PART-I

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

1. Indicate which figure will best represent the 1. fuEukafdr fp= esa dkSu&lk fpfM+;k] dkSvk rFkk
relationship among Birds, Crows, Eagles : bZxy ds chp lEcU/k dks iznf”kZr djrk gS%

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

2. Neela is now three times as old as her daughter 2. uhyk viuh csVh yhyk ls rhu xq.kk cqM+h gS] 10 o’kZ
Leela. Ten years back, Neela was five times as old igys uhyk] yhyk ls ik¡p xquh cM+h FkhA rks yhyk dh
as Leela. The age of Leela is : vk;q gSA
(A) 15 (B) 25 (A) 15 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 20 (C) 30 (D) 20

Direction (3 - 7) : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting funs”k ¼3 ls 7½ % P, Q, R, S, T, U, V vkSj W ,d o`r

round the circle and are facing the centre ds pkjksa vksj dsUnz dh vksj eq[k djds cSBs gSA
(i) P is second to the right of T who is the (i) P, T nk¡;s ls nwljk gS tks fd R vkSj V dk
neighbour of R and V iM+kslh gSA
(ii) S is not the neighbour of P (ii) S, P iM+kslh ugha gSA
(iii) V is the neighbour of U (iii) V, U dk iM+kslh gSA
(iv) Q is not between S and W. W is not between (iv) Q, S rFkk W ds chp esa ugha gS W, Q rFkk S
Q and S ds chp esa ugha gSA

3. Which two of the following are not neighbours : 3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ;qXe ,d nwljs ds iM+kslh
(A) UV (B) TR ugha gS\
(C) PW (D) SW (A) UV (B) TR
(C) PW (D) SW

4. Who is the neighbour of W ? 4. W dk iM+kslh dkSu gS \

(A) U (B) V (A) U (B) V
(C) R (D) S (C) R (D) S

5. Who is the second right of R? 5. R ls nk¡;s nwljk dkSu gS\

(A) Q (B) W (A) Q (B) W
(C) S (D) V (C) S (D) V

6. Who is in the middle of S and V ? 6. S rFkk V ds chp esa dkSu gS \

(A) U (B) R (A) U (B) R
(C) P (D) Q (C) P (D) Q
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7. Who is second to the left of U ? 7. U ds ck¡;s nwljk dkSu gS \
(A) W (B) Q (A) W (B) Q
(C) P (D) R (C) P (D) R

8. In half hour, the minute hand of clock will rotate 8. vk/ks ?kaVs esa feuV dh lqbZ fdrus fMxzh ls /kqe
through the angle of : tk,sxh\
(A) 75° (B) 60° (A) 75° (B) 60°
(C) 120° (D) 180° (C) 120° (D) 180°

9. Meera was born on 22nd March 1982. On what 9. ehjk dk tUe 22 ekpZ 1982 dks gqvk FkkA rks crkos
day of the week was she 14 years 7 months and 8 fd lIrkg ds dkSu lk fnu og 14 o’kZ 7 eghuk vkSj
days of age? 8 fnu dh Fkh\
(A) Tuesday (B) Sunday (A) eaxyokj (B) jfookj
(C) Monday (D) Saturday (C) lkseokj (D) “kfuokj

10. If 1st October falls on Sunday. What day of the 10. ;fn 1 vDVwcj dks jfookj gksrk gS] rks 1 uoEcj dks
week will fall on 1st November ? lIrkg dk dkSu lk fnu jgsxk\
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday (A) eaxyokj (B) cq/kokj
(C) Sunday (D) Monday (C) jfookj (D) lkseokj

Direction (11-17) : In each of the following questions, funsZ”k ¼11 ls 17½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, x,
select the related letter/word/number from the given fodYiksa esa ls lEcfU/kr v{kj@”kCn@la[;k dks
alternatives : pqfu,A

11. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ? 11. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ?

(A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV (A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV
(C) LQEBO (D) LRECO (C) LQEBO (D) LRECO

12. Manipuri : Manipur : : Kathakali : ? 12. ef.kiwjh % ef.kiwj % % dFkdyh % \

(A) Karnataka (B) Tamilnadu (A) dukZVd (B) rfeyukMq
(C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh (C) dsjy (D) vkU/kz izns”k

13. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ? 13. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ?

(A) 425 (B) 420 (A) 425 (B) 420
(C) 525 (D) 505 (C) 525 (D) 505

14. Teacher : Student : : Pontiff : ? 14. f”k{kd % Nk= % % fc”ki % \

(A) Disciple (B) Follower (A) f”k’; (B) vuq;k;h
(C) Priest (D) Deity (C) iqtkjh (D) nsork

15. Book : Read : : Picture : ? 15. fdrkc % i<+uk % % fp= % \

(A) Library (B) Buy (A) iqLrdky; (B) [kjhnuk
(C) See (D) Listen (C) ns[kuk (D) lquuk

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16. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :? 16. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :?
(A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF (A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF
(C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH (C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH

17. Swimming : River : : Hiking : ? 17. rSjuk % unh % % p<+kbZ %\

(A) Mountain (B) Road (A) ioZr (B) lM+d
(C) Pond (D) Sea (C) rkykc (D) leqnz

Direction (18-25) : In each of the following question, funsZ”k ¼18 ls 25½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa fn, x,
find the odd word/letters/number pair from the fodYiksa esa ls fo’ke la[;k@ v{kj@la[;k ;qXe
given alternatives : pqfu,A

18. 18.
(A) 1000 (B) 625 (A) 1000 (B) 625
(C) 64 (D) 512 (C) 64 (D) 512

19. 19.
(A) 10 (B) 24 (A) 10 (B) 24
(C) 64 (D) 120 (C) 64 (D) 120

20. 20.
(A) CP (B) FR (A) CP (B) FR
(C) DQ (D) BO (C) DQ (D) BO

21. 21.
(A) Publisher (B) Author (A) izdk”kd (B) ys[kd
(C) Novelist (D) Poet (C) miU;kldkj (D) dfo

22. 22.
(A) WTQN (B) NKHE (A) WTQN (B) NKHE
(C) MIDA (D) KHEB (C) MIDA (D) KHEB

23. 23.
(A) King : Queen (B) Prince : Princess (A) jktk % jkuh (B) jktdqekj % jktdqekjh
(C) Witch : Vampire (D) Hero : Heroine (C) Mk;u % fi”kkp (D) vfHkusrk % vfHkus=h

24. 24.
(A) Radish (B) Carrot (A) ewyh (B) xktj
(C) Potato (D) Beetroot (C) vkyq (D) pqdanj

25. 25.
(A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54 (A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54
(C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286 (C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286

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Directions (26-27) : Arrange the following words funsZ”k ¼26 ls 27½ % fuEufyf[kr “kCnksa dks vaxzsth
according to the English dictionary : “kCndks”k ds vuqlkj ltkos %

26. 1. Voyage 2. Voice 26. 1. Voyage 2. Voice

3. Vocation 4. Volume 3. Vocation 4. Volume
(A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1 (A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1 (C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

27. 1. Beet 2. Beer 27. ^1. Beet 2. Beer

3. Being 4. Been 3. Being 4. Been
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1 (A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1

Directions (28-35) : In the following questions a series funsZ”k ¼28 ls 35½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa vuqØe fn;k
is given with one item missing choose the correct x;k gS] ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa
alternative from the given ones that will complete ls og lgh fodYi pqfu, tks vuqØe dks iwjk djsA
the series :

28. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ? 28. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ?
(A) OTK (B) NSD (A) OTK (B) NSD
(C) JPE (D) TOE (C) JPE (D) TOE
29. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739 29. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739
(A) 722 (B) 522 (A) 722 (B) 522
(C) 622 (D) 632 (C) 622 (D) 632

30. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49 30. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49

(A) 34 (B) 45 (A) 34 (B) 45
(C) 52 (D) 64 (C) 52 (D) 64

31. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? . 31. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? .

(A) DEF (B) DFH (A) DEF (B) DFH
(C) DEH (D) DFE (C) DEH (D) DFE

32. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162 32. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162
(A) 42 (B) 32 (A) 42 (B) 32
(C) 52 (D) 62 (C) 52 (D) 62

33. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? . 33. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? .

