1-November-2020 Neet Test-3 Paper

ONLINE NEET T-3 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / 01-Nov-2020
Test Booklet Code Test ID : 000

Test CODE : ONLINE NEET T-3
A
(NEET ONLINE TEST SERIES-UG)
TEST DATE : 01-11-2020
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NLI / 1
TOPIC : Thermometry and Thermal expansion of solids & liquids.
1. Expansion during heating : 1.
(A) Occurs only in solids (A)
(B) Increases the weight of a material (B)
(C) Decreases the density of a material (C)
(D) Occurs at the same rate for all liquids and solids (D)
2. The cofficient of volume expansion of a liquid is 2.  

, it is filled in a container of a material having the
coefficient of linear expansion  . If the liquid
overflows on heating:
(A)  = 3
(A)  = 3
(B)  > 3
(B)  > 3
(C)  < 3 (C)  < 3
(D)  > 32 (D)  > 32
3. The radius of a ring is R and it cofficient of linear 3. R 

expansion is . if the temperature of increased by 
, then its circum ference will increased by :
(A) R 
(A) R 
(B) 2R 
(B) 2R
(C) R/2
(C) R/2
(D) R/4 (D) R/4
4. A steel rod 25 cm long has a cross- sectional area 4.

2
of 0.8 cm . What would be the force requried to 0.8 cm2 10oC
stretch this rod by the same amount as the
expansion produced by heating if through 10oC ?
(  =10–5/oC, y = 20 × 1011 / cm2) :
–5 o 11 2
(  =10 / C, y = 20 × 10 dyne/ cm ) :
(A) 8 × 107
(A) 8 × 107 dyne
(B) 16 × 107 dyne (B) 16 × 107
(C) 32 × 107 dyne (C) 32 × 107
(D) None of these (D)
NLI / 2
5. Density of a substance at 0oC is 10 gm/cc and at 5. 0oC 10 gm/cc 100 oC
100 oC, its density is 9.7 g/cc. The cofficient of linear 9.7 g/cc
expansion of the substance will be (in per oC) : ( o
C) :
(A) 10–3 (A) 10–3
(B) 10–2 (B) 10–2
(C) 10–4 (C) 10–4
(D) 10–8 (D) 10–8
6. The coefficient of linear expansione of brass and 6. 1 2

steel are 1 and 2 respectively. When we take a l1 l2
brass rod of length l1 and a steel rod of length l2 at 0Co
OoC, then the difference in their length (  2 –  1)

will remain the same at all temperature if :
(A)  1  1   2  2
(A) 1  1   2  2
(B)  1  2  2  1
(B) 1  2  2  1
(C) 12 1  22  2
(C) 12 1  22  2
(D) 1 22  2  12 (D) 1 22  2  12
7. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4oC. It 7. 4oC

will overflow if :
(A) 4oC
(A) Only Heated above 4oC
(B) Only Cooled below 4oC (B) 4oC
(C) Both heated and cooled above and below 4oC

(C) 4oC 4 oC
respectively
(D) None of the above. (D)
8. A solid ball of metal has a spherical cavity inside 8.

it. If the ball is heated the volume of the cavity
will :
(A)
(A) Increases
(B)
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain unchanged (C)
(D) Cannot be predicted (D)
9. When a bimetallic strip is heated, it : 9.
(A) Does not bend at all (A)
(B) Gets twisted in the form of an helix (B)
(C) Bends in the form of an arc with the more (C)

expandable metal outside
(D) Bends in the form of an arc with the more (D)

expandable metal inside
NLI / 3
10. Choose the correct option about thermal strain : 10.
(A)   t (A)   t
L L
(B) (B)
L L
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) (A) (B)
(D) None of these. (D)
11. The coefficient of linear expansion of a crystal in 11. 1

one direction is 1 and that in every direction 2
perpendicular to it is 2 . The coefficient of cubical
expansion is :
(A) 1 +2
(A) 1 +2
(B) 1 +2
(B) 1 +2
(C) 1 +2 (C) 1 +2
(D) None of the above. (D) .
12. In a vertical U-tube containing a liquid the two 12. U-

arms are maintained at different temperature
t1 t2 L 1 L2
t1 and t2. the length of the liquids columns in the
two arms are L 1and L2. The real coefficient of
cubical expansion of the liquid is equal to :
L1  L 2
L1  L 2 (A) L t  L t
2 2 1 1
(A) L t  L t
2 2 1 1
L1  L 2
L1  L2 (B) L t  L t
(B) L t  L t 1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2
L1  L 2
L1  L2 (C) L t  L t
(C) L t  L t 2 1 1 2
2 1 1 2
L 2  L1
L 2  L1 (D) L t  L t
(D) L t  L t 1 2 2 1
1 2 2 1
13. The linear coefficients expansion for an anisotropic 13.

crystal in three mutually perpendicular directions
are   and  . Then the cubical coefficient of  
expansion for the crystal is :
(A) . (A)      .
1   2   3 1   2   3
(B) (B)
3 3
(C)
1
3
b
 1 2  3 g (C)
1
b
 1 2  3 g
3
b   g
1
b   g
1
(D) 3 3 (D)
1 2 1 2 3 3
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14. What is the formula for force when a rod fixed 14.
betw een two rigid support at both end. A T Y–
temperature is changed by T, Y–young modulus, , = :
=coefficient of linear expension :
(A) F=YA T
(A) F=YA T
(B) F = YT
(B) F = YT
(C) F=YA(/2)T
(C) F=YA(/2)T
(D) In sufficient data. (D)
15. Three rods equal length (l) connected in such away 15. (l)
that they from an equilateral triangle PQR, Q be PQR PQ Q
the mid point of PQ and OR remains constant for OR PR
small in increment of temperature. Linear exp n
RQ (2) PQ
coefficienents of PR and RQ are same (2) and
1
linear expn coefficients of PQ is 1 than :
(A) 2 = 41
(A) 2 = 41
(B) 1 = 32 (B) 1 = 32
(C) 2 = 31 (C) 2 = 31
(D) 1 = 42. (D) 1 = 42.
16. The moment of interia of a rod about its 16.

perpendicular bisector is I. When the temperature
I T
of the rod is increased by T, the increase in the
moment of inertia of the rod about same axis is
(Here,  is the coefficient of linear expansion of (A) T
the rod) :
(A) T (B) 2T
(B) 2T
T
(C)
T 
(C)

2T
2T (D)
(D) 

