MCQ CV Political Science II, 209 2021

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Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies

Multiple Choice Questions

Sample Practice Paper , 2021

Course: BALLB Semester : III

Subject: POLITICAL SCIENCE II Paper Code: 209

UNIT 1.

Q1. Who is the real executive in a Parliamentary form of Government?

1. Parliament
2. President
3. Cabinet
4. Lower House

Correct Ans – 3

Q2. In the Presidential form of government, the executive can be removed

1. Vote of No Confidence in Both the Houses


2. Vote of No Confidence in the Lower House
3. By the 2/3rd Majority of Parliament
4. Process of Impeachment

Correct Ans- 2

Q3. Presidential form of Government is prevalent in?

1. India
2. UK
3. USA
4. Canada

Correct Ans – 3

Q4. Which among them is not a feature of Parliamentary form of Government?

1. Distinction between Cabinet and Council of Ministers.


2. Special Position of the PM
3. Distinction between Nominal and Real Head
4. Strict Separation of Powers between Executive and Legislature

Correct Ans- 4
Q5. How many Items does the Union List , State list and the concurrent List have in Indian
Constitution ?

1. 97, 66, 47
2. 99, 67, 48
3. 97, 66, 48
4. 97, 68, 47

Correct Ans- 1

Q6. Which Article Talks about the Power of the Parliament to legislate on the matters in the
state list in National Interest ?

1. Art 250
2. Art 252
3. Art 249
4. Art 356

Correct Ans- 3

Q7. Which of them is not a characteristic of the Federal Form of Government?

1. Written Constitution
2. Division of power
3. The units derives its power from the Union.
4. Judiciary as the impartial Interpreter

Correct Ans- 3

Q8. Which Theory of Democracy lays its ultimate importance on associations holding powers
in Democracy?

1. Elitist Theory
2. Marxist Theory
3. Pluralist Theory
4. Classical Liberal Theory

Correct Ans- 3

Q9. Can a Parliamentary form of Government be also Federal in Characteristic?

1. Yes
2. No

Correct Ans – 1.

Q10. In the Parliamentary Form of government, the Cabinet Ministers are?

1. are not members of the legislature


2. are members of the legislature but not interested in Legislative Process
3. are members of legislature
4. are members of the lower house only

Correct Ans- 3

Q11. Which of the theories of Democracy emerged with the advent of the Industrial
Revolution?

1. Elitist Theory of Democracy


2. Participatory Theory of Democracy
3. Classical Liberal Theory of Democracy
4. Marxist Theory of Democracy

Correct Ans- 3

Q12. Who is not an example of Nominal Head of the state

1. Queen of UK
2. President of USA
3. Governor General of Canada
4. President of India

Correct Ans- 2

Q13. The term Federation is derived from the Latin word foedus which means

1. Treaty or Agreement
2. Formation
3. Loose Association
4. Divison of Power

Correct Ans – 1

Q14. Which among this is not the reason to form a Federation?

1. Desire for Self Preservation


2. Desire for Unit
3. Economic Development
4. Defence against External Aggression

Correct Ans- 2

Q15. What is Delegated Legislation?

1. The exercise of legislative power by an agency that is subordinate to the legislature.


2. Legislative work carried out in lower house
3. Legislative work carried out by the states
4. Legislations made by the Judiciary

Correct Ans- 1
Q16. which of the following is a Direct Democratic Devices?

1. Referendum
2. Plebiscite
3. Recall
4. All of the above

Correct Ans- 4

Q17. What are the reasons for the Decline of the Parliament ?

1. Complexity in Social, Economic and Political Structure


2. Lack of Technical Expertise of Legislatures
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Correct Ans- 3

Q18 . which is not true about a Confederation?

1. Units are free to Succeed


2. formed for Protection from external aggression
3. Units can have independent Political Systems
4. the division of the power will be permanent in Nature

Correct Ans – 4

Q19. What is not true about the representative form of government?