(A) 33 (B) 34 (A) 33 (B) 34
(C) 27 (D) 30 (C) 27 (D) 30

34. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? . 34. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? .
(A) WUY (B) VTY (A) WUY (B) VTY
(C) VUZ (D) WUZ (C) VUZ (D) WUZ

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35. 12, 26, 54, ? . 35. 12, 26, 54, ? .
(A) 223 (B) 110 (A) 223 (B) 110
(C) 220 (D) 108 (C) 220 (D) 108

36. If A = 1 , BAD = 7, then HAT = ? 36. ;fn A = 1 , BAD = 7 gks rks HAT = ?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 29 (D) 19 (C) 29 (D) 19

37. If B = 4, D = 8 and C = 6, then DOG = ? 37. ;fn B = 4, D = 8 rFkk C = 6, gks rks DOG = ?
(A) 46 (B) 52 (A) 46 (B) 52
(C) 56 (D) 60 (C) 56 (D) 60

38. If D = 2 and F = 3, then BAG = ? 38. ;fn D = 2 rFkk F = 3, gks rks BAG = ?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

39. If FAITH is coded as 82731, HABIT is coded as 39. fdlh dwV Hkk’kk esa FAITH dks 82731, HABIT dks
12573 and HEALTH is coded as 192431, how 12573 rFkk HEALTH dks fy[kk tk, rks] 192431
can BELIEF be coded as ? dks mlh dwV Hkk’kk esa BELIEF dks D;k fy[kk
(A) 594598 (B) 594789 tk,xk\
(C) 594978 (D) 594798 (A) 594598 (B) 594789
(C) 594978 (D) 594798

40. If NATIONAL can be written as LNAANTOI, 40. ;fn fdlh dw V Hkk’kk es a NATIONAL dks
how can DOMESTIC be written? LNAANTOI fy[kk tk, rks mlh dwV Hkk’kk es
(A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE DOMESTIC dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD (A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD

41. In a class Sohan’s rank is 17th from the top and 41. ,d d{kk esa lksgu dk Øe Åij ls 17 ok¡ rFkk uhps
28th from the bottom. How many students are there ls 29 ok¡ gSA rks d{kk esa dqy fdrus Nk= gS\
in the class ? (A) 45 (B) 40
(A) 45 (B) 40 (C) 44 (D) 41
(C) 44 (D) 41

42. Varun said, “That boy is the grandson of my 42. o:.k us dgk fd ^^ og yM+dk esjs ekrk ds ifr dk
Mother’s husband. I have no brother and sister,” iksrk gS esjk dksbZ HkkbZ rFkk cgu ugh gS^^ crk;s og
How is the boy related with Varun? yM+dk o:.k ls dSls lEcfU/kr gS\
(A) Uncle (B) Son (A) pkpk (B) csVk
(C) Nephew (D) Cousin (C) Hkrhtk (D) ppsjk HkkbZ

43. Which of the following can not be formed by word 43. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk MERCHANDISE “kCn ls
MERCHANDISE : ugha cuk;k tk ldrk gS \
(A) MECH (B) DICE (A) MECH (B) DICE
(C) CHARM (D) CHANGE (C) CHARM (D) CHANGE

1550 7 SET-D
44. Out of 1865 people, 660 can speak English and 44. 1865 yksxksa esa ls] 660 vxazsth cksy ldrs gS] 1305
1305 can speak Marathi. But 120 person cannot ejkBh cksy ldrs gS] 120 yksx dksbZ Hkk’kk ugha cksy
speak either language. Then how many can speak ldrs gS] rks fdrus yksx nksuksa Hkk’kk cksy ldrs gS\
both languages : (A) 220 (B) 120
(A) 220 (B) 120 (C) 1085 (D) 440
(C) 1085 (D) 440

45. From the given alternative select the word which 45. fuEufyf[kr fn;s gq, fodYi esa ls ml “kCn dks
can be formed using the letters given in the word. pqfu, tks ABOMINABLE ds v{kjksa ls cuk;k tk
ABOMINABLE : ldrk gS\
(A) BOWEL (B) METAL (A) BOWEL (B) METAL
(C) BLAND (D) BANAL (C) BLAND (D) BANAL

Directions (46-47) : In the following questions some funs”k ¼46 ls 47½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa dqN lehdj.k
equation are solved on the basis of a certain dk gy dqN [kkl i)fr ls fd;k x;k gS mlh
system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved i)fr ls gy ugha fd;s x, lehdj.k dk mÙkj nsaA
equation on that basis :

46. If 228 = 12 and 337 = 16, then 569 = ? 46. ;fn 228 = 12 rFkk 337 = 16, rks 569 = ?
(A) 39 (B) 20 (A) 39 (B) 20
(C) 29 (D) 36 (C) 29 (D) 36

47. If 3 X 7 X 8 = 837 47. ;fn 3 X 7 X 8 = 837

2 X 4 X 5 = 524, then 4 X 3 X 7 = ? 2 X 4 X 5 = 524, rc 4 X 3 X 7 = ?
(A) 743 (B) 734 (A) 743 (B) 734
(C) 84 (D) 214 (C) 84 (D) 214

Directions (48-50) : In the following questions, select funs”k ¼48 ls 50½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”ukas esa fn, x,
the missing number from given response : fodYiksa esa ls yqIr laa[;k Kkr djsA
48. 12 6 8 48. 12 6 8
4 4 9 4 4 9
3 7 4 3 7 4
51 31 ? 51 31 ?
(A) 21 (B) 42 (A) 21 (B) 42
(C) 76 (D) 86 (C) 76 (D) 86

49. 3 18 6 49. 3 18 6
5 ? 4 5 ? 4
8 40 5 8 40 5
(A) 40 (B) 22 (A) 40 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 20 (C) 24 (D) 20

50. 8 2 6 50. 8 2 6
2 4 ? 2 4 ?
5 6 8 5 6 8
80 48 240 80 48 240
(A) 4 (B) 10 (A) 4 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 20 (C) 5 (D) 20

1550 8 SET-D
 PART-II
GENERAL AWARENESS & PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

51. How many types of wire obstacle are there? 51. ok;j vkCLVSdy dh fdLesa crkvks\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

52. In which CRPF Form leave, leave/duty certificate 52. NqVVh@fM;wVh ij tkus dk izek.k i+= fdl dsfjiq
is issued? QkeZ esa rS;kj fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) CRP 18 (B) CRP 24 (A) dsf jiq 18 (B) dsf jiq 24
(C) CRP 20 (D) CRP 28 (C) dsf jiq 20 (D) dsf jiq 28

53. How many times GPF subscription can be 53. Hkfo’; fuf/k ls Hkfo”; fuf/k dVksrh esa ,d o’kZ esa
increased/decreased in a year. fdrus ckj c<k;h@?kVk;h tk ldrh gS\
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/1 (A) 1/3 (B) 2/1
(C) 2/2 (D) 2/4 (C) 2/2 (D) 2/4

54. Which of following terms denotes the “Toughening 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ‘kkjhfjd etcwrh dk izeq[k
of body” as its major objectives- ?kVd gSa%&
(A) Play (B) Drill (A) [ks y uk (B) Mª h y
(C) WT (D) PT (C) MCY;w - Vh- (D) ih-Vh-

55. Sri Guru Gobind Singh was 55. xq: xksfoan flag Fks %&
(A) The 10th Guru of the Sikhs (A) flD[kksa ds nlosa xq:
(B) Founder of Khalsa, the inner council of the (B) 1699 esa flD[ksa ds vkarfjd ifj”kn [kkylk ds
Sikhs in 1699 la L Fkkid
(C) Author of Dasam Granth (C) nle xzaFk ds jpf;rk
(D) All the above (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh

56. Who has been awarded ‘Scroll of Honor’ by 56. dS l ysl ysu &nsu dks c<+ k ok nsu s ds fy, Hkkjr
Government of India to promote cashless ljdkj us fdls ßLdzkWy vkWQ vkWujÞ iznku fd;k
transactions? gS % &
(A) Manish Jadon (B) Khusbu Gupta (A) euh”k tknksu (B) [kq ’kcq xq I rk
(C) Surbhi Kapoor (D) Gaurav Goya (C) lq j Hkh diq j (D) xkS j o xks; k

57. What is the sequence of sitting position of Lathi 57. xkMh ls ekpZ djrs le; ykBh ikVhZ ds cSBus dk
party while marching from vehicle? dz e crk,A
(A) Middle (B) Last (A) chp esa (B) vkf[kj esa
(C) First (D) Anywhere (C) igys (D) dgh Hkha

58. Revision petition can be made against the 58. iqu jh{k.k ;kfpdk fdrus fnuks ds le;&lhek ds
punishment of departmental enquiry within…days? Hkhrj esa dh tk ldrh gS \
(A) 15 days (B) 30 days (A) 15 fnuksa esa (B) 30 fnuksa esa
(C) 45 days (D) 60 days (C) 45 fnuksa esa (D) 60 fnuksa esa

1550 9 SET-D
59. An orderly room register is maintained in CRPF 59. ds0fj0iq0cy esa vnZyh d{k iaftdk dk fdl iaftdk
in form No.? la[;k esa j[k&j[kko fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) Form No. 16 (B) Form No. 46 (A) QkW eZ la0 &16 (B) QkWeZ la0&46
(C) Form No. 08 (D) Form No. 15 A (C) QkW eZ la0 &08 (D) QkWeZ la0&15 ,

