Aakash AIATS 03 Class 11

Answer keys : AIATS for Two Year Medical-2023 (XI Studying)_Test-03
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.
Question : 1
When a car makes a sharp turn at a high speed, the passengers tend to get thrown to other side due to
Options:
Inertia of rest
Inertia of motion
Inertia of direction
Both (1) & (2)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Due to inertia of direction, passengers tend to get thrown to outward side (opposite to direction of turn)
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 2
A body is moving under the action of two forces and . Its velocity will become uniform
under an additional third force , given by
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: For equilibrium

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 3
A boy of mass 40 kg wants to climb up a rope hanging vertically. The rope can withstand a maximum tension of 600 N. The
maximum acceleration with which the boy can climb the rope is (g = 10 m/s2)
Options:
10 m/s2
5 m/s2
2.5 m/s2
7.5 m/s2
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: T – mg = ma

Sol.: Let the maximum tension in string is T.

T – mg = ma
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 4
Which among the following is not a contact force?
Options:
Friction force
Buoyant force
Viscous force
Electric force
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Electric force is not a contact force.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 5
Match entries in Column-I with entries in Column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Limiting friction P. Has magnitude μk N
B. Static friction Q. Maximum value of static friction
C. Kinetic friction R. Is a self adjusting force
Options:
A → P, B → Q, C → R
A → R, B → P, C → Q
A → Q, B → R, C → P
A → Q, B → P, C → R
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Static friction is a self-adjusting force, it can be greater than, less than or equal to kinetic friction.
Limiting friction = (Fs)max = μsN
Kinetic friction = μkN

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 6
A car of mass 1200 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 120 m on a smooth road. If the banking angle is 37°, the speed of
the car for safe turn is
Options:
20 m/s
30 m/s
40 m/s
25 m/s
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:

Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 7
A body of mass 2 kg is acted on by a force F which varies with time t as shown in the figure. The momentum gained by the body
at the end of 5 s is

Options:
80 N s
75 N s
65 N s
60 N s
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Δp = Area under F-t curve

Sol.:
= 60 + 15
= 75 N s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 8
A mobile is lying on a table. The angle between the action of mobile on the table and the reaction of table on mobile is
Options:
0°
45°
90°
180°
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Action and reaction force act on different bodies.

Sol.:

⇒ Angle between action and reaction is 180°.

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 9
A car is moving on a track with constant speed as shown in figure. The apparent weight of the car is (curvature at B and C are
same)

Options:
Same at A, B and C
Minimum at A
Minimum at B
Minimum at C
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:

Sol.: At point A, R = ∞, NA = mg

At point B,

At point C,

∴ Apparent weight of car is minimum at C.

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 10
When an object is in translational equilibrium then
Options:
Net force is acting on it
It must be at rest
Its net acceleration must be zero
Its velocity must be non-zero
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & sol.: When a body is in translational equilibrium then net force acting on it is zero i.e. anet = 0 but body may be at rest or
moving with constant velocity.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 11
A ball of mass m hits the smooth floor with speed u making an angle θ with normal. The coefficient of restitution is e. The angle
of reflection of ball with the normal is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:

Sol.:

… (i)

… (ii)

Dividing (i) by (ii)

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 12
A force acts on an object moving in x-y plane. The magnitude of change in linear momentum of the object
in time interval t = 0 to t = 4 s is
Options:
32 N s
64 N s
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 13
In an elastic collision
Options:
Kinetic energy of system always remains constant
Kinetic energy of system first increases then decreases
Kinetic energy of system before collision is equal to kinetic energy of system after collision
The final kinetic energy of system is greater than the initial kinetic energy of the system
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: In elastic collision

KEBefore collision = KEAfter collision

During collision some part of KE is converted to elastic potential energy.

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 14
A piece of wire is bent in shape of a parabola y = 4x2 (y-axis is taken as vertical) with a bead of mass 20 g on it. The bead can
slide on the wire without friction. It stays at the lowermost point of the parabola when the wire is at rest. The wire is now
accelerated parallel to x-axis with a constant acceleration 4 m/s2. The distance of new equilibrium position of the bead from the
axis of parabola, is
Options:
10 cm
5 cm
17 cm
2.5 cm
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:

Sol.:

x = 5 cm
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 15
An elevator weighing 200 kg is to be lifted up at a constant velocity of 0.4 m/s. What would be the minimum horse power of the
motor to be used?
Options:
1.07 hp
2.5 hp
4.02 hp
3.04 hp
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:

Sol.: P = Fv = mgv
= 200 × 10 × 0.4
= 800 W
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 16
A body of mass 2 kg travels along x axis, such that its position as a function of time is given by x(t) = αt + βt2 + t3 , where α =
3 m/s, β = 2 m/s2 and = 4 m/s3. The force acting on the body at time t = 3 s is
Options:
152 N
76 N
38 N
304 N
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:

Sol.:

F = ma = 2 × 76 = 152 N
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 17
Two springs P and Q having spring constants KP and KQ(KP = 3KQ) are stretched by applying forces of equal magnitude at
their ends. If energy stored in spring P is E then energy stored in spring Q will be
Options:
3E
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:

Sol.: [∵ F1 = F2]

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 18
Two identical balls A and B collides head on elastically. If velocities of A and B were 0.1 m/s and –0.2 m/s respectively, then
their velocities after the collision are respectively
Options:
0.1 m/s, –0.2 m/s
–0.2 m/s, 0.1 m/s
0.2 m/s, –0.1 m/s
– 0.1 m/s, 0.2 m/s
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: For elastic head-on collision of identical bodies, velocities get interchanged after the collision.
Sol.: u1 = 0.1 m/s and u2 = –0.2 m/s

Hence v1 = u2 = – 0.2 m/s

v2 = u1 = 0.1 m/s
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 19
The position-time graph of a body of mass 1 kg is as shown in the figure. The impulse on the body at t = 2 s is

Options:
4 kg m/s
–5 kg m/s
–3 kg m/s
Zero
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Impulse = (change in momentum)

Sol.: Velocity of body just before t = 2 s is

Velocity just after the t = 2 s is vf = 0

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 20
A rocket of mass m is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of . The initial thrust of the blast is
Options:
mg
2mg
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: FTh – mg = ma

Sol.: FTh = m(g + a)

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 21
A block of mass 2 kg hangs in equilibrium with the help of two strings OP and OQ as shown in figure. The tension in the strings
T1 and T2 are respectively

Options:
10 N, 10 N
10 N,
20 N, 20 N
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: At equilibrium

Sol.: From Lami’s theorem,

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 22
If force acting on a body is inversely proportional to its speed, then its kinetic energy is
Options:
Inversely proportional to time
Inversely proportional to square of time
Linearly related with time
A constant
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 23
A force acting on a body maintains its velocity at . The instantaneous power delivered
by the force is
Options:
4W
8W
16 W
10 W
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:

Sol.:

=8+2–6=4W
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 24
The work done by a body against the friction always results in
Options:
Loss of kinetic energy
Gain of kinetic energy
Gain in potential energy
Loss in potential energy
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & sol.: The work done against friction always results in loss of kinetic energy of the body.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 25
The negative of the work done by the conservative forces on a system is equal to
Options:
Total mechanical energy
Potential energy
Kinetic energy
Change in potential energy
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & sol.: ΔU = –WC
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 26
Coefficient of restitution (e) for perfectly inelastic collision is
Options:
Zero
–1
Infinite
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & sol.: , because for perfectly inelastic collision vsep = 0.

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 27
A force (F) acting on an object varies with position x as shown in the figure. The work done by the force in moving the object
from x = 0 to x = 2 m is

Options:
20 J
10 J
5J
15 J
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Work = Area under F-x curve

Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 28
The variation of force F acting on a body, moving along x-axis varies with its position (x), is shown in the figure. The body is in
unstable equilibrium at point

Options:
Both (1) and (2)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: For equilibrium, force F should be zero.

is in equilibrium.
Sol.: At point P and Q force F is zero i.e., body
For unstable equilibrium if Δx < 0 then F < 0 and Δx > 0 then F >
0.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 29
A force acts on a particle moving in y direction, where F is in N and y in metre. The work done by this force
to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 2 m is
Options:
10 J
20 J
30 J
40 J
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:

Sol.:

= (20 – 0) + (20 – 0)
= 40 J
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 30
A block of mass m moving with velocity v0 on a smooth horizontal surface hits the spring of spring constant 2k as shown in the
figure. The maximum compression in spring is

Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Use mechanical energy conservation.

