Nasm Flashcards

A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is
described by which of the following statements?

Select one:
a. When a group or situation is warm and inviting, it brings people together;
when people feel welcome, they are likely to return.
b. Participants are encouraged to push as hard as they can and may work
harder in the presence of the group.
c. Participants have people they can compare themselves with. Being able to
see what others can do and achieve can serve as further motivation.
d. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to
achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and
loyalty.
The correct answer is: Participants are forming connections with people who
are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of
friendship, closeness, and loyalty.
Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as
what?
Select one:
a. Exercises
b. Phases
c. Sports skills
d. Movement patterns
The correct answer is: Movement patterns
What is the primary function of the large intestine?

Select one:
a. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum
b. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
c. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
The correct answer is: Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered

accurate?
Select one:
a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a
total of 12 intervals.
b. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a
c. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170%
of VO2max.
d. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near
maximal effort.
The correct answer is: The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and
performed at 170% of VO2max.
How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should

children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?
Select one:
a. 45 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 30 minutes
The correct answer is: 30 minutes
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?

Select one:
a. It increases both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
b. It can increase LDL cholesterol.
c. It can lower both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
The correct answer is: It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL
cholesterol.
How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined?

Select one:
a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body when active
b. An anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth
and development
c. A method to help determine an individual's heart rate
d. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
The correct answer is: The amount of energy required to maintain the body at
rest
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus

distortion syndrome?
Select one:
a. Upper trapezius
b. Adductor complex (inner thighs)
c. Hip flexors
d. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
The correct answer is: Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and
medius
What statement best describes a low-cost health club?

Select one:
a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and
provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary
personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
b. A health club that provides amenities like locker rooms, snack and
supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of
membership
c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few
amenities other than access to exercise equipment
d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to
cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of
community-based initiatives
The correct answer is: A health club that offers a low-price membership, often
including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between

working as an independent contractor and working as an employee?
Select one:
a. An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while
an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.
b. An employee can establish their own hours, while an independent contractor
must adhere to a specific work schedule.
c. An employee can earn more per hour than an independent contractor.
d. An independent contractor can expect client referrals from a facility, while
an employee will have to find clients on the gym floor.
The correct answer is: An independent contractor is responsible for paying

their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring

during a plyometric exercise session?
Select one:
a. Intensity
b. Frequency
c. Volume
d. Recovery
The correct answer is: Volume
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed

syndrome?
Select one:
a. Hip flexors
b. Upper trapezius
c. Lower trapezius
d. Abdominals
The correct answer is: Lower trapezius
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored
elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
Select one:
a. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.
b. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
c. The attempt at jumping will fail.
d. The unused energy is stored for the next jump.
The correct answer is: The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

Select one:
a. Core stability
b. Overall base strength
c. Motor unit recruitment
d. Balance
The correct answer is: Motor unit recruitment
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Select one:
a. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
b. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion
c. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening
d. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
The correct answer is: Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of
tension change
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is

ready to undertake plyometric training?
Select one:
a. Body composition
b. Injury history
c. Height
d. Sports skills
The correct answer is: Injury history
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded

eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
c. Series elastic component
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
The correct answer is: Stretch-shortening cycle
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance

chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Select one:
a. Biceps brachii
b. Quadriceps
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Triceps brachii
The correct answer is: Triceps brachii
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual
pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed
remaining constant?
Select one:
a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric
The correct answer is: Isokinetic
What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?

Select one:
a. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.
b. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations
c. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining
d. At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover
The correct answer is: A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3
training day.
Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?

Select one:
a. People with a low body fat percentage
b. Males
c. Females
d. People with a low body mass index
The correct answer is: Females
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4
and 5 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. TRX Rip Trainer
b. Strength machines
c. Battle ropes
d. Sandbags
The correct answer is: Sandbags
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Select one:
a. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.
b. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers
and joint cartilage.
c. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
d. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload.
The correct answer is: Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the
soft tissue.
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult
from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg hop forward
c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
d. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
The correct answer is: Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a

client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?
Select one:
a. Tell them it could help with their training.
b. Tell them no.
c. Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use.
d. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further
advice.
The correct answer is: Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical
professional for further advice.
What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased

ability to expand the lungs?
Select one:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Peripheral arterial disease
c. Osteoporosis
d. Restrictive lung disease
The correct answer is: Restrictive lung disease
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the

Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food
service, and nutrition education?
Select one:
a. Certified nutrition specialist
b. Licensed dietitian
c. Certified dietitian nutritionist
d. Registered dietitian nutritionist
The correct answer is: Registered dietitian nutritionist
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate

contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Select one:
a. Eccentric contraction
b. Isometric contraction
c. Lengthening reaction
d. Stretch reflex
The correct answer is: Stretch reflex
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the
contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Select one:
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
b. Muscle imbalance
c. Length-tension relationship
d. Reciprocal inhibition
The correct answer is: Reciprocal inhibition
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a

treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Select one:
a. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back,
placing increased stress on the low-back.
b. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can
decrease ventilation.
c. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease
ventilation.
d. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back,
placing increased stress on the low-back.
The correct answer is: Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension
in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
Which of these is one of the major curvatures of the spine?

Select one:
a. Posterior thoracic curve
b. Anterior cervical curve
c. Anterior lumbar curve
d. Posterior lumbar curve
The correct answer is: Posterior lumbar curve
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will
help them improve which of the following?
Select one:
a. Force production
b. Landing mechanics
c. Core stability
d. Power development
The correct answer is: Landing mechanics
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?

Select one:
a. Carbohydrates from beans and legumes
b. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest
c. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise
d. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both
fiber and starch
The correct answer is: Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides

and that contain both fiber and starch
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable
row exercise?
Select one:
a. Elevation
b. Upward rotation
c. Protraction
d. Retraction
The correct answer is: Retraction
Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Anterior and posterior tibialis
c. Adductor complex
d. Upper trapezius
The correct answer is: Anterior and posterior tibialis
Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are

diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?
Select one:
a. Psychologist or psychiatrist
b. Registered dietitian or nutritionist
c. Corrective exercise specialist or certified exercise physiologist
d. Certified Personal Trainer or certified fitness professional
The correct answer is: Psychologist or psychiatrist
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

Select one:
a. Type IIc
b. Type IIa
c. Type IIb
d. Type I
The correct answer is: Type I
Which of the following best describes the term power?

Select one:
a. Joint protection
b. Sport-specific skills
c. Rate of force production
d. Muscle growth
The correct answer is: Rate of force production
Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three

systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and
what other system?
Select one:
a. Muscular
b. Vascular
c. Coronary
d. Digestive
The correct answer is: Muscular
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the

opposite side of the body?
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Posterior
c. Ipsilateral
d. Contralateral
The correct answer is: Contralateral
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?

Select one:
a. The arms falling forward
b. The trunk leaning forward
c. The scapula protruding excessively from the back
d. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
The correct answer is: The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?

Select one:
a. Stabilizer muscle relaxation
b. Laxity of a joint
c. Previous injury
d. Prime-mover relaxation
The correct answer is: Previous injury
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia?

Select one:
a. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
b. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
c. Health Canada
d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
The correct answer is: Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after

40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration?
Select one:
a. A hypertonic sports drink
b. Water
c. An isotonic sports drink
d. Fruit juice
The correct answer is: Water
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining
angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off
the ground.
Select one:
a. Vestibular
b. Somatosensory
c. Sensorimotor function
d. Visual
The correct answer is: Vestibular
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which

of the following?
Select one:
a. Developing intrinsic motivation
b. Winning a triathlon
c. Reducing burnout
d. Providing psychological benefits
The correct answer is: Providing psychological benefits
What is the definition of anthropometry?

Select one:
a. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of
understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
b. The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the
volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the
volume below the surface
c. The measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height, which is used
to estimate the risks of obesity
d. A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat
percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents
introduced into the body
The correct answer is: The field of study of the measurement of living humans
for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and
proportion
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

Select one:
a. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.
b. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
c. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods
between exercise intervals.
d. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a
period after exercise.
The correct answer is: EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above
baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
How are dietary supplements defined?

Select one:
a. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional
component
b. Regulated substances that are too dangerous to discuss with clients
c. Dietary products useful only for bodybuilders
d. Dietary materials essential for achieving fitness goals
Feedback
The correct answer is: Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a
desired nutritional component
What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?
Select one:
a. Agility
b. Quickness
c. Speed
d. Power
The correct answer is: Speed
What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened

hamstrings?
Select one:
a. Flexibility exercises
b. Balance exercises
c. Strengthening exercises
d. Plyometric exercises
The correct answer is: Flexibility exercises
Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as

having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience
will be like?
Select one:
a. Intensity
b. Consistency
c. Accountability
d. Mindlessness
The correct answer is: Consistency
Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?
Select one:
a. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula
b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural
angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior
axillary line
c. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid
process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
d. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and
the nipple
The correct answer is: A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the
anterior axillary line and the nipple
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?

Select one:
a. Condyloid
b. Nonsynovial
c. Pivot
d. Ball-and-socket
The correct answer is: Nonsynovial
Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize

comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the
exercise?
Select one:
a. Incline plank
b. Supine floor crunches
c. Stability ball Russian twist
d. Supine reverse crunches
The correct answer is: Incline plank
When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?

Select one:
a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or
infrequently active.
b. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers.
c. All individuals have "lack of time" as a barrier.
d. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives.
The correct answer is: Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are
sedentary or infrequently active.
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?

Select one:
a. Cancer and bleeding disorders
b. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
The correct answer is: Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described
by which of the following?
Select one:
a. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds
to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action.
b. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream
to the gland to exert a particular action.
c. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to
exert a particular effect.
d. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to
reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular
action.
The correct answer is: The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through
the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and
influences a particular action.
Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary
processes of the body?
Select one:
a. Mechanoreceptors
b. Autonomic nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. The brain
The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system
How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training

session or event?
Select one:
a. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity
b. 2 to 3 liters of fluid
c. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
d. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid
The correct answer is: 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the
activity
What type of fitness professional has advanced knowledge, training, and

experience in designing and implementing strength and conditioning programs
for competitive athletes?
Select one:
a. Group fitness instructor
b. Physical therapist
c. Certified Personal Trainer
d. Strength and conditioning coach
The correct answer is: Strength and conditioning coach
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?
Select one:
a. Self-efficacy
b. Attitudes
c. Behavior change techniques
d. Determinants
The correct answer is: Determinants
Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects

the body into right and left sides?
Select one:
a. Sagittal
b. Frontal
c. Transverse
d. Extension
The correct answer is: Sagittal
Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of
what condition after strenuous exercise?
Select one:
a. Delayed-onset muscle soreness
b. Eccentric strength
c. Local muscle endurance
d. Dynamic posture control
The correct answer is: Delayed-onset muscle soreness
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e.,

reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to
that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Select one:
a. Quickness
b. Speed
c. Agility
d. Stride rate
The correct answer is: Quickness
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what

muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance
throughout the spine?
Select one:
a. Upper trapezius
b.Sternocleidomastoid
c. Rhomboids
d. Diaphragm
The correct answer is: Sternocleidomastoid
Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client

autonomy?
Select one:
a. Cool-down
b. Client's choice
c. Activation
d. Resistance
The correct answer is: Client's choice
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?

Select one:
a. Osteoporosis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteopenia
d. Osteoarthritis
The correct answer is: Osteoarthritis

What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or
distance?
Select one:
a. Agility
b. Stride length
c. Stride rate
d. Power
The correct answer is: Stride rate
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?
Select one:
a. Client's choice
b. Resistance training
c. Skill development
d. Activation
The correct answer is: Activation
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?

Select one:
a. Vitamin B6
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B12
The correct answer is: Vitamin A
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead
squat?
Select one:
a. Adductor complex
b. Lower trapezius
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Gluteus maximus and medius
The correct answer is: Gluteus maximus and medius

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Transverse abdominis
b. Erector spinae
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Latissimus dorsi
The correct answer is: Transverse abdominis
What is the RDA for protein?

Select one:
a. 1.2 g/kg of body weight
b. 1.6 g/kg of body weight
c. 2.0 g/kg of body weight
d. 0.8 g/kg of body weight
The correct answer is: 0.8 g/kg of body weight
What best describes an essential amino acid?

Select one:
a. An amino acid that is in all types of foods
b. An amino acid that is available in all protein foods
c. An amino acid that is required after a workout
d. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the
body
The correct answer is: An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not
produced by the body
What causes coronary heart disease?

Select one:
a. Osteoporosis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Cirrhosis
The correct answer is: Atherosclerosis

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Select one:
a. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation
b. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
c. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
d. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
The correct answer is: Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance

what?
Select one:
a. Somatosensation
b. Strength
c. Vision
d. Vestibular senses
The correct answer is: Strength
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
Select one:
a. An RPE of 3 to 4
b. An RPE of 5 to 6
c. An RPE of 9 to 10
d. An RPE of 7 to 8
The correct answer is: An RPE of 5 to 6
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?

