G1538725293ssolution - ICSE Biology Worksheet

CHAPTER
SECTION
B
1 CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
WORKSHEET-1
Ans. 1. (i) Cytokinesis (ii) Plate (iii) Centromere (iv) Four haploid.
Ans. 2. Metaphase : The chromosomes arranged themselves at the equator in one plane.
Anaphase : Two sister chromatids of each chromosome separate out from each other and start moving
towards opposite poles.
Ans. 3. Prophase
Ans. 4. Both the statements are incorrect and can be rewritten as :
(i) Nucleus is a part of the cell in which chromosomes are present.
(ii) Centrosome is the organelle of the cell that initiates cell division.
Ans. 5. (iii) DNA (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 6. ODD : RNA

Category : Parts of nucleotide
Where as RNA is Nucleic Acid. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 7. Crossing over / genetic recombination / cross joining
Ans. 8. (ii) 44 + xx chromosome
Ans. 9. The correct order, so as to be in a logical sequence is prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cy-
tokinesis.
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WORKSHEET-2
Ans. 1. Cytokinesis is the division of cytoplasm that occurs after division of nucleus. In plant cells, formation
of cell plate takes place at the equatorial plane of the spindle. This cell plate grows from centre to
periphery to form two daughter cells.
Ans. 2. The correct sequence, so as to be in a logical sequence is :
G1-phase, S-phase, G2-phase, Karyokinesis, Cytokinesis.
Ans. 3. Meiosis
Ans. 4. (i)
Mitosis Meiosis
Two daughter cells are produced Four daughter cells are produced
(ii)
Daughter cells receive full set of Chromosomes, Daughter cells receive only half the number
i.e. diploid (2n) number of chromosomes of chromosomes, i.e. haploid (n) number of
chromosomes.

Ans. 5. Gametes have a haploid number of chromosomes because they are formed by meiotic cell division.
Ans. 6. (i) It is a plant cell because cell wall is present and centrioles are absent.
(ii) Metaphase
Chromosomes are thick and short and are present at equatorial plate.
(iii) 1. Mitosis
2. Meiosis
(iv) Prophase
S O L U T I ON S P-1
(v)
Ans. 7.(i) Telophase. Nuclear membrane reappears / Spindle fibres disappears / Cytokinesis begins /
Chromatids become thin / daughter nuclei are formed.
(ii) 1 – Chromosome
2 – Nuclear membrane
(iii) Karyokinesis
(iv) Anaphase
Sister chromatids
separate and move
to opposite poles
(due to contraction
of spindle fibers)
Chromosomes moving towards the poles.

One labelling / Correct number of chromosomes
(v) Meiosis (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)

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WORKSHEET-3
Ans. 1. The statement is true.
Ans. 3. The specific function of the centrosome found in the body of animals is to initiate cell division.
Ans. 4. Nuclear membrane
Ans. 5.
Column A Column B
Chromosomes become arranged in a horizontal plane at the equator. Metpahase
Daughter chromosomes move to opposite poles of the spindle. Anaphase
Chromosomes become visible as fine, long threads Prophase
Chromosomes lose their distinctiveness and gradually become Telophase
transformed into chromatin network.
Ans. 6.(i) Prophase. Chromosomes have duplicated, nuclear membrane is disappearing, nucleolus has disap-
peared
(ii) Stage Metaphase, No. of chromosomes, Position of chromosomes, Any one labelling.
P-2 B I O L OG Y - X
(iii)
S.No. Animal cell Plant cell
(i) Asters are formed Asters are not formed.
(ii) Cytokinesis by formation of furrows in the Cytokinesis by cell plate formation.
cytoplasm.
(iii) Occurs in most tissues of the whole body. Occurs mainly at the growing tips and sides.
(Any two)
(iv) A. Mitosis B. Meiosis (ICSE Marking Scheme 2016)
Ans. 7. (i) The stage of cell division shown is anaphase.
(ii) Different labelled parts are as follows :
A – Spindle fibres
B – Cell wall
C – Chromatid
D – Centromere
(iii) Unique features of this stage is that chromosome get divided into sister chromatids that move
towards the opposite poles.
(iv) This type of cell division usually occurs in somatic cells.
(v) Two daughter cells are formed in kind of cell division.
(vi) Dividing cell shown here is a plant cell because cell wall is clearly visible (which is unique feature of
only plant cells).
Ans. 8. (i) It is a plant cell because cell wall is present and centrioles are absent.
(ii) The stage shown is prophase.
(iii) The stage that follows the one shown here, i.e. prophase is metaphase.
It is identified by the position of chromosomes that are arranged at the equator attached to the
spindle fibre.
(iv) In mitosis, the chromosome number in daughter cell is same as that of the mother cell, i.e. diploid
parent cell gives rise to two diploid (2n) daughter cells.
In meiosis the chromosome number is halved in the daughter cell, i.e. the diploid mother cell gives
rise to four haploid (n) daughter cells.
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WORKSHEET-4
Ans. 1. Difference between karyokinesis and cytokinesis are as follows :
Karyokinesis Cytokinesis
It is the division of the nucleus that occurs It is the division of cytoplasm that takes place
during cell division. soon after karyokinesis.
Ans. 2. Centrosome
Ans. 4. The logical sequence of terms is :
Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

Ans. 5. Anaphase stage of mitosis in plant cell is given below :

Sister chromatids
separate and move
to opposite poles
(due to contraction
of spindle fibers)

Ans. 6. Metaphase stage of mitosis in animal cell is given below :
Chromatids lie
along the equatorial
plane of the cell
Centromere

Ans. 7. (i) Different parts can be labelled as :
A – Aster rays
B – Spindle fibres
C – Chromatid
(ii) The above stage is anaphase because the sister chromatids are at the poles.
(iii) This type of cell division occurs in the somatic cells.
(iv) The stage prior to anaphase is metaphase.
Chromatids lie
plane of the cell
Centromere

Ans. 8.(i) The above stage is metaphase because chromosomes are thick and short and are present at equato
rial plate.
(ii) Different labelled parts are as follows:
A – Astral ray, B – Chromatid,
C – Centromere, D – Spindle fibres
(iii) The part ‘C’, i.e. centromere keeps the two sister chromatids together.
It regulates the exact distribution of genetic information during mitosis.
(iv) The stage that comes just after the stage shown in the diagram is anaphase.
Ans. 9. Diagram showing metaphase stage of mitosis in the nucleus of a cell, having chromosome number 6
is given below :
Acromatic
spindle (b)
Aster (a)
Centromere (d)

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WORKSHEET-5
Ans. 1.(i) The diagram represents anaphase stage of the mitotic division. In this, centromere divides separating
sister chromatids of each chromosome.
They are now drawn apart and move towards opposite poles.
(ii) Different labelled parts are as follows :
A – Aster rays
B – Spindle fibres
C – Chromatids
(iii) Chromosome number of the cell shown is four.
(iv) The stage that just comes after anaphase is telophase.
In animal cell
Ans. 2. (i) Given stage in the figure is prophase because nuclear membrane has disappeared.
(ii) Organelle that forms aster is known as centrosome.
(iii) Different labelled parts are as follows:
A – Centrosome,
B – Sister chromatids
C – Spindle fibres
(iv) Stage that follows prophase is metaphase. Metaphase can be identified easily because chromosomes
are arranged at the equatorial or metaphase plate.
(v)
Mitosis Meiosis
(i) Two daughter cells are produced Four daughter cells are produced
(ii) Daughter cells receive full set of Daughter cells receive only half the number
Chromosomes, i.e. diploid (2n) number of of chromosomes, i.e. haploid (n) number of
chromosomes chromosomes.
Ans. 3.
Chromatids lie
plane of the cell
Centromere
(i) At the end of mitosis two daughter cells are formed and at the end of meiosis four daughter cells
are formed.
(ii) Types of cell division that occurs during the following cases are :
(a) Mitosis
(b) Meiosis
(c) Mitosis
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WORKSHEET-6
Ans. 1. (i) Waldeyer (ii) Diploid (iii) Haploid (iv) Two (v) Rods.
Ans. 2. Nucleotides
Ans. 3. Deoxyribonucleic acid
Ans. 4. Adenine is an example of nitrogen base found in DNA.
Ans. 5. A nucleotide is known as the repeated units of a DNA molecule.
Ans. 6. (c) Chromosome
Ans. 7. Four nitrogenous bases of DNA molecule are
(a) Adenine 
Purines
(b) Guanine  
(c) Cytosine 
(d) Thymine  Pyrimidines

Ans. 8. Chromatin fibres/material are the chromosomes that appear thread-like.
Ans. 9. The statement is false (spindle fibre attached to a point called centromere).
Ans. 10. DNA is the specific part of chromosome that determines heredity characteristics.
Ans. 11. The structure responsible to transmit characteristics from parent to offspring is chromosome.
Ans. 12.
Sister chromatids
Centromere
Chromosomal arm
Duplicated Chromosomal
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WORKSHEET-7
Ans. 1. Chromosome is a structure responsible for the same act as bearer of heredity units.
Ans. 2. Each single unit of chromosome is called chromatid. Centromere is the point of contact between the
two homologous chromatids. Haploid refers to the half the number of chromosomes (n) present in
somatic cell.
Ans. 3. (i) Adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine are four nitrogenous bases that form a DNA molecule.
(ii) The full form of DNA is Deoxyribonucleic acid.
(iii) Genes are the unit of heredity.
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CHAPTER
SECTION
B
2 GENETICS
WORKSHEET-8
Ans. 1. (i) Recessive (ii) Mutation (iii) Fertilization
Ans. 2. Homologous chromosomes
Ans. 3. Recessive. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
Ans. 4. Homologous chromosomes.

(ICSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
Ans. 5. Recessive gene is not expressed in the presence of a contrasting dominant allele .
Ans. 6. Monohybrid cross is a study of inheritance of one pair of contrasting characters.
Ans. 7. Mutation.
Ans. 8. Phenotype.
Ans. 9. (b) Homozygous condition
Ans. 10. Mendel presumed that a character is determined by a pair of factors present in each cell of an indi-
vidual. These are known as genes in modern genetics.
Ans. 11. Alleles or allelomorphs are various forms of gene or Mendelian factor which occurs on the same locus
on homologous chromosomes and control the same character. They control different expressions or
traits of the same character (e.g., tallness and dwarfness in Pea i.e. height).
Ans. 12. Suppressed allele of a gene is called recessive allele.
Ans. 13.(i) Monohybrid cross is the inheritance of one pair of contrasting characters.
(ii) Gene : Mendel presumed that a character is determined by a pair of factors present in each cell of
an individual. These are known as genes in modern genetics.
(iii) Phenotype are the physical or observable characteristics of an organism which are genetically
controlled.
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WORKSHEET-9
Ans. 1. Phenotype is the observable characteristic which is Genetically controlled.
Ans. 2. Phenotypic ratio in F2-generation of monohybrid cross is 3:1.
While, phenotypic ratio in F2-generation of dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1.
Ans. 3. The statement is false. It can be correctly written as chromosomes other than the pair of sex-chromo-
somes are called autosomes.
Ans. 4. Genotype is the genetic makeup of an organism. Phenotype is the physical or the observable charac-
teristic of an organism.
Ans. 5. A pair of chromosomes carrying dissimilar alleles of a particular character is called heterozygous.
Ans. 6. The pair of genes responsible for a particular characteristic in an individual are called alleles.
Ans. 7. Pure strains are made up of same type of alleles and Hybrid strains are made up of different type of
alleles.
Ans. 8. Genotype is known as the genetic constitution of an organism.
Ans. 9. The observable, morphological or physiological expression of an individual with regards to one or
more characters is called phenotype.
Ans. 10. The normal chromosome other than the sex chromosome in an individual are known as
autosomes.
Ans. 11. Chromosome.
Ans. 12. (i) Mutation is a rare, random, discontinuous inheritable change in the genetic material of an organism.
(ii) A pair of chromosomes of the same size and shape bearing corresponding genes governing the same
set of traits.
(iii) Alleles : Alleles or allelomorphs are various forms of gene or Mendelian factor which occurs on the

same locus on homologous chromosomes and control the same character. They control different
expressions or traits of the same character (e.g., tallness and dwarfness in Pea).
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WORKSHEET-10
Ans. 1 . (i) Recessive (ii) Genes (iii) Alleles (iv) 9:3:3:1
Ans. 2. In a hybrid, where both the contrasting alleles or unit factors are present, only one unit factor / allele
called dominant, is able to express its effect while the other factor / allele called recessive, remains
suppressed. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015) 1
Ans. 3. Law of segregation states that the two contrasting factors do not mix in the F1 hybrids but segregate
or separate from each other at the time of gamete formation.
Ans. 4. (i) Phenotypic ratio – All with Green pods
Genotypic ratio – All hybrid
Cross pollination
(ii) Phenotypic ration of F1 generation – 3 : 1
(iii) Gg × Gg
Possible combination of gametes – G, g
(iv) The two factors of a character which remains together in an individual do not get mixed up but
keep their identity distinct, separate at the time of gametogenesis and get paired again in different
offsprings.
(v) Pisum Sativum.
Ans. 5. (i) F1 generation
Phenotypes : All bear axial flowers.
Genotype : All are heterozygous dominant for axial flowers.
(ii) Aa × Aa
Heterozygous axial Heterozygous axial
A a
A AA Aa
a Aa aa
(iii) Phenotypic Ratio – 3 : 1

Genotypic Ratio – 1 : 2 : 1
(iv) Law of Dominance – Out of a pair of contrasting characters, only one is able to express while the
other remains suppressed.
(v) Haemophilia, Colour Blindness, Pattern Baldness.
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WORKSHEET-11
Ans. 1. The dihybrid ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Based on the observation in dihybrid crosses. Mandel proposed law of independent assortment (third
law) which states that when two pairs of contrasting characters are combined in a hybrid, segregation
of members of one pair of gamete is independent to member of another pair of gamete.
Ans. 2. The ratio of each phenotype of the seeds in the F2- generation obtained in a dihybrid cross is called
dihybrid ratio, i.e. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
Ans. 3. (i) Pisum sativum (pea) is the scientific name of the plant on which Mendel conducted his hybridization
experiments.
(ii) Genotype of the F1 -generation : RrYy
(iii) Ratio of F2 -generation 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
9–Round and yellow,
3–Round and green,
3–Wrinkled and yellow,
1–Wrinkled and green.
(iv) Law of independent assortment explain the dihybrid ratio with.
Law of independent assortment states that the factors of different pairs of contrasting characters
behave independent to each other at the time of gamete formation, and at the time of fertilization
they bring about all the possible combinations of characters.
(v) The possible combination of gametes that can be obtained from F1 -hybrid will be RY, Ry, rY, ry.
Ans. 4. (i) Law of independent assortment states that the factors of different pairs of contrasting characters
behave independent to each other at the time of gamete formation, and at the time of fertilization
they bring about all the possible combinations of characters.
(ii) TTRR ttrr Parents
(Tall plant, (Dwarf plant,
red flowers) white flowers) F1-generation
TR tr Gametes
(All tall plant,

red flowers)
TtRr Gametes
On selfing
TtRr TtRr
TR Tr tR tr

Selfing of F2 -generation
TR Tr tR tr
+
TR TTRR (Tall, red) TTRr (Tall, red) TtRR (Tall, red) TtRr (Tall, red)
Tr TTRr (Tall, red) TTrr (Tall, white) TtRr (Tall, red) Ttrr (Tall, white)
tR TtRr (Tall, red) TtRr (Tall, red) ttRR (Dwarf, red) ttRr (Dwarf, red)
tr TtTr(Tall, red) Ttrr (Tall, white) ttRr (Dwarf, red) ttrr (Dwarf, white)
(a) Genotype of the F1 -generation – TtRr

Phenotype of the F1 -generation – Tall plant with red flowers
(b) Possible combination of the gametes that can be obtained from F1 -hybrids are TR, Tr, tR, tr.
(c) Dihybrid ratio and phenotypic ratio of the F2 -generation is
Phenotype Tall and Tall and Dwarf and Dwarf

Red White Red and
White
Dihybrid 9 3 3 1
ratio
Ans. 5. (i) Homozygous round seed – RR

Homozygous wrinkled seed – rr
RR × rr
Gametes : - Rr
F1-generation – All round seeds
(ii) F2 -generation :
Phenotypic ratio : 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio : 1: 2 : 1
(iii) Sex chromosomes in human males and females are known as autosomes.
Males XY Females : XX
(iv) Sudden change in one or more genes/numbers and structure of chromosomes.
(v) Number of chromosomes in the gametes of human beings is 23. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
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WORKSHEET-12
Ans. 1.(i) Phenotype of F1 progeny is axial flowers with round seeds.
(ii) Phenotype of F2 progeny are axial round (9), axial wrinkled (3), terminal round (3) and terminal
wrinkled (1).
(iii) Phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(iv) Mendel introduced the law of independent assortment on the basis of above observation.
Ans. 2. (i) Law of Dominance : In a hybrid where both the contrasting alleles or unit factors are present, only
one unit factor / allele called dominant is able to express its effect while the other factor / allele called
recessive remains suppressed.
(ii) Punnett square showing cross between TT and tt is given below.
(iii) Phenotype of the F2-generation is 3 Tall : 1 Dwarf.

