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TO
PMI-PMP QUESTION SET – 1

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Question – 1:

Answer – D

Explanation:

Pareto chart is based on frequency and it priories the most common causes. Run Chart is
used for trend analysis and gives a snapshot at a point of time. Control Chart is used to
determine whether a process is in control or not. Flow chart is used to predict where a
quality problem might happen. Hence, Choice –D is the best choice.

Question – 2:

Answer: B

Explanation: Bringing in together all the team members at the same location is known
as collocation or war-room environment. It increases productivity and reduces mis-
communication. It is in Develop Project Team knowledge Area Process of Human
Resource Management. Hence, Choice – B is the correct choice.

Question – 3:

Answer: C

Explanation: If a new contractor is added, then there will be increase in both formal and
informal form of communication. However, there will be a definite increase in the
number of communication channels. Hence, Choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 4:

Answer: A

Explanation: Cost Performance Index = CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC)

The project is 30% complete. Hence, EV = 9,00,000 * (30/100) = 270,000

Now the Actual Cost of the project is = AC = 3,25,000

Hence the CPI = EV/AC = 270,000 / 3,25,000 = 0.846. Hence Choice – A is the correct
answer.

Please note that the information about 2 months into the project is needed when we
calculate the Planned Value (PV) and it will be needed for SPI (Schedule Performance

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 3 of 40
Index). Be careful of information designed to trick you in the real exam.

Question – 5:

Answer: C

Explanation: Project Charter formally authorizes a project as it is signed off by the

stakeholders.

Question – 6:

Answer: D

Explanation: Scope Baseline, consisting of Scope Statement, WBS, and WBS Dictionary is
an input to the Determine Budget process. Hence Choice – D is the correct answer.

Question – 7:

Answer: C

Explanation: In a functional organization, the team members report to the functional

manager, have a home in project work and do not work particularly for any project.
Hence Choice - C is the correct one.

Question – 8:

Answer: D

Explanation: Risk monitoring and control is a continuous process and unplanned risk can
be found during this process. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Perform
Quantitative Risk Analysis are done after Risk Identification is performed. Plan Risk
Responses is for the risks, which are already identified. Here the risk is unplanned and
found out. Hence, choice – D is the best choice.

Question – 9:

Answer: B

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Explanation: When expert opinion is gathered anonymously it is Delphi Technique.
Hence, Choice-B is the best answer.

Question – 10:

Answer: C

Explanation: Quality Policy is issued by the performing organization. Various

organization have varying attitude towards quality and hence their standards vary.

Question – 11:

Answer: A

Explanation: The initial cost management plan is developed as part of the Develop
Project Management Plan in Integration Management Knowledge Area. Later on it is
revised in Estimate Costs and Determine Budget. Hence, Choice – A is the correct
answer.

Question – 12:

Answer: B

Explanation:. PDM is a tool and technique used in Sequence Activities process in Time
management. Hence, Choice – B is the best choice.

Question – 13:

Answer: B

Explanation: Even though the team is executing the project, you monitored the changes
made and submitted a change request which can go for implementation. Hence, you are
in Monitoring and Control Process Group. Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 14:

Answer: C

Explanation: A risk can be discovered at any time in a project. However, the first work of
the project manager is to assess the risk, then add it to the risk register followed by

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qualitative and quantitative risk analysis. If the risk is found to be significant impact,
then a risk response planning is done.

Question – 15:

Answer: B

Explanation: Let us review the question. The company has:

Decided to buy the equipment  Plan Procurement Management

Developed Procurement Management Plan, contract  Plan Procurement Management

Developed Procurement Documents  Plan Procurement Management

Next step will be to check on seller proposals and select sellers  which is part of the
Conduct Procurement in Procurement Management Knowledge Area. Hence, Choice – B
is the best choice.

Question – 16:

Answer: D

Explanation: Estimation for the activity should be done by the team members as they
will be best one to know the complete detail of the activity.

Question – 17:

Answer: A

Explanation: Run Chart is used to check for the trends and variances over a period of
time. It is used in Quality Control. Hence, Choice-A is the best choice.

Pareto Chart is used to prioritize, Histogram is a kind of Pareto Chart and Control Chart
is used to check if the process is in control.

Question – 18:

Answer: A

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Explanation: A project management plan need not be approved all the stakeholders.
There are direct and indirect stakeholders in a project and approval from all of them is
not required. A project management plan is a formal document which is distributed
among stakeholder inline with the communication management plan and it is used for
the execution of the project. Hence, Choice-A is the most appropriate answer.

