Ccna Sec 1.1

1.
When logging is enabled for an ACL entry, how does the router switch packets filtered by
the ACL?
topology-based switching
autonomous switching
process switching
optimum switching
2. Which statement is true about the One-Step lockdown feature of the CCP Security Audit
wizard?
It enables the Secure Copy Protocol (SCP).

It supports AAA configuration.
It enables TCP intercepts.
It sets an access class ACL on vty lines.
It provides an option for configuring SNMPv3 on all routers.
3 . What are three common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose
three.)
authenticating administrator access to the router console port, auxiliary port, and vty
ports
authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN
connections
implementing public key infrastructure to authenticate and authorize IPsec VPN peers using
digital certificates
implementing command authorization with TACACS+
securing the router by locking down all unused services
tracking Cisco Netflow accounting statistics
4.
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator can ping the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB but is unable
to gain Telnet access to the router using the password cisco123. What is a possible cause of
the problem?
The Telnet connection between RouterA and RouterB is not working correctly.
The password cisco123 is wrong.
The enable password and the Telnet password need to be the same.
The administrator does not have enough rights on the PC that is being used.
5.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the commands that are shown on router R1.
At what trap level is the logging function set?
2
3
5
6
6. If a switch is configured with the storm-control command and the action shutdown and
action trap parameters, which two actions does the switch take when a storm occurs on a port?
(Choose two.)
The port is disabled. (Corrected by Elfnet)

The switch is rebooted. (Original answer)
An SNMP log message is sent.
The port is placed in a blocking state.
The switch forwards control traffic only.
7. Why does a worm poses a greater threat than a virus poses?
Worms run within a host program.

Worms are not detected by antivirus programs.
Worms directly attack the network devices.
Worms are more network-based than viruses are.

8. When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the default action when
the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded?
The violation mode for the port is set to restrict.

The MAC address table is cleared, and the new MAC address is entered into the table.
The port remains enabled, but the bandwidth is throttled until the old MAC addresses are aged
out.
The port is shut down.
9. Which type of encryption algorithm uses public and private keys to provide authentication,
integrity, and confidentiality?
IPsec
symmetric
asymmetric
shared secret
10. Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three.)
AH uses IP protocol 51.

AH provides encryption and integrity.
AH provides integrity and authentication.
ESP uses UDP protocol 50.
ESP requires both authentication and encryption.
ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the CBAC configuration on
router R1?
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip inspect INSIDE in
R1(config-if)# ip access-group OUTBOUND in
R1(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in
R1(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE out
R1(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE in
12. Which statement describes the operation of the IKE protocol?
It uses IPsec to establish the key exchange process.

It uses sophisticated hashing algorithms to transmit keys directly across a network.
It calculates shared keys based on the exchange of a series of data packets.
It uses TCP port 50 to exchange IKE information between the security gateways.
13. Which two configuration requirements are needed for remote access VPNs using Cisco
Easy VPN Server, but are not required for site-to-site VPNs? (Choose two.)
group policy lookup (Corrected by Elfnet)

IPsec translations (Original Answer)
virtual template interface
IKE policies
transform sets
14. What can be used as a VPN gateway when setting up a site-to-site VPN?
Cisco Catalyst switch

Cisco router
Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Cisco AnyConnect

15. Which type of Layer 2 attack makes a host appear as the root bridge for a LAN?
LAN storm
MAC address spoofing
MAC address table overflow
STP manipulation
VLAN attack
16.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured a standard ACL on R1 and applied it to
interface serial 0/0/0 in the outbound direction. What happens to traffic leaving interface
serial 0/0/0 that does not match the configured ACL statements?
The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address.

The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address and port number.
The source IP address is checked and, if a match is not found, traffic is routed out interface
serial 0/0/1.
The traffic is dropped.
17. The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is an example of which of the five IPsec
building blocks?
authentication
confidentiality
Diffie-Hellman
integrity
nonrepudiation

18.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct regarding the configuration on switch
S1? (Choose two.)
Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent
of the total bandwidth.
Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts and broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds
2,000,000 packets per second.
Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000
packets per second.
Port Fa0/5 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the
total bandwidth.
Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts and multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1
percent of 2,000,000 packets per second.
19. What is a characteristic of AAA accounting?
Accounting can only be enabled for network connections.

Users are not required to be authenticated before AAA accounting logs their activities on the
network. (Original)
Possible triggers for the aaa accounting exec default command include start-stop and
stop-only. (Corrected by Joker!)
Accounting is concerned with allowing and disallowing authenticated users access to certain
areas and programs on the network.
20. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth. What is
the effect of this setting?
authenticates a packet using the SHA algorithm only

authenticates a packet by a string match of the username or community string
authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method
authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC MD5 or HMAC SHA algorithms and
encrypts the packet using either the DES, 3DES or AES algorithms

21. Which action best describes a MAC address spoofing attack?
altering the MAC address of an attacking host to match that of a legitimate host
bombarding a switch with fake source MAC addresses
forcing the election of a rogue root bridge
flooding the LAN with excessive traffic
22. When configuring a site-to-site IPsec VPN using the CLI, the authentication pre-share
command is configured in the ISAKMP policy. Which additional peer authentication
configuration is required?
Configure the message encryption algorithm with the encryptiontype ISAKMP policy
configuration command.
Configure the DH group identifier with the groupnumber ISAKMP policy configuration
command.
Configure a hostname with the crypto isakmp identity hostname global configuration
command.
Configure a PSK with the crypto isakmp key global configuration command.
23. Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levels for assigning
command authorization? (Choose three.)
There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router.

The root user must be assigned to each privilege level defined.
Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users.
Views are required to define the CLI commands that each user can access.
Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious
process.
It is required that all 16 privilege levels be defined, whether they are used or not.
24. Which set of Cisco IOS commands instructs the IPS to compile a signature category
named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic?
R1(config)# ip ips signature-category

R1(config-ips-category)# category all
R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false
R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic
R1(config-ips-category-action)# no retired false
25.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three things occur if a user attempts to log in four times within 10
seconds using an incorrect password? (Choose three.)
Subsequent virtual login attempts from the user are blocked for 60 seconds.
During the quiet mode, an administrator can virtually log in from any host on network
172.16.1.0/24.
Subsequent console login attempts are blocked for 60 seconds.
A message is generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user.
During the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2.
No user can log in virtually from any host for 60 seconds.
26. Which statement describes configuring ACLs to control Telnet traffic destined to the
router itself?
The ACL must be applied to each vty line individually.

The ACL is applied to the Telnet port with the ip access-group command.
Apply the ACL to the vty lines without the in or out option required when applying ACLs to
interfaces. (Original)
The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in the in direction to prevent an unwanted
user from connecting to an unsecured port. (Corrected by Joker!)
27. What are three characteristics of the ASA routed mode? (Choose three.)
This mode does not support VPNs, QoS, or DHCP Relay. (Original)

The interfaces of the ASA separate Layer 3 networks and require different IP addresses in
different subnets. (Corrected by Elfnet & Joker!)
It is the traditional firewall deployment mode.
NAT can be implemented between connected networks. (Corrected by Elfnet & Joker!)
This mode is referred to as a “bump in the wire.” (Original)
In this mode, the ASA is invisible to an attacker.
28. Which authentication method is available when specifying a method list for group policy
lookup using the CCP Easy VPN Server wizard?
Active Directory
Kerberos (Original)
Certificate Authority
RADIUS (Corrected by Joker! & Andy)
TACACS+
29. Which access list statement permits HTTP traffic that is sourced from host 10.1.129.100
port 4300 and destined to host 192.168.30.10?
access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 4300

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255
access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.30.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 4300
30.
Refer to the exhibit. What conclusion can be drawn from the exhibited window when it is
displayed on a remote user computer screen?
The user has connected to a secure web server.

The user has established a client-based VPN connection.
The user has logged out of the AnyConnect VPN client.
The user is installing the AnyConnect VPN client.
The user is using a web browser to connect to a clientless SSL VPN.
31. What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command?
aaa new-model global configuration command

changes to the configuration register
password encryption service
ability to access ROMmon
32. Which type of IPS signature detection is used to distract and confuse attackers?
pattern-based detection
anomaly-based detection
policy-based detection
honey pot-based detection
33.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured router R1 as indicated. However, SDEE
messages fail to log. Which solution corrects this problem?
Issue the logging on command in global configuration.

Issue the ip ips notify sdee command in global configuration.
Issue the ip audit notify log command in global configuration.
Issue the clear ip ips sdee events command to clear the SDEE buffer.

34. Which attack allows the attacker to see all frames on a broadcast network by causing a
switch to flood all incoming traffic?
LAN storm (Original)
VLAN hopping
STP manipulation
MAC table overflow (Corrected by Joker! & Andy)
802.1q double tagging
35.
Refer to the exhibit. The indicated window has appeared in the web browser of a remote user.
What is the cause of this message?
The user has timed out of an AnyConnect SSL VPN installation.

The user has logged out of a clientless SSL VPN session. (Corrected by Joker!)
The user has logged out of a Cisco VPN Client session.
The user has logged out of an AnyConnect IPsec VPN session.
The user has logged out of an AnyConnect SSL VPN session. (Original)
36. An administrator has been asked to configure basic access security on a router, including
creating secure passwords and disabling unattended connections. Which three actions
accomplish this using recommended security practices? (Choose three.)
Create passwords with only alphanumeric characters.

Set the minimum password length to 10 characters.
Set the executive timeout parameters on the console port to 120 and 0. (Original)
Set the executive timeout parameters on the vty lines to 3 and 0. (Corrected by Joker!)
Enable the password encryption service for the router.
Enable login using the Aux port with the executive timeout set to 0 and 0.

37. Which type of intrusion prevention technology is primarily used by Cisco IPS security
appliances?
rule-based
profile-based
signature-based
NetFlow anomaly-based
protocol analysis-based
38. Which type of packets exiting the network of an organization should be blocked by an

ACL?
packets that are not encrypted

packets that are not translated with NAT
packets with source IP addresses outside of the organization’s network address space
packets with destination IP addresses outside of the organization’s network address space
39. An administrator wants to prevent a rogue Layer 2 device from intercepting traffic from
multiple VLANs on a network. Which two actions help mitigate this type of activity? (Choose
two.)
Disable DTP on ports that require trunking.

Place unused active ports in an unused VLAN.
Secure the native VLAN, VLAN 1, with encryption.
Set the native VLAN on the trunk ports to an unused VLAN.
Turn off trunking on all trunk ports and manually configure each VLAN as required on each
port.
40. Which command would an administrator use to clear generated crypto keys?
Router(config)# crypto key decrypt

Router(config-line)# transport input ssh clear
Router(config)# crypto key rsa
Router(config)# crypto key zeroize rsa

41. What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device
management?
All vty ports are automatically configured for SSH to provide secure management.
The general-purpose key size must be specified for authentication with the crypto key
generate rsa general-keys moduluscommand.
The keys must be zeroized to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters.
The generated keys can be used by SSH.
42.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured an ASA 5505 as indicated but is still
unable toping the inside interface from an inside host. What is the cause of this problem?
An IP address should be configured on the Ethernet 0/0 and 0/1 interfaces. (Original)
The no shutdown command should be entered on interface Ethernet 0/1. (Corrected by
Joker! & Andy)
The security level of the inside interface should be 0 and the outside interface should be 100.
VLAN 1 should be assigned to interface Ethernet 0/0 and VLAN 2 to Ethernet 0/1.
VLAN 1 should be the outside interface and VLAN 2 should be the inside interface.
43.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can
be determined from the message?
This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.
This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.
This is an error message indicating the system is unusable.

44. What is a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient
Configuration feature?
The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command.
The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.
The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to the NVRAM.
When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image is loaded from a secured FTP location.
45. Which two commands are needed on every IPv6 ACL to allow IPv6 neighbor discovery?
(Choose two.)
permit tcp any any ack

permit icmp any any nd-na
permit icmp any any echo-reply
permit icmp any any nd-ns
permit ipv6 any any fragments
permit ipv6 any any routing
46. Which technology does CCP require for configuring remote access VPN support with the
Easy VPN Server wizard?
AutoSecure
Role-Based CLI Access
AAA
port forwarding
47. What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.)
disable used ports and services

determine potential vulnerabilities
identify active services
identify peripheral configurations
identify operating systems
discover system passwords

48.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is implementing VPN support on an ASA 5505. What
type of VPN support is being implemented?
client-based IPsec VPN using Cisco VPN Client
client-based IPsec VPN using AnyConnect
client-based SSL VPN using AnyConnect (Original)
clientless IPsec VPN
clientless SSL VPN (Corrected by Joker! & Andy)
site-to-site IPsec VPN
49. Which type of VPN may require the Cisco VPN Client software?
remote access VPN

SSL VPN
site-to-site VPN
MPLS VPN
50. Sales representatives of an organization use computers in hotel business centers to

occasionally access corporate e-mail and the inventory database. What would be the best VPN
solution to implement on an ASA to support these users?
client-based IPsec VPN using Cisco VPN Client (Original answer)

client-based SSL VPN using AnyConnect
clientless IPsec VPN using a web browser
clientless SSL VPN using a web browser (Corrected by Elfnet)

51.
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be obtained from the AAA configuration
statements?
The authentication method list used for Telnet is named ACCESS.

The authentication method list used by the console port is named ACCESS.
The local database is checked first when authenticating console and Telnet access to the
router.
If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, no users can establish a Telnet session with the
router.
If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, console access to the router can be
authenticated using the local database.
52. What must be configured before any Role-Based CLI views can be created?
aaa new-model command

multiple privilege levels
secret password for the root user
usernames and passwords
53.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show secure bootset command on router
R1, which three conclusions can be drawn regarding Cisco IOS Resilience? (Choose three.)
A copy of the Cisco IOS image file has been made.

A copy of the router configuration file has been made.
The Cisco IOS image file is hidden and cannot be copied, modified, or deleted.
The Cisco IOS image filename will be listed when the show flash command is issued on R1.
The copy tftp flash command was issued on R1.
The secure boot-config command was issued on R1.
54. What are two disadvantages of using network IPS? (Choose two.)
Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an

attack was successful.
Network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic.
Network IPS is operating system-dependent and must be customized for each platform.
Network IPS is unable to provide a clear indication of the extent to which the network is
being attacked.
Network IPS sensors are difficult to deploy when new networks are added.
55. Which statement describes the CCP Security Audit wizard?
After the wizard identifies the vulnerabilities, the CCP One-Step Lockdown feature must be
used to make all security-related configuration changes.
After the wizard identifies the vulnerabilities, it automatically makes all security-related
configuration changes.
The wizard autosenses the inside trusted and outside untrusted interfaces to determine
possible security problems that might exist. (Original Answer)
The wizard is based on the Cisco IOS AutoSecure feature. (Corrected by Elfnet & Andy)
The wizard is enabled by using the Intrusion Prevention task.
56. Which three statements describe zone-based policy firewall rules that govern interface
behavior and the traffic moving between zone member interfaces? (Choose three.)
An interface can be assigned to multiple security zones. (Original)

Interfaces can be assigned to a zone before the zone is created.
Pass, inspect, and drop options can only be applied between two zones. (Corrected by
Joker! & Andy)
If traffic is to flow between all interfaces in a router, each interface must be a member of
a zone.
Traffic is implicitly prevented from flowing by default among interfaces that are members of
the same zone.
To permit traffic to and from a zone member interface, a policy allowing or inspecting
traffic must be configured between that zone and any other zone.

57.
Refer to the exhibit. Which option tab on the CCP screen is used to view the Top Threats
table and deploy signatures associated with those threats?
Create IPS
Edit IPS
Security Dashboard
IPS Sensor
IPS Migration
58. Which statement correctly describes a type of filtering firewall?
A transparent firewall is typically implemented on a PC or server with firewall software

running on it.
A packet-filtering firewall expands the number of IP addresses available and hides network
addressing design.
An application gateway firewall (proxy firewall) is typically implemented on a router to filter
Layer 3 and Layer 4 information.
A stateful firewall monitors the state of connections, whether the connection is in an
initiation, data transfer, or termination state.
59. Which component of AAA is used to determine which resources a user can access and
which operations the user is allowed to perform?
auditing
accounting
authorization
authentication
60. Which three statements should be considered when applying ACLs to a Cisco router?
(Choose three.)
Place generic ACL entries at the top of the ACL. (Original)

Place more specific ACL entries at the top of the ACL.
Router-generated packets pass through ACLs on the router without filtering.
ACLs always search for the most specific entry before taking any filtering action.
A maximum of three IP access lists can be assigned to an interface per direction (in or out).
An access list applied to any interface without a configured ACL allows all traffic to
pass. (Corrected by Elfnet & Joker!)
1. What are the basic phases of attack that can be used by a virus or worm in sequential order?
paralyze, probe, penetrate, persist, and propagate
probe, penetrate, persist, propagate, and paralyze
penetrate, persist, propagate, paralyze, and probe
persist, propagate, paralyze, probe, and penetrate
2. Which two are characteristics of DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
They always precede access attacks.
They attempt to compromise the availability of a network, host, or application.
They are difficult to conduct and are initiated only by very skilled attackers.
They are commonly launched with a tool called L0phtCrack.
Examples include smurf attacks and ping of death attacks.
3. Users report to the helpdesk that icons usually seen on the menu bar are randomly
appearing on their computer screens. What could be a reason that computers are displaying
these random graphics?
An access attack has occurred.
A virus has infected the computers.

A DoS attack has been launched against the network.
The computers are subject to a reconnaissance attack.
4. What are three types of access attacks? (Choose three.)
buffer overflow
ping sweep
port redirection
trust exploitation
port scan
Internet information query
5. What occurs during a spoofing attack?
One device falsifies data to gain access to privileged information.
Large amounts of network traffic are sent to a target device to make resources unavailable to
intended users.
Improperly formatted packets are forwarded to a target device to cause the target system to
crash.
A program writes data beyond the allocated memory to enable the execution of malicious
code.
6. What is a characteristic of a Trojan Horse?
A Trojan Horse can be carried in a virus or worm.