1. People participate through elected representatives


2. People's participation can be ensured by their right to vote
3. People can bring back the elected representative before the expiry of the term
4. Representatives can give more expertise time to political affairs

Correct Ans- 3

Unit 2

The concept of balance of power is based on the assumption that

1. nations will not start wars when faced with equal or superior forces
2. nations will fight only when provoked
3. blocs of nations can never be equal
4. all nations need nuclear weapons to have a balance of power

Correct Ans- 1

Q. 2 Identify the major reasons for obeying international law by states:

1. Fear of isolation, punishment and disorder.


2. Making of law, international cooperation, wielding of global power.
3. Diplomatic, economic and cultural association.
4. To dictate international issues.

Correct Ans- 1

Q. 3. " Politics among nations" was written by:

1. K.J. Holsti
2. B Gavin Boyd
3. Hans.J.Morgenthau
4. None of these

Correct Ans – 3

Q. 4. International Relations during 1648—1945 were characterized by:

1. Bi-polar system
2. Multi-polar system
3. Uni-polar system
4. None of these

Correct Ans – 2

Who called international law as vanishing point of jurisprudence.

1. Maine
2. Holland
3. Brierly
4. Black Stone

Correct Ans –2

Soft power is ..

1. Weakening hegemonic influence.


2. Collaboration among several emerging powers.
3. Getting others to agree with you without using coercive force.
4. The influence of financial institutions and markets (as opposed to state actors or other
political institutions).

Correct Ans –3

Why did President George W.H. Bush hail 'a new world order' after the 1991 Gulf War?

1. It meant that the US could now do whatever it wanted.


2. There seemed to be a much better chance of lasting peace because after the Cold War
the United Nations was no longer so sharply divided on ideological grounds.
3. Saddam Hussein had been toppled at last.
4. Bush had suddenly decided that realist theory was rubbish

Correct Ans –2

Which of these is not an official source of Public International Law?

1. Custom
2. International treaties
3. Verdicts of the International Criminal Court (ICC)
4. The opinions of international legal experts

Correct Ans –3

Q. 9. Which of these political issues does not fall under Public International Law?

1. country claiming to own the moon


2. A disputed national election
3. Mining on the seabed of an ocean outside of territorial waters.
4. A policeman torturing a criminal suspect in a country where this is not considered
illegal

Correct Ans –2

Q. 10. What is one of the methods of Balance of Power?

1. Negotiations
2. War
3. Alliances and Counter-alliances
4. Arms Race

Correct Ans –3

Unit 3

Q1. When was the United Nations formally established?


1. 1815, after the Battle of Waterloo.
2. 1918, after World War I.
3. 1945, after World War II.
4. 1990, at the close of the Cold War.
Correct Ans- 3

Q2. The permanent members of the UN Security Council are?


1. US, UK, USSR, France, and China.
2. US, UK, Germany, France, and China.
3. US, UK, Russia, France, and China.
4. US, UK, France, and China.

Correct Ans- 3

Q3. Which Conference adopted the United Nations Charter on 26th January, 1945?

1. London Conference
2. Tokyo Conference
3. San Francisco Conference
4. None of the above

Correct Ans – 3

Q4. Under whose recommendations the UN General Assembly suspends the UN


membership?

1. Judicial Body
2. International Judicial Community
3. Security Council
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: 3

Q5. Which of the following is not main organ of United Nations?


1. International Court of Justice
2. Economic and Social Council
3. Secretariat
4. International Monetary fund

Correct Ans- 4

Q6. What is the meaning of collective security?

1. The right to self-defence by more than one nation acting in concert


2. The right of one's allies to defend the victim State
3. The authorisation of armed force by the UN Security Council
4. The authorisation of peacekeeping missions by the UN General Assembly

Correct Ans- 1

Q7. Define Collective Security.

1. Each state in a system abides by international law.


2. Each state in a system accepts that security for one is security for all and agrees to
join in a collective response to aggression.
3. Each state in a system contributes to collective security by maximizing its security
self-interest.
4. None of the options given are correct.

Correct Ans- 2

Q8. What is not a characteristic of old diplomacy?

1. European Diplomacy
2. Confidentiality
3. Multilateral Diplomacy
4. Freedom of Ambassadors

Correct Ans – 3

Q9. What is not a characteristic of New diplomacy?