60. No members of the force will visit married lines 60. dksbZ cy dk lnL; fookfgr ykbZu esa fuEu esa fdl
except than those who have been allotted a quarter ds vuqefr ls Hkze.k dj ldrk gS \
without permission of (A) mi dek.MsV (,Me)
(A) DC (Adm) (B) dek.Ms V
(B) Comdt. (C) lq csnkj estj
(C) Subedar Major. (D) mi fujh{kd ¼gkbZ f tu ,.M lsf uVs”ku½
(D) SI (Hygeine & Sanitation)

61. Shuttle run test measures – 61. ‘kV~y ju ijh{k.k dk ekin.M gS%&
(A) Explosive strength (A) foLQks V d etcwr h
(B) Speed endurance (B) xfr lgu’khyrk
(C) Agility (C) Qw r hZ
(D) Speed (D) xfr

62. Fatigue comes during training due to – 62. izf’k{k.k ds nkSjku Fkdku ds dkj.k gSa%&
(A) Lactic acid (B) Adrenal (A) yS fDVd vEy (B) xq nsZ laca/ kh
(C) CO 2 (D) PH factor. (C) dkcZ u Mk;vkW D lkbZ M (D) ih-,p- ?kVd

63. How many Numbers of Trained solder Table Cord 63. VsªuaM lksYtj Vscy dkWMZ fdrus izdkj ds gS%a &
are there- (A) 5 (B) 7
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
(C) 8 (D) 9

64. MR claim can be preferred in how many days from 64. mipkj dh lekfIr ls fdrus fnuksa es a fpfdRlk
the completion of treatment? izfriwfrZ nkok dks ojh;rk nh tkrh gS\
(A) 01 month (B) 03 months (A) 01 eghuk (B) 03 eghus
(C) 45 days (D) None of the above (C) 45 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

65. As per latest orders the Firefighting practice in duty 65. uohure izko/kkuksa ds vuqlkj Qk;j QkbfVax ikVhZ
Bn be carried out once in? dk vH;kl fM;wV h CkVkfy;u esa fdrus fnuksa ij
(A) 07 Days (B) Monthly gks u h pkfg,\
(C) 15 Days (D) None the above (A) 07 fnu (B) ekfld
(C) 15 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

66. Ecology deals with 66. ifjfLFkfrdh lac) gS %&

(A) Birds (A) i{kh
(B) Cell formation (B) dksf ’kdk xBu
(C) Relation between organisms and their (C) thoksa vkSj okrkoj.k ds chp laca/k
environment (D) mRrdks a
(D) Tissues

1550 10 SET-D
67. How many total firing practs (including day & night) 67. okf”kZd pkanekjh esa VªUs M lksYtj ds fy, 9 ,e-,e-
are there in ARCF for trained soldier firing from dkjckbZ u ls dq y ¼jkr&fnu feykdj½ Qk;fja x
9MM Carbine? izSfDVl j[kh x;h gS %&
(A) 08 (B) 07 (A) 08 (B) 0 7
(C) 06 (D) 05 (C) 06 (D) 05

68. How many types of sights are being used in X-95 68. X-95 jkbQy esa fdrus izdkj dh lkbZVl bLrseky
rifle? dh tkrh gS?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 5 (C) 2 (D) 5

69. After how many paces hand will come down in the 69. Ckk, ;k nkfgus ds lY;wV esa fdrus dne ds ckn
Salute of Left or Right? gkFk uhps vk,axs \
(A) 4 (B) 6 (A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 7 (C) 5 (D) 7

70. The ozone layer restricts 70. vkstksu ijr D;k lhafer djrh gSa %&
(A) Visible light (A) n` ’; iz d k’k
(B) Infrared radiation (B) vojDr fofdj.k
(C) X-rays and gamma rays (C) ,Dl&js vkSj xkek fdj.kksa
(D) Ultraviolet radiation (D) ijkcS ax uh fofdj.k

71. Filaria is caused by 71. Qkbysfj;k fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS %&

(A) Bacteria (B) Mosquito (A) cS f DVª ; k (B) ePNj
(C) Protozoa (D) Virus (C) iz k s V ks t ks v k (D) okbjl

72. Newly raised CRPF Mahila Bn inducted in LWE 72. dsfjiqcy esa ,aVh uDly v‚ijs’ku ds fy, okeiaFkh
Area for Anti Naxal operation. mxzokn {ks= esa ,d ubZ efgyk cVkfy;u dks ‘kkfey
(A) 88 (B) 135 fd;k gS]a og gS&
(C) 232 (D) 233 (A) 88 cVkfy;u (B) 135 cVkfy;u
(C) 232 cVkfy;u (D) 233 cVkfy;u

73. Which CRPF Training Institution awarded with 73. ds f jiq c y ds fdl çf’k{k.k dsU nz ftls loks Z R re
Home minister Cup for best Training Centre for jax:V çf’k{k.k ds fy, x`g ea=h di }kjk lEekfur
recruits. fd;k x;k gS&
(A) RTC Neemach (B) RTC Rajgir (A) vkjVhlh uhep (B) vkjVhlh jktxhj
(C) RTC Amethi (D) CIAT Silchar (C) vkjVhlh vesB h (D) lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- flypj

74. Latest CIAT School of CRPF established at which 74. ds f jiq c y es a uohure lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- Ldw y fdl
place. txg LFkkfir fd;k x;k gS\
(A) Latur (B) Chittoor (A) ykrw j (B) fpÙkw j
(C) Belgam (D) Bijapur (C) csy xkW a o (D) chtkiq j

1550 11 SET-D
75. Which Central Team of CRPF won the Gold medal 75. dsfjiqcy ds bfrgkl esa dsfjiqcy ds fdl dsaæh;
in AIPDM-2016 for the first time in the history of [ksy ny us igyh ckj ,-vkbZ-ih-Mh-,e-&2016 esa
CRPF? Lo.kZ ind thrk gS\
(A) Volleyball (B) Basketball (A) okW y hckW y (B) ckLds V c‚y
(C) Hockey (D) Rowing (C) g‚dh (D) jks b a x A

76. 7th National Conference of Women in Police was 76. 7 oha jk”Vªh; efgyk iqf yl lEesyu dsfjiqcy esa
organized the first time in CRPF, the venue was :- izFke ckj fdl LFky ij vk;ksftr fd;k x;k Fkk\
(A) ISA M/Abu (A) vkaalqv- ekmaV vkcw
(B) Vigyan Bhawan Delhi (B) foKku Hkou fnYyh
(C) CRPF Dte. General, New Delhi (C) ds f jiq c y egkfuns ’ kky;
(D) CRPF Academy Kadarpur (D) dsf jiq cy vdkneh dknjiq j

77. Name of CRPF Commandant who is martyred 77. lhvkjih,Q dekaMsaV tks 15 vxLr 2016 Jhuxj
on 15 Aug’2016 in Srinagar? esa ‘kghn gqvk dk uke gS A
(A) Pravin Kumar (A) iz o h.k dq ekj
(B) Pramod Kumar (B) izeksn dq ekj
(C) Pravesh Chand (C) izos’k pan
(D) Piyush Chand (D) ih;w”k pan

78. Which of the following activities measures dynamic 78. xfr’khy ‘kfä dk izeq[k ekin.M gSa%&
strength – (A) [kM+k dwnuk
(A) Vertical jump (B) NksVh nkS M+
(B) Short distance run (C) QkjoMZ jksYk
(C) Forward roll (D) jLlk Pk<+uk
(D) Rope climbing

79. What does BMI measures – 79. BMI dk ekin.M gSa%&

(A) Flexibility (B) Muscles weight (A) yphykiu (B) ekal is’ kh otu
(C) Body fat (D) Strength (C) ’kkjhfjd olk (D) etcw r h

80. Which Standing order is applicable for Annual 80. ds0fj0iq0cy esa okf”kZd pkWanekjh oxhZdj.k Qk;fjax
Range classification firing instructions in CRPF? ls lacaf/kr fn’kk&funsZ’k fdl LFkkbZ vkns’k esa gS \
(A) S O- 06/2008 (A) LFkkbZ vk0 06@2008
(B) S O- 09/2011 (B) LFkkbZ vk0 09@2011
(C) S O- 10/2012 (C) LFkkbZ vk0 10@2012
(D) S O- 01/201 (D) LFkkbZ vk0 01@2016

81. Mistake occurred because of Trigger operation 81. fVªxj vkWijs’ku ls gksus okyh xyrh dgykrh gS \
is called? (A) fQ~ y ap (B) tdZ
(A) Flinch (B) Jerk (C) c d (D) mi;qDr lHkh
(C) Buck (D) All of these

