
(d) C 6H5CHOHCHOHC 6H5 number of carbon atoms does not (c) Benedict reagent
Ans. (b) remain same when carboxylic acid (d) I2 and Na2 CO3
H H is obtained by oxidation? Ans. (d)
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
C O C O The structures of acetophenone and
(a) CH3COCH3 (b) CCl3CH2CHO benzophenone are
(c) CH3CH2CH2OH (d) CH3CH2CHO O
KCN Ans. (a)
+
C2H5OH
Ketones are not easily oxidised. CH3C
OH O However, under drastic conditions or Acetophenone O
with powerful oxidising agents such as
HCC conc. HNO3, KMnO4 / H2SO4 or C
K2 Cr2O7 / H2SO4 , cleavage of
carbon-carbon bond takes place giving a Benzophenone
mixture of carboxylic acids having less When acetophenone containing
number of carbon atoms than the O
Benzoin original ketone.
(hydroxy ketone) O CH3 C unit, is treated withI2 and
This reaction is also called benzoin [O] Na2 CO3 it forms yellow precipitate of
condensation. Benzoin is chiral and it CH3 C CH3 → HCOOH
Acetone conc. HNO3 Formic acid CHI3 whereas benzophenone does not
exists as a pair of enantiomer, i.e. give this test.Acetophenons gives
R-benzoin and S-benzoin. + CH3COOH iodoform test due to presence of
Acetic acid
COCH3 group.
109 Pinacolone is [CBSE AIPMT 1994] 112 Acetaldehyde reacts with
HCl
(a) 2,3-dimethyl-2,3-butanediol
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
114 3CH3COCH3 →
(a) only electrophiles –H 2O
(b) 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanone (A)
(b) only nucleophiles
(c) 1-phenyl-2-propanone (CH3 ) 2 C==CH—CO—CH==C(CH3 ) 2
(c) only free radicals
(d) 1,1-diphenyl-2-ethanediol (B)
(d) both electrophiles and nucleophiles
Ans. (b) This polymer (B) is obtained when
Ans. (b)
The structure of pinacolone is
The carbonyl group is highly reactive acetone is saturated with HCl gas,
CH3 O polar group. It is polarised due to the B can be [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
higher electronegativity of oxygen in (a) phorone
CH3CCCH3 (b) formose
4 3 2 1 comparison to carbon. As a result, the
electrons present between carbon and (c) diacetone alcohol
CH3
oxygen are more attracted towards (d) mesityl oxide
Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen 211
OH Ans. (d)
COCH3
H2 O
C—CH3 R COOR ′ → R COOH + R ′OH
HCN (i) C2H5MgBr
C6H6 LiAlH4 / ether
CN Anhy. AlCl3 (ii) Ether hydrolysis
R — CH2OH + R ′OH
C
OH B C6H5 C2H5 According to the above equation, it is
C clear that reduction of hydrolysed
C—CH3 CH3 OH product of ester byLiAlH4 gives two
2HOH alcohols.
C
COOH
OH 136 Which one of the following esters
D 133 In the following reaction, product P
C—COOH cannot undergo Claisen
is
or
self-condensation ?
CH3 H [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
R —C —Cl → 2
P
Pd -BaSO 4 (a) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOC2H5
131 Which one of the following orders O (b) C 6H5COOC2H5
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] (c) C 6H5CH2COOC2H5
of acidic strength is correct ?
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] (a) RCH2OH (b) RCOOH (d) C 6H11CH2COOC2H5
(c) RCHO (d) RCH3
(a) RCOOH > HOH > HC ≡≡ CH > ROH Ans. (b)
(b) RCOOH > HC ≡≡ CH > HOH > ROH Ans. (c)
The ester which containsα-hydrogen
(c) RCOOH >ROH > HOH > HC ≡≡ CH The given reaction is Rosenmund atom undergoes Claisen-self
reaction
(d) RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC ≡≡ CH condensation :
H2
Ans. (d) R —C— Cl → R — C—H + HCl (a) CH3(CH2)3 COC2H5 + HCHCOOC2H5
Pd -BaSO4 |
Carboxylic acid is stronger than alcohol O CH2CH2CH3
and water because after removal of O O
( P) Claisen
proton, carboxylate ion is stabilised by
Condensation
resonance. Hence, correct order of acid
strength is 134 Benzoic acid may be converted into CH3CH2CH2CH2CCHCOOC2H5
ethyl benzoate by reaction with
RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC ≡≡ CH O CH2CH2CH3+C2H5OH
Which is based upon the rate of donation [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(a) sodium ethoxide (b) C6H5 COOC2H5 + C6H5 COOC2H5
of proton or strength of base, thus order
(b) ethyl chloride No reaction, because for Claisen
of basic strength is
– – condensation an ester with
C ≡≡ CH > R — O > OH– > RCOO– (c) dry HCl, C2H5OH α-hydrogen atoms is required.