1. Less formal
2. More on propaganda
3. Secrecy
4. Lack of Freedom of ambassador

Correct Ans- 3

Q10. What is the obligation of the peaceful settlement of disputes?

1. It is an obligation of result, that is, States are under a strict obligation to resolve their
disputes as soon as possible
2. It is an obligation of conduct, i.e. States have an obligation to try to resolve their
disputes through peaceful means. This does not entail an obligation to resolve their
disputes
3. It is a peremptory norm of international law and all States have a legal interest to
safeguard its application in any given dispute
4. It is an obligation which concerns solely international courts and tribunals

Correct Ans- 2

Q11. Is there any hierarchy or priority among the various methods of peaceful settlement of
disputes?

1. Yes, all the political methods (e.g. negotiation, mediation, inquiry, conciliation)
should be exhausted prior to resorting to legal methods
2. Legal methods prevail over the political methods, since they are binding upon the
parties
3. There is no hierarchy among these methods and the choice belongs to the disputing
States
4. It is a matter of an impartial third party to decide which method will have priority
over the other

Correct Ans- 3

Q12. What is the difference between political and legal means of dispute settlement?

1. The outcome arising from legal methods, ie arbitration or adjudication by the ICJ, is
final and binding upon the parties, whereas this is not the case with diplomatic
methods
2. The political methods are pursued upon the consent of the parties to the dispute,
whereas the legal methods not
3. The political means lead to a final settlement of the dispute, whereas this is not the
case with the legal methods
4. The legal methods of dispute settlement are pursued only in respect of significant
disputes, whereas the political means are employed in all disputes

Correct Ans- 1

Q13. What is the difference between conciliation and mediation?

1. Conciliation is the continuation of mediation with the difference that conciliation


produces a binding result, while mediation not
2. Conciliation is conducted exclusively by representatives of the UN Secretary-General,
while mediation may also be conducted by third States' officials
3. Mediation is usually conducted by a person appointed with the consent of the parties,
while conciliation involves a commission, which proceeds to an impartial
examination of the dispute and proposes settlement terms
4. Conciliation is a method of dispute settlement pursued only by virtue of a treaty,
while mediation may also be on an ad hoc basis

Correct Ans- 3

Q14. Are the provisional measures issued by the ICJ binding upon the parties?
1. No, according to the literal interpretation of the relevant provision of the State, the
provisional measures are not binding
2. No, unless the parties have agreed so beforehand
3. It depends upon the Court whether the provisional measures will be binding
4. Yes, it has been consistently held by the Court that they are binding

Correct Ans- 4

Q. 15. The United Nations replaced the after its charter was signed in
October of 1945.

1. Cold War
2. NATO
3. League of Nations
4. None of these

Correct Ans- 3

Q. 16. ECOSOC has been established under chapter of the UN charter:

1. V
2. VII
3. X
4. None of these

Correct Ans- 3

Q.17. Why is reform of the Security Council problematic?

1. Enlarging the permanent membership could impair decision-making.


2. None of the existing permanent members are keen to give up their seats.
3. It is difficult to make an uncontroversial case for any of the potential new permanent
members.
4. All of the above.

Correct Ans -4

Unit 4

Q1. After the end of the Second World War, the world was divided in two power blocs of ?

1. USA and USSR


2. USSR and China
3. USA and UK
4. China and Japan

Correct Ans- 1

Q2. The iron curtain as hailed by Churchill signifies?


1. Physical separation of communist Eastern Europe from the West from the 1940s
2. The construction of the Berlin wall
3. The atom bomb dropped by USA
4. The making of NATO as a military alliance of the west.

Correct Ans- 1

Q3. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) was established in?


1.1949
2.1946
3. 1947
4. 1946

Correct Ans- 1

Q4.What is the objective behind the formation of NATO?

1. To develop individual and collective capacity to resist the armed attack on any of the
member
2. To consult and resist if any of the members is threatened politically
3. To consult and develop the capacity to resist armed as well as the political threat
4. To develop mutual defence and Opening borders for free trade

Correct Ans- 3

Q5. Which of the following is a military alliance?