Question – 19:

Answer: A

Explanation: The Project Scope Statement, Work Breakdown Structure and WBS
Dictionary form the Scope Baseline for the project. Hence, Choice-A is the correct
answer.

Question – 20:

Answer: C

Explanation: Historical records on projects from your organization are your best source
in this case.

Question – 21:

Answer: A

Reference: GANTT Chart can show loops and branches where as others can not.

Question – 22:

Answer: C

Explanation: When a project is started, the risk associated with the project is the
highest. As the project progresses, the risk decreases. Hence, for most of the risk to be
addressed in a project, the initiating process group should be held in importance.

Question – 23:

Answer: A

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Explanation: This is an example of mandatory dependency as Mike can not finish his till
Jane completes the development work. This kind of dependency is also known as Hard
Dependency. Hence, Choice – A is the best one.

Question – 24:

Answer: B

Explanation: Corrective action is performed to fix the past issues in the project.
However, preventive action is done to bring the project’s future performance in line
with the project management plan. Both corrective and preventive actions can be part
of executing process group as well as monitoring and controlling process group. Hence,
Choice – B is the best one.

Question – 25:

Answer: B

Explanation: Time and Cost baselines can be computer generated as many software
tools provide them. Though Choice-D is partially correct and cost is associated with the
time spent on an activity, a computer generated Cost Baseline can be created. Scope
baseline is documented, but can not be computer generated. There is no concept of
Quality baseline. Hence, Choice – B is the best answer.

Question – 26:

Answer: B

Explanation: Implemented form of Approved Change Requests take place only in Direct
and Manage Project Work. In Perform Integrated Change Control, the Change Requests
are fed in and Approved Change Requests is the outputs, which is fed to Direct and
Manage Project Work. Change Log is also output of Perform Integrated Change Control.
Hence, B is the correct one.

Question – 27:

Answer: C

Explanation: Achievement Theory is based on performance to be associated with a

group or get recognition for your work. Expectancy Theory is used to perform a work

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 8 of 40
based on certain expectations such as monetary reward, vacations etc. Theory Y is
based on the mindset of the manager that employees come to work motivated and
want to wok. Contingency Theory is based on primarily 2 principles: task oriented
managers and relationship oriented manager. Hence, Choice – C is the correct answer.

Question – 28:

Answer: B

Explanation: The budget at completion is: 9 * 1,00,000 = 9,00,000 USD

This question is very easy and sometimes may appear in the exam with a lot of data to
confuse the users.

Question – 29:

Answer: C

Explanation: As Joanne has been authorized to do the project, the project charter has
already been developed. Look at the question again. The focus is on requirements by
looking at the stakeholders. So, stakeholder analysis is done. Hence, Choice – C is the
correct answer. She is collecting requirements for which stakeholder register will the
input.

Question – 30:

Answer: D

Explanation: Work Performance information shows various information such as cost,

resource utilization, time spent on activities etc. But, it does not inform defects found.
Hence, Choice – D is correct.

Mark the word EXCEPT in the question.

Question – 31:

Answer: C

Explanation: As per PMI-PMP, gold plating, i.e., doing more work than planned is never
supported. Hence Choice – C is the best answer.

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Question – 32:

Answer: D

Explanation: If a work package can not be clearly defined, it should be put as a Control
Account. As and when clarity develops on it, it is added as a work package to the WBS.
This is also known as Rolling Wave Planning. Choice – A and B are definitely a NO for a
product manager. Choice – C is not appreciate as clarity has not come when the WBS
was developed. Hence, Choice – D is the best choice.

Question – 33:

Answer: C

Explanation: The role of sponsor is to provide funding for the project. The customer is
one of the most important stakeholders who want the delivery of the product. Team
members may not be aware of the approval process. Only in Project Scope Management
Plan, the information regarding approval is found. Hence Choice – C is the best answer.

Question – 34:

Answer: A

Explanation: Clearly, it is Time and Material contract. In such a contract, the buying
company, i.e., your organization will have the most risk. Hence, Choice – A is the correct
answer.

Question – 35:

Answer: B

Explanation: Any time a request changes come into the project at any stage, it must be
assessed against the triple constraint of the project. Based on its validity, it will be
submitted as a change requests and then incorporated into the product. Hence, Choice-
B is the best answer.