Select one:
a. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort
interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4
minutes
b. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-,
moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout
c. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity,
broken up by relatively short rest periods
d. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a
stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
The correct answer is: Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant
intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body

stretch?
Select one:
a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.
b. The stretch is too complicated for the older client.
c. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the
front knee.
d. This stretch is too advanced for the average person.
The correct answer is: The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and
other tissues in the front knee.
Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has
been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow
her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new
career?
Select one:
a. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results
b. Creating a social media page to post client results and a hashtag that her
clients can use to help grow her following
c. Offering her services as an in-home trainer to people in her immediate area
d. Providing a custom exercise prescription with an added meal plan for each
client
The correct answer is: Providing accountability, support, feedback and

guidance, and results
Food is composed of which three compounds?

Select one:
a. Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
b. Ketones, insulin, and ADP
c. ATP, glucose, and pyruvate
d. Amino acids, ATP, and glycogen
The correct answer is: Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
What is a prospect?
Select one:
a. A method of creating a service identified by specific characteristics
b. An individual who has been identified as a potential client
c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is
needed to meet a revenue goal
d. A potential career advancement opportunity
The correct answer is: An individual who has been identified as a potential
client
Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?

Select one:
a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Endomysium
d. A sarcomere
The correct answer is: A sarcomere
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local

muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball soccer throw
b. Floor crunch
c. Cable rotation
d. Side plank
The correct answer is: Side plank
A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in

which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3
The correct answer is: Phase 1
Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals?
Select one:
a. Lack of time
b. Lack of energy
c. Lack of enjoyment
d. Lack of social support
The correct answer is: Lack of time
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg
squat?
Select one:
a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Gluteus maximus and medius
c. Adductor complex
d. Lower trapezius
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?

Select one:
a. Sagittal plane
b. Thoracic spine
c. Frontal plane
d. Lumbar spine
The correct answer is: Thoracic spine
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft
tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?
Select one:
a. Frozen shoulder
b. Shoulder impingement
c. Rotator cuff tear
d. Dislocation of the shoulder
The correct answer is: Shoulder impingement
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater
than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect
to the muscle spindles?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Stretch reflex
c. Isometric contraction
The correct answer is: Autogenic inhibition
If a client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for

their fitness endeavors, it would be an example of which social construct?
Select one:
a. Social connections
b. Social pressure
c. Social influence
d. Social ambivalence
The correct answer is: Social influence
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate
position of the shoulders?
Select one:
a. Depressed and slightly protracted
b. Depressed and slightly retracted
c. Elevated and slightly retracted
d. Elevated and slightly protracted
The correct answer is: Depressed and slightly retracted
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus?

Select one:
a. The knees bowing outward
b. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes
c. The knees collapsing inward
d. The hip shifting toward one side or the other
The correct answer is: The knees collapsing inward
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to
the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?
Select one:
a. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.
b. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.
c. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation.
d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
The correct answer is: The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?
Select one:
a. Strains and heel spurs
b. Sprains and plantar fasciitis
c. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints
d. Achilles tendonitis and athlete's foot
The correct answer is: Sprains and plantar fasciitis
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications,

including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications,
that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Select one:
a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
d. Type 1 diabetes
The correct answer is: Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing
cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Variables and progression
b. Volume and progression
c. Velocity and pattern
d. Variables and pattern
The correct answer is: Volume and progression
Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise?

Select one:
a. Single-leg cable row
b. Box jumps
c. Barbell bench press
d. Medicine ball soccer throw
The correct answer is: Barbell bench press
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of
motion?
Select one:
a. Frontal
b. Transverse
c. Axial
d. Sagittal
The correct answer is: Sagittal
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?
Select one:
a. Client's choice
b. Activation
c. Resistance training
d. Skill development
The correct answer is: Activation
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins?

Select one:
a. Vitamin C, D, and K
b. Vitamin C, B complex, and K
c. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
d. Vitamin C, B complex, and D
The correct answer is: Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
c. Hamstrings and erector spinae
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
The correct answer is: Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip
external rotators
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global

muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Plank
b. Back extension
c. Dead bug
d. Medicine ball overhead throw
The correct answer is: Back extension
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back
exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
b. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat
c. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown
d. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press
The correct answer is: Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss
clients?
Select one:
a. 1 or 2 sessions per week
b. 3 or 4 sessions per week
c. 5 to 7 sessions per week
d. 0 sessions per week
The correct answer is: 1 or 2 sessions per week
Which vitamin is the most transient?

Select one:
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin A
The correct answer is: Vitamin C
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training
program to optimize function?
Select one:
a. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency
b. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability

c. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
The correct answer is: Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement

efficiency
What type of fitness professional has advanced knowledge, training, and

experience in designing and implementing strength and conditioning programs
for competitive athletes?
Select one:
a. Group fitness instructor
b. Physical therapist
c. Certified Personal Trainer
d. Strength and conditioning coach
The correct answer is: Strength and conditioning coach

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered
accurate?
Select one:
a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a
b. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170%
of VO2max.
c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a
d. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near
maximal effort.
The correct answer is: The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices
provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
Select one:
a. 4 to 5 drills
b. 2 to 4 drills
c. 6 to 8 drills
d. 9 or 10 drills
The correct answer is: 6 to 8 drills
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important

employees within a health club?
Select one:
a. Personal trainers study exercise science and have the knowledge to help
members get results.
b. Personal trainers are often in great physical shape, which demonstrates that
belonging to a health club can produce results members want.
c. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the
greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
d. Personal trainers are very outgoing and can help create a fun atmosphere in
a fitness facility.
The correct answer is: Personal trainers come in direct contact with members
and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?

Select one:
a. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
b. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
c. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
d. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine
The correct answer is: Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar
spine
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle

force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?
Select one:
a. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.
c. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also
increases.
The correct answer is: As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to
develop force also increases.
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to

improve balance?
Select one:
a. Stable floor environment
b. Weight training
c. Biomechanical ankle platform system
d. Aqua therapy
The correct answer is: Biomechanical ankle platform system
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?

Select one:
a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Two-arm push press
c. Soccer throw
d. Front medicine ball oblique throw
The correct answer is: Two-arm push press
local muscular system
stabilization system
involved in support and stabilization of the spine.
global muscular system
movement system.
responsible predominantly for movement of the trunk and extremities, and
primarily consists of large superficial musculature, such as the rectus
abdominis, latissimus dorsi, and external obliques
What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify

their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and
potential threats to success?
Select one:
a. Building rapport
b. A unique selling proposition (USP)
c. A SWOT analysis
d. Forecasting
The correct answer is: A SWOT analysis
A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome

goal?
Select one:
a. I want to deadlift 300 pounds.
b. I want to deadlift after work.
c. I want to deadlift once per week.
d. I want to lift 3 times per week.
The correct answer is: I want to deadlift 300 pounds.
What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?

Select one:
a. Lateral hamstrings
b. Medial gastrocnemius
c. Lateral triceps brachii
d. Middle deltoid
The correct answer is: Middle deltoid
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training

for novice clients?
Select one:
a. 1 week
b. 48 to 72 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 12 hours
The correct answer is: 48 to 72 hours
Which of the following is not considered an open-chain exercise?

Select one:
a. Lat pulldown
b. Push-up
c. Machine leg extension
d. Bench press
The correct answer is: Push-up
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?

Select one:
a. Deconditioned individuals
b. Individuals recovering from an injury
c. Elderly individuals
d. Individuals with performance goals
The correct answer is: Individuals with performance goals
When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body,
which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial?
Select one:
a. Machine leg press
b. Sandbag squat
c. Barbell squats
d. BOSU squat
The correct answer is: BOSU squat
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go
through?
Select one:
a. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Glycolysis
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Oxidation
The correct answer is: Gluconeogenesis
What is acidosis in muscle?

Select one:
a. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
b. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength
c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
d. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength
The correct answer is: A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood
sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before
considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most
appropriate course of action?
Select one:
a. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then
refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.
b. Agree to review his diet and provide him with specific dietary guidelines on
what foods to eat and what to avoid.
c. Give him a diabetic meal plan that you find on the internet.
d. Say that you cannot help him because this is a medical issue, and tell him he
needs to follow up with his doctor again.
The correct answer is: Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your
scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition
counseling.
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?

Select one:
a. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while
minimizing abdominal movement.
b. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while
allowing your stomach to expand.
c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your
stomach to expand.
d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your
chest to expand.
The correct answer is: Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose
while allowing your stomach to expand.
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force
in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Select one:
a. Core power
b. Core strength
c. Core endurance
d. Core stability
The correct answer is: Core strength
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for
prolonged periods of time?
Select one:
a. Muscular endurance
b. Rate of force production
c. Muscular hypertrophy
d. Stabilization
The correct answer is: Muscular endurance

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Select one:
a. Speed
b. Training duration
c. Rest interval
d. Intensity
The correct answer is: Speed
How is Fartlek training best described?

Select one:
a. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant
intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.
b. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining
different formats into one workout.
c. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and
d. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal
intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.
The correct answer is: Fartlek training targets many different physiological
systems by combining different formats into one workout.
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?

Select one:
a. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction
b. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
The correct answer is: Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined

physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
Select one:
a. 500 kcal
b. 1,200 kcal
c. 5,000 kcal
d. 12,000 kcal
The correct answer is: 1,200 kcal
Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for

cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one:
a. Steady-state heart rate
b. Maximal heart rate
c. Ventilatory threshold
d. VO2max
The correct answer is: VO2max
Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to

what system?
Select one:
a. Vestibular
b. Digestive
c. Somatosensory
d. Vision
The correct answer is: Somatosensory
Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?
Select one:
a. Strength machines
b. Suspended bodyweight training
c. Terra-Core
d. Resistance bands
The correct answer is: Strength machines
What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment?
Select one:
a. Designing the flexibility portion of the program
b. Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss
c. Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate
d. Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program
The correct answer is: Designing the flexibility portion of the program
What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest
or between beats?
Select one:
a. Diastolic blood pressure
b. Systolic blood pressure
c. Pulse
d. Hypertension
The correct answer is: Diastolic blood pressure
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system
would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Select one:
a. The ATP-PC system
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidative phosphorylation Ve
d. Beta-oxidation
The correct answer is: Oxidative phosphorylation
A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what
kind of question?
Select one:
a. Directive
b. Open-ended
c. Closed-ended
d. Contemplation
The correct answer is: Open-ended
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20
years are either overweight or obese?
Select one:
a. 0.92
b. 0.62
c. 0.72
d. 0.22
The correct answer is: 0.72
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core
training?
Select one:
a. Quickness
b. Agility
c. Balance
d. Coordination
The correct answer is: Quickness
How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?

Select one:
a. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.
b. The amortization phase helps generate additional forces.
c. Eccentric contractions are minimized.
d. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful.
The correct answer is: It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase,
preloading the muscle
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations

for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?
Select one:
a. Providing information on the health benefits
b. Helping them make a plan
c. Improving their confidence for their technique
d. Helping make the exercises fun
The correct answer is: Providing information on the health benefits
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?

Select one:
a. Cranium and facial bones
b. Scapula and humerus
c. Sternum and clavicle
d. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
The correct answer is: Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to
after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Stabilization endurance
c. Muscular development
d. Strength endurance
The correct answer is: Power
What is plyometric training also known as?

Select one:
a. Resistance training
b. Stability training
c. Reactive training
d. Strength training
The correct answer is: Reactive training
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise
behavior?
Select one:
a. Social psychology
b. Health psychology
c. Sport and exercise psychology
d. Developmental psychology
The correct answer is: Sport and exercise psychology
Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
Select one:
a. Phase 3
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 5
What are the three micronutrients?

Select one:
a. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
b. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids
c. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
d. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids
The correct answer is: Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills
per workout for this athlete?
Select one:
a. 1 or 2 drills per workout
b. 9 or 10 drills per workout
c. 4 to 8 drills per workout
d. 2 or 3 drills per workout
The correct answer is: 4 to 8 drills per workout
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?

Select one:
a. Back region
b. Scapular region
c. Leg region
d. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region
The correct answer is: Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region
Which of the following is the best source for reviewing information about
dietary supplements?
Select one:
a. A professional athlete
b. The supplement company's website
c. A fitness magazine
d. PubMed
The correct answer is: PubMed
Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process?
Select one:
a. Promoting the benefits of personal training for improving health and
longevity
b. Asking for referrals
c. Discussing pricing options
d. Identifying a customer's needs
The correct answer is: Identifying a customer's needs
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a

variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?
Select one:
a. Steady-state treadmill workouts
b. Long continuous runs
c. Small circuits
d. Heart rate cardio
The correct answer is: Small circuits
If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what
would his client’s heart rate be?
Select one:
a. 80 beats per minute
b. 66 beats per minute
c. 64 beats per minute
d. 72 beats per minute
The correct answer is: 80 beats per minute
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the
most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Select one:
a. Phase 3
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 5
What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell?

