KVPY (SA)

KVPY (SA)
PART - 2
(Attempt any 3 Section)
SECTION-I (MATHEMATICS)
1. If the slope of a line is 2 and it cuts an intercept –4 on y axis, then its equation will be-
(1) y – 2x = 4 (2) x = 2y – 4(3) y = 2x – 4 (4) None of these
2. The equation to a line passing through the point (2, –3) and sum of whose intercept on the axes is
equal to –2 is-
(1) x + y + 2 = 0 or 3x + 3y = 7 (2) x + y + 1 = 0 or 3x – 2y = 12
(3) x + y + 3 = 0 or 3x – 3y = 5 (4) x – y + 2 = 0 or 3x + 2y = 12
3. If the point (5, 2) bisects the intercept of a line between the axes, then its equation is-
(1) 5x + 2y = 20 (2) 2x + 5y = 20 (3) 5x – 2y = 20 (4) 2x – 5y = 20
4. If the line y = mx + c passes through the points (2, 4) and (3, –5), then-
(1) m = –9, c = –22 (2) m = 9, c = 22 (3) m = –9, c = 22 (4) m = 9, c = –22
5. The angle between the lines y – x + 5 = 0 and 3 x – y + 7 = 0 is-
(1) 15° (2) 60° (3) 45° (4) 75°
6. The equation of perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points (1, 2) and (–2, 0) is-
(1) 5x + 2y = 1 (2) 4x + 6y = 1 (3) 6x + 4y = 1 (4) None of these
7. The equation of a line parallel to 2x – 3y = 4 which makes with the axes a triangle of area 12 square
units, is-
(1) 3x + 2y = 12 (2) 2x – 3y = 12 (3) 2x – 3y = 6 (4) 3x + 2y = 6
8. The length of the diameter of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y + 4 = 0 is-
(1) 9 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
9. Which of the following is the equation of a circle ?
(1) x2 + 2y2 – x + 6 = 0 (2) x2 – y2 + x + y + 1 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 + xy + 1 = 0 (4) 3(x2 + y2) + 5x + 1 = 0
10. The equation of the circle passing through (3, 6) and whose centre is (2, –1) is-
(1) x2 + y2 – 4x + 2y = 45 (2) x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 45 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 + 4x – 2y = 45 (4) x2 + y2 – 4x + 2y + 45 = 0
11. The circle represented by the equation x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 will be a point circle, if-
(1) g2 + f2 = c (2) g2 + f2 + c = 0 (3) g2 + f2 > c (4) None of these
12. The distance between the points (2, 15°) and (1, 75°) is:-

(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 2 3 (4) 3

13. The distance of the point (6,8) from x-axis is-

(1) 10 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) None

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14. The points (0, –1) ; (2, 1) ; (0, 3) and (–2, 1) are vertices of a :-
(1) rectangle (2) square (3) rhombus (4) parallelogram
15. The point (5, –1) divides the line segment joining points A and B in the ratio 2 : 3. If A is (11, –3), then
B will be :-
(1) (4, –2) (2) (4, 2) (3) (–4, 2) (4) (–4,–2)

SECTION-II (PHYSICS)
16. For the given diagram what will be the work done by tension on 2 kg block in 2 sec :-

3kg

2kg

(1) 96 J (2) – 96 J (3) – 160 J (4) 160 J

r
17. Force acting on a particle is given by F = 2xiˆ + 3yjˆ + 4zkˆ N. Then work done to displace the particle
from origin to (1m, 2m, 1m) will be:-
(1) 9J (2) – 9 J (3) 18 J (4) –18J
18. Two identical rectangular strips, one of copper and the other of steel, are rivetted together to form
a bimetallic strip (a copper > a steel). On heating, this strip will :-
(1) remain straight (2) bend with copper on outer side
(3) bend with steel on outer side (4) get broken
19. A 5g piece of ice at –20°C is put into 10g of water at 30°C. Assuming that heat is exchanged only
between the ice and the water, find the final temperature of the mixture :-
(1) 0°C (2) 30°C (3) –20°C (4) 10°C
20. A block is attached to a spring as shown and very-very gradually lowered so that finally spring expands
by "d". If same block is attached to spring & released suddenly then maximum expansion in spring will
be :-