O– (d) ethanol
O (c) C6H5CH2CO OC2H5 + H CHCOOC2H5
C Ans. (c)
—
—
—C —
C6H5
—
O
O– Claisen
benzoic acid and ethanol in the presence C6H5CH2COCHCOOC2H5
Resonating structures of carboxylate ion Condensation
of dry HCl. This reaction is known as
esterification reaction. C6H5
132 In a set of the given reactions, Dry
acetic acid yielded a product C. C6H5 COOH + C2H5OH C6H5 COOC2H5 (d) C6H11CH2CO OC2H5 + HCHCOOC2H5
(a) C 6H5COOC2H5 139 An ester is boiled with KOH. The (c) glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at
(b) C 6H5COOC 6H5 373 K
product is cooled and acidified with
(d) acetaldehyde is oxidised withK2 Cr2O7
(c) H3CCOOC 6H5 conc. HCl. A white crystalline acid and H2SO4
(d) p -H3COC 6H4COCH3 separates. The ester is
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
COOH
Glycerol
OMgBr (a) methyl acetate (b) ethyl acetate → == HCOOH + CO2 ↑
CH3MgBr (c) ethyl formate (d) ethyl benzoate COOH Heat 373K Formic acid
C6H5COOC2H5 C6H5COC2H5 Oxalic acid
A Ans. (d)
CH3
KOH 143 Among acetic acid, phenol and
–(C2H5O)MgBr
C6H5 COOC2H5 → C6H5 COOK+
Boiling
Ethyl benzoate n-hexanol which one of the
OMgBr O + C2H5OH following compound will react with
CH3MgBr ||
C6H5CCH3 C6H5CCH3 H+ /H O NaHCO 3 solution to give sodium
C6H5 COOK →
2
C6H5 COOH ↓ salt and CO 2 ? [CBSE AIPMT 1993, 99]
CH3 Benzoic acid
(white precipitate) (a) Acetic acid
H2O
(b) n-hexanol
OH 140 Schotten-Baumann reaction is a (c) Acetic acid and phenol
Conc. H2SO4 reaction of phenols with (d) Phenol
C6H5CCH3 C6H5CCH2
–H2O [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Ans. (a)
CH3 CH3 (a) benzoyl chloride and NaOH +
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COON a
(B) (b) acetyl chloride and NaOH Sodium
Acetic acid
carbonate
O3/H2O (c) salicylic acid and conc. H2 SO 4 + H2O + CO2 ↑
C6H5C==CH2 C6H5CCH3
|| (d) acetyl chloride and conc. H2 SO 4
CH3 O Ans. (a) 144 Sodium formate on heating yields.
B (C8H8O) [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
Schotten-Baumann reaction
(a) Oxalic acid and H2
I Aq NaOH .
C6H5 COCl + C6H5OH →
2
C6H5CCH3 NaOH CHI3 + C6H5COONa (b) Sodium oxalate and H2
| Iodoform pyridine
O (c) CO2 and NaOH
C6H5 COOC6H5 + HCl (d) Sodium oxalate
138 Consider the following 141 The preparation of ethyl Ans. (b)
transformations acetoacetate involves COONa
+
CaCO3 HCOONa
Heat Heat
→ + H2 ↑
CH3COOH → A → B [CBSE AIPMT 1994] + +
HCOONa
I2 (a) Wittig reaction Sodium formate
CO ONa
Hydrogen
→ C The molecular formula of (b) Cannizaro’s reaction
Sodium
NaOH oxalate
C is (c) Reformatsky reaction
[CBSE AIPMT 1996]
OH (d) Claisen condensation 145 Benzoic acid gives benzene on
Ans. (d) being heated with X and phenol
(a) CH3 C CH3 (b) ICH2 COCH3 gives benzene on being heated with
Claisen condensation
I O Y. Therefore, X and Y are respectively
–
C2 H5 ONa+ [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(c) CHI3 (d) CH3I CH3 C OC2H5 + HCH2 COOC2H5 →
(a) sodalime and copper
Ans. (c) O
(b) Zn dust and NaOH
CH COO
CaCO 3
2CH3COOH → 3 Ca CH3 C CH2 COOC2H5 + C2H5OH (c) Zn dust and sodalime
CH3COO (d) sodalime and zinc dust
Ethyl acetoacetate
A
Ans. (d)
Heat
→ Na2 CO3 + H2O 142 Formic acid is obtained when COOH
– CaCO 3
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
2 I +NaOH
+ CHI3 ← CH3COCH3 (a) calcium acetate is heated with conc. NaOH + CaO
C Acetone H2SO4 Decarboxylation
B
(b) calcium formate is heated with
+ CH3COONa calcium acetate Benzoic acid Benzene
216 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
O
Inductive effect 06 Consider the reaction
s
(CH3) 3N > (CH3)2 (NH) > (CH3)NH2 Step III CH3 C N Br → CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN →
H O
H3C H----OH2 CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr
+ + •• s
H3C—N—H----OH2 > N This reaction will be the fastest in
CH3 C N •• + Br
H3C H----OH2 (a) ethanol [NEET 2016, Phase II]
H
Step IV
(2°) O (b) methanol
OH2
•• (c) N, N′-dimethylformamide (DMF)
(1°) H3C + CH3 C N •• intermolecular
→ CH3NCO (d) water
> N—H----OH2 alkyl migration
H3C
Ans. (c)
∆
CH3 StepV CH3NCO + 2OH− → CH3NH2 + CO23− The given reaction followsS N 2
(3°) mechanism andS N 2 reactions are
Strong +I-effect and hydrogen bonding 05 Which one of the following nitro- favoured in polar aprotic medium like
favours higher basic strength of 2º DMSO, DMF... etc.
compounds does not react with
amine. Thus, the correct order of basic CH3CH2 CH2Br + NaCN → DMF
strength in aqueous media will be nitrous acid? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
CH3CH2 CH2 CN + NaBr
(CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3) 3N H2
H2 H3C C So, the correct option is (c).