(iv) F1 -generation
Phenotype – All plants are tall.
Genotype – Tt
F2 -generation
Phenotypic ratio – 3 : 1 (Tall : dwarf)
Genotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 1
(Tall : hybrid : dwarf)
(v) X-linked disease found in humans is haemophilia.
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WORKSHEET-13
Ans. 1. 46
Ans. 2. (i) 44 + XX chromosome
Ans. 3. Sex chromosomes of female are homozygous (xx) while in male it is heterozygous (xy). If a sperm
bearing x-chromosome fertilizes with the ovum, xx zygote formed is a female child. If a sperm bearing
y-chromosome fertilizes with the ovum, xy zygote formed is a male child. So the sex of a child depends
upon its father.
Ans. 1. Albinism is the odd one that doesn’t belong to the other three diseases because it is an autosomal,
recessive genetic disorder. The other three are sex linked disorders which are caused by recessive gene
located in the X chromosome.
Ans. 2. Colour blindness and Haemophilia.
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CHAPTER
SECTION
B
3 HUMAN EVOLUTION
WORKSHEET-14
Ans. 1. D. Australopithecus
Ans. 2. Cro-Magnon man
Ans. 3. Parapithecus
Ans. 4. Dryopithecus
Ans. 5. In the Shivalik hills of India.
Ans. 6. No
Ans. 7. 1300 – 1600 cm³.
Ans. 8. Shivalik foothills of the Himalayas.
Ans. 9. (i) Large head, mobile neck, short trunk with broad chest, long limbs ; (ii) large, highly convoluted
brain ; (iii) well developed facial muscles to express emotions ; (iv) lack of tail
Ans. 10. Homo sapiens fossils : The fossil modern man or Cro-Magnon man with cranial capacity of 1650 cm³.
Homo sapiens sapiens : The living modern man with the cranial capacity of 1200 – 1600 cm³.
Ans. 11. The Cro-magnon man was 1.8 metres tall with sturdy, less hairy body and cranial capacity of 1650 c.c.,
about the same as in the living man. He had large skulls, strong jaws with teeth closer together and
wisdom teeth, high forehead, broad flat face and prominent chin. The Cro-magnon lived in families
in the caves. They could walk and run erect, made sophisticated tools, were expert hunters and knew
the use of fire. They were omnivorous. They used clothes made of animal skin. They had develop art,
and have left paintings and carvings in the caves.
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WORKSHEET-15
Ans. 1. Just another animal.
Ans. 2. (a) Homo habilis
Ans. 3. (a) Cro-magnon man
Ans. 4. (b) Java man
Ans. 5. (a) Homo sapiens
Ans. 6. (d) 1400 cc
Ans. 7. (a) Homo habilis
Ans. 8. Erect posture increased height which provided greater range of vision for life in open savannah. Large
brain increased intelligence and provided proper coordination of movements.
Ans. 9. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral. The curves help to maintain balance and make walking erect on
two legs much easier.

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WORKSHEET-16
Ans. 1. If an organ is constantly used it would be better developed whereas disuse of organ results in its
degeneration.
Ans. 2. Inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. 3. Yes
Ans. 4. Industrial regions
Ans. 5. Inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. 6. (b) Inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. 7. (b) Muscles of ear pinna
Ans. 8. (d) Darwin and Wallace
Ans. 9. (c) Natural selection leading to the survival of fittest
Ans. 10. (d) Beagle
Ans. 11. For the survival of moths, nature has produced by mutation a dark coloured melanic species from the
light coloured species. Within a period of years in industrial or polluted areas, the dark species almost
replaced the light species. This is called industrial melanism because of its association with the sooty
atmosphere of industry.
Ans. 12. In artificial selection, man selects a traits useful to him for breeding animals. In the wild, nature selects
traits favourable to the species in its environment.
Ans. 13. The organs which occur in reduced form and are useless to the possessor, but are homologous to the
fully developed, functional organs of related animals are called vestigial organs.
Ans. 14. There are about 90 vestigial organs in the human body. The conspicuous among these are tail bone,
canine and wisdom teeth, body hair and mammae in man, third eyelid, auricular muscles of pinna,
caecum and vermiform appendix.
Ans. 15. Factors of the theory
(i) New Needs
(ii) Acquisition of characters
(iii) Inheritance of acquired characters
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CHAPTER
SECTION
B
4 ABSORPTION BY ROOTS
WORKSHEET-17
Ans. 1. (i) Shrunken (ii) Greater (iii) Semipermeable (iv) Hypotonic (v) Flaccid.
Ans. 2. Turgid cell surrounded by hypotonic solution
Plasmolysed cell surrounded by hypertonic solution.
Ans. 3. Plasmolysis is the phenomena of contraction of cytoplasm from the cell wall.
Ans. 4. Fertilizer along with soil water acts as a hypertonic solution. This leads to exosmosis, i.e. movement
of water from plant. Thus, the plant begins to die.
Ans. 5. Hypotonic solution : Endosmosis takes place facilitating absorption of water.
Hypertonic solution : Plasmolysis takes place when plant cell placed in hypertonic solution.
Ans. 6. Diffusions
Ans. 7. Hypertonics
Ans. 8. Endosmosis.
Ans. 9. (a) Endosmosis. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 10. (i) Wooden doors swell up in rainy season due to imbibition.
(ii) Plasmolysis is the phenomenon of contraction of cytoplasm from the cell wall.
Ans. 11. Plasmolysis is the shrinkage of protoplast from the cell wall due to exosmosis caused by hypertonic
solution.
Application of plasmolysis – Salt is added to pickles to preserve them for longer duration.
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WORKSHEET-18
Ans. 1. Free movement of solutes in and out of the cell takes place across the cell wall.
Ans. 2. (c) Wall pressure exceeds Turgor pressure.
Ans. 3. Present in the epidermis of the stems of woody plants. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 4. Turgor pressure is the pressure which develops in a cell and is exerted on cell wall due to osmotic
diffusion of water inside the cell results in osmotic stretching of cell wall.
Ans. 5.(i)
S. Plasmolysis Deplasmolysis
No.
(a) It takes place when a cell is kept in a hypertonic It takes place when plasmolysed cell is placed in
solution. a hypotonic solution.
(b) Shrinkage of protoplast Swelling of protoplast
(c) Cells become flaccid Cells become turgid
(ii) Osmotic pressure and Turgor pressure
S.
Osmotic pressure Turgor pressure
No.
(a) It develops due to osmotic entry of water in a It is the pressure exerted by the cell contents on
cell the cell wall.
(b) It helps in the absorption of water. It helps the plant in keeping erect.
(iii) Endosmosis and Exosmosis
S.
Endosmosis Exosmosis
No.
(a) It occurs when a cell is placed in a hypotonic It occurs when a cell is placed in a hypertonic
solution. solution.
(b) Water moves into the cell. Water moves out of the cell.
(iv) Flaccid Condition and Turgid Condition
S.
Flaccid Condition Turgid Condition
No.
(a) It is a condition when a cell is placed in a It happens when a cell is placed in hypotonic
hypertonic solution solution.
(b) Water is lost from the plant due to exosmosis Water enters cell due to endosmosis.
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WORKSHEET-19
Ans. 1. They allow diffusion of gases for respiration and photosynthesis. / diffusion of O2 / CO2.
Ans. 2. Turgor Pressure in a turgid plant cell is the pressure exerted by the cell contents on the cell wall.
Wall Pressure in a turgid plant cell is the pressure exerted by the cell wall on cell contents.
Ans. 3. Wooden frames of doors get jammed during monsoon season due to the process of imbibition.
In this process, water is adsorbed to the surface of hydrophilic colloids. As wood has strong affinity
for water, they absorb water from their surroundings and get swelled up.
Ans. 4. Imbibition is the phenomenon by which living or dead plant cells absorb water by surface attraction.

Ans. 5. Plasma membrane is selectively permeable membrane or differentially permeable membrane which
allows the passage of molecules selectively.
Ans. 6. Osmosis is the net flow of solvent (water) molecules from a solution of its less concentration to a solution
of its higher concentration through a semipermeable membrane without permitting the diffusion of
solutes.
Ans. 7.(i) The cubes of potato were firm and increased in size because of entry of water into the cell due to
endosmosis.
(ii) The cubes that were placed in sugar solution were soft and decreased in size due to movement of
water to outside from the cell i.e. exosmosis.
(iii) The process is called osmosis. It is passage of water from a region of their lower concentration to a
region of their lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
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WORKSHEET-20
Ans. 1. Potato cubes when placed in water become firm and increase in size. This happens because water acts
as a hypotonic medium, thus water enters into potato cells due to endosmosis making them firm and
larger in size.
Ans. 2. Turgidity is a condition of being fully distended due to endosmosis. Healthy plant cells are turgid and
plants rely on turgidity to maintain rigidity.
Ans. 3. Diffusion is the movement of molecules of substance (gas, liquid or solid) from the region of higher
concentration to the region of lower concentration. Diffusing particles exert pressure called diffusion
pressure.
Ans. 4. Diffusion.
Ans. 5. Osmosis is the movement of water molecule from its region of lower concentration to region of lower
concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
Ans. 6. Diffusion.
Ans. 7. Hypertonic solution.
Ans. 8. (i) Flaccid / Plasmolysed.
(ii) Plasma membrane.
(iii) 1 – Cell Wall 2 – Strong sugar solution 3 – Cell membrane 4 – Nucleus
(iv) Keeping the cell in tap water / hypotonic solution
Deplasmolysis
(v) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Large vacuoles
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WORKSHEET-21
Ans. 1. Fertilizers along with soil water acts as a hypertonic solution. This leads to exosmosis, i.e. movement
of water from plant thus the plants begin to die.
Ans. 2. It is the solution having more concentration than that of cytoplasm.
Ans. 3. Marine fish burst when thrown under tap water because their cells exist best in hypertonic solution
or salty water. When put in tap water or hypotonic solution, their cells show endosmosis and thus
swells and bursts.
Ans. 4. Sprinkling salt makes soil hypertonic, hence grass loose water due to exosmosis and thus get killed.
Ans. 5. Leaves of wilted lettuce are flaccid in nature due to the loss of water. When these leaves are kept in
cold water the water enters the cell making them turgid. Hence, they become crisp.
Ans. 6. Endosmosis.
Ans. 7. Osmosis is the process by which water enters into root hair cell.
Ans. 8. Phloem.
Ans. 9. (i) The technical terms of the solution used in beakers (a), (b) and (c) are
(a) Hypotonic solution (b) Hypertonic solution
(c) Isotonic solution
(ii) In beaker c. There is no difference in concentration of solution and the concentration of cell sap. So
there is no movement of water molecules / No osmosis.
(iii) Concentrated cell sap.
(iv) It is the movement of water / solvent molecules from the region of it’s higher concentration to the
region of lower concentration. across a semipermeable membrane.
(v) Cell wall - Freely permeable.
Cell membrane – Selectively permeable.
Ans. 10. (i)
(ii) The scientific term used for the above change shown in figure is plasmolysis.
(iii)
To restore the cell back to its original condition, it must be placed in hypotonic solution immediately
after it gets plasmolysed.
(iv) The scientific term used for the recovery of the cell as a result of the step taken in (iii) above is
deplasmolysis.
(v) Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from its region of lower concentration to its region of
higher concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
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WORKSHEET-22
Ans. 1. Active absorption
Ans. 2. Active transport is the movement of molecules (or ions) from lower concentration to higher concentra-
tion against a concentration gradient using energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) e.g.
uptake of mineral ions into root cells.
Ans. 3. (i) Root hairs are thin walled.
(ii) The concentration of cell sap of root hair is more than the soil water.
Ans. 4. If the soil is fertilized and not well watered, the concentration of soil solution will be very high and
water begins to move from the root hair cells to soil due to exosmosis. If this process continues for a
long time, plasmolysis takes place and leads to wilting of plants.
Ans. 5. (b) hypertonic solution.
Ans. 6. Turgor pressure.
Ans. 7. Xylem.
Ans. 8. Turgor Pressure
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WORKSHEET-23
Ans. 1. The correct logical sequence is
Soil water, root hair, cortex, endodermis, xylem
Ans. 2. The pressure generated by the cortical cells of the root that pushes the water and minerals into the
xylem vessels for the upward conduction upto the stem level is known as root pressure.
Ans. 3. Incorrect term : Epidermis
Correct term : Endodermis.
Ans. 4. (i) Osmosis is the process being studied through the given experiment.
(ii) Osmosis is the movement of water molecule from its region of lower concentration to its region of
higher concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
(iii) After about 10 minutes, the sugar solution in the thistle funnel will rise.
(iv) Sugar solution is hypertonic in nature as it is more concentrated than water.
(v) Cell sap of the root hair.
(vi) Salt is added to pickles as it provides hypertonic medium due to which water molecules moves out
of the cell by the mechanism of plasmolysis.
This allows pickle to be preserved for long duration.
Ans. 5. (i) The technical term for the condition of cell (a) is turgid cell and for the condition of cell (b) is plas
molysed cell or flaccid cell.
(ii) Cell (a) was placed in water solution whereas, cell (b) was placed in strong sugar solution before
being viewed under the microscope.
(iii) The root hair cell wall resemble cell (a) in the condition when the field is over flooded. The root hair
cell will resemble cell (b) increase of excessive application of fertilizers in the field.
(iv) Root pressure is responsible for the movement of water from the root hair cell to the xylem of the
root.
(v) This pressure is built up due to cell to cell osmosis in the root tissues. As one turgid cell presses the
next cell, the force of the flow of water increases inward. When the water reaches the xylem vessels,
it enters the pores of their thick walls with considerable force.
(vi)
Cell to cell difference of osmotic pressure and turgor pressure helps in the movement of water up
the xylem of the root.
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WORKSHEET-24
Water, root hair, cortical cell, xylem,veins
Ans. 2. Phloem transports manufactured food from leaves to other parts of the plant.
Ans. 3. (i) Xylem tissue is responsible for ascent of sap in plants.
(ii) Root pressure is responsible for the movement of water molecules across cortical cells of the roots.
Ans. 4. Root hair transports water from the soil to other parts of the plant.
Ans. 5. (i) 1. Root hair cell
2. Soil particle / Soil Water
3. Xylem vessel
4. Cortex cortical cells
(ii) Endosmosis
(iii) Osmotic pressure / Root pressure.
– It is the minimum pressure to be exerted to prevent the passage of pure solvent into the solution
when the two are separated by a semipermeable membrane.
– It is the pressure caused due to cell osmosis.
(iv) Guttation / exudation.
(v)

Diagram : Shrunken protoplasm, flaccid root hair
Ans. 6. (i) Different parts can be labelled as

A – Cell membrane of root hair
B – Cell wall of root hair
C – Cytoplasm
D – Nucleus
(ii) The soil medium is hypotonic, thus endosmosis occurs and leads to turgid condition of the root hair
cell.
(iii) A ( cell membrane ) B ( cell wall)
It is semipermeable. It is freely-permeable
(iv) Representation of root hair cell when a concentrated solution of fertilizer is added is given below :

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WORKSHEET-25
Ans.1. Water enters the root hair from the soil by the process of endosmosis. This is because the solution in
the soil is hypotonic, whereas the cell sap in the root hair cell is hypertonic. The water then passes
through cortical cells by cell to cell osmosis and reaches the xylem of the root.
Ans. 2.(i) Part of the plant shown in the figure is the internal structure of a root.
(ii) Different parts can be labelled as :
A – Root hair
B – Epidermis
C – Cortex
D – Endodermis
E – Phloem
F – Xylem
(iii) Function of different parts are :
Part C (Cortex) The cells of the cortex store food and also conduct water from epidermis to the inner
tissues.
Part E (Phloem) Phloem transports organic food made in leaves to storage organs of the plant.
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WORKSHEET-26
Ans. 1. Plants loses water in the form of droplets through pores called hydathodes. The process is called as
guttation.
Ans. 2. D. Hot, dry and windy
Ans. 3. Hydathodes are located at the leave margins.
Ans. 4. Lenticels
Ans. 5. Cuticle
Ans. 6. Potometer
Ans. 7. Lenticels help in facilitating the process of transpiration in woody plants.
Ans. 8. Odd term Phagocytosis.
All the other three terms are concerned with processes in plants.
Ans. 9. Balsam plants wilt during mid day even if the soil is well watered because. The rate of transpiration
is more than that the rate of absorption of water as the intensity of light and temperature is high
during mid-day. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 10. Cuticle is the waxy layer on epidermis of the leaf meant to reduce transpiration.
Ans. 11. Lenticel is the biological term used for the permanently open structure seen on the bark of an old
woody stem.
Ans. 12. Lenticels are located on the bark of the older woody stem.
Ans. 13.
S.
Transpiration Guttation
No.
(i) It occurs from the aerial part of the plant. It occurs at the tips of leaves.
(ii) Loss of water in the form of water vapour. Loss of water in the form of water droplets.
(iii) Occurs in the presence of sunlight. Does not require sunlight, seen in early morning.
(iv) Water loses through stomata, lenticels, Water loses through hydathodes.
cuticles.
(v) Provides cooling effect to the body. Does not provide any cooling effect.