1550 12 SET-D
82. CRPF sponsored two players of J&K got 82. dsf jiq c y us tEew& d’ehj ds 02 f[kykfM+; ksa dks
opportunity to play which game at the International varjjk”Vªh; Lrj ij fdl [ksy esa ekSdk ,oa çk;ksftr
level fd;k x;k \
(A) Badminton (B) Football (A) cS M feaV u (B) Qq V c‚y
(C) Cricket (D) Boxing (C) fØds V (D) eq D ds c kth

83. Which exercise is beneficial to rectify the mistake 83. Qk;jj }kjk lkbV ,ykbuesUV dh xyrh dks nwj
of sight alignment by a firer? djus ds fy, dkSu lh ,DljlkbZt dh t:jr gS \
(A) Aiming box exercise (A) ,feax ckW D l ,DljlkbZ t
(B) Aiming corrector exercise (B) ,feax djsD Vj ,DljlkbZ t
(C) Breathing control exercise (C) fcz f nax dUVªk sy ,DljlkbZ t
(D) Tin disc exercise (D) Vhu fMLd ,DljlkbZt

84. Which drill is adopted by CRPF on firing range? 84. ds- fj-iq- cy }kjk Qk;fjax jsast ij dkS u lh fMªy
(A) Company drill (B) Discipline drill viukbZ tkrh gS \
(C) A to G drill (D) Fire arm safety drill (A) dEiuh fMªy (B) vuq ’kklu fMªy
(C) A ls G fMªy (D) Qk;j vkeZ lqj{kk fMªy

85. When to zero the weapon? 85. oSiu dks thjks dc fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) When the weapon newly issued (A) tc u;k oSiu tkjh fd;k tkrk gS
(B) After handing/taking over of weapon on (B) VªkalQj ij oSiu dks nsus o ysus ds ckn
transfer (C) izeq[k ejEer ds ckn
(C) After major repair (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh
(D) All of these

86. How many type of grenades are being fired by 86. UBGL ds }kjk fdrus izdkj ds xzsuMs Qk;j fd;s
UBGL tkrs gS\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 7 (C) 4 (D) 7

87. Coral reefs in India can be found in 87. Hkkjr esa ewaxs dh pV~Vkusa dgak ik;h tk ldrh gSa %&
(A) the coast of Orissa (A) vksfMlk ds rV
(B) Waltair (B) okYVs ; j
(C) Rameshwaram (C) jkes’ oje~
(D) Trivandrum (D) f=os U nz e

88. Film and TV Institute of India is located at 88. Hkkjrh; fQYe o Vsy hfotu laLFkku dga k fLFkr
(A) Pune (Maharashtra) gS % &
(B) Rajkot (Gujarat) (A) iq .ks ¼egkjk”Vª½
(C) Pimpri (Maharashtra) (B) jktdksV ¼xq t jkr½
(D) Perambur (Tamilnadu) (C) ihai jh ¼egkjk”Vª ½
(D) isj kEcwj ¼rfeyukMq ½

1550 13 SET-D
89. Gravity setting chambers are used in industries to 89. fdldks gVkus ds fy, m|ks x ks a es a xq : Rokd”kZ . k
remove psEcj dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) SO2 (A) lYQj MkbvkDlkbZ M
(B) NO 2 (B) ukbVª k st u MkbvkDlkbZ M
(C) Suspended particulate matter (C) fuyafcr d.k ekeyksa esa
(D) CO 2 (D) dkcZ u MkbvkDlkbZ M

90. What is scoring pattern prescribed in ARCF for 90.
trained soldier firing with INSAS Rifle?
(A) Marksman-74,1stClass-60 & Std Shot-46
(B) Marksman-86,1stClass-72 & Std Shot-58.
(C) Marksman-98,1stClass-79 & Std Shot-65.
(D) Marksman-106,1stClass-87 & Std Shot-73.
okf”kZd pkanekjh esa bUlkl jkbQy Qk;fjax ds fy,
fu/kZkfjr vkadyu esa] izkIrkdksa dk dkSu lk fofoj.k
lgh gS \
(A) ekDZ leS u&74]QLV Dykl&60 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &46
(B) ekDZ leS u&86]QLV Dykl&72 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &58
(C) ekDZ leSu&98] QLV Dykl&79 rFkk LVS .MZM
‘kkW V &65
(D) ekDZ leS u&106]QLV Dykl&87 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &73

91. What is the life of peak cap for SOs? 91. vf/kuLFk vf/kdkjh ds fy, ih&dS i dk ykbZ Q
(A) 06 years (B) 02 years fdruk gS\
(C) 03 years (D) 04 years ¼A½ 06 o”kZ ¼B½ 02 o”kZ
¼C½ 03 o”kZ ¼D½ 04 o”kZ

92. DA is admissible for absence from HQ for not less 92. vU; M~;fw V ds fy, de&ls de fuEufyf[kr le;
than ds fy, eq[;ky; ls vuqifLFkr jgus gsrq nSfud
(A) 6 hrs (B) 9 hrs HkRrk ns; gksxk A
(C) 8 hrs (D) 10 hrs (A) 6 ?kaVs (B) 9 ?kaVs
(C) 8 ?kaVs (D) 10 ?kaVs

93. Within what distance no person is allowed to do 93. fdruh nwjh ij ernku dsUnz ds Hkhrj vkSj pkjksa vksj
any canvassing in and around the polling station fdlh ny fo”ks ’ k ds i{k es a leFkZ u eka x us dh
(A) 200 Yards (B) 100 Yards vuqefr ugha nh tkrh gS \
(C) 150 Yards (D) 250 Yards (A) 200 xt (B) 100 xt
(C) 150 xt (D) 250 xt

94. Response time of RAF to Law and Order situation
within the same station when it is on call, is
(A) 30 minutes for move of all Coys.
(B) 45 minutes for move of all Coys.
(C) 60 minute for move of all Coys.
(D) 15 minutes of move of all Coys.
94. fdlh LFkku ij dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dh leL;k gsrq
vkj0,0,Q0 }kjk dkjZokbZ djus dk le;]tc bls
cqyk;k tkrk gS \
(A) lHkh dEiuh dk 30 feuV esa lapkyu
(B) lHkh dEiuh dk 45 feuV esa lapkyu
(C) lHkh dEiuh dk 60 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) lHkh dEiuh dk 15 feuV esa lapkyu

1550 14 SET-D
95. Vehicle to Vehicle distance in convoy movement
should be ……….. Meter in hilly and ………
meter in plain area.
(A) 20 to 30 meter, 300 to 500 meter
(B) 50 to 100 meter, 100 to 200 meter
(C) 500 to 01 Km, 01 Km to 02 Km
(D) 01 to 02 Km, 04 Km to 05 Km.
95. dkfQyk lapkyu esa okgu dh okgu ls nwjh igkM+h
{ks = es a ------------------- vkS j lery {ks= esa ----------
gksu h pkfg,A
(A) 20 ls 30 ehVj] 300 ls 500 ehVj
(B) 50 ls 100 ehVj] 100 ls 200 ehVj
(C) 500 ls 01 fdeh0] 01 fdeh0 ls 02 fdeh0
(D) 01 ls 02 fdeh0] 04 fdeh0 ls 05 fdeh0

96. Which state government has recently declared 50% 96. gky gh esa fdl jkT; ljdkj us U;kf;d lsok esa
reservation in judicial services for OBCs, SCs, STs vU; fiNM+k oxZ] vuqlwfpr tkfr] vuqlwfpr tu
and EBCs? tkfr rFkk vkfFkZd :i ls fiNM+s oxZ ds fy, 50%
(A) Odisha (B) Madhya Pradesh vkj{k.k ykxw fd;k gS %&
(C) Bihar (D) Assam (A) vks f M’kk (B) e/; iz ns’k
(C) fcgkj (D) vle

97. Garampani sanctuary is located at 97. xjeikuh vHk;kj.; dgak fLFkr gS %&
(A) Junagarh, Gujarat (A) tqukx<+ ¼xq tjkr½
(B) Diphu, Assam (B) nhQw ¼vle½
(C) Kohima, Nagaland (C) dksf gek ¼ukxkyS aM ½
(D) Gangtok, Sikkim (D) xax Vksd ¼flfDde½

98. When is Kit classification carried out? 98. fdV DykflfQds’ku dc fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) At the time of pension ¼A½ isU’ku tkus ij
(B) At the time of tfr ¼B½ LFkkukUrj.k tkus ij
(C) Loss of any item ¼C½ O;fDrxr fdV ystj xqe gksus ij
(D) None of them ¼D½ buesa ls dksbZ ughA