(1) d (2) 2d (3) 3d (4) 4d

21. A compressed spring of spring constant k releases a ball of mass m. If the height of spring is h and
the spring is compressed though a distance x, the horizontal distance covered by ball to reach ground
is

m
h

kh xkh 2kh mg
(1) x (2) mg (3) x (4)
mg mg x kh
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21. A block of mass m has initial velocity u having direction +x axis. The block stops after covering
distance S causing similar extension in the spring of spring constant K holding it. If is the kinetic
friction between the block and the surface on which it was moving, the distances S is given by

m u

1 2 2 2 1 2 2 1/ 2
(1) m m g (2) ( mKu - m m2g 2 )
k k

(3)
1
k {( )
m 2 m 2 g 2 + mKu 2
1/ 2
}
– m mg
1 2 2 2 2 1/ 2
(4) { ( m m g - mKu ) + m mg}
k
23. Melting point of ice and boiling point of water for an unknown temperature scale are –5°x and 120°x,
then at what temperature its reading will be equal to reading of celcius scale :-
(1) 20°x (2) 15°x (3) 25°x (4) 40°x
24. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and k2 (k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same
force :-
(1) No work is done in case of both the springs
(2) Equal work is done in case of both the springs
(3) More work is done in case of second spring
(4) More work is done in case of first spring
25. Two masses of 1 g and 4 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of
their linear momenta is :-

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 :1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 16

26. An ideal thermometer should have
(1) Large heat capacity (2) Medium heat capacity
(3) Small heat capacity (4) Variable heat capacity
27. During illness an 80 kg man ran a fever of 102.2°F instead of normal body temperature of 98.6°F.
Assuming that human body is mostly water, how much heat is required to raise his temperature by
that amount
(1) 100 kcal (2) 160 kcal (3) 50 kcal (4) 92 kcal
28. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 > d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated

d2

d1

(1) Both d1 and d2 will decrease

(2) Both d1 and d2 will increase
(3) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease
(4) d1 will decrease, d 2 will increase

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29. The figure shows a glass tube (linear co-efficient of expansion is a ) completely filled with a liquid
of volume expansion co-efficient g . On heating length of the liquid column does not change. Choose
the correct relation between g and a
A0

l0

a
(1) g = a (2) g = 2a (3) g = 3a (4) g =
3
30. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time as
a function of time t1 is given by
2
1 v 2 v 2 1 æ mv ö 2 1 v2 2
(1) 2 m t t (2) m t t (3) ç ÷ t (4) m 2 t
1 1 2 è t1 ø 2 t1

SECTION-III (CHEMISTRY)
31. For preparation of Grignard reagent from haloalkanes which metal is used :-
(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Ag
32. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution by S N1 mechanism at fastest rate :
(1) Ethyl chloride (2) Isopropyl chloride
(3) Benzyl chloride (4) Chloro benzene
33. Phosgene gas is the common name of
(1) Carbon dioxide and phosgene (2) Phosphoryl chloride
(3) Carbonyl chloride (4) Carbon tetra chloride
1.Mg, Ether
34. In the following reaction C6H5CH2Br ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾®
2. H3 O
+ X,

The product 'X' is :-

(1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CH3
(3) C6H5CH2CH2C6H5 (4) C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5

Cl
Anhydrous AlCl 3
35. + (CH3 CO)2 O ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® X

What is major product (X) :-

O-COCH3 Cl Cl Cl

COCH3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
COCH3
COCH3

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36. ¾¾¾
Cl2 / hv
® Product of reaction is -

Cl
CH2–Cl CH2–Cl
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Cl
Cl

37. Product of following reaction is :-

Br

Br ¾¾¾
Zn dust
D
®

(1) (2) (3) (4)

38. Correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction SN1 of following is :-

CH2–Cl
CH2–Cl CH2 –Cl CH2–Cl

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

CH3
OCH3 NO2
(1) II > I > IV > III (2) III > I > II > IV (3) II > IV > I > II (4) IV > II > III > I
39. Correct reactivity order for EAR of following compounds is
(I) Ph—CH=CH2
CH3
(II) Ph – C =CH–CH3
(III) Ph2–C=CH2
(IV) CH2=CH—NO2
(1) IV > I > II > III (2) III > II > I > IV (3) II > III > I > IV (4) II > III > IV > I
40. Propene on addition with HI, gives
(1) CH3—CHI—CH3 (2) CH3—CH 2—CH 2I (3) CH3—CHI—CH2I (4) None of the above
41. The predominant product formed when 3-methyl-2-pentene reacts with HOCl is

Cl OH CH3 OH
(1) CH3–CH 2–C–CH–CH 3 (2) CH3– C – CH – CH3
CH3 CH3

Cl Cl OH
(3) CH3– CH2– C – CH – CH 3 (4) CH3– CH2– C – CH – CH 3
CH3 CH3 Cl

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42. Which of the following alkenes on hydration gives a tertiary alcohol
(1) 2-Butene (2) Isobutylene (3) Ethene (4) a -Butylene

