Chemistry Aug

Alcohols Phenols and Ethers JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Questions with Answer Keys MathonGo
Q1 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Treatment of bromine water with propene yields 1−bromopropan−2−ol.
Reason (R) : Attack of water on bromonium ion follows Markovnikov rule and results in 1−bromopropan
−2− ol.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The major product formed in the following reaction is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
#MathBoleTohMathonGo
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(4)
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The major products A and B in the following set of reactions are :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
The major product of the following reaction, if it occurs by S N2 mechanism is :
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Ethyl pent-4-yn-oate on reaction with CH 3 MgBr gives a 3 -alcohol.
Statement II : In this reaction one mole of ethyl pent-4-yn-oate utilizes two moles of CH 3 MgBr .
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Synthesis of ethyl phenyl ether may be achieved by Williamson synthesis.
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Reason (R) : Reaction of bromobenzene with sodium ethoxide yields ethyl phenyl ether.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Which one of the following phenols does not give colour when condensed with phthalic anhydride in presence
of conc. H 2 SO4 ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (2) Q3 (3) Q4 (4)
Q5 (3) Q6 (2) Q7 (2)
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Hints and Solutions MathonGo
Q1 (3)
Its IUPAC name 1-bromopropan-2-ol
A and R are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .
Q2 (2)
Q3 (3)
Q4 (4)
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Q5 (3)
Statement 1 is true
But it consume 3 moles of G R
So statement 2 is false.
Q6 (2)
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Q7 (2)
Only p-methyl, phenol does not give any colour with phthalic anhydroxide with cons. H 2
SO4 .
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Aldehydes and Ketones JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Statement I : The nucleophilic addition of sodium hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a ketone involves
proton transfer to form a stable ion.
Statement II : The nucleophilic addition of hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone yields amine as
final product.


Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Experimentally reducing a functional group cannot be done by which one of the following reagents ?
(1) Pt − C/H 2
(2) Na/H 2
(3) Pd − C/H 2
(4) Zn/H 2O
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
For the reaction given below :
The compound which is not formed as a product in the reaction is a :
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(1) compound with both alcohol and acid functional groups

(2) monocarboxylic acid
(3) dicarboxylic acid
(4) diol
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The structures of A and B formed in the following reaction are :
[Ph = −C6 H5 ]
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
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The major product of the following reaction is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
The structure of the starting compound P used in the reaction given below is :
(1)
(2)
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(3)
(4)
Q7 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
In the following sequence of reactions, the final product D
is :
(1)
(2) CH 3
− CH = CH − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − COOH
(3) H 3
C − CH = CH − CH(OH) − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
(4)
Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
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Consider the given reaction, Identify ' X and ' Y :

′ ′
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q9 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The major products formed in the following reaction sequence A and B are :
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (2) Q3 (3) Q4 (1)
Q5 (3) Q6 (1) Q7 (4) Q8 (3)
Q9 (1)
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Q1 (2)
Statement I : Correct
Statement II :
Q2 (2)
Solution NaH is not reducing agent.

2
Q3 (3)
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Q4 (1)
Q5 (3)
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Q6 (1)
NaOCl is used in haloform reaction as reagent.
Q7 (4)
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Q8 (3)
Q9 (1)
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(1)
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Amines JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Which one of the following gives the most stable Diazonium salt ?
(1) CH 3 − CH2 − CH2 − NH2
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Identify A in the following reaction.
(1)
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(2)
(3)
(4)
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence are :
(1)
(2)
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(3)
(4)
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The total number of reagents from those given below, that can convert nitrobenzene into aniline is ____.
(Integer answer)
I. Sn − HCl
II. Sn − NH 4 OH
III. Fe - HCl
IV. Zn − HCl
V. H 2 − Pd
VI. H - Raney Nickel

2
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
The correct structures of A and B formed in the following reactions are :
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
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Which one of the following is the major product of the given reaction?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q7 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Which of the following is not a correct statement for primary aliphatic amines?
(1) The intermolecular association in primary amines is less than the intermolecular association in secondary
amines.
(2) Primary amines on treating with nitrous acid solution form corresponding alcohols except methyl amine.
(3) Primary amines are less basic than the secondary amines.
(4) Primary amines can be prepared by the Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
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Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The major product in the above reaction is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (1) Q3 (2) Q4 (5)
Q5 (4) Q6 (1) Q7 (1) Q8 (4)
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Q1 (2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q2 (1)
Q3 (2)
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Q4 (5)
Reagents used can be
(i) Sn + HCl
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(ii) Fe + HCl
(iii) Zn + HCl
(iv) H 2 − Pd
(v) H (Raney Ni)

2
Q5 (4)
Q6 (1)
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Q7 (1)
The intermolecular association is more prominent in case of primary amines as compared to secondary, due to
the availability of two hydrogen atom.
Q8 (4)
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Biomolecules JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
A peptide synthesized by the reactions of one molecule each of Glycine, Leucine, Aspartic acid and Histidine
will have ____ peptide linkages.
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Which of the following is NOT an example of fibrous protein ?
(1) Keratin
(2) Albumin
(3) Collagen
(4) Myosin
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Which one of the following compounds contains β − C 1 − C4 glycosidic linkage ?
(1) Lactose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Maltose
(4) Amylose
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Hydrolysis of sucrose gives :
(1) α-D-(-)-Glucose and β-D- (−)-Fructose

(2) α-D-(+)-Glucose and α − D − (−)-Fructose
(3) α-D-(-)-Glucose and α-D-(+)-Fructose
(4) α-D-(+)-Glucose and β − D − (−)-Fructose
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
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Which one of the following tests used for the identification of functional groups in organic compounds does
not use copper reagent?
(1) Barfoed's test

(2) Seliwanoff's test
(3) Benedict's test
(4) Biuret test for peptide bond
Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Out of following isomeric forms of uracil, which one is present in RNA ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
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Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Sucrose is a disaccharide and a non-reducing sugar.
Reason (R) : Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage between C of β-glucose and C of α-fructose. Choose the
1 2
most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A)
Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The total number of negative charge in the tetrapeptide, Gly-Glu-Asp-Tyr, at pH 12.5 will be ____. (Integer
answer)
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Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (2) Q3 (1) Q4 (4)
Q5 (2) Q6 (4) Q7 (3) Q8 (4)
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Q1 (3)
Total (3) peptide linkages are present
3 peptide linkage
Ans. (3)
Q2 (2)
Keratin, collagen and myosin are example of fibrous protein.
Q3 (1)
In Lactose it is βC 1
− C4 glycosidic linkage.
In Maltose, Amylose α C 1

− C4 glycosidic linkage is present.
Q4 (4)
Sucrose is formed by α − D(+). Glucose +β − D(−) Fructose.
we obtain these monomers on hydrolysis.
Q5 (2)
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In Seliwanoff's reagent, Cu is not present.
In Barfoed, Biuret and in Benediet reagent Cu is present.
Q6 (4)
Isomeric form of uracil present in RNA
Q7 (3)
Surcrose is example of disaccharide \& non reducing sugar
Assertion : correct
Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage between C of α − D− glucose C of β-D-fructose
1 2
Reason : Incorrect
Q8 (4)
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Total negative charge produced = 4.
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Carboxylic Acid Derivatives JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
In the following sequence of reactions a compound
A , (molecular formula C 6 H12 O2 ) with a straight chain structure gives a C carboxylic acid. A is :
Oxidation
LiAlH4
A
H3 O
+
⟶B ⟶ C4 − carboxylic acid
(1) CH 3 − CH2 − COO − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
(2)
(3) CH 3 − CH2 − CH2 − COO − CH2 − CH3
(4) CH 3 − CH2 − CH2 − O − CH = CH − CH2 − OH
Q2 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Which one of the following reactions will not yield propionic acid?
(1) CH
− +
3 CH2 COCH3 + OI /H3 O
(2) CH 3 CH2 CH3 + KMnO4 (Heat), OH

−
/H3 O
+
(3) CH
− +
3 CH2 CCl3 + OH /H3 O
(4) CH 3 CH2 CH2 Br + Mg, CO2 dry ether /H 3O

+
Q3 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Match List I with List II :
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Choose the most appropriate match :
(1) a − ii, b − iv, c − iii, d − i

(2) a − iv, b − ii, c − iii, d − i
(3) a − ii, b − iii, c − iv, d − i
(4) a − iii, b − ii, c − i, d − iv
Q4 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The correct sequential addition of reagents in the preparation of 3 -nitrobenzoic acid from benzene is:
(1) Br 2 /AlBr3 , HNO3 /H2 SO4 , Mg/ ether, CO 2, H3 O

+
(2) Br 2 /AlBr3 , NaCN, H3 O

+
, HNO3 /H2 SO4
(3) Br 2 /AlBr3 , HNO3 /H2 SO4 , NaCN, H3 O

+
(4) HNO 3 /H2 SO4 , Br2 /AlBr3 , Mg/ ether, CO 2, H3 O

+
Q5 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
(1)
(2)
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(3)
(4)
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Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (4) Q3 (3) Q4 (4)
Q5 (3)
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Q1 (3)
Q2 (4)
All gives propanoic acid as product but option 4 gives butanoic as product
Q3 (3)
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Q4 (4)
Q5 (3)
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Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
The spin-only magnetic moment value of B

+
species is ____ ×10 −2

BM . (Nearest integer)
[Given : √3 = 1.73 ]
Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Number of paramagnetic oxides among the following given oxides is ____.
Li2 O, CaO, Na2 O2 , KO2 , MgO and K 2O
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
According to molecular orbital theory, the number of unpaired electron(s) in O 2−
2
is :
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
The number of species having non-pyramidal shape among the following is ____.
(A) SO
3
(B) NO
(C) PCl
3
(D) CO 2−
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
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The compound/s which will show significant intermolecular H-bonding is/are :
(1) (b) only

(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The bond order and magnetic behaviour of O ion are, respectively :

−
(1) 1.5 and paramagnetic

(2) 1.5 and diamagnetic
(3) 2 and diamagnetic
(4) 1 and paramagnetic
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Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The interaction energy of London forces between two particles is proportional to r , where r is the distance
x
between the particles. The value of x is :
(1) 3
(2) −3
(3) −6
(4) 6
Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
AB3 is an interhalogen T-shaped molecule. The number of lone pairs of electrons on A is ____. (Integer
answer)
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Answer Key
Q1 (173) Q2 (1) Q3 (0) Q4 (3)
Q5 (1) Q6 (1) Q7 (3) Q8 (2)
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Q1 (173)
B
+
2
⇒ σ
2
1 s
σ
∗2
1s
σ
2
2s
σ
∗2
2 s
π
1
2py
≃ π
0
2pz

⇒ 9e
−

μ = √1(1 + 2) = √3 BM
= 1.73 BM
−2
= 1.73 × 10 BM
Q2 (1)
+ 2−
Li2 O ⇒ 2Li O
2+ 2−
CaO ⇒ Ca O
+ 2−