Ans. 14. Hydathodes are located on the margins of the leaves of herbaceous plants eg., Cucurbita.
Ans. 15. The logical sequence is
Xylem, mesophyll cells, intercellular spaces, substomatal space, stomata.
Ans. 16. (iii) Loss of water as droplets from hydathodes is called Guttation.
Ans. 17. Bleeding is the exudation of cell sap from any injured or cut part of a plant, due to increased root
pressure.
Ans. 18. (i) Transpiration
(ii) Transpiration is the loss of water in the form of vapours from the aerial parts of plant.
(iii) Importance of transpiration –
(a) It helps in upward movement of water and minerals from the plant.
(b) It controls the rate of water being absorbed by the roots.
(iv) Three factors that will increase the rate of transpiration are :
(a) Wind velocity : On a windy day, the rate of transpiration increases because of moving wind
which removes the water vapours from around the leaves.
(b) Relative humidity : Increase in relative humidity decreases the rate of transpiration.
(c) Light intensity : In bright light the rate of transpiration increases as the stomata is wide open.
(v) B – Translocation of water
C – Absorption of water : The diagram below represents a process in plants.
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WORKSHEET-27
Ans. 1. On a bright sunny day, the cells of the leaves losses water due to transpiration and thus lose their
turgidity. This causes the leaves to roll up and thus reduce transpiration.
Ans. 2. Hydathodes are the structures involved in the guttation process that occurs in the plants.
Ans. 3. Bleeding is known as the loss of water from injured parts of the plant.
Ans. 4. On a hot day, the stomata are fully open and the rate of transpiration is more than the rate of absorp-
tion. This leads to wilting in them.
Ans. 5. Bleeding is the biological term for the exudation of sap from injured parts of a plant.
Ans. 6. Guttation is the process by which plant losses water in the form of droplets through pores (hydath-
odes).
Ans. 7. Location : Stoma are found on the epidermis of the leaves.
Function : They help in the process of transpiration.
Ans. 8. Xerophytes grow in scarcity of water. So, in order to decrease the rate of transpiration, their leaves are
modified into spines or reduced in size.
Ans. 9. Location : Lenticels are located on the barks of the older woody stems.
Function : Lenticels help in facilitating the process of transpiration in woody plants.
Ans. 10. Ganong’s photometer is used to measure the rate of transpiration.
Limitations :
(i) Introducing air bubble is difficult.
(ii) Amount of water through transpiration cannot be measured.
Ans. 11. (i) On a windy day, the rate of transpiration increases because of moving air which removes the water
vapour from the leaves.
(ii) On a foggy day, the rate of transpiration decreases because of high atmospheric moisture (humidity)
lowers the rate of transpiration.
Ans. 12. Some adaptations in plants that to reduce the transpiration are given below :
(i) The leaves may be covered with thick cuticle.
(ii) The stomata are sunken or reduced in some plants, specially in xerophytes.
(iii) The leaves may be absent or modified into spines as in most cacti.
Ans. 13.
Oxygen in air Stomata Air space Mesophyll cells.
→ → →
Ans. 14. (i) In bright light the rate of transpiration increases as the stomata is wide open. In dim light rate of
transpiration gets lowered.
(ii) Rate of transpiration is inversely proportional to the relative humidity. The higher the humidity,
the lower is the rate of transpiration and vice versa.
Ans. 15. (i) Sunlight
(ii) Humidity
(iii) Wind
Ans. 16. (i) Transpiration
Oil is added to the water to prevent any loss of water due to evaporation.
(ii) The plant has lost the weight after placing it in bright sunlight for 4-5 hours.
This is because plant has lost water in the form of water vapour by transpiration.
(iii) (a) The level of water will not change much when it is placed in humid atmosphere because rate of
transpiration is inversely proportional to the relative humidity.
(b) The level of water will decrease fast when plant is placed in windy condition because
transpiration rate is more in windy conditions.
(iv) Three adaptations in plants to overcome the transpirations are :
(a) In order to reduce transpiration, plants produce thick cuticle.
(b) Presence of some chemicals which reduce the degree of stomatal opening e.g. PMA (phenyl
mercuric acetate)
(c) Formation of ultra thin surface film of silicon emulsion over the leaf surface. It is more
permeable to gases than water vapours.
(v) Guttation : It is the process of exudation of water with salts and organic matter from pores of
plants
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WORKSHEET-28
Ans. 1. (i) Ganong’s Potometer.
(ii) Transpiration / measures rate of uptake of water due to transpiration.
(iii) It is the loss of water as water vapours from the aerial parts of the plant.
(iv) (a) Introducing the air bubble is difficult.
(b) Twig may not be alive for a long period.
(c) Changes in the outside temperature/light/humidity affects the position of air bubble.
(Any two)
(v) Helps to calculate the rate of transpiration in a given time.
(vi) Stomata, Lenticels, Cuticle. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 2. (i) Transpiration.

(ii) It is the loss of the water as water vapours from the aerial parts/stem, leaves of the plant.
(iii) To prevent evaporation of water from the soil.
(iv) An empty polythene bag with its mouth tied and kept in sunlight will show no droplets of water
inside.
(v) Benefits of transpiration :
(a) Gives a cooling effect to the plant on hot days.
(b) Suction force is created for ascent of sap.
(c) Distribution of water and mineral salt. (Any two)
(vi) Adaptation in plants to reduce transpiration :
(a) Sunken stomata.
(b) Stomata covered by hair.
(c) Fewer stomata.
(d) Narrow leaves.
(e) Rolled or folded leaves.
(f) Leaves absent or modified into spines.
(g) Thick cuticle on leaves. (Any three)
WORKSHEET-29
Ans. 1. (i) Transpiration.
(ii) The process of removal of water as water vapour (operative) from the aerial parts/leaf/stomata
(operative) of a plant body.
(iii) I n A – The weight of test tube reduces, as the leafy shoot transpires and in turn it absorbs water
from test tube.
(iv) It acts as a control set-up. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 2. (i) The physiological process being studied is transpiration.
(ii) After 2-3 days the level of water in test tube ‘A’ will go down (to a greater extent) as compared to test
tube ‘B’ in which the level of water remains the same.
(iii)
The water in test tube ‘A’ was absorbed by roots. It reaches the leaves through the xylem vessels.
The process of transpiration is responsible for the loss of water through the leaves. Therefore,
the level of water in test tube ‘A’ falls down. In test tube ‘B’, there is no plant so, no transpiration has
taken place. Also oil prevents a loss of water by evaporation. Therefore, the level of water remains the
same.
(iv)
The surface of water is covered with oil. Each test tube in order to prevent loss of water due to
evaporation.
(v) Test tube ‘B’ has been set-up as a control in the experiment which shows that water is absorbed by
roots and transpired by a plant in the test tube ‘A’.
Ans. 6. (i) CaCl2 vials were kept in order to absorb moisture, formed due to transpiration from upper and lower
surface of the leaf.
(ii) Yes, the difference in weight will be observed after few hours as the weight will be more because of
moisture absorbed.
(iii) Manometer has been used to check outside and inside pressure to prevent any possible entry or exit
of air.
(iv) Transpiration is the loss of the water in the form of water vapours from the aerial parts of the
plant.
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SECTION
CHAPTER
B
5 PHOTOSYNTHESIS
WORKSHEET-30
Ans. 1. (i) Guard cells (ii) Thylakoids (iii) Granum (iv) Osmotic/Turgor (v) Spongy and Palisade
Ans. 2. The main function of chloroplast is to trap the light energy and to transform this energy into chemical
energy, i.e. ATP and NADPH to be used in dark reactions.
Ans. 3. Thylakoids.
Ans. 4. Photophosphorylation is the process of conversion of ADP into ATP during photosynthesis.
Ans. 5. Leaf – Starch
Liver - Glycogen
Ans. 6. Phloem transports starch from the leaves to all parts of the plant body.
Ans. 7. Grana (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 8. Photosynthesis involves light reaction and dark reaction. During light reaction, the chlorophyll
molecules present in the (i) Thylakoid gets activated by absorbing light energy. This energy splits (ii)
water molecules to (iii) Hydrogen ions and oxygen and releases two electrons. This process is called
(iv) photolysis. The (v) Hydrogen ions are picked up by NADP to form (vi) NADPH2. The ADP is
converted to (vii) ATP. This process is called (viii) photophosphorylation. During the Dark phase,
the compound produced at the end of light reaction reacts with carbon dioxide to form (ix) Glucose.
This product is converted to starch. The process is called (x) polymerisation.
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WORKSHEET-31
Ans. 1. Guard cells are specialized epidermal cells present in stomatal apparatus in aerial parts of a plant.
Guard cells help in transpiration and have chloroplasts.
Ans. 2. It is present in stroma/matrix of chloroplast (in granum of the chloroplast).
Ans. 4. Chloroplast mainly found in the mesophyll cells located between upper and lower epidermis of the
leaves.
Ans. 5. (i) Photosynthesis
(ii) It is a process by which plant cells containing chlorophyll prepare food / glucose from CO2 and
water using sunlight.
(iii) O2 was used up by the burning candle. Mouse dies due to lack of oxygen / asphyxiation.
(iv) – provides food for all organisms.
– provides O2 for respiration.
Sunlight
(v) 6CO2 + 12 H2O Chlorophyll
→ C6H12O6 + 6 O2 ↑ + 6 H2 O (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
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WORKSHEET-32
Ans. 1. The difference between photolysis and photophosphorylation are given below :
Photolysis Photophosphorylation
It is a process of splitting of water molecule into It is a process of formation of ATP from ADP and
2H+ + 4e– + ½ O2 in the presence of sunlight by inorganic phosphate by the utilization of energy
activated photo-synthetic pigments. released by electrons emitted during Photolysis of
water.
Ans. 2. Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate is the full forms of NADP.
Ans. 3.
Stoma Stroma
Stoma is the opening of the stomata through Stroma (matrix) is the part / region in the chloroplast
which transpired water and respiratory gases where dark reactions of the photosynthesis takes
pass through. place.

Ans. 4. Light reaction of photosynthesis takes place in the grana/thylakoids of the chloroplast.
Ans. 5.
Light Reaction Dark reaction
Occurs in the thylakoids/grana of the Dark reaction occurs in the stroma of the
chloroplast. Chloroplast.

Ans. 6. Polymerization.
Ans. 7. Sleeping under a tree at night is not advisable because plants respire at night due to which the atmos-
phere surrounding the tree is rich in carbon dioxide which is harmful for us.
Ans. 8. Chloroplast.
Ans. 9. The given statement is false. The correct statement is respiration occurs in all cells of plants.
Ans. 10. Photolysis on photosynthesis is the splitting of water molecules into hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions
in the presence of chlorophyll and light.
Ans. 11. Grana is the sight of light reaction in the cells of a green leaf of a plant.
Ans. 12. Stroma is the ground substance present in the chloroplast.
Ans. 13. These are the adaptations found in plants- large surface area to maximize light harvesting, presence
of more stomata to allow rapid exchange of gases, presence of transparent cuticle and epidermis to
allow light to enter freely and move easily.
Ans. 14. The given statement is false. The correct statement is plants that manufacture their own food are called
autotrophs.
Ans. 15. Photolysis is the splitting of water molecules into hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions in the presence of
chlorophyll and light.
Ans. 17. Animals owe their existence to chlorophyll because plants with chlorophyll produces the food used
by all the living organisms.
Ans. 18. Chloroplast is the cytoplasmic organelle that helps in the manufacture of glucose and starch.
Ans. 19.(i) The organelle shown in the diagram is chloroplast.
(ii) Photosynthesis in the process which occurs in the chloroplast.
(iii) Photosynthesis is gives the food and life saving gas i.e. oxygen
(iv) Phases of process occurs in part labelled are : part A – dark reaction
Part B – Light reaction
(v) Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate (NADP). It picks up hydrogen ions during photolysis
of water in the light reaction.
Sunlight
(vi) 6CO2 + 12 H2O Chlorophyll
→ C6H12O6 +6 H2O + 6 O2 ↑
WORKSHEET-33
Ans. 2. Green leaves are thin and broad so as to provide the large surface area for trapping light and easy
gaseous exchange for photosynthesis to occur.
Ans. 3. Location : Thylakoids are found in chloroplast. Function : The function of Thylakoid is to trap the
light energy and to transform this energy into chemical energy, that is ATP and NADPH to be used
in dark reactions.
Ans. 4. The splitting of water molecule in the presence of sunlight into hydrogen and hydroxyl ions is termed
as photolysis.
Ans. 5. NADP : Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate.
ADP : Adenosine Diphosphate.
Ans. 6. Dark reaction occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.
Ans. 8. The reactants of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide and water (in the presence of chlorophyll and
sunlight).
Ans. 9. Adenosine triphosphate is the full form of ATP.
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WORKSHEET-34
Ans. 1. Hydrilla.
Ans. 2. (i) remove starch from the plant
Ans. 3. Destarched plant is the one which is kept in the dark to remove the starch from the leaves. The process
for destarching is done by keeping the plant in dark for 2-3 days.
Ans. 4. (c) leaves are free from starch
Ans. 5. (i) Pluck the leaf and boil it in water for a minute.
(ii) Decolourised with warm spirit.
(iii) Moisten and dipped in iodine solution.
(iv) Blue colour indicates starch.
Ans. 6. To test the leaf for starch, the leaf is boiled in water to (i) kill the cells . It is next boiled in methylated
spirit to (ii) remove chlorophyll . The leaf is placed in warm water to soften it . It is then placed in a
dish and (iii) iodine solution is added. The region, which contains starch, turns (iv) blue-black and the
region, which does not contain starch, turns (v)Brown .
Ans. 7. (i) The aim of the experiment is to show that CO2 is necessary for photosynthesis.
(ii) KOH solution. KOH will give the CO2 free medium inside the flask.
(iii) Leaf B does not turn blue-black while leaf C turned blue-black at the end of the starch test.
Sunlight
(iv) 6 CO2 + 12 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2↑
(v) Destarching is the process in which plant is kept in the dark to remove the starch from the leaves.
Ans. 8. (i) The aspect that is studied is that sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis.
(ii) Plant is placed in the dark before beginning the experiment to make the leaves free from starch or
destrach.
(iii) (a) Leaf is boiled in water to kill the cells.
(b) Leaf is boiled in methylated spirit to dissolve the chlorophyll.