A proxy Trojan Horse opens port 21 on the target system.
An FTP Trojan Horse stops anti-virus programs or firewalls from functioning.
A Trojan Horse can be hard to detect because it closes when the application that launched it
closes.
7. Which phase of worm mitigation requires compartmentalization and segmentation of the

network to slow down or stop the worm and prevent currently infected hosts from targeting
and infecting other systems?
containment phase
inoculation phase
quarantine phase
treatment phase
8. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)
A virus typically requires end-user activation.
A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload.
A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in networks.
A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords.
A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date.
9. What is a ping sweep?
A ping sweep is a network scanning technique that indicates the live hosts in a range of
IP addresses.
A ping sweep is a software application that enables the capture of all network packets sent
across a LAN.
A ping sweep is a scanning technique that examines a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on
a host to detect listening services.
A ping sweep is a query and response protocol that identifies information about a domain,
including the addresses assigned to that domain.
10. Which type of security threat can be described as software that attaches to another
program to execute a specific unwanted function?
virus
worm
proxy Trojan horse
Denial of Service Trojan horse
11. A disgruntled employee is using Wireshark to discover administrative Telnet usernames

and passwords. What type of network attack does this describe?
Denial of Service
port redirection
reconnaissance
trust exploitation
12. What occurs during the persist phase of a worm attack?
identification of vulnerable targets

modification of system files and registry settings to ensure that the attack code is
running
transfer of exploit code through an attack vector
extension of the attack to vulnerable neighboring targets
13. What are the three major components of a worm attack? (Choose three.)
enabling vulnerability
infecting vulnerability
payload
penetration mechanism
probing mechanism
propagation mechanism
14. A network administrator detects unknown sessions involving port 21 on the network.
What could be causing this security breach?
An FTP Trojan Horse is executing.
A reconnaissance attack is occurring.
A denial of service attack is occurring.
Cisco Security Agent is testing the network.
16. How is a Smurf attack conducted?
by sending a large number of packets, overflowing the allocated buffer memory of the target
device
by sending an echo request in an IP packet larger than the maximum packet size of 65,535
bytes
by sending a large number of ICMP requests to directed broadcast addresses from a

spoofed source address on the same network
by sending a large number of TCP SYN packets to a target device from a spoofed source
address
17. Which access attack method involves a software program attempting to discover a system
password by using an electronic dictionary?
buffer overflow attack
port redirection attack
Denial of Service attack
brute-force attack
IP spoofing attack
packet sniffer attack
18 Which two network security solutions can be used to mitigate DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
virus scanning
data encryption
anti-spoofing technologies
intrusion protection systems
applying user authentication
19. Which phase of worm mitigation involves terminating the worm process, removing
modified files or system settings that the worm introduced, and patching the vulnerability that
the worm used to exploit the system?
containment
inoculation
quarantine
treatment
20. Which characteristic best describes the network security Compliance domain as specified
by the ISO/IEC?
the integration of security into applications
an inventory and classification scheme for information assets

the restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data
the process of ensuring conformance with security information policies, standards, and
regulations
21. Which statement describes phone freaking?
A hacker uses password-cracking programs to gain access to a computer via a dialup account.
A hacker gains unauthorized access to networks via wireless access points.
A hacker mimics a tone using a whistle to make free long-distance calls on an analog
telephone network.
A hacker uses a program that automatically scans telephone numbers within a local area,
dialing each one in search of computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.
22. Which two statements describe access attacks? (Choose two.)
Port redirection attacks use a network adapter card in promiscuous mode to capture all
network packets that are sent across a LAN.
Password attacks can be implemented using brute-force attack methods, Trojan Horses,
or packet sniffers.
Buffer overflow attacks write data beyond the allocated buffer memory to overwrite
valid data or exploit systems to execute malicious code.
Port scanning attacks scan a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on a host to detect listening
services.
Trust exploitation attacks can use a laptop acting as a rogue access point to capture and copy
all network traffic in a public location on a wireless hotspot.

Please take note this answer is not 100% correct. I only got 95.7% for this CCNAS Chapter 1
Test. There might be mistake on the new questions. If you think that you have better answer,
please share with us. Thank you
NEW QUESTION SECTION

Which statement accurately characterizes the evolution of network security?
Internal threats can cause even greater damage than external threats.
Internet architects planned for network security from the beginning.
Early Internet users often engaged in activities that would harm other users.
Threats have become less sophisticated while the technical knowledge needed by an attacker
has grown.
Which three options describe the phases of worm mitigation? (Choose three.)
The containment phase requires the use of incoming and outgoing ACLs on routers and
firewalls.
The containment phase tracks down and identifies the infected machines within the contained
areas.
The inoculation phase disconnects, blocks, or removes infected machines.
The inoculation phase patches uninfected systems with the appropriate vendor patch for
the vulnerability.
The quarantine phase terminates the worm process, removes modified files or system settings,
and patches the vulnerability the worm used to exploit the system.
The treatment phase disinfects actively infected systems.
[Corrected by: Huy Nguyen]
An attacker is using a laptop as a rogue access point to capture all network traffic from a
targeted user. Which type of attack is this?
trust exploitation
buffer overflow
man in the middle
port redirection

What is considered a valid method of securing the control plane in the Cisco NFP framework?
authorization of actions
DHCP snooping
dynamic ARP inspection
login and password policy
routing protocol authentication
role-based access control
[Updated by Xase]
A port scan is classified as what type of attack?
access attack
Denial of Service attack
reconnaissance attack
spoofing attack
Which type of software typically uses a network adapter card in promiscuous mode to capture
all network packets that are sent across a LAN?
port scanner
ping sweeper
packet sniffer
Internet information query
What are two reasons for securing the data plane in the Cisco NFP framework? (Choose two.)
to protect against DoS attacks

to provide bandwidth control
to force technicians to use SSH and HTTPS when managing devices
to provide a record of who accessed the device, what occurred, and when it occurred
to allow users to control the flow of traffic that is managed by the route processor of their
network devices
[Updated by Sanchez Perez Gilton]
What are the three components of information security? (Choose three.)
availability
connectivity
confidentiality
disclosure
integrity
safety
Which domain of network security would contain a document that specifies the level of
access that college staff have to the student records server?
asset management
communication and network management
risk assessment
security policy
Which security organization would most likely coordinate communication between security
experts in various US agencies when a security attack has been launched?
CERT
CIS
(ISC)2
SANS
How would limiting the type and number of input characters on a web page help with network
security?
It deters hacking.
It provides content filtering.
It protects from DoS attacks.
It prevents open ports from being used in an improper manner.
[Updated by Hello]
Which access attack method involves a software program that attempts to discover a system
password by the use of an electronic dictionary?
port redirection attack

brute-force attack
buffer overflow attack
packet sniffer attack
IP spoofing attack
denial of service attack
Which two statements characterize DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
They are difficult to conduct and are initiated only by very skilled attackers.
They are commonly launched with a tool called L0phtCrack.
Examples include smurf attacks and ping of death attacks.
They attempt to compromise the availability of a network, host, or application.
They always precede access attacks.
[Other Sources]
What is a characteristic of a Trojan horse as it relates to network security?
Malware is contained in a seemingly legitimate executable program.
Extreme quantities of data are sent to a particular network device interface.
An electronic dictionary is used to obtain a password to be used to infiltrate a key network

device.
Too much information is destined for a particular memory block, causing additional memory
areas to be affected.

Which three statements accurately describe three phases of worm mitigation? (Choose three.)
The containment phase requires the use of incoming and outgoing ACLs on routers and
firewalls.
The containment phase tracks down and identifies the infected machines within the contained
areas.
The inoculation phase disconnects, blocks, or removes infected machines.
The inoculation phase patches uninfected systems with the appropriate vendor patch for
the vulnerability.
The quarantine phase terminates the worm process, removes modified files or system settings,
and patches the vulnerability the worm used to exploit the system.
The treatment phase disinfects actively infected systems.
What causes a buffer overflow?
launching a security countermeasure to mitigate a Trojan horse
downloading and installing too many software updates at one time
attempting to write more data to a memory location than that location can hold
sending too much information to two or more interfaces of the same device, thereby causing
dropped packets
sending repeated connections such as Telnet to a particular device, thus denying other data
sources
1. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the generated
message? (Choose two. )
This message is a level five notification message.
This message appeared because a minor error occurred requiring further investigation.
This message appeared because a major error occurred requiring immediate action.
This message indicates that service timestamps have been globally enabled.
This message indicates that enhanced security was configured on the vty ports.
2. By default, how many seconds of delay between virtual login attempts is invoked when the
login block-for command is configured?
one
two
three
four
five
3. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is
configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of
information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail
command on R2? (Choose two. )
Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.
Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.
Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client.
The IP address of R1 is 192. 168. 1. 2.
The IP address of R2 is 192. 168. 1. 2.
4. What are two characteristics of the SDM Security Audit wizard? (Choose two. )
It uses interactive dialogs and prompts to implement AAA.
It automatically enables Cisco IOS firewall and implements Cisco IOS IPS security
configurations to secure the router.
It displays a screen with Fix-it check boxes to let you choose which potential security-
related configuration changes to implement.
It requires users to first identify which router interfaces connect to the inside network
and which connect to the outside network.
It is initiated from CLI and executes a script in which the managment plane functions and
forwarding plane services are tested against known vulnerabilities.
5. If AAA is already enabled, which three CLI steps are required to configure a router with a
specific view? (Choose three. )
assign a secret password to the view
assign commands to the view
assign users who can use the view
associate the view with the root view
create a superview using the parser view view-name command
create a view using the parser viewview-name command
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement regarding the JR-Admin account is true?
JR-Admin can issue show, ping, and reload commands.
JR-Admin can issue ping and reload commands.
JR-Admin can issue only ping commands.
JR-Admin can issue debug and reload commands.
JR-Admin cannot issue any command because the privilege level does not match one of those
defined.
7. Which recommended security practice prevents attackers from performing password

recovery on a Cisco IOS router for the purpose of gaining access to the privileged EXEC
mode?
Keep a secure copy of the router Cisco IOS image and router configuration file as a backup.
Disable all unused ports and interfaces to reduce the number of ways that the router can be
accessed.
Configure secure administrative control to ensure that only authorized personnel can access
the router.
Locate the router in a secure locked room that is accessible only to authorized personnel.
Provision the router with the maximum amount of memory possible.
8. Which three options can be configured by Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose three.)

CBAC
SNMP
syslog
security banner (Corrected by Andy)
interface IP address
enable secret password
9. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show running-config command, which type
of view is SUPPORT?
secret view, with a level 5 encrypted password
root view, with a level 5 encrypted secret password
superview, containing SHOWVIEW and VERIFYVIEW views
CLI view, containing SHOWVIEW and VERIFYVIEW commands
10. Which three services on a router does Cisco SDM One-Step Lockdown enable? (Choose
three. )
SNMP
TCP intercepts
SSH access to the router
Cisco Discovery Protocol
firewall on all outside interfaces
11. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use
with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted
SSH connections? (Choose three. )
configure the IP domain name on the router
enable inbound vty Telnet sessions
generate the SSH keys
configure DNS on the router
enable inbound vty SSH sessions
generate two-way pre-shared keys
12. Which statement describes the operation of the Cisco SDM Security Audit wizard?
The wizard configures a router to prevent unauthorized access.
The wizard compares a router configuration against recommended settings.
The wizard monitors network data and logs possible unauthorized or malicious traffic.
The wizard logs the effectiveness of network security measures for baseline comparisons.
13. An administrator needs to create a user account with custom access to most privileged
EXEC commands. Which privilege command is used to create this custom account?
privilege exec level 0
14. Which three areas of router security must be maintained to secure an edge router at the
network perimeter? (Choose three.)
physical security
flash security
operating system security
remote access security
router hardening
zone isolation
15. Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant
information about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack?
HTTP
CDP
FTP
NTP
TFTP
16. Which two operations are required to implement Cisco SDM One-Step Lockdown?
(Choose two. )
Choose the One-Step Lockdown feature.
Apply the documented network policies.
Deliver the configuration changes to the router.
Compare the router configuration against recommended settings.
Select the Firewall and ACL task on the SDM Configuration screen.
17. Which statement matches the CLI commands to the SDM wizard that performs similar
configuration functions?
aaa configuration commands and the SDM Basic Firewall wizard
auto secure privileged EXEC command and the SDM One-Step Lockdown wizard
class-maps, policy-maps, and service-policy configuration commands and the SDM IPS
wizard
setup privileged EXEC command and the SDM Security Audit wizard
18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of secret 5 in the generated output?
The ADMIN password is encrypted using DH group 5.
The ADMIN password is encrypted via the service password-encryption command.
The ADMIN password is hashed using MD5.
The ADMIN password is hashed using SHA.
19. Which three commands are required to restore a primary bootset from a secure archive on
a router on which Cisco IOS resilience is enabled? (Choose three. )
Restart the router in ROM monitor mode and display the secure bootset Cisco IOS
image name using the dir command.
Restart the router, enter privileged EXEC mode, and display the secure bootset Cisco IOS
image name using the show flash command.
Boot the secure bootset Cisco IOS image using the boot command with the filename.
Copy the secure bootset Cisco IOS image to flash using the copy IOS-backup-image flash
command.
Restore the secure configuration file using the copy config-backup flash command.
Restore the secure configuration file using the secure boot-config restore filename
command.
20. Which set of commands are required to create a username of admin, hash the password
using MD5, and force the router to access the internal username database when a user
attempts to access the console?
R1(config)# username admin password Admin01pa55
R1(config)# line con 0
R1(config-line)# login local
R1(config)# username admin password Admin01pa55

R1(config-line)# login internal
R1(config)# username admin Admin01pa55 encr md5

R1(config)# username admin secret Admin01pa55

R1(config)# username admin secret Admin01pa55
R1(config-line)# login internal
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the current SDM logging setup?
(Choose two. )
Buffered logging will be enabled on the router for Logging Level 7 messages.
Buffered logging will be enabled on the syslog server for Logging Level 7 messages.
All messages with a trap level of 4 and higher (less critical) will be logged.
All messages with a trap level of 4 and lower (more critical) will be logged.
The router interface IP address that is connected to the syslog server is 192. 168. 1. 3.
The syslog server IP address is 192. 168. 1. 3.
22. What are two characteristics of SNMP community strings? (Choose two. )
A vulnerability of SNMPv1, SNMPv2, and SNMPv3 is that they send the community strings
in plaintext.
Commonly known community strings should be used when configuring secure SNMP.
If the manager sends one of the correct read-only community strings, it can get information
and set information in an agent.
SNMP read-only community strings can be used to get information from an SNMP-
enabled device.
SNMP read-write community strings can be used to set information on an SNMP-
enabled device.
23. What is the minimum recommended modulus key length for keys generated to use with
SSH?
256
512
768
1024
2048
24. Which two characteristics apply to Role-Based CLI Access superviews? (Choose two. )
CLI views have passwords, but superviews do not have passwords.
Users logged in to a superview can access all commands specified within the associated
CLI views.
A single superview can be shared among multiple CLI views.
Commands cannot be configured for a specific superview.
Deleting a superview deletes all associated CLI views.
A specific superview cannot have commands added to it directly. (Similar Question)
25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
The Cisco IOS image and configuration files have been properly secured.
ROMmon mode will be inaccessible upon entering the privileged EXEC reload command.
The Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature is enabled.
The Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature has detected an image version mismatch.
The Cisco IOS configuration files have been erased.
26. What are three requirements that must be met if an administrator wants to maintain device
configurations via secure in-band management? (Choose three. )
network devices configured to accommodate SSH
a separate network segment connecting all management devices
at least one router acting as a terminal server
encryption of all remote access management traffic
connection to network devices through a production network or the Internet
direct access to the console ports of all network devices
New Questions
Why is the usernamenamesecretpassword command preferred over the

usernamenamepasswordpassword command?
It uses the MD5 algorithm for encrypting passwords.

It uses the standard type 7 algorithm for encrypting passwords.
It allows the administrator to configure passwords of any length.
It does not require the login local command to enable the local database for authentication.
Which two statements describe the initial deployed services of Cisco routers and
recommended security configuration changes? (Choose two.)
CDP is disabled by default and should be enabled on all interfaces, even when the service is
not required.
Configuration autoloading is disabled by default but should be enabled, even when the service
is not required.
ICMP mask reply is disabled by default but should be enabled on untrusted interfaces.
ICMP unreachable notifications are enabled by default but should be disabled on
untrusted interfaces.
FTP is enabled by default and should be disabled.
TCP keepalives are disabled by default but should be enabled globally to prevent certain
DoS attacks.
Which command is used to verify the existence of a secure Cisco IOS image file? (by Naji
Alobaidi)
show version
dir
show flash
show secure bootset
Which three types of views are available when configuring the Role-Based CLI Access
feature? (Choose three.) (by Naji Alobaidi)
superuser view
root view
superview
CLI view
admin view
config view
[Update by Xase]
Why is the username name secret password command preferred over the username name
password password command?
It uses the MD5 algorithm for encrypting passwords.
It uses the standard type 7 algorithm for encrypting passwords.
It allows the administrator to configure passwords of any length.
It does not require the login local command to enable the local database for authentication.
Which statement describes the operation of the CCP Security Audit wizard?
The wizard compares a router configuration against recommended settings.
The wizard monitors network data and logs possible unauthorized or malicious traffic.
The wizard logs the effectiveness of network security measures for baseline comparisons.
The wizard performs an analysis of implemented security measures based on a saved baseline.

Which three services does CCP One-Step Lockdown enable? (Choose three.)
SNMP
TCP intercepts
SSH access to the router
Cisco Discovery Protocol
password encryption
firewall on all outside interfaces
Please take note that this CCNA Security Chapter 2 answer is not 100% correct. I got 97.9%
for this CCNAS Chapter 2 test. So if you think you have better answer, please share with us.
Thank You
CCNA Security: Implementing Network Security (Version

1.2) – CCNAS Chapter 2
[by Hasantha]
seconds and uses an incorrect password? (Choose three).
172.16.1.0/24.
A message is generated that indicates the username and source IP address of the user.
Which three options can be configured by Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose three.)

CBAC
SNMP
Syslog
Security banner
Interface IP address
Enable secret password
Which statement describes the CCP Security Audit wizard?

possible security problems.
The wizard is based on the Cisco IOS AutoSecure feature.
What command must be issued on a Cisco router that will serve as an authoritative NTP
server?
Ntp master 1
Ntp server 172.16.0.1
Ntp broadcast client
Clock set 11:00:00 DEC 20 2010
[by vlad]
What is the Control Plane Policing (CoPP) feature designed to accomplish?
direct all excess traffic away from the route processor
prevent unnecessary traffic from overwhelming the route processor
manage services provided by the control plane
disable control plane services to reduce overall traffic
A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands
must be issued to force authentication via the password 1A2b3C for all OSPF-enabled
interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)
area 0 authentication message-digest

area 1 authentication message-digest
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1A2b3C
enable password 1A2b3C
username OSPF password 1A2b3C
A network administrator notices that unsuccessful login attempts have caused a router to enter
quiet mode. How can the administrator maintain remote access to the networks even during
quiet mode?
Quiet mode behavior can be overridden for specific networks by using an ACL.
Quiet mode behavior will only prevent specific user accounts from attempting to authenticate.
Quiet mode behavior can be disabled by an administrator by using SSH to connect.
Quiet mode behavior can be enabled via an ip access-group command on a physical interface.
What is a characteristic of the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature?
The secure boot-image command works properly when the system is configured to run an
image from a TFTP server.
Once issued, the secure boot-config command automatically upgrades the configuration
archive to a newer version after new configuration commands have been entered.
It maintains a secure working copy of the bootstrap startup program.
A snapshot of the router running configuration can be taken and securely archived in
persistent storage.
What is a characteristic of the MIB?