Na2 O2 ⇒ 2Na O
2
+ −
KO2 ⇒ K O
2
MgO ⇒ Mg
2+
O
2−

K2 O ⇒ 2 K
+
O
2

O
−
2
⇒ Complete octet, diamagnetic
O
2
⇒ σ
2
1s
σ
∗2
1s
σ
2
2 s
σ
∗2
2 s
σ
2
2px
π
2
2py
≃ π
2
2pz
π
∗2
2py
≃ π
2pz
∗2
(dia)
O
−
2
⇒ σ
2
1 s
σ
1s
∗2
σ
2
2 s
σ
∗2
2 s
σ
2
2px
π
2
2py
≃ π
2
2pz
π
∗2
2py
≃ π
∗1
2pz
( para )
Q3 (0)
Molecular orbital configuration of O is
2−
σ
2
1 s
σ
∗2
1 s
σ
2
2 s
σ
∗2
2 s
2
(π2px = π2py ) (π
2 ∗2
2px
= π
∗2
2py
)
Zero unpaired electron
Q4 (3)
Trigonal planar
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Trigonal planar
Trigonal planar
Pyramidal
Hence non-pyramidal species are SO 3, NO

−
3
and
CO
2−
3
.
Q5 (1)
(a) Shows intra molecular H−bonding
(b) Shows significant intermolecular H−bonding
(c) It do not show intermolecular H−bonding due to steric hindrance.
Q6 (1)
2 2 2
O
−
2
= (σ1 s ) (σ
2 ∗
1 s
2
) (σ2 s ) (σ
2 s
∗
) (σ2p )
z

(π
2
2px
= π
2
2py
) (π
∗2
2px
= π
∗1
2py
)
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10−7
Bond order = 2
= 1.5
and paramagnetic.
Q7 (3)
For london dispersion forces.
E ∝
1
r
6

Hence x = −6
Q8 (2)
T-shaped molecule means 3 sigma bond and 2 lone pairs of electron on central atom.
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Chemical Equilibrium JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
When 5.1 g of solid NH 4 HS is introduced into a two litre evacuated flask at 27 ∘

,
C 20% of the solid
decomposes into gaseous ammonia and hydrogen sulphide. The K for the reaction at 27 p
∘
C is x × 10 . The
−2
value of x is ____.
(Integer answer)
[ Given R = 0.082 L atm K
−1
mol
−1
]
Q2 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
The number of moles of NH , that must be added to 2 L of 0.80 M AgNO in order to reduce the
3 3
+
concentration of Ag ions to 5.0 × 10
+ −8
M (Kformation for [Ag(NH3 ) ]
2
= 1.0 × 10 )
8
is ____.
(Nearest integer)
[Assume no volume change on adding NH ] 3
Q3 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The reaction rate for the reaction
[PtCl4 ]
2−
+ H2 O ⇌ [Pt (H2 O) Cl3 ]
−
+ Cl
−

was measured as a function of concentrations of different species. It was observed that
2−
−d[[PtCl4 ] ]
−5 2−
= 4.8 × 10 [[PtCl4 ] ] − 2.4×
dt
10
−3
[[Pt (H2 O) Cl3 ]
−
] [Cl
−
] .
where square brackets are used to denote molar concentrations. The equilibrium constant K c
= ____.(Nearest
integer)
Q4 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The equilibrium constant K at 298 K for the reaction A + B ⇌ C + D
is 100 . Starting with an equimolar solution with concentrations of A, B, C and D all equal to 1M, the
equilibrium concentration of D is ____×10 −2
M. (Nearest integer)
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Q5 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The OH concentration in a mixture of 5.0 mL of 0.0504 M NH

−
4 Cl and 2 mL of 0.0210 M NH solution is
3
x × 10
−6
M . The value of x is ____. (Nearest integer)
[ Given K w = 1 × 10
−14
and Kb = 1.8 × 10
−5
]
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Answer Key
Q1 (6) Q2 (4) Q3 (50) Q4 (182)
Q5 (3)
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Q1 (6)
5.1 g
moles of NH 4 HS initially taken = 51 g/mol

= 0.1 mol
volume of vessel = 2ℓ
NH4 HS(s) ⇌ NH3( g) + H2 S(g)
t = 0 0.1 mol
t = ∞ 0.1(1 − 0.2) 0.1 × 0.2 0.1 × 0.2
⇒ partial pressure of each component
P =
nRT
V
=
0.1×0.2×0.082×300
= 0.246 atm
⇒ kP = PNH3 × PH2 S = (0.246)

2
= 0.060516
= 6.05 × 10
−2

⇒ 6
Q2 (4)
Let moles added = a
Ag
+
(aq..)
+ 2NH3(aq.) ⇌ Ag(NH3 )
+
2(aq.)

a
t = 0 0.8 ( )
2
−8 a
t = ∞ 5 × 10 ( − 1.6) 0.8
2
0.8 8
= 10
2
−8 a
(5×10 )( −1.6)
2
a
⇒ − 1.6 = 0.4 ⇒ a = 4
2
Q3 (50)
−2 −

−
[PtCl4 ] + H2 O ⇌ [Pt (H2 O) Cl3 ] + Cl
−2
−d[PtCl4 ]
dt
= 4.8 × 10
−5
[PtCl
−2
4
] − 2.4 × 10
3

0
[Pt (H2 O) Cl3 ] [u]
−5
kf 4.8×10
⇒ Keq = = −3
= 0.02
kb
2.4×10
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Q4 (182)
A + B ⇌ C + D : Keq = 100
1M 1M 1M 1M
First check direction of reversible reaction.
[C][D]
Since Q c
=
[A][B]
= 1 < Keq. ⇒ reaction will
move in forward direction to attain equilibrium state.
⇒ A + B ⇌ C + D : Keq = 100
to 1 1 1 1
teq. 1 − x 1 − x 1 + x 1 + x
(1+x)(1+x)
Now : K eq = 100 =
(1−x)(1−x)

2
1+x
⇒ 100 = (
1−x
)
1+x
(i) 10 = ( 1−x
)
⇒ 10 − 10x = 1 + x
⇒ 11x = 9
⇒ x =
11
9

1+x
(ii) −10 = 1−x

⇒ −10 + 10x = 1 + x
⇒ −9x = −11
⇒ x =
11
→ ' x ' cannot be more than one, therefore not valid. therefore equation concretion of (D) = 1 + x
9 20
= 1 + =
11 11
= 1.8181 = 181.81 × 10
−2

−2
≃ 182 × 10
Q5 (3)
[NH
+
4
] = 0.0504& [NH3 ] = 0.0210
+ −
[NH ][HO ]
So K b
=
4
[NH3 ]

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Kb ×[NH3 ]
[HO
−
] = +
= 1.8 × 10
−5
×
2
5
×
210
504

[NH ]
4
−6
= 3 × 10
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Chemical Kinetics JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Which one of the following given graphs represents the variation of rate constant (k) with temperature (T) for
an endothermic reaction ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
For the reaction A → B, the rate constant k (ins −1

) is given by
3
(2.47×10 )
log10 k = 20.35 −
T

The energy of activation in kJ mol −1

is ____.
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(Nearest integer)
[ Given : R = 8.314 J K
−1
mol
−1
]
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
For a first order reaction, the ratio of the time for 75% completion of a reaction to the time for 50%
completion is ____. (Integer answer)
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
The first order rate constant for the decomposition of CaCO at 700 K is 6.36 × 10 3
−3
s
−1
and activation
energy is 209 kJ mol . Its rate constant (in s
−1 −1
) at 600 K is x × 10 −6
. The value of x is ____.
(Nearest integer)
[ Given R = 8.31 J K −1
mol
−1
; log 6.36 × 10
−3
= −2.19 ,
−4.79 −5
10 = 1.62 × 10 ]
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
The reaction that occurs in a breath analyser, a device used to determine the alcohol level in a person's blood
stream is
2 K2 Cr2 O7 + 8H2 SO4 + 3C2 H6 O → 2Cr2 (SO4 ) +

3

3C2 H4 O2 + 2 K2 SO4 + 11H2 O
If the rate of appearance of Cr 2 (SO4 )

3
is 2.67 mol min −1
at a particular time, the rate of disappearance of
C2 H6 O at the same time is ____ mol min . (Nearest integer)
−1
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The following data was obtained for chemical reaction given below at 975 K.
2NO(g) + 2H2( g) → N2( g) + 2H2 O(g)
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The order of the reaction with respect to NO is ____. [Integer answer]
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Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (47) Q3 (2) Q4 (16)
Q5 (4) Q6 (1)
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Q1 (3)
By observation we get this plot during measurable temperatures
Ans. 3 rd
Option.
Q2 (47)
3
Given log K = 20.35 −

2.47×10
T

Ea
We know log K = log A −
2.303RT

Ea
⇒
2.303RT
= 2.47 × 10
3

Ea = 2.47 × 10
3
× 2.303 ×
8.314
1000
KJ/mole
= 47.29 = 47 (Nearest integer)
Q3 (2)
k =
2.303
t
log
a
a−x

2.303
t50%
log
100
100−50
=
2.303
t75%
log
100
100−75

t75% = 2t50%
Q4 (16)
K700 = 6.36 × 10
−3
s
−1
;
K600 = x × 10
−6
s
−1

Ea = 209 kJ/mol
Applying ;
KT −Ea

2 1 1
log( ) = ( − )
KT 2.303R T2 T1
1
K700 −Ea

1 1
log( ) = ( − )
K600 2.303R 700 600
−3
+209×1000
log(
6.36×10
K600
) =
2.303×8.31
(
100
700×600
)
log(6.36 × 10
−3
) − log K600 = 2.6
⇒ logK600 = −2.19 − 2.6 = −4.79
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−4.79 −5
⇒ K600 = 10 = 1.62 × 10
= 16.2 × 10
−6

−6
= x × 10
⇒ x = 16
Q5 (4)
Rate of disappearance of C2 H6 O
(
3
)
Rate of appearance of Cr2 (SO4 )
3
= ( )
2
2.67 mol/ min ×3
⇒ (
2
) = rate of disappearance of C 2 H6 O .
⇒ Rate of disappearance of C 2
H6 O = 4.005 mol/min
Q6 (1)
x y
7 × 10
−9
= K × (8 × 10
−5
) (8 × 10
−5
) … (1)
x y
2.1 × 10
−8
= K × (24 × 10
−5
) (8 × 10
−5
) … (2)
x
1 1
= ( ) ⇒ x = 1
3 3
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Chemistry in Everyday Life JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Which one of the following chemicals is responsible for the production of HCl in the stomach leading to
irritation and pain?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q2 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
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The correct statement about (A), (B), (C) and (D) is:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are narcotic analgesics
(2) (B), (C) and (D) are tranquillizers

(3) (A) and (D) are tranquillizers
(4) (B) and (C) are tranquillizers
Q3 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The class of drug to which chlordiazepoxide with above structure belongs is :
(1) Antacid
(2) Analgesic
(3) Tranquilizer
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(4) Antibiotic
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (4) Q3 (3)
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Q1 (2)
Histamine stimulate the secretion of HCl
Histamine structure
Q2 (4)
B and C are tranquilizers
Q3 (3)
The drug named chlordiate poxide is example of tranquilizer.
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Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Assertion (A) : Metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases on moving from left to
right in a period.
Reason (R) : It is due to increase in ionisation enthalpy and decrease in electron gain enthalpy, when one
moves from left to right in a period.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q2 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
The correct order of ionic radii for the ions, P 3−

, S
2−
, Ca 2+
,K
+
, Cl
−
is :
(1) P 3−
> S
2−
> Cl
−
> K
+
> Ca
2+
(2) Cl −
> S
2−
> P
3−
> Ca
2+
> K
+
(3) P 3−
> S
2−
> Cl
−
> Ca
2+
> K
+
(4) K +
> Ca
2+
> P
3−
> S
2−
> Cl
−
Q3 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Chalcogen group elements are :
(1) Se, Tb and Pu.