17. If coefficient of cubical expansion of water is 17. () = 3 × 10–5 /oC
() = 3 × 10–5 /oC, find its coefficient of linear
expansion :
(A) 1 × 10–5 / oC
(A) 1 × 10–5 / oC
(B) 2 × 10–3 / oC
(B) 2 × 10–3 / oC
(C) 3 × 10–7 / oC (C) 3 × 10–7 / oC
(D) Not applicable (D)
NLI / 5
18. A brass wire 1.8 m long at 27oC is held tant with 18. 27oC
negligible tension between two rigid supports.
2 mm
Diameter of the wire is 2 mm, its coefficient of
–5 o –1
linear expansion, Brass = 2 × 10 –5 oC –1 and its  = 2 × 10 C
Young's modulus, YBras = 9 × 1010 N m–2. If the wire = 9 × 10 10
N m –2
is cooled to a temperature –39 o C, tension –39 C o

developed in the wire is :
(A) 2.7 × 10 2 N
(A) 2.7 × 10 2 N
2
(B) 3.7 × 10 N
(B) 3.7 × 10 2 N
2
(C) 4.7 × 10 N (C) 4.7 × 10 2 N
(D) 5.7 × 10 2 N (D) 5.7 × 10 2 N
19. The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.24% 19. 0.24%
when its temperature is raised by 40 o C. The o
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is : 40 C
(A) 2 × 10–5 C–1 (A) 2 × 10–5 C–1
(B) 6 × 10–5 C–1 (B) 6 × 10–5 C–1
(C) 18 × 10–5 C–1 (C) 18 × 10–5 C–1
(D) 1.2 × 10–5 C–1 (D) 1.2 × 10–5 C–1
20. If ,  and  are coefficients of linear, superficial 20. ,  

and volume expansion respectively, then :
 1
(A)   1
 2 (A) 
 2
 2  2
(B)  
 3 (B)
 3
 3  3
(C)  (C) 
 2  2
   
(D)  (D) 
   
21. If the volume of a block of metal changes by 0.12%, 21. 0.12%

w hen it is heated through 20 o C, then the
20oC
coefficient of areal expansion is :
(A) 4 × 10–5 oC–1 (A) 4 × 10–5 oC–1
(B) 2 × 10–5 oC–1
(B) 2 × 10–5 oC–1
(C) 1/2 × 10–5 oC–1
(C) 1/2 × 10–5 oC–1
(D) 4 × 10–4 oC–1
(D) 4 × 10–4 oC–1
22. A rectangular block is heated from 0oC to 100oC. 22. 0oC 100oC
The percentage increase in its length is 0.1%. The 0.1%
percentage increase in its volume is :
(A) 0.6% (A) 0.6%
(B) 0.10% (B) 0.10%
(C) 0.2% (C) 0.2%
(D) 0.3% (D) 0.3%
NLI / 6
23. The coefficient of volume expansion of liquid is . 23. 
The fractional change in its density for T rise in
T
temperature is :
(A) T (A) T
T T
(B) (B)
 
(C) 1 + T (C) 1 + T
(D) 1 – T (D) 1 – T

24. Which of the following graphs correctly shows 24.
variation of coefficient of volume expansion of
copper as a function of temperature :
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
25. Asymmetry in P.E. curve is responsible for : 25.
(A) measuring the temperature (A)
(B) to find diameter (B)
(C) thermal radiaiton (C)
(D) thermal expansion (D)
NLI / 7
26. Find the stress developed inside a tooth cavity 26.
filled with copper when hot tea at temperature of
57oC ( 37oC,
57oC is drunk. (Take temperature of tooth to be
37oC,  = 1.7 × 10–5 oC–1 and bulk modulus for  = 1.7 × 10–5 oC–1
copper = 140 × 109 N m–2) : = 140 × 109 N m–2) :
(A) 1.43 × 108 N m 2 (A) 1.43 × 108 N m2
(B) 4.13 × 108 N m 2 (B) 4.13 × 108 N m2
(C) 2.12 × 104 N m 2 (C) 2.12 × 104 N m2
(D) 3.12 × 104 N m 2 (D) 3.12 × 104 N m2
27. Water has maximum density at : 27.
(A) 0o C (A) 0o C
(B) 32o F (B) 32o F
(C) –4o C (C) –4o C
(D) 4o C (D) 4o C
28. There is a hole in the middle of a copper plate. 28.

When heating the plate, diameter of hole would:
(A) always increase (A)
(B) always decrease (B)
(C) remains the same (C)
(D) none of these. (D)
29. A brass disc has a hole in it. The diameter of the 29. 27oC
hole at 27oC is 2.50 cm. Calculate the change in 2.50 cm
the diameter of the hole of the disc when heated
to 327oC. Given, coefficient of linear expansion of 327oC
brass = 1.9 × 10–5 oC–1 : = 1.9 × 10–5 oC–1 :
(A) 0.014 cm (A) 0.014 cm
(B) 0.14 cm (B) 0.14 cm
(C) 0.0014 cm (C) 0.0014 cm
(D) 0.1 m (D) 0.1 m
30. A metal bar measure 50 cm at 0oC and 50.048 cm 30. 0oC 50 cm 80oC 50.048 cm
at 80oC. Find the coefficient of linear expansion
of the metal :
(A) 2.2 × 10–5 oC–1 (A) 2.2 × 10–5 oC–1
(B) 1.2 × 10–5 oC–1 (B) 1.2 × 10–5 oC–1
(C) 4.2 × 10–5 oC–1 (C) 4.2 × 10–5 oC–1
(D) 2.2 × 10–5 oC–1 (D) 2.2 × 10–5 oC–1
NLI / 8
31. The lower and upper fixed points of a faulty 31. 5oC 105oC
thermometers are 5 o C and 105 o C. If the 25oC
thermometer reads 25 oC what is the actual
temperature:
(A) 15oC
(A) 15oC
(B) 20oC
(B) 20oC
(C) 30oC
(C) 30oC
(D) 25oC (D) 25oC
32. A Centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are 32.

dipped in boiling water. The water temperature
is lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer
140ºF
registers 140ºF. The fall in temperature as
registered by the Centigrade thermometer will be:
(A) 60ºC (A) 60ºC
(B) 40ºC (B) 40ºC
(C) 30ºC (C) 30ºC
(D) 80ºC (D) 80ºC
33. At which temperature, the centrigrade and 33.