Information is organized in a flat manner so that SNMP can access it quickly.
The OIDs are organized in a hierarchical structure.
Information in the MIB cannot be changed.
A separate MIB tree exists for any given device in the network.
Which three actions are produced by adding Cisco IOS login enhancements to the router login
process? (Choose three.)
create password authentication
slow down an active attack
permit only secure console access
create syslog messages
disable logins from specified hosts
automatically provide AAA authentication
What are two reasons to enable OSPF routing protocol authentication on a network? (Choose
two.)
to provide data security through encryption
to ensure more efficient routing
to ensure faster network convergence
to prevent data traffic from being redirected and then discarded
to prevent redirection of data traffic to an insecure link

What is the default privilege level of user accounts created on Cisco routers?
15
16
This post is about questions and answer for CCNA Security Chapter 3 Test. The questions is
based on CCNAS v1.1. All the answers has been verified to be 100% correct. Hopefully all
these questions and answers will be a good guide and reference to all of us.
Why is local database authentication preferred over a password-only login?
It specifies a different password for each line or port.
It provides for authentication and accountability.
It requires a login and password combination on console, vty lines, and aux ports.
It is more efficient for users who only need to enter a password to gain entry to a device.
Which authentication method stores usernames and passwords in the router and is ideal for
small networks?
local AAA
local AAA over RADIUS
local AAA over TACACS+
server-based AAA
server-based AAA over RADIUS

server-based AAA over TACACS+
In regards to Cisco Secure ACS, what is a client device?
a web server, email server, or FTP server
the computer used by a network administrator
network users who must access privileged EXEC commands
a router, switch, firewall, or VPN concentrator
When configuring a Cisco Secure ACS, how is the configuration interface accessed?
A Web browser is used to configure a Cisco Secure ACS.
The Cisco Secure ACS can be accessed from the router console.
Telnet can be used to configure a Cisco Secure ACS server after an initial configuration is
complete.
The Cisco Secure ACS can be accessed remotely after installing ACS client software on the
administrator workstation.
What is a difference between using the login local command and using local AAA
authentication for authenticating administrator access?
Local AAA authentication supports encrypted passwords; login local does not.
Local AAA provides a way to configure backup methods of authentication; login local
does not.
A method list must be configured when using the login local command, but is optional when
using local AAA authentication.
The login local command supports the keyword none, which ensures that authentication
succeeds, even if all methods return an error.
Due to implemented security controls, a user can only access a server with FTP. Which AAA
component accomplishes this?
accessibility
accounting
auditing
authentication
authorization
Which two AAA access method statements are true? (Choose two.)
Character mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use of
the console, vty, or tty ports.
dialup or VPN.
Character mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires
use of the console, vty, or tty ports.
Packet mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires use of
dialup or VPN.
Packet mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use of
dialup or VPN.

What is a characteristic of TACACS+?
TACACS+ is an open IETF standard.
TACACS+ is backward compatible with TACACS and XTACACS.
TACACS+ provides authorization of router commands on a per-user or per-group

basis.
TACACS+ uses UDP port 1645 or 1812 for authentication, and UDP port 1646 or 1813 for
accounting.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown. An administrative user attempts to use
Telnet from router R2 to router R1 using the interface IP address 10.10.10.1. However, Telnet
access is denied. Which option corrects this problem?
The R1 10.10.10.1 router interface must be enabled.
The vty lines must be configured with the login authentication default command.
The aaa local authentication attempts max-fail command must be set to 2 or higher.
The administrative user should use the username Admin and password
Str0ngPa55w0rd.

Refer to the exhibit. In the network shown, which AAA command logs the use of EXEC
session commands?
aaa accounting connection start-stop group radius
aaa accounting connection start-stop group tacacs+
aaa accounting exec start-stop group radius
aaa accounting exec start-stop group tacacs+
aaa accounting network start-stop group radius
aaa accounting network start-stop group tacacs+
When configuring a method list for AAA authentication, what is the effect of the keyword
local?
It accepts a locally configured username, regardless of case.
It defaults to the vty line password for authentication.
The login succeeds, even if all methods return an error.
It uses the enable password for authentication.
What is the result if an administrator configures the aaa authorization command prior to
creating a user with full access rights?
The administrator is immediately locked out of the system.

The administrator is denied all access except to aaa authorization commands.
The administrator is allowed full access using the enable secret password.
The administrator is allowed full access until a router reboot, which is required to apply
changes.
Which statement identifies an important difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS?
TACACS+ provides extensive accounting capabilities when compared to RADIUS.
The RADIUS protocol encrypts the entire packet transmission.
The TACACS+ protocol allows for separation of authentication from authorization.
RADIUS can cause delays by establishing a new TCP session for each authorization request.
Which two statements describe Cisco Secure ACS? (Choose two.)
Cisco Secure ACS supports LDAP.
Cisco Secure ACS is only supported on wired LAN connections.
Cisco Secure ACS only supports the TACACS+ protocol.
Cisco Secure ACS supports both TACACS+ and RADIUS protocols.
Cisco Secure ACS Express is a rack-mountable unit intended for more than 350 users.
How does a Cisco Secure ACS improve performance of the TACACS+ authorization
process?
reduces overhead by using UDP for authorization queries

reduces delays in the authorization queries by using persistent TCP sessions
reduces bandwidth utilization of the authorization queries by allowing cached credentials
reduces number of authorization queries by combining the authorization process with

authentication
How does a Cisco Secure ACS improve performance of the TACACS+ authorization
process?
reduces overhead by using UDP for authorization queries
reduces delays in the authorization queries by using persistent TCP sessions
reduces bandwidth utilization of the authorization queries by allowing cached credentials
reduces number of authorization queries by combining the authorization process with

authentication
What is an effect if AAA authorization on a device is not configured?
Authenticated users are granted full access rights.
User access to specific services is determined by the authentication process.
Character mode authorization is limited, and packet mode denies all requests.
All authorization requests to the TACACS server receive a REJECT response.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured as shown, with the resulting log message.
On the basis of the information presented, which two AAA authentication statements are true?
(Choose two.)
On the basis of the information that is presented, which two statements describe the result of
AAA authentication operation? (Choose two.)
The locked-out user failed authentication.
The locked-out user is locked out for 10 minutes by default.
The locked-out user should have used the username Admin and password Pa55w0rd.
The locked-out user should have used the username admin and password Str0ngPa55w0rd.
The locked-out user stays locked out until the clear aaa local user lockout username
Admin command is issued.
Which technology provides the framework to enable scalable access security?
role-based CLI access
Simple Network Management Protocol
AutoSecure
Cisco Configuration Professional communities
authentication, authorization, and accounting
Which two modes are supported by AAA to authenticate users for accessing the network and
devices? (Choose two.)
verbose mode
character mode
quiet mode
packet mode
ancillary mode
Which two features are included by both TACACS+ and RADIUS protocols? (Choose two.)
separate authentication and authorization processes
password encryption
utilization of transport layer protocols
SIP support
802.1X support
As stated earlier, all the answers should be 100% correct. However if you find any mistake or
wrong answer in the solution above, please do not hesitate to comment below. Also, if you
have new updated questions, you may share here to all the readers. We really appreciate it.
Hopefully it will benefits all of us.
Questions and answers in this chapter 3 test has been provided by XASE. All credits goes to
him.
New Questions Sections

[by Naji Alobaidi]
After accounting is enabled on an IOS device, how is a default accounting method list
applied?
Accounting method lists are applied only to the VTY interfaces.
A named accounting method list must be explicitly defined and applied to desired interfaces.
Accounting method lists are not applied to any interfaces until an interface is added to the
server group.
The default accounting method list is automatically applied to all interfaces, except those
with named accounting method lists.
[by Layla]
A company is deploying user device access control through a NAC appliance as part of the
Cisco TrustSec solution. Which device is needed to serve as the central management for the
access control?
Cisco Secure ACS

Cisco NAC Profiler
Cisco NAC Manager
Cisco NAC Guest Server
A global company is deploying Cisco Secure ACS to manage user access to its headquarters
campus. The network administrator configures the ACS to use multiple external databases for
users from different geographical regions. The administrator creates user groups to match
these databases. What is a purpose of creating different groups of users to authenticate
through the Cisco Secure ACS?
to better manage the user database.

to improve the performance of the authentication process.
to accommodate any difference in the authorization process between the ACS and an
external database. [Gilton]
to accommodate any difference in the authentication requirements between the ACS and an
external database. [Layla]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA authentication on R1. When
the administrator tests the configuration by telneting to R1 and no ACS servers can be
contacted, which password should the administrator use in order to login successfully?
LetMe1n2
Pa$$w0rD
authen-radius
authen-tacacs

[by Jaime]
Which component of AAA is used to determine which resources a user can access and which
operations the user is allowed to perform?
authentication
authorization
accounting
auditing
[by Kezo and Jaime]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA authentication on R1. Which
statement describes the effect of the keyword single-connection in the configuration?
The TACACS+ server only accepts one successful try for a user to authenticate with it.
The authentication performance is enhanced by keeping the connection to the

TACACS+ server open.
R1 will open a separate connection to the TACACS+ server for each user authentication
session.
R1 will open a separate connection to the TACACS server on a per source IP address basis for
each authentication session.
[by dekaytar]
Which two statements describe AAA access methods? (Choose two.)

dialup or VPN.
Packet mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use of
dialup or VPN.
dialup or VPN.
Character mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires use of
Because of implemented security controls, a user can only access a server with FTP. Which
AAA component accomplishes this?
accounting
accessibility
auditing
authentication
authorization
When a method list for AAA authentication is being configured, what is the effect of the
keyword local?
It defaults to the vty line password for authentication.
The login succeeds, even if all methods return an error.
It uses the enable password for authentication.
It accepts a locally configured username, regardless of case.
What is the result if an administrator uses the aaa authorization command prior to creating a
user with full access rights?
The administrator is allowed full access until the router is rebooted and the configuration
changes are applied.
The administrator is immediately locked out of the system.
The administrator is denied all access except to aaa authorization commands.
The administrator is allowed full access by using the enable secret password.
In the context of Cisco Secure ACS, what is a client device?

network users who must access privileged EXEC commands
the computer used by a network administrator
a web server, email server, or FTP server
a router, switch, firewall, or VPN concentrator
When a Cisco Secure ACS is being configured, how is the configuration interface accessed?
The Cisco Secure ACS can be accessed remotely after installing ACS client software on the
administrator workstation.
The Cisco Secure ACS can be accessed from the router console.
Telnet can be used to configure a Cisco Secure ACS server after an initial configuration is
complete.
A web browser is used to configure a Cisco Secure ACS.

[by Manual Lopez]
On the basis of the information that is presented, which two statements describe the result of
AAA authentication operation? (Choose two.)
The locked-out user stays locked out until the clear aaa local user lockout username
Admin command is issued.
The locked-out user should have used the username admin and password Str0ngPa55w0rd.
The locked-out user is locked out for 10 minutes by default.
The locked-out user failed authentication.
The locked-out user should have used the username Admin and password Pa55w0rd.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA authentication on R1. When
the administrator tests the configuration by telneting to R1 and no ACS servers can be
contacted, which password should the administrator use in order to login successfully?
authen-tacacs
LetMe1n2
Pa$$wOrD
authen-radius
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the area marked as “A”?
Internal network
Untrusted network
DMZ
Perimeter security boundary

Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco IOS security feature is implemented on router FW?
AAA access control firewall
Zone-based policy firewall
Classic firewall
Reflexive ACL firewall
Refer to the exhibit. The ACL statement is the only one explicitly configured on the router.
Based on this information, which two conclusions can be drawn regarding remote access
network connections? (Choose two.)
SSH connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are
allowed.
Telnet connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are
allowed.
SSH connections from the 192.168.2.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network are allowed.
blocked.
SSH connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are blocked.
allowed.
Which two are characteristics of ACLs? (Choose two.)
Extended ACLs can filter on destination TCP and UDP ports.
Standard ACLs can filter on source TCP and UDP ports.
Extended ACLs can filter on source and destination IP addresses.

Standard ACLs can filter on source and destination IP addresses.
Standard ACLs can filter on source and destination TCP and UDP ports.
Which zone-based policy firewall zone is system-defined and applies to traffic destined for
the router or originating from the router?
self zone
system zone
local zone
inside zone
outside zone
Refer to the exhibit. If a hacker on the outside network sends an IP packet with source address
172.30.1.50, destination address 10.0.0.3, source port 23, and destination port 2447, what
does the Cisco IOS firewall do with the packet?
The packet is forwarded, and an alert is generated.
The packet is forwarded, and no alert is generated.
The initial packet is dropped, but subsequent packets are forwarded.
The packet is dropped.

Which two parameters are tracked by CBAC for TCP traffic but not for UDP traffic? (Choose
two.)
source port
protocol ID
sequence number
destination port
SYN and ACK flags
What is the first step in configuring a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall using the CLI?
What is the first step in configuring a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall via the CLI?
Create zones.
Define traffic classes.
Define firewall policies.
Assign policy maps to zone pairs.
Assign router interfaces to zones.
Class maps identify traffic and traffic parameters for policy application based on which three
criteria? (Choose three.)
access group
access class
policy map
protocol
interface pairs
subordinate class map
Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as they
relate to the OSI model?
Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer.
A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, while a packet-filtering firewall
cannot filter beyond the network layer.
A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, while a stateful
firewall can filter up to the session layer.
A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a connection,
while a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the state of a connection.
For a stateful firewall, which information is stored in the stateful session flow table?
TCP control header and trailer information associated with a particular session
TCP SYN packets and the associated return ACK packets
inside private IP address and the translated inside global IP address
outbound and inbound access rules (ACL entries)
source and destination IP addresses, and port numbers and sequencing information
associated with a particular session

What is a limitation of using object groups within an access control entry?
It is not possible to append additional objects to a preexisting object group.
It is not possible to delete an object group or make an object group empty if the object
group is already applied to an ACE.
To append additional objects to a preexisting object group that is applied to an ACE, the
original object group must be removed using the no object group command, and then
recreated and reapplied to the ACE.
To append additional objects to a preexisting object group that is applied to an ACE, the
access control list must be removed using the no access-list command, and then reapplied.
When using CCP to apply an ACL, the administrator received an informational message
indicating that a rule was already associated with the designated interface in the designated
direction. The administrator continued with the association by selecting the merge option.
Which statement describes the effect of the option that was selected?
Two separate access rules were applied to the interface.
A new combined access rule was created using the new access rule number. Duplicate
ACEs were removed.
A new combined access rule was created using the new access rule number. Duplicate ACEs
and overriding ACEs were highlighted to allow the administrator to make adjustments
The existing rule was placed in a preview pane to allow the administrator to select specific
ACEs to move to the new access rule.
Which statement correctly describes how an ACL can be used with the access-class command
to filter vty access to a router?
It is only possible to apply a standard ACL to the vty lines.
An extended ACL can be used to restrict vty access based on specific source addresses,
destination addresses, and protocol.
An extended ACL can be used to restrict vty access based on specific source and destination
addresses but not on protocol.
An extended ACL can be used to restrict vty access based on specific source addresses
and protocol but the destination can only specify the keyword any.
To facilitate the troubleshooting process, which inbound ICMP message should be permitted
on an outside interface?
echo request
echo reply
time-stamp request
time-stamp reply
router advertisement
Which command is used to activate an IPv6 ACL named ENG_ACL on an interface so that
the router filters traffic prior to accessing the routing table?
access-group ipv6_ENG_ACL in
access-group ipv6_ENG_ACL out
ipv6 access-class ENG_ACL in
ipv6 access-class ENG_ACL out
ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL in
ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL out
Which statement describes a typical security policy for a DMZ firewall configuration?
Traffic that originates from the outside interface is permitted to traverse the firewall to the
inside interface with little or no restrictions.
Traffic that originates from the DMZ interface is permitted to traverse the firewall to the
outside interface with little or no restrictions.
Traffic that originates from the DMZ interface is selectively permitted to the outside
interface. (Similar Question warning! Use this answer if this answer available. Otherwise
use the other one)
Traffic that originates from the inside interface is generally blocked entirely or very
selectively permitted to the outside interface.
Return traffic from the outside that is associated with traffic originating from the inside is
permitted to traverse from the outside interface to the DMZ interface.
Return traffic from the inside that is associated with traffic originating from the outside is
permitted to traverse from the inside interface to the outside interface.
When configuring a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall, which two actions can be applied
to a traffic class? (Choose two.)
log
hold
drop
inspect
copy
forward

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the function of the ACEs?
These ACEs allow for IPv6 neighbor discovery traffic.
These ACEs must be manually added to the end of every IPv6 ACL to allow IPv6 routing to
occur.
These ACEs automatically appear at the end of every IPv6 ACL to allow IPv6 routing to
occur.
These are optional ACEs that can be added to the end of an IPv6 ACL to allow ICMP
messages that are defined in object groups named nd-na and nd-ns.
When implementing an inbound Internet traffic ACL, what should be included to prevent the
spoofing of internal networks?
ACEs to prevent HTTP traffic
ACEs to prevent ICMP traffic
ACEs to prevent SNMP traffic
ACEs to prevent broadcast address traffic
ACEs to prevent traffic from private address spaces
Which statement describes one of the rules governing interface behavior in the context of
implementing a zone-based policy firewall configuration?
An administrator can assign an interface to multiple security zones.

An administrator can assign interfaces to zones, regardless of whether the zone has been
configured.
By default, traffic is allowed to flow among interfaces that are members of the same
zone.
By default, traffic is allowed to flow between a zone member interface and any interface that
is not a zone member.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the effect of this Cisco IOS zone-based
policy firewall configuration?
The firewall will automatically drop all HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic.
The firewall will automatically allow HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic from s0/0 to fa0/0 and
will track the connections. Tracking the connection allows only return traffic to be permitted
through the firewall in the opposite direction.
The firewall will automatically allow HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic from fa0/0 to s0/0
and will track the connections. Tracking the connection allows only return traffic to be
permitted through the firewall in the opposite direction.
The firewall will automatically allow HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic from fa0/0 to s0/0, but
will not track the state of connections. A corresponding policy must be applied to allow return
traffic to be permitted through the firewall in the opposite direction.
The firewall will automatically allow HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic from s0/0 to fa0/0, but
Another answer set [by Mr Jaya]

The firewall will automatically drop all HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic.
The firewall will automatically allow HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic from s0/0/0 to g0/0, but
The firewall will automatically allow HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic from g0/0 to s0/0/0, but
The firewall will automatically allow HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic from s0/0/0 to g0/0 and
will track the connections. Tracking the connection allows only return traffic to be permitted
through the firewall in the opposite direction.
The firewall will automatically allow HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP traffic from g0/0 to s0/0/0
and will track the connections. Tracking the connection allows only return traffic to be
permitted through the firewall in the opposite direction.
As i did mention above, the answers given should be 100% correct. If you find and error,
mistake or wrong answers which you have doubt, please do comment below to share with all
of us the correct answer. Invisible Algorithm also do appreciate any new questions or latest
version of any test that you might want to share will all people. Do contact me for that
purpose. Hopefully, everyone can get benefits from what we share.
Credit: This CCNA Security Chapter 4 Test is a contribution of Xase. All credits goes to him
New Questions Section – CCNA Security v1.2

[by Jose, Mr Jaya and TJ]
In addition to the criteria used by extended ACLs, what conditions are used by a classic
firewall to filter traffic?
TCP/UPD source and destination port numbers
TCP/IP protocol numbers

IP source and destination addresses
Application layer protocol session information
[by Gilton]
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco IOS security feature is implemented on router FW?
classic firewall
reflexive ACL firewall
zone-based policy firewall
AAA access control firewall
[by Mar]
Which three statements describe zone-based policy firewall rules that govern interface
An interface can be assigned to multiple security zones.
Pass, inspect, and drop options can only be applied between two zones.
a zone.
the same zone.
When logging is enabled for an ACL entry, how does the router switch packets filtered by the
ACL?
process switching
optimum switching
[by Jaime]
When a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall is being configured, which two actions can be
applied to a traffic class? (Choose two.)
log
copy
inspect
hold
drop
forward
[by Gabriel and Mr Jaya]
A router has been configured as a classic firewall and an inbound ACL applied to the external
interface. Which action does the router take after inbound-to-outbound traffic is inspected and
a new entry is created in the state table.
The internal interface ACL is reconfigured to allow the host IP address access to the Internet.
A dynamic ACL entry is added to the external interface in the inbound direction.
When traffic returns from its destination, it is reinspected, and a new entry is added to the
state table.
The entry remains in the state table after the session is terminated so that it can be reused by
the host.
[by abu7ala1]
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the area marked as “A”?
DMZ
internal network
perimeter security boundary
trusted network
untrusted network
[by LB and Mike]
Which type of packet is unable to be filtered by an outbound ACL?
broadcast packet
router-generated packet
ICMP packet
multicast packet
[by Mr Jaya]
Which two parameters are tracked by a classic firewall for TCP traffic but not for UDP
traffic? (Choose two.)
destination port
sequence number
source port
protocol ID
SYN and ACK flags
[by CCNAS Student]