(2) Se, TeTe and Po.
(3) S, Te and Pm.

(4) O, Ti and Po.
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (1) Q3 (2)
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Q1 (2)
From left to right in periodic table :-
Metallic character decreases
Non-metallic character increases
⇒ It is due to increase in ionization enthalpy and increase in electron gain enthalpy.
Q2 (1)
P
3−
> S
2−
> Cl
−
> K
+
> Ca
2+

(Correct order of ionic radii)
all the given species are isoelectronic species.
In isoelectronic species size increases with increase of negative charge and size decreases with increase in
positive charge.
Q3 (2)
Group 16/oxygen family is known as Chalcogens the members are O, S, Se, Te, Po
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Coordination Compounds JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
The sum of oxidation states of two silver ions in [Ag(NH 3)

2
] [Ag(CN)2 ] complex is ____.
Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) and magnetic moment (spin-only) of an octahedral aqua
complex of a metal ion (M 2+

) are −0.8Δ and 3.87 BM, respectively. Identify (M
0
2
) :
(1) V 3+
(2) Cr 3+
(3) Mn 4+
(4) Co 2+
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Spin only magnetic moment in BM of [Fe(CO) 4 (C2 O4 )]

+
is :
(1) 5.92
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 1.73
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The denticity of an organic ligand, biuret is :
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 6
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)

3−
The number of optical isomers possible for [Cr(C 2 O4 )
3
] is ____.
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Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
The addition of dilute NaOH to Cr 3+

salt solution will give :
(1) a solution of [Cr(OH) 4]

−
(2) precipitate of Cr 2 O3 (H2 O)

n
(3) precipitate of [Cr(OH)

3−
6]
(4) precipitate of Cr(OH) 3
Q7 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
1 mol of an octahedral metal complex with formula MCl 3 ⋅ 2 L on reaction with excess of AgNO gives 1
3
mol of AgCl. The denticity of Ligand L is ____. (Integer answer)
Q8 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Acidic ferric chloride solution on treatment with excess of potassium ferrocyanide gives a Prussian blue
coloured colloidal species. It is :
(1) Fe 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]
3
(2) K 5 Fe[Fe(CN)6 ]
2
(3) HFe [Fe(CN) 6]
(4) KFe [Fe(CN) 6]
Q9 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The overall stability constant of the complex ion
2+
[Cu(NH3 ) ]
4
is 2.1 × 10 . The overall dissociations constant is y × 10
13 −14
. Then y is ____ .(Nearest
integer)
Q10 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Arrange the following Cobalt complexes in the order of increasing Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE)
value.
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2+ 3+
Complexes : [CoF A
]
3−
, [Co(H2 O) ]
6
, [Co(NH3 ) ]
6

and [Co(en) 3]
3+

Choose the correct option :
(1) A < B < C < D

(2) B < A < C < D
(3) B < C < D < A
(4) C < D < B < A
Q11 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Indicate the complex/complex ion which did not show any geometrical isomerism :
(1) [CoCl 2 (en)2 ]
(2) [Co(CN)
3−
5 (NC)]
(3) [Co(NH 3)
3
(NO2 ) ]
3
+
(4) [Co(NH 3)
4
Cl2 ]
Q12 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Which one of the following complexes is violet in colour?
(1) [Fe(CN)
4−
6]
(2) [Fe(SCN)
4−
6]
(3) Fe 4 [Fe (CN6 )]

3
⋅ H2 O
(4) [Fe(CN)
4
5 NOS]
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (4) Q3 (4) Q4 (1)
Q5 (2) Q6 (2) Q7 (2) Q8 (4)
Q9 (5) Q10 (2) Q11 (2) Q12 (4)
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Q1 (2)
Q2 (4)
= 2 × 0.4Δ0
= −0.8Δ0
= 2 unpaired e
−
μ = 2.89Bm
[2 × 0.6Δ0 − 5 × 0.4Δ0 ]
= −0.8Δ0
3 unpaired e −
⇒ μ = 3.87 BM
hence d configuration is of Co
7 2+
Ans.
Q3 (4)
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+
[Fe(CO)4 (C2 O4 )]
One unpaired electron
Spin only magnetic moment
= √3 B ⋅ M. = 1.73BM
Q4 (1)
Biuret :- Bidentate ligand
The denticity of organic ligand is 2 .
Q5 (2)
3−
The number of optical isomers for [Cr(C 2 O4 )
3
] is two.
Q6 (2)
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Q7 (2)
MCl3 .2 L octahedral
Ex.AgNO
3
MCl3 .2 L ⟶ 1 mole of AgCl
1 mole
Its means that one Cl ion present in ionization sphere.
∴ formula = [MCl 2
L2 ] Cl
For octahedral complex coordination no. is 6
∴ L act as bidentate ligand
Q8 (4)
FeCl3 + K4 [Fe(CN)6 ]( excess )

↓
KFe [Fe(CN)6 ]
Colloidal species
Q9 (5)
Given k f
= 2.1 × 10
13

Kd =
1
kf
= 4.7 × 10
−14

∴ y = 4.7 ≈ 5
Q10 (2)
(i) CFSE ∝ charge or oxidation no. of central metal ion.
(ii) CFSE ∝ strength of ligand
en > NH3 > H2 O > F

−

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∴ order of CFSE
Q11 (2)
(1) [CoCl 2
(en)2 ] show
Cis-trans isomerism
(2) [Co(CN) can't
−3
5
(NC)]
Show G.I.
(3) [Co(NH 3
) (NO2 ) ]
3 3

Show fac & mer isomerism
⊕
(4) [Co(NH 3
) Cl2 ]
4
show cis & trans isomerism
Q12 (4)
(1) [Fe(CN) 6
]
4−
→ Pale yellow solution
(2) [Fe(SCN) Blood red colour
4
6
] →
(3) Fe 4
[Fe (CN6 )]
3
⋅ H2 O → Prussian blue
(4) [Fe(CN) Violet colour

4−
5
NOS] →
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d and f Block Elements JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Identify the element for which electronic configuration in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3 d : 5
(1) Ru
(2) Mn
(3) Co
(4) Fe
Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
In the given chemical reaction, colors of the Fe 2+

and Fe 3+
ions, are respectively :
2+ − + 2+ 3+
5Fe + MnO + 8H → Mn + 4H2 O + 5Fe
4
(1) Yellow, Orange

(2) Yellow, Green
(3) Green, Orange

(4) Green, Yellow
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The Eu 2+
ion is a strong reducing agent in spite of its ground state electronic configuration (outermost):
[Atomic number of Eu = 63 ]
(1) 4f 7
6 s
2
(2) 4f 6
(3) 4f 7
(4) 4f 6
6 s
2
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Which one of the following lanthanides exhibits +2 oxidation state with diamagnetic nature ?
(Given Z for Nd = 60, Yb = 70, La = 57, Ce = 58 )
(1) Nd
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(2) Yb
(3) La
(4) Ce
Q5 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
In the structure of the dichromate ion, there is a :
(1) linear symmetrical Cr − O − Cr bond.

(2) non-linear symmetrical Cr − O − Cr bond.
(3) linear unsymmetrical Cr − O − Cr bond.
(4) non-linear unsymmetrical Cr − O − Cr bond.
Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Potassium permanganate on heating at 513 K gives a product which is :
(1) paramagnetic and colourless

(2) diamagnetic and green
(3) diamagnetic and colourless
(4) paramagnetic and green
Q7 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Which one of the following is used to remove most of plutonium from spent nuclear fuel?
(1) ClF 3
(2) O 2 F2
(3) I 2 O5
(4) BrO 3
Q8 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
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The number of f electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of Np(Z = 93) is ____.
(Nearest integer)
Q9 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
The nature of oxides V 2 O3 and CrO is indexed as ′

X
′
and ′
Y
′
type respectively. The correct set of X and Y is:
(1) X = basic Y = amphoteric

(2) X = amphoteric Y = basic
(3) X = acidic Y = acidic
(4) X = basic Y = basic
Q10 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)

+
The number of 4f electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of Gd d

is ____.
[Atomic number of Gd = 64 ]
Q11 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Which one of the following when dissolved in water gives coloured solution in nitrogen atmosphere?
(1) CuCl 2
(2) AgCl
(3) ZnCl 2
(4) Cu 2 Cl2
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Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (4) Q3 (3) Q4 (2)
Q5 (2) Q6 (4) Q7 (2) Q8 (4)
Q9 (4) Q10 (7) Q11 (1)
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Q1 (4)
3+ 5
Fe [Ar]3d
Q2 (4)
Colour of Fe 2+
is observed green and Fe 3+
is yellow.
Q3 (3)
Eu → [Xe]4f
7
6 s
2

2+ 7
Eu → [Xe]4f
Q4 (2)
Ytterbium shows +2 oxidation state with diamagnetic nature.
So ans is 2.
Q5 (2)
dichromate ion contain non-linear symmetrical Cr-O-Cr Bond
Q6 (4)
In K 2 MnO4 , manganese oxidation state is +6 and hence it has one unpaired e . −
Q7 (2)
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O2 F2 oxidises plutonium to PuF and the reaction is used in removing plutonium as PuF from spent
6 6
nuclear fuel.
Q8 (4)
2 2 6
Np = 1 s 2 s 2p 3 s 3p 4 s 3 d
2 6 2 10 6 2
4p 5 s 4 d
10 6
5p 6 s
2

Total no. of ' f ' electron = 14e −

+ 4e
−
= 18
Q9 (4)
V2 O3 basic
CrO basic
Q10 (7)
The electronic configuration of
64 Gd : [Xe]4f
7
5 d 6 s
1 2

So the electronic configuration of
64 Gd
2+ ′
: [Xe]4f 5 d 6 s
1 0

i.e. the number of 4f electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of Gd 2+

is 7 .
Q11 (1)
(1) CuCl 2 + nH2 O → Cu

+2
(aq.)

blue colour
(2) AgCl + nH 2O → Insoluble
(3) ZnCl 2 + nH2 O → Zn

+2
(aq)

Colourless
(4) Cu 2 Cl2 + nH2 O → Insoluble

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Electrochemistry JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
If the conductivity of mercury at 0 ∘

C is 1.07 × 10 6
S m
−1
and the resistance of a cell containing mercury is
0.243 Ω , then the cell constant of the cell is x × 10 4

m
−1
. The value of x is ____ .(Nearest integer)
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Match List−I with List−II
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Consider the following cell reaction :
Cd(s) + Hg2 SO4(s) +

9
5
H2 O(l) ⇌ CdSO4 ⋅
9
5
H2 O(s) + 2Hg(l)
The value of E 0
cell
is 4.315 V at 25 ∘
C .
If ΔH ∘
= −825.2 kJ mol
−1
, the standard entropy change ΔS in JK ∘ −1
is ____. (Nearest integer)
[Given : Faraday constant = 96487 C mol −1

]
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
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The resistance of a conductivity cell with cell constant 1.14 cm , containing 0.001 M KCl at 298 K is
−1
1500 Ω . The molar conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K in S cm 2

mol
−1
is ____.
(Integer answer)
Q5 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
For the galvanic cell,
Zn(s) + Cu
2+
(0.02M) → Zn
2+
(0.04M) + Cu(s) ,
Ecell = … × 10
−2
V. ( Nearest integer )
0 0
[Use : E 2+ = −0.34 V, E 2+ = +0.76 V
Cu/Cu Zn/Zn
2.303RT
= 0.059 V]
F
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
These are physical properties of an element
(A) Sublimation enthalpy
(B) Ionisation enthalpy
(C) Hydration enthalpy
(D) Electron gain enthalpy
The total number of above properties that affect the reduction potential is ____ (Integer answer)
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Statement I : The limiting molar conductivity of KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher compared to that of
CH3 COOH (weak electrolyte).
Statement II : Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of electrolyte.