Select one:
a. A dumbbell is safer.
b. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same.
c. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.
d. A kettlebell is heavier.
The correct answer is: With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the
handle.
Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of

the following functions?
Select one:
a. It provides adequate energy for muscle protein synthesis during training.
b. It replenishes depleted amino acid stores prior to high-intensity training.
c. It is the primary energy source for low-intensity and long-duration exercise.
d. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.
The correct answer is: It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate
fuel for performance.
How is a general warm-up best defined?

Select one:
a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be
included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
b. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily
relate to the exercise immediately following.
c. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily
relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be
included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
The correct answer is: Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do
not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
Can supplements contain food allergens?

Select one:
a. No, because supplements are not real food.
b. No, because supplements are not food.
c. Yes, but only if the supplement is sourced from whole foods.
d. Yes, and if they do contain allergens, they should be listed on the label.
The correct answer is: Yes, and if they do contain allergens, they should be
listed on the label.
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is
activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
Select one:
c. Stretch reflex
The correct answer is: Autogenic inhibition
Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?

Select one:
a. Exercise can help control body weight, but it cannot improve blood flow.
b. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and
controlling hypertension.
c. There is no direct evidence that exercise will result in lower blood pressure.
d. Reducing excessive alcohol use will not have an impact on high blood
pressure.
The correct answer is: Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely
lowering and controlling hypertension.
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?

Select one:
a. A strain
b. A pull
c. A twist
d. A sprain
The correct answer is: A sprain
At what age is total peak bone mass reached?

Select one:
a. 18
b. 30
c. 25
d. 35
The correct answer is: 30
Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is

sedentary?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Pushing test
c. Shark skill test
d. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
The correct answer is: Pushing test
What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?

Select one:
a. The individual is tired from the test.
b. The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being
administered.
c. Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.
d. Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a
wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise.
The correct answer is: The individual is tired from the test.
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change
in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?
Select one:
a. Eccentric
b. Isometric
c. Concentric
d. Isokinetic
The correct answer is: Isometric
How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw
exercise?
Select one:
a. At least 21% of body weight
b. 11 to 15% of body weight
c. 16 to 20% of body weight
d. No more than 10% of body weight
The correct answer is: No more than 10% of body weight
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment

to help the body improve range of motion?
Select one:
a. Self-myofascial techniques
b. Active stretching
c. Static stretching
d. Dynamic stretching
The correct answer is: Self-myofascial techniques
Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to
the physical skills needed at her position?
Select one:
a. Quickness training
b. Olympic weightlifting
c. Speed training
d. Powerlifting
The correct answer is: Quickness training
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle

takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered length-tension relationship
The correct answer is: Synergistic dominance
When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body's general
orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is due to which key
sensory function?
Select one:
a. Wolff's law
b. Proprioception
c. Neuroplasticity
d. Stretch reflex
The correct answer is: Proprioception
Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been
shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?
Select one:
a. Calcitonin
b. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
c. Cortisol
d. Glucagon
The correct answer is: Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?

Select one:
a. Bench press strength
b. Single-leg squat
c. Static posture
d. 40-yard dash
The correct answer is: Static posture
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities,

acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Overhead squat
c. 40-yard dash
d. Pro shuttle
The correct answer is: 40-yard dash
What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in
older adults?
Select one:
a. Ligament integrity
b. Muscle strength
c. Joint stability
d. The environment
The correct answer is: The environment
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?

Select one:
a. Front medicine ball oblique throw
b. Medicine ball chest pass
c. Two-arm push press
d. Soccer throw
The correct answer is: Two-arm push press
Which individual is suffering from an acute disease?

Select one:
a. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes
b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
c. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes
d. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition
The correct answer is: Jorge, who is sick with the flu
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following
conditions?
Select one:
a. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this
condition.
b. Lung cancer
c. Arthritis
d. Osteopenia
The correct answer is: Osteopenia
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?

Select one:
a. Inability to exercise 3 times per week
b. Too much cardiovascular exercise
c. Poor SMART goals
d. Postural distortions
The correct answer is: Postural distortions
Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that
causes the brain to reform neural pathways?
Select one:
a. Neuroplasticity
b. Neuromotor skills
c. Remodeling
d. Neurocircuitry
The correct answer is: Neuroplasticity
Which of the following is a component of quickness training?

Select one:
a. Stride rate
b. Acceleration
c. Speed
d. Assessment of visual stimuli
The correct answer is: Assessment of visual stimuli
A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach
vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to
her question?
Select one:
a. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric
intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast.
b. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat
loss.
c. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie
deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss
of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.
d. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss.
The correct answer is: Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with
a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss
usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not
advisable
Dan, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, completed what he felt was a very
successful interview with the hiring manager at a top fitness studio. What is the
best course of action if Dan is interested in moving on to the next phase of the
interview process?
Select one:
a. Sending a text to the manager saying, “Thanks for your time.”
b. Posting a video on social media showing him working out at the health club
c. Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity
to interview for the job
d. Calling the manager to ask when the first day of work will be scheduled
The correct answer is: Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager
for the opportunity to interview for the job
When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for
30 minutes," what are they doing?
Select one:
a. Creating a coping plan
b. Forming an implementation intention
c. Self-monitoring
d. Stating an outcome expectation
The correct answer is: Forming an implementation intention

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the
following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a. Body fat loss
b. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
c. Decreased volume and intensity
d. Muscle mass atrophy
The correct answer is: Body fat loss
Which condition is an example of a chronic disease?

Select one:
a. Flu
b. Strep throat
c. Appendicitis
d. Type 2 diabetes
The correct answer is: Type 2 diabetes
If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total

calories), what type of exercise should they do?
Select one:
a. High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes
b. Walking for 5 minutes
c. High-intensity exercise for 10 to 15 minutes
d. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
The correct answer is: Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker
means, then stating it back to the speaker?
Select one:
a. Motivational interviewing
b. Reflective listening
c. Affirming
d. Active listening
The correct answer is: Reflective listening

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber
shortening?
Select one:
a. Isokinetic action
b. Isometric action
c. Eccentric action
d. Concentric action
The correct answer is: Concentric action
Which of the following is an open-ended question?

Select one:
a. What do you currently weigh?
b. Did you exercise this week?
c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
d. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals?
The correct answer is: What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the
past?
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Select one:
a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
b. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
c. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
The correct answer is: Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing

movement?
Select one:
a. Standing push assessment
b. Standing overhead press
c. Standing pull assessment
d. Davies test
The correct answer is: Standing push assessment

What types of foods contain carbohydrates?
Select one:
a. Proteins
b. All foods
c. Plant foods and dairy
d. Animal and plant foods
The correct answer is: Plant foods and dairy
How often should elastic resistance bands be checked?

Select one:
a. Only when there are signs of wear
b. Prior to every use
c. Once a day
d. Once a week
The correct answer is: Prior to every use
What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top?
Select one:
a. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar
b. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic
c. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic
d. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
The correct answer is: Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what

motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Select one:
a. Medial pelvic tilt
b. Lateral pelvic tilt
c. Anterior pelvic tilt
d. Posterior pelvic tilt
The correct answer is: Posterior pelvic tilt
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber

lengthening?
Select one:
a. Isokinetic action
b. Isometric action
c. Concentric action
d. Eccentric action
The correct answer is: Eccentric action
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the
necessary momentum for the swing phase?
Select one:
a. Transverse
b. Sagittal
c. Frontal
d. Axial
The correct answer is: Transverse
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most

appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?
Select one:
a. The Tanaka formula
b. Haskell’s 220-minus-age formula
c. Metabolic Equivalent (MET)
d. The talk test
The correct answer is: The talk test
What two factors are used to calculate body mass index (BMI)?
Select one:
a. Height and weight
b. Weight and age
c. Age and level of physical fitness
d. Height and age
The correct answer is: Height and weight
Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?

Select one:
a. Structured exercise
b. Sleeping
c. Walking
d. Eating
The correct answer is: Walking
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?

Select one:
a. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
c. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP.
d. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.
The correct answer is: The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain

and pituitary gland?
Select one:
a. Hypothalamus
b. Stomach
c. Liver
d. Pancreas
The correct answer is: Hypothalamus
What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist

circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
Select one:
a. 1.18
b. 0.85
c. 1.04
d. 0.97
What is cardiac output?

Select one:
a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
The correct answer is: The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Tuck jump
b. Butt kick
c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
d. Power step-up
The correct answer is: Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is defined as an individual’s level of effort, compared with their maximal

effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage?
Select one:
a. Training duration
b. Training frequency
c. Training volume
d. Training intensity
The correct answer is: Training intensity
Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold

measurements?
Select one:
a. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site.
b. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this
can skew results.
c. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise.
d. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement
must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.
The correct answer is: Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each
measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.
What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically
recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?
Select one:
a. Between 3 and 5 minutes
b. Between 1 and 3 minutes
c. Between 5 and 10 minutes
d. Between 10 and 15 minutes
The correct answer is: Between 5 and 10 minutes
At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?

Select one:
a. Precontemplation
b. Preparation
c. Contemplation
d. Maintenance
The correct answer is: Maintenance
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive

forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Hip flexor complex
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Gastrocnemius and soleus
The correct answer is: Gluteus maximus
Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to

replace those lost in sweat?
Select one:
a. Magnesium and sodium
b. Potassium and manganese
c. Sodium and calcium
d. Sodium and potassium
The correct answer is: Sodium and potassium

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show
appreciation of a client's strengths?
Select one:
a. Transitional summaries
b. Collecting summaries
c. Affirmations
d. Reflections
The correct answer is: Affirmations
Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the

body?
Select one:
a. A caloric surplus
b. High-intensity exercise
c. A very low-carbohydrate diet
d. A low-protein diet
The correct answer is: A very low-carbohydrate diet
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-
and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
Select one:
a. Stage 3
b. Stage 1
c. Stage 4
d. Stage 2
The correct answer is: Stage 1
Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete’s macrocycle

annual training plan?
Select one:
a. Off-season training
b. In-season training
c. Preseason training
d. Cardio training
The correct answer is: Cardio training

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate
clients?
Select one:
a. 90 to 120 seconds
b. 0 to 60 seconds
c. 120 to 180 seconds
d. 60 to 90 seconds
The correct answer is: 0 to 60 seconds
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before

prescribing flexibility exercises?
Select one:
a. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results
b. Any medical precautions or contraindications
c. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results
d. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results
The correct answer is: Any medical precautions or contraindications
How can fitness professionals earn CEUs?

Select one:
a. Reading scholarly research journals
b. Reading exercise-science textbooks
c. Attending fitness industry conferences
d. Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club
The correct answer is: Attending fitness industry conferences
Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body

stretch?
Select one:
a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.
b. The stretch is too complicated for the new client.
c. The stretch is too advanced for the average person.
d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles.
The correct answer is: The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the
knee.
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?
Select one:
a. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
d. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine
The correct answer is: Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar
spine
Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would

challenge which system?
Select one:
a. Visual system
b. Vestibular system
c. Auditory system
d. Somatosensory system
The correct answer is: Somatosensory system
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?

Select one:
a. Stride length
b. Agility
c. Stride rate
d. Power
The correct answer is: Stride length
What is stroke volume?

Select one:
a. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
The correct answer is: The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each
contraction
What statement best describes a premium health club?
Select one:
a. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses
b. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few
c. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and
provides a selection of high-end amenities
d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to
The correct answer is: A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio
options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the

electromechanical delay?
Select one:
a. Eccentric
b. Concentric
c. Amortization
d. Isometric
The correct answer is: Amortization
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?
Select one:
a. Arthropathy
b. Osteokinematics
c. Osteoporosis
d. Arthrokinematics
The correct answer is: Osteokinematics
What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and
enhances stabilization of the system?
Select one:
a. Power Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Maximal Strength Training
The correct answer is: Stabilization Endurance Training
Which of the following is true of protein shakes?

Select one:
a. They are a poor choice for recovery.
b. They are required to build muscle.
c. They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.
d. They are dangerous and should be avoided.
The correct answer is: They are convenient options for increasing protein
intake.
Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed

before moving to the next month’s mesocycle?
Select one:
a. SAQ
b. Reassessment
c. Resistance
d. Cardio
The correct answer is: Reassessment
What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a

plyometric training regimen?
Select one:
a. Frequency
b. Recovery
c. Intensity
d. Volume
The correct answer is: Recovery
Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?
Select one:
a. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs
b. Identifying a customer's needs
c. Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the
customer's needs
d. Asking for referrals
The correct answer is: Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to
solving the customer's needs
What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress?