99. For Dog Squad, how many weeks of trg are there 99. Mk~Wx LDokM ds fy, Mk~Wx ,ao gSaMyj dk izf’k{k.k
for Dog and its handler fdrus LkIrkg dk gSA
(A) 24 (B) 36 (A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 46 (C) 40 (D) 46

100. What is the area of jurisdiction of RAF unit? 100. vkj0,0,Q cVk0 dk dk;Z {kS= fdruk gS\
(A) 250 Km (B) 350 Km ¼A½ 250 fd eh (B) 350 fd eh
(C) 300 Km (D) 325 Km (C) 300 fd eh (D) 325 fd eh

1550 15 SET-D
 PART-III
NUMERICAL ABILITY

101. What is the smallest number to be subtracted from 101. 549160 esa ls og NksVh lh NksVh dkSu lh la[;k
549160 in order to make a perfect square? ?kVk;h tk, rkfd og iw.kZ oxZ cu tk;s%
(A) 79 (B) 81 (A) 79 (B) 81
(C) 80 (D) 1 (C) 80 (D) 1

102. The average of five consecutive even numbers is 102. ik¡p yxkrkj le la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 26 gS] rks muesa
26. Find the smallest of them? ls lcls NksVh la[;k Kkr djsaA
(A) 20 (B) 22 (A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 28 (C) 24 (D) 28

103. The average of 11 numbers is 60. If the average of 103. 11 la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 60 gSA ;fn izFke 6 dk
first six numbers is 58 and that of last six is 63, find vkSlr 58 rFkk vfUre 6 dk vkSlr 63 gks rks] NBh
the sixth number : la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 60 (B) 66 (A) 60 (B) 66
(C) 72 (D) 78 (C) 72 (D) 78

104. The average age of 36 persons in a group is 14 104. fdlh lewg ds 36 yksxksa dk vkSlr vk;q 14 o’kZ gS
years. When an extra person’s age is included to it, lewg esa ,d vfrfjDr vkneh vkus ds ckn vkSlr 1
the average increases by one. What is the extra ls c<+ tkrh gSA rks mls vfrfjDr vkneh dh vk;q
person’s age in years? o’kZ esa D;k gS\
(A) 41 (B) 47 (A) 41 (B) 47
(C) 49 (D) 51 (C) 49 (D) 51

105. A driver travels to a place 150 km away at an 105. ,d pkyd 150 fdeh dh nwjh 50 fdeh@?kaVk dh
average speed of 50 km/hr and return at vkSlr pky ls rS; djrk gS rFkk 30 fdeh@?kaVk dh
30 km/hr. His average speed for the whole journey vkSlr pky ls og okil vk tkrk gsA rks mlds
in km/hr is : lEiw.kZ ;k=k dh vkSlr pky fudkys%
(A) 33.5 km/hr (B) 37.5 km/hr (A) 33-5 fdeh@?kaVk (B) 37-5 fdeh@?kaVk
(C) 35 km/hr (D) 37 km/hr (C) 35 fdeh@?kaVk (D) 37 fdeh@?kaVk

106. 50 is divided into two parts such that the sum of 106. 50 dks nks Hkkxksa esa bl izdkj ck¡Vk tkrk gS fd mlds
1 1
their reciprocals is , find largest part? O;qRØe dk ;ksxQy gS] rks cM+k Hkkx crkos\
8 8
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40 (C) 30 (D) 40

107. Present ages of Mohan and Sohan are in the ratio 107. eksgu rFkk lksgu dh oÙkZeku vk;q dk vuqikr
of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of 5 % 4 gSA rhu o’kZ ds ckn muds vk;q dk vuqikr
their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is 11 % 9 gks tk,xkA rks eksgu dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k
Mohan’s present age in years ? gS\
(A) 30 (B) 24 (A) 30 (B) 24
(C) 27 (D) 40 (C) 27 (D) 40

1550 16 SET-D
108. Sushil’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 108. 15 o’kZ okn lq”khy dh vk;q mlds 5 o’kZ igys dh
5 years back. What is the present age of Sushil? vk;q dh 5 xq.kk gks tk,xh lq”khy dh oÙkZeku vk;q
(A) 15 (B) 20 D;k gS\
(C) 10 (D) 25 (A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 10 (D) 25

109. The Sum of ages of a father and his son is 45 years. 109. firk rFkk iq= dh vk;q dk ;ksxQy dk 45 o’kZ gS]
Five years ago, the product of their ages was 34. 5 o’kZ igys nksuksa ds vk;q dk xq.kuQy 34 gS rks iq=
The age of the son is : dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 6 years (B) 7 years (A) 6 o’kZ (B) 7 o’kZ
(C) 8 years (D) 9 years (C) 8 o’kZ (D) 9 o’kZ

110. In 10 years, x will be twice as old as y was 10 110. 10 o’kksZ esa x dh vk;q y ds 10 o’kZ ds igys dh vk;’q
years ago. If x is now 9 years older than y the dh nwxquk gks tk,xh] ;fn oÙkZeku esa x, y ls 9 o’kZ
present age of y is : cM+k gS rks y dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 39 years (B) 29 years (A) 39 o’kZ (B) 29 o’kZ
(C) 19 years (D) 21 years (C) 19 o’kZ (D) 21 o’kZ

3 6 6
6 3
111. What is the value of : 6
3 7 111. 7 dk eku D;k gS\
6 X 6 6 X 6
3

1 1
(A) 6 (B) (A) 6 (B)
6 6
(C) 1 (D) 0 (C) 1 (D) 0

3X(81) 4 3X(81) 4
112. If n 5 =27, then n =? 112. ;fn n 5 =27, gks rks n =?
9 X3 X(27) 3 9 X3 X(27) 3
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
3 2 3 2
1 1
(C) 0 (D) (C) 0 (D)
4 4
4
113. Sixty five percent of a number is 21 less than 113. fdlh la[;k dks 65 izfr”kr ml la[;k ds Hkkx
5
four-fifth of that number. What is the number?
ls 21 de gS] rks la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 120 (B) 160
(A) 120 (B) 160
(C) 140 (D) 180
(C) 140 (D) 180
114. 15% of 600 + 45 % of 280 = ?
114. 600 dk 15% $ 280 dk 45 % = ?
(A) 216 (B) 236
(A) 216 (B) 236
(C) 126 (D) 246
(C) 126 (D) 246

1550 17 SET-D
 3 4 3 4
115. Raman reads of a book on one day and of 115. jeu 1 fnu esa Hkkx fdrkc i<+rk gS] “ks’k dk
8 5 8 5
the remainder on another day. If there are 30 pages Hkkx nwljs fnu i<+rk gS] ;fn vc 30 i`’B ugha i<+k
unread now., how many pages did the book gqvk cpk gS rks fdrkc esa dqy fdrus i`’B Fks%
contain ? (A) 200 (B) 240
(A) 200 (B) 240 (C) 80 (D) 120
(C) 80 (D) 120

116. A seller purchased a washing machine for 116. ,d foØsrk ,d okf”kax e”khu dks :0 7]660 esa
Rs. 7, 660. After allowing a discount of 12% on its [kjhnrk gSA mlds vafdr ewY; ij 12% NwV nsus ds
marked price, he still gains 10% . Find the marked ckn Hkh 10% ykHk dekrk gSA rks e”khu dk vafdr
price of washing machine : ewY; D;k gS\
(A) Rs. 9575 (B) Rs. 9675 (A) 9575 :0 (B) 9675 :0
(C) Rs. 8246 (D) Rs. 9755 (C) 8246 :0 (D) 9755 :0

117. A man purchared an article and sold it to be B at a 117. A vkneh ,d oLrq [kjhn dj 25% ykHk ij B dks csp
profit of 25% and B sold it to C at a loss of 10% nsrk gS] B, C dks 10% gkfu ij csp nsrk gS] C dks
and C paid Rs. 675 for it. For how much did A blds fy, 675 :i;k nsuk iM+rk gSA rks crk;sa fd A
purchase it : bls fdrus esa [kjhnk Fkk\
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 550 (A) 500 :0 (B) 550 :0
(C) Rs. 600 (D) Rs. 650 (C) 600 :0 (D) 650 :0

118. Two trains start from a certain place on two 118. nks Vsªu lekukUrj VSªd ij ,d gh fn”kk esa ,d gh
parallel tracks in the same direction. The speed of fcUnq ls pyuk izkjEHk djrh gSA Vsªu dh xfr 45
the trains are 45 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively. fdeh@?kaVk rFkk 40 fdeh@?kaVk Øe”k% gSA rks 45
The distance between two trains after 45 minutes feuV ds ckn nksuksa jsyxkM+h dh chp dh nwjh D;k
will be : gksxh\
(A) 3 km 750 m (B) 3 km 550 m (A) 3 fdeh 750 eh (B) 3 fdeh 550 eh
(C) 2 km 750 m (D) 2 km 550 m (C) 2 fdeh 750 eh (D) 2 fdeh 550 eh