(a) H3C C (b)
04 Which of the following reactions is CH NO2
C NO2 H3C
appropriate for converting acetamide H2 07 Method by which aniline cannot be
to methanamine? [NEET 2017] CH3 prepared is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
H3C
(a) Carbylamine reaction (a) hydrolysis phenyl isocyanide with
(c) H3C C NO2 (d) H3C C acidic solution
(b) Hofmann hypobromamide reaction H3C
H NO2 (b) degradation of benzamide with
(c) Stephens reaction O bromine in alkaline solution
(d) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis Ans. (c) (c) reduction of nitrobenzene with
Ans. (b) H2 / Pd in ethanol
Key Idea 1° and 2° nitro compounds
The conversion of amide with no react withHNO2 while 3°-nitro compound (d) potassium salt of phthalimide
substituent on nitrogen to an amine does not. treated with chlorobenzene followed
containing one carbon less by the action The reactions of given compounds with by the hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH
of alkaline hypobromide or bromine in HNO2 are as follow solution
presence of NaOH. It involves the Ans. (d)
HON == O
migration of alkyl or aryl group with its CH3CH2 CH2NO2 → Due to resonance in chlorobenzene C—Cl
electron pair to electron deficient N 1° -nitro bond acquires double bond character
from adjacent carbon. The reaction compound
CH3 CH2 C NO2 hence, C—Cl bond is inert towards
involves the intermediates of nucleophile (phthalimide ion). Therefore
isocyanate. N OH
aniline cannot be prepared.
O H2
H3C C HO N O
∆
CH3 C NH2 + Br2 + NaOH → CH NO2 08 The number of structural isomers
Acetamide H3C possible from the molecular
1°-nitro compound N OH
CH3NH2 + NaBr + Na2 CO3 + H2O formula C 3H9 N is
Mathanamine CH3 CH C NO2 [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
O CH3 (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 2 (d) 3
Step I CH3 C NH2 + Br2 CH3
Ans. (d)
O HO N O
CH3 C CH NO2 Structural isomers of C3H9N are
→ CH3 C N Br O CH3CH2 CH2NH2 ,CH3 CH CH3
CH3 CH C NO2
1°-nitro compound
H
CH3 N NH2
O OH 1444442444443
1° -amine
H3C
Step II CH3 C N Br + OH− HO N O
No reaction
H3C C NO2 CH3 CH2 NH CH3, CH3 N CH3
H
H3C 2 ° -amine
O 3°-nitro compound
CH3
3° - amine
→ CH3 C N Br + H2O Thus, option (c) is incorrect.
s
Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen 219
−
09 Acetamide is treated with the OH – •• 15 In the reaction,
(ii) RCONHBr → R CO N Br + H2O
following reagents separately. CH3CN + 2H →
HCl
X →
2
Y,
Boiling H O
−
Which one of these would yield •• K+ •• SnCl2
(iii) R C N Br → R C N + KBr
methyl amine? [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
• • the term Y is [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(a) NaOH/ Br2 O O (a) acetone (b) ethanamine
(b) Sodalime (iv) On rearrangement
•• ••
(c) acetaldehyde (d) dimethyl amine
(c) Hot conc. H2 SO 4
(d) PCl5
R C— N
••
º R N == C == O Ans. (c)
HCl
Ans. (a) O CH3CN + 2H → CH3 CH == NH
SnCl 2
•• X
Key Idea The reagent which can convert (v) R N == C == O + 2KOH → RNH2 Imide
CONH2 group into —NH2 group is used H2 O
for this reaction. + K2 CO3 CH3 CH ==O ←
Boil
Y
Among the given reagents only NaOH/
Br2 converts CONH2 group to NH2 12 Amides can be converted into Acetaldehyde
COOH NH2
HNO 3 + H2 SO 4 → H2NO 3+ + HSO 4− HNO2
C6H5NH2 → C6H5 N2+ Cl
(a) (b) 0 - 5° C
Aryl amine
(273-278K)
↓
H2O + ↓NO2+ at 0-5°C temperature
NH2 Br
Electrophile NaNO2 + HCl → HNO2 + NaCl
CONH2 SO2NH2
(nitronium ion) Thus, HNO2 does not convert aryl amines
(c) (d) into phenol.
NO2 NO2
+
CH3
—N==N— —N N-nitroso-N-methylaniline
CH3 (nitroso compound)
[Resonance structure of benzene diazonium ion] (yellow oily liquid)
Coupling product
Y
48 Aniline in a set of the following 50 In a reaction of aniline a coloured
49 Predict the product, products C was obtained.
reactions yielded a coloured [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
product Y. [CBSE AIPMT 2010] CH3
NHCH3 NH2 —N
NH2 NaNO2 CH3
+ NaNO2+HCl Product B C
HCl Cold
NaNO2/HCl N, N-dimethylaniline A
(273-278 K) X Y
CH3
The structure of C would be
The structure of Y would be N N O [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
CH3 (a)
(a) —N==N —N CH3 (a) N NCH2
CH3
NNO2
CH3 CH3 (b) N
Ch3
Ans. (d) (a) CH3NH N==N NHCH3
H N
CH3 NH2 + –
N + N2Cl
NaNO2
Cold
HCl (b) CH3 N==N NH2
p-(N,N-dimethyl) amine azobenzene (Diazotisation)
(azodye) A
Benzene diazonium
CH3
chloride (c) (CH3)2N N==N
N N
CH3 CN
CuCN H2 /Ni
C
(Sandmeyer's (Reduction) (d) (CH3)2N N==N —CH3
reaction)
B
51 Aniline in a set of reactions yielded Cyanobenzene Ans. (c)
a product [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
Aniline on diazotisation in cold (at0° to
CH2NH2
NH2 5° C) gives benzene diazonium chloride.