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Answer Key
Q1 (26) Q2 (1) Q3 (25) Q4 (760)
Q5 (109) Q6 (3) Q7 (4)
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Q1 (26)
k = 1.07 × 10 Sm
6 −1
, R = 0.243 Ω
G =
1
R
=
1
0.243
Ω
−1

k = G × G
∗

6
∗ k 1.07×10 4 −1
G = = 1
≃ 26 × 10 m
G
0.243
Q2 (1)
Cell constant = ( A
ℓ
) ⇒ Units = m
−1
Molar conductivity (Λ m
) ⇒ Units = Sm 2
mole
−1

Conductivity (K) ⇒ Units = S m

−1
Degree of dissociation (α) → Dimensionless
∴ (a) - (iii)
(b) - (i)
(c) - (iv)
(d) - (ii)
Q3 (25)
ΔG
∘
= −nFE
∘
= ΔH
∘
− TΔS
∘

∘ ∘
ΔH +nFE
=
T
3
(−825.2×10 )+(2×96487×4.315)
=
298

3 3
−825.2×10 +832.682×10
=
298

7.483×10 −1 −1
= = 25.11JK mol
298
∴ Nearest integer answer is 25
Q4 (760)
K =
1
R
× ℓ/A = ((
1500
1
) × 1.14) S cm
−1

1.14
( )
1500
2 −1
⇒ ∧m = 1000 × S cm mol
0.001
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= 760 S cm mol
2 −1

⇒ 760
Q5 (109)
Galvanic cell:
Zn(s) + Cu
+2
(aq.)
→ Zn
+2
+ Cu(s)
0.04M
0.02M
+2
[2n ]
Nernst equation = F cell = Ecell −
o 0.059
2
log
+2

[Cu ]
o
⇒ Ecell [Ecell − E
o
Zn
+2
/Zn
] −
0.059
2
log
0.04
0.02

0.059 2
⇒ Eccll [0.34 − (−0.76)] − log
2
⇒ Ecell 1 − 1 −
0.059
2
× 0.3010
= 1.0911 = 109.11 × 10
−2

= 109
Q6 (3)
Sublimation enthalpy, Ionisation enthalpy and hydration enthalpy affect the reduction potential.
Q7 (4)
So
∞ ∞ ∞
Λ = Λ ∗ + Λ −
mCH3 COOH m(H ) mCH3 COO
= 349.8 + 40.9
2
= 390.7Scm /mole
∞ ∞ ∞
Λ = Λ + + Λ −
mKCl m(K ) m(C )
= 73.5 + 76.3
2
= 149.3Scm /mole
So Statement −I is wrong or False.
As the concentration decreases, the dilution increases which increases the degree of dissociation, thus
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increasing the no. of ions, which increases the molar conductance.
So Statement −I I is False.
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Environmental Chemistry JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Water sample is called cleanest on the basis of which one of the BOD values given below
(1) 11 ppm
(2) 15 ppm
(3) 3 ppm
(4) 21 ppm
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The deposition of X and Y on ground surfaces is referred as wet and dry depositions, respectively. X and Y
are :
(1) X = Ammonium salts, Y = CO 2
(2) X = SO 2, Y = Ammonium salts
(3) X = Ammonium salts, Y = SO 2
(4) X = CO 2, Y = SO2
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
BOD values (in ppm ) for clean water (A) and polluted water (B) are expected respectively :
(1) A > 50, B < 27

(2) A > 25, B < 17
(3) A < 5, B > 17
(4) A > 15, B > 47
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
In stratosphere most of the ozone formation is assisted by :
(1) cosmic rays.

(2) γ-rays.
(3) ultraviolet radiation.
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(4) visible radiations.
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
The gas 'A' is having very low reactivity reaches to stratosphere. It is non-toxic and non-flammable but
dissociated by UV-radiations in stratosphere. The intermediates formed initially from the gas 'A' are :
(1) ClO
˙ ˙
+ CF 2 Cl
(2) ClO
˙
+ CḢ 3
(3) CH
˙
3
˙
+ CF2 Cl
(4) Cl
˙ ˙
+ CF 2 Cl
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Assertion (A) : Photochemical smog causes cracking of rubber.
Reason (R) : Presence of ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate in
photochemical smog makes it oxidizing.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A)

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A)
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The conversion of hydroxyapatite occurs due to presence of F ions in water. The correct formula of
−
hydroxyapatite is:
(1) [3Ca 3 (PO4 )

2
⋅ Ca(OH)2 ]
(2) [3Ca(OH) 2 ⋅ CaF2 ]
(3) [Ca 3 (PO4 )

2
⋅ CaF2 ]
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(4) [3Ca 3 (PO4 )

2
⋅ CaF2 ]
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Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (3) Q3 (3) Q4 (3)
Q5 (4) Q6 (4) Q7 (1)
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Q1 (3)
Clean water could have BOD value of less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD
value of 17 ppm or more.
Q2 (3)
Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are acidic and settle down on ground as dry deposition.
Ammonium salts in rain drops result in wet deposition.
Q3 (3)
BOD values of clean water (A) is less than 5 ppm
So A < 5
BOD values of polluted water (B) is greater than 17
ppm
So B > 17
So Ans. is 3
Q4 (3)
Ozone in the stratosphere is a product of UV radiations acting on dioxygen (O 2) molecules.
UV
O2 ( g) ⟶ O(g) + O(g)
UV
O(g) + O2 ( g) ⇌ O3 ( g)
Q5 (4)
In stratosphere CFCs get broken down by powerful
radiations releasing Cl
∙
UV
U.V.
∙ ∙
CF2 Cl2 ( g) ⟶ Cl ( g) + CF2 Cl(g)
Q6 (4)
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Photochemical smog causes cracking of rubber, the common component of photochemical smog are ozone,
nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyle nitrate (PAN).
Q7 (1)
The F ions make the enamel on teeth much harder by converting hydroxyapatite, [3 (Ca
θ
3 (PO4 )] ⋅ Ca(OH)2 ] ,
the enamel on the surface of the teeth into much harder fluroappatite. [3Ca 3 (PO4 )
2
⋅ CaF2 ]
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General Organic Chemistry JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
The potassium ferrocyanide solution gives a Prussian blue colour, when added to :
(1) CoCl 3
(2) FeCl 2
(3) CoCl 2
(4) FeCl 3
Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Which one of the following compounds is aromatic in nature ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The transformation occurring in Duma's method is given below :
y y y

z
C2 H7 N + (2x + ) CuO → xCO2 + H2 O + N2 + (2x + ) Cu
2 2 2 2
The value of y is ____. (Integer answer)
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
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Match List−I with List−II :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Q5 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Arrange the following conformational isomers of n-butane in order of their increasing potential energy :
(1) II < III < IV < I

(2) I < IV < III < II
(3) II < IV < III < I

(4) I < III < IV < II
Q6 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : A simple distillation can be used to separate a mixture of propanol and propanone.
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Reason (R) : Two liquids with a difference of more than 20 ∘

C in their boiling points can be separated by
simple distillations.

(2) Both(A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q7 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Choose the correct name for compound given below:
(1) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-4-en-2-yne
(2) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-4-yn-2-ene
Q8 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
The number of moles of CuO, that will be utilized in Dumas method for estimation nitrogen in a sample of
57.5 g of N, N-dimethylaminopentane is ____ ×10 −2

. (Nearest integer)
Q9 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
In Carius method for estimation of halogens, 0.2 g of an organic compound gave 0.188 g of AgBr.
The percentage of bromine in the compound is
____.(Nearest integer)
[Atomic mass : Ag = 108, Br = 80 ]
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Q10 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
A chloro compound " A ".
(i) forms aldehydes on ozonolysis followed by the hydrolysis.
(ii) when vaporized completely 1.53 g of A, gives 448 mL of vapour at ST P .
The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of compound A is ____.
Q11 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
In the sulphur estimation, 0.471 g of an organic compound gave 1.44 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of
sulphur in the compound is ____ %.
(Nearest integer)
(Atomic Mass of Ba = 137u)
Q12 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The number of stereoisomers possible for 1,2 dimethyl cyclopropane is:
(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three
Q13 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Which one of the following compounds is not aromatic ?
(1)
(2)
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(3)
(4)
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Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (4) Q3 (7) Q4 (2)
Q5 (4) Q6 (4) Q7 (3) Q8 (1125)
Q9 (40) Q10 (3) Q11 (42) Q12 (4)
Q13 (3)
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Q1 (4)
FeCl3 + K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] → Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]

3

Prussian blue
Q2 (4)
(1) (Acenaphthene)
(2)
4πe
−
in ring conjugation ⇒ Anti Aromatic
(3)
4πe
−
in ring conjugation ⇒ Antiaromatic
(4)
Q3 (7)
y y y
C2 H7 N + (2x +
2
) CuO → xCO2 +
2
H2 O +
z
2
N2 + (2x +
2
) Cu
On balancing
C2 H7 N +
15
2
CuO → 2CO2 +
7
2
H2 O +
1
2
N2 +
15
2
Cu
On comparing
y = 7
Q4 (2)
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Mn
2+
→ III group
As
3+
→ II B group
Cu
2+
→ II A group
group
3+
Al → IV
Q5 (4)
More stable less potential energy.
Stability order : I > III > IV > II
So
Potential energy: II > IV > III > I
Q6 (4)
Both assertion & reason are correct & (R) is the correct explanation of & (A)
Q7 (3)
h.p. ⇒ higher priority
l.p. ⇒ lower priority
2E − 2 - bromo hex −2 - en-4-yne
Q8 (1125)
Moles of N in N, N - dimethylaminopentane
= (
57.5
115
) = 0.5 mol
⇒ C7 H17 N +
45
2
CuO → 7CO2 +
17
2
H2 O +
1
2
N2 +
45
2
Cu
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nC N reacted
nCuo reacted

H
7 17
=
45 1
( )
2
reacted = (
45
⇒ ncuO ) × 0.5 = 11.25
2
Q9 (40)
0.188 g
nAgBr =
188 g/mol
= 10
−3
mol
⇒ nBr = nAgBr = 0.001 mol
⇒ massBr = (0.001 × 80)gm = 0.08gm
⇒ mass % = 0.08×100
0.2
= 40%
Q10 (3)
448ml of A ⇒ 1.53gmA
22400ml of A ⇒ 1.53
445
× 22400 gm A = 7650
& mm is 36 + 5 + 35.5 = 76.5
Q11 (42)
Molecular mass of BaSO 4