OH
43. ¾¾
A
® ; Reagent 'A' is
CH3 CH3

(1) BH3/THF/H2O2/1OH (2) H2O/H Å

(3) Hg(OCOCH3)2/NaBH4 (4) Cl2/aq. NaOH

44. CH3—CH=CH2 ¾¾¾¾
dil / H 2 SO 4
® A
BH
CH3—CH=CH2 ¾¾¾
2 6
THF
® ¾¾¾
H 2 O2
-
OH
®B

Wrong statement about the product is

(1) A and B have the same functional group
(2) A and B are position isomers
(3) A and B show chain isomersim
(4) Mixed ether is the isomer of both A and B

45. CH=CH—COOH + Br2¾ ® A

the number of chiral carbons in 'A' are

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

SECTION-IV (BIOLOGY)
46. In the given diagram of dicot root, the different parts have been indicated by alphabets. Choose the
correct combination :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a = endodermis, b = pericycle, c = metaxylem, d = pith

(2) a = pericycle, b = endodermis, c = protoxylem, d = pith
(3) a = endodermis, b = pericycle, c = metaxylem, d = conjunctive tissue
(4) a = endodermis, b = metaxylem, c = pericycle, d = conjunctive tissue
47. Bulliform or motor cells occur in :-
(1) Adaxial epidermis of dicot leaves
(2) Adaxial epidermis of monocot leaves
(3) Abaxial epidermis of monocot leaves
(4) Abaxial epidermis of dicot leaves
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48. Which of the following conversions are not correctly matched with their name ?

Conversion Name
A. Biological nitrogen
N2 ® NO3–
fixation
B. NH3 ® NO3– Nitrification
C. Electrical nitrogen
N2 ® NO3–
fixation
D. Decaying ® NH3 Ammonification
biomass

(1) A and C (2) B and D (3) A and D (4) B and C

49. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) The concentration of essential element above which plant growth is retarded is termed as critical
concentration.
(2) Manganese promotes the calcium translocation in shoot apex.
(3) In the second phase of uptake, the ions are taken in slowly into the symplast of the cells.
(4) The deficiency symptoms of highly mobile elements, appear first in the young tissues.
50. In the below diagram, the chamber with more negative solute potential and the chamber with less
negative water potential, is/are respectively
A B
Solute
molecules
Water Semipermeable
membrane
(1) A and B (2) A and A (3) B and B (4) B and A
51. If the continuous chains of water molecules in the xylem break under the enormous tensions created
by transpiration, then it may be re-established by:-

(1) Transpiration pull (2) Plasmodesmata (3) Root pressure (4) Both (1) and (3)
52. Syconus fruit develops from which inflorescence?
(1) Catkin (2) Spadix (3) Hypanthodium (4) Spike
53. Adaptations that have enabled vertebrates to survive on land include all of the following, except
(1) A water resistant epidermis (2) Development of lungs
(3) External fertilization (4) Embryo enclosed in a protective membrane
54. Annelids and arthropods share the following characters, except
(1) Schizocoelom (2) True segmentation
(3) Chitinous exoskeleton (4) Protostomic development
55. Following a company picnic on a hot summer day, a man had hot dogs and hamburgers, ice cold beer
and played cricket for an hour. He became very thirsty. What would probably contribute least to his
thirst?
(1) Eating salty food (2) Drinking ice cold beer
(3) Drinking lots of ice water (4) Sweating

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56. Which of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of nephron?
(1) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from glomerulus towards renal vein
(2) Podocytes : Create slit pores for the filtration from blood into the Bowman’s capsule.
(3) Henle’s loop : Maximum reabsorption of major substances from the glomerular filtrate
(4) DCT : Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries.
57. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to skeletal muscles
(1) Each skeletal muscle is made of number of fascicles held together by collagenous connective
tissue
(2) Muscle fibre is a syncytium formed by fusion of embryonic myoblasts
(3) Most abundant protein in muscle fibre is actin
(4) A-bands are darker than any other band/zone in the muscle fibre
58. Choose the false statement
(1) Axial skeleton comprises of 80 bones distributed along the central axis of the body
(2) Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated dorsally between 2nd and 7th rib
(3) Bicephalic ribs have two articular surfaces on dorsal end which articulate with thoracic vertebrae
(4) Head of humerus articulates with glenoid cavity located above acromion process to form ball and
socket joint
59. Use the graph below to answer this question

The graph shows blood glucose levels over a period of time. Which hormone might have caused a
sudden surge as indicated by arrow?
(1) Antidiuretic hormone (2) Glucagon (3) Insulin (4) Thyroxine
60. The hormone that binds to intracellular receptor in its target cell to generate a response is
(1) Epinephrine (2) FSH (3) Thyroxine (4) CCK