NaNO2 CuCN H2 CH2OH
HNO2
A B C 0-5°C
HCl Ni NH2 + NaNH2 + 2HCl Diazotisation
C
Benzyl amine
HNO2 D + _
D Benzyl alcohol N==N—Cl + NaCl + 2H 2 O
The structure of the product D Benzene diazonium
would be 52 Aniline when diazotised in cold and chloride
(a) C 6H5CH2NH2 then treated with dimethyl aniline, This benzene diazonium chloride on
(b) C 6H5NHCH2CH3 gives a coloured product. Its coupling with dimethyl aniline gives a
structure would be coloured product, i.e. p-(N,N-dimethyl)
(c) C 6H5NHOH amino azobenzene (azo dye).
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(d) C 6H5CH2OH
26
Polymers
TOPIC 1 Isoprene shows 1, 4-addition with glycine (H2N CH2 COOH) and amino
themselves to give cis-1, 4-polyisoprene caproic acid (H2N(CH2 ) 5 COOH).
Classification of or natural rubber. The remaining polymers, i.e. nylon-6,6,
Polymers CH3 CH3 ( NH(CH2 ) 6 NHCO(CH2 ) 4 CO)n ,
nylon-6- ( CO(CH2 ) 5 NH ) n and buna-S
----CH2==CCH==CH2 CH2==C—CH==CH2----
01 Which of the following statement is 1 2 3 4 1′ 2′ 3′ 4′ C6H5
correct about bakelite? 1, 4-addition
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] polymerisation ( CH2 CH == CH CH2 CH
)n
(a) It is a cross linked polymer. H3C H H3C H are non-biodegradable polymers.
(b) It is an addition polymer. C==C C==C Hence, option (a) is correct.
2 3 2′ 3′
(c) It is a branched chain polymer. CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
1 1′ 4′
(d) It is a linear polymer. Natural rubber 05 Regarding cross-linked or network
Ans. (a)
All polymers mentioned in options (a), (b) polymers, which of the following
Bakelite is a cross linked condensation and (c) are synthetic 1,4-addition statements is incorrect? [NEET 2018]
thermosetting copolymer of phenol and polymers. Where (a) and (c) are buna-S
formaldehyde. (a) Examples are bakelite and melamine
and buna-N respectively.
(b) They are formed from bi- and
OH tri-functional monomers
03 The polymer that is used as a (c) They contain covalent bonds
–
H+or OH (catalyat)
substitute for wool in making between various linear polymer chains
+ CH2 O
Laderer Manasse commercial fibres is (d) They contain strong covalent bonds
reaction [NEET (Odisha) 2019] in their polymer chains
OH OH (a) melamine (b) nylon-6, 6 Ans. (d)
(c) polyacrylonitrile (d) buna-N Cross-linked or network polymers are
CH2 CH2 CH2
Ans. (c) formed from bi-functional and
Polyacrylonitrile or orlon or acrilan, tri-functional monomers and contain
CN strong covalent bonds between various
CH2 CH2
linear polymer chains. These are hard,
( CH2 CH ) n is an addition rigid and brittle due to cross-links
homopolymer of monomer CH2 == CHCN e.g. bakelite, melamine etc. Thus, option
CH2 CH2 CH2 (d) is incorrect.
(vinyl cyanide). It is used in making
OH OH
synthetic fibres and synthetic wool.
Bakelite or Phenol Thus, it is a substitute for wool in making 06 Natural rubber has
formaldehyde resin commercial fibres. [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(a) All trans-configuration
02 Which of the following is a natural 04 The biodegradable polymer is (b) Alternate cis- and trans-
[NEET (National) 2019]
polymer? [NEET (Sep.) 2020] configuration
(a) nylon-2-nylon-6 (b) nylon-6 (c) Random cis- and trans-configuration
(a) Poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(c) buna-S (d) nylon-6,6 (d) All cis-configuration
(b) Polybutadiene
(c) Poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile) Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
(d) Cis-1, 4-polyisoprene Nylon-2-nylon-6 The repeating unit in natural rubber has
O
Ans. (d) the cis-configurations with chain
( HN CH2 CONH(CH2 ) 5 C is a extensions on the same side of the
Natural polymer (soft) is an addition )n
ethylene double bond, which is essential
homopolymer of isoprene which is a biodegradable polymer. It is an for elasticity. If the configuration is
conjugated diene. alternating polyamide copolymer of
228 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Ans. (a) O
17 Natural rubber is a polymer of H2 H
[ NH(CH2 ) 6 NHCO(CH2 ) 4 CO
] n is a [CBSE AIPMT 1999] (d) C C C N (CH2)6
C
copolymer. Polymers whose repeating (a) butadiene (b) ethyne H2 2
structural units are derived form two (c) styrene (d) isoprene O
or more types of monomer units are NH
Ans. (d)
called copolymer
n H2N(CH2 ) 6 NH2 + nHOOC(CH2 ) 4 COOH Polyisoprene is the natural rubber n
Polymerisation
which is the polymer of isoprene. Ans. (d)
→
–nH2O Nylon-6, 6 polymer is formed as
CH2== CH — C ==CH2 —
n—
|
HOOC(CH2)4COOH + H2N(CH2)6NH2
NH(CH2 ) 6 NHCO(CH2 ) 4 CO
—
CH3 Adipic acid Hexamethylene
n Isoprene
diamine
(monomer) Polymerisation
Polymerisation
15 Cellulose is a polymer of → O O
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] C (CH2)4CNH (CH2)6NH
n
(a) glucose (b) fructose Nylon-6,6
(c) ribose (d) sucrose
— CH2 — CH == C CH2 —
Thus, option (d) is correct.