What are two characteristics of ACLs? (Choose two.)
Standard ACLs can filter on source and destination IP addresses.
Standard ACLs can filter on source TCP and UDP ports.
Standard ACLs can filter on source and destination TCP and UDP ports
Extended ACLs can filter on source and destination IP addresses.
Extended ACLs can filter on destination TCP and UDP ports.
Which statement describes one of the rules that govern interface behavior in the context of
implementing a zone-based policy firewall configuration?
An administrator can assign interfaces to zones, regardless of whether the zone has been
configured.
By default, traffic is allowed to flow between a zone member interface and any interface that
is not a zone member.
By default, traffic is allowed to flow among interfaces that are members of the same
zone.
An administrator can assign an interface to multiple security zones.
When an inbound Internet-traffic ACL is being implemented, what should be included to

prevent the spoofing of internal networks?
ACEs to prevent broadcast address traffic
ACEs to prevent HTTP traffic
ACEs to prevent SNMP traffic
ACEs to prevent traffic from private address spaces

ACEs to prevent ICMP traffic
[by Sham]
A network administrator is implementing a Classic Firewall and a Zone-Based Firewall

concurrently on a router. Which statement best describes this implementation?
The two models cannot be implemented on a single interface.
Both models must be implemented on all interfaces.
An interface must be assigned to a security zone before IP inspection can occur.
A Classic Firewall and Zone-Based Firewall cannot be used concurrently.
In this post, I will share the questions and answers for CCNA Security Chapter 5 Test. All the
questions and answers are valid and 100% correct. The questions shared in this post is based
on CCNAS v1.1. I wish this post will be a good reference to all of us in answering CCNA
Security Chapter 5 Test.
Refer to the exhibit. When modifying an IPS signature action, which two check boxes should
be selected to create an ACL that denies all traffic from the IP address that is considered the
source of the attack and drops the packet and all future packets from the TCP flow? (Choose
two.)
Deny Attacker Inline
Deny Connection Inline
Deny Packet Inline
Produce Alert
Reset TCP Connection
Why is a network that deploys only IDS particularly vulnerable to an atomic attack?
The IDS must track the three-way handshake of established TCP connections.
The IDS must track the three-way handshake of established UDP connections.
The IDS permits malicious single packets into the network.
The IDS requires significant router resources to maintain the event horizon.
The stateful properties of atomic attacks usually require the IDS to have several pieces of data
to match an attack signature.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of issuing the Cisco IOS IPS commands on router R1?
A named ACL determines the traffic to be inspected.
A numbered ACL is applied to S0/0/0 in the outbound direction.
All traffic that is denied by the ACL is subject to inspection by the IPS.
All traffic that is permitted by the ACL is subject to inspection by the IPS.

Which two files could be used to implement Cisco IOS IPS with version 5.x format
signatures? (Choose two.)
IOS-Sxxx-CLI.bin
IOS-Sxxx-CLI.pkg
IOS-Sxxx-CLI.sdf
realm-cisco.priv.key.txt
realm-cisco.pub.key.txt
A network administrator tunes a signature to detect abnormal activity that might be malicious
and likely to be an immediate threat. What is the perceived severity of the signature?
high
medium
low
informational
Which two benefits does the IPS version 5.x signature format provide over the version 4.x
signature format? (Choose two.)
addition of signature micro engines
support for IPX and AppleTalk protocols
addition of a signature risk rating
support for comma-delimited data import

support for encrypted signature parameters
Which two Cisco IOS commands are required to enable IPS SDEE message logging? (Choose
two.)
logging on
ip ips notify log
ip http server
ip ips notify sdee
ip sdee events 500
Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the number 10 in the signature 6130 10
command?
It is the alert severity.
It is the signature number.
It is the signature version.
It is the subsignature ID.
It is the signature fidelity rating.

What is a disadvantage of network-based IPS as compared to host-based IPS?
Network-based IPS is less cost-effective.
Network-based IPS cannot examine encrypted traffic.
Network-based IPS does not detect lower level network events.
Network-based IPS should not be used with multiple operating systems.
What information is provided by the show ip ips configuration configuration command?
detailed IPS signatures
alarms that were sent since the last reset
the number of packets that are audited
the default actions for attack signatures
Which statement is true about an atomic alert that is generated by an IPS?
It is an alert that is generated every time a specific signature has been found.
It is a single alert sent for multiple occurrences of the same signature.
It is both a normal alarm and a summary alarm being sent simultaneously at set intervals.
It is an alert that is used only when a logging attack has begun.
Which Cisco IPS feature allows for regular threat updates from the Cisco SensorBase
Network database?
event correlation
global correlation
IPS Manager Express
honeypot-based detection
security-independent operation
Which protocol is used when an IPS sends signature alarm messages?
FTP
SDEE
SIO
SNMP
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration that is shown, which statement is true about
the IPS signature category?
Only signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory for scanning.
Only signatures in the ios_ips advanced category will be compiled into memory for scanning.
All signature categories will be compiled into memory for scanning, but only those signatures
in the ios_ips basic category will be used for scanning purposes.
All signatures categories will be compiled into memory for scanning, but only those
signatures within the ios_ips advanced category will be used for scanning purposes.

A network security administrator would like to check the number of packets that have been
audited by the IPS. What command should the administrator use?
show ip ips signatures
show ip ips interfaces
show ip ips statistics
show ip ips configuration
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration commands that are shown, how will IPS
event notifications be sent?
HTTP format
SDEE format
syslog format
TFTP format

Refer to the exhibit. What action will be taken if a signature match occurs?
An ACL will be created that denies all traffic from the IP address that is considered the source
of the attack, and an alert will be generated.
This packet and all future packets from this TCP flow will be dropped, and an alert will be
generated.
Only this packet will be dropped, and an alert will be generated.
The packet will be allowed, and an alert will be generated.
The packet will be allowed, and no alert will be generated.
An administrator is using CCP to modify a signature action so that if a match occurs, the
packet and all future packets from the TCP flow are dropped. What action should the
administrator select?
deny-attacker-inline
deny-connection-inline
deny-packet-inline
produce-alert
reset-tcp-connection

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration, what traffic is inspected by the IPS?
only traffic entering the s0/0/1 interface
all traffic entering or leaving the fa0/1 interface
only traffic traveling from the s0/0/1 interface to the fa0/1 interface
all traffic entering the s0/0/1 interface and all traffic leaving the fa0/1 interface
all traffic entering the s0/0/1 interface and all traffic entering and leaving the fa0/1
interface
Refer to the exhibit. As an administrator is configuring an IPS, the error message that is
shown appears. What does this error message indicate?
The signature definition file is invalid or outdated.
The public crypto key is invalid or entered incorrectly.
The flash directory where the IPS signatures should be stored is corrupt or nonexistent.
SDEE notification is disabled and must be explicitly enabled.
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the questions and answers provided above, and you have the correct answer, please comment
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Credit: This Chapter 5 CCNA Security Test contribute by Xase. All credits goes to him.
New Question Sections

[by Layla]
What is a zero-day attack?
an attack that targets software vulnerabilities unknown or unpatched by the software

vendor
an extortion threat directed against a bank, and demanding a huge amount of money within a
short response time, typically within a day
a type of DoS attack that launches within 24 hours after it first infects multiple computers
around the world
a rapid exploit attack of employee login credentials via the use of social engineering
techniques
What is a disadvantage of a pattern-based detection mechanism?
It cannot detect unknown attacks.
Its configuration is complex.
It is difficult to deploy in a large network.
The normal network traffic pattern must be profiled first.

IPS Migration
IPS Sensor
Edit IPS
Security Dashboard
Create IPS
This post is about answer for CCNA Security Chapter 6 Test. The questions displayed in this
post are based on CCNAS v1.1. All the answers has been confirmed to be 100% correct. With
this solution, hopefully it will be a good reference for all of us.
As a recommended practice for Layer 2 security, how should VLAN 1 be treated?
All access ports should be assigned to VLAN 1.
All trunk ports should be assigned to VLAN 1.
VLAN 1 should be used for management traffic.
VLAN 1 should not be used.
With IP voice systems on data networks, which two types of attacks target VoIP specifically?
(Choose two.)
CoWPAtty
Kismet
SPIT
virus
vishing
Which option best describes a MAC address spoofing attack?
An attacker gains access to another host and masquerades as the rightful user of that device.
An attacker alters the MAC address of his host to match another known MAC address
of a target host.
An attacker alters the MAC address of the switch to gain access to the network device from a
rogue host device.
An attacker floods the MAC address table of a switch so that the switch can no longer filter
network access based on MAC addresses.
Which attack relies on the default automatic trunking configuration on most Cisco switches?
LAN storm attack
VLAN hopping attack
STP manipulation attack
MAC address spoofing attack
Which two measures are recommended to mitigate VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)
Use a dedicated native VLAN for all trunk ports.
Place all unused ports in a separate guest VLAN.
Disable trunk negotiation on all ports connecting to workstations.

Enable DTP on all trunk ports.
Ensure that the native VLAN is used for management traffic.
Which three are SAN transport technologies? (Choose three.)
Fibre Channel
SATA
iSCSI
IP PBX
FCIP
IDE
Refer to the exhibit. What action will the switch take when the maximum number of secure
MAC addresses has reached the allowed limit on the Fa0/2 port?
Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped, but notification of the dropped packets
is sent.
The VLAN that Fa0/2 is on is set to error-disabled and all traffic on the VLAN is stopped.
The interface immediately becomes error-disabled and the port LED is turned off.
Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped without notification.

Which software tool can a hacker use to flood the MAC address table of a switch?
macof
Cisco CCP
kiwi syslog server
protocol analyzer
Which two methods are used to mitigate VLAN attacks? (Choose two.)
enabling port security on all trunk ports
using a dummy VLAN for the native VLAN
implementing BPDU guard on all access ports
disabling DTP autonegotiation on all trunk ports
using ISL instead of 802.1q encapsulation on all trunk interfaces
Which three switch security commands are required to enable port security on a port so that it
will dynamically learn a single MAC address and disable the port if a host with any other
MAC address is connected? (Choose three.)
switchport mode access
switchport mode trunk
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport port-security mac-address mac-address
What is an example of a trusted path in an operating system?
digital certificate
digital signature
hash message authentication
Ctrl-Alt-Delete key sequence
Why are traditional network security perimeters not suitable for the latest consumer-based
network endpoint devices?
These devices are not managed by the corporate IT department.
These devices are more varied in type and are portable.
These devices connect to the corporate network through public wireless networks.
These devices pose no risk to security as they are not directly connected to the corporate
network.
Which Cisco IronPort appliance would an organization install to manage and monitor security
policy settings and audit information?
C-Series
M-Series
S-Series
SenderBase-Series

Which Cisco IronPort appliance would an organization install to protect against malware?
C-Series
M-Series
S-Series
SenderBase-Series
What is the goal of the Cisco NAC framework and the Cisco NAC appliance?
to ensure that only hosts that are authenticated and have had their security posture
examined and approved are permitted onto the network
to monitor data from the company to the ISP in order to build a real-time database of current
spam threats from both internal and external sources
to provide anti-malware scanning at the network perimeter for both authenticated and non-
authenticated devices
to provide protection against a wide variety of web-based threats, including adware, phishing
attacks, Trojan horses, and worms
When the Cisco NAC appliance evaluates an incoming connection from a remote device
against the defined network policies, what feature is being used?
authentication and authorization
posture assessment
quarantining of noncompliant systems
remediation of noncompliant systems

Which command is used to configure the PVLAN Edge feature?
switchport block
switchport nonnegotiate
switchport protected
switchport port-security violation protect
Which statement is true about a characteristic of the PVLAN Edge feature on a Cisco switch?
All data traffic that passes between protected ports must be forwarded through a Layer 2
device.
All data traffic that passes between protected ports must be forwarded through a Layer
3 device.
Only broadcast traffic is forwarded between protected ports.
Only unicast traffic is forwarded between protected ports.
What is the default configuration of the PVLAN Edge feature on a Cisco switch?
All active ports are defined as protected.
All ports are defined as protected.
No ports are defined as protected.
EtherChannel groups are defined as protected ports.

Under which circumstance is it safe to connect to an open wireless network?
The connection utilizes the 802.11n standard.
The device has been updated with the latest virus protection software.
The connection is followed by a VPN connection to a trusted network.
The user does not plan on accessing the corporate network when attached to the open wireless
network.
As stated earlier, all this answers has been verified to be 100% correct. If you found any
wrong answers provided, please leave comment below. We do appreciate all the corrections
that you made. If you want to contribute for new question or any latest version of chapter test
and exam question, please let me know. We do appreciate it too.
Credit: The answer in this chapter test has been provided by Xase. All credit goes to him.
CCNA Security Chapter 6 V1.2

[by Jaime]
How does a switch interface that uses sticky port security handle MAC addresses?
They are configured dynamically and are saved in the running configuration.
They are configured dynamically and are not saved in the running configuration.
They are configured manually and are not saved in the running configuration.
The addresses are configured manually and are saved in the running configuration.
Refer to the exhibit. The Fa0/2 interface on switch S1 has been configured with the switchport
port-security mac-address 0023.189d.6456 command and a workstation has been connected.
What could be the reason that the Fa0/2 interface is shutdown?
The connection between S1 and PC1 is via a crossover cable.
The Fa0/24 interface of S1 is configured with the same MAC address as the Fa0/2 interface.
S1 has been configured with a switchport port-security aging command.
The MAC address of PC1 that connects to the Fa0/2 interface is not the configured
MAC address.
[by Luis]
Which action best describes a MAC address spoofing attack?

Which mitigation technique can help prevent MAC table overflow attacks?
storm control
switchport security
BPDU guard
root guard
Which type of frame is spoofed in STP manipulation attacks?
BPDU
ISL
DTP
802.1q
Which attack allows the attacker to see all frames on a broadcast network by causing a switch
to flood all incoming traffic?
MAC table overflow
VLAN hopping
LAN storm
STP manipulation
Where is the port security configuration most effective in a multi-layer switched network
environment?
on core layer switches
on perimeter layer switches
on access layer switches
on distribution layer switches
What happens when the MAC address notification feature is enabled on a switch?
A port violation occurs when a MAC address outside of the range of allowed addresses
transmits traffic over a secure port.
An STP multicast notification packet is forwarded to all switches any time a change in the
network topology is detected.
An SNMP trap is sent to the network management system whenever a new MAC
address is added to or an old address is deleted from the forwarding tables.
An SDEE alert is generated, and the switch resets the interface when an invalid MAC address
is detected.
Which statement describes a MAC address table overflow attack?

Frames flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance.
A software tool floods a switch with frames containing randomly generated source and
destination MAC and IP addresses
An attacker alters the MAC address in a frame to match the address of a target host.
The attacking host broadcasts STP configuration and topology change BPDUs to force
spanning-tree recalculations.
If a switch is configured with the storm-control command and the action shutdown and action
trap parameters, which two actions does the switch take when a storm occurs on a port?
(Choose two.)
he port is placed in a blocking state.
The switch is rebooted.
The port is disabled.
When configuring a switch port for port security, what is the default violation mode?
restrict
reset
shutdown
protect

S1? (Choose two.)
total bandwidth.
packets per second.
What functionality is provided by Cisco SPAN in a switched network?

It protects the switched network from receiving BPDUs on ports that should not be receiving
them.
It copies traffic that passes through a switch interface and sends the data directly to a syslog or
SNMP server for analysis.
It mitigates MAC address overflow attacks.
It prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast storm.
It inspects voice protocols to ensure that SIP, SCCP, H.323, and MGCP requests conform to
voice standards.
It mirrors traffic that passes through a switch port or VLAN to another port for traffic
analysis
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output generated by the show monitor session 1command,
how will SPAN operate on the switch?
Native VLAN traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on VLAN 20 is forwarded to
FastEthernet 0/1.
All traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from VLAN 20 is forwarded to
FastEthernet 0/1.
All traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet
0/1.
Native VLAN traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from VLAN 20 is forwarded to
FastEthernet 0/1.
Which technology is used to protect the switched infrastructure from problems caused by
receiving BPDUs on ports that should not be receiving them?
Loop guard
RSPAN
PortFast
BPDU guard
Root guard
Which Cisco endpoint security product helps maintain network stability by providing posture
assessment, quarantining of noncompliant systems, and remediation of noncompliant
systems?
Cisco Access Control Server

Cisco Intrusion Prevention System router
Cisco Security Agent Workstation
Cisco Network Admission Control appliance
[by Anon]
An administrator assigned a level of router access to the user ADMIN using the commands
below.
Router(config)# privilege exec level 14 show ip route
Router(config)# enable algorithm-type scrypt secret level 14 cisco-level-10
Router(config)# username ADMIN privilege 14 algorithm-type scrypt secret cisco-level-10
Which two actions are permitted to the user ADMIN? (Choose two.)
The user can only execute the subcommands under the show ip route command.
The user can issue the show version command.