= 233 g
∵ 233 BaSO4 contain → 32 g sulphur
contain → sulphur
32
∴ 1.44 g BaSO4 × 1.44 g
233
given : 0.471 g of organic compound
of S =
32×1.44
% × 100 = 41.98% ≈ 42%
233×0.471
OR
1.44
⇒ ns = nBaSO =
4 233
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1.44
⇒ ws = × 32 g
233
Ws
therefore % S = Wocc
× 100 =
1.44×32
233×0.471
× 100
46.08
= × 100 = 41.98 ≃ 42
109.743
Q12 (4)
Q13 (3)
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General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Calamine and Malachite, respectively, are the ores of :
(1) Nickel and Aluminium
(2) Zinc and Copper
(3) Copper and Iron
(4) Aluminium and Zinc
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
In the electrolytic refining of blister copper, the total number of main impurities, from the following, removed
as anode mud is ____
Pb, Sb, Se, Te, Ru, Ag, Au and Pt
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Assertion (A) : Aluminium is extracted from bauxite by the electrolysis of molten mixture of Al 2 O3 with
cryolite.
Reason (R) : The oxidation state of Al in cryolite is +3.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
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Match List − I with List − II :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Which refining process is generally used in the purification of low melting metals ?
(1) Chromatographic method

(2) Liquation
(3) Electrolysis
(4) Zone refining
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Statement I : Sphalerite is a sulphide ore of zinc and copper glance is a sulphide ore of copper.
Statement II : It is possible to separate two sulphide ores by adjusting proportion of oil to water or by using
'depressants' in a froth flotation method.
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Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Given below are two statements.
Statement I : The choice of reducing agents for metals extraction can be made by using Ellingham diagram, a
plot of ΔG vs temperature.
Statement II : The value of ΔS increases from left to right in Ellingham diagram.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (6) Q3 (4) Q4 (1)
Q5 (2) Q6 (2) Q7 (4)
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Q1 (2)
Calamine ⇒ ZnCO3
Malachite ⇒ Cu(OH)2 ⋅ CuCO3
Q2 (6)
Anode mud contains Sb, Se, Te, Ag, Au and Pt
Q3 (4)
(A) Aluminium is reactive metal so Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of Alumina with molten mixture of
Cryolite.
(B) Cryolite, Na 3 AlF6
Here Al is in +3 O. S.
So Answer is 4.
Q4 (1)
(Name of ore/mineral)
(a) Calamine ZnCO

3
(b) Malachite CuCO 3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2
(c) Siderite FeCO3
(d) Sphalerite ZnS
Q5 (2)
Liquation method is used to purify those impure metals which has lower melting point than the melting point
of impurities associated.
∴ This method is used for metal having low melting point.
Q6 (2)
Sphalerite−Zn S, copper glance −Cu 2 S two sulphide ores can be separated by adjusting proportions of oil to
water or by using ' Depressants '.
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Q7 (4)
Given Statement−I is true as in a number of processes, one element is used to reduce the oxide of another
metal. Any element will reduce the oxide of other metal which lie above it in the Ellingham diagram because
the free energy change will become more negative.
Given Statement −I I is false as the value of ΔS is decreases from left to right in Ellingham diagram.
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Haloalkanes and Haloarenes JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The major product of the following reaction is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The structure of product C, formed by the following sequence of reactions is :
KCN
Benzene
CH3 COOH + SOCl2 ⟶ A ⟶B −OH ⟶C
AIC3
(1)
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(2)
(3)
(4)
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The correct order of reactivity of the given chlorides with acetate in acetic acid is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
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(4)
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
In the following sequence of reactions the P is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q5 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The correct options for the products A and B of the following reactions are :
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (1) Q3 (1) Q4 (1)
Q5 (2)
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Q1 (3)
NaOH + EtOH is known as alcoholic NaOH, so it give E reaction with given alkyl halide.
Q2 (1)
Q3 (1)
As it is example of SN .
1
so carbocation stability ↑, reaction rate ↑
Q4 (1)
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Q5 (2)
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Hydrocarbons JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
In the following sequence of reactions,
The compounds B and C respectively are :
(1) Cl 3 COOK, HCOOH
(2) CI 3 COOK, CH3 I
(3) CH I, HCOOK
3
(4) CHI 3, CH3 COOK
Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
The stereoisomers that are formed by electrophilic addition of bromine to trans-but-2-ene is/are :
(1) 2 enantiomers and 2 mesomers
(2) 2 identical mesomers

(3) 2 enantiomers
(4) 1 racemic and 2 enantiomers
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Identify correct A, B and C in the reaction sequence given below :
(1)
(2)
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(3)
(4)
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
For the following :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
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The major product (A) formed in the reaction given below is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Consider the given reaction, the product A is :
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Excess of isobutane on reaction with Br in presence of light at 125

2
∘
C gives which one of the following, as
the major product?
(1)
(2)
(3)
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(4)
Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Among the following compounds I − IV, which one forms a yellow precipitate on reacting sequentially
with (i) NaOH (ii) dil. HNO (iii) AgNO ?
3 3
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(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
Q9 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (2) Q3 (1) Q4 (2)
Q5 (2) Q6 (3) Q7 (4) Q8 (2)
Q9 (1)
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Q1 (4)
Q2 (2)
Q3 (1)
Q4 (2)
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Q5 (2)
Q6 (3)
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Q7 (4)
Q8 (2)
Other compounds halide can't be removed because corresponding C is highly unstable.

+
Q9 (1)
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Hydrogen JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Hydrogen peroxide reacts with iodine in basic medium to give :
(1) IO −
(2) IO −
(3) I −
(4) IO −
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) Atomic hydrogen is produced when H molecules at a high temperature are irradiated with UV radiation.
2
(2) At around 2000 K, the dissociation of dihydrogen into its atoms is nearly 8.1%.
(3) Bond dissociation enthalpy of H is highest among diatomic gaseous molecules which contain a single
2
bond .
(4) Dihydrogen is produced on reacting zinc with HCl as well as NaOH (aq)
.
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) associated with stoichiometry CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H2 O is ____.
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Statement −I : The process of producing syn-gas is called gasification of coal.
Statement −II : The composition of syn-gas is CO + CO 2 + H2 (1 : 1 : 1)
(1) Statement −I is false but Statement −II is true

(2) Statement −I is true but Statement −II is false
(3) Both Statement −I and Statement −II are false
(4) Both Statement −I and Statement −II are true
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Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Deuterium resembles hydrogen in properties but :
(1) reacts slower than hydrogen
(2) reacts vigorously than hydrogen

(3) reacts just as hydrogen
(4) emits β particles
+
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Assertion (A) : Heavy water is used for the study of reaction mechanism.
Reason (R) : The rate of reaction for the cleavage of O − H bond is slower than that of O − D bond.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A).
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Which one of the following methods is most suitable for preparing deionized water?
(1) Synthetic resin method

(2) Clark's method
(3) Calgon's method
(4) Permutit method
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Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (2) Q3 (1) Q4 (2)
Q5 (1) Q6 (4) Q7 (1)
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Q1 (3)
I2 + H2 O2 + 2OH ⟶ 2I + 2H2 O + O2
Q2 (2)
Atomic hydrogen is produced at high temperature in an electric are or under ultraviolet radiations The
dissociation of dihydrogen at 2000 K is only 0.081%.
H − H bond dissociation enthalpy is highest for a single bond for any diatomic molecule.
Dihydrogen can be produced on reacting Zn with dil. HCl as well as NaOH (aq.)
Q3 (1)
One hydrogen bonded H 2O molecule
Q4 (2)
The process of producing syn-gas from coal is called gasification of coal.
Syn-gas having composition of CO & H in 1 : 1

2
Q5 (1)
The bond dissociation energy of D is greater than H and therefore D reacts slower than H .
2 2 2 2
Q6 (4)
D2 O in used for the study of reaction mechanism. Rate of reaction for the cleavage of O − H bond > O − D
bond.
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Q7 (1)
Pure demineralised (de-ionized) water free from all soluble mineral salts is obtained by passing water
successively through a cation exchange (in the H form) and an anion exchange (in the OH form) resins.
−
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Ionic Equilibrium JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
The molar solubility of Zn(OH) in 0.1 M NaOH solution is x × 10

2
−18
M . The value of x is ____. (Nearest
integer)
(Given : The solubility product of Zn(OH) is 2 2 × 10

−20
)
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of 1 M HCl and 30 mL of 1 M NaOH is x × 10 . The −4
value of x is ____.(Nearest integer)
[log 2.5 = 0.3979]
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
A3 B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass M (g mol −1

) and solubility x g L . The solubility product
−1
satisfies K sp = a(
x
M
) . The value of a is ____. (Integer answer)
Q4 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Statement I : In the titration between strong acid and weak base methyl orange is suitable as an indicator.
Statement II : For titration of acetic acid with NaOH phenolphthalein is not a suitable indicator. In the light
of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (6021) Q3 (108) Q4 (2)
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Q1 (2)
Zn(OH)2 ( s) ⇌ Zn
+2
(aq) + 2OH
−
(aq)
S(0.1 + 2 s) ≃ 0.1
Ksp = S(0.1)
2

2 × 10
−20
= s × 10
−2
⇒ s = 2 × 10
−18

= x × 10
−18

x = 2
Q2 (6021)
HCl( aq )+NaOH (aq. )→ NaCl(aq) + H 2 O(ℓ)
[HCl] =
20
80
=
1
4
M = 2.5 × 10
−1
M
pH = − log 2.15 × 10
−1
= 1 − 0.3979 = 0.6021
−4
pH = 6021 × 10
Q3 (108)
A3 B2 ( s) ⇌ 3 A

+2
(aq)
+ 2 B
−3
(aq)

3 s 2 s
KsP = (3 s) (2 s)

3 2

KSP = 108 S & s = (X/M)

5

x
KSP = 108( )
m
5
given K sp
= a(
m
x
)
comparing a = 108
Q4 (2)
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Titration curve for strong acid and weak base initially a buffer of weak base and conjugate acid is:
Formed, thus pH falls slowly and after equivalence point, so the pH falls sharply so methyl arrange, having
pH range of 3.2 to 4.4 will weak as indicator. So Statement −I is correct.
Titration curve for weak acid and strong base (NaOH)
Initially weak acid will form a buffer so pH increases slowly but after equivalence point. it rises sharply
covering range of phenolphthalein so it will be suitable indicator so Statement −I I is false.
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p Block Elements (Group 13 & 14) JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
In which one of the following molecules strongest back donation of an electron pair from halide to boron is
expected?
(1) BCl 3
(2) BF 3
(3) BBr 3
(4) BI 3
Q2 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The ratio of number of water molecules in Mohr's salt and potash alum is ____ ×10 . (Integer answer)
−1
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (5)
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Q1 (2)
Type of back bonding
BF3 BCl BBr3 BI3

(2pπ − 2pπ) (2pπ − 3pπ) (2pπ − 4pπ) (2pπ − 5pπ)
Therefore back bonding strength is as follows
BF3 > BCl > BBr3 > BI3
Q2 (5)
Mohr's salt : (NH 4)

2
Fe(SO4 )
2
⋅ 6H2 O
The number of water molecules in Mohr's salt = 6
Potash alum : KAl(SO 4)

2
⋅ 12H2 O
The number of water molecules in potash alum = 12
So ratio of number of water molecules in Mohr's salt and potash alum = 6
12

=
1
= 0.5
−1
= 5 × 10
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p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18) JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
The oxide without nitrogen-nitrogen bond is :
(1) N 2O
(2) N 2 O4
(3) N 2 O3
(4) N 2 O5
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The number of S = O bonds present in sulphurous acid, peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid,
respectively are :
(1) 2,3 and 4

(2) 1,4 and 3
(3) 2,4 and 3

(4) 1,4 and 4
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Which one of the following correctly represents the order of stability of oxides, X 2 O; ( X = halogen )?
(1) Br > Cl > I

(2) Br > I > Cl
(3) Cl > I > Br
(4) I > Cl > Br
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The number of halogen /(s) forming halic (V) acid is ____.
Q5 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
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Consider the sulphides HgS, PbS, CuS, Sb 2 S3 , As 2 S3 and CdS. Number of these sulphides soluble in
50% HNO3 is ____.
Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Which one of the following is formed (mainly) when red phosphorus is heated in a sealed tube at 803 K ?
(1) White phosphorus

(2) Yellow phosphorus
(3) β-Black phosphorus
(4) α-Black phosphorus
Q7 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Match List − I with List − I I :
(1) (a) − (iv), (b) − (i), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iii)

(2) (a) − (iii), (b) −(iv), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i)
(3) (a) − (iii), (b) − (ii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (i)
(4) (a) − (iv), (b) − (ii), (c) − (i), (d) − (iii)
Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
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The number of non-ionisable hydrogen atoms present in the final product obtained from the hydrolysis of
PCl5 is :
(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Q9 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The incorrect statement is:
(1) Cl is more reactive than ClF.