|
Ans. (a) CH3
Cellulose is a polymer of glucose, i.e. Polyisoprene (natural rubber) n 20 Biodegradable polymer which can be
(polymer) produced from glycine and
C6H12O6 .
aminocapric acid is
18 In elastomer, the intermolecular
16 Which one of the following is not [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
forces are [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
correctly matched? (a) nylon 2-nylon 6
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] (a) strong (b) weak (b) PHBV
(a) Neoprene (c) nil (d) None of these (c) buna-N
Ans. (b) (d) nylon-6, 6
In elastomers, the polymer chains are Ans. (d)
CH2 C == CH — CH2
held together by weak van der Waals’
| forces, e.g. natural rubber. Nylon-2-nylon-6
Cl n It is an alternating polyamide of glycine
(b) Nylon-66 (containing two carbon atoms) and
TOPIC 2 amino caproic acid or 6-aminohexanoic
acid (containing six carbon atoms).
NH(CH 2) 6NH Methods of nH2N CH2 COOH
CO(CH 2) 4CO
n
Polymerisation Glycine
22 Which of the following organic 24 Which one of the following (a) Starch
compounds polymerises to form statements is not true? (b) Nucleic acid
the polyester dacron? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] (c) Polystyrene
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] (a) In vulcanisation, the formation of (d) Protein
(a) Propylene and para sulphur bridges between different Ans. (c)
HO (C6H4 ) OH chains make rubber harder and Chain growth polymerisation requires an
(b) Benzoic acid and ethanol stronger initiator (such as organic peroxides) to
(c) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol (b) Natural rubber has the produce a free radical to which the
(d) Benzoic acid and para trans-configuration at every double monomers are added in a chain fashion.
HO (C6H4 ) OH bond Initiators are added in a very small
Ans. (c) (c) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and quantities and are decomposed by heat,
styrene light or oxidation-reduction reaction to
Dacron, commonly known as terylene, is (d) Natural rubber is a 1,4-polymer of produce reactive species, e.g. free
obtained by heating a mixture of isoprene radical.
terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol at
Ans. (b) Polystyrene is an example of chain
420-460 K in the presence of zinc
growth polymer because in it styrene
acetate and antimony trioxide as a Natural rubber is cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
molecules are associated in the form of
catalyst. and has all cis configurations about the
monomer
double bond as shown below. It is
nHOOC COOH prepared from latex which is obtained in CH 2CH 3
cis form called Havia Rubber latex is
Terephthalic acid obtained from rubber tree (Havea
∆ CH 2== C H 2
+ nHOCH2CH2OH brasiliensis).
– HCl AlCl3
Ethylene glycol
H 3C H
C C CH 2 CH 2 CH==CH2
[ O CH2 CH2 O—CO H 2C CH 2 C C
H 3C H
Polyesteric bond Dacron H 3C H Fe2O 3 /C r 2O 3
C C 650°C
CH 2 CH 2
CO ] n
Thus, amino acid bears a positive charge in acidic solution (low 10 In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked
pH) and a negative charge in basic solution (high pH). The pH at together by [NEET 2016, Phase I]
which the amino acid has no net charge is called isoelectric point. (a) β-glycosidic bond (b) peptide bond
The isoelectric point of glycine is 5.97. (c) dative bond (d) α-glycosidic bond
Ans. (b)
08 The difference between amylose and amylopectin is
[NEET 2018] Two amino acids in a protein are linked by a peptide bond.
(a) amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage e.g. glycylalanine is formed when carboxyl group of glycine
(b) amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage combines with the amino group of alanine.
(c) amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage H2N CH2 CO OH + H2 N CH COOH
(d) amylose is made up of glucose and galactose
–H2O CH3
Ans. (c) Alanine
Starch contains two components amylose and amylopectin. H2N CH2 CO NH CH COOH
Chemically, amylose is a long unbranched chain with 200-1000
Peptide linkage
α-D- (+ )-glucose units held by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage. CH3
6 Glycylalanine (Gly-Ala)
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
O 5
O O
H H H H H H H H H 11 The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA,
4 1 4 1 4 1
—O
OH H O OH H O OH H O— respectively is [NEET 2016, Phase I]
3 2 (a) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar
H OH H OH H OH component in DNA is2′-deoxyribose
a-link a-link (b) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar
Amylose component in DNA is ribose
(c) The sugar component in RNA is2′-deoxyribose and the sugar
Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer ofα -D-glucose units in component in DNA is arabinose
which chain is formed by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage where (d) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar
branching occurs by C1-C6 glycosidic linkage. component in DNA is2′-deoxyribose
234 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
18 Which one of the following undergo mutarotation in aqueous (c) chiral phosphate ester units
solution. (d) D-sugar component
statements is not true regarding (+)
Among the given carbohydrates, only Ans. (d)
lactose? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
sucrose is a non-reducing sugar as in it
(a) (+) lactose is a β-glycoside formed by the hemiacetal and hemiketal groups of RNA and DNA molecules have ribose and
the union of a molecule of D-(+)- glucose and fructose are linked together deoxyribose sugar respectively. Both are
glucose and a molecule of D-(+)- through O-atom and thus, not free. Due chiral, their chirality is due to D-ribose or
galactose to the absence of free hemiacetal or deoxyribose sugar components.
(b) (+) lactose is a reducing sugar and hemiketal group, sucrose does not
does not exhibit mutarotation exhibit mutarotation. 25 Which one of the following vitamins
(c) (+) lactose, C12H22O11 contains is water-soluble?