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 31
A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force where and are unit
vectors along x and y axis respectively. The power developed by the force at any time t is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 32
A small ball is released from the top inside a vertical circular pipe as shown in figure. The angle θ with vertical, where ball will
lose the contact with inner wall of pipe will be (consider thickness of pipe small as compared to radius of circle)

Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For losing contact, N = 0.
Sol.:
… (i)

From mechanical energy conservation,

… (ii)

From (i) & (ii),
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 33
A body of mass 2 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s (in metres) as , where t is in second.
The work done by the force in 2 s is
Options:
2J
4J
1J
6J
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:

Sol.:

v=t
a = 1 m/s2

W=2×2=4J
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 34
A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle 60° with horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its flight will
be
Options:
Zero
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: At highest point vertical component of velocity becomes zero.
Sol.: At highest point v = u cos60°
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 35
A ball of mass 1 kg and another ball of mass 4 kg are dropped together from a 20 m tall building. After a fall of 10 m towards
ground, their respective kinetic energies will be in ratio of (neglect air friction)
Options:
1:2
1:4
1:3
1:1
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:

Sol.: After dropping through same distance their velocities will be same.

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions
Question : 36
A block of mass 2 kg lies on a smooth horizontal table and is connected to another freely hanging block of mass 1 kg by a light
inextensible string passing over a smooth fixed pulley as shown in figure. Initially system is at rest and 2 kg mass is at a
distance of 2 m from the pulley. The time taken by 2 kg block to reach the pulley is

Options:
0.6 s
0.5 s
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 37
An ideal string passing over a clamped pulley of mass m supports a block of mass 2m as shown in the figure. The force on the
pulley by the clamp is given as

Options:
2mg
Zero
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Pulley is in equilibrium. So,

Sol.: From FBD of pulley,

Since T = 2mg
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 38
A boy of mass 35 kg standing stationary w.r.t. a horizontal conveyor belt that is accelerating with 2 m/s2. The net force on the
boy is

Options:
35 N
70 N
420 N
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Fnet = ma

Sol.: Since boy is stationary w.r.t. conveyor belt. Hence, boy is accelerating with acceleration of belt.
Now, from Fnet = ma
Fnet = 35 × 2 = 70 N
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 39
A car is moving on a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle of α. The coefficient of friction between the tyres
of the car and the road is μ. The minimum safe velocity on this road is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Draw FBD and use Fnet = mac

Sol.:
… (i)

… (ii)

… (iii)

From eq.(i) & (iii)

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 40
Two blocks of mass m1 and m2 are connected by an ideal string which is passing over a smooth pulley as shown in the figure.
All the surfaces are smooth. The acceleration of the blocks is (m1 > m2)

Options:
Zero
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Fnet = ma

Sol.: From FBD of both blocks,

… (i)

… (ii)

From (i) & (ii),

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 41
A block of mass is released from the top of an inclined smooth surface as shown in figure. If spring constant of spring is
90 N/m and block comes to rest after compressing the spring by 1 m, then the distance travelled by block before it comes to rest
is
Options:
1m
2m
3m
4m
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Use law of conservation of mechanical energy.
Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 42
A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with speed 10 m/s collides head on with another stationary ball of mass 4 kg. If after collision
both balls move together, then loss in kinetic energy of system due to collision will be
Options:
100 J
200 J
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:

Sol.: Here collision is perfectly inelastic then e = 0

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 43
The potential energy of a particle in a force field is given as , where A and B are positive constants and r is the
distance of particle from the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: for equilibrium.

Sol.:

You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 44 skipped
A small ball of mass m moving with speed , undergoes an elastic head-on collision with a stationary identical bob of a
simple pendulum having length l. The maximum height (h) from the equilibrium position to which the bob rise after collision is

Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Use momentum conservation and mechanical energy conservation.
Sol.: From momentum conservation
mv + 0 = mv1
From mechanical energy conservation law,

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 45
A body of mass 1 kg is thrown vertically upward with a velocity 10 m/s. It momentarily come to rest after attaining a height of 4
m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10 m/s2)
Options:
5J
20 J
30 J
10 J
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Loss in energy = KEi – mgh

Sol.: mgh + loss due to air friction = KEi

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 46
Three blocks A, B and C of masses 5 kg, 3 kg and 2 kg respectively are connected by a light inextensible string and they move
on a smooth horizontal plane. A force of 20 N is applied to the block C as shown in figure. The tension T2 is

Options:
10 N
16 N
15 N
5N
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:

Sol.:

You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Frictional force acting between two bodies can be reduced by
Options:
Using lubricants
Using ball bearings
Maximizing the interlocking between surface of two bodies
Both (1) & (2)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & sol.: Frictional force can be reduced by using lubricants, ball bearing or minimizing the interlocking between object and
surfaces.
You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
A body of mass 1 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = 5x3/2. The work done by the net force during its displacement
from x = 0 to x = 1 m is
Options:
12.5 J
25 J
50 J
100 J
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: W = ΔK

Sol.:

v(x = 0) = 0
v(x = 1 m) =
5 m/s

= 12.5 J
You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
During inelastic collision between two bodies which of the following quantities always remains conserved?
Options:
Total mechanical energy
Total kinetic energy
Total linear momentum
Linear momentum of each body
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Total linear momentum in any type of collision always remains conserved.
You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
A mass of 2 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If the mass moves with 300 revolutions per minute, then its kinetic
energy would be
Options:
500π2 J
100π2 J
100 J
20π2 J
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:

Sol.:

v = Rω = 10π m/s

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 51
Oxidation state of middle carbon of C3O2 molecule is
Options:
–2
+2
–4
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: C3O2 is O = C = C = C = O

Sol.:

• Oxidation number of middle carbon is 0.

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 52
Which of the following reactions is/are disproportionation reaction?

(a)
(b)
(c)

(d)
Select the correct option from the following.
Options:
(a) and (b) only
(c) and (d) only
(a), (b) and (d) only
(d) only
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: In disproportionation reaction, same element of a species is oxidised as well as reduced.
Sol.:
•
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Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 53
The correct order of Cl-compounds in its increasing order of oxidation state is
Options:
HClO4, ClF3, Cl2, BrCl
BrCl, Cl2, ClF3, HClO4
HClO4, ClF3, BrCl, Cl2
Cl2, ClF3, BrCl, HClO4
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In BrCl, oxidation number of Cl is –1.

Sol.:

(Increasing order of oxidation states of Cl)

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Chem-Section A
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Question : 54
Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

Options:
I only
Both I and II
Both I and III
I, II and III
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Double bond at bridgehead position is not possible.

Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 55
Given below are two statements :

applicable to compounds containing nitrogen in azo and nitro groups.
Statement I : Kjeldahl method is not
Statement II : Compounds containing nitrogen in azo and nitro group do not give ammonium sulphate when
treated with
concentrated H2SO4.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Both statement I and statement II are correct
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In Kjeldahl method, nitrogen in the compound gets converted to ammonium sulphate.

groups, as nitrogen of these
Sol.: Kjeldahl method is not applicable to the compounds containing nitrogen in nitro and azo
compounds does not release ammonia gas.
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 56
Most stable carbocation among the following is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Electron donating group present at para position to the given cations will stabilise the cation by resonance.
Sol.:.–OH is electron donating group and stabilises the benzyl cation by +R effect.
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 57
The number of structural isomers possible for the molecular formula C4H8 is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: C4H8 has one degree of unsaturation.

Sol.: Possible structural isomers of C4H8 are

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Chem-Section A
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Question : 58
Which of the following order is correct with respect to +I effect of the substituents?
Options:
–CH = CH2 > –CH2 – CH3 > – O–
–O– > –CH = CH2 > – CH2 – CH3
–O– > – CH2 – CH3 > – CH = CH2
– CH2 – CH3 > – CH = CH2 > – O–
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: +I effect of sp3 hybridised carbon is greater than that of sp2 hybridised carbon.
Sol.: +I effect order
–O– > – CH2 – CH3 > – CH = CH2

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Chem-Section A
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Question : 59
The IUPAC name of the given compound is

Options:
4-Propyl-2-methylpent-4-en-3-one
4-Methyl-2-propylpent-1-en-3-one
2-Methyl-4-methylidenehept-3-one
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: The longest chain is one which contains functional group and double bond

Sol.:

IUPAC name :

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 60
Which of the following statements is incorrect for a nucleophile?
Options:
Nucleophile attacks at electron deficient site
All nucleophiles are Lewis base
H2O is a nucleophile
Nucleophiles are electron seeking species
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Electrophiles are electron seeking species.
Sol.: Nucleophiles are nucleus loving or electron
rich species and attack at electron deficient centre.
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Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 61
Consider the following species

I.
II.

III.

Hyperconjugation occurs in
Options:
I and III
I only
II only
III only
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For hyperconjugation, atleast 1 α hydrogen should be present.
Sol.:
(I) ;0αH

(II)

(III)

Due to 2 α H, structure III will show hyperconjugation.