Select one:
a. Attainable
b. Measurable
c. Timely
d. Specific
The correct answer is: Measurable
What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)?

Select one:
a. The amount recommended for the average person to take
b. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day
without risk of an adverse health effect
c. The same as daily value (DV)
d. The amount of a specific nutrient in a single serving
The correct answer is: The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may
be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect
What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)?

Select one:
a. RMR is the number of calories burned through digestion.
b. RMR is the number of calories burned after exercise.
c. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.
d. RMR is the number of calories burned through fidgeting.
The correct answer is: RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest
to function.
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
Select one:
a. Decreased kyphosis
b. Increased lordosis
c. Increased kyphosis
d. Decreased lordosis
The correct answer is: Increased lordosis
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?

Select one:
a. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?
b. What might you want to change?
c. Why don't you want to change?
d. What might work for you?
The correct answer is: Why don't you want to change?
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?

Select one:
a. Single-leg dumbbell scaption
b. Standing dumbbell lateral raise
c. Ball cobra
d. Calf raise
The correct answer is: Calf raise
Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength

endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of
periodization?
Select one:
a. Nonlinear periodization
b. Localized periodization
c. Linear periodization
d. Undulating periodization
The correct answer is: Linear periodization
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable
results?
Select one:
a. Reliability
b. Appropriateness
c. Relevance
d. Validity
The correct answer is: Reliability
Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for
someone under 5 feet tall?
Select one:
a. 55 cm
b. 65 cm
c. 75 cm
d. 45 cm
The correct answer is: 45 cm
Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of

that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle
from excessive stress and possible injury?
Select one:
a. Joint receptors
b. Golgi tendon organs
c. Muscle spindles
d. Interneurons
The correct answer is: Golgi tendon organs
A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic
training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30
minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and
10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of
change are they in?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Preparation
d. Maintenance
The correct answer is: Precontemplation
Circuit training is best described as what?

Select one:
a. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning,
muscular strength, and endurance training movements
b. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each
movement
c. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight
to load exercise movements
d. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement,
such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended
crunch
The correct answer is: A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity

aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum

strength of the lower extremities?
Select one:
a. Overhead squat
b. Lunge
c. Single-leg squat
d. Squat
The correct answer is: Squat
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to
participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Select one:
a. Cardiovascular precaution
b. Precaution
c. Psychological concern
d. Contraindication
The correct answer is: Contraindication
How is osteopenia best described?

Select one:
a. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.
b. A disease characterized by low bone density.
c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older
adults.
d. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
The correct answer is: The loss of bone density related to the aging process
Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular

endurance, and agility?
Select one:
a. Performance assessment
b. Static posture assessment
c. Dynamic posture assessment
d. Overhead squat assessment
The correct answer is: Performance assessment
Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement

in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)?
Select one:
a. Shoulder/military press
b. Squat jump
c. Stability ball push-up
d. Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press
The correct answer is: Shoulder/military press
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the

most accurate statement?
Select one:
a. It decreases core muscle activation.
b. It increases muscular hypertrophy.
c. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
d. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.
The correct answer is: It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

Empathy is best described as?
Select one:
a. The ability to identify with how another person feels
b. Listening to a client but not providing any support
c. Providing instrumental support to an individual
d. Being positive and outgoing during training sessions
The correct answer is: The ability to identify with how another person feels
Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness

professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients
reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option?
Select one:
a. Offering in-home training services
b. Working for a low-cost health club company
c. Working for a premium health club company
d. Creating online coaching programs
The correct answer is: Working for a premium health club company
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?

Select one:
a. Long
b. Short
c. Flat
d. Irregular
The correct answer is: Long
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?

Select one:
a. Pregnancy and diabetes
b. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins
c. Cancer and bleeding disorders
d. Young children and older adults
The correct answer is: Cancer and bleeding disorders

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding
muscles?
Select one:
a. Tendons
b. Connective tissues
c. Muscle spindles
d. Fascia
The correct answer is: Fascia
The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge,

what movements are occurring?
Select one:
a. Adduction and abduction
b. Supination and pronation
c. Abduction and extension
d. Flexion and extension
The correct answer is: Flexion and extension
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity

but without any form, structure, or consistency.
Select one:
a. Precontemplation
b. Preparation
c. Maintenance
d. Contemplation
The correct answer is: Preparation
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?

Select one:
a. Plyometric training
b. Power training
c. Stabilization training
d. SAQ training
The correct answer is: Plyometric training

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve
little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?
Select one:
a. Preplanned voluntary contractions
b. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training.
c. Voluntary contractions
d. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
The correct answer is: Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during

movement?
Select one:
a. Overhead squat
b. Single-leg squat
c. Push-up test
d. 40-yard dash
The correct answer is: Single-leg squat
Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for

achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss?
Select one:
a. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes
b. Limiting meals to once a day
c. Replacing high-fiber foods with low-fiber options
d. Avoiding a food group (e.g., fats or carbohydrates)
The correct answer is: Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes
What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on

balance training with a client?
Select one:
a. Performing medical rehabilitation with the client for their balance deficits
b. Prescribing medications or supplements to improve components of the
balance system (e.g., vision, vestibular, somatosensation)
c. Diagnosing balance disorders
d. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with
knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
The correct answer is: Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training

exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps

curl exercise with the thumb up?
Select one:
a. Biceps brachii
b. Brachioradialis
c. Triceps brachii
d. Brachialis
The correct answer is: Brachioradialis
What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?

Select one:
a. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater
than 120 mm Hg
b. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
c. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
d. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or
higher
The correct answer is: A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm

Hg diastolic
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of

the following?
Select one:
a. Absent stretch reflex
b. Prolonged amortization phase
c. Release of stored energy during concentric phase
d. Rapid amortization phase
The correct answer is: Rapid amortization phase

Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater
depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause?
Select one:
a. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature
b. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature
c. Place a small board under the toes
d. Place a small board under the heels
The correct answer is: Place a small board under the heels
What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?

Select one:
a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius.
It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
b. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram
of water by 1 degree Celsius.
c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree
Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree
Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.
The correct answer is: The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of
water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For

how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
Select one:
a. 4 seconds
b. 2 seconds
c. 1 second
d. 3 seconds
The correct answer is: 4 seconds
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if

participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
Select one:
a. 75 minutes per week
b. 125 minutes per week
c. 150 minutes per week
d. 300 minutes per week
The correct answer is: 150 minutes per week
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive

lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
Select one:
a. Upper crossed syndrome
b. Excessive pronation
c. Lower crossed syndrome
d. Pes planus distortion syndrome
The correct answer is: Lower crossed syndrome

Select one:
a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.
c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
increases.
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?

Select one:
a. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking
improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
b. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking
improvements in aerobic capacity and power
c. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking
improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking
improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
The correct answer is: Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory
fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?

Select one:
a. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons
b. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
c. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron
d. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
The correct answer is: To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the
body
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

Select one:
a. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
b. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
c. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion
d. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension
The correct answer is: Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it

with positive statements?
Select one:
a. Reverse listing
b. Stopping
c. Cognitive fusion
d. Imagery
The correct answer is: Reverse listing
What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor
muscles to avoid an inversion injury?
Select one:
b. Force velocity
c. External feedback
d. Proprioception
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

Select one:
a. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
c. Forward head and protracted shoulders
d. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward
The correct answer is: Forward head and protracted shoulders
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise
and can see both the pros and cons of participating?
Select one:
a. Confusion
b. Ambiguity
c. Ambivalence
d. Unequivocal
The correct answer is: Ambivalence
What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?

Select one:
a. The point at which the body's energy system converts glycogen to glucose
without the use of oxygen
b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as
fuel sources
c. The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity.
d. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the
cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of
work being performed
The correct answer is: Any stage at which the physiological response of heart
rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to
the amount of work being performed
Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility.
Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 3
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 2
Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for

exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm
temperatures with heavy perspiration?
Select one:
a. Water mixed with fruit juice
b. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water
c. Fruit juice
d. Plain water
The correct answer is: Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training

(HIIT) is incorrect?
Select one:
a. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume
of work.
b. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate
measure of intensity.
c. Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate
d. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery
periods.
The correct answer is: Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective

measure) is an accurate measure of intensity
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for
older adults?
Select one:
a. Exercise group
b. Family
c. The community
d. Exercise leader
The correct answer is: Family
Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?
Select one:
a. Decreased fat loss
b. Improved sleep
c. Decreased hormonal function
d. Increased rate of power decline
The correct answer is: Improved sleep
How should an eccentric muscle action be described?

Select one:
a. The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening
and lengthening of the contractile tissue
b. The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile
tissue
c. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile
tissue
d. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the
contractile tissue
The correct answer is: The development of muscle tension during lengthening
of the contractile tissue
For what is vitamin D most important?

Select one:
a. Eyesight
b. Bone health
c. Hair growth
d. Skin pigmentation
The correct answer is: Bone health
What principle describes the nervous system’s ability to recruit the correct
muscles to perform movement?
Select one:
a. Concentric control
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
c. All-or-nothing principle
d. Eccentric control
The correct answer is: Neuromuscular efficiency
At his first visit to his new fitness trainer, Robert's BMI was 37. According to
this information, how would Robert be classified?
Select one:
a. Underweight
b. Obese
c. Overweight
d. Healthy weight
The correct answer is: Obese
What statement best describes a nonprofit health club?

Select one:
a. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare
services for low-income families
b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to
c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few
d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and
provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary
personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
The correct answer is: A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs
and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a
wide range of community-based initiatives
Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts,
or tartan tracks?
Select one:
a. They protect the exerciser from real-world movement.
b. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
c. Only athletes need plyometric training.
d. The surfaces are unstable and proprioceptively enriched.
The correct answer is: The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury
risk.
Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase?

Select one:
a. Muscle growth
b. Rate of force production
c. Stability
d. Muscular endurance
The correct answer is: Rate of force production
What is end-systolic volume?

Select one:
a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
The correct answer is: The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after
contraction
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?

Select one:
a. Stabilize individual vertebral segments
b. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
c. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs
d. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments
The correct answer is: Force production during dynamic whole-body

movements
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to

stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Select one:
a. Obliques
b. Pectoral group
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Gluteal complex
The correct answer is: Pectoral group
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?
Select one:
a. Protein
b. Glucose
c. Ketone bodies
d. Fat
The correct answer is: Glucose
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric
acid cycle?
Select one:
a. Ketosis
b. Beta-oxidation
c. Glycolysis
d. Acidosis
The correct answer is: Beta-oxidation
What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work?

Select one:
a. Glucose
b. Fat
c. ADP
d. ATP
The correct answer is: ATP
What is the general adaptation syndrome?

Select one:
a. The general adaptation syndrome describes how traits are handed down
from parents to offspring.
b. The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body
responds and adapts to stress.
c. The general adaptation syndrome describes how humans evolve over time.
d. The general adaptation syndrome describes how an individual emotionally
adapts to positive reinforcement.
The correct answer is: The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in
which the body responds and adapts to stress.
What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program
within the first 6 months after they begin?
Select one:
a. 0.5
b. 0.25
c. 0.4
d. 0.1
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced

by using pulling motions?
Select one:
a. Superior
b. Lateral
c. Posterior
d. Anterior
The correct answer is: Posterior
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?

Select one:
a. Radial artery
b. Carotid artery
c. Brachial artery
d. Femoral artery
The correct answer is: Brachial artery

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and
simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance
b. Stabilization Endurance
c. Maximal Strength
d. Power
The correct answer is: Strength Endurance
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?

Select one:
a. X-X-X-X
b. 1-2-3-4
c. 4-2-1-1
d. 2-0-2-0
Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing

professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How
can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete?
Select one:
a. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique
selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former
professional athlete.
b. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish
immediate rapport with club members and potential clients.
c. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete gives him the ability to create an
accurate business forecast.
d. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish a
recognizable brand identity.
The correct answer is: Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him
to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise
with a former professional athlete.
Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin,

muscle length, and joint angles?
Select one:
a. Visual system
b. Vestibular system
c. Somatosensory system
d. Hearing system
The correct answer is: Somatosensory system
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a
fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she
wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?
Select one:
a. Intrinsic motivation
b. Autonomy motivation
c. Extrinsic motivation
d. Affiliation motivation
The correct answer is: Extrinsic motivation
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

Select one:
a. Squat jump with stabilization
b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
c. Tuck jump with stabilization
d. Box jump-up with stabilization
The correct answer is: Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed?

Select one:
a. Neuroplasticity
b. Wolff's law
c. Osteoporosis
d. Remodeling
The correct answer is: Remodeling
The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?
Select one:
a. Ballistic stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Dynamic stretching
d. Active stretching
The correct answer is: Static stretching
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United

Kingdom?
Select one:
a. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
c. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)
d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
The correct answer is: European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to
plyometric training?
Select one:
a. Proper technique
b. Jump height
c. Amortization speed
d. Explosive power
The correct answer is: Proper technique
Which of the following is iron considered to be?