2
(2) F is more reactive than ClF.

2
(3) On hydrolysis ClF froms HOCl and HF.

(4) F is a stronger oxidizing agent than Cl in aqueous solution
2 2
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Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (4) Q3 (4) Q4 (3)
Q5 (4) Q6 (4) Q7 (4) Q8 (1)
Q9 (1)
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Q1 (4)
(1) N ≡ N +
− O
−

(2)
(3)
unsymmetrical
symmetrical
(4)
Q2 (4)
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Q3 (4)
Stability of oxides of Halogens is
I > Cl > Br
Q4 (3)
The number of halogen forming halic (V) acid
HClO3
HBrO3
HIO3
So Answer is 3.
Q5 (4)
Pbs, CuS, As2 S3 , CdS are soluble in 50% HNO 3 HgS, Sb2 S3 are insoluble in 50% HNO
So Answer is 4.
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Q6 (4)
When red phosphorus is heated in a sealed tube at 803 K, α-black phosphorus is formed.
Q7 (4)
Species (Number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom)
Q8 (1)
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In
all hydrogens are ionisable
∴ Ans is zero.
Q9 (1)
(i) Reactivity order :
F2 > ClF (inter halogen ) > Cl2
(ii) ClF + H 2O → HOCl + HF
(iii) Oxidizing power in aqueous solution
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
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Polymers JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Monomer units of Dacron polymer are :
(1) ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
(2) ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
(3) glycerol and terephthalic acid
(4) glycerol and phthalic acid
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Which among the following is not a polyester?
(1) Novolac
(2) PHBV
(3) Dacron
(4) Glyptal
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Monomer of Novolac is :
(1) 3−Hydroxybutanoic acid
(2) phenol and melamine

(3) o-Hydroxymethylphenol
(4) 1,3−Butadiene and styrene
Q4 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The polymer formed on heating Novolac with formaldehyde is :
(1) Bakelite
(2) P olyester
(3) M elamine
(4) N ylon6, 6
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (1) Q3 (3) Q4 (1)
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Q1 (2)
Q2 (1)
Novalac is a linear polymer of [Ph − OH + HCHO].
So ester linkage not present.
So novalac is not a polyester.
Q3 (3)
Monomer of Novolac is
O-hydroxy methyl phenol
Q4 (1)
Novolac + formaldehyde → Bakelite
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Redox Reactions JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
In which one of the following sets all species show disproportionation reaction ?
(1) ClO −
2
, F2 , MnO
−
4
and Cr 2O
2−
(2) Cr 2O
2−
7
, MnO
−
4
, ClO
−
2
and Cl 2
(3) MnO −
4
, ClO
−
2
, Cl2 and Mn 3+
(4) ClO −
4
, MnO
−
4
, ClO
−
2
and F 2
Q2 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
In polythionic acid, H 2 Sx O6 (x = 3 to 5 ) the oxidation state(s) of sulphur is/are :
(1) +5 only
(2) +6 only
(3) +3 and +5 only
(4) 0 and +5 only
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Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (4)
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Q1 (3)
No option contains all species that show disproportionation reaction.
MnO
−
Mn is in +7 oxidation state (highest) hence cannot be simultaneously oxidized or reduced.
Q2 (4)
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s Block Elements JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Assertion (A) : Lithium salts are hydrated.
Reason (R) : Lithium has higher polarising power than other alkali metal group members.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The major component/ingredient of Portland Cement is :
(1) tricalcium aluminate
(2) tricalcium silicate

(3) dicalcium aluminate
(4) dicalcium silicate
Q3 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
The oxide that gives H 2 O2 most readily on treatment with H 2O is :
(1) PbO 2
(2) Na 2 O2
(3) SnO 2
(4) BaO 2 ⋅ 8H2 O
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Choose the correct statement from the following :
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(1) The standard enthalpy of formation for alkali metal bromides becomes less negative on descending the
group.
(2) The low solubility of CsI
CsI in water is due to its high lattice enthalpy.

(3) Among the alkali metal halides, LiF is least soluble in water.
(4) LiF has least negative standard enthalpy of formation among alkali metal fluorides.
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
The number of water molecules in gypsum, dead burnt plaster and plaster of paris, respectively are:
(1) 2,0 and 1

(2) 0.5,0 and 2
(3) 5,0 and 0.5
(4) 2,0 and 0.5
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
Assertion (A) : Barium carbonate is insoluble in water and is highly stable.
Reason (R) : The thermal stability of the carbonates increases with increasing cationic size.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the true explanation of (A)
(3) Both(A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the true explanation of (A)
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
What are the products formed in sequence when excess of CO is passed in slaked lime?
2
(1) Ca(HCO 3)
2
, CaCO3
(2) CaCO 3, Ca(HCO3 )

2
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(3) CaO, Ca(HCO 3)

2
(4) CaO, CaCO 3
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Answer Key
Q1 (1) Q2 (2) Q3 (2) Q4 (3)
Q5 (4) Q6 (1) Q7 (2)
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Q1 (1)
Lithium salts are hydrated due to high hydration energy of Li

+
Li
+
due to smallest size in IA group has highest polarizing power.
Q2 (2)
Major component of portland cement is "Tricalcium silicate" (51%, 3CaO ⋅ SiO 2)
Q3 (2)
1.PbO 2 + 2H2 O → Pb(OH)4
2.Na 2 O2 + 2H2 O → 2NaOH + H2 O2
this reaction is possible at room temperature
3.SnO 2 + 2H2 O → Sn(OH)4
4.Acidified BaO2 .8H2 O gives H 2 O2 after evaporation.
Q4 (3)
(1) Standard enthalpy of formation for alkali metal bromides becomes more negative on desending down the
group.
(2) In case of CsI, lattice energy is less, but Cs is having less hydration enthalpy due to which it is less
+
soluble in water.
(3) For alkali metal fluorides, the solubility in water increases from lithium to caesium. LiF is least soluble in
water.
(4) Standard enthalpy of formation for LiF is most negative among alkali metal fluorides.
Q5 (4)
Gypsum - CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H2 O
Plaster of Paris - CaSO
1
4 ⋅ H2 O
2
Dead burnt plaster - CaSO 4
Q6 (1)
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In I I A group on moving down the group size of cation increases and show thermal stability of carbonate
increases.
Q7 (2)
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ⟶ CaCO3 ↓ +H2 O
CaCO3 ↓ +CO2 + H2 O → Ca(HCO3 )

2
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Solid State JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The empirical formula for a compound with a cubic close packed arrangement of anions and with cations
occupying all the octahedral sites in A x B . The value of x is ____.
(Integer answer)
Q2 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Match items of List − I with those of List − I I :
(1) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv)

(2) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv)
(3) (a) − (iii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i)

(4) (a) − (iv), (b) − (ii), (c) − (i), (d) − (iii)
Q3 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Statement I : Frenkel defects are vacancy as well as interstitial defects.
Statement II : Frenkel defect leads to colour in ionic solids due to presence of F-centres.
Choose the most appropriate answer for the statements from the options given below:

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Answer Key
Q1 (1) Q2 (3) Q3 (3)
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Q1 (1)
Anions froms CCP or FCC (A −

) = 4A
−
per unit cell Cations occupy all octahedral voids (B +
) = 4 B
+
per
unit cell
cell formula → A 4 B4
Empirical formula → AB
→ (x = 1)
Q2 (3)
(a) − (iii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i)
Q3 (3)
Theory based.
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Solutions JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
If 80 g of copper sulphate CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H2 O is dissolved in deionised water to make 5 L of solution. The
concentration of the copper sulphate solution is x × 10 −3

mol L
−1
.
The value of x is ____.
[ Atomic masses Cu : 63.54 u, S : 32 u, O : 16 u, H : 1 u]
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
Sodium oxide reacts with water to produce sodium hydroxide. 20.0 g of sodium oxide is dissolved in 500 mL
of water. Neglecting the change in volume, the concentration of the resulting NaOH solution is ____ ×10 −1
M. (Nearest integer)
[Atomic mass : Na = 23.0, O = 16.0, H = 1.0]
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
1.22 g of an organic acid is separately dissolved in 100 g of benzene (K b

= 2.6 K kg mol
−1
) and 100 g of
acetone (K b
= 1.7 K kg mol
−1
). The acid is known to dimerize in benzene but remain as a monomer in
acetone. The boiling point of the solution in acetone increases by 0.17 ∘

C .
The increase in boiling point of solution in benzene in ∘

C is x × 10 . The value of x is ____.(Nearest integer)
−2
[ Atomic mass : C = 12.0, H = 1.0, O = 16.0]
Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
The molarity of the solution prepared by dissolving 6.3 g of oxalic acid (H 2 C2 O4 ⋅ 2H2 O) in 250 mL of water
in mol L −1
is x × 10 . The value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)
−2
[ Atomic mass : H : 1.0, C : 12.0, O : 16.0]
Q5 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Which one of the following 0.10M aqueous solutions will exhibit the largest freezing point depression ?
(1) hydrazine
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(2) glucose
(3) glycine
(4) KHSO 4
Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
40 g of glucose ( Molar mass = 180) is mixed with 200 mL of water. The freezing point of solution is ____ K
. (Nearest integer)
[Given: K f
= 1.86 K kg mol
−1
; Density of water = 1.00 g cm −3
; Freezing point of water = 273.15 K]
Q7 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
1 kg of 0.75 molal aqueous solution of sucrose can be cooled up to −4 ∘

C before freezing. The amount of ice
(in g) that will be separated out is ____.
(Nearest integer)
[Given : Kf (H2 O) = 1.86 K kg mol

−1
]
Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
83 g of ethylene glycol dissolved in 625 g of water.
The freezing point of the solution is ____ K. (Nearest integer)
[Use : Molal Freezing point depression constant of water = 1.86 K kg mol