Question – 36:

Answer: D

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Explanation: Value Engineering covers all the aspects of the project, i.e., decreasing
cost, improving quality, shortening schedule etc.

Question – 37:

Answer: C

Explanation: Earned Value Measurement Technique is used only when the project is
getting executed. It is done after a base-lining has been done on the project. Hence,
Choice – C is the best one.

Question – 38:

Answer: B

Explanation: The resource breakdown structure is defined in the Activity Resource

Estimation knowledge area.

Question – 39:

Answer: C

Explanation: A project manager should directly confront the situation whenever

possible. Hence, the best answer is Choice – C.

Question – 40:

Answer: D

Explanation: A project should be selected with the least payback period. In this case,
Choice –D has the least value. Hence, it is the correct answer.

Question – 41:

Answer: A

Explanation: A project manager is officially assigned in the Develop Project Charter

knowledge area of Initiating Process Group.

Question – 42:

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Answer: A

Explanation: Contract closure can not be discussed as it is known whether the project is
performed for a customer or within the organization. A written document from the
sponsor is unnecessary to be requested by the project manager. Leaving the company is
an unethical choice. Hence, Choice – A is the best answer.

Question – 43:

Answer: D

Explanation: A project charter has initial information on the scope and budget of the
project. However, it must inform about the underlying business need of the project.

Question – 44:

Answer: C

Explanation: Perform Quality Control and Scope Verification happens together.

Generally, scope verification is done after the quality control has been performed. The
primary outcome from quality control is validated deliverables and from that of scope
verification is accepted deliverables. Hence, Choice – C is the best answer.

Question – 45:

Answer: B

Explanation: After the scope statement has been prepared and approved, a WBS has to
be created. WBS is a team building tool and hence the help of the team members can be
taken up for the WBS. Hence, Choice – B is the best answer.

Question – 46:

Answer: C

Explanation: The trick is to remember that Change Requests are outputs and inputs
normally for knowledge area processes in Executing and Monitoring and Controlling
Process Groups. Define Activities is in planning process group, hence, it can not be an
input. Choice – C is the best answer. WBS as such is not informed to be in PMBOK, but it
is part of Scope Baseline and hence WBS is an input.

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Question – 47:

Answer: D

Explanation: All the choices listed are actually performed by the project manager.
However, the question is with respect to the primary responsibility of the project
manager during the integration environment. During integration, the project manage
should do the problem solving and decision making between project sub-systems.
Hence Choice – D is the best answer.

Question – 48:

Answer: C

Explanation: When a WBS is created, a WBS Dictionary is created along with it. A WBS
Dictionary has information regarding the work package, the account number, the
expected start and finish date along with the member assigned for the work. Hence,
Choice – C is the correct answer.

Question – 49:

Answer: C

Explanation: This is a trick question. The question is asking about the process group, not
about the knowledge area. Hence, Choice – C is the best answer. However, Validate
Scope is the correct process area.

Question – 50:

Answer: B

Explanation: A Statement of work is a description of the part of a product to be

obtained from an outside vendor. Hence, Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 51:

Answer: C

Explanation: As the material will be provided by the organization and also cost along
with a fixed fee will be provided, it is a Cost Reimbursable contract. Hence, Choice – C is

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the correct answer.

Question – 52:

Answer: B

Explanation: This is an ethical question and conflict of interest scenario. A conflict of

interest should be disclosed openly and resolved. Hence, the best choice is Choice – B.

Question – 53:

Answer: A

Explanation: Project Expeditor is least powerful among all next to the project co-
ordinator. Program Manager is more powerful than a project manager.

Question – 54:

Answer: C

Explanation: The Earned Value for the project is = EV = 20% * (8,00,000)

The Planned Value for the project is = PV = (3/9) * (8,00,000)

The SPI = EV/PV = (1/5) / (3/9) = ¾ = 0.60

Question – 55:

Answer: D

Explanation: As defined by PMI, all professionals are expected to fully co-operate on

issues like this.

Question – 56:

Answer: A

Explanation: The number of communication channels for a project is = [N * (N-1)]/ 2,

where N = number of people

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Initially, there were 11 * 10/2 = 55

Later on = 12 * 11/2 = 66.

Hence new communication channels added = 11

Question – 57:

Answer: A

Explanation: The ideal contract in this case would have been the “Fixed Price” project.
However, it is not listed here. Only the Cost Plus Incentive Fee will motivate the sellers
to keep the cost low. D is not a type of contract defined by PMI-PMP. Time and Material
will add up to the cost. Choice – A is better than B. Hence, Choice – A is the correct
answer.