Select one:
a. Performance supplement
b. Trace mineral
c. Macromineral
d. Vitamin
The correct answer is: Trace mineral
Which of the following best defines cholesterol?

Select one:
a. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells
b. A raising of blood pressure
c. A narrowing of arteries to the heart
d. A substance that attaches itself to muscles and tendons
The correct answer is: A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?

Select one:
a. Type IIx
b. Type IIa
c. Type III
d. Type I
The correct answer is: Type I
Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?

Select one:
a. Anabolic steroids
b. Performance supplements
c. Health supplements
d. Stimulants
The correct answer is: Health supplements
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining
foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Select one:
a. Vestibular
b. Sensorimotor function
c. Somatosensation
d. Vision
The correct answer is: Somatosensation
What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting
direction in response to that stimulus?
Select one:
a. Quickness
b. Speed
c. Power
d. Agility
The correct answer is: Agility
During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with
increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?
Select one:
a. Phase 5 Power
b. Phase 4 Maximal Strength
c. Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance
d. Phase 3 Muscular Development
The correct answer is: Phase 5 Power
What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons
and ligaments attach?
Select one:
a. Bone spurs
b. Processes
c. Depressions
d. Sulcus
The correct answer is: Processes
What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass,
power, and strength for aging adults?
Select one:
b. Aerobics
c. Cardio
d. Walking
The correct answer is: Resistance training
Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of

barrier?
Select one:
a. Lack of motivation
b. Lack of willpower
c. Lack of convenience
d. Lack of social support
The correct answer is: Lack of social support
Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what

measurement?
Select one:
a. 125/75 mm Hg
b. 80/120 mm Hg
c. 120/80 mm Hg
d. 120/60 mm Hg
The correct answer is: 120/80 mm Hg
A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which
of the following?
Select one:
a. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants
b. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open
c. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center
d. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
The correct answer is: Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking
trails
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

Select one:
a. Stage 3
b. Stage 5
c. Stage 2
d. Stage 4
During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar step-up
b. Ball squat
c. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
d. Squat, curl to two-arm press
The correct answer is: Squat, curl to two-arm press
Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure

(TDEE)?
Select one:
a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
b. Nonexercise anabolic thermogenesis (NEAT)
c. Thermic effect of fasting (TEF)
d. Elapsed activity thermogenesis (EAT)
The correct answer is: Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational

adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"?
Select one:
a. Strength
b. Stability
c. Endurance
d. Power
The correct answer is: Stability
Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the

following?
Select one:
a. Less speed
b. Less forward drive
c. Less braking force
d. Less stability
The correct answer is: Less braking force
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?

Select one:
a. Less force production
b. Larger in size
c. Fewer capillaries
d. Quick to fatigue
The correct answer is: Less force production
Jessica is looking to grow in her career as a personal trainer. Which

employment option would offer her the best chance to provide mentorship to
fitness professionals, use managerial skills, and respond directly to member
needs when necessary?
Select one:
a. Fitness manager
b. General manager
c. Strength and conditioning coach
d. Master instructor
The correct answer is: Fitness manager
What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon?

Select one:
a. Davis's principle
b. Principle of specificity
c. All-or-nothing principle
d. Archimedes' principle
The correct answer is: Archimedes' principle
For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per
exercise session?
Select one:
a. 25 to 75 kcal
b. 600 to 700 kcal
c. 200 to 300 kcal
d. 100 to 150 kcal
The correct answer is: 200 to 300 kcal
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding

proprioceptive modalities?
Select one:
a. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities
is considered dangerous.
b. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced
clients.
c. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.
d. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive
modalities has been shown to be safe and effective.
The correct answer is: Using heavy weights while performing exercises on
proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous
Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer

through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best
opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager?
Select one:
a. Showing up at the club in workout clothes, explaining that he is an applicant,
and asking for a free workout
b. Posting workout videos to a social media account and tagging the health club
and hiring managers
c. Calling the health club, asking to speak to the hiring manager, and explaining
he is perfect for the job
d. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring
manager and complete an application in person
The correct answer is: Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a
resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is
intended to measure?
Select one:
a. Reliability
b. Relevance
c. Appropriateness
d. Validity
The correct answer is: Validity

Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects?
Select one:
a. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm
b. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement
c. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach
d. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
The correct answer is: Shallow rapid breaths with use of the
sternocleidomastoid
Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle

soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?
Select one:
a. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
b. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
c. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise
d. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise
The correct answer is: 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream?

Select one:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hypertension
c. Hypotension
d. Hyperglycemia
The correct answer is: Hypoglycemia
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

Select one:
a. Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx
b. Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle
c. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
d. Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing
The correct answer is: Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels
of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
Select one:
a. Sit-ups
b. Chin-ups
c. Leg press
d. Handstand push-up
The correct answer is: Handstand push-up
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric

exercise?
Select one:
a. Stabilize
b. Land
c. Gait
d. Jump
The correct answer is: Jump
Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional’s

accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?
Select one:
a. Best external evidence
b. Number of continuing education units earned
c. Individual professional expertise
d. Client values and expectations
The correct answer is: Individual professional expertise
What are the three categories within the lipid family?

Select one:
a. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
b. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol
c. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats
d. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s
The correct answer is: Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise
only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?
Select one:
a. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation
b. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation
c. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation
d. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
The correct answer is: Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated

with this style of training?
Select one:
a. Growth and volume
b. Strength and stabilization
c. Strength and volume
d. Growth and stabilization
The correct answer is: Growth and volume
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:
a. A cadence of 112 steps per minute
b. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
c. A cadence of 60 steps per minute
d. A cadence of 36 steps per minute
The correct answer is: A cadence of 96 steps per minute
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling
improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac
fibers?
Select one:
a. Valsalva maneuver
b. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
c. Peripheral resistance
d. Venous pooling
The correct answer is: Frank Starling Law of the Heart

You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss benefits of
including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you consider in deciding if
this is credible nutrition information?
Select one:
a. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other
qualified individuals?
b. Is the magazine article in a recent publication or is it outdated?
c. Has the information been reported on the news and in other media?
d. Is the nutrient available as a supplement, given the purported weight-loss
benefits?
The correct answer is: Is the information supported by research, and has it
been reviewed by other qualified individuals?
What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called
beta cells) stop producing insulin?
Select one:
a. Type 2
b. Type 1
c. Prediabetes
d. Gestational
The correct answer is: Type 1
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training
program to optimize function?
Select one:
a. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
b. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
c. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency
d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
The correct answer is: Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement

efficiency
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above
VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Select one:
a. Stage 3 training
b. Stage 1 training
c. Stage 2 training
d. Stage 4 training
The correct answer is: Stage 2 training
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball

athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved
landing movement mechanics?
Select one:
a. Foot injury
b. Patellar fracture
c. Anterior cruciate ligament injury
d. Shoulder injury
The correct answer is: Anterior cruciate ligament injury
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the
angle between the force application and the lever arm?
Select one:
a. Torque
b. Arthrokinematics
c. Force velocity
The correct answer is: Torque
Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase

proprioceptive demands in training?
Select one:
a. Seated exercises
b. Standing exercises on a gym floor
c. Exercises with free weights
d. Exercises using selectorized machines
The correct answer is: Exercises with free weights
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?

Select one:
a. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
b. It involves expiring against a closed glottis.
c. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.
d. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure.
The correct answer is: It is a recommended technique for those with

hypertension
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of

intensity defines zone 2?
Select one:
a. Below VT1
b. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2
c. Above VT2
d. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
The correct answer is: From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?

Select one:
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
The correct answer is: Right atrium
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions

known as?
Select one:
a. Unloading phase
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
c. Loading phase
d. Amortization phase
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound

exercise?
Select one:
a. Squatting
b. Pulling
c. Pushing
d. Hip hinge
The correct answer is: Squatting
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in

every phase of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. TRX Rip Trainer
b. Suspended bodyweight training
c. Cable machines
d. Terra-Core
The correct answer is: Cable machines
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press

exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are
potentially overactive and underactive?
Select one:
a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
b. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
c. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors
d. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
The correct answer is: Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of

motion?
Select one:
a. Frontal and sagittal
b. All planes of motion
c. Sagittal and transverse
d. Transverse and frontal
The correct answer is: Frontal and sagittal

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more
resilient through which exercise programming approach?
Select one:
a. Progressive overload
b. All-or-nothing principle
c. Systematic approach
d. SAID principle
The correct answer is: Progressive overload
For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization
Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?
Select one:
a. Movement quantity
b. Movement intensity
c. Movement speed
d. Movement quality
The correct answer is: Movement quality
What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year’s
worth of programming?
Select one:
a. Megacycle
b. Macrocycle
c. Microcycle
d. Mesocycle
The correct answer is: Macrocycle
What is bioenergetics?
Select one:
a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
b. The study of metabolism during exercise
c. The study of weight loss
d. The study of aerobic metabolism
The correct answer is: The study of the ways in which food is turned into
energy
What is the main role of a personal trainer?
Select one:
a. Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes
b. Provide nutritional advice, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients
c. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and
other lifestyle changes
d. Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive
athletes
The correct answer is: Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise
programming and other lifestyle changes
Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States?

Select one:
a. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)
b. Creatine
c. Hordenine
d. Caffeine
The correct answer is: Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)
Accumulating too much of a vitamin or mineral in the body may lead to what?
Select one:
a. Deficiency
b. Improved performance
c. Better outcomes
d. Toxicity
The correct answer is: Toxicity
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which

example?
Select one:
a. Planning social gatherings for the group
b. Planning the workout for the group
c. Providing modifications during the workout
d. Setting the time for the group to meet
Feedback
The correct answer is: Planning social gatherings for the group
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower

extremity?
Select one:
a. Afferent nerve function
b. Neuromuscular function
c. Vestibular function
d. Sensory function
The correct answer is: Neuromuscular function
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the
agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What
is this phenomenon called?
Select one:
a. Stretch reflex
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Isometric contraction
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?

Select one:
a. Slow to fatigue
b. Fewer capillaries
c. Short-term contractions
d. Decreased oxygen delivery
The correct answer is: Slow to fatigue
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?

Select one:
a. Synergistic dominance
c. Lengthening reaction
d. Length-tension relationships
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the
most motivating?
Select one:
a. Health and well-being
b. Improved physical appearance
c. Competition with others
d. Being a part of a social group
The correct answer is: Health and well-being
What are ground reaction forces?

Select one:
a. Deceleration forces in the muscles
b. The force of gravity
c. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
d. Forces used by the muscles during a jump
The correct answer is: Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the
ground after jumping
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?

Select one:
a. ADP and water
b. ATP and water
c. ATP and oxygen
d. ADP and hydrogen ions
The correct answer is: ATP and water
What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in
featuring their services?
Select one:
a. Statement of work (SOW)
b. PERT estimate
c. Unique selling proposition (USP)
d. SWOT analysis
The correct answer is: Unique selling proposition (USP)
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?
Select one:
a. When outcome goals are objective
b. When goals are not adjusted
c. When process goals are too specific
d. When only one goal is set
The correct answer is: When goals are not adjusted
How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?

Select one:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 9
d. 6
The correct answer is: 4
Informational support would be provided by which example?

Select one:
a. Holding the client accountable to lifting weights 3 days per week
b. Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating
each day
c. Working out alongside a client
d. Letting a client know they are not alone in the process of losing weight
The correct answer is: Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they
should be accumulating each day
Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk

for injury?
Select one:
a. Plow pose
b. Downward dog pose
c. Bound angle pose
d. Cat pose
The correct answer is: Plow pose
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their
physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice
for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
Select one:
a. Establish short- and long-term goals.
b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
c. Start establishing an emotional support system.
d. Create a plan for overcoming barriers.
The correct answer is: Inquire further about what their motives are for
participating
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Axial
c. Peripheral
d. Appendicular
The correct answer is: Appendicular
What are the components of ATP?

Select one:
a. Adenine, amino acids, and three phosphate groups
b. Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
c. Adenine, glucose, and one phosphate group
d. Adenine, ribose, and two phosphate groups
The correct answer is: Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively

constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the
body and shivering to warm the body?
Select one:
a. Peripheral vasodilation
b. Thermoregulation
c. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
The correct answer is: Thermoregulation
What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?