Fahrenheit scales are equal :
(A) 40º (A) 40º
(B) –40º (B) –40º
(C) 37º (C) 37º
(D) –80º (D) –80º
34. Antimony and Bismuth are usually used in 34.

thermocouple, because:
(A) a constant thermo emf is produced (A)
(B) higher thermo emf is produced (B)
(C) a negative thermo emf is produced (C)
(D) lower thermo emf is produced (D)
35. The temperature at which thermal power of a 35.

thermo couple becomes zero is called:
(A) junction temperature (A)
(B) neutral temperature (B)
(C) inversion temperature

(C)
(D) null temperature
(D)
NLI / 9
36. The thermo emf of a Cu-Fe thermocouple varies 36. Cu-Fe
with temperature  of the hot junction (cold
( 0oC)
junction at 0oC) as E=10–0.02 2. The neutral
temperature is given by: E = 10– 0.022
(A) 350oC (A) 350oC
(B) 400oC (B) 400oC

(C) 450oC (C) 450oC
(D) 250oC (D) 250oC

37. In a thermocouple, the initial hot and cold junction 37.
are interchanged, i.e. hot junction becomes cold
junction and vice versa . What will happen:
(A) no current is generated (A)
(B) no change in emf (B)
(C) the emf decreases (C)
(D) emf increases. (D)
38. A wire has a resistance of 3.1  at 30oC and a 38. 30oC 3.1  100oC
resistance 4.5   at 100oC . The temperature
4.5 
coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
(A) 0.0064 oC–1 (A) 0.0064 oC–1
(B) 0.0034oC–1 (B) 0.0034oC–1
(C) 0.0025oC–1 (C) 0.0025oC–1
(D) 0.008 oC–1 (D) 0.008 oC–1

39. Mercury thermometer can be used to measure 39.
temperature up to use upto :
(A) 360ºC
(A) 360ºC
(B) 100ºC (B) 100ºC
(C) 260ºC (C) 260ºC
(D) 500ºC (D) 500ºC
40. Resistance of a copper coil is 4.46  at 40ºC and 40. 40oC 4.46 
5.6  at 100ºC. Then its resistance at 0ºC is
100ºC 5.6  0ºC ( ):
(in ):
(A) 0.96 
(A) 0.96 
(B) 5.12  (B) 5.12 
(C) 4.2  (C) 4.2 
(D) 3.7  (D) 3.7 
41. The temperature of the Sun is measured with a : 41.

(A) pyrometer (A)
(B) platinum resistance thermometer (B)
(C) gas thermometer (C)
(D) vapour pressure thermometer (D)
NLI / 10
42. The temperature range that can be measured by 42.
Thermocouple thermometer is (thermocouple)
(A) –200oC to 1600oC
(A) –200oC to 1600oC
(B) 260oC to 800oC
(B) 260oC to 800oC
(C) –260oC to 500oC
(C) –260oC to 500oC
(D) –300oC to 800oC (D) –300oC to 800oC
43. A thermometers bulb should have : 43.
(A) large heat capacity (A)
(B) small heat capacity (B)
(C) heat capacity has no role (C)
(D) none (D)
44. Inversion temperature for a thermocouple is the 44.

temperature above which thermo emf:
(A)
(A) increases
(B)
(B) remains unchanged
(C)
(C) change erratically
(D) reverse in sign (D)
45. In a thermocouple, one junction which is at 0oC 45. 0oC toC

and the other at t oC the e.m.f. is given by E = at2 – bt3
E = at 2 – bt 3. The neutral temperature and
inversion temperature are :
(A) (2a/3b, a/b)
(A) (2a/3b, a/b)
(B) (a/b , 2a/b) (B) (a/b , 2a/b)
(C) (3b/2a , a/b) (C) (3b/2a , a/b)
(D) none (D)
NLI / 11
ONLINE NEET T-3 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / 01-Nov.-2020
TOPIC : Classifisation of elements and Periodicity in Properties
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
1. Greatest amount of energy involves in the 1.
transformation of :
(A) Ca+  Ca+2 + e–
(A) Ca+  Ca+2 + e–
(B) K+  K+2 + e–
(B) K+  K+2 + e–
(C) Na+  Na+2 + e–
(C) Na+  Na+2 + e–
2. Modern periodic table states that the physical and 2.

chemical properties of the elements are periodic
functions of thier atomic number. This is given by:
(A) Mendeleev (A)
(B) Moseley (B)
(C) Hund’s (C)
(D) Bohr (D)
3. Incorrect statement is/are : 3.
a. Maximum element containing group is third a.
b. Te is 1st man made radioactive element b. Te
c. Law of octave is valid only upto atomic no. 20. c.
d. Li-Mg pair shows diagonal relationship. d. Li-Mg
(A) a, b, c and d (A) a, b, c d
(B) b, c and d (B) b, c d
(C) a, b and c (C) a, b c
(D) Only b (D) b
4. Reactivity of s-block elements increase as we go

down to group due to mainly in :
(A) increase in electron affinity (A)
(B) decrease in ionization enthalpy (B)
(C) increase in ionization enthalpy (C)
(D) decrease in electron affinty (D)

5. Arrange the following elements in the increasing 5.
orders of their metallic character : Li, Na, K, Be Li, Na, K, Be
(A) Li < Be < Na < K (A) Li < Be < Na < K
(B) Be < Li < Na < K (B) Be < Li < Na < K
(C) K < Na < Li < Be (C) K < Na < Li < Be
(D) Na < Be < Li < K (D) Na < Be < Li < K
NLI / 12
6. Second ionization enthalpy will be higher than 6.
the first ionization enthalpy it is due to :
(A) It is more difficult to add an e– to a +vely charged (A)
ion
(B) It is more difficult to remove an e– from a positively (B)
charged ion
(C) Due to increase in effective nuclear force in mono
(C)
valent cation.
(D) (B) (C)
(D) Both (B) and (C)
7. In general in a given period the maximum and 7.
minimum ionisation enthalpy respectively will be
off :
(A)
(A) Noble gases, alkali metals
(B) ,
(B) Alkali metals, Noble gases
(C)
(C) Alkaline earth metal, Halogens
(D) Noble gases, alkaline earth metals (D) ,
8. Correct order of screening effect for electrons 8.

present in different sub shell will be :
(A) s > p > d > f (A) s > p > d > f
(B) p > s > d > f (B) p > s > d > f
(C) s > d > p > f (C) s > d > p > f
(D) f > p > s > d (D) f > p > s > d
9. Which of the following is correct about ionization 9.
enthalpy :
(A) B > Be
(A) B > Be
(B) B = Be
(B) B = Be
(C) B < Be (C) B < Be
(D) B > Be (D) B > Be
10. On going from right to left in a period generally 10.

ionisation energy ............ ? ?
(A) Decreases (A)
(B) Increases (B)
(C) Remanins same (C)
11. Which of the following obeys triad law : 11.
(A) Li, Na, K