8 O H groups 21 Which of the following hormones [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(d) On hydrolysis (+) lactose gives equal
contains iodine? (a) Vitamin-B (b) Vitamin-E
amount of D-(+)- glucose and D-(+)-
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] (c) Vitamin-K (d) Vitamin-A
galactose
(a) Insulin (b) Testosterone Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
(c) Adrenaline (d) Thyroxine Vitamins are classified as
CH2OH
Glycosidic linkage Ans. (d) (i) Fat soluble vitamin-A, D, E, K
O
HO Thyroxine is 3, 5,3′, 5′-tetra (ii) Water soluble vitamin-B complex, H
H O
iodothyronine. It is secreted by follicular and C
OH H
H H H cells of thyroid glands. So, vitamin-B is water soluble.
Its structure is given as
H OH Lactose H
I 26 Which one of the following is a
H OH CCOOH
peptide hormone?
HO I
[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
OH NH2 (a) Glucagon
OH H
I O (b) Testosterone
H
H (c) Thyroxin
O I
CH2OH Thyroxine stimulates the consumption
(d) Adrenaline
of oxygen and thus, the metabolism of all Ans. (a)
19 Which one of the following is cells or tissues in the body. Glucagon is a peptide hormone because
employed as antihistamine? in it peptide linkage is present.
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] 22 The segment of DNA which acts as
(a) Diphenyl hydramine the instrumental manual for the 27 The human body does not produce
[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(b) Norethindrone synthesis of the protein is
(c) Omeprazole [CBSE AIPMT 2009] (a) DNA (b) vitamins
(d) Chloramphenicol (a) nucleotide (b) ribose (c) hormones (d) enzymes
Ans. (a) (c) gene (d) nucleoside Ans. (b)
Diphenylhydramine (benadryl) is used as Ans. (c) The organic compounds other than
an antihistamine. The segment of DNA which acts as the carbohydrates, proteins which maintain
instrumental manual for the synthesis of normal growth and nutrition in the human
body (but not produced in human body) are
20 Which of the following does not the protein is gene. Every protein in a
called vitamins.
exihibit the phenomena of cell has a corresponding gene.
mutarotation? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] 28 During the process of digestion,
23 Which one of the following is an
(a) (+) Sucrose (b) (+) Lactose the proteins present in food
amine hormone?
(c) (+) Maltose (d) (−) Fructose [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
materials are hydrolysed to amino
Ans. (a) (a) Thyroxin (b) Oxypurin
acids. The two enzymes involved in
Key Idea Reducing sugars that exist in (c) Insulin (d) Progesterone the process
hemiacetal and hemiketal forms, exhibit Ans. (a) Enzyme (A)
the phenomenon of mutarotation in Proteins →
aqueous solution. During mutarotation, Thyroxin is an amine hormone which is
Enzyme (B)
the ring open upto give the open chain secreted by thyroid gland. → Amino acids,
form which then reclose either in the are respectively
inverted position or in the original 24 RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
position giving an equilibrium mixture of their chirality is due to (a) amylase and maltase
two anomers with a small amount of [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(b) diastase and lipase
open chain form. Thus, all reducing (a) L-sugar component
monosaccharides and disaccharides (c) pepsin and trypsin
(b) chiral bases (d) invertase and zymase
236 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
(b) amounts of all bases are equal 41 Which is not true statement? Ans. (a)
(c) amount of adenine (A) is equal to that [CBSE AIPMT 2002] Starch is also known as amylum which
of thymine (T) and the amount of (a) α-carbon of α-amino acid is occurs in all green plants. A molecule of
guanine (G) is equal to that of asymmetric starch (C6H10O5 ) n is built of a large
cytosine (C) number of α-glucose ring joined through
(b) All proteins are found in L-form
(d) amount of adenine (A) is equal to that oxygen atom.
(c) Human body can synthesise all proteins
of guanine (G) and the amount of
they need
thymine (T) is equal to that of
(d) At pH = 7 both amino and carboxylic 45 Which of the following is correct
cytosine (C) about H-bonding in nucleotide?
groups exist in ionised form
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
Chargaff ’s rule states that amount of (a) A–T, G–C (b) A–G, T– C
All proteins are not found in L-form but
adenine (A) is equal to that of the amount they may be present in D or L- form. (c) G–T, A–C (d) A–A, T–T
of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine Ans. (a)
(G) is equal to that of the amount of 42 Enzymes are made up of
cytosine (C). [CBSE AIPMT 2002] The structure of DNA molecule is a
double helical structure. In this structure
(a) edible proteins
double helix are made up of two right
38 Glycolysis is [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (b) proteins with specific structure handed helical polynucleotide chains
(a) oxidation of glucose to pyruvate (c) nitrogen containing carbohydrates which are held together by H-bonds. In
(b) conversion of glucose to haem (d) carbohydrates these helixes the adenine (A) base is
(c) oxidation of glucose to glutamate Ans. (b) linked with thymine (T) by two H-bonds
(d) conversion of pyruvate to citrate and guanine (G) is linked with cytocine
Enzymes are made up of proteins with
(C) by three H-bonds as A==T, and G ≡≡ C.
Ans. (a) specific structure and acts as a catalyst
for biochemical reactions.
Glycolysis is the first stage in the 46 Which one of the following gives
oxidation of glucose. It is an anaerobic 43 Which statement is incorrect about positive Fehling’s solution test?
process and involves the degradation of O [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
glucose into two molecules of pyruvate || • • (a) Sucrose (b) Glucose
with the generation of two molecules of peptide bond C NH ? (c) Fats (d) Protein
ATP. [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
Ans. (b)
(a) C—N bond length in proteins is longer
39 Phospholipids are esters of than usual bond length of C—N bond Glucose reduces Fehling solution to give
glycerol with [CBSE AIPMT 2003] red ppt. of Cu2O.