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 62
In Duma’s method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.5 g of an organic compound gave 50 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K
temperature and 730 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
nearly
Options:
4.7%
16.8%
24.2%
10.5%
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:

Sol.: According to combined gas law

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Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 63
Most basic species among the following is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Weaker acids have stronger conjugated bases.
Sol.: Negative charge is more stable on carbon atom
having more s-character, hence alkynes have more acidic H
• s-character order of carbon carrying negative charge : > >
• is more basic than because of +I effect of CH3 group.
• Basic strength : >

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Chem-Section A
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Question : 64
The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanals is
Options:
CnH2nO2
CnH2nO
CnH2n+1O
Cn+1H2n+2O
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In alkanals, functional group is –CHO.
Sol.: General formula of alkanals is CnH2nO
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 65
Which of the following reaction is not the reduction of underlined species?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Hydrogen is more electronegative than calcium.

Sol.: Addition of hydrogen to alkali or alkaline earth metals is oxidation of the metal.

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 66
Intensity of blue colour of aqueous solution increases by placing
Options:
Zn rod in aqueous solution of AgNO3
Cu rod in aqueous solution of AgNO3
Zn rod in aqueous solution of CuSO4
Ag rod in aqueous solution of CuSO4
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Cu2+ (aq) is of blue colour.

Sol.: Cu(s) + 2Ag+ → Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s)

Ag+ can oxidise Cu(s) and form Cu2+(aq) which is blue in colour.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 67
Correct order of rate of electrophilic substitution reaction is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Greater is the electron density on ring, greater is the rate of electrophilic substitution reaction.
Sol.: Rate of electrophilic substitution
Stronger is +R effect greater is the electron density on the ring

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 68
Maximum priority among the following functional group during IUPAC nomenclature is of
Options:
–CN
–CHO
>C = O
–NH2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint and Sol.: The priority order of functional groups in IUPAC nomenclature is, as

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 69
Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
a. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3.xH2O (i) Yellow
b. (NH4)3PO4.12MoO3 (ii) Prussian Blue
c. [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– (iii) Violet
d. [Fe(SCN)]2+ (iv) Blood red
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3.xH2O shows Prussian blue colour.

Sol.:
• (NH4)3PO4.12MoO3 Yellow colour
• [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– Violet colour
• [Fe(SCN)]2+ Blood red colour

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 70
How many tertiary carbon is/are present in neopentyl chloride?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: is neopentyl chloride.

Sol.: Neo-pentyl chloride contains 1 quaternary carbon, 4 primary carbon and 0 tertiary carbon.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 71
In which of the following molecules resonance is not possible?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Resonance is possible in conjugated system.

Sol.: is non-conjugated diene, therefore resonance is not possible.

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 72
Methylbutanoate and pentanoic acid are
Options:
Chain isomers
Position isomers
Functional isomers
Metamers
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Molecules having same molecular formula but different functional groups are called functional isomers.
Sol.: CH3CH2CH2CO2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2 COOH have same molecular formula (i.e. C5H10O2) but
different functional
groups (i.e. ester and carboxylic acid) therefore, are functional isomers of each other.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 73
Statement-I : Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography.

chromatography.
Statement-II : Thin layer chromatography (TLC) is another type of adsorption
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Both statement I and statement II are correct
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Adsorption chromatography is based on the fact that different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.
Sol.:
• Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography.

• TLC is another type of adsorption chromatography.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 74
Number of canonical structures possible for phenol is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: In phenol, lone pair of oxygen atom is involved in resonance.
Sol.:
There are five canonical structures possible for phenol.

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 75
Which of the following method is used to remove only temporary hardness of water?
Options:
Treatment with sodium hexametaphosphate
Treatment with lime
Treatment with zeolite
Treatment with washing soda
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Temporary hardness is due to presence of magnesium and calcium hydrogen carbonates.
Sol.:
• In Clark’s method, lime is used to remove temporary hardness of water

Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3↓+ 2H2O
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2 →2CaCO3↓ + Mg(OH)2↓ + 2H2O
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 76
Which of the following can exhibit more than one oxidation states in its compounds?
Options:
Al
Mg
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Fluorine always shows –1 oxidation state in its compounds.
Sol.: Mg always show +2 while Al always show +3 oxidation state,
oxygen can show +2, –1, –2 oxidation states in its compounds.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 77
Redox reaction among the following is
Options:
Na + HCl NaCl + H2
Na2O + HCl NaCl + H2O
NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O
Na2CO3 + HCl NaCl + H2O + CO2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: In non-redox reaction, oxidation number of each atom in the reaction remains constant.

Sol.:

It is a redox reaction
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 78
Given the following reactions involving A, B, C and D

(i) C+ + A No reaction

(ii) A+ + B B+ + A

(iii) B+ + D D+ + B

(iv) C + D+ C+ + D
Maximum reducing power
is of
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: A cannot reduce C+, therefore reducing power of C is greater than A.
Sol.:
→ B can reduce A+ ∴ reducing power of B > A

→ D can reduce B+ ∴ reducing power of D > A

→ C can reduce D+ ∴ reducing power of C > D.

Hence maximum reducing power is of C.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 79
Which of the following salts does not cause permanent hardness to water?
Options:
CaCl2
MgCl2
CaSO4
NaCl
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Dissolved sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium are responsible for permanent hardness of water.
Sol.: Dissolution of NaCl does not cause hardness to water of any type (temporary or permanent).
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 80
Al4C3 on reaction with heavy water forms
Options:
C2D2
CD4
C3D4
C2D6
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Al4C3 contains methanide (C4–) ion.

Sol.: Al4C3 + 12D2O 4Al(OH)3 + 3CD4

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 81
Consider the following species

The interstitial water association is observed in
Options:
(a) and (b) only
(b) only
(c) only
(b) and (c) only
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. : In BaCl2.2H2O interstitial water association is present.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 82
Volume of O2 gas obtained at STP by 200 ml of 5 V H2O2 solution is
Options:
0.5 L
1L
2L
5L
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: 1 L of 5 V H2O2 solution gives 5 L of O2 gas at STP.

Sol.: 1 L of solution gives 5 L O2 at STP.

200 mL of solution gives = 1 L of O2

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 83
High purity dihydrogen is obtained by
Options:
Reaction of granulated zinc with dilute H2SO4
Reaction of zinc with aqueous alkali
Electrolysis of acidified water using platinum electrodes
Electrolysis of warm aqueous barium hydroxide solution between nickel electrodes
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint and Sol.: Electrolysis of warm aqueous barium hydroxide solution between nickel electrodes gives high purity (>> 99.95%)
dihydrogen.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 84
Syn gas is a mixture of
Options:
CO + H2
CO2 + H2
CO + N2
CO2 + H2O
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Mixture of CO and N2 is known as producer gas.

Sol.: Mixture of CO and H2 is known as water gas or syn gas

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 85
The standard electrode potential (E°) values of Mg2+/Mg, Ag+/Ag, Zn2+/Zn and Fe2+/Fe are –2.36 V, 0.80 V, –0.76 V and –
0.44 V respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of the metals is
Options:
Fe > Mg > Zn > Ag
Ag > Mg > Zn > Fe
Mg > Zn > Fe > Ag
Fe > Ag > Zn > Mg
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Greater is the standard reduction potential, lesser is the reducing power of metal.
Sol.:
Reducing power : Mg > Zn > Fe > Ag

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 86
A tertiary butyl carbanion is less stable than a secondary butyl carbanion because of which of the following?
Options:
+R effect of –CH3 groups
–R effect of –CH3 groups
Hyperconjugation
+I effect of –CH3 groups
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Greater is the +I effect, lesser is the stability of carbanion.

Sol.:

Due to +I effect of three alkyl groups tertiary butyl carbanion is less stable than secondary butyl carbanion.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 87
How many sp2 hybridised carbon atoms and π bonds are present respectively in the following compound?

Options:
10 and 5
10 and 6
9 and 5
9 and 6
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Carbon atom forming two pi bonds is sp-hybridised.

Sol.:

Given molecule contains 9sp2 hybridised carbon atoms and 6π bonds.

You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
In which of the following, all atoms are coplanar?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Species containing sp3 hybridised carbon atom is non-planar.

Sol.:

Since all the π bonds in the given molecule are in conjugation, therefore the molecule should be planar.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 89
For the redox reaction

The correct coefficient of the reactants for the balanced equation are
H+
(1) 1 3 7
(2) 2 3 14
(3) 1 3 14
(4) 3 1 7
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: In balanced redox reaction, total loss of electrons by reducing agent should be equal to total gain of electrons by oxidising
agent.