Question – 58:

Answer: D

Explanation: Clearly, Sarah has not terminated the contract based on the speculation of
the contractor going bankrupt. However, she has decided to keep her options open by
remaining in touch with another vendor. This way the risk of the project getting delayed
is minimized. This is a form of Risk Mitigation. Hence, Choice – D is the best answer.

Question – 59:

Answer: A

Explanation: RACI chart is a type of RAM chart. However, it is more appropriate answer.
Hence, choice – A is the correct one. Text chart normally is used in recruitment
informing on the position of the person along with the detailed responsibilities.
Resource Histogram informs about the usage of resource over a period of time.

Question – 60:

Answer: D

Explanation: Only in a functional organization, a project manager is likely to be part

time. Hence, Choice – D is the correct answer.

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Question – 61:

Answer: D

Explanation: Work packages are the lowest level in a WBS for which time and cost can
be reliably estimated and it can be assigned to one person or group of persons.
However, work package can not be broken down to further levels.

Question – 62:

Answer: D

Explanation: Performance metrics for contract based work can be found in the
Procurement Management only. Hence, Choice –D is the correct answer.

Question – 63:

Answer: C

Explanation: Smoothing, Forcing and Withdrawing are all conflict resolution techniques.
However, caring is not. Hence, choice – C is the correct answer.

Question – 64:

Answer: C

Explanation: Here, you are deciding on whether to build or buy the product. This kind of
technique is known as Make or Buy analysis and it is done in Plan Procurement
Management.

Question – 65:

Answer: B

Explanation: Activity List can not be an input to Activity Definition as it is the output
from it.

Question – 66:

Answer: A

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Explanation: Only a customer formally accepts a product. Sponsor can also be a
customer. But when customer is mentioned, that will be the correct choice.

Question – 67:

Answer: C

Explanation: Milestone chart informs on what are milestones that have been
accomplished and what are to be done in a quick way. Hence you should bring this
chart.

Question – 68:

Answer: C

Explanation: Slack or Float or Lag informs on the time for which an activity can be
delayed without delaying the critical path. Hence, Choice – C is the correct answer.

Question – 69:

Answer: B

Explanation: Weighing system is normally used after the screening system. In the
screening system, a filtering out happens based on certain criteria and then in a
weighting system (may be in scale of 1 to 10), the weighting is given and selection is
made.

Question – 70:

Answer: B

Explanation: No matter what happens, ethics are sacrosanct. You should get the
permission to use the music from the authorized owner.

Question – 71:

Answer: D

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Explanation: A project manager spend majority of his/her time in communicating.

Question – 72:

Answer: C

Explanation: We are not calculating the 3 point estimate or PERT here. Rather it is the
standard deviation, which is:

(Pessimistic – Optimistic) / 6 = (8 – 3)/6 = 5/6

Question – 73:

Answer: B

Explanation: Newspaper publications are repetitive and hence they will fall under the
category of operation based management.

Question – 74:

Answer: B

Explanation: Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 75:

Answer: D

Explanation: Scope baseline is created in the Create WBS process.

Question – 76:

Answer: B

Explanation: Human resources and material resources are estimated against Schedule
Activities.

Question – 77:

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Answer: B

Explanation: The estimation used here takes into account of the kilometres to be used
and cost henceforth. Based on it, the estimation for 8 kilometres of your work is
provided. Hence, it is form of parametric estimation. Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 78:

Answer: D

Explanation: Based on the date given, the realistic estimate can not be provided. As for
a PERT estimate the value = (Optimistic + 4 * Realistic + Pessimistic) / 6. However, 2
variables in this equation are missing. Correct answer is D.

Question – 79:

Answer: B

Explanation: 3 sigma stands for 99.73% of standard deviation, which means the defects
are:

100 – 99.73 = 00.27% = 2,700 defect per million opportunities

Question – 80:

Answer: D

Explanation: The standard deviation is calculated by averaging all the data points to find
out the mean. The average of how far each individual point is from that mean. Hence for
a diverse population, a higher standard deviation will be there and vice-versa. Hence,
standard deviation measures how diverse the population is. Choice – D is the correct
answer.

Question – 81:

Answer: D

Explanation: D is the correct answer. Modern quality management emphasizes on

Customer satisfaction, Prevention over inspection, Continuous improvement,
Management responsibility and CoQ.