The user can issue the ip route command.
The user can issue all commands because this privilege level can execute all Cisco IOS
commands.
The user can execute all subcommands under the show ip interfaces command.
The network administrator for an e-commerce website requires a service that prevents
customers from claiming that legitimate orders are fake. What service provides this type of
guarantee?
authentication
confidentiality
integrity
nonrepudiation
How do modern cryptographers defend against brute-force attacks?
Use statistical analysis to eliminate the most common encryption keys.
Use an algorithm that requires the attacker to have both ciphertext and plaintext to conduct a
successful attack.
Use a keyspace large enough that it takes too much money and too much time to conduct
a successful attack.
Use frequency analysis to ensure that the most popular letters used in the language are not
used in the cipher message.
What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?
The data is encrypted three times with three different keys.
The data is encrypted, decrypted, and encrypted using three different keys.
The data is divided into three blocks of equal length for encryption.
The data is encrypted using a key length that is three times longer than the key used for DES.
A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. The e-commerce site must maintain
proof that the data exchange took place between the site and the customer. Which feature of
digital signatures is required?
authenticity of digitally signed data
integrity of digitally signed data
nonrepudiation of the transaction
confidentiality of the public key
Why is RSA typically used to protect only small amounts of data?
The keys must be a fixed length.
The public keys must be kept secret.
The algorithms used to encrypt data are slow.
The signature keys must be changed frequently.
An administrator requires a PKI that supports a longer lifetime for keys used for digital
signing operations than for keys used for encrypting data. Which feature should the PKI
support?
certificate keys
nonrepudiation keys
usage keys
variable keys
Which three primary functions are required to secure communication across network links?
(Choose three.)
accounting
anti-replay protection
authentication
authorization
confidentiality
integrity
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cipher method is depicted?
Caesar cipher
stream cipher
substitution cipher
transposition cipher
Which statement describes a cryptographic hash function?
A one-way cryptographic hash function is hard to invert.
The output of a cryptographic hash function can be any length.
The input of a cryptographic hash function has a fixed length.
A cryptographic hash function is used to provide confidentiality.
Which statement is a feature of HMAC?
HMAC is based on the RSA hash function.
HMAC uses a secret key that is only known to the sender and defeats man-in-the-middle
attacks.
HMAC uses a secret key as input to the hash function, adding authentication to integrity
assurance.
HMAC uses protocols such as SSL or TLS to provide session layer confidentiality.
Which encryption protocol provides network layer confidentiality?
IPsec protocol suite
Keyed MD5
Message Digest 5
Secure Sockets Layer

Secure Hash Algorithm 1
Transport Layer Security
Refer to the exhibit. Which encryption algorithm is described in the exhibit?
3DES
AES
DES
RC4
SEAL
Which statement describes asymmetric encryption algorithms?
They include DES, 3DES, and AES.
They have key lengths ranging from 80 to 256 bits.
They are also called shared-secret key algorithms.
They are relatively slow because they are based on difficult computational algorithms.
Which two statements correctly describe certificate classes used in the PKI? (Choose two.)
A class 0 certificate is for testing purposes.
A class 0 certificate is more trusted than a class 1 certificate.
The lower the class number, the more trusted the certificate.
A class 5 certificate is for users with a focus on verification of email.
A class 4 certificate is for online business transactions between companies.
Two users must authenticate each other using digital certificates and a CA. Which option
describes the CA authentication procedure?
The CA is always required, even after user verification is complete.
The users must obtain the certificate of the CA and then their own certificate.
After user verification is complete, the CA is no longer required, even if one of the involved
certificates expires.
CA certificates are retrieved out-of-band using the PSTN, and the authentication is done in-
band over a network.
Which characteristic of security key management is responsible for making certain that weak
cryptographic keys are not used?
verification
exchange
generation
revocation and destruction
Which type of cryptographic key would be used when connecting to a secure website?
DES key
symmetric keys
hash keys
digital signatures
Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems to use in
establishing an IPsec VPN?
ESP
DES
3DES
AH
DH
SSL
Which two non-secret numbers are initially agreed upon when the Diffie-Hellman algorithm
is used? (Choose two.)
elliptic curve invariant
generator
pseudorandom nome
binomial coefficient
prime modulus
topological index
What does it mean when a hashing algorithm is collision resistant?
Exclusive ORs are performed on input data and produce a digest.
It is not feasible to compute the hash given the input data.
It uses a two-way function that computes a hash from the input and output data.
Two messages with the same hash are unlikely to occur.
I did mentioned above that all the answers for CCNA Security Chapter 7 are 100% correct.
However, if you find any mistake or error, please do comment below to share with us the
correct answer. We also do appreciate any latest version or new questions that you would like
to share with us.
Credit: The answers for this CCNA Security Chapter 7 Test provided by Xase. All credit goes
to him.
CCNA Security Chapter 7 v1.2

[by Jaime]
What are two properties of a cryptographic hash function? (Choose two.)
The input for a particular hash algorithm has to have a fixed size.
Complex inputs will produce complex hashes.
The hash function is one way and irreversible.
The output is a fixed length

Hash functions can be duplicated for authentication purposes.
Which cryptographic technique provides both data integrity and nonrepudiation?
MD5
HMAC
3DES
SHA-1
Why is the 3DES algorithm often preferred over the AES algorithm?
AES is more expensive to implement than 3DES.
3DES performs better in high-throughput, low-latency environments than AES.
3DES is more trusted because it has been proven secure for a longer period than AES.
Major networking equipment vendors such as Cisco have not yet adopted AES.
In which situation is an asymmetric key algorithm used?
An office manager encrypts confidential files before saving them to a removable device.
User data is transmitted across the network after a VPN is established.
A network administrator connects to a Cisco router with SSH.
Two Cisco routers authenticate each other with CHAP.

What is the purpose of a nonrepudiation service in secure communications?
to confirm the identity of the recipient of the communications
to ensure that the source of the communications is confirmed
to provide the highest encryption level possible
to ensure that encrypted secure communications cannot be decoded
In a hierarchical CA topology, where can a subordinate CA obtain a certificate for itself?
from the root CA or another subordinate CA at a higher level
from the root CA or another subordinate CA anywhere in the tree
from the root CA only
from the root CA or another subordinate CA at the same level
from the root CA or from self-generation
Which encryption algorithm is an asymmetric algorithm?
AES
DH
SEAL
3DES
How many bits does the Data Encryption Standard (DES) use for data encryption?
40 bits
56 bits
64 bits
72 bits
What feature of the AES encryption algorithm makes it more desirable to use than 3DES?
It runs faster and more efficiently.
AES uses the block cipher.
It is a symmetric algorithm.
It uses a longer key.
Which statement describes the Software-Optimized Encryption Algorithm (SEAL)?
It requires more CPU resources than software-based AES does.
It is an example of an asymmetric algorithm.
It uses a 112-bit encryption key.
SEAL is a stream cipher.
What is the most common use of the Diffie-Helman algorithm in communications security?
to create password hashes for secure authentication
to encrypt data for secure e-commerce communications

to secure the exchange of keys used to encrypt data
to provide routing protocol authentication between routers
Which type of encryption algorithm uses public and private keys to provide authentication,
symmetric
IPsec
asymmetric
shared secret
An online retailer needs a service to support the nonrepudiation of the transaction. Which
component is used for this service?
the unique shared secret known only by the retailer and the customer
the public key of the retailer
the private key of the retailer
the digital signatures
1.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the CCP screen that is shown, which two conclusions can be
drawn about the IKE policy that is being configured? (Choose two.)
It will use digital certificates for authentication.
It will use a predefined key for authentication.
It will use a very strong encryption algorithm. (Original answer, Confirmed by Xase)
It will be the default policy with the highest priority.
It is being created using the CCP VPN Quick Setup Wizard. (Andy’s answer)
2. A network administrator is planning to implement centralized management of Cisco VPN

devices to simplify VPN deployment for remote offices and teleworkers. Which Cisco IOS
feature would provide this solution?
Cisco Easy VPN

Cisco VPN Client
Cisco IOS SSL VPN
Dynamic Multipoint VPN
3. Which statement describes an important characteristic of a site-to-site VPN?
It must be statically set up.

It is ideally suited for use by mobile workers.
It requires using a VPN client on the host PC.
It is commonly implemented over dialup and cable modem networks.
After the initial connection is established, it can dynamically change connection information.
4. With the Cisco Easy VPN feature, which process ensures that a static route is created on the
Cisco Easy VPN Server for the internal IP address of each VPN client?
Cisco Express Forwarding

Network Access Control
On-Demand Routing
Reverse Path Forwarding
Reverse Route Injection
5. Which two authentication methods can be configured when using the CCP Site-to-Site
VPN wizard? (Choose two.)
MD5
SHA
pre-shared keys
encrypted nonces
6. Which UDP port must be permitted on any IP interface used to exchange IKE information
between security gateways?
400
500
600
700
7. When verifying IPsec configurations, which show command displays the encryption
algorithm, hash algorithm, authentication method, and Diffie-Hellman group configured, as
well as default settings?
show crypto map

show crypto ipsec sa
show crypto isakmp policy
show crypto ipsec transform-set
8.
Refer to the exhibit. A site-to-site VPN is required from R1 to R3. The administrator is using
the CCP Site-to-Site VPN wizard on R1. Which IP address should the administrator enter in
the highlighted field?
10.1.1.1
10.1.1.2
10.2.2.1
10.2.2.2
192.168.1.1
192.168.3.1
9. A user launches Cisco VPN Client software to connect remotely to a VPN service. What
does the user select before entering the username and password?
the SSL connection type

the IKE negotiation process
the desired preconfigured VPN server site
the Cisco Encryption Technology to be applied
10. What is the default IKE policy value for encryption?
128-bit AES
192-bit AES
256-bit AES
3DES (Original answer)
DES (Corrected by Ja Shin)
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two IPsec framework components are valid options when
configuring an IPsec VPN on a Cisco ISR router? (Choose two.)
Integrity options include MD5 and RSA.
IPsec protocol options include GRE and AH.
Confidentiality options include DES, 3DES, and AES.
Authentication options include pre-shared key and SHA.
Diffie-Hellman options include DH1, DH2, and DH5.
12.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the CCP settings that are shown, which Easy VPN Server
component is being configured?
group policy
transform set
IKE proposal
user authentication
13. Which action do IPsec peers take during the IKE Phase 2 exchange?
exchange of DH keys
negotiation of IPsec policy
verification of peer identity
negotiation of IKE policy sets
14. When configuring an IPsec VPN, what is used to define the traffic that is sent through the
IPsec tunnel and protected by the IPsec process?
crypto map
crypto ACL (Corrected by Ja Shin)
ISAKMP policy (Original answer)
IPsec transform set
15. What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?
VPN client software must be installed.

A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
A web browser must be installed on the host.
The host must be connected to a wired network.
16. What are two benefits of an SSL VPN? (Choose two.)
It supports all client/server applications.

It supports the same level of cryptographic security as an IPsec VPN.
It has the option of only requiring an SSL-enabled web browser.
The thin client mode functions without requiring any downloads or software.
It is compatible with DMVPNs, Cisco IOS Firewall, IPsec, IPS, Cisco Easy VPN, and
NAT.
17. When using ESP tunnel mode, which portion of the packet is not authenticated?
ESP header
ESP trailer
new IP header
original IP header
18. How many bytes of overhead are added to each IP packet while it is transported through a
GRE tunnel?
8
16
24
32
19. Which two statements accurately describe characteristics of IPsec? (Choose two.)
IPsec works at the application layer and protects all application data.
IPsec works at the transport layer and protects data at the network layer.
IPsec works at the network layer and operates over all Layer 2 protocols.
IPsec is a framework of proprietary standards that depend on Cisco specific algorithms.
IPsec is a framework of standards developed by Cisco that relies on OSI algorithms.
IPsec is a framework of open standards that relies on existing algorithms.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a GRE VPN tunnel between
R1 and R2. Assuming the R2 GRE configuration is correct and based on the running
configuration of R1, what must the administrator do to fix the problem?
Change the tunnel source interface to Fa0/0.
Change the tunnel destination to 192.168.5.1.
Change the tunnel IP address to 192.168.3.1.
Again, this answer CCNA Security Chapter 8 answer is not 100% correct. I only got 90%
from this answer. So, if you have a better answer or new questions, please share. I’ll improve
this post based on the correction you provide. Thank You.
CCNA SECURITY CHAPTER 8 V1.2

[by Dineshb]
1.What can be used as a VPN gateway when setting up a site-to-site VPN?

Cisco router
Cisco AnyConnect
2.Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three.)
AH uses IP protocol 51. [Daniel]
AH provides encryption and integrity. [Dineshb]
AH provides integrity and authentication. [nuno, Daniel]
ESP requires both authentication and encryption. [Dineshb]
ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity. [nuno, Daniel]
3.Which statement describes the operation of the IKE protocol?

4.What is the purpose of the “Generate Mirror…” button in site-to-site VPN wizard of CCP?
to automatically configure the router on the other side of the tunnel

to test the VPN configuration and to verify operation
to produce the required CLI commands to configure the router on the other side of the
tunnel
to provide the VPN wizard setting required on the router on the other side of the tunnel
5.Refer to the exhibit. Which pair of crypto isakmp key commands would correctly configure
PSK on the two routers?
R1# crypto isakmp key cisco123 hostname R1

R2# crypto isakmp key cisco123 hostname R2
R1# crypto isakmp key cisco123 address 209.165.200.227



R2# crypto isakmp key secure address 209.165.200.227
6. Refer to the exhibit. How will traffic that does not match that defined by access list 101 be
treated by the router?
It will be sent encrypted.

It will be discarded.
It will be sent unencrypted.
It will be blocked.
7. Which factor is a drawback of providing remote connectivity and work solutions to
employees?
system security being maintained employees themselves.

job-related stresses
transportation-related pollution
24/7 time zone business availability
Employee telecommuting provides benefits
through decreasing job-related stress and pollution.
8. What are two characteristics of SSL VPNs? (Choose two.)
They protect all IP-based applications.

They require only a web browser on the client computer.
They require specific client software installed on the client device.
They can use noncompany-managed devices.
They can use strong two-way authentication via shared secrets or digital certificates.
9.What VPN solution uses a server to push IPsec policies to mobile clients so that they can
access company resources over a secure IPsec tunnel?
Cisco VPN Wizard

Cisco SSL VPN
Cisco Easy VPN
Step by Step Wizard
10.Which authentication method is available when specifying a method list for group policy
Active Directory
Kerberos
RADIUS
TACACS+
[by kamyk]
A network administrator has acquired two different VPN-capable routers that will be installed
in a network. Which factor must be verified between two routers prior to configuring a VPN
tunnel?
device interoperability
firewall configuration
intrusion prevention
quality of service
[by Jaime]
The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is an example of which of the five IPsec
building blocks?
confidentiality
nonrepudiation
authentication
Diffie-Hellman
integrity
What protocol is used by IPsec to calculate shared keys and to negotiate the parameters to be
used by IPsec SAs?
NTP
IKE
ESP
AH
What is the purpose of configuring multiple crypto ACLs when building a VPN connection
between remote sites?
When multiple combinations of IPsec protection are being chosen, multiple crypto ACLs
can define different traffic types.
Multiple crypto ACLs can be configured to deny specific network traffic from crossing a
VPN.
Multiple crypto ACLs can define multiple remote peers for connecting with a VPN-enabled
router across the Internet or network.
By applying the ACL on a public interface, multiple crypto ACLs can be built to prevent
public users from connecting to the VPN-enabled router.
When CCP Quick Setup is used to configure a VPN-capable router, what is the strongest level
of encryption allowed?
SEAL
AES
3DES
DES
A network administrator plans to deploy an SSL VPN on a Cisco IOS router. Which SSL
VPN mode would require the user to download a Java applet to connect to POP3, SMTP, and
SSH services?
clientless access mode
full client access mode
thin client mode
Easy VPN Remote
In which phase of the system development life cycle should security requirements be
addressed?
Add security requirements during the initiation phase.
Include a minimum set of security requirements at each phase.
Apply critical security requirements during the implementation phase.
Implement the majority of the security requirements at the acquisition phase.
Which type of analysis uses a mathematical model that assigns a monetary figure to the value
of assets, the cost of threats being realized, and the cost of security implementations?
Qualitative Risk Analysis
Quantitative Risk Analysis
Qualitative Asset Analysis
Quantitative Continuity Analysis
Which term describes a completely redundant backup facility, with almost identical
equipment to the operational facility, that is maintained in the event of a disaster?
backup site
cold site
hot site
reserve site

Which network security test requires a network administrator to launch an attack within the
network?
network scan
password crack
penetration test
vulnerability scan
Which three documents comprise the hierarchical structure of a comprehensive security

policy for an organization? (Choose three.)
backup policy
server policy
incident policy
governing policy
end-user policy
technical policy
Which three detailed documents are used by security staff for an organization to implement
the security policies? (Choose three.)
asset inventory
best practices
guidelines
procedures
risk assessment
standards
What are the two major components of a security awareness program? (Choose two.)
awareness campaign
security policy development
security solution development
self-defending network implementation
training and education
When an organization implements the two-person control principle, how are tasks handled?
A task requires two individuals who review and approve the work of each other.
A task is broken down into two parts, and each part is assigned to a different individual.
A task must be completed twice by two operators who must achieve the same results.
A task is rotated among individuals within a team, each completing the entire task for a
specific amount of time.
Which component of the security policy lists specific websites, newsgroups, or bandwidth-
intensive applications that are not allowed on the company network?
remote access policies
acceptable use policies

incident handling procedures
identification and authentication policies
Which security document includes implementation details, usually with step-by-step

instructions and graphics?
guideline document
standard document
procedure document
overview document
Which option describes ethics?
Ethics is a standard that is higher than the law.
Ethics involves government agencies enforcing regulations.
Ethics compliance is the basis for setting security policies.
Ethics deals with criminal law and monetary compensation.
In the Cisco SecureX architecture, which component is considered the workhorse of policy
enforcement?
next-generation endpoint
policy management console
scanning engine
Security Intelligence Operations
Which development has contributed most to the growing demand for a borderless network?
consumer endpoints
DMZ services
corporate managed laptops
personal firewall software
Which aspect of a scanning element is able to determine a security policy to apply based on
information such as the person using the device, the location of the device, and the application
being used?
context awareness
perimeter awareness
centralized enforcement
perimeter deployment
A company is considering implementing the Cisco SecureX security architecture. What is the
purpose of Cisco TrustSec?
It is a technology that implements packet tagging to allow security elements to share

information from scanning elements.
It is a large cloud-based security ecosystem with global correlation.
It is a stand-alone appliance managed from a central policy console.
It is a perimeter-based, stand-alone network scanning device.

Which statement about network security within the SecureX architecture is true?
It is located closer to the end user.
It is implemented in the network core.
It is enforced in a highly centralized structure.
It is managed by a single policy.
Which Cisco SecureX product family would be primarily responsible for detecting and
blocking attacks and exploits, while preventing intruder access?
secure e-mail and web
secure access
secure mobility
secure data center
secure network
Which SecureX product family would include Cisco AnyConnect?
secure network
secure e-mail and web
secure access
secure mobility
secure data center

If a web browser is to be used, and not a hardware or software-based client, which Cisco
solution is best for establishing a secure VPN connection?
VPN Services for Cisco ASA Series
Cisco Adaptive Wireless IPS Software
Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Solutions
Cisco Virtual Security Gateway
Which Cisco secure access solution can be used to determine if hosts are compliant with
security policies?
Network Admission Control Appliance
Cisco Secure Access Control System
Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Solutions
Cisco Adaptive Wireless IPS Software
What protocol is used by SCP for secure transport?
IPSec
HTTPS
SSH
Telnet
TFTP

If you unable to achieve 100% mark for this CCNA Security Chapter 9 Test following all
questions and answers given above please leave your comment below. We do appreciate any
correction you provided or any new and updated questions. With all the knowledge that we
shared, hopefully it will benefits all of us.
Credit: All questions and answers for CCNA Security Chapter 9 provided by Xase. All credits
goes to him.
CCNA Security Chapter 9 v1.2

[by John]
A network engineer is using a Cisco ASA as a proxy device to provide remote secure access
to a company web server. What technology is being used?
Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL
Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN
Cisco VPN Client
generic routing encapsulation tunnel using Ipsec
What is a characteristic of ASA security levels?
The lower the security level on an interface, the more trusted the interface.
An ACL needs to be configured to explicitly permit traffic from an interface with a

lower security level to an interface with a higher security level.
Each operational interface must have a name and be assigned a security level from 0 to 200.
Inbound traffic is identified as the traffic moving from an interface with a higher security
level to an interface with a lower security level.
Refer to the exhibit. Two types of VLAN interfaces were configured on an ASA 5505 with a
Base license. The administrator wants to configure a third VLAN interface with limited
functionality. Which action should be taken by the administrator to configure the third
interface?
The administrator needs to acquire the Security Plus license, because the Base license does
not support the proposed action.
The administrator configures the third VLAN interface the same way the other two were
configured, because the Base license supports the proposed action.
The administrator must enter the no forward interface vlan command before the nameif
command on the third interface.
Because the ASA 5505 does not support the configuration of a third interface, the
administrator cannot configure the third VLAN.
What command defines a DHCP pool that uses the maximum number of DHCP client
addresses available on an ASA 5505 that is using the Base license?
CCNAS-ASA(config)# dhcpd address 192.168.1.10-192.168.1.100 inside
Which statement describes the function provided to a network administrator who uses the
Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM) GUI that runs as a Java Web Start
application?
The administrator can connect to and manage multiple ASA devices, Cisco routers, and Cisco
switches.
The administrator can connect to and manage multiple ASA devices.
The administrator can connect to and manage multiple ASA devices and Cisco routers.
The administrator can connect to and manage a single ASA.
Which two statements are true about ASA standard ACLs? (Choose two.)
They identify only the destination IP address.
They are the most common type of ACL.
They are typically only used for OSPF routes.
They are applied to interfaces to control traffic.
They specify both the source and destination MAC address.
What is the purpose of the webtype ACLs in an ASA?
to inspect outbound traffic headed towards certain web sites
to restrict traffic that is destined to an ASDM
to filter traffic for clientless SSL VPN users
to monitor return traffic that is in response to web server requests that are initiated from the
inside interface
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PAT on an ASA device to enable
internal workstations to access the Internet. Which configuration command should be used
next?
nat (inside,outside) dynamic NET1
nat (outside,inside) dynamic interface
nat (inside,outside) dynamic interface
nat (outside,inside) dynamic NET1
[by Jaime]
Which Cisco VPN solution provides limited access to internal network resources by utilizing
a Cisco ASA and provides browser-based access only?
SSL
clientless SSL VPN
IPsec
client-based SSL VPN
The following Questions has been answered on CCNA Security Chapter 10 Test v1.1
Which three security features do ASA models 5505 and 5510 support by default? (Choose
three.)
Which three components must be configured when implementing a clientless SSL VPN on an
ASA 5505 device? (Choose three.)
When the ASA recognizes that the incoming packets are part of an already established
connection, which three fast path tasks are executed? (Choose three.)
Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of configuration commands were entered on the ASA
5505? (Choose three.)
Which option lists the ASA adaptive security algorithm session management tasks in the
correct order?