1.ASEAN
2. SAARC
3. NATO
4. EU

Correct Ans- 3

Q6. NATO was founded with the aim of increasing ability of West to resist the threat of?
1. Turkey Block
2. Asian Block
3. Communist Block
4. None of them

Correct Ans- 3

Q7. What was not the Principle adopted at the Bunding Conference and accepted at the first
NAM Summit Meeting?

1. Mutual non-aggression
2.Mutual non-interference in each other’s affairs
3.Peaceful Co-existence
4. Mutual defence against foreign aggression

Correct Ans- 4

Q8. The Non-Aligned Movements came into existence mainly through the initiative of?

(a) Yugoslavian President Joseph Tito


(b) Indian Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Egyptian President Gamal Abdul Nassar
(d) All of them

Correct Ans- 4

Q9. Currently how many members are in the European Union?

1. 27
2. 28
3. 53
4. 17

Correct Ans- 2

Q10. Which of the following was/were the objective of the EU?

1. Establishing an economic and a monetary union


2. Implementing a common foreign and defence policy
3. Developing relations in the spheres of’ home affairs and justice
4. All of the above

Correct Ans. 4

Q11. Which of the following country is not the member of the ASEAN?

1. Laos
2. Cambodia
3. Philippines
4. Mauritius

Correct Ans. 4

Q12. What is the full form of ASEAN?

(a) Association of South East Asian Nations


(b) Administration of Southern East Asian Nations
(c) Organisation of South East Asian Nations
(d) Administration of South East Asian Nations

Correct Ans. 1

Q13. When was ASEAN established?

1. 1963
2. 1967
3. 1985
4. 1996

Correct Ans. 2

Q14. What is the objective of the ASEAN?

1. To increase competition among the members countries for better products.


2. To integrate the economies of the region to make region more attractive for investors
3. To promote economic cooperation in South East Asia and ensure economic stability in the
region.
4. b and c both

Correct Ans. 4

Q15. What did the US established around Cuba in Cuban Missile Crisis ?

1. Army.
2. Missile
3. Naval Blockade
4. Bases

Correct Ans- 3

Q16. Who was the leader in Cuba during the Cuban Missile Crisis?

1. Fidel Castro
2. Joseph Stalin
3. Eisenhower
4. Kennedy

Correct Ans- 1

Q17. What ended the Cuban Missile Crisis?


1. The USSR removes missiles and the US leaves Cuba alone.
2. The US uses all of their missiles and destroys Cuba
3. Cuba forfeits
4. Sugar exports were banned.

Correct Ans- 1

Q18.T he US approach to the Cold War was originally set out in...
1. The Truman Doctrine.
2. The Truman Show.
3. The Marshall Plan.
4. The Monroe Doctrine.

Correct Ans- 1

Q19. Why did President George W.H. Bush hail 'a new world order' after the 1991 Gulf War?
1. It meant that the US could now do whatever it wanted.
2. There seemed to be a much better chance of lasting peace because after the Cold War
the United Nations was no longer so sharply divided on ideological grounds.
3. Saddam Hussein had been toppled at last.
4. Bush had suddenly decided that realist theory was rubbish.

Correct Ans- 2

Q20. OAS stands for ?

1. Organisations of American states.


2. Organisations of Asian states
3. Organisation of associated states
4. None of the above

Correct Ans- 1

Q21. What does Détente mean?


1. All-out war.
2. A proxy war.
3. Relaxation of tensions.
4. Deterrence through overwhelming powe

Correct Ans- 3

Q22. When did USSR placed nuclear missiles in Cuba?


