Answers to PMP Question Set – 4 Page 1 of 5

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PMI-PMP® QUESTION SET – 4

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Answers to PMP Question Set – 4 Page 2 of 5

Answers and explanations.

a) Answers are highlighted.
b) Explanations are given where necessary. Wherever an answer is self-explanatory, it is not
elaborated.

Answers

1. A – It is part of the Stakeholder Management Strategy, which is an output of identify

stakeholders. PMBOK® Guide, 5th edition, p. 396
2. c. finish-to-start is the most commonly used relationship.
3. c. AOA activity diagrams are represented using finish-to-start representation.
4. a. Experts participating in the Delphi technique are anonymous.
5. b. Senior Management is responsible for issuing the charter.
6. c. This was an unplanned event that happened. Work around refers to handling of risk that
has occurred but was not planned for.
7. a. Schedules are most common cause of conflicts.
8. b. Problem-solving or Confrontation is the best solution for resolving conflicts and leads to
long-lasting conflict resolution.
9. b. Insurance is an example of transferring risk.
10. b. Grade refers to category or rank given to entities having same functional use but
different technical characteristics. As an example a basic $10K car belongs to a different
grade when compared to a $50K luxury car. Your expectations from the two cars and their
performances will differ because they belong to different grades.
11. d. Continuous small improvements is part of Kaizen theory. Hence a is incorrect. The Plan-
do-Check-Act doctrine was proposed by Deming.
12. b. Benchmarking is not a tool for Quality Control process
13. a. Pareto chart is built on the 80:20 theory. 80% of the defects are caused due to 20% of
the issues. A Project Manager needs to focus on these 20% issues.
14. d. Ishikawa or Fish bone diagram is the tool that the Project Manager is planning to use.
15. c. CDGIR represents the critical path. It is the longest path through the network with the
duration of 13.
16. d. The path ABIR has duration of seven. Hence B can be delayed by six days before the next
event can begin.

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Answers to PMP Question Set – 4 Page 3 of 5

17. c. The path CDHR has duration of nine days. Hence H can be delayed by four days before
the next event can begin.
18. d. Job security, salary, clean and safe working conditions are examples of hygiene factors.
Appreciation at work is not a hygiene factor, but instead a motivating factor.
19. b. Physiological factors appear at the lowest level of Maslow's hierarchy triangle.
20. a. The other three options are examples of benefit measurement method.
21. d. Dynamic Programming is an example of Constrained Optimization method. Murder
board is an example of benefit measurement method.
22. c. Murder board is a process where a committee asks questions from project
representatives as part of the project selection process.
23. c. Control Scope process is part of scope management knowledge area.
24. a. WBS dictionary is the best option. WBS Dictionary identifies all the components used in
the WBS
25. d. Scope Validation is the process of the customer accepting the project deliverables.
26. d. Mean for PERT is defined as (P+4M+O)/6 which comes out to be 16 days.
27. b. Control Procurements is a process in the Project Procurement Management Knowledge
area.
28. c. In oligopoly, the action of one seller has an impact on other sellers, as there are very few
sellers.
29. b. Each year $200 gets removed from the value of computer. After three years the value
becomes $400.
30. c. The others are true statements about analogous estimating.
31. d. Learning curve estimation uses the principal that the cost per unit will decrease as more
units of work are manufactured.
32. a. The behavior described is an illustration of Halo's effect.
33. c. Close Procurements and Close Project or phase are the two closure processes.
34. d. The Configuration (or Change) Control Board has the authority to approve or deny
change requests.
35. b. Cost baseline includes the project budget for each month.
36. a. WBS should focus on deliverables.
37. d. WBS is an output of the Create WBS.
38. b. Project Manager is identified as part of the Develop Project Charter process.
39. d. Mandatory dependency represents dependencies due to nature of work.
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Answers to PMP Question Set – 4 Page 4 of 5

40. a. This is an example of dependency to an external (outside) body.

41. b. Parametric modeling is the best option.
42. a. The order of magnitude is preferred during initiation phase, and it has an accuracy range
of -25% to 75%
43. c. Crashing involves adding extra resources to reduce the project duration.
44. b. A risk trigger is an indication that the risk is about to occur or has occurred.
45. a. This is an example of lag. Lag is the amount of time after the completion of the
predecessor activity, when the successor activity can start.
46. d. According to PMBOK 90% of Project Managers time is spent in communicating.
47. d. As the scope is completed, the project is complete. Additional work should be done as
part of a new project.
48. b. Perform Quality Assurance is part of Execution phase.
49. a. This is an example of Acceptance risk response strategy.
50. b. Conduct Procurements is part of execution phase.
51. c. According to PMI, Compromise is an example of a loose-loose situation.
52. a. Procurement statements of work is an output of Plan Procurements process.
53. c. Expert judgment is a tool for the Develop Project Charter process.
54. c. War room is used for collocation to facilitate communication within the team.
55. a. When the team is afraid of the Project Manager, the power yielded is of type Coercive.
56. b. An S-curve is typically used to represent a cost baseline. The cost is low in the beginning
and end, and high during the middle of the project.
57. d. We need to compute the following for all the vendors - (0.4*Price + 0.6*Quality). The
scores come out to be vendor 1 - 10.4, vendor 2 - 10, vendor 3 - 9.6, and vendor 4's 11.
Since vendor 4 has the highest score, it should get selected.
58. d. A CPI of greater than one indicates you are taking less money than planed to do the
project.
59. b. EAC = (BAC/CPI).
60. d. CPI = EV/AV. EV=400, AC = 1000, PV=500.
61. a. SV=EV-PV. 400 minus 500 is -100.
62. c. Ethnocentrism refers to belief that ones culture is superior to other cultures.
63. c. Screening system are predefined criteria that are used to short-list vendors for source
selection
64. d. WBS is not an input to the Conduct Procurements process.
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Answers to PMP Question Set – 4 Page 5 of 5

65. b. The other two are conditions that indicate the process is out of control.
66. c. Statistical Sampling is the standard technique that is used to test only a small sample of
products instead of all the products manufactured.
67. d. This is the only correct statement.
68. a. Contract Closeout is performed before administrative Closeout
69. c. Risk Register is the only output of the Risk identification process.
70. b. A numeric value is assigned to risks impact and probability during the Quantitative Risk
Analysis process.
71. C - This is an ethics question dressed up as a stakeholder management question. What
happens next is an impact assessment. Under the mandatory Responsibility section: "We
inform ourselves and uphold the policies, rules, regulations and laws that govern our
work..."
72. C - Expert judgment is not a tool and technique of Mange Stakeholder Engagement.
PMBOK® Guide, 5th edition, p. 398
73. d. Cleaning the building is a repetitive task that is done everyday. Hence it is not an
example of a project.
74. B – This exactly describes the Salience model. PMBOK® Guide, 5th edition, p. 396
75. A - stakeholder management is about the creation and maintenance of relationships
between the project team and stakeholders. Under specific circumstances, answers B and
C may be partially or. Answer D is incorrect: what is created as the stakeholder
management plan, not the stakeholder management strategy. PMBOK® Guide, 5th edition,
p. 400

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