1 3 1 1 3 1
119. If x  =3, the value of x  3 is : 119. ;fn x  =3, gks rks] x  dk eku gS%
x x x x3
(A) 30 (B) 36 (A) 30 (B) 36
(C) 34 (D) 40 (C) 34 (D) 40

120. The area of equilateral triangle is 4 3 square metre. 120. leckgq f=Hkqt dk {ks=Qy 4 3 oxZehVj gS] rks
Its perimeter is : bldk ifjeki gS%
(A) 14 metre (A) 14 ehVj
(B) 12 metre (B) 12 ehVj
(C) 6 3 metre (C) 6 3 ehVj
(D) 12 3 metre (D) 12 3 ehVj

1550 18 SET-D
121. The unit digit in the product 121. (284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ds xq.kuQy dk bZdkbZ
(284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ? vad gS%
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

122. What is the unit dight of (795-358) x 511 ? 122. (795-358) x 511 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 0 (B) 4 (A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 7 (C) 6 (D) 7

123. What is the unit digit of (2157) 754? 123. (2157) 754 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 3 (B) 6 (A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 9 (C) 7 (D) 9

124. If (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, then x = ? 124. ;fn (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, gks rks] x = ?

(A) 140 (B) 240 (A) 140 (B) 240
(C) 360 (D) 280 (C) 360 (D) 280

125. If the product 4864 X 9 x 2 is divisible by 12, the 125. ;fn 4864 X 9 x 2 dk xq.kuQy 12 ls foHkkftr gks]
value of x is : rks x dk eku gS%
(A) 2 (B) 1 (A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

126. If x and y are odd numbers, then which of the 126. ;fn x rFkk y fo’ke la[;k,¡ gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa
following is even? dkSu le gS\
(A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1 (A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1
(C) xy +2 (D) xy (C) xy +2 (D) xy

127. The largest 5-digit number exactly divisible by 91 127. ik¡p vadks dh lcls cM+h la[;k tks dh 91 ls iw.kZr%
is: foHkkftr gks %
(A) 99981 (B) 99999 (A) 99981 (B) 99999
(C) 99918 (D) 99971 (C) 99918 (D) 99971

128. What least number must be subtracted from 13602, 128. 13602 esa ls og lcls NksVh la[;k dkSu&lh ?kVk;h
so that the remainder is divisible by 87? tk; fd “ks’kQy 87 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks tk;\
(A) 29 (B) 31 (A) 29 (B) 31
(C) 30 (D) 37 (C) 30 (D) 37

129. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ? 129. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ?

(A) 1536 (B) 1540 (A) 1536 (B) 1540
(C) 1150 (D) 1140 (C) 1150 (D) 1140

130. How many natural numbers are there between 17 130. 17 rFkk 100 ds chp dqy fdrus izkÑr la[;k gS tks
and 100 which are exactly divisible by 6 ? fd 6 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks \
(A) 12 (B) 13 (A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15 (C) 14 (D) 15

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131. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. 131. nks la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 3 % 4 gS] ;fn mudk e0 l0
is 8, their L.C.M. is : 8 gS rks mudk y0 l0 D;k gksxk\
(A) 96 (B) 108 (A) 96 (B) 108
(C) 48 (D) 64 (C) 48 (D) 64

4 3 4 9 4 3 4 9
132. The L.C.M. of , , , is : 132. , , rFkk dk y0 l0 gS %
3 5 7 13 3 5 7 13
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
36 1365 36 1365
12 12
(C) 36 (D) (C) 36 (D)
448 448

133. 0.517  0.00517 = ? 133. 0.517  0.00517 = ?

(A) 1 (B) 10 (A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 100 (D) None of these (C) 100 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

1 1
134. is equal to : 134. dk eku gS%
0.02 0.02
(A) 100 (B) 50 (A) 100 (B) 50
2 1 2 1
(C) (D) (C) (D)
50 20 50 20

0.009 0.009
135. If = 0.001, then x = ? 135. ;fn = 0.001, gks rks x = ?
x x
(A) 90 (B) 9 (A) 90 (B) 9
1 1
(C) 0.9 (D) (C) 0.9 (D)
90 90

136. The value of 0.47 is : 136. 0.47 dk eku cjkcj gS %

47 47 47 47
(A) (B) (A) (B)
10 99 10 99
43 47 43 47
(C) (D) (C) (D)
90 9 90 9

ba ba
137. If 1.5 a = 0.04 b, then value of   is : 137. ;fn 1.5 a = 0.04 b, gks] rks   dk eku gS%
ba ba
73 7 .3 73 7 .3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
77 77 77 77
730 7.3 730 7 .3
(C) (D) (C) (D)
77 777 77 777

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 (0.6) 4  (0.5) 4 (0.6) 4  (0.5) 4
138.
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
is equal to : 138.
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
dk eku cjkcj gS %
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.11 (A) 0.1 (B) 0.11
(C) 1.1 (D) 11 (C) 1.1 (D) 11

P 6 P2  Q2 P 6 P2  Q2

139. If Q 5 , find the value of 2 : 
139. ;fn Q 5 ] gks rks 2 dk eku fudkys %
P  Q2 P  Q2
51 61 51 61
(A) (B) (A) (B)
11 11 11 11
49 49
(C) (D) 8 (C) (D) 8
11 11

2a 2a
140. If =1, then find the value of a ? 140. ;fn =1] gks rks a dk eku fudkys\
1 1
1 1
a a
1 1
1 a 1 a
3 3 3 3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
2 4 2 4
2 2
(C) (D) 0 (C) (D) 0
3 3

P P 3 P P 3
141. If  =1, then find the value of P? 141. ;fn  =1] gks rks] P dk eku fudkys\a
4 6 4 6
(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 0 (C) 6 (D) 0

1 1 1 1 1 1
142. If   =4, then a = ? 142. ;fn   =4] gks rks a = ?
3 2 a 3 2 a
5 6 5 6
(A) (B) (A) (B)
18 19 18 19
18 24 18 24
(C) (D) (C) (D)
5 11 5 11

a 4  4 2b  a  a 4  4 2b  a 
143. If  , then value of    is : 143. ;fn  , gks rks    dk eku gS%
b 5  7 2b  a  b 5  7 2b  a 
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 1 (A) 1 (B) 1
7 7
3 3
(C) 2 (D) (C) 2 (D)
7 7

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 a a a a
144. If  =4, then find the value of a ? 144. ;fn  =4, gks rks a dk eku fudkys \
5 6 5 6
(A) 120 (B) 100 (A) 120 (B) 100
5 2 5 2
(C) (D) (C) (D)
6 3 6 3

1 1
145. of a tanker holds 135 litres of water. What part 145. VSadj ds Hkkx esa 135 yhVj ikuh jgrk gSA ;fn
4 4
of tanker is full if it cantains 300 litres of water? VSadj esa 300 yhVj ikuh Hkjk tk; rks VSadj dk
5 1
fdruk Hkkx Hkjsxk\
(A) (B) 5 1
9 2
(A) (B)
9 2
2 9
(C) (D) 2 9
3 5
(C) (D)
3 5

146. A cricket team won 3 matches more than they lost. 146. ,d fØdsV Vhe thrrk eSp gkjrk gs mlls 3 eSp
If a win gives them 2 points and loss (-1) point, T;knk thrrk gS] ;fn thrus ij mls 2 vad rFkk
how many matches, in all, have they played if their gkjus ij (-1) vad feyrk gS] rks crk;sa fd 25 vad
score is 25? izkIr djus ds fy, mlus fdruk eSp [ksyk gksxk\
(A) 19 (B) 41 (A) 19 (B) 41
(C) 20 (D) 42 (C) 20 (D) 42

147. If a = 1+ 2 and b= 1- 2 , find the value of 147. ;fn a = 1+ 2 rFkk b= 1- 2 , gks rks (a +b ) dk
2 2

(a2+b2) : eku fudkys %

(A) 3 (B) 4 (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

148. If x =5, then what is the value of 10 x x3  x 2 148. ;fn x =5] gks rks] 10 x x3  x 2 dk eku D;k gS\

(A) 250 (B) 200 5 (A) 250 (B) 200 5

(C) 100 5 (D) 500 (C) 100 5 (D) 500

0.0196 0.0196
149. If = 0.2, then x = ? 149. ;fn = 0.2, gks] rks] x = ?
x x
(A) 0.49 (B) 4.9 (A) 0.49 (B) 4.9
(C) 0.049 (D) 0.07 (C) 0.049 (D) 0.07