The following questions has been answered on CCNA Security Final Exam v1.1
Sales representatives of an organization use computers in hotel business centers to

[by abu7ala1]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an object group on an ASA

device. Which configuration keyword should be used after the object group nameSERVICE1?
ip
tcp
udp
icmp
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured NAT on an ASA device. What
type of NAT is used?
inside NAT
bidirectional NAT
outside NAT
static NAT

[by Carlos Sulca]
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the indicated commands on an ASA 5505.
Based on the information presented, what type of remote access VPN has the administrator
configured?
an SSL or IPsec(IKEv2) VPN via a Cisco VPN Client
an IPsec(IKEv1) VPN via a web browser
a clientless SSL VPN via a web browser
a clientless SSL VPN via the Cisco AnyConnect Client
an IPsec(IKEv1) VPN via the Cisco VPN Client
an SSL or IPsec(IKEv2) VPN via the Cisco AnyConnect Client
[ref: Chapter 10 Test v1.1]
connection profile name

bookmark lists
group policy

interface e0/0
switchport access vlan 2
no shut
exit
interface vlan 2
nameif outside
security-level 0
ip address 209.165.200.226 255.255.255.248
route outside 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.225
Which option lists the four steps to configure the Modular Policy Framework on an ASA?
1) Configure extended ACLs to identify specific granular traffic. This step may be
optional.
2) Configure the class map to define interesting traffic.
3) Configure a policy map to apply actions to the identified traffic.
4) Configure a service policy to identify which interface should be activated for the
service.
Which three security features do ASA models 5505 and 5510 support bydefault? (Choose
three.)
stateful firewall
intrusion prevention system
VPN concentrator
correct order?
1) performing the access list checks

2) performing route lookups
3) allocating NAT translations (xlates)
4) establishing sessions in the “fast path”

[by LB]
Refer to the exhibit. According to the command output, which three statements are true about
the DHCP options entered on the ASA 5505? (Choose three.)
The dhcpd auto-config outside command was issued to enable the DHCP client.
The dhcpd enable inside command was issued to enable the DHCP server.
The dhcpd address [start-of-pool]-[end-of-pool] inside command was issued to enable the
DHCP client.
The dhcpd address [start-of-pool]-[end-of-pool] inside command was issued to enable
the DHCP server.
The dhcpd auto-config outside command was issued to enable the DHCP server.
The dhcpd enable inside command was issued to enable the DHCP client.
[Updated by A Smith]
unable to ping the inside interface from an inside host. What is the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command should be entered on interface Ethernet 0/1. (Confirmed

by DaenerysTargaryen)
An IP address should be configured on the Ethernet 0/0 and 0/1 interfaces.
[Updated by Muraha Laydum and Andersson, J]
Refer to the exhibit. What will be displayed in the output of the show running-config object
command after the exhibited configuration commands are entered on an ASA 5505?
host 192.168.1.4
host 192.168.1.3
range 192.168.1.10 192.168.1.20
host 192.168.1.3, host 192.168.1.4, and range 192.168.1.10 192.168.1.20
host 192.168.1.4 and range 192.168.1.10 192.168.1.20
host 192.168.1.3 and host 192.168.1.4
[Updated by Andersson, J]
Which three wizards are included in Cisco ASDM 6.4? (Choose three.)
ADSL Connection wizard

Advanced Firewall wizard
High Availability and Scalability wizard
Security Audit wizard
Startup wizard
VPN wizard
Which three types of remote access VPNs are supported on ASA devices?
Clientless SSL VPN using the Cisco AnyConnect Client

Clientless SSL VPN using a web browser
IPsec (IKEv1) VPN using the Cisco VPN Client
IPsec (IKEv1) VPN using a web browser
SSL or IPsec (IKEv2) VPN using the Cisco AnyConnect Client
SSL or IPsec (IKEv2) VPN using the Cisco VPN Client
[by Valeria]
A network administrator is configuring the security level for the ASA. What is a best practice
for assigning the security level on the three interfaces?
Outside 100, Inside 10, DMZ 40

When dynamic NAT on an ASA is being configured, what two parameters must be specified
by network objects? (Choose two.)
the inside NAT interface
the outside NAT interface
the pool of public global addresses
a range of private addresses that will be translated
the interface security level
In this post, i will share answer for Chapter 10 Test CCNA Security. All the questions in this
post is based on CCNAS v1.1. The answers provided in this post has been verified to be
100% correct. I hope it will be a good material and guide for answering CCNA Security
Chapter Test.
In what three ways do the 5505 and 5510 Adaptive Security Appliances differ? (Choose
three.)
in the method by which they can be configured using either CLI or ASDM
in their compatibility with Cisco SecureX technology
in the maximum traffic throughput supported
in the number of interfaces
in operating system version support
in types of interfaces
Which three security features do ASA models 5505 and 5510 support by default? (Choose
three.)
content security and control module
Cisco Unified Communications (voice and video) security
intrusion prevention system
stateful firewall
VPN concentrator
Zone-Based Policy Firewall
correct order?

When the ASA recognizes that the incoming packets are part of an already established
connection, which three fast path tasks are executed? (Choose three.)
adjusting Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers
allocating NAT translations (xlates)
performing IP checksum verification
performing route lookups
performing TCP sequence number checks

performing the access list checks
What are three characteristics of ASA transparent mode? (Choose three.)
This mode does not support VPNs, QoS, or DHCP Relay.
The interfaces of the ASA separate Layer 3 networks and require IP addresses in different
subnets.
NAT can be implemented between connected networks.
This mode is referred to as a “bump in the wire.”
In this mode the ASA is invisible to an attacker.
interface e0/0
nameif outside
security-level 0
ip address 209.165.200.226 255.255.255.248

no shut
interface e0/0
switchport access vlan 2
no shut
exit
interface vlan 2
nameif outside
security-level 0
ip address 209.165.200.226 255.255.255.248
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.225
route inside 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.225
route outside 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.225

Refer to the exhibit. According to the exhibited command output, which three statements are
true about the DHCP options entered on the ASA 5505? (Choose three.)
DHCP client.

the DHCP server.
Which three wizards are included in Cisco ASDM 6.4? (Choose three.)
Startup wizard
VPN wizard

Refer to the exhibit. What will be displayed in the output of the show running-config object
command after the exhibited configuration commands are entered on an ASA 5505?
host 192.168.1.3
host 192.168.1.4
range 192.168.1.10 192.168.1.20
host 192.168.1.3 and host 192.168.1.4
host 192.168.1.4 and range 192.168.1.10 192.168.1.20
Refer to the exhibit. Which ASDM menu sequence would be required to configure Telnet or
SSH AAA authentication using a TACACS server first or the local device user database if the
TACACS server authentication is unavailable?
Configuration > Device Management > Management Access > ASDM/HTTPS/Telnet/SSH
Configuration > Device Management > Management Access > Management Interface
Configuration > Device Management > Users/AAA > AAA Access

Configuration > Device Management > Users/AAA > AAA Server Group
Configuration > Device Management > Users/AAA > User Accounts
Which option lists the four steps to configure the Modular Policy Framework on an ASA?
2) Configure a service policy to identify which interface should be activated for the service.
3) Configure extended ACLs to identify specific granular traffic. This step may be optional.
1) Configure extended ACLs to identify specific granular traffic. This step may be
optional.
4) Configure a service policy to identify which interface should be activated for the
service.

Which three types of remote access VPNs are supported on ASA devices? (Choose three.)
bookmark lists
client address assignment
client images
connection profile name
group policy
NAT exemption rules

VPN protocol (SSL or IPsec or both)
Which three components must be configured when implementing a client-based SSL VPN
on an ASA 5505 device? (Choose three.)
bookmark lists
client address assignment
client image
DHCP pools
group policy
SSL or IPsec
Refer to the exhibit. A remote host is connecting to an ASA 5505 via a VPN connection.
Once authenticated, the host displays the highlighted system tray icon. On the basis of the
information that is presented, what three assumptions can be made? (Choose three.)
The host web browser window is displaying the ASA SSL web portal webpage containing
bookmarks.
The host has connected to the ASA via a client-based SSL VPN connection.
The host is connected via the AnyConnect VPN client.
The host is connected via the Cisco VPN client.

Using the ipconfig command on the host displays one IP address from the originating
network.
Using the ipconfig command on the host displays an IP address from the originating
network and an IP address for the VPN connection.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the indicated commands on an ASA 5505.
Based on the information presented, what type of remote access VPN has the administrator
configured?
a clientless SSL VPN via the Cisco AnyConnect Client
a clientless SSL VPN via a web browser
an IPsec (IKEv1) VPN via the Cisco VPN Client
an IPsec (IKEv1) VPN via a web browser
an SSL or IPsec (IKEv2) VPN via the Cisco AnyConnect Client
an SSL or IPsec (IKEv2) VPN via a Cisco VPN Client
Which Cisco ASDM menu sequence would be used to edit a client-based AnyConnect SSL
VPN configuration?
Configuration > Remote Access VPN > Advanced
Configuration > Remote Access VPN > Clientless SSL VPN Access
Configuration > Remote Access VPN > Easy VPN Remote
Configuration > Remote Access VPN > Network (Client) Access
Monitoring > VPN > VPN Sessions
Monitoring > VPN > Clientless SSL VPN
Which three components must be configured when using the Site-to-Site VPN Connection
Setup wizard in ASDM? (Choose three.)
authentication method
bookmarks
crypto maps
encryption algorithms
GRE tunnel specifications
IKE version
An administrator has successfully configured a site-to-site VPN on an ASA 5505. Which

ASDM menu sequence displays the number of packets encrypted, decrypted, and security
association requests?
Configuration > Site-to-Site VPN > Advanced
Configuration > Site-to-Site VPN > Connection Profiles
Configuration > Site-to-Site VPN > Group Policies
Monitoring > VPN > VPN Statistics > Crypto Statistics
Monitoring > VPN > VPN Statistics > Encryption Statistics

Monitoring > VPN > VPN Statistics > Sessions
Which two statements correctly describe the ASA as an advanced stateful firewall? (Choose
two.)
An ASA uses the Zone-Based Firewall feature and tracks the state of the TCP or UDP
network connections that are traversing the network.
In routed mode, an ASA can support two or more Layer 3 interfaces.
In routed mode, an ASA requires a management IP address that is configured in global

configuration mode.
In transparent mode, each interface has an associated security level.
The first packet of a flow examined by an ASA goes through the session management
path.
All the answers for CCNA Security Chapter 10 Test discussed above should be 100% correct.
However, if you found any error, mistake or correction, please do not hesitate to leave
comment below. We also do appreciate new questions or latest version for any question set if
you want to share with all of us. I hope, the knowledge that you shared will benefits all of us.
Credits: All the questions and answers in this chapter test contribute by Xase. All credit goes
to him.
1. A network security manager has been tasked with supporting some staff to work from
home on a part time basis. What Cisco Secure access product will allow this manager to
provide secure, manageable voice and video services to this group of personnel?
Cisco Secure Access Control System
Cisco AnyConnect
Cisco NAC Appliance
Cisco Virtual Office

Cisco Identity Services Engine
2. Which two security features must be implemented when SCP is a part of a company
security plan? (Choose two.)
AAA authorization
AES
encrypted Cisco IOS File System
SSH
TCP/IP-based VPN
3. What are two attributes of a qualitative risk analysis? (Choose two.) It is measurable.
It assigns values to assets.
It is exploratory.
It is descriptive.
It uses a mathematical model.
4. Why would an organization perform a quantitative risk analysis for network security
threats?
so that management can determine the number of network devices needed to inspect, analyze,
and protect the corporate resources
so that management has documentation about the number of security attacks that have
occurred within a particular time period
so that the organization can focus resources where they are most needed
so that the organization knows the top areas where network security holes exist
5. What is the purpose of the Tripwire network testing tool?
to perform vulnerability scanning
to assess configuration against established policies, recommended best practices, and

compliance standards
to detect unauthorized wired network access
to provide password auditing and recovery
to provide information about vulnerabilities and aid in penetration testing and IDS signature
development
6. A network manager has presented to upper management that the threat of fire in the data
center has an exposure factor of 70 percent. What does this mean?
70 percent of the devices in the data center do not have fire resistance coverage.
70 percent of the data center area has a high risk of fire.
There is a 70 percent chance of a fire in the data center.
70 percent of all data center equipment would be destroyed if there were a fire.
7. What operations security principle is intended to ensure that a single individual does not
control two or more phases of an operation?
change control
separation of duties
rotation of duties
trusted recovery
8. Which security test is appropriate for detecting system weaknesses such as

misconfiguration, default passwords, and potential DoS targets?
integrity checkers
penetration testing
vulnerability scanning
network scanning
9. What situations are addressed by a business continuity plan?
the continued operations of an organization in the event of a disaster or service

interruption
the roles and responsibilities of personnel responding to security breaches
the threats that corporate systems are subjected to in a particular environment
the day-to-day operations necessary to deploy and maintain secure systems
10. What is the main purpose of the Cisco SIO?
to guarantee every connection coming on or off the endpoint
to provide a method of introducing scanning elements into the network
to enable a single point of policy definition that spans multiple enforcement points
to identify malicious traffic and develop rules to stop it

11. Fill in the blank. risk analysis is used to estimate the probability and severity of threats to
a system.
12. How does network scanning help assess operations security?
It can simulate attacks from malicious sources.
It can log abnormal activity.
It can detect open TCP ports on network systems.
It can detect weak or blank passwords.
13. In quantitative risk analysis, what term is used to represent the degree of destruction that
would occur if an event took place?
single loss expectancy
exposure factor
annualized loss expectancy
annualized rate of occurrence
14. What security task is relevant in the disposition phase of the SDLC?
defining the levels of potential impact on an organization from a security breach
identifying the protection requirements for systems through a formal risk assessment process
ensuring that security plans are designed, developed, and implemented

ensuring that data is deleted, erased, or overwritten
15. What should be the primary objective of a contingency and disaster recovery plan?
eliminate risk by avoiding threats to the network altogether
identify acceptable methods of recovery on events most likely to happen
address every possible disaster scenario and assumption
implement protection mechanisms in an attempt to reduce risks to acceptable levels
16. Using quantitative risk analysis, what is the annualized loss expectancy to an organization
of an event that has single loss expectancy of $500,000 and a annualized rate of occurrence of
.03?
$1500
$6000
$15,000
$1,500,000
17. What component of the Cisco SecureX architecture automatically deploys security rules to
Cisco devices?
policy management console
SIO
delivery mechanism
scanning engine

18. Which security policy component defines what users are allowed and not allowed to do on
company systems?
authentication policy
governing policy
acceptable use policy
application policy
19. A new network manager at a small company is presented with a list from the technician
who is responsible for server backups. The technician provides the following list of current
practices.
 Blank media is always used.

 Server backups are performed on a weekly basis.
 Only three people (the technician, a peer, and the supervisor of the technician) have
rights to perform the backups.
 The technician stores the backups in a fire-proof safe in the wiring closet.
 Twice a month, the technician and supervisor take a separate backup copy to a secure
off-site location.
Which practice would it be best to modify in order to improve this process so it is in

accordance with recommended best practices for a secure backup program?
More people should have rights to perform the backups.
Only one person is needed to store the off-site copy.
Two people should securely store the on-site backup media.
Media can be rotated.
Backups should be done on a more frequent basis.

20. A new person has joined the security operations team for a manufacturing plant. What is a
common scope of responsibility for this person?
physical and logical security of all business personnel
managing redundancy operations for all systems
day-to-day maintenance of network security
data security on host devices
21. What is the objective of the governing policy in the security policy hierarchy structure?
It defines system and issue-specific policies that describe what the technical staff does.
It outlines the company’s overall security goals for managers and technical staff.
It covers all rules pertaining to information security that end users should know about and
follow.
It provides general policies on how the technical staff should perform security functions.
22. Which type of security policy document is it that includes implementation details that
usually contain step-by-step instructions and graphics?
standards document
procedure document
best practices document
guideline document
23. What are the three security tasks related to the disposition phase of the system
development life cycle? (Choose three.)
media sanitation
preliminary risk assessment
continuous monitoring
hardware and software disposal
security cost considerations
information preservation
24. What is the purpose of a security awareness campaign?
to integrate all the security skills and competencies into a single body of knowledge
to teach skills so employees can perform security tasks
to focus the attention of employees on security issues
to provide users with a training curriculum that can ultimately lead to a formal degree
25.
Place the options in the following order:
[jarod08]
applies policy-based control

delivers network services to remote employees
provides access in accordance with rule-based policies
enforces security policies by updating non-compliant machines
[Aey / Ranya]
applies policy-based access control

enforces security policies by updating noncompliant machines
provides access in accordance with rule-based policies
delivers network services to remote employees
1. When logging is enabled for an ACL entry, how does the router switch packets filtered by
the ACL?
process switching
optimum switching
wizard?

It supports AAA configuration.
It sets an access class ACL on vty lines.
3 . What are three common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose
three.)
authenticating administrator access to the router console port, auxiliary port, and vty
ports
authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN
connections
implementing public key infrastructure to authenticate and authorize IPsec VPN peers using
implementing command authorization with TACACS+
securing the router by locking down all unused services
tracking Cisco Netflow accounting statistics

4.
to gain Telnet access to the router using the password cisco123. What is a possible cause of
the problem?
5.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the commands that are shown on router R1.
At what trap level is the logging function set?
2
3
5
6
6. If a switch is configured with the storm-control command and the action shutdown and
action trap parameters, which two actions does the switch take when a storm occurs on a port?
(Choose two.)
The port is disabled. (Corrected by Elfnet)

The switch is rebooted. (Original answer)
The port is placed in a blocking state.

7. Why does a worm poses a greater threat than a virus poses?

8. When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the default action when
the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded?
The violation mode for the port is set to restrict.

The MAC address table is cleared, and the new MAC address is entered into the table.
The port remains enabled, but the bandwidth is throttled until the old MAC addresses are aged
out.
The port is shut down.
9. Which type of encryption algorithm uses public and private keys to provide authentication,
IPsec
symmetric
asymmetric
shared secret
10. Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three.)
AH uses IP protocol 51.