(A) Li, Na, K
(B) H, Li, K
(B) H, Li, K
(C) Be, Mg, Ca (C) Be, Mg, Ca
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(D) (A) (C)
NLI / 13
12. Which group of the periodic table contains all the 12.
three (gas, liquid and solid) type of element :
(A) 1st (A) 1st
(B) 17th (B) 17th
(C) 15th (C) 15th
(D) Both A and B B
13. Which of the following species will have the 13.
largest and the smallest size :
Mg, Mg+2, Al , Al+3 Mg, Mg+2, Al , Al+3
(A) largest size is Al and smallest one is Al+3 (A) Al Al+3
(B) Largest size is Al and smallest one is Mg+2 (B) Al Mg+2
(C) Largest size is Mg and smallest one is Al+3 (C) Mg Al+3
(D) Largest size is Mg and smallest one is Mg+2 (D) Mg Mg+2
14. The formation of the oxide ion O2–(g) require first 14. O2–(g)
an exothermic and then an endothermic step as
shown below :
O(g) + e–  O(g)–; H0 = –142 kJ mol–1 O(g) + e–  O(g)–; H0 = –142 kJ mol–1
O–(g) + e–  O2– (g); H0 = 844 kJ mol–1
O–(g) + e–  O2– (g); H0 = 844 kJ mol–1
This is because :
(A)
(A) oxygen is more electronegative
(B) O– ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen (B) O–
atom
(C) O–
–
(C) O ion will tend to resist the addition of another
electron (D)
(D) Oxygen has high electron affinity.
15.
15. The screening effect of inner electrons on the
nucleus causes :
(A)
(A) A decrease in the ionization potential
(B) An increase in the ionization potential (B)
(C) No effect on the ionization potential (C)

16. Four elements are given, choose the correct order 16.
of their first ionisation potential :
a. 1s2, 2s22p63s1 b. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p6
a. 1s2, 2s22p63s1 b. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p6
c. 1s2, 2s2 2p63s23p2 d. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p1
c. 1s2, 2s2 2p63s23p2 d. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p1
(A) a > b > c > d (A) a > b > c > d
(B) d > c > b > a (B) d > c > b > a
(C) b > c > d > a (C) b > c > d > a

(D) b > d > c > a (D) b > d > c > a
NLI / 14
A The lowest
17. N ionization
S W would beEassociated
energy R 17.
with the electronic structure :
(A) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1 (A) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
(B) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5 (B) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
(C) 1s2, 2s2 2p6 (C) 1s2, 2s2 2p6
(D) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 (D) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
18. Maximum positive electron gain enthalpy will be 18.
of ............:
(A) 2nd group (A) 2nd

(B) 15th group (B) 15th
(C) 18th group (C) 18th
(D) Cannot say (D)
19. The correct order of electron affinity of the 19.
elements of oxygen family in the periodic table is:
(A) O > S > Se (A) O > S > Se

(B) S > O > Se (B) S > O > Se
(C) S > Se > O (C) S > Se > O
(D) Se > O > S (D) Se > O > S
20. Consider the isoelectronic series : Na+, O2–, F– and 20. Na+, O2–, F– Be2+
Be2+, the radii of the ions decrease as :
(A) Be2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (A) Be2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
(B) F– > O2– > Na+ > Be2+ (B) F– > O2– > Na+ > Be2+
(C) O2– > F– > Na+ > Be2+ (C) O2– > F– > Na+ > Be2+
(D) Na+ > Be2+ > O2– > F– (D) Na+ > Be2+ > O2– > F–
21. Atomic radii are : 21.
(A) directly proportional to square of effective nuclear
(A)
charge
(B) inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge (B)
(C) inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear (C)

charge
(D)
(D) directly proportional to effective nuclear charge.
22. Which of the following radius would be maximum: 22.
(A) I (A) I
(B) Br (B) Br
(C) Be (C) Be
(D) Li (D) Li
NLI / 15
23. Element, the electronic configuration of which is 23. 1s2, 2s2 ,2p6 ,3s2, 3p 6 , 3d10, 4s2, 4P6 4d10, 5s2
1s2, 2s2 ,2p6 ,3s2, 3p6 , 3d10, 4s2, 4P6 4d10, 5s2 belongs
to the following group of the Periodic Table.
(A) 2nd
(A) 2nd
(B) 5th
(B) 5th
(C) 3rd (C) 3rd
(D) 7th (D) 7th
24. The element with the electronic configuration as 24. [Ar]3d104s24p2

[Ar]3d104s24p2 represents a
(A) metal (A)
(B) non-metal (B)
(C) metalloid (C)
(D) transition element (D)
25. The discovery of which of the following group of 25.
elements gave death to the Newland's law of
octaves?
(A)
(A) Inert gases
(B)
(B) Alkaline earth metal
(C) Rare earth metal (C)
(D) Actinides (D)
26. In which of the following arrangement the order 26.

is not correct according to property indicated
against it?
(A) : Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < O–2
(A) Increasing size : Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < O–2
(B) IE1 : B < Be < O < N
(B) Increasing IE1 : B < Be < O < N
(C) Increasing EA1 : I < F < Br < Cl (C) EA1 : I < F < Br < Cl
(D) All of these (D)
27. Amongst the elements with following electronic 27.

configurations, which one of them may have the
highest ionization energy:
(A) Ne [3s23p3]
(A) Ne [3s23p3]
(B) Ne [3s23p2]
(B) Ne [3s23p2]
(C) Ar [3d104s24p3] (C) Ar [3d104s24p3]
(D) Ne [3s23p1] (D) Ne [3s23p1]
28. Maximum and minimum positive electron gain 28.

enthalpy respectively among noble gases :
(A) He, Ne
(A) He, Ne
(B) Ne, He
(B) Ne, He
(C) He, Xe
(C) He, Xe
(D) Xe, He
(D) Xe, He
NLI / 16
29. Electron affinity of Cl is more than F due to : 29. Cl F
(A) Greater inner electronic repulsion in chlorine (A)
(B) Lesser inner electron repulsion in chlorine (B)
(C) Lesser inner electronic repulsion in F (C)
30. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is 30.
correctly represented :
(A) H– > H+ > H
(A) H– > H > H+
(B) Na+ > F– > O2–
(B) Na+ > F– > O2–
(C) F– > O2– > Na+
(C) F– > O 2– > Na+
(D) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3– (D) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3–
31. A plot of v (frequency) against atomic number 31. v (z)

(z) gave a :
(A)
(A) Straight line
(B)
(B) Curve
(C)
(C) Parabola
(D) hyperbola (D)
32. By what name the elements after Uranium are 32.

called :
(A)
(A) Transition elements
(B)
(B) Lanthanoids
(C)
(C) Actanoids
(D)
(D) Transuranium elements
33. Mostly known elements are : 33.
(A) Metal (A)
(B) Non metal (B)

(C) Semi metal (C)
(D) Can not say (D)
34. The removal of an electron from an atom results 34.
in the formation of a :
(A)
(A) Anion
(B)
(B) Catalyst
(C) Cation (C)
(D) Corrosion (D)
35. The period containing max. number of element 35.