(b) Spectroscopic analysis show planar
(a) one carboxylic acid residue and two structure of C NH group CHO COOH
phosphate groups ||
O (CHOH) 4 + 2CuO → (CHOH) 4 + Cu2O ↓
(b) three phoshate groups
(c) C—N bond length in proteins is Fehling
Red ppt.
(c) three carboxylic acid residues smaller than usual bond length of CH2OH solution CH2OH
(d) two carboxylic acid residues and one C—N bond Glucose
phosphate groups (d) None of the above
Ans. (d) Ans. (c) 47 The hormone which controls the
Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with Peptide bond is formed by the reaction processes like burning of fats,
two carboxylic acid residue and one of —COOH group of one amino acid with proteins and carbohydrates to
phosphate group. the —NH2 group of another amino acid liberate energy in the body is
Hence, phospholipids may be regarded and represented as [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
as derivative of glycerol in which two – (a) cortisone (b) thyroxine
O O
hydroxyl groups are esterified with fatty (c) adrenaline (d) insulin
acid, while third is esterified with
+
CNH C NH Ans. (b)
phosphoric acid.
As partial double bond character found Thyroxine is a hormone secreted by
between C—N bond, the bond length of thyroid gland. This hormone controls
40 Vitamin-B 12 contains C—N in protein should be smaller than various biochemical reactions involving
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] usual C—N bond. burning of proteins, carbohydrates, fats
(a) Zn (II) to release energy.
(b) Ca (II) 44 Which of the following is correct
It is an iodinated derivatirve of amino
(c) Fe (II) statement? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
acid tyrosine.
(d) Co (III) (a) Starch is a polymer ofα-glucose
(b) Amylose is a component of cellulose
Ans. (d) 48 α-D-(+)-glucose and β-D-(+)-glucose
(c) Proteins are composed of only one
The molecular formula of vitamin-B12 is type of amino acid are [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
C63H88 N14O14PCo and the chemical name (d) In cyclic structure of fructose, there (a) anomers (b) epimers
is cyanocobalamine. So, cobalt is are four carbons and one oxygen (c) enantiomers
present in vitamin-B12 . atom (d) geometrical isomers
238 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Chemistry
Ans. (a) 52 Aspirin is an acetylation product of Thus, three phenyl hydrazine molecules
Those diastereomers which differ only in [CBSE AIPMT 1998] and one molecule of glucose is required
configuration at C-1 are known as to form osazone.
(a) o -hydroxybenzoic acid
anomers (b) o -hydroxybenzene
(c) m -hydroxybenzoic acid 54 Haemoglobin is [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
H—C—OH HO—C—H
| | (d) p -dihydroxybenzene (a) an enzyme
H—C—OH H—C—OH Ans. (a) (b) a globular protein
| | OCOCH3 (c) a vitamin
O O
HO—C—H HO—C—H (d) a carbohydrate
| | COOH
Structure of Aspirin is Ans. (b)
H —C —OH H—C—OH
| | Haemoglobin is a globular protein of four
H—C H—C It is prepared by the reaction of acetic sub-units, it contains 94% globin.
| | anhydride with salicyclic acid in the
CH 2OH CH 2OH presence of a catalyst (H2SO4 ) 55 The function of enzymes in the
α-D-(+)-glucose β-D-(+)-glucose OH living system is to
Anomers COOH [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
H2SO4
+ (CH3CO)2O (a) transport oxygen
49 Which one of the following has (b) provide immunity
magnesium? [CBSE AIPMT 2000] Salicylic OCOCH3
(c) catalyse biochemical reactions
(a) Vitamin-B 12 (b) Chlorophyll acid
COOH (d) provide energy
(c) Haemocyanin (d) Carbonic + HCl Ans. (c)
anhydrase
Acetyl salicylic acid C Enzymes are globular proteins which
Ans. (b)
(Aspirin) catalyse biochemical reaction in the
Formula of chlorophyll is C55H72MgN2O6 . CH3 —C—OH living systems.
So Mg is present in chlorophyll. It is the
green colouring matter of leaves and
green stems.
53 Glucose molecule reacts with ‘ X ’ 56 Which one of the following
Vitamin-B12 contains cobalt, number of molecules of phenyl chemical units is certainly to be
haemocyanin contains copper and hydrazine to yield osazone. The found in enzyme?