Sunlight
(iv) 6 CO2 + 12 H2O Chlorophyll
→ C 6 H 12 O 6 + 6H2O + 6O2 ↑
(v)

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WORKSHEET-35
Ans. 1.(i) The aim of the experiment is to prove that chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis.
(ii) Chemical used for testing the presence of starch is iodine solution.
(iii) Leaf is boiled in water to soften and boiled in alcohol to remove chlorophyll.
(iv) The green parts (starch contain) of the plants turned blue-black, while non-green (or no starch) parts
turned brown.
Sunlight
(v) 6 CO2 + 12 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O+ 6 O2↑
Ans. 2. (i) Chlorophyll : Inadequate amount of nutrients like minerals cause loss of chlorophyll in leaves thereby
reducing the absorption of solar energy.
(ii) Protoplasm : Dehydration of protoplasm & accumulation of sugar & starch in the leaves reducing
the rate of photosynthesis.
(iii) Structure of leaves : size, structure, thickness of leaf & position & number of stomata & number of
chloroplasts in the leaf all affects the rate of photosynthesis.
Ans. 3. (i) The aim of the experiment is to show that CO2 is necessary for photosynthesis.
(ii) The leaf inside the flask does not give blue-black colour when tested with iodine.
(iii) NaOH (sodium hydroxide) can be used as an alternative for KOH.
(iv) Leaf B does not turn blue-black while leaf C turned blue-black at the end of the starch test.
Ans. 4. (i) Aim of the given experiment is to show that chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis.
(ii) The test performed on leaf is starch test and the solution used is iodine solution.
(iii) Variegated leaf /coleus leaf (leaf having non-green and green regions was used for the experiment)
(iv) After performing starch test :
Part A will turn blue-black with iodine solution.
Part B will turn brown with iodine solution.
Sunlight, chlorophyll
(v) 6 CO2 + 12 H2O  → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2↑
Ans. 5. (i) The process being studied is photosynthesis.
(ii) It is a physiological process by which chlorophyll containing cells of the plant prepare glucose in
the presence of sunlight using CO2 and water. O2 is released during the process.
(iii) The aim of this experiment is to prove that oxygen is released during photosynthesis.
(iv) 6 CO2 + 12 H2O  → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2↑
Ans. 6. (i) Sunlight is the factor being studied in the experiment.
(ii) Plant is placed in the dark before beginning the experiment to make the leaves free from starch.
(iii) (a) Leaf is boiled in water to kill the cells.
(b) Leaf is boiled in methylated spirit to remove the chlorophyll.
(iv) Iodine solution is used to test for presence of starch in the leaf.
(v) On treating the leaf with iodine solution shows that portion of leaf covered with the strip of black
paper does not give positive test for starch. The covered portion of leaf indicates the absence of
starch after iodine test because it could not get light to perform photosynthesis hence, it is proved
that in the absence of light the leaf cannot manufacture starch.
(vi) 6 CO2 + 12 H2O  → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2↑

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WORKSHEET-36
Ans. 1. (i)

(ii) Events that takes place in the photochemical phase of photosynthesis are (a) activation of
chlorophyll
(b) splitting of water
H2O → H+ + OH–
→ 2H+ + O +2e–
(c) Piking up of hydrogen ions by a compound NADP to form NADPH,
i.e. NADP + e– + H+ → NADPH
(d) Release of the oxygen component as molecular oxygen.
2 × ½ O 2 → O2
(e) Conversion of ADP into energy rich compound (ATP) by adding one inorganic phosphate (Pi).
ADP + Phosphate = ATP
(iii) (a) To show the effect of light on photosynthesis we would select white light or visible light i.e.
portion of the spectrum between 400 nm and 700 nm which is called photosynthetically active
radiation (PAR), which lies between wavelengths of ultraviolet and infrared. Only green light
would show inhibitory effect on the photosynthesis as it get reflected and is least effective.
(b) A destarched plant is selected so that the starch which was previously prepared by the plant
does not affect the result of the experiment.
Ans. 3. (i)

(ii) 6 CO2 + 12 H2O  → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2↑
Ans. 4. (i) Tube B (b) will show the greatest increase in dry weight of the pond weed.
(ii) Least amount of starch will be found in Tube E (e).
(iii) Most oxygen will be found in test tube A (a)
(iv) Least carbon dioxide will be found in test tube A (a).
(v) The plant will survive for the shortest length of time in tube C (c).
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CHAPTER
SECTION
B
6 CHEMICAL COORDINATION IN PLANTS
WORKSHEET-37
Ans. 1. (i) Went
(ii) Ethylene; ABA
(iii) Cytokinins
Ans. 2. Ethylene
Ans. 3. (b) Meristematic tissues
Ans. 4. Odd : Vasopressin
Category : Plant hormones
Ans. 5. (a) Fungi
Ans. 6. Ethylene
Ans. 7. IAA – Indole Acetic Acid
Ans. 8. Abscisic Acid
Ans. 9. Coleoptiles and Meristems
Ans. 10. NAA – Naphthalene acetic acid
Ans. 11. Ethylene
Ans. 12. Ethylene
Ans. 13. From Foolish seedling disease of rice in japan in 1800. This disease was due to fungus Gibberella
fujikuroi.
Ans. 14. F.Went
Ans. 15. Cytokinins
Ans. 16. The main role of gibberellins are :
(i) The most important effect of gibberellins in the stem elongation.
(ii) Gibberellins promote flowering of long day plant.
(iii) Gibberellins promote seed germination and break seed dormancy of ballads and tubers.
(iv) Formation of seed less fruit without fertilization can also be induced by gibberellins.
Ans. 17.(i) Enhancing formation of roots.
(ii) Control of preharvest fruit drop.
(iii) Flowering is enhanced.
(iv) Controlling apical dominance.
Ans. 18.(i) It is essential for cell division.
(ii) Cytokinins promote sprouting of lateral buds and overcome apical dominance.
(iii) They retard senescence.
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WORKSHEET-38
Ans. 1. Kurosawa
Ans. 2. Cytokinin
Ans. 3. It is the cessation of observable growth. It is seen in seeds, buds etc.
Ans. 4. Auxin, gibberellins, cytokinin, ethylene and abscisic acid.
Ans. 5. By keeping it in an environment rich in ethylene.
Ans. 6. Auxin.
Ans. 7. Ethylene.
Ans. 8. Cytokinin.
Ans. 9. Apical dominance; auxin promote apical dominance.
Ans. 10. Auxine.
Ans. 11. Cytokinin.
Ans. 12. It is unique in being the only gaseous natural plant growth regulator.
Ans. 13. Ethylene is formed in plants from amino acid methionine. Maximum ethylene formation takes place
during the ripening of fruits. Excess of auxin also stimulates production of ethylene.
Functions : (i) Ethylene promotes transverse growth but inhibits longitudinal growth.
(ii) It promotes senescence. (iii) It reduces sensitivity to gravity.
Ans. 14. Natural cytokinins are synthesized in regions where rapid cell division occurs for example root, apices,
developing shoot buds, young fruits etc.
Ans. 15. Auxin and cytokinins together cause cell division in callus tissue culture. More auxin and less cyto-
kinin cause root initiation whereas less auxin and more cytokinin cause bud differentiation. This is an
example of synergetic action.
Ans. 16.
S.No. Growth hormones Inhibitor hormones
(i) They bring growth They retard growth
(ii) They stimulate cell division. They inhibit cell division.
(iii) They bring opening of stomata. They bring closing of stomata.
(iv) They check abscission of leaves except They bring abscission of leaves.
ethylene.
(v) They break seed dormancy. They induce seed dormancy.
(vi) They induce formation of fruits and flowers in They generally do not induce fruit and flower
all types of plants. formation.
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WORKSHEET-39
Ans. 1. ABA makes the seed dormant and they fail to germinate. Similarly, buds do not sprout in the presence
of ABA. Thus, seeds and buds are able to tolerate unfavorable condition under high rate of transpira-
tion. ABA leads to closure of stomata and plants are saved from permanent wilting. So ABA is called
stress hormone.
Ans. 2. Positive role of ethylene :
(i) It breaks dormancy of storage organs.
(ii) In low concentration ethylene helps in root initiation, growth of lateral roots and root hairs.
(iii) Fruit growth and ripening of fruits are promoted by application of ethylene.
(iv) It stimulated flowering in pineapple and related plants.
(v) Like auxin and cytokinins, ethylene has a feminizing effect on sex expression. The genetically male
plants of cannabis can be induced to produce female flowers in the presence of ethylene.
Negative role of ethylene :
(i) It inhibits longitudinal growth and stimulate transverse growth.
(ii) It hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers.
(iii) Abscission of various parts is stimulates by ethylene.
(iv) Ethylene promotes apical dominance and prolongs dormancy of lateral bud.
Ans. 3. Growth is an important phenomenon because of the following reasons :
(i) Due to growth, size of the organism increases.
(ii) Mechanical tissue develops due to growth in plants.
(iii) It is due to growth that buds sprout to form the branches.
(iv) Floral buds sprout to form flower due to growth.
(v) The fruits are formed due to growth of the ovary.
(vi) As growth takes place that radical forms root and plumule forms the stem during germination of
seed.
Growth is an important phenomenon in the living organisms without which no germination, no
differentiation, no fertilization, no fruit formation is possible. qqq
WORKSHEET-40
Ans. 1. High concentration of auxin.
Ans. 2. Ethylene.
Ans. 3. Auxin inhibits growth of lateral buds whereas cytokinins promote it. This is an example of antagonistic
action of two hormones in plants.
Ans. 4. (i) It keeps growth under check by counteracting the effect of growth promoting hormones.
(ii) It induces dormancy in buds, seeds and underground storage organs.
(iii) ABA promotes ageing in leaves.
(iv) It causes abscission of fruits and flowers.
Ans. 5. (i) Phototropism by shoots and geotropism by roots.
(ii) Light
(iii) Auxin
(iv) Auxin promotes growth especially of shoots towards light.
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WORKSHEET-41
Ans. 1. (i) Apogeotropic (ii) Thigmotropism (iii) More growth on upper side.
Ans. 2. Hydrotropism is a response to the source of water. The roots are positively hydrotropic.
Thigmotropism is a response to the contact stimuli e.g. Tendrils
Ans. 3. The movement which occur due to response to chemicals is called chemotaxis.
Ans. 4. Phototaxis is the movement in response to light.
Ans. 5. The movements of stem and roots in response to stimulus of gravity is called Geotropism.
Primary roots grow downward so they are +vely geotropic. Stem grow opposite to gravity thus show-
ing –ve geotropism.
Ans. 6. It is a curvature movement that takes place when plant is provided with artificial or natural light only
from one direction. If direction of movement is towards light it is called positive phototropism and if
movement is away from light it is called negative phototropism.
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SECTION
CHAPTER
B
7 CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
WORKSHEET-42
Ans. 1. (i) Monocytes & Lymphocytes (ii) Veins (iii) 120 (iv) Lymph
Ans. 2. Monocytes are present in blood
Ans. 3. Odd : Lymphocyte
Category : Granulocytes.
Ans. 4. Lack of nucleus and mitochondria helps in having more surface area for absorption and transport of
oxygen.
Ans. 5. Diapedesis
Ans. 6. RBCs / Erythrocyte (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
Ans. 7. Produce Antibodies.
Ans. 8. Oxygen combines with haemoglobin present in RBCs and forms Oxyhaemoglobin .
Ans. 9. Phagocytosis. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 10. Plasma is the technical term for the fluid portion of the blood. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 11. Diapedesis is the process by which white blood cells squeeze out through the walls of capillaries to
reach at the site of infection. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 12. Diapedesis.
Ans. 13. Lack of nucleus and mitochondria helps in having more surface area for absorption and transport of
oxygen.
Ans. 14.
Erythrocytes Leucocytes
Erythrocytes transport respiratory gases. Leucocytes produce antibodies and protect the
body from disease Causing germs.

Ans. 15. Phagocytosis.
Ans. 16. RBCs/erythrocytes are biconcave disc-like structures that lacks nucleus to provide large surface area
for the absorption and transport of oxygen.
Ans. 17. Odd one Monocytes; other belongs to Agranulocytes.
Ans. 18. Haemoglobin is the iron containing respiratory pigment found in erythrocytes.
Ans. 19. Diapedesis is the process of movement of white blood cells through capillary walls into the extra cel-
lular fluid.
Ans. 20. The difference between RBC and WBC are given below :
RBC WBC
These are originated in the bone marrow. These are originated in the lymph nodes of long bone.

Ans. 21. The difference between blood plasma and serum are given below :
Blood plasma Serum
It is the liquid portion of the blood excluding It is known as the blood plasma without protein
Blood corpuscles. (fibrinogen) in it.

Ans. 22. Red blood cells transport oxygen to the cells of human body.
Ans. 23. Haemoglobin.
Ans. 24. (a) Lymphocytes and monocytes are the type of agranulocytes.
Ans. 25. Erythrocytes and gaseous exchange.
Ans. 26. (a) Lymph nodes in mammals produce WBCs.
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WORKSHEET-43
Ans. 1.

Ans. 2.(i) Lymphocytes nucleus is large with a dent like depression.
Neutrophils have 3-4 lobed nucleus.
(ii) Plasma – Fibrinogen is present.
Serum – Fibrinogen is absent.
release
Ans. 3.(i) Platelets thromboplastin
Thromboplastin
(ii) Prothrombin Thrombin
(Inactive) (Active)
Thrombin
(iii) Fibrinogens’ fibris
(iv) Fibrin + corpuscles clot (Thrombus)
Ans. 4.(i) Cell labeled A in the diagram is red blood cell.
(ii) The phenomenon in part (a) is diapedesis.
(iii) Structural difference between A (RBCs) and B (WBCs) are
Part A (RBCs) Part B (WBCs)
Biconcave in shape. Amoeboid in shape.
Nucleus is absent. Nucleus is present.
(iv) Phagocytosis is the process occurring in (b) and (c).

During this phenomenon, the WBC engulfs the disease causing germs that enter the body and thus,
defend our body from these organisms.
Ans. 5. (i) The parts A,B,C and D indicated in the diagram are
A – Erythrocytes B – Leucocytes
C – Thrombocytes D – Plasma
(ii)
Part A (RBCs) Part B (WBCs)
Biconcave in shape. Amoeboid in shape.
Nucleus is absent. Nucleus present.
(iii) The main function of part A, B and C are
A – Transport oxygen as oxyhaemoglobin (erythrocytes) to the body tissues.
B – Defend the body against disease causing germs (leucocytes).
C – Initiate clotting of blood (thrombocytes).
(iv) Life span of the part labelled ‘A’, i.e. RBCs is 120 days.
(v) Soluble protein found in D, i.e. plasma which helps in the clotting of blood is fibrinogen.
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WORKSHEET-44
Ans. 1. Fibrinogen
Ans. 2. The logical sequence in the set is
Platelets → Thromboplastin → Thrombin → Fibrinogen → Fibrin. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
Ans. 3. (c) Calcium.
Ans. 4. Calcium.
Ans. 5. Thrombocytes helps in blood clotting by producing thromboplastin.
Ans. 6. Calcium is the mineral element essential for the clotting of blood.
Ans. 7. The statement given is false. Platelets which disintegrates in the injured tissue cells release thromboki-
nase.
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WORKSHEET-45
Ans. 1. Pulmonary artery
Ans. 2. Hepatic artery
Ans. 3. The left ventricle has to pump to blood till our toes and to the head against gravity. So its wall are
thicker. Right ventricles has thinner walls because it pumps blood only upto the lungs.
(ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 4. (i) Hepatic vein carries blood from liver to posterior vena cava.
(ii) Hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to liver.
Ans. 5.(i) Ventricles
Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open / Semilunar valves are closed
(ii) 1 – Pulmonary artery, Deoxygenated blood
2 – Pulmonary veins, Oxygenated blood
(iii) LUBB – Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
DUP – Closure of semilunar valves
(iv) Coronary arteries.
(v)
Difference in the size of lumen and thickness of muscle layer. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
Ans. 6. (i) A – Artery, B – Vein, C – Capillary

(ii) 1 – Connective tissue/ Tunica externa
2 – Lumen
3 – Muscular tissue/ Tunica Media……….
(iii) A – Oxygenated ……….
(iv)
Artery Vein
(a) Narrow lumen Wide lumen
(b) Thick muscular layer Thin muscular layer
(c) Valves are absent Valves present
(d) Elastic Non Elastic
( Any one )
(v) Capillary……………… (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 7. (i) The phase shown in figure is ventricular systole.
(ii) The lower part consisting of the right and left ventricles are contracting in this phase as the blood
is seems to be flowing into the pulmonary artery and main aorta, while the bicuspid and tricuspid
valves are closed.
(iii) The parts numbered from A to E are
A – Pulmonary artery.
B – Main aorta.
C – Pulmonary vein.
D – Left auricle.
E – Bicuspid valve.
F – Right ventricle.
(iv) In part A (pulmonary artery) deoxygenated blood from the heart is flowing to the lungs for
oxygenation.
In part B (pulmonary vein) carries oxygenated blood from the lung is flowing to the left auricle.
(v) Two valves i.e. the bicuspid and tricuspid valves leading from the auricle to the ventricles are closed
during systole to prevent the back-flow of blood into the auricles.
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WORKSHEET-46
Ans. 1. Pericardium. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
Ans. 2. The cords that arise from the ventricular muscles hold the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves
in position. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 3. Bicuspid and tricuspid valve. Semilunar valve (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 4. Pulmonary vein. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 5. Lubb. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)

Ans. 6. Pericardium is the protective covering of heart.
Ans. 7. Tricuspid valve is found between the right auricle and right ventricle.
Ans. 8. (c) Systole of the left ventricle.
Ans. 9. The difference between the bicuspid and tricuspid valve are given below :
Bicuspid valve Tricuspid valve
It closes the opening of auriculo-ventricular It closes the opening of auriculo-ventricular valves when
valves when blood rushes from left auricle blood rushes from right atrium to right ventricle.
into left ventricle.