150. If 3x = 3y = 3z and x + y + z = 27 29 , then 150. ;fn 3x = 3y = 3z rFkk x + y + z = 27 29 gks rks]

x 2  y 2  z 2 is : x2  y 2  z2 ?
(A) 87 (B) 84 (A) 87 (B) 84
(C) 2 29 (D) 4 29 (C) 2 29 (D) 4 29

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 PART-IV
HINDI

funsZ”k ¼151 ls 156½ % uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz”u esa dkys funsZ”k ¼157 ls 161½ % uhps dqN yksdksfDr;k¡ nh xbZ gSaA
Nis “kCn ds pkj lEHkkfor rkRi;Z fn, x, gSaA lgh izR;sd yksdksfDr esa tks mi;qDr “kCn NwV x;k gS]
fodYi pqfu,A mlds fjDr LFkku ds fy, p;u dhft,%

157. dj---------------------- rks gks Hkyk

151. yS k fdd
(A) lsok (B) Hkyk
(A) idM+ fy;k x;k
(C) cyk (D) cqjk
(B) ykSdh ls cuk
(C) ,d leku fn[kus okyk
158. Hkxoku ds ?kj ---------------------gS] va/kjs ugha
(D) tks bl yksd dh ckr gks
(A) nhid (B) izlkn
(C) nsj (D) ewfrZ
152. Ñik
(A) nq%[k esa lgkuqHkfr
159. ------------------- ds va/ks dks gjk gh gjk utj vkrk gS
(B) nhu O;fDr dh lgk;rk
(A) cpiu (B) lkou
(C) iSls ls enn
(C) ckr (D) vk¡[k
(D) fdlh ds fy, dksbZ dk;Z djuk

160. cUnj D;k tkus -------------- dk Lokn

153. la d ks p
(A) feBkbZ (B) vnjd
(A) fdlh dk;Z dks djus esa “keZ
(C) I;kt (D) thjs
(B) vuqfpr dk;Z djus esa fgpfdpkgV
(C) cqjs deksZ ij nq%[k
161. va/kksa esa ------------------------------------- jktk
(D) vkRefo”okl dk u gksuk
(A) yaxM+k (B) ywyk
(C) dkuk (D) igyoku
154. fujis { k
(A) ftls dqN Hkh Kku u gks
(B) tks fdlh dh lqurk u gks
funsZ”k ¼162 ls 166½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn,
(C) ftldk dksbZ i{k u gks
x, “kCn ds lekukFkhZ “kCn dk p;u mlds uhps fn,
(D) ftldks fdlh ckr dh dkeuk u gks
x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,%

162. ifjos”k
155. vi<+
(A) O;ogkj (B) vk¡xu
(A) tks i<+us ;ksX; u gks
(C) okrkoj.k (D) vkpj.k
(B) tks i<+k u x;k gks
(C) ftldk i<+uk euk gks
163. Nksg
(D) tks i<+k&fy[kk u gks
(A) fojkx (B) fojg
(C) eerk (D) Nwuk
156. “kL=
(A) tks gfFk;kj nwj ls Qad
s k tk,
164. uSlfxZd
(B) ftl gfFk;kj dks gkFk esa ysdj yM+k tk,
(A) izkÑfrd (B) dfYir
(C) tks gfFk;kj vpwd gks
(C) Ñf=e (D) iqjkru
(D) tks gfFk;kj ea= i<+dj iz;ksx esa fy;k tk,
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165. O;Fkk 173. dud&dud rs lkSxquh ekndrk vf/kdk;A
(A) {kksHk (B) ihM+k ;g [kk, ckSjkb uj] ok ik, ckSjk,AA
(C) d’V (D) nq%[k (A) rqylhnkl (B) fcgkjh
(C) ds”konkl (D) fo;ksxh gfj
166. ifjey
(A) lq[k (B) loksZÙke xU/k 174. esjh Hko&ok/kk gjkS jk/kk&ukxfj lksbZA
(C) foenZu (D) lgokl tk ru dh >kbZ ijS L;ke gfjr&nqfr gksbZAA
(A) Xoky (B) ds”konkl
funsZ”k ¼167 ls 171½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, (C) jl[kku (D) fcgkjh yky
x, “kCn esa iz;qDr lfU/k ds izdkj dk p;u mlds
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,% 175. izHkqth rqe panu ge ikuhA
tkdh vax&vax ckl lekuhAA
167. uk;d (A) jSnkl (B) eywdnkl
(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) xq.k lfU/k (C) xq:ukud (D) dchjnkl
(C) o`f) lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k
176. izxfrokn mi;ksfxrkokn dk nqljk uke gSA
168. Hkw’k.k (A) jkefoykl “kekZ
(A) folxZ lfU/k (B) ;.k lfU/k (B) ize
s pUn
(C) O;atu lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k (C) uUnnqykjs oktis;h
(D) lqfe=kuUnu iar
169. ;”kksnk
(A) Loj lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k 177. LFkk;h Hkkoksa dh la[;k dqy fdruh gS \
(C) folxZ lfU/k (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (A) ukS (B) nl
(C) X;kjg (D) ckjg
170. n;kuUn
(A) xq.k lfU/k (B) nh?kZ lfU/k 178. jl ds fdrus vax gksrs gSa\
(C) O;atu lfU/k (D) ;.k lfU/k (A) nks (B) pkj
(C) ik¡p (D) N%
171. uhjksx
(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k 179. loZJ’s B jl fdls ekuk tkrk gS\
(C) xq.k lfU/k (D) folxZ lfU/k (A) jkSnz jl (B) J`axkj jl
(C) d:.k jl (D) ohj jl
funsZ”k ¼172 ls 176½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa nh
xbZ iafDr;ksa ds jpf;rk ds pkj lEHkfor uke fn, 180. dfo fcgkjh eq[;r% fdl jl ds dfo gSa\
x, gSA mi;qDr jpf;rk ds uke dk p;u dhft,% (A) d:.k (B) HkfDr
(C) J`axkj (D) ohj
172. lf[k os eq>ls dg dj tkrsA
(A) vKs; (B) eSfFkyh”kj.k xqIr 181. NUn dk loZizFke mYys[k dgk¡ feyrk gS\
(C) t;”kadj izlkn (D) gfjvkS/k (A) _Xosn (B) mifu’kn
(C) lkeosn (D) ;tqoZn
s

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182. NUn eq[; :i ls fdrus izdkj ds gksrs gS\ 191. pkSjkgk
(A) nks (B) rhu (A) cgqczhfg (B) rRiq:’k
(C) pkj (D) N% (C) vO;;hHkko (D) f)xq

183. fdl NUn dk izFke o vfUre “kCn ,d&lk gksrk funsZ”k ¼192 ls 196½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd pkj fodYiksa
gS\ ls csesy ¼vlaxr½ “kCn dks fpafgRr dhft,A
(A) nksgk (B) jksyk
(C) lksjBk (D) dq.Mfy;k 192.
(A) “kkjhfjd (B) nSfgd
184. NIi; fdl izdkj dk NUn gSa\ (C) ekufld (D) vkf/k
(A) fo’ke (B) le
(C) v)Zle (D) ekf=d 193.
(A) pksV (B) t[e
185. nksgk fdl izdkj dk NUn gS\ (C) [kwu (D) ihM+k
(A) le~ (B) fo’ke
(C) v)Zle (D) bueas ls dksbZ ugha 194.
(A) izfr;ksfxrk (B) Hkkstu
186. fuEufyf[kr esa ekf=d le NUn dk dkSu&lk (C) f[kykM+h (D) nkSM+
mnkgj.k gS\
(A) nksgk (B) lksjBk 195.
(C) pkSikbZ (D) ;s lHkh (A) ;qorh (B) ckfydk
(C) nqfgrk (D) uo;qod
funsZ”k ¼187 ls 191½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd “kCn ds fy,
mlds uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls mi;qDr lekl 196.
N¡fV,% (A) jks’k (B) dksi
(C) ve’kZ (D) v”kksd
187. jkekuqt
(A) rRiq:’k (B) nU) funsZ”k ¼197 ls 200½ % fuEu esa ls ljy okD; dk p;u
(C) deZ/kkj; (D) cgqczhfg dhft,%

188. lifjokj 197.