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Question – 82:

Answer: A

Explanation: Phases within projects is a part described in project management

framework. Hence, choice –A is the correct answer.

Question – 83:

Answer: D

Explanation: Statistical Sampling is used both in Plan Quality Management and Control
Quality. Hence choice D is correct – both A & B.

Question – 84:

Answer: B

Explanation: The team member is avoiding to meet with the manager. Hence, it is kind
of withdrawal. Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 85:

Answer: A

Explanation: A standard can be issued by anyone including by the government body and
it may or may not be followed. A regulation is issued by the government and it must be
followed. Hence, Choice – A is the correct answer.

Question – 86:

Answer: B

Explanation: You are performing the risk response planning. This is done after the risks
have been identified and they are quantitatively and/or qualitatively analyzed. Here the
threats are reduced and opportunities are enhanced. Hence, correct answer is Choice –
B.

Question – 87:

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Answer: C

Explanation: Evaluation Criteria is an important tool used to select a qualified seller

from a pool of short-listed candidates.

Question – 88:

Answer: B

Explanation: Assumptions and constraints are part of Project Scope Statement. Scope
statement is prepared in Define Scope process area. Hence, Choice – C is the correct
answer.

Question – 89:

Answer: D

Explanation: As per the question, Rick has completed the Plan Procurement
Management process. He has a list of potential sellers with proposals. Then it will be fed
to Conduct Procurement process.

Question – 90:

Answer: A

Explanation: The early finish date of an activity informs the earliest an activity can finish
without delaying the project. Choice – B is for the free float. Choice C and D are
inappropriate. Hence, the correct answer is Choice – A.

Question – 91:

Answer: D

Explanation: Speeches at the trade show are examples of formal verbal communication.

Question – 92:

Answer: B

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Explanation: A change control system is not defined in the contract. Hence, Choice – B is
the correct answer. It is one of the tools and techniques in the Control Procurements
knowledge area process.

Question – 93:

Answer: C

Explanation: Choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 94:

Answer: D

Explanation: With multiple critical paths, there are chances the delay in many activities
will result in the delay of the project. Hence the risk will be higher for the project.
Choice –D is the correct answer.

Question – 95:

Answer: D

Explanation: The project with least payback period is the most attractive one. Hence,
Choice –D is the correct one.

Question – 96:

Answer: D

Explanation: All kinds of dependencies are tools and techniques for Activity Sequencing.
Hence Choice – D is the correct one. ADM is not used, rather PDM is. The types of
activities mentioned are various kinds of dependencies and part of dependency
determination.

Question – 97:

Answer: D

Explanation: Monitoring and Controlling process group covers the planning and
executing process groups. If the deliverable has been missed out, it can be put into

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planning and then executed. Hence, Choice – D is the correct answer.

Question – 98:

Answer: A

Explanation: Schedule compression is a technique which is performed to compress the

schedule without compromising on the project scope. Hence, the best answer is Choice
–A.

Question – 99:

Answer: D

Explanation: The project has been kicked started and the initial analysis has been done.
So the cost estimation would have been developed. Though the project is being
developed globally, it would have a communication plan. It is mentioned that the
manager selected is a expert in project management and he is also a certified PMP.
Hence, the problems being causes are most likely due to the stakeholders who are
missed out. They are adding the new changes. Hence, Choice - D is the correct one.

Question – 100:

Answer: D

Explanation: It is clearly a conflict of interest case. In such a case, it should be disclosed

openly and kept confidential. Hence, Choice –D is the correct answer.

Question – 101:

Answer: C

Explanation: BAC = 2 million * 50 = $ 100,000,000 USD

PV = (4/10) * 100,000,000 = 40,000,000

Question – 102:

Answer: A

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Explanation: The resources are assigned to the activities after the activities have been
defined and before the schedule has been developed. Hence Choice –A is the correct
answer.

Question – 103:

Answer: B

Explanation: Status Reporting should be always accurate and the project manager
should inform the correct status report. Hence, choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 104:

Answer: B

Explanation: Perform Quality Assurance is part of the Quality Management Knowledge

Area and it occurs in the Executing Process Group.

Question – 105:

Answer: A

Explanation: A sponsor provides the funding of the project.

Question – 106:

Answer: D

Explanation: It is important. A project is considered to be successfully complete when

the project has been completed within all the defined constraints of time, cost, risk,
scope, quality etc. Even if the customer is not happy or the sponsor has not signed off,
still then the project is considered to be complete. Hence, correct answer is Choice – D.