Ans. 10. Ventricles have thicker wall than auricles because they are meant to pump blood with pressure to
reach blood to larger distances.
Ans. 11. Auricular systole is the phase of cardiac cycle in which auricles contract
Ans. 12. Pulse is a wave pressure of blood passing through the arteries as it is pumped out of the heart.
Ans. 13. Mitral Valve is found between the left auricle and left ventricle.
Ans. 14. Coronary artery supplies oxygenated blood to the walls of heart.
Ans. 15. The separation of the right side and the left side of the heart is useful to prevent the mixing of oxygen-
ated and deoxygenated blood. Such separation allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body.
This is useful in animals that have high energy needs such as birds and mammals, because they have
to keep their body temperature constant irrespective of the temperature of their environment.
Ans. 16. (i) 1 – Anterior vena cava/superior vena cava/ Precaval.
2 - Aorta.

(ii) 5 – Brings oxygenated blood from Aorta/Heart to Liver.
8 – Takes deoxygenated blood from the posterior/lower region of the body to the heart/right auricle.
(iii) Takes blood, containing absorbed food, to liver, to regulate the amount of nutrients in blood toxins
coming along with food are detoxified in liver.
(iv) Hepatic portal vein.
(v)
RBC
WB
RBCs – Drawn and labelled

WBCs – Drawn and labelled
Platelets – Drawn and labelled
Plasma
Plasm
Platelet (Any to be considered)
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WORKSHEET-47
Ans. 1. (i) Location : Chordae tendineae is found at right ventricle.
(ii) Function : Its main function is to keep the cuspid valves in position.
Ans. 2. Blood in artery flows in spurts because flow of blood is under pressure and also because arteries have
elastic walls.
Post and pre-vena cava  Right auricle  Right ventricle  Pulmonary artery  Lungs  Pulmonary
veins  Left auricle
Ans. 4. Ventricular diastole.
Ans. 5. Odd one (Sino-atrial node), it is the structure present in the right side of the heart and rest of all others
are found in the left side of the heart.
Ans. 6. (i) The phase is atrial systole.
(ii) The parts A, B and C in the given figure are labelled as :
A – Pulmonary artery B – Superior vena cava
C – Aorta
(iii) Upper chamber, i.e. both the atria are contracting in this phase because blood is flowing downwards
(towards the ventricles).
(iv)
External layer
(connective tissue)
Lumen
Middle
layer
Endothelium(b) Vein
(a) Artery
Structural differences between
(a) artery and (b) Vein
Ans. 7.(i) Blood vessel labelled as A is artery because it has narrow lumen and thick muscular wall and B is
vein because it has wide lumen and thin muscular wall.
(ii) The parts labelled A and B in the diagram are endothelium and lumen respectively.
(iii) ‘Lubb’ sound is produced when tricuspid and mitral valves get closed. While ‘Dubb’ sound is
produced when pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves get closed.
(iv) 1. Blood vessel that begins and ends in capillaries is ‘hepatic portal vein’.
2. Blood vessels that supplies blood to the walls of the heart is ‘coronary artery’.
Ans. 8.(i) Blood vessels labelled as A, C, F and G are
A – Pulmonary artery C - Hepatic portal vein F – Hepatic vein G – Posterior vena cava
(ii) The blood vessel that supplies the walls of the heart with O2 is coronary artery.
(iii) Blood vessel labelled as ‘B’ is vein.
External layer
(connective tissue)
Lumen
Middle
layer
Endothelium
Vein
(iv) Structural difference between blood vessels numbered D (renal artery) and E (renal vein) is
D (Renal Artery) E (Renal Vein)
Has thick muscular wall with narrow lumen. Has thin muscular wall with wide lumen.

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WORKSHEET-48
Ans. 1.
Pleura Pericardium
It lines each lung and the wall of Chest cavity. It surrounds the heart and the proximal ends
of the aorta, vena cava and the pulmonary
artery.

Ans. 2.
Bicuspid Tricuspid
It is located at the aperture between the left auricle It is located at the aperture between the right
and left ventricle. auricle and right ventricle.
Ans. 3. The statement is false. Lubb is the first heart sound produced.
Ans. 4. Hepatic artery is the blood vessel which carries oxygenated blood to liver.
Ans. 5. Systole is the phase of contraction of chambers of the heart.
Ans. 6. Tricuspid valve.
Ans. 7. Arteries carry oxygenated blood, while veins carry deoxygenated blood.
Ans. 8. Systole is the phase of contraction.
Ans. 9. Veins are provided with valves because the blood in them flow at low pressure and these prevents
the back flow of blood.
Ans. 10. The pulse beat of a normal human adult is 72 beat/min.
Ans. 11. (i) The parts labelled as A, B, D and F are
A – Pulmonary artery
B – Pulmonary vein
D – Renal artery
F – Hepatic artery
(ii) Vessel E named as hepatic vein will contain the maximum amount of urea few hours after the
protein rich meal.
(iii) Two structural difference between blood vessel C and H are :
Blood vessel C Blood vessel H
(Aorta) (Vena cava)
Lumen is small Lumen is large
Valves absent Valves present

Ans. 12. (i) The blood vessel shown in the figure is vein.
(ii) The structure inside the blood vessels are valves.
(iii) Valves are presents to prevent the back-flow of blood in veins.
(iv) Yes, these are also present in the heart at the opening of aorta and pulmonary artery.
(v) The heart is located towards the top side of the figure.
Ans. 13. (i) Blood vessels or organs marked from number A to H are :
A – Body tissues
B – Vena cava
C – Aorta
D – Right ventricle
E – Ventricle
F – Pulmonary artery
G – Pulmonary vein
H – Lung
(ii) For one complete circulation, blood has to pass from the heart through two separate pathways, i.e.
systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation. This type of circulation is called double circulation.
(iii) The relaxation phase of auricles is known as diastole.
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WORKSHEET-49
Ans. 1. Mitral valve is found between the left auricle and left ventricle.
Aortic semilunar valve is located at the point of origin of aorta from left ventricle.
Ans. 2. Aorta → renal artery → kidney → renal vein → posterior venacavas
Ans. 3. Diastoles
Ans. 4. Pulmonary semilunar valves is located at the base of the pulmonary trunk.
Ans. 5. The blood vessel that begins and ends in capillaries is the hepatic portal system.
Ans. 6. Heart sound produced at the beginning of the ventricular systole is called Lubb and at the other end
of ventricular systole is called Dubb.
Aorta  Stomach  Hepatic portal vein  Liver  Hepatic vein
Ans. 8.(i) Parts labelled as A to D in the diagram are
A – Right auricle
B – Left ventricle
C – Aorta
D – Body organ
(ii) Difference between the parts A and B are
Part A (Right auricle) Part B (Left ventricle)
Structure Thin muscular walls Thick muscular walls.
Nature of blood through them Carries deoxygenated blood Carries oxygenated
blood

(iii) The specific name of the type of blood circulation takes place between heart and lung is double
circulation.
(iv) Valves found in the beginning of part labelled as C is aortic semilunar valves.
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SECTION
CHAPTER
B
8 EXCRETORY SYSTEM
WORKSHEET-50
Ans. 1. (i) kidney (ii) nephron (iii) descending, ascending (iv) protein.
Ans. 2. Nephron is a structural and functional unit of kidney.
Ans. 3. Ureter carries urine from kidney to the urinary bladder.
Urethra is a passage through which urine is excreted out of the body.
Ans. 4. Renal artery
Ans. 5. (c) Renal pelvis. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 6. In the cortex region of the kidney between the malpighian capsule and loop of Henle.
Ans. 7. Odd term Uterus, a part of reproductive system.
Category - Organs of excretory system (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 8. Glomerulus is the knot-like mass of blood capillaries found inside the bowman’s capsule.
Ans. 9. Ureter carries urine from kidney to the urinary bladder.
Ans. 10. Difference between the Bowman’s capsule and Malpighian capsule :
Bowman’s capsule Malpighian capsule
It is a cup shaped structure that indicates the It is comprised of glomerulus and Bowman’s
beginning of nephron. capsule.

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WORKSHEET-51
Ans. 1. Logical sequence for pathway of blood through glomerulus is as follows:
Renal artery, Afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, renal vein.
Ans. 2. Nephron is known as the structural and functional unit of kidney.
Ans. 3. The given statement is false. Correct statement is ureter carries urine from kidney to the urinary bladder.

Ans. 4. Renal cortex is dark in colour and presence of numerous nephrons in highly coiled manner gives a
dotted appearance to this region.
Ans. 5.
Afferent Arteriole Efferent Arteriole
Bowman’s Capsule
Glomerulus
Glomerular Filtrate
Malpighian Capsule (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)

Ans. 6.
Cortex
Medulla
Hilum
Pelvis
Ureter
Pyramids
L.S. of a kidney
Ans. 7. (a) Removal of metabolic nitrogenous waste & maintenance of acid base balance in the body.
(b) Maintenance of water & salt balance (osmoregulation) in the body.
Ans. 8. (i) Antidiuretic hormone / ADH / Vasopressin.
(ii) Posterior.
(iii) Diabetes insipidus / water diabetes.
(iv) Insulin.
(v) Diabetes mellitus / sugar diabetes. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)

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WORKSHEET-52
Ans. 1. (i) 1 – Cortex 2 – Medulla 3 – Pelvis 4 – Ureter
(ii) Due to the presence of Henle’s loops and collecting ducts of nephrons.
(iii) Urine.
(iv) Nephrons / Uriniferous tubule / Renal tubules / Kidney Tubules.
(v) (a) Ultrafiltration.
(b) Selective reabsorption. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 2.(i) Different parts in the diagram are labelled as :
A – Posterior vena cava B – Aorta
C – Renal artery D – Renal vein
(ii)
Main functions of the parts labelled as E, F, G and H are
E – Ureter carries urine from kidney to the urinary bladder.
F – Urinary bladder contains the urine till it is released out.
G – Sphincter muscles guards the urethra.
H – Urethra is the passage through which urine is excreted out of the body.
(iii)
Adrenal gland is an endocrine gland which is located above each kidney in the form of a cap.
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WORKSHEET-53
Ans. 1. (i) Urochrome (ii) Uremia (iii) Proximal convoluted tubule (iv) diuresis (v) Renal artery.
Ans. 2. In summer, considerable part of water is lost due to perspiration. So, more water is reabsorbed in the
kidney. Thus, making the urine more concentrated.
Ans. 3. Osmoregulation
Ans. 4. Normal pale yellow colour of the urine is due to the presence of the pigment Urochrome.
Ans. 5. Liver (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 6. Odd term : Bile

Category : Nitrogenous wastes / Excretory substances (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 7. Renal cortex : Malpighian capsule, proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
Renal medulla : Loop Henle, Collecting ducts. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 8. ADH / Vasopressin.
Ans. 9. The glomerulus filtrate contains lots of glucose, salt etc. which are useful to us. In the proximal con-
voluted tubule of the nephron all the glucose is reabsorbed in the blood by the process of selective
reabsorption. Therefore, glucose is normally not found in urine.
Ans. 10. Osmoregulation is the maintenance of osmotic concentration inside body cells and extracellular fluids
by controlling the amount of water and salts.
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WORKSHEET-54
Ans. 1. The two stages of urine formation are :
(i) Ultrafiltration (ii) Selective reabsorption
Ans. 2. The diameter of the efferent arteriole is narrower than the afferent arteriole. Due to which a hydro-
static pressure is created in the blood flowing through the glomerulus which forces the liquid part of
the blood into the Bowman’s capsule. This filtration under high pressure is called ultrafiltration. The
liquid which enters into the Bowman’s capsule is called glomerular filtrate.
Ans. 3. Kidney transplantation occurs if kidneys get damaged or malfunction. It is done so that normal func-
tion of the body can be carried out properly.
Ans. 4. (i) Renal tubule or Nephron
(ii) Glomerular filtrate
Urea, glucose
(iii) Urine
Urea
(iv) Ultrafiltration, Selective reabsorption, Tubular secretion
(v) Glucose
Ans. 5. (i) Different parts in the diagram are labelled as :
A – Collecting duct.
B – Distal convoluted tubule.
C – Loop of Henle.
D – Bowman’s capsule.
(ii) As the afferent arteriole splits into many fine branches to which the volume of capillaries reduced,
thereby, raising the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus.
(iii) Blood vessel that contains the least amount of urea in this diagram is efferent arteriole that connects
to renal vein.
(iv) Loop of Henle is the part of renal tubule that lies in medulla region of kidney.
Ans. 6.(i) Different parts in the diagram can be labelled as
A – Afferent arteriole.
B – Glomerulus.
C – Bowman’s capsule.
(ii) The collective term used for part B and C is Malpighian capsule.
(iii) Right kidney is placed slightly lower level than the left because the liver takes the much space of the
right side.
(iv) Homeostasis is the constancy of the internal environment of the body fluids. By the process of
osmoregulation, kidney helps in maintaining the osmotic concentration of the body and also helps
in removing extra water or salts from the body.
Ans. 7. (i)
(ii) Ultrafiltration is the process that occurs in the glomerulus. It is defined as the filtration of blood that
takes place under high pressure.
Ans. 8. An artificial kidney is a device which removes nitrogen waste products from the blood through
dialysis. Artificial kidneys contain a number of tubes with a semi-permeable links, suspended in
a task filled with dialysis fluid. This fluid has the same osmatic pressure as the blood, made up of
semi-permeable membrane of cellphone (which is made up of cellulose). During the passage, the
waste products from the blood pass into dialysis fluid by diffusion. The purified blood is pumped
back into the patient. This is similar to the function of the kidney, but it is different since there is
no reabsorption involved.
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SECTION
CHAPTER
B
9 NERVOUS SYSTEM
WORKSHEET-55
Ans. 1. (i) Nerve (ii) Axon (iii) Cyton/Cell.
Ans. 2. Dendrite  cyton  node of Ranvier  axon ending  synapse.
Ans. 3. Odd term : Spinal cord
Category : Components of neuron
Ans. 4. Surrounds the axon of neuron. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 5. Odd term : Photon
Category : parts of neuron/nerve cell.
Ans. 6. Cyton.
Ans. 7. Neurotransmitters helps in conduction of nerve impulses.
Ans. 8. Synapse is the point of contact between the axon endings of one neuron with the dendrites of the
other neuron. The impulse is transmitted from one neuron to the other through the synapse.
Ans. 9. Synapse is the point of contact between two neuron.
Ans. 10. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter stored at the terminal end of the axon.
Ans. 11. The point of contact between two neurons is synapse.
Ans. 12.
Nucleus
Dendrites
Nodes of
Ranvier
Cytoplasm
Axon
Cell Nissl’s Nurve

Myelin
body granules ending
sheath
Structure of a typical neuron
Ans. 13.
Nucleus
(i) Dendrites
Nodes of
Ranvier
Cytoplasm
Axon
Cell Nissl’s Nurve