−1
]
Freezing Point of water = 273 K
Atomic masses : C : 12.0u, O : 16.0u, H : 1.0u]
Q9 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Of the following four aqueous solutions, total number of those solutions whose freezing point is lower than
that of 0.10 M C 2 H5 OH is ____ (Integer answer)
(i) 0.10 M Ba 3 (PO4 )

2

(ii) 0.10 M Na 2 SO4
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(iii) 0.10 M KCl
(iv) 0.10 M Li 3 PO4
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Answer Key
Q1 (64) Q2 (13) Q3 (13) Q4 (20)
Q5 (4) Q6 (271) Q7 (518) Q8 (269)
Q9 (4)
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Q1 (64)
Moles of CuSO
80
4 ⋅ 5H2 O =
249.54
80
Molarity = 249.54
5
= 64.117 × 10
−3

Nearest integer, x = 64
Q2 (13)
Na2 O + H2 O → 2NaOH
20
62
moles
20
Moles of NaOH formed = 62
× 2
40
[NaOH] = 500
62
= 1.29M = 13 × 10
−1
M
1000
(Nearest integer)
Q3 (13)
With benzene as solvent
ΔTb = iKb m
1.22/Mw
ΔTb =
1
2
× 2.6 ×
100/1000
...(1)
With Acetone as solvent
ΔTb = iKb m
1.22/Mw
0.17 = 1 × 1.7 ×
100/1000
...(2)
(1) / (2)
1 1.22/Mw
×2.6+
ΔTb 2 100/1000
=
0.17 1.22/Mw
1×1.7×
100/1000
0.26
ΔTb =
2

ΔTb = 13 × 10
2

⇒ x = 13
Q4 (20)
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weight /Mw
[H2 C2 O4 ⋅ 2H2 O] =
V(L)

6.3/126
⇒ x × 10
−2
=
250/1000

x = 20
Q5 (4)
∵ Van't Hoff factor is highest for KHSO

4
∴ colligative property (ΔT f

) will be highest for KHSO 4
Q6 (271)
mol
40
( )
180
molality = 0.2Kg
= (
10
9
) molal
′ 10
⇒ ΔTf = Tf − Tf = 1.86 ×
9
′
⇒ Tf = 273.15 − 1.86 ×
10
= 271.08 K
≃ 271 K (nearest-integer)
Q7 (518)
Let mass of water initially present = x gm
⇒ Mass of sucrose = (1000 − x)gm
1000−x
⇒ moles of sucrose = ( 342
)
1000−x
( )
1000−x

342 x
⇒ 0.75 = ⇒ =
x 1000 342×0.75
( )
1000
⇒ 256.5x = 10
6
− 1000x
⇒ x = 795.86gm
⇒ moles of sucrose = 0.5969
New mass of H 2O = a kg
⇒ 4 =
0.5969
a
× 1.86 ⇒ a = 0.2775 kg
⇒ ice separated = (795.86 − 277.5) = 518.3 gm
Q8 (269)
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kf = 1.86k ⋅ kg/mol
∘
Tf = 273k
solvent : H 2 O(625 g)
Solute : 83 g
Non dissociative solute
⇒ ΔTf = kf × m
83/62
∘
⇒ (Tf − T ) = 1.86 ×
l
f 624/1000

1 1.86×83×1000 154380
⇒ 273 − T = =
f 62×625 38750
⇒ 273 − T
1
f
= 4
1
⇒ T = 259 K
f
Q9 (4)
As 0.1 M C 2 H5 OH is non-dissociative and rest all salt given are electrolyte so in each case effective molarity
> 0.1 so each will have lower freezing point.
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Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
The number of atoms in 8 g of sodium is x × 10 .

23
The value of x is ____. (Nearest integer)
[ Given : N A
= 6.02 × 10
23
mol
−1

Atomic mass of Na = 23.0u ]
Q2 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
100 g of propane is completely reacted with 1000 g of oxygen. The mole fraction of carbon dioxide in the
resulting mixture is x × 10 . The value of x is ____. (Nearest integer)
−2
[Atomic weight : H = 1.008; C = 12.00; O = 16.00 ]
Q3 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of KMnO was titrated in acidic medium, equal volume of 0.1 M of an
4
aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate was required for complete discharge of colour. The strength of KMnO 4
in grams per litre is ____ ×10 . (Nearest integer)

−2
Q4 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
100 mL of Na 3 PO4 solution contains 3.45 g of sodium. The molarity of the solution is ____×10 −2
mol L .
−1
(Nearest integer)
[Atomic Masses - Na : 23.0u, O : 16.0u, P : 31.0u]
Q5 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
An aqueous KCl solution of density 1.20 g mL −1

has a molality of 3.30 mol kg . The molarity of the
−1
solution in mol L −1
[ Molar mass of KCl = 74.5]
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (19) Q3 (316) Q4 (50)
Q5 (3)
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Q1 (2)
No. of atoms =
8 23 23
× 6.02 × 10 = 2.09 × 10
23
≃ 2 × 10
23

= x × 10
23

x = 2
Q2 (19)
C3 H8( g) + 5O2( g) ⟶ 3CO2( g) + 4H2 O(ℓ)
t = 0 2.27 mole 31.25 mol
t = ∞ 0 19.9 mol 6.81 mol 9.08 mol
mole fraction of CO in the final reaction mixture (heterogenous)
XCO2 =
6.81
19.9+6.81+9.08

= 0.1902 = 19.02 × 10
−2

⇒ 19
Q3 (316)
Let molarity of KMnO 4 = x
KMnO4 + FeSO4 → Fe2 (SO4 )

3
+ Mn
2+

n = 5 n = 1
(Equivalents of KMnO reacted )= (Equivalents of
FeSO4 reacted)
⇒ (5 × x × 10 ml) = 1 × 0.1 × 10 ml
⇒ x = 0.02 M
Molar mass of KMnO 4 = 158 gm/mol
⇒ Strength = (x × 158) = 3.16 g/ℓ
Q4 (50)
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therefore molarity of Na 3 PO4 Solution =
1 3.45
× mol
=
3 23
0.1 L

−2
= 0.5 = 50 × 10
Q5 (3)
1000 kg solvent has 3.3 moles of KCl
1000 kg solvent ⟶ 3.3 × 74.5gmKCl
⟶ 245.85
Weight of solution = 1245.85gm
1245.85
Volume of solution = 1.2
ml
3.3×1.2
So molarity = 1245.85
× 1000 = 3.17
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States of Matter JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
An empty LPG cylinder weighs 14.8 kg. When full, it weighs 29.0 kg and shows a pressure of 3.47 atm. In
the course of use at ambient temperature, the mass of the cylinder is reduced to 23.0 kg. The final pressure
inside of the cylinder is ____ atm. (Nearest integer)
(Assume LPG of be an ideal gas)
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Which one of the following is the correct PV vs P plot at constant temperature for an ideal gas ? (P and V
stand for pressure and volume of the gas respectively)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Q3 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Two flasks I and II shown below are connected by a valve of negligible volume.
When the valve is opened, the final pressure of the system in bar is x × 10 . The value of x is ____.
−2
(Integer answer)
[Assume-Ideal gas; 1 bar = 10 5

Pa ; Molar mass of
−1 −1 −1
N2 = 28.0 g mol ; R = 8.31 J mol K ]
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)

2
The unit of the van der Waals gas equation parameter ′

a
′
in (P + an
2
) (V − nb) = nRT is :
V
(1) kg m s −2
(2) dm 3
mol
−1
(3) kg m s −1
(4) atm dm 6
mol
−2
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (1) Q3 (84) Q4 (4)
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Q1 (2)
Initial mass of gas = 29 − 14.8 = 14.2 Kg
mass of gas used = 29 − 23 = 6 Kg
gas left = 14.2 − 6 = 8.2 Kg
(1) 3.47 × V = ( 14.2×10
M
) × R × T
(2) p × V = ( 8.2×10
M
) × R × T
Divide :
(1)
(2)
⇒
3.47
P
=
14.2
8.2

P = 2.003
Q2 (1)
PV = nRT(n, T constant )
PV = constant
Q3 (84)
Applying ; (n I + nII )
initial −
(nI + nII )
final

⇒ Assuming the system attains a final temperature of T (such that 300 < T < 60 )
Heat lost by Heat gained by

⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞
⇒ ⎜ N2 of container ⎟ = ⎜ N2 of container ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
I II
⇒ nI Cm (300 − T) = nII Cm (T − 60)
⇒ (
2.8
28
) (300 − T) =
0.2
28
( T − 60)
⇒ 14(300 − T) = T − 60
(14×300+60)
⇒
15
= T
⇒ T = 284 K (final temperature)
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⇒ If the final pressure = P
⇒ (nI + nII )
f inal
= (
3.0
28
)
3.0gm

P
⇒ (VI + VII ) =
RT 28gm/mol
P = (
3
28
mol) × 8.31
mol−K
J
×
284 K
−3 3
× 10
−5 bar
Pa

3×10 m
⇒ 0.84287 bar
⇒ 84.28 × 10
−2
bar
⇒ 84
Q4 (4)
2 6
an dm
2
= atm ⇒ a = atm × 2
V mol
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Structure of Atom JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
A 50 watt bulb emits monochromatic red light of wavelength of 795 nm. The number of photons emitted per
second by the bulb is x × 10 . The value of x is ____.
20
[ Given : h = 6.63 × 10 −34

Js and c = 3.0 × 10 ms
8 −1
]
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The value of magnetic quantum number of the outermost electron of Zn ion is ____. +
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Ge(Z = 32) in its ground state electronic configuration has x completely filled orbitals with m l
= 0 . The
value of x is ____.
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
The number of photons emitted by a monochromatic (single frequency) infrared range finder of power 1 mW
and wavelength of 1000 nm, in 0.1 second is x × 10 . The value of x is ____. (Nearest integer)
13
−34 8 −1
(h = 6.63 × 10 Js, c = 3.00 × 10 ms )
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)

2
The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is equal to h
2
. The value of
xma
0
10x is ____. (a is radius of Bohr's orbit)
(Nearest integer) [Given : π = 3.14 ]
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
A metal surface is exposed to 500 nm radiation. The threshold frequency of the metal for photoelectric current
is 4.3 × 10 14
Hz. The velocity of ejected electron is ____×10 5
ms
−1
(Nearest integer)
[ Use : h = 6.63 × 10
−34
Js, me = 9.0 × 10
−31
kg]
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Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Statement I : According to Bohr's model of an atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of electron
increases with decrease in positive charges on the nucleus as there is no strong hold on the electron by the
nucleus.
Statement II : According to Bohr's model of an atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of electron
increases with decrease in principal quantum number.