Select one:
a. BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls
b. Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls
c. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
d. Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags
The correct answer is: Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent

unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Hip abductors
b. Hip extensors
c. Hip internal rotators
d. Hip flexors
The correct answer is: Hip abductors
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:

Select one:
a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion
b. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
c. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
d. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
The correct answer is: Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the
ball
When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following

benefits to users?
Select one:
a. Increased user safety
b. Decreased challenges to balance and stability
c. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements
d. Increased multiplanar movement
The correct answer is: Increased multiplanar movement
The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Hamstrings and erector spinae
The correct answer is: Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can

be viewed as which of the following?
Select one:
a. A barrier to exercise
b. Amotivation to exercise
c. An influence on exercise
d. Ambivalence toward exercise
The correct answer is: A barrier to exercise
Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are
characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated
decline of lung function?
Select one:
a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
b. Hypertension
c. Lung cancer
d. Asthma
The correct answer is: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?

Select one:
a. Testosterone
b. Insulin
c. Insulin-like growth factor
d. Growth hormone
The correct answer is: Insulin
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold
measurements at which of the following sites?
Select one:
a. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh
b. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
c. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen
d. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac
The correct answer is: Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an

example of which improvement of the body?
Select one:
a. Muscle hypertrophy
b. Muscle strength
c. Muscle endurance
d. Muscle power
The correct answer is: Muscle hypertrophy
Which is involved in frontside mechanics?

Select one:
a. Lead leg
b. Ankle plantar flexion
c. Knee extension
d. Rear leg
The correct answer is: Lead leg
Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice?

Select one:
a. Reading information presented in a blog article
b. Referencing a social media post
c. Referring to a colleague's practical knowledge
d. Referencing peer-reviewed research
The correct answer is: Referencing peer-reviewed research
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training
session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
Select one:
a. Balance training
b. Core training
c. Cardiorespiratory training
d. Resistance training
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working
at ventilatory threshold 2?
Select one:
a. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various
intensity levels
b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as
fuel sources
c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state
intensity for more than a few minutes
d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state
intensity for only few seconds
The correct answer is: The level at which the body can work at its highest
sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it

relates to cancer?
Select one:
a. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis.
b. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column.
c. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer.
d. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving
chemotherapy or radiation treatments.
The correct answer is: Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for
clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.
From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to

preserve its validity?
Select one:
a. Body composition
b. Flexibility
c. Muscular fitness
d. Cardiorespiratory fitness
The correct answer is: Body composition
Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/86 mm Hg

fall?
Select one:
a. Normal
b. Stage 1 hypertension
c. Elevated
d. Stage 2 hypertension
The correct answer is: Elevated
Flexibility is defined as the following:

Select one:
a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of
motion
b. A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched
c. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely
d. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often
measured in degrees
The correct answer is: Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for
complete range of motion
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking
to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
Select one:
a. Muscular Development Training
b. Maximal Strength Training
c. Power Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training
The correct answer is: Muscular Development Training
The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and
occupation describes which term?
Select one:
a. Socioeconomic status
b. Social influence
c. Net worth
d. Income status
The correct answer is: Socioeconomic status
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Hip flexor
b. Erector spinae
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus medius
The correct answer is: Gluteus medius
How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance
exercise more difficult for the client?
Select one:
a. Decreasing the velocity of each throw
b. Increasing the velocity of each throw
c. Throwing the ball at the same height each time
d. Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer
The correct answer is: Increasing the velocity of each throw
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation

during the pushing assessment?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
b. Infraspinatus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Upper trapezius
The correct answer is: Upper trapezius
Why is third-party verification important?

Select one:
a. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market.
b. It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients.
c. It shows which supplements to trust.
d. It provides unbiased testing for a product.
The correct answer is: It provides unbiased testing for a product.
What are the two categories of bone markings?

Select one:
a. Irregular and flat
b. Surface and deep
c. Short and long
d. Depressions and processes
The correct answer is: Depressions and processes
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?

Select one:
a. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the
ground to help propel the body forward.
b. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the
pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production.
c. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the
ground to help propel the body forward.
d. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including
hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.
The correct answer is: Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply
force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
What is sarcopenia?
Select one:
a. Chronic inflammation of the joints
b. Lower than normal bone mineral density
c. Age-related loss in bone mineral density
d. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
The correct answer is: Age-related loss of muscle tissue

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Select one:
a. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb
b. Standing on two limbs with eyes open
c. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
d. Standing on two limbs catching a ball
The correct answer is: Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
Which of the following is a component of agility training?

Select one:
a. Reaction
b. Deceleration
c. Assessment of visual stimuli
d. Stride rate
The correct answer is: Deceleration
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications,

including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications,
that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Select one:
a. Type 1 diabetes
b. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
c. Type 2 diabetes
d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
The correct answer is: Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are
less elastic and pliable?
Select one:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Arteriosclerosis
The correct answer is: Arteriosclerosis

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to
maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
Select one:
a. Dynamic balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. High-level balance
d. Static balance
The correct answer is: Dynamic balance
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what
type of regression should be applied?
Select one:
a. Switch to single-leg power step-ups
b. Increasing speed
c. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
d. Being more explosive
The correct answer is: Adding a stabilization pause between reps
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

Select one:
a. Overall base strength
b. Core stability
c. Motor unit recruitment
d. Balance
The correct answer is: Motor unit recruitment
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural
assessments?
Select one:
a. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward
b. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward
c. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome
d. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed
syndrome
The correct answer is: Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed
syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?

Select one:
a. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
b. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or
higher
c. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
d. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater
than 120 mm Hg
The correct answer is: A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm

Hg diastolic
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring
in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Select one:
a. Ankle dorsiflexion
b. Ankle plantar flexion
c. Knee flexion
d. Hip abduction
The correct answer is: Ankle plantar flexion
Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Phase 2 and 5
b. Phases 3 and 4
c. Phase 2 and 3
d. Phase 1 and Phase 4
The correct answer is: Phase 2 and 5
What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood

pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?
Select one:
a. None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance is
suggested).
b. Medical monitoring coupled with medications to lower blood pressure
c. Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
d. Lifestyle changes alone
The correct answer is: Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical
monitoring
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the

Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food
service, and nutrition education?
Select one:
a. Licensed dietitian
b. Certified dietitian nutritionist
c. Certified nutrition specialist
d. Registered dietitian nutritionist
The correct answer is: Registered dietitian nutritionist
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during
plyometric training?
Select one:
a. Isometric
b. Isokinetic
c. Concentric
d. Eccentric
The correct answer is: Isometric
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?

Select one:
a. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid
b. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
c. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural
axillary line
d. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
The correct answer is: A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus
(belly button)
What is end-diastolic volume?

Select one:
a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
The correct answer is: The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?

Select one:
a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit
atrophied neck muscles.
c. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.
d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit
hypertrophied neck muscles.
The correct answer is: Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and
may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults)
is comprised of water?
Select one:
a. 0.5
b. 0.8
c. 0.6
d. 0.4
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the
contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Select one:
b. Length-tension relationship
c. Muscle imbalance
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and

amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Select one:
a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Volume
d. Recovery
The correct answer is: Intensity
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Select one:
a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
b. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
d. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation
The correct answer is: Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a
standing cable rotation movement?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Gluteus medius
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Latissimus dorsi
The correct answer is: Erector spinae
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Select one:
a. Vertical jump
b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
c. 40-yard dash
d. Pro shuttle
The correct answer is: Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Select one:
a. Larger in size
b. Fewer capillaries
c. Less force production
d. Quick to fatigue
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the

posterior aspect of the body?
Select one:
a. Multifidus
b. Quadratus lumborum
c. Erector spinae
d. Diaphragm
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?

Select one:
a. Transverse abdominis
b. Pelvic floor muscles
c. Erector spinae
d. Multifidus
Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing

stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?
Select one:
a. Activation
b. Warm-up
c. Skill development

Select one:
a. Osteoporosis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Osteopenia
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills
per workout for this athlete?
Select one:
a. 2 or 3 drills per workout
b. 4 to 8 drills per workout
c. 1 or 2 drills per workout
d. 9 or 10 drills per workout
The correct answer is: 4 to 8 drills per workout
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility
training should they utilize?
Select one:
a. SMR/static stretching
b. SMR/active stretching
c. Dynamic/active stretching
d. SMR/dynamic stretching
The correct answer is: SMR/static stretching

Select one:
a. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
b. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors
c. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
d. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

Select one:
a. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion
b. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension
c. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
d. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
The correct answer is: Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:
a. A cadence of 60 steps per minute
b. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
c. A cadence of 36 steps per minute
d. A cadence of 112 steps per minute
The correct answer is: A cadence of 96 steps per minute
Flexibility is defined as the following:

Select one:
a. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often
measured in degrees
b. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of
motion
c. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely
d. A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched
The correct answer is: Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for
complete range of motion
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training

(HIIT) is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate
b. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume
of work.
c. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
d. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate
The correct answer is: Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective

measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most
beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Select one:
a. PAR-Q+
b. Body composition assessments
c. Strength assessments
d. Movement assessments
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular
endurance adaptations?
Select one:
a. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM
b. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM
d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
The correct answer is: 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
Select one:
a. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid
b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural
axillary line
c. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and
the nipple
d. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula
Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that

require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint?
Select one:
a. Type III
b. Type Ia
c. Type II
d. Type I
The correct answer is: Type II

Select one:
a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
contraction
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization?

Select one:
a. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
b. Depth jumps
c. Squat jump with stabilization
d. Box jump-down with stabilization
The correct answer is: Squat jump with stabilization
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps

curl exercise with the thumb up?
Select one:
a. Biceps brachii
b. Brachioradialis
c. Brachialis
d. Triceps brachii
The correct answer is: Brachioradialis
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to

performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
Select one:
a. Multifidus
b. Quadriceps
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Diaphragm
The correct answer is: Latissimus dorsi

Select one:
a. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.
b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
increases.
undulating periodization =
uses changes in volume intensity in exercise selection to provide learning

differences on a weekly basis
linear periodization =
traditional method of program design when intensity gradually increases while

volume decreases
macrocycle =
annual training program (long term goal) example- sports program
microcycle =
weekly workout program
Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
Changing a cute variables on a weekly basis
Which of the following is considered an underwater foundation adoption per

the iceberg affect?
stability
What can phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as?
Mastering basic movement patterns
training power for two days before moving onto two days of strength training
will be in example of what kind of periodization ?
undulating periodization
what phase of OPT model does adaption

“ muscular strength in hyper trophy fall into?
muscular development
which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed

before moving onto the next months meso cycle
reassessment
Which of the following core exercise best suit stabilization training
floor bridge
What type of periodization used to change the volume and intensity on a

weekly basis?
undulating
during which phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with
increasing speed repetition tempo of exercises?
phase 5 power
what is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action
adherence
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
Select one:
a. 40-yard dash
b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
c. Pro shuttle
d. Vertical jump
The correct answer is: Vertical jump
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive

forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Hamstrings complex
d. Hip flexors
The correct answer is: Hip flexors
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the

risk of which injury by 46%?
Select one:
a. Medial collateral ligament injuries
b. Concussions
c. Ankle sprains
d. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries
The correct answer is: Ankle sprains
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum

strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Select one:
a. Pulling assessment
b. Bench press strength assessment
c. Pushing assessment
d. Overhead press assessment
The correct answer is: Bench press strength assessment

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
Select one:
a. Strength machines
b. ViPR
c. Dumbbells
d. Suspended bodyweight training
The correct answer is: ViPR
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

Select one:
a. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
b. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20
repetitions
c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10
repetitions
d. 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions
The correct answer is: 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and
repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all
members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the
right equipment and attire to participate safely?
Select one:
a. Exercise leader
b. Certified Personal Trainer
c. General manager
d. Fitness manager
The correct answer is: Exercise leader
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the
following?
Select one:
a. Functional movement
b. Tissue overload
c. Force production
d. Motor unit recruitment
The correct answer is: Tissue overload
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create
upward rotation of the scapula?
Select one:
a. Rotator cuff muscles
b. Rhomboids
c. Deltoid
d. Serratus anterior
The correct answer is: Serratus anterior
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for
young athletes to perform?
Select one:
a. 1 to 4 sets
b. 5 or 6 sets
c. 7 to 9 sets
d. 0 sets
The correct answer is: 1 to 4 sets

Select one:
a. Quick to fatigue
b. Less force production
c. Fewer capillaries
d. Larger in size
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?

Select one:
a. Transverse plane box jump-down
b. Sagittal plane box jump-up
c. Frontal plane box jump-up
d. Sagittal plane box jump-down
The correct answer is: Transverse plane box jump-down
Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts,
or tartan tracks?
Select one:
a. The surfaces are unstable and proprioceptively enriched.
b. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
c. They protect the exerciser from real-world movement.
d. Only athletes need plyometric training.
The correct answer is: The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury
risk
Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase?

Select one:
a. Postural alignment
b. Mobility and flexibility
c. Maximal muscular strength
d. Muscular endurance
The correct answer is: Muscular endurance
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity

exercise?
Select one:
a. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the
average untrained individual
b. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness
in the average untrained individual
c. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average
untrained individual
d. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the
average untrained individual
The correct answer is: Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without
breathlessness in the average untrained individual
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins?
Select one:
a. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
b. Vitamin C, D, and K
c. Vitamin C, B complex, and D
d. Vitamin C, B complex, and K
The correct answer is: Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?