Question – 107:

Answer: C

Explanation: Even though all the choices mentioned are responsibilities of the project
manager, still the main responsibility is to deliver the project within the constraints.

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Hence, choice – C is the correct answer.

Question – 108:

Answer: C

Explanation: Strong organizational skill is the not an Organizational Process Asset.

Question – 109:

Answer: B

Explanation: All the change request, recommend or preventive actions or defective

deliverables are implemented or fixed in the Direct and Manage Project Work.

Question – 110:

Answer: A

Explanation: Schedule Performance Index = EV/PV, which defines the rate. Hence,
Choice – A is the correct one.

Question – 111:

Answer: A

Explanation: The organizational chart is with respect to the project concerned. Hence,
Choice – A is the correct one.

Question – 112:

Answer: B

Explanation: Cost estimation is done after the work breakdown structure is created.
After the WBS is created, the work packages are broken down to smaller levels and then
the cost estimation for each activity is done. It is done before the budget is created.
Hence, Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 113:

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Answer: D

Explanation: In the Identify Risks process, risks are identified.

Question – 114:

Answer: C

Explanation: Contract Negotiation goal is to arrive on a mutually agreeable terms.

Hence, Choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 115:

Answer: A

Explanation: It is the job of project manager to resolve the competing interests of all the
stakeholders in a project.

Question – 116:

Answer: A

Explanation: In the Activity Definition, the lists of activities are created.

Question – 117:

Answer: D

Explanation: PMI encourages mentoring and coaching by project management

professionals in various forums. In this case, the best course of action is to mentor your
friend and inform him about the best practices regarding the scope management.
Hence, Choice – D is the best answer.

Question – 118:

Answer: B

Explanation: Choice A and D are no for any project manger. Also, it is not necessary that
all known risks will be added to risk management plan. However, all identified risks

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should be added to the risk registers. Hence, Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 119:

Answer: A

Explanation: Work packages are broken down to the level of activities.

Question – 120:

Answer: B

Explanation: Schedule Variance = Earned Value – Planned Value. Hence, the Earned
Value must be equal to the Planned Value.

Question – 121:

Answer: D

Explanation: Cost baseline is an output of output of Determine Budget process.

Question – 122:

Answer: B

Explanation: In this, permission from the earlier company must be sought and then only
the WBS can be used. Hence, Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 123:

Answer: D

Explanation: The activity list should have all the schedule activities defined in the
project. Hence, Choice – D is the correct answer.

Question – 124:

Answer: C

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 27 of 40
Explanation: A project is not repetitive. In that case, it is an operation. Hence, Choice - C
is the correct one.

Question – 125:

Answer: A

Explanation: Project closure can happen at the end of a phase or at the end of the
project.

Question – 126:

Answer: C

Explanation: Choice – D might be tempting. However, the immediate action should be

not to work overtime. The other options should be explored and then used. Hence,
Choice – C is the best answer.

Question – 127:

Answer: D

Explanation: Activity List is an output from Define Actitivies. Hence it can not be an
input.

Question – 128:

Answer: A

Explanation: Slack is also known as Lag.

Question – 129:

Answer: A

Explanation: A project plan is a formal and approved document which is used to guide
project execution, control and closure.

Question – 130:

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 28 of 40
Answer: D

Explanation: Change control should not influence the factors that cause change. Hence,
Choice –D is the best answer.

Question – 131:

Answer: B

Explanation: The product scope describes the features and attributes for a product.
However, when the product is delivered, it is done by the project and how the project is
performed falls under project scope. Hence, Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 132:

Answer: B

Explanation: As the project manager, Patrick should review what changes have been
under what conditions and how the conclusion has been arrived. Hence, choice – B is
the correct one.

Question – 133:

Answer: B

Explanation: Approved changes to a project’s budget is added to cost baseline.

Question – 134:

Answer: B

Explanation: In a functional organization a project manager does not have any say in
selection of the resources. The power lies with the functional manager. So, the senior
management informed that they could not help. Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 135:

Answer: C

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 29 of 40
Explanation: In this case it is a functional organization. Hence, Choice - C is the correct
answer.

Question – 136:

Answer: B

Explanation: This is a case of conflict of interest. When the conflict of interested arises,
it should be resolved in favour of the customer. Hence, Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 137:

Answer: D

Explanation: In Schedule development and control, leads and lags are adjusted. It is also
used in Sequence Activities. Hence D is the correct one.