is:
(A) 1st
(A) 1st
(B) 18th
(B) 18th
(C) 3rd
(C) 3rd
(D) 6th (D) 6th
NLI / 17
36. Properties of Li is similar to : 36.
(A) Na (A) Na
(B) Mg (B) Mg
(C) Be (C) Be
(D) Both A and B (D) A B
37. Which of the following element is amphoteric in
37.
nature :
(A) Al
(A) Al
(B) Zn
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(C) Cu
(D) A B
(D) Both A and B
38.
38. Eka-aluminium was later called :
(A)
(A) Boron
(B) Scandium (B)
(C) Gallium (C)
(D) Germanium (D)
39. In mendeleef’s periodic table which group is not 39. A B

divided into sub group A and B :
(A) First (A)
(B) Seventh (B)
(C) Eights (C)
40. Digonal relation ship is due to : 40.
(A) Similar ionic potential (A)
(B) Similar atomic mass (B)

(C) Similar atomic number (C)
41. Correct order of ionisation energy for the given 41.
elements :
Mg, Al, O, N
Mg, Al, O, N
(A) Mg < Al < O < N
(A) Mg < Al < O < N
(B) Al < Mg < O < N
(B) Al < Mg < O < N
(C) O < Mg < Al < N
(C) O < Mg < Al < N
(D) N < O < Mg < Al
(D) N < O < Mg < Al
NLI / 18
42. As positive charge on cation decreases radii ........? 42.
(A) Increases (A)
(B) Decreases (B)
(C) Remains constant (C)
43. If number of shell around the nucleus is same then 43.

species ............... : ............... :
(A) may be isoelectronic (A)
(B) must be isoelectronic (B)
(C) may or may not be isoelectronic (C)
44. In group 16 the least negative electron gain 44. 16

enthalpy will be off :
(A) Oxygen (A)
(B) Sulphur (B)
(C) Selenium (C)

(D) Telurium (D)
45. Electronegativity of element depends on : 45.
(A) radii (A)

(B) z-effective (B)
(C) charge on species (C)
NLI / 19
BIOLOGY : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Reproductive Health
1. To a biologist which structure in angiosperms are 1.

morphological and embryological marvels and the
sites of sexual reprodction,
(A)
(A) Flowers
(B)
(B) Fruit
(C)
(C) Seed
(D)
(D) All of these
2. A typical angiosperm anther is : 2.
(A)
(A) Hexalobed
(B)
(B) Bilobed
(C) Pentalobed (C)
(D) Tetralobed (D)

3. Which of the following wall layers of 3.
microsporangium provide nutrition to the
developing pollen grains :
(A)
(A) Endothecium
(B)
(B) Middle layers
(C)
(C) Epidermis
(D) Tapetum (D)
4. Which kind of process takes place in tapetum cell 4.
by which they are being binucleated
(A) Karyokinesis but not cytokinesis (A)
(B) Karyokinesis as well as cytokinesis (B)
(C) Cytokinesis but not karyokinesis (C)
5. Which of the following is odd 5.
(A) Pollen mother cell (A)
(B) Pollen grain (B)
(C) Vegetative cell (C)
(D) Generative cell (D)
6. In the given below example : 6.
How many cells are haploid, Diploid, Polyploid,
respectively.
MMC,
Megaspore, microspore, MMC, zygote, tapetum,
endrosperm, pollen grain, generative cell,
vegetative cell, nucellus, functional megaspore, PMC.
synergid, PMC. (A) 7, 4, 2
(A) 7, 4, 2
(B) 7, 2, 4
(B) 7, 2, 4
(C) 6, 4, 3
(C) 6, 4, 3
(D) 2, 4, 7 (D) 2, 4, 7
NLI / 20
7. For formation of male gametophyte and female 7.
gametophyte which kind of process is similar in
angiosperm
(A)
(A) Number of meiotic division
(B)
(B) Number of mitotic division
(C) Number of meiotic division and mitotic division (C)
8. The generative cell and vegetative cell are occurs 8.

in which structure :
(A) Ovule (A)
(B) Pollen grain (B)
(C) Male gametophyte (C)
(D) Both B and C (D) B C
9. What is the function of germpore in pollen grain 9.
(A) Release of male gametes (A)
(B) Initiation of pollen tube (B)
(C) Formation of male gametes (C)
10. In angiosperm for the formation of two male 10.
gametes which type of cell division takes place
sequentially in microspore mother cell
(A) One meiosis and two mitosis respectively (A)
(B) Two mitosis and one meiosis respectively (B)
(C) One meiosis and one mitosis respectively (C)
(D) One mitosis and one meiosis respectively (D)
11. In flowering plants male gamete are formed by 11.
which type of division and from which cell
(A) Mitosis, generative cell (A)
(B) Meiosis, generative cell (B)
(C) Mitosis, vegetative cell (C)
(D) Meiosis, vegetative cell (D)
12. In western countries for which purpose a large 12.
number of pollen products in the form of tablets
and syrups are available in the market :
(A)
(A) In vitro fertilizations
(B) Breeding programmes (B)
(C) Supplementing food (C)

NLI / 21
13. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large 13.
number of species for many years. Which type of
chemical is used at which temperature
(A) Liquid nitrogen, – 1960C (A) – 1960C
0
(B) Gaseous nitrogen, – 196 C (B) , – 1960C
(C) Liquid nitrogen, 77 Kalvin (C) , 77 Kalvin
(D) More than one options are correct (D)
14. In Bisexual flower which structures are present 14.
(A) Both Androecium and Gynoecium (A)
(B) Both stamens and carpels (B)
(C) Both stamens and pistils (C)
15. Which structures is represents the junction 15.
between ovule and funicle in gynoecium :
(A) Locule (A)
(B) Placenta (B)
(C) Thalamus (C)
(D) Hilum (D)
16. Which is correct about following figures 16.
(a) (b)
(b)
(A) a-Multicarpellary, syncarpous, b-Multicarpellary , ,b

apocarpous
(B) a - Multicarpellary, syncarpous, b - Multicarpellary, , b ,
syncarpous
(C) a - Multicarpellary, apocarpous, b - Monocarpellary,
Apocarpous , b ,
(D) a - Monocarpellary, apocarpous, b - Monocarpellary,
syncarpous , b ,
17. For the formation of female gametophyte only one 17.

of the megaspores is functional while the other
three degenerate. Such type of development is
occur in which plants and are called as
respectively
(A) Majority of flowering plants, monosporic (A)
development
(B) Few flowering plants, monosporic development (B)
(C) All flowering plant, monosporic development (C)
NLI / 22
18. Filiform apparatus are special cellular thickening 18.
are present in which cell and their function is :
(A) Antipodal, guide the entry of pollen tube

(A)
(B) Synergid, guide the entry of pollen tube directly in
egg (B)
(C) Synergid, guide the entry of pollen tube into the

(C)
synergid
(D) Synergid, guide the entry of pollen tube into central (D)
cell directly
19. Pollination can be divided into three types. This 19.