Select one:
a. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment
b. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment
c. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment
d. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic
The correct answer is: High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic
environment
How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?

Select one:
a. An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a
conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
b. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity,
broken up by relatively short rest periods
c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as
fuel sources
d. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases
disproportionately to oxygen uptake
The correct answer is: The point at which the body uses an equal mix of
carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for
young athletes to perform?
Select one:
a. 5 or 6 sets
b. 0 sets
c. 7 to 9 sets
d. 1 to 4 sets
The correct answer is: 1 to 4 sets
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of
force production?
Select one:
a. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
c. Power Training
d. Muscular Development Training
The correct answer is: Power Training
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s

fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Select one:
a. Action phase
b. Transformation phase
c. Set point
d. Baseline value
The correct answer is: Baseline value
A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client's goals. After the
client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What
best describes the approach the trainer is using?
Select one:
a. Motivational interviewing
b. Active listening
c. Nonverbal communication
d. Reflective listening
The correct answer is: Reflective listening
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?

Select one:
a. Medicine ball throw
b. Bracing
c. Drawing-in maneuver
d. Back squat
The correct answer is: Drawing-in maneuver
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development

of the rate of force production (power) of the core?
Select one:
a. Cable chop
b. Medicine ball woodchop throw
c. Bird dog
d. Reverse crunch
The correct answer is: Medicine ball woodchop throw
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For

how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed?
Select one:
a. 1 second
b. 3 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 2 seconds
The correct answer is: 2 seconds
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle
of the core?
Select one:
a. Pectoralis major
b. Multifidus
c. Iliopsoas
d. Latissimus dorsi
The correct answer is: Multifidus
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
Select one:
a. Capillaries
b. Veins
c. Arterioles
d. Arteries
The correct answer is: Veins
What is glycogen?
Select one:
a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
b. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants
c. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals
d. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans
The correct answer is: The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and
humans
Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when
utilizing kettlebells?
Select one:
a. Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head
b. Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck
c. Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders
d. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
The correct answer is: Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends?

Select one:
a. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements.
b. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients.
c. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each
ingredient is not disclosed.
d. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients.
The correct answer is: Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the
precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed
What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation “muscular strength and
hypertrophy” fall into?
Select one:
a. Stabilization
b. Muscular Development
c. Power
d. Strength Endurance
The correct answer is: Muscular Development
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
Select one:
a. Capillaries
b. Veins
c. Arterioles
d. Arteries
The correct answer is: Veins
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Select one:
a. Only a few words can be produced between breaths
b. Normal conversation is maintained.
c. Inability to speak at all
d. Continuous talking becomes challenging
The correct answer is: Continuous talking becomes challenging
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
b. Hamstrings and erector spinae
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
The correct answer is: Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip
external rotators
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over
time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
Select one:
b. Stretch reflex
c. Pattern overload
The correct answer is: Pattern overload
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed

syndrome?
Select one:
a. Upper trapezius
b. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
c. Abdominals
d. Adductor complex
The correct answer is: Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?
Select one:
a. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion
b. Thighs parallel to the ground
c. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion
d. As far as can be controlled without compensating
The correct answer is: As far as can be controlled without compensating
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body

stretch?
Select one:
a.
This stretch is too advanced for the average person.
b. The stretch is too complicated for the older client.
c. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.
d. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the
front knee.
The correct answer is: The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and
other tissues in the front knee.
maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
Select one:
a. Static balance
b. High-level balance
c. Dynamic balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance
The correct answer is: Dynamic balance
The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area?
Select one:
a. Depression
b. Eating disorders
c. Social physique anxiety
d. Behavioral change
The correct answer is: Behavioral change
What is the Valsalva maneuver?

Select one:
a. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using
a systematic and gradual approach
b. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative
position of its parts
c. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable
equilibrium
d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating
additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
The correct answer is: A process that involves expiring against a closed
windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
Question text
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial
rolling?
Select one:
a. Pain response and muscle spasm
b. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength
c. Davis's law and Wolf's law
d. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
The correct answer is: Mechanical and neurophysiological response
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

Select one:
a. Local and global muscles
b. Back muscles only
c. Local muscles
d. Global muscles
The correct answer is: Local muscles
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement

created by their combined action?
Select one:
a. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
b. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion
c. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward
rotation of the scapula
d. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
The correct answer is: Internal and external obliques functioning to create
trunk rotation
How does taking "high" doses of vitamin C impact health?

Select one:
a. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not
come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits.
An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.
b. High doses can be dangerous.
c. It improves the immune system.
d. High doses can improve heart health.
The correct answer is: More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the
dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase
health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.
During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the
body?
Select one:
a. Amino acids
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Proteins
The correct answer is: Carbohydrates
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?

Select one:
a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
b. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
c. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid
d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural
axillary line
The correct answer is: A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus
(belly button)
What are the fat-soluble vitamins?

Select one:
a. A, D, E, and K
b. C, D, and K
c. A, B12, C, and D
d. B12, B6, and C
The correct answer is: A, D, E, and K
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the

proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Select one:
a. Tubing
b. Medicine ball
c. Wobble board
d. Cables
The correct answer is: Wobble board
Which three senses are involved in the balance system?

Select one:
a. Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems
b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
c. Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems
d. Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems
The correct answer is: Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is

based on client goals and fitness levels?
Select one:
a. Cool-down
b. Skill development
c. Resistance
d. Warm-up
The correct answer is: Skill development
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back

arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Lumbar extensors
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Hip flexor complex
The correct answer is: Gluteus maximus
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the

following muscles is involved?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Anterior deltoid
d. Pectoralis major
At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha's BMI was 26. According to
this information, how would Alisha be classified?
Select one:
a. Overweight
b. Underweight
c. Obese
d. Healthy weight
The correct answer is: Overweight
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus and medius
b. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex
c. Hip flexors
d. Upper trapezius
The correct answer is: Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex
Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a

transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Adequate joint stability
b. Power exercise familiarity
c. Adequate core stability
d. Deconditioning
The correct answer is: Deconditioning
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training
that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg
through a full range of motion?
Select one:
a. Single-leg balance
b. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
c. Single-leg lift and chop
d. Single-leg squat
The correct answer is: Single-leg squat
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that
could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Select one:
a. Pyruvate
b. Fatty acids
c. Amino acids
d. Glycogen
The correct answer is: Pyruvate
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?

Select one:
a. Liver function
b. Thyroid function
c. Heart function
d. Kidney function
The correct answer is: Thyroid function
Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement?

Select one:
a. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes
b. Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips
c. Allowing the gaze to move freely
d. Keeping the feet facing inward
The correct answer is: Tracking the knees over the second and third toes
Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone

wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the
following activities would be most effective?
Select one:
a. 5 minutes of high-intensity activity
b. 20 minutes of low-intensity activity
c. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
d. 20 minutes of walking
The correct answer is: 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?

Select one:
a. Ice skaters
b. Depth jumps
c. Single-leg hops
d. Box jumps
The correct answer is: Depth jumps
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

Select one:
a. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when
one is not, in fact, needed
b. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with
starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature
c. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness
to engage in structured exercise
d. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and
habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle
The correct answer is: A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an

individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?

Select one:
a. Adolescent girls
b. Women under the age of 50
c. Men under the age of 50
d. Postmenopausal women
The correct answer is: Postmenopausal women

Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane
during the lowering phase of the squat?
Select one:
a. Quadriceps
b. Biceps brachii
c. Gluteus medius
d. Adductor longus
The correct answer is: Quadriceps
Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food
product?
Select one:
a. The ingredients list
b. The nutrition label
c. The percent daily values
d. The nutrition facts panel
The correct answer is: The ingredients list
Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source?

Select one:
a. Lentils
b. Beans
c. Whole eggs
d. Peas
The correct answer is: Whole eggs
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?

Select one:
a. Arthrokinematics
b. Osteokinematics
c. Biomechanics
d. Kinesiology
The correct answer is: Arthrokinematics

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss
clients?
Select one:
a. 5 to 7 sessions per week
b. 1 or 2 sessions per week
c. 0 sessions per week
d. 3 or 4 sessions per week
The correct answer is: 1 or 2 sessions per week
Which of the following two modalities are the most alike?

Select one:
a. Dumbbell and medicine ball
b. TRX suspension and ViPR
c. ViPR and sandbag
d. TRX Rip Trainer and ViPR
The correct answer is: ViPR and sandbag
What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting
heart rate?
Select one:
a. Femoral pulse
b. Radial pulse
c. Pedal pulse
d. Carotid pulse
The correct answer is: Radial pulse
How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?

Select one:
a. One to two pages
b. Three to four pages
c. Two to three pages
d. One page only
The correct answer is: One to two pages

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while
utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor?
Select one:
a. Suspended bodyweight crunch
b. Stability ball plank
c. Medicine ball catch and pass
d. Barbell squats
The correct answer is: Medicine ball catch and pass
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most
appropriate for SAQ drills?
Select one:
a. 8 to 10 reps
b. 1 or 2 reps
c. 3 to 5 reps
d. 6 to 8 reps
The correct answer is: 3 to 5 reps
What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?

Select one:
a. Phase 2
b. Phase 3
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 5
How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men?
Select one:
a. Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels.
b. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may
affect the degree of change.
c. Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary
reason for a decline.
d. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does
not contribute to the change.
The correct answer is: A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and
overall health may affect the degree of change.
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a

requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
Select one:
a. Strength
b. Speed
c. Power
d. Neuromuscular stabilization
The correct answer is: Neuromuscular stabilization
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?

Select one:
a. Sagittal plane box jump-down
b. Transverse plane box jump-down
c. Sagittal plane box jump-up
d. Frontal plane box jump-up
The correct answer is: Transverse plane box jump-down
A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is

the safest for him to perform?
Select one:
a. Floor bridge
b. Standing cobra
c. Knee-up
d. Reverse crunch
The correct answer is: Standing cobra
When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused
by which system?
Select one:
a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Central nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Sympathetic nervous system
The correct answer is: Sympathetic nervous system
What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising

within the next 6 months?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Maintenance
The correct answer is: Precontemplation
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred

to as what?
Select one:
a. Venous return
b. Stroke volume
c. Cardiac output
d. Resting heart rate
The correct answer is: Stroke volume
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Select one:
a. Left ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left atrium
The correct answer is: Right ventricle
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise

correctly?
Select one:
a. Depth jump
b. Barbell clean
c. Step-ups
d. Single-leg squat
The correct answer is: Step-ups
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel
near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Select one:
a. Thermoregulation
b. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Heart rate
d. Blood pressure
The correct answer is: Peripheral vasodilation
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching
during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Hip flexor complex
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Hamstrings complex
The correct answer is: Hip flexor complex
What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down?

Select one:
a. Increase maximal strength
b. Restore optimal length-tension relationships
c. Correct muscle imbalances
d. Improve sports skills
The correct answer is: Restore optimal length-tension relationships
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of exercise?

Select one:
a. Yardwork
b. Weightlifting
c. Shoveling snow
d. Walking a dog
The correct answer is: Weightlifting

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?
Select one:
a. Eccentric loading
b. Ankle stability
c. Increased amortization
d. Concentric contractions
The correct answer is: Eccentric loading
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?

Select one:
a. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients
seeking further improvements in exercise capacity
b. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness,
or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions
c. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level
athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity
and power
d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients
exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
The correct answer is: To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way
that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of
aerobic fitness
Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a

change, what is lacking?
Select one:
a. Motivation
b. Self-efficacy
c. Autonomy
d. Positive outcome expectation
The correct answer is: Motivation
It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their

fear of falling.
Select one:
a. Those with ankle sprains
b. Young females
c. College athletes
d. Older individuals
The correct answer is: Older individuals
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can
proceed?
Select one:
a. Free hydrogen ions
b. Lack of pyruvate
c. Depletion of phosphocreatine
d. Lack of fatty acids
The correct answer is: Free hydrogen ions
How are open-ended questions best used during the sales process?
Select one:
a. The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires.
b. The questions are easy for the customer to answer, as they can be answered
with a simple yes or no.
c. The questions help a personal trainer learn if the customer's workout
schedule fits within the personal trainer's availability.
d. The questions help a personal trainer learn about a customer's family
medical history.
The correct answer is: The questions identify the customer's wants, needs,
fears, and desires.
A client asks you to provide her with a meal plan specifying how many calories
and grams of protein, carbohydrates, and fat she should eat for weight loss.
What is the best way to respond to her request to stay within scope of
practice?
Select one:
a. Provide her with an online 1,200-calorie meal plan for weight loss.
b. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your
scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed
nutritionist for nutrition counseling.
c. Agree to review her diet and provide her with a meal plan with specific
recommendations for calories and macronutrients.
d. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your
scope of practice, then suggest that she look up weight-loss meal plans on the
internet.
The correct answer is: Explain that providing specific nutrient

recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to
a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling.
What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow?