Sol.: Balanced redox reaction is

Coefficient of , and H+ are respectively 1, 3 and 14.

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 90
Some statements about isotopes of hydrogen are given below.

(a) Predominant form is protium.
(b) Among the three isotopes of hydrogen, deuterium is radioactive.

(c) Density of tritium is maximum as compared to other isotopes.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Options:
(a) and (b) only
(a) and (c) only
(b) and (c) only
(a), (b) and (c)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Protium is

Sol.:

• Most abundant form of hydrogen is protium (i.e. )

• Among three isotopes, tritium is radioactive

• Property H2 D2 T2
Density 0.09 g L–1 0.18 g L–1 0.27 g L–1

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 91
Maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed by a H2O molecule is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: In H2O, both hydrogen and oxygen form hydrogen bonding.

Sol.: Maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed by H2O is four i.e. two hydrogen bonds via hydrogen atoms and two hydrogen
bonds via oxygen atom.

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 92
Electron precise hydride among the following is
Options:
NaH
H2O
CH4
B2H6
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Electron precise hydrides are types of covalent hydrides.
Sol.:
• NaH → Ionic hydride

• H2O → Electron rich covalent hydride
• CH4 → Electron precise covalent hydride
• B2H6 → Electron deficient covalent hydride

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 93
Non-benzenoid homocyclic aromatic compound among the following is
Options:
Pyridine
Tropone
Thiophene
Aniline
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Benzenoid compounds contains benzene ring.

Sol.: (Tropone)

Tropone is non-benzenoid homocyclic aromatic compound
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 94
Electromeric effect is not possible in
Options:
CH3 – CH = CH2
CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3
CH3 – CH2 – CH3
CH2 = CH2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Complete shifting of π bonds towards one of the bonded atom on demand of reagent is known as electromeric effect.
Sol.: CH3 – CH2 – CH3 contains no π bonds therefore does not show electromeric effect.
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of in alkaline medium as,

is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.:
3 mol requires 8 mol

∴ 1 mol requires mol

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 96
Equivalent mass of FeS2 in the given reaction is

FeS2 → Fe3+ + SO2 (M = Molar mass of FeS2)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Equivalent mass =

Sol.:

n factor = 11

Equivalent mass =
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 97
The oxide which cannot undergo disproportionation reaction is
Options:
SO2
N2O3
CO
P2O5
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Simultaneous oxidation and reduction of same species is known as disproportionation.
Sol.: P2O5 cannot show disproportionation as phosphorous cannot be further oxidised.
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Oxidation number of nitrogen is fractional in
Options:
NH3
N3H
N2H4
NO
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In N2H4, oxidation number of nitrogen is –2.

Sol.:

NO : O.N of nitrogen = –2

NH3 : O.N. of nitrogen = –3

N3H : O.N. of nitrogen =

You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Which of the following can be used in salt bridge?
Options:
AlCl3
NaCl
KCl
LiCl
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: For salt bridge, ionic mobilities of cation and anion should be similar.

Sol.: KCl is generally used in salt bridge due to similar ionic mobilities of K+ and Cl–.
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Self indicator among the following is
Options:
Phenolphthalein
Methyl orange
Starch
Potassium permanganate
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint and Sol.: KMnO4 acts as a self indicator since the colour of KMnO4 (pink) persists at the end point
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 101
In roots, root hairs arise from the region of
Options:
Elongation
Maturation
Meristematic activity
Root cap
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Root hairs arise from epidermal region.

Sol.: Root hairs arise from the maturation region.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 102
Stilt roots and prop roots are similar in all of the following aspects, except
Options:
Provide support
Are adventitious roots
Arise from stem
Modify to store food
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Stilt root arises from lower node of stem and prop root arises from heavy branches.
Sol.: Both are adventitious roots and provide support. None of them store food.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 103
Pneumatophores
Options:
Are seen in plants of swampy area
Grow by creeping on ground surface
Are also called storage roots
Have stomata for respiration
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Pneumatophores are respiratory roots.

Sol.: Pneumatophores have lenticels for respiration.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 104
In which of the following plants, underground stem is the edible part?
Options:
Onion
Sweet potato
Turnip
Ginger
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Rhizome is modified underground stem for food storage.
Sol.: Onion – Fleshy leaves are edible.
Sweet potato and Turnip – Roots are edible.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 105
Tendril of cucumber differ from peas as the former
Options:
Is modified leaf
Helps in climbing
Is modification of axillary buds
Supports weak stem
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Tendrils are meant for providing support to weak stem.
Sol.: In cucumber, tendril is modified axillary bud whereas in
pea it is a modification of leaves.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 106
Eichhornia vegetatively propagate through
Options:
Sucker
Runner
Rhizome
Offset
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Eichhornia vegetatively propagates by sub aerial stem.
Sol.: Eichhornia propagates by offset.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 107
Select the correct one for modified aerial stem of Opuntia.
Options:
It is also called phyllode
Stem performs the function of photosynthesis
It has small green leaves
Stem is green and woody
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In Opuntia, stem modifies into phylloclade.

Sol.: In phylloclade, stem is fleshy, green and photosynthetic with modified leaves.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 108
Find the wrongly matched pair.
Options:
Alternate phyllotaxy – Sunflower
Pinnately compound leaves – Silk cotton
Whorled phyllotaxy – Alstonia
Opposite phyllotaxy – Guava
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In pinnately compound leaves, leaflets are present on rachis.
Sol.: Silk cotton has palmately compound leaves whereas neem has
pinnately compound leaves.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 109
In which of the following plants, petiole performs the function of photosynthesis and leaves are reduced?
Options:
Australian Acacia
Euphorbia
Venus fly trap
Cactus
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: In some plants, stem becomes photosynthetic like cactus and Euphorbia.

Sol.: In Australian Acacia, petiole is modified and photosynthetic called phyllode.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 110
Thorns seen in Citrus are modifications of
Options:
Axillary buds
Leaves
Flowers
Floral buds
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Thorns are modified stem.

Sol.: In Citrus, thorns are modification of axillary buds.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 111
Mark the option that incorrectly differentiates between racemose and cymose inflorescence.
Racemose inflorescence Cymose inflorescence

(1) Main axis terminates into flower Main axis grow always
(2) Flowers borne in acropetal order Flowers borne in basipetal order
(3) Older flowers are present at the base Older flower is at top
(4) Main axis shows unlimited growth Main axis shows limited growth
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: In racemose inflorescence, main axis has unlimited growth.
Sol.: In cymose inflorescence, main axis terminates into a flower
while in racemose main axis always grows.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 112
Choose the odd one for actinomorphic flower.
Options:
Chilli
Cassia
Mustard
Tomato
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Members of Solanaceae family have actinomorphic flowers.
Sol.: Cassia has zygomorphic flowers.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 113
In ray florets of sunflower

a. Ovary is inferior.
b. Flower is said to be hypogynous.

c. Ovary occupies highest position.
Choose the correct one(s)
Options:
a only
a and b
b and c
b only
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Ray florets are epigynous.

Sol.: Ray florets have inferior ovary so ovary occupies lowest position.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 114
Petals of which of the given plants show valvate aestivation?
Options:
Cassia
Calotropis
China rose
Cotton
Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Petals and sepals in Calotropis have valvate aestivation.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 115
Mark the incorrect match
Options:
Sterile stamen – Staminode
Monoadelphous stamens – Pea
Vexillary aestivation – Bean
Polyadelphous stamens – Citrus
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In monoadelphous condition, all stamens are united in one bundle.
Sol.: China rose – Monodelphous stamens
Pea – Diadelphous stamens
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 116
Match the columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Epipetalous stamen (i) Lotus
b. Apocarpous gynoecium (ii) Brinjal
c. Basal placentation (iii) Tomato
d. Syncarpous gynoecium (iv) Sunflower
Options:
a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Members of Solanaceae family have epipetalous stamens.
Sol.: Brinjal – Epipetalous stamens
Tomato – Syncarpous gynoecium
Sunflower – Basal placentation
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 117
Mark the wrong statement.
Options:
Flower of Salvia has variable length of filaments of stamens
After fertilisation ovary wall forms pericarp
Pea has axile placentation
A carpel consists of ovary, style and stigma
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Members of family Fabaceae have marginal placentation.
Sol.: Pea has marginal placentation.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 118
Identify the feature not true for mango fruit.
Options:
Develops from monocarpellary ovary
Mostly one seeded
Has fleshy, juicy mesocarp
Endocarp is fibrous edible part
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Drupe fruits have hard stony endocarp.