classification is based upon
(A)
(A) Size of pollen grain
(B) Source of pollen grain (B)
(C) Size of stamen and anther (C)
20. Two types of flowers cleistogamous and 20.
chasmogamous are present in which plants :
(A) Common pansy (A)
(B) Oxalis (B)
(C) Both A and B (C) A B
21. Which of the following statement is correct: 21.
(A) In chasmogamous flowers always autogamy occur (A)
(B) In chasmogamous flowers always geitonogamy
(B)
occurs
(C) In chasmogamous flowers autogamy is never occur (C)
22. In which type of flower no requirements of 22.
pollinating agents for pollination :
(A) Cleistogamous (A)
(B) Chasmogamous (B)
23. A type of pollination which are functionally cross 23.
pollination but genetically similar to autogamy
such type of pollination are :
(A) Autogamy (A)
(B) Geitonogamy (B)
(C) Xenogamy (C)

NLI / 23
24. Majority of plants use which type of pollinating 24.
agents.:
(A) Biotic (A)

(B) Different type of animal (B)
(C) Abiotic (C)
25. What is the characters of the flower in which 25.
pollination takes place by wind:
(A)
(A) Pollen grains are light and non sticky
(B) Well exposed stamens and feathery stigma (B)
(C) These flowers often have a single ovule in each
(C)
ovary
26. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering 26.

plants and is limited to about :
(A) 30 Species, mostly monocotyledons (A) 30
(B) 30 Family, mostly monocotyledons (B) 30
(C) 30 Genera, mostly monocotyledons (C) 30
(D) 30 Genera, mostly dicotyledons (D) 30
27. In which plants pollination takes place by water : 27.
(A) Vallisneria, hydrilla, water lily (A)
(B) Hydrilla, zostera, vallisneria (B)
(C) Water lily, water hyacinth, zostera (C)
(D) Water lily, water hyacinth, hydrilla (D)
28. A type of flowers are not very colourful and do 28.

not produce nectar. This flowers are :
(A) Only wind pollinated flowers (A)
(B) Only water pollinated flowers (B)
(C) Both wind and water pollinated flowers (C)
(D) Insect pollinated flowers (D)
29. Which of the following are the important floral 29.

rewards to the animal pollinators
(A) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals (A)
(B) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates (B)
(C) Colour and large size of flower (C)
(D) Nectar and pollen grains (D)

NLI / 24
30. A relationship exists between two different 30.
organisms where both organisms can not
complete their life cycles without each other these
two organisms are :
(A)
(A) Moth and Yucca
(B) Mosquito and Yucca (B)
(C) Mango and moth (C)

(D) Butterfly and Yucca (D)
31. Many insects may consume pollen or the nectar 31.
without bringing about pollination. Such floral
visitors are referred to as:
(A) Pollen robbers (A)
(B) Nectar robbers (B)
(C) Flower robbers (C)
32. In flowering plants which of the following devices 32.
are encourage the inbreeding depression:
(A) Pollen grain released and stigma receptivity are (A)
not synchronised
(B)
(B) Anther and stigma are placed at different positions
(C) Self- Incompatibility (C)
33. If a flowering plants contains both staminate and 33.
pistillate flowers. Which type of pollination are
not occur:
(A)
(A) Geitonogamy
(B) Autogamy (B)
(C) Both autogamy and geitonogamy (C)
34. Which of the following statements are correct with 34.

reference to papaya plants :
a. Autogamy not occur a.
b. Geitonogamy not occur b.
c. Xenogamy occur c.
d. Only staminate or pistillate flowers occur d.
(A) only a,c,d (A) a,c,d
(B) only b, c, d (B) b, c, d
(C) only c, d (C) c, d
(D) a, b, c, d (D) a, b, c, d
NLI / 25
35. In pollination when pollen grain are land on the 35.
stigma surface then who promotes post pollination
events:
(A)
(A) Pollen grain
(B) Pistil (B)
(C) Both pollen grain and pistil (C)

36. Pollen pistil interaction include events from 36.
(A) pollen formation to reaching of pollen to stigma (A)
(B) pollen formation to pollen tube formation (B)
(C) pollen formation to pollen tube entry in ovule (C)
(D) pollen deposition on stigma to pollen tube entry in (D)
ovule
37. In angiosperms in artificial hybridisation which 37.
two process are used :
(A) Removal of anther, bagging (A)
(B) Emasculation, bagging (B)
(C) Bagging, Rebagging (C)
(D) More than one option are correct (D)
38. Sequence of developing embryo are 38.
(A) pro-embryo, heart-shaped, linear and mature
embryo (A)
(B) pro-embryo, heart-shaped, globular and mature
(B)
embryo
(C) pro-embryo, globular, heart-shaped and mature (C)
embryo
(D) none of these (D)
39. Which is the correct matching according to many 39.

structures are change to other structure after
fertilisation in angiosperms : (a) i)
(a) Zygote i) seed (b) ii)
(b) central cell ii) fruit
(c) iii)
(c) ovule iii) embryo
(d) iv)
(d) ovary iv) endosperm
(A) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(A) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(B) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(B) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(C) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(C) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(D) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (D) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
40. Double fertilisation refers to 40.
(A) syngamy in flowerings plants (A)
(B) triple fusion in flowerings plants (B)
(D) fertilisation in animals (D)
NLI / 26
41. Perisperm is 41.
(A) outer covering of sperm (A)
(B) newly generated endosperm (B)
(C) mature endosperm (C)
(D) remnant of nucellus in mature seed (D)
42. Wall of the fruit is formed by 42.
(A) wall of the embryosac (A)

(B) wall of the ovule (B)
(C) wall of the ovary (C)
(D) wall of the egg cell (D)
43. Micropyle remains in the seed coat and performs 43.

the function of
(a)
(a) entry of food during germination
(b)
(b) entry of water during germination
(c)
(c) entry of oxygen during germination
(d)
(d) entry of nitrogen during germination
(A) all of these (A)
(B) a,b,c (B) a,b,c
(C) b,c,d (C) b,c,d
(D) b and c (D) b c

44. In which of the following plants endosperm is not 44.
totally consumed before seed maturation
(A) pea (A)

(B) groundnut (B)
(C) beans (C)
(D) castor (D)
45. Parthenocarpic fruits are 45.
(a) developed without fertilisation (a)
(b) have large seeds (b)
(c) artificially induced by growth hormones (c)
(d) apple is an example (d)

(A) all are true (A)
(B) a,b,c are true (B) a,b,c
(C) a,c,d are true (C) a,c,d
(D) a and c are true (D) a c
NLI / 27
46. Which of the following fruits contain large number 46.