Select one:
a. Performance assessments
b. Movement assessments
c. Body composition
d. Biometric data
The correct answer is: Performance assessments
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients,

which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be
implemented?
Select one:
a. Decreased rest periods
b. Increased complexity of exercises
c. Decreased intensity
d. Fewer exercises
The correct answer is: Decreased rest periods
What does the first law of thermodynamics state?

Select one:
a. Metabolic rate is constant.
b. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
c. Food increases metabolic rate.
d. All energy is converted to heat.
The correct answer is: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for
young athletes?
Select one:
a. 15 to 60 seconds
b. 60 to 90 seconds
c. Less than 15 seconds
d. 90 to 120 seconds
The correct answer is: 15 to 60 seconds
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal
levels?
Select one:
a. Maximal Strength
b. Stabilization Endurance
c. Strength Endurance
d. Muscular Development
The correct answer is: Muscular Development
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults)
is comprised of water?
Select one:
a. 0.6
b. 0.8
c. 0.4
d. 0.5
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?

Select one:
a. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
b. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise
c. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise
d. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for
fuel
The correct answer is: The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to
using carbohydrates for fuel
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of

cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one:
b. Sports competition
c. Rowing
d. Jogging/running
What is a joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks
its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?
Select one:
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteopenia
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
The correct answer is: Rheumatoid arthritis
What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the
OPT model?
Select one:
a. Stabilization
b. Hypertrophy
c. Speed
d. Power
The correct answer is: Hypertrophy
How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?

Select one:
a. About 5,500
b. About 3,500
c. About 1,000
d. About 500
The correct answer is: About 3,500
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?

Select one:
a. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
b. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening
c. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion
d. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
The correct answer is: Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of
length change
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create
upward rotation of the scapula?
Select one:
a. Deltoid
b. Rotator cuff muscles
c. Serratus anterior
d. Rhomboids
The correct answer is: Serratus anterior
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?

Select one:
a. What might you want to change?
b. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?
c. What makes you think you are not at risk?
d. What might work for you?
The correct answer is: What makes you think you are not at risk?
What is the primary action of the multifidus?

Select one:
a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
b. Support the contents of the pelvis
c. Regulate inspiration
d. Stabilize and extend the spine
The correct answer is: Stabilize and extend the spine

Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into
the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building?
Select one:
a. Motility
b. Absorption
c. Mastication
d. Peristalsis
The correct answer is: Absorption
At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a
bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following
observations should the fitness professional share with the client?
Select one:
a. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes,
so exercise is a good remedy.
b. Exercise cannot improve mood, so it would be best to reschedule the session
for another day.
c. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session
is a good idea.
d. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would
be best to stay longer than normal.
The correct answer is: Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as
short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical
structure?
Select one:
a. The ileum of the small intestine
b. Duodenum of the small intestine
c. The ileum of the large intestine
d. Duodenum of the large intestine
The correct answer is: Duodenum of the small intestine
How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?

Select one:
a. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at
complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly
b. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise,
such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
d. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength
training and cardiorespiratory exercise
The correct answer is: Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of
structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking
the stairs
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the
power step-up exercise?
Select one:
a. Depth jumps
b. Ice skaters
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Squat jump
The correct answer is: Ice skaters
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration,

deceleration, agility, and control?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. 40-yard dash
c. Pro shuttle
d. Long (broad) jump
The correct answer is: Pro shuttle
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if

participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
Select one:
a. 6 times a week
b. 3 times a week
c. 5 times a week
d. 4 times a week
The correct answer is: 5 times a week
Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin?

Select one:
a. Niacin
b. Pantothenic acid
c. Folate
d. Vitamin C
The correct answer is: Folate
According to the “iceberg effect,” which of the following training adaptations

are considered “surface level”?
Select one:
a. Stability
b. Endurance
c. Proper movement
d. Mobility
The correct answer is: Endurance
What are nonessential amino acids?

Select one:
a. Amino acids that are not required in the body
b. The by-product of the breakdown of animal proteins
c. Amino acids that must be consumed in dietary protein and cannot be created
by the body
d. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is
adequate
The correct answer is: Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if
overall nutrition intake is adequate
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and

amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Select one:
a. Recovery
b. Volume
c. Intensity
d. Frequency
The correct answer is: Intensity
Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?
Select one:
a. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.
b. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
c. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.
d. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of
muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.
The correct answer is: They regulate various metabolic processes, including
energy metabolism.
Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of

which component of leadership?
Select one:
a. Follower's qualities
b. Situational factors
c. Leadership styles
d. Leader's qualities
The correct answer is: Situational factors
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?

Select one:
a. Knowledge of results
b. Knowledge of performance
c. Motivation
d. Proprioception
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Select one:
a. Adductor complex
c. Upper trapezius
d. Hip flexors
The correct answer is: Adductor complex
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate

contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Select one:
a. Lengthening reaction
c. Eccentric contraction
d. Stretch reflex
The correct answer is: Stretch reflex

Select one:
a. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
b. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors
c. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
d. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing

stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?
Select one:
a. Skill development
b. Activation
c. Warm-up

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle
groups?
Select one:
a. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
c. Hamstrings and erector spinae
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
The correct answer is: Hamstrings and erector spinae
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most
beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Select one:
a. PAR-Q+
b. Movement assessments
c. Body composition assessments
d. Strength assessments
The correct answer is: Movement assessments
What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through
the lifting of heavy loads?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance Training
b. Muscular Development Training
c. Stabilization Endurance Training
d. Maximal Strength Training
The correct answer is: Maximal Strength Training
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a
balance training program?
Select one:
a. Balance beam
b. Foam pad
c. BOSU ball
d. Firm surface
The correct answer is: BOSU ball

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
Select one:
a. An RPE of 7 to 8
b. An RPE of 9 to 10
c. An RPE of 5 to 6
d. An RPE of 3 to 4
The correct answer is: An RPE of 5 to 6
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity

but without any form, structure, or consistency.
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Precontemplation
c. Preparation
d. Contemplation
The correct answer is: Preparation
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

Select one:
a. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.
b. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods
between exercise intervals.
c. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
d. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a
period after exercise.
The correct answer is: EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above
baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?

Select one:
a. Increased lipogenesis
b. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
c. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
d. Increased lipolysis
The correct answer is: Increased lipolysis

Circuit training is best described as what?
Select one:
a. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement,
such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended
crunch
b. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning,
muscular strength, and endurance training movements
c. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each
movement
d. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight
to load exercise movements
The correct answer is: A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity

aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity,

where continual talking would become challenging?
Select one:
a. Zone 2
b. Zone 4
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 1
The correct answer is: Zone 2
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of

the following?
Select one:
a. The constructed environment
b. The manufactured environment
c. The assembled environment
d. The built environment
The correct answer is: The built environment
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring

during a plyometric exercise session?
Select one:
a. Recovery
b. Intensity
c. Volume
d. Frequency
The correct answer is: Volume
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?

Select one:
a. Concentric contractions
b. Increased amortization
c. Eccentric loading
d. Ankle stability
The correct answer is: Eccentric loading
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which

type of lever?
Select one:
a. Fourth class
b. Second class
c. Third class
d. First class
The correct answer is: Third class
Select one:
a. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural
axillary line
b. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula
c. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and
the nipple
d. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching
during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Hamstrings complex
d. Hip flexor complex
The correct answer is: Hip flexor complex
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?

Select one:
a. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking
improvements in aerobic capacity and power
b. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking
improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
c. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking
improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking
improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
The correct answer is: Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory
fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead
squat?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
c. Adductor complex
d. Tensor fascia latae
From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered
benefits of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism
b. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness
c. Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport
d. Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels
The correct answer is: Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental
alertness
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most
appropriate for SAQ drills?
Select one:
a. 1 or 2 reps
b. 8 to 10 reps
c. 3 to 5 reps
d. 6 to 8 reps
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30

seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?
Select one:
a. The ATP-PC system
b. The citric acid cycle
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Glycolysis
The correct answer is: The ATP-PC system

maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving
base of support?
Select one:
a. Dynamic balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. Moderate-level balance
d. Static balance
The correct answer is: Semi-dynamic balance

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will
help them improve which of the following?
Select one:
a. Core stability
b. Power development
c. Landing mechanics
d. Force production
The correct answer is: Landing mechanics
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded

eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?
Select one:
a. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Series elastic component
Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out?
Select one:
a. Adductor complex
b. Upper trapezius
c. Gastrocnemius and soleus
d. Hip flexors
The correct answer is: Gastrocnemius and soleus

Select one:
a. Osteoarthritis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Osteopenia

How should an eccentric muscle action be described?
Select one:
a. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the
contractile tissue
b. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile
tissue
c. The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening
and lengthening of the contractile tissue
d. The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile
tissue
The correct answer is: The development of muscle tension during lengthening
of the contractile tissue
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?

Select one:
a. Cervical and thoracic
b. Thoracic and lumbar
c. Cervical and lumbar
d. Cervical and sacral
The correct answer is: Cervical and lumbar
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent

unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Hip abductors
b. Hip flexors
c. Hip internal rotators
d. Hip extensors
The correct answer is: Hip abductors
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?

Select one:
a. Power
b. Aerobic fitness
c. Flexibility
d. Muscular strength
The correct answer is: Power
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most

freedom of movement in the transverse plane?
Select one:
a. Suspended chest press
b. Dumbbell lat row
c. Elastic band woodchop
d. Seated abdominal crunch machine
The correct answer is: Elastic band woodchop
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the
diet?
Select one:
a. 5 to 20% of total calories
b. 10 to 35% of total calories
c. 20 to 35% of total calories
d. 45 to 65% of total calories
The correct answer is: 20 to 35% of total calories
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

Select one:
a. Local muscles
b. Back muscles only
c. Global muscles
d. Local and global muscles
The correct answer is: Local muscles
What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically

available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?
Select one:
a. About 50%
b. About 90%
c. About 5-15%
d. About 30%
The correct answer is: About 5-15%
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Select one:
a. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.
b. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload.
c. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers
and joint cartilage.
d. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue
The correct answer is: Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the
soft tissue.
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?

Select one:
a. Ice skaters
b. Single-leg hops
c. Depth jumps
d. Box jumps
The correct answer is: Depth jumps

Select one:
a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

contraction
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the

following muscles is involved?
Select one:
a. Pectoralis major
b. Anterior deltoid
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Latissimus dorsi
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which

of the following?
Select one:
a. Developing intrinsic motivation
b. Reducing burnout
c. Winning a triathlon
d. Providing psychological benefits
The correct answer is: Providing psychological benefits
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
Select one:
a. 8 to 10 reps
b. 3 to 5 reps
c. 6 to 8 reps
d. 1 or 2 reps
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower

production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with
regulating the rate at which bone is lost?
Select one:
a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
b. Type 1 diabetes
c. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
d. Type 2 diabetes
The correct answer is: Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis

force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
Select one:
a. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force
decreases.
b. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
c. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce
force decreases.
d. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce
force increases.
The correct answer is: As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability
to produce force decreases.
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what

motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Select one:
a. Medial pelvic tilt
b. Anterior pelvic tilt
c. Lateral pelvic tilt
d. Posterior pelvic tilt
The correct answer is: Posterior pelvic tilt

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A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is

described by which of the following statements?

The correct answer is: Movement patterns

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should

The correct answer is: 30 minutes

What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?

How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined?

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus

What statement best describes a low-cost health club?

Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between

The correct answer is: An independent contractor is responsible for paying

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring

The correct answer is: Volume

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed

The correct answer is: Lower trapezius

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

The correct answer is: Motor unit recruitment

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is

The correct answer is: Injury history

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance

The correct answer is: Triceps brachii

The correct answer is: Isokinetic

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?

Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?

The correct answer is: Sandbags

What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased

The correct answer is: Restrictive lung disease

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the

The correct answer is: Registered dietitian nutritionist

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate

The correct answer is: Stretch reflex

The correct answer is: Reciprocal inhibition

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a

Which of these is one of the major curvatures of the spine?

The correct answer is: Posterior lumbar curve

The correct answer is: Landing mechanics

What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?

The correct answer is: Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides

The correct answer is: Retraction

The correct answer is: Anterior and posterior tibialis

Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are

The correct answer is: Psychologist or psychiatrist

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

The correct answer is: Type I

Which of the following best describes the term power?

The correct answer is: Rate of force production

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three

The correct answer is: Muscular

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the

The correct answer is: Contralateral

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?

The correct answer is: Previous injury