carbonic anhydrase contain zinc. value of ‘ X ’ is [CBSE AIPMT 1998] [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
50 Which of the following is the (a) four (b) one (c) two (d) three OH O
sweetest sugar? [CBSE AIPMT 1999] Ans. (d) (a)
O |
(a) Sucrose (b) Glucose H CH N·NHC6H5 HO | O
H OH
(c) Fructose (d) Maltose C O C
Ans. (c) H2N·NHC6H5 OH N
CHOH (b)
Fructose is the sweetest sugar and –H2O (CHOH)3
highly soluble in water and slightly (CHOH)3 N
soluble in alcohol. It is insoluble in ether CH2OH
fructose in laevorotatory hence, called CH2OH glucose phenyl hydrazone H
laevulose. glucose |
(c) NC
CH NH ||
51 In DNA, the complementary bases O
are [CBSE AIPMT 1998, 2008] C O CH NH
NHC6H5 O
(a) adenine and thymine, guanine and –C6H5NH2
cytosine C O H O O R
(CHOH)3
C6H5NH·NH2
(CHOH)3 (d)
guanine CH2OH O R
O
(c) adenine and guanine, thymine and imino ketone CH20H O R
cytosine hydrogen bonded
(d) adenine and thymine, guanine and intermediate Ans. (c)
CH NH
uracil Peptide bonds are present in enzyme
C3H5NH·NH2
Ans. (a) C N·NHC6H5 CH N·NH·C6H5 because enzymes are made up of
–NH3
DNA has a double helical structure. These proteins, and proteins are the polymer
(CHOH)3 C N·NH·C6H5
helix contains polynucleotide chains and H
these chains are held together by CH2OH |
hydrogen bonds. In these polynucleotide (CHOH)3 — N— C —
chain of DNA, adenine has thymine ||
CH2OH O
opposite to it and guanine has cytosine glycosazone
opposite to it. (yellow crystalline solid)
Biomolecules, Chemistry in Everyday Life and Environmental Chemistry 239
TOPIC 3 (c) It is produced due to incomplete 87 Which one of the following is not a
combustion.
Environmental common component of
(d) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
photochemical smog?
Chemistry Ans. (b)
(a) Ozone [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
Statements (a), (c) and (d) are correct (b) Acrolein
81 The RBC deficiency is deficiency about carbon monoxide (CO).
(c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
disease of [NEET 2021] Statement (b) is not correct about CO,
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons
because carboxyhaemoglobin
(a) vitamin-B 12 (b) vitamin-B 6 Ans. (d)
(haemoglobin bound to CO) is about 300
(c) vitamin-B 1 (d) vitamin-B2 times more stable than oxyhaemoglobin Among the given chlorofluorocarbons
Ans. (a) complex. are the compounds that are responsible
for the ozone depletion which degrade
VitaminB12 deficiency disease-RBC ozone into moleculer oxygen. It is not a
deficiency (anaemia). 84 Among the following, the one that
component of photochemical smog
VitaminB6 deficiency disease–Dermatitis, is not a green house gas is while other are component of smog.
epilepsy. [NEET (National) 2019]
VitaminB1 deficiency disease – Beri-beri (a) methane (b) ozone 88 Which one of the following
VitaminB2 deficiency disease – (c) sulphur dioxide (d) nitrous oxide statements regarding
Ariboflavinesis. Ans. (c) photochemical smog is not correct?
Sulphur dioxide (SO2 ) is not a green [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
82 Which of the following statement is house gas. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ), (a) Carbon monoxide does not play any
not true about acid rain? methane (CH4 ), water vapour, nitrous role in photochemical smog
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] oxide (N2O), CFCs and ozone (O3) are the formation
(a) It is due to reaction ofSO2 , NO2 and green house gases. These gases are (b) Photochemical smog is an oxidising
CO2 with rain water. responsible for global warming. agent in character
(b) Causes no damage to monuments (c) Photochemical smog is formed
like Taj Mahal. 85 The liquified gas that is used in dry through photochemical reaction
involving solar energy
(c) It is harmful for plants. cleaning along with a suitable (d) Photochemical smog does not cause
(d) Its pH is less than 5.6 detergent is [NEET (Odisha) 2019] irritation in eyes and throat
Ans. (b) (a) water gas (b) petroleum gas Ans. (d)
Air pollutants likeSO2 , NO2 and CO2 get (c) NO2 (d) CO2
Photochemical smog is formed in warm
dissolved in rain water to produce acid Ans. (d) and sunny climate during day time by the
rain which constitutes mainlyH2SO4 ,
Solvents used to dry clean clothes are action of sunlight on primary pollutants. It
HNO3 and H2 CO3.
usually chlorinated compounds which contains nitrogen oxides, ozone, PAN,
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2H2O(l ) → 2H2SO4 (aq) are carcinogenic. Suitable detergents etc., which are oxidising in nature. So,
4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2H2O(g) → 4HNO3 (aq) which work in liquid carbon dioxide have photochemical smog is an oxidising agent
been discovered to replace the in character. It causes irritation in eyes
CO2 (g) + H2O(l ) → H2 CO3 (aq) and throat.
chlorinated compounds. Thus, CO2 is the
Due to the presence of these acids, pH liquified gas that is used in dry cleaning
of rain water drops below 5.6. along with a suitable detergent. 89 Green chemistry means such
Acid rain damages marbles of Taj Mahal. reactions which [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
CaCO3 (s ) + H2SO4 (aq) → CaSO4 (aq) 86 Which of the following is a sink for (a) produce colour during reactions
Marble + H2O(l ) + CO2 (g) CO ? [NEET 2017]
(b) reduce the use and production of
hazardous chemicals
Thus, Taj Mahal gets disfigured, (a) Haemoglobin
discoloured and lustreless. (c) are related to the depletion of ozone
(b) Microorganisms present in the soil layer
(c) Oceans (d) study the reactions in plants
83 Which of the following statements (d) Plants Ans. (b)
is not correct about carbon Ans. (b) Green chemistry means, the production
monoxide? [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Microorganisms present in the soil act as of chemicals of our daily needs by using
(a) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of biggest source and sink. A sink is a such reactions and chemical processes
blood. natural or artificial reservoir that which neither use toxic chemicals, nor
(b) The carboxyhaemoglobin accumulates and stores some chemical emit such chemicals into atmosphere.
(haemoglobin bound to CO) is less compound for an indefinite period. Thus Thus, green chemistry is an alternative
stable than oxyhaemoglobin. (b) is correct option. tool for reducing pollution.