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TRƯỜNG THPT HẢI AN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
--------------- Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Mã đề 573

Question 1: Choose the best answer:

If you don't eat enough fruit and vegetables, you may suffer from a vitamin _______.
A. shortage B. insufficiency C. defect D. deficiency
Question 2: Choose the best answer:
The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately no one hurt.
A. went off B. kept up C. put on D. got out
Question 3: Choose the best answer:
Although most of their teachers had difficulty _______ them_______, their parents knew which
twin was Rebecca and which was Bethany.
A. telling /apart B. getting/across C. breaking/up D. putting/together
Question 4: Choose the best answer:
Jane wasn’t in when I arrived. I suppose she _______ I was coming.
A. can’t have forgotten B. must have forgotten
C. must forget D. may forget
Question 5: Choose the best answer:
I have to announce that the manager cannot attend our party today, __________ is a pity.
A. who B. which C. that D. What
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Neither of the girls haven’t turned in the term papers to the instructor yet.
A B C D
Question 7: Choose the best answer:
_______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.
A. The harder / the better B. The hardest / the best
C. The more hard / the more good D. The more / the much
Question 8: Choose the word whose main stress is put differently from that of the others in
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the group.
A. maintain B. belief C. control D. housework
Question 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Bacteria are one of the most abundant life forms on earth, growing on and inside another living
A B C
things, in every type of environment.
D
Question 10: Choose the best answer:
The Red Cross is an international organization that helps people who are suffering from the
results of wars, diseases or _______.
A. conditions B. victims C. disasters D. opportunities
Question 11: Choose the best answer:
It’s high time we ___ something about people dumping rubbish on the land behind the housing
estate.
A. did B. would do C. had done D. will do
Question 12: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
The preparations and celebrations used to be spread over months but nowadays the holiday is
much shorter.
A. compositions B. exclusive C. mixtures D. arrangements
Question 13: Choose the best answer:
- A: Do you know her number? - B: _______, it’s here somewhere
A. Mind you B. Well C. You see D. Let me see
Question 14: Choose the best answer:
She _________ on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.
A. has been working B. has worked C. was working D. had been working
Question 15: Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest:
A. surprised B. bored C. distinguished D. amazed
Question 16: Choose the word whose main stress is put differently from that of the others in
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the group.
A. quality B. satisfy C. reference D. sequential
Question 17: Choose the best answer:
– Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?”
- Susan: “__________”
A. You’re welcome B. I feel very bored
C. I don’t agree, I’m afraid D. That would be great
Question 18: Choose the best answer:
My cat would not have bitten the toy fish _______ it was made of rubber.
A. if she knew B. if she has known C. if she should know D. had she known
Question 19: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
I suggest that he goes to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the exam.
A B C D
Question 20: Choose the best answer:
The early settlers were completely _______ on the harvest to see them through the winter.
A. depended B. dependant C. dependable D. dependent
Question 21: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Scientists have recently argued that Einstein’s contributions to physics and mathematics are less
A B C
important as Newton’s.
D
Question 22: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
The dolphin’s uncanny ability to locate objects beyond the range of its limited eyesight is made
possible by its special echo-location system.
A. be aware of the movement of B. discover the position of
C. catch sight of D. find out the shape of
Question 23: Choose the best answer:
Let’s go to the library, __________?
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A. will we B. shall we C. would we D. should we

Question 24: Choose the best answer:
She has a (n) _______ table.
A. wood old round French B. old French round wood
C. round old wood French D. old round French wood
Question 25: Choose the best answer:
– Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
- Maria: “_________ ”
A. Thank you. Hope you will drop in B. Of course not, it’s not costly
C. I think so D. No problem
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose
the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 35.
People in theUnited Statesoften shop from catalogs. There are special catalogs for ( 26) ______
every need, including clothing, furniture, health, (27) ______ products and things for the kitchen.
People also order (28) ______ 40% of their music from music club catalogs. Customers say that
music stores are too noisy.
Television shopping began in 1986. About 5% to 8% of the American public now shops by
television. Some (29) ______ shopping channels are the Home Shopping Network and QVC.
Customers say that television shopping is (30) ______ than shopping in a store. How do they buy
things? They (31) ______ a phone call and charge the item to their credit card. And TV channels
are on late at night (32) ______ people can go shopping anytime.
Is the computer shopping the way of the future? About 37% of American (33) ______ now have
personal computers. And shopping by computer (or shopping on- line) is (34) ______ to more
people every day. Already, shoppers can use their computers to order many different products,
flowers, foods, T-shirts, and posters. And new on - line shopping services (35) ______ every day.
Soon people may be able to shop for anything, anytime, anywhere in the world.
Question 26: A. most B. almost C. mostly D. most of
Question 27: A. beautiful B. beautifies C. beauty D. beautifully
Question 28: A. for B. of C. about D. to
Question 29: A. popular B. liked C. beloved D. favourite
Question 30: A. more B. larger C. popular D. easier
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Question 31: A. make B. ring C. do D. have

