FLIGHT PLANNING& PERFORMANCE

SELF ASSESSMENT EXAM

PPL
1. The centre of gravity of an aeroplane
a. may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's
certificate of airworthiness.
b. is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.
c. must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.
d. can be allowed to move between defined limits.
2. An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in :
a. a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.
b. an increase in longitudinal stability.
c. a reduction in power required for a given speed.
d. an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tail plane moment
3. For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be
equal to the Take-off Mass
a. less the Operating Mass.
b. plus the Operating Mass.
c. plus the Trip Fuel Mass.
d. less the Trip Fuel Mass
4. The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:
a. Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded.
b. Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel.
c. Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load.
d. Operating Mass plus all the traffic load.
5. The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew members' included within
the Dry Operating Mass lies with
a. the commander.
b. the authority of the state of registration.
c. the person compiling the weighing schedule.
d. the operator
6. The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
a. low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
b. low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
c. high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
d. high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
7. The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in
a. the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of the
aeroplane.
b. the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aeroplane must be re-weighed
always.
c. the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'.
d. the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'.
8. What effect has a centre of gravity close to the forward limit?
a. a better rate of climb capability.
b. a reduction in the specific fuel consumption.
c. a reduced rate of climb for a particular flight path.
d. a decreased induced drag.
9. The DOM of an aeroplane is:
a. TOM minus operating mass.
b. LM plus trip fuel.
c. useful load minus operating mass.
d. TOM minus useful load.

10. The operating mass of an aircraft is:

a. the dry operating mass plus the take-off fuel mass.
b. the empty mass plus the take-off fuel mass.
c. the empty mass plus crew, crew baggage and catering.
d. the empty mass plus the trip fuel mass.
11. The traffic load of an aeroplane is:
a. TOM minus operating mass.
b. LM plus trip fuel.
c. useful load minus operating mass.
d. TOM minus useful load.
12. The refuel bowser delivers 10,000 litres of fuel which is incorrectly entered on the aircraft load sheet as
10,000 kg of fuel. Is the aircraft heavier or lighter than the take-off mass recorded on the load sheet and how
would this affect the range? (Take the SG of the fuel as 0.72).
a. Heavier and would decrease the range.
b. Heavier and would increase the range.
c. Lighter and would decrease the range.
d. Lighter and would increase the range.
13. The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as
a. the lever.
b. the moment.
c. the index.
d. the moment arm or balance arm
14. For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as:
a. The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and
traffic load.
b. The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel.
c. The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load.
d. The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew
baggage.
15. If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack will
a. remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.
b. remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.
c. be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.
d. be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.
16. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
a. A decrease in the landing speed.
b. A decrease of the stalling speed.
c. A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
d. A decrease in range.
17. What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane?
a. The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.
b. The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.
c. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
d. The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.
18. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the aeroplane may
be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces
b. The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the middle between
the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity
c. A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
d. If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible that the
aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces.
19. The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes
a. the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.
b. the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.
c. traffic load plus useable fuel.
d. traffic load only
20. During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than
expected. This is an indication that :
a. the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
b. the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
c. the aeroplane is overloaded.
d. the centre of gravity is too far forward.
21. An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:
a. be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit.
b. be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit.
c. be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.
d. cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.
22. Loads must be adequately secured in order to:
a. avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage.
b. avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight.
c. prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.
d. allow steep turns.
23. The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass
a. differ by the mass of usable fuel.
b. differ by the value of the traffic load mass.
c. are the same value.
d. differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.
24. The centre of gravity is the
a. centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
b. focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
c. neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
d. point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated
25. When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
a. Stalling speeds will be higher.
b. Stalling speeds will be lower.
c. Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
d. Flight endurance will be increased.
26. A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in
approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned and
a. the landing distance will be unaffected.
b. the approach path will be steeper.
c. the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.
d. the landing distance required will be longer.
27. In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:
a. decrease longitudinal static stability
b. increase longitudinal static stability
c. does not influence longitudinal static stability
d. not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal
28. The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of :
a. The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational
items
b. The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load
c. The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.
d. The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load.
29. The maximum certificated take - off mass is :
a. a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 .
b. limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.
c. a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.
d. a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.
30. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Arm = Force / Moment
b. Moment = Force / Arm
c. Arm = Force X Moment
d. Arm = Moment / Force
31. How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?
a. Both decrease.
b. Both increase.
c. Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
d. Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
32. A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires
a. less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
b. more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
c. more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.
d. a higher coefficient of lift
33. An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide
distance:
a. increases.
b. remains the same.
c. may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.
d. Decreases
34. Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
a. The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
b. The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
c. The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
d. The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent
35. Which of the equations below defines specific range(SR)?
a. SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow
b. SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
c. SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
d. SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow
36. How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?
a. Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
b. Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
c. Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
d. Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
37. The optimum cruise altitude increases
a. if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
b. if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
c. if the tailwind component is decreased.
d. if the aeroplane mass is increased.
38. In unaccelerated climb
a. thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
b. thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
c. lift is greater than the gross weight.
d. lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag
39. The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
a. a higher V1.
b. a longer take-off run.
c. a shorter ground roll.
d. an increased acceleration
40. The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :
a. the accelerate-stop distance available.
b. the take-off run available.
c. the take-off distance available.
d. the landing distance available
41. How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during takeoff run ? The thrust
a. increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
b. varies with mass changes only.
c. has no change during take-off and climb.
d. decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
42. As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
a. VX is always below VY.
b. VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.
c. VX is always above VY.
d. VY is always above VMO.
43. Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
a. Low mass.
b. High mass.
c. Headwind.
d. Tailwind.
44. On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased
a. by headwind.
b. by low outside air temperature.
c. by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
d. by uphill slope.
45. With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about :
a. 3°
b. 3%
c. 5°
d. 8%
46. Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining
the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
a. Headwind.
b. Tailwind.
c. Increase of aircraft mass.
d. Decrease of aircraft mass.
47. Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:
a. lower than that for clean configuration.
b. higher than that for clean configuration.
c. same as that for clean configuration.
d. changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.
48. The speed V1 is defined as
a. take-off climb speed.
b. speed for best angle of climb.
c. engine failure speed.
d. take-off decision speed
49. The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
a. 0 ft/min
b. 125 ft/min
c. 500 ft/min
d. 100 ft/min
50. What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF?
a. 1.10 VSO
b. 1.20 VSO
c. 1.30 VSO
d. 1.05 VSO