Sol.: Endocarp of mango is stony while mesocarp is fleshy, juicy edible part.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 119
Which one is a pseudocarp?
Options:
Banana
Coconut
Apple
Grapes
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Pseudocarp are false fruits.
Sol.: Apple is a false fruit.
Banana and Grapes are parthenocarpic fruits.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 120
Single large cotyledon of maize seed is called
Options:
Scutellum
Coleorhiza
Aleurone layer
Epiblast
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Remains of second cotyledon is called epiblast.

Sol.: Single large cotyledon of maize seed is called scutellum.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 121
Perisperm is
Options:
Remnant of nucellus
Found in maize seed
Another name of endosperm
Found in all dicot plants
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Perisperm is remnant of nucellus.
Sol.: Perisperm is found in black pepper
and beet.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 122
Which of the given symbols is used in floral formula to represent epipetalous stamens?
Options:
C(n)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Epipetalous stamens are united to petals.
Sol.: shows epipetalous condition.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 123
Papilionaceous corolla is seen in
Options:
Gram
Tomato
Chilli
Lily
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Members of Fabaceae has papilionaceous corolla.

Sol.: Gram (Fabaceae family) has papilionaceous corolla.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 124
Identify the medicinal plant of Fabaceae family.
Options:
Lupin
Indigofera
Muliathi
Sesbania
Solution :
Answer (3)
Sol.: Muliathi is a medicinal plant of Fabaceae family.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 125
Persistent calyx are seen in
Options:
Sweet pea
Chilli
Lily
Soyabean
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Members of Solanaceae have persistent calyx.

Sol.: Chilli being a member of Solanaceae has persistent calyx.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 126
Which of the given features cannot be seen in flowers of lily?

a. Superior ovary
b. Petals with 3+3 arrangement

c. Bisexual flowers
d. 6+6 arrangement of stamens
Options:
a and b
b and d
b and c
d only
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In flowers of lily, calyx and corolla are not distinct.
Sol.: Lily has 6 tepals and 6 stamens in 3+3 arrangement.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 127
_______ is the scar present on seed coat.

Fill the blank by choosing correct option.
Options:
Micropyle
Hilum
Funicle
Chalaza
Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Hilum is the scar on the seed coat.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 128
Deoxyribonucleic acid is synthesized in
Options:
G1 phase
S-phase
M-phase
G2 phase
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Genetic material duplicates in S phase

Sol.: DNA is synthesized in S phase of cell cycle.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 129
Crossing-over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place during
Options:
Diplotene
Pachytene
Diakinesis
Leptotene
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Crossing-over is exchange of genetic material between two non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
Sol.: Crossing-over takes place during pachytene stage of meiosis I.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 130
ER and nucleolus reappear in which phase of mitosis?
Options:
Telophase
Metaphase
Prophase
Anaphase
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: ER and nucleolus reappear in last stage of karyokinesis.
Sol.: Last stage of karyokinesis is telophase.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 131
Select the odd one w.r.t. cytokinesis in plant cell.
Options:
Cell plate formation
Phragmoplast formation
Centrifugal development of cell wall
Furrow formation
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Cytokinesis through furrow formation occurs in those cells that lack cell wall.
Sol.: Furrow formation takes place in animal cells as they lack cell wall.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 132
Sister chromatids separate and there is splitting of centromere in
Options:
Anaphase I
Anaphase of mitosis
Anaphase II
Both (2) and (3)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Mitotic anaphase and anaphase II both are equational divisions.

anaphase II.
Sol.: Splitting of centromere takes place in both anaphase of mitosis and
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 133
Morphology and shapes of the chromosomes are best studied in and phases of cell cycle respectively.

Select the correct option for A and B.
Options:
A – Anaphase, B – Metaphase
A – Metaphase, B – Telophase
A – Metaphase, B – Anaphase
A – Prophase, B – Telophase
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Morphology of chromosomes is best studied in Metaphase.
Sol.: Shapes of the chromosomes is best studied in Anaphase.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 134
If a meiocyte has 20 chromosomes and 20 pg DNA in G1 phase then what will be the number of chromosomes and amount of
DNA in its egg cell?
Chromosomes DNA
(1) 10 10
(2) 10 5
(3) 20 10
(4) 10 40
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Number of chromosomes and amount of DNA is reduced to half after Meiosis I.

Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 135
All of the following events take place in prophase of mitosis, except
Options:
Condensation of chromatin
Nuclear membrane disintegrate
Disappearance of ER
Alignment of chromosomes on equator
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Chromosomes align on equator in second phase of mitosis.
Sol.: Second phase of mitosis is Metaphase.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 136
Select the incorrect one about interkinesis.
Options:
DNA replication
Short lived
Occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II
Proteins are synthesized
Solution :
Answer (1)
Sol.: DNA replication does not take place in interkinesis.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 137
Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Meiosis I is reductional cell division.
Statement B: Meiosis takes place in haploid cells.
Options:
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: After meiosis I the chromosome number is reduced to half.
Sol.: Meiosis does not take place in haploid cells.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 138
The microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of sister chromatids in
Options:
Anaphase II
Prophase II
Metaphase II
Anaphase I
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Attachment of microtubules to kinetochores takes place in second phase of karyokinesis.
Sol.: Metaphase is second phase of karyokinesis.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 139
In an animal cell, centriole duplicates in
Options:
G1 phase
G2 phase
S-phase
M-phase
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Centriole duplicates in the phase where DNA replicates.
Sol.: Centriole duplicates in S phase of the cell cycle.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 140
Dissolution of synaptonemal complex takes place in
Options:
Zygotene
Pachytene
Leptotene
Diplotene
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Synaptonemal complex dissolves when homologous chromosomes are not required to be in contact anymore.
Sol.: Dissolution of synaptonemal complex takes place in diplotene stage.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 141
Duplication of mitochondria and tubulin protein synthesis takes place in
Options:
G1 phase
G2 phase
S-phase
M-phase
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Tubulin protein synthesis takes place in the phase after S phase.
Sol.: Tubulin protein synthesis and mitochondria duplication take place
in G2 phase.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 142
In G0 phase of the cell cycle
Options:
Cells remain metabolically inactive
Cell enters the quiescent stage
Cells proliferate faster
Cells actually divide
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In G0 phase of cell cycle, the cells do not divide but remain metabolically active.

Sol.: Cells in G0 phase enter the quiescent stage.

You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 143
Interphase lasts about ______ of the duration of cell cycle.
Options:
Less than 5%
10% – 20%
More than 95%
Less than 10%
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Interphase lasts for the maximum duration of the cell cycle.

Sol.: Interphase lasts for more than 95% of total duration of cell cycle.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 144
The APC (Anaphase Promoting Complex) if fails to work in a typical human cell, then
Options:
Cell will not enter S-phase
There will be no separation of sister chromatids
DNA replication will be halted
DNA damage will not be repaired
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: APC promotes a cell from metaphase to anaphase.

of sister chromatids.
Sol.: If APC stops working then there will be no separation
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 145
In a mitotic cycle, the correct sequence of stages is
Options:
Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: First stage of karyokinesis is prophase.
Sol.: Correct sequence of stages in a mitotic
cycle is
Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Plant of arid region that modifies its stem into fleshy cylindrical structure is
Options:
Cactus
Australian Acacia
Euphorbia
Citrus
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Phylloclades are flat or cylindrical in shape.

Sol.: Opuntia – Flat, Euphorbia – Cylindrical phylloclade

You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Colchicine is produced by a plant of family ‘X’. The members of this family bear
Options:
Epigynous flowers
Seeds with two cotyledons
Flowers in which calyx and corolla are not distinct
Zygomorphic flowers
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Colchicine is obtained from Colchicum which belongs to Liliaceae family.
Sol.: Members of Liliaceae have hypogynous, actinomorphic flowers with single
cotyledon in seeds. Here calyx and corolla are not
distinct.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
A cell in metaphase I can be differentiated from a cell at metaphase II as the former
Options:
Has two sets of each chromosome
Occurs in haploid cells
Has single metaphasic plate
Has chromosomes with single chromatids
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Metaphase II occurs in haploid cells.
Sol.: Cells in metaphase I have two sets of
each chromosome whereas cells in metaphase II have single set of each chromosome.
There are two metaphasic plates in metaphase I. Chromosomes in both the phases have two chromatids.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Underground edible portion of zaminkand and carrot are similar as
Options:
Both are modifications of root
Both are modifications for storage of food material
They bear nodes and internodes
They possess root hairs
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Carrot is a modified root whereas zaminkand is modified stem.

nodes and internodes.
Sol.: Carrot being root has root hairs while zaminkand being stem has
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
China rose and mustard both have
Options:
Zygomorphic flowers
Flowers with superior ovary and axile placentation
Bisexual epigynous flowers
Alternate phyllotaxy
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: China rose and mustard both have hypogynous flowers with superior ovary.