Question 32: A. though B. so C. but D. because
Question 33: A. housework B. houseful C. households D. housewife
Question 34: A. amazing B. surprising C. exciting D. interesting
Question 35: A. raise B. forecast C. appear D. come
Question 36: Choose the best answer:
Our country has large areas of __________beauty.
A. unharmed B. unspoilt C. unhurt D. undamaged
Question 37: Choose the word whose main stress is put differently from that of the others in
the group.
A. establish B. regional C. maximum D. neutralize
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 38 to 47.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and
zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936,
she was hired by the U. S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wild, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews,
but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us,
which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as
well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality.Carson
consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent
discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her
nontechnical readers.
In 1962, Carsonpublished Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved
how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how
they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the
time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued
propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a
1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
Question 38: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work
A. at the U. S. Fish and Wildlife Service B. as a writer.
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C. as a researcher D. at college
Question 39: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins
University?
A. literature B. zoology
C. history D. oceanography
Question 40: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
A. 45 B. 29
C. 26 D. 34
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea
Wild
A. was praised by critics B. became more popular than her other books
C. sold many copies D. was outdated
Question 42: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of
information for The Sea Around US?
A. talks with experts B. printed matter
C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists
Question 43: Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The
Sea Around US?
A. highly technical B. fascinating
C. poetic D. well- researched
Question 44: The word “ reckless” is closet in meaning to
A. limited B. irresponsible
C. continuous D. unnecessary
Question 45: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily
A. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
B. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
C. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry
D. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply
Question 46: The word “ flawed ” is closest in meaning to
A. faulty B. deceptive
C. logical D. offensive
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Question 47: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s
Science Advisory Committee?
A. to indicate growing government concern with the environment
B. to validate the chemical industry’s claims
C. to supportCarson’s ideas
D. to provide an example of government propaganda
Question 48: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
The scientific method consists of forming hypotheses, collect data, and testing results.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 49 to 58.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put
a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of
readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such
resources are solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs
of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through
the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In theUSalone, more than 100,
000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles.
And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is
growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is
geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot
water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run
a generator, which produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than
the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources and as with solar power, the technology needed to
utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland,
a region of high geothermal activity where there are over 80 percent of private homes, are
heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional
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energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative
energy on global scale.
Question 49: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
B. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
C. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
D. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
Question 50: According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy
sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer used.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause global warming.
Question 51: Which of the following words could best replace the word “harnessing”?
A. harassing B. depleting
C. capturing D. exporting
Question 52: According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
B. They contain photovoltaic cells.
C. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
D. They are more expensive than solar panels.
Question 53: According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to
geothermal energy production?
A. They are both conventional and costly.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They both require the use of a generator.
Question 54: Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence?
“Although the US is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a
similar capacity to generate geothermal power”
A. after the phrase “earth-friendly” B. after the phrase “global scale”
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C. after the phrase “growing steadily” D. after the phrase “geothermal power”
Question 55: According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power?
A. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
B. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
C. There is very little of it available inIceland.
D. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
Question 56: What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used as a form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
Question 57: What does the author imply about alternative energy sources?
A. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
B. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
C. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power.
Question 58: What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
C. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
D. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
Question 59: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids.
A. destroyed completely B. changed completely
C. cleaned well D. removed quickly
Question 60: Choose the best answer:
Not only _______ among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are also among the most
intelligent.
A. some whales B. are whales C. whales D. they are whales
Question 61: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
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phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
A frightening number of illiterate students are graduating from college.
A. inflexible B. unable to pass an examination in reading and writing
C. able to read and write D. able to join intramural sport
Question 62: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Volunteers give care and comfort to them and help them to overcome their difficulties.
A. misery B. hurt C. matter D. discouragement
Question 63: Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest:
A. huge B. dispute C. busy D. mute
Question 64: Choose the best answer:
Bill just doesn’t fit in here; he’s like _______.
A. fish out of water B. water on a duck’s back
C. a fly in the ointment D. a bird in the hand
WRITING
Part I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the similar meaning
to the original one.
1. "Let's go out for a change," said Andrew.
Andrew suggested .............................................................................
2. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
Despite my ……………………………………………………………........................
3. They never made us do anything we didn’t want to do.
We.................................................................................................
4. It is difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
We find …………….................................................
5. My mother was the most warm-hearted person I’ve ever known.
I’ve …………………………………………………………
Part II. In about 140 words write a paragraph explaining why computers are important.