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PART - 2
(Attempt any 2 Section)
SECTION-I (MATHEMATICS)
61. If 5x + 5–x = sinx then number of solution/s of this equation ?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
62. The Number of real roots of the equation :

5 5
x– =6– is/are :-
x-6 x-6
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 0
63. If (a – b) + (b – c) + (c – a) = 0
2 2 2

where a, b, c, Î R, then
(1) a = 0 or b = 0 or c = 0 (2) a = b = c
(3) abc = 0 (4) None of these

(a - b)3 + (b - c)3 + (c - a)3

64. If a, b c are distinct real numbers, then has the value equal to-
(a - b) ( b - c)(c - a)
(1) 1 (2) a + b + c (3) 2 (4) None of these
65. If the coefficient of 7 and 13 term in the expansion of (1 + x) are equal, then n =
th th n

(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 20

SECTION-II (PHYSICS)
66. A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force F for a time t. Its kinetic energy after an
interval t is :-

F2 t 2 F2 t 2 F2 t 2 Ft
(1) (2) (3) (4)
m 2m 3m 2m
67. A force F acting on a body depends on its displacement S as F µ S –1/3 . The power delivered by F
will depends on displacement as :-
(1) S2/3 (2) S1/2 (3) S0 (4) S–5/3
68. Calculate the amount of heat required to convert 1.00 kg of ice at – 10°C into steam at 100°C :-
(1) 3.03 × 106 J (2) 2.03 × 106 J (3) 1.03 × 106 J (4) None of these
3 3
69. The density of water at 0°C is 0.998 g/cm and at 4°C is 1.000 g/cm . Calculate the coefficient of
volume expansion of water in the temperature range 0 to 4°C :-
(1) 2 × 10–4 C–1 (2) 5 × 10–4 C–1 (3) 3 × 10–4 C–1 (4) 6 × 10–4 C–1
70. A pendulum clock consists of an iron rod connected to a small, heavy bob. If it is designed to keep
correct time at 20°C, how fast or slow will it go in 24 hours at 40°C ? Coefficient of linear expansion
of iron = 1.2 × 10 –5/°C :-
(1) 5.2 sec. (2) 10.4 sec. (3) 2.6 sec. (4) 20.8 sec.

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SECTION-III
CHEMISTRY
–
71. The reaction, CH3Br + OH ¾ ® CH3OH + Br– obeys the mechanism
(1) SN1 (2) SN2 (3) E1 (4) E2
72. The given reaction is an example of
C2H5Br + KCN(aq) ¾ ® C2H5CN + KBr
(1) Elimination (2) Nucleophilic substitution
(3) Electrophilic substitution (4) Redox change
73. In the compound CH2=CH–CH2–CH 2–Cº CH, the C2–C3 bond is of the type –
(1) sp–sp2 (2) sp 3–sp3 (3) sp–sp3 (4) sp 2–sp3
74. Which alcohol produces turbidity with Lucas reagent most slowly
(1) 2-Butanol (2) t-Butyl alcohol (3) Isobutyl alcohol (4) Diphenylcarbinol
75. In the Williamson synthesis of ethers given by the general equation -
R—X + R'ONa ¾ ® R—O—R' the yield from R—X follows the sequence :-
(1) CH3X > 1º > 2º > 3º (2) CH3X < 1º < 2º < 3º
(3) CH3X < 1º < 2º > 3º (4) CH3X > 1º < 2º < 3º

SECTION-IV
BIOLOGY
76. Following floral diagram belongs to which plant?

(1) Mustard (2) Pea (3) Tulip (4) Tomato

77. Arrange the following plant group in ascending order with respect to gradual reduction of gametophytic
stage :-
(A) Bryophyta
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Angiosperm
(D) Gymnosperm
(1) B, C, D, A (2) A, B, C, D (3) A, B, D, C (4) B, D, C, A
78. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
(A) The number of cells are more in female gametophyte of gymnosperms as compared to female
gametophyte of angiosperm.
(B) Selaginella is heterosporous pteridophyta
(C) Bryophyta, pteridophyta and gymnosperm are plant group in which archegonia are present.
(D) Antheridia and archegonia are developed on the different thallus in Marchantia.
How many of the above statements is/are wrong?
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three

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79. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. hormone, its source and target organ

80. Which hormone(s) is/are responsible for rupture of Graafian follicle and initiating the formation of
corpus luteum?
(1) FSH (2) Prolactin (3) LH (4) All of these

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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