Question – 138:

Answer: C

Explanation: Estimates made should be accurate and that should be presented to the
customer. As you have rechecked the plan and found out that no way the new deadlines
can be addressed, you should inform the estimate as developed by your team. Hence,
Choice – C is the correct answer.

Question – 139:

Answer: B

Explanation: This is conflict of interest. Even though Choice – D sounds to be tempting,

it is not the ethical one. Hence, Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 140:

Answer: C

Explanation: Analogous estimation is also known as Top-down estimation.

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 30 of 40
Question – 141:

Answer: C

Explanation: One should always follow the rule of the land in which they operate.
Hence, Choice – C is the best answer.

Question – 142:

Answer: C

Explanation: It is the job of PMO to terminate a project. Hence, Choice – C is the correct
answer.

Question – 143:

Answer: B

Explanation: To accept the fee will be an ethical violation and hence it can not be done.
Hence, Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 144:

Answer: C

Explanation: In Define Activities, the work packages are broken down further to the
activity level and it is called as decomposition. Hence, Choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 145:

Answer: B

Explanation: In a T & M contract, the seller has a lower risk than the buyer. Hence,
Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 146:

Answer: A

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 31 of 40
Explanation: A project co-ordinator will have limited authority whereas the project
expeditor will not. Hence, Choice – A is the correct one.

Question – 147:

Answer: D

Explanation: Only in Plan Risk Responses, after the risks are identified and a response
has been created, the scope can be changed depending on the need. Hence, Choice – D
is the correct one.

Question – 148:

Answer: B

Explanation: Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 149:

Answer: A

Explanation: Integration is not a discrete process. It works with other processes as

defined in PMBOK.

Question – 150:

Answer: B

Explanation: Maslow’s theory is also known as the hierarchy of needs and it informs
that higher need can not be satisfied till the lower needs are met.

Question – 151:

Answer: B

Explanation: It is not necessary that the project is strategic to the company. Mundane
activities are also taken.

Question – 152:

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 32 of 40
Answer: C

Explanation: This is an audit to check whether the quality management plan has been
properly followed. Hence, it is a quality assurance activity. Choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 153:

Answer: D

Explanation: Variance analysis is the measurement between the actual work and
baseline. Rest of the choices are part of earned value measurement. Choice – D is the
correct answer.

Question – 154:

Answer: C

Explanation: In a strong matrix organization, the power lies with the project manager.

Question – 155:

Answer: B

Explanation: Choice – B is the correct answer. In Develop Project Team, team

performance assessment is used.

Question – 156:

Answer: C

Explanation: Choice – C is the correct one. Devil’s advocate can both be positive and
negative. But it is used more in negative role.

Question – 157:

Answer: A

Explanation: If the work packages are being executed, then you are in manage project
team knowledge area process. Hence, Choice – A is the correct answer.

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 33 of 40
Question – 158:

Answer: C

Explanation: As the execution of the project happens, then the resources are used to
execute them and if needed more are added. Hence, in execution phase, the resource
are used the most.

Question – 159:

Answer: C

Explanation: Here, the manager is using inspection in Validate Scope with the customer.
After the quality control has been, you have validated deliverables. After scope
verification is done, you have accepted deliverables.

Question – 160:

Answer: B

Explanation: Be careful in the exam. The words can be tricky. There is no such process
as Perform Quality Planning.

Question – 161:

Answer: D

Explanation: Leads and Lags are not part of the schedule control.

Question – 162:

Answer: C

Explanation: The tem bench-marking is talked always with respect to something similar
in a different organization or different project. Hence, Choice – C is the best answer.

Question – 163:

Answer: A

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 34 of 40
Explanation: Withdrawer – meaning not participating in the role assigned or

Question – 164:

Answer: A

Explanation: The best power invested in a project manager in such a case is the Expert
power. All other choices listed are powers of a project manager, but when technical
difficulty arises, the manger should display expertise in that area.

Question – 165:

Answer: B

Explanation: The three point estimate will be:

(18 + 4 * 32 + 52 ) / 6 = 198/6 = 33

Question – 166:

Answer: D

Explanation: Forcing does not resolve a conflict. It may temporary resolve the problem,
but it may very well come back in later time to haunt. Hence, Choice – D is the correct
answer.

Question – 167:

Answer: D

Explanation: A communication management plan should have information in the way

information should be gathered and distributed. Hence, Choice – D is the correct
answer.