Sol.: In mustard and china rose, leaves show alternate phyllotaxy. Both of them have actinomorphic flowers.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 151
The partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood of a person in normal physiological conditions is
Options:
Equal to that of pCO2 in oxygenated blood
Higher than that in oxygenated blood
Lower than that in tissues
More than that of pCO2 in alveoli
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: pO2 in deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg

Sol.:
Respiratory gas Atmospheric air Alveoli Blood (Deoxygenated) Blood (Oxygenated) Tissues
O2 159 104 40 95 40
CO2 0.3 40 45 40 45
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 152
Tidal volume and additional volume of air that a person can inhale by a forcible inspiration is equal to 500 mL and 2700 mL
respectively. What will be the inspiratory capacity, if the residual volume of air is about 1100 mL?
Options:
3800 mL
3200 mL
4300 mL
2200 mL
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Maximum amount of air inspired after normal expiration
Sol.: IC = TV + IRV = 500 mL + 2700 mL = 3200 mL
Inspiratory capacity is the total volume of air a person

can inspire after a normal expiration. Additional volume of air a person can
inspire by a forcible inspiration is called inspiratory reserve volume.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 153
Choose from the given options, the enzyme ‘Z’ that facilitates the following reaction in both the directions.

Options:
Carboxypeptidase
Chymotrypsin
Carbonic anhydrase
Catalase
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Requires Zn2+ as cofactor

Sol.: Carbonic acid quickly dissociates into hydrogen and ions as it is unstable. The reaction is facilitated by an enzyme
known as carbonic anhydrase which is present in very high concentration in RBCs and in small quantity in plasma.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 154
Which of the following is false in context of pneumotaxic centre of brain?
Options:
Located in the pons region of the brain
Neural signals from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration
It can alter the respiratory rate
Receptors located in this centre respond strongly to high pO2, high pCO2 and low H+ concentration in arterial blood
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Function of chemoreceptors

Sol.: Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid bodies can recognise changes in pCO2 and H+ concentration in arterial
blood and send necessary signals to the respiratory rhythm centre for remedial actions. Pneumotaxic centre is present in the pons
region of brain and can moderate functions of respiratory rhythm centre.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 155
Identify the structures among the following which are involved in the formation of a diffusion membrane.
a. Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
b. Endothelium of pulmonary capillaries
c. Basement membrane between epithelium

of alveoli and endothelium of pulmonary capillaries
Select the correct option.
Options:
Only a and b
Only a and c
Only b and c
a, b and c
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Three-layered structure
Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 156
Read the following statements.

Statement A: Respiration involves diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues based on their partial pressure
gradients.
Statement
B: Breathing mechanism varies among different groups of animals depending on their levels of organization as well
as on their habitats.

Select the correct answer from the following given options.
Options:
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Smaller the animal more is the breathing rate.
Sol.: O2 is utilised by the organisms to break down
simple molecules in order to derive energy to perform various activities.

Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates, etc., exchange O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion over their entire body surface
whereas earthworms use their moist cuticle in order to exchange gases.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 157
How many pulmonary capacities among the following cannot be measured by spirometer?
a. IC
b. EC
c. FRC
d. TLC
Select the correct answer from following given options.
Options:
One
Two
Three
Four
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Residual volume cannot be measured by spirometer.
Sol.: IC = TV + IRV
EC = TV + ERV
FRC = RV + ERV
TLC = RV + TV +
ERV + IRV

RV can’t be measured by spirometer. So, FRC and TLC can’t be measured by spirometer.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 158
Complete the analogy w.r.t. the formation of thoracic chamber and select the correct option.
Laterally : Ribs : : Ventrally : _______
Options:
Vertebral column
Sternum
Diaphragm
Cervical vertebrae
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Also called breast bone
Sol.: The thoracic chamber is
formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs and on the
lower side by the diaphragm.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 159
Arrange the following given statements in a sequential order to complete the process of respiration.
a. Transport of gases by the blood.
b. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.

c. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released out.

d. Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.

e. Utilisation of O2 by the body cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2.

Select the correct option.
Options:
d→e→a→c→b
b→a→d→e→c
a→b→c→d→e
c→d→a→b→e
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Release of CO2 occurs at the end of respiration.

Sol.: Respiration involves the following steps:

(i) Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which
atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released out.

(ii) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.

(iii) Transport of gases by the blood.

(iv) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between
blood and tissues.

(v) Utilisation of O2 by the body cells for catabolic reactions to release CO2.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 160
Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. normal adult human.
(1) Expiratory Reserve Volume – 1500 to 2000 mL

(2) Residual Volume – 1100 to 1200 mL
(3) Inhalation – Due to decrease in intrapulmonary pressure
(4) Exhalation – Due to decrease in pulmonary volume
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: It is about twice the tidal volume.
Sol.: Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV):
Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration. This averages 1000
mL to 1100 mL. For inspiration, the intra-pulmonary pressure decreases by 1-3 mm Hg. During expiration, there is relaxation of the
diaphragm and sternum to their normal positions. It causes reduction in the thoracic volume and thereby the pulmonary volume.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 161
Choose the correct option w.r.t. solubility of O2.
Options:
30-35 times higher than that of CO2 in blood
20-25 times lower than that of CO2 in blood
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Solubility of CO2 > solubility of O2

Sol.: Solubility of CO2 is 20 – 25 times higher than that of O2 in blood.

You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 162
Every 500 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately
Options:
10 mL of CO2 to the alveoli
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: 1 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 0.04 mL of CO2 to the alveoli.

Sol.: Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 mL of CO2 to the alveoli. Therefore, every 500 mL of
deoxygenated blood will deliver approximately 20 mL of CO2 to the alveoli.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 163
Complete the analogy and choose the correct option.

Oxygen + Haemoglobin : Oxyhaemoglobin : : Carbon dioxide + Haemoglobin : ______
Options:
Methaemoglobin
Carboxyhaemoglobin
Myoglobin
Carbamino-haemoglobin
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Forms at tissue level

Sol.: Myoglobin is a red coloured oxygen storing pigment present in muscles. Carboxyhaemoglobin is formed by binding of
haemoglobin with carbon monoxide. Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin in which iron in the heam group is in Fe3+ state,
rather than the normal Fe2+ state.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 164
A person who has A –ve blood group can receive blood from other persons having blood group
a. A +ve
b. O +ve
c. A –ve
d. AB +ve
e. O –ve

correct option.
Select the
Options:
a, b, d, e
c, e
d, e
b, d, e
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Identify the blood groups which lack Rh and B antigens on the surface of RBCs.
Sol.: A -ve persons can receive blood from A -ve blood group persons and O –ve blood
group persons.
Rh–ve blood group persons can receive the blood only from Rh –ve blood group persons.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 165
Which of the following factors can increase the cardiac output?
Options:
Adrenal medullary hormones
Inhibition of sympathetic nerves
Excitation of parasympathetic nerves
Excitation of cardiac inhibitory centre
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Catecholamines

Sol.: Adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and non-adrenaline which can increase the heart rate, stroke volume and cardiac output.
Excitation of sympathetic nerves can also increase the cardiac output. Parasympathetic nerve endings release acetylcholine which
decreases the rate of heartbeat, speed of conduction of action potential and thereby the cardiac output.
Excitation of cardiac inhibitory centre decreases the heart rate.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 166
Choose the correct option w.r.t monocytes.
Options:
Phagocytic cells which destroy the foreign organisms entering the body
Involved in inflammatory reactions but cannot show diapedesis
Resist infection and are associated with allergic reactions as they secrete histamine
Most abundant leucocytes
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: 6-8 percent of the total leukocytes.