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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (0) Q3 (7) Q4 (50)
Q5 (3155) Q6 (5) Q7 (3)
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Q1 (2)
Total energy per sec. = 50 J
−34 8
50 =
n×6.63×10 ×3×10
−9

795×10
n = 1998.49 × 10
17
[n = no. of photons per second]
= 1.998 × 10
20

≃ 2 × 10
20

= x × 10
20

x = 2
Q2 (0)
Zn
+ 2 2
→ 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d
6 2 6 10
4s
1

Outermost electron is in 4 s subshell
m = 0
Q3 (7)
Completely filled orbital with m ℓ

= 0 are
= 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1

= 7
So Answer is 7
Q4 (50)
Energy emitted in 0.1sec.
= 0.1 sec. ×10
−3 J
= 10
−4
J
If ′
n
′
photons of λ = 1000 nm are emitted,
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then ; 10
−4 hc
= n ×
λ
−34 8
⇒ 10
−4
=
n×6.63×10 ×3×10
−9

1000×10
⇒ n = 5.02 × 10
14
= 50.2 × 10
13

⇒ 50 (nearest integer)
Q5 (3155)
mvr =
nh
2π

2 2 2
K.E. =
n h
8π mr
2 2
=
2
4h
8π m(4a0 )
= ( 2
4
)
h
8π ×16 ma
0
⇒ x = 315.507
⇒ 10x = 3155 (nearest integer)
Q6 (5)
v : speed of electron having max. K. E.
⇒ from Einstein equation : E = ϕ + K. E ⋅ max

⇒
hc
λ
= hv0 +
1
2
mv
2

−34 8
6.63×10 ×3×10 −34 14 1 2

⇒ −9
= 6.63 × 10 × 4.3 × 10 + mv
500×10 2
−20
6.63×30×10 −20 1 2
⇒ = 6.63 × 4.3 × 10 + mv
5 2
⇒ 11.271 × 10
−20
J =
1
2
× 9 × 10
−31
× v
2

5
⇒ v = 5 × 10 m/sec
Q7 (3)
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Velocity of electron in Bohr's atom is given by
V ∝
Z
Z = atomic number of atom, corresponds to +ve charge so as Z increase velocity increases so Statement−I
is wrong.
and as ′
n
′
decreases velocity increases so Statement−II is correct.
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Surface Chemistry JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
Match List −I with List −II.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
CH4 is adsorbed on 1 g charcoal at 0 ∘

C following the Freundlich adsorption isotherm. 10.0 mL of CH is4
adsorbed at 100 mm of Hg, whereas 15.0 mL is adsorbed at 200 mm of Hg. The volume of CH adsorbed at 4
300 mm of Hg is 10 x
mL . The value of x is ____ ×10 −2
.
(Nearest integer)
[ Use log10 2 = 0.3010, log10 3 = 0.4771]
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
Select the graph that correctly describes the adsorption isotherms at two temperatures T and T
1 2
(T1 > T2 ) for a gas :
(x− mass of the gas adsorbed ; m− mass of adsorbent ; P - pressure)
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because :
(1) there is a strong electrostatic repulsion between the negatively charged colloidal particles.
(2) the colloidal particles have positive charge.
(3) the colloidal particles have no charge.
(4) the colloidal particles are solvated.
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
Tyndall effect is more effectively shown by:
(1) true solution
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(2) lyophilic colloid

(3) lyophobic colloid
(4) suspension
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
The sol given below with negatively charged colloidal particles is :
(1) FeCl added to hot water

3
(2) KI added to AgNO solution 3
(3) AgNO added to KI solution

3
(4) Al 2 O3 ⋅ xH2 O in water
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
Which one of the following is correct for the adsorption of a gas at a given temperature on a solid surface?
(1) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0
(2) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0

(3) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0
(4) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
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Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (128) Q3 (4) Q4 (4)
Q5 (3) Q6 (3) Q7 (3)
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Q1 (2)
According to type of reactions for preparation, colloids have been classified.
Q2 (128)
We know
m
x
= KP
1/n
; using (x ∝ V)
...(1)
10 1/n
⇒ = K × (100)
1
15
1
= K × (200)
1/n
...(2)
1
= K × (300)
1/n
...(3)
Divide
(2) / (1)
15
10
= 2
1/n

log(
3
2
) =
1
n
log 2
log 3−log 2 0.4771−0.3010

1
= =
n log 2 0.3010
n
= 0.585
Divide
(3) / (1)
V 1/n
= 3
10
log(
V
10
) =
n
1
log 3
V
log( ) = 0.585 × 0.4771 = 0.2791
10
10
V
= 10
0.279
⇒ V = 10 × 10
0.279

⇒ V = 10
1.279
= 10
x

⇒ x = 1.279
⇒ x = 128 × 10
−2
(Nearest integer)
Q3 (4)
m
x
αP
l/n
(0 <
n
1
< 1)
On Increasing temperature decreases.
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∵ adsorption is generally exothermic
Q4 (4)
In the lyophilic colloids, the colloidal particles are extensively solvated.
Q5 (3)
Tyndall effect is observed in lyophobic colloids.
Q6 (3)
AgNO3 added to KI solution
Q7 (3)
(i) Adsorption of gas at metal surface is an exothermic process so ΔH < 0
(ii) As the adsorption of gas on metal surface reduces the free movement of gas molecules thus restricting its
randomness hences ΔS < 0
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Thermodynamics (C) JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)
For the reaction 2NO 2 ( g) ⇌ N2 O4 ( g) , when
ΔS = −176.0JK
−1
and ΔH = −57.8 kJ mol ,
−1
the magnitude of ΔG at 298 K for the reaction is ____ kJmol −1

. (Nearest integer)
Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)
The incorrect expression among the following is:

ΔGSystem
(1) ΔSTotal
= −T( at constant P)
∘ ∘
ΔH −TΔS
(2) ln K = RT
(3) K = e −ΔG /RT
Vf
(4) For isothermal process w revesible

= −nRT ln
Vi
Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)
According to the following figure, the magnitude of the enthalpy change of the reaction
A + B → M + N in kJ mol
−1

is equal to ____. (Integer answer)
Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)
Data given for the following reaction is as follows:
FeO(s) + C(graphite) ⟶ Fe(s) + CO(g)
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The minimum temperature in K at which the reaction becomes spontaneous is ____. (Integer answer)
Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)
200 mL of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 300 mL of 0.1 M NaOH. The molar heat of neutralization of this
reaction is −57.1 kJ. The increase in temperature in ∘
C of the system on mixing is x × 10 . The value of x
−2
[Given : Specific heat of water = 4.18 J g −1

K
−1

Density of water = 1.00 g cm

−3
]
(Assume no volume change on mixing)
Q6 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)
For water Δ vap H = 41 kJ mol

−1
at 373 K and 1 bar pressure. Assuming that water vapour is an ideal gas that
occupies a much larger volume than liquid water, the internal energy change during evaporation of water is
____ kJmol
−1
[ Use : R = 8.3 J mol
−1
K
−1
]
Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)
The Born-Haber cycle for KCl is evaluated with the following data :
Δf H
⊖
for KCl = −436.7 kJ mol
−1
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Δsub H
⊖
for K = 89.2 kJ mol
−1
= −348.6 kJ mol
−1
; Δlond H
∘
for Cl 2
= 243.0 kJ mol
−1

The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJmol −1

is ____.(Nearest integer)
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Answer Key
Q1 (5) Q2 (2) Q3 (45) Q4 (964)
Q5 (82) Q6 (38) Q7 (718)
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Q1 (5)
ΔG = ΔH − TΔS
298(−176)
ΔG = 57.8 −
1000

ΔG = −5.352 kJ/mole
∣ Nearest integer value ∣= 5
Q2 (2)
Option (2) is incorrect
∘
ΔG = −RTℓnK
∘ ∘
ΔH − TΔS = −RT ℓnK
∘ ∘
ΔH −ΔS
ℓnK = − [ ]
RT
Q3 (45)
ΔH = Eat − Eab
= 20 − 65
= −45KJ/mol
|ΔH| = 45KJ/mol
Q4 (964)
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Δ H
Tmin = ( 0
)
Δ S
0
Δ Hrxn = [Δ H(Fe) + Δ H(CO)] −
0
f
0
0
= [Δ H(FeO) + Δ H (C(graphite ) )]
f
0
= [0 − 110.5] − [−266.3 + 0]
= 155.8 kJ/mol
0 0
Δ Srxn = [Δ S(Fe) + Δ S(CO)] −
0

0
[Δ S(FeO) + Δ S (C(graphite ) )]
0

= [27.28 + 197.6] − [57.49 + 5.74]
= 161.65 J/mol − K
3
155.8×10 J/mol
Tmin =
161.65 J/mol−K
= 963.8 K
≃ 964 k (nearest integer)
Q5 (82)
⇒ Millimoles of HCl = 200 × 0.2 = 40
⇒ Millimoles of NaOH = 300 × 0.1 = 30
⇒ Heat released = ( 1000

30
× 57.1 × 1000) = 1713 J
⇒ Mass of solution = 500ml × 1gm/ml = 500gm
q 1713 J
⇒ ΔT =
m×C
= J
= 0.8196 K
500 g×4.18
g−K
−2
= 81.96 × 10 K
Q6 (38)
Given equation is
kJ
H2 O(ℓ) ⟶ H2 O(g) : ΔH = 41
mol
⇒ From the relation : ΔH = ΔU + Δn g RT
⇒ 41
mol
kJ
= ΔU + (1) ×
8.3
1000
× 373
⇒ DU = 41 − 3.0959
= 38 kJ/mol
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Q7 (718)
⊖ ⊖ Θ 1 Θ
Δf H = Δsub H + Δionization H + Δbond H
KCl (K) (K) 2 (Cl2 )
+Δclectron gain
H
⊖
(Cl)
+ Δlattice H
⊖
(KCl)

⇒ −436.7 = 89.2 + 419.0 +

1
2
(243.0) + {−348.6}
+Δlattice H
⊖
(KCl)

⇒ Δlattice H
⊖
(KCl)
= −717.8 kJ mol
−1

The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJmol −1

is 718 (Nearest integer).
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Alcohols Phenols and Ethers JEE Main 2021 (August) Chapter-wise Questions

Q1 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)

Assertion (A) : Treatment of bromine water with propene yields 1−bromopropan−2−ol.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Q2 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)

The major product formed in the following reaction is :

Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)

The major products A and B in the following set of reactions are :

Q4 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)

The major product of the following reaction, if it occurs by S N2 mechanism is :

Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ethyl pent-4-yn-oate on reaction with CH 3 MgBr gives a 3 -alcohol.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Q7 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)

Q1 (3) Q2 (2) Q3 (3) Q4 (4)

Q5 (3) Q6 (2) Q7 (2)

Its IUPAC name 1-bromopropan-2-ol

A and R are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .

But it consume 3 moles of G R

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)

Given below are two statements :

proton transfer to form a stable ion.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)

Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)

For the reaction given below :

The compound which is not formed as a product in the reaction is a :

(1) compound with both alcohol and acid functional groups

Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)

The structures of A and B formed in the following reaction are :

Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)

The major product of the following reaction is :

Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)

Q7 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)

In the following sequence of reactions, the final product D

Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)

Consider the given reaction, Identify ' X and ' Y :

Q9 2021 (26 Aug Shift 1)

Q1 (2) Q2 (2) Q3 (3) Q4 (1)

Q5 (3) Q6 (1) Q7 (4) Q8 (3)

Solution NaH is not reducing agent.

NaOCl is used in haloform reaction as reagent.

Q1 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)

(1) CH 3 − CH2 − CH2 − NH2

Q2 2021 (01 Sep Shift 2)

Identify A in the following reaction.

Q3 2021 (31 Aug Shift 2)

Q4 2021 (31 Aug Shift 1)

VI. H - Raney Nickel

Q5 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)

The correct structures of A and B formed in the following reactions are :

Q6 2021 (27 Aug Shift 2)

Q7 2021 (27 Aug Shift 1)

Q8 2021 (26 Aug Shift 2)