Myelin
body granules ending
sheath
Structure of a typical neuron

(ii) Sensory neuron brings the impulse from the receptor organ to the brain or spinal cord. Motor neuron
brings the impulse from the brain or spinal cord to all effector organs.
(iii) A nerve is made up of a bundle of nerve fibres i.e. axons of separate neurons enclosed in tube like
sheath.
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WORKSHEET-56
Ans. 1. (i) ventricles (ii) memory / reasoning / thinking (iii) Cerebellum.
Ans. 2. (ii) Cerebellum
Ans. 3. Corpus callosum is found between two lobes of cerebrum called cerebral hemisphere.
Ans. 4. Reflex action
Ans. 5. Protecting the brain from external mechanical injuries/distributes neuroendocrine hormones/nutrients.
Ans. 6. The outermost layer of Meninges is dura mater.
Ans. 7. (a) 31 pairs
Ans. 8. Gyri and Sulci are the folds of cerebrum. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
Ans. 9. A reflex action is a spontaneous involuntary response to a stimulus.
Ans. 10. Pons.
Ans. 11. (b) Cerebellum. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 12. Cerebrum. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Ans. 13. (i) Part associated with seat of memory is cerebrum of the brain.
(ii) The part that coordinates muscular activity is cerebellum of the brain.
Ans. 14. Medulla oblongata controls the involuntary activities of the brain.
Ans. 15.
Organs Sympathetic Nervous System Parasympathetic Nervous System
Lungs Dilates bronchi and bronchioles Constricts bronchi and bronchioles
Pupil of the eye Dilates Pupil Constricts Pupil
Salivary gland Inhibits salivary Stimulate Salivary

glands and glands and
digestive glands digestive glands
Ans. 17. The correct pathway of nerve impulse is receptor, sensory neuron, association neuron, motor neuron,
effector.
Ans. 19. (i) The cerebral hemispheres are connected by corpus callosum in mammals.
Ans. 20. Cerebrospinal fluid. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 21. Set – Sneezing, coughing, typing, blinking
Odd One – Typing
Category – All other are the type of simple reflex.
Ans. 22. Meninges are located as the covering of brain and spinal cord. Its function is to provide protection to
the brain and spinal cord.
Ans. 23. Odd one is spinal cord.
Category : All other are related to the protective coverings of brain.
Ans. 24. Simple reflex action : (ii) Removing your hand suddenly when picked by a thorn, (iv) Blinking of
eyelids on exposure to light.
Conditioned reflex action : (i) Playing a guitar, (iii) Applying sudden brakes when a dog crosses the
path, (v) Tying one’s shoe lace.
Ans. 25. Voluntary action : (ii) Cleaning the table
Simple reflex action : (i) Blinking, (iv) Salivation when food is put in the mouth.
Conditioned reflex action : (iii) Playing on the keyboard.
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WORKSHEET-57
Ans. 1. Spinal nerves are 31 in pairs.
Cranial nerves are 12 in pairs. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 2. Alcohol affects cerebellum which controls body balance. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 3. Corpus callosum is found between two lobes of cerebrum called cerebral hemisphere.
Ans. 4. (d) The ventral root ganglion of the spinal cord contains cell bodies of the association neurons.
Ans. 5. Odd one is knitting without looking. All others are the type of simple reflex.
Ans. 6. Medulla oblongata controls various autonomic functions such as respiration, heart rate, blood pres-
sure etc. When it gets damaged body will not be able to perform all these functions which will prove
fetal.
Ans. 7. The correct logical sequence is receptor, dorsal root ganglion, associated neuron, ventral root ganglion,
effector.
Ans. 8.
Medulla Oblongata Cerebellum
It controls the activities of the internal organs. It helps in maintaining the body balance.

Ans. 9. Odd one is eating.
All others are the type of simple reflex.
Ans. 10. (i) A – Cerebrum B – Cerebellum C – Spinal cord
(ii) A – seat of memory, intelligence, consciousness, will power, control voluntary actions,
Helps us to think, reason, invent, plan (Any one)
B – maintain body balance, posture, equilibrium, co-ordinates muscular activities (Any one )
(iii) Neurons / Nerve cells
A – Outer grey matter has cytons and inner white matter has axons.
C – Outer white matter has axons and inner grey matter has cytons.
(iv) Meanings
(v) Protect the brain / spinal cords from injuries and shocks. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 11.(i) Reflex action/Reflex arc/ Nervous pathway of Reflex action.

(ii) Synapse
(iii) Different parts are labelled as
A – Sensory / Afferent fibre / Axon of sensory neuron
B – Dorsal root ganglion / aggregates of cell bodies of sensory neuron.
C – White matter
D – Grey matter
(iv) E - Carry impulses from (operative) sensory neuron to motor neuron.
F – Carry impulses from (operative) central nervous system/brain and spinal cord/to effector/
muscle/gland.
(v) In spinal cord – cytons are in the inner grey matter and axons in the outer white matter.
In brain – cytons are in the outer grey matter and axons in the inner grey matter.
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WORKSHEET-58
Ans. 1. (c) Salivation at the sight of food.
Ans. 2. The correct logical sequence is :
Receptor, sensory neuron, spinal cord, motor neuron, effector.
Ans. 3. Differentiation between Cerebrum and Spinal cord are given below :
Cerebrum Spinal cord
Grey matter is found on the outer side which White matter lies towards the outer side contains
contains cell bodies of the neurons whereas, the cell body of motor (efferent and association
white matter remains towards the inner side neuron), while grey matter remains towards inner
which mainly contains the axons (nerve fibre) side contains axons.
of the neuron.

Ans. 4. The hand automatically shows the direction to turn a cycle without thinking because of conditioned
reflex action.
Ans. 5. (a) receptor cell, sensory neuron, relaying neuron, effector muscles.
Ans. 6. The odd term in the set is cerebellum.
All other three terms are the part of forebrain.
Ans. 7. Hypothalamus is the part of human brain that controls temperature.
Ans. 8. (c) maintaining posture and equilibrium.
Ans. 9. Meninges is the technical term for the protective covering of brain and spinal cord.
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WORKSHEET-59
Ans. 1. Reflex action is the spontaneous, automatic, involuntary response to a stimulus.
Ans. 2. Meninges is the technical term for the protective covering of brain and spinal cord.
Ans. 3. Odd One - Cerebrum.
Ans. 4. (i) Cerebrospinal fluid is present between the layers of meninges.
(ii) Reflex action is the change in an organism that results due to the stimulus.
Ans. 5.
Dendron
Cell Body
Nucleus
Motor Axon
Neuron (Nerve Fibre)
Node of Ranvier
Myelin Sheath
Neurilemma
Motor
Direction of End Plates
Impulse Muscle Fibre
(Effector)
Structure of Myelinated neuron
Ans. 6. (i) Labelled parts from A to C are
A – Cerebrum
B – Cerebellum
C – Medulla oblongata
(ii) Cerebrum is the site of controlling memory, reasoning, thinking, perception, emotions and speech.
Cerebellum maintains posture, equilibrium and muscular coordination.
Medulla oblongata contains the centre for cardiac, respiratory and vasomotor activities. It also
coordinates reflexes for swallowing, coughing, sneezing and vomiting.
(iii) Three protective membranes covering the brain are dura mater, pia mater and arachnoid.
(iv) The basic unit of brain is called neuron.
Ans. 7. (i) The process depicted by this diagram is known as reflex action.
(ii) Labelled parts are given below
B – Dorsal root ganglion
E – Central canal
F – Gray matter
(iii) The cells in contact with the part labelled as ‘A’ are known as receptor.
(iv) Functions of the labelled parts C, D and G are : C – Afferent sensory nerve fibre carry the stimulus
from receptor organ to the spinal cord.
D – Synapse is space between sensory and motor neuron. It is a place where incoming sensory im
pulse generates an outgoing motor impulse.
G – Effector neuron carries away the impulse generated by the association neuron in the centre to
the effector organ (muscle or gland).
Technical term given to the pathway represented by C, D and G is ‘reflex arc’.
(v) In spinal cord, the grey matter lies on the inner side and the white matter lies on the outer side.
This arrangement is just reversed in the brain.
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WORKSHEET-60
Ans. 1. Because eustachian tube connects middle ear with the throat, so infection can be passed.
Ans. 2. It may harm the eardrum and can cause a great loss to us.
Ans. 3. Lacrimal gland is located in the upper lateral region of each orbit.
Ans. 4. Malleus is located between the tympanic membrane and the incus.
Ans. 5. Choroid layer
Ans. 6. Endolymph
Ans. 7. (d) Cornea and Lens
Ans. 8. Choroids
Ans. 9. Concave. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 10. (i) The semicircular canals are part of the inner ear.
(ii) Connects middle ear to throat. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 11. (i)

Anterior (Superior) Posterior (Inferior)
Semicircular canal Semi circular canal
Leteral semicircular
Canal
Ampulla Saccus
endolymphaticus
Utricle
Ductus
Utriculosaccular endolymphaticus
Duct
Saccule
Ductus Reuniens
Cochlear
duct
(ii)
Organ of corti/spiral organ
Utriculus and sacculus Oval window
Endolymph Semi-circular canal (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 12.

Ans. 13. (i) The defect shown in the diagram is hypermetropia.
(ii) It is caused due to two major reasons :
(a) The eyeball is too short from front to back.
(b) The lens is too flat.
(iii)
This defect can be rectified by convex lens as given in the diagram below :

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WORKSHEET-61
Ans. 1. Ear : Auditory nerve. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 2. Ear Drum. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 3. Pinna  Malleus  Incus  Stapes  Cochlea (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 4. Inner ear / Part of the membranous labyrinth. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 5. Extension of the choroid of the eye side of ear drum.
Ans. 6. Equalises air pressure on either side of ear drum for it to vibrate freely.
Ans. 7. Rod cells : Rhodopsin / visual purple
Cone cells : Iodopsin / visual violet (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 8. In the Cochlea / On the basilar membrane of median canal in Cochlea.

Ans. 9. Eustachian tube and Equalization of air pressure on either side of ear drum.
Ans. 10. A fluid that occupies the larger cavity of the eye ball behind the lens is Vitreous humour.
Ans. 11. Conjunctiva. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 12. Presbyopia. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 13. Amplifies sound vibration received by the tympanum and transmit it to inner ear/Transfers sound
vibrations from tympanum to cochlea. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 14. Malleus/hammer. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 15. Holding the eye (operative) lens in position. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 16. Centre of horizontal axis of eye ball (operative) on retina (operative)/center of retina.
Ans. 17. (i) Suspensory ligaments hold lens in position.

(ii) Semicircular canals balances the body. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2010)
Ans. 18. (i) Iodopsin is the photosensitive pigment present in the cone cells of the retina.
(ii) Aqueous humour is the fluid present in the anterior part in front of the eye lens.
Ans. 19. (i) The power to adjust the focal length of lens.
(ii) The shape of lens is as follows
(a) During near vision lens is more convex or rounded.
(b) During distant vision lens is less convex or flat.
(iii) Ciliary muscles and suspensory ligament are the two structures in the eye responsible for bringing
about the change in the shape of lens.
(iv) Different cells of retina and their respective pigments which get activated during different light
conditions are
(a) In the dark : The cells are rods and pigment is rhodopsin.
(b) In the light : The cells are cones and the pigment is iodopsin.
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WORKSHEET-62
Ans. 1. Near vision : Too curved / Too round
Distant vision : Too curved / Too flat (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 2. Auditory nerve. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 3. In moon light Rods/Rhodopsin are active which help us to see.

Cones/Iodopsin help us in colour vision which can get activated only in bright light.
Ans. 4. Odd : Glucagon
Category : Pigment/pigments seen in human body.
Ans. 5. Incus is found in middle ear between malleus and stapes.
Ans. 6. Odd term : Tympanum
All others are the different parts of inner ear.
Ans. 7. Iris of the eye regulates the amount of light entering the eye.
Ans. 8. Because eustachian tube connects middle ear with the throat, so infection can be passed.
Ans. 9. (a) Retina
Ans. 10. Correct parts through when a vibration of sound is transferred in the human ear is
Auditary canal  tympanum  ear ossicles  oval window  cochlea.
Ans. 11. Presbyopia is the technical term used for the kind of long sightedness in elderly people in which eye
lens loses flexibility.
Ans. 12. Optic nerve carries visual stimuli from retina to the brain.
Ans. 13. Vitreous humour is the jelly –like substance which gives round shape to the eyeball.
Ans. 14. Organ of corti is located in the endolymph present in the middle canal of cochlea.
Ans. 15. (i) Rhodopsin is the photosensitive pigment present in the rod cells of the retina.
(ii) Choroid is the middle layer of the eye which nourishes the retina.
Ans. 16. (i) Eustachian tube is the tube which connects the cavity of the middle ear with the throat.
(ii) Auditory nerve is the nerve which transmit impulse from ear to the brain.
Ans. 17. (i) Lacrimal glands are present in the upper orbit of eye. They secrete watery fluid called tears which
is saline and contain bacteriolytic enzyme called lysozyme. They moisten the eyes, nourishes
the cornea and protect cornea from dust and bacteria.
(ii) Yellow has more cones and less rod cells. Blind spot has no photosensitive cells.
(iii) Hypermetropia is caused due to flattening of the eye lens (also presbyopia in which lens loses it’s
flexibility.
(iv) It is the ability or the property of the eye lens to focus both near and distant objects by adjusting
it’s focal length.
(v) The image that falls on the retina of the eye is real, inverted and diminished.
(vi) Rod cells and cones are the photoreceptors found in the retina of the eye.
Ans. 18. (i) Myopia / short sightedness.
(ii) (a) Eye ball is lengthened from front to back.
(b) Lens is too curved /rounded.
(iii) Concave (lens)/diverging lens.
(iv)

Use of concave lens and focusing of image on the retina. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
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WORKSHEET-63
Ans. 1. A person feels blinded for a short while on coming out of a dark room due to light adaptation. This
happens because the diameter of pupil is reduced to allow less light to enter the eyes.
Ans. 2. Eustachian tube helps to equalize the atmospheric pressure and pressure in the air.
Ans. 3. Vitreous humour is the fluid which occupies the larger cavity of the eyeball behind the lens.
Ans. 4. The correct route through which the vibrations of sound enter the ear is
Pinna  auditory canal  tympanum  ear ossicles  cochlea.
Ans. 5. Eustachian tube its function is balancing the air pressure on either side of the ear drum.
Ans. 6. The power to adjust the focal length of lens.
Ans. 8. Eyebrows are responsible for protecting the eye from sweat, rain water etc.
Ans. 9. It is the phenomenon of simultaneous focusing of an object in both eyes whose images by a kind of
overlapping in the brain gives the three dimensional effect.
Ans. 10. Hypermetropia.
Ans. 11.
Choroid Layer Sclerotic Layer
Supplied blood and nourishes retina. It gives shape to the eye ball

Ans. 12. Pinna is located in the external ear. Function is to collects sound waves and pass them to middle
ear.
Ans. 13.
Dynamic Balance Static Balance
The balance which is achieved by the stimulation The balance which is achieved through the
of endolymph present in the semicircular canals gravity receptors located in the utriculus and
is called dynamic balance. sacculus is called static Balance.

Ans. 14. Eye : Optic nerve :: Ear : Auditory nerve
Ans. 15. (i) Ear ossicles are present in the middle ear of human. They receive the sound vibrations form vibrat-
ing tympanum and convey them along the three ossicles. These serve to magnify the vibrations.
(ii) Fovea or yellow spot present on the retina of the eye. It is the place where the most acute image
is formed.
Ans. 16. (i)
Myopia Hypermetropia
In this eye ball is lengthened from front to In this eye ball is shortened from front to back. The
back. The lens becomes too curved. lens becomes too flat.
(ii)
Rods Cone
Outer pigmented part is modified as a Rod. It has conical pigmented outer part.
These are functional in dim light for night These are functional in day light.
vision.
hese contain a pigment rhodopsin or visual These contain a pigment iodopsin or visual
T
purple. violet.