of seeds
(A)
(A) Orchid
(B)
(B) Orobanche
(C)
(C) Striga
(D) all of these (D)
47. Apomixis is 47.
(A) a form of sexual reproduction that mimics asexual (A)

reproduction
(B) a form of asexual reproduction that mimics

(B)
parthenocarpy
(C) a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual

(C)
reproduction
(D) a form of sexual reproduction that mimics

parthenocarpy (D)
48. Advantages of seeds are 48.
(A) better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new (A)
habitats
(B) food reserves give nourishment to developing (B)

seedlings
(C) protection to embryo and genetic variation (C)
49. Polyembryony is seen in which of the following 49.

plants
(A)
(A) orange
(B)
(B) citrus
(C)
(C) mango
50. During polyembryony which cells divide and 50.

protrude into embryosac and develop into embryo:
(A) nucellus cells

(A)
(B) style cells
(B)
(C) stigma cells (C)
(D) pollen tube cells (D)
NLI / 28
51. According to WHO reproductive health means on 51. WHO
the basis of which aspects:
(A) Physical (A)
(B) Social (B)
(C) Behavioural (C)
52. Which of the following can not be detected in a 52.

developing foetus by amniocentesis
(A) Down syndrome (A)
(B) Sickle - cell anemia (B)
(C) Haemophilia (C)
(D) Jaundice (D)
53. Misuse of amniocentesis is 53.

(A) Passing of ammonia in developing embryo (A)
(B) Foetal sex determination in the developing embryo (B)
(C) Detection of foetal disease (C)
(D) Passing of nutrients in developing embryo (D)
54. Saheli a new oral contraceptives was developed 54.
by scientist of which Institutes :
(A) CDRI in Delhi (A) CDRI

(B) IIM in Lucknow (B) IIM
(C) CDRI in Lucknow (C) CDRI
(D) CDRI in Kolkata (D) CDRI
55. Match column I with column II and select the 55. -I II
correct option from the given codes
Column I Column II I II
(a) Non-medicated IUDs (i) Progestasert (a) IUDs (i)
(b) Copper releasing IUDs (ii) Lippes loop (b) IUDs (ii)
(c) Hormone releasing (iii) Multiload 375 (c) (iii) 375
IUDs IUDs
(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(C) a-i, b-iii, c-ii (C) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
NLI / 29
56. How many matching are correct according to 56.
contraceptive method and their modes of action
in achieving contraception
Contraceptive Mode of Action
Method
a. i.
a. Oral pill i. Inhibit ovulation
b. Condom ii. Prevents sperms b. ii.
reaching female
reproductive tract
c. iii.
c. Injections iii. Increase
phagocytosis
of sperms within the
fallopian tube
d. IUDs iv. Increase d. IUDs iv.
phagocytosis
of sperms within the
(A) 3
uterus
(A) 3 (B) 1
(B) 1
(C) 4
(C) 4
(D) 2
(D) 2
57. Emergency contraceptives are effective within 57.

which time period :
(A) 72
(A) Within 72 hours of ovulation
(B) 72
(B) Within 72 hours of spermiogenesis
(C) 72
(C) Within 72 hours of coitus
(D) 72
(D) Within 72 hours of implantation
58. What is the work of Multiload 375 58. 375
(A) To inhibit ovulation (A)
(B) To inhibit insemination (B)
(C) To suppress fertilising capacity of sperms (C)
(D) To inhibit gametogenesis (D)
59. What is true about saheli 59.
(A) "Twice a week" pill (A)
(B) "Once a week" pill (B)
(C)
(C) "Thrice a week" pill
(D)
(D) None of these
NLI / 30
60. How many MTP are performed in a year all over 60. MTP
the world :
(A) 4.5 5
(A) 4.5 to 5 million
(B) 450 500
(B) 450 to 500 million
(C) 4 5
(C) 4 to 5 million
(D) 45 50
(D) 45 to 50 million
61. MTP
61. MTP is essential and helpful for
(A)
(A) getting rid of unwanted pregnancies due to
unprotected sex
(B)
(B) getting rid of unwanted pregnancies due to failure
of contraceptive used
(C) Medically when continuation of pregnancy is (C)
harmful for mother or foetus or both
62. Late detection and improper treatment of STIs 62. STIs

leads to
(A)
(A) pelvic inflammatory diseases
(B)
(B) abortions, still birth, ectopic pregnancies
(C)
(C) infertility or cancer of reproductive tract
(D)
(D) All of these
63. ICSI
63. Full form of ICSI is :
(A)
(A) Inter Cytoplasmic Sperm Insemination
(B)
(B) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
(C)
(C) Intra Cervical Sperm Injection
(D) Inter Cervical Sperm Injection (D)
64. Artificial insemination means 64.
(A) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube (A)

containing ova
(B) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor (B)

into the vagina
(C) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly (C)

into the ovary
(D) Transfer of ovum of a healthy donor into the fallopian (D)

tube of another female who can not produce one
NLI / 31
65. Which of the following are a kind of assisted 65.
reproductive technologies:
(A) ICSI
(A) ICSI
(B) IUI
(B) IUI
(C) IUT
(C) IUT
(D)
(D) All of these
66.
66 How many disease are sexually transmitted
disease: Pneumonia, Typhoid, syphilis, cholera,
chlamydiasis, genital warts, Diabetes, Hepatitis-
B, Genital Herpes, AIDS, Gonorrhoea, malaria :
(A) 3 (A) 3
(B) 4 (B) 4
(C) 7 (C) 7
(D) 5 (D) 5
67. A type of contraceptive in which ovum and sperms 67.
are prevented from physically meeting. Their
example are:
(A)
(A) Male condoms
(B)
(B) Vaults
(C) Female condoms (C)
68. Which of the following statement are not correct 68.

with reference to given diagram :
(A)
(A) It is a kind of barrier method for contraception
(B) IUDs
(B) It is a kind of IUDs
(C)
(C) Only progesterone used
69. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 69.
(A) Parthenocarpic fruits – banana (A) –
(B) Fleshy fruit – mango (B) –
(C) Dormancy – seed (C) –
(D) Scutellum – gametophyte (D) –
NLI / 32
70. Which one of the following is correct match : 70.
a. Anatropous i. Amorphophallus a. i.
b. Gecko lizard ii. Ovule b. ii.
c. Tallest flower iii. Pollinator
c. iii.
d. Bisexual flower iv. Emasculation
d. iv.
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(C) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (C) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(D) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (D) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

(A) Pollen grain viability – 30 minutes in Rosaceae (A) –
(B) Many ovule in ovary – Mango (B) –
(C) One ovule in ovary – Paddy (C) –
(D) Placenta – Androecium (D) –