(A) vO;;hHkko (B) rRiq:’k (A) mlus dgk fd dk;kZy; cUn gks x;kA
(C) f)xq (D) cgqczhfg (B) lqcg gqbZ vkSj og vk x;kA
(C) jkgqy /khjs&/khjs fy[krk gSA
189. jkr&fnu (D) tks cM+s gSa] mUgas lEeku nksA
(A) f)xq (B) rRiq:’k
(C) )U) (D) deZ/kkj;

190. ouokl
(A) vO;;hHkko (B) deZ/kkj;
(C) rRiq:’k (D) }U)
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198. 200.
(A) og T;ksa gh vk,] esjs ikl Hkst nsukA (A) fo|k ls c<+dj dksbZ /ku ugha gSA
(B) fuf/k VkbZi djuk lh[k pqdh] vc og “kkVZ (B) ns”k esa fodkl dk;ksZ dh izxfr /kheh jgh gS
gS.M lh[k jgh gSA D;ksafd ljdkj ds ikl /ku ugha FkkA
(C) fot; dks cksyksa fd QkSju pyk vk,A (C) cM+ksa dks pkfg, fd cPpksa ds izfr vius O;ogkj
(D) ;FkklaHko ;g dk;Z “kke rd iwjk dj nks dks fu;af=r j[ksA
(D) ;fn lQyrk pkgrs gks rks ifjJe djuk gh
199. iMs+xk
(A) mldks bruh ftEesnkfj;k¡ er nks fd og mUgsa
fuHkk u ldsA
(B) mUgha yksxksa ls feyuk pkfg, ftuls ln~O;ogkj
dh f”k{kk feysA
(C) dksbZ ugha tkurk fd dy D;k gksxkA
(D) n;k ls c<+dj dksbZ Hkko ugha gSA
*************************************************************************************

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 PART-IV
ENGLISH
Direction (151-155) : In each of the questions, arrange Direction (156-160) : In the following questions, a
the jumbled letter or phrases to make a meaningful sentence/ part of sentence is printed underlined.
sentence : Below four alternatives are given to the underlined
part of the sentence as (A), (B) and (C) which may
151. P. each year improve the sentence. Choose the correct
Q. two to five adults alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your
R. get gold answer is (D):
S. on an average
(A) PSQR (B) PRSQ 156. The student’s interest was raised by an article he
(C) SRQP (D) RSQP had read :
(A) quickened (B) multiplied
152. P. can be dangerous (C) increased (D) no improvement
Q. the indiscriminate
R. without medical supervision 157. This telephone number is not existing:
S. and critical use of any drug (A) has not existed (B) has not been existing
(A) PQRS (B) PRQS (C) does not exist (D) no improvement
(C) QSRP (D) SPQR
158. The businessman is respectively connected :
153. P. destroyed careers (A) respectfully (B) respectably
Q. many (C) receptively (D) no improvement
R. has resulted in
S. drug addiction 159. I met him in the way :
(A) PQSR (B) PRQS (A) on the way (B) at the way
(C) during the way (D) no improvement
(C) SRQP (D) SPQR

160. The boy said that he has read the book :

154. P. by making swallowing difficutt (A) he has already read
Q. a sore throat (B) he had read
R. daily life (C) he has finished to read
S. interferes with (D) no improvement
(A) QSRP (B) QPRS
(C) PRQS (D) PQRS Direction (161-165) : Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the
155. P. America’s four alternatives :
Q. in 1961
R. war launched Passage
S. first manned aircrafts The advent of electric power was, in a way,
(A) PRQS (B) PQSR comparable to the successful development and
(C) QSRP (D) PSRQ application of nuclear power in 20th century. In fact,
the historical roots of electricity extend far back into
antiquity. Many men had a hand both in acquring
basic knowledge about the invisible form of power
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 and in developing the ways adopted for practical Direction (166-170) : In the following passage some of
purpose. One of the vital keys that helped to the words have been left out. After reading
unlock the doors leading to the production of carefully fill in the blanks with the help of given
electricity was the discovery, in 1831, of the alternatives :
principle of electromagnetic induction. This
discovery was made simultaneously by michael Passage
faraday in England and Joshef Henry in the United ‘CRY-child relief and you’ 196 an organization that
States. From it came the generator, sometimes also 197 started by seven such 198 and it has been
called dynamo but several decades of development working 199 1979 to change the lives of 200
had to follow before the first practical dynamos or children all over India.
generator came into existance in early 1870 :
166.
161. According to the author : (A) was (B) is
(A) Michael Faraday and Joseph Henry (C) are (D) being
revolutionized electricity in the USA
(B) Nuclear power and electricity were 167.
discovered in the 20th centery (A) has (B) being
(C) The discovery of the principle of (C) was (D) been
electromagnetic induction was not an
important discovery 168.
(D) The advent of electric power is equivalent to (A) friends (B) men
the application of nuclear power in 20th (C) people (D) individuals
century
169.
162. Michael Faraday and Josheph Henry discovered : (A) since (B) during
(A) the application of nuclear power (C) for (D) untill
(B) the genertor
(C) the dynamo 170.
(D) the principle of electromagnetic induction (A) underprivileged (B) privileged
(C) hopeless (D) denuded
163. Another word for ‘advent’ is .................. :
(A) discovery (B) arrival Direction (171-175 ) : Fill in the blanks with the
(C) invention (D) constitution appropriate word, choosing it from options given :

171. I found it difficult to cope ............. mathematics at

164. The generator was also known as the ........... :
the advanced level :
(A) inductor (B) dynamo (A) with (B) of
(C) inventor (D) conductor (C) for (D) up

165. Give a synonym for “antiquity”. 172. He was congratulated ..................... receiving his
(A) Ancient (B) Antipathy degree :
(C) Modern (D) Uniqueness (A) on (B) for
(C) by (D) of

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173. Some people quarrel ............ very trivial matters : 180.
(A) over (B) in (A) Make a list of foods that contain
(C) for (D) by (B) harmful
(C) chemicals
174. “May I know to ...... I am speaking.” (D) No error
(A) whom (B) who
(C) how (D) where Direction (181-185) : In the following questions, choose
the word from four alternatives which is most nearly
175. Bear............... me as I explain the matter more fully:
opposite in meaning to the given word :
(A) in (B) of
(C) with (D) for
181. Spiritual
Direction (176 -180) : In each sentence below (A) Earthly (B) Superior
four words have been printed in separate parts (C) Material (D) Disccord
which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
these parts may be mis spelt or an error in the 182. Harmony
context of the sentence the letter of that part is your (A) Agreement (B) Melody
answer. If there is no error, your answer is (D). i.e. (C) Confusion (D) Discord
No error.
183. Compulsion
176. (A) Constraint (B) Choice
(A) Collect newspaper and magazine having (C) Freedom (D) Spontaneity
articles on oil
(B) pullution and
184. Waste
(C) discuss them.
(A) Gain (B) Profit
(D) No error
(C) Nourish (D) Loss
177.
(A) We can demonstrate the 185. Successor
(B) phenomenon of evaporation and (A) Follower (B) Prodecessor
(C) condensation (C) Guide (D) Professor
(D) No error
Direction (186-190) : In the following questions. Out of
four alternatives, choose the one which best
178. expresses the meaning of the given word as your
(A) People dewlling in remote areas answer:
(B) suffer a lot because of
(C) in accessibility to hospitals 186. Honest
(D) No error (A) Authentic (B) Upright
(C) Direct (D) Actual
179.
(A) It is interesting that
187. Vocation
(B) floating docks and even
(A) Examination (B) Seminar
(C) ships can be made of concreat
(C) Occupation (D) Holiday
(D) No error

188. Ingenuous
(A) Innocent (B) Artful
(C) Cunning (D) Clever
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189. Innocuous 195. The conference takes place once in three years?
(A) Careless (B) Harmless (A) Tetraenning (B) Triennial
(C) Insufficient (D) Irresponssible (C) Treennial (D) Thriennial

190. Insolent Direction (196-200) : In the following questions, groups

(A) Disrespectful (B) Insoluble of four words are given. In each group one word is
(C) depreciating (D) the sole of a shoe correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word :

Direction (191-195) : In the following questions, out of 196.

the four alternatives, choose the one which can be (A) Variety (B) Anxdety
substituted for the given words/sentence (C) Gaitey (D) Sodety

191. A person who readily believes others : 197.

(A) Credible (B) Credulous (A) Coersion (B) Precision
(C) Sensitive (D) Sensible (C) Negociation (D) Explation

192. The political leader has an evil reputation. He is not 198.

trusted : (A) Harrassment (B) Commitment
(A) is notorious (B) is malicious (C) Breevement (D) Temparament
(C) is magnanimous (D) is dubious
199.
193. A person who helps even a stranger in difficulty : (A) Inefable (B) Inaecesible
(A) Samaritan (B) Altruist (C) Infallible (D) Invinsieble
(C) Philanthropist (D) Beneficiary
200.
(A) Expact (B) Impact
194. The production of raw silk :
(C) Exite (D) Imped
(A) Sericulture (B) Seroculture
(C) Sariculture (D) Syrumculture

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