1. 1960
2. 1961
3. 1962
4. 1963
Correct Ans- 3
Q.23. Which of the countries was not a member of NATO?
1 Germany
2. Czech Republic
3. France
4.. India
Correct Ans- 4

Q. 24. After World War II, the United States and the Soviet Union were engaged in the Cold
War, which could be best described as
1. direct military engagement.
2. peaceful co-existence
3. socialism in one country
4. engagement through proxy states and ideological struggle.
Correct Ans- 4

Q. 25. In response to the Marshall Plan, Stalin


1. forbade Hungary, Czechoslovakia, and Poland to ask for aide.
2. engineered fledgling communist governments in Eastern Europe and the Balkans.
3. formalized the Council for Mutual Economic Assistance.
4. All of these
Correct Ans- 4

Q.30. In the early years of the Cold War, countries could basically be placed into which of
the following categories
1. Western camp, Eastern bloc, and the Non-Aligned Movement.
2. Colonies, Imperialist, and Communists
3. Western camp and capitalist democracies
4. Eastern Bloc and Communist
Correct Ans-1
Q. 31. Which of the following organizations is a trade organization?
1. NATO
2. SEATO
3. CENTO
4. EEC
Correct Ans- 2
Q. 32. What was the main goal of the Truman Doctrine?
1. To expand trade in Europe
2. To send financial aid to Europe
3. To stop the spread of communism
4. To limit the build-up pf nuclear weapons

Correct Ans- 3

Q. 33. The 1961 Bay of Pigs invasion and the 1962 missile crisis are conflicts directly related
to United States relations with which two nations?
1. the Dominican Republic and Haiti
2. Cuba and the Soviet Union
3. China and Japan
4. North Korea and South Korea
Correct Ans- 2
Q. 34. In 1957, the Eisenhower Doctrine expanded the principles of the Truman Doctrine by
extending Middle East military assistance in order to
1. offset communist influence in the region
2. combat anti-American terrorist threats
3. force the Organization of Petroleum Exporting
4. Countries (OPEC) to end its oil embargo defend Israel against Arab invasions
Correct Ans- 1
Q. 35. Both the Nuclear Test Ban Treaty of 1963 and the Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty
(SALT) of 1972 were attempts to
1. settle boundary disputes in Europe
2. promote the peaceful use of atomic energy
3. ease Cold War tensions
4. share military technologies with developing nations

Correct Ans-3
Q. 36. Which event is most closely associated with the end of the Cold War?
1. passage of the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)
2. establishment of a policy of détente with them Soviet Union
3. invasion of Afghanistan by the Soviet Union
4. fall of the Berlin Wall

Correct Ans-4

Q.37. Which presidential action best represents the policy of détente?


1. John F. Kennedy’s order for the Bay of Pigs invasion against Cuba
2. Lyndon B. Johnson’s escalation of the Vietnam War
3. Richard Nixon’s Strategic Arms Limitations Talks (SALT) with the Soviet Union
4. George Bush’s military action to remove Iraqi forces from Kuwait
Correct Ans- 3
Q. 38. The Marshall Plan is also known as
1. European Economic Plan
2. European Recovery Plan
3. European Common Plan
4. European Technological Plan
Correct Ans- 2
Q.39. Bay of Pigs invasion was against
1. Raul Castro
2. Che Guevara
3. Batista
4. Fidel Castro
Correct Ans- 4

Q. 40. Who was the leader of Iraq during the Gulf War?
1. Osama Bin Laden
2. Saddam Hussein
3. Muammar Gaddafi
4. Hasni Mubarak

Correct Ans- 2
Q. 41. The US hegemony began in

1. 1990
2. 1991
3. 1989
4. 2003
Correct Ans- 2
Q.42. Jihad is an example of what type of terrorism?
1. Revolutionary
2. State-sponsored
3. Religious
4. Political Correct Ans-3
Q.43. When was the word "terrorism" was used the first time?
1. French Revolution 1794
2. Convention for the Prevention and Punishment of Terrorism 1937
3. Convention on Offences and Certain Other Acts Committed on Board Aircraft 1963
4. Iranian Revolution 1979
Correct Ans-1

Q. 44. OPEC is the


1. Cartel of major oil-producing countries.
2. Primary example of economic liberalization.
3. Organization of leading oil MNCs.
4. United Nations Human Rights Office. Correct Ans- 1
Q. 45. Which of the following was/were the objective of the EU?
1. Establishing an economic and a monetary union
2. Implementing a common foreign and defence policy
3. Developing relations in the spheres of’ home affairs and justice
4. All of the above

Correct Ans- 4

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