72. Which one of the following are correct match : 72.
a. Pollen tablet i. Megasporangium a. i.
b. Parthenium ii. Pollen allergy b. ii.
c. Ovule iii. Food supplement c. iii.
d. Embryo sac iv. Female gametophyte d. iv.
(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(C) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (C) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(D) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (D) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
73. How many matching are correct : 73.
a. 7-celled 8 nucleate – Pollen grain a. –
b. Apomixis – Grasses b. –
c. False fruits – Barley c. –
d. Perisperm – Black peepar d. –
(A) 4 (A) 4
(B) 3 (B) 3
(C) 2 (C) 2
(D) 1 (D) 1
74. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 74.
(A) Sterilisation – Vasectomy (A) –
(B) Sterilisation – Tubectomy (B) –
(C) LNG–20 – Pills (C) LNG–20 –
(D) MTP – 1971 (D) MTP – 1971
NLI / 33
(A) Genital herpes – Curable STIs (A) – STIs
(B) Genital warts – Non curable STIs (B) – STIs
(C) MTP – Induced abortion (C) MTP –
(D) Family planing – 1981 (D) – 1981
76. Which one of the following is natural method of 76.

contraception :
(A) Pills (A)

(B) Sterilisation (B)
(C) Periodic abstinence (C)
(D) Barrier methods (D)
77. Which one of the following part is removed in 77.
vasectomy :
(A)
(A) Epididymis
(B)
(B) Vas deferens
(C) Rete testis (C)
(D) Ejaculatory duct (D)
78. Which one of the following part is removed in 78.

tubectomy :
(A)
(A) Uterus
(B)
(B) Fallopian tube
(C) Cervix (C)
(D) Vagina (D)
79. Which one of the following contraceptive method 79.

blocks gamete transport :
(A) Sterilisation (A)
(B) Pills (B)
(C) Barrier (C)
(D) IUDs (D) IUDs
80. Which one of the following is not the possible ill 80.
effects of contraceptive :
(A) Nausea (A)
(B) Abdominal pain (B)
(C) Breast cancer (C)
NLI / 34
81. MTPs are relatively safe during : 81. MTPs
(A) First trimester (A)
(B) 12 weeks (B) 12
(C) 3 months (C) 3
82. Sexually transmitted infections can also be
82.
transmitted by :
(A)
(A) Surgical instruments
(B) Transfusion of blood (B)
(C) Sharing of injection needles (C)

83. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due 83.
to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into :
(A) Uterus (A)
(B) Fallopian tube (B)
(C) Fimbriae (C)
(D) Cervix (D)
84. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian 84.
Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:
(A) Who cannot produce an ovum (A)

(B) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus (B)
(C) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage (C)
for the sperms
(D) Who cannot provide suitable environment for (D)

fertilization
85. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as : 85.
(A) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus (A)
(B) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance (B)
(C) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality (C)
(D) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus (D)
86. What is chorionic villi : 86.
(A) Finger like projections on the trophoblast (A)
(B) Finger like projection on the uterus (B)

(C) Finger like projection on the cervix (C)
(D) Finger like projection on the vagina
(D)
NLI / 35
87. What is cleavage : 87.
(A) Fragmentation of cancerous cells (A)
(B) A type of mitotic division (B)
(C) A type of meiotic division (C)
(D) Enlargement of cells (D)
88. Which one of the following is correct asexual 88.

reproductive structures with its organism :
(A) Gemmules in sponge (A)
(B) Gemmules in yeast (B)
(C) Conidia in sponge (C)
(D) Zoospores in sponge (D)
89. The antheridiophore present on : 89.
(A) Male thallus of marchantia (A)
(B) Female thallus of marchantia (B)
(C) Male thallus of chara (C)
(D) Stamen of sweet potato (D)
90. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle 90.

is also called :
(A)
(A) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
(B)
(B) Follicular phase and lasts for about 6 days
(C)
(C) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
(D) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days (D)
NLI / 36
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ONLINE NEET T-3 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / 01-Nov-2020

Test Booklet Code Test ID : 000

Please read the instructions carefully :

11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2021

Correction Paper code, Roll No. Test Centre 2

e-mail : feedback@newlightinstitute.in, Visit us : www.newlightinstitute.com

TOPIC : Thermometry and Thermal expansion of solids & liquids.

1. Expansion during heating : 1.

(A) Occurs only in solids (A)

(B) Increases the weight of a material (B)

(C) Decreases the density of a material (C)

2. The cofficient of volume expansion of a liquid is 2.  

(C)  < 3 (C)  < 3

(D)  > 32 (D)  > 32

3. The radius of a ring is R and it cofficient of linear 3. R 

(D) R/4 (D) R/4

4. A steel rod 25 cm long has a cross- sectional area 4.

(B) 16 × 107 dyne (B) 16 × 107

(C) 32 × 107 dyne (C) 32 × 107

(D) None of these (D)

6. The coefficient of linear expansione of brass and 6. 1 2

OoC, then the difference in their length (  2 –  1)

(D) 1 22  2  12 (D) 1 22  2  12

7. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4oC. It 7. 4oC

(B) Only Cooled below 4oC (B) 4oC

(C) Both heated and cooled above and below 4oC

(D) None of the above. (D)

8. A solid ball of metal has a spherical cavity inside 8.

(D) Cannot be predicted (D)

9. When a bimetallic strip is heated, it : 9.

(A) Does not bend at all (A)

(B) Gets twisted in the form of an helix (B)

(C) Bends in the form of an arc with the more (C)

(D) Bends in the form of an arc with the more (D)

(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) (A) (B)

(D) None of these. (D)

11. The coefficient of linear expansion of a crystal in 11. 1

(C) 1 +2 (C) 1 +2

(D) None of the above. (D) .

12. In a vertical U-tube containing a liquid the two 12. U-

13. The linear coefficients expansion for an anisotropic 13.

(B) 1 = 32 (B) 1 = 32

(C) 2 = 31 (C) 2 = 31

(D) 1 = 42. (D) 1 = 42.

16. The moment of interia of a rod about its 16.

is cooled to a temperature –39 o C, tension –39 C o

(A) 2 × 10–5 C–1 (A) 2 × 10–5 C–1

(B) 6 × 10–5 C–1 (B) 6 × 10–5 C–1

(C) 18 × 10–5 C–1 (C) 18 × 10–5 C–1

(D) 1.2 × 10–5 C–1 (D) 1.2 × 10–5 C–1

20. If ,  and  are coefficients of linear, superficial 20. ,  

21. If the volume of a block of metal changes by 0.12%, 21. 0.12%

(C) 1 + T (C) 1 + T

(D) 1 – T (D) 1 – T

25. Asymmetry in P.E. curve is responsible for : 25.

(A) measuring the temperature (A)

(B) to find diameter (B)

(C) thermal radiaiton (C)

(D) thermal expansion (D)

(A) 1.43 × 108 N m 2 (A) 1.43 × 108 N m2

(B) 4.13 × 108 N m 2 (B) 4.13 × 108 N m2