Question – 168:

Answer: A

Explanation: With improper communication link, the conflict in the project will increase.
It must be noted that with every addition of a new project stakeholder, the number of

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 35 of 40
communication channel increases exponentially. Hence, choice – A is the correct one.

Question – 169:

Answer: A

Explanation: Status report must be presented accurately to the customer. The team
member who has provided the report is the right person to give the accurate data.
Hence, Choice – A is the correct one.

Question – 170:

Answer: C

Explanation: Forecast is only available in performance reporting, which is in Manage

Communications. Hence Choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 171:

Answer: C

Explanation: When there is a difficulty in getting information in cross organizational

issues, senior management comes into play. Sponsor job is to fund the project, approve
the project charter etc. Hence, Choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 172:

Answer: C

Explanation: Email communication, contrary to popular notions, is a informal written

communication mechanism.

Question – 173:

Answer: B

Explanation: Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 174:

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 36 of 40
Answer: B

Explanation: Choice – B is the best answer.

Question – 175:

Answer: D

Explanation: Status reporting, budget estimation etc. should be accurate and that
information should be conveyed to the customer. If the project can be delivered way
below the budget, then it has to be delivered in that way. Hence, Choice – D is the
correct one.

Question – 176:

Answer: A

Explanation: Effective communication is the most important factor in the project

integration.

Question – 177:

Answer: B

Explanation: As the CPI is just 0.65 it must be notified to the management. Then only
other actions can be taken.

Question – 178:

Answer: D

Explanation: Benchmarking is one of the tools and techniques used in Plan Quality
Management.

Question – 179:

Answer: C

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 37 of 40
Explanation: For quality management and the quality of deliverable the final
responsibility lies with the Project Manager.

Question – 180:

Answer: B

Explanation: In real world, the customer specification limit has lesser stringent
validation than the organizational specification limit. Hence, the upper and lower
specification limits lie above the customer specification limit.

Question – 181:

Answer: D

Explanation: The stakeholders can positively or negatively impact a project. Hence,

Choice –D is the correct one.

Question – 182:

Answer: B

Explanation: PI matrix is useful for Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

Question – 183:

Answer: C

Explanation: Opportunity cost is the difference between two projects. Here, project A
has more value. Hence it will be $ -50,000 USD.

Question – 184:

Answer: B

Explanation: Risk Register is created in Identify Risks process.

Question – 185:

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 38 of 40
Answer: B

Explanation: Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 186:

Answer: C

Explanation: Here the company has filed for bankruptcy. Hence, the next action of
David will be to do additional risk planning for this event. All other choices are valid, but
they are not to be performed next. Hence, Choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 187:

Answer: A

Explanation: In a strong matrix organization, the power is tilted in favour of the project
manager. Hence, Choice – A is the correct one.

Question – 188:

Answer: C

Explanation: RAM does not include the reporting structure of the project. It is included
in the Organization Breakdown Structure.

Question – 189:

Answer: C

Explanation: Theory X is based on negative attitude of managers and they believe that
employees can not be trusted to direct their own effort.

Question – 190:

Answer: D

Explanation: The contract closure procedure is derived from the close procurement
process area.

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 39 of 40
Question – 191:

Answer: B

Explanation: Normally, contract closure happens after the administrative closure.

Hence, Choice – B is the correct one.

Question – 192:

Answer: B

Explanation: Record management system records all the documents, communication

relevant to a contract.

Question – 193:

Answer: D

Explanation: It is a tools and techniques used in the Contract Closure procurement

process.

Question – 194:

Answer: C

Explanation: Here, you are enhancing the product. Hence, choice – C is the correct one.

Question – 195:

Answer: A

Explanation: Choice – A is the correct one.

Question – 196:

Answer: B

Explanation: An issue log is kept to see if all the issues are actively assigned and tracked.

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Answers for PMP Question Set – 1 Page 40 of 40
Question – 197:

Answer: A

Explanation: Issue log is an output to Manage Stakeholder Engagement and input to

Control Stakeholder Engagement. Hence, Choice – B is the correct answer.

Question – 198:

Answer: B

Explanation: Expert and Reward powers are the best forms of power for a project
manager.

Question – 199:

Answer: B

Explanation: It is mentioned that the project has just started. And then to divert it has
been mentioned that team members need guidance and help. However, when the
project has just begun the best form is that of a directing leader.

Question – 200:

Answer: B

Explanation: The team is now fixing the issue which has been brought to notice. It is
means it is implementing the changes. Hence, it is a part of Direct and Manage Project
Work process.

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