Ans. 17.
Ans. 18. (i) A – Semicircular canals
B – Utriculus
C – Sacculus
D – Cochlea
(ii) Auditory nerve is the part of ear responsible for transmitting impulses to the brain.
(iii) (a) For static balance – Utriculus and sacculus
(b) For dynamic balance – semicircular canals
(c) For hearing - Cochlea
(iv) Organ of corti are the audio receptor cells which pick up vibration.
(v) Endolymph is the fluid present in the inner ear.
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WORKSHEET-64
Ans. 1. Cataract is the eye condition in which the lens turns opaque and vision is cut down even to total
blindness.
Ans. 2. Astigmatism is an eye defect in which cornea becomes uneven.
Conjunctiva  cornea  aqueous humour  pupil  lens  vitreous humour  yellow spot.
Ans. 4. Rod cells contains the pigment – Rhodopsin
Cone cells contains the pigment – Iodopsin.
Ans. 5. Vitreous humour is the part of the eye responsible for its shape.
Ans. 6. Organ of Corti and hearing.
Ans. 7. Odd one Xerophthalmia.
Ans. 8. (i) Part ‘A’ is ear ossicles which helps in transmitting the sound waves from external ear to the internal
ear.
(ii) Part ‘B’ is called as eustachian tube which acts as ventilator to equalise pressure of air on both the
sides of tympanic membrane that forms the outer boundary of middle ear.
(iii) Part ‘C’ is auditory nerve (vestibular and cochlear nerve) which carries hearing impulses to the
brain.
(iv) Ear wax helps to lubricate the tympanum for proper functioning.
Ans. 9. The defect is hypermetropia because the image is formed behind the retina.
(ii) The defect arise due to the following reasons:
(a) Focal length of eye become large.
(b) Eyeball become too short so that the image is formed behind retina.
(iii) Hypermetropia can be corrected by using convex lens of appropriate power. Hence, a convex
lens of suitable power will bring the image back on retina, thus the defect is corrected.
(iv) Ciliary muscles control/maintain the shape of the eye ball.
Ans. 10. (i) Biological term for malleus, incus and stapes is ear ossicles.
(ii) Parts labelled from A to C are
A – Cochlea,
B – Semicircular canals,
C – Vestibular apparatus
(iii) Functions of different parts are
A – Concerned with sense of hearing.
B – Sense of dynamic balance.
(iv) Organ of Corti or spiral organ are the audio receptor region present in the part A.
Ans. 11. (i) The defect is myopia.
(ii) Different parts labelled from A to C
A – Vitreous humour
B – Yellow spot
C – Optic nerve
(iii) Two possible reasons for the defects are :
(a) The eye ball becomes long from front to back.
(b) The lens becomes too curved/convex.
(iv)
This defect can be rectified by concave lens as given below in the diagram

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WORKSHEET-65
Ans. 1. Correct path of light entering the eye from an object is cornea  aqueous humour  pupil  lens 
yellow spot.
Ans. 2.
Myopia Hypermetropia
In this eye ball is lengthened from front. The lens The lens becomes too curved. The lens becomes
becomes too curved. too flat.

Ans. 3. (i) Membranous labyrinth is the technical term for the structure found in the inner ear.
(ii) Hammer (malleus), anvil (incus) and stirrup (stapes) are the three small bones present in the
middle ear.
Ear ossicles is the biological term used for these bones collectively.
(iii) Different parts associated with following are :
(a) For the static balance – Utriculus and sacculus
(b) For hearing – Cochlea
(c) For dynamic balance – Semicircular canals.
(iv) Auditory nerve is responsible to transmit messages from ear to brain.
Ans. 4. (i) It is defined as the ability of the human eye to see the objects at varying distances. This is done
by changing the convexity of the lens. Ciliary muscles are responsible for accommodation of eye.
(ii) labelled diagram of human ear is given below :

And parts responsible for static balance is utriculus and sacculus.
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SECTION
CHAPTER
10
B ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
WORKSHEET-66
Ans. 1. (i) Adrenaline (ii) nervous & endocrine system (iii) Cretinism (iv) Pars intermedia.
Ans. 2. Thyroxine
Ans. 3. Oxytocin
Ans. 4. In Pancreas (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 5. Overgrowth of Adrenal Cortex and more secretions of cortisones stimulate development of certain
male characteristics.
Ans. 6. Odd term – ADH
Category – Hormones of anterior lobe of pituitary gland. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 7. (d) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 8. In front of the neck just below the larynx. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Ans. 9. Chemical substance secreted by endocrine/ ductless gland and poured into blood to act on target
organs / cells. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016, 2014)
Ans. 10.(i) Hormone are chemical substance produced by endocrine / ductless gland and poured into blood to
act on target organs / cells.
(ii) Exocrine gland are those glands which pour their secretions directly into the tissue/organ with the
help of a duct. e.g. All digestive glands.
Ans. 11.(i) Odd term is diabetes insipidus because it is not relate to pancreas.
(ii) Odd term is scurvy because it is not a hormonal disorder.
Ans. 12.
Column A Column B
(i) Cretinism (b) Hyposecretion of Thyroxin
(ii) Diabetes insipidus (d) Hyposecretion of Vasopressin
(iii) Exophthalmic Goitre (g) Hypersecretion of Thyroxin
(iv) Adrenal virilism (a) Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex
(v) Dwarfism (c) Hyposecretion of growth hormones

Ans. 13.
Substance
Gland One important function
produced
Islets of Langerhans (i) Insulin (ii) Decreases sugar/Glucose level in the body
(iii) Adrenal Adrenaline (iv) Increases heart beat
(v) Thyroid Thyroxine (vi) Regulates basal metabolism
(vii) Pituitary LH (viii) Stimulates production of progesterone.

Ans. 14. (i) Difference between Diabetes Mellitus and Diabetes Insipidus are :
Diabetes Mellitus Diabetes Insipidus
It is due to deficiency of Insulin availability It is caused by deficiency of ADH.
It is pancreatic disorder. It is hypothalamic disorder.
It results into rise in blood sugar level. No rise in blood sugar level
(ii) Difference between acromegaly and myxoedema are :
Acromegaly Myxoedema
It is due to over secretion of growth It is due to under secretion of thyroxine from thyroid
hormone from pituitary glands in adults. gland.

Ans. 15.
Gland Hormone secreted Effect on body
(i) Thyroid gland (ii) Thyroxine Regulates basal metabolism
Pancreas (β-cells ) (iii) Insulin (iv) Decreases Glucose level in blood
(v) Adrenal gland (vi) Adrenaline Increases heart rate
(vii) Pituitary gland Thyroid stimulating (viii) Stimulate thyroid gland to secrete thyroxine
hormone

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WORKSHEET-67
Ans. 1. Thyroid gland and secretion of thyroxine for regulation of basal metabolism/growth/body temperature/
ossification of bones/mental development. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 2. Insulin / Glucagon / Somatostatin. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 3. (c) Hyposecretion of thyroxine (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Ans. 4. TSH is abbreviation for Thyroid Stimulating Hormone.
Ans. 5.(i) Antidiuretic hormone / ADH / Vasopressin
(ii) Posterior
(iii) Diabetes insipidus / water diabetes
(iv) Insulin
(v) Diabetes mellitus / sugar diabetes.
Ans. 6.
Gland Secretion Function/Effect on body
Thyroid (i) Thyroxine (ii) Promotes basal metabolism, growth and differentiation
(iii) Posterior Vasopressin (iv) Increases reabsorption of water from kidney

pituitary
(v) Pancreas (vi) Insulin Promotes glucose utilization by the body cells
Lacrimal gland (vii) Tears (viii) Lubricates eye surface and kills germs
Adrenal medulla (ix) Adrenaline (x) Prepares body for any emergency

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WORKSHEET-68
Ans. 1. Tropic hormones. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 2. Found attached on top of each kidney / cap like structure on kidney.
Ans. 3. (b) Pancreas is the gland which secretes both hormones and enzymes.
Ans. 4. Diabetes insipidus is the condition which occurs due to low secretion of hormone called vasopressin
or anti-diuretic hormone from the posterior lobe of pituitary gland. The disease is characterized by
excretion of large amount of urine and subsequent dehydration and thirst.
Ans. 5. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) / vasopressin is the hormone that helps to increase the reabsorption of
water from the kidney tubules.
Ans. 6. Beta cells of pancreas secrete insulin that helps to lower the level of glucose in blood.
Ans. 7. Thyroid gland is located in the front part of the neck, attached to trachea below larynx.
Ans. 8. Diabetes mellitus occurs due to under secretion of insulin which in turn increases the level of glucose
in blood. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to the deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Its main
symptoms are excessive thrust, excessive urination without glucose in urine.
Ans. 9. Pituitary gland is also known as master gland because it secretes hormones that regulates activities of
other endocrine glands.
Ans. 10. Acromegaly : It is caused by excess of growth hormone after adulthood. The bones of lower jaw and
limbs becomes abnormally large but the body does not attain a giant stature.
Cretinism : It mainly affects the physical and mental growth of children, due to which he/she has
retarded growth and mental development.
Ans. 11. Pituitary gland is located at the base of midbrain below hypothalamus.
Ans. 12. Odd one : Vasopressin (Secreted by posterior Pituitary.
Category : All other hormones are secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary gland.
Ans. 13. Cells of pancreas that produces
(a) Glucagon are alpha cells.
(b)
Insulin are beta cells.
(ii) Main function of the following hormone is
(a) Glucagon : It helps to convert glycogen to glucose when blood glucose level falls.
(b) Insulin : It helps to convert excess amount of glucose to glycogen when there is a high level of
glucose in blood.
(iii) Pancreas is considered as a mixed or exo-endocrine gland, as it functions both as exocrine (duct) and
endocrine (ductless) gland.
(iv) Insulin is a protein by composition thus, if it is given orally it will get digested in the stomach and
will not be able to perform its function.
(v) Islets of Langerhans are the cells of pancreas responsible for the production of endocrine hormones.
(vi) Pancreas is located in the abdomen between the loop of small intestine close to duodenum part.
Ans. 14. Hormones responsible for the given functions are :
(i)
Adrenaline.
(ii)
Insulin.
(iii)
Glucagon.
(iv)
Thyroxine.
(v)
Calcitonin.
(vi) Adrenaline.
(vii)
Somatotropic Hormone (STH).
(viii) Gonadotropic Hormone.
(ix)
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH).
(x)
Adrenaline.
qqq
WORKSHEET-69
Ans. 1. The statement is false. The pancreas is both exocrine and endocrine in function.
Ans. 2. (a) Insulin is secreted by beta cells of pancreas.
Ans. 3. The statement is false. The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon.
Ans. 4. Hormones secreted by pituitary gland which control secretion of hormones of other endocrine glands
(except the growth hormone).
Ans. 5. Glucagon.
Ans. 6. Odd one : NADP (co-factor)
Category : Hormones (ADH, TSH, ACTH)
Ans. 7. The statement is false. Hormones are secreted directly into the blood.
Ans. 8. Odd one : Liver. (exocrine gland)
Category : All others are endocrine glands.
Ans. 9. Insulin is secreted by the beta cells of islets of Langerhans.
Ans. 10. Exophthalmic goiter is a disorder which is caused by excess production of thyroid hormone.
Ans. 11. Hormones that lead to the conditions given are :
(i)
Insulin (under secretion).
(ii)
Sex-corticoids (over secretion).
(iii)
Thyroxine (under secretion).
(iv)
Growth hormone (over secretion in children).
(v)
Thyroxine (over secretion).
Ans. 12. (i) Thyroid gland.
(ii) Thyroxine hormone.
(iii) Iodine.
(iv) Cretinism.
(v) Exophthalmic goitre. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 13. (i) Different glands labelled from A to E are
A – Pituitary gland.
B – Thyroid gland.
C – Pancreas.
D – Adrenal gland.
E – Ovary.
(ii) The hormone secreted by part ‘B’ is thyroxine.
Function : It helps in regulating the normal basal metabolism of body.
(iii) The endocrine cells presents in part ‘C’ are islets of Langerhans.
(iv) The hormone secreted by part ‘D’ is adrenaline.
Function : It prepares body for any emergency situation.
qqq

SECTION
CHAPTER
11
B REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
WORKSHEET-70
Ans. 1. (i) Epididymis (ii) Uterus (iii) Menopause (iv) Haploid.
Ans. 2. Acrosome is a small cap like structure present on head in a human sperm.
Ans. 3. Corpus luteum.
Ans. 4. Menarche
Ans. 5. Epididymis is located inside the scrotum. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 6. Odd Term : Seminiferous tubule
Category : Accessory glands
Ans. 7. Corpus luteum. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
Ans. 8. Surrounds urethra close to its origin from urinary bladder.
Ans. 9. Seminal vesicles.
Ans. 10. Sperm duct : Transport sperms from testes to urethra.
Fallopian tube : Its funnel shaped opening receives the mature eggs from the ovary which are carried
by it to the uterus / It is the site of fertilization.
Ans. 11. Inguinal canal.
Ans. 12. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and matured is known as
epididymis.
Ans. 13. Seminiferous tubule and production of sperm (spermatogenesis)
Ans. 14. Menopause.
Ans. 15. Corpus callosum : Transmitting impulses from one cerebral (operative) hemisphere to the other.
(connecting two cerebral hemisphere)
Corpus luteum : Secretes Oestrogen/Progesterone/relaxin
(Prepares uterus for reception of embryo)
Ans. 16. (c) Epididymis.
Ans. 17. Between (operative) posterior surface of the urinary bladder and the rectum.
Ans. 18. Odd one : Lacrimal gland
Category : All other are the part of male reproductive system.
Ans. 19. Transport sperms from (operative) testes epididymis to (operative) urethra/Penis.
Ans. 20. Seminiferous tubules in males is responsible for the production of sperms.
Ans. 21. Odd one : Ureter.
Category : All others are the part of female reproductive system.
Ans. 22. Luteal phase.
Ans. 23. Interstitial cells (Leydig cells) are the cells that produces male hormones.
Ans. 24. Fertilization occurs in the Fallopian tube of the female reproductive system.
Ans. 25. The logical sequence is Ovary, oviduct, uterus, cervix and vagina.
Ans. 26. Seminiferous tubule and spermatogenesis.
Ans. 27. Corpus luteum secrete the hormones such as estrogen and progesterone.
Ans. 28. (b) Menarche.
qqq
WORKSHEET-71
Ans. 1. Sequence of direction for the course of passage of sperm in man is
Seminiferous tubule → epididymis → vas deferens → urethra → penis.
Ans. 2. (i) Corpus luteum and progesterone.
(ii) Seminal vesicle and production of semen, a milky fluid.
Ans. 3. Interstitial cells of testes that produces testosterone.
Ans. 4. Incorrect term : Ureter
Correct term : Penis
Ans. 6. Seminiferous tubule are located inside the testes. Function of seminiferous tubule is to produce
sperms.
Ans. 7. The logical sequence in the set is :
Ostium, graafian follicle, ovum, fallopian tube, uterus.
Ans. 8. Inguinal canal is the canal through which the testes descend into the scrotum just before the birth in
a human male child.
Ans. 9.
Prostate gland Cowper’s gland
Type of accessory gland that secretes a white another type of accessory gland that secrete
alkaline fluid into semen to neutralize acidic pH mucous and alkaline fluid into urethra which
of vagina. help in lubrication of penis.

qqq
WORKSHEET-72
Ans. 1. Logical sequence of phase of menstrual cycle is
Menstrual phase, follicular phase, ovulatory phase, luteal phase.
Ans. 2. Testosterone – Testes
Oestrogen – Ovaries
Ans. 3. (i) Scrotum
(ii) Menopause (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 4. (i) Different parts in the diagram are labelled as
(ii) Testosterone
(iii)
To increase the chances of fertilization.
Or to ensure the fertilization with ovum, a large number of sperms are produced by males and
ejaculated in vagina during copulation.
(iv) These are responsible for producing milky fluid known as semen.
Ans. 5. (i) 3 – Seminal vesicle, 4 – Prostrate gland, 5 – Scrotum
(ii) Part 2 sperm / vas deferens carries the sperms.
Part 3 secretion of seminal vesicles serves as a medium for the transportation of the sperms.
(iii) Scrotal sac acts as thermoregulator. The temperature in scrotal sac remains 2-3°C lower than the
body temperature which is suitable for maturation of sperms.
(iv) Testosterone
Plasma membrane
Acrosome
Nucleus containing
Head
chromosomal
material
Neck
Middle piece
Mitochondria
(energy source
for swimming)
Tail
Structure of a Human sperm
Ans. 6. (i) A. Scrotum / Scrotal sac

B. Sperm duct / Vas deference
C. Epididymis
(ii) Seminiferous tubule
(iii) 1. Maintains a temperature of 2 to 3 °C less than body temperature for the maturation of sperm.
(v) 3. Store the sperms till they become mature.
(iv) Ley dig cells / Interstitial cells
Plasma membrane
Acrosome
Nucleus containing
Head
chromosomal
material
Neck
Middle piece
Mitochondria
(energy source
for swimming)
Tail
Structure of a Human sperm (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 7. (i) 1 – Urinary bladder

2 – Ureter
3 – Prostate gland
4 – Vas deferens / Sperm duct
5 – Urethra
6 – Testes
7 – Scrotum / Scrotal sac
8 – Epididymis
(ii) Oviduct
(iii)
To protect the testes and to regulate the temperature of the testes.
Ans. 8.(i) A is ovary.
Two hormones produced by ovary are – (a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone
(ii) (a) If fertilization takes place, after about 7 days of fertilization the embryo reaches the uterus.
(b) If there is no fertilization, uterine lining is shed off with blood flow.
(iii) Fallopian tube
(iv) Human sperm
Human Sperm
qqq
WORKSHEET-73
Ans. 1. (i) Parts labelled from A to E :
A – Seminal vesicle
B – Prostate gland
C – Urethra
D – Sperm duct / Vas deferens
E – Testes
(ii)
A – Secretion of seminal vesicle serves as a medium for the transportation of the sperms.
D – Sperm duct / vas deferens carry the sperms.
(iii) Cells of Leydig.
(iv) Semen is a mixture of mature sperms and secretions of various accessory glands. It is a milky fluid