AH provides encryption and integrity.
AH provides integrity and authentication.
ESP requires both authentication and encryption.
ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.

11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the CBAC configuration on
router R1?

R1(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE out
12. Which statement describes the operation of the IKE protocol?

13. Which two configuration requirements are needed for remote access VPNs using Cisco
Easy VPN Server, but are not required for site-to-site VPNs? (Choose two.)
group policy lookup (Corrected by Elfnet)

IPsec translations (Original Answer)
virtual template interface
IKE policies
transform sets

14. What can be used as a VPN gateway when setting up a site-to-site VPN?

Cisco router
Cisco AnyConnect
15. Which type of Layer 2 attack makes a host appear as the root bridge for a LAN?
LAN storm
MAC address spoofing
MAC address table overflow
STP manipulation
VLAN attack
16.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured a standard ACL on R1 and applied it to
interface serial 0/0/0 in the outbound direction. What happens to traffic leaving interface
serial 0/0/0 that does not match the configured ACL statements?
The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address.

The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address and port number.
The source IP address is checked and, if a match is not found, traffic is routed out interface
serial 0/0/1.
The traffic is dropped.
17. The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is an example of which of the five IPsec
building blocks?
authentication
confidentiality
Diffie-Hellman
integrity
nonrepudiation
18.
S1? (Choose two.)
packets per second.
total bandwidth.
19. What is a characteristic of AAA accounting?
Accounting can only be enabled for network connections.

Users are not required to be authenticated before AAA accounting logs their activities on the
network. (Original)
Possible triggers for the aaa accounting exec default command include start-stop and
stop-only. (Corrected by Joker!)
Accounting is concerned with allowing and disallowing authenticated users access to certain
areas and programs on the network.
authenticates a packet using the SHA algorithm only

encrypts the packet using either the DES, 3DES or AES algorithms
21. Which action best describes a MAC address spoofing attack?
22. When configuring a site-to-site IPsec VPN using the CLI, the authentication pre-share
command is configured in the ISAKMP policy. Which additional peer authentication
configuration is required?
Configure the message encryption algorithm with the encryptiontype ISAKMP policy
configuration command.
Configure the DH group identifier with the groupnumber ISAKMP policy configuration
command.
Configure a hostname with the crypto isakmp identity hostname global configuration
command.
Configure a PSK with the crypto isakmp key global configuration command.

The root user must be assigned to each privilege level defined.
Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users.
process.
24. Which set of Cisco IOS commands instructs the IPS to compile a signature category
named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic?
25.
seconds using an incorrect password? (Choose three.)
172.16.1.0/24.
A message is generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user.
26. Which statement describes configuring ACLs to control Telnet traffic destined to the
router itself?

interfaces. (Original)
user from connecting to an unsecured port. (Corrected by Joker!)

27. What are three characteristics of the ASA routed mode? (Choose three.)
This mode does not support VPNs, QoS, or DHCP Relay. (Original)

The interfaces of the ASA separate Layer 3 networks and require different IP addresses in
different subnets. (Corrected by Elfnet & Joker!)
NAT can be implemented between connected networks. (Corrected by Elfnet & Joker!)
This mode is referred to as a “bump in the wire.” (Original)
In this mode, the ASA is invisible to an attacker.
28. Which authentication method is available when specifying a method list for group policy
Active Directory
Kerberos (Original)
RADIUS (Corrected by Joker! & Andy)
TACACS+
29. Which access list statement permits HTTP traffic that is sourced from host 10.1.129.100
port 4300 and destined to host 192.168.30.10?
access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 4300

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255
access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.30.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 4300

30.
Refer to the exhibit. What conclusion can be drawn from the exhibited window when it is
displayed on a remote user computer screen?
The user has connected to a secure web server.

The user has established a client-based VPN connection.
The user has logged out of the AnyConnect VPN client.
The user is installing the AnyConnect VPN client.
The user is using a web browser to connect to a clientless SSL VPN.

ability to access ROMmon
32. Which type of IPS signature detection is used to distract and confuse attackers?

33.

34. Which attack allows the attacker to see all frames on a broadcast network by causing a
switch to flood all incoming traffic?
LAN storm (Original)
VLAN hopping
STP manipulation
MAC table overflow (Corrected by Joker! & Andy)
35.
The user has timed out of an AnyConnect SSL VPN installation.

The user has logged out of a clientless SSL VPN session. (Corrected by Joker!)
The user has logged out of a Cisco VPN Client session.
The user has logged out of an AnyConnect IPsec VPN session.
The user has logged out of an AnyConnect SSL VPN session. (Original)
36. An administrator has been asked to configure basic access security on a router, including
creating secure passwords and disabling unattended connections. Which three actions
accomplish this using recommended security practices? (Choose three.)
Create passwords with only alphanumeric characters.

Set the minimum password length to 10 characters.
Set the executive timeout parameters on the console port to 120 and 0. (Original)
Set the executive timeout parameters on the vty lines to 3 and 0. (Corrected by Joker!)
Enable the password encryption service for the router.
Enable login using the Aux port with the executive timeout set to 0 and 0.
37. Which type of intrusion prevention technology is primarily used by Cisco IPS security
appliances?
rule-based
profile-based
signature-based
NetFlow anomaly-based
protocol analysis-based
38. Which type of packets exiting the network of an organization should be blocked by an

ACL?
packets that are not encrypted

packets that are not translated with NAT
packets with source IP addresses outside of the organization’s network address space
packets with destination IP addresses outside of the organization’s network address space
39. An administrator wants to prevent a rogue Layer 2 device from intercepting traffic from
multiple VLANs on a network. Which two actions help mitigate this type of activity? (Choose
two.)
Disable DTP on ports that require trunking.
Place unused active ports in an unused VLAN.
Secure the native VLAN, VLAN 1, with encryption.
Set the native VLAN on the trunk ports to an unused VLAN.
Turn off trunking on all trunk ports and manually configure each VLAN as required on each
port.
40. Which command would an administrator use to clear generated crypto keys?
Router(config)# crypto key decrypt

Router(config-line)# transport input ssh clear
Router(config)# crypto key rsa
Router(config)# crypto key zeroize rsa
41. What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device
management?
All vty ports are automatically configured for SSH to provide secure management.
The general-purpose key size must be specified for authentication with the crypto key
generate rsa general-keys moduluscommand.
The keys must be zeroized to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters.
The generated keys can be used by SSH.
42.
unable toping the inside interface from an inside host. What is the cause of this problem?
An IP address should be configured on the Ethernet 0/0 and 0/1 interfaces. (Original)
The no shutdown command should be entered on interface Ethernet 0/1. (Corrected by
Joker! & Andy)
43.

This is an error message indicating the system is unusable.
44. What is a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient
Configuration feature?
The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command.
The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.
The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to the NVRAM.
When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image is loaded from a secured FTP location.
(Choose two.)

46. Which technology does CCP require for configuring remote access VPN support with the
Easy VPN Server wizard?
AutoSecure
Role-Based CLI Access
AAA
port forwarding

48.
client-based SSL VPN using AnyConnect (Original)
clientless SSL VPN (Corrected by Joker! & Andy)
49. Which type of VPN may require the Cisco VPN Client software?
remote access VPN

SSL VPN
site-to-site VPN
MPLS VPN

50. Sales representatives of an organization use computers in hotel business centers to

client-based IPsec VPN using Cisco VPN Client (Original answer)

clientless IPsec VPN using a web browser
clientless SSL VPN using a web browser (Corrected by Elfnet)
51.
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be obtained from the AAA configuration
statements?
The authentication method list used for Telnet is named ACCESS.

The authentication method list used by the console port is named ACCESS.
The local database is checked first when authenticating console and Telnet access to the
router.
If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, no users can establish a Telnet session with the
router.
If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, console access to the router can be
authenticated using the local database.
52. What must be configured before any Role-Based CLI views can be created?
aaa new-model command

multiple privilege levels
secret password for the root user
usernames and passwords

53.
R1, which three conclusions can be drawn regarding Cisco IOS Resilience? (Choose three.)


being attacked.
55. Which statement describes the CCP Security Audit wizard?
possible security problems that might exist. (Original Answer)
The wizard is based on the Cisco IOS AutoSecure feature. (Corrected by Elfnet & Andy)

56. Which three statements describe zone-based policy firewall rules that govern interface
An interface can be assigned to multiple security zones. (Original)

Pass, inspect, and drop options can only be applied between two zones. (Corrected by
Joker! & Andy)
a zone.
the same zone.
57.
Create IPS
Edit IPS
Security Dashboard
IPS Sensor
IPS Migration
58. Which statement correctly describes a type of filtering firewall?
A transparent firewall is typically implemented on a PC or server with firewall software

running on it.
A packet-filtering firewall expands the number of IP addresses available and hides network
addressing design.
An application gateway firewall (proxy firewall) is typically implemented on a router to filter
Layer 3 and Layer 4 information.
A stateful firewall monitors the state of connections, whether the connection is in an
initiation, data transfer, or termination state.

59. Which component of AAA is used to determine which resources a user can access and
which operations the user is allowed to perform?
auditing
accounting
authorization
authentication
(Choose three.)
Place generic ACL entries at the top of the ACL. (Original)

Place more specific ACL entries at the top of the ACL.
pass. (Corrected by Elfnet & Joker!)
wizard?
It sets an access class ACL on VTY lines. [ComoEh]
It supports AAA configuration. [Kim]
(Ref: As appeared on Final Exam v1.1)
2. With the Cisco AnyConnect VPN wizard, which two protocols can be used for tunnel
group configuration? (Choose two.)
MPLS
SSH [Dimented]
PPTP
ESP [J***]
IPsec [Dimented, J***]
being attacked.

(Ref: 5.1.2.4, As appeared on Final Exam v1.1)
4.
clientless SSL VPN
The thin client mode functions without requiring any downloads or software.
It supports all client/server applications.
NAT.
It supports the same level of cryptographic security as an IPsec VPN.
(Ref: As appeared on Chapter 8 v1.1)
6. When configuring router security, which statement describes the most effective way to use
ACLs to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself?
interfaces.
user from connecting to an unsecured port.
7.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the security level for the ASA.
Which statement describes the default result if the administrator tries to assign the Inside
interface with the same security level as the DMZ interface?
The ASA console will display an error message.
The ASA will not allow traffic in either direction between the Inside interface and the
DMZ. [Snarl]
The ASA allows traffic from the Inside to the DMZ, but blocks traffic initiated on the DMZ to
the Inside interface. [nuno]
The ASA allows inbound traffic initiated on the Internet to the DMZ, but not to the Inside
interface.
encrypts the packet with either the DES, 3DES or AES algorithms
authenticates a packet by using the SHA algorithm only
(Ref: 2.3.4.7, As appeared on Final Exam v1.1)
9. What is an advantage of using SSL VPNs compared to IPsec VPNs on an ASA?
SSL VPNs provide support for more applications.
SSL VPNs do not require any pre-installed client software.
SSL VPNs provide superior authentication.
SSL VPNs provide stronger encryption as a remote-access solution.
10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the classic firewall
configuration on the firewall?
FW(config)# interface g0/1
FW(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in
FW(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE out

FW(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE in
FW(config-if)# ip inspect INSIDE in
FW(config-if)# ip access-group OUTBOUND in
FW(config-if)# ip inspect INSIDE in
FW(config-if)# ip access-group OUTBOUND in
11. What is a type of SSL VPN that provides access to a network without requiring VPN
software or a Java applet on the client?
clientless mode [nuno, Snarl and J***]
Cisco VPN client mode [Zaf and Dimented]

full client mode
thin client mode
(Ref: 8.6.3.2)
12. What are two reasons for a company to migrate from a classic firewall to the ZPF model?
(Choose two.)
The classic firewall will perform the same inspection on all traffic that goes through a
specific interface.
The classic firewall can only have one policy that affects any given traffic.
The classic firewall security posture is to block unless explicitly allowed.
The classic firewall is limited to two interfaces.
The classic firewall relies heavily on ACLs.
(ref: 4.3.1.2 – Benefits of Zone-Based Policy Firewall)
13. What is the main difference between the implementation of IDS and IPS devices?
An IDS uses signature-based technology to detect malicious packets, whereas an IPS uses
profile-based technology.
An IDS would allow malicious traffic to pass before it is addressed, whereas an IPS stops
it immediately.
An IDS can negatively impact the packet flow, whereas an IPS can not.
An IDS needs to be deployed together with a firewall device, whereas an IPS can replace a
firewall.

14. What information must an IPS track in order to detect attacks matching a composite
signature?
the state of packets related to the attack [Zen]
the total number of packets in the attack [R*** and N***]
the network bandwidth consumed by all packets
the attacking period used by the attacker [D***]
15. What method is used to authenticate SNMPv2 messages between the manager and the
agent?
RSA keys
trusted keys
encrypted passwords
community strings
16. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as
they relate to the OSI model?
A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a

stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.
Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer.
A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a connection,
whereas a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the state of a
connection.
A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a packet-filtering firewall
cannot filter beyond the network layer.

17. What is a difference between ASA IPv4 ACLs and IOS IPv4 ACLs?
ASA ACLs use the subnet mask in defining a network, whereas IOS ACLs use the
wildcard mask. [Zaf, Snarl and Dimented]
ASA ACLs do not have an implicit deny all at the end, whereas IOS ACLs do.
ASA ACLs use forward and drop ACEs, whereas IOS ACLs use permit and deny ACEs.
Multiple ASA ACLs can be applied on an interface in the ingress direction, whereas only one
IOS ACL can be applied.
ASA ACLs are always named, whereas IOS ACLs can be named or numbered. [J]
(Ref: 9.2.6.1)
18. What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?
Use ISL encapsulation on all trunk links.
Disable STP on all nontrunk ports.
Disable trunk negotiation for trunk ports and statically set nontrunk ports as access
ports.
Use VLAN 1 as the native VLAN on trunk ports.
19. Why have corporations been shifting remote access security policies to include support for
ASA SSL VPNs?
to have stronger encryption options
to support secure access for users on a multitude of devices [nuno and Kiros]
to have stronger authentication options

to provide stronger overall security [Dimented]
(ref: 9.3.1.1 – Implementing SSL VPNs Using Cisco ASA)
20.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the object group-based ACL?
It allows users on the 10.5.0.0/24 network access via HTTPS to remote devices on the
10.7.150.0/28, 10.7.151.0/28, 10.7.160.0/28, and 10.7.161.0/28 networks. [nuno]
It allows devices on the 10.7.150.0/28, 10.7.151.0/28, 10.7.160.0/28, 10.7.161.0/28 networks

to receive TCP-based broadcasts. [Rahul]
It allows any TCP traffic with port 443 from the 10.7.150.0/28, 10.7.151.0/28, 10.7.160.0/28,
and 10.7.161.0/28 networks access to the 10.5.0.0/24 network.
It allows devices on the 10.5.0.0/24 network to have telnet and web access to the
10.7.150.0/28, 10.7.151.0/28, 10.7.160.0/28, and 10.7.161.0/28 networks.
21.
R1, which three conclusions can be drawn about Cisco IOS Resilience? (Choose three.)
22. How would a network security professional mitigate a DoS attack?
Implement a strong password policy.
Deploy antisniffer software.
Include a firewall and IPS in the network security design.
Design the network by using the principle of minimum trust.
The root user must be assigned to each privilege level that is defined.

process.
Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privilege users.
24. Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems to use
in establishing an IPsec VPN?
DES
DH
3DES
ESP
AH
SSL
25. What type of security key is generated by the local user software when a user is
connecting to a Cisco ASA through a remote-access SSL VPN?
asymmetric key
digitally signed private key
shared-secret key
digitally signed public key
(Ref: 8.6.3.4)

26. What is one advantage of using a Cisco ASA for remote networking VPN deployment
compared to a Cisco ISR?
support for SSL VPNs [Zaf and Dimented]
support for more concurrent user sessions [nuno, Kiros, J and Zen]
support for IPsec VPNs
support for AAA external authentication
ability to access ROMMON
28. In what two phases of the system development life cycle does risk assessment take place?
(Choose two.)
operation and maintenance
disposition
implementation
initiation
acquisition and development
29. What is one benefit of implementing a secure email service by using the Cisco Email
Security Appliance (ESA)?
ESA provides isolation between processes.
It obtains real-time updates from the Cisco SIO.
It uses the network infrastructure to enforce security policy compliance.
It combines advanced threat defense and secure mobility for email.
(Ref 6.1.2.2 and 6.1.2.3)
30.
to gain Telnet access to the router by using the password cisco123. What is a possible cause
of the problem?
31. A network administrator configures the alert generation of an IPS device in such a way
that when multiple attack packets that match the same signature are detected, a single alert for
the first packet is generated and the remaining duplicate alarms are counted, but not sent, for a
specific time period. When the specified time period is reached, an alert is sent that indicates
the number of alarms that occurred during the time interval. What kind of alert generation
pattern is configured?
composite alerts
atomic alerts
summary alerts
advanced alerts
(Ref: 5.2.4.2)
32. Which STP port type is permitted to forward traffic, but is not the port closest to the root
bridge?
root port
designated port [abd, Snarl, J***]
backup port
alternate port [Dimented]
(Ref: 6.2.4.2)
33.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the ACLs?
to deny inbound IPv6 and SSH traffic unless it originates from within the
organization [nuno, Arab guy and Zen]
to allow inbound traffic from only designated sources
to allow SSH connections initiated from the Internet to enter the network [Dimented]
to deny all inbound traffic and log TCP and UDP transmissions [Rahul]
(ref: 4.4.1.4 – Reflexive ACLs)
34.
This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

35. What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?
The data is divided into three blocks of equal length for encryption.
The data is encrypted using a key length that is three times longer than the key used for DES.
The data is encrypted three times with three different keys.
The data is encrypted, decrypted, and encrypted using three different keys.
(Ref: As appeared in Chapter 7 v1.1)
36.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA authentication on R1. The
administrator then tests the configuration by telneting to R1. The ACS servers are configured
and running. What will happen if the authentication fails?
The enable secret password could be used in the next login attempt. [Dimented]
The authentication process stops.
The enable secret password and a random username could be used in the next login attempt.
The username and password of the local user database could be used in the next login
attempt. [Rahul, Paul]
37. Which two security features can cause a switch port to become error-disabled? (Choose
two.)
storm control with the trap option

PortFast with BPDU guard enabled
port security with the shutdown violation mode
root guard
protected ports
(Ref 6.3.1.3 and 6.3.3.2)
to identify peripheral configurations
to discover system passwords
to determine potential vulnerabilities
to disable used ports and services [Zen]
to identify operating systems [J***, Snarl]
to identify active services
(ref: 1.3.1.4 / As appeared on Final Exam v1.1)
39. Which security policy component would contain procedures for handling an issue where
someone followed a network administrator into the server room without the administrator
noticing and the person removed some storage drives?
information preservation policy
security policy
operations and maintenance document

security initiation document
40. What question is answered by the risk analysis component of security policy
development?
What is the cost versus benefit analysis of implementing various security technologies?
What are the reliable, well-understood, and recommended security practices that similar
organizations currently employ?
What are the current procedures for incident response, monitoring, maintenance, and auditing
of the system for compliance?
What are the most likely types of threats given the purpose of the organization?
(Ref 10.1.1.1)
41. What are two characteristics of an acceptable use policy? (Choose two.)
It should be as explicit as possible to avoid misunderstanding. [J***]
It should specify who is authorized to access network resources. [Dimented]
It should identify how remote users will access the network.
It should identify what network applications and usages are acceptable.
It should enforce minimum password requirements for users.
It should be vague to allow maximum user flexibility.
(Ref 10.7.1.2)
42.
Refer to the exhibit. Which pair of crypto isakmp key commands would correctly configure
PSK on the two routers?
R1# crypto isakmp key ciscopass address 209.165.200.226
R2# crypto isakmp key secure address 209.165.200.227
R1# crypto isakmp key ciscopass hostname R1
R2# crypto isakmp key ciscopass hostname R2
(ref: As appeared on Chapter 8 v1.1)
43. What are two features of Cisco Easy VPN Server? (Choose two.)
It requires Cisco routers to act as remote VPN clients.
It enables complete access to the corporate network over an SSL VPN tunnel. [Dimented]
It enables an ASA firewall to act as the VPN head-end device in remote-access
VPNs. [J*** and Snarl]
It requires remote access to the corporate network via a web browser and SSL.
Cisco Easy VPN Server enables VPN client remote access to a company intranet through
creation of secure IPsec tunnels.
(Ref 8.6.4.1)
44.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a GRE VPN tunnel between
R1 and R2. Assuming the R2 GRE configuration is correct and based on the running
configuration of R1, what must the administrator do to fix the problem?
Change the tunnel source interface to Fa0/0.