Sol.: Monocytes and neutrophils are phagocytic cells which destroy the foreign organisms entering the body. Eosinophils are
associated with allergic reactions. Neutrophils are the most abundant leucocytes. Monocytes and neutrophils show diapedesis.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 167
When body tissues are injured, it results in loss of blood. To prevent excessive loss, the process of blood clotting begins and the
blood platelets release
Options:
Fibrinogen
Thrombin
Prothrombin
Thromboplastin
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Platelet factors
Sol.: The thrombocytes secrete thromboplastins which are involved in the formation of enzyme complex thrombokinase. This
complex is formed by a series of linked enzymatic reactions involving a number of factors present in the plasma in an inactive state.
Fibrinogen and prothrombin are also clotting factors.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 168
The thread-like tendons of papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid valves are called
Options:
Bundle of His
Nodal tissue
Chordae tendinae
Purkinje fibres
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Prevent backward opening of AV valves.
Sol.: Chordae tendinae are attached with flaps
of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves on one side and papillary muscles on another
side. They prevent the backward opening of AV valves during ventricular systole.
A specialised cardiac musculature called nodal tissue is distributed in the heart.
A bundle of nodal fibres continues from AV node, emerge on the top of inter-ventricular septum and immediately divides into right
and left bundle. These branches give rise to minute fibres throughout the ventricular musculature and are called purkinje fibres.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 169
Vein that does not directly open into the heart is
Options:
Pulmonary vein
Superior vena cava
Inferior vena cava
Hepatic vein
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Carry impure blood from liver
Sol.: Pulmonary vein, superior vena
cava and inferior vena cava open directly into the heart. Hepatic vein opens into inferior vena
cava.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 170
What is the correct sequence of leucocytes in terms of number per mm3 of human blood among the given options?
Options:
Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils
Basophils > Eosinophils > Neutrophils
Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils
Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Neutrophils constitute maximum percent of leucocytes.
Sol.: Neutrophils – 60-70 percent of total leucocytes
Eosinophils – 2-3 percent of total leucocytes
Basophils – 0.5–1 percent of total leucocytes
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 171
Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Systemic heart – Left atria and left ventricle

(2) Sympathetic neural fibres – Release adrenaline at SAN
(3) Valve bathed in deoxygenated blood – Bicuspid valve
(4) AV node – Pacesetter
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Also called mitral valve
Sol.: Bicuspid valve is bathed
in oxygenated blood whereas tricuspid valve is bathed in deoxygenated blood. Right atrium and right
ventricle are included in pulmonary heart.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 172
Which of the following is an incorrect statement w.r.t cardiac cycle in a normal adult human?
Options:
Atrial diastole coincides with the ventricular systole
The time period for ventricular systole is 0.3 sec
During joint diastole, AV valves remain open
Joint diastole directly leads to ventricular systole
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Ventricular systole starts after 100% filling of ventricles.
Sol.: Joint diastole leads to atrial systole.
Atrial diastole coincides with both the ventricular systole and ventricular diastole.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 173
Select the incorrect explanation w.r.t phase/event of cardiac cycle depicted by a standard electrocardiogram?
Options:
P-wave represents depolarisation of atria which leads to contraction of both the atria
The end of T– wave marks the end of ventricular systole
By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heartbeat rate of
an individual
Elevated ST segment only represents heart failure
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Associated with myocardial infarction
Sol.: ST segment is elevated in myocardial
infarction and depressed when myocardium does not receive proper blood supply and
oxygen.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 174
Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
a. Pericardium (i) Associated with closure of the semilunar valves
b. SAN (ii) Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle
c. Dub (iii) Generates the wave of contraction
d. Stroke volume (iv) Encloses the pericardial fluid
Options:
a(i); b(ii); c(iii); d(iv)
a(iv); b(i); c(iii); d(ii)
a(iv); b(iii); c(i); d(ii)
a(iv); b(i); c(ii); d(iii)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: About 70 mL of blood is pumped out by each ventricle in one cardiac cycle.

Sol.: During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 mL of blood. This is called stroke volume. SAN generates
the wave of contraction. Pericardium is the outermost covering of the heart which protects it from shocks and mechanical injuries.
Dub is the second heart sound produced by the closure of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 175
Read the following statements and choose the option including correct statements only.
A. Vascular connection between digestive tract and liver is called hepatic portal system.
B. Heart of fishes receives only oxygenated blood.
C. Purkinje fibres supply to the myocardium of atria.
Options:
A and B
Only C
B and C
Only A
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: A vein which initiates and ends with capillaries
Sol.: Heart of fishes contains only deoxygenated blood.
Purkinje fibres supply to the myocardium of ventricles. Hepatic portal
system exists between digestive tract and liver.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 176
Open circulatory system is present in whereas closed circulatory system is present in .

Choose the option to correctly fill the blanks A and B respectively.
A B
(1) Annelids and chordates Arthropods and molluscs
(2) Arthropods and molluscs Annelids and chordates
(3) Molluscs and annelids Arthropods and chordates
(4) Arthropods and chordates Hemichordates and annelids
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Cockroach and snails have open circulatory system.
Sol.: Open circulatory system is present in arthropods and
molluscs in which blood pumped by the heart passes into open spaces
or body cavities called sinuses whereas closed circulatory system is present in chordates and annelids in which the blood pumped
by the heart circulates through a closed network of blood vessels.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 177
Left atrium receives the oxygenated blood from both lungs and skin in
Options:
Amphibians
Reptiles
Aves
Mammals
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Animals having dual mode of life.

Sol.: In amphibians, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from gills, skin and lungs and the right atrium gets the deoxygenated
blood from other body parts. In rest of the animals given, left atrium receives blood only from lungs.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 178
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t lymph.
Options:
It is a colourless fluid present in lymphatic system
It is an important carrier for nutrients and hormones
It contains same amount of formed elements as present in blood
Fats are absorbed in the lacteals present in the intestinal villi
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Contains more lymphocytes
Sol.: The lymph is devoid of RBCs
but the amount of lymphocytes is more in comparison to blood. Lymph or tissue fluid has same
mineral distribution as that in plasma.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 179
Choose the incorrect option w.r.t the human heart.
Options:
Mesodermally derived organ
Situated in the thoracic cavity, in between the two lungs
An example of myogenic heart
Contains AVN in the upper left corner of the right atrium
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Right upper corner of right atrium is the position of pacemaker
Sol.: AVN is present at the lower left corner in the wall of right atrium
close to the atrio-ventricular septum, whereas SAN is present
in the right upper corner of the right atrium.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 180
The figure given below represents the schematic plan of blood circulation in human. Select the correct option w.r.t. given
labellings.

Options:
A and B contain oxygenated blood
B and C contain deoxygenated blood
A and C are included in pulmonary circulation
A and D are included in pulmonary circulation
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Blood vessels associated with lungs
Sol.: A – Pulmonary artery
B – Vena cava
C – Pulmonary vein
D – Dorsal aorta
The deoxygenated
blood pumped into the pulmonary artery passes to the lungs from where the oxygenated blood is carried by the
pulmonary veins to the left atrium. This pathway is known as pulmonary circulation.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 181
Erythroblastosis foetalis is possible, if
Options:
Mother is Rh +ve and baby is Rh –ve
Mother and baby both are Rh -ve
Mother is Rh -ve and baby is Rh +ve
Mother and baby both are Rh +ve
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Rh antigen is absent in mother
Sol.: If mother is Rh –ve and baby is
Rh +ve, Erythroblastosis foetalis can occur in second and subsequent Rh +ve babies.

This
In such cases, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh –ve) leak into the blood of foetus (Rh +ve) and destroy the foetal RBCs.
could be fatal to the foetus or could cause severe anaemia and jaundice to the baby.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 182
The condition in which heart stops beating is called
Options:
Cardiac arrest
Heart failure
Angina pectoris
Hypertension
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: It leads to death

in cardiac arrest
Sol.: Heart stops beating

Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain which appears when not enough oxygen reaches the heart
Heart failure – One of the main symptoms is congestion of the lungs
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 183
In coronary atherosclerosis, the
Options:
Blood supply to myocardium increases
Calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissue is deposited in the walls of coronary artery causing narrowing of its lumen
Lumen of renal artery becomes wider
Glomerular filtration increases due to interrupted blood supply to kidneys
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: It is also referred to as CAD

Sol.: In the coronary artery diseases, blood supply to the heart decreases because the lumen of coronary artery becomes narrower
as calcium, fat, cholesterol, etc. are deposited in its wall.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 184
The arteries differ from veins in that
Options:
Arteries have thin muscular wall
Veins carry blood away from the heart
Blood flows with high pressure in arteries
Arteries carry blood towards the heart
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Systolic pressure
Sol.: Arteries carry blood away from the heart and veins carry blood towards the heart. Arteries have thick muscular wall in
comparison to veins.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 185
End systolic volume and end diastolic volume of a person are 60 mL and 130 mL respectively, then calculate the value of stroke
volume and select the correct option.
Options:
60 mL
70 mL
80 mL
90 mL
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Equal to normal value of stroke volume
Sol.: Stroke volume = End diastolic
Volume – End systolic volume
= 130 – 60 = 70 mL
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 186
Events occurring during forced expiration in humans include all except
Options:
Increase in intra-pulmonary pressure than atmospheric pressure
Relaxation of diaphragm
Relaxation of abdominal muscles
Contraction of internal inter-costal muscles
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Muscles involved in forceful expiration
Sol.: Forcible expiration requires contraction
of internal inter-costal muscles and abdominal muscles.