Ans. 2. (i) The parts labelled from A to G are :
A – Oviduct
B – Ovarian funnel of oviduct
C – Ureter
D – Vagina
E – Ovary
F – Uterus
G – Urinary bladder
H – Urethra
(ii) The uterus lining gets thickened in readiness to receive the zygote.
(iii) If fertilization takes place, the uterus develops pregnancy.
(iv) If fertilization fails, the uterus lining gets thickened.
qqq
WORKSHEET-74
Ans. 1. (i) one sperm / one egg (ii) amnion 3. implantation 4. 280 days.
Ans. 2. Amnion is found around the embryo in the uterus.
Ans. 3. ‘Gestation’ is the time period during which the embryo remains in the uterus.
Ans. 4. Sperm → vagina → cervix → uterus → oviduct
Ans. 5. Amniotic fluid acts as a shock absorber and protect the developing embryo from mechanical inju-
ries.
Ans. 6. Placenta provides diffusion for respiratory gases between mother and foetus.
Ans. 7. Amniotic fluid
Ans. 8. Fertilization → Uterus → Implantation → Gestation → Parturition. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 9. Fertilization → Uterus → Implantation → Gestation → Parturition. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 10. Fraternal
Ans. 11. Implantation. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 12. Amnion is found around the embryo in the uterus. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 13. Umbilical cord is the structure which connects the placenta with the foetus.
Ans. 14. The correct logical sequence in the set is Ovulation, fertilization, implantation, gestation, parturi-
tion.
Ans. 15. The statement is false. Implantation is the process of fixing of the embryo to the uterine wall.
Ans. 16. (b) Zygote
Ans. 17. Parturition is the delivery of the foetus or the childbirth.
Ans. 18. The mucous membrane lining of the uterus is called endometrium.
Ans. 19. Twins may not be identical as in the case of fraternal twins which are produced from two eggs. In
this case, two eggs are released from ovaries at the same time and both get fertilized to produce two
individuals.
Ans. 20. (i) D → B → C → A
(ii) In fallopian tube, the process of fertilization takes place.
Implantation is the process of fixing of the embryo to the uterine wall.
(iii) The chromosome number of the egg is n and the chromosome number of the zygote is 2n.
(iv) Gestation is the time period during which the embryo remains in the uterus. The gestation period
is of about 9 months or 280 days in human females.
(v) Plasma membrane
Acrosome
Nucleus containing
Head
chromosomal
material
Neck
Middle piece
Mitochondria
(energy source
for swimming)
Tail

qqq
WORKSHEET-75
Ans. 1. The given statement is false. Process of fusion of the sperm nucleus and the egg nucleus is termed
fertilization.
Ans. 2. The logical sequence in the set is
Ovulation → Fertilization → Implantation → gestation
Ans. 3. Site of fertilization in human female is oviduct.
Ans. 4. The human female gonads are ovaries. A maturing egg in the ovary is present in a sac of cells called
follicle (i) As the egg grows larger, the follicle enlarges and gets filled with a fluid and is now called
the graafian (ii) follicle. The process of releasing the egg from the ovary is called ovulation (iii). The
ovum is picked up by the oviduct funnel and fertilization takes place in the fallopian tube / oviduct /
uterine tube (iv). In about a week the blastocyst gets fixed in the endometrium of the uterus and this
process is called implantation (v). (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 5. (i) 1. Umbilical cord
2. Placenta
3. Amniotic fluid
(ii) (a) Diffusion of O2 antibodies and nutrients from maternal blood to foetal blood.
(b) Diffusion of carbon dioxide, urea, uric acid from foetal blood to maternal blood.

(c) Acts as a barrier and prevents germs to entering foetal blood.
(Any two)
(d) Secretes oestrogen and progesterone.
(iii) (a) Absorbs mechanical shocks and prevents injury to foetus.
(b) Keeps foetus moist.
(c) Allows movement of foetus. (Any one)
(iv) Gestation : It is the full term development of embryo in the uterus 280 days / 40 weeks
(v)
Male – XY
Female - XX (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
qqq
WORKSHEET-76
Ans. 1.(i) Part labelled A in the diagram is umbilical cord.
(ii) Part labelled B in the diagram is placenta. Its two main functions are :
(a) Provides diffusion for respiratory gases between mother and foetus.
(b)
Removes urea produced by foetus.
(iii)
Part labelled C is amniotic fluid. Its function is to acts as a shock absorber and protect the developing
embryo from mechanical injuries.
(iv) The normal gestation period of developing foetus is 280 days, i.e. 9 months.
Ans. 2.(i) Correct order in the process of fertilization is D → B → C → A.
(ii) In fallopian tube, the process of fertilization takes place.
(iii) The biological term for the product of fusion is zygote.
(iv) The chromosome number of the egg is n (haploid) and the chromosome number of the fused product,
Plasma membrane
Acrosome
Nucleus containing
Head
chromosomal
material
Neck
Middle piece
Mitochondria
(energy source
for swimming)
Tail
i.e. zygote is 2n (diploid). Structure of a Human sperm

Ans. 3.(i) Parts A to D are :
A – Vas deferens
B – Seminiferous tubule
C – Lobule/segment
D – Epididymis
(ii) Functions of different parts are :
A– Vas deferens. It passes the sperms from testes to penis.
B– Seminiferous tubules. Responsible for the production of sperms (spermatogenesis).

Plasma membrane
Acrosome
Nucleus containing
Head
chromosomal
material
Neck
Middle piece
Mitochondria
(energy source
for swimming)
Tail

Ans. 4. (i)
Oviduct
funnel (F)
Placenta
Right (C)
ovary
(A) Amnion Embryo
(E) Uterus (D)
(B)

(ii) Function’s of the following parts are :
(a) Placenta : It helps in exchanging nutrients, waste and gases between mother and foetus.
(b) Amniotic fluid : It protects foetus from jerks.
(iii)
The symbol ‘X’ indicates Fallopian tube, where fertilization occurs.
(iv) Identical twins : These are the twins which develop from single egg after fertilization.
Fraternal twins : These are the twins which develops from two separate eggs.

qqq
SECTION
CHAPTER
12
B POPULATION
WORKSHEET-77
Ans. (i) Population density (ii) July 11 (iii) Emigration
Ans. 2. Demography is statistical study of human population. Population density is the measurement of
population per unit area or per unit volume, at a given time.
Ans. 3. ATP : Adenosine triphosphate
AIDS : Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndromes
Ans. 4. Growth rate.
Ans. 5. Demography : Statistical study of human population with reference to size, density and distribution.
Population density : Number of individuals per square kilometer at any given time.
(ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 6. Population density.
Ans. 7. Population density. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
qqq
WORKSHEET-78
Ans. 1. Two major reasons for the population explosion in India are :
(i) Illiteracy.
(ii) Traditional beliefs.
(iii) Lack of education.
(iv) High birth rate. (Any two) (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 2.
Natality Mortality
It is defined as the number of birth per It is the number of deaths per 1000 individuals of a
1000 individuals of a population per year. population per year.

Ans. 3. It is the number of birth per unit population per unit area. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2009)
Ans. 4. Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand of a population per year.
Ans. 5. Three main reasons for sharp rise in human population in the world are :
(i) Decreased death rate due to advanced medical facilities.
(ii) Increase food availability due to advance agricultural technology.
(iii) Fewer infants deaths.
Ans. 6. The statement is false. Mortality is the number of death per thousand of individual the population per
year.
Ans. 7. Two reasons for the high birth rate in India are :
(i) Advancement of medical science, so there is low infant mortality.
(ii) Better health care facilities.
Ans. 8. Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand of individual of the population per year.
Ans. 9. Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand of individual of the population per year.
Ans. 10. (i) Population density is the number of individuals of a species per unit area.
(ii) Natality is defined as the total number of live births per thousand individuals of a population per
year.

qqq
WORKSHEET-79
Ans. (i) Barrier method (ii) Tubectomy (iii) Growth rate.
Ans. 2. Tubectomy is the surgical method of sterilization in the human female.
Ans. 3. Age restriction for boys is 21 years and girls is 18 years in India.
Ans. 4. These are the two major reasons for population explosion in India –
(i) The practice of early marriage is important reason for rapid increase in population in India.
(ii) Poverty is another cause because children are the source of income of the family.
Ans. 5. Education helps people to understand all the criterias and impacts of population explosion.
Ans. 6. (d) Oviduct. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 7. Vasectomy. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Ans. 8.
S.No. Vasectomy Tubectomy
(i) It is the permanent method of It is the permanent method of sterilization In
sterilization in males. females.
(ii) It involves surgical cutting of part of sperm It involves surgical cutting of part of oviduct of
Duct and ligation of cut ends to prevent woman and ligation of the cut ends to prevent
sperm transfer. fertilization.

Ans. 9. The statement is false, vasectomy is the surgical method of sterilization in males whereas tubectomy
is the surgical method of sterilization in females.
Ans. 10. Three advantages of small family :
(i) Less economic pressure on parents.
(ii) Better living conditions.
(iii) Proper education can be given to all.
Ans. 12. Population density is defined as the size of a population in relation to a particular unit area or unit
volume at a given time.
The operation made in women to prevent the flow of eggs into the oviduct is called tubectomy.
Ans. 13.(i) Age restriction for boys is 21 years and girls is 18 years in India.
(ii) Surgical techniques to prevent pregnancy in human are
In males Vasectomy.
In females Tubectomy.
(iii) (a) Less economic pressure on parents.
(b) Better living conditions.
Ans. 14. (i) Parts labelled from A to E are marked :
A – Seminal vesicles
B – Sperm duct or vas deferens
C – Urethra
D – Testis
E – Scrotum
(ii) Vasectomy.
(iii) Sperm duct is the part that is ligated or cut.
(iv) Tubectomy.
(v) Part ligated in females is oviduct in order to prevent the fusion of egg with the sperms, thus avoid-
ing pregnancy.
qqq
SECTION
CHAPTER
13
B POLLUTION
WORKSHEET- 80
Ans. (i) 80 (ii) Bio-degradable (iii) Smog (iv) Eutrophication.
Ans. 2. Odd : Paper
Category : Non-biodegradable pollutions
Ans. 3. Two main objectives of ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’ are :
(i) To eradicate the system of open defecation in India.
(ii) To make people aware of healthy sanitation practices by bringing behavioural changes in people.

Ans. 4. Pollutants.
Ans. 5. Odd Term : X-rays
Category : Water pollutants.
Ans. 6. (a) DDT
Ans. 7.(i) (d) 7th December
(ii) (c) 700
(iii) (e) increasing throughout the fog.
(iv) (b) Education
qqq
WORKSHEET- 81
Ans. 1. (d) Refrigeration equipments. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 2.(i) Air pollution

(ii) Automobiles
(iii) Smoke one reacts with oxides of nitrogen in the presence of sunlight in atmosphere forms
photochemical smog. It is highly toxic, reduces visibility. It produces asthma and bronchitis.
(iv) Good quality of automobile fuels can reduce emission of toxic materials.
(v) Chloroflurocarbons.
Ans. 3.(i) Noise pollution
(ii) Loudspeaker, Television, Radio, Loud conversation, Musical bands etc,
(iii) Loss of concentration, disturbs sleep, damage to ear drums, deafness, irritability etc. (Any three)
(iv) Any constituent when added to environment / air, water or land deteriorates its natural quality.
(v) Industrial wastes, Fertilizers, domestic wastes, plastics, pesticides, Biomedical wastes etc.
(Any two) (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
qqq
WORKSHEET- 82
Ans. 1. Odd term : Iodine
Category : Disinfectants. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)
Ans. 2. Biomedical waste. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)

Ans. 3. Non-biodegradable.
Ans. 4. Pollution.
Ans. 5. (d) DDT. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 6. Smog. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)
Ans. 7. Sewage / detergents / oil spills. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Ans. 8. The type of waste generated in hospitals and pathological laboratories such as needles, syringe/dis-
carded medicinal tablets.
Ans. 9. DDT.
Ans. 10. A constituent that causes pollution is pesticide.
Ans. 11. A non-degradable pollutant is plastic.
Ans. 12. Biodegradable pollutants are the substances which can be degraded by the action of micro-organisms,
e.g. food and kitchen wastes.
Ans. 13. Odd one – Oxygen
Category – Rest of all are pollutants.
Ans. 14. Noise pollution is defined as unwanted sound of generally 80 db or more, which is unpleasant and
which affects the receiver directly.
Ans. 15. Pollutants are the substances/materials that causes pollution and bring undesirable changes in the
environment, e.g. chemicals, industrial wastes.
qqq
WORKSHEET- 83
Ans. 1. (i) 16th September (ii) Stratosphere (iii) Biomagnification (iv) Fertilizers.
Ans. 2. (b) Methane
Ans. 3. Acid rain causes corrosion of the marble or brick surface.
Ans. 4. CFCs can leads to ozone depletion. As a result UV radiations can reach to the earth and cause harmful
effects on living organisms. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 5. Carbon monoxide forms carboxyhaemoglobin with haemoglobin and cuts off the supply of oxygen
to tissues. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Ans. 6. It causes leaching of essential minerals of soil and toxic mineral left will kill the plants. 50% natural
forests have been destroyed by acid rain in Germany, Sweden, Poland etc.
- Acid in the rain reacts with the calcium of statues, sculpture and ancient monuments and damage
them.
Ans. 7. CO2 is responsible for the greenhouse effect or global warming. Rise in CO2 level causes enhanced
greenhouse effect which leads to raise in temperature following many harmful effects as raising sea
level, melting of glaciers, extinction of species at faster rate. etc.
Ans. 8. Ozone hole is the thinning of the ozone layer due to increased use of CFCs. International Ozone Day
is celebrated on 16th September every year.
Ans. 9. Sulphur dioxide is the pollutant largely responsible for acid rain.
qqq


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CHAPTER

Ans. 6. ODD : RNA

Chromosomes moving towards the poles.

Ans. 4. Homologous chromosomes.

(iii) Phenotypic Ratio – 3 : 1

(All tall plant,

(a) Genotype of the F1 -generation – TtRr

Phenotype Tall and Tall and Dwarf and Dwarf

Ans. 5. (i) Homozygous round seed – RR

Ans. 6. (i) Different parts can be labelled as

Ans. 2. (i) Transpiration.

(iv) Phagocytosis is the process occurring in (b) and (c).

Ans. 6. (i) A – Artery, B – Vein, C – Capillary

Ans. 4. Pulmonary vein. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)

Ans. 5. Lubb. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)

RBCs – Drawn and labelled

Platelet (Any to be considered)

(ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Malpighian Capsule (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)

Ans. 6. Odd term : Bile

Cell Nissl’s Nurve

Cell Nissl’s Nurve

Structure of a typical neuron

Ans. 12. Cerebrum. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Lungs Dilates bronchi and bronchioles Constricts bronchi and bronchioles

Pupil of the eye Dilates Pupil Constricts Pupil

Salivary gland Inhibits salivary Stimulate Salivary

Ans. 11.(i) Reflex action/Reflex arc/ Nervous pathway of Reflex action.

Ans. 11. (i)

Ans. 2. Ear Drum. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)

Ans. 8. In the Cochlea / On the basilar membrane of median canal in Cochlea.

Ans. 11. Conjunctiva. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)

Ans. 12. Presbyopia. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)

Ans. 14. Malleus/hammer. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Ans. 17. (i) Suspensory ligaments hold lens in position.

Ans. 2. Auditory nerve. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Ans. 3. In moon light Rods/Rhodopsin are active which help us to see.

Ans. 7. (d) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016)

Ans. 2. Insulin / Glucagon / Somatostatin. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Ans. 3. (c) Hyposecretion of thyroxine (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

(iii) Posterior Vasopressin (iv) Increases reabsorption of water from kidney

Structure of a Human sperm

Ans. 6. (i) A. Scrotum / Scrotal sac

Structure of a Human sperm (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)

Ans. 7. (i) 1 – Urinary bladder

Structure of a Human sperm

i.e. zygote is 2n (diploid). Structure of a Human sperm

Structure of a Human sperm

Ans. 7. Vasectomy. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Ans. 2.(i) Air pollution

Ans. 2. Biomedical waste. (ICSE Marking Scheme 2017)

Ans. 7. Sewage / detergents / oil spills. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

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Ans. 5. Lubb. (ICSE Marking Scheme, 2015)