45. Which spanning-tree enhancement prevents the spanning-tree topology from changing by
blocking a port that receives a superior BPDU?
PortFast
BPDU guard [Dimented]
root guard [J*** and Snarl]
BDPU filter
(Ref: 6.3.3.5)
46. In deploying an IPS in a corporate network, system operators first create a profile of
normal network operation by monitoring network activities in normal network uses. After the
profile is incorporated into the IPS triggering mechanism, alarms will be generated when the
IPS detects excessive activity that is beyond the scope of the profile. Which signature
detection mechanism is deployed?
(Ref: 5.2.2.3)
47. Why does a worm pose a greater threat than a virus poses?

48. Which security feature would be commonly implemented as part of a large enterprise
wireless policy but would not typically be used in a small office/home office network?
not broadcasting the SSID
using WPA2
not allowing personal wireless devices [Dimented]
using an authentication server [Snarl, J***’s friends]
(Choose two.)
(ref: As appeared in Final Exam v1.1 )
50. A network technician has been asked to design a virtual private network between two
branch routers. Which type of cryptographic key should be used in this scenario?
asymmetric key [Dimented]
hash key
symmetric key [Snarl, J***]
digital signature
51. A company is designing its strategy of deploying Cisco Secure ACS to manage user
access. The company is currently using a Windows server for the internal authentication
service. The network administrator needs to configure the ACS to contact the Windows server
when it cannot find the user in its local database. Which option of external user database setup
should be configured on ACS?
by specific user assignment
by unknown user policy [J*** and Snarl]
by administrator privilege
by user priority [Dimented]
(Ref: 3.3.5.1)
52.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted inspect line?
It is the action to take on the traffic from the 10.10.10.0/24 network. [Rahul and Zepo]
It specifies the named class-map to apply to the traffic_going policy.
It dictates to the firewall to track all outgoing sessions no matter the source in order to
determine whether a return packet is allowed. [Dimented]
It is the command used to apply a rate limit to a specific class of traffic. [abd]
53. Which two options are offered through the Cisco TrustSec Solution for enterprise
networks? (Choose two.)
Easy VPN solution
IPsec VPN solution
802.1X-Based Infrastructure solution
NAC Appliance-Based Overlay solution
Firewall and IDS integrated solution
(Ref: 3.3.3.3)
54. Which statement accurately describes Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall operation?
Router management interfaces must be manually assigned to the self zone.
A router interface can belong to multiple zones.
The pass action works in only one direction.
Service policies are applied in interface configuration mode.
(Ref: 4.3.2.1)

55. Two devices that are connected to the same switch need to be totally isolated from one
another. Which Cisco switch security feature will provide this isolation?
DTP
BPDU guard [Zen]
PVLAN Edge [Snarl]
SPAN
(Ref: 6.3.7.1)
56. Why is a reflexive ACL harder to spoof compared to an extended ACL that uses the
established keyword?
It provides a secure tunnel for returning traffic.
A reflexive ACL provides a lock-and-key function.
It allows incoming packets only after the 3-way handshake is completed.
It provides more detailed filter criteria to match an incoming packet before the packet is
allowed through.
57. Which security feature helps protect a VoIP system from SPIT attacks?
AES
BPDU guard
WPA2
authenticated TLS

58. What are two protocols that are used by AAA to authenticate users against a central
database of usernames and password? (Choose two.)
TACACS+
NTP
SSH
RADIUS
HTTPS
CHAP
59. Which security organization updates the training material that helps prepare for the Global
Information Assurance Certification (GIAC)?
CERT
CIS
SANS
(ISC)2
60. Which three wizards are included in Cisco ASDM 6.4? (Choose three.)

Startup wizard
VPN wizard
(Ref: Chapter 10 Test v1.1)
61. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured an ASA 5505 as indicated but is still
unable to ping the inside interface from an inside host. What is the cause of this problem?
An IP address should be configured on the Ethernet 0/0 and 0/1 interfaces.
The no shutdown command should be entered on interface Ethernet 0/1.
(Ref: Final Exam v1.1)
62. Refer to the exhibit. What will be displayed in the output of the show running-config
object command after the exhibited configuration commands are entered on an ASA 5505?
host 192.168.1.3
range 192.168.1.10 192.168.1.20
host 192.168.1.4 and range 192.168.1.10 192.168.1.20
host 192.168.1.3 and host 192.168.1.4
host 192.168.1.4
63. Refer to the exhibit. According to the command output, which three statements are true
about the DHCP options entered on the ASA 5505? (Choose three.)
DHCP client.

the DHCP server.
64. Fill in the blank.
In a syslog implementation, a router that generates and forwards syslog messages is known as
a syslog clients
(Ref: Syslog clients: Routers or other types of equipment that generate and forward log
messages to syslog servers)
65. Which three types of remote access VPNs are supported on ASA devices? (Choose three.)

66. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the port security feature on
switch SWC. The administrator issued the command show port-security interface fa 0/2 to
verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? (Choose
three.)
The switch port mode for this interface is access mode.
The port is configured as a trunk link.
Three security violations have been detected on this interface.
This port is currently up.
Security violations will cause this port to shut down immediately.
There is no device currently connected to this port.
67. What is an advantage of using CCP rather than the CLI to configure an ACL?
IPsec is supported.
CCP applies the read-only quality to manually created access rules so that accidental
modification cannot be made.
CCP automatically applies a rule to the interface or zone most appropriate.

Traffic rules do not have to be configured when CCP is being used.
CCP provides default rules.
68. What is a CLI initiated script that locks down the control plane of a Cisco router in one
step?
Control Plane Protection
Cisco AutoSecure
IP Source Guard
Control Plane Policing
(Ref: 1. CCNA Security Chapter 2.4.2.1 – Released in IOS version 12.3, Cisco AutoSecure is
a feature that is initiated from the CLI and executes a script.
2. http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1924983&seqNum=3)
(Choose three.)
Generic ACL entries should be placed at the top of the ACL.
pass.
More specific ACL entries should be placed at the top of the ACL.
(Ref: Final Exam v1.1)

70. What is one way to prevent attackers from eavesdropping on VoIP conversations?

Use Forced Authorization Codes.
Implement separate voice VLANs.
Configure IP phones to use only signed firmware files.
Create ACLs to allow only VoIP protocols.
71. A large company deploys several network-based IPS sensors for its headquarters network.
Which network service configuration will help the process of correlating attack events
happening simultaneously in different points of the network?
Multiple DNS servers with fault tolerance

Distributed DHCP servers
A syslog server for each IPS sensor
A centralized NTP server
72. What is the role of the Cisco NAC Manager in implementing a secure networking
infrastructure?
to assess and enforce security policy compliance in the NAC environment
to perform deep inspection of device security profiles
to provide post-connection monitoring of all endpoint devices
to define role-based user access and endpoint security policies
73. What command must be issued to enable login enhancements on a Cisco router?
privilege exec level
banner motd
login delay
login block-for
74. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator creates three zones (A, B, and C) in an ASA that
filters traffic. Traffic originating from Zone A going to Zone C is denied, and traffic
originating from Zone B going to Zone C is denied. What is a possible scenario for Zones A,
B, and C
A – DMZ, B – Inside, C – Outside
A – DMZ, B – Outside, C – Inside
A – Inside, B – DMZ, C – Outside
A – Outside, B – Inside, C – DMZ
75. In a corporate network where SAN is deployed, what happens if the SAN fabric is
compromised?
Data is compromised.
Server CPUs become overloaded.
Configurations can be changed or lost.
End devices become infected.
(Ref: Chapter 6, SAN Management)

76. What three phases would be addressed as part of doing business continuity planning?
(Choose three.)
a recovery phase
an emergency response phase
a quarantine or containment phase
a return to normal operation phase
a reaction phase
an initiation phase
(Source: 10.5.1.1)
77. Logging into a computer as the administrator just to surf the web is a violation of which
security technique?
process isolation
utilizing a reference monitor
access control to resources
least privilege
78. What is an example of toll fraud?
the use of a telephony system to send unsolicited and unwanted bulk messages
the use of a telephony system to make unauthorized long distance calls

the use of a telephony system to get information, such as account details, directly from users
the use of a telephony system to illegally intercept voice packets in order to listen in on a call
79. A user complains about not being able to gain access to the network. What command
would be used by the network administrator to determine which AAA method list is being
used for this particular user as the user logs on?
debug aaa accounting

debug aaa authorization
debug aaa authentication
debug aaa protocol
80. Place the system development cycle (SDLC) phases in the order they occur (Not all
options are used)
(Drag and drop)
1st -> Initiation

2nd -> Acqusition and Development
3rd -> Implementation
4th -> Operations and Maintenance
5th -> Disposition
81. Fill in the blank.

When role-based CLI is used, only the _____________ view has the ability to add or remove
commands from existing views.
Answer: Root
82. A network administrator notices that unsuccessful login attempts have caused a router to
enter quiet mode. How can the administrator maintain remote access to the networks even
during quiet mode?
Quiet mode behavior can be enabled via an ip access-group command on a physical interface.
Quiet mode behavior will only prevent specific user accounts from attempting to authenticate.
Quiet mode behavior can be disabled by an administrator by using SSH to connect.
Quiet mode behavior can be overridden for specific networks by using an ACL.
83. Which type of NAT would be used on an ASA where 10.0.1.0/24 inside addresses are to
be translated only if traffic from these addresses is destined for the 198.133.219.0/24
network?
static NAT
dynamic PAT
dynamic NAT
policy NAT
84. Refer to the exhibit. Two types of VLAN interfaces were configured on an ASA 5505
with a Base license. The administrator wants to configure a third VLAN interface with limited
functionality. Which action should be taken by the administrator to configure the third
interface?
The administrator needs to acquire the Security Plus license, because the Base license does
not support the proposed action.
The administrator must enter the no forward interface vlan command before the nameif
command on the third interface.
Because the ASA 5505 does not support the configuration of a third interface, the
administrator cannot configure the third VLAN.
The administrator configures the third VLAN interface the same way the other two were
configured, because the Base license supports the proposed action.

85. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the security level for the
ASA. What is a best practice for assigning the security level on the three interfaces?
86. Which two functions are provided by Network Admission Control? (Choose two.)
enforcing network security policy for hosts that connect to the network
limiting the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on a single switch port
stopping excessive broadcasts from disrupting network traffic
ensuring that only authenticated hosts can access the network
protecting a switch from MAC address table overflow attacks
87. In reviewing the SSH logs of several servers, a network administrator notices many failed
login attempts recently. The administrator suspects some attacks might have been attempted.
What are two security measures that should be deployed to mitigate this type of attack?
(Choose two.)
Implement a multilevel firewall design.
Implement a strong password policy.
Include an IPS in the security design.
Deploy QoS with traffic policing.
Design the network by using the principle of minimum trust.

Please leave comment for any unlisted or new questions, answers or any correction for CCNA
Security Final Exam v1.2. Hope it will benefits all of us. Thank you and wish you good luck.
Acknowledgement
J***, R*** and N*** – Questions Contributor Starter, Answers and Reference
rukmal, Jin Wei, Juan Perez, LuxFerrer_7Sins, NetworkingRookie – Question Contributor
Zaf, Dimented, Nuno, abd, Jez, Zepo, Paul, Kim, Silk, My Wife, ComoEh, Juan, Rodion,
marcel, kevin – Answers Contributor
Kiros, Snarl, Hadi, kev, mac – Answer and Reference Contributor
Zen, Mage, Saco, tonduyutong, Nicer, Anon – Questions, Answers and Reference Contributor
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172 thoughts on “Answer CCNA Security Final Exam –
CCNAS v1.2”
1. Zafsays:
November 7, 2014 at 1:49 AM
My exam is tomorrow. Kindly mark the correct answers asap. Thanks
Reply
2. Zafsays:
11. What is a type of SSL VPN that provides access to a network without requiring
VPN software or a Java applet on the client?
Correct Answer : Cisco VPN Client mode
Reply
0. nunosays:
–> clientless mode
Reply
3. Zafsays:
30) Refer to the exhibit. The administrator can ping the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB
but is unable to gain Telnet access to the router by using the password cisco123. What
is a possible cause of the problem?
Correct Answer:
Reply
4. Zafsays:
10) Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the classic firewall
Correct Answer:

Reply
5. Zafsays:
Correct Answer:
wildcard mask.
Reply
6. Zafsays:
Correct Answer:
ports.
Reply
7. Zafsays:
Correct Answer:
Reply
8. Zafsays:
Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems to
use in establishing an IPsec VPN?
Correct Answer:
DH
Reply
9. Zafsays:
26. What is one advantage of using a Cisco ASA for remote networking VPN
deployment compared to a Cisco ISR?
Correct Answer:
support for SSL VPNs
Reply
10. Zafsays:
Correct Answer:

Reply
11. Zafsays:
31. A network administrator configures the alert generation of an IPS device in such a
way that when multiple attack packets that match the same signature are detected, a
single alert for the first packet is generated and the remaining duplicate alarms are
counted, but not sent, for a specific time period. When the specified time period is
reached, an alert is sent that indicates the number of alarms that occurred during the
time interval. What kind of alert generation pattern is configured?
Correct Answer:
summary alerts
Reply
12. Zafsays:
34) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server.
What can be determined from the message?
Correct Answer:
Reply
0. InviAlgosays:
November 8, 2014 at 2:44 PM
Thank you Zaf . All your answers has been updated
Reply
13. dimentedsays:
1. Which statement is true about the One-Step lockdown feature of the CCP Security
Audit wizard?
Answer: It sets an access class ACL on vty lines.
Answer: Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to

determine if an attack was successful.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is implementing VPN support on an ASA 5505.

What type of VPN support is being implemented?
Answer: clientless SSL VPN
Reply
14. dimentedsays:
1. Which statement is true about the One-Step lockdown feature of the CCP Security
Audit wizard?
It sets an access class ACL on VTY lines.
2. With the Cisco AnyConnect VPN wizard, which two protocols can be used for
tunnel group configuration? (Choose two.)
SSH
IPsec
4.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is implementing VPN support on an ASA 5505.

What type of VPN support is being implemented?
clientless SSL VPN
NAT.
6. When configuring router security, which statement describes the most effective way
to use ACLs to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself?
user from connecting to an unsecured port.
7.
1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the security level for the
ASA. Which statement describes the default result if the administrator tries to assign
the Inside interface with the same security level as the DMZ interface?
The ASA console will display an error message.
The ASA will not allow traffic in either direction between the Inside interface and the
DMZ.
The ASA allows traffic from the Inside to the DMZ, but blocks traffic initiated on the
DMZ to the Inside interface.
The ASA allows inbound traffic initiated on the Internet to the DMZ, but not to the
Inside interface.
8. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth.
What is the effect of this setting?
authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA
method
9. What is an advantage of using SSL VPNs compared to IPsec VPNs on an ASA?

SSL VPNs do not require any pre-installed client software.
10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the classic firewall

11. What is a type of SSL VPN that provides access to a network without requiring
VPN software or a Java applet on the client?
CISCO vpn client mode
13. What is the main difference between the implementation of IDS and IPS devices?
An IDS would allow malicious traffic to pass before it is addressed, whereas an IPS
stops it immediately.
15. What method is used to authenticate SNMPv2 messages between the manager and
the agent?
community strings
16. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful

firewalls as they relate to the OSI model?
A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a
stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.
wildcard mask.

ports.
19. Why have corporations been shifting remote access security policies to include
support for ASA SSL VPNs?
to provide stronger overall security
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show secure bootset command on
router R1, which three conclusions can be drawn about Cisco IOS Resilience?
(Choose three.)

command authorization? (Choose three.).
Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a
tedious process.
Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privilege users.
24. Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems
to use in establishing an IPsec VPN?
DH
26. What is one advantage of using a Cisco ASA for remote networking VPN
deployment compared to a Cisco ISR?
support for SSL VPNs

Ccna Sec 1.1

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1.

It enables the Secure Copy Protocol (SCP).

The port is disabled. (Corrected by Elfnet)

7. Why does a worm poses a greater threat than a virus poses?

Worms run within a host program.

The violation mode for the port is set to restrict.

AH uses IP protocol 51.

12. Which statement describes the operation of the IKE protocol?

It uses IPsec to establish the key exchange process.

group policy lookup (Corrected by Elfnet)

14. What can be used as a VPN gateway when setting up a site-to-site VPN?

Cisco Catalyst switch

The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address.

19. What is a characteristic of AAA accounting?

Accounting can only be enabled for network connections.

authenticates a packet using the SHA algorithm only

There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router.

R1(config)# ip ips signature-category

The ACL must be applied to each vty line individually.

This mode does not support VPNs, QoS, or DHCP Relay. (Original)

access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 4300

The user has connected to a secure web server.

31. What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command?

aaa new-model global configuration command

Issue the logging on command in global configuration.

The user has timed out of an AnyConnect SSL VPN installation.

Create passwords with only alphanumeric characters.

38. Which type of packets exiting the network of an organization should be blocked by an

packets that are not encrypted

Disable DTP on ports that require trunking.

40. Which command would an administrator use to clear generated crypto keys?

Router(config)# crypto key decrypt

This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

permit tcp any any ack

47. What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.)

disable used ports and services

remote access VPN

50. Sales representatives of an organization use computers in hotel business centers to

client-based IPsec VPN using Cisco VPN Client (Original answer)

The authentication method list used for Telnet is named ACCESS.

aaa new-model command

A copy of the Cisco IOS image file has been made.

54. What are two disadvantages of using network IPS? (Choose two.)

Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an

55. Which statement describes the CCP Security Audit wizard?

An interface can be assigned to multiple security zones. (Original)

58. Which statement correctly describes a type of filtering firewall?

A transparent firewall is typically implemented on a PC or server with firewall software

Place generic ACL entries at the top of the ACL. (Original)

paralyze, probe, penetrate, persist, and propagate

probe, penetrate, persist, propagate, and paralyze

penetrate, persist, propagate, paralyze, and probe

persist, propagate, paralyze, probe, and penetrate

2. Which two are characteristics of DoS attacks? (Choose two.)

They always precede access attacks.

They attempt to compromise the availability of a network, host, or application.

They are commonly launched with a tool called L0phtCrack.

Examples include smurf attacks and ping of death attacks.

An access attack has occurred.

A virus has infected the computers.

The computers are subject to a reconnaissance attack.

4. What are three types of access attacks? (Choose three.)