Contraction of diaphragm occurs during inspiration which increases thoracic volume and thereby pulmonary volume.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 187
“Pulmonary respiration can be shown by vertebrates”. This is generally not true for which category of vertebrates?
Options:
Amphibians
Fishes
Aquatic reptiles
Terrestrial mammals
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: These respire through gills.

Sol.: Amphibians can respire through skin, lungs and gills. Pulmonary respiration is breathing through lungs while fishes respire
through gills.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 188
In humans, the pharynx opens through the ‘X’ region into the trachea. ‘X’ can be described by which of the following structures?
Options:
External nares
Larynx
Gullet
Internal nares
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Sound box.
Sol.: The pharynx
opens through the larynx region into the trachea. Pharynx is a common passage for both food and air.
Internal nares are the posterior openings of the nasal cavities that lead into the nasopharynx.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Select the correct statement.
Options:
During swallowing, epiglottis is covered by a thin elastic cartilaginous flap called glottis
Branchial respiration is exhibited by aquatic arthropods, molluscs and aquatic mammals
Trachea is a straight tube that divides at the level of 5th cervical vertebra into right and left primary bronchi
Initial bronchioles but not alveoli are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings in humans
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Cartilaginous rings are absent in the regions where exchange of gases occur.

Sol.: Glottis is covered by epiglottis. Aquatic mammals exhibit pulmonary respiration. Trachea divides at the level of 5th thoracic
vertebra into right and left primary bronchi.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
How many among the following given statement(s) hold true w.r.t. occupational respiratory disorders?
a. In stone-breaking industries, so much dust is produced that the defense mechanisms of human body
cannot fully cope with
the situation.

b. Long exposure to dust leads to proliferation of fibrous tissues.

c. Fibrosis can cause serious lung damage.
Choose the correct answer from following given options.
Options:
Zero
One
Three
Two
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Silicosis is the example of it.

Sol.: Fibrosis occurs in those workers who work in grinding or stone-breaking industries, if they don’t wear protective mask. Silicosis
and asbestosis are the common examples of occupational respiratory diseases.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 191
Which of the following is not true for conducting zone of respiratory system?
Options:
Clears foreign particles from the inhaled air
Humidifies the inhaled air
Does not aid in transporting the atmospheric air to the alveoli
Brings the temperature of the inhaled air upto the body temperature
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Moistens and cleans the inhaled air.

Sol.: The conducting part consists of external nostrils, nasal chamber, internal nares, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and
bronchioles (upto terminal bronchioles). The conducting zone helps in the transportation of the atmospheric or inhaled air to the
alveoli.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 192
Read the following statements w.r.t. fetal haemoglobin and choose the option which embodies only correct statements.
a. It has higher affinity for O2 than adult haemoglobin.
b. It is structurally identical to adult haemoglobin.

c. The oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve of fetal haemoglobin is sigmoidal in shape.
Options:
Only a and b
Only b and c
Only a and c
Only c
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: It has -chains instead of β-chains.
Sol.: Fetal haemoglobin possesses 2α and
2 chains whereas adult haemoglobin contains 2α and 2β chains.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 193
Which of the following conditions does not involve low O2 availability to the tissues?
Options:
Hypoxia
Mountain (Altitude) sickness
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Hypersecretion of adrenal medullary hormones
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Effect of adrenaline.

of enough O in the tissues to sustain the functions of the body.
Sol.: Hypoxia: Unavailability 2

Carbon monoxide poisoning: It typically occurs when a person inhales carbon monoxide which has more binding affinity with
haemoglobin as compared to oxygen.
Mountain (Altitude) sickness: When a
person living on plains ascends and stays on a mountain at high altitude from the sea level,
he/she develops certain symptoms in 8-24 hours. These symptoms include breathlessness, headache, dizziness, nausea, etc. This
is known as mountain sickness.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 194
70% filling of ventricles occur during
Options:
Atrial systole
Ventricular diastole
Joint diastole
Ventricular systole
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Both atria and ventricles are relaxed.
Sol.: 70% filling of ventricles occurs during
joint diastole i.e., when all the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state and 30%
filling occurs in atrial systole.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Assertion (A): In humans, left ventricle has the thickest wall in comparison with any other chamber of the heart.
Reason (R): It pumps oxygenated blood to the whole body via aorta.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is true but (R) is false
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is false but (R) is true
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Heart chamber which has thickest myocardium.

Sol.: Left ventricle pumps blood to all systems of the body by its forceful contraction. So, its wall has thicker musculature in
comparison with any other chamber of the heart.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Two separate blood circulatory pathways are present in
Options:
Pisces and amphibians
Amphibians and reptiles
Pisces and reptiles
Mammals and birds
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Complete double circulation

Sol.: Two separate circulatory pathways, i.e., pulmonary and systemic circulation, are present in mammals and birds. Here, there is
no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

In fishes, single circulation is present while in amphibians and reptiles, except crocodiles, incomplete double circulation is seen.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 197
SAN generates the action potential
Options:
Before joint diastole and immediately after ventricular systole
After joint diastole
Immediately after atrial systole
Between ventricular systole and ventricular diastole
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: At the end of a cardiac cycle

Sol.: SAN generates the action potential at the end of joint diastole that leads to atrial systole.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 198
The difference in time duration of ventricular systole and atrial systole in a normal adult human is about
Options:
0.1 sec
0.2 sec
0.3 sec
0.4 sec
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Twice the duration of atrial systole.

Sol.: Difference in time duration = ventricular systole – atrial systole

= 0.3 s – 0.1 s
= 0.2 s
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 199
‘O’ blood group individuals are considered as universal donors because they contain
Options:
Only A antigen on the surface of their RBCs
Only B antigen on the surface of their RBCs
Neither A nor B antigen on the surface of their RBCs
Only B antibodies in their plasma
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Contains both A and B antibodies in plasma

surface of RBCs in ‘O’ blood group persons. Thus, blood group ‘O’ can be
Sol.: Both A and B antigens are not present on the
donated to persons with any other blood group and hence ‘O’ group individuals are called ‘universal donors’.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Choose the correct option about AVN.
Options:
Known as pacemaker
Can generate wave of contraction
Not connected with AV bundle
Consists primarily of neurons and neuroglial cells
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Nodal tissue
Sol.: AVN is known
as pacesetter.

It can also generate the wave of contraction with a rate of generation of impulses about 40-45/minute.
It consists of specialised cardiac muscle fibres.

Aakash AIATS 03 Class 11

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Answer keys : AIATS for Two Year Medical-2023 (XI Studying)_Test-03

Both (1) & (2)

under an additional third force , given by

Sol.: Let the maximum tension in string is T.

Which among the following is not a contact force?

Kinetic friction = μkN

⇒ Angle between action and reaction is 180°.

∴ Apparent weight of car is minimum at C.

When an object is in translational equilibrium then

Net force is acting on it

Its net acceleration must be zero

Its velocity must be non-zero

Dividing (i) by (ii)

Kinetic energy of system always remains constant

Kinetic energy of system first increases then decreases

KEBefore collision = KEAfter collision

During collision some part of KE is converted to elastic potential energy.

0.1 m/s, –0.2 m/s

–0.2 m/s, 0.1 m/s

0.2 m/s, –0.1 m/s

– 0.1 m/s, 0.2 m/s

Hence v1 = u2 = – 0.2 m/s

Sol.: Velocity of body just before t = 2 s is

Velocity just after the t = 2 s is vf = 0

Sol.: FTh = m(g + a)

Sol.: From Lami’s theorem,

Inversely proportional to time

Inversely proportional to square of time

Linearly related with time

The work done by a body against the friction always results in

Loss of kinetic energy

Gain of kinetic energy

Gain in potential energy

Loss in potential energy

Total mechanical energy

Change in potential energy

Coefficient of restitution (e) for perfectly inelastic collision is

Hint & sol.: , because for perfectly inelastic collision vsep = 0.

Both (1) and (2)

From mechanical energy conservation,

From (i) & (ii),

The work done by the force in 2 s is

Sol.: From FBD of pulley,

From eq.(i) & (iii)

Sol.: From FBD of both blocks,

From (i) & (ii),

Sol.: Here collision is perfectly inelastic then e = 0

Hint: for equilibrium.

From mechanical energy conservation law,

Sol.: mgh + loss due to air friction = KEi

Frictional force acting between two bodies can be reduced by

Using ball bearings

Maximizing the interlocking between surface of two bodies

Both (1) & (2)

Total mechanical energy

Total kinetic energy

Total linear momentum

Linear momentum of each body

Oxidation state of middle carbon of C3O2 molecule is

• Oxidation number of middle carbon is 0.

Which of the following reactions is/are disproportionation reaction?

(a) and (